TEST BANK for Psychology Around Us, 4th Canadian Edition by Ogden; Michael; Field; Ronald and Gould by ACADEMIAMILL

CHAPTER 1 PSYCHOLOGY: YESTERDAY AND TODAY CHAPTER LEARNING OBJECTIVES 1. Define psychology and describe the goals and levels of analysis psychologists use. • Psychology is the study of mental processes and behaviour. • The goals of psychology are to describe, explain, predict, and control behaviour and mental processes. Psychologists vary in the degree to which they focus on some of these goals more than others. • The study of psychology must occur at multiple levels, including the level of the brain (the biological activity associated with mental processes and behaviour), the level of the person (the content of mental processes), and the level of the group (social influences on behaviour). 2. Describe the influences of early myths and ancient Greek philosophies on psychology. • Early explanations of human behaviour were rooted in superstition and magic. • Later, philosophers, beginning with the ancient Greeks, tried to develop more objective theories of human consciousness and reality. • The work of such early philosophers as Hippocrates, Socrates, Plato, and Aristotle contributed to the later formation of psychology as a natural science. 3. Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. • The development of psychology has been strongly influenced by shifts in the social environment and development of new technology. • The first psychology laboratory was founded in Leipzig, Germany, by physiologist Wilhelm Wundt. Wundt was interested in human consciousness and will, which he studied through small, structured activities that could be easily watched and replicated. • Structuralism, a school of thought developed by one of Wundt’s students, relied upon the use of introspection, the careful observation of human perception. The goal of the structuralists was to find the smallest building blocks of consciousness. • William James established the first psychology laboratory in the United States at Harvard. He helped shift the field’s focus to the functions of mental events and behaviours, forming a school of thought known as functionalism. • Gestalt psychologists studied human tendencies to perceive pattern rather than dividing consciousness into its smallest parts. They focused on putting together the “parts,” or individual sensations, to create a “whole” or perception that went beyond the sum of the parts. 4. Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. • Over the years, different fields of psychology emerged, with different ideas about what was the appropriate area of study for human psychology. Some of the most influential fields

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were the psychoanalytic, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience schools of thought. Sigmund Freud’s psychoanalytical theory focused on the importance of unconscious mental processes. Behaviourists believed strongly that psychology should restrict its focus to the careful study of observable behaviours. Humanistic psychologists reacted against the mechanical portrayals of people by the behaviourists and emphasized individuals’ potential for growth and self-actualization. Cognitive psychologists reignited interest in the study of mental processes, comparing the workings of the mind to the workings of computers. Biological science, including interest in the workings of the brain and in our genetic inheritance, was the major influence on neuroscience approaches.

5. Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. • The theoretical and cultural diversity of the field of psychology has increased dramatically over recent years. • There are three key branches of psychology: academic, applied, and clinical/counselling. • Across the three branches and many specialty areas in psychology, psychologists are united by their shared values. Psychologists generally agree that psychology is theorydriven, empirical, multi-level, and contextual. • Currently, psychology appears to be developing as a science in response to a growing diversity throughout the field, advances in technology (such as brain scanning), and the development of new schools such as positive psychology.

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

TRUE-FALSE STATEMENTS 1. Mental processes describe the activity of our brains when we are engaged in thinking. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define psychology and describe the goals and levels of analysis psychologists use. Section Reference: What Is Psychology? 2. The person level of analysis may include how intelligence or motivation influences behaviour. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define psychology and describe the goals and levels of analysis psychologists use. Section Reference: What Is Psychology? 3. The history of psychology (and most other sciences) drew heavily on philosophy. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the influences of early myths and ancient Greek philosophies on psychology. Section Reference: Psychology’s Roots in Philosophy 4. Socrates believed that “truth” is an objective concept that is NOT dependent on perception. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the influences of early myths and ancient Greek philosophies on psychology. Section Reference: Psychology’s Roots in Philosophy 5. Darwin argued that dihybrid crossing was responsible for the characteristics that survive in a population.

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Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 6. Voluntarism focused on the belief that a person’s free will ultimately determines human behaviour. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 7. Functionalists viewed the mind as an ever-changing stream of mental events that respond to changing environments. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 8. Gestalt psychology is named after the German psychologist, Ernst Gestalt, who coined the term. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 9. Wundt believed that the unconscious mind, rather than the conscious mind, was instrumental in predicting behaviour. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 10. Jasmine is a psychiatrist specializing in childhood trauma. She believes that childhood events form the basis of the adult personality. Jasmine is most likely a psychoanalyst. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 11. Behaviourists argue that researchers should only study what they can observe. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 12. Negative reinforcement is often confused with punishment. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 13. According to humanists, all people have the potential for creativity, positive outlook, and the pursuit of higher values. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches

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14. The psychobiology/neuroscience approach emphasizes the importance of brain structure and brain activity as explanations for behaviour. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 15. Hebb is credited with coining the term “cell assembly.” Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 16. Helping a child learn to control their behaviour would involve analysis at the level of the group. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 17. The levels of analysis in psychology include the brain, the individual, and culture. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 18. Most psychologists work in the counselling or clinical branch of psychology. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 19. A clinical psychologist is the same as a psychiatrist. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 20. Josette works at a university and conducts research in her lab. Josette is most likely in the academic branch of psychology. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 21. Psychology does NOT rely on controlled observations or experimentation. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 22. Individualistic cultures emphasize the needs of the individual over the needs and goals of the group. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today

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23. Bae believes in the importance of culture and shared responsibility to those in his family and social group. His views could be described as collectivistic. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 24. Your text defines psychology as a) the study of how humans change. b) the study of thoughts, feelings, and behaviours. c) the study of mental processes and behaviours. d) the study of how humans fit in society. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define psychology and describe the goals and levels of analysis psychologists use. Section Reference: What Is Psychology? 25. Psychology is defined as a) the science of behaviour. b) the study of mental processes. c) the study of mental disorders and their treatment. d) the science of behaviour and mental processes. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define psychology and describe the goals and levels of analysis psychologists use. Section Reference: What Is Psychology? 26. Ali is trying to decide what his major should be in university, so he talks to his guidance counsellor. Ali realizes that he is very interested in learning about people, specifically, their mental processes and behaviours. What would be the best major for Ali, given his interests? a) sociology b) anthropology c) psychology d) political science Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define psychology and describe the goals and levels of analysis psychologists use. Section Reference: What Is Psychology?

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27. Chao-xing is having trouble understanding what is meant by ‘mental processes’ for her upcoming psychology test. Her study buddy explains the concept to her by saying that ‘mental processes’ would include everything below EXCEPT a) reading. b) planning a route home from school. c) withdrawing your hand from a hot stove d) remembering your 16th birthday party. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define psychology and describe the goals and levels of analysis psychologists use. Section Reference: What Is Psychology? 28. Harisha believes that the event of pulling her foot away from a sharp object would not be considered a mental process. You would either agree or disagree with her explaining that a) mental processes involve activities of the brain involved in thinking, processing information, and using language and therefore, she is correct, this physical event does not qualify as a mental event. b) she is wrong; this event would be considered a mental process as it is observable. c) because this event involves pain it is considered an emotional event and therefore, she is correct, this event does not qualify as a mental process. d). she is correct; since she can reflect on the event, the event itself qualifies as a mental process. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define psychology and describe the goals and levels of analysis psychologists use. Section Reference: What Is Psychology? 29. Clifton is having difficulties with the concept of ‘behaviour’ for his upcoming psychology test. His friend in the class explains the concept to him by saying that ‘behaviour’ would include everything below EXCEPT: a) dreaming about your wedding day b) biking to the store c) brushing your hair d) cleaning up after supper Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define psychology and describe the goals and levels of analysis psychologists use.

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Section Reference: What Is Psychology? 30. Mia is experiencing difficulties with the concept of ‘mental events’ for her upcoming psychology test. Her friend in the class explains the concept to her by saying that ‘mental events’ would include everything below EXCEPT: a) daydreaming about your summer vacation b) cleaning up after supper c) wondering whether your dog is happy at doggie daycare d) angrily telling your sister to stop texting you while you are at work Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define psychology and describe the goals and levels of analysis psychologists use. Section Reference: What Is Psychology? 31. In psychology’s early history, how was the mind studied? a) using brain imaging techniques b) using surgical techniques c) by studying outward behaviour d) by studying people with brain lesions Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define psychology and describe the goals and levels of analysis psychologists use. Section Reference: What Is Psychology? 32. How has the study of the mind changed across psychology’s history? a) Psychologists have largely abandoned the study of the mind in favour of the examination of objective behaviour. b) Psychologists have found increasingly direct ways to study the mind. c) Psychologists have only very recently started to study the mind along with behaviour. d) To eliminate biases, psychologists have increasingly relied on indirect methods of studying the mind. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define psychology and describe the goals and levels of analysis psychologists use. Section Reference: What Is Psychology?

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33. What distinguishes a ‘mental process’ from a ‘behaviour’? a) A mental process is more effortful than a behaviour. b) A behaviour is intentional; a mental process is not. c) A behaviour is observable; a mental process is not. d) A mental process is in response to an environmental cue while a behaviour is in response to an internal cue. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define psychology and describe the goals and levels of analysis psychologists use. Section Reference: What Is Psychology? 34. Observable acts committed by other organisms, either in response to an environmental cue or initiated from within the organism, are called a) mental processes. b) behaviour. c) theories. d) culture. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define psychology and describe the goals and levels of analysis psychologists use. Section Reference: What Is Psychology? 35. What goal of psychology attempts to characterize and discuss observations about behaviour? a) description b) explanation c) prediction d) control Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define psychology and describe the goals and levels of analysis psychologists use. Section Reference: What Is Psychology? 36. Dr. Bernard is the first scientist to study a new species that was recently discovered. Given that humans do not know anything about this creature, what is the first goal that Dr. Bernard

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

should achieve? a) description b) explanation c) prediction d) control Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define psychology and describe the goals and levels of analysis psychologists use. Section Reference: What Is Psychology? 37. A psychologist is studying techniques to identify factors involved in affecting the memories of the elderly in order to identify those factors most likely to improve memory. Which goal of psychology would this study be addressing? a) description b) prediction c) explanation d) control Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define psychology and describe the goals and levels of analysis psychologists use. Section Reference: What Is Psychology? 38. Daria is terrified of flying, but she just got an interview for her dream job and it is a 12-hour flight away. Based on research, she has an inclusive plan of action. She will take a sedative to minimize her physiological response while on the plane, and before the trip, she will practice relaxation technique in an airplane simulator. Which goal of psychology fits best with Daria’s efforts? a) description b) explanation c) prediction d) control Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define psychology and describe the goals and levels of analysis psychologists use. Section Reference: What Is Psychology?

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39. After her romantic relationship ended, Genevieve began drinking. She now drinks every night and has started missing work because she feels too sick in the morning to get out of bed. Her doctor has recommended she see a psychologist because she feels that Genevieve is suffering from rejection issues that began in her past. Which of the goals of psychology is the doctor focusing on? a) description b) explanation c) prediction d) control Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define psychology and describe the goals and levels of analysis psychologists use. Section Reference: What Is Psychology? 40. The recognition that behaviour is shaped by an individual’s memories and abilities to process information is acknowledging which level of analysis in psychology? a) the brain b) the person c) the group d) the culture Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define psychology and describe the goals and levels of analysis psychologists use. Section Reference: What Is Psychology? 41. Which level of analysis in psychology would be involved in the study of peer pressure in adolescence? a) brain b) person c) group d) mental processes Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define psychology and describe the goals and levels of analysis psychologists use. Section Reference: What Is Psychology?

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

42. Your text lists each of the following as a goal of psychology EXCEPT a) description. b) control. c) analysis. d) explanation. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define psychology and describe the goals and levels of analysis psychologists use. Section Reference: What Is Psychology? 43. Which goal of psychology is often the first step in understanding behaviour? a) description b) explanation c) prediction d) change Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define psychology and describe the goals and levels of analysis psychologists use. Section Reference: What Is Psychology? 44. While ________ tells "What" occurred, ________ tells "Why" it occurred. a) description; explanation b) description; prediction c) explanation; prediction d) observation; experimentation Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define psychology and describe the goals and levels of analysis psychologists use. Section Reference: What Is Psychology? 45. Which of the following goals of psychology is correctly matched with a description? a) Prediction – changing how often behaviour occurs b) Control – making careful observations regarding behaviour. c) Description – determining the circumstances in which behaviour is likely to occur. d) Explanation – identifying the causes of behaviour

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Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define psychology and describe the goals and levels of analysis psychologists use. Section Reference: What Is Psychology? 46. Prediction can best be defined as a) identifying the conditions under which a future behaviour or mental process is likely to occur. b) applying psychological knowledge situations where only overt actions can be assessed. c) discovering underlying mechanisms for behaviours and mental processes. d) developing a comprehensive understanding derived from direct observation and measurement. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define psychology and describe the goals and levels of analysis psychologists use. Section Reference: What Is Psychology? 47. Psychologists usually begin with description and ________ before ________, a higher-level goal. a) explanation; prediction b) prediction; explanation c) prediction; control d) prediction; theory Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define psychology and describe the goals and levels of analysis psychologists use. Section Reference: What Is Psychology? 48. Which of the following would best demonstrate the goal of prediction in psychology? a) A psychologist studies why certain people have more difficulty quitting smoking. b) A psychologist studies the circumstances under which adolescents are more likely to give into peer pressure. c) A psychologist studies how an adolescent decides to drink alcohol for the first time. d) A psychologist studies the effect of adolescent alcohol use on brain development. e) A psychologist studies the influence of culture on alcohol use. Answer: b

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Define psychology and describe the goals and levels of analysis psychologists use. Section Reference: What Is Psychology? 49. Which of the following would best demonstrate the goal of control in psychology? a) A psychologist studies why some university students bite their fingernails. b) A psychologist studies the conditions under which some university students bite their fingernails c) A psychologist studies behavioural therapies to help university students stop biting their fingernails. d) A psychologist studies the relationship between early child attachment and fingernail biting. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Define psychology and describe the goals and levels of analysis psychologists use. Section Reference: What Is Psychology? 50. The highest level goal in psychology is ______________ because ________________? a) prediction; it allows psychologists to anticipate future events. b) Ethics; because it dictates moral behaviour. c) control; it allows psychologists to limit or increase particular behaviours or mental processes. d) empiricism; because it allows for a systematic scientific approach to problem-solving. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Define psychology and describe the goals and levels of analysis psychologists use. Section Reference: What Is Psychology? 51. Dr. Garcia’s research has uncovered that school-aged children who are exposed to more violence on television are more likely to engage in aggressive behaviours on the playground. From this work, she believes that children who have a television in their room, or have their television time unmonitored, are more likely to act aggressively. What goals of psychology are being targeted here? a) description and explanation b) explanation and prediction c) prediction and control d) control and description

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Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define psychology and describe the goals and levels of analysis psychologists use. Section Reference: What Is Psychology? 52. Wahab’s research has discovered that toddlers who consume more than 50 mg of sugar per day are more likely to be diagnosed with ADHD in elementary school. From this work, she expects that children who have their snack time unmonitored, or who have parents who work after school, are more likely to perform poorly in school. What goals of psychology are being targeted here? a) description and explanation b) explanation and prediction c) prediction and control d) control and description Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define psychology and describe the goals and levels of analysis psychologists use. Section Reference: What Is Psychology? 53. The goal of explanation is to ___ as the goal of prediction is to ___. a) what; why b) what; when c) why; when d) why; where Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define psychology and describe the goals and levels of analysis psychologists use. Section Reference: What Is Psychology? 54. Description is to ___________ as prediction is to ____________. a) how; why b) why; when c) why; how d) how; when Answer: d

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define psychology and describe the goals and levels of analysis psychologists use. Section Reference: What Is Psychology? 55. What is the main difference between the goal of explanation and prediction? a) Explanation tries to describe the behaviour while prediction tries to control it. b) Explanation answers the question of ‘why’ and prediction answers the question of ‘when’. c) Prediction tries to describe the behaviour while explanation tries to understand it. d) Prediction tries to change the behaviour while explanation tries to maintain it. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define psychology and describe the goals and levels of analysis psychologists use. Section Reference: What Is Psychology? 56. What is the main difference between the goal of prediction and control? a) Prediction tries to describe the behaviour while control seeks an underlying explanation. b) Prediction tries to manage the behaviour while control tries to explain it. c) Prediction answers the question of ‘when’ and control answers the question of ‘how’. d) Prediction answers the question of ‘why’ and control answers the question of ‘when’. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define psychology and describe the goals and levels of analysis psychologists use. Section Reference: What Is Psychology? 57. Dr. Gutman’s research has discovered that toddlers who consume more than 50 mg of sugar per day are more likely to be diagnosed with ADHD in elementary school. From this work, she expects that children who have their snack time unmonitored, or who have parents who work after school, are more likely to perform poorly in school. What goals of psychology are being targeted here? a) description and explanation b) explanation and prediction c) prediction and control d) control and description Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Learning Objective: Define psychology and describe the goals and levels of analysis psychologists use. Section Reference: What Is Psychology? 58. The recognition that behaviour is shaped by a person’s memories and abilities to process information is acknowledging which level of analysis in psychology? a) the brain b) the person c) the group d) the culture Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define psychology and describe the goals and levels of analysis psychologists use. Section Reference: What Is Psychology? 59. Which of the following exemplifies the goal of description? a) A psychologist who writes a paper about aggressive behaviours observed among children on the playground. b) A psychologist who studies the circumstances under which a child might become aggressive on the playground. c) A psychologist who examines why children become aggressive when playing in large groups. d) A psychologist who helps parents decrease the number of aggressive incidents exhibited by their child. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define psychology and describe the goals and levels of analysis psychologists use. Section Reference: What Is Psychology? 60. A psychologist who is writing a paper about aggressive behaviours observed among children on the playground is interested in the goal of a) description. b) explanation. c) prediction. d) control. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Learning Objective: Define psychology and describe the goals and levels of analysis psychologists use. Section Reference: What Is Psychology? 61. Which of the following exemplifies the goal of explanation? a) A psychologist who describes how much personal information adolescents are willing to disclose on Facebook. b) A psychologist who studies under what circumstances adolescents will disclose personal information on Facebook. c) A psychologist who educates adolescents about the dangers of disclosing personal information on Facebook. d) A psychologist who studies why adolescents disclose more personal information on Facebook than in face-to-face interactions. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define psychology and describe the goals and levels of analysis psychologists use. Section Reference: What Is Psychology? 62. Which of the following is an example of the goal of prediction? a) A psychologist who studies why undergraduate students engage in binge drinking. b) A psychologist who studies the circumstances under which an undergraduate student might engage in binge drinking. c) A psychologist who educates undergraduate students on the risks of binge drinking. d) A psychologist who writes a paper about undergraduates who engage in binge drinking. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define psychology and describe the goals and levels of analysis psychologists use. Section Reference: What Is Psychology? 63. Even though many psychologists focus on one level of analysis when conducting their research, it is also true that: a) the group level of analysis is the least applicable to the field of psychology, and more accurately fits with sociology b) the brain level of analysis is the most popular and most likely to produce research that is funded and published c) psychology as a field is really about the person level of analysis, and the other two levels of analysis add little to our understanding of human nature d) in our daily lives, all three levels of analysis are operating and interacting Answer: d

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define psychology and describe the goals and levels of analysis psychologists use. Section Reference: What Is Psychology? 64. Which of the following demonstrates the shared value that psychology is multi-level? a) Hanna studies the role of neurochemicals in obsessive compulsive disorder. b) Frank suffers a depressive episode after his divorce. c) Jenna studies the role that personality characteristics and neurochemicals in the brain play in aggressive behaviours in children. d) Tristan studies the recognition of learning disabilities in different cultures. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define psychology and describe the goals and levels of analysis psychologists use. Section Reference: What Is Psychology? 65. Which of the following is NOT one of the levels of analysis involved in psychological processes? a) the culture b) the brain c) the personality d) the person Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define psychology and describe the goals and levels of analysis psychologists use. Section Reference: What Is Psychology? 66. Which of the following individuals is considering a research question at the level of the brain? a) Jennifer, who is interested in personality characteristics of people who are depressed. b) Gerard who is studying the social skills of adolescents who spend more than three hours a day on Facebook. c) Kathryn who is studying factors that motivate undergraduate students to apply to graduate school. d) Lyle who is studying the genetic factors that may put a person at risk to develop an anxiety disorder. Answer: d

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define psychology and describe the goals and levels of analysis psychologists use. Section Reference: What Is Psychology? 67. Dr. Edwin’s research focuses on the level of analysis of the group. Which of the following is most likely to reflect Dr. Edwin’s work? a) how mental imagery improves memory for lists of words b) how connections between neurons change as we learn c) how the presence of others influences our tendency to offer help to a victim d) how we have difficulty processing inverted faces Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define psychology and describe the goals and levels of analysis psychologists use. Section Reference: What Is Psychology? 68. Dr. Fahim is interested in how our stress hormones function in social situations. Specifically, he studies changes that occur in our stress hormone levels in response to being socially intimidated. What two levels of analysis are the focus of Dr. Fahim’s work? a) brain and group b) brain and person c) person and group d) culture and person Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define psychology and describe the goals and levels of analysis psychologists use. Section Reference: What Is Psychology? 69. A teacher is trying to help a child with Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) learn to focus longer on a single task. Which level of analysis would be involved in this example? a) the brain b) the group c) the person d) the culture Answer: c Difficulty: Medium

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Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define psychology and describe the goals and levels of analysis psychologists use. Section Reference: What Is Psychology? 70. Which level of analysis in psychology is correctly matched with an example? a) Brain level – At low doses, cocaine can improve performance on visual attention tasks, such as detecting specific stimuli appearing on a computer screen. b) Individual level – Cocaine abuse is associated with a history of violence and sexual abuse in the family. c) Brain level – Cocaine exerts its effects by prolonging the presence of specific chemicals at the junctions between nerve cells. d) Group level – Cocaine abuse is associated with elevated levels of the personality trait of neuroticism and with low levels of the trait of conscientiousness. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Define psychology and describe the goals and levels of analysis psychologists use. Section Reference: What Is Psychology? 71. Which of the following examples demonstrate both the brain and the person levels of analysis? a) When a child plays video games, are increases in brain activity related to different personality characteristics? b) Does Alzheimer’s occur more frequently in Western than in Asian countries? c) Do persons higher in neuroticism suffer greater levels of depression? d) What are the changes in brain activation that occurs as people encounter driving stress? Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define psychology and describe the goals and levels of analysis psychologists use. Section Reference: What Is Psychology? 72. Dr. Faruk is interested in how our memories form. Specifically, he studies the changes that occur in the brain with each exposure to a stimulus that has to be memorized. What two levels of analysis are the focus of Dr. Faruk’s work? a) brain and group b) brain and person c) person and group d) culture and person Answer: b

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define psychology and describe the goals and levels of analysis psychologists use. Section Reference: What Is Psychology? 73. When it comes to Dr. Ellis’ research, the level of analysis that she chooses to focus on is the person. Which of the following is most likely to reflect Dr. Ellis’ work? a) how mental imagery improves memory for lists of words b) how connections between neurons change as we learn c) how the presence of others influences our tendency to offer help to a victim d) the factors that increase the tendency for someone to obey Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define psychology and describe the goals and levels of analysis psychologists use. Section Reference: What Is Psychology? 74. Based on your text’s discussion, which statement best expresses the relationship between a culture and a group? a) A culture is the same thing as a group. b) A culture refers to the practices and beliefs of a group. c) Groups are subsets of a culture. d) Cultures are subsets of groups. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define psychology and describe the goals and levels of analysis psychologists use. Section Reference: What Is Psychology? 75. Based on what you know, which of the following best describes a culture? a) First Nations elders telling stories of their ancestors to younger members of their band; the same way that these stories were passed down to them. b) A teacher reading all her students the “Harry Potter” series of books. c) All the people in Russia who belong to a particular religious group. d) Those of your friends on Facebook who share similar interests in clothes and music. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension

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Learning Objective: Define psychology and describe the goals and levels of analysis psychologists use. Section Reference: What Is Psychology? 76. The recognition that behaviour is shaped by a person’s social and cultural environment is acknowledging which level of analysis in psychology? a) the brain b) the person c) the group d) the culture Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define psychology and describe the goals and levels of analysis psychologists use. Section Reference: What Is Psychology? 77. The brain is to________ as actions are to __________________ a) unconscious processes; conscious processes. b) conscious processes; unconscious processes. c) mental processes; behaviour. d) behaviour; mental processes. Answer: c Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define psychology and describe the goals and levels of analysis psychologists use. Section Reference: What Is Psychology? 78. When psychology first emerged as a discipline it was virtually indistinguishable from ___________. a) science b) religion c) medicine d) philosophy Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the influences of early myths and ancient Greek philosophies on psychology. Section Reference: Psychology’s Roots in Philosophy

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

79. Historically, humans have attempted to explain inexplicable events in their environments through a) traditions. b) psychology. c) myths. d) observed behaviours. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the influences of early myths and ancient Greek philosophies on psychology. Section Reference: Psychology’s Roots in Philosophy 80. Myths are defined as a) old stories that are universal and attempt to explain the fundamental mysteries of life. b) the explanation of what makes something beautiful. c) underlying truths that are passed down through generations. d) culturally unique changes in language and thought over time. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the influences of early myths and ancient Greek philosophies on psychology. Section Reference: Psychology’s Roots in Philosophy 81. A person interested in studying knowledge, reality, and the meaning of life would be most interested in what area of study? a) Psychology b) Biology c) Philosophy d) History Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the influences of early myths and ancient Greek philosophies on psychology. Section Reference: Psychology’s Roots in Philosophy 82. Historically, across all cultures, humans used myths to explain events they did NOT understand such as a) ways to make sense of the natural world.

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b) the limitations of human awareness. c) the origin of the human species. d) how the human body related to the mind. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the influences of early myths and ancient Greek philosophies on psychology. Section Reference: Psychology’s Roots in Philosophy 83. In what way is mythology like science? a) seeking to understand nature and people b) requiring two independent minds to propose similar ideas before the rest of the community accepts the idea c) flourishing as a field at around the same time in history d) following similar sets of rules to develop ideas Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the influences of early myths and ancient Greek philosophies on psychology. Section Reference: Psychology’s Roots in Philosophy 84. ___ is defined as the study of knowledge and reality. a) Philosophy b) Science c) Psychology d) Mythology Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the influences of early myths and ancient Greek philosophies on psychology. Section Reference: Psychology’s Roots in Philosophy 85. Philosophy is defined as a) the study of ‘truths’. b) the study of knowledge and the meaning of life. c) the study of what makes something beautiful. d) the study of language and thought. Answer: b

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the influences of early myths and ancient Greek philosophies on psychology. Section Reference: Psychology’s Roots in Philosophy 86. The view that theories are always tentative may be traced back to a) Greece. b) Rome. c) the Renaissance. d) the late nineteenth century. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the influences of early myths and ancient Greek philosophies on psychology. Section Reference: Psychology’s Roots in Philosophy 87. The goals of the Greek philosophers were to a) understand which supernatural forces caused inexplicable events and reduce their occurrence. b) determine the nature of reality and the limitations of human awareness. c) determine the nature of reality and understand which supernatural forces caused inexplicable events. d) understand the limitations of human awareness and apply that knowledge to everyday problems. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the influences of early myths and ancient Greek philosophies on psychology. Section Reference: Psychology’s Roots in Philosophy 88. Approximately when did Greek thinkers begin to substitute natural for supernatural explanations of nature and reality? a) in the seventh and eighth centuries BCE b) in the fourth and fifth centuries BCE c) in the first and second centuries BCE d) in the first and second centuries AD Answer: b Difficulty: Easy

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Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the influences of early myths and ancient Greek philosophies on psychology. Section Reference: Psychology’s Roots in Philosophy 89. Which Greek philosopher’s theory suggested that our physical and psychological health is influenced by humours, also known as bodily fluids? a) Hippocrates b) Socrates c) Plato d) Aristotle Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the influences of early myths and ancient Greek philosophies on psychology. Section Reference: Psychology’s Roots in Philosophy 90. What is the underlying belief of Hippocrates’ theory of humourism? a) that humans are closely related to animals b) that all knowledge originates in experience c) that physical and psychological health are influenced by an excess or lack of certain bodily fluids d) that we could use reasoning to uncover the core ideas that are at the root of every human soul Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the influences of early myths and ancient Greek philosophies on psychology. Section Reference: Psychology’s Roots in Philosophy 91. Gerald is joyous, musical, and passionate. According to Hippocrates, this is because a) Gerald inherited those personality traits from his parents. b) Gerald has good levels of blood in his body. c) Gerald has ideal bumps on the head. d) Gerald has learned that you can catch more flies with honey. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the influences of early myths and ancient Greek philosophies on psychology.

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Section Reference: Psychology’s Roots in Philosophy 92. Gina is severely depressed and suffers melancholia. If she were to receive a diagnosis from Hippocrates, what would he say is the problem? a) Gina inherited that depressive tendency from her parents. b) Gina has abnormal levels of black bile in her body. c) Gina has bumps on her head that suggest a melancholic personality type. d) Gina has learned to behave as if depressed to receive attention. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the influences of early myths and ancient Greek philosophies on psychology. Section Reference: Psychology’s Roots in Philosophy 93. Aristotle was one of the first to promote a) philosophy as a father of psychology. b) the idea that the mind and body were separate entities. c) the empirical study of events in the world. d) the belief that animals have a soul and are capable of free will. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the influences of early myths and ancient Greek philosophies on psychology. Section Reference: Psychology’s Roots in Philosophy 94. Who was one of the first to promote the empirical study of events in the world? a) Hippocrates b) Socrates c) Plato d) Aristotle Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the influences of early myths and ancient Greek philosophies on psychology. Section Reference: Psychology’s Roots in Philosophy 95. Jeremy visits the art museum several times each year. Rather than just looking at each painting, he reflects on why certain pieces of art bring him pleasure. Jeremy’s approach to

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viewing art would most resemble that of a) Hippocrates. b) Plato. c) Socrates. d) Aristotle. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe the influences of early myths and ancient Greek philosophies on psychology. Section Reference: Psychology’s Roots in Philosophy 96. Jessica is a philosophy student who believes that knowledge is innate and is dependent upon our perceived or subjective states. Jessica’s belief most closely aligns with that of a) Plato and Hippocrates. b) Hippocrates and Socrates. c) Socrates and Aristotle. d) Plato and Socrates. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe the influences of early myths and ancient Greek philosophies on psychology. Section Reference: Psychology’s Roots in Philosophy 97. Which Greek philosopher is correctly matched with a key idea? a) Hippocrates – suggested that we could use reasoning to discover the truth b) Socrates – proposed that well-being and personality is influenced by humours c) Plato – one of the first to promote empirical study of the natural world d) Aristotle – concluded that humans are closely related to animals Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the influences of early myths and ancient Greek philosophies on psychology. Section Reference: Psychology’s Roots in Philosophy 98. Hippocrates believed that an individual’s physical and psychological health was influenced by all of the following EXCEPT a) evil spirits. b) an interaction between the brain and the body.

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

c) an excess of bodily humours. d) good food, fresh air, rest. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the influences of early myths and ancient Greek philosophies on psychology. Section Reference: Psychology’s Roots in Philosophy 99. Whereas the Greek philosopher ___ correctly identified the brain as the organ of mental life, ___ believed that the brain was of minor importance. a) Aristotle; Hippocrates b) Plato; Aristotle c) Hippocrates; Aristotle d) Hippocrates; Socrates Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the influences of early myths and ancient Greek philosophies on psychology. Section Reference: Psychology’s Roots in Philosophy 100. Whereas the Greek philosopher ___ correctly focused on empirical, testable, investigations of the natural world, ___ incorrectly believed that physical and psychological health was influenced by imbalances of bodily humours. a) Aristotle; Hippocrates b) Plato; Aristotle c) Hippocrates; Aristotle d) Hippocrates; Socrates Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the influences of early myths and ancient Greek philosophies on psychology. Section Reference: Psychology’s Roots in Philosophy 101. Like Darwin, ______ believed that humans were closely related to animals. a) Hippocrates b) Socrates c) Plato d) Aristotle

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Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the influences of early myths and ancient Greek philosophies on psychology. Section Reference: Psychology’s Roots in Philosophy 102. One similarity between Hippocrates and Aristotle is that they both a) proposed influential theories of personality. b) believed that theories should be tested empirically. c) believed that reason could uncover ultimate truths. d) viewed the brain as the seat of mental life. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the influences of early myths and ancient Greek philosophies on psychology. Section Reference: Psychology’s Roots in Philosophy 103. Which of the following was suggested by both Socrates and Plato? a) living things are hierarchically organized b) fresh air, good food and rest are important to overall well being c) core ideas that are imbedded in the soul can be uncovered using reasoning d) the mind and body are distinct Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the influences of early myths and ancient Greek philosophies on psychology. Section Reference: Psychology’s Roots in Philosophy 104. Sadly, Eduardo’s grandmother just passed away. Eduaro’s beliefs line up with those of the ancient Greek philosophers, Socrates, and Plato, and this gives him some comfort because a) they believed that the mind lives on after we die. b) they argued that the body feels no pain when the mind dies. c) they rationalized that being a good soul in life means eternal happiness. d) they concluded that the knowledge gained in this life goes with you to the next life. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Learning Objective: Describe the influences of early myths and ancient Greek philosophies on psychology. Section Reference: Psychology’s Roots in Philosophy 105. Juliana is training to be a physician. She is strongly in favour of preventative medicine, firmly espousing the benefits of nutritious food, exercise and fresh air, and appropriate rest. In this way, Juliana shares the beliefs of which ancient Greek philosopher? a) Hippocrates b) Socrates c) Plato d) Aristotle Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the influences of early myths and ancient Greek philosophies on psychology. Section Reference: Psychology’s Roots in Philosophy 106. Which of the following was a contribution of early Greek philosophers? a) They used origin stories to explain inexplicable natural events such as earthquakes or drought. b) They emphasized the role of the spiritual world. c) They questioned how the mind works and how it is related to the body. d) They argued that all knowledge results from experience. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the influences of early myths and ancient Greek philosophies on psychology. Section Reference: Psychology’s Roots in Philosophy 107. In what way were ancient Greek philosophers like today’s psychologists? a) They both emphasized that theories are always capable of improvement. b) They both follow the teachings of Aristotle. c) They both view the mind and body as completely independent. d) They both require mentorship in the field before expertise is awarded. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the influences of early myths and ancient Greek philosophies on psychology. Section Reference: Psychology’s Roots in Philosophy

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108. The view that all knowledge originates in experience is known as a) associationism. b) tabula rasa. c) empiricism. d) determinism. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the influences of early myths and ancient Greek philosophies on psychology. Section Reference: Psychology’s Roots in Philosophy 109. Tabula rasa refers to the idea that a) babies must acquire all knowledge through experience. b) babies are born with many innate ideas that will later be expressed when they develop language. c) babies are only capable of learning as their brain fully develops. d) babies are born with the wisdom of their ancestors. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the influences of early myths and ancient Greek philosophies on psychology. Section Reference: Psychology’s Roots in Philosophy 110. Who is credited with being the creator of empiricism and was also known for being a promoter of the scientific method? a) Hippocrates b) Descartes c) Bacon d) Fechner Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the influences of early myths and ancient Greek philosophies on psychology. Section Reference: Psychology’s Roots in Philosophy 111. Fechner is considered to be one of the founders of experimental psychology because a) he demonstrated that psychology could become a quantified science. b) he suggested that all psychological knowledge is derived from experience.

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

c) he viewed all psychological truths as ultimately linked. d) he was the first to identify human motives and origins. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the influences of early myths and ancient Greek philosophies on psychology. Section Reference: Psychology’s Roots in Philosophy 112. Most Psychology researchers use the scientific method of gathering data, analyzing data, and performing experiments. This method was first established by a) Rene Descartes. b) Herman Von Helmholtz. c) Gustav Fechner. d) Francis Bacon. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the influences of early myths and ancient Greek philosophies on psychology. Section Reference: Psychology’s Roots in Philosophy 113. Aarav is acting in a play and has the role of Rene Descartes. In one line, he says how the ___ is the point of contact between the mind and body. a) thyroid gland b) pineal gland c) brain d) heart Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the influences of early myths and ancient Greek philosophies on psychology. Section Reference: Psychology’s Roots in Philosophy 114. Braden is acting in a play and is playing the role of John Locke. Which of the following is most likely to be one of his lines? a) In order to understand the parts of the mind, we need to understand their function first b) Our personalities depend on our bodily fluids c) We are born knowing certain truths, such as the difference between animate and inanimate objects d) We are born as a blank slate

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Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the influences of early myths and ancient Greek philosophies on psychology. Section Reference: Psychology’s Roots in Philosophy 115. Which of the following is correctly matched with their contribution? a) Rene Descartes – believed the pineal gland to be the point of contact between the mind and body b) Francis Bacon – considered to be the father of experimental psychology c) Herman von Helmholtz – believed the mind at birth to be a tabula rasa d) Gustav Fechner – was the first to measure the speed of a nerve impulse Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the influences of early myths and ancient Greek philosophies on psychology. Section Reference: Psychology’s Roots in Philosophy 116. What is Francis Bacon credited with, as far as his contribution to the field of psychology is concerned? a) He was one of the first to promote empirical investigations of the natural world and he formed idea about how living things are hierarchically categorized. b) He was the creator of empiricism and was also an influential promoter of the scientific method. c) He was the first to measure the speed of the neural impulse, which contributed to the foundation of modern neuroscience. d) He was one of the founders of experimental psychology and reported evidence for the relationship between physical and mental events. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the influences of early myths and ancient Greek philosophies on psychology. Section Reference: Psychology’s Roots in Philosophy 117. What is Johannes Müller credited with, as far as his contribution to the field of psychology is concerned? a) He was one of the first to promote empirical investigations of the natural world and he formed idea about how living things are hierarchically categorized. b) He was the first to measure the speed of the neural impulse, which contributed to the

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

foundation of modern neuroscience. c) He pioneered the area of psychophysics, emphasizing the relationship between physical stimuli and their psychological effects. d) He was one of the founders of experimental psychology and reported evidence for the relationship between physical and mental events. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the influences of early myths and ancient Greek philosophies on psychology. Section Reference: Psychology’s Roots in Philosophy 118. Although many of the ideas of Francis Bacon and René Descartes were later proven to be incorrect, their most significant contribution to current day psychology was a) they shed light on the connection between the mind and the body. b) they demonstrated the role of experience in development. c) they established the scientific method for investigating questions. d) they combined empirical facts with philosophical thinking to explain the connection between the brain and the body. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe the influences of early myths and ancient Greek philosophies on psychology. Section Reference: Psychology’s Roots in Philosophy 119. Descartes, Socrates, and Plato all shared a common belief. Which of the following most accurately identifies this belief? a) They believed that there was a connection between the mind and the body. b) They believed that the meaning of the natural world could be understood through science and mathematics. c) They believed that the human mind had no innate intelligence but instead acquired all knowledge through experience. d) They believed in a spiritual worldview dominated by belief in belief in magic and mysticism. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the influences of early myths and ancient Greek philosophies on psychology. Section Reference: Psychology’s Roots in Philosophy 120. Fiona was just told by her philosophy major boyfriend that her mind is like that of a

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newborn’s, according to John Locke. How should she feel about this comment? a) flattered, he sees her as innocent and trusting b) happy, he’s obviously thinking long-term c) upset, he’s thinking about his work when he’s with her d) insulted, he’s calling her empty headed Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the influences of early myths and ancient Greek philosophies on psychology. Section Reference: Psychology’s Roots in Philosophy 121. Trevor envisions the mind of his new baby as a ball of wax with every experience imprinting knowledge. Trevor’s view most closely aligns with that of a) Rene Descartes. b) Francis Bacon. c) John Locke. d) Gustav Fechner. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the influences of early myths and ancient Greek philosophies on psychology. Section Reference: Psychology’s Roots in Philosophy 122. Haruto is very excited to be working in the lab of the first researcher to measure the speed of a nerve impulse. What lab is Haruto working in? a) Fechner b) Wundt c) von Helmholtz d) Bacon Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the influences of early myths and ancient Greek philosophies on psychology. Section Reference: Psychology’s Roots in Philosophy 123. Jabulani is a new graduate student and is learning techniques for measuring the minimal amount of sound a person can detect and how much weight needs to be added to an existing weight for a person to detect a change. Jabulani is likely learning techniques related to _______.

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

a) physiology b) cognitive philosophy c) neurobiology d) psychophysics Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the influences of early myths and ancient Greek philosophies on psychology. Section Reference: Psychology’s Roots in Philosophy 124. The area of psychology that examines the relationship between physical stimuli and their psychological effects is known as a) tabula rasa. b) physiology. c) psychophysics. d) the scientific method. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the influences of early myths and ancient Greek philosophies on psychology. Section Reference: Psychology’s Roots in Philosophy 125. Which of the following pioneered the area of psychophysics? a) Rene Descartes b) Johannes Müller c) Herman von Helmholtz d) Gustav Fechner Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the influences of early myths and ancient Greek philosophies on psychology. Section Reference: Psychology’s Roots in Philosophy 126. If you had just finished reading a book published in 1860 that gave psychology the tools to become a quantified science, who would have been the author of that book? a) Fechner b) Wundt c) von Helmholtz d) Descartes

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Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the influences of early myths and ancient Greek philosophies on psychology. Section Reference: Psychology’s Roots in Philosophy 127. What did Helmholtz’s ideas about neural conduction and Muller’s ideas about psychophysics have in common? a) Both believed that important insights about the brain and body could be best understood by combining empirical facts with philosophical thinking. b) Both believed that all truths were ultimately linked. c) Both believed that that the mind and body were distinct and that the mind continued after death. d) Both believed that breaking down mental processes into basic structures was the only way to understand the human mind. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the influences of early myths and ancient Greek philosophies on psychology. Section Reference: Psychology’s Roots in Philosophy 128. Fiadh is reading a book about the first researcher to measure the speed of a neural impulse. What researcher is Fiadh’s book about? a) Fechner b) Wundt c) von Helmholtz d) Bacon Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the influences of early myths and ancient Greek philosophies on psychology. Section Reference: Psychology’s Roots in Philosophy 129.Which of the following is correctly matched with their contribution? a) Rene Descartes – believed the mind at birth to be a tabula rasa b) Herman von Helmholtz – was the first to measure the speed of a nerve impulse c) Gustav Fechner – believed the pineal gland to be the point of contact between the mind and body d) Johannes Muller – was the creator of empiricism

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Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the influences of early myths and ancient Greek philosophies on psychology. Section Reference: Psychology’s Roots in Philosophy 130. Which of the following has been most greatly influenced by the work of Herman von Helmholtz? a) psychophysics b) sensation and perception c) neuroscience d) experimental psychology Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the influences of early myths and ancient Greek philosophies on psychology. Section Reference: Psychology’s Roots in Philosophy 131. Which of the following studies would be of greatest interest to Hermann von Helmholtz? a) The influence of the pineal gland on human behaviour. b) The relationship between increasing levels of shock and the experience of pain. c) How much of a new medication is required to alleviate the symptoms of schizophrenia. d) The effect of multiple sclerosis on the speed of nerve impulses travelling through the body. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the influences of early myths and ancient Greek philosophies on psychology. Section Reference: Psychology’s Roots in Philosophy 132. When two sharp points are placed against a person’s skin, the closer the two points are the more likely the person is to experience the sensation as only a single point. This research finding best demonstrates the psychological contribution of a) Rene Descartes. b) Francis Bacon. c) Herman von Helmholtz. d) Gustav Fechner. Answer: d

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the influences of early myths and ancient Greek philosophies on psychology. Section Reference: Psychology’s Roots in Philosophy 133. The concept of natural selection was proposed by a) Gustav Fechner. b) Ivan Pavlov. c) Charles Darwin. d) Wilhelm Wundt. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 134. Every year, Mariella visits her aunt in Peru. Over the past five years, she has noticed that while she is seeing fewer blue butterflies, she is seeing more yellow butterflies each year. One explanation for Mariella’s observation could be explained by the theory suggested by a) Wilhelm Wundt. b) Edward Titchener. c) Charles Darwin. d) William James. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 135. The theory that chance variations are passed down from parent to offspring and that some variations are adaptive is known as a) adaptive evolution. b) natural selection. c) theory of evolution. d) evolutionary adaptiveness. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 136. The formal beginning of psychology is associated with ___. a) Wundt b) Titchener c) James d) Ebbinghaus Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 137. In 1879, Wilhelm Wundt was credited with this first a) measuring the speed of the neural impulse. b) opening a psychology laboratory. c) finding evidence for the relationship between physical and mental events. d) receiving a doctorate in psychology. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 138. In which year did Wundt begin operating the first psychology lab? a) 1829 b) 1839 c) 1859 d) 1879 Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 139. Lillian believes that her behaviours arise out of deliberate decisions. This belief best

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reflects those of a) Charles Darwin. b) Wilhelm Wundt. c) Edward Titchener. d) William James. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 140. Elias believed that he was an agent of his own actions, controlling his own choices and behaviours, acting of his own free will. This system of belief is based on which of the following theorists? a) Wilhelm Wundt b) Max Wertheimer c) James Mark Baldwin d) William James. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 141. This theory focuses on the choices made by individuals, rather than environmental events, as the cause of underlying behaviours a) introspection b) voluntarism c) functionalism d) Gestalt behavioural analysis Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 142. Bronfenbrenner was a modern-day psychologist who argued for the important role of context in the developmental process. Which of the early theorists was a forerunner in recognizing the important role of social context in explaining mental processes and behaviour?

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a) Titchener b) Baldwin c) Wundt d) James Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 143. Which of the following examples best demonstrates the paradigm of voluntarism? a) During confrontation, a person instinctively lowers their eye gaze to indicate submissiveness. b) Lowering one’s eye gaze during confrontation is an adaptive characteristic that evolved over time. c) Lowering one’s eye gaze during confrontation is the result of fundamental sensory processes. d) Lowering one’s eye gaze during confrontation reflects one’s wilful decision to avoid a fight. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 144. Saskia believes that most of our behaviour is motivated and that our attention is intentionally focused on things around us. With which theory would she most likely agree? a) voluntarism b) structuralism c) functionalism d) Gestalt psychology Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 145. Which two schools of thought steered the field of psychology away from trying to identify the individual elements of the mind? a) structuralism and functionalism b) structuralism and voluntarism c) voluntarism and Gestalt psychology

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d) functionalism and Gestalt psychology Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 146. Zeke has stumbled across a time machine that accidentally carries him back over 100 years to the very first psychology laboratory. Where is he, and what year is it and who would Zeke being working with? a) It is 1883 and he is at John Hopkins University working with G. Stanley Hall. b) It is 1890 and he is in Toronto working with James Mark Baldwin. c) It is 1879 and he is in Leipzig, Germany working with Wilhelm Wundt. d) It is 1859 and he is at Oxford working with Charles Darwin. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 147. Enola falls asleep reading about the history of psychology and dreams that she was accepted as a graduate student in the very first psychology laboratory. Supposing her dream is historically accurate, with whom would she be working? a) Charles Darwin b) Edward Titchener c) G. Stanley Hall d) Wilhelm Wundt Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 148. Which of the following statements regarding G. Stanley Hall is incorrect? a) He launched the first American journal of psychology. b) He originated the method known as introspection. c) He wrote the first psychology textbook, Principles of Psychology. d) He was the first president of the American Psychological Association.

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Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 149. Wilhelm Wundt and Edward Titchener both believed that psychology should focus on a) the function of consciousness. b) basic elements of conscious experience. c) observable behaviours. d) the role of wilful acts of decision in behaviour. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 150. Which of the following is true about Wundt and Titchener? a) They both opened experimental laboratories in the United States. b) They both studied unconscious behaviours. c) They both used introspection to study the conscious mind. d) They were both functionalists. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 151. What psychological school of thought is Titchener credited with founding? a) functionalism b) structuralism c) Gestalt d) voluntarism Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods.

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Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 152. Which approach viewed the goal of psychology as the study of the basic elements of the conscious mind, much as one would study the parts of an engine and then determine how those parts are related? a) functionalism b) structuralism c) Gestalt psychology d) psychoanalysis Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 153. A procedure in which an observer describes the simple elements of a complex experience in as much detail as possible is called ___. a) inner perception b) introspection c) mental processing d) introjection Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 154. Olivia takes a sip of cola. “Sweet ... cold, wet, tingly ... slightly bitter,” she reports. Olivia is a) introspecting. b) introjecting. c) taking an intelligence test. d) possibly suffering a stroke. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

155. Yael is trying to use the same technique that the structuralists used to study the mind. What technique is Yael attempting? a) introspection b) hypnosis c) voluntarism d) functionalism Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 156. Which of the following was NOT a criticism of structuralism? a) its reliance on introspection is not very scientific b) it failed to consider an individual’s social context c) it failed to include children, animals, and people with mental disorders d) it made no attempt to explain or control mental processes Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 157. While traveling to countries he has never before been to, Matthew is tasting many new foods. With every new food he tastes, he keeps an in-depth record of his conscious awareness of his experiences including sensation, images, feelings, and thoughts. Matthew is practicing a) structuralism. b) empiricism. c) functionalism. d) introspection. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 158. Which of the following was NOT a criticism of introspection? a) Introspection was shown to be unreliable.

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b) Scientists using introspection often arrived at diverse findings. c) Scientists using introspection focused too much on applying the findings to practical problems. d) Scientists using introspection failed to incorporate the study of animals into their research. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 159. What aspects of structuralism have survived and are still sed in more modern schools of thought? a) Scientists rely in part on information from observable events and focus on basic elements as components of complex experience. b) Scientists use introspection because it frequently results in diverse findings, leading to creative solutions. c) Scientists employ introspection to apply their findings to practical problems. d) Scientists use introspection to explain and control the phenomenon under study. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 160. Which of the following was a criticism of structuralism? a) It failed to consider an individual’s social context. b) It made no attempt to explain or control mental processes. c) Its emphasis on the whole stimulus ignored bottom-up processes. d) it focused too heavily on experiments with children, animals, and people with mental disorders. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 161. Which of the following was a major concern many psychologists had with structuralism? a) It was thought to be too simplistic to adequately explain perceptual experience. b) It focused too heavily on distinguishing between normal and abnormal experiences.

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

c) It placed too much emphasis on gathering knowledge without trying to apply it in practical ways. d) It focused too heavily on explaining mental processes rather than describing them. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 162. Which of the following statements best expresses the aim of the functionalist perspective? a) Functionalism seeks to identify what the mind contains. b) Functionalism seeks to determine the purpose of mental processes. c) Functionalism seeks to determine how mental experience is organized. d) Functionalism seeks to understand the influence of the unconscious mind. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 163. Angelo believes that to fully understand psychological functioning, we must expand our studies of normal adults to include animals, children, and people with psychological disorders. With which of the following researchers is Angelo most likely to agree? a) Wilhelm Wundt b) William James c) Max Wertheimer d) G. Stanley Hall Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 164. Eirene is criticizing a research report on the influence of diet on attention. The study was done using males in their early 20’s, and from that, it is making claims about all genders, age groups, and cultures. Eirene believes that in order to fully understand any psychological ability, we need to also study animals, children, and people with psychological disorders. With which of the following early psychologists is Eirene most likely to agree? a) Wilhelm Wundt

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b) William James c) Max Wertheimer d) G. Stanley Hall Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 165. Which two early psychologists had an issue with the ideas of structuralism and tried to steer the field of psychology away from it? a) Wundt and Titchener b) Titchener and James c) James and Wertheimer d) Hall and Cattell Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 166. With respect to the psychology of emotion, William James would be most interested in a) the contribution of unconscious memories to one’s emotional experience. b) the basic nature of an emotional feeling or experience. c) how emotions aid one’s adaptation to the environment. d) the observable behaviours accompanying emotional experience. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 167. Like _______, William James argued that human thoughts, perceptions, and emotions helped humans to adapt and to survive. a) Charles Darwin b) Max Wertheimer c) G. Stanley Hall d) Edward Titchener

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Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 168. William James wrote an important early textbook in psychology called ___ of Psychology. a) Handbook b) Elements c) Outline d) Principles Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 169. William James did not agree that consciousness could be examined as a set of static parts, and instead argued that consciousness a) is driven by the unconscious. b) involves an ever-changing stream of mental events. c) is the sum of the parts. d) involves perceptually organizing our environment into wholes based on the individual parts. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 170. Which American psychologist is credited with developing the functionalist approach? a) Freud b) Pavlov c) James d) Watson Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

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Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 171. Xiomara is a new psychology student who is bragging to all the other students that her great grandfather studied psychology in the first experimental psychology laboratory in Canada. If this is true, with whom did her grandfather work? a) Wilhelm Wundt b) William James c) James Mark Baldwin d) G. Stanley Hall Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 172. Which of the following contributions can be attributed to James Mark Baldwin? a) He developed the psychological paradigm called voluntarism. b) He originated the method of introspection. c) He opened the first experimental laboratory in the United States. d) He established the first experimental laboratory in Canada. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 173. Which approach viewed the goal of psychology as the study of the purpose of the conscious mind, much as one would study what the engine of a car is used for? a) functionalism b) structuralism c) Gestalt psychology d) psychoanalysis Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

174. Dr. Chen and Dr. Ito are both studying the bicycle. Dr. Chen is studying the mechanical components such as the wheels, the cogs, and the shape of the handlebars. Dr. Ito, on the other hand, is studying how the bicycle could be used to reduce greenhouse gases. Given this information, which of the following statements is most accurate? a) Dr. Chen’s approach is like structuralism and Dr. Ito’s is like functionalism. b) Dr. Chen’s approach is like functionalism and Dr. Ito’s is like structuralism. c) Dr. Chen’s approach is like structuralism and Dr. Ito’s is like behaviourism. d) Dr. Chen’s approach is like structuralism and Dr. Ito’s is like voluntarism. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 175. The main difference between functionalism and structuralism is that functionalism focuses on ___ while structuralism emphasizes ___. a) predicting behaviour; previous learned experiences b) optical illusions as experimental techniques; introspection c) the purpose of the mind; the basic elements of the mind d) the conscious mind; the unconscious mind Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 176. What is the main difference between functionalism and structuralism? a) functionalism still exists as a school of thought today, while structuralism doesn’t exist anymore b) functionalism uses optical illusions as experimental techniques, while structuralism uses introspection c) functionalism seeks to understand the purpose of the mind, while structuralism seeks to understand the basic elements of the mind d) functionalism is the modern form of structuralism Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis

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Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 177. Which of the following sequences best reflects the order in which schools of thought developed in psychology’s early history? a) structuralism – functionalism – voluntarism b) voluntarism – functionalism – structuralism c) voluntarism – structuralism – functionalism d) structuralism – voluntarism – functionalism Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 178. Which of the following statements best expresses the fate of the structuralist perspective in psychology? a) The structuralist perspective was supplanted by other views. b) The structuralist perspective triumphed over alternative ones. c) The structuralist perspective continues to coexist with other views in psychology. d) The structuralist perspective has waned somewhat, but it remains highly influential. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 179. Although structuralism no longer exists as a formal school of thought, some of its principles are still evident in today’s psychology. Which of the following is one of these structuralist principles that we still see in today’s psychology? a) Introspection can be a valuable tool in combination with more scientific techniques. b) We can learn a lot about mental processes by studying what happens when they fail. c) Psychological research should focus on observable behaviour. d) The idea that there are many influences on behaviour and that we are only aware of a subset of them. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 180. Which perspective most immediately replaced structuralism in the early days of scientific psychology? a) behaviourism b) humanism c) functionalism d) psychoanalytic theory Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 181. The first psychologists to examine socially relevant topics were the a) structuralists. b) functionalists. c) behaviourists. d) Gestalt psychologists. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 182. Which of the following statements is consistent with the approach of Gestalt psychology? a) The parts are greater than the whole. b) The parts are exactly equal to the whole. c) The whole is greater than the sum of its parts. d) The parts are unrelated to the whole. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology

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183. Vivienne is making a banner for a mock debate in which her team is pretending to be Gestalt psychologists. What motto should she write across her banner? a) Let us learn all things from everybody. b) The whole is greater than the sum of its parts. c) Open your mind. d) Nature is the teacher of art. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 184. Although Charlene is looking at a painting of a forest, she sees images of faces formed by shadows and spaces among the trees. Which area of psychology would best explain Charlene’s perception? a) Structuralism b) Functionalism c) Voluntarism c) Gestalt Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. 185. Gestalt psychology may be a reaction to the ___ perspective. a) psychoanalytic b) humanist c) functionalist d) structuralist Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 186. The Gestalt psychologists made their most lasting contributions to the psychology of a) memory. b) perception. c) emotion.

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d) motivation. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 187. Which perspective below is correctly matched with its description? a) structuralism – emphasized the purpose of mental processes. b) functionalism – emphasized the elements of mental experience. c) behaviourism – emphasized the unconscious determinants of behaviour. d) Gestalt psychology – emphasized the organization of perception. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 188. Jeremy is an athlete who believes his body is like a clock with interacting parts. Jeremy’s belief is most like the views of the a) 1400’s. b) 1500’s. c) 1600’s. d) 1700’s. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the influences of early myths and ancient Greek philosophies on psychology. Section Reference: Psychology’s Roots in Philosophy 189. Gestalt psychology differs from structuralism in that Gestalt psychology focuses on ________ while structuralism emphasizes __________. a) consciousness; unconsciousness b) explaining behaviour; describing behaviour c) perceptual experiences; mental processes d) the whole stimulus; parts of a stimulus Answer: d

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 190. Vladimir is working with a group of psychology students on a play about the early Gestalt psychologists. The last line of the play summarizes the Gestalt view beautifully; what is that line most likely to be? a) let us learn all things from everybody b) the whole is greater than the sum of its parts c) open your mind d) nature is the teacher of art Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 191. Which two schools of thought steered the field of psychology away from trying to identify the individual elements of the mind? a) structuralism and functionalism b) structuralism and voluntarism c) voluntarism and Gestalt psychology d) functionalism and Gestalt psychology Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 192. Which of the following spurred psychologists to begin to tackle socially relevant topics? a) the introspective focus on self-observation and self-focus b) the Gestalt rejection of the dependency on insight c) the functionalist emphasis on the need for applicable and concrete information d) the structuralist focus on the overarching view of consciousness Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis

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Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 193. At which of the levels of analysis discussed in your text did Wundt examine thought and behaviour over the course of his career? a) the group level only b) the individual level c) both the brain and individual levels d) both the individual and group levels Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 194. In which of the goals of psychology were the structuralists most interested? a) description b) prediction c) explanation d) control Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 195. The preference of infants for human faces, when the parts of the face are arranged correctly reflects theories of a) structuralism. b) functionalism. c) voluntarism. d) Gestalt psychology. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology

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196. In what way is Gestalt psychology the opposite of structuralism? a) Gestalt psychology attempts to explain consciousness, while structuralism only describes it. b) Gestalt psychology uses humans as participants, while structuralism uses humans and animals. c) Gestalt psychology focuses on our perceptual experiences, while structuralism focuses on our mental processes. d) Gestalt psychology argues that we tend to perceive the whole stimulus, while structuralism focuses on the parts of a stimulus. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 197. Gestalt is to ______________ as structuralism is to ______________. a) adaptive purpose; basic elements b) basic elements; perceptual units c) basic elements; adaptive purpose d) perceptual units; basic elements Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 198. Artie saw a Tim Horton’s sign with some of the letters burned out. Nevertheless, Artie was still able to read the sign as saying, Tim Hortons. Gestalt psychologists would argue that this is because a) Artie can use introspection to arrive at the correct answer. b) Artie’s human brain is innately wired to integrate parts into cohesive wholes. c) Artie was hungry and therefore motivated to identify the restaurant. d) Artie’s visual system is unconsciously drawn to food-related stimuli. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

199. Which of the following statements would a Gestalt psychologist identify as false? a) Consciousness can be reduced to basic mental elements. b) Humans have an innate tendency to impose structure on what they perceive. c) Subjective experience can differ from objective reality. d)Learning is tied to perception. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 200. Which of the following statements is consistent with Freud’s psychoanalytic theory? a) We are always aware of our motivations. b) Many of our thoughts and feelings reside in the unconscious mind. c) The conscious and unconscious mind are never in competition. d) Childhood experiences do not contribute to later psychological functioning. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 201. After watching her father suffer and die from a serious illness, Maria mysteriously loses her sight even she experienced no eye or brain injury. Which of the following would claim would Freud most likely have made to explain Maria’s problem? a) negative childhood experience b) unconscious urges that Maria could not freely express c) hysteria d) problems with psychological adjustment Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 202. Mateo was experiencing insomnia because he repeatedly had graphic dreams about an inanimate object attacking him at work. He went to a therapist who told him that the dream was an attempt by his unconscious mind to communicate with his conscious mind. What kind of therapist did Mateo most likely see?

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a) psychoanalyst b) cognitivist c) behaviourist d) humanist Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 203. Elena has had several unsuccessful adult relationships. She went to a therapist who told her that she needed to explore possible toxic events from her childhood that may have caused her to push specific memories into her unconscious. Which type of therapist is Elena most likely seeing? a) Behavioural b) Cognitive c) Humanist d) Psychoanalytic Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 204. Kleptomania is a term used to describe someone who cannot control the uncontrollable impulse to steal when there is no need or financial gain. Freud would say this behaviour is caused by a) negative childhood experiences. b) unconscious urges. c) the lack of rational thought. d) conflict between conscious and unconscious forces. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 205. Which of the following diagnoses would an ardent follower of Freud’s theory disagree with? a) Jennifer’s reoccurring migraine headaches have a mental and not a physical root cause.

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b) Pawel’s general anxiety regarding cleanliness, being on time, and pleasing his parents is due to an underlying cause that exists at an unconscious level. c) Reshma’s love animals stems from her early childhood experiences with pets and farm animals. d) Arjun’s charm and outgoing personality stem from his reinforcement history with parents and friends in his past. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 206. Which of the following was NOT a criticism of Freud’s psychoanalytic theory? a) its focus on the unconscious b) his reliance on anecdotes and case histories of his patients c) the lack of support based on empirical research d) the focus on early childhood experience Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 207. Which of the following is NOT a contribution of psychoanalytic theory to the current discipline of psychology? a) It increased the applications of psychology to many aspects of everyday life. b) It stirred interest in motivation, sexuality, and child development. c) It established strong empirical research methods that are still used today. d) The “talking cure” led to the creation of therapeutic methods used in psychiatry and clinical psychology. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 208. Which of the following is an accurate statement about Freud? a) He felt that the unconscious mind existed well above the surface of conscious awareness. b) He conducted experimental studies using his patients as participants.

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c) He believed that “lost” memories indicated the presence of an unconscious mind. d) He believed that thoughts and memories existed only at the unconscious level. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 209. Liya believes that her best friend, Amit, suffers severe anxiety because when he was young, his parents did not make him feel safe and secure. Based on this alone, with which school of thought would Liya most likely agree? a) behaviourism b) psychoanalytic theory c) cognitive psychology d) neuroscience Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 210. Editha’s mother died when she was only four years old. Now a teenager, Editha suffers from depression. Her therapist told Editha that this early loss and the feels of abandonment it would have created are most probably at the root of her depression. Editha’s therapist most likely subscribes to a) behavioural theory. b) psycho neurobiological theory. c) cognitive theory. d) psychoanalytic theory. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 211. The “talking cure” lead to the creation of a) information processing theory. b) client-centred therapy. c) behaviourism.

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d) psychiatry and clinical psychology. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 212. The psychoanalytic theory originated in the work of ___, a Viennese neurologist. a) Freud b) Maslow c) Jung d) Bandura Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 213. Human behaviour often reflects unconscious motives and conflicts. This viewpoint is most consistent with the ___ perspective in psychology. a) humanistic b) psychoanalytic c) cognitive d) psychobiological Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 214. Which of the following types of evidence provided the foundation for Freud’s psychoanalytic theory? a) survey responses of large samples of adults b) observations of adults in everyday contexts c) archival data: newspaper reports, historical records, and the like d) case studies of patients in therapy Answer: d

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 215. Which statement best captures Freud’s view of the relationship between the conscious and the unconscious minds? a) The conscious and unconscious minds operate in isolation from one another. b) The conscious and unconscious minds cooperate harmoniously. c) The conscious and unconscious minds are often in conflict. d) The conscious and unconscious minds are essentially the same. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 216. To what extent has empirical research supported psychoanalytic theory? a) Empirical research generally does not support psychoanalytic theory. b) Empirical research offers moderate support for psychoanalytic theory. c) Empirical research strongly supports psychoanalytic theory. d) Empirical research has not addressed psychoanalytic theory. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 217. Which of the following theoretical approaches in psychology emphasized the influence of childhood on adult thought and behaviour? a) Gestalt psychology b) psychoanalytic theory c) structuralism d) cognitive psychology Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology.

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Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 218. Which of the following alternatives best expresses the influence of psychoanalytic theory in psychology? a) It has become increasingly influential in recent years. b) Its influence has greatly declined over the years. Psychoanalytic theory is only of historical interest at this point. c) It has never been broadly influential in psychology. d) It has had a significant, continuing impact in psychology. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 219. Psychoanalytic theory is an influential theory of mental functioning and personality and has had an important and lasting effect on psychology for all of the reasons below EXCEPT for which alternative? a) Psychoanalytic theory was one of the first psychological theories to provide a comprehensive view of human nature. b) Psychoanalytic conceptual ideas have been strongly supported by rigorous scientific study. c) Freud’s therapeutic techniques led to the creation of psychiatry and clinical psychology. d) Many of Freud’s ideas marked a turning point in the understanding of human nature. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 220. Which school of thought focused on learned behaviour and how it is influenced by events that come before and after the behaviour? a) psychobiology b) behaviourism c) psychoanalytic theory d) humanism Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology.

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Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 221. Quincy is working in a lab in which he observes rats pressing levers in order to receive food reward. What school of thought would Quincy’s research fall under? a) cognitive psychology b) behaviourism c) neuroscience d) humanism Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 222. Freida is a recovering drug addict. Her treatment program emphasizes the influence of her environment— “people, places, and things”—on her use of her drug of choice. Her program reflects the ___ approach in psychology. a) psychoanalytic b) behaviourist c) humanistic d) psychobiological Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 223. Which behaviourist below is correctly matched with a description or contribution? a) Bandura – demonstrated the conditioning of fear in children. b) Pavlov – demonstrated learning through social observation. c) Watson – credited with the discovery of conditioning. d) Skinner – leading behaviourist after World War II. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches

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224. Which of the following sequences reflects the historical order in which the behaviourists discussed in your text made their most important contributions to the field, from the earliest to the most recent? a) Watson – Bandura – Pavlov – Skinner b) Pavlov – Watson – Skinner – Bandura c) Watson – Pavlov – Bandura – Skinner d) Pavlov – Watson – Bandura – Skinner Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 225. Bandura was able to demonstrate the people can learn without any apparent change in their ________, directly contradicting the claims of _________. a) overt behaviour; Skinner b) covert behaviour; Skinner c) covert behaviour; Pavlov d) overt behaviour; Pavlov Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 226. Consider the influence of consequences on behaviour. Which alternative correctly describes the consequences that increase the frequency of behaviour, and decrease it on the other? a) Both positive and negative reinforcement increase the frequency of behaviour. Punishment decreases it. b) Positive reinforcement increases the frequency of behaviour. Punishment decreases it. c) Positive reinforcement increases the frequency of behaviour. Both negative reinforcement and punishment decrease it. d) Positive reinforcement increases the frequency of behaviour. Negative reinforcement decreases it. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches

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227. Positive reinforcement is likely to _____________ the frequency of behaviour. Negative reinforcement is likely to _____________ the frequency of behaviour. a) increase; increase b) increase; decrease c) decrease; increase d) decrease; decrease Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 228. Consider the following scenarios: (1) Marie takes an aspirin when she has a headache; (2) Jan slides a dollar bill into a vending machine when she is thirsty; (3) Tammy makes her curfew now because her parents confiscated her phone when she stayed out too late; and (4) Frankie no longer curses because his mom washed his mouth out with soap the last time he swore. Which of these individuals illustrates the effects of negative reinforcement? Which of these individuals illustrates the effects of punishment? a) Negative reinforcement – Marie and Tammy; punishment – Frankie b) Negative reinforcement – Marie and Frankie; punishment – Tammy c) Negative reinforcement – Marie; punishment – Tammy and Frankie d) Negative reinforcement – Marie and Jan; punishment – Tammy and Frankie Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 229. If a teacher wants her students to play cooperatively together, she could ___________ helping behaviours. If the same teacher wants to stop aggressive play behaviours, she could ____________ the aggressive acts. a) positively reinforce; negatively reinforce b) negatively reinforce; positively reinforce c) negatively reinforce; punish d) positively reinforce; punish Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist,

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humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 230. In what way are psychoanalytic and behaviourist psychology the same? a) They both focus on the unconscious. b) They both study animals to make inferences about humans. c) They both agree that previous experiences can influence future behaviour. d) They both rely on rigorous experimental methods. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 231. In what way are psychoanalytic and behaviourist psychology the same? a) They both focus on overt behaviour. b) They both believe in the impact of unconscious motivation on behaviour. c) They both agree that something from the past determines what will happen in the future. d) They both rely on rigorous experimental methods. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 232. Which theorist pioneered the application of conditioning to young human children? a) Thorndike b) Watson c) Pavlov d) Skinner Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 233. Which of the following psychologists would NOT be considered a behaviourist? a) Skinner

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b) Maslow c) Pavlov d) Watson Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 234. This researcher developed concepts around learning after he observed dogs salivating to a ringing bell. a) Pavlov b) Skinner c) Watson d) Thorndike Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 235. This researcher developed special boxes to measure stimulus-responses patterns in animals. a) Pavlov b) Skinner c) Watson d) Thorndike Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 236. Negative reinforcement is most often confused with a) criticism. b) bribing. c) punishment. d) positive reinforcement.

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Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 237. Whenever Kia wants a cookie she screams until her parents give it to her. Getting the cookie is a form of ___ for Kia. a) negative reinforcement b) positive reinforcement c) negative punishment d) positive punishment Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 238. Whenever Kia wants a cookie she screams until her parents give it to her. Kia’s happiness at receiving the cookie is a form of ______ for Kia’s parents. a) negative reinforcement b) positive reinforcement c) negative punishment d) positive punishment Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 239. Sara procrastinates when she needs to do her homework, so her roommate decided to buy Sara dinner on Friday nights if she completed her homework before the weekend started. This plan increased the incidence of Sara completing her homework before the weekend. In this example, the purchase of dinner acts as a _____________. a) negative reinforcer b) positive reinforcer c) negative punisher d) positive punisher Answer: b

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 240. Once, when Jordan had a terrible headache, his partner told him to sit in a dark room and to put ice on his head. The headache went away. Now whenever Jordan has a headache he sits in a dark room with ice. Jordan experienced a) negative reinforcement. b) positive reinforcement. c) negative punishment. d) positive punishment. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 241. Although ___ is technically a behaviourist, he also argued that it is possible to learn something without receiving direct consequences. a) Skinner b) Thorndike c) Bandura d) Watson Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 242. Which of the following researchers suggested that children do not always learn through conditioning, but also by social observation? a) Albert Bandura b) B. F. Skinner c) Edward Thorndike d) John Watson Answer: a Difficulty: Medium

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Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 243. What area of psychology focused on the potential of individuals and highlighted special human qualities such as free will? a) humanism b) behaviourism c) psychoanalysis d) cognitive psychology Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 244. Humanistic psychology represented a reaction to the ___ perspective(s) in psychology. a) psychoanalytic and behaviourist b) psychoanalytic c) behaviourist d) cognitive and psychoanalytic Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 245. Which of the following did the humanists reject most explicitly? a) the notion that human behaviour is driven by basic motives b) the idea that consciousness can be studied objectively c) the notion that humans are not unique d) the idea that thought is highly subjective Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches

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246. Romy identifies as a humanist. Romy therefore believes which of the following to be true? a) All people have the potential for creativity, positive outlook, and the pursuit of higher values. b) Consciousness can be studied objectively. c) Human behaviour can be predicted and controlled so as to assure maximum psychological growth. d) The mind is a complex interaction of thoughts and memories existing at different levels of awareness. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 247. At the heart of the humanistic perspective is the concept of ___. a) environmental determinism b) free will c) natural selection d) unconscious conflict Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 248. “Be all that you can be!” exhorted a recruitment campaign for the military in the 1990s. The campaign suggests that joining the armed forces is the royal road to the fulfillment of one’s potential, or ___ in the words of the humanists. a) self-esteem b) self-awareness c) self-actualization d) self-efficacy Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 249. With respect to self-actualization, which of the following statements is true?

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a) Self-actualization is the inevitable outcome of healthy adult development. b) Self-actualized individuals are quite rare. c) Self-actualization produces self-esteem. d) Self-actualization is necessary for one to give and receive love. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 250. Kent is not happy with his current therapist. Specifically, he feels like his therapist doesn't treat him as an equal, nor does his therapist make any effort to understand his problems from his point of view. What type of therapy would better suit Kent, based on his complaints with his current therapist? a) client-centered therapy b) psychoanalysis c) conditioning therapy d) behaviour therapy Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 251. Andre’s therapist validates his feelings by reflecting his statements back to him and by acting in a warm, nondirective manner. Which type of therapy does Andre’s therapist provide? a) client-centred therapy b) psychoanalytic therapy c) behavioural therapy d) cognitive therapy Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 252. Marc’s therapist often mirrors his feelings and makes him feel respected and supported. It is likely that Marc’s therapist subscribes to the views of ___________ theory. a) behaviourist

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b) psychoanalytic c) cognitive behaviourist d) humanist Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 253. A psychological approach that combines conditioning and cognition to explain human behaviour is a) behaviourism. b) humanism. c) cognitive behaviour. d) psychoanalytic. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 254. Dr. Pe is investigating how using visual imagery improves our memory for details in a story. To what school of thought does Dr. Pe most likely belong? a) behaviourism b) cognitive psychology c) humanism d) evolutionary psychology Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 255. Rangi is interested in studying why eyewitnesses often make mistakes in relaying the details of a crime. Rangi’s research would be of interest to __________________ psychologists. a) behavioural b) humanist c) cognitive d) psychodynamic

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Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 256. Dr. Zilva is treating Thomas for panic attacks. She suggests that Thomas may not be breathing deeply enough when he begins to feel anxious. The lack of oxygen might then be causing Thomas to think he is having a heart attack, thereby escalating his anxiety to a state of panic. Which of the following approaches is Dr. Zilva using to treat Thomas? a) psychoanalytic b) behavioural c) cognitive behavioural d) humanist Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 257. Dr. Boucher examines the influence of video-game violence on aggressive behaviours among middle-school students. Dr. Boucher’s work reflects the impact of which of the following behaviourists? a) Watson b) Pavlov c) Thorndike d) Bandura Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 258. Alric admired his older bother, Frederic, and covertly watched Frederic’s behaviour. As the boys grew older Alric modelled his behaviours after those of his older brother, especially when his brother was rewarded for something he did. Which theorist would have predicted this behavioural outcome for Alric? a) Watson b) Bandura

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c) Thorndike d) Freud Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 259. According to your text, Bandura’s work implied the influence of internal, mental representations on behaviour. Bandura’s work, therefore, helped enable the development of the ___ approach in psychology. a) humanistic b) functionalist c) psychobiological d) cognitive Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 260. As a forerunner to the cognitive approach, Bandura’s work suggested that a) people could learn without any apparent change in their overt behaviour. b) individual change was dependent on external influence. c) learning was reliant on reinforcement and punishment. d) mental processing was subordinate to behaviour. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 261. What newer field investigates how cognitive processing varies across different populations? a) cultural psychology b) cognitive psychology c) behavioural genetics d) psychobiology

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Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 262. While cultural psychology ___, cross-cultural psychology ___. a) emerged out of evolutionary psychology; emerged from humanism b) focuses on one culture; focuses on at least two different cultures c) addresses how we differ across cultures; addresses how we are similar across cultures d) investigates people throughout their lifespan; investigates middle-aged adults only Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 263. What is the difference between cultural psychology and cross-cultural psychology? a) Cultural psychology emerged out of evolutionary psychology; cross-cultural psychology emerged from humanism. b) Cultural psychology focuses on one culture; cross-cultural psychology focuses on at least two different cultures. c) Cultural psychology addresses how we differ across cultures; cross-cultural psychology addresses how we are similar across cultures. d) Cultural psychology investigates people throughout their lifespan; cross-cultural psychology investigates middle-aged adults only. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 264 Ulrich Neisser’s influential text Cognitive Psychology was published in the year ___. a) 1947 b) 1957 c) 1967 d) 1977 Answer: c Difficulty: Easy

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Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 265. Luis is conducting research to assess whether older adults who exercise and who complete Sudoku puzzles or crossword puzzles online daily function in their daily lives better than those who do not engage in such activities. Luis is most likely a _____ psychologist. a) psychoanalytic b) behavioural c) cognitive d) humanistic Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 266. By the information processing perspective in psychology, hardware is to software as ___ is to ___. a) brain; mind b) mind; brain c) mind; behaviour d) unconscious; conscious Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 267. Early cognitive psychologists argued that modifying __________ controls “behaviour” in computers therefore modifying specific ______ ought to control human behaviour. a) programs; objective consequences b) software; brain functions c) software; mental processes d) programs; behaviours Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis

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Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 268. Both the structuralists and cognitive psychologists investigate the conscious mind. How do the cognitive psychologists differ from the structuralists in their approach to the mind? a) The cognitive psychologists examined the mind’s processes, whereas the structuralists investigated its contents. b) The cognitive psychologists examined the mind’s contents, whereas the structuralists investigated its processes. c) The cognitive psychologists attempted to apply the scientific method to the study of the mind. The structuralists did not. d) There is little difference between the two perspectives in their approach to the mind. The cognitive approach represents a modern-day resurgence of the structuralist perspective. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 269. In what way are cognitive psychology and humanistic psychology the same? a) They both focus on the unconscious. b) They both study animals to make inferences about humans. c) They both disagreed with the behaviourist’s ideas. d) They both rely on rigorous experimental methods. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 270. Dr. Volkov is interested in studying how attentional mechanisms affect learning in preschool children. To what school of thought does Dr. Volkov most likely belong? a) behaviourism b) cognitive psychology c) humanism d) evolutionary psychology Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis

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Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 271. Having been stranded at the dawn of the twentieth century in a time travel mishap, you attempt to return to the present day. As the smoke clears and the dust settles, though, you find that it is instead the early 1960s. Which of the following statements best describes the theoretical landscape in psychology at the time? a) Behaviourism was becoming more influential, while humanism and cognitive psychology were waning. b) Humanism was becoming more influential, while behaviourism and cognitive psychology were waning. c) Humanism and behaviourism were becoming more influential, while cognitive psychology was waning. d) Humanism and cognitive psychology were becoming more influential, while behaviourism was waning. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 272. Which twentieth-century perspective in psychology is correctly matched with its emphasis? a) Psychoanalytic perspective -- emphasizes people’s motivation to grow and develop and gain control over their destinies. b) Humanistic perspective -- emphasizes how people process information. c) Behavioural perspective -- emphasizes observable behaviour and objectivity. d) Cognitive psychology – emphasizes the unconscious influences on thought and behaviour. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 273. Dr. Greenway argues that psychology should focus on observable, measurable behaviour. Dr. Cech suggests that psychology should study how people think and process information about the world. Which option below correctly identifies their respective perspectives? a) Dr. Greenway – psychoanalytic perspective; Dr. Cech – humanistic perspective b) Dr. Greenway – behaviourist perspective; Dr. Cech – humanistic perspective c) Dr. Greenway – cognitive perspective; Dr. Cech – behaviourist perspective d) Dr. Greenway – behaviourist perspective; Dr. Cech – cognitive perspective

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Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 274. Which psychologist is correctly matched with an associated perspective? a) Maslow – cognitive b) Freud – behaviourist c) Rogers – humanistic d) Skinner – psychoanalytic Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 275. Which of the following sequences reflects the order in which twentieth-century perspectives in psychology originated, from the earliest to the most recent? a) psychoanalytic – humanism – behaviourism b) psychoanalytic – behaviourism – humanism c) cognitive – psychoanalytic – humanism d) behaviourism – cognitive – psychoanalytic Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 276. Which of the following pairs of theories have the most in common? a) neuroscience - humanism b) behaviourism – humanism c) behaviourism – psychoanalytic d) humanism – psychoanalytic Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis

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Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 277. Which school of thought is most likely to ask questions about how our brains process information? a) psychobiology b) cognitive psychology c) evolutionary psychology d) behaviourism Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 278. Which of the following alternatives best expresses the relationship between the terms of psychobiology and neuroscience? a) The terms are used interchangeably. b) The term ‘psychobiology’ has replaced the term ‘neuroscience.’ c) The term ‘neuroscience’ has replaced the term ‘psychobiology.’ d) The terms refer to different fields in psychology. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 279. Quintessa is working in a lab in which she performs brain surgeries on rats and observes their ensuing behaviour. What school of thought would Quintessa’s research fall under? a) cognitive psychology b) behaviourism c) neuroscience d) humanism Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches

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280. While ___ attempted to identify the brain areas involved in learning, memory, and cognition; ___ tried to determine the functions of the brain’s hemispheres. a) Sperry; Lashley b) Wilson; Barash c) Barash; Wilson d) Lashley; Sperry Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 281. Karl Lashley is best known for a) developing the concept of cell assemblies. b) discovering the “reward centre” in the brain. c) conducting split-brain research. d) conducting animal research to pinpoint the link between certain brain areas and cognitive function. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 282. The psychobiologist known for his work on identifying brain areas involved in cognitive functions in animals was _______ whereas the psychobiologist known for his split-brain work on animals was ________. a) Milner: Lashley b) Hebb; Milner c) Sperry; Hebb. d) Lashley; Sperry Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches

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283. Donald Hebb used the term cell assembly to describe a) the production of new brain cells. b) the communication between cells in the brain. c) a strengthening of synaptic connections with repeated stimulation. d) the loss of memory due to cell death in the brain. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 284. Mason is reading about the history of psychology and realizes that the field of neuroscience has influenced many subfields in psychology. Which of the following subfield in psychology was NOT influenced by the field of neuroscience? a) behavioural genetics b) behaviourism c) sociobiology d) evolutionary psychology Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 285. Which of the following description accurately matches the term with which it is paired? a) behavioural genetics – describes psychological traits as a product of natural selection b) sociobiology – the influence of genes on human behaviour c) evolutionary psychology – scientific study of the biological aspects of social behaviour d) neuroscience – identifying the biological foundations of psychological function Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 286. When Sally sees a cat for the first time, a group of cells are activated in a specific order. According to Donald Hebb, what will happen in Sally’s brain with repeated exposure to a cat? a) The same cells will be activated but will respond slower. b) The same cells will be activated, and stronger synaptic connections will develop.

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c) The same cells will be activated responding in the same way as the first time. d) Different cells will be activated. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 287. Dr. Brazinski is a researcher who believes that repeated exposure to a stimulus will cause the same group of brain cells to respond faster and more efficiently. With which neuropsychologist’s perspective does Dr. Brazinski agree? a) Donald Hebb b) Karl Lashley c) Roger Sperry d) Hubel and Wiesel Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 288. Which statement below describes the relationship among evolutionary psychology, behavioural genetics, and sociobiology? a) Behavioural genetics and sociobiology may be viewed as subfields of evolutionary psychology. b) Behavioural genetics and evolutionary psychology may be viewed as subfields of sociobiology. c) They ate distinct fields of psychology. d) Sociobiology and evolutionary psychology may be viewed as subfields of behavioural genetics. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 289. Dr. Lynch is a behavioural geneticist. Dr. Veazey is a sociobiologist. Which of the following alternatives best describes their areas of research interest? a) Both Dr. Lynch and Dr. Veazey are interested in the biological bases of social behaviour.

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b) Both Dr. Lynch and Dr. Veazey study the biological bases of cognition. c) Dr. Lynch is interested in the biological bases of cognition, whereas Dr. Veazey studies the biological bases of social behaviour. d) Dr. Lynch is interested in the biological bases of emotion, whereas Dr. Veazey studies the biological bases of social behaviour. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 290. Which of the following is a goal of evolutionary psychologists? a) To identify the unconscious motives that lead to human behaviours. b) To study the mental processes using an information processing model. c) To study observable behaviour using empirical methods. d) To identify cultural universalities in human behaviours and practices. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 291. Which of the following statements best describes the influence of evolutionary psychology in psychology’s history? a) It has never been a strong influence in psychology. b) Its influence has remained steady throughout psychology’s history. c) Its influence has declined in recent years. d) Its influence has increased in recent years. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 292. Which of the following statements is NOT accurate regarding the beliefs of evolutionary psychologists? a) the body and brain are largely products of evolution b) one goal of evolutionary psychology is to identify cultural universality c) the field is viewed as a subfield of sociobiology

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d) the laws of evolutionary psychology apply to all organisms. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 293. How do cultural universals and similarities between twins raised apart, respectively, inform the nature vs. nurture debate? a) Cultural universals support the ‘nature’ position, while similarities between twins raised apart support the ‘nurture’ position. b) Cultural universals support the ‘nurture’ position, while similarities between twins raised apart support the ‘nature’ position. c) Cultural universals and similarities between twins raised apart support the ‘nurture’ position. d) Cultural universals and similarities between twins raised apart support the ‘nature’ position. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 294. How do cultural universals and similarities across cultures support evolutionary psychology? a) Virtually all emotionally related traits and behaviours seen across cultures have been shown to be evolutionarily advantageous. b) Some traits and behaviours seen across cultures may be by-products of adaptive behaviours from long ago. c) Cultural universality provides little information regarding the relative impact of biological factors. d) Research indicates that all common behaviours and reactions that have been passed from generation to generation are highly adaptive. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 295. The largest number of PhDs are in the subfields of ___ psychology. a) clinical

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b) developmental c) social d) cognitive Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 296. Bashar was awarded a degree from a graduate program in psychology. This program placed less emphasis on research and greater emphasis on psychotherapy and testing. What degree did Bashar most likely earn? a) Psy.D. b) D.S.W. c) M.D. d) Ph.D. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 297. A coach consults with a psychologist to help the team focus their frustrations and energies more effectively. The psychologist is most probably involved in which branch of psychology? a) applied b) counselling/clinical c) academic d) forensic Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 298. Wyatt just graduated with his Masters in School psychology. In which key branch of psychology will Wyatt be working? a) academic b) applied c) general

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d) clinical Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 299. A psychologist is helping a client to become more assertive at work. The psychologist is most probably involved in which branch of psychology? a) applied b) counselling/clinical c) academic d) forensic Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 300. A psychologist is helping students learn to test participants on an eye-tracker in preparation for a research study. The psychologist is most probably involved in which branch of psychology? a) applied b) counselling/clinical c) academic d) forensic Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 301. Fiorella is consulting with a psychologist to help her figure out the best way to get her grade 2 students to stay in their seats. Psychologists in what branch would be best suited to help Fiorella with this problem? a) academic b) applied c) clinical d) psychiatry

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Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 302. With respect to psychology today, which of the following statements is most true? a) A single theoretical orientation dominates present-day psychology. b) Ultimately, a unified theory of behaviour and mental processes will emerge. c) Multiple theoretical approaches exist in psychology because we have made little progress in understanding thought and behaviour. d) Psychology is diverse in its theoretical orientations because the subject matter of psychology is diverse. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 303. With current technological advancements, today’s psychology is focused more than ever on answering questions about the relationship between the brain and behaviour. If this trend continues, it is possible that the field of psychology will turn into a branch of biology rather than remaining a field in its own right. According to your text, we need not be concerned with this issue. Why not? a) our technology will never be good enough to understand how neurons work together in different interconnected networks b) we have only begun to understand the hundreds of brain chemicals involved in neural communication c) biology needs the help of psychology to properly explain the soul, mind, consciousness, and free will d) insights about human nature are most complete when different branches in the field intersect and cooperate Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 304. Jill recently received her Ph. D. in psychology. All else being equal, there is a 44%-50%

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chance that she will work in a) an applied social setting. b) a clinical setting. c) school or educational setting. d) counselling setting. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 305. Gaby recently received her Ph. D. in psychology. All else being equal, there is a 9% chance that she works in a) a developmental setting. b) a clinical setting. c) school or educational setting. d) counselling setting. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 306. Dr. Fowler just realized that she is the most popular kind of psychologist, and she works in the most popular place that psychologists work. Given this, what is Dr. Fowler’s branch of psychology, and where does she work? a) an academic psychologist in a university b) an applied psychologist in a hospital or clinic c) a counselling psychologist in private practice d) a clinical psychologist in a university Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 307. Dr. Ying examines how limitations on human attention and memory may guide the design of computer interfaces. Dr. Krevetsky helps young adults make effective career and work decisions. Finally, Dr. Leonard teaches and performs research in social psychology at a

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university. Which psychologist is correctly matched with the branch of psychology she represents? a) Dr. Ying – academic psychology b) Dr. Krevetsky – clinical and counselling psychology c) Dr. Leonard – applied psychology d) Dr. Krevetsky – applied psychology Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 308. The roots of psychology’s academic, applied, and clinical/counselling branches are found in psychology’s early days in the late nineteenth and early twentieth centuries. Which branch of psychology is matched with the theoretical approach most sympathetic to its development? a) academic psychology – structuralism b) applied psychology – psychoanalytic psychology c) clinical and counselling psychology – Gestalt psychology d) clinical and counselling psychology – structuralism Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 309. Which of the following alternatives correctly identifies and describes one of the three key branches of contemporary psychology described in your text? a) clinical and counselling psychology -- involves the use of psychological principles to solve practical problems b) general psychology -- entails research and instruction on a variety of psychological topics c) applied psychology – involves using psychological principles to help people cope effectively d) academic psychology – entails research and instruction on a variety of psychological topics Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 310. Which of the following mental health practitioners is correctly matched with a title?

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a) Dionne, who holds a Ph. D. degree – psychiatrist b) Everett, who has an M. D. degree – clinical psychologist c) Fallon, who graduated with a Psy. D. degree – clinical psychologist d) Garrett, who received an M. S. W. degree – counselling psychologist Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 311. Which of the following statements is true regarding the difference between the Ph. D. and the Psy. D. degrees? a) The Psy. D. is awarded in counselling psychology but not clinical psychology. b) The Ph. D. is more focused on original research than is the Psy. D. c) Psychiatrists may hold the Ph. D. but not the Psy. D. degree. d) The Ph. D. is more focused on psychotherapy than is the Psy. D. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 312. Ph. D. is to M. D. as __ is to ___. a) psychiatrist; psychologist b) counselling psychology; clinical psychologist c) counselling psychologist; psychiatric social worker d) psychologist; psychiatrist Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 313. Which of the following sequences best reflects the relative emphasis on psychological testing in Psy. D., Ph. D., and M. D. programs, from the most emphasis to the least? a) M. D. – Ph. D. – Psy. D. b) M. D. – Psy. D. – Ph. D. c) Ph. D. – M. D. – Psy. D. d) Ph. D. – Psy. D – M. D.

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Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 314. Which type(s) of mental health practitioners can prescribe drugs? a) psychiatrists and, in Canada, psychologists b) psychiatrists only c) psychiatrists and, in a few provinces, psychologists d) psychologists and, in a few states, psychiatrists Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 315. What are the three main branches in psychology? a) psychoanalytic, behavioural, and humanistic b) experimental, counselling, and applied c) academic, clinical, and applied d) neuroscience, cognitive, and social Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 316. Which of the following is an example of applied psychology? a) Bailey, who counsels women who have escaped abusive relationships. b) Kayden, who teaches neuroscience at a large university. c) Trinity, who conducts research on child development. d) Sawyer, who travels with a national hockey team to help players deal with anxiety and teaches them to stay focused on the game. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 317. At age 18, Stephen had his first schizophrenic episode. Which type of mental health practitioner should Stephen see? a) a social worker b) clinical psychologist c) psychiatrist d) counsellor Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 318. Jagota is in university, far from home for the first time in her life. She misses her family and friends from home and is finding the studying required for her classes to be overwhelming. She knows that she needs to speak with a professional about her deepening symptoms of anxiety and depression. Which type of mental health practitioner should Jagota see?? a) a social worker b) an academic c) a psychiatrist d) a counsellor Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 319. Kiara has seen a mental health professional for help in treating her serious depression. She was prescribed an anti-depressant and was told to come back in 3 weeks for a follow-up. What type of mental health professional did Kiara most likely see? a) a clinical psychologist b) a counselling psychologist c) a psychiatrist d) a clinical neuropsychologist Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis

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Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 320. Which of the following is true about the difference between a counselling psychologist and a clinical psychologist? a) only counselling psychologists have a Ph.D. b) only counselling psychologists earn their degrees from applied experience alone, not from sitting in a classroom c) only clinical psychologists have a Psy.D. d) only clinical psychologists can administer and interpret psychological tests to help with diagnosis and treatment Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 321. According to your text, the shared values of all three branches of psychology include each of the following EXCEPT a) the idea that psychology is empirical. b) a commitment to a single level of analysis. c) an endorsement of theory-driven work. d) an emphasis on context. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 322. The three branches in psychology share important values. Which of the following is NOT one of these values? a) psychology is goal-driven b) psychology is multi-level c) psychology is contextual d) psychology is empirical Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension

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Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 323. Cognitive behavioural psychologists believe that anxiety disorders occur, in part, because of negative thinking processes. Which shared value of psychology does this describe? a) Psychology is theory-driven. b) Psychology is empirical. c) Psychology is multi-level. d) Psychology is contextual. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 324. One criticism of Freud’s psychoanalytic theory is that many of its concepts are NOT supported by research findings. Which shared value of psychology does this flaw describe? a) Psychology is theory-driven. b) Psychology is empirical. c) Psychology is multi-level. d) Psychology is contextual. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 325. Which of the following demonstrates the shared value that psychology is empirical? a) Introspection is no longer used as a research method because it did not produce consistent results. b) With the invention of computers, the brain processes were compared to the workings of a computer which led to the development of cognitive psychology. c) As internet use becomes more popular, many psychological research studies are now being conducted on-line. d) Research suggests that neurochemicals, personality, and social factors play a role in depression. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation

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Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 326. When discussing depression, it is important to recognize that it is influenced by both biological and environmental factors. This statement demonstrates the shared value that a) psychology is theory-driven. b) psychology is empirical. c) psychology is multi-level. d) psychology is contextual. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 327. Some clinicians believe that the onset of schizophrenia occurs due to an interaction between genetic factors, neurochemicals, and environmental stressors. Which of the following does this example demonstrate? a) Psychology is theory-driven and multi-level. b) Psychology is multi-level and empirical. c) Psychology is contextual and multi-level. d) Psychology is theory-driven and empirical. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 328. Dr. Hanoi is reviewing a research article for publication in a journal and unfortunately, he does not like what he has read. He writes to the authors and explains that the research seems to have no overall reason for being conducted in the first place, and that the work does not fit with anything that has already been done to date. What important value in psychology is lacking in this research article, according to Dr. Hanoi? a) Psychology is theory-driven. b) Psychology is empirical. c) Psychology is multi-level. d) Psychology is contextual. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium

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Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 329. Although introspection is no longer recognized as a valid research method, it should be acknowledged for the important contribution it made in the history of psychology. This is particularly true given the time in which it was developed. Which shared value does this demonstrate? a) Psychology is theory-driven. b) Psychology is empirical. c) Psychology is multi-level. d) Psychology is contextual. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 330. Which of the following shared values in psychology is correctly described? a) a commitment to theory-driven work – psychology includes intelligent speculation among its methods b) an endorsement of empirical research – the brain, the individual, and the group must all be considered in psychological work c) an acceptance of multilevel analyses – psychologists value ideas with strong research support d) a recognition of the importance of context – psychological theory is shaped by social and technological forces Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 331. A counseling psychologist has job duties that are similar to another career/specialty within psychology. Which answer identifies the other career with which it is compared, and how the specialty is different? a) clinical psychologists who typically focus on individuals with more severe psychological impairments b) cognitive psychologists who focus on the evaluation, diagnosis, and treatment of psychological disorders c) clinical psychologists who typically have a greater focus on higher mental processes,

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creativity, intelligence, and language d) cognitive psychologists who focus more on the connection with the brain and the body Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 332. Dr. McIntyre believes that psychology should focus investigation solely on the brain. Dr. Napolitano argues that psychology should develop its explanations of thought and behaviour in isolation from social and technological forces, which change rapidly and unpredictably. Which psychological values do Drs. McIntyre and Napolitano seem NOT to share? a) Dr. McIntyre does not share a commitment to theory-driven work, while Dr. Napolitano does not endorse empirical research. b) Dr. McIntyre does not endorse empirical research, while Dr. Napolitano does not share a commitment to theory-driven work. c) Dr. McIntyre does not recognize the importance of context, while Dr. Napolitano does not accept multilevel analyses. d) Dr. McIntyre does not accept multilevel analyses, while Dr. Napolitano does not recognize the importance of context. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 333. A cultural psychologist would describe Canadian culture as ___. She would describe Chinese culture as ___. a) individualistic; collectivist b) individualistic; communal c) collectivist; collectivist as well d) individualistic; individualistic as well Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 334. Which sentence best describes how people from an individualistic culture would most

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centrally define themselves? a) People from an individualistic culture would reference their personality traits or occupation. b) People from an individualistic culture would reference their place within a social unit. c) People from an individualistic culture would reference how much they are related to others. d) People from an individualistic culture would reference the importance of family ties. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 335. Joshua is an American college student. Yoon-Sook is a Korean college student. Research described in your text suggests that Joshua would attribute happiness to ___. Yoon-Sook would attribute it to ___. a) interpersonal interactions; personal achievements b) interpersonal interactions; interpersonal interactions, too c) personal achievements; interpersonal interactions d) personal achievements; personal achievements, too Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 336. Edward and Darma are participating in a study and are asked about what makes them happy. If Edward is from an individualistic culture and Darma is from a collectivist culture, what are they most likely to say? a) Edward will say personal achievements and Darma will say interpersonal interactions b) Edward will say interpersonal interactions and Darma will say healthy living c) Edward will say healthy living and Darma will say being in nature d) Edward will say being in nature and Darma will say personal achievements Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 337. The advent of computer technology in the 1950s and 1960s spurred growth in the field of ___. More recently, advances in imaging have sparked the field of ___.

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a) cognitive psychology; neuroscience b) neuroscience; cognitive psychology c) experimental psychology; neuroscience d) developmental psychology; neuroscience Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 338. What do developmental psychologists do that distinguishes them from other psychologists? a) Developmental psychologists study how children think and behave. b) Developmental psychologists collaborate with teachers, parents, and the educational system to help children with special needs. c) Developmental psychologists focus on optimal human functioning. d) Developmental psychologists focus on learning, conditioning, and motivation throughout life. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 339.. Dr. Bui is interested in how the brain processes faces. For instance, his work has shown that specific regions of the brain show increased activity when viewing upright faces, but not for inverted faces. With what new field in psychology would Dr. Bui’s work best fit? a) social neuroscience b) positive psychology c) cognitive neuroscience d) cultural psychology Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 340. Which of the following is a new area of psychology that focuses on how mental processes interact with biological functions of the brain? a) sociobiology

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b) evolutionary psychology c) cognitive neuroscience d) behavioural genetics Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 341. Dr. Olivier examines changes in participants’ brain activity as they use different pieces of information to make complex decisions. Dr. Pang examines changes in brain activity when participants explain the behaviour of a research assistant posing as another participant. Dr. Olivier is best described as a(n) ___ neuroscientist. Dr. Pang is probably a(n) ___ neuroscientist. a) cognitive; cognitive b) cognitive; social c) cognitive; experimental d) experimental; social Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 342. Which pioneering woman in psychology is correctly matched with a ‘first’? a) Mary Whilton Calkins – first to investigate the role of the hippocampus in memory b) Leta Hollingsworth – developed theories of mother-infant attachment c) Mary Wright – first woman President of CPA d) Brenda Milner – first woman to receive a Ph. D. in psychology Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 343. Your textbook authors suggest that it may seem that the neuroscientific approach is dominating contemporary psychology. Which of psychology’s shared values is most likely to ensure that neuroscience does not completely monopolize psychology in the future? a) a commitment to theory-driven work

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b) an endorsement of empirical research c) an acceptance of multilevel analyses d) a recognition of the importance of context Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 344. Which of the following best captures your text’s conclusion regarding psychology’s potential contribution to our knowledge? a) Psychology will answer many complex questions about human nature. b) Psychology will provide useful knowledge as it tries to address complex questions about human nature. c) Psychology is unlikely to make much progress in addressing complex questions about human nature. d) Psychology is too influenced by trends and fads to provide much lasting knowledge. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 345. Positive psychology traces is theoretical roots to the ___ and ___ approaches, because of its emphasis on ___ and ___, respectively. a) functionalist, humanist; application, self-actualization b) functionalist, humanist; self-actualization, application c) psychodynamic, humanist; the unconscious, self-actualization d) functionalist, Gestalt; application, mental organization Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 346. Which historical psychological perspectives appear to have influenced positive psychology? a) structuralism and Gestalt b) Gestalt and humanism

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c) humanism and functionalism d) structuralism and humanism Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 347. In its discussion of positive psychology, your text states that, “studies have found that having a positive outlook promotes resilience.” Making explicit reference to the goals of psychology, which of the following statements is the strongest claim reasonably implied by this quote? a) A positive outlook describes resilience. b) A positive outlook describes and may even predict resilience. c) A positive outlook explains resilience. d) A positive outlook explains and may even control resilience. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 348. Based on your text’s discussion, traditional psychotherapy is to positive psychotherapy as ___ is to ___. a) preventive medicine; curative medicine b) curative medicine; preventive medicine c) humanistic therapy; psychoanalytic therapy d) psychoanalytic therapy; behavioural therapy Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 349. A superstar goalie is trying a new type of therapy to help him maintain a confident mental state throughout the game. In this therapy, he is to focus on memories that he has chosen that give him good feelings of confidence and pride, as well as making a point to feel the good feelings after a great save. With what field of psychology would this form of therapy best fit? a) developmental

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b) positive c) social d) applied Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 350. Janice has experienced a high level of personal stress over the past six months with the loss of her job and the breakup of her marriage. Despite this, she continues to smile and believe that things will get better. Which of the following does research suggest will likely be Janice’s outcome? a) Janice’s stress will likely catch up to her and she will no longer be able to cope. b) Janice’s immune system will be compromised, and she will become ill. c) Janice’s positive outlook will make her more resilient to the effects of stress. d) Janice will continue to be optimistic unless she experiences greater stress at a later date. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today

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MATCHING QUESTION 351. Match the appropriate words in the left column to the definitions in the right column. Terms A. Natural Selection B. Consciousness C. Functionalism D. Psychology E. Empiricism F. Adaptation G. Structuralism H. Voluntarism I. Collectivist J. Introspection K. Humourism L. Individualistic M. Psychophysics N. Culture O. Gestalt P. Humanistic Q. Philosophy R. Tabula rasa

___

___ ___

___

___ ___

Definitions 1. Theory that all knowledge originates in experience. 2. The study of the relationship between physical stimuli and the sensations and perceptions they affect. 3. A set of shared beliefs and practices that are transmitted across generations. 4. A theory where will is regarded as the ultimate agency in human behaviour; focusing motivation and attention for an explicit purpose. 5. Classic method of psychological study that involves careful evaluation of mental processes and how simple thoughts expand into complex ideas 6. The study of mental processes and behaviours. 7. A philosophical approach that considers how mental processes worked to adapt to changing environments. 8. The concept that chance variations are passed down from parent to offspring. 9. Belief that four bodily fluids collectively determined a person’s personality and character. 10. This school claimed that “the whole is greater than the sum of its parts.”

___

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ANSWERS TO MATCHING QUESTION 1.

E: Empiricism

M: Psychophysics

N: Culture

H: Voluntarism

J: Introspection

D: Psychology

C: Functionalism

A: Natural Selection

K: Humourism

10. O: Gestalt Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

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FILL-IN-THE-BLANK 352 The science of studying mental processes and behaviour is called ___. Answer: psychology Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define psychology and describe the goals and levels of analysis psychologists use. Section Reference: What Is Psychology? 353. The discipline of psychology is concerned with empirically examining the mind and behaviour and discovering how each is influenced by the psychobiology of the organism and the ___. Answer: external environment Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define psychology and describe the goals and levels of analysis psychologists use. Section Reference: What Is Psychology? 354. If a psychologist is studying which children might be at risk for becoming juvenile delinquents, he or she would be addressing the goal of ___ in psychology. Answer: prediction Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define psychology and describe the goals and levels of analysis psychologists use. Section Reference: What Is Psychology? 355. During psychology’s early history, the primary method for exploring internal mental processes was to observe outward ___. Answer: behaviour Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define psychology and describe the goals and levels of analysis psychologists use. Section Reference: What Is Psychology?

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356. A large group of people with a set of shared beliefs and practices is referred to as a(n) ___. Answer: culture Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define psychology and describe the goals and levels of analysis psychologists use. Section Reference: What Is Psychology? 357. Following an earthquake or other disaster, some primitive cultures may attribute human qualities to such a natural event because they believe the “earth spirits are angry”. This example illustrates a(n) ___. Answer: myth Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the influences of early myths and ancient Greek philosophies on psychology. Section Reference: Psychology’s Roots in Philosophy 358. Determining the nature of reality and the limitations of human awareness were the goals of the ___ philosophers. Answer: Greek Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the influences of early myths and ancient Greek philosophies on psychology. Section Reference: Psychology’s Roots in Philosophy 359. The first philosopher to promote empirical or testable investigations of the natural world was ___. Answer: Aristotle Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the influences of early myths and ancient Greek philosophies on psychology. Section Reference: Psychology’s Roots in Philosophy 360. The term used to describe the behaviours and mental processes of which we are aware is ___.

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Answer: consciousness Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 361. James and his colleagues were interested in how the mind adapts to a changing ___. Answer: environment Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 362. Humans have inborn tendencies to impose structure on what they see. These tendencies cause humans to perceive ___ rather than individual sensations. Answer: perceptual units Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 363. Unlike the earlier work of the structuralists, functionalists, and Gestaltists, psychoanalytic theorists focused on mental processes that occur in the ___ mind. Answer: unconscious Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 364. Freud’s use of ___ as a therapeutic method helped establish clinical psychology. Answer: discussion Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

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Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 365. Theoretically speaking, undesirable behaviours are less likely to be repeated if the technique of ___ is used. Answer: punishment Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 366. Maslow proposed that we have a basic motive to fulfill our full potential as human beings which he described as ___. Answer: self-actualization Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 367. Studying the effects of amphetamines on nerve cells would involve analysis at the level of the ___. Answer: brain Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 368. A ___ psychologist would likely help individuals cope more effectively with abnormal functioning. Answer: clinical or counselling Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today

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369. The job description of a(n) ___ psychologist overlaps with the description given of a counselling psychologist and additionally focuses on the evaluation, diagnosis and treatment of individuals with psychological disorders. Answer: clinical Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 370. A type of therapy called ___ involves helping people modify thoughts, feelings, and behaviours that cause them distress. Answer: psychotherapy Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 371. In order to explain or interpret human behaviour, you must use a(n) ___. Answer: theory Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 372. A large group of individuals with shared beliefs and practices is called a(n) ___. Answer: culture Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 373. In a study that asks participants from various cultures to explain what makes them happy, Chinese participants described interpersonal interactions and evaluations from others. This displays the ___ aspects of Chinese culture.

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Answer: collectivist Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 374. A new school of thought that focuses on the more upbeat features of human functioning like happiness and the meaning of life is referred to as ___. Answer: positive psychology Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today

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SHORT ANSWER ESSAY QUESTIONS 375. According to the definition in your textbook, what do psychologists’ study? Answer: behaviour and mental processes Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define psychology and describe the goals and levels of analysis psychologists use. Section Reference: What Is Psychology? 376. What is one direct method of investigating internal mental processes that has resulted from technological advances? Answer: brain imaging Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define psychology and describe the goals and levels of analysis psychologists use. Section Reference: What Is Psychology? 377. At what level of behavioural analysis does a psychologist analyze the content of mental processes, including emotions, thoughts, and ideas? Answer: the individual Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define psychology and describe the goals and levels of analysis psychologists use. Section Reference: What Is Psychology? 378. Which level of analysis would a psychologist be focusing on if they suggested that a client obtain a prescription from a psychiatrist for anti-depressant medication? Answer: the brain Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define psychology and describe the goals and levels of analysis psychologists use. Section Reference: What Is Psychology?

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379. What attribute of Greek culture was essential to forming intellectual dialogue that resulted in a flow of ideas? Answer: open, critical discussions where anyone could challenge prevailing doctrines Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the influences of early myths and ancient Greek philosophies on psychology. Section Reference: Psychology’s Roots in Philosophy 380. According to Hippocrates, what are humours and what is their purpose? Answer: bodily fluids that determine a person’s character and well-being Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the influences of early myths and ancient Greek philosophies on psychology. Section Reference: Psychology’s Roots in Philosophy 381. What theory postulates that all life on Earth is related and that humans are just one outcome of many variations from a common ancestor? Answer: the theory of evolution Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 382. Why was introspection criticized as a scientific technique? Answer: Findings were often diverse depending on who was using the technique and what they were investigating. Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 383. What topic was investigated in an early experiment by Bryan and Harter in 1897? Answer: how quickly typing skills could be learned by telegraph operators

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 384. Gestalt is a German term that roughly translates to what word or words in English? Answer: whole or form Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 385. Where did Freud obtain evidence for his psychoanalytic theory? Answer: from information he obtained from patients in his medical practice Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 386. Identify both what behaviourists were interested in studying and also what were not interested in studying. Answer: Behaviourism is founded on the belief that psychologists should only study directly observable behaviours rather than abstract mental processes. Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 387. Who first proposed that animal findings could help to explain human behaviour? Answer: Thorndike Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches

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388. Provide an example of a reinforcing behaviour. Answer: The example must name something that is rewarding/desirable, and the example behaviour must be likely to be repeated over time. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 389. According to Bandura, what mechanism describes how children learn? Answer: social observation or modelling Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 390. What approach to psychotherapy did Carl Rogers develop that supported therapists respecting and treating their clients as equals? Answer: client-centred therapy Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 391. Describe the goal of behavioural genetics. Answer: The answer must explore the influence of genes on cognition and behaviour. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 392. Academic psychology carries on the mission to seek “pure scientific knowledge” by conducting research and instruction on a wide variety of psychological topics. Who is most often associated with this mission?

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Answer: Wundt Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 393. What is the purpose of applied psychology? Answer: To involve the application of psychological principles to help solve practical problems Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 394. What area of psychology was described in the text as an example of an applied branch of psychology? Answer: sports psychology Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 395. Beyond the provision of psychotherapy, what work do counselling psychologists do? Answer: family therapy for issues involving careers, child-rearing, and relationships Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 396. List the four values about psychology that academic, applied, and clinical/counselling psychologists share. Answer: Psychology is theory-driven, empirical, multi-level, and contextual. Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation

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Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 397. What three levels of behavioural analyses must psychologists consider to gain a complete understanding of human mental processes and behaviour? Answer: brain, person, and group Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 398. On a recent trip to Asia, Jasmine noticed that some of the cultures she encountered seemed to emphasize the needs of the group more than their individual needs. What type of culture did Jasmine most likely experience on her trip to Asia? Answer: collectivist Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 399. What technological development from the 1950s and 1960s contributed to the cognitive psychology revolution? Answer: computers Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 400. What new form of therapy focuses on increasing clients’ sense of engagement rather than targeting specific symptoms of mental dysfunction? Answer: positive psychotherapy Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology.

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Section Reference: Psychology Today

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ESSAY QUESTIONS 401. Name two of the four goals discussed in the text that psychologists have in mind when studying mental processes and behaviour. Answer: Identify two of the following goals: description, explanation, prediction, and control. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define psychology and describe the goals and levels of analysis psychologists use. Section Reference: What Is Psychology? 402. Why is behavioural analysis incomplete without an examination of the group? Answer: Humans are shaped by their social environments and those environments change over time. Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Define psychology and describe the goals and levels of analysis psychologists use. Section Reference: What Is Psychology? 403. How is psychological science of today like primitive myths? Answer: Both approaches are attempts to describe, explain, predict, and control our reality. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the influences of early myths and ancient Greek philosophies on psychology. Section Reference: Psychology’s Roots in Philosophy 404. Describe how the work of Aristotle influenced the development of psychology as a scientific discipline. Answer: Promoting the empirical investigation of topics such as sensations and learning laid the foundations of the scientific investigation of behaviour. Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe the influences of early myths and ancient Greek philosophies on psychology. Section Reference: Psychology’s Roots in Philosophy

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405. Describe Wundt’s investigation of voluntarism. Answer: Wundt studied “will”; he believed that behaviour is motivated, and attention is focused for an explicit conscious purpose. Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 406. What was the major criticism of structuralism? Answer: Structuralism relied too heavily on describing behaviour rather than applying the knowledge about the human mind in a practical manner. Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 407. If a clock is analogous to the human mind, describe how structuralists and functionalists would vary in their research approaches and interests? Answer: Structuralists would be primarily interested in the components of the clock whereas functionalists would be interested in how the clock performs in a variety of situations. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology 408. A famous artistic style known as pointillism uses small, coloured points of paint to create an image. When humans look at such a painting, they see a distinct image rather than a bunch of points. Why? Answer: According to Gestalt principles, humans are predisposed to combine information into a cohesive whole rather than focusing on its individual parts. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Name important early psychologists and describe their major theories and research methods. Section Reference: The Early Days of Psychology

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409. According to Freud, how do childhood experiences contribute to later psychological functioning? Answer: Developmental milestones must be achieved successfully for a child to reach emotional adjustment. This occurs such that a child learns from effective and ineffective interactions between conscious and unconscious forces. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 410. Provide an example that illustrates how conditioning can occur in animals. Answer: Example must provide a link between a stimulus and a response. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 411. Distinguish between positive reinforcement and punishment. Answer: Positive reinforcement increases the likelihood of a desired outcome whereas punishment decreases the likelihood of an undesirable outcome. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 412. Provide an example of how a child might learn from social observation. Answer: Children model the behaviours they observe in others. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 413. Define information processing and describe how this idea relates to cognitive psychology.

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Answer: Cognitive psychology is the study of information processing defined as the means by which information is stored and operates internally in the human mind. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 414. Define cultural universality and describe why evolutionary psychologists seek these behaviours. Answer: Cultural universality refers to behaviours and practices that occur across all cultures. Evolutionary psychologists believe that such knowledge will inform them about the impact of biological factors on our development. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major principles of the psychoanalytical, behaviourist, humanistic, cognitive, and neuroscience approaches to psychology. Section Reference: Twentieth-Century Approaches 415. Make a distinction between academic and applied psychologists. Answer: Academic psychologists often work at colleges and universities where they divide their time between teaching and conducting research, whereas applied psychologists use their expertise to guide decisions and work outside of academic settings. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 416. Make a distinction between clinical psychologists and psychiatrists. Answer: Psychiatrists have less training in psychological research and testing, but they have more medical knowledge and can prescribe medications. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 417. How do counselling psychologists differ from psychiatric social workers?

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Answer: Psychiatric social workers provide aid to families through social service systems available in the community. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 418. Explain what is meant by the statement, “psychology is contextual”? Answer: Advances in technology and changes in society force us to examine behaviour from new perspectives that broaden our awareness. Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 419. How is cognitive psychology different from cognitive neuroscience? Answer: While both areas of research investigate mental processes, cognitive neuroscience attempts to link processes to specific brain activities, while cognitive psychology investigates the internal mental processes of thought. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today 420. Describe the challenge that psychology faces in achieving a balance between popular trends, societal influences, and scientific objectivity. Answer: Psychology, like all sciences, may be influenced by fads and fashions, but the scientific method will continue to be how we seek knowledge. Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe the three major branches of psychology and summarize key trends in psychology. Section Reference: Psychology Today

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The data contained in these files are protected by copyright. This manual is furnished under licence and may be used only in accordance with the terms of such licence. The material provided herein may not be downloaded, reproduced, stored in a retrieval system, modified, made available on a network, used to create derivative works, or transmitted in any form or by any means, electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording, scanning, or otherwise without the prior written permission of John Wiley & Sons Canada, Ltd.

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CHAPTER 2 PSYCHOLOGY AS A SCIENCE CHAPTER LEARNING OBJECTIVES 1. List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. • Science is an approach to knowing the world built on the core principles that (1) the universe operates according to certain natural laws, and (2) these laws are discoverable and testable. • Science is founded upon the scientific method, a process that moves from making controlled, direct observations to generating progressively broader conclusions and tests and attempting to disprove hypotheses. 2. Compare and contrast psychology with other natural sciences, such as biology, chemistry, and physics, and with pseudosciences, such as astrology. • Psychology shares with every science the primary goals of describing, explaining, predicting, and controlling the objects of study. The goals of psychology differ from those of other sciences because the search for elements of mental processes and behaviour is complicated by constantly shifting human factors. • Psychology also shares more similarity with the fields of religion and philosophy than many sciences do because psychological findings are more often associated with values, morality, and personal preference. • Psychology is different from pseudopsychology. Although the latter also attempts to answer fundamental questions about human nature and behaviour, it has no basis in the scientific method. 3. List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. • Psychological research is rooted in first generating a hypothesis, or prediction, about the relationship between two or more variables based on observations. • Psychologists conduct research with a sample, a small group meant to represent the larger population of interest. The best means of selecting a sample is random selection, a procedure in which everyone in the population has an equal chance of being selected to be in the sample. • Descriptive research methods include case studies, naturalistic observations, and surveys. • Case studies are in-depth observations of a single individual. • Naturalistic observation involves observing people in settings outside of laboratories where their behaviour occurs naturally. • Surveys may be conducted in interviews or with questionnaires. • Only experiments allow researchers to draw conclusions about cause-and-effect relationships. • All research methods have advantages for particular uses, and all are subject to various drawbacks. Researchers must plan carefully to avoid subject bias, researcher bias, and demand characteristics.

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4. Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. • Correlations allow us to describe and measure relationships between two or more variables. A correlation coefficient tells the direction and size of a correlation. • Researchers use the mean and standard deviation to describe and summarize their results. • Researchers use p values to determine the statistical significance of results. Effect size tells how strong the relationship is between variables. • Replication of experiments and repeated study of the same predictions using different methods help hypotheses become theories. 5. Describe what ethical steps psychologists take to protect the rights of human research participants. • Today, oversight boards called research ethics boards (REBs) help to protect human rights. • Psychological researchers must obtain informed consent from human participants, protect them from harm and discomfort, protect their confidentiality, and completely debrief them at the end of their participation. • The use of animal participants in research has also raised ethical concerns. An oversight council called the Canadian Council on Animal Care (CCAC) works to protect animals’ needs and comfort in experiments.

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TRUE-FALSE STATEMENTS 1. Psychology, like biology and physics and chemistry, relies on the scientific method. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 2. If individuals carefully observe the events in the world around them, they are often able to discover the laws that govern those events. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 3. “Smoky is a cat. All cats are mammals. Therefore, Smoky is a mammal.” This line of argument is an example of inductive reasoning. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 4. “I predict that females will demonstrate 35% more empathic acts after reading a sad story than will males.” This statement is an example of a theory. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science?

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5. Psychology differs from other sciences in that not all psychological phenomenon can be directly observed. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Compare and contrast psychology with other natural sciences, such as biology, chemistry, and physics, and with pseudosciences, such as astrology. Section Reference: Is Psychology a Science? 6. The four goals of society are controlling, predicting, explaining, and monitoring Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Compare and contrast psychology with other natural sciences, such as biology, chemistry, and physics, and with pseudosciences, such as astrology. Section Reference: Is Psychology a Science? 7. More time spent outdoors is associated with greater mental health. In this instance time spent outdoors is the dependent variable. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 8. Researchers can only generalize their findings if they have studied every individual in the population of interest. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 9. Descriptive research methods allow psychologists to determine the causal relationship between variables. Answer: False

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, FOURTH Canadian Edition

Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 10. Researcher bias is NOT an issue when naturalistic observation is used. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 11. Dr., Yee researches the treatment outcomes experienced by her patients. She focuses on one patient at a time in her research. This type of research is called a case study. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 12. People in the control group of an experiment are NOT exposed to the independent variable. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 13. To maintain the validity of the study, researchers must actively avoid exposure to sources of biases that may influence their data collection. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods.

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Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 14. Without statistical analyses, researchers would not know if their original hypotheses were valid. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 15. The closer in value a correlation coefficient is to zero, the stronger the relationship. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 16. Experimental research must be conducted if researchers intend to claim cause and effect. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 17. A mean is a statistical measure of how much scores vary within a group. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results?

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, FOURTH Canadian Edition

18. The term “effect size” refers to a way to discuss the extent to which groups differ. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 19. During the process of informed consent researchers explain the risks of the experiment to the participant. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what ethical steps psychologists take to protect the rights of human research participants. Section Reference: What Ethical Research Guidelines Do Psychologists Follow? 20. One reason an ethics board would not ethically approve aa research proposal is that that might believe that the risks to participants outweigh any benefits. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Conceptual Learning Objective: Describe what ethical steps psychologists take to protect the rights of human research participants. Section Reference: What Ethical Research Guidelines Do Psychologists Follow?

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MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 21. Prior to the nineteenth century, which field contributed most to the rise of psychology? a) philosophy b) chemistry c) biology d) physics Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Compare and contrast psychology with other natural sciences, such as biology, chemistry, and physics, and with pseudosciences, such as astrology. Section Reference: Is Psychology a Science? 22. Which approach to psychology advocated focus on observable behaviours only? a) hypothetico-deductive b) inductive reasoning c) pseudopsychology d) behaviourism Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Compare and contrast psychology with other natural sciences, such as biology, chemistry, and physics, and with pseudosciences, such as astrology. Section Reference: Is Psychology a Science? 23. Which of the following is a core belief of psychology and all sciences? a) The universe provides clues to what we can learn about. b) The laws of nature are mysterious and untestable. c) The universe operates according to certain natural laws. d) Reliance on natural observation is a necessary first step. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 24. “Psychology is not a science,” Santiago argues. Which of the following is the BEST argument opposing this claim?

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, FOURTH Canadian Edition

a) Psychology is a science because it uses sophisticated technology in its research. b) Psychology is a science because some of its early contributors were physiologists. c) Psychology is a science because of the methods it uses. d) Psychology is a science because it studies the brain and the rest of the nervous system. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 25. Daphne is writing a paper about the core beliefs of science. Which of the following would NOT be included in her paper? a) a reliance on the scientific method b) the idea that some events in nature are untestable c) the belief that events in nature follow certain laws d) the assumption that natural laws are testable Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 26. Which of the following are the two core beliefs about the world? a) The universe operates according to certain natural laws. These laws are typically not testable. b) The universe operates according to the laws of physics. These laws are seldom discovered. c) The universe operates according to certain natural laws. These laws are discoverable and testable. d) The universe operates according to the laws of physics. These laws are discoverable and testable. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 27. Which of the following represent essential beliefs shared between psychology and all other physical sciences? a) the universe operates according to certain natural laws that are discoverable and testable.

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b) there is reliance on formalized ethical codes. c) consensual paradigms and established methods are used d) adherence to social norms and expectations Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 28. Which of the following adjectives would a scientist use most readily in describing the universe? a) mysterious b) lawful c) simple d) chaotic Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 29. What is the purpose of the scientific method? a) to collect information in a way that minimizes bias and yields dependable results b) to develop new theory c) to promote positive change in human behaviour d) to establish goals for scientific discovery Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 30. Which of the following statements is an example of a theory? a) Behaviour is the product of the interaction of conscious and subconscious processes. b) What happens in Vegas stays in Vegas. c) The year 2025 will be an amazing year for marine scientists. d) There is an inverse relationship between sexting behaviours and sexual promiscuity among teens.

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, FOURTH Canadian Edition

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 31. Your text states that, “By carefully observing what happens … we can figure out the laws governing those events. In turn, we can use these laws to make predictions about what might happen, and we can then experiment to see whether those predictions come true.” Which of these sequences reflects the order in which the goals of psychology are mentioned in this passage? a) explanation – description – prediction b) explanation – prediction – description c) description – prediction – explanation d) description – prediction – control Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 32. Based on the theory that language is only processed in the left hemisphere, Dr. Scalpetti has participants listen to words while undergoing a brain scan. He finds that when participants are listening to the words there is activity in both hemispheres of the brain. Which of the following would be Dr. Scalpetti’s next step? a) He must repeat the study to see if his finding is accurate. b) He must re-analyze his data to see if he made an error. c) He must reconsider the theory about language only be processed in the left hemisphere of the brain. d) He must accept that the theory has disproven his hypothesis. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 33. Julia, a biology researcher, is trying to isolate a gene that may be responsible for autism. David, a psychology researcher, is investigating the influence of various social factors on outcomes for children with autism. These examples emphasize the difference between psychology and physical sciences in their goal of

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a) prediction. b) description. c) explaining. d) controlling. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Compare and contrast psychology with other natural sciences, such as biology, chemistry, and physics, and with pseudosciences, such as astrology. Section Reference: Is Psychology a Science? 34. Dr. Arceneaux is a meteorologist. Dr. Bianchini is a psychologist. With which of the following statements would they most likely agree? a) Like the weather, human behaviour is inherently unpredictable. b) The weather is predictable. Human behaviour is not. c) While the weather is unpredictable, human behaviour is predictable. d) Both the weather and human behaviour are ultimately predictable. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 35. Most of Noemi’s friends who have been married are now divorced. Noemi never wants to get married because she knows that most marriages end in divorce. Noemi’s thinking on this matter is an example of a) empirical reasoning. b) deductive reasoning. c) inductive reasoning. d) logical reasoning. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 36. Mateo has decided based on reasoning that proceeded from broad basic principles to specific situations. What type of reasoning has Mateo used? a) inductive b) deductive

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, FOURTH Canadian Edition

c) anecdotal d) hypthetico-deductive Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 37. If someone makes a decision based on reasoning that applies knowledge from broad basic principles to specific situations, they are using ________ reasoning. a) inductive b) hypothetico-deductive c) deductive d) hypothetical Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 38. Alison believes that eating chicken on a Friday will lead to a death in the family by Monday as this happened once in her life. Alison had chicken on Friday and her grandmother died on Monday. As such, when she is at a dinner party and the choice is a hamburger or a chicken burger, she sticks with the hamburger. What type of reasoning is Alison using? a) deductive b) inductive c) transductive d) it is impossible to determine from the information given Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 39. Lalit’s sister did not run quickly enough when the two of them were running to catch the bus as it was rounding the corner. Lalit has now declared that “no girls can run fast.” What type of reasoning is Lalit using? a) deductive b) inductive

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c) transductive d) it is impossible to determine from the information given Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 40. Based on past experience, Astrid believes that drinking red wine gives her migraines. As such, when she is at a dinner party and the only beverages available are red wine and water, she sticks with water. What type of reasoning is Astrid using? a) deductive b) inductive c) hypothetico-deductive d) It is impossible to determine from the information given. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 41. After her best friend’s two-year old does not adjust well to day care, Farrah decides she will never put her children in day care because most children do not adjust well. Farrah is engaging in _____________ reasoning based on a(n) ______________. a) inductive; anecdote b) inductive; bias c) deductive; bias d) hypothetico-deductive; anecdote Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 42. Hunter pulled an all-nighter to study before his last exam and he failed it. With the exam before that, he got a good sleep and he passed. Based on this, Hunter predicts that he will do better on his next exam if he gets a good sleep the night before. What type of reasoning is Hunter using? a) deductive

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, FOURTH Canadian Edition

b) inductive c) hypothetico-deductive d) It is impossible to determine from the information given. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 43. Nana told eleven year old Camila to eat a fruit snack. When she looked in the refrigerator, she found celery, carrots, and a Granny Smith apple. Camila knew that celery and carrots were not fruit. She also knew that even though this apple was green all apples are fruit, and she knew that a Granny Smith is an apple. Therefore, she selected the Granny Smith as her snack. What type of reasoning has Camila used in selecting her snack? a) inductive b) deductive c) anecdotal d) hypthetico-deductive Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 44. Nine-year-old Omar brought a troll doll with him to his last test, and he got 100% on the test. He forgot the troll doll the exam before that and only got 55% on that test. Based on this, Omar predicts that he will do better on his next exam if he brings the troll doll with him. What type of reasoning is Omar using? a) deductive b) inductive c) hypothetico-deductive d) It is impossible to determine from the information given. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 45. Jeannie heard about several car accidents that occurred while people were talking on their

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cell phones while driving. Harriette works for an insurance company and read the accident reports on distracted driving from the Canadian Insurance Association. Both Jeannie and Harriette have decided that talking on a cell phone while driving causes accidents. In making their decision, Jeannie has used _____________ reasoning and Harriette has used ____________ reasoning. a) deductive; deductive b) deductive; inductive c) inductive; deductive d) inductive; inductive Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 46. Which of the following is the correct sequence of events for inductive reasoning? a) observation/experiment > predictions > theory b) theory > predictions > observation/experiment c) hypothesis > observation/experiment > theory d) hypothesis > theory > predictions Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 47. Which of the following is the correct sequence of events for deductive reasoning? a) observation/experiment > predictions > theory b) theory > predictions > observation/experiment c) hypothesis > observation/experiment > theory d) hypothesis > theory > predictions Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 48. Which option accurately and thoroughly summarizes the scientific method? a) A topic is identified; a literature review is conducted; a testable hypothesis is developed; a

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, FOURTH Canadian Edition

research design is selected; data are collected and analyzed; the study is published; theory is developed, and the cycle continues. b) A hypothesis is developed; data are collected; a design is selected; a literature review is conducted; the study is published, and the cycle continues. c) A peer-review is conducted; a testable hypothesis is determined; data are collected; statistics are analyzed; the study is published, and the cycle continues. d) A literature review is conducted; a topic is identified; a testable hypothesis is developed; data are collected; statistics are analyzed; the study is published; the article is peer-reviewed, and the cycle continues. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 49. Reasoning that begins with specific facts and proceeds to general facts is called a) deductive reasoning. b) inductive reasoning. c) hypothetico-deductive. d) hypothetico-inductive. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 50. Which the following is correctly matched with its definition? a) inductive – able to be tested in objective ways b) deductive – reasoning that proceeds from broad basic principles that is applied to specific situations c) hypothetico-deductive – reasoning that proceeds from specific situations to broader, more general truths d) empirical – reasoning process that begins with an educated guess Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science?

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51. Which the following correctly identifies the chronological order of reasoning used in psychology? a) inductive – deductive – hypothetico-deductive b) deductive – inductive – hypothetico-inductive c) hypothetico-deductive – deductive-inductive d) deductive – inductive – hypothetico-deductive Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 52. Which statement below is MOST consistent with the hypothetico-deductive approach to reasoning? a) Hypotheses are deduced from theories. b) Hypotheses are induced from theories. c) Theories are deduced from hypotheses. d) Theories are induced from observations. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 53. Hypothetico-deductive reasoning can best be described as a) more accurate than deductive and inductive reasoning. b) less accurate than deductive and inductive reasoning. c) equally as accurate as deductive and inductive reasoning. d) a blend of deductive and inductive reasoning. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 54. You are at the annual conference of the Association for Psychological Science, listening to researcher’s present papers on social development in later adulthood. In her presentation, Dr. Dryer notes, “Social disengagement theory predicts that older adults will attend social events less often than will middle-aged adults.” The next presenter, Dr. Ebrahimi, reports that in the

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, FOURTH Canadian Edition

diary’s participants kept as part of his study, older adults reported attending just as many parties, dinners, or other informal gatherings as did middle-aged adults, casting doubt on social disengagement theory. Dr. Dryer’s statement reflects the ___ component of hypotheticodeductive reasoning, whereas Dr. Ebrahimi’s illustrates ___. a) inductive; the inductive component also b) inductive; the deductive component c) deductive; the inductive component d) deductive; the deductive component also Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 55. Soren is searching for natural laws regarding the behaviour of nail biting. As a psychologist, how would Soren begin his search using inductive reasoning? a) He would think of all the examples of nail biting he has observed. b) He would develop a theory about nail biting. c) He would make objectively, testable observations of nail biting. d) He would make identify a hypothesis and then design small, controlled observations to support or invalidate that hypothesis. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 56. Dr. Edwards is using the scientific method to investigate the effects of sugar consumption on the attention span of 8-year old children. He predicts that children who drink a pop prior to participating in a boring task will give up sooner than children who drink a glass of milk before doing the boring task. What is the next thing that Dr. Edwards should do? a) Observe children in their daily lives after they consume sugary and non-sugary foods. b) Develop a hypothesis about what consuming sugar will do to children. c) Test his hypothesis in a controlled environment. d) Come up with a theory about the effects of sugar on attention. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science?

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57. Kacia is conducting research examining the influence of watching videos on infant language development. She predicts that the more hours an infant spends watching videos, the later they will develop language. Kacia’s prediction is an example of a) deductive reasoning. b) inductive reasoning. c) hypothetico-deductive reasoning. d) a hypothesis. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 58. Which of the following statements is a testable hypothesis? a) Children who read for twenty minutes per day are more likely than children who don’t read to score high on standardized tests. b) Some, but not all, kitchen stoves are designed with the user in mind. c) Eating only plants is better than eating both meat and plants. d) Although most criminals are psychopaths and most psychopaths are criminals, perpetrators of intimate partner violence are psychologically normal. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 59. The fact that well designed research hypotheses can be disproven means that they are ________ statements. a) falsifiable b) absolute c) predictable d) educated Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science?

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, FOURTH Canadian Edition

60. The main difference between deductive and inductive reasoning is that deductive reasoning ___, whereas inductive reasoning ___. a) goes from general to specific; goes from specific to general b) is based on observations; is based on logic c) begins with an observation; ends with an observation d) involves theories; involves hypotheses Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 61. The problem with concluding that unidentifiable flying objects (UFOs) are indicative of life on other planets is that the suggestion cannot be tested in objective ways. In other words, it could be said that the question of the existence of life on other planets is not _____________. a) inductive b) deductive c) hypothetical d) empirical Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 62. Psychologists conduct studies using objectively testable observations. Therefore, it can be said that psychological research is a) hypothetical. b) provable. c) infallible. d) empirical. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 63. What is the difference between inductive and deductive reasoning?

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a) Inductive reasoning is based on logic; deductive reasoning is based on observations. b) Inductive reasoning goes from specific to general; deductive reasoning goes from general to specific. c) Inductive reasoning ends with an observation; deductive reasoning begins with an observation. d) Inductive reasoning involves hypotheses; deductive reasoning involves theories. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 64. If you were asked to compare deductive reasoning to inductive reasoning, which of the following would be most accurate? a) Both are equally subject to personal biases and beliefs. b) Deductive reasoning is often wrong whereas, inductive reasoning is empirical and, therefore, always accurate. c) They are very similar concepts but were used in different time periods. d) They proceed in opposite directions. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 65. Why does contemporary psychology no longer rely solely on inductive reasoning? a) Inductive reasoning is too susceptible to the biases of the individual psychologist. b) Inductive reasoning is not based on objective observation. c) There are so many factors influencing human behaviour that pure induction could never identify them all. d) Inductive reasoning never proved a successful way of gaining knowledge. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 66. Why might one argue that inductive reasoning is less susceptible to bias than deductive reasoning?

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, FOURTH Canadian Edition

a) Inductive reasoning begins with a general theory rather than specific observations. b) In inductive reasoning, the observations that would refute the theory are specified in advance. c) Inductive reasoning begins with objective observations rather than a theory in the reasoner’s mind. d) Inductive reasoning is essentially the opposite of the sort of deductive reasoning that philosophers used. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 67. Biases based on personal beliefs or conventional wisdom can be avoided by a) using hypothetical reasoning. b) using deductive reasoning. c) using inductive reasoning. d) examining the available anecdotal evidence. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 68. For which of the following reasons did Sir Francis Bacon question the deductive reasoning approach? a) He believed science should be based only on observable events. b) He believed that deductive reasoning was subject to the influence of personal beliefs and biases. c) He believed that deductive reasoning was too focused on small principles. d) He believed that reasoning should be based on broad basic principles and applied to specific situations. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 69. What is a theory? a) an idea about the laws that govern phenomena

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b) a testable statement about the way variables are related c) a reasoning process that proceeds from specific to general d) a belief based on a researcher’s objective sense of reality Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 70. Scientific theories can lead to the a) generation of additional hypotheses. b) completion of the research in a specific area. c) disproval of a hypothesis. d) confirmation of a researcher's ideas. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 71. Josef and Andre were arguing. Josef maintained that a theory and a hypothesis were the same thing. Andre correctly argued that there was a difference between a theory and a hypothesis. What would Josef have argued? a) A theory is a specific statement; a hypothesis is a general statement. b) A theory is a prediction; a hypothesis is an observation. c) A theory is the result of many observations; a hypothesis is a specific prediction. d) A theory is falsifiable; a hypothesis is not. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 72. Ali is interested in conducting a research study about the beer drinking behaviour of people who eat chicken wings. He predicts that those people who eat chicken wings drink more beer than those who do not eat chicken wings. Using the scientific approach, what should Ali’s next step be in his research study? a) make observations b) develop a hypothesis

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, FOURTH Canadian Edition

c) test the hypothesis d) adjust the theory Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 73. If a hypothesis is disproved, all the following could happen EXCEPT a) the hypothesis would be thrown out. b) the hypothesis would be modified. c) the theory would be reconsidered. d) the research topic would be abandoned. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 74. One difference between a hypothesis and a theory is that a hypothesis is ___, whereas a theory is ___. a) a specific prediction; the result of many observations b) a general statement; a specific statement c) an observation; a prediction d) not falsifiable; falsifiable Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 75. _________ are specific statements that are objectively falsifiable and may therefore be disproved. In this case, the _______ must be modified in order to create new _______. a) Theories; theory; hypotheses b) Theories; hypothesis; theories c) Hypotheses; theory; hypotheses d) Hypotheses; hypotheses, theories Answer: c

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 76. What British philosopher argued against the use of deductive reasoning because he believed it was too susceptible to thinkers’ biases? a) Skinner b) Popper c) Kant d) Bacon Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 77. Why did the Renaissance philosopher Francis Bacon question the validity of deductive reasoning? Which type of reasoning did he suggest as an alternative? a) Bacon believed that deductive reasoning was prone to biases. He suggested hypotheticodeductive reasoning as an alternative. b) Bacon believed that deductive reasoning was prone to biases. He suggested inductive reasoning as an alternative. c) Bacon believed that deductive reasoning often failed to result in general theories. He suggested hypothetico-deductive reasoning as an alternative. d) Bacon believed that deductive reasoning often failed to result in general theories. He suggested inductive reasoning as an alternative. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 78. Whereas ____________reasoning proceeds from specific to general, ___________reasoning proceeds from general to specific. a) inductive; deductive b) deductive; inductive c) inductive; hypothetico-deductive d) hypothetico-deductive; inductive

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, FOURTH Canadian Edition

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 79. Dr. Emmerson is using the scientific method to investigate the effects of social media on empathy. He predicts that people who spend more time on social media will score lower on a test of empathy than people who spend less time on social media. What is the next thing that Dr. Emmerson should do? a) Observe people in their daily lives after they go on social media. b) Develop a hypothesis about what social media time will do to empathy. c) Test his hypothesis in a controlled environment. d) Come up with a theory about the effects of social media on empathy. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 80. The idea that depression involves many neurotransmitters in the brain has been supported by previous research studies. Therefore, the idea that specific neurotransmitters are involved in depression could be viewed as a ______________. a) hypothesis b) assumption c) empirical observation d) theory Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 81. The frustration-aggression hypothesis predicts that aggressive behaviour follows the failure to attain a goal. The hypothesis is supported when an individual hits and curses at a vending machine that fails to deliver a cold drink after money has been inserted. This scenario illustrates the ___ reasoning process. a) reductive b) deductive c) inductive

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d) hypothetico-deductive Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 82. Today, when psychologists conduct research, they examine the findings of other researchers first to look at broader topics, then narrow it down to design their own studies based on specific predictions. This is an example of a) deductive reasoning. b) inductive reasoning. c) hypothetico-deductive reasoning. d) empirical reasoning. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 83. Which of the following was suggested by philosopher Karl Popper? a) A hypothesis must be based on proven theory. b) A theory must establish in advance what observations would prove it to be false. c) A hypothesis must be proven using the scientific method. d) Researchers must develop theories based on deductive reasoning as it is less prone to personal bias. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 84. Roger Sperry examined which processes occur in each brain hemisphere. Since that time, researchers have conducted many different experiments that have helped us understand that, in righthanded persons, the left hemisphere typically processes language while the right hemisphere processes non-verbal material such as emotions. This is an example of a) empirical reasoning. b) deductive reasoning. c) inductive reasoning.

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, FOURTH Canadian Edition

d) hypothetico-deductive reasoning. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 85. Mac recently conducted a survey at his own university and discovered that 60% of the students are receiving student aid. From his research he concludes that 60% of all university students in Canada receive student aid. Mac has reached his conclusion based on ________________ reasoning. a) deductive b) inductive c) hypothetico-deductive d) hypothetico-inductive Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 86. A statement of the objective relationship between two variables is termed a(n) ___. a) axiom b) law c) theory d) hypothesis Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 87. What is a hypothesis? a) an idea about the laws that govern phenomena b) a testable statement about the way variables are related c) a reasoning process that proceeds from specific to general d) a belief based on a researcher’s objective sense of reality Answer: b

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 88. For a hypothesis to be considered acceptable, it must a) be confirmed. b) be falsifiable. c) lead to a new or revised theory. d) disprove an existing theory. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 89. Dr. Farnum is using the scientific method to investigate how the content of dreams affects memory for personal events. Specifically, she predicts that any dream about a personal event will increase the individual’s memory for that event. What is the biggest problem that Dr. Farnum overlooking with her research? a) Her hypothesis is not falsifiable. b) Her prediction is biased. c) She is not following the steps of the scientific method. d) She is studying a topic that is out-dated. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 90. Dr. Langdon has been conducting research in one area for the past number of years. All his studies seem to support the same general idea. Based on his research, what might be Dr. Langdon’s next step in the scientific approach? a) He could develop a hypothesis based on the findings of his research. b) He could further test his theory based on the findings of his research. c) He could develop a theory based on the findings of his research. d) He could conclude he has proven his hypotheses. Answer: b

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, FOURTH Canadian Edition

Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 91. Ms. Juniper, an elementary school teacher, believes that children who play outdoors do better academically. She predicts that those children who play outside for at least half an hour each day will make better grades than those who stay inside all day. Which of the following terms best describes her predictions? a) hypothesis b) theory c) inductive reasoning d) deductive reasoning Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 92. Observations of behaviours or any other events must be objectively testable. Which of the following does NOT meet this criterion? a) dollars spent in a department store b) number of students in a school c) frequency of reported car accidents d) number of caring people in the world Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 93. Observations of behaviours or any other events must be objectively testable. Which of the following meets this criterion? a) how much a mother loves her child b) how desirable you find another person c) how many plane departures there are from the local airport d) how people feel about the view from the Eifel Tower Answer: c Difficulty: Medium

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Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 94. Dr. Crandall wants to use the scientific method to test whether caffeine improves cardiovascular endurance in male athletes. What is the first thing that he should do? a) Observe male athletes doing cardiovascular workouts after having consumed caffeine or not. b) Develop hypotheses about caffeine consumption and cardiovascular endurance. c) Randomly give half of the male athlete’s caffeine and the other half no caffeine and then test their cardiovascular endurance. d) Build a theory about caffeine’s effect on the cardiovascular system. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 95. Dr. Tse wants to use the scientific method to test whether vitamin C consumption improves resistance to stress. What is the first thing that she should do? a) Observe people in stressful situations who have and who have not consumed vitamin C. b) Develop hypotheses about vitamin C consumption and resistance to stress. c) Randomly give half of the participants vitamin C and the other half a placebo and then test their resistance to stress. d) Build a theory about vitamin C’s effect on the stress response. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 96. Recall your text’s discussion of the behaviourist perspective in Chapter 1. According to your text, “Skinner argued [that] empirical – observable – information should be gathered first, and then theories … could be formulated from that.” Skinner is endorsing ___ reasoning, promoted earlier by ___. a) inductive; Bacon b) inductive; Descartes c) deductive; Bacon d) deductive; Descartes Answer: a

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, FOURTH Canadian Edition

Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 97. Recall your text’s discussion of the theoretical paradigm of structuralism in Chapter 1. According to your text, Titchener’s “goal was to uncover the structure, or basic elements, of the conscious mind …” and to then “…determine how these elements were related.” Titchener is endorsing ___ reasoning, promoted earlier by ___. a) inductive; Bacon b) inductive; Descartes c) deductive; Bacon d) deductive; Descartes Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 98. lan leaves for university at 7:00 a.m. for his 8:30 a.m. class and has never been late. Therefore, lan believes that he will never be late for his class if he leaves at 7:00 a.m. Which type of reasoning has lan used to arrive at this assumption? a) inductive b) deductive c) hypothetico-deductive d) hypothetico-inductive Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 99. Which of the following alternatives CORRECTLY identifies the order in which the goals of science are pursued using a given type of reasoning? a) deductive reasoning: observation – prediction – explanation b) hypothetico-deductive reasoning: prediction – observation – explanation c) hypothetico-deductive reasoning: observation – prediction – explanation d) inductive reasoning: explanation – prediction –observation Answer: b

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 100. Jonathon conducted a research study that examined the influence of family history on juvenile delinquency. Based on the findings of his study, he concludes that adolescents whose parents have a criminal record are more likely to become juvenile delinquents than those whose parents do not have a criminal record. Jonathon’s study a) has isolated family history as a crucial factor in juvenile delinquency. b) is flawed because family history cannot be directly observed. c) is flawed because it does not consider that family history might come together with other factors that may also contribute to juvenile delinquency. d) is valid because, like a physical science, it describes the contribution of one small factor on juvenile delinquency. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Compare and contrast psychology with other natural sciences, such as biology, chemistry, and physics, and with pseudosciences, such as astrology. Section Reference: Is Psychology a Science? 101. Henrick has decided to go to University X for his graduate degree. Originally, he chose it because his girlfriend goes to University X, but then they broke up. Since then, he has learned that the graduate programme at University X is amazing, and he is sticking with his decision for this reason alone, even if he will have to see his ex from time to time. In what way does this example show how psychology as a field differs from the physical sciences in the pursuit of scientific goals? a) Many factors affect behaviour, and these can change over time. b) Psychology must deal with issues associated with morality. c) Psychological research is often misrepresented. d) Many of the processes that form the basis of psychology cannot be directly observed. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Compare and contrast psychology with other natural sciences, such as biology, chemistry, and physics, and with pseudosciences, such as astrology. Section Reference: Is Psychology a Science? 102. In which century did psychology move from a field based on philosophy and religion to one based on science? a) the 17th century b) the 18th century

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c) the 19th century d) the 20th century Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Compare and contrast psychology with other natural sciences, such as biology, chemistry, and physics, and with pseudosciences, such as astrology. Section Reference: Is Psychology a Science? 103. Most likely, ___ was the driving force behind the shift in the focus of psychology from philosophy to being more scientific. a) advances in the field of biology and Darwin’s theory of evolution b) Darwin’s theory of evolution and eugenics c) eugenics and pseudopsychology d) pseudopsychology and the scientific method Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Compare and contrast psychology with other natural sciences, such as biology, chemistry, and physics, and with pseudosciences, such as astrology. Section Reference: Is Psychology a Science? 104. What was the impetus for the shift in the focus of psychology from a philosophy toward becoming a science? a) Darwin’s theory of evolution and advances in the field of biology b) advances in the field of biology and eugenics c) eugenics and pseudopsychology d) pseudopsychology and the scientific method Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Compare and contrast psychology with other natural sciences, such as biology, chemistry, and physics, and with pseudosciences, such as astrology. Section Reference: Is Psychology a Science? 105. Prior to the 19th century, the field of psychology was based mainly on philosophy. What field is responsible for shifting psychology toward a science? a) religion b) pseudopsychology c) biological science d) eugenics

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Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Compare and contrast psychology with other natural sciences, such as biology, chemistry, and physics, and with pseudosciences, such as astrology. Section Reference: Is Psychology a Science? 106. What problem do psychologists have in attempting to isolate fundamental elements of behaviour and mental processes? a) We do not have the technology required to isolate something as small as a neuron. b) Behaviour is determined by many factors that may change over time. c) We must rely on observable behaviour. d) Some research projects face ethical dilemmas. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Compare and contrast psychology with other natural sciences, such as biology, chemistry, and physics, and with pseudosciences, such as astrology. Section Reference: Is Psychology a Science? 107. In which of the following areas of study did Immanuel Kant believe psychology demonstrated their ability to be a “real” science? a) consciousness, sensations, and behaviours b) sensations, behaviours, and physiological responses c) physiological responses, behaviours, and consciousness d) behaviours, sensations, and emotions Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Compare and contrast psychology with other natural sciences, such as biology, chemistry, and physics, and with pseudosciences, such as astrology. Section Reference: Is Psychology a Science? 108. In what way does astrology exemplify a pseudoscience? a) It purports to help people with their lives. b) It adopts the terms and topics found in psychology. c) It makes grandiose claims regarding the influence of its key variables. d) Its methods resemble those typical of personality psychology. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, FOURTH Canadian Edition

Learning Objective: Compare and contrast psychology with other natural sciences, such as biology, chemistry, and physics, and with pseudosciences, such as astrology. Section Reference: Is Psychology a Science? 109. Which of the following represents the key concerning difference between psychology and pseudopsychology? a) Pseudopsychology argues that psychological principles can provide answers to all of life’s major questions whereas psychology does not. b) Psychology only publishes their theories in academic journals; pseudopsychology publishes theories in the general media. c) Pseudopsychology is very narrow in its focus, whereas psychology is broader. d) Pseudopsychology encourages people to seek guidance and drive meaning about how to live effectively from physicians, whereas psychology feels that people should only seek guidance from people trained in psychology. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Compare and contrast psychology with other natural sciences, such as biology, chemistry, and physics, and with pseudosciences, such as astrology. Section Reference: Is Psychology a Science? 110. Farzad is having a discussion with his roommates about whether psychology is a science. His roommates are calling psychology a ‘soft science’, and this is infuriating Farzad, who is adamant that psychology is a science like any other. What is Farzad likely to say to make his point? a) The focus of psychology is often not directly observable. b) Applying the research in psychology often has moral implications. c) Psychology uses the scientific method to gather information. d) Determining cause and effect is more difficult in psychology because multiple factors contribute to a behaviour. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Compare and contrast psychology with other natural sciences, such as biology, chemistry, and physics, and with pseudosciences, such as astrology. Section Reference: Is Psychology a Science? 111. The field that suggests that genetics should be applied to human breeding to produce desired offspring is called a) genetic counselling. b) in vitro fertilization. c) natural selection. d) eugenics.

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Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Compare and contrast psychology with other natural sciences, such as biology, chemistry, and physics, and with pseudosciences, such as astrology. Section Reference: Is Psychology a Science? 112. The field of psychology wrestles with questions regarding how to ethically apply the knowledge it discovers. What other field would have a similar struggle, according to your text? a) biology b) philosophy c) physical sciences d) eugenics Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Compare and contrast psychology with other natural sciences, such as biology, chemistry, and physics, and with pseudosciences, such as astrology. Section Reference: Is Psychology a Science? 113. Jake was teaching his sixth-grade class about a social movement that advocated improving humanity by encouraging reproduction by only people with desirable genetic traits and discouraging the reproduction of persons with undesirable traits. He told them this movement had followers such as Winston Churchill, Helen Keller, and Hitler. It was known as a) behavioural genetics. b) genetic selection. c) natural selection. d) eugenics. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Compare and contrast psychology with other natural sciences, such as biology, chemistry, and physics, and with pseudosciences, such as astrology. Section Reference: Is Psychology a Science? 114. Which of the following would best demonstrate the concept of eugenics? a) Tom wants to date Jody because he feels they would produce beautiful children together. b) Ivan carries the gene for the serious disorder known as hemophilia. He decides to have a vasectomy so that he does not pass the gene onto his offspring. c) Sahara was born with Down’s syndrome. When she was 14 years old, her parents had doctors perform a hysterectomy on her so she could not have children. d) Kaleb and Tricia consult a genetic counsellor to find out the probability of their baby having blue eyes.

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Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Compare and contrast psychology with other natural sciences, such as biology, chemistry, and physics, and with pseudosciences, such as astrology. Section Reference: Is Psychology a Science? 115. Involuntary sterilizations were performed in Alberta between 1927 and 1972 on persons who were deemed unfit to reproduce. This is an example of a) genetics. b) natural selection. c) eugenics. d) in vitro fertilization. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Compare and contrast psychology with other natural sciences, such as biology, chemistry, and physics, and with pseudosciences, such as astrology. Section Reference: Is Psychology a Science? 116. Although psychology is a science, it differs in several important ways from other physical sciences. Which of the attributes listed below differs between psychology and other physical sciences? 1 – the focus of the subject matter is not always directly observable 2 – it uses experimental methods 3 – how the findings are applied can have moral implications 4 – it attempts to isolate fundamental elements a) 1 & 4 b) 2 & 3 c) 1 & 3 d) 2 & 4 Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Compare and contrast psychology with other natural sciences, such as biology, chemistry, and physics, and with pseudosciences, such as astrology. Section Reference: Is Psychology a Science? 117. Dr. Leonard conducts research on the relationship between appetite and depression. He has found that persons who experience depression often report a decrease in appetite. Which key difference between psychology and the physical sciences does Dr. Leonard’s research reflect?

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a) Psychology attempts to isolate and describe the smallest elements whereas physical sciences look at multiple factors. b) Psychology examines how factors interact to influence the subject they are studying whereas physical science examines a single factor at a time. c) Psychology attempts to provide society with practical applications of research, whereas, physical sciences are more concerned with contributing knowledge to the discipline. d) Psychology often studies factors that can be either temporary or permanent. Physical sciences typically study factors that are permanent. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Compare and contrast psychology with other natural sciences, such as biology, chemistry, and physics, and with pseudosciences, such as astrology. Section Reference: Is Psychology a Science? 118. Ivy has decided to use a scientific approach to figure out how much her boyfriend loves her. She realizes that she cannot go based on her feelings alone because she is very likely to be biased, and she wants to know truthfully, once and for all, whether he really loves her or not. In what way does this example show how psychology as a field differs from the physical sciences in the pursuit of scientific goals? a) Behaviour can be influenced by many factors and these can change over time. b) Psychology must deal with issues associated with values and personal preferences. c) Psychological research is often misinterpreted and used to make broad claims. d) Many of the psychological processes that we want to study cannot be directly observed or measured. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Compare and contrast psychology with other natural sciences, such as biology, chemistry, and physics, and with pseudosciences, such as astrology. Section Reference: Is Psychology a Science? 119. Jonathon is examining the influence of socioeconomic status, parental supervision, and family history on adolescent substance abuse. The goal in Jonathon’s research would be to a) to pinpoint a single cause of juvenile delinquency. b) isolate how much influence each of these factors has on juvenile delinquency. c) examine how these factors might come together in different situations to influence juvenile delinquency. d) both b) and c) Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, FOURTH Canadian Edition

Learning Objective: Compare and contrast psychology with other natural sciences, such as biology, chemistry, and physics, and with pseudosciences, such as astrology. Section Reference: Is Psychology a Science? 120. Which of the following examples shows how psychology differs from other sciences in that applying psychological findings entails issues associated with values and morality? a) Jacob and Alex decide not to spank their children because they read that physical punishment increases aggression in children. b) Kyle makes sure to sleep before his final exam because he read that sleep helps with memory consolidation. c) Lucy is a Gemini and because of this she is prone to reacting in very different ways to the same situation. d) Dr. Mariner is isolating the variables that contribute to weight loss. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Compare and contrast psychology with other natural sciences, such as biology, chemistry, and physics, and with pseudosciences, such as astrology. Section Reference: Is Psychology a Science? 121. Which of the following suggested that psychology should be considered a “real” science in the study of sensations or physiological responses? a) Rene Descartes b) Karl Popper c) John Watson d) Immanuel Kant Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Compare and contrast psychology with other natural sciences, such as biology, chemistry, and physics, and with pseudosciences, such as astrology. Section Reference: Is Psychology a Science? 122. Which of the following examples shows how the field of psychology faces the problem of misrepresentation? a) Dr. Hunt read an article that stated that some therapeutic techniques are more effective than others. b) Dr. Gerbach is launching his new therapy that he claims can cure depression in anyone in less than 2 weeks. c) Dr. Irving believes that to provide a cure for any problem, we must understand the root cause of the problem. d) Dr. Alves took credit for the development of a new therapy, when in fact it was her graduate student who perfected the therapy and deserved the credit.

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Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Compare and contrast psychology with other natural sciences, such as biology, chemistry, and physics, and with pseudosciences, such as astrology. Section Reference: Is Psychology a Science? 123. Which of the following is least likely to be considered a pseudopsychologist? a) Zara, who provides life guidance based on astrological charts. b) Phillip, a human resource manager, who after conducting years of research on how to motivate employees, speaks to business owners. c) Tahlia, a spiritual advisor who provides guidance based on her religious beliefs. d) Reginald, a parapsychologist who studies seemingly unexplainable events. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Compare and contrast psychology with other natural sciences, such as biology, chemistry, and physics, and with pseudosciences, such as astrology. Section Reference: Is Psychology a Science? 124. Which of the following is one of the ways in which pseudopsychology differs from psychology? a) Psychology’s main goal is description and explanation; pseudopsychology’s main goal is prediction and control. b) Pseudopsychology is a small part of psychology that is based on Freud’s work. c) Psychology is based on the scientific method; pseudopsychology isn’t. d) Psychology focuses on the application of the knowledge gained from research; pseudopsychology focuses on classification and identification of mental disorders. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Compare and contrast psychology with other natural sciences, such as biology, chemistry, and physics, and with pseudosciences, such as astrology. Section Reference: Is Psychology a Science? 125. How do pseudopsychologists differ from psychologists? a) Psychologists are less likely to help people with their problems than are pseudopsychologists. b) As compared to pseudopsychologists, psychologists are less likely to make exaggerated claims. c) Pseudopsychologists are less likely to promote specific moral values than are psychologists. d) Pseudopsychologists address different topics than do psychologists.

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Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Compare and contrast psychology with other natural sciences, such as biology, chemistry, and physics, and with pseudosciences, such as astrology. Section Reference: Is Psychology a Science? 126. Livia’s cousin is complaining of problems with anxiety and depression, so Livia does some research for some solutions. She finds one treatment that is proven effective in treating depression, anxiety, schizophrenia, obsessive-compulsive disorder, PTSD, and bipolar disorder. Not only that, but everyone given this treatment was cured within 2 weeks. Do you think Livia should recommend the treatment for her cousin? a) yes, since it is proven effective b) yes, since everyone who was treated was cured c) no, since it targets too many disorders and Sally’s cousin only has a subset of these disorders d) no, since it sounds like pseudopsychology Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Compare and contrast psychology with other natural sciences, such as biology, chemistry, and physics, and with pseudosciences, such as astrology. Section Reference: Is Psychology a Science? 127. Dr. Cooray studied astrophysics as a graduate student. Since graduation, his charming personality and quick wit have earned him a call-in radio show giving advice to people who are experiencing relationship difficulties. Although his advice is not based on any empirical research, his listeners find him to be sensitive as well as entertaining and continue to call in. Dr. Cooray exemplifies the field known as a) Psychology b) Pseudopsychology c) Life coaching d) Pseudocounselling Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Compare and contrast psychology with other natural sciences, such as biology, chemistry, and physics, and with pseudosciences, such as astrology. Section Reference: Is Psychology a Science? 128. In that the field of psychology has a scientific foundation, any researcher investigating a psychological phenomenon will be faced with the additional burden of a) extrapolating animal findings to human behaviour.

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b) objectively defining mental functioning. c) applying the scientific method to psychological questions. d) competing with pseudopsychologists for research grants. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Compare and contrast psychology with other natural sciences, such as biology, chemistry, and physics, and with pseudosciences, such as astrology. Section Reference: Is Psychology a Science? 129. What will always be a challenging task for psychologists doing research? a) finding willing participants b) objectively defining mental functioning c) applying the scientific method to psychological questions d) competing with pseudopsychologists for research grants Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Compare and contrast psychology with other natural sciences, such as biology, chemistry, and physics, and with pseudosciences, such as astrology. Section Reference: Is Psychology a Science? 130. “The process of observation is a challenging one for psychology, given its subject matter,” offers Federico. “That’s why psychology should investigate only phenomena which are clearly observable,” Grady responds. “But psychologists can use observable behaviour to make reliable statements about internal processes that can’t be seen,” counters Holly. “Not to mention, technology continues to expand the range of psychological processes we can actually observe,” Indira notes. Which of these discussants is paired with the psychological perspective they most clearly reflect? a) Holly – psychodynamic perspective b) Federico – behaviourist perspective c) Indira – neuroscience perspective d) Grady – cognitive perspective Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Compare and contrast psychology with other natural sciences, such as biology, chemistry, and physics, and with pseudosciences, such as astrology. Section Reference: Is Psychology a Science? 131. Which of the following approaches to psychology would most closely align with Immanuel Kant’s idea about psychology being a “real” science?

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a) Functionalism b) Structuralism c) Humanism d) Behaviourism Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Compare and contrast psychology with other natural sciences, such as biology, chemistry, and physics, and with pseudosciences, such as astrology. Section Reference: Is Psychology a Science? 132. Recall the levels of analysis described in Chapter 1 of your text. If you were sympathetic to the notion that psychology should limit itself to clearly observable phenomena, on which level of analysis might you concentrate? a) the brain level b) the individual level c) the group level d) the social level Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective: Compare and contrast psychology with other natural sciences, such as biology, chemistry, and physics, and with pseudosciences, such as astrology. Section Reference: Is Psychology a Science? 133. Recall the levels of analysis described in Chapter 1 of your text. If you were sympathetic to the notion that psychology should deal with issues related to values, morality, and personal preference, on which level of analysis might you concentrate? a) the brain level b) the individual level c) the group level d) both the individual and group level Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective: Compare and contrast psychology with other natural sciences, such as biology, chemistry, and physics, and with pseudosciences, such as astrology. Section Reference: Is Psychology a Science 134. You are writing a history of psychology, focusing on the major themes and perspectives that have dominated the field over the past 150 years. Which phrase below offers the most fitting completion to the partial title, The Story of Psychology: ___?

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a) Observing the Unobservable b) Predicting the Unpredictable c) Explaining the Inexplicable d) Controlling the Uncontrollable Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Compare and contrast psychology with other natural sciences, such as biology, chemistry, and physics, and with pseudosciences, such as astrology. Section Reference: Is Psychology a Science? 135. A behaviour, event, or other characteristic that can take on different values is termed a(n) ___. a) variable b) theory c) operational definition d) hypothesis Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 136. A researcher observed the eating patterns of laboratory rats while manipulating the amount of sleep they received during a week-long study. In this example, what type of variable is “sleep”? a) observable b) dependent c) independent d) extraneous Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 137. Therese is conducting a research study examining the effects of caffeine on driving ability. She has participants each consume 1, 2, 3, and 4 cups of coffee and gives them a driving test in a driving simulator after each cup of coffee. She also divides the participants into four groups – older and younger males and older and younger females. What would be the variables of

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, FOURTH Canadian Edition

interest to Therese in this study? a) amount of caffeine consumed b) amount of caffeine consumed, and age c) amount of caffeine consumed, age, and sex d) amount of caffeine consumed, age, sex, the number of driving errors Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 138. Dr. Morris is studying how sleep deprivation affects semantic memory. He has each participant study a list of random facts and then undergo sleep deprivation for either 24 hours, 30 hours, or 36 hours. Then, following an additional 48-hour delay period, each participant’s memory for the random facts is tested. In this study, what is the independent variable? a) number of random facts remembered b) number of hours of sleep deprivation c) 48-hour delay d) the amount of time spent trying to remember the random facts Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 139. Finnegan is conducting a research study examining the effect of food dye on 5-year-old children’s sleep habits. He divides his participants into six groups. Each group is given a bowl of candies to eat, but each group’s candies are a different colour. One group eats candy that has no food dye (i.e., is colourless) at all. He then measures the number of hours each child sleeps at night. In this study, _________________ is the independent variable and ____________ is the dependent variable. a) age of the children; colour of the candy b) age of the children; number of hours slept c) colour of the candy; number of hours slept d) number of hours slept; colour of the candy Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research?

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140. Dr. Vesner is examining how exposure to Drug X affects levels of aggression in rats. She gives each rat one of four doses of Drug X: no drug (saline injection), low dose, medium dose, and a high dose. After 20 minutes so the drug has time to take effect, she measures aggression by the intensity with which the rat bites a probing rod that is entered into the apparatus. In this study, what is the independent variable? a) levels of aggression b) dose of Drug X c) 20-minute delay d) intensity with which the rat bites a probing rod Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 141. Felix is conducting a study comparing memory for words in young (age 18-22) and older (age 60 – 65) adults. He has all his participants study 3 lists of words and then asks them to recall as many words as possible from the lists. In this study, the independent variable(s) is/are________________ and the dependent variable(s) is/are _______________. a) each participant’s age; number of words recalled b) number of words recalled; participant age c) age group; number of words recalled d) participant age; number of words recalled and age group Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 142. If Corby hypothesizes that sleep deprivation in university students results in lower GPAs, what are the variables in his hypothesis? a) amount of sleep deprivation b) scores on tests c) any factors other than sleep deprivation that affect student grades d) sleep deprivation and GPA Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, FOURTH Canadian Edition

Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 143. A researcher is interested in seeing how long it takes participants to respond to sounds of different pitches. In this example, the time it takes the participants to respond to the sounds is the a) controlling variable. b) manipulative variable. c) independent variable. d) dependent variable. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 144. “Opposites attract.” “Birds of a feather flock together.” These aphorisms most closely resemble a) hypotheses. b) theories. c) variables. d) operational definitions. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 145. One of your psychology classmates tells you they have been reading the literature and it has caused them to wonder whether first-born children learn to talk earlier than later-born children. If your classmate wishes to conduct a study about this, what would be the next step you would advise them to take? a) identify questions of interest b) develop a testable hypothesis c) select a research method, choose participants, and collect the data d) build a theory Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 146. Which of the following researchers is using an acceptable operational definition of a variable? a) Dr. Ziggy defines aggression as how angry one feels in different situations. b) Dr. Abrams defines embarrassment as the number of friends on Facebook. c) Dr. Byrne defines intelligence as one’s score on the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale. d) Dr. Clay defines attraction to another as the desire to be liked by the other. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 147. Imagine you have developed the hypothesis, "Children living in poverty are at risk for school truancy". Which is the BEST operational definition for poverty? a) children who live in a household whose income is $15,000 per year or below b) school attendance records that show at least one absence per week c) school grades that decrease at least one letter grade d) children who have at least one unemployed parent Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 148. A group of researchers are studying the effect of listening to music on studying. They give their participants 50 words to study. Half of their participants study the words in a quiet room while the other half study in a room that has music playing. The participants are then asked to write down all the words from the list they can remember. In this study the number of words recalled is the ______________ and the presence or absence of music is the __________________. a) controlling variable; dependent variable b) dependent variable; controlling variable c) independent variable; dependent variable d) dependent variable; independent variable Answer: d Difficulty: Medium

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Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 149. Which of the following researchers is using an acceptable operational definition of a variable? a) Dr. Pham defines intelligence as one’s ability to problem solve. b) Dr. Selkirk defines aggression as the number of swear words spoken in an hour. c) Dr. Barboza defines social anxiety as the intensity of embarrassment in social situations. d) Dr. Okoro defines memory as the earliest childhood memory available. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 150. In a research study, a condition or event that you expect to change as a result of variations in other conditions or events is called the ________________. a) independent variable b) dependent variable c) controlling variable d) operational variable Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 151. A hypothesis is best defined as a(n) a) broad, general explanation of the phenomenon of interest. b) specific prediction concerning the relationship between variables. c) specification of a variable in terms of the procedures that will be used to measure it. d) behaviour, event, or other characteristic that can assume different values. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research?

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152. Helena proposes that the more impulsive a student is, the more likely he or she will be to change answers on a multiple-choice test. The variable(s) in this statement is/are a) impulsivity. b) answer changing. c) both impulsivity and answer changing. d) the student, impulsivity, and answer changing. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 153. A researcher is interested in seeing how long it takes participants to respond to sounds of different pitches. In this example, the pitch of the sound is the a) controlling variable. b) manipulated variable. c) independent variable. d) dependent variable. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 154. Which of the following statements is the best operational definition of “test score”? a) feeling of success following the test b) feeling of failure following the test c) number of questions answered correctly d) number of questions answered confidently Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 155. Which of the following statements is the best operational definition of “off task behaviour” in a class setting?

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a) number of times student is attending to something in class other than assignments b) number of times student is not paying attention c) number of times student is goofing off d) number of times student is not responding Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 156. In a research study, a condition or event that is thought to be a factor in changing another condition or event is called the __________________. a) independent variable b) dependent variable c) controlling variable d) confounding variable Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 157. Two research assistants are collecting data for a study examining child aggression on the playground by observing children as they are playing. The first research assistant measures aggression by counting the number of times children hit each other. When the second research assistant goes to the playground, he counts the number of times children push each other. What is the greatest flaw with this study? a) The research assistants are biased. b) The study is not a “true” experiment. c) The research assistants are working with different operational definitions. d) All data should be collected by the same person. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 158. Albert Bandura conducted a famous study examining the influence of watching aggression in adults on aggressive behaviour in children. He had each some children watch an adult punch,

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throw, and hit a clown-shaped punching bag. Other children who participated in the study did not watch the adult. He then left each child in a room with the clown-shaped punching bag and counted the number of times each child hit the punching bag. He included hitting the doll with their hand, a mallet or other object the child found in the room, punching it, and kicking it. In this example, Bandura operationally defined aggression as a) whether or not the child watched an adult hit the punching bag. b) whether or not the child punched the punching bag. c) how long the child watched an adult hit the punching bag. d) the number of times the child hit, punched, or kicked the punching bag with their body or any other object. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 159. Psychologists operationalize the ___ in a ___. a) groups; experiment b) variables; hypothesis c) samples; population d) hypotheses; theory Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 160. Cleo wants to know which weighs more – a pillowcase full of feathers or a pillowcase full of cotton candy. As she does not have a scale, she decides that she will put one of the pillowcases on the end of a seesaw and then she will pile pennies on the other end until the seesaw balances. She will then repeat the process with the other pillowcase. In this case, the operational definition of weight is a) the contents of the pillowcases. b) the number of feathers in the pillowcase. c) the number of feathers and the amount of cotton candy in the pillowcases. d) the number of pennies it takes to balance the seesaw. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods.

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Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 161. Each of the following is an operational definition of ‘addiction’ EXCEPT a) individual meets the DSM-5 criteria for substance use disorder b) individual is unable to abstain from a substance for one week c) individual is identified by family members as an addict d) individual experiences withdrawal when they stop using a substance Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 162. Pollsters are conducting a survey to predict which candidate is going to win the next mayoral election in a large city. They decide to poll 5 of the 40 subdivisions in the city. How accurate is their poll likely to be? a) quite accurate as they are polling different areas b) not accurate as the pollsters did not use random selection c) not accurate as they need to poll everyone in the city d) quite accurate as polling 5 subdivisions suggests they used random selection Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 163. Crystal is conducting a study and is looking for participants. She posts notices across the city, runs and ad in the newspaper, and posts a notice online. Crystal’s recruitment of her participants reflects the process of _____________. a) random assignment b) sample control c) random selection d) controlled selection Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research?

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164. How can researchers control for the fact that they may inadvertently only accept participants for their study who are likely to confirm their hypothesis? a) random assignment b) random selection c) double-blind procedure d) demand characteristics Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 165. How can researchers control for the fact that experimental and control groups may come to the experiment with pre-existing differences that can affect the results of the study? a) random assignment b) random selection c) double-blind procedure d) demand characteristics Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 166. A popular magazine published a survey asking about the division of housework between men and women. Based on the results of the survey, they have already planned to publish an article in the next edition claiming that women are still responsible for 90% of household chores. This result demonstrates a) researcher bias. b) sampling bias. c) participant bias. d) demand characteristics. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research?

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167. Jason is conducting a survey on attitudes toward playing video games. To recruit participants, he runs an ad in all the video game magazines, and posts notices in the video game stores. Using this method, Jason runs the risk of having his study influenced by a) demand characteristics. b) experimenter bias. c) assignment bias. d) sampling bias. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 168. How can researchers minimize sampling biases? a) random assignment b) random selection c) double-blind procedure d) Hawthorne procedure Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 169. How can researchers control for the Hawthorne effect? a) Choose participants who have volunteered for studies in the past. b) Observe for an extended period of time. c) Have multiple observers. d) Do not inform observers about the specific hypothesis under investigation. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 170. The two main types of research methods are a) sample and population. b) experimental and descriptive. c) applied and basic.

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d) correlational and observational. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 171. Descriptive is to experimental as ___ is to ___. a) relationship; cause b) cause; relationship c) description; statistics d) statistics; description Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 172. Which of the following is NOT a descriptive research method? a) case study b) experiment c) naturalistic observation d) survey Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 173. Which of the following is a disadvantage for ALL types of descriptive research? a) They suffer from participant bias. b) They must control for the Hawthorne effect. c) They are too artificial and controlled to capture natural behaviour. d) They do not allow causal conclusions. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, FOURTH Canadian Edition

Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 174. There are many types of descriptive research, and all of them share the disadvantage that they a) suffer from sampling bias. b) must control for the Hawthorne effect. c) do not allow cause-effect conclusions. d) are too unnatural and controlled to capture true behaviour. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 175. Which of the following statements is NOT accurate about descriptive research methods? a) They are designed to meet the goal of explanation in psychology. b) They are good for developing early ideas. c) They are more reflective of actual behaviour than other methods. d) They allow statements to be made about the existence of a relationship between variables. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. 176. Which of the following is an important advantage of the descriptive/correlational research method? a) They reflect actual behaviour. b) They allow close control over variables. c) They explain cause and effect. d) There is less of a concern of researcher and participant biases. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research?

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177. Which of the following is a disadvantage of the descriptive/correlational research method? a) They are impractical in some situations. b) They do not reflect actual behaviour. c) They do not allow control over variables. d) They cannot infer relationships between variables. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 178. Dr. Poulsen plans to study the relationship between drug abuse and minor illnesses such as colds and flu. Why might he be most likely to use a descriptive research method? a) Descriptive studies will allow him to draw conclusions about cause and effect. b) There is little concern about participant or researcher biases. c) He would have greater control over the variable of drug abuse. d) It would be unethical to manipulate the variable of drug abuse. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 179. Dr. Jepson is studying the ability to name inanimate and animate objects in an 82-year old woman who had a stroke in the right hemisphere of the brain. He finds that although she can name inanimate objects such as furniture, tools, etc., she is unable to name animals. He concludes that strokes in the right hemisphere cause a loss of the ability to name animals. What is wrong with Dr. Jepson’s conclusion? a) Dr. Jepson had little control over the variables investigated in this study. b) There is evidence of researcher bias that might have influenced the outcome. c) There were ethical concerns that might have affected the outcome of the study. d) Dr. Jepson conducted a case study and, therefore, cannot draw conclusions about cause and effect. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research?

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180. Florian is unable to control variables in his study. What research method is Florian likely to choose? a) experimental b) logical c) descriptive d) none of the above. Research requires that at least one variable be manipulated. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 181. Dr. Raul is interested in studying the factors that best predict which children are at greatest risk of later substance abuse. In analyzing his data, which statistical method would Dr. Raul use? a) descriptive b) t-test c) analysis of variance d) correlation Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 182. Holly plans to observe a preschool class to determine whether boys are more aggressive than girls. Even if Holly has adequate operational definitions and other methodological issues under control, she still faces a disadvantage. What is it? a) it is much more difficult to collect data in descriptive research than in an experiment b) descriptive research cannot explain cause and effect c) description research cannot be statistically analyzed d) descriptive research is not considered ethical Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research?

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183. Karen is a primatologist interested in studying the grooming behaviour of baboon troops. To remain unobtrusive, she sat in a tree to watch the animals and counted the number of instances of grooming behaviour she observed. What research method did Karen use? a) naturalistic observation b) case study c) survey d) experiment Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 184. Which of the following distinguishes case studies from naturalistic observation and survey study methods? a) They can be used for developing early ideas. b) The results cannot be generalized to other situations. c) They are more reflective of actual behaviour. d) Case studies are descriptive research methods, whereas naturalistic observation and surveys are experimental research methods. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 185. Which of the following does NOT address the problems associated with the natural observation method? a) the use of a single observer b) not informing observers of the hypothesis being investigated c) having the observer spend a lot of time in the setting they will be observing d) using multiple observers Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research?

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186. Which of the following is not accurate about naturalistic observation studies? a) They are more reflective of actual human behaviour than most other research designs. b) They are subject to researcher bias. c) The presence of a researcher can influence participant behaviour. d) There are ethical concerns about observing people without their permission. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 187. A study conducted by Landsberger (1958) suggested that when workers knew they were being observed their productivity increased regardless of what changes were made to the workplace. This finding became known as the a) the Landsberger effect. b) the worker bias effect. c) the Hawthorne effect. d) the productivity effect. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 188. Martha administered a survey about child abuse to 2000 anonymous new parents and found no reports of a parent exhibiting this type of behaviour. Knowing the number of incidences of child abuse reported each year, Martha suspected that some type of bias attributed to the erroneous results. Which type of bias most likely affected this study? a) researcher bias b) participant/subject bias c) sampling bias d) experimental bias Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 189. Jeremiah is convinced that the reason studies on Fetal Alcohol Effect are often unclear is

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because mothers often underreport the amount of alcohol they truly drank during their pregnancies. Jeremiah argues that mothers know that they should not drink in pregnancy and therefore give experimenters the answers they expect. The implicit expectation for the participant to give the desired response is known as a) researcher bias. b) the Hawthorne effect. c) participant/subject bias. d) an interaction effect. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 190. Which of the following statements describes a case study? a) controlled observation in which experimenters manipulate variables b) when researchers directly observe people in a study c) a study focusing on a single person d) when participants are asked questions, either orally or written Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 191. If researchers were interested in studying individuals’ attitudes toward the treatment of persons with mental illness in Canada, which of the following would they be MOST likely to use? a) a case study b) a survey c) a naturalistic observation d) an experiment Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 192. Harry wants to examine students’ attitudes about immigrant worker laws in Canada. Which of the following research methods would be the most appropriate way of approaching this

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sensitive topic? a) naturalistic observation b) survey c) case study d) control study Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 193. Which of the following statements describes a survey? a) controlled observation in which experimenters manipulate variables b) researchers directly observing people in a study c) researchers focusing on a single person d) researchers asking participants questions, either orally or written Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 194. Bram is preparing to study the effects of a new antidepressant and wants to minimize the undesired effect of demand characteristics. What is one way to do this? a) random assignment b) random selection c) double-blind procedure d) Hawthorne procedure Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 195. Aaron and Fatma are both taking part in a study examining the effectiveness of a new drug on studying. Aaron finds that the drug has absolutely no effect on his ability to study, but Fatma reports that she was able to study much more material after taking the drug. Neither one knows whether they received the real (new) drug, but when they ask the researcher, he tells them he does not know who was in which group. This is an example of

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a) the Hawthorne effect. b) participant bias. c) double-blind procedure. d) placebo procedure. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 196. Dr. Nalling conducted a survey asking participants about their hygienic habits. She was very surprised to find that most of her participants reported exemplary hygienic habits. Which bias might account for this finding? a) researcher bias b) sampling bias c) participant bias d) demand bias Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 197. Which of the following accurately describes the Hawthorne effect? a) People who complete surveys frequently answer in ways that are socially acceptable. b) The outcome when neither the participant nor the researcher knows the treatment or procedure the participant is receiving. c) When an experimenter sets up their study so that to unintentionally convey to participants the outcome that they expect to see. d) People who are being observed in studies improve or change some of their behaviour simply because they are being watched or studied rather than in response to an experimental manipulation. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 198. Dr. Unger is investigating the effects of sleep deprivation on memory for spatial locations.

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He decides to have three groups of participants each undergo different amounts of sleep deprivation (e.g., 24 hours, 30 hours, and 36 hours) and then perform a spatial memory task (e.g., remembering the locations of 10 hidden objects). What kind of research method is Dr. Unger using? a) naturalistic observation b) experiment c) survey d) case study Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 199. Madeline is carrying out a controlled observation in which she is manipulating the presence or amount of the independent variable to see what effect it has on the dependent variable. This type of research is known as a(n) a) case study. b) controlled study. c) naturalistic observation. d) experiment. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 200. Dr. Mallette is studying the effects of toy choices on aggressive behaviour in preschool children. To do this, she has two groups of children that each have access to different types of toys. The Violent Group has access to violent toys (guns, wrestling dolls, handcuffs), and the Non-Violent Group has access to non-violent toys (tea party set, colouring books, toy trucks). For each group, she records the number of aggressive acts performed. What kind of research method is Dr. Mallette using? a) naturalistic observation b) experiment c) survey d) case study Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 201. Dr. Garcia conducted an experiment to study the incidence of birth defects in infants born of mothers who drank alcohol during their pregnancies. From the outset of the study, she had a poster located behind her desk in full view of study participants that stated, “Don’t Drink” accompanied by a disturbing image of a newborn with multiple birth defects. What type of bias does this poster represent? a) researcher b) participant c) demand characteristic d) statistical Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 202. For which of the following reasons might a researcher use a double-blind procedure? a) to avoid selection bias b) to avoid sampling bias c) to avoid non-random assignment d) to avoid demand characteristics Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 203. In an experiment, the researcher deliberately manipulates the ___ variable and measures the ___ variable. a) experimental; control b) control; experimental c) dependent; independent d) independent; dependent Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

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Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 204. In experimental research, presumed cause is to potential effect as ___ is to ___. a) dependent variable; independent variable b) independent variable; dependent variable c) experimental group; control group d) control group; experimental group Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 205. A researcher is interested in whether working flexible hours increases worker productivity on an assembly line. She allows the employees to choose one of three work options – working 8 hours straight, working 4 hours in the morning and four hours in the evening, or working four hours in the morning and four hours in the evening. For each group, she measures the number of items they produce on the assembly line during their 8 hours of work. In this study, the work shift is the _________________ variable and the number of items produced is the __________________ variable. a) manipulated; independent b) dependent; controlling c) dependent; independent d) independent; dependent Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 206. Dr. Warner is studying the effects of vitamin C consumption on the frequency of common colds. To do this, he gives a random half of his sample of participants a large dose of vitamin C to consume daily for one year, while the other group takes a placebo daily for one year. The frequency of colds is recorded for the duration of the year. In this study, what is the control group? a) the group that gets more colds throughout the year b) the group that consumes the vitamin C daily for one year c) the group that consumes a placebo daily for one year d) the group that gets fewer colds throughout the year

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Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 207. After participating in a study, Kylie talks to Tim about the violent video the researcher had her watch before she completed a questionnaire. Tim is surprised as, although he completed the same questionnaire, he watched a peaceful travel video. Which of the following best explains Kylie and Tim’s different research experiences? a) Kylie was part of the dependent group, Tim was part of the independent group b) Kylie was part of the independent group. Tim was part of the dependent group. c) Kylie was part of the experimental group. Tim was part of the control group. d) Kylie was part of the control group. Tim was part of the experimental group. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 208. Dr. Olsson is studying the effects of cardiovascular exercise on intelligence. To do this, he gives a random half of his participants a daily cardio exercise routine to complete while the other half of his sample is required to do a daily yoga routine. At the end of one year, he measures everyone’s IQ by using the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS). In this study, what is the control group? a) the group that has a higher IQ b) the group that does a daily cardio workout c) the group that does a daily yoga workout d) the group that has a lower IQ Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 209. Gabriel and Roberta are both cancer patients at a large hospital. They both decide to take part in a study examining the effectiveness of an experimental cancer drug. While Gabriel shows improvement, Roberta does not. Which of the following is a plausible explanation for difference in results? a) Gabriel is showing signs of the Hawthorne effect, whereas Roberta is not.

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b) Gabriel is likely in the independent group, whereas Roberta was in the dependent group. c) Gabriel was in the control group, whereas Roberta was in the experimental group. d) Gabriel was in the experimental group, whereas Roberta was in the control group. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 210. Which of the following is a disadvantage of experimental research? a) Does not allow researchers precise control over variables. b) Cannot explain cause and effect. c) Cannot always use random assignment due to ethical concerns. d) It is impossible for control for demand characteristics. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 211. At their University, Drs. Chase and Sanborn are conducting an experiment on the effects of caffeine on memory. Participants are randomly assigned to a caffeine or a no-caffeine group and their recall of items on a word list is later assessed. Which pair below correctly identifies a variable in this experiment? a) caffeine – dependent variable b) caffeine – independent variable c) word recall – independent variable d) word recall – experimental variable Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 212. Marcus is interested in whether listening to fast or slow music effects worker productivity on an assembly line. He also wants to know if the type of music (country, jazz, or pop) makes a difference. For one week he plays country music in the factory – fast in the morning and slow in the afternoon. The next week, he does the same thing with jazz music, and the third week he plays pop music. He measures the number of items produced as well as the number of

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mistakes they made on the assembly line during each type and speed of music. In this study the type of music played would be a(n) __________ variable and the speed of the music would be a(n) ________________ variable. a) independent; dependent b) dependent; independent c) dependent; dependent d) independent; independent Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 213. Which of the following sequences best reflects the order of the steps in the scientific method as it is described and illustrated in your text? a) build theory – operationalize variables – develop hypothesis b) develop hypothesis – operationalize variables – build theory c) develop hypothesis – build theory – operationalize variables d) build theory – develop hypothesis – operationalize variables Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 214. What is the last step in the cycle of how psychologists conduct research? a) Develop a testable hypothesis. b) Identify questions of interest and review the literature. c) Build a theory. d) Seek scientific review, publish, and replicate. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 215. What step comes after analyzing the data and accept/reject the hypothesis in the cycle of how psychologists conduct research? a) Develop a testable hypothesis.

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b) Identify questions of interest and review the literature. c) Build a theory. d) Seek scientific review, publish, and replicate. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 216. Which of the following statements BEST expresses the relationship between a sample and a population? a) A sample includes a population. b) A population includes a sample. c) A population is like a sample. d) A sample is separate from a population. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 217. Silas is conducting a study comparing math ability in undergraduate students with ADHD to those who do NOT have ADHD. Who is the sample for Silas’s study? a) Undergraduate students with ADHD. b) Undergraduate students who do not have ADHD. c) Everybody who has ADHD. d) Both the participants with and without ADHD. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 218. A _________ is to a single experiment, as a ________ is to the larger group who could be participants in the study. a) sample; participant b) participant; sample c) sample; population d) population; sample

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Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 219. Stijn is assessing the effects on people’s health in is city since fluoride was added to the water supply. The group of people about whom Stijn will be making claims about based on his study is called: a) a sample b) a population c) the participants d) the experimental group Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 220. At a DUI checkpoint, some cars are stopped at random; many others are not stopped. Using the terminology of psychological research, the cars that are stopped may be considered a ___ of all the cars that pass by the checkpoint. a) sample b) subset c) population d) segment Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 221. Felipe is a police officer. His precinct captain chooses four officers a month, at random dates and times, for drug tests. The captain’s logic on this method of testing is that the tested employees represent a ______________ of all other police officers at the precinct. a) sample b) subset c) population d) segment

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Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 222. Magazine surveys cannot be considered valid research methods because its readers are the only ones who will respond, and the readers may be predisposed to have a special interest in the hypothesis. This is an example of a a) random sample. b) sampling error. c) sampling bias. d) representative sample. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 223. Eabha has inadvertently recruited participants that are especially likely to confirm the hypothesis of her study. She has committed what type of error in selecting her participants? a) sampling error. b) participant bias. c) random assignment. d) sampling bias. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 224. Aria is conducting a survey on personality traits and binge drinking among college students as part of her masters’ thesis work. Aria distributes questionnaires to students enrolled in her own section of an introductory psychology course, as well as those taught by her thesis advisor. Based on this information, it appears that Aria has failed to a) randomly select the participants. b) operationalize the variables. c) randomly assign the participants. d) debrief the participants.

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Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 225. Amy is conducting a survey of dating attitudes and behaviours among young adults as part of her masters’ thesis work. Amy distributes questionnaires to 200 randomly selected students enrolled in an introductory psychology course at her university. The 200 students constitute Amy’s ___. The people to whom she assumes her results will generalize are termed the ___. a) control group; population b) experimental group; population c) population; sample d) sample; population Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 226. If you are studying the effects of sugar consumed on the activity levels of 10-year old boys, the 10-year old boys who participate in your study would be the __________, and all 10-yearold boys would be the _____________. a) experimental group; control group b) sample, sample c) sample; population d) population; sample Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 227. One method that researchers use to ensure that everyone in a population of interest has an equal chance of being involved in a study is ___________________. a) sampling bias b) random assignment c) random recruitment d) random selection

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Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 228. Which of the following is a disadvantage of descriptive research? a) artificial lab conditions b) cannot explain cause and effect c) ethical concerns d) harder to collect data Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 229. Kayley is trying to decide whether to study the relationship between alcohol consumption using survey research techniques on the one hand, or experimental research methods on the other. Which of the following alternatives most accurately identifies considerations Kayley should keep in mind as she plans her research? a) Survey responses are prone to biases, but survey work allows you to identify causes and effects. Experimental research is more artificial but allows you to control variables. b) Both survey research and experimental methodology involve somewhat artificial conditions. However, both survey research and experimental research are easier to conduct than other methods. c) Both survey research and experimental methodology allow you to identify causes and effects. However, experimental research usually involves artificial laboratory conditions, while survey responses may reflect biases. d) Experimental research usually involves artificial laboratory conditions, but it would allow you to identify causes and effects. Survey research does not allow cause-effect-conclusions, and survey responses may reflect biases. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 230. Dr. Avelar is studying the vocal outbursts of a young man with autism. After conducting

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several observations, he finds that most of the young man’s outbursts occur when there are loud noises in the room. Dr. Avelar concludes that loud noises can evoke vocal outbursts in persons with autism. What is wrong with Dr. Avelar’s conclusion? a) Dr. Avelar had little control over the variables investigated in this study. b) Dr. Avelar conducted a case study so the findings cannot be generalized to other people with autism. c) There is evidence of researcher bias that might have influenced the findings. d) There were ethical concerns that might have influenced the findings. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 231. Dr. Tanaka encountered an alien and found, to his surprise, that they were able to converse. The alien consented to being studied. Dr. Tanaka therefore gave the alien several intelligence tests, personality tests, memory tests, empathy tests, and observed the alien in in its day-to-day interactions. What type of research method was Dr. Tanaka using? a) experiment b) naturalistic observation c) case study d) survey Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 232. To determine whether fluctuations in the economy influence the vacation plans of families in Canada, Gannon stops people on the street to ask them a series of questions. Gannon is using the research method known as a) case study. b) naturalistic observation. c) experiment. d) survey. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research?

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233. Dr. Peacock is investigating the effect of the amount of daycare fees on preschooler’s language development. To do this, she finds a handful of daycares that differ according to their weekly fees (some are very expensive, and others are not), and she quietly sits and records the number of words spoken by random samples of children throughout the day in each daycare. What type of research method is Dr. Peacock using? a) experiment b) naturalistic observation c) case study d) survey Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 234. Which of the following alternatives correctly identifies BOTH an advantage AND a disadvantage of naturalistic observation? a) Naturalistic observation is highly reflective of actual behaviour, but it is difficult to generalize results gained through the study of a single person. b) Naturalistic observation is highly reflective of actual behaviour, but it is prone to biases. c) Naturalistic observation allows cause-and-effect conclusions, but it can be highly artificial. d) Naturalistic observation allows control over variables, but it is prone to biases. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 235. Elizabeth is considering whether to consider the results from a case study she recently read as valid. What would you tell her is NOT a disadvantage of a case study? a) There is little or no control over variables. b) They can be greatly affected by researcher bias. c) Cannot be generalized to other situations. d) Laboratory conditions may produce artificial results. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods.

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Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 236. Experimental research requires that the responses of ___ group(s) be examined. a) at least 1 b) 2 c) at least 2 d) 3 or more Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 237. Why are control groups included in experiments? a) to determine whether two variables are related b) to ascertain cause-and-effect relationships c) to ensure that participant characteristics are essentially the same in each group d) to ensure that the results may be generalized to the population Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 238. Random assignment a) guarantees the elimination of differences between the control and experimental groups. b) may not entirely eliminate differences between the control and experimental groups. c) does little to minimize differences between the control and experimental groups. d) ensures that a sample represents a population. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 239. Dr. McMillan is studying the effects of violent cartoon watching on aggressive play behaviour in school-aged children. She divides the children up into two groups: one group watches a violent cartoon for 20 minutes and the other group watches a non-violent cartoon for

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20 minutes. Then, all the children play together in a large area, and researchers count the number of aggressive acts performed by each child. Most importantly, when the researchers are counting aggressive acts, they don’t know which child watched which cartoon. What potential influence on the results is Dr. McMillan mindful of in collecting her data this way? a) sampling bias b) demand characteristics c) researcher bias d) participant bias Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 240. Dr. Yagushi is researching the effects of daily exercise on neurogenesis. To do this, she uses three groups of rats that vary in the amount of daily exercise: one group gets no access to a running wheel, another group gets 2 hours of access to the running wheel, and a final group gets 12 hours of access to the wheel. After 2 months on their respective exercise schedules, the rats are sacrificed, and Dr. Yagushi counts the number of neurons in a given region of the brain. Most importantly, when Dr. Yagushi is doing her neuron count on each brain slice, she doesn’t know which brain received each exercise level. What potential influence on the results is Dr. Yagushi mindful of in collecting her data this way? a) sampling bias b) demand characteristics c) researcher bias d) participant bias Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 241. A pharmaceutical company wishes to test the efficacy of a new anti-depressant using a double-blind procedure. Which alternative CORRECTLY describes the procedure the company would use? a) The research assistants would know which participants were receiving the new drug and which were receiving an inert pill. Each patient would also know which type of pill he or she was taking. b) The research assistants would know which participants were receiving the new drug and which were receiving an inert pill. Each patient, though, would not know which type of pill he or she was taking. c) The research assistants would not know which participants were receiving the new drug and which were receiving an inert pill. Each patient, though, would know which type of pill he or she

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was taking. d) The research assistants would not know which participants were receiving the new drug and which were receiving an inert pill. Also, each patient would not know which type of pill he or she was taking. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 242. A study in which neither the participant nor the research knows what treatment or procedure the participant is receiving is using the ________________ procedure. a) experimental b) correlational c) demand d) double-blind Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 243. Which of the following research methods is CORRECTLY matched with a description? a) naturalistic observation – behaviour is investigated in the environment in which it typically occurs b) case study – a large sample is asked a set of questions c) survey research – at least one variable is deliberately manipulated by the researcher d) experimental research – a single individual is examined in detail Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 244. Which of the following research methods is CORRECTLY matched with an advantage? a) naturalistic observation – rich source of hypotheses regarding a single individual’s behaviour b) case study – allows control over variables c) survey research – lets researchers measure the strength of the relationship between variables

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d) experimental research – highly reflective of actual human behaviour Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 245. What method do psychologists use to analyze study data? a) logic b) induction c) statistics d) deduction Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 246. What do psychologists do to determine whether the variables in their research are related, or whether there is a true difference between their groups? a) They do a visual inspection of their data and see if there are any obvious trends. b) They rely in impressions or logic. c) They use statistics as a tool. d) They compare their findings to previous work in the area. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 247. Researchers use statistics as a tool to a) compare their findings to previous work in the area. b) see if their work supports an existing theory or whether they have to revise the theory. c) determine whether the variables in their research are related, or whether there is a true difference between their groups. d) choose a representative sample of the population to serve in the experiment.

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Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 248. Which of the following values indicates that there is no relationship between two variables? a) –1.0 b) –.10 c) 0.00 d) 1.0 Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 249. Which term is most nearly synonymous with the term correlation? a) relationship b) explanation c) observation d) influence Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 250. The correlation coefficient ranges from a) 1 to 100. b) –1.00 to 1.00. c) 0 to 1. d) –100 to 100. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy

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Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 251. “Okay. What does a correlation coefficient tell us?” Zoe asks the members of her psychology study group. “The strength of a relationship between two variables,” answers Yvonne. “The direction of the relationship between two variables,” puts in Will. Who is right? a) Only Yvonne is right. b) Only Will is right. c) Both Yvonne and Will are right. d) Neither Yvonne nor Will is right. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 252. There is a positive correlation between the temperature and the amount of ice cream sold. Which of the following explains the relationship between ice cream and temperature? a) Higher temperatures cause more people to buy ice cream. b) The higher the temperature, the more ice cream is sold. c) The lower the temperature, the more ice cream is sold. d) The lower the temperature, the less ice cream is sold. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 253. The direction of the relationship between two variables is given by a correlation coefficient’s ___; the strength of the relationship is given by the coefficient’s ___. a) absolute value; value b) sign; absolute value c) sign; value d) absolute value; sign Answer: b

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 254. Which of the following defines a positive correlation? a) when the scores on one variable tend to decrease as the scores on another variable decrease b) when the scores on one variable tend to increase as the scores on another variable decrease c) when the scores on one variable tend to decrease as the scores on another variable increase d) where there is no relationship between two variables Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 255. Which of the following defines a negative correlation? a) when the scores on one variable tend to decrease as the scores on another variable decrease b) when the scores on one variable tend to increase as the scores on another variable increase c) when the scores on one variable tend to decrease as the scores on another variable increase d) where there is no relationship between two variables Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 256. Which pair of variables is most likely to be a positive correlation? a) alcohol consumption and GPA b) GPA and height c) GPA and amount of studying d) GPA and depression Answer: c Difficulty: Medium

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Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 257. Which pair of variables is most likely to be a negative correlation? a) alcohol consumption and GPA b) GPA and height c) GPA and amount of studying d) GPA and confidence Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 258. Rae tells Shu-fen that the data from her study indicates that as the lower the number of hours a student spends studying, the lower their GPA. Rae is describing a) the results of a t-test. b) the results of an analysis of variance. c) a negative correlation. d) a positive correlation. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 259. Linh has finished collecting and analyzing data for her thesis and her data show that children with higher rates of empathy engage in less screen time than children with lower rates of empathy. Linh’s data are a) the results of a t-test. b) the results of an analysis of variance. c) a negative correlation. d) a positive correlation. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium

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Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 260. Kjersti found a positive correlation between self-reported alcohol and drug use and sick days taken in a study of white-collar workers. A graph of her results would show a) a diagonal line from the top left to the bottom right. b) a diagonal line from the bottom left to the top right. c) a horizontal line. d) a U-shaped curve. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 261. Asiya is looking at the graph of the data from her correlational study. She finds that the data points form a line that begins at the intersection of the x and y axes and extends to the top right-hand corner of the graph. How should Asiya interpret her results? a) There is a positive correlation between her variables. Those who score high on variable A also tend to score high on variable B. b) There is a negative correlation between her variables. Those who score high on variable A, tend to score low on variable B. c) There is a positive correlation between her variables. Those who score high on variable A, tend to score low on variable B. d) There is a negative correlation between her variables. Those who score low on variable A, also tend to score low on variable B. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 262. A researcher finds a correlation of –.51. Which pair of variables is the researcher most likely investigating? a) GPA and alcohol use b) IQ and GPA c) GPA and height

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d) GPA and amount of studying Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 263. Benoit is analyzing the data from a study examining the relationship between the amount of television a child watches and the amount of physical activity they engage in. If the higher amount of television a child watches, the less physical activity they engage in, which of the following would represent the largest possible correlation coefficient? a) -.43 b) 0.00 c) +. 73 d) -.62 Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 264. Which of the following correlation coefficients represents the strongest relationship between two variables? a) –.75 b) .60 c) .00 d) .30 Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 265. Every time variable A decreases by one unit variable B also decreases by one unit. Which of the following correlation coefficients best describes the relationship between variables A and B?

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a) +.50 b) -.50 c) +1.00 d) -1.00 Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 266. Every time variable A increases by one unit variable B decreases by one unit. Which of the following correlation coefficients best describes the relationship between variables A and B? a) +.50 b) -.50 c) +1.00 d) -1.00 Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 267. A ___ correlation results when there is no relationship between two variables. a) negative b) inverse c) zero d) infinite Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 268. If there is a relationship between the amount of caffeine consumed and heart rate in that the more caffeine that is consumed the faster a person’s heart beats, how would you describe the correlation between caffeine and heart rate?

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a) negative correlation b) positive correlation c) stable correlation d) unstable correlation Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 269. Which of the following is an example of a positive correlation? a) The slower you drive, the longer it takes to reach your destination. b) The more it snows, the more shovels are sold. c) The less one smokes, the longer they will live. d) The longer you spend in bed, the shorter you day will be. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 270. As a person ages they demonstrate lower rates of recall for words studied from a list. This suggests that the relationship between age and recall memory is a a) positive correlation. b) negative correlation. c) zero correlation. d) perfect correlation. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 271. Janessa and Unni have just graphed the relationship between the variables of each of their correlational studies. Janessa finds that the data points from her study form a line that begins at the top left-hand side and goes to the bottom of the right-hand side of the graph. Unni finds that

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her data points are randomly scattered. Janessa has found a ________________ correlation and Unni has found a ________________ correlation. a) positive; negative b) negative; positive c) positive; near zero d) negative; near zero Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 272. In a survey project, Dr. Miyake finds a correlation of .60 between attachment security and the likelihood with which participants say they would engage in various pro-social behaviours at work. Each of the following is consistent with this data EXCEPT a) attachment security leads people to behave pro-socially at work. b) behaving pro-socially at work can produce a feeling of attachment security. c) lower attachment security is associated with less pro-social work behaviour. d) there is a perfect relationship between attachment security and pro-social work behaviour. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 273. If every time variable A increases by one unit, variable B also increases by one unit, it is known as a ________ correlation. a) negative b) zero c) perfect d) moderate Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results?

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274. Patrice found a perfect correlation between children’s foot length and their shoe size. Malinda’s foot is 6 inches long and she takes a size 4 shoe. Based on this, if Tommy’s foot is 8 inches long, what size shoe would you predict he would take? a) 5 b) 6 c) 7 d) 8 Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 275. Using a sample of young adolescents, Dr. Nguyen finds a correlation of .55 between scores on a measure of neglectful or uninvolved parenting and scores on a measure of delinquent behaviour. Which of the following might Dr. Nguyen legitimately conclude? a) Uninvolved parenting causes juvenile delinquency. b) Uninvolved parenting is related to a higher degree of delinquent behaviour. c) Uninvolved parenting is unrelated to delinquency. d) There is a negative relationship between uninvolved parenting and delinquent behaviour. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 276. In a large correlational study, Grace finds a correlation coefficient of .15 between one pair of variables. She finds a coefficient of –.65 between two other variables. Which alternative below BEST describes these two correlations, respectively? a) weak positive relationship; strong negative relationship b) very weak positive relationship; strong negative relationship c) weak positive relationship; very strong negative relationship d) weak positive relationship; modest negative relationship Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis

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Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 277. There is a correlation of -.84 between two variables. Which of the following would be the most accurate interpretation? a) Based on the change in variable A, you would be able to predict the change in variable B 84% of the time. b) As it is a negative correlation, there is no meaningful relationship between the variables. c) There is a strong predictable relationship between the variables. d) You would not be able to reliably predict the change in variable B based on the strength of variable A. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 278. “I’m so pleased! I got a correlation between scores on my socio-sexual activity measure and scores on the anxious attachment scale, just like I predicted,” enthuses Ahmed. Based on your text’s discussion regarding correlations between complex behaviours and thoughts, the absolute value of Ahmed’s coefficient should be a) at least .20. b) at least .30. c) at least .40. d) at least .60. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 279. Dr. Denny has just discovered a perfect positive correlation between hours of studying and grades in students who pay for their own education. Based on this, what can Dr. Denny conclude? a) Studying for more hours causes better grades. b) Getting better grades causes students to want to study more. c) The number of hours of studying and grades are both caused by a good work ethic. d) Causal conclusions are not possible here.

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Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 280. Dr. Vance has just finished analyzing the data from her study and has found that the more classes a student misses, the lower their GPA. Dr. Vance must have conducted a(n) _________ because she has found a(n) ___________ relationship between number of classes missed and GPA. a) inferential analysis; negative b) inferential analysis; positive c) descriptive analysis; positive d) correlational analysis; negative Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 281. Correlational analysis is to experimental analysis as ___ is to ___. a) inferential statistics; descriptive statistics b) t-test; analysis of variance c) relationship; cause and effect d) cause and effect; relationship Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 282. After collecting her data, Alice is comparing the means of two groups. Which statistical analysis is she most likely to use? a) correlation coefficient b) standard deviation c) t-test

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d) p-test Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 283. Mean is to standard deviation as ___ is to ___. a) average; variance b) correlation; t-test c) coefficient; significance d) cause and effect; relationship Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 284. Statistics which summarize data are termed ___ statistics. Those that indicate what might be concluded from research results are called ___ statistics. a) experimental; correlational b) correlational; experimental c) inferential; descriptive d) descriptive; inferential Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 285. What do inferential statistics allow researchers to do? a) Determine whether their findings can be applied to everyone in the population. b) Describe the patterns in the data. c) Determine how consistent each participant’s score was relative to the group. d) Estimate whether the sample is representative of the population.

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Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 286. The category of experimental analyses that assists researchers in making conclusions based on results is known as ___. a) correlation statistics b) inferential statistics c) probability statistics d) descriptive statistics Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 287. In a small study, a group of students in an Experimental Psychology course collected scores on two variables – Variables A and B – from five participants as follows: Participant 1: A = 3, B = 10; Participant 2: A = 3, B = 9; Participant 3: A = 8, B = 4; Participant 4: A = 6, B = 6; Participant 5: A = 10, B = 1. “The mean score on Variable A is 6, and the variables are not correlated,” Ivy notes. “The mean Variable B score is 5, and the variables are negatively correlated,” John states. “No, the mean score on B is 6; but, yes, A and B are negatively correlated,” Kenya remarks. “Wait. The mean score on A is 5,” Lara adds. Which of these students is correct? a) Only John is correct. b) Kenya and Lara are correct. c) John and Lara are correct. d) Only Kenya is correct. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 288. “The average was 75,” explains Dr. Cole, handing back the semester’s first midterm. The

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lowest score was 32, and there were several in the 40s. But I had some 95s, 96s, and even a 98 – so it’s not like it’s impossible to do well.” Handing back the second midterm, Dr, Cole notes, “The average was 75 again. There were a few in the low 60s, but I got a bunch in the high 80s and into the 90s. It’s looking better!” Which of the following statements is TRUE? a) The means were the same on the two tests, but the standard deviation was lower on the first than on the second. b) The means were the same on the two tests, but the standard deviation was higher on the first than on the second. c) The mean was higher on the second test than on the first, but the standard deviation was lower on the second test. d) The means and standard deviations were the same on the two tests. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 289. One statistic that tells researchers how much participants’ scores vary from one another is the a) weighted mean. b) standard deviation. c) correlation coefficient. d) inferential statistic. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 290. Which of the following statistical procedures can be used to determine to what degree participants’ scores within a group vary? a) standard deviation b) mean c) t-test d) analysis of variance Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

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Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 291. Imogen has just analyzed the data from her study. Although she finds that both groups in her study had a mean of 81, group 1 had a standard deviation of 6.7 and group 2 had a standard deviation of 24.6. Which of the following most accurately describes how this should be interpreted? a) There is a significant difference between the two groups. b) The scores of group 1 were more varied than group 2. c) The scores of group 1 were less varied than group 2. d) There were no differences between the groups. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 292. Dr. Cirella measures the throwing distance of a group of Grade 8 students and finds that the average distance for the boys is greater than that for the girls. If he also wanted to know how much the scores vary within each group, what statistic should he use? a) mean b) standard deviation c) correlation coefficient d) probability statistic Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 293. In an experiment containing one experimental group and one control group, the performance of the participants in the two groups would be compared using a(n) a) t-test. b) standard deviation. c) analysis of variance. d) correlation coefficient. Answer: a

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 294. Psychological researchers typically compare the means of two groups using a statistical procedure known as a a) analysis of variance. b) t-test. c) standard deviation. d) correlation. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 295. Dr. Nash is reading Odette’s thesis proposal. “Recovering cocaine addicts will view three types of words flashed briefly on the computer screen: cocaine-related words, words related to drugs the participants did not abuse, and neutral words unrelated to drugs,” reads one sentence. Later, Dr. Nash encounters this sentence: “Mean reaction times to the three types of words will be analyzed using a t-test.” Which piece of feedback is Dr. Nash most likely to give to Odette? a) “The proposed analysis seems fine.” b) “I would suggest using analyses of variance, since you have three groups.” c) “Correlational analyses such as t-tests aren’t appropriate for experiments.” d) “I would propose computing correlation coefficients for this type of study.” Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 296. Yvette is conducting a study that compares the means of four groups. Which of the following statistical tests is she most likely to use? a) t-test b) correlation

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c) analysis of variance d) standard deviation Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 297. Dr. Bauer is investigating the effects of a new drug on the capacity of short-term memory. To do this, he uses four doses of drug on different groups of patients: some take a high dose, others a medium dose, others a low dose, and finally some take a placebo sugar pill. He then measures each participant’s short-term memory capacity by seeing how many words they can remember immediately after hearing a list of 50 words. What statistic would Dr. Bauer use to determine if there was a significant difference between groups? a) correlation coefficient b) t-test c) analysis of variance d) standard deviation Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 298. In order to examine the difference of means between two groups the best analysis would be to use a _____. a) t-test. b) analysis of variance. c) regression. d) standard deviation. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results?

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299. Which of the following would be analyzed using an analysis of variance? a) A study examining the relationship between two variables. b) A study examining the variance in the scores of two groups. c) A study examining the differences in the means of two groups. d) A study examining the differences in the means of four groups. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 300. Kendrick just finished analyzing the data of his research study using an analysis of variance. He is extremely pleased to find that his results are significant. Which of the following would be true about Kendrick’s findings? a) There is a relationship between the variables of the study. b) The findings of his study have practical applications. c) If Kendrick were to conduct the same study 100 times, they would get the same results by chance less than 5% of the time. d) If Kendrick were to conduct the same study 100 times, they would likely not get the same results. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 301. What does a psychologist usually mean when she says a specific experimental result is ‘significant’? a) The result reflects a large difference between the mean scores of one participant group and the mean scores of another. b) The result is important in a practical sense. c) The result will allow psychologists to support one theory over alternative theories. d) The result is unlikely to have occurred solely because of chance. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect.

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Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 302. What can statistics tell us about the results of a research project? a) the importance of the findings b) the likelihood that the results would have been found by chance alone c) how much the dependent variable depends on the independent variable d) how often the findings have been replicated Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 303. The hypothesis of a study is supported when a) the results are statistically significant. b) the data are inaccurate. c) a new theory is created from the results. d) a non-random sample is used. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 304. What does it mean to say that research findings are ‘statistically significant’? a) the findings are important b) the findings will be published c) the findings are not likely to be due to chance d) the findings are not likely to be found again Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results?

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305. After a researcher has tested all their participants and they have their data, what information can statistics add to their knowledge? a) how many other researchers have found the same results b) the likelihood that the results will be published c) the extent that the dependent variable depends on the independent variable d) the likelihood that the results would have been found by chance alone Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 306. When the results of a research project have been found to be ‘statistically significant’, what does this mean? a) The findings are original and have never been published before. b) The findings are very important, and the scientific community should know about them. c) The findings are not likely to be due to chance alone. d) The findings will be published in a reputable journal. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 307. Which value indicates the greatest likelihood that a result occurred by chance alone? a) .005 b) .05 c) .5 d) .001 Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 308. Bentley is excitedly telling his professor that he just analyzed his data and found a result of

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p < .05. Bentley is referring to the a) mean. b) standard deviation. c) correlation coefficient. d) probability statistic. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 309. Paulette encounters the following sentence in a psychology journal article she is reading: “Participants exposed to brief heat stress made more errors on the visual attention task than did participants not exposed to heat stress, p < .05.” Paulette can conclude each of the following EXCEPT a) the difference between the groups in the number of errors most likely stems from heat stress. b) there was a significant difference between the groups in the number of errors. c) the number of errors was much larger in the heat stress group than it was in the other group. d) there is less than a 5% chance that random coincidence was responsible for the difference between the groups in the number of errors. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 310. Julia and Marco have just completed the analysis on their research projects. Julia has found a probability statistic of p < .01 and Marco has found a probability statistic of p < .001. Who has found the stronger relationship between the variables of their study? a) Julia b) Marco c) Neither of these findings are significant because they are both smaller than p < .05. d) The probability statistic only indicates if there are differences between the groups, it does not provide information about the strength of the relationship. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions

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about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 311. Why do the editors of psychology journals sometimes insist that psychologists include an estimate of effect size along with the probability statistic when they report a significant result? a) By itself, a probability statistic indicates only whether the difference in means between the groups in the study is unlikely to reflect chance. The effect size statistic indicates whether the difference is large. b) By itself, a probability statistic indicates only that the difference in means between the groups in the study is large. The effect size statistic indicates whether the difference is unlikely to reflect chance. c) The effect size statistic replicates the probability statistic, providing additional evidence that the result is significant. d) By itself, a probability statistic indicates only that there is a relationship between two variables. The effect size statistic gives some indication of cause and effect. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 312. Polly is showing the results of her study to her statistics professor. She has found a significant difference between her groups with a small effect size. What will her professor likely tell her regarding the relationship between her variables? a) She should be very excited because she found significance and an effect size. b) There is a large difference between her groups. c) Although she found significance, it appears that the difference between the groups may not be very large. d) She should have reported the standard deviation rather than the effect size, as it would give her more information about the strength of the relationship between the variables. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 313. Redoing and expanding on a study to see if its results hold up in different conditions with new samples is termed ___. a) reproduction b) replication

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c) repetition d) restoration Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 314. Immediately after the title of a journal article in psychology, a brief overview of the research always appears before the introduction begins. This overview is called a(n) ___. a) synopsis b) preface c) precis d) abstract Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 315. Dr. Fillipe is investigating the effects of vitamin B consumption on stress levels. He randomly gives half of his participants a daily dose of vitamin B for one month while the other half takes a sugar pill. Each day, the participants provide a saliva sample to measure stress hormones. If Dr. FIllipe wanted to determine whether the vitamin B group had significantly lower levels of stress hormones compared to the sugar pill group, which of the following pieces of information would he NOT need to know? a) the number of participants in each group b) the mean levels of stress hormones of each group c) the standard deviation for stress hormone levels of each group d) the correlation coefficient of each group Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results?

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316. Dr. Jirandi is studying the effects of caffeine on road rage. He randomly gives half of his participants an espresso every morning for one month before their commute to work, while the other half consumes a decaffeinated coffee. After the daily commute, each participant provides a rating of how angry they felt during the drive, and stress levels are measured by taking a saliva sample. If Dr. Jirandi wanted to determine whether the caffeine group had significantly more road rage than the decaffeinated group, which of the following pieces of information would he NOT need to know? a) the number of participants in each group b) the mean anger ratings and levels of stress hormones of each group c) the standard deviation for anger ratings and stress hormone levels of each group d) the correlation coefficient of each group Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 317. Which of the following is true about the research ethics board (REB)? a) It is funded by the Natural Science and Engineering Research Council of Canada (NSERC). b) It is made up of elected government officials. c) It reviews each research project in an institution to protect the rights of participants in the study. d) It is a research grant agency. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe what ethical steps psychologists take to protect the rights of human research participants. Section Reference: What Ethical Research Guidelines Do Psychologists Follow? 318. a. Which group evaluates each research project to protect the rights of participants in a study? a) Natural Science and Engineering Research Council of Canada (NSERC) b) The Canadian Council on Animal Care (CCAC) c) The Canadian Psychological Association (CPA) d) the research ethics board (REB) Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what ethical steps psychologists take to protect the rights of human research participants.

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Section Reference: What Ethical Research Guidelines Do Psychologists Follow? 319. REB is to ____________ as CCAC is to _______________. a) animals; humans b) humans; animals c) animals; animals d) humans; animals Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what ethical steps psychologists take to protect the rights of human research participants. Section Reference: What Ethical Research Guidelines Do Psychologists Follow? 320. REB is to ____________ as NSERC is to _______________. a) research design; ethics b) ethics; research design c) funding; oversight d) oversight; funding Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what ethical steps psychologists take to protect the rights of human research participants. Section Reference: What Ethical Research Guidelines Do Psychologists Follow? 321. Research at Harvard University that exposed mentally ill patients to LSD and ECT to test the causes and effects of brainwashing failed to comply with which ethical guideline? a) participant bias b) confidentiality c) informed consent d) voluntary withdrawal Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what ethical steps psychologists take to protect the rights of human research participants. Section Reference: What Ethical Research Guidelines Do Psychologists Follow? 322. What procedure at the end of an experiment provides participants with information regarding the full purpose and goals of the study?

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a) informed consent b) confidentiality review c) debriefing d) welfare review Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what ethical steps psychologists take to protect the rights of human research participants. Section Reference: What Ethical Research Guidelines Do Psychologists Follow? 323. Which of the following is the best definition of debriefing? a) when participants are told that they can end their participation at any time b) when participants are told about the study to help decide whether they want to participate or not c) when participants are reassured that their responses and identity will be protected and kept private d) when participants are given full information about the study after their participation Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe what ethical steps psychologists take to protect the rights of human research participants. Section Reference: What Ethical Research Guidelines Do Psychologists Follow? 324. Which of the following is the best definition of informed consent? a) when a research participant is supplied with full information about the study after their participation b) when a participant is given information about the purpose of the study, the procedures, and any potential risks and benefits, to decide whether they want to participate or not c) when the researchers ensure that the participant’s raw data and identifying information will be kept private d) when participants are told that they have the right to end participation at any point during the study Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe what ethical steps psychologists take to protect the rights of human research participants. Section Reference: What Ethical Research Guidelines Do Psychologists Follow? 325. Trent, a doctoral student in psychology, is preparing his dissertation proposal. The

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research ethics board (REB) at his university will approve his research if a) the research promises at least some scientific benefit. b) participants will experience no risk or discomfort during the research. c) the scientific benefit of the research outweighs the risk to the participants. d) participants are fully informed of the study’s true purpose before the session begins. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what ethical steps psychologists take to protect the rights of human research participants. Section Reference: What Ethical Research Guidelines Do Psychologists Follow? 326. Cassidy wants to tell her participants that she is conducting a study on memory for words. She will give the participants a list of words to study and then ask them to type all the words they remember into a computer. After the study time is finished, she will deliberately “forget” to remove the original list of words. Cassidy will be watching her participants through a one-way window because she is really studying cheating behaviour. What will most probably be the response of the Research Ethics Board to her ethics application? a) They will likely reject it because her participants cannot give informed consent unless they know what the study is actually about. b) They will probably approve it because the benefits of learning about cheating behaviour outweighs the harm that a little embarrassment might cause. c) They will likely reject it because this could cause embarrassment to those participants who cheat. d) They will probably approve it if Cassidy plans to debrief her participants after the experiment. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what ethical steps psychologists take to protect the rights of human research participants. Section Reference: What Ethical Research Guidelines Do Psychologists Follow? 327. Dr. O’Connor is telling his participants before he begins the experiment that their participation is completely voluntary and that they can stop taking part at any time. Dr. Quick is providing a detailed explanation to participants who have just completed a study. Which of the following statements is TRUE? a) Dr. O’Connor is obtaining informed consent from his participants. Dr. Quick is debriefing her participants. b) Dr. O’Connor is debriefing his participants. Dr. Quick is obtaining informed consent from her participants. c) Both Dr. O’Connor and Dr. Quick are obtaining informed consent from their participants. d) Both Dr. O’Connor and Dr. Quick are debriefing their participants. Answer: a

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what ethical steps psychologists take to protect the rights of human research participants. Section Reference: What Ethical Research Guidelines Do Psychologists Follow? 328. Lance is conducting a study that asks participants to complete a number of questionnaires. Part way through the experiment, a participant tells Lance he wishes to leave because he does not feel comfortable with some of the questions. Lance tells the participant that he can leave after he completes the study, but in the meantime, he should just skip the questions that are causing him concern. Which of the following ethical guidelines did the researcher breach? a) voluntary participation b) informed consent c) providing debriefing d) Lance did not violate ethical guidelines because he allowed the participant to skip the questions that made him feel uncomfortable. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what ethical steps psychologists take to protect the rights of human research participants. Section Reference: What Ethical Research Guidelines Do Psychologists Follow? 329. Which of the following would NOT be an ethical concern for research ethics boards? a) not telling a participant the true purpose of a study b) not paying participants for participating in a study c) disclosing the names of participants in a study d) pressuring participants to participate in a study Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what ethical steps psychologists take to protect the rights of human research participants. Section Reference: What Ethical Research Guidelines Do Psychologists Follow? 330. Which of the following information is a researcher NOT required to include in providing participants with informed consent? a) the purpose of the study b) what the participant will be asked to do in participating c) any risks involved with the study d) any deception involved in the study Answer: d

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe what ethical steps psychologists take to protect the rights of human research participants. Section Reference: What Ethical Research Guidelines Do Psychologists Follow? 331. Ginnie just finished participating in a study on the effects of alcohol on driving. She had to consume an unpleasant tasting liquid that may or may not have had alcohol, and then she drove in a simulator for half an hour while the researchers measured her performance. Now, she is sitting down with the experimenter and is handed a document that explains the details of the study to a greater degree. She is further asked if she has any questions and provided with contact information in case she thinks of a question later. What type of document was this? a) a debriefing form b) a confidentiality form c) an ethics review form d) an informed consent form Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what ethical steps psychologists take to protect the rights of human research participants. Section Reference: What Ethical Research Guidelines Do Psychologists Follow? 332. Dr. Fernandez is conducting a research study where he brings participants into a waiting room and watches them through a window to observe their behaviour. He records all his observations and then, after a time, he tells the participant that the study has been cancelled and lets them leave. Although there are many ethical violations in this example, what should Dr.Fernandez have done to have this study meet ethical guidelines? a) He should have fully disclosed to the participant all the details of the study. b) He should have debriefed the participants before they left. c) He should have obtained the informed consent of the participants. d) He should have allowed the participant to leave if they wanted. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what ethical steps psychologists take to protect the rights of human research participants. Section Reference: What Ethical Research Guidelines Do Psychologists Follow? 333. After testing 10 participants, Manny is on his way to class when he realizes he left the participants questionnaires in the testing room. When he goes back to get them, another student is looking at the consent forms and questionnaires and, pointing to one of the names, says, “I know this guy – he is in my social psychology class”. Which of the following ethical guidelines has been breached with this incident?

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a) Informed consent - Manny did not disclose to his participants that others might have access to his data. b) Voluntary participation – Had the participants known someone else might see their data they might not have wanted to participate. c) Debriefing – participants did not have full knowledge of the study. d) Confidentiality – participants’ identities and their research responses are supposed to be protected. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what ethical steps psychologists take to protect the rights of human research participants. Section Reference: What Ethical Research Guidelines Do Psychologists Follow? 334. Which of the following examples shows how psychologists take care to protect the confidentiality of their participants? a) Henry explains to his participant after the study is over that he had to use deception in his research. b) Amanda stores the raw data from her participants under lock and key. c) Casey makes sure that each participant in his study has an equal chance of being assigned to the experimental or control group. d) Devon informs his participant that he has the right to withdraw at any time. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what ethical steps psychologists take to protect the rights of human research participants. Section Reference: What Ethical Research Guidelines Do Psychologists Follow? 335. Horace is working in a lab that is researching personality types and dreams. In this research, participants fill out lengthy personality questionnaires and record the content of their dreams for one week. Horace’s job is to make sure that each participant is given an identity number, and that this number is not stored with any identifying information about the participant. Furthermore, Horace oversees storing all the raw data under lock and key, so that only the compiled data is available for analysis. In what way does Horace’s job show how psychologists take steps to protect human participants? a) The participation is voluntary. b) The participants are not deceived. c) The participants’ confidentiality is protected. d) The participants are completely debriefed. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Learning Objective: Describe what ethical steps psychologists take to protect the rights of human research participants. Section Reference: What Ethical Research Guidelines Do Psychologists Follow? 336. Serena wishes to conduct a study on people’s ability to identify different odors. When she provides the participants with information about the study, she tells them they will only be presented with pleasant odours. She knows, however, that some of the odours will be very unpleasant although not dangerous. She does not want to tell her participants about the unpleasant odours because they may not want to participate. How would an REB be most likely to respond to Serena’s application? a) They would likely approve it if Serena debriefed her participants afterward. b) They would likely approve it because Serena will not actually cause her participants any harm. c) They would likely reject her application because there is no compelling justification for not telling her participants about the unpleasant odours. d) They would likely approve her application because she is providing the participants with informed consent. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what ethical steps psychologists take to protect the rights of human research participants. Section Reference: What Ethical Research Guidelines Do Psychologists Follow? 337. Imogen is in the middle of participating in a research study when suddenly she remembers that she was supposed to babysit her little cousin. She immediately quits the study and goes to her cousin’s house. In what way does this example show that psychologists take steps to protect their participants? a) Participants are fully debriefed. b) There was no deception involved in this study. c) Participation is voluntary. d) Participants’ responses are kept confidential. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what ethical steps psychologists take to protect the rights of human research participants. Section Reference: What Ethical Research Guidelines Do Psychologists Follow? 338. Janelle just found out that the researchers in the study she just participated in lied to her. She was told that she was consuming alcohol, but she really was not, and they were observing the effects of believing you had consumed alcohol on reaction times. She feels silly, because she did act as though she was drunk, and she thinks she will be very skeptical of researchers in the future. What is likely to be true about this study?

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a) It should not have been given ethics approval. b) Janelle gave informed consent. c) The costs of this study outweigh the benefits. d) The debriefing phase should be more informative and much longer. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what ethical steps psychologists take to protect the rights of human research participants. Section Reference: What Ethical Research Guidelines Do Psychologists Follow? 339. Participation is to ______________ as deception is to _______________. a) debriefing; post-experimental review b) informed consent; debriefing c) pre-experimental review; post-experimental review d) debriefing; informed consent Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what ethical steps psychologists take to protect the rights of human research participants. Section Reference: What Ethical Research Guidelines Do Psychologists Follow? 340. Dr. Katawa just learned that his research proposal did not get approval by the ethics review board. He wanted to study the effects of a new relaxation technique on risk-taking behaviour, and he proposed to tell the participants all the details of the study at the outset. Furthermore, he was going to compensate each participant with $100 for one hour of their time. What reason do you think the ethics review board rejected Dr. Katawa’s proposal? a) The compensation was too high. b) It was not voluntary. c) She needed to do an animal study first. d) There is no such thing as a new memory strategy. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what ethical steps psychologists take to protect the rights of human research participants. Section Reference: What Ethical Research Guidelines Do Psychologists Follow? 341. Which of the following is a reason REB’s might be concerned about how much compensation a researcher offers a participant as compensation for participating in a study? a) It may not be enough.

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b) It is unfair to other researchers who cannot afford to compensate their participants. c) It may unfairly induce a participant to overlook the risks of a study to obtain the compensation. d) It might not cover the expenses the participant incurs for participating. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what ethical steps psychologists take to protect the rights of human research participants. Section Reference: What Ethical Research Guidelines Do Psychologists Follow? 342. Dr. Price is proposing to study the effects of humiliation on the tendency of individuals to obey an authority figure. To do this, he plans on setting up a public embarrassment scene for a random half of the participants, and then measure how likely they are to obey a group leader who is telling them to cheat. Do you think Dr. Price would be given ethics approval? a) Yes, there is no other way to study this research question. b) Yes, this study involves minor costs and great benefits. c) No, a study like this would be impossible to pull off because it involves too many people. d) No, this study would cause discomfort to some participants. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what ethical steps psychologists take to protect the rights of human research participants. Section Reference: What Ethical Research Guidelines Do Psychologists Follow? 343. Dr. Lillian is proposing to study the effects of social embarrassment on stress levels. To do this, she plans on having participants perform an oral presentation and either face laughter from the audience or not. Following this, each participant would provide a saliva sample to measure stress levels. Do you think Dr. Lillian would be given ethics approval? a) Yes, there is no other way to study this research question. b) Yes, this study involves minor costs and great benefits. c) No, psychology is not allowed to collect biological samples from participants. d) No, this study would cause discomfort to some participants. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what ethical steps psychologists take to protect the rights of human research participants. Section Reference: What Ethical Research Guidelines Do Psychologists Follow? 344. What is the difference between debriefing and informed consent?

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a) Debriefing happens after participation; informed consent happens before. b) Debriefing only happens with animal subjects. c) Debriefing is only necessary when deception is used, informed consent is always necessary. d) Debriefing usually provides less information than informed consent. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what ethical steps psychologists take to protect the rights of human research participants. Section Reference: What Ethical Research Guidelines Do Psychologists Follow? 345. What is the difference between informed consent and debriefing? a) More information is given during informed consent than debriefing. b) Debriefing only happens with animal participants. c) Debriefing is optional, informed consent is mandatory. d) Informed consent happens before the study, debriefing after. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what ethical steps psychologists take to protect the rights of human research participants. Section Reference: What Ethical Research Guidelines Do Psychologists Follow? 346. Which of the following would represent an acceptable reason for a researcher to use deception in a study? a) If participants knew all the details of the study they may not wish to participate. b) If a participant knew all the details of the study, they might ask for more compensation. c) If the participant knew all the details of the study, it might influence the way they respond. d) There are no acceptable reasons for using deception in a research study. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what ethical steps psychologists take to protect the rights of human research participants. Section Reference: What Ethical Research Guidelines Do Psychologists Follow? 347. What additional ethical challenge do researchers have when their participants are children compared to adults? a) explaining the purpose of the study to them b) getting consent from both the parent and child c) having the child legally protected during the study for insurance purposes d) hiding the true purpose of the study from them

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Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what ethical steps psychologists take to protect the rights of human research participants. Section Reference: What Ethical Research Guidelines Do Psychologists Follow? 348. Which of the following would a research ethics board NOT be concerned with? a) costs and benefits of the study b) compensation offered to participants c) whether specific groups of participants are being treated differently d) the length of time the research project is expected to take Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe what ethical steps psychologists take to protect the rights of human research participants. Section Reference: What Ethical Research Guidelines Do Psychologists Follow? 349. Do you think that the ethics review board would approve of a study that posed potentially large risks to their participants but immense benefits to the rest of humanity? a) Yes, because the benefits to most people are so great. b) Yes, if the study used animal subjects. c) Yes, if the study explains the risks to the participants without using deception. d) No, because there are potentially large risks to the participants. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe what ethical steps psychologists take to protect the rights of human research participants. Section Reference: What Ethical Research Guidelines Do Psychologists Follow? 350. What would happen if the potential risks of having someone participate in a study are large, but the benefits to humankind are even greater? a) The study would get ethics approval because the benefits are so great. b) The study would have to use animal subjects. c) The study would have to explain the risks to the participants without using deception. d) The study would not be allowed to move forward and test participants. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard

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Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe what ethical steps psychologists take to protect the rights of human research participants. Section Reference: What Ethical Research Guidelines Do Psychologists Follow?

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MATCHING QUESTION 351. Match the appropriate words in the left column to the definitions in the right column. Terms A. Demand characteristics B. Positive correlation C. Independent variable D. Experimental group E. Random selection F. Sampling bias G. Descriptive methods H. Experimental methods I. Deductive reasoning J. Perfect correlation K. Negative correlation L. Control group M. Dependent variable N. Random assignment O. Inductive reasoning

___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___

Definitions 1. Identifying a sample in such a way that everyone in the population of interest has an equal chance of being involved in the study 2. When higher scores on one variable are related to lower scores on another variable 3. Allow researchers to demonstrate a relationship between the variables of interest 4. When each participant has an equal chance of being in either group in an experiment 5. When a researcher unintentionally conveys the desired outcome of the study to a participant 6. When higher scores on one variable are related to higher scores on another variable 7. Reasoning process proceeding from small specific situations to more general truths. 8. Group that has not been or will not be exposed to the treatment 9. Condition or event that you expect to change because of changing a variable 10. Condition or event that is thought to be a factor in changing another condition or event

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ANSWERS TO MATCHING QUESTION 1.

E: Random selection

K: Negative correlation

G: Descriptive methods

N: Random assignment

A: Demand characteristics

B: Positive correlation

O: Inductive reasoning

L: Control group

M: Dependent variable

10. C: Independent variable Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

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FILL-IN-THE-BLANK 352. The natural law of ___ suggests that when something is set in motion, it influences other things. Answer: cause and effect Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 353. Ideas that psychologists develop about the laws that govern processes and behaviour are called ___. Answer: theories Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 354. The field of ___ is often credited with shifting psychology from a philosophy to a science. Answer: biology Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Compare and contrast psychology with other natural sciences, such as biology, chemistry, and physics, and with pseudosciences, such as astrology. Section Reference: Is Psychology a Science? 355. Forced sterilization and controlled breeding are two consequences of ___. Answer: eugenics Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Compare and contrast psychology with other natural sciences, such as biology, chemistry, and physics, and with pseudosciences, such as astrology. Section Reference: Is Psychology a Science? 356. In an experimental setting, the variable that is NOT manipulated is called the ___ variable.

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Answer: dependent Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 357. A subset of a population is known as a(n) ___. Answer: sample Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 358. A ___ study focuses on observing a single person. Answer: case Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 359. The research methodology that asks participants to answer a series of questions is called a(n) ___. Answer: survey Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 360. In more complex experiments, multiple experimental groups are exposed to varying amounts of the ___ variable. Answer: independent Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension

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Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 361. An unintentional factor that conveys what a researcher expects to find is known as a(n) ___. Answer: demand characteristic Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 362. If a researcher chooses a sample that will all respond in the same way, it can alter the results of the study because the sample is not ___ of the population. Answer: representative Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 363. Analyzing data using ___ allows researchers to describe and measure relationships between variables. Answer: statistics Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 364. The value of a perfect positive relationship is ___. Answer: +1.0 Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect.

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Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 365. Researchers can conclude more broadly from their results through the use of ___ statistics. Answer: inferential Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 366. A(n) ___ test can be used to compare the performance of more than two groups. Answer: analysis of variance Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 367. To assess the strength of the relationship between variables, a(n) ___ can be calculated. Answer: effect size Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 368. Before a researcher can test his or her hypotheses by collecting data, a(n) ___ must provide ethical oversight. Answer: institutional review board Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what ethical steps psychologists take to protect the rights of human research participants. Section Reference: What Ethical Research Guidelines Do Psychologists Follow?

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369. Protecting the identity and information collected from individual respondents in a research study refers to maintaining ___. Answer: confidentiality Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what ethical steps psychologists take to protect the rights of human research participants. Section Reference: What Ethical Research Guidelines Do Psychologists Follow?

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SHORT ANSWER ESSAY QUESTIONS 370. What logical process starts with broad, basic principles and applies them in specific situations to prove many smaller truths? Answer: deductive reasoning Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 371. What term refers to personal beliefs or conventional wisdom that an individual thinker accepts as a broad, basic truth? Answer: bias Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 372. What logical process uses direct observations to generate broad conclusions? Answer: Inductive reasoning Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 373. What blended model is commonly used by psychologists to employ the best attributes of deductive and inductive reasoning? Answer: hypothetico-deductive approach Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science?

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374. What four goals does psychology share with other sciences? Answer: Describe, explain, predict, control. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Compare and contrast psychology with other natural sciences, such as biology, chemistry, and physics, and with pseudosciences, such as astrology. Section Reference: Is Psychology a Science? 375. Psychology distinguishes itself from other scientific fields by examining what three issues? Answer: values, morality, and personal preference Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Compare and contrast psychology with other natural sciences, such as biology, chemistry, and physics, and with pseudosciences, such as astrology. Section Reference: Is Psychology a Science? 376. What does it mean to operationalize a variable? Answer: develop a working definition Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 377. Define random selection and why it is used. Answer: All members of an identified population have an equal chance of being selected as part of the sample. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 378. At what stage of research are case studies usually conducted? Answer: during early investigations when psychologists are developing ideas Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension

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Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 379. Describe a limitation associated with the use of naturalistic observation methodology. Answer: Research subjects may change their behaviour if they know they are being observed; researcher bias may influence what researchers do and do not record. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 380. In an experiment, what names are given to the variable that is manipulated and the variable that is measured? Answer: Independent variables are manipulated, and dependent variables are measured. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 381. What term is used to describe the process in which everyone in a sample has an equal chance of being placed in either the control or experimental group? Answer: random assignment Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 382. Name two benefits of a study that uses a double-blind procedure. Answer: Reduces researcher bias; reduces subject bias. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research?

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383. What statistic is used to describe the relationship between two or more variables? Answer: correlation coefficient Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 384. Interpret the meaning of a strong positive correlation found in a study that measured abusive parenting and childhood aggression. Answer: High incidences of abusive parenting are related to high incidences of childhood aggression. Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 385. What is the mean of a data set? Answer: The mean is a calculation of the arithmetic average of the numerical data in the data set. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 386. Define “statistically significant.” Answer: Performance in two or more groups varies more than could be expected by chance alone. Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results?

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387. Describe what replication means? Answer: Replication means that the findings of a study were the same or very similar to those of previous studies performed on the same topic. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 388. What is the ethical goal of psychologists who are conducting research? Answer: to protect research participants from physical and emotional harm during the study Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what ethical steps psychologists take to protect the rights of human research participants. Section Reference: What Ethical Research Guidelines Do Psychologists Follow? 389. Identify three pieces of information that are often included on a research study consent form? Answer: details regarding purpose of the study, procedures to be used, disclosure of risks and benefits of participation, responsibility of participants Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe what ethical steps psychologists take to protect the rights of human research participants. Section Reference: What Ethical Research Guidelines Do Psychologists Follow?

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ESSAY QUESTIONS 390. What are the two essential beliefs that science has regarding the world? Provide an example for each belief. Answer: The universe operates according to natural laws and that such laws are discoverable and testable. Applicable examples must be provided. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 391. Define the term “hypothesis” and provide an example. Answer: A hypothesis is a testable statement that can objectively be proven false. Hypotheses are typically in the form of an if/then statement; applicable example must be provided. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 392. Describe the four steps used in the scientific approach to study behaviour. Answer: making observations, developing a hypothesis, testing the hypothesis, and developing a theory Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List two core beliefs of science, and describe the steps in the scientific method. Section Reference: What Is a Science? 393. Describe a key difference between the goals of psychology and the physical sciences. Answer: Although psychologists attempt to isolate the fundamental elements of behaviour, they realize that these factors may be temporary or permanent combinations that vary by individual. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Compare and contrast psychology with other natural sciences, such as biology, chemistry, and physics, and with pseudosciences, such as astrology. Section Reference: Is Psychology a Science?

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394. What is the difference between psychology and pseudopsychology? Provide an example of for each to illustrate your answer. Answer: Pseudopsychology argues that psychological principles can provide answers to all of life’s major questions; has no basis in the scientific method. Applicable examples must be provided. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Compare and contrast psychology with other natural sciences, such as biology, chemistry, and physics, and with pseudosciences, such as astrology. Section Reference: Is Psychology a Science? 395. What difficult balance, regarding using psychology and pseudopsychology, must psychologists maintain? Answer: They must encourage people to seek guidance for how to live effectively while simultaneously distancing themselves from the non-scientific approaches used by pseudopsychology. Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Compare and contrast psychology with other natural sciences, such as biology, chemistry, and physics, and with pseudosciences, such as astrology. Section Reference: Is Psychology a Science? 396. Stanley wanted to determine whether hunger influenced his performance on his history exams. For the first exam, he ate 1 hour before the exam. For the second exam, he ate immediately after the exam. Identify the independent and dependent variables in this study. Answer: The independent variable is the manipulation of when he ate (before/after the exam). The dependent variable is his performance on the test. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 397. A political scientist wanted to study the prevalence of racism in Canada by interviewing scholars in the area. Unknowingly, her sample included a disproportionate number of racist individuals. Name a methodological criticism of her research. Answer: Sampling bias occurred. Individuals in the sample were more likely to confirm her hypothesis which decreases the validity of her findings.

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Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 398. Explain the Hawthorne Effect. What type of study was conducted to show this effect? Answer: People who are observed during a study or at their workplace will change or improve their behaviour if they know they are being watched. This was shown in a naturalistic observation study. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 399. Name two disadvantages of using a case study methodology. Answer: Results may not generalize to larger populations; researcher bias may occur. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 400. Describe three different means by which surveys can be conducted. Answer: in-person, telephone, electronic (email), written questionnaire dissemination, etc. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 401. In an experiment, how does an experimental group vary from a control group? Provide two examples to illustrate your response. Answer: The control group is not exposed to the independent variable; the experimental group. Applicable examples must be provided. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 402. Describe the characteristics of a double-blind study. Why is this type of study used in research? Answer: Neither the researcher nor the participants know who is assigned to the control and experimental groups. Controls for participant bias, researcher bias, and demand characteristics. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 403. Define and provide an example of a demand characteristic. Answer: Any unintentional factor that conveys what a researcher expects to find such that participants may change their behaviours, therefore compromising the validity of the results. Provide an applicable example. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List steps in the research process and key characteristics of descriptive and experimental psychological research methods. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Conduct Research? 404. Describe the difference between a negative and positive correlation. Answer: Positive correlations indicate that variables change in the same direction (e.g., both get larger or smaller) whereas a negative relationship indicates an inverse relationship (e.g., one increases while another decreases). Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 405. Provide an example of a negative correlation. Answer: Example should reflect an inverse relationship between two variables. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension

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Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 406. Make a distinction between descriptive and inferential statistics. Answer: Descriptive statistics summarize data and include measures such as the mean and standard deviation. Inferential statistics are used to interpret the meaning of results and determine whether study results support or refute hypotheses. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 407. What is the purpose of calculating a probability statistic? Answer: to set a criterion for determining what a significant difference in scores would be Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 408. Why is experimental replication necessary? Answer: Replication ensures that experimental methodology is being used effectively and that findings are consistent across a variety of locations and time periods. Robust findings eventually grow into theories which in turn, may become laws. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe what information is conveyed by statistics, including correlation coefficients, means, and standard deviations, and explain how psychologists draw conclusions about cause and effect. Section Reference: How Do Psychologists Make Sense of Research Results? 409. What special considerations must researchers give to participants such as children or the elderly? Answer: These populations are protected because they may not be able to give informed consent on their own. Caregivers or parents must give permission for them to participate.

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what ethical steps psychologists take to protect the rights of human research participants. Section Reference: What Ethical Research Guidelines Do Psychologists Follow? 410. Evaluate the following statement: Animal testing has not benefited our understanding of human behaviour. Is this an accurate statement? Why or why not? Answer: Much of the knowledge we have regarding the brain and nervous system has and will continue to be derived from animal research. Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe what ethical steps psychologists take to protect the rights of human research participants. Section Reference: What Ethical Research Guidelines Do Psychologists Follow?

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CHAPTER 3 NEUROSCIENCE CHAPTER LEARNING OBJECTIVES 1. Understand the key methods that scientists use to learn about nervous system anatomy and functioning. • Neuroscientists examine autopsy tissue and patients with localized brain damage to learn about brain anatomy and brain function. • EEGs and neuroimaging, such as PET scans and fMRI, allow scientists to study brain function in the living brain. 2. Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. • The two major divisions of the nervous system are the central nervous system, which consists of the brain and spinal cord, and the peripheral nervous system, which consists of nerves that extend throughout the body outside the central nervous system. • The peripheral nervous system has two divisions: the somatic nervous system, which sends information about the senses and movement, and the autonomic nervous system, which controls involuntary functions and responses to stress. • The autonomic nervous system is divided into the sympathetic “fight-or-flight” nervous system, which responds to stress by activating the autonomic system. • The parasympathetic “rest and digest” nervous system is responsible for returning the autonomic system to baseline. • The spinal cord provides the interface between the CNS and PNS, controlling basic reflexes and the passage of information about sensation and movement from the brain to the body and back again. 3. List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. • The brain can be subdivided into many regions, each of which serves one or more specialized functions. • The brainstem participates in movement and sensation of the head and neck as well as in basic bodily functions, such as respiration and heart rate. • The midbrain includes the substantia nigra, an area important for movement. • The hypothalamus controls basic drives (food, drink, sex) and hormones, while the thalamus serves as a relay station for sensory information on its way to the cerebral cortex. • Many brain regions participate in different types of learning—the hippocampus is important for spatial navigation learning and learning about life’s events; the amygdala is important for fear learning; the cerebellum and striatum are important for motor learning; and the nucleus accumbens is important for reward learning. • A large part of the brain consists of the cerebral cortex. The cerebral cortex can be subdivided into frontal, parietal, temporal, and occipital lobes. The cortex controls movement, integrates sensory information, and serves numerous cognitive functions.

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4. Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. • The two major types of brain cells are neurons and glia. • Neurons communicate with other cells by producing and sending electrochemical signals. • Glia are involved in various functions, such as forming the blood–brain barrier, producing myelin, and clearing the brain of debris. 5. Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. • Action potentials are generated within a neuron by the flow of ions, specifically sodium and potassium, across the cell membrane. The generation of action potentials within a neuron facilitate communication between neurons, which occurs at the synapse via chemical signals called neurotransmitters. • Neurotransmitters are released by the presynaptic neuron, diffuse across the synapse, and bind to receptors on the postsynaptic site. • Action potentials travel faster down myelinated than unmyelinated axons. 6. Explore the neuroscience findings regarding brain injury and the evidence for brain lateralization. • Brain injury can be categorized as traumatic or acquired. • Research shows that the two hemispheres are more similar than different and that any differences are usually relative. • Acquired brain injury is typically categorized into damage by infection or toxins, degenerative diseases, tumours, and strokes. 7. Describe the basic theory of evolution and explain how it has influenced our understanding of the human nervous system and the evolution of the human brain. • All life on Earth is interrelated and derives from one common ancestor through a process known as evolution. • An organism’s ability to survive and reproduce (thereby transferring their traits to their offspring) is referred to as the individual’s fitness. • The brains of modern-day humans are much larger than any other animal species or of Hominid species that have gone extinct.

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

TRUE-FALSE STATEMENTS 1. Autopsies are NOT the ideal way to learn about the brain because it is NOT evident how the brain worked when the person was alive. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Understand the key methods that scientists use to learn about nervous system anatomy and functioning. Section Reference: How Do Scientists Study the Nervous System? 2. The peripheral nervous system includes the somatic and autonomic subdivisions. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 3. Efferent neurons carry signals from the CNS to the PNS. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 4. Stem cells from a person’s skin can be used to regenerate injured nerve fibres. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 5. People often recover from damage to the medulla. Answer: False

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 6. Dopamine is associated with difficulties with motor coordination. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 7. Hormones are important for growth and reproduction. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 8. Damage to the striatum may result in uncontrollable shaking. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 9. The neocortex is responsible for the most complex behaviours in humans. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

10. The parietal cortex is located at the top middle of the brain. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 11. Broca’s area is critical for speech production. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 12. The peripheral nervous system includes the brain and spinal cord. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work? 13. There are a greater number of neurons than glial cells in the human nervous system. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work? 14. All neurons are capable of communicating with other cells using electrical or chemical signals. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy

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Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 15. Immediately following an action potential, a neuron is ready to fire again. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 16. Left-handed individuals are more likely to have their language areas located on the right side of their brains than are right-handed individuals. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explore the neuroscience findings regarding brain injury and the evidence for brain lateralization. Section Reference: CNS Injury and Brain Lateralization 17. Unless damaged, the blood-brain barrier never allows infection to occur in the CNS. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Explore the neuroscience findings regarding brain injury and the evidence for brain lateralization. Section Reference: CNS Injury and Brain Lateralization 18. Although split brain patients show deficits in processing in laboratory experiments, they appear to have few problems in the real world. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Explore the neuroscience findings regarding brain injury and the evidence for brain lateralization.

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Section Reference: CNS Injury and Brain Lateralization 19. Approximately 80% of the human brain consists of cortex. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the basic theory of evolution and explain how it has influenced our understanding of the human nervous system and the evolution of the human brain. Section Reference: Evolution and the Nervous System 20. Canadian and American statistics suggest that males are more likely to kill children who are genetically related to them than those who are NOT. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the basic theory of evolution and explain how it has influenced our understanding of the human nervous system and the evolution of the human brain. Section Reference: Evolution and the Nervous System

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MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 21. What technological advance allows scientists to study brain activity in healthy, awake humans? a) neuroimaging b) lesioning c) autopsy d) psychoanalysis Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Understand the key methods that scientists use to learn about nervous system anatomy and functioning. Section Reference: How Do Scientists Study the Nervous System? 22. Dr. Fargas is interested in investigating the memory processes in a healthy, intact, normal human brain. Given what you know about techniques for studying the brain, what technique would you recommend? a) transcranial magnetic stimulation b) neuroimaging c) lesioning studies d) talk to a neuropsychologist about brain function Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Understand the key methods that scientists use to learn about nervous system anatomy and functioning. Section Reference: How Do Scientists Study the Nervous System? 23. Jack’s uncle had Alzheimer’s disease and when he died, he left his brain to medical science Which of the following techniques would be used to study Jack’s uncle’s brain? a) neuroimaging b) transcrancial magnetic stimulation c) evoked related potentials d) autopsy Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Understand the key methods that scientists use to learn about nervous system anatomy and functioning. Section Reference: How Do Scientists Study the Nervous System?

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

24. What is the primary drawback to using autopsy data to study the brain? a) this data is usually associated with violent death and the tissue is often too damaged to assess b) we cannot know how the brain area worked when the person was alive c) cannot differentiate genetic from environmental effects d) more expensive and time consuming than neuroimaging Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Understand the key methods that scientists use to learn about nervous system anatomy and functioning. Section Reference: How Do Scientists Study the Nervous System? 25. A disadvantage to the _______ approach is that it fails to identify where brain activity is occurring when that activity is deep in the brain. a) neurophysiological b) neuroimaging c) event related potential d) transcranial stimulation Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Understand the key methods that scientists use to learn about nervous system anatomy and functioning. Section Reference: How Do Scientists Study the Nervous System? 26. An advantage of the _______ approach is that it allows us to make inferences about how loss of some particular function is related to localized brain damage. a) neurophysiological b) Electroencephalogram (EEG) c) Event Related Potential (ERP) d) Positron Emission Tomography (PET) Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Understand the key methods that scientists use to learn about nervous system anatomy and functioning. Section Reference: How Do Scientists Study the Nervous System? 27. Dr. Kensington is a neuropsychologist conducting a case study with a patient who lost the ability to speak after a stroke. What will he be able to learn by studying this patient’s brain?

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a) what caused the patient’s stroke b) how to prevent another stroke c) what brain areas are involved in the speech function the patient lost d) how long the patient is likely to live Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Understand the key methods that scientists use to learn about nervous system anatomy and functioning. Section Reference: How Do Scientists Study the Nervous System 28. Which of the following methods for studying the brain is correctly matched with a disadvantage to using that method? a) autopsy – relies on inference b) behavioural testing – cannot lesion and microscopically examines brains of live human participants c) EEGs – surface recordings provide only limited data about brain activity d) animal testing – no way to know how areas functioned when the organism was alive Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Understand the key methods that scientists use to learn about nervous system anatomy and functioning. Section Reference: How Do Scientists Study the Nervous System 29. Jenny’s neurologist has recommended that she undergo an electrical recording to test for a possible seizure disorder. What will this test likely entail? a) Electrodes will be placed on her scalp to detect brain activity and will record this activity on an EEG. b) A radioactive form of glucose will be injected into her bloodstream and a scanner will record the amount of glucose in her brain activity. c) Powerful electromagnets will produce a high-frequency magnetic field that will be passed through the brain. d) Chemicals will be injected into specific areas of her brain to record the activity of various neurons. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Understand the key methods that scientists use to learn about nervous system anatomy and functioning. Section Reference: How Do Scientists Study the Nervous System

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30. Lesioning is to ___ as TMS is to ___. a) humans; animals b) animals; humans c) humans; humans d) animals; animals Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Understand the key methods that scientists use to learn about nervous system anatomy and functioning. Section Reference: How Do Scientists Study the Nervous System? 31. Destruction is to ____________, as disruption is to ______________. a) autopsy; lesioning b) lesioning; autopsy c) lesioning; TMS d) TMS; EEG Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Understand the key methods that scientists use to learn about nervous system anatomy and functioning. Section Reference: How Do Scientists Study the Nervous System? 32. Dr. Stabler is conducting research on the brain region in rats that is associated with being able to find the way through a maze. After training the rats to go through the maze, Dr. Stabler sticks an electrode into a specific area of the rat’s brain and runs enough electrical current through the electrode to destroy tissue in that area. He then puts the rat in the maze again to see how well he can navigate the maze. Which method is Dr. Stabler using to conduct his study? a) TMS b) EEG c) autopsy d) lesioning Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Understand the key methods that scientists use to learn about nervous system anatomy and functioning. Section Reference: How Do Scientists Study the Nervous System? 33. Which of the following ways to study the brain is NOT a neuroimaging technique?

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a) functional magnetic resonance imaging b) transcranial magnetic stimulation c) diffusion tensor imaging d) positron emission tomography Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Understand the key methods that scientists use to learn about nervous system anatomy and functioning. Section Reference: How Do Scientists Study the Nervous System? 34. Dr. Baku is investigating the function of the amygdala, and comparing activation when participants view emotionally charged photos versus serene scenery photos. Given the choices below, what is the best technique for Dr. Baku to use for this project? a) diffusion tensor imaging b) MRI c) event-related potential d) positron emission tomography Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Understand the key methods that scientists use to learn about nervous system anatomy and functioning. Section Reference: How Do Scientists Study the Nervous System? 35. Which of the following brain study techniques is correctly matched with a disadvantage? a) examining cases of brain damage – tells little about how brain systems work while in use b) autopsy study – cannot be used to investigate the human brain c) EEG – only provides a summary of activity over a large area of tissue d) lesioning – may not reflect the activity of the intact brain Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Understand the key methods that scientists use to learn about nervous system anatomy and functioning. Section Reference: How Do Scientists Study the Nervous System? 36. Which of the following brain study techniques is correctly matched with a description? a) EEG – detects uptake of certain molecules in the brain b) EEG – detects changes in blood flow in the brain c) PET – detects uptake of certain molecules in the brain d) fMRI – records brain’s electrical activity from the scalp

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Understand the key methods that scientists use to learn about nervous system anatomy and functioning. Section Reference: How Do Scientists Study the Nervous System? 37. Which of the following techniques has the least penetration into the brain? a) Functional Magnetic Resonance imaging (fMRI) b) Electroencephalogram (EEG) c) Positron Emission Tomography (PET) d) Diffusion Tensor Imaging (DTI) Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Understand the key methods that scientists use to learn about nervous system anatomy and functioning. Section Reference: How Do Scientists Study the Nervous System? 38. Dr. Gray is investigating the function of the amygdala and is deciding whether to use EEG or fMRI. What is the main advantage of using EEG over fMRI? a) It allows Dr. Gray to pinpoint exactly when the amygdala is active. b) It provides Dr. Gray with a better measure of activity in different areas of the brain. c) It also allows Dr. Gray to image the pathways between important brain areas. d) It gives Dr. Gray information about how damage to different areas of the brain affect behaviour. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Understand the key methods that scientists use to learn about nervous system anatomy and functioning. Section Reference: How Do Scientists Study the Nervous System? 39. Dr. Fernelli is investigating the function of the prefrontal cortex and is deciding whether to use EEG or fMRI. What is the main advantage of using fMRI over EEG? a) It allows Dr. Fernelli to pinpoint exactly when the prefrontal cortex is active. b) It provides Dr. Fernelli with a better measure of activity in different areas of the brain. c) It also allows Dr. Fernelli to image the pathways between important brain areas. d) It gives Dr. Fernelli information about how damage to different areas of the brain affect behaviour. Answer: b

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Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Understand the key methods that scientists use to learn about nervous system anatomy and functioning. Section Reference: How Do Scientists Study the Nervous System? 40. Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) a) measures the orientation and integrity of white matter in the brain. b) produces a detailed, clear, two-dimensional image of the brain or other organs. c) involves the injection of a harmless radioactive substance into a person’s bloodstream. d) uses a strong magnetic field to create a three-dimensional image of the body or brain. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Understand the key methods that scientists use to learn about nervous system anatomy and functioning. Section Reference: How Do Scientists Study the Nervous System? 41. Which of the following accurately identifies neuroimaging techniques that detect activity in the brain? a) CT and MRI b) PET and fMRI c) fMRI and EEG d) PET and TMS Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Understand the key methods that scientists use to learn about nervous system anatomy and functioning. Section Reference: How Do Scientists Study the Nervous System? 42. What is the key difference between an MRI and a PET scan? a) An MRI is a tool designed to identify active brain areas during routine activities; in contrast, a PET scan identifies brain abnormalities. b) A PET scan is a tool designed to identify active brain areas during routine activities; in contrast, an MRI identifies brain abnormalities. c) An MRI is a tool designed to assess the effect of strokes and tumors; in contrast, a PET scan traces abnormal brain waves. d) A PET scan is a tool designed to assess the effect of strokes and tumors; in contrast, an MRI traces abnormal brain waves. Answer: b

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Understand the key methods that scientists use to learn about nervous system anatomy and functioning. Section Reference: How Do Scientists Study the Nervous System? 43. What is the most obvious difference between fMRI and MRI? a) fMRI is only used with children, MRI with children and adults. b) fMRI detects grey matter damage; MRI detects white matter damage. c) fMRI is used to study brain function; MRI is used to study brain structure. d) fMRI is faster to administer and less costly than MRI. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Understand the key methods that scientists use to learn about nervous system anatomy and functioning. Section Reference: How Do Scientists Study the Nervous System? 44. All the following are reasons to use a CT scan instead of an MRI EXCEPT which statement? a) CT scans are better at detecting certain forms of cancer. b) CT scans are better at detecting blood vessel abnormalities in the brain c) CT scans are better at detecting soft tissue injuries d) CT scans are faster to administer and less costly Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Understand the key methods that scientists use to learn about nervous system anatomy and functioning. Section Reference: How Do Scientists Study the Nervous System? 45. Although fMRI and MRI use the same machine to generate images, they differ in one fundamental way. In what do they differ? a) fMRI produces very clear images; MRI produces images that are much less detailed. b) fMRI detects grey matter damage; MRI detects white matter damage. c) fMRI is used to study brain function; MRI is used to study brain structure. d) fMRI is faster to administer and less costly than MRI. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Understand the key methods that scientists use to learn about nervous system anatomy and functioning. Section Reference: How Do Scientists Study the Nervous System?

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46. Which of the following methods to study the brain relies on a magnetic field to produce anatomical pictures? a) CT scan b) TMS c) MRI d) PET Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Understand the key methods that scientists use to learn about nervous system anatomy and functioning. Section Reference: How Do Scientists Study the Nervous System? 47. Dr. Edwin is contemplating the benefits of using a CT scan versus MRI. Which of the following would be a reason for Dr. Edwin to use MRI? a) It produces better images. b) It can be used with people who have any metal parts in their body (e.g., pacemakers). c) It is faster to administer. d) It is better at detecting brain diseases. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Understand the key methods that scientists use to learn about nervous system anatomy and functioning. Section Reference: How Do Scientists Study the Nervous System? 48. Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of the neurophysiology approach to studying the brain? a) Researchers cannot make statements about cause and effect. b) Patients with brain damage may have smaller abnormalities that are not detected using this approach. c) The image produced is not as clear as MRI or CT scans. d) It does not detect if damage has occurred to a pathway carrying information to and from the brain area. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Understand the key methods that scientists use to learn about nervous system anatomy and functioning. Section Reference: How Do Scientists Study the Nervous System?

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49. CT is to ___ as MRI is to ___. a) X-ray; radioactivity b) blood flow; X-ray c) X-ray; magnetic field d) magnetic field; X-ray Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Understand the key methods that scientists use to learn about nervous system anatomy and functioning. Section Reference: How Do Scientists Study the Nervous System? 50. CT is to ___ as TMS is to ___. a) X-ray; electromagnetic pulse b) blood flow; X-ray c) X-ray; magnetic field d) magnetic field; X-ray Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Understand the key methods that scientists use to learn about nervous system anatomy and functioning. Section Reference: How Do Scientists Study the Nervous System? 51. What is the main advantage over using MRI compared to using a CT scan? a) MRI also gives information about brain function. b) CT scan only produces two-dimensional images. c) CT scan is slower to administer and is more costly. d) MRI produces clearer images. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Understand the key methods that scientists use to learn about nervous system anatomy and functioning. Section Reference: How Do Scientists Study the Nervous System? 52. What is the main advantage of using TMS versus more traditional animal studies? a) Lesioning animals is considered unethical. b) Microscopic studies of specific brain areas cannot be accomplished in animals, only in humans. c) TMS is more cost effective than animal studies for both humans and animals.

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d) The creation of “temporary lesions” in humans makes TMS a superior approach. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Understand the key methods that scientists use to learn about nervous system anatomy and functioning. Section Reference: How Do Scientists Study the Nervous System? 53. Transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) a) disrupts localized brain activity in a conscious person. b) measures the orientation and integrity of white matter. c) assesses brain activity through radioactive blood flow. d) creates two-dimensional X-ray images of the brain. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Understand the key methods that scientists use to learn about nervous system anatomy and functioning. Section Reference: How Do Scientists Study the Nervous System? 54. Which of the following methods to study the brain relies on two-dimensional X-ray images to produce anatomical pictures and what is one advantage of using it? a) CT scan; preferred method for identifying certain forms of cancer b) TMS; creates a “temporary lesion” in a conscious person c) MRI; produces a clear three-dimensional image d) PET; identifies active brain areas Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Understand the key methods that scientists use to learn about nervous system anatomy and functioning. Section Reference: How Do Scientists Study the Nervous System? 55. Dr. Alfine wants to know about the activity of the brain when someone is meditating and compare that to the activity in their brain when they are hypnotized. What would be the best technique for Dr. Alfine to use for this project? a) diffusion tensor imaging b) magnetic resonance imaging c) electroencephalogram d) positron emission tomography Answer: c

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Understand the key methods that scientists use to learn about nervous system anatomy and functioning. Section Reference: How Do Scientists Study the Nervous System? 56. Dr. Baker is studying the activity in the brain of a participant when they are in REM sleep and comparing that to the activity in the brain when they are fully alert. Given this goal, what is the best technique for Dr. Baker to use? a) diffusion tensor imaging b) magnetic resonance imaging c) electroencephalogram d) positron emission tomography Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Understand the key methods that scientists use to learn about nervous system anatomy and functioning. Section Reference: How Do Scientists Study the Nervous System? 57. CT is to PET as ___ is to ___. a) function; structure b) structure; function c) structure; structure d) function; function Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Understand the key methods that scientists use to learn about nervous system anatomy and functioning. Section Reference: How Do Scientists Study the Nervous System? 58. DTI is to TMS as ___ is to ___. a) integrity; disruption b) function; integrity c) function; structure d) disruption; function Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Understand the key methods that scientists use to learn about nervous

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system anatomy and functioning. Section Reference: How Do Scientists Study the Nervous System? 59. From a researcher’s point of view, the biggest drawback of using PET scans is ___, but from a participant’s point of view, the biggest disadvantage of having a PET scan is that ___. a) it does not provide information about brain function; it costs a lot b) it does not provide information about brain structure; the results are not available for a few weeks c) it only provides information about white matter; it is an extremely painful procedure d) it takes a while to detect changes in brain activity; it requires injection of a harmless radioactive substance Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Understand the key methods that scientists use to learn about nervous system anatomy and functioning. Section Reference: How Do Scientists Study the Nervous System? 60. What is an advantage of using fMRI over PET scans to study brain function? a) fMRI detects changes in brain function much faster than PET. b) fMRI identifies which areas of the brain are active, PET only identifies when these areas are active. c) fMRI can be used with people who have pacemakers or other metal in their bodies, while PET cannot. d) the results are available much faster with fMRI compared to PET. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Understand the key methods that scientists use to learn about nervous system anatomy and functioning. Section Reference: How Do Scientists Study the Nervous System? 61. What is the biggest disadvantage of using PET scans to study brain function? a) It does not detect changes in brain function very quickly. b) It cannot identify which areas of the brain are active. c) It cannot be used with people who have pacemakers or other metal in their bodies. d) It is extremely costly compared to fMRI. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Understand the key methods that scientists use to learn about nervous system anatomy and functioning.

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Section Reference: How Do Scientists Study the Nervous System? 62. Dr. Grella wants to study what happens to short-term memory capacity in humans if the prefrontal cortex is destroyed. Obviously, destroying the prefrontal cortex of participants is out of the question. What is the next best thing that Dr. Grella could do to investigate this problem? a) ERP b) TMS c) MRI d) Examine the autopsy tissue of people who lived with short-term memory capacity deficits. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Understand the key methods that scientists use to learn about nervous system anatomy and functioning. Section Reference: How Do Scientists Study the Nervous System? 63. Doctors suspect that Jeremy has sustained a concussion. Which of the following would provide the most accurate information about this? a) DTI b) CT scan c) MRI d) EEG Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Understand the key methods that scientists use to learn about nervous system anatomy and functioning. Section Reference: How Do Scientists Study the Nervous System? 64. Doctors suspect that Avery may have brain damage immediately following a horrific car accident. They need to image her brain to find out. They are concerned however that metal from the accident may be in Avery’s body. Under these circumstances what would be the best option for assessing Avery? a) DTI b) CT scan c) MRI d) EEG Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Understand the key methods that scientists use to learn about nervous system anatomy and functioning.

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Section Reference: How Do Scientists Study the Nervous System? 65. Dr. Emerson is contemplating the benefits of using DTI versus MRI for detecting mild traumatic brain injury. What would be a reason for Dr. Emerson to use DTI? a) It can be used with people who have metal parts in their body (e.g., pacemakers). b) Diagnosis with MRI scans alone can be difficult because the damage is often to white matter. c) It is much less costly to use, and the results are available much faster. d) It produces better images. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Understand the key methods that scientists use to learn about nervous system anatomy and functioning. Section Reference: How Do Scientists Study the Nervous System? 66. Dr. McGinn, a medical intern, is treating a young girl who fell off her bike and hit her head. After looking at the CT scan, he tells the parents that the brain appears to be normal. Which of the following advice would you give the child’s parents? a) They should request their daughter be given a PET scan, as it will show if there is a decrease in activity in any damaged area. b) They should request their daughter undergo diffusion tensor imaging (DTI) as it can assess white matter and detect minor brain injury. c) They should request their daughter undergo TMS to be sure the activity in her brain is normal. d) Dr. McGinn is correct – the CT scan is accurate at detecting even mild brain injury. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Understand the key methods that scientists use to learn about nervous system anatomy and functioning. Section Reference: How Do Scientists Study the Nervous System? 67. Which of the following ways to study the brain is NOT a neuroimaging technique? a) computed axial tomography scan b) transcranial magnetic stimulation c) diffusion tensor imaging d) positron emission tomography Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Understand the key methods that scientists use to learn about nervous system anatomy and functioning.

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Section Reference: How Do Scientists Study the Nervous System? 68. Which of the following methods to study the brain is best suited to measure the orientation and integrity of white matter? a) positron emission tomography b) fMRI c) ERP d) diffusion tensor imaging Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Understand the key methods that scientists use to learn about nervous system anatomy and functioning. Section Reference: How Do Scientists Study the Nervous System? 69. Dr. Chalmers is learning about the brain by studying a patient of his who has suffered damage to the hippocampus. What is a drawback of using this technique to learn about brain function? a) The location of brain activity cannot be pinpointed precisely. b) It only tells us when a brain area is needed, not what the brain area does. c) It is impossible to establish cause and effect. d) It requires that the patients consume a radioactive substance. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Do Scientists Study the Nervous System? 70. Which of the following is a problem with learning about brain function from people with damage to specific areas? a) Patients with brain damage have different concentrations of oxygenated hemoglobin that is not easy to measure with today’s technologies. b) Reorganization of the brain after damage may further distinguish the damaged brain from the intact brain. c) Causal conclusions can only be established in cases where the area of brain destroyed is localized and not distributed throughout the brain. d) It is only possible to use this technique if the damage occurred prenatally. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Understand the key methods that scientists use to learn about nervous

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system anatomy and functioning. Section Reference: How Do Scientists Study the Nervous System? 71. Which of the following is NOT a problem with learning about brain function from people with damage to specific areas? a) It does not allow causal conclusions about what brain areas cause specific behaviours. b) Patients with brain damage may have undetectable damage as well that cause behavioural changes. c) Reorganization in the brain after damage may further distinguish the damaged brain from the intact brain. d) Patients with brain damage have different concentrations of oxygenated hemoglobin that is not easy to measure with today’s technologies. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Understand the key methods that scientists use to learn about nervous system anatomy and functioning. Section Reference: How Do Scientists Study the Nervous System? 72. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of chronic traumatic encephalopathy (CTE)? a) uncontrollable appetite b) personality changes c) mood swings d) memory loss Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Understand the key methods that scientists use to learn about nervous system anatomy and functioning. Section Reference: How Do Scientists Study the Nervous System? 73. What is the only way to definitively diagnose chronic traumatic encephalopathy (CTE)? a) post-mortem b) DTI c) MRI d) PET Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Understand the key methods that scientists use to learn about nervous system anatomy and functioning. Section Reference: How Do Scientists Study the Nervous System?

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74. Jerome played NFL football for 20 years as an offensive lineman. In his late forties he began to have difficulty controlling his moods and was becoming forgetful. Given his history in football what brain disorder is Jerome most likely to have? a) Multiple Sclerosis b) Parkinson’s Disease c) Alzheimer’s Disease d) Chronic traumatic encephalopathy Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Understand the key methods that scientists use to learn about nervous system anatomy and functioning. Section Reference: How Do Scientists Study the Nervous System? 75. Each of the following are real-life advantages for using animal studies to study the brain except for one. Which one of the following is NOT a real-life advantage for using animal studies? a) Researchers can investigate complex functions at all levels of the brain. b) Researchers can microscopically examine specific brain regions. c) Researchers can use animal models that have been developed for most human disorders and illnesses. d) Researchers can electrically record from specific brain areas or neurons. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Understand the key methods that scientists use to learn about nervous system anatomy and functioning. Section Reference: How Do Scientists Study the Nervous System? 76. The peripheral nervous system consists of two subsystems. They are called the a) afferent and efferent nervous systems. b) brain and spinal cord. c) parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems. d) autonomic and somatic nervous systems. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized?

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77. What are the two divisions of the peripheral nervous system? a) brain and spinal cord b) somatic and autonomic c) sympathetic and parasympathetic d) afferent and efferent Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 78. At the broadest level, the nervous system is divided into the ___ and the ___ nervous systems. a) primary; secondary b) somatic; autonomic c) sympathetic; parasympathetic d) central; peripheral Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 79. Eneko imagines the complementary operations of the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems to be something like a) two children on a teeter-totter. b) a two-way street. c) an exchange of text messages. d) a pinball game. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 80. Which nervous system consists of all the nerves that connect to sensory receptors and skeletal muscles? a) somatic

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b) central c) peripheral d) autonomic Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 81. How does the central and peripheral nervous systems relay information between neurons? a) Via neither chemical nor electrical processes b) Via both electrical and chemical processes c) Via chemical processes d) Via electrical processes Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 82. All the nerves outside the brain and spinal cord are part of the ___ nervous system. a) peripheral b) central c) autonomic d) somatic Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 83. What is the difference between the somatic and autonomic nervous systems? a) The somatic nervous system is for voluntary responses, the autonomic for involuntary. b) The somatic nervous system contains afferent fibres, the autonomic contains efferent fibres. c) The Somatic Nervous System arouses the body, the autonomic calms the body. d) The somatic nervous system sends information to the central nervous system, the autonomic sends information away from the central nervous system. Answer: a

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 84. What part of the nervous system controls voluntary muscles? a) sympathetic nervous system b) autonomic nervous system c) parasympathetic nervous system d) somatic nervous system Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 85. The somatic nervous system controls a) the fight-or-flight response. b) higher cognitive functions. c) automatic bodily functions. d) voluntary muscles. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 86. Soo-mi is taking a penalty kick for her soccer team. What part of her nervous system would allow her to do this? a) parasympathetic b) somatic c) autonomic d) sympathetic Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury.

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Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 87. After Isabella feels the sting of a mosquito bite on her neck, she instinctively slaps her neck which adds to the pain. In this example, the mosquito bite activates Isabella’s _________ nervous system and the slap activates her ___________ nervous system. a) autonomic; sympathetic b) sympathetic; parasympathetic c) somatic; autonomic d) somatic; somatic Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 88. What are the two divisions of the autonomic nervous system? a) brain and spinal cord b) central and peripheral c) sympathetic and parasympathetic d) afferent and efferent Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 89. The part of the nervous system that operates in part without the help of the central nervous system is called the a) somatic. b) autonomic. c) peripheral. d) sensory. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized?

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90. What is the difference between the central nervous system and the peripheral nervous system? a) The central nervous system would be like the hub of the nervous system, whereas the peripheral nervous system would be like the spokes of the nervous system. b) The peripheral nervous system would be like the hub of the nervous system, whereas the central nervous system would be like the spokes of the nervous system. c) The central and peripheral nervous systems are the same, but they are given different names for use in differing contexts. d) The peripheral nervous system would be like the driver of a car, and the central nervous system would be the car itself. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 91. Jayden has suffered a spinal cord injury that has left him paralyzed below the waist. Jayden has suffered an injury to his _______________ nervous system. a) autonomic b) sympathetic c) peripheral d) central Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 92. What is the difference between the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems? a) The sympathetic nervous system is for voluntary responses, the parasympathetic for involuntary. b) The sympathetic nervous system contains afferent fibres, the parasympathetic contains efferent fibres. c) The sympathetic nervous system arouses the body, the parasympathetic calms the body. d) The sympathetic nervous system sends information to the central nervous system, the parasympathetic sends information away from the central nervous system. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury.

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Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 93. Excitation is to rest as ___ is to ___. a) autonomic; somatic b) somatic; autonomic c) sympathetic; parasympathetic d) parasympathetic; sympathetic Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 94. Rest and digest is to the _______________ nervous system, as fight-or-flight is to the _______________ nervous system. a) somatic; autonomic b) autonomic; somatic c) sympathetic; parasympathetic d) parasympathetic; sympathetic Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 95. Which of the following is NOT accurate about the peripheral nervous system (PNS)? a) The somatic nervous system is part of the PNS. b) The autonomic nervous system is part of the PNS. c) The main function of the PNS is to carry messages to and from the central nervous system. d) Simple reflexes in the PNS do not require the CNS. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 96. What part of the nervous system would be activated to arouse the body when faced with a threat?

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a) parasympathetic nervous system b) sympathetic nervous system c) somatic nervous system d) central nervous system Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 97. When are humans LEAST likely to become sexually aroused? a) During sympathetic dominance from the autonomic nervous system b) During parasympathetic dominance from the autonomic nervous system c) During sympathetic dominance from the peripheral nervous system d) During parasympathetic dominance from the peripheral nervous system Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 98. The fight-or-flight response is controlled by the ________________ nervous system. a) peripheral b) sympathetic c) parasympathetic d) somatic Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 99. What part of the nervous system would be activated to calm the body down after it was faced with a threat, but the threat is no longer present? a) parasympathetic nervous system b) sympathetic nervous system c) somatic nervous system d) central nervous system

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Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 100. The ___________ nervous system prepares the body to "fight or flee" in response to a stressor, while the _______ nervous system returns the body to its normal function afterwards. a) Sympathetic; parasympathetic b) Peripheral; parasympathetic c) Somatic; sympathetic d) Autonomic; parasympathetic Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 101. Camille is paying attention to a somewhat boring classroom lecture. Which nervous system is likely involved? a) somatic b) parasympathetic c) sympathetic d) peripheral Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 102. The sympathetic nervous system mobilizes the body in response to stressful situations, preparing the body for "fight or flight". It likely provided an evolutionary advantage in the beginning of human evolution but can produce problems for humans in modern societies. Evaluate the following statements and judge which one best explains the early advantages and modern problems produced by the actions of the sympathetic nervous system. a) The sympathetic nervous system's "fight or flight" response worked well for small groups, but it breaks down when people live in larger social units. b) The sympathetic nervous system's "fight or flight" response worked well for primitive humans who had lower levels of nutrition, but it is overly active now that most people are always wellfed.

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c) Because the sympathetic nervous system helped early humans deal with dangerous situations, it increased their chances of survival. It can now cause health problems in situations when people often face situations where "fight or flight" responses are not appropriate, such as airport delays or traffic jams. d) Because the sympathetic nervous system made humans more capable of caring for group members, it increased survival rates among early human populations. Now that people live in larger social organizations, it increases stress when people are not able to care for others. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 103. Performer A once commented that he was always extremely nervous before a performance, but as soon as he started his activity, he became calm and was able to perform well. Performer B was also nervous before performances, but he remained nervous during performances and retired from performing in public within a year. Evaluate these statements and decide which one best describes the differences between A and B. a) For both performers A and B, the parasympathetic nervous system was dominant before performances. For performer A, the sympathetic nervous system became dominant while for B, the parasympathetic nervous system retained dominance. b) For both performers A and B, the parasympathetic nervous system was dominant before performances. For performer A, the parasympathetic nervous system retained dominance while for B, the parasympathetic nervous system became dominant. c) For both performers A and B, the sympathetic nervous system was dominant before performances. For performer B, the parasympathetic nervous system became dominant while for A, the sympathetic nervous system became dominant. d) For both performers A and B, the sympathetic nervous system was dominant before performances. For performer A, the parasympathetic nervous system became dominant while for B, the sympathetic nervous system retained dominance. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 104. Which of the following situations is most likely to involve the action of the parasympathetic nervous system? a) Brooke’s finger accidentally grazes the hot iron; she immediately jerks her hand away. b) After a satisfying evening meal, Callum relaxes in front of the television. c) Walking toward her car is a deserted parking garage one night, Danica is surprised by a strange man appearing from nowhere. d) Emmeline feels queasy as she approaches the front of the class to give a speech; suddenly,

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

her throat goes dry. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 105. Which of the following situations is most likely to involve the action of the sympathetic nervous system? a) Maelie’s finger accidentally jabs a thorn on the rosebush; she immediately jerks her hand away. b) After a satisfying evening meal, Braden relaxes in front of the television. c) Walking toward her car is a deserted parking garage one night, Dora is surprised by a strange man appearing from nowhere. d) Collette drops to the ground to recover after breaking the school record for the 100-yard dash. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 106. Izzy’s pupils are dilated, and her heart is pounding; her breathing is shallow and rapid. Her ___ nervous system is active. a) somatic b) parasympathetic c) autosympathetic d) sympathetic Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 107. Driving home one night, Lawrence hits a patch of ice, and his car begins to spin out of control. Which nervous system is likely to be activated? a) somatic b) autonomic c) parasympathetic

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d) sympathetic Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 108. Nathan’s roommate just startled him by jumping out from behind a chair and yelling ‘boo’. As soon as Nathan realized that this was just a prank, what part of his nervous system would help him calm down? a) the sympathetic nervous system b) the parasympathetic nervous system c) somatic nervous system d) central nervous system Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 109. Valdez is preparing to give a toast at his brother’s wedding in front of 400 people and is very anxious; he hates public speaking. Valdez keeps telling himself that it is no big deal, these are all friends and family. Nevertheless, he feels his heart pounding, his mouth is dry, and he feels sick to his stomach. What part of his nervous system is responsible for the reaction Valdez is having? a) parasympathetic b) sympathetic c) somatic d) central Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 110. Valdez just made a toast at his brother’s wedding in front of 400 people and has now returned to his seat. The next toast is taking place, and although Valdez looks like he is paying attention, he is, in fact, calming down from the incredible stress he just went through, and the words of the next speech float right over him. Instead, he feels his heart rate return to normal,

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the saliva returns to his mouth, and his stomach feels much better. What part of his nervous system is responsible for the reaction he is having after the speech? a) parasympathetic b) sympathetic c) somatic d) central Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 111. Janelle is experiencing an increased heart rate, increased respiration, and her pupils are dilated. Her blood pressure is also rising, and blood is being sent to her brain and muscles. What part of her nervous system is responsible for this reaction? a) parasympathetic b) sympathetic c) somatic d) central Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 112. The CNS operates in concert with the ___ nervous system. a) somatic b) autonomic c) sympathetic d) parasympathetic Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 113. Which of the following best demonstrates the difference between the autonomic nervous system and the somatic nervous system? a) Frankie breathes although unaware of it; Blake is bothered by the snag of a hang nail.

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b) Asher walks through the woods; Emerson dials the phone. c) Mia blinks rapidly to dislodge a piece of sand; Callie’s stomach rumbles as it breaks down breakfast. d) Cordelia’s eyes dilate in the sun; Milo’s eyes dilate when his partner touches him. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 114. What part of the nervous system includes the spinal cord? a) peripheral b) central c) autonomic d) somatic Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 115. The brain and the spinal cord constitute the ___ nervous system. a) central b) peripheral c) primary d) autonomic Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 116. Neurons that carry signals from the peripheral nervous system to the central nervous system are called ___. a) afferent neurons b) efferent neurons c) interneurons d) sensory neurons

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Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 117. Neurons that carry signals from the central nervous system to the peripheral nervous system are called ___. a) afferent neurons b) efferent neurons c) interneurons d) sensory neurons Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 118. Ikram has a problem with his afferent neurons. How would this affect his behaviour? a) He would not be able to feel pain. b) He would not be able to focus his attention. c) He would not be able to move. d) He would not be able to hear. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 119. Paavo has a problem with her efferent neurons. How would this affect her behaviour? a) She would not be able to feel pain. b) She would not be able to remember any new information. c) She would not be able to move. d) She would not be able to smell. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of

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the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 120. Gilda has just stepped on a thumbtack. Which type of neuron will carry the message of pain from her foot to her brain? a) interneurons b) sensory neurons c) afferent neurons d) efferent neurons Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 121. Jesse has just touched the hot stove. ___________neurons will carry the message of pain to Jesse’s brain, and ________neurons will signal him to move his hand off the stove. a) afferent; efferent b) efferent; afferent c) central; peripheral d) peripheral; central Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 122. Which of the following statements about signals travelling to the brain is TRUE? a) A signal produced by an afferent neuron is sent to one or more interneurons before reaching the brain. b) Information from the peripheral nervous system reaches the central nervous system via efferent neurons. c) Interneurons are only found in the spinal cord. d) Afferent fibres convey signal information much faster than efferent fibres. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized?

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123. Which type of cell allows a sensory and motor neuron to communicate with one another? a) axon b) stem cell c) interneuron d) neuronal Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 124. Which of the following initiates reflexes? a) the brain b) the spinal cord c) the central nervous system d) the autonomic nervous system Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 125. Within the reflex circuit, it is the ___ that allows the spinal cord to control certain reflexes without the brain’s help. a) motor neuron b) sensory neuron c) interneuron d) autoneuron Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 126. Hortensia's infant boy automatically grasps a finger placed in his palm. The baby's reflex response is immediate and automatic because a) stem cells are directing his actions.

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b) infant reflexes are most sensitive during the first year of life. c) the spinal cord initiated the action in response to stimulus. d) the baby acquired this response through experience. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 127. Sarah touches a hot pan and immediately removes her hand from the handle. What is the evolutionary purpose of this response? a) It is a reflex circuit that allows immediate action against potential danger, increasing chances for survival. b) It is a brain enhancement tool that ensures humans’ continued survival. c) It is a cognitive mechanism that allows humans to outrun their enemies. d) It is a neural impulse that overrides the evolutionary tendency to make poor decisions. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 128. Jackson is camping with his buddies. He has left his branch over the fire too long while toasting marshmallows. The marshmallows are burnt to a crisp, and the heat has moved up the branch to his fingers. With your understanding of spinal reflexes, what is likely to happen next? a) Jackson will drop the branch. b) Jackson will feel the singe of the branch. c) Jackson’s sensory neurons will signal heat to the brain. d) Jackson’s thalamus will interpret the signal as pain. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 129. Which of the following most accurately compares or contrasts a reflex and a reflex circuit? a) A reflex and a reflex circuit are the same process. b) A reflex is the automatic action, whereas the reflex circuit is the spinal cord’s reaction. c) A reflex is innate, whereas a reflex circuit is automatic.

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d) A reflex is a physical reaction, whereas a reflex circuit is a chemical reaction. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 130. When the doctor hit Ethan’s knee with the hammer, Ethan’s leg immediately kicked; the doctor told him that was a natural reflex arc. Liz frequently teases Adrian by unexpectedly tossing random objects at him, which he always catches. Adrian says he has great reflexes. What is the difference Adrian’s reaction and Ethan’s reaction? a) These reactions are basically the same simple reflex circuit of automatically responding to a stimulus. b) Ethan’s reaction is innate, while Adrian’s is an acquired skill. c) Ethan’s reaction is governed by the central nervous system, while Adrian’s is controlled by the peripheral nervous system. d) Neither reaction is truly a reflex as both lack biological relevance Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 131. Regarding the spinal cord’s control of behaviour, which of the following is true? a) The spinal cord cannot control any behaviours without the help of the brain. b) The spinal cord is not involved in reflexes. c) The spinal cord can control some simple reflexes without the brain’s help. d) The spinal cord can sometimes control relatively complex behaviour without the brain’s help. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 132. What is the adaptive advantage of having a spinal cord reflex? a) You can multitask. b) You can respond faster to painful stimuli. c) Your senses become heightened in the spinal cord. d) These reflexes are still functional even when the spinal cord is severed.

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Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 133. What do you expect would be one thing that would happen to someone who was born without a spinal cord reflex? a) They would be incapable of voluntary movements. b) Their central nervous system would not be able to communicate with their peripheral nervous system. c) They would be unable to feel extreme changes in temperature. d) They would require longer exposure to a painful stimulus before reacting to it. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 134. Which of the following is accurate regarding the difference between reflexive and voluntary movement? a) Reflexive movement is controlled by the central nervous system; voluntary movement is controlled by the peripheral nervous system. b) Reflexive movement does not involve synapses, whereas voluntary movement does. c) Reflexive movement originates from the brain; voluntary movement originates in the spinal cord. d) Reflexive movement crosses fewer synapses than voluntary movement which allows the messages to travel faster. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 135. Gabriella was sitting around the campfire with her friends from her hockey team when suddenly a large log began sparking and cracking. A spark landed on Gabriella’s bare leg, and she jumped out of her chair before she even felt the pain. Everyone around the fire was impressed by the incredible quickness of her reaction. Is Gabriella’s reaction unusual? a) No, she is obviously very athletic with superior jumping abilities.

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b) Yes, she is obviously extra sensitive to sensory stimulation compared to other people. c) Yes, she should have felt the pain before she jumped up, not after. d) No, this reaction was taken care of by her spinal cord before her brain registered pain. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 136. Imagine a large city in which a downtown business district is linked to outlying suburbs by a system of subway trains. The spinal cord’s sensory neurons may be likened to the system’s ___ trains; the spinal cord’s motor neurons are analogous to the ___ trains. a) local; express b) outbound; inbound c) express; local d) inbound; outbound Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 137. Tragically, Grace is unable to move or feel anything below her waist due to a neurological injury. Where did this injury likely take place? a) She probably broke her neck. b) She likely injured her motor cortex. c) She probably injured her spinal cord right at the waist. d) She likely has damage to her somatosensory cortex. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 138. Claire recently fell off her horse and broke her neck. Which of the following would most likely be true? a) Claire would lose sensation everywhere but the head and neck. b) Claire would lose sensation below the waist. c) Claire’s injury would likely be fatal.

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d) Unless Claire’s spinal cord was also damaged, she may heal and recover. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 139. Which of the following statements best expresses your text’s conclusion regarding the current state of the art in treating spinal cord injury? a) Little attention has been directed toward the potential regeneration of spinal cord axons. b) Scientists are really only beginning to tackle the potential regeneration of spinal cord axons. c) Scientists have made substantial progress toward the potential regeneration of spinal cord axons. d) In most cases, scientists are now able to regenerate spinal cord axons. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 140. What type of cell holds the promise that one day, we may be able to repair spinal cord injuries? a) Schwann cells b) afferent neurons c) interneurons d) autonomic neurons Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 141. In 2007, Miller made a breakthrough in spinal cord injury research when she discovered that stem cells produced from a person’s own skin are similar to neural stem cells and are capable of producing ____________. a) ependymal cells b) motor neurons c) sensory neurons d) Schwann cells

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Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 142. Which of the following statements is true? a) The lower down the spinal cord a spinal cord injury occurs, the larger the proportion of the body that is afflicted. b) Quadriplegics retain sensation and usage of the upper limbs and torso, but not of the lower limbs. c) When individuals are paralyzed, although they cannot move, they continue to be capable of perceiving touch or pain sensations on the body. d) It is possible to break the vertebrae in the neck or back and not have a spinal cord injury. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 143. Which of the following is NOT a way that scientists are looking to enhance regeneration of severed axons in the spinal cord or for replacing motor neurons destroyed by injury? a) Using epidural electrical stimulation above the site of spinal cord injury to boost the electrical signals being sent from the lower body to the brain. b) Using a computer chip that is implanted on the surface of the brain to record activity in the cortex directly under the chip to communicate with a receiver in the arm. c) Using a computer chip that is implanted on the surface of the brain to record activity in the cortex directly under the chip to communicate with a computer. d) Using epidural electrical stimulation below the site of spinal cord injury to boost the electrical signals being sent from the brain to the lower body. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 144. What is so special about ‘Schwann cells’ that gives us the hope that they may be able to help us repair spinal cord injuries one day? a) They have more layers of myelin sheath.

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b) They help injured nerve fibres regenerate in the PNS. c) They can send signals without neurotransmitters. d) They have a lower threshold of excitation. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 145. Able was in a skiing accident and injured his spinal cord. Unfortunately, the doctors had to tell him that he would not walk again. He decides to do his own research into possible treatment for spinal cord injuries and finds one new area of research that looks very promising. What did Able learn on his own? a) Schwann cells and their ability to regenerate neuron axons in the PNS b) efferent fibres that can re-grow with prolonged, mild electrical stimulation c) diverting spinal reflexes to generate voluntary movement d) stem cells that increase the myelin production around the spinal cord Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 146. To allow the brain to fit inside the skull, the brain folded in on itself forming the ___ and ___. a) gyri and thalamus b) gyri and pons c) pons and sulci d) gyri and sulci Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 147. Which of the following is NOT a structure of the hindbrain? a) medulla b) cerebellum c) hypothalamus

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d) pons Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 148. The ________ is the part of Alice's brain that woke her from a dream about her car being stolen. a) medulla b) pons c) cerebellum d) amygdala Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 149. As Sean runs a marathon, he thinks back to his Introductory Psychology class and remembers that his heartbeat and respiration are controlled by the ________, which also controls survival responses and other automatic behaviors. a) forebrain b) hypothalamus c) amygdala d) hindbrain Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 150. The structure in the hind brain involved in sleep, dreaming, breathing, and swallowing is the ___. a) medulla b) pons c) cerebellum d) reticular formation

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Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 151. Dr. Franken is engaging her students in an exercise in which she names a function and then the students need to say what structure is responsible for that function AND where that structure is. Ahmed says, ‘this structure is responsible for eye movements and dreaming’. Which student below has the correct answer? a) George says it is the medulla, located in the midbrain b) Brittany says it is the pons, located in the hindbrain c) Igor says it is the cerebellum, located in the hindbrain. d) Alessa says it is the reticular formation, located in the forebrain Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 152. Your brain is capable of alerting higher brain centers to important events by screening incoming sensory information, such as when an alarm clock goes off every morning. This alert system can be largely attributed to which area of the brain? a) Forebrain b) Hypothalamus c) Thalamus d) Reticular formation Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 153. The reticular formation makes which of the following functions easier for Atticus, a healthy 45-year-old? a) Maintaining consciousness b) Flexibility of movement c) Detecting hunger d) Ease of movement

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Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 154. How are the reticular formation and the hypothalamus most similar? a) The reticular formation and the hypothalamus both receive sensory information. b) The reticular formation and the hypothalamus both contribute to language comprehension. c) The reticular formation and the hypothalamus are both implicated in the development of schizophrenia. d) The reticular formation and the hypothalamus both regulate basic functions such as hunger and thirst. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 155. Information travels from our sensory receptors to the ___ in the brain, which relays it to higher association areas. a) amygdala b) cerebellum c) hypothalamus d) thalamus Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 156. The thalamus may be likened to a(n) a) amplifier. b) receiver. c) filter. d) transmitter. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium

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Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 157. Within the thalamus, the lateral geniculate nucleus is to the medial geniculate nucleus as ___ is to ___. a) visual perception; auditory perception b) auditory perception; visual perception c) basic visual perception; complex visual perception d) complex visual perception; basic visual perception Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 158. Yuri works as an air traffic controller and directs aircraft to appropriate runways for takeoff or landing. His job can be compared to the job of the ___ in your brain. a) hypothalamus b) cerebellum c) thalamus d) amygdala Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 159. The thalamus has traditionally been thought of as a a) relay station for all sensory information except smell. b) bridge between the hindbrain and forebrain. c) translator for the PNS to communicate with the CNS. d) link between the hypothalamus and the rest of the cerebral cortex. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

160. Which of the following sequences correctly orders the location of subcortical structures in the brain, from most inferior to most superior? a) medulla à substantia nigra à pons b) medulla à pons à substantia nigra c) substantia nigra à pons à medulla d) substantia nigra à medulla à pons Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 161. Which of the following sequences correctly orders the location of subcortical structures in the brain, from most superior to most inferior? a) medulla à substantia nigra à pons b) medulla à pons à substantia nigra c) substantia nigra à pons à medulla d) substantia nigra à medulla à pons Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 162. Which of the following subcortical structures is correctly paired with a function? a) cerebellum – motor coordination; learning motor skills b) substantia nigra – maintaining heart rate and respiration c) reticular formation – maintaining the fluidity of movement; inhibiting movement d) thalamus – regulating sleep and wakefulness cycles Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 163. The Greek prefix hypo- means a) above.

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b) greater. c) below. d) before. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 164. Which of the following chemicals are manufactured by endocrine glands and circulated through the bloodstream to produce bodily changes or maintain normal bodily function? a) endorphins b) antagonists c) neurotransmitters d) hormones Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 165. Hormones are chemicals manufactured by endocrine glands and circulated through the bloodstream to a) produce changes in the body, such as growth during puberty, and maintain normal functions. b) improve flexibility and physical dexterity. c) influence nerve receptor sensitivity. d) provide a fluid channel for endorphin transfers within the body. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 166. Which of the following statements best expresses the relationship between the central nervous system and the endocrine system? a) The endocrine and central nervous systems operate entirely independently. b) The endocrine system is part of the central nervous system. c) The endocrine system is linked to the central nervous system. d) The central nervous system is one portion of the endocrine system.

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Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 167. The endocrine system is linked to the ___ in the brain, via the ___ gland. a) hippocampus; adrenal b) hippocampus; pituitary c) hypothalamus; adrenal d) hypothalamus; pituitary Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 168. Which of the following sequences reflects the order in which nervous and endocrine system structures respond to arousing situations, from first to last? a) hypothalamus à pituitary gland à endocrine glands b) hypothalamus à endocrine glands à pituitary gland c) pituitary gland à endocrine glands à hypothalamus d) pituitary gland à hypothalamus à endocrine glands Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 169. Which of the following sequences reflects the order in which nervous and endocrine system structures respond to low arousal to high arousal situations? a) hypothalamus à pituitary gland à endocrine glands b) hypothalamus à endocrine glands à pituitary gland c) endocrine glands à pituitary gland à hypothalamus d) endocrine glands à hypothalamus à pituitary gland Answer: c Difficulty: Medium

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Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 170. Evaluate the following descriptions of the difference between hormones and neurotransmitters and decide which is the most accurate. a) Neurotransmitters transmit messages chemically, while hormones transmit messages electrically. b) Hormones affect only teenagers and adults, while neurotransmitters affect people of all ages. c) Neurotransmitters send messages to specific receptors in the nervous system, while hormones can influence systems across the body. d) Hormones affect all the body, while neurotransmitters transmit messages only within the neuron. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 171. According to your text, the amygdala is involved in processing a) positive emotions. b) negative emotions, such as fear. c) both positive and negative emotions. d) recent experiences. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 172. Taylor has a dog that pees on the carpet out of fear every time he hears thunder. What area of the brain is most likely to be involved in this fear behaviour? a) cerebellum b) amygdala c) hippocampus d) hypothalamus Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 173. A year ago, Sayen was walking down an alley and saw a large dog foraging in the garbage for food. When the dog saw Sayen he began to growl and stalk toward him. Sayen slowly edged backwards out of the alley and the dog lost interest. However, now Sayen is nervous even around very small friendly dogs. Which part of the brain is most likely involved in Sayen’s growing fear of dogs? a) amygdala b) hippocampus c) substantia nigra d) basal ganglia Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 174. The amygdala is to _____ as the hippocampus is to ___. a) emotion; memory b) emotion; movement c) memory; decision-making d) memory; vision Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 175. The hypothalamus is to _____ as the amygdala is to ___. a) emotion; memory b) emotion; movement c) motivated behaviour; decision-making d) motivated behaviour; emotion Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour.

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Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 176. If the amygdala of a rat were lesioned, how would you expect the rat to react to a cat? a) The rat would show normal fear of the cat. b) The rat would show above normal fear of the cat. c) The rat would show no fear of the cat. d) The rat would act aggressively toward the cat. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 177. Rene does not seem to fear anything. In fact, he does not even fear things that have hurt him on previous occasions. Which area of Rene’s brain might not be functioning properly? a) thalamus b) nucleus accumbens c) amygdala d) hippocampus Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 178. A collection of cortical and subcortical nuclei and structures involved in emotion, motivation, learning, and memory are collectively known as the a) midbrain. b) limbic system. c) reticular formation. d) cerebral cortex. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 179. Which of the following is NOT part of the limbic system?

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

a) hippocampus b) amygdala c) hypothalamus d) pons Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 180. Following a stroke, Everett shakes uncontrollably and cannot produce fluid movements. Which of the following medical residents is correct in localizing Everett’s brain damage? a) Florence: “I’d check the scans for damage to either the cerebellum or the substantia nigra.” b) Garrett: “Only a brain scan can say for sure, but I’ll bet the stroke destroyed parts of either his cerebellum or his striatum.” c) Dominic: “The damage is either in the substantia nigra or the striatum; we need brain imaging to be sure.” d) Fumiko: “It sounds like cerebellar damage to me.” Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 181. Following a stroke, Esme is unable to form new episodic memories and is having trouble comprehending speech. Which of the following medical residents is correct in localizing Esme’s brain damage? a) Romy: “I’d check the scans for damage to temporal areas such as the hippocampus and Wernicke’s area.” b) Leander: “Only a brain scan can say for sure, but I’ll bet the stroke destroyed parts of her prefrontal cortex and Broca’s area.” c) Dimitri: “The damage is either in the substantia nigra or the striatum; we need brain imaging to be sure.” d) Jahaan: “It sounds like parietal damage to me.” Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain

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182. Evan has been experiencing difficulties remembering basic things, such as his name and address. Which of the following best explains this? a) Evan has sustained damage to the hippocampus. b) Evan has more convolutions than the average person. c) Evan’s brain does not have a functional substantia nigra. d) Evan’s brain is missing the corpus callosum. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 183. The human brain constantly replaces lost cells with new ones from deep within the brain in a process called a) neurogenesis. b) localization of function. c) action potential. d) neuroplasticity. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 184. The nucleus accumbens is important for a) the control of eye movements and fluid body movements. b) motivation and reward learning. c) generating motivated behaviours necessary for survival. d) relaying sensory information to the cortex. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 185. Neurons in both the substantia nigra and the ___ comprise portions of the brain’s dopamine pathways. a) amygdala

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b) hypothalamus c) striatum d) nucleus accumbens Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 186. The part of brain closest to the spinal cord is the ___; it is important for such functions as ___. a) cerebellum; movement and motor coordination b) cerebellum; heart rate and respiration c) medulla; movement and motor coordination d) medulla; heart rate and respiration Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 187. Which structure of the brain is physically closest to the spinal cord? a) thalamus b) pons c) hippocampus d) medulla Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 188. Jacques was explaining to his psychology professor that he was unable to complete the midterm yesterday because his friend was in a car accident and damaged his medulla. Jacques was quick to add, however, that his friend will be fine, and that he will be able to complete the midterm the next class. How does the psychology professor know that Jacques is lying? a) A person with a damaged medulla would be paralyzed. b) A person with a damaged medulla would be intellectually disabled to the point of institutionalization.

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c) A person with a damaged medulla would have schizophrenia. d) A person with a damaged medulla would have died. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 189. Madeline had an irregular electrolyte levels due to binge eating disorder. When in her early twenties she suffered a stroke that mildly damaged her reticular system. What symptoms is Madeline most likely suffering from? a) disrupted sleep-wake cycles b) loss of fine muscle movement c) difficulty swallowing d) Madeline most likely died from the stroke. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 190. Phillip was in a serious car accident and sustained damage to his medulla. Which of the following is the most likely outcome for Phillip? a) Phillip will be a paraplegic. b) Philip will be a quadriplegic. c) Phillip will experience a loss of memory. d) Phillip will not likely survive. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 191. Immediately superior to the medulla is the ___; it contains neurons receptive to the neurotransmitter ___. a) substantia nigra; dopamine b) substantia nigra; norepinephrine c) pons; dopamine d) pons; norepinephrine

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Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 192. When a person executes a complex martial art move or a series of gymnastic movements, they are relying heavily on their ___. a) pons b) reticular formation c) hippocampus d) cerebellum Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 193. Pia is performing a ballet with the rest of her dance group. Which brain structure in the hindbrain allows her to carry out the sequence of complex dance steps? a) medulla b) pons c) cerebellum d) reticular formation Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 194. In addition to coordinating movement and maintaining balance, the cerebellum may also play a role in ___________________. a) breathing and heart rate b) certain types of learning c) hunger and satiety d) vision and hearing Answer: b

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 195. Mr. Catherall and Mrs. DePaiva have both suffered strokes. Mr. Catherall has trouble reaching for objects and is unable to learn new skills involving fine movement. Mrs. DePaiva’s motions are NOT fluid, and she has trouble inhibiting her movements. Mr. Catherall’s ___ appears damaged. Mrs. DePaiva’s damage is probably located in ___. a) substantia nigra; the cerebellum b) substantia nigra; the substantia nigra as well c) cerebellum; the cerebellum as well d) cerebellum; the substantia nigra Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 196. Mia has been diagnosed with Parkinson’s disease while Pearl has been diagnosed with epilepsy. Which of the following statements is most accurate? a) Mia’s substantia nigra is malfunctioning while Pearl’s is not. b) Pearl’s substantia nigra is malfunctioning while Mia’s is not. c) Mia’s cerebellum is malfunctioning while Pearl’s is not. d) Pearl’s cerebellum is malfunctioning while Mia’s is not. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 197. Pons is to substantia nigra as _____ is to _____. a) arousal; respiration b) respiration; arousal c) norepinephrine; dopamine d) dopamine; norepinephrine Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 198. The part of the hindbrain important for motor coordination is the a) reticular formation. b) pons. c) medulla. d) cerebellum. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 199. Learning to tie your shoes or play the violin involves which brain area? a) cerebellum b) limbic system c) thalamus d) medulla Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 200. Elena loves to play darts and has become reasonably accurate at hitting the bull’s eye. When she now plays darts, she no longer has to think about the motions she needs to make to throw the dart. What area of the brain is most likely controlling her motor movements? a) pons b) frontal lobe c) cerebellum d) motor cortex Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain

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201. Cassidy is so excited to be at Disney World! It seems magical to her as she walks in the main gates and looks down the long road to the pointed castle at the end. She looks at her park map and sees that Space Mountain would be to her right, and that Splash Mountain to her left. What part of Cassidy’s brain would be especially active as she is getting her bearings with respect to where all the fun rides are? a) amygdala b) hippocampus c) pituitary gland d) thalamus Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 202. Randal is a taxi driver in Toronto. Which of the following brain structures would be most useful to Randal in his job? a) amygdala b) thalamus c) nucleus accumbens d) hippocampus Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 203. What type of memory deficit is associated with damage to the hippocampus? a) semantic b) episodic c) working d) procedural Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

204. Mrs. Jackson CANNOT form new memories based on her experiences. Mr. LoPresti cannot seem to find his way around his city anymore. Which of the following best describes the brain damage each of these patients has probably suffered? a) Both Mrs. Jackson and Mr. LoPresti have suffered damage to a portion of the striatum. b) Mrs. Jackson has experienced damage to the striatum. Mr. LoPresti’s hippocampus has been damaged. c) Both Mrs. Jackson and Mr. LoPresti have suffered damage to a portion of the hippocampus. d) Mrs. Jackson has experienced damage to the hippocampus. Mr. LoPresti’s striatum has been damaged. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 205. Which of the following statements best captures the role of the hippocampus in episodic memory on the one hand, and spatial memory on the other? a) The hippocampus plays a role in the temporary storage of both episodic and spatial memories. b) The hippocampus plays a role in the temporary storage of episodic memories and the longerterm storage of spatial memories. c) The hippocampus plays a role in the longer-term storage of episodic memories and the temporary storage of spatial memories. d) The hippocampus plays a role in the longer-term storage of both episodic and spatial memories. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 206. Which of the following subcortical areas is correctly paired with a description? a) amygdala – important in movement and implicit memory b) hippocampus – important for learning and memory c) striatum – important for motivation and reward learning d) nucleus accumbens – processes emotional stimuli Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour.

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Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 207. While checking your text messages, you hear a crash on the street. The part of your brain that refocuses your attention from your phone to the crash is the ___. a) medulla b) pons c) reticular formation d) auditory cortex Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 208. After receiving an anaesthetic to prepare him for surgery, Lucien quickly goes to sleep. Which hindbrain structure will be affected by the drug? a) medulla b) pons c) cerebellum d) reticular formation Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 209. The reticular formation is composed of cell groups ___ and is the major brain source of the neurotransmitter ___. a) from the midbrain to the forebrain; serotonin b) from the midbrain to the forebrain; norepinephrine c) from the hindbrain to the midbrain; serotonin d) from the hindbrain to the midbrain; norepinephrine Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

210. Which area of Jana’s midbrain is responsible for producing dopamine? a) substantia nigra b) red nucleus c) raphe nuclei d) locus coeruleos Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 211. Neural pathways in a brain area known as the ___ are responsible for both the fluidity of movement and the inhibition of movement; this brain area is part of the ___. a) substantia nigra; midbrain b) substantia nigra; brainstem c) cerebellum; midbrain d) cerebellum; neocortex Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 212. Mrs. Kim has been diagnosed with Parkinson’s disease. The area in Mrs. Kim’s brain that is most likely damaged is the ___. a) lateral geniculate nucleus b) medulla c) substantia nigra d) reticular formation Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 213. Which gland is attached to the hypothalamus? a) endocrine b) adrenal c) pituitary

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d) thalamus Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 214. In tandem with the hypothalamus, hormones import for growth, reproduction, metabolism, and stress reactions are controlled by the a) pituitary gland. b) thalamus. c) limbic system. d) basal ganglia. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 215. The hypothalamus is located immediately ___ to the thalamus. a) superior b) inferior c) anterior d) posterior Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 216. Pizza! Beer! Sex! Our motivation or drive for such things is based in part on the activity of the brain region known as the ___. a) hypothalamus b) thalamus c) hippocampus d) amygdala Answer: a

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 217. How is the forebrain most different from the hindbrain? a) The forebrain is responsible for more advanced and complex functions than the hindbrain. b) The hindbrain is responsible for more advanced and complex functions than the forebrain. c) The forebrain is involved in memory functions while the hindbrain is not. d) The hindbrain is involved in memory functions while the forebrain is not. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 218. Which of the following structures are not a part of Emma’s forebrain? a) thalamus b) amygdala c) substantia nigra d) nucleus accumbens Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 219. Which of the following governs higher mental processes? a) The hypothalamus b) The cerebral cortex c) The limbic system d) The thalamus Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain

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220. Primary sensory and/or motor areas are to _____ as _____ is to association cortex. a) basic; complex b) complex; basic c) reflexive; higher order d) higher order; reflexive Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 221. The association cortex is responsible for all the functions listed below EXCEPT one. Which one of the functions listed below would not occur as a function of the association cortex? a) recognizing that the speakers voice in a movie does not match the movements of their mouth b) recognizing that your mother’s new car is cherry red c) recognizing that you are you and not someone else d) recognizing that you are going to be late for your meeting due to the detour you had to take on the way to work Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 222. Under which of the following conditions would a physician be most likely to declare a person legally dead? a) when the cerebral cortex no longer has any neural activity b) when the amygdala is overreacting c) when the pituitary gland is severely damaged d) when Wernicke’s area becomes predominant Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 223. Darnell underwent surgery to control his severe epilepsy. Now, however, Darnell CANNOT form new memories of his experiences, although he does remember events in the past. Most

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

likely, the surgery destroyed a portion of the ___ in Darnell’s brain. a) amygdala b) striatum c) hypothalamus d) hippocampus Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 224. Which of the following are lobes housed within the neocortex? a) occipital b) frontal c) temporal d) all the above Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 225. Imagine you could look through the top of someone’s head at the brain structure beneath it. Which of the following would you definitely NOT be looking at? a) frontal lobe b) cerebral cortex c) forebrain d) cerebellum Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 226. What is the major sensory relay centre to the cerebral cortex? a) thalamus b) hypothalamus c) nucleus accumbens d) lateral geniculate nucleus

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Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 227 Oscar explains that the thalamus is functionally similar one of the following examples. Which one is correct? a) An air traffic control center b) A pilot c) A flight attendant d) An airline passenger Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 228. Which of the following sequences correctly identifies and orders the lobes of the cortex, from anterior to posterior? a) frontal à temporal and parietal à posterior b) occipital à temporal and parietal à frontal c) frontal à occipital à temporal and parietal d) frontal à temporal and parietal à occipital Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 229. Which of the following statements best reflects the current view of the functions of the four lobes when it comes to higher processing? a) The occipital and parietal lobes function collaboratively. b) The temporal and frontal lobes function collaboratively. c) All the lobes, with the exception of the occipital lobe seem to function collaboratively. d) The four lobes perform many high-level functions collaboratively. Answer: d

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 230. Which of the following is a main function of the frontal lobes? a) They receive and interpret bodily sensations. b) They moderate control over emotions. c) They translate visuals by translating messages between the eyes and the brain. d) They are involved in planning, language, and movement. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 231. What area in the temporal lobe is associated with language comprehension? a) lateral sulcus b) Broca’s area c) Wernicke’s area d) association cortex Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 232. Damage to Broca’s area results in difficulty with ________, whereas damage to Wernicke’s area results in difficulty with _________. a) language comprehension; speech. b) speech production; language comprehension. c) self-control; impulsivity. d) impulsivity; self-control. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain

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233. Arlo is able to understand language but CANNOT organize his thoughts to express into words. In contrast, Luna is unable to understand language; though she speaks with ease, her sentences do NOT make sense. What is implied here? a) Arlo has damage to Broca’s area while Luna has damage to Wernicke’s area. b) Arlo has damage to Wernicke’s area while Luna has damage to Broca’s area. c) Arlo has had his corpus callosum severed while Luna has not. d) Luna has had her corpus callosum severed while Arlo has not. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 234. Ellie is teaching a tongue twister to her little brother: ‘She sells sea shells by the sea shore’. Which part of her brain would be active each time she attempts the tongue twister aloud? a) Broca’s area b) substantia nigra c) hypothalamus d) nucleus accumbens Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 235. Broca’s area is to Wernicke’s area as ___ is to ___. a) reading; speaking b) reading; writing c) language comprehension; language production d) language production; language comprehension Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain

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236. While the temporal lobe contains ___, the frontal lobe is where ___ is located. a) the basal ganglia; the cerebellum b) the thalamus; the fusiform face area c) Wernicke’s area; Broca’s area d) the auditory cortex; the visual cortex Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 237. Austin cannot comprehend or produce meaningful language even though he can speak. Austin suffers from a) Broca’s aphasia. b) Wernicke’s aphasia. c) either Broca’s or Wernicke’s aphasia. d) neither Broca’s nor Wernicke’s aphasia. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 238. Anterior to the parietal lobe is the frontal lobe; inferior to it is the ___ lobe. a) occipital b) temporal c) dorsal d) posterior Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 239. Which of the following brain structures controls our voluntary movements? a) Primary motor strip b) Parietal lobes c) Right hemisphere d) Visual cortex

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Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 240. This region of the cerebral cortex responds to visual information in spatially appropriate ways as well as processing tactile information from a variety of locations on the body. What area is this? a) frontal lobe b) temporal lobe c) parietal lobe d) occipital lobe Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 241. Which cortex in the parietal lobes receives information about touch in different areas of the body? a) Motor b) Visual c) Auditory d) Somatosensory Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 242. Somatosensory cortex is to auditory cortex as the ___ lobe is to the ___ lobe. a) temporal; parietal b) parietal; occipital c) occipital; parietal d) parietal; temporal Answer: d

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 243. Primary motor strip is to somatosensory strip as the ___ lobe is to the ___ lobe. a) temporal; frontal b) parietal; occipital c) frontal; parietal d) parietal; temporal Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 244. In which lobe do we find cells that respond especially strongly to familiar faces? How do researchers interpret the activity of these cells? a) Such cells are found in the occipital lobe. These cells are dedicated “face-processing cells.” b) Such cells are found in the occipital lobe. Their activity reflects inputs both from the temporal lobe and from brain areas associated with memory. c) Such cells are found in the temporal lobe. These cells are dedicated “face-processing cells.” d) Such cells are found in the temporal lobe. Their activity reflects inputs both from the occipital lobe and from brain areas associated with memory. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 245. Damage to the parietal lobe is associated with damage to the “where pathway.” Which of the following behaviours would suggest damage to this area? a) Raven was unable to recognize even her own face in a mirror. b) Lucina found it impossible to pour water from a pitcher into a glass. c) Randy is unable to name what were once familiar objects. d) Trent is irresponsible, impatient, and impulsive. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation

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Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 246. After experiencing a head injury, Tabitha is unable to recognize the faces of people she knows. Tabitha has sustained injury to the ___ lobe of the brain. a) frontal b) temporal c) parietal d) occipital Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 247. Although Jack’s eyes and neural connections are perfectly healthy, Jack is legally blind. How would you explain Jack’s blindness? a) He has damage to his occipital lobe. b) He is experiencing a visual hallucination. c) His myelin sheath is overextended. d) He can see light but mistakenly believes he can only see darkness. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 248. Which lobe plays the eclectic role of visual recognition, language comprehension, and memory? a) occipital b) temporal c) parietal d) frontal Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

249. Which of the following is the name for the specialization of various parts of the brain for particular functions? a) Parasympathetic dominance b) Neuroplasticity c) Localization of function d) Neurogenesis Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 250. Various parts of the brain each have specific roles to play for in the function of the body. What is this concept called? a) Neurogenesis b) Localization of function c) Parasympathetic dominance d) Neuroplasticity Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 251. Jonah is explaining that the behaviours controlled by the human brain vary according to the specific location of the brain structure. He is explaining a) localization of function. b) the role of neurotransmitters. c) the brain’s reticular formation. d) neurogenesis. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 252. Which of the following examples best supports the notion of localization of function?

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a) Most higher-level mental processes are controlled by the cerebral cortex. b) The loss of dopamine is a contributing factor to the development of Parkinson’s disease. c) Learning to capitalize on the right half of the brain results in increased creativity. d) The surface area of the brain is significantly increased due to convolutions. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 253. Which case study was important in localizing the function of the prefrontal cortex? a) H.M. b) Ebbinghaus c) Phineas Gage d) Sperling Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 254. The _______ lobe is involved in higher order thinking such as working memory, moral reasoning, and planning. a) Occipital b) Preparietal c) Prefrontal d) Temporal Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 255. Kelly was the victim of a freak accident. She was standing beside a huge display of heavy cans at the grocery store when someone knocked their cart into the pile and one of the cans fell from the pile and hit Kelly on the top of her head, toward the front. Unfortunately, the can was heavy enough to cause significant damage. What area in Kelly’s brain is likely damaged, and what is the most likely outcome from the damage? a) Kelly’s parietal lobe is damaged, and she is unable to move different parts of her body as a

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

result b) Kelly’s parietal lobe is damaged, and she is unable to determine the relative locations of objects in her environment as a result c) Kelly’s frontal lobe is damaged, and she is very impulsive and unreliable as a result d) Kelly’s frontal lobe is damaged, and she is unable to recognize faces as a result Topic: Structures of the Brain Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 256. Which of the following statements about the use of prefrontal lobotomies as a treatment is TRUE? a) In the 1940’s and 1950’s researchers experimented on people with mental illnesses and found that prefrontal lobotomies had a calming effect. b) A limited form of this treatment is still used today for people who do not respond to drug therapies. c) Patients such as Phineas Gage suggested that the prefrontal region is only superficially involved in mental functions. d) Chimpanzees who underwent prefrontal lobotomies show problems with impulse control and aggression. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 257. A procedure used in the 1940s and 1950s was used to treat individuals with issues ranging from severe mental illness to non-conformity and rebellion. What was this procedure? a) lesioning b) prefrontal lobotomy c) hemispherectomy d) craniotomy Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain

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258. Prefrontal lobotomies appeared to calm chimpanzees. What was the effect of prefrontal lobotomies on human beings? a) Created a reduction in symptoms that increased quality of life. b) Created problems with intellectual functioning, reducing individuals to zombie-like state. c) Created a calming effect but individuals lacked motivation. d) Created changes in personality including blunting of emotions and apathy. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 259. The prefrontal cortex plays a role in each of the following EXCEPT a) complex visual processing. b) short-term memory. c) moral reasoning. d) mood regulation. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 260. Surgical destruction of the prefrontal cortex a) is no longer performed. b) is used in much the same way as it has been for decades. c) has found increasing application in the treatment of psychological disorders. d) is used more rarely and in a more limited fashion than in the past. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 261. Wyatt was downhill skiing without a helmet and crashed into a tree, damaging his face and the front of his brain. He most likely suffered damage to what brain area? What are the likely behaviour outcomes of this damage? a) His parietal lobe is damaged, and he is unable to respond to visual information appropriately.

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b) His parietal lobe is damaged, and he is experiencing problems with language and memory. c) His frontal lobe is damaged, and he can no longer integrate visual information. d) His frontal lobe is damaged, and he is experiencing problems with memory, moral reasoning, and memory. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 262. Kenzo was walking his dog around the perimeter of a baseball field as a senior league was playing, when a pop fly struck him in the top of the head, toward the back. Unfortunately, the ball was travelling fast enough that significant damage was done. What area is likely damaged, and what is the most likely result? a) Kenzo’s parietal lobe is damaged, and he is unable to move different parts of his body as a result. b) Kenzo’s parietal lobe is damaged, and he is unable to determine the relative locations of objects in his environment as a result. c) Kenzo’s temporal lobe is damaged, and he is unable to understand spoken language as a result. d) Kenzo’s temporal lobe is damaged, and he is unable to recognize faces as a result. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 263. If your neighbour were abducted by aliens, and they scooped out his right parietal lobe, he would be unable to ____________________. a) move the lower half of his body b) move the right side of his body c) feel sensations from the left side of his body d) feel sensations from the right side of his body Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain

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264. If your neighbour were abducted by aliens, and they scooped out his left primary motor strip, he would be unable to ____________________. a) move the lower half of his body b) move the right side of his body c) feel sensations from the left side of his body d) feel sensations from the right side of his body Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 265. In which lobe is the motor cortex located? a) occipital b) frontal c) parietal d) temporal Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 266. Which lobe has the role of housing the somatosensory cortex and plays a role in visual processing? a) occipital b) temporal c) parietal d) frontal Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 267. The case of Phineas Gage was useful to researchers because it was one of the first documented cases that provided support for the a) localization of function hypothesis. b) survival of the fittest hypothesis.

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c) lateralization of function hypothesis. d) neurogenesis hypothesis. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 268. How do the primary sensory areas differ from the association areas? a) The primary sensory areas process visual information. The association areas process information related to the other senses. b) The primary sensory areas are in the lobes of the cortex. The association areas are not. c) The primary sensory areas process complex sensory information, whereas the association areas process basic sensory information. d) The primary sensory areas process basic sensory information, whereas the association areas process more complex sensory information. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 269. Primary sensory areas are to _____ as association areas are to _____. a) visual information; the other senses b) hindbrain; forebrain c) complex sensory information; basic sensory information. d) basic sensory information; complex sensory information. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 270. In a rollerblading mishap, Xavier fell and injured the very back of his head. Which of his senses is most likely impaired? a) hearing b) vision c) taste d) touch

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Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 271. An area that processes tactile information coming from our body parts is the ______________________ located in the ___________ lobe. a) association cortex; temporal b) association cortex; parietal c) somatosensory strip; temporal d) somatosensory strip; parietal Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 272. Jada is looking at a painting in the campus fine-arts museum. The orientations of the lines and edges in the painting are processed in the ___ areas in her occipital lobe, while the colours and more complex patterns are processed in the ___ areas in the occipital lobe. a) central visual; peripheral visual b) secondary visual; primary visual c) primary visual; association d) association; primary visual Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 273. Omar is the coordinator of a team that has organized a marathon to raise money for a charitable foundation. He has requested information from different team members and, as they provide him with the information, he integrates it and uses the information for planning what they should do. Omar has a similar function as the brain region known as the _________________. a) hypothalamus b) Broca’s area c) association cortex d) primary sensory cortex

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Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 274. In its discussion of somatosensory strip, your text suggests that the more sensitive a body area, the greater the amount of parietal cortex devoted to its processing. Which of the following alternatives best expresses this idea in terms of a correlation coefficient? a) 1.00 b) .00 c) > .00 and < 1.00 d) > –1.00 and < .00 Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 275. Primary motor cortex has a much larger area devoted to the control of the hand than to the elbow. Evaluate the following answers and determine which best explains why this would occur. a) This difference reflects the fact that early hominids walked on both their hands and feet and would need to be aware of sharp objects that could damage the hands. b) This difference reflects the fact that the ability to control the hands with great precision provides advantages to humans. c) The difference reflects the fact that injuries to the elbow are more likely to be painful than injuries to the hands. d) The difference reflects the fact that injuries to the hand are more likely to be painful than injuries to the elbow. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 276. What is the fundamental unit of the nervous system? a) neuron b) glia c) axon

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d) nuclei Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work? 277. In a neuron, the _____ make it possible for neurons to live and function, by making proteins and other molecules, producing energy, and permitting the breakdown and elimination of toxic substances. a) glial cells b) organelles c) neurotransmitters d) ependymal cells Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work? 278. The human body can have up to how many neurons. a) 1 trillion b) 100 million c) 1 billion d) 86 billion Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work? 279. Which of the following is NOT true about neurons? a) Neurons are completely covered in a membrane. b) Neurons use both electrical and chemical processes. c) All neurons are capable of communicating with other neurons. d) All neurons have multiple dendrites. Answer: d

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work? 280. Which of the following statements regarding neurons is correct? a) Neurons all share the same basic structure and size. b) Neurons vary in the number of axons they contain. c) Glial cells are the physical medium that hold the brain together. d) Not all neurons communicate by means of chemical and electrical signals. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work? 281. The term electrochemical reaction indicates that a) electrically charged chemicals create signals in neurons. b) chemicals cause an electrical signal to be generated within a neuron. c) electrons spark chemically driven signals. d) changes in electrochemical valences alter signal strength in neuronal transmission. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work? 282. ________ are large bundles of axons outside the brain and spinal cord versus __________ which are large bundles of axons within the brain. a) Neurons; nerves b) Dendrites, nerves c) Nerves; tracts d) Glial cells; neurons Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work?

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283. Glial cells have all of the following functions except one. Which of the functions below is NOT a glial cell function? a) control the nutrient supply to neurons b) destroy and remove diseased and dead neurons c) regenerate damaged neurons d) provide axons with myelin sheaths Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work? 284. Which of the following statements about neurons is TRUE? a) Neurons are held in place by glial cells. b) The body contains approximately 300 million neurons. c) Neurons in the brain are exactly alike. d) Neurons send messages through the process of reuptake. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work? 285. The majority of the brain's cells come in two types. These two types are _______ which are approximately 10 times more prevalent than _________. a) glial cells; neurons b) neurons; glial cells c) dendrites; neurons d) axons; glial cells Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work? 286. When looking at the differences between these two parts of the neuron, it is important to realize that _________ actively receive information and pass it to the cell body, while

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_________ work to convey information to other cells. a) dendrites; terminal buttons b) terminal buttons; dendrites c) axons; cell bodies d) dendrites; axons Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work? 287. When communicating between neurons, which part of the neuron is used to release chemicals known as neurotransmitters? a) cell body b) terminal buttons c) dendrites d) nodes Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work? 288. Regarding the similarities and differences among neurons, which of the following statements is correct? a) Neurons are all approximately the same size. b) Neurons vary in the number of axons they contain. c) Neurons all have about the same number of dendrites. d) All neurons can produce and send electrical signals. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work? 289. Which of the following is NOT a difference between neurons? a) They can be large, while others are very small. b) They can have distinct functions.

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c) Some can have many dendrites, while others have only one. d) Some are covered by a membrane that surrounds the entire neuron, others are not. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work? 290. Which of the following statements about neurons is FALSE? a) Neurons are covered by a specialized membrane. b) Neurons outnumber glia by a factor of about 10 to 1. c) Neurons communicate with other neurons using chemical signals. d) Neurons communicate with other neurons using electric signals. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work? 291. Which of the following statements about neurons is true? a) Neurons are the only cells in the nervous system. b) Neurons outnumber glia by a factor of about 10 to 1. c) Neurons communicate with other neurons using chemical and electrical signals. d) Neurons can have more than one axon. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work? 292. Perhaps the main reason that neurons can communicate quickly over relatively great distances within the body is the fact that some neurons contain a) a long axon. b) a large cell body. c) many dendrites. d) a variety of neurotransmitters. Answer: a

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work? 293. An axon is a(n) a) neuron’s cell body. b) branch-like fibre extending in clusters from a neuron’s cell body. c) support cell in the nervous system. d) long, tube-like structure extending from a neuron’s cell body. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work? 294. Axons typically function to a) house the chromosomes that contain genetic material. b) collect input from other neurons. c) carry information away from the cell body toward the terminal buttons. d) fuse with the neuronal membrane and release neurotransmitters into the synapse. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work? 295. The branch-like fibres extending in clusters from the neuron’s cell body are called ___. a) axons b) nodes of Ranvier c) glia d) dendrites Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work?

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296. Cynthia reached for her coffee. She took a drink and scalded her tongue. Which part of Cynthia's neurons received the message that the coffee was hot? a) dendrites b) mitochondria c) myelin sheath d) terminal buttons Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work? 297. Which structures are especially important for communication between one neuron and another? a) axons only b) dendrites only c) axons and dendrites d) axons, dendrites, and glia Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work? 298. Dendrite is to axon as ___ is to ___. a) receiving; sending b) sending; receiving c) glial cell; neuron d) neuron; glial cell Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work? 299. Each of the following primarily serve a defensive function for the cell EXCEPT a) neuron membrane b) glial cells

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c) organelles d) vesicles Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work? 300. Which of the following sequences accurately reflects the route followed by nerve impulses when one neuron communicates with another? a) dendrite à axon à cell body b) dendrite à cell body à axon c) axon à cell body à dendrite d) axon à dendrite à cell body Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work? 301. Compare your forearm, hand, and fingers to a neuron. Using such a metaphor, with a signal entering from your fingers, the dendrites are to your ___ as the axon is to your ___. a) fingers; hand b) fingers; forearm c) knuckles; hand d) knuckles; forearm Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work? 302. Andy’s friends are helping him to understand the flow of information in a neuron by each pretending to be a different part: Andy will play the role of the cell body, Grayson will be the dendrites, Sadie will pretend to be the terminal buttons, and Lyle will be the axon. Now Andy needs to make his friends hold hands in the right order so that he can complete the flow. Which of the following is the correct order? a) Grayson, Andy, Lyle, Sadie b) Andy, Lyle, Sadie, Grayson

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c) Lyle, Sadie, Grayson, Andy d) Sadie, Grayson, Andy, Lyle Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work? 303. How are dendrites and terminal buttons different from one another? a) Dendrites receive information from other cells, while the terminal buttons transmit information to other cells. b) Dendrites receive information from other cells, while the terminal buttons distribute information throughout the neuron. c) Dendrites distribute information to other cells, while the terminal buttons distribute information within the cell. d) Dendrites pass information to the myelin sheath, while terminal buttons pass information to the cell body. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work? 304. Aino is a psychology student admiring a cherry tree in full bloom. She notices how the shape of the tree is very much like a neuron, with branches like dendrites. If this analogy were correct, what would the trunk of the tree correspond to? a) the terminal buttons b) the axon c) the myelin sheath d) the cytoplasm Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work? 305. Students in a psychology study group are discussing the flow of information in a neuron. Which of the following students is right? a) Scarlett says that information is received by the dendrites, then this is sent on to the cell

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body, then it travels down the axon and finally reaches the terminal buttons. b) Addison says that information is received by the cell body, then this is sent down the axon, where it branches off at the dendrites until it finally reaches the terminal buttons. c) Hunter says that information is received by the terminal buttons, then this is sent down the axon to the cell body, where it exits via one of the many dendrites. d) Desmond says that information is received by the axon, then this is sent on to the terminal buttons via the dendrites until it is finally processed by the cell body. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work? 306. Mikiko has invented a game for her psychology study group to learn the facts about cells in the nervous system. She made a bunch of cards, each containing one fact about a cell, and this fact could be true or false. If the fact on the card is true, the group should say nothing, but if it is false the first one to say so gets 10 points. If Mikiko read the facts you see below, for which one would you receive 10 points? a) Neurons are involved in neural communication. b) Neurons can be as long as 1.5 metres. c) Neurons are covered by a special membrane. d) Neurons are filled with cerebrospinal fluid. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work? 307. What is the main difference between a multipolar, bipolar, and unipolar neuron? a) the number of extensions protruding from the cell body b) the length of the axons c) the number of dendrites communicating with the trigger zone d) the number of organelles in the cell body Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work?

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308. The nervous system contains NOT only neurons, but also other cells called ___. a) axons b) glia c) dendrites d) myelin Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work? 309. Which of the following is NOT true about glial cells? a) They control the nutrient supply to neurons. b) They modulate neurotransmission. c) They make up the myelin sheath of axons. d) They outnumber neurons throughout the brain. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work? 310. Jasper is writing a book all about glial cells. What would be a good title for his book? a) Glia – The Boss of Brain Communication b) How to Protect Yourself from Neurogenesis c) Glia – So Much More than Just Glue d) Do not Sneeze! Your Glia is Loose! Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work? 311. Kelsea is writing a book titled “XXXXX – So Much More Than Just Glue”. What does the ‘XXXXX’ correspond to? a) Neurons b) Cerebrospinal Fluid c) Glial Cells d) Multipolar Cells

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Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work? 312. Which of the following is true about glial cells? a) They outnumber neurons throughout the brain. b) Schwann cells are found in the central nervous system. c) They have no role in neurotransmission. d) They control the nutrient supply to neurons. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work? 313. Which of the following is NOT a function of glial cells? a) Buffer neurons from the rest of the body. b) Release chemicals as part of neurotransmission. c) Control the nutrient supply to neurons. d) Destroy and remove dead and diseased neurons. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work? 314. Microglia cells are responsible for which of the following functions? a) forming glial scars b) forming myelin c) forming the blood brain barrier d) cleaning up dead or degenerating cells Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe

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the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work? 315. What critical role does an oligodendroglia cell fulfill? a) providing the myelin sheath b) line the walls of ventricles c) creation of the blood-brain barrier d) repairs the axon terminals after neurotransmitter release Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work? 316. Which of the following provides both the correct name and the correct function of one of the types of glia? a) astroglia – clean up the debris of dead cells b) oligodendroglia – provide the myelin sheath c) microglia – create the blood-brain barrier d) Shwann cells – create and secrete cerebrospinal fluid Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work? 317. Which of the following provides both the correct name and the correct function of one of the types of glia? a) astroglia – create the blood-brain barrier b) oligodendroglia – create and secrete cerebrospinal fluid c) microglia – provide the myelin sheath d) Schwann – clean up the debris of dead cells Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work?

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318. Oligodendroglia are to ___ as Schwann cells are to ___. a) peripheral nervous system; central nervous system b) central nervous system; peripheral nervous system c) peripheral nervous system; autonomic nervous system d) autonomic nervous system; peripheral nervous system Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work? 319. Astroglia are to ___ as ependymal are to ___. a) myelin; stem cell b) stem cell; myelin c) blood-brain barrier; blood-cerebral spinal fluid barrier d) blood-cerebral spinal fluid barrier; blood-brain barrier Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work? 320. Which of the following is true regarding oligodendroglia and Schwann cells? a) The oligodendroglia are found in the peripheral nervous system; Schwann cells are found in the central nervous system. b) Both cells protect the neuron from demyelinating chemicals released by neighbouring cells. c) They both form myelin. d) They both produce cerebrospinal fluid. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work? 321. What is the main difference between Schwann cells and oligodendroglia cells? a) Schwann cells make up the blood-brain barrier, oligodendroglia cells make up the bloodcerebrospinal fluid barrier. b) Schwann cells myelinate the peripheral nervous system, oligodendroglia cells myelinate the central nervous system.

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c) Schwann cells are found on multipolar neurons; oligodendroglia cells are found on bipolar neurons. d) Schwann cells contain more dendrites than axons, oligodendroglia cells contain more axons than dendrites. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work? 322. What critical role does an astroglia cell fulfill? a) providing the myelin sheath b) line the walls of ventricles c) creation of the blood-brain barrier d) repairs the axon terminals after neurotransmitter release Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work? 323. Dr. Labelle has discovered a new primate species that does NOT have any astroglia cells. What can Dr. Labelle say for sure about this species? a) Their neurons are damaged. b) Their have no cerebrospinal fluid. c) They have no blood-brain barrier. d) They have multiple sclerosis. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work? 324. Dr. Nikoto has discovered a new ape species that does NOT have any ependymal cells. What can Dr. Nikoto say for sure about this species? a) Their neurons are damaged. b) Their have no cerebrospinal fluid. c) They have no blood-brain barrier. d) They have multiple sclerosis.

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Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work? 325. What is the main difference between astroglia cells and ependymal cells? a) Astroglia cells make up the blood-brain barrier, ependymal cells make up the bloodcerebrospinal fluid barrier. b) Astroglia cells myelinate the peripheral nervous system, ependymal cells myelinate the central nervous system. c) Astroglia cells are found on multipolar neurons, ependymal cells are found on bipolar neurons. d) Astroglia cells contain more dendrites than axons, ependymal cells contain more axons than dendrites. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work? 326. What happens if the myelin sheath is damaged? a) neural transmission speeds up b) more action potentials are fired c) decreased removal of diseased or damaged neurons from the nervous system d) inefficient transmission of electrical information among neurons Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work? 327. Mahalia has a problem with her ependymal cells. What part of her body is likely affected? a) myelin sheath b) blood-brain barrier c) axon terminals d) blood-cerebrospinal fluid barrier Answer: d

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work? 328. Electrical wires are generally protected by a tube of plastic. A similar insulating function is performed in the nervous system by a) myelin. b) neurotransmitters c) nodes of Ranvier. d) vesicles. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work? 329. What would happen if the dendrites of a neuron did not work properly? a) The neuron would not be able to receive information from other neurons. b) The neuron would not have any myelin sheath. c) The neuron would not be able to release any neurotransmitters. d) The neuron would not have any cytoplasm in the cell body. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work? 330. Which of the following best describes the relationship between glial cells and multiple sclerosis (MS)? a) MS is caused by an excessive growth of Schwann cells. b) MS is caused by too few ependymal cells. c) MS is caused by a buildup of myelinating glial cells. d) MS is caused by the death of myelinating glial cells. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe

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the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work? 331. Unfortunately, Tanner’s oligodendroglia cells are slowly being destroyed due to a progressive disease. What disease do you think Tanner has? a) Muscular dystrophy b) Parkinson’s disease c) Multiple Sclerosis d) Alzheimer’s disease Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work? 332. Rada has been advised that she has a demyelinating disease. Which cells in Rada’s body would be most directly affected? a) oligodendroglia and Schwann cells b) Schwann cells and ependymal cells c) ependymal cells and astroglia d) oligodendroglia and ependymal cells Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work? 333. Taabish has been experiencing a range of symptoms including vision loss, pain, and muscle weakness. Her doctor diagnoses her with a disease that is affecting her glial cells. Which of the following might Taabish have? a) Alzheimer’s disease b) Parkinson’s disease c) Multiple Sclerosis d) Huntington’s disease Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work?

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334. A small appliance repair person is trying to figure out why a toaster is not working properly. She discovers that, for some of the main wires, the insulating coating has worn away and, therefore, the electrical signals are no longer able to go through to the motor. If the toaster were analogous to the human nervous system, why might it not be functioning properly? a) The dendrites have died, so signals are not being transmitted properly. The person has Parkinson’s disease. b) The microglia have stopped supplying nutrients and oxygen to the motor areas of the brain. The person has Parkinson’s disease. c) The oligodendroglia and Schwann cells have begun to die so signals are not being transmitted properly. The person has multiple sclerosis. d) The ependymal and astroglia have begun to erode so signals are not being transmitted properly. The person has multiple sclerosis. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work? 335. A neuron is a(n) ________ whereas a nerve is a(n) _____. a) dendrite; axon b) cell body; autonomic conductor c) individual cell; bundle of axons d) trait; action Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 336. Neurotransmitters pass from the sending neuron to the receiving neuron by passing across the a) synaptic gap. b) vesicle. c) nucleus. d) membrane. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons

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communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 337. A synapse is a a) chemical. b) signal. c) joint. d) gap. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 338. The term polarized means that when the neuron is at rest a) the inside of the neuron is negatively charged compared to the outside. b) the outside of the neuron is negatively charged compared to the inside of glia cells. c) the inside and the outside of the neuron are equally charged. d) it is incapable of being charged. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 339. When a neuron is inactive and the inside of the neuron is negatively charged compared to the outside of the neuron, we say that the neuron is a) depolarized. b) polarized. c) hyperpolarized. d) hypopolarized. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work?

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340. Which of the following is NOT true of the resting potential of a neuron? a) It varies within a given neuron from -50 mv to -80mv. b) It represents the fact that the outside of the cell is more negative than inside the cell. c) When a neuron is inactive, it is polarized. d) Sodium, chloride, potassium, and anions contribute to the resting potential. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 341. If the resting potential of a cell is -50 mV, and the charge outside the cell is 100 mV, what would the charge be inside the cell? a) 150 mV b) 50 mV c) -50 mV d) -150 mV Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 342. Because the intracellular fluid has more negative ions than the extracellular fluid, this results in a) a negative resting potential. b) more action potentials. c) a greater concentration gradient. d) repolarization. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 343. The credit for the negative resting potential of a neuron can go to

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a) electrostatic pressure and diffusion. b) ion channels and concentration gradients. c) the sodium-potassium pump and selective permeability. d) repolarization and depolarization. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 344. If the resting potential of a neuron were simply the result of electrostatic pressure and diffusion, what would it be? a) negative b) positive c) neutral d) It is impossible to predict with the information given. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 345. Which of the following is true when a neuron is at rest? a) Sodium, potassium, chloride, and anions are equally distributed outside and inside the cell. b) Sodium and potassium are in higher concentration outside the cell; chloride and anions are in higher concentration inside the cell. c) Sodium and anions are in higher concentration outside the cell; potassium and chloride are in higher concentration inside the cell. d) Sodium and chloride are in higher concentration outside the cell; potassium and anions are in higher concentration inside the cell. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work?

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346. Action potential is synonymous with a) neural impulse. b) glial cell. c) axon. d) terminal button. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 347. Leslie likes to use analogies to help herself remember ideas. She decides to think of neural communication within the neuron as being MOST like which of the following? a) a crowd of people crossing the street b) traffic waiting at a red light c) sports fans doing the "wave" at a stadium d) a person making a phone call Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 348. An action potential is generated when a sudden influx of positive sodium (Na+) ions _______ the axon membrane. a) depolarizes b) polarizes c) hyperpolarizes d) repolarizes Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 349. When a typical axon becomes depolarized there is a sudden influx of _______ changing

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the previously negative charge inside the axon to approximately +50 millivolts. a) anions (A-) b) potassium (K+) c) chloride (Cl-) d) sodium (Na) Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 350. What would happen to the resting potential of a neuron if the sodium ion channels on a membrane were permanently closed (i.e., unable to open)? a) It would constantly fire action potentials. b) It would have a longer refractory period after an action potential. c) It would be hyperpolarized. d) It would have a higher threshold of activation. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 351. What would happen to the resting potential of a neuron if the sodium ion channels on a membrane were permanently open? a) It would be depolarized. b) It would have a longer refractory period after an action potential. c) It would be hyperpolarized. d) It would have a higher threshold of activation. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 352. Why is the resting potential of a neuron negative?

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a) because neurons send more information than they receive b) because neurons are always depleted of the neurotransmitters they continually send c) because the intracellular fluid has a more negative charge than the extracellular fluid d) because the neuron is always working to maintain a concentration gradient of 0 Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 353. What two factors contribute to the negative resting potential of a neuron? a) diffusion and electrostatic pressure b) concentration gradient and ion channels c) selective permeability and sodium-potassium pump d) hyperpolarization and depolarization Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 354. What is the resting potential of a neuron? a) –100 millivolts b) –70 millivolts c) 70 millivolts d) 100 millivolts Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 355. A neuron’s resting potential is ___ mV, reflecting the higher concentration of ___ ions outside the cell. a) –70; chloride b) –70; sodium

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c) +50; chloride d) +50; sodium Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 356. Neurons communicate via a) electrical signals. b) chemical signals. c) both a and b. d) none of the above Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 357. The difference in the concentration of sodium ions inside and outside the neuron is called the ___. a) electrostatic pressure b) resting potential c) concentration gradient d) ionic differential Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 358. The fact that ions of opposite charges attract each other whereas ions of the same charge repel each other establishes ___. a) electrostatic pressure b) a resting potential c) the concentration gradient

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d) an ionic differential Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 359. The overall charge inside a neuron differs from the overall charge outside the neuron causing a difference in charge across the neuron membrane. This is known as the a) neuronal imbalance equation. b) disequilibration equalization. c) law of fundamental inequity. d) membrane potential. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 360. The term membrane potential refers to the difference in the electrical potential a) between the axon and the cell body. b) between the inside and outside of the cell. c) between the receiving and sending cells. d) between the axon and the terminal buttons. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 361. One of the major consumers of the glucose the brain uses for energy is a) synaptic vesicles. b) hormones. c) sodium potassium pumps. d) neurotransmitter receptors.

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Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 362. Which of the following does NOT contribute the uneven distribution of charges across the membrane? a) Ions can flow freely across the membrane. b) Specialized ion channels allow some ions to pass into and out of the cell. c) The membrane exhibits selective permeability. d) They all contribute. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 363. Which of the following accurately reflects the process by which sodium potassium pumps maintain the resting charge of a neuron? a) It pumps three NA+ ions out and allows two K+ ions in. b) It pumps three K+ ions out and allows two NA+ ions in. c) It pumps three K+ out and allows three NA+ ions in. d) It pumps two K+ out and allows two NA+ in. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 364. An action potential is generated when a) the sodium-potassium pump turns on. b) the threshold of excitation is reached. c) potassium flows into the cell. d) the cell becomes hyperpolarized. Answer: b

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 365. Which of the following statements is true regarding action potentials? a) The strength of action potentials can vary dramatically. b) Action potentials occur at a constant rate. c) The strength of action potentials does not vary. d) Regardless of their rate of occurrence, action potentials fire at a steady rhythm. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 366. Which of the following is NOT accurate about the action potential? a) Action potentials are graded in that they can be weaker or stronger depending on the level of stimulation. b) Action potentials occur at different rates. c) Action potentials are caused by a sudden influx of sodium ions into the cell. d) After an action potential occurs, during the absolute refractory period, the neuron is unable to fire again. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 367. An action potential is a sudden ___ change in the electrical charge of a neuron’s ___. a) positive; axon b) positive; dendrites c) negative; axon d) negative; dendrites Answer: a

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 368. During an action potential, ___ ions rush into a neuron, ultimately resulting in a charge of about ___ mV. a) chloride; –70 b) calcium; –70 c) sodium; +50 d) potassium; +50 Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 369. How is a neuron’s resting potential restored after an action potential has passed a segment of the axon? a) Sodium ions are pumped into the cell. b) Chloride ions are pumped into the cell. c) Sodium ions are pumped out of the cell. d) Potassium ions are pumped out of the cell. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 370. Elodie is sitting on a subway and imagines the train is a neuron undergoing an action potential. In her analogy, the people are ions, and as the doors open, the people rush onto the train, and this causes the train to move (or neuron to fire). What type of ion would the people represent? a) potassium b) calcium c) sodium d) dopamine

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Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 371. Which of the following statements is true with respect to an axon’s ability to fire immediately following an action potential? a) The axon cannot fire during the absolute refractory period. It can fire during the relative refractory period no matter how strong the stimulus is. b) The axon cannot fire during either the absolute or the relative refractory period. c) The axon can fire during either the absolute or the relative refractory period no matter how strong the stimulus is. d) The axon cannot fire during the absolute refractory period. It can fire during the relative refractory period given a strong enough stimulus. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 372. What causes the refractory period of a neuron? a) Excessive sodium flows out of the neuron after it fires. b) Excessive sodium enters the neuron after it fires. c) Excessive potassium enters the neuron after it fires. d) Excessive potassium flows out of the neuron after it fires. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 373. Na’ima is plotting the charge of a polarized neuron on a graph. Which of the following would be right? a) It would have a positive charge. b) It would have a negative charge. c) It would have no charge in this resting state.

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d) The charge would fluctuate randomly over time. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. 374. Less negative is to ___ as more negative is to ___. a) hyperpolarization; depolarization b) depolarization; hyperpolarization c) hyperpolarization; hyperpolarization d) depolarization; depolarization Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 375. If a cell is more greatly influenced by excitatory than inhibitory neurotransmitters, _____________ will occur. a) the threshold of excitation b) an action potential c) depolarization d) hyperpolarization Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 376. Excitatory postsynaptic potentials is to ___ as inhibitory postsynaptic potentials is to ___. a) hyperpolarization; depolarization b) depolarization; hyperpolarization c) repolarization; absolute refractory d) absolute refractory; repolarization Answer: b

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 377. The net effect of excitatory and inhibitory signals is known as ___. a) depolarization b) hyperpolarization c) threshold of excitation d) summation Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 378. Enzo is trying to see if he can afford to play paintball on the weekend. He looks at all the money he earned and all the money he spent. When he is done, he decides that he cannot play paintball at this time. If Enzo were analogous to a neuron, he would have just gone through the process of a) presynaptic potentiation. b) post synaptic potentiation. c) summation. d) depolarization. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 379. A signal that increases the chance the neuron will fire is called a ___. a) excitatory presynaptic potential b) inhibitory presynaptic potential c) excitatory postsynaptic potential d) inhibitory postsynaptic potential Answer: c

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 380. A signal that decreases the chance the neuron will fire is called a ___. a) excitatory presynaptic potential b) inhibitory presynaptic potential c) excitatory postsynaptic potential d) inhibitory postsynaptic potential Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 381. Which of the following statements accurately captures a contrast between action potentials and postsynaptic potentials? a) Action potentials may be graded in strength. Postsynaptic potentials are all-or-none events. b) Action potentials can become stronger or weaker with experience. Postsynaptic potentials cannot. c) Whereas action potentials are depolarizing, postsynaptic potentials may be either depolarizing or hyperpolarizing. d) Whereas action potentials are depolarizing, postsynaptic potentials are hyperpolarizing. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 382. Gabi has painstakingly made some neuroscience flashcards to help her study group prepare for an upcoming test. Brent picks up a card. “Nodes of Ranvier” is written on the front. Which of the following phrases should he see when he turns over the card? a) the myelinated portions of an axon b) the unmyelinated portions of an axon c) spheres in an axon terminal from which neurotransmitters are released d) a group of neurons within a neural network

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Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 383. The surface of the axon is exposed to the extracellular fluid at the __________, __________ conduction in a process known as __________. a) ion channels; speeding; neural transmission b) nodes of Ranvier; speeding; saltatory conduction. c) refractory protuberances; slowing; neural transmission d) axon Hillocks; slowing; saltatory conduction Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 384. Each of the statements below is true regarding action potentials and the all-or-none principle states EXCEPT one. Which statement is NOT true? a) Action potentials are graded. b) Action potentials can be neither weak nor strong. c) When the membrane potential reaches the threshold of excitation at the axon hillock an action potential is initiated. d) An action potential occurs or does not occur. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 385. Given the all-or-none principle, how can a neuron pass on information about a stimulus that varies in intensity? a) A more intense stimulus will cause the neuron to fire a bigger action potential. b) A more intense stimulus will cause more sodium ions to flow into the membrane. c) A more intense stimulus will cause the neuron to fire more often.

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d) A more intense stimulus will cause more inhibition of neighbouring neurons. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 386. Action potentials are not graded but neurons can send information regarding the intensity of a stimulus. How do neurons do this?? a) Stronger stimuli create stronger action potentials. b) Stronger stimuli cause more sodium ions to flow into the membrane. c) Stronger stimuli cause neuronal suppression n neighbouring neurons. d) Stronger stimuli cause more neurons to fire and to fire more often. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 387 Which of the following most closely represents the way in which receptor sites on dendrites recognize neurotransmitters? a) the way a key fits a lock b) how a lamp lights a room c) the way an alarm clock goes off d) the way a door opens Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 388. A typical reaction to the receiving of a neurotransmitter is a) a change in the electrical charge of the membrane of the sending neuron. b) a change in the electrical charge of the membrane of the receiving neuron. c) a neutralization of the electrical charge of the membrane in the sending neuron. d) a neutralization of the electrical charge of the membrane in the receiving neuron.

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Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 389. A certain neurotransmitter receptor receives an excitatory neurotransmitter called dopamine. Based on your text’s discussion, which of the following statements is most likely true concerning this receptor’s action? a) This receptor can probably receive only dopamine. b) This receptor can probably receive any neurotransmitter. c) This receptor can probably receive not only dopamine, but a few other excitatory neurotransmitters as well. d) This receptor can probably receive any excitatory neurotransmitter. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 390. What would happen if the axon terminals malfunctioned? a) The neuron would not be able to receive information from other neurons. b) The neuron would not have any myelin sheath. c) The neuron would not be able to release any neurotransmitters. d) The neuron would not have any cytoplasm in the cell body. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 391. Neurotransmitter receptors are found on the ___ of ___ neurons. a) nodes of Ranvier; presynaptic b) axons; presynaptic c) axons; postsynaptic d) dendrites; postsynaptic

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Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 392. With respect to neurotransmission, release is to receive as ___ is to ___. a) postsynaptic; presynaptic b) dendrite; axon c) vesicle; receptor d) receptor; vesicle Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 393. Inefficient transmission of electrical information among neurons occurs if a) the terminal button ran out of neurotransmitters. b) the myelin sheath is damaged. c) the neuron has too many dendrites. d) the axon is too long. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 394. In what way does the nicotine in cigarettes affect our neurotransmitter functioning? a) Nicotine mimics the effect of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine, so the post-synaptic neuron responds as if it had been stimulated by acetylcholine. b) Nicotine inhibits the effect of acetylcholine on the receiving neuron, thus blocking the effects of acetylcholine on the post-synaptic neuron. c) Nicotine triggers the gene responsible for addictive behaviors, thus creating chaos among neurons. d) Nicotine suppresses the gene responsible for self-control, thus slowing down neuron

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communication. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 395. Kaori is taking a stimulant medication for treatment of attention deficit disorder. Which neurotransmitter will be affected by the drug? a) serotonin b) norepinephrine c) dopamine d) GABA Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 396. Davon has been prescribed the drug Paxil as treatment of his depression. Which neurotransmitter would the drug act upon? a) dopamine b) serotonin c) GABA d) glutamate Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 397. Gabriel is taking a drug to treat an anxiety disorder. Which neurotransmitter is most likely to be influenced? a) glutamate b) serotonin c) dopamine

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d) GABA Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 398. Jonathon is scheduled for a minor surgery with ketamine being used as an anesthetic. Which neurotransmitter will be affected? a) glutamate b) serotonin c) dopamine d) GABA Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 399. High levels of the neurotransmitter ________ is associated with schizophrenia. a) dopamine b) acetylcholine c) serotonin d) epinephrine Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 400. Serotonin is a neural transmitter that contributes to feelings of well-being and happiness. The action of serotonin in neurons is terminated by its uptake in receptor cells. In some people serotonin levels are too low, and doctors prescribe chemicals called serotonin reuptake inhibitors to increase serotonin levels. Of the following symptoms, evaluate the one most likely to make a doctor prescribe such chemicals. a) Depression

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b) Schizophrenia c) Broca's aphasia d) Parkinson's disease Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 401. The neurotransmitter oxytocin, which motivates a desire to interact with other people, is also released when people pet dogs. Low levels of oxytocin are found in some (but not all) people who have social anxiety. Evaluate the following statements about people with social anxiety (discomfort and fear of meeting people) and dogs, then decide which best fits the facts mentioned in the first part of this question. a) People with social anxiety should avoid owning a dog, because the demands of caring for an animal would increase stress levels. b) People with social anxiety should force themselves to interact with other people and not rely on a dog for companionship. c) People with social anxiety should avoid contact with dogs, because they will be afraid of animals as well. d) People with social anxiety may be helped in their interactions with others if they own a dog. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 402. Which of the following treatments would be the most effective for controlling the symptoms of Parkinson’s disease? a) a medication that increases levels of the neurotransmitter dopamine b) a medication that decreases levels of the neurotransmitter epinephrine c) a medication that controls blood sugar levels in the pancreas d) a medication that increases the hormone cortisol Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity.

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Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 403. Riley and Bash went to school together. During their senior year Riley started having odd hallucinations and was eventually diagnosed with schizophrenia. Bash had a very hard senior year as well, especially after his father passed away. By the end of senior year, Bash was on medication for severe depression. What assumption could be made about their respective neurotransmitter levels of dopamine and/or serotonin? a) Riley had high levels of dopamine, while Bash had low levels of serotonin. b) Riley had low levels of dopamine, while Bash had low levels of serotonin. c) Both Riley and Bash had high levels of dopamine. d) Both Riley and Bash had high levels of serotonin. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 404. Ned has just been bitten by a snake. Soon he finds it difficult to move his arms and legs. He hears people in the distance coming to help and is glad because he knows that if he soon does not have an antidote he will die. The venom from the snake is likely interfering with the action of the neurotransmitter a) dopamine. b) acetylcholine. c) norepinephrine. d) GABA. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 405. A drug used since the mid-1960’s as a surgical anesthetic and now used to treat fears and phobias, targets the receptors of the neurotransmitter _____________. a) dopamine b) serotonin c) glutamate d) GABA Answer: c

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 406. Ferdinand has been diagnosed with Parkinson’s disease and, therefore, has difficulty with fluid movement. Cells containing which neurotransmitter have been damaged by this disease? a) dopamine b) serotonin c) acetylcholine d) norepinephrine Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 407. Savannah has been prescribed an antidepressant. The medication probably ___ the activity of the neurotransmitter ___ in Savannah’s brain. a) decreases; serotonin b) increases; serotonin c) decreases; norepinephrine d) increases; norepinephrine Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 408. Parkinson’s disease is the result of progressive degeneration of cells that contain ___. a) serotonin b) dopamine c) norepinephrine d) acetylcholine Answer: b Difficulty: Easy

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Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 409. Which neurotransmitter is correctly matched with the area of the brain in which it especially prevalent? a) dopamine – reticular formation b) serotonin – substantia nigra c) norepinephrine – locus coeruleus d) norepinephrine – thalamus Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 410. Mr. Acharya has been diagnosed with depression. Mrs. Benitez suffers from Parkinson’s disease. Mr. Acharya may be helped by drugs that increase the activity of the neurotransmitter ___. Mrs. Benitez is more likely to be prescribed a drug that elevates the activity of the neurotransmitter ___. a) serotonin; dopamine b) dopamine; serotonin c) norepinephrine; dopamine d) serotonin; norepinephrine Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 411. Dr. Velay just told his patient that she suffers from an abnormally low level of serotonin. What diagnosis is Dr. Velay most likely to give his patient? a) Parkinson’s disease b) Huntington’s disease c) multiple sclerosis d) depression Answer: d

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 412. People who suffer with depression often report a loss of appetite and a change in their sleep patterns. This is most likely because of the involvement of the neurotransmitter a) dopamine. b) serotonin. c) norepinephrine. d) glutamate. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 413. After eating mushrooms that he picked in the forest, Mateo begins to experience paralysis of his arms and legs. Which of the following is most likely to be true? a) Mateo likely has botulism which is preventing his axons from releasing serotonin. b) Mateo is likely having an allergic reaction which is preventing his axons from releasing norepinephrine. c) Mateo likely has botulism which is preventing his axons from releasing acetylcholine. d) Mateo likely has botulism which is preventing his axons from releasing dopamine. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 414. Isla has just had a Botox treatment around her mouth and on her forehead. Botox works by interfering with the action of the neurotransmitter. a) acetylcholine b) glutamate c) serotonin d) dopamine

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Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 415. Which neurotransmitter has a key role in reward learning? a) dopamine b) serotonin c) glutamate d) norepinephrine Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 416. Devin has just been diagnosed with Parkinson’s disease. Which of the following will his neurologist explain to Devin? a) His neurons are releasing too much dopamine. b) His dopamine receptors are being blocked by enzymes. c) There is excessive dopamine reuptake occurring in his presynaptic cells. d) The neurons in his brain that release dopamine are dying. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 417. Zack has been diagnosed with schizophrenia. Which of the following accurately represents what is happening in Zack’s brain? a) His neurons are releasing too much dopamine. b) His dopamine receptors are being blocked by enzymes. c) He has an excess amount of the enzyme that breaks down dopamine. d) His dopamine receptors are blocked. Answer: a

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 418. Parkinson’s is to _________ as schizophrenia is to ____________. a) too little serotonin; too much serotonin b) too much serotonin; too little serotonin c) too much dopamine; too little dopamine d) too little dopamine; too much dopamine Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 419. Which of the following is TRUE of excess neurotransmitters? a) They move more slowly than normal. b) They are absorbed through a process called reuptake. c) They remain in the synaptic gap. d) They carry only inhibitory messages. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 420. Which of the following best describes the relationship between enzymatic degradation and reuptake? a) Both help neurotransmitters bind to the receptors. b) Enzymatic degradation breaks down enzymes, so neurotransmitters can be taken back into the presynaptic cell. c) Enzymatic degradation breaks down neurotransmitters, so the postsynaptic cell can reuptake the products for reuse. d) Both terminate the activity of neurotransmitters. Answer: d

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 421. While reuptake involves recycling neurotransmitters, enzyme degradation involves ___. a) breaking down neurotransmitters b) repolarization c) synaptic pruning d) inhibiting receptors Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 422. A network refers to the ways in which a) individual neurons work together in groups. b) the various structures of individual neurons work together. c) glial cells work together to send chemical signals. d) neurons generate action potentials. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 423. Networks of neurons that begin with random connections but become organized to work together are called a) Hebbian synapses. b) Hebbian assemblies. c) Hebbian networks. d) cell assemblies. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy

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Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 424. The ________ are points on the axon of some neurons where the myelin is very thin or absent. a) axons b) nodes of Ranvier c) dendrites d) synaptic gaps Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 425. The nodes of Ranvier refer to the points on the axon of some neurons where ________ is/are very thin or absent. a) cerebral cortex b) myelin c) dendrites d) glial cells Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 426. Which of the following statements is true regarding neural networks? a) Neural networks underlie everything except complex cognitive behaviours. b) Neural networks are innate and therefore resistant to environmental input. c) Neural networks interact in a random manner with attentional mechanisms. d) Neural networks that change as a result of experience are called Hebbian synapses. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension

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Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 427. Millions of neurons working in unison, firing together or in temporal unison, are known collectively as a) excitatory post synaptic potentials (EPSPs). b) neural networks. c) neural webs. d) pulsed assemblies. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 428. Synapses that change because of input or experience are known as ___. a) Hebbian synapses b) neuroplastic synapses c) cell assemblies d) neural networks Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 429. What have neuroscientists focused on to better understand the neural circuits involved in learning and memory? a) Hebbian synapses b) stem cells c) specific neurotransmitters d) the action potential Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons

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communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 430. Donald Hebb described networks of neurons underlying complex behaviours as ___. a) Hebbian synapses b) cell assemblies c) neuroplastic networks d) Hebbian assemblies Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 431. Our ability to change how our brain works, for instance by learning a new language, is a process called a) neuroplasticity. b) neurogenics. c) neurothesis. d) neuroscience. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 432. What is the brain's ability to reorganize and change its structure and function throughout the lifespan, based on use and experience called? a) Neuroplasticity b) Action potential c) Neurogenesis d) Localization of function Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and

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neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 433. Which of the following terms is used to refer to change in the nervous system? a) malleability b) mutability c) adaptability d) neuroplasticity Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 434. Changes that occur from repeated release of neurotransmitters is referred to as a) synaptic malleability b) neural networking c) neural plasticity d) synaptic neuroplasticity Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 435. Dagny suffered a brain injury and did extensive damage to her occipital lobe to the point where she was legally blind. Although her occipital lobe never recovered, she did regain some of her sight, and imaging studies showed that regions of the temporal lobe were now responding to visual environmental stimuli. Dagny’s story is an example of a) synaptic pruning. b) postsynaptic potentials. c) neural networks. d) neuroplasticity. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and

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neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 436. Suzanne suffered a traumatic brain injury due to an automobile accident. Although she initially lost her ability to walk, after months of physiotherapy she is now able to walk with a walker. This example demonstrates the concept of a) adaptability. b) malleability. c) neuroplasticity. d) Hebbian reorganization. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 437. After a serious head injury, Theodore was unable to remember anything from the past four years. Six months later he can now remember everything except for the past year. This example can best be explained through a) adaptability. b) Hebbian reorganization. c) cellular reassembly. d) neuroplasticity. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 438. Why are the concepts of neuroplasticity and neurogenesis so important to neuroscience? a) They both illustrate the brain’s ability to adapt and change. b) They both support the fight or flight response. c) They both contribute to degenerative spinal diseases. d) They both cause aggressive behavior in predisposed individuals. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons

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communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 439. Central nervous system injury is typically divided into two categories. What are these categories? a) CNS injury; PNS injury b) traumatic brain injury; acquired brain injury c) spinal cord injury; brain injury d) hindbrain injury; forebrain injury Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explore the neuroscience findings regarding brain injury and the evidence for brain lateralization. Section Reference: CNS Injury and Brain Lateralization 440. Which of the following would be considered an acquired brain injury? a) spinal cord injury b) concussion c) blow to the head d) hemorrhagic stroke Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Explore the neuroscience findings regarding brain injury and the evidence for brain lateralization. Section Reference: CNS Injury and Brain Lateralization 441. Which of the following would be considered a traumatic brain injury? a) Parkinson’s disease b) concussion c) carbon monoxide poisoning d) meningitis Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Explore the neuroscience findings regarding brain injury and the evidence for brain lateralization. Section Reference: CNS Injury and Brain Lateralization

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442. Reyansh suffered a(n) _____ from a blood leak on the _____. He is experiencing motor and sensory impairments on the left side of his body and is also experiencing reductions in cognitive function. a) ischemic stroke; right side of his brain b) hemorrhagic stroke; right side of his brain c) ischemic stroke; left side of his brain d) hemorrhagic stroke; left side of his brain Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explore the neuroscience findings regarding brain injury and the evidence for brain lateralization. Section Reference: CNS Injury and Brain Lateralization 443. Which of the following statements regarding treatment for brain injury is TRUE? a) Brain injuries cannot be treated due to the blood-brain barrier. b) Warming the brain immediately following the injury reduces swelling. c) Drug cocktails used to treat brain injury often do more harm than good. d) Seeking early medical care is crucial. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explore the neuroscience findings regarding brain injury and the evidence for brain lateralization. Section Reference: CNS Injury and Brain Lateralization 444. Which statement about the blood-brain barrier (BBB) is FALSE? a) The BBB regulates which vital substances can move in and out of the brain. b) The BBB prevents bacteria, viruses, and toxins from ever entering the brain. c) The BBB is critical for controlling glucose levels in the brain. d) The BBB is made up of all of the blood vessels in the brain. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Explore the neuroscience findings regarding brain injury and the evidence for brain lateralization. Section Reference: CNS Injury and Brain Lateralization 445. Movement based therapies for treating brain injury a) aim to treat the longer lasting effects of brain damage. b) aim to restore blood-flow to oxygen-deprived areas in the brain. c) have little to no impact after the first few days following the injury.

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d) are only effective in treating traumatic brain injuries. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explore the neuroscience findings regarding brain injury and the evidence for brain lateralization. Section Reference: CNS Injury and Brain Lateralization 446. The left and right hemispheres of the brain are connected by a bundle of fibres called the ___. a) corpus callosum b) corpus cerebellum c) central sulcus d) striatum Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explore the neuroscience findings regarding brain injury and the evidence for brain lateralization. Section Reference: CNS Injury and Brain Lateralization 447. Xander has had his corpus callosum severed to treat his severe epilepsy. After his surgery, researchers approached him with an interest in using him to study a) neurogenesis. b) brain lateralization. c) gender differences in brain volume. d) the neural networks within each hemisphere. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explore the neuroscience findings regarding brain injury and the evidence for brain lateralization. Section Reference: CNS Injury and Brain Lateralization 448. Your left brain does not know what your right brain is doing. It is most likely that your __________________ has been severed. a) amygdala b) frontal lobe c) association cortex d) corpus callosum Answer: d

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explore the neuroscience findings regarding brain injury and the evidence for brain lateralization. Section Reference: CNS Injury and Brain Lateralization 449. What structure is the main pathway for information to pass from one cerebral hemisphere to the other? a) the prefrontal lobe b) the hippocampus c) the corpus callosum d) the hypothalamus Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Explore the neuroscience findings regarding brain injury and the evidence for brain lateralization. Section Reference: CNS Injury and Brain Lateralization 450. The evidence for “right-brain” dominant thinking versus “left-brain” dominant thinking indicates that there a) is no evidence for localization of function. b) is some localization of function in the hemispheres. c) the right brain is in charge and dominates the left brain. d) the left brain is in charge and dominates function of the right brain. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explore the neuroscience findings regarding brain injury and the evidence for brain lateralization. Section Reference: CNS Injury and Brain Lateralization 451. Which medical procedure, performed in cases of severe epilepsy, has informed us about the independent functions of the two brain hemispheres? a) frontal lobotomy b) split-brain surgery c) decortication d) neuroplasty Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension

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Learning Objective: Explore the neuroscience findings regarding brain injury and the evidence for brain lateralization. Section Reference: CNS Injury and Brain Lateralization 452. Your friend confides that he must have split-brain surgery and tells you that he is terrified about the long-term effects of the surgery. You tell him a) not to worry too much as he will only experience minor difficulties coordinating movements on both sides of their body (e.g., running, clapping). b) that he has no need to be concerned. Since both sides of the brain receive environmental input most split brain patients show no symptoms in their day-to-day lives. c) not to have the surgery as most patients experience debilitating symptoms, experiencing competition between hemispheres for control over the body. d) not to worry. He will just get so that he uses his right hemisphere more than someone without split-brain surgery. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explore the neuroscience findings regarding brain injury and the evidence for brain lateralization. Section Reference: CNS Injury and Brain Lateralization 453. Ethan is a split-brain patient who is participating in an experiment. While staring at a fixation point, a picture of a hammer is flashed on the left side of the screen and a picture of a pair of glasses is flashed on the right. Ethan is then presented with a tray of objects containing a hammer, a pair of glasses, a screwdriver, and a toothbrush. If he is asked to point to the object he saw, what is he likely to do? a) He will point to the hammer with his left hand and the pair of glasses with his right hand. b) He will point to the hammer with his right hand and his left hand will do nothing. c) He will point to the pair of glasses with his left hand and the hammer with his right hand. d) He will point to the pair of glasses with his right hand and his left hand will do nothing. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explore the neuroscience findings regarding brain injury and the evidence for brain lateralization. Section Reference: CNS Injury and Brain Lateralization 454. If a picture of a car is presented in the left visual field of a patient who has had split-brain surgery, and the word “carrot” is presented in the right visual field, what is the patient going to say they see? a) carrot b) car c) both car and carrot d) neither car nor carrot

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Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explore the neuroscience findings regarding brain injury and the evidence for brain lateralization. Section Reference: CNS Injury and Brain Lateralization 455. Sahil has undergone a split-brain surgery while his wife, Hannah, has not. In an experiment when both are shown an apple and only each of their right hemispheres receives the image, which of the following is most likely to happen? a) Hannah is able to both name and pick up the apple when asked to do so; in contrast, Sahil can pick up the apple but not name it. b) Hannah is able to both name and pick up the apple when asked to do so; in contrast, Sahil can name but not pick up the apple. c) Hannah is able to both pick up and take a bite of the apple when asked to do so; in contrast, Sahil can pick up the apple but not take a bite of it. d) Hannah is able to both pick up and take a bite of the apple when asked to do so; Sahil can take a bite of the apple, though is ironically unable to pick it up when asked to do so. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explore the neuroscience findings regarding brain injury and the evidence for brain lateralization. Section Reference: CNS Injury and Brain Lateralization 456. Following surgery to alleviate her epilepsy, Aino can read words presented to the right visual field but CANNOT name objects presented to the left visual field. What type of surgery did Aino undergo, and what did it involve? a) Hemispherectomy, which severs the caudate nucleus b) Split-brain, which severs the corpus callosum c) Hemispherectomy, which severs the corpus callosum d) Split-brain, which severs the caudate nucleus Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explore the neuroscience findings regarding brain injury and the evidence for brain lateralization. Section Reference: CNS Injury and Brain Lateralization 457. Victor is a split-brain patient who is asked to reach into a paper bag with his right hand and feel the object inside. What will Victor communicate about the object in the bag? a) He will be able to name the object.

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b) He will not be able to name the object. c) He will be able to point to the object with his left hand. d) He will know what the object is but have no available word for it. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explore the neuroscience findings regarding brain injury and the evidence for brain lateralization. Section Reference: CNS Injury and Brain Lateralization 458. Amanda is about to meet a blind date for the first time. Her cousin arranged the date, and the only thing she knows is that her date had split-brain surgery about a year ago to treat his epilepsy. What should Amanda expect to notice in her date’s behaviour as a result of his surgery? a) He may have some short-term memory deficits, but his long-term memory should be unaffected. b) He may exhibit problems coordinating the two halves of his body (e.g., clapping his hands, walking). c) He may require extra time identifying objects and their locations in space. d) nothing at all Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explore the neuroscience findings regarding brain injury and the evidence for brain lateralization. Section Reference: CNS Injury and Brain Lateralization 459. Valentino is a split-brain patient who is asked to reach into a paper bag with his left hand and feel the object inside. What will Valentino communicate about the object in the bag? a) He will be able to name the object. b) He will not be able to name the object. c) He will be able to point to the object with his right hand. d) He will know what the object is but have no available word for it. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explore the neuroscience findings regarding brain injury and the evidence for brain lateralization. Section Reference: CNS Injury and Brain Lateralization 460. Aryan is a split-brain patient who is presented with the word "tenant" with "ten" presented to his right visual field and "ant" presented to his left visual field. How does he respond when

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asked what word he sees? a) tenant b) ten c) ant d) he reports he sees nothing Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explore the neuroscience findings regarding brain injury and the evidence for brain lateralization. Section Reference: CNS Injury and Brain Lateralization 461. Tomek is a split-brain patient who is staring at a fixation point in the middle of a screen. Suddenly, an apple is flashed on the left side of the screen and a hairbrush is flashed on the right. Tomek is then presented with a tray containing an apple, a hairbrush, a comb, and an orange. If he is asked to point to the object he saw, what is he likely to do? a) He will point to the hairbrush with his right hand and his left hand will do nothing. b) He will point to the hairbrush with his right hand and the apple with his left. c) He will point to the apple with his right hand and the hairbrush with his left hand. d) He will point to the apple with his right hand and his left hand will do nothing. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explore the neuroscience findings regarding brain injury and the evidence for brain lateralization. Section Reference: CNS Injury and Brain Lateralization 462. Which of the following best describes the effect that split brain surgery has on patients in their everyday lives? a) They can only talk about objects seen in their right visual field. b) They can point out objects they see in their right visual field but cannot name them. c) They have difficulty separating what they see in each visual field. d) The surgery has very little effect on their everyday lives. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explore the neuroscience findings regarding brain injury and the evidence for brain lateralization. Section Reference: CNS Injury and Brain Lateralization 463. Your friend tells you he must have surgery in which they are going to disconnect communication between the two hemispheres of his brain. Which of the following diseases is

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your friend likely to be suffering from? a) brain tumour b) epilepsy c) schizophrenia d) dyslexia Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explore the neuroscience findings regarding brain injury and the evidence for brain lateralization. Section Reference: CNS Injury and Brain Lateralization 464. What function is the most lateralized? a) emotional processing b) language c) vision d) memory Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Explore the neuroscience findings regarding brain injury and the evidence for brain lateralization. Section Reference: CNS Injury and Brain Lateralization 465. Where are the cortical areas specialized for language located in the brain for most people who are left handed? a) right side of the brain b) left side of the brain c) both sides of the brain d) corpus callosum Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explore the neuroscience findings regarding brain injury and the evidence for brain lateralization. Section Reference: CNS Injury and Brain Lateralization 466. Given evidence of laterality of function, which difference is most unlikely? a) right dominance for creativity b) left dominance for analytical skills c) right dominance for language d) left dominance for language

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Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explore the neuroscience findings regarding brain injury and the evidence for brain lateralization. Section Reference: CNS Injury and Brain Lateralization 467. How different are the right and left hemispheres in terms of their functions? a) There is no difference in function between the two hemispheres. b) Functionally, the two hemispheres are more similar than they are different. c) Functionally, the two hemispheres are more different than they are similar. d) The two hemispheres have opposing functions. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explore the neuroscience findings regarding brain injury and the evidence for brain lateralization. Section Reference: CNS Injury and Brain Lateralization 468. In most individuals, in which hemisphere of the brain is Wernicke’s area located? a) left b) right c) both d) neither Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Explore the neuroscience findings regarding brain injury and the evidence for brain lateralization. Section Reference: CNS Injury and Brain Lateralization 469. Nanette is right-handed. Onslow is left-handed. Which of the following hypotheses is most tenable regarding the location of Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas in these two individuals? a) Onslow is more likely to have Broca’s and Wernicke’s area located in the right hemisphere than is Nanette. b) Onslow is more likely to have Broca’s and Wernicke’s area located in the left hemisphere than is Nanette. c) Onslow is just as likely as Nanette to have Broca’s and Wernicke’s area located in the left hemisphere. d) Handedness does not allow one to predict the brain lateralization of language areas. Answer: a

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Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Explore the neuroscience findings regarding brain injury and the evidence for brain lateralization. Section Reference: CNS Injury and Brain Lateralization 470. Nanette has Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas located in her left hemisphere. Onslow has Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas located in his right hemisphere. Which of the following statements regarding handedness is most tenable? a) Onslow lefthanded and Nanette is righthanded. b) Onslow lefthanded and Nanette is lefthanded. c) Onslow righthanded and Nanette is righthanded. d) Onslow righthanded and Nanette is lefthanded Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Explore the neuroscience findings regarding brain injury and the evidence for brain lateralization. Section Reference: CNS Injury and Brain Lateralization 471. When it comes to brain lateralization, which of the following is TRUE? a) Language is the most lateralized function. b) Most functions are lateralized to one hemisphere. c) People who are less lateralized are more intelligent. d) Most left-handers process language in the right hemisphere. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Explore the neuroscience findings regarding brain injury and the evidence for brain lateralization. Section Reference: CNS Injury and Brain Lateralization 472. The brain controls the opposite side of the body. In this case, it could also be said that the brain controls the ______________ side of the body. a) ipsilateral b) contralateral c) lateral reversal d) counterlateral Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Learning Objective: Explore the neuroscience findings regarding brain injury and the evidence for brain lateralization. Section Reference: CNS Injury and Brain Lateralization 473. Terrance is left-handed. What is the probability that he processes language in the right hemisphere? a) 100% b) 66% c) 18 % d) 0% Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explore the neuroscience findings regarding brain injury and the evidence for brain lateralization. Section Reference: CNS Injury and Brain Lateralization 474. Which of the following is TRUE about left-handed people? a) Most of them process language in the left hemisphere. b) They tend to be more analytical than right-handers. c) They tend to use both hemispheres more often than right-handers. d) Their corpus callosum is thinner than right-handers. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explore the neuroscience findings regarding brain injury and the evidence for brain lateralization. Section Reference: CNS Injury and Brain Lateralization 475. Which of the following is NOT true about left-handers? a) Most of them process language in the left-hemisphere. b) They tend to be more analytical than right-handers. c) Very few left-handers have language located in the right hemisphere. d) Some left-handers have language located in both hemispheres. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explore the neuroscience findings regarding brain injury and the evidence for brain lateralization. Section Reference: CNS Injury and Brain Lateralization

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476. Eighty-year old, right-handed Candace recently suffered a stroke to the right hemisphere of her brain. Which of the following would be a most likely result of Candace’s stroke? a) Candace would not be able to see out of her right eye. b) Candace would not be able to see out her left eye. c) Candace would probably suffer some degree of paralysis on the left side of her body. d) Candace would probably suffer some degree of paralysis on the right side of her body. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explore the neuroscience findings regarding brain injury and the evidence for brain lateralization. Section Reference: CNS Injury and Brain Lateralization 477. Popular theories suggest the presence of sizeable differences in brain structure between groups of individuals, such as between women and men. In general, what does contemporary neuroscientific research say with respect to such differences? a) Neuroscientific research indicates that such differences are about as large as popular theories suggest. b) Neuroscientific research suggests that such differences are larger than popular theories propose. c) Neuroscientific research suggests that such differences are essentially nonexistent. d) Neuroscientific research suggests that such differences may exist, but that they are smaller than popular theories suppose. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explore the neuroscience findings regarding brain injury and the evidence for brain lateralization. Section Reference: CNS Injury and Brain Lateralization 478. The field of evolutionary psychology studies a) how evolution has shaped the human body and brain over time. b) the history of the evolution of a species or group. c) the comparison and classification of individual species as they evolve. d) the geologic process of fossilization. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the basic theory of evolution and explain how it has influenced our understanding of the human nervous system and the evolution of the human brain. Section Reference: Evolution and the Nervous System

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479. The evolutionary history of a unique species over time is known as a) LUCA. b) phylogeny. c) taxonomy. d) convergent evolution. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the basic theory of evolution and explain how it has influenced our understanding of the human nervous system and the evolution of the human brain. Section Reference: Evolution and the Nervous System 480. Fossil evidence suggests that multicellular organisms evolved approximately a) 500–600 million years ago. b) 800–900 million years ago. c) 1.8 billion years ago. d) 3 billion years ago. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the basic theory of evolution and explain how it has influenced our understanding of the human nervous system and the evolution of the human brain. Section Reference: Evolution and the Nervous System 481. Which of the following reflects the order in which organisms evolved? a) chordates, vertebrates, amphibians, reptiles, mammals b) vertebrates, chordates, reptiles, amphibians, mammals c) vertebrates, mammals, chordates, reptiles, amphibians d) chordates, reptiles, amphibians, vertebrates, mammals Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the basic theory of evolution and explain how it has influenced our understanding of the human nervous system and the evolution of the human brain. Section Reference: Evolution and the Nervous System 482. Which of the following is NOT one of the major kingdoms? a) Eucharia b) Archea c) Chordea d) Bacteria

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Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the basic theory of evolution and explain how it has influenced our understanding of the human nervous system and the evolution of the human brain. Section Reference: Evolution and the Nervous System 483. The Animalia kingdom is unique because it is the only division of life on Earth that contains organisms a) with nervous systems. b) that can nurse their young with milk. c) that can gestate their young internally. d) with the ability to move bipedally. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the basic theory of evolution and explain how it has influenced our understanding of the human nervous system and the evolution of the human brain. Section Reference: Evolution and the Nervous System 484. Human beings fit into the super kingdom _______ and the kingdom _____ a) Animalia; Eucharia. b) Eucharia; Animalia. c) Archea; Animalia. d) Animalia; Archea. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the basic theory of evolution and explain how it has influenced our understanding of the human nervous system and the evolution of the human brain. Section Reference: Evolution and the Nervous System 485. The theory of evolution argues that all life on earth derived from one common ancestor is called the a) evolution by natural selection theory. b) phylogenetic hierarchy. c) last universal common ancestor. d) universal tree of life. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

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Learning Objective: Describe the basic theory of evolution and explain how it has influenced our understanding of the human nervous system and the evolution of the human brain. Section Reference: Evolution and the Nervous System 486. Characteristics that can be traced to a common ancestor are referred to as ___________. Traits that have evolved independently in different species are called _____________. a) heterogenous; homologous b) homologous; heterogenous c) heterogenous; analogous d) homologous; analogous Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the basic theory of evolution and explain how it has influenced our understanding of the human nervous system and the evolution of the human brain. Section Reference: Evolution and the Nervous System 487. When a trait appears in two distinct species that share a common ancestor, this is called a) divergent evolution. b) homologous evolution. c) analogous evolution. d) convergent evolution. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the basic theory of evolution and explain how it has influenced our understanding of the human nervous system and the evolution of the human brain. Section Reference: Evolution and the Nervous System 488. The fact that birds and bees both have wings but do NOT share a common ancestor is an example of a) phylogenetic evolution. b) heterologous evolution. c) convergent evolution. d) homologous evolution. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic theory of evolution and explain how it has influenced our understanding of the human nervous system and the evolution of the human brain. Section Reference: Evolution and the Nervous System

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489. Imagine that scientists have discovered the Abominable Snowman living in the northern Rocky Mountains. They learn that this rare creature can see in the dark, just like an owl. Since further DNA testing revealed that the snowman creature and an owl have no common ancestor, the evolution of their visual abilities would be the result of a) homologous evolution. b) convergent evolution. c) divergent evolution. d) phylogenetic evolution. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the basic theory of evolution and explain how it has influenced our understanding of the human nervous system and the evolution of the human brain. Section Reference: Evolution and the Nervous System 490. Aardvarks and anteaters both developed powerful fore claws and long sticky tongues despite not being at all related. This is an example of a) behavioural genetics. b) comparative evolution. c) natural selection. d) convergent evolution. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic theory of evolution and explain how it has influenced our understanding of the human nervous system and the evolution of the human brain. Section Reference: Evolutionary Psychology 491. When a trait appears in two distinct species that do NOT share a common ancestor, this is called a) divergent evolution. b) homologous evolution. c) phylogenetic evolution. d) convergent evolution. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the basic theory of evolution and explain how it has influenced our understanding of the human nervous system and the evolution of the human brain. Section Reference: Evolution and the Nervous System

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492. The arm of a human, wing of a bird, leg of a dog, and flipper of a dolphin are similar and have common traits. These related parts have evolved to do different things but can be traced back to the last common ancestor. The evolution of these structures wold be the result of a) homologous evolution. b) convergent evolution. c) divergent evolution. d) phylogenetic evolution Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic theory of evolution and explain how it has influenced our understanding of the human nervous system and the evolution of the human brain. Section Reference: Evolution and the Nervous System 493. You and a friend are on a nature walk when you notice both a butterfly and a bird flying in a meadow. Your friend comments how interesting it is that both have wings but are completely distinct species. Which of the following explanations would be the best response? a) Wings are a homologous characteristic. b) Wings are an analogous characteristic. c) Wings are a heterogenous characteristic. d) Wings are a homogenous characteristic. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the basic theory of evolution and explain how it has influenced our understanding of the human nervous system and the evolution of the human brain. Section Reference: Evolution and the Nervous System 494. Traits that have evolved independently in different species are called a) analogous. b) homologous. c) homogenous. d) heterogenous. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the basic theory of evolution and explain how it has influenced our understanding of the human nervous system and the evolution of the human brain. Section Reference: Evolution and the Nervous System 495. How can you tell if a trait has evolved due to homologous evolution or analogous evolution?

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a) You compare the function of the trait across different species. b) You do an analysis of the fossil evidence for the trait. c) You do a comparative analysis to see if the two species with the trait in question have a common ancestor. d) You use statistics to determine the probability that the animal would have this trait based on chance alone. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe the basic theory of evolution and explain how it has influenced our understanding of the human nervous system and the evolution of the human brain. Section Reference: Evolution and the Nervous System 496. What is the difference between homologous evolution and analogous evolution? a) With homologous evolution, changes in a trait happen over one or two generations; with analogous evolution, changes in a trait occur over millions of years. b) With homologous evolution, these are changes that occurred in single-celled organisms; with analogous evolution, these are changes that occurred in multi-cellular organisms. c) With homologous evolution, a similar trait found in different species is due to a common ancestor; with analogous evolution, this similar trait would have evolved independently in each species. d) Homologous evolution is the result of reproduction; analogous evolution is due to survival skills (e.g., food finding, predator avoidance). Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe the basic theory of evolution and explain how it has influenced our understanding of the human nervous system and the evolution of the human brain. Section Reference: Evolution and the Nervous System 497. Wendel is a farmer with a herd of jersey cows. He has discovered that some cows have more fat content in their milk than others, and he interbreeds members of his herd to increase the fat content more and more. In what way would this example help Darwin explain the diversity of life on earth? a) Not all animals that are born will survive long enough to reproduce. b) Selective breeding in animals can lead to dramatic changes. c) Fossil evidence indicates subtle changes in species over time. d) Similarities among organisms show how they are related. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the basic theory of evolution and explain how it has influenced our understanding of the human nervous system and the evolution of the human brain.

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Section Reference: Evolution and the Nervous System 498. Adrian is a breeder of prize-winning German shepherd dogs. He deliberately chooses a male dog with a longer nose and a female dog with a longer body to breed together. Adrian hopes that the offspring of this pairing will produce dogs with longer noses and bodies than the other dogs he has produced. In his attempts at selective breeding, Adrian would most likely benefit from the work of a) Charles Darwin. b) Gregor Mendel. c) David Buss. d) William James. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic theory of evolution and explain how it has influenced our understanding of the human nervous system and the evolution of the human brain. Section Reference: Evolutionary Psychology 499. Which of the following was one of the critical observations made by Darwin to explain the diversity of life on earth? a) Animals that live where there is a shortage of resources have more adaptations. b) Not all animals that are born will survive and reproduce. c) There is more fossil evidence from plants than animals. d) Structural changes that happen within an individual’s lifespan can be passed down to their offspring. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the basic theory of evolution and explain how it has influenced our understanding of the human nervous system and the evolution of the human brain. Section Reference: Evolution and the Nervous System 500. Which of the following was NOT a critical observation made by Darwin to explain the diversity of life on earth? a) selective breeding of captive animals b) similar structural similarities in distinct species c) greater survival of larger animals over time d) not all animals that are born will survive and reproduce Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the basic theory of evolution and explain how it has influenced our

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understanding of the human nervous system and the evolution of the human brain. Section Reference: Evolution and the Nervous System 501. To describe the diversity of life on Earth, Darwin made four critical observations. Which of the statements below is one of Darwin’s observations? a) Based on fossil evidence, Darwin claimed that species were stabilizing over time. b) Darwin said that unique species shared few structural similarities. c) Darwin perceived that selective breeding resulted in animal stock that was unchanged from one generation to the next. d) Not all animals survive to maturity and therefore will not reproduce and pass on their traits. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the basic theory of evolution and explain how it has influenced our understanding of the human nervous system and the evolution of the human brain. Section Reference: Evolution and the Nervous System 502. Sarah is so excited that a robin has built a nest right outside her office window. She watches daily as the parents take turns sitting on the three eggs, until they finally hatch. Now she sees three little beaks point up at the sky every time one of the parents arrive. But one day, Sarah notices only two little beaks are waiting to be fed, and she wonders what happened to the third bird. In what way would this example help Darwin explain the diversity of life on earth? a) Not all animals that are born will survive long enough to reproduce. b) Selective breeding in animals can lead to dramatic changes in appearance. c) Fossil evidence indicates subtle changes in species over time. d) Similarities among organisms show how they are related. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the basic theory of evolution and explain how it has influenced our understanding of the human nervous system and the evolution of the human brain. Section Reference: Evolution and the Nervous System 503. Why does an adaptive trait not necessarily guarantee long-term survival? a) If the environment changes, the trait may not be adaptive any longer. b) A predator could still eat the individual with the adaptive trait. c) The individual may not mate and reproduce. d) The changing seasons means no trait is always advantageous. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic theory of evolution and explain how it has influenced our

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understanding of the human nervous system and the evolution of the human brain. Section Reference: Evolutionary Psychology 504. On a trip into the desert, you see two different types of mice. One is a light brown and blends easily into the desert sand. The other is all white and stands out quite easily. Both kinds of mice are the preferred food for a certain type of desert hawk. If you made another trip to the desert five years later, what would you expect to find? a) There would be equal numbers of white and brown mice. b) There would be more white mice than brown mice. c) There would be more brown mice than white mice. d) Neither type of mouse would have survived. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the basic theory of evolution and explain how it has influenced our understanding of the human nervous system and the evolution of the human brain. Section Reference: Evolution and the Nervous System 505. According to Darwin, what was the most likely cause of change in a specific species over generations? a) Environmental changes led to better health in some members of the species, so their genes were passed on to future generations. b) Some members of the species were naturally healthier than others which allowed them to survive environmental changes and reproduce. c) Some members of the species had access to better food sources and were able to survive to pass on their genes to future generations. d) Some members of a species had physical and behavioural attributes that allowed them to adapt to the environment in which they lived and reproduce. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the basic theory of evolution and explain how it has influenced our understanding of the human nervous system and the evolution of the human brain. Section Reference: Evolutionary Psychology 506. Which of the following set Charles Darwin apart from other scientists who were studying the theory of evolution? a) Darwin studied fossilized remains. b) Darwin had travelled the world making observations. c) Darwin was the first to notice differences among the same species over time. d) Darwin has conducted extensive research on differences between the species and how environmental changes influenced survival. Answer: d

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the basic theory of evolution and explain how it has influenced our understanding of the human nervous system and the evolution of the human brain. Section Reference: Evolutionary Psychology 507. Which of the following statements about Charles Darwin is true? a) Charles Darwin coined the term “survival of the fittest”. b) Charles Darwin was responsible for what is known as the modern synthesis. c) Charles Darwin wrote On the Origin of Species (1859). d) Charles Darwin is known as the father of modern genetics. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the basic theory of evolution and explain how it has influenced our understanding of the human nervous system and the evolution of the human brain. Section Reference: Evolution and the Nervous System 508. What do we call the ability of an organism to successfully live to maturity and reproduce? a) natural selection b) survival of the fittest c) fitness d) selective breeding Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the basic theory of evolution and explain how it has influenced our understanding of the human nervous system and the evolution of the human brain. Section Reference: Evolution and the Nervous System 509. In evolutionary terms, ‘fitness’ refers to a) the likelihood that a species will survive a harsh winter. b) the extent of physical and psychological adaptability within an individual. c) the ability of an individual to survive and reproduce. d) the preference of individuals for specific traits in their mates. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the basic theory of evolution and explain how it has influenced our understanding of the human nervous system and the evolution of the human brain. Section Reference: Evolution and the Nervous System

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510. Who coined the term “survival of the fittest”? a) Darwin b) Spencer c) Galton d) Skinner Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the basic theory of evolution and explain how it has influenced our understanding of the human nervous system and the evolution of the human brain. Section Reference: Evolution and the Nervous System 511. Imagine that you and a friend are observing children playing at a playground. The children are varied sizes, have different hair colour, and temperaments. Your friend asks you to guess which one of the children is most “fit” according to natural selection theory. Which of the following would be the most appropriate answer? a) the largest child b) there is no way of knowing until the children grow up and you see how many children each has c) the most attractive child d) they are all of equal fitness Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the basic theory of evolution and explain how it has influenced our understanding of the human nervous system and the evolution of the human brain. Section Reference: Evolution and the Nervous System 512. Which of the following demonstrates an adaptive trait that might increase fitness of the species? a) Morning sickness might prevent a woman from ingesting foods that might be toxic to a developing fetus but would not harm a non-pregnant woman. b) Moving from northern Canada to Florida might cause an individuals’ skin to become darker. c) Children learn to read and write at an earlier age than before. d) After a hurricane destroys its food source, a woodpecker migrates to a different location. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe the basic theory of evolution and explain how it has influenced our understanding of the human nervous system and the evolution of the human brain. Section Reference: Evolution and the Nervous System

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513. A more concise way of saying: ‘more offspring are produced by individuals within a species that are better adapted to the current environment’ would be a) survival of the fittest. b) reproductive success. c) natural selection. d) homologous evolution. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the basic theory of evolution and explain how it has influenced our understanding of the human nervous system and the evolution of the human brain. Section Reference: Evolution and the Nervous System 514. What would be a more accurate way of saying ‘survival of the fittest’? a) more offspring produced by individuals within a species that are better adapted to the current environment b) more foraging and predator avoidance for individuals within a species that have more cognitive and physical skills c) more reproduction and survival for individuals within a species that are more physically fit and cognitively superior d) more anticipation of environmental events for individuals within a species that are more attentive to environmental cues Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the basic theory of evolution and explain how it has influenced our understanding of the human nervous system and the evolution of the human brain. Section Reference: Evolution and the Nervous System 515. The medulla is the part of the brain that controls many essential automatic body functions, such as breathing and heart rate. Some very primitive organisms, such as lampreys, have a medulla, which has led scientists to postulate that the medulla developed about 500 million years ago. Using your understanding of evolutionary theory, evaluate the following explanations for the early evolution of the medulla and judge which one is best. a) The early development of the medulla freed other areas of the brain to develop higher cognitive abilities, thus increasing an organism's chances. b) Automatic control of these functions provided a survival advantage that helped organisms with a medulla survive until the age of reproduction. c) Automatic control of these functions made organisms more sexually attractive and thus more likely to have mates. d) The early development of the medulla improved an organism's ability to respond quickly to stimuli.

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Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective: Describe the basic theory of evolution and explain how it has influenced our understanding of the human nervous system and the evolution of the human brain. Section Reference: Evolution and the Nervous System 516. Which of the following is the factor that sets primates’ brains apart from the brains of other animals? a) the number of hemispheres of the brain b) the size of the brain stem c) the size of the hippocampus d) the size of the cortex Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the basic theory of evolution and explain how it has influenced our understanding of the human nervous system and the evolution of the human brain. Section Reference: Evolution and the Nervous System 517. A number of hypotheses exist about why the neocortex evolved to its current size in the human brain. Which of the following is a behaviour that underlies one of these hypotheses? a) the development of language b) matches c) nomadic lifestyles d) individualistic simplistic societies Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the basic theory of evolution and explain how it has influenced our understanding of the human nervous system and the evolution of the human brain. Section Reference: Evolution and the Nervous System 518. What is a potential cause discussed in your text for explaining the expansion of the human context over evolutionary time? a) tool use b) the ability to anticipate environmental perturbations c) the need to keep track of multiple social relationships d) bipedal locomotion Answer: a Difficulty: Easy

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Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the basic theory of evolution and explain how it has influenced our understanding of the human nervous system and the evolution of the human brain. Section Reference: Evolution and the Nervous System 519. Which of the following is evidence that the human brain has increased in size since the time of the Australopithecus? a) The overall size of the Australopithecus’ skull is smaller. b) The area at the front of the skull has expanded in modern humans. c) Fossils of the Australopithecus’ brains are smaller than the brains of modern humans. d) both a & b. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the basic theory of evolution and explain how it has influenced our understanding of the human nervous system and the evolution of the human brain. Section Reference: Evolution and the Nervous System 520. Unfortunately, there is no tissue evidence from early Hominids for modern man to study and learn about their brains. As such, how do we know that brain size has increased considerably in Hominids? a) fossil evidence of brains b) neural density scans of fossilized brains c) evidence from fossilized skulls d) from examining and comparing the layers in our modern brain and primate relatives Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the basic theory of evolution and explain how it has influenced our understanding of the human nervous system and the evolution of the human brain. Section Reference: Evolution and the Nervous System

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MATCHING QUESTION 521. Match the appropriate words in the left column to the definitions in the right column. Terms A. Astroglia B. Microglia C. Oligiodendroglia D. Schwann E. Resting potential F. Action potential G. Postsynaptic potential H. Threshold I. Absolute refractory period J. Relative refractory period K. Depolarized L. Hyperpolarized M. Plasticity N. Somatic nervous system O. Autonomic nervous system

___ ___ ___ ___

___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___

Definitions 1. The time during which a neuron can only fire if it receives a stimulus stronger than its usual threshold level. 2. Electrical events in postsynaptic neurons, that occur when a neurotransmitter binds to one of its receptors. 3. A sudden positive change in the electrical charge of a neuron. 4. Areas of a cell have had their negative charge increased in an inhibitory fashion, making less likely that the cell will generate an action potential. 5. All the peripheral nerves that transmit information about the senses and movement to and from the central nervous system. 6. Change in the nervous system. 7. The state of a cell when the charge is -70mv. 8. Cells that form the blood-brain barrier. 9. A glial cell that forms myelin around the neurons in the CNS. 10. Cells in PNS important for insulating neurons.

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ANSWERS TO MATCHING QUESTION 1.

I: Absolute refractory period

G: Postsynaptic potential

F: Action potential

L: Hyperpolarize

N: Somatic nervous system

M: Plasticity

E: Resting potential

A: Astroglia

C: Oligiodendroglia

10. D: Schwann Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

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FILL-IN-THE-BLANK 522. The study of the nervous system is called ___. Answer: neuroscience Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Understand the key methods that scientists use to learn about nervous system anatomy and functioning. Section Reference: How Do Scientists Study the Nervous System? 523. A(n) ___ measures brain wave activity from the surface of the scalp. Answer: electroencephalogram Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Understand the key methods that scientists use to learn about nervous system anatomy and functioning. Section Reference: How Do Scientists Study the Nervous System? 524. The branch-like structures that extend away from the cell body to receive impulses from other neurons are called ___. Answer: dendrites Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work? 525. The end of a neuron’s axon from which neurotransmitters are released is called the ___. Answer: axon terminal Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work? 526. Astroglia are important because they create a system that tracks the molecules that travel between the blood and the brain. This system is called the ___.

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Answer: blood-brain barrier Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work? 527. The loss of myelin on the axons of neurons is a characteristic of a neurological disorder known as ___. Answer: multiple sclerosis Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe four neurological disorders and the current directions in research for treating them. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work? 528. The openings in the neuron membrane that only allow passage of certain ions are called ___. Answer: ion channels Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 529. The unequal distribution of ions on each side of the cell membrane is called the ___. Answer: concentration gradient Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 530. The process by which an action potential travels down a myelinated neuron is called ___. Answer: saltatory conduction Difficulty: Easy

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Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 531. Physical gaps between neurons are called ___. Answer: synapses Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 532. Cell assemblies were first identified by the Canadian psychologist ___. Answer: Donald Hebb Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 533. The ___ subdivision of the peripheral nervous system transmits information about the senses and motor movement. Answer: somatic Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 534. Several neuron groups form the ___ which is important for sleep and wakefulness. Answer: reticular formation Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour.

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Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 535. A neurological disorder associated with damage to the substantia nigra is called ___. Answer: Parkinson’s disease Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 536. The ___ glands release hormones essential to dealing with stressful situations. Answer: adrenal Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 537. The striatum works with the ___ to produce fluid movements. Answer: substantia nigra Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 538. The folds of the neocortex are called ___. Answer: convolutions Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 539. The ___ is a band of the parietal cortex that processes tactile information from parts of the body. Answer: somatosensory strip

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 540. A ___ is a surgical procedure that destroys a portion of the prefrontal cortex. Answer: lobotomy Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 541. Together, the hippocampus, amygdala, thalamus, and hypothalamus are sometimes called the ___. Answer: Limbic system Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 542. The bundle of nerve fibres that allow the two hemispheres of the brain to communicate with each other is called the ___. Answer: corpus callosum Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explore the neuroscience findings regarding brain injury and the evidence for brain lateralization. Section Reference: CNS Injury and Brain Lateralization 543. ___ surgery is sometimes performed to stop epileptic seizures and involves the severing of the corpus callosum. Answer: Split-brain Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explore the neuroscience findings regarding brain injury and the evidence

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for brain lateralization. Section Reference: CNS Injury and Brain Lateralization 544. Overall brain size is related to ___ rather than to the function of the brain. Answer: body size Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explore the neuroscience findings regarding brain injury and the evidence for brain lateralization. Section Reference: CNS Injury and Brain Lateralization 545. The evolutionary history of all life on the planet is called ___. Answer: phylogeny Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the basic theory of evolution and explain how it has influenced our understanding of the human nervous system and the evolution of the human brain. Section Reference: Evolution and the Nervous System 546. The process of analogous evolution leading to similar adaptations is called ___. Answer: convergent evolution Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the basic theory of evolution and explain how it has influenced our understanding of the human nervous system and the evolution of the human brain. Section Reference: Evolution and the Nervous System 547. The differential likelihood between members of a species in their ability to survive and reproduce is called ___. Answer: evolution by natural selection Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the basic theory of evolution and explain how it has influenced our understanding of the human nervous system and the evolution of the human brain. Section Reference: Evolution and the Nervous System 548. The integration of Darwin’s theory of evolution, and Mendel’s discovery of genetic processes is now known as ___.

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Answer: modern synthesis Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the basic theory of evolution and explain how it has influenced our understanding of the human nervous system and the evolution of the human brain. Section Reference: Evolution and the Nervous System

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SHORT ANSWER ESSAY QUESTIONS 549. What type of scientist’s study brain functionality by investigating patients with brain damage? Answer: neuropsychologists Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Understand the key methods that scientists use to learn about nervous system anatomy and functioning. Section Reference: How Do Scientists Study the Nervous System? 550. Approximately how many neurons are housed in the adult human brain? Answer: approximately 86 billion Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work? 551. What is the function of a stem cell? Answer: dividing and producing new cells; producing new neurons Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work? 552. Which positively charged ions pass through the ion channels? Answer: sodium and potassium Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 553. What chemicals travel from neuron to neuron across synapses?

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Answer: neurotransmitters Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 554. What system is responsible for the “fight or flight” response? Answer: sympathetic nervous system Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 555. What term describes a person who is paralyzed from the neck down after an injury? Answer: quadriplegic Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 556. What neurotransmitter used by the cells in the pons are important for arousal and attention? Answer: norepinephrine Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 557. What portion of the thalamus is used to relay auditory information? Answer: medial geniculate nucleus Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our

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behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 558. Thyroid hormones are important for Answer: metabolism. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 559. What area of the brain may play a role in drug addiction? Answer: nucleus accumbens Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 560. What are the two classifications of areas within each lobe of the neocortex? Answer: primary motor and/or sensory areas, association cortex Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 561. What somatosensory information is processed by the parietal lobe? Answer: touch, pressure, vibration, and pain Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 562. What structure connects the hemispheres of the neocortex? Answer: corpus callosum

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 563. Describe the relationship between handedness and the lateralization of language. Answer: Most right-handed persons process language in the left hemisphere. 18% of lefthanded persons process language in the right hemisphere. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explore the neuroscience findings regarding brain injury and the evidence for brain lateralization. Section Reference: CNS Injury and Brain Lateralization 564. Which side of the brain is thought to be dominant in individuals with strong analytical and verbal skills? Answer: left Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explore the neuroscience findings regarding brain injury and the evidence for brain lateralization. Section Reference: CNS Injury and Brain Lateralization 565. What is the relationship between brain size and intelligence? Answer: There is no known relationship unless the brain is abnormally small or large. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explore the neuroscience findings regarding brain injury and the evidence for brain lateralization. Section Reference: CNS Injury and Brain Lateralization 566. Who is considered to be the “father of evolution”? Answer: Charles Darwin Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the basic theory of evolution and explain how it has influenced our understanding of the human nervous system and the evolution of the human brain.

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Section Reference: Evolution and the Nervous System

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ESSAY QUESTIONS 567. Describe how messages enter and leave a neuron. Answer: Messages are received by the dendrites then transported to the cell body for processing. From the cell body, messages leave the neuron through the axon. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work? 568. Describe four functions of astroglia cells. Answer: Any four of the following six functions: 1) form the blood-brain barrier 2) regulate the flow of blood into regions with more neural activity 3) clean up chemicals from neighbouring neurons 4) provide important growth-promoting molecules to neurons 5) form stem cells 6) form glial scars around the site of an injury. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work? 569. What is the primary function of the oligodendroglia? Answer: Cells produce myelin that insulates axons from nearby neurons. This is associated with effective transfer of electrical signals down the axon. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work? 570. Describe two functions of myelin. Answer: Protects neuron from neighbouring neural activity; speeds up the passage of electrical signals down the axon of the neuron. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work?

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571. Describe an action potential. Answer: For a neuron to fire, the stimulation reaching it must exceed a certain threshold, otherwise it will not fire. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 572. What is the significance of the lock and key metaphor? Answer: Neurotransmitter receptors on the post-synaptic neuron will only receive a neurotransmitter if it fits the physical structure of the receptor. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 573. Name and describe two processes that terminate the activity of a neurotransmitter. Answer: enzymatic degradation (the breaking down of the neurotransmitter by enzymes); reuptake: neurotransmitters are taken back up into the presynaptic neuron and recycled for future use. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 574. Describe the function of cell assemblies. Answer: Cell assemblies work as an interconnected entity, strengthening synaptic connections as certain mental processes are repeated, building units for memory and cognitive functioning. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what happens when a neuron “fires” and how neurons communicate with one another to produce behaviour; become familiar with neural networks and

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neuroplasticity. Section Reference: How Do Neurons Work? 575. What functions does the parasympathetic nervous system control? Answer: vegetative states at work when an individual is not at immediate risk, such as food digestion Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 576. What is the relationship between the location of a spinal injury and the portion of the body that is likely to be paralyzed? Answer: The higher the location of the damage on the spine (closer to the head), the more surface area of the body will be affected. Lower spinal injuries are likely to spare the function of the upper limbs. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Name and describe the functions and subdivisions of the two major parts of the nervous system and become familiar with current research in spinal cord injury. Section Reference: How Is the Nervous System Organized? 577. Describe the characteristics of someone who has sustained damage to their cerebellum. Answer: poor motor coordination, awkward walking gait, difficulty reaching for objects Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 578. What motivated behaviours are regulated by the hypothalamus? Answer: hunger, thirst, sexual behaviour, and maternal behaviour Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain

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579. Why have neuroscientists been particularly interested in the function of the amygdala? Answer: It regulates fear and has been investigated for its role in the development of phobias. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 580. Describe the role of the nucleus accumbens in drug addiction. Answer: This structure interacts with neurons in the midbrain that use dopamine to regulate reward-seeking behaviour. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 581. Describe the function of the occipital lobe. Answer: This structure, which is part of the neocortex, is located at the back of the brain and is responsible for processing visual information. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 582. Describe the location and function of the prefrontal cortex. Answer: Located at the front-most portion of the head, it is responsible for executive cognitive functions such as planning, moral reasoning, and working memory. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain 583. Describe one gender-related difference in the size of brain structures and state what functional difference this implies.

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Answer: Women tend to have larger corpus callosums than men, which suggests that they may use both hemispheres of the brain more than men. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explore the neuroscience findings regarding brain injury and the evidence for brain lateralization. Section Reference: CNS Injury and Brain Lateralization 584. Explain why, when someone suffers and injury to the brain, they often retain at least some part of the function associated with that brain region. Answer: Multiple brain regions are involved in most functions. Therefore, when one area is damaged, the other areas are still able to continue processing the information. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explore the neuroscience findings regarding brain injury and the evidence for brain lateralization. Section Reference: CNS Injury and Brain Lateralization 585. Explain what differentiates the Animalia kingdom from other lifeforms on earth. Answer: It is the only kingdom that contains organisms with a nervous system. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the basic theory of evolution and explain how it has influenced our understanding of the human nervous system and the evolution of the human brain. Section Reference: Evolution and the Nervous System 586. Describe the four critical observations that led to Darwin’s explanation of the diversity of life on the planet. Answer: 1) Fossils indicated subtle changes in species. 2) Aspects of species that seem different on the surface show structural similarities underneath. 3) Selective breeding of animals leads to changes in appearance of the animal. 4) Not all animals that are born will live to maturity and reproduce. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the basic theory of evolution and explain how it has influenced our understanding of the human nervous system and the evolution of the human brain. Section Reference: Evolution and the Nervous System 587. From an evolutionary psychology perspective, explain why mice might reproduce so often

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and have large litters? Answer: Mice have many predators so reproducing often and having large litters increases the probability that some of the offspring will survive. This increases their reproductive fitness. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the basic theory of evolution and explain how it has influenced our understanding of the human nervous system and the evolution of the human brain. Section Reference: Evolution and the Nervous System

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LABELLING QUESTION 588. Label the structures indicated on the neuron. Dendrites Cell body Axon Axon terminal

Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of cells in the nervous system and describe the primary functions of each. Section Reference: How Does the Nervous System Work?

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589. Label the following parts on the diagram of the brain. Hypothalamus Pituitary gland Amygdala Hippocampus Pons Brainstem Cerebellum Reticular Formation Substantia Nigra Thalamus

Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain

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590. Label the four lobes of the brain. Frontal lobe Parietal lobe Occipital lobe Temporal lobe

Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List key structures of the brain and describe their relationships to our behaviour. Section Reference: Structures of the Brain

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CHAPTER 4 HUMAN DEVELOPMENT CHAPTER LEARNING OBJECTIVES 1. Describe and discuss the advantages and disadvantages of cross-sectional and longitudinal designs for researching development. • Two major research approaches in developmental psychology are cross-sectional (comparing different age groups to assess change) and longitudinal (studying the same group to see how responses change over time). • The cohort-sequential research design combines elements of the cross-sectional and longitudinal approaches. 2. Understand the key debates underlying research and theory in child development. • Developmental psychology is the study of changes in our behaviour and mental processes over time and the various factors that influence the course of those changes. • Key philosophical issues in the study of developmental psychology are what drives change (biological or environmental factors); what is the nature of the change (qualitative or quantitative); and the role of early experiences in shaping later development. 3. Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. • Our genetic inheritance comes from both parents, who each contribute half our chromosomes. Genes can combine in various ways to make up our phenotype, or observable traits. • Genetics can influence the manifestation of both physical traits and psychological traits, including temperament, although environment also plays a role. • Prenatal development begins with conception and is divided into three stages: germinal, embryonic, and fetal, each characterized by specific patterns of development. • Individuals are susceptible to multiple influences by biological and environmental forces before they are even born, during the prenatal period. 4. Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. • Infants make dramatic gains in both physical and psychological capabilities. Our brains grow during this period, preparing us to learn and encode the information that will organize those changes. • One of the most important developmental theorists, Jean Piaget, proposed a theory of cognitive development that suggested that through learning and self-experimentation, we help our thinking to grow progressively more complex. • Piaget believed we pass through multiple stages on the way to formal adult reasoning and that each transition is accompanied by the acquisition of a new cognitive capability. During the sensorimotor stage in infancy, we become able to hold memories of objects in our minds. • Information-processing researchers have suggested that babies may develop mental capacities at earlier ages than Piaget believed they did.

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• Attachment theory suggests that babies are biologically predisposed to bond and form a relationship with a key caregiver, thus ensuring that their needs are met. The security of the attachment relationship will have later implications for how secure individuals feel in their emotional and social capabilities. • Baumrind found evidence that different parenting styles can also affect the overall well-being of the child, although subsequent research suggested that outcomes might vary depending on other environmental and cultural influences. Physical growth continues at a generally slower pace in childhood than in infancy. Myelination and synaptic pruning continue to shape the brain. • Physical growth continues at a generally slower pace in childhood than in infancy. Myelination and synaptic pruning continue to shape the brain. • Piaget believed that children pass through the stages of preoperational and concrete operational thinking, learning to manipulate their mental schema. Other researchers have suggested children’s thinking may not be as limited during these stages as Piaget thought it was. • Theories of moral development often focus on moral reasoning (the reasons why a child would do one thing or another) rather than values. Generally, research supports the movement from morality rooted in submitting to authority to morality rooted in more autonomous decisions about right and wrong. • Some researchers suggest that moral reasoning may vary across gender and culture. Other researchers question whether morality theories would be better served by measuring behaviour instead of expressed reasoning or attitudes. 5. Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional changes that take place during adolescence. • Adolescence is generally associated with many substantial changes, including the onset of full sexual and physical maturity, as well as reasoning capabilities that approach adult levels. However, teenagers have certain limitations that influence their ability to make sound judgments and avoid risky situations. • Erikson proposed a theory of development that stretches across the lifespan and incorporates various dilemmas that need to be successfully reconciled for development to stay on track. 6. Describe the key physical, social, and emotional changes that take place throughout adulthood. • Adult physical and psychological development is often characterized by some degree of decline. However, most basic faculties remain intact across the lifespan. • According to Erikson, the challenge of early adulthood is to resolve the conflict between intimacy and isolation; of middle adulthood, to resolve the conflict between generativity and stagnation; and of old age, to resolve the conflict between integrity and despair. Levinson pointed out that transitions from one stage to the next can also cause conflicts. • The ages at which adults are expected to reach major social and emotional milestones, such as marriage and parenting, are more flexible now in many societies than they were in the past.

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TRUE-FALSE STATEMENTS 1. A cohort-sequential design compares individuals of various ages, at the same point in time. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe and discuss the advantages and disadvantages of cross-sectional and longitudinal designs for researching development. Section Reference: How Is Developmental Psychology Studied? 2. Daewon’s longitudinal work indicated that individuals had significantly lower fears around terrorism in the 1990s than they did in the 2002. This is an example of a cohort effect. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and discuss the advantages and disadvantages of cross-sectional and longitudinal designs for researching development. Section Reference: How Is Developmental Psychology Studied? 3. The belief that development is biologically programmed to happen sequentially is known as maturation. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Understand the key debates underlying research and theory in child development. Section Reference: Understanding How We Develop 4. Continuous development involves clear qualitative differences in thinking or behaviour. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Understand the key debates underlying research and theory in child development. Section Reference: Understanding How We Develop 5. A sensitive period is a period when children are particularly receptive to environmental

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influence. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 6. Johnston has two alleles for blue eyes. Johnston is heterozygous for blue eyes. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 7. Polygenic traits involve the combined impact of multiple genes and/or are influenced by the environment. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 8. The age of survivability refers to when a newborn baby can survive on its own. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 9. Vision is the most highly developed sense immediately following birth. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

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Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 10. As we grow older, 80% of our early synaptic connections are lost. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 11. Piaget claimed that all children develop in the same way and there is no variation in the timing of developmental milestones. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 12. Cognitive development refers to how thinking develops with age. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 13. Piaget’s theory states that children’s cognitive abilities differ according to age. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 14. The experiment Ainsworth developed to study attachment is called the Strange Situation.

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Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 15. Negative influences, such as abuse, neglect, or poor nutrition, have no effect on motor development. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 16. The developmental changes that occur during childhood are less rapid than those that occur in infancy. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 17. Vygotsky claimed that social actions with mature people in the culture serve to influence children’s development. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 18. Operations refer to a child’s ability to hold an idea in mind and manipulate it mentally. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy

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Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 19. Uninvolved parents are emotionally detached from their children. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 20. Kohlberg’s theory of moral development focuses on how children make decisions regarding what is right and wrong. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 21. Primary sexual characteristics refer to changes in the reproductive organs. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional changes that take place during adolescence. Section Reference: Adolescence 22. Erikson’s theory of psychosocial development spans the period from birth and ends at age 18. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional changes that take place during adolescence. Section Reference: Adolescence

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23. Marcia identified four statuses of identity which he suggests remain stable throughout life regardless of age or experience. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional changes that take place during adolescence. Section Reference: Adolescence 24. Menopause usually first effects women age 60 or older. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the key physical, social, and emotional changes that take place throughout adulthood. Section Reference: Adulthood 25. As early as our 40’s and 50’s, we see decline in long-term memory and our ability to learn new material. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the key physical, social, and emotional changes that take place throughout adulthood. Section Reference: Adulthood

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MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 26. The area of psychology that focuses on growth and change throughout the human lifespan is known as a) developmental psychology. b) cognitive psychology. c) abnormal psychology. d) personality psychology. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe and discuss the advantages and disadvantages of cross-sectional and longitudinal designs for researching development. Section Reference: How Is Developmental Psychology Studied? 27. Dr. Abrams is investigating how social perspective-taking skills change from middle childhood to adolescence, and he needs a developmental research design to do so. Which of the following is NOT designed to answer his question? a) longitudinal b) cohort-sequential c) cross-sectional d) double-blind Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe and discuss the advantages and disadvantages of cross-sectional and longitudinal designs for researching development. Section Reference: How Is Developmental Psychology Studied? 28. Myriam wants to test a new drug to see whether it has an impact on ADHD symptoms in children. However, she knows that simply telling parents and children that the child is taking a drug intended to help with symptoms of inattention, impulsivity, and hyperactivity often serves to temporarily reduce symptoms on its own. She is concerned that this participant bias effect has the potential to interfere with her study. Given this issue, what would be the best research design for Myriam to use? a) longitudinal b) cohort-sequential c) cross-sectional d) double-blind Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis

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Learning Objective: Describe and discuss the advantages and disadvantages of cross-sectional and longitudinal designs for researching development. Section Reference: How Is Developmental Psychology Studied? 29. What happens in a longitudinal developmental research design? a) Participants of the same age are tested repeatedly over time. b) Participants of different ages are tested repeatedly over time. c) Participants of different ages are tested at one point in time. d) Participants of the same age are tested at one point in time. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and discuss the advantages and disadvantages of cross-sectional and longitudinal designs for researching development. Section Reference: How Is Developmental Psychology Studied? 30. Randall and his colleague are designing a study to assess how self-esteem changes as we age. His colleague really wants to use a longitudinal design, but Randall feels that a crosssectional design would be better. Randall begins presenting a case with all the reasons that the longitudinal design is bad. Which of the following would he NOT say? a) It takes a long time and a lot of money/resources. b) It does not control for cohort effects. c) It does not explain age change. d) Many participants drop out over the course of the study. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and discuss the advantages and disadvantages of cross-sectional and longitudinal designs for researching development. Section Reference: How Is Developmental Psychology Studied? 31. Dr. Essie wants to study whether self-esteem in kindergarten predicts self-esteem in early adulthood. She intends to use a cross-sectional design. From the choices below, what would you tell Dr. Essie is an advantage of the cross-sectional approach? a) quick and inexpensive b) permits detailed study of individuals over time c) more in-depth information per participant d) suggests observed changes are a function of time and developmental changes Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Learning Objective: Describe and discuss the advantages and disadvantages of cross-sectional and longitudinal designs for researching development. Section Reference: How Is Developmental Psychology Studied? 32. Which of the following is an advantage of longitudinal research? a) gives reasonably reliable information about age changes b) convenient for researchers and participants c) requires relatively little time and money d) easy and straightforward Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and discuss the advantages and disadvantages of cross-sectional and longitudinal designs for researching development. Section Reference: How Is Developmental Psychology Studied? 33. In which developmental research design are participants of the same age tested at multiple points in time? a) longitudinal b) experimental c) cross-sectional d) cohort-sequential Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and discuss the advantages and disadvantages of cross-sectional and longitudinal designs for researching development. Section Reference: How Is Developmental Psychology Studied? 34. Which type of study design is hard to generalize from because it typically uses a smaller sample and because participants drop out over time? a) longitudinal b) cross-sectional c) telephone survey d) cohort-sequential Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe and discuss the advantages and disadvantages of cross-sectional and longitudinal designs for researching development. Section Reference: How Is Developmental Psychology Studied?

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35. Which of the following research designs would be MOST effective when investigating how lifelong residents of an urban neighborhood adapt as the area is gentrified? a) longitudinal b) cross-sectional c) descriptive d) experimental Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe and discuss the advantages and disadvantages of cross-sectional and longitudinal designs for researching development. Section Reference: How Is Developmental Psychology Studied? 36. A longitudinal study revealed that the personality trait of neuroticism did NOT change much as a person aged. Based on this finding, which of the following statements below can we determine to be TRUE? a) Neuroticism does seem to be a stable trait. b) Neuroticism does seem to be a changing trait. c) Neurotic children need help to decrease neuroticism as adults. d) All neurotic adults were neurotic children. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and discuss the advantages and disadvantages of cross-sectional and longitudinal designs for researching development. Section Reference: How Is Developmental Psychology 37. Which of the following developmental research designs would be the best to use if your goal were to assess the impact of age changes? a) the cross-sectional design because you can answer developmental questions much faster than waiting for changes to happen b) the cross-sectional design because you can assess the entire lifespan in a very short time c) the longitudinal because you can watch changes over time within the same individual d) the longitudinal because it is very easy and inexpensive Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe and discuss the advantages and disadvantages of cross-sectional and longitudinal designs for researching development. Section Reference: How Is Developmental Psychology Studied?

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38. Joseph is a psychologist. He wants to study the stability of IQ scores over time. He should use the _____________ method. a) cross-sectional b) cross-longitudinal c) longitudinal d) microgenetic method Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and discuss the advantages and disadvantages of cross-sectional and longitudinal designs for researching development. Section Reference: How Is Developmental Psychology Studied? 39. If the goal of developmental psychology is to assess age changes, which developmental design is the best to use and why? a) the cross-sectional design because you can answer developmental questions much faster than waiting for changes to happen b) the cross-sectional design because you can assess the entire lifespan in a very short time c) the longitudinal because you can watch changes over time within the same individual d) the longitudinal because it is very easy and inexpensive Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe and discuss the advantages and disadvantages of cross-sectional and longitudinal designs for researching development. Section Reference: How Is Developmental Psychology Studied? 40. ____________ studies are the most time-efficient method, whereas ____________ studies provide the most in-depth information per participant. a) Correlational; experimental b) Cross-sectional; longitudinal c) Longitudinal; cross-sectional d) Cross-sectional; cross-sectional Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe and discuss the advantages and disadvantages of cross-sectional and longitudinal designs for researching development. Section Reference: How Is Developmental Psychology Studied? 41. Avery is investigating whether the changes in intelligence that can happen as we age are attributable to childhood environmental conditions. He begins by testing the intelligence of a

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large sample of 8-year old children, and then he thoroughly assesses each child’s environmental conditions. He then plans on re-testing the intelligence of each participant every 2 years for the next 10 years. Avery is using a ___ research design. a) cross-sectional b) correlational c) cohort-sequential d) longitudinal Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and discuss the advantages and disadvantages of cross-sectional and longitudinal designs for researching development. Section Reference: How Is Developmental Psychology Studied? 42. Eunice, age 65, participated in a research study that compared older adult’s scores on a cognitive test to the scores of younger adults. Which type of study does this example represent? a) longitudinal b) experimental c) cross-sectional d) qualitative Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and discuss the advantages and disadvantages of cross-sectional and longitudinal designs for researching development. Section Reference: How Is Developmental Psychology Studied? 43. If a psychologist wanted to compare 6-year-old and 10-year-old children on their performance of a memory test, she would use the ___________ method. a) cross-sectional b) cross-longitudinal c) longitudinal d) cohort longitudinal Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and discuss the advantages and disadvantages of cross-sectional and longitudinal designs for researching development. Section Reference: How Is Developmental Psychology Studied? 44. Which of the following is an advantage of cross-sectional research? a) gives reliable information about age changes

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b) cohort effects are easy to separate c) explains how and when changes might have occurred d) easy and straightforward Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and discuss the advantages and disadvantages of cross-sectional and longitudinal designs for researching development. Section Reference: How Is Developmental Psychology Studied? 45. Anna is studying how the ability to use a crude map of a spatial environment changes in early childhood. She tests 2, 4 and 6-year old children on their ability to find a hidden object using a simple map. Anna is using a ___ research design. a) cross-sectional b) developmental c) longitudinal d) cohort-sequential Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and discuss the advantages and disadvantages of cross-sectional and longitudinal designs for researching development. Section Reference: How Is Developmental Psychology Studied? 46. Rayna is interested in studying developmental change in memory for images over the course of childhood. She tests participants who are 6 years old, 8 years old, and 10 years old on their memory for the details in ink drawings of complex scenes. What developmental research design is Rayna using? a) cross-sectional b) developmental c) longitudinal d) cohort-sequential Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and discuss the advantages and disadvantages of cross-sectional and longitudinal designs for researching development. Section Reference: How Is Developmental Psychology Studied? 47. In the United States, following the draft and subsequent protests about the Vietnam War in the 1960’s and 70’s, a cross-sectional study was undertaken to examine if the younger generation had a greater interest in politics than their parents. The hypothesis was supported,

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however, critics pointed out a major flaw in the study. Which of the following might be a flaw in the study? a) It does not explain why there might be age differences in the interest in politics. b) There may have been cohort effects as the younger generation were being forced to join the army. c) That particular generation were known for their passion on political issues. d) They probably had a lot of participants drop out over the time the study was conducted. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe and discuss the advantages and disadvantages of cross-sectional and longitudinal designs for researching development. Section Reference: How is Development Studied? 48. Sara is examining the effects of technology on the development of romantic relationships. However, she encounters a problem with her subject pool since her younger subjects are much more fluent than her older subjects with smartphones, e-mailing, and using websites for online dating. This is an example of a) cohort effects. b) maturational effects. c) imprinting effects. d) poor research design. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and discuss the advantages and disadvantages of cross-sectional and longitudinal designs for researching development. Section Reference: How is Development Studied? 49. Dr. Abrams conducted a cross-sectional study aimed at assessing the ability to extract information from an online article in a timed situation. She tested a representative sample of 20year people, 40-year old people, 60-year old people, and 80-year old people. Her results clearly indicated a drop in ability to extract key concepts with age. Which of the following is NOT a potential flaw in this study? a) does not address the fact that older people may need additional time to read the information. b) does not address the comfort level younger generations have with technology. c) does not address sensory issues that may have interfered with the task. d) does not address the potential of intelligence dropping with age. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe and discuss the advantages and disadvantages of cross-sectional and longitudinal designs for researching development.

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Section Reference: How is Development Studied? 50. What happens in a cross-sectional developmental research design? a) Participants of the same age are tested repeatedly over time. b) Participants of different ages are tested repeatedly over time. c) Participants of different ages are tested at one point in time. d) Participants of the same age are tested at one point in time. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and discuss the advantages and disadvantages of cross-sectional and longitudinal designs for researching development. Section Reference: How Is Developmental Psychology Studied? 51. _____ research studies several different groups of individuals at various ages, at one point in time, and provides information regarding _____. a) Longitudinal; age differences b) Cross-sectional; age differences c) Longitudinal; age changes d) Cross-sectional; age changes Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and discuss the advantages and disadvantages of cross-sectional and longitudinal designs for researching development. Section Reference: How Is Developmental Psychology Studied? 52. In which developmental research design are participants of various ages tested at one point in time? a) longitudinal b) correlational c) cross-sectional d) cohort-sequential Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and discuss the advantages and disadvantages of cross-sectional and longitudinal designs for researching development. Section Reference: How Is Developmental Psychology Studied? 53. What happens in a cohort-sequential developmental research design?

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a) Participants of the same age are tested repeatedly over time. b) Participants of different ages are tested repeatedly over time. c) Participants of different ages are tested at one point in time. d) Participants of the same age are tested at one point in time. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and discuss the advantages and disadvantages of cross-sectional and longitudinal designs for researching development. Section Reference: How Is Developmental Psychology Studied? 54. In which developmental research design are participants of various ages tested at multiple points in time? a) longitudinal b) cross-sectional c) cohort-sequential d) correlational Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and discuss the advantages and disadvantages of cross-sectional and longitudinal designs for researching development. Section Reference: How Is Developmental Psychology Studied? 55. A cohort-sequential design is different from a longitudinal design in that the cohortsequential design ___ and the longitudinal design ___. a) tests the same participants multiple times; tests each participant once b) assesses different-aged participants multiple times; assesses same-aged participants multiple times c) uses naturalistic observation; uses structured observation d) requires very few participants; requires many participants Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe and discuss the advantages and disadvantages of cross-sectional and longitudinal designs for researching development. Section Reference: How Is Developmental Psychology Studied? 56. A cohort-sequential design is different from a cross-sectional design in that the cohortsequential design ___ and the cross-sectional design ___. a) assesses different-aged participants multiple times; assesses different-aged participants once

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b) is correlational; is experimental c) allows age differences to be uncovered; allows age changes to be uncovered d) is more suited to smaller age-ranges; is better suited to a larger age-range Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe and discuss the advantages and disadvantages of cross-sectional and longitudinal designs for researching development. Section Reference: How Is Developmental Psychology Studied? 57. If we want to understand why senior citizens sometimes have more difficulty learning to use computers than younger people, which of the following approaches would give us the best information about cohort effects? a) Researchers should use a cohort-sequential design. b) Researchers should use a cross-sectional design. c) Researchers should use a longitudinal design. d) There is no way to determine why there is an age difference in computer proficiency. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe and discuss the advantages and disadvantages of cross-sectional and longitudinal designs for researching development. Section Reference: How Is Developmental Psychology Studied? 58. The purpose of the cohort-sequential design is to control for a) escalating costs. b) participant attrition. c) the cohort effect. d) convenience sampling. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and discuss the advantages and disadvantages of cross-sectional and longitudinal designs for researching development. Section Reference: How Is Developmental Psychology Studied? 59. Maddie’s grandmother was reminiscing about when she was a young girl living on a farm. During the conversation she referred to a story involving her friend “Lonely Lucie.” Maddie asked why they called Lucie “lonely.” “Well, said her grandmother, she was an only child. In those days everyone usually had five or six siblings. We just said it to tease her.” Maddie smiled, “Now it’s the opposite, Nanny, most of my friends are only children or only have one brother or sister. I don’t know anyone with five or six siblings.” The differences Maddie and her

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grandmother are noticing is referred to as ________ in the research literature. a) a confound b) a cohort effect c) researcher bias d) age-related change Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe and discuss the advantages and disadvantages of cross-sectional and longitudinal designs for researching development. Section Reference: How Is Developmental Psychology Studied? 60. Saanvi is proposing to study how self-esteem changes as we enter adolescence. To do this, she plans on assessing the self-esteem of a large sample of children who are 6, 8, and 10 years old. She will then measure their self-esteem every three years for the next 9 years. Saanvi is using a ___ research design. a) cross-sectional b) double-blind c) cohort-sequential d) longitudinal Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and discuss the advantages and disadvantages of cross-sectional and longitudinal designs for researching development. Section Reference: How Is Developmental Psychology Studied? 61. Which type of study is the MOST expensive to conduct? a) longitudinal b) cross-sectional c) cohort-sequential d) naturalistic Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and discuss the advantages and disadvantages of cross-sectional and longitudinal designs for researching development. Section Reference: Understanding How We Develop 62. Dr. Tao is conducting a research study examining how the use of social media changes as we get older. She has four groups of participants: Group 1 is age 11–15; Group 2 is age 16–20; Group 3 is age 21–25, and Group 4 is age 26–30. She plans to follow each group for 15 years. What study design is Dr. Tao using?

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a) experiment b) longitudinal c) cross-sectional d) cohort-sequential Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and discuss the advantages and disadvantages of cross-sectional and longitudinal designs for researching development. Section Reference: Understanding How We Develop 63. If a psychologist wanted to compare 4-year old, 6-year-old and 10-year-old children on recognition memory performance at one point in time, the psychologist would use the _____ method of data collection. a) cross-sectional b) naturalistic observation c) longitudinal d) cohort-sequential Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and discuss the advantages and disadvantages of cross-sectional and longitudinal designs for researching development. Section Reference: Understanding How We Develop 64. Which of the following is a key advantage that cohort-sequential design has over crosssectional or longitudinal designs? a) It is easy and straightforward. b) It is convenient for both researchers and participants. c) It addresses the cohort effect. d) It takes less time. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and discuss the advantages and disadvantages of cross-sectional and longitudinal designs for researching development. Section Reference: Understanding How We Develop 65. Developmental research designs all share the component of having to capture change over time. Which of the following would NOT be used for this purpose? a) longitudinal b) correlational

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c) cohort-sequential d) cross-sectional Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe and discuss the advantages and disadvantages of cross-sectional and longitudinal designs for researching development. Section Reference: How Is Developmental Psychology Studied? 66. Brent enrolls 100 subjects in a study designed to assess the development of motor skills across the first 20 years of life. He divides the subjects into four groups of 25 each, examining the motor skills of five-year-olds, ten-year-olds, 15-year-olds, and 20-year-olds. Brent’s research design is a) cross-sectional. b) longitudinal. c) stage-based. d) continuity-based. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and discuss the advantages and disadvantages of cross-sectional and longitudinal designs for researching development. Section Reference: How Is Developmental Psychology Studied? 67. Luna wants to study how career focus and expectations vary at different points in a woman's life. Which of these statements BEST describes the challenges with studying this topic? a) Conducting a cross-sectional study would give Luna good information about age changes along with more in-depth information about each participant, but a longitudinal design would mean the ability to allow the research question to evolve over time. b) Conducting a longitudinal study would allow Luna to generalize her results to the current time and place without the problems of participant dropout in a large cross-sectional study. Moreover, a longitudinal study would be less expensive and faster to complete. c) Conducting a cross-sectional study would give Luna the full picture of how life events influence career choices in a way that a longitudinal study could not. On the other hand, a longitudinal study could allow Luna to have many more research participants. d) Conducting a cross-sectional study would allow many women at different career stages to participate, but cohort effects related to generational differences may interfere. On the other hand, a longitudinal study would demonstrate how age and life events impact career choices but would be confounded by a changing social and economic climate over the course of the research. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation

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Learning Objective: Describe and discuss the advantages and disadvantages of cross-sectional and longitudinal designs for researching development. Section Reference: How Is Developmental Psychology Studied? 68. One thing that separates the field of developmental psychology from all of the other fields in psychology is that developmental psychology a) only uses experimental methods. b) relies heavily on naturalistic observation. c) is interested in changes that happen as we age. d) is the newest field in psychology. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Understand the key debates underlying research and theory in child development. Section Reference: How Is Developmental Psychology Studied? 69. Which of the following is true about developmental psychology? a) Developmental psychologists are only interested in similarities between groups of people. b) Most developmental psychologists are only interested in the developmental changes in childhood. c) Most developmental psychologists now view development as a process that continues throughout the lifespan. d) Developmental psychologists are only interested in the psychological development of the person, not in biological development. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Understand the key debates underlying research and theory in child development. Section Reference: How Is Developmental Psychology Studied? 70. How is developmental psychology different from any other field in psychology? a) It only uses experimental methods. b) It relies heavily on naturalistic observation. c) It is interested in changes that happen as we age. d) It is the newest field in psychology. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Understand the key debates underlying research and theory in child development.

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Section Reference: How Is Developmental Psychology Studied? 71. The field of developmental psychology has faced many key issues. Which of the following is NOT one of these issues? a) experimental versus correlational b) nature versus nurture c) critical and sensitive periods d) qualitative versus quantitative shifts in development Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Understand the key debates underlying research and theory in child development. Section Reference: How Is Developmental Psychology Studied? 72. What key debate in developmental psychology considers whether genetics or environment has a greater impact on behaviour? a) nature vs. nurture b) quantitative vs. qualitative c) endogenous vs. exogenous d) genetics vs. maturation Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Understand the key debates underlying research and theory in child development. Section Reference: Understanding How We Develop 73. Which of the following is NOT one of the central debates in developmental psychology? a) individual vs. group differences b) nature vs. nurture c) qualitative vs. quantitative shifts d) critical periods vs. sensitive periods Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Understand the key debates underlying research and theory in child development. Section Reference: Understanding How We Develop 74. Renae and Jon are adult siblings, both adopted at birth, discussing their childhood

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experiences. Renae points out that she is more like her biological parents than their adoptive parents. In contrast, Jon gives examples of how he is more like their adoptive parents than his biological parents. What is implied here? a) Renae is supporting the nature theory, while Jon is supporting the nurture theory. b) Jon is supporting the nature theory, while Renae is supporting the nurture theory. c) Renae is supporting the stages theory, while Jon is supporting the continuity theory. d) Jon is supporting the stages theory, while Renae is supporting the continuity theory. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Understand the key debates underlying research and theory in child development. Section Reference: Understanding How We Develop 75. Braden and Elias are identical twins. When the twins were 10 years old, Braden was in a car accident that left him badly injured. His body recovered, but psychologically he is now filled with anxiety, overly cautious, and always worried about any physical symptoms. What key issue in developmental psychology does the situation with the twins bring forth? a) qualitative or quantitative b) nature or nurture c) cause or effect d) critical period or sensitive period Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Understand the key debates underlying research and theory in child development. Section Reference: Understanding How We Develop 76. Agustin was adopted at birth by a wonderful loving young couple. His adoptive parents have always been very shy and quiet, whereas Agustin has always been very outgoing and constantly needing social stimulation. Agustin thinks that he must have gotten that trait from his biological parents, because he certainly did not learn it at home. What key issue in developmental psychology is Agustin contemplating? a) qualitative or quantitative b) nature or nurture c) cause or effect d) critical period or sensitive period Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Understand the key debates underlying research and theory in child development.

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Section Reference: Understanding How We Develop 77. The current consensus with respect to the nature versus nurture debate is that the primary influence on development is a) nature. b) nurture. c) an interaction of nature and nurture. d) maturation. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Understand the key debates underlying research and theory in child development. Section Reference: Understanding How We Develop 78. With respect to the nature versus nurture debate, the current consensus is that development is primarily influenced by a) nature. b) nurture. c) an interaction of nature and nurture. d) maturation. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Understand the key debates underlying research and theory in child development. Section Reference: Understanding How We Develop 79. Which statement MOST accurately reflects scientists’ stance on the nature-nurture debate? a) Most physical and psychological traits are an interaction between nature and nurture. b) All physical traits are biological whereas all psychological traits are nurtured. c) It is impossible to determine which traits are the result of nurture and which are the result of nature. d) The nature-nurture discussion is no longer relevant in today’s research environment. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Understand the key debates underlying research and theory in child development. Section Reference: Understanding How We Develop

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80. Maturation is independent of ________ although its timing can influence development. a) environment b) genetics c) both the environment and genetics d) growth Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Understand the key debates underlying research and theory in child development. Section Reference: Understanding How We Develop 81. Maturation is best defined as a) the changes in development that happen between conception and birth. b) the biologically programmed sequences of changes that happens over time. c) the observable manifestation of a person’s genetic inheritance. d) the gradual changes that happen as a result of environmental perturbations. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Understand the key debates underlying research and theory in child development. Section Reference: Understanding How We Develop 82. The biologically programmed sequence of changes that happens over time is called a) development. b) maturation. c) epigenetic. d) critical period. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Understand the key debates underlying research and theory in child development. Section Reference: Understanding How We Develop 83. The term that describes development as being biologically programmed to occur sequentially is ___. a) qualitative development b) quantitative development c) maturation d) endogenous development

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Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Understand the key debates underlying research and theory in child development. Section Reference: Understanding How We Develop 84. Which type of shifts in developmental growth suggest that a person abruptly and noticeably changes following the achievement of milestones? a) quantitative b) maturation c) endogenous d) qualitative Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Understand the key debates underlying research and theory in child development. Section Reference: Understanding How We Develop 85. Anyone who argues that development proceeds in stages is basically saying that development involves ___ changes and is ___. a) quantitative; continuous b) qualitative; continuous c) quantitative; discontinuous d) qualitative; discontinuous Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Understand the key debates underlying research and theory in child development. Section Reference: Understanding How We Develop 86. When we talk about stages of development, we are essentially saying that development is ___ and involves ___ changes. a) continuous; quantitative b) continuous; qualitative c) discontinuous; quantitative d) discontinuous; qualitative Answer: d

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Understand the key debates underlying research and theory in child development. Section Reference: Understanding How We Develop 87. When Janelle was five-years old she had a favourite stuffed bunny that she took everywhere. She spoke to it, pretended to feed it, and acted as if it were a person. Now that she is ten, she recognizes that her stuffed toys are NOT real. This change in perspective reflects a ___ change in Janelle’s development. a) continuous b) hereditary c) qualitative d) quantitative Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Understand the key debates underlying research and theory in child development. Section Reference: Understanding How We Develop 88. When Abdul was three-years old his older brother could trick him by cutting a sandwich in half and then cutting Abdul’s half into quarters and then telling Abdul he had more sandwich, so had to give some of his dessert to his older brother. Now that Abdul is seven-years old he no longer falls for this trick. This change in perspective reflects a ___ change in Abdul’s development. a) continuous b) hereditary c) qualitative d) quantitative Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Understand the key debates underlying research and theory in child development. Section Reference: Understanding How We Develop 89. If developmental shifts were qualitative, which of the following would be true? a) We would see brief periods of abrupt changes followed by longer periods of minimal changes. b) We would see changes at a constant and gradual pace. c) Developmental change would be continuous. d) We would not expect to see specific stages in development.

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Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Understand the key debates underlying research and theory in child development. Section Reference: Understanding How We Develop 90. Which of the following is the best example of a qualitative shift in development? a) a speedometer going from 0 to 100 b) a caterpillar becoming a butterfly c) a pool being filled with water d) a file being downloaded Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Understand the key debates underlying research and theory in child development. Section Reference: Understanding How We Develop 91. Every now and then, Leoni’s mother has the six-year-old stand against the door frame and marks her height to see how much she has grown. Leoni’s mother is measuring her ___ development. a) qualitative b) quantitative c) discontinuous d) continuous Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Understand the key debates underlying research and theory in child development. Section Reference: Understanding How We Develop 92. What is the difference between a qualitative and a quantitative shift in development? a) A qualitative shift is a change for the better, while a quantitative shift is a change in some measurable quality (e.g., height, weight). b) A qualitative shift is a change in the quality of some measurable trait (e.g., curlier hair, darker skin), while a quantitative shift is a change to something different. c) A qualitative shift is a change in the neurons responsible for a measurable trait, while a quantitative shift is a change in the number of brain areas involved in a trait. d) A qualitative shift is a change to something different, while a quantitative shift is a continuous and gradual change.

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Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Understand the key debates underlying research and theory in child development. Section Reference: Understanding How We Develop 93. Nozomi is concerned that her baby is 12-months old but is still NOT walking on her own. Which of the following issues is most relevant to Nozomi’s concern? a) nature vs. nurture b) critical periods vs. sensitive periods c) qualitative vs. quantitative shifts in development d) longitudinal vs. cross-sectional Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Understand the key debates underlying research and theory in child development. Section Reference: Understanding How We Develop 94. Hugo has a friend whose child has autism and does not speak. Higo is therefore very anxious that is 10-month old baby is not yet speaking. Which of the following issues is most relevant to Hugo’s concern? a) nature vs. nurture b) critical periods vs. sensitive periods c) qualitative vs. quantitative shifts in development d) longitudinal vs. cross-sectional Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Understand the key debates underlying research and theory in child development. Section Reference: Understanding How We Develop 95. The difference between a critical period and a sensitive period is that with a critical period ___; with a sensitive period ___. a) the brain is at a stage where it is the most malleable; the brain is less malleable but with the right environmental stimulation it can be more malleable b) the environmental stimulation must occur at a specific time window or else the ability never develops; it is possible to acquire the ability outside of the time window with lots of work c) the time window for a specific environmental stimulation to occur is very flexible; the time window for a specific environmental stimulation is extremely rigid, and without it, the ability will not develop

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d) we see abrupt changes in the ability with environmental stimulation; the changes we see are much less abrupt Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Understand the key debates underlying research and theory in child development. Section Reference: Understanding How We Develop 96. Researchers have done experiments on owls' auditory development. Which type of results would BEST support a maturational critical period? a) The longer that the researchers plug the ears of baby owls, the less able the owls are to accurately locate prey based on sound as adults. This effect is linear and gradual. b) The researchers can plug the ears of owls for any length of time at any point during its life, and the owl will still fully develop the ability to detect prey based on sound. c) The researchers can plug the ears of the baby owls for a little while with no consequence, but after a certain point, plugging an owl's ears will seriously interfere with the owl's ability to learn how to use sound to locate prey. d) Plugging a baby owl's ears for any length of time does irreparable damage to the owl's ability to hear and hunt prey. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Understand the key debates underlying research and theory in child development. Section Reference: Understanding How We Develop 97.. What is the difference between a critical period and a sensitive period? a) With a critical period, the brain is at a stage where it is the most malleable; with a sensitive period, the brain is less malleable but with the right environmental stimulation it can be more malleable. b) With a critical period, the environmental stimulation must occur at a specific time window or else the ability never develops; with a sensitive period, it is possible to acquire the ability outside of the time window with lots of work. c) With a critical period, the time window for a specific environmental stimulation to occur is very flexible; with a sensitive period, the time window for a specific environmental stimulation is extremely rigid, and without it, the ability will not develop. d) With a critical period, we see abrupt changes in the ability with environmental stimulation; with a sensitive period, the changes we see are much less abrupt. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation

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Learning Objective: Understand the key debates underlying research and theory in child development. Section Reference: Understanding How We Develop 98. What is the difference between a critical period and a sensitive period? a) Critical periods are more rigid than sensitive periods. b) Sensitive periods are more rigid than critical periods. c) Animals have sensitive periods, while humans have critical periods. d) Critical periods and sensitive periods are the same thing. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Understand the key debates underlying research and theory in child development. Section Reference: Understanding How We Develop 99. Genie was a young girl who was locked up alone from age 20 months to 13 years. Although psychologists attempted to teach her to speak, they had limited success. The story of Genie illustrates the role of _____________in language development. a) maturation b) critical periods c) stages d) genetics Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Understand the key debates underlying research and theory in child development. Section Reference: Understanding How We Develop 100. Nikola and Grozdan are brothers whose village was taken over by a militant group when Nikola was eight and Grozdan was twelve. Both boys witnessed the execution of several neighbours and family members. As an adult, Nikola displays more aggressive behavior than Grozdan. What may partly explain the difference in aggression between the two boys? a) Nikola was negatively impacted during a sensitive period, whereas Grozdan was not. b) Nikola’s imprinting was distorted by violence, whereas Grozdan’s was not. c) Grozdan’s upbringing was more structured and demanding than Nikola’s. d) Grozdan’s development occurred in stages, whereas Nikola’s was incremental. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Understand the key debates underlying research and theory in child

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development. Section Reference: Understanding How We Develop 101.. There are documented cases of feral children, who lived isolated from humans, in the company of monkey, wild dogs, or wolves. Upon discovery these children often behaved more like the animals with which they had bee raised than like a human Those discovered when older often could not fully grasp language. The story of these feral children illustrates the role of _____________in language development. a) maturation b) critical periods c) stages d) genetics Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Understand the key debates underlying research and theory in child development. Section Reference: Understanding How We Develop 102. A point in development during which an organism is extremely sensitive to environmental input is called a) a developmental window. b) a sensitive period. c) a critical period. d) a transitional phase. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Understand the key debates underlying research and theory in child development. Section Reference: Understanding How We Develop 103. A critical period is best thought of as a point in development during which the organism a) is transitioning between stages. b) is growing new neurons and synapses. c) is extremely sensitive to environmental input. d) is especially vulnerable to teratogens. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Understand the key debates underlying research and theory in child development.

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Section Reference: Understanding How We Develop 104. Dr. Newport found that deaf children who are not exposed to sign language prior to age 12, never become proficient at it in adulthood. This example supports the idea of the a) differences in language development between deaf and hearing children. b) critical period for language development. c) sensitive period of language development. d) qualitative development of language. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Understand the key debates underlying research and theory in child development. Section Reference: Understanding How We Develop 105. The process of becoming attached to the first suitable moving stimulus an animal sees in the hours after birth is known as a) imprinting. b) maturation. c) development. d) learning. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Understand the key debates underlying research and theory in child development. Section Reference: Understanding How We Develop 106. Jose recently found some duckling eggs that had been abandoned and took them home until they hatched. The ducklings followed Jose around everywhere. Which of the following experiments was Jose replicating? a) Lorenz’s studies of unconscious attachment b) Lorenz’s studies of imprinting c) Piaget’s theory of cognitive alignment d) Bowlby’s studies of attachment Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Understand the key debates underlying research and theory in child development. Section Reference: Understanding How We Develop

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107. Kit found a box of kittens that had been abandoned before they even had their eyes open. He took care of the kittens and, when their eyes opened and they began to move around more, he found that they constantly followed him around the house. Which of the following offers the best explanation for this? a) The kittens have learned that Kit will give them food. b) The kittens have experienced imprinting and now think they are human. c) The kittens have passed the sensitive period of visual development so only recognize Kit. d) The kittens have experienced imprinting so have developed attachment to Kit. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Understand the key debates underlying research and theory in child development. Section Reference: Understanding How We Develop 108. Humans have a) 23 chromosomes. b) 23 pairs of chromosomes. c) 22 pairs or chromosomes. d) 46 pairs of chromosomes. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 109. ___ occurs when there is an extra chromosome in the 21st pair of chromosomes. a) Down syndrome b) Sickle-cell anemia c) Listeria d) PKU Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 110. Genes are composed of a) chromosomes.

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b) deoxyribonucleic acid. c) genotypes. d) heterozygous traits. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 111. A gene is a segment of a) DNA. b) chromosomes. c) alleles. d) RNA. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 112. A person’s genetic code or inheritance is referred to as their a) phenotype. b) genotype. c) gene. d) chromosome. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 113. The person’s genetic inheritance is called the a) phenotype. b) genotype. c) chromosomes. d) alleles. Answer: b

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 114. The observable manifestation of someone’s genetic inheritance is called the a) phenotype. b) genotype. c) chromosomes. d) alleles. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 115. Which of the following is true about the phenotype? a) It reflects the genotype. b) Understanding the phenotype allows us to understand the genotype. c) The genotype can be different from the phenotype. d) The phenotype is the pattern of genetic inheritance of an individual. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 116. When Dominic underwent genetic testing, she discovered she carried the gene for red hair, however, she has brunette hair. Which of the following does this example best illustrate? a) Some traits are polygenic. b) Some traits are the result of mutations. c) Some traits are dominant. d) Phenotype does not always match the genotype. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

117. According to Raamis’s driver’s licence, he is 180 cm tall and has black hair and brown eyes. A geneticist would describe Raamis’s traits as his a) phenotype. b) genotype. c) heterozygous alleles. d) chromosomal manifestations. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 118. Genotype is to phenotype as ___ is to ___. a) environmental; hereditary b) unobservable; observable c) hereditary; environmental d) observable; unobservable Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 119. Unobservable is to _____as observable is to _____. a) recessive; dominant b); dominant; recessive c) phenotype; genotype d) genotype; phenotype Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 120. Which of the following terms refers to variations of the same gene? a) chromosomes b) homozygous

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c) heterozygous d) alleles Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 121. The difference between a homozygous trait and a heterozygous trait is that a homozygous trait ___ and a heterozygous trait ___. a) will always be expressed in the phenotype; may not b) will be expressed in the phenotype if there was proper environmental exposure during the critical period; does not have a critical period c) is always recessive; is always dominant d) is usually discrete; is usually polygenic Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 122. Same is to _________________ as different is to ______________. a) polygenic; monogenic b) monogenic; polygenic c) heterozygous; homozygous d) homozygous; heterozygous Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 123. A trait that will ONLY be expressed in the phenotype if it is homozygous (i.e., it would NOT be expressed if it was heterozygous) would be a a) recessive trait. b) dominant trait. c) polygenic trait. d) genotypic trait.

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 124. Which of the following is linked to a recessive gene? a) Down syndrome b) Huntington disease c) Marfan syndrome d) Cystic fibrosis Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 125. If Maria Teresa is heterozygous for a particular gene pair, which of the following must be true? a) Maria Teresa’s two genes in the particular gene pair are both recessive. b) Maria Teresa’s two genes in the particular gene pair are both dominant. c) Maria Teresa’s genes in the particular gene pair are different. d) Maria Teresa’s genes in the particular gene pair are the same. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 126. If Bianca is homozygous for a particular gene pair, which of the following must be true? a) Bianca’s two genes in the particular gene have one recessive and one dominant gene. b) Bianca’s two genes in the particular gene pair are both from her father. c) Bianca’s genes in the particular gene pair are different. d) Bianca’s genes in the particular gene pair are the same. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 127. Dace’s genotype is homozygous for a specific discrete trait. What does it mean for Dace’s phenotype? a) The trait will not be expressed in his phenotype, but he will pass it on to his children. b) The trait will only be expressed in his phenotype if he has the proper environmental exposure during his critical period. c) If the trait is dominant, it will be expressed in his phenotype, but if it is recessive, it won’t be expressed. d) The trait will be expressed in his phenotype. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 128. One of newborn baby Trevor’s parents has blue eyes and the other has brown eyes. His parents are watching with interest to see what colour eyes Trevor will have. But we know that Trevor has inherited one brown eyed gene. Since this gene is typically ______________, we know this trait will be expressed in Trevor’s phenotype, no matter whether the genotype is homozygous or heterozygous for the trait and therefore Trevor will have ____ eyes. a) dominant; blue b) recessive; blue c) recessive; brown d) dominant; brown Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 129. If a trait in the genotype is NOT expressed in the phenotype, and we know that this trait is heterozygous and discrete, then what else must be true about this trait? a) It is recessive. b) It is dominant. c) It is codominant. d) It is polygenic. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development’ 130. If a trait that is expressed in the phenotype is heterozygous and discrete, what do we then know for sure about that trait? a) It is recessive. b) It is dominant. c) It is codominant. d) It is polygenic. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 131. A trait that is expressed in the phenotype for heterozygous traits would be a a) recessive trait. b) dominant trait. c) polygenic trait. d) genotypic trait. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 132. Chin-lung’s genotype is heterozygous for a specific discrete trait. What does this say about Chin-lung’s phenotype? a) The trait will not be expressed in his phenotype, but he will pass it on to his children. b) The trait will only be expressed in his phenotype if he has the proper environmental exposure during his critical period. c) If the trait is dominant, it will be expressed in his phenotype, but if it is recessive, it will not be expressed. d) The trait will be expressed in his phenotype. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis

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Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 133. Bethany received an allele for long fingers from her father, but not from her mother. Which of the following statement could be said with the most accuracy about Bethany? a) Bethany has long fingers. b) Bethany is homozygous for finger length. c) Bethany’s phenotype and genotype are different. d) Bethany is heterozygous for finger length. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 134. Let us say that the gene for brown eyes is dominant, and the gene for blue eyes is recessive. Emma and Sam both have brown eyes, but their daughter has blue eyes. Which of the following statements is true? a) Emma and Sam are both homozygous for eye colour. b) One of these parents is definitely not biologically related to the child. c) Emma and Sam are both heterozygous for eye colour. d) There is no way to determine anything about your parents based on this information. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 135. If you have freckles, which are typically dominant, which of the following is true about your parent(s)? a) At least one of your parents also has this trait. b) Both of your parents also have this trait. c) Both of your parents carry the recessive trait for freckles. d) There is no way to determine anything about your parents based on this information. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development.

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 136. Six-year-old Geneva wishes she had freckles like her friend Doyle, but she cannot even see a single freckle when she looks in the mirror. Which of the following would be most accurate about Geneva and Doyle’s genotypes? a) Geneva is heterozygous for the freckle’s gene; Doyle is homozygous for the freckle’s gene. b) Geneva is homozygous for the non-freckle’s gene; Doyle could be either homozygous or heterozygous for the freckle’s gene. c) Geneva is homozygous for the non-freckle’s gene; Doyle is heterozygous for the non-freckle gene. d) Geneva is heterozygous for the non-freckle’s gene; Doyle is homozygous for the non-freckle gene Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 137. Farmer Brown has bred a white chicken and a black chicken. If feather colour is a codominant trait, what colour will the chicks be? a) black b) white c) black and white d) grey Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 138. Marwa inherited an A allele from her mother and a B allele from her father. Since we know blood type in humans is codominant, we therefore know that Marwa’s blood type is a) A. b) B. c) AB. d) We have insufficient information to know Marwa’s blood type. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 139. Which term describes the clear majority of traits affecting human behaviour? a) discrete b) polygenic c) heterozygous d) homozygous Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 140. Let us say that we believe that the gene for eye colour is dominant for brown and recessive for blue. Tamesha has green eyes. Which of the following explains this? a) Dominant and recessive genes do not affect eye colour. b) Tamesha is codominant for eye colour. c) Eye colour is a discrete trait. d) Eye colour is determined by the polygenetic principle. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 141. Jorah’s father is 6 feet 8 inches tall, and his mother is exactly five feet tall. Jorah is finished growing and is exactly six feet tall. Which of the following explains this? a) Dominant and recessive genes do not affect height. b) Jorah is codominant for height c) Height is a discrete trait. d) Height is determined by the polygenetic principle. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

142. How long is the prenatal stage in human beings? a) 40 weeks b) 36 weeks c) 32 weeks d) 30 weeks Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 143. Which of the following indicates the correct order of the stages of prenatal development? a) fetal, germinal, embryonic b) germinal, fetal, embryonic c) germinal, embryonic, fetal d) embryonic, fetal, germinal Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 144. Which of the following is INCORRECTLY matched? a) embryonic stage -- nervous and circulatory systems take shape b) conception -- development of ovum c) germinal stage -- ends in implantation d) fetal stage -- rapid weight gain and brain development Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 145. The immediate product of the ovum and sperm is the a) ovum. b) zygote. c) embryo. d) fetus.

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Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 146. Which of the following reflects the correct order of development? a) zygote – embryo – blastocyst – fetus b) blastocyst – zygote – embryo – fetus c) zygote – blastocyst – embryo – fetus d) zygote – fetus – embryo – blastocyst Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 147. Weeks 2–8 after conception is referred to as the ___ of prenatal development. a) fetal stage b) embryonic stage c) germinal stage d) zygote stage Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 148. Most of the major systems of the body, including the nervous system and the circulatory system begin to take shape during this stage. a) fetal b) germinal c) embryonic d) zygotic Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 149. Grethe is pregnant and knows that right now, most of her baby’s major organs are being formed. This means that she must be especially careful of exposure to teratogens. How far along is Grethe? a) She is in her first 2 weeks of pregnancy. b) She is somewhere between weeks 2–8. c) She is in her second trimester, between months 3–6. d) She is in the fetal stage prior to the age of viability. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 150. Esther is concerned that her baby might be born with some type of issue because she did not know she was pregnant for some time and so drank and took drugs during the period she now knows that the major organs were being formed in her baby. What point in the pregnancy is Esther most concerned about? a) The first 2 weeks of pregnancy b) The weeks between 2–8 c) The second trimester, between months 3–6 d) The fetal stage prior to the age of viability Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 151. Bailey is taking an ACE inhibitor for high blood pressure, which she has been doing for several years. When she finds out she is pregnant, her doctor tells her to stop taking the medication immediately. This is likely because ACE inhibitors are probably considered to be a) teratogens. b) growth stimulators. c) growth inhibitors. d) carcinogens. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium

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Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 152. What stage of prenatal development is the first two weeks after conception called? a) fetal stage b) embryonic stage c) germinal stage d) zygote stage Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 153. Immediately following conception the single cell is referred to as a ___ and the stage that begins here and ends with implantation is referred to as the ___ stage. a) zygote; embryonic b) embryo; germinal c) fetus; fetal stage d) zygote; germinal Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 154. Which of the following statements about the germinal stage is accurate? a) The placenta is formed. b) The circulatory system is formed. c) Most major organs are formed. d) The organism is most vulnerable to environmental influence. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

155. Which of the following does NOT occur during the germinal stage? a) The zygote divides and becomes two cells. b) The placenta is formed. c) The nervous system is formed. d) The zygote becomes a blastocyst. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 156. What prenatal stage comprises the first two weeks following conception? a) embryonic b) fetal c) germinal d) zygotic Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 157. The fourth day following conception, the zygote is referred to as a ___. a) zygote b) fetus c) blastocyst d) germinal Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 158. When does the fetal stage occur? a) in the first two weeks after conception b) between 2 and 8 weeks after conception c) during the second and third trimesters d) from eight weeks after conception until birth

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Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 159. Your friend Mia is ___________________ weeks pregnant. You tell her that at this point the major organ systems in her embryo/fetus have become differentiated. a) eight b) six c) two d) fourteen Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Understand the key debates underlying research and theory in child development. Section Reference: Understanding How We Develop 160. Mabini is 3 months pregnant with twins. What prenatal stage of development is she in? a) germinal b) zygote c) embryonic d) fetal Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 161. Hana’s baby was born in the 32nd week of her pregnancy. Her baby was 20% smaller than a typical baby born in the 32nd week. Hana’s baby would be labeled as a) preterm only. b) preterm and small-for-date. c) small-for-date only. d) low weight viable. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 162 Teratogenic effects are difficult to determine because the nature and extent of impact on the developing fetus depend on a number of factors. Which of the following is not a factor in determining teratogenic effects? a) dosage of the teratogen b) timing of exposure c) age of the zygote, embryo, or fetus d) immediate physical impairment Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 163. Letisha and her partner are trying to conceive a baby. During the time she is trying to become pregnant, her doctor suggests the Letisha refrain from drinking, and be very aware of possible environmental toxins. Based on discussions in your textbook, why would Letisha need to worry about this even before she knows she is pregnant? a) Drinking and environmental toxins could prevent her from conceiving. b) During the early stages of pregnancy, the newly formed organism is most vulnerable to environmental influences. c) Exposure to alcohol or environmental toxins will cause her to miscarriage. d) During the early stages of pregnancy, the brain is rapidly developing. Alcohol and environmental toxins will disrupt brain development. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 164. Based on discussions in your textbook, during the early stages of pregnancy, the newly formed organism is most vulnerable to environmental toxins and other influences. Which of the following individuals should therefore be most concerned? a) Riko – who is delivering any day and was just exposed to someone with rubella b) Saanvi – who is in her second month of pregnancy and accidentally took an aspirin c) Maya – who is trying to conceive her baby d) Tereza – who is in her eight month of pregnancy and is on antibiotics prescribed by her physician

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Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 165. Prenatal exposure to this drug is associated with problems with disturbances in executive functioning. a) marijuana b) heroin c) nicotine d) aspirin Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 166. Amir is a medical student who is reviewing case files of newborns who were exposed to various teratogens. In one specific case file, the infant shows very slow physical growth, facial abnormalities, and brain injury. What teratogen was this infant most likely exposed to? a) heroin b) marijuana c) alcohol d) tobacco Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 167. Thadius is a medical student who is undergoing some training in pediatrics. Today, he is visiting the neonatal intensive care unit with his advisor, and as an informal test, he is asked to identify what teratogen a specific baby was exposed to. The baby they are looking at has a cleft lip, was born premature, and has a very low birth weight. What teratogen most likely caused these symptoms? a) heroin b) marijuana c) alcohol

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d) tobacco Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 168. Teratogens are ___ that can cause damage during prenatal development. a) DNA fragments b) environmental agents c) recessive genes d) dominant genes Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 169. Which of the following facts about exposure to teratogens is TRUE? a) Prenatal exposure to tobacco increases sudden infant death syndrome. b) Prenatal exposure to alcohol has no major ill effects. c) Prenatal exposure to heroin causes physical deformities. d) Prenatal exposure to marijuana has been linked to childhood cancer. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 170. Which of the following facts about exposure to teratogens is FALSE? a) Prenatal exposure to tobacco increases sudden infant death syndrome. b) Prenatal exposure to alcohol increases risk of physical, mental, and behavioural disabilities. c) Prenatal exposure to heroin causes low birth weight. d) Prenatal exposure to marijuana has been linked to childhood cancer. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis

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Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 171. Which of the following is NOT a teratogen? a) tobacco b) PKU c) alcohol d) Listeria Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 172. Clare used heroin throughout her pregnancy. When she looks at her newborn compared to all the other newborns in the neonatal unit, what is she likely to see? a) Her baby has physical deformities. b) Her baby born has a low birth weight and has a high-pitched incessant cry. c) Her baby is deaf. d) Her baby born has thyroid problems. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 173. Lucia is a heroin addict who continued to use the drug during her pregnancy. Which of the following is likely to be true regarding Lucia’s baby? a) The baby will be born addicted to heroin. b) The baby will have disturbances in executive functioning. c) The baby will be at increased risk of mental illness in adulthood. d) The baby will be at increased risk of sudden infant death. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development

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174. Clara decided to NOT give up her cigarette habit during her pregnancy. She was going through too many other changes, and quitting would just add to her stress, and she would try to cut down. What might she see in her child because of cigarette smoking during pregnancy? a) schizophrenia b) a cleft lip c) impulsiveness and over-activity d) immune function problems Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 175. Tia did not see anything wrong with smoking marijuana throughout her pregnancy. She was aware of the warnings about tobacco smoke, but she had NEVER heard any warnings about marijuana and mistakenly thought it was safe. What might she see in her child because of her marijuana use? a) mental and physical defects b) a cleft lip c) impulsiveness and over-activity d) the development of cancer Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 176. Symptoms of cognitive disturbance due to prenatal exposure to marijuana would include difficulties with all of the following EXCEPT a) Impulsivity. b) memory. c) overactivity. d) inattention. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development

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177. Which of the following pairs are INCORRECTLY matched? a) alcohol – teratogen b) Down syndrome -- extra chromosome c) Cystic fibrosis -- recessive gene d) PKU – teratogen Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 178. Which of the following pairs are INCORRECTLY matched? a) rubella – dominant gene disorder b) Down syndrome – recessive gene disorder c) thalidomide -- teratogen d) PKU – teratogen Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 179. Jeremy was born deaf, has intellectual disabilities, and has a heart defect. One probable reason for this is ___. a) Jeremy’s mother drank alcohol during the embryonic stage of her pregnancy b) Jeremy’s mother smoked during the fetal stage of her pregnancy c) Jeremy’s mother was exposed to rubella during the embryonic stage of her pregnancy d) Jeremy’s mother smoked marijuana during the fetal stage of her pregnancy Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 180. With regard to rubella, which of the following period of exposure is correctly matched with the effects? a) germinal – deafness; embryonic – increased risk of schizophrenia

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b) embryonic – increased risk of adulthood mental illness; fetal; deafness and intellectual disability c) germinal – deafness and intellectual disability; fetal – increased risk of diabetes and immune function problems d) embryonic – deafness and intellectual disability; fetal – increased risk of adulthood mental illness. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 181. Which of the following is NOT a factor that determines the impact a teratogen has on prenatal development? a) the stage of prenatal development in which the exposure occurs b) the type of teratogen c) whether the teratogen was ingested or inhaled d) how much of the teratogen the pregnant woman was exposed to Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 182. Which of the following is NOT a factor that determines the impact a teratogen has on prenatal development? a) the timing and extent of exposure b) the dosage of the teratogen c) stage of development d) form of exposure, ingested, inhaled, etc. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 183. Jillian and Peter were both born to mothers who drank during their pregnancy. Jillian’s mother drank heavily throughout her pregnancy, whereas Peter’s mother only drank occasionally. Although we CANNOT know for certain, which of the following is the most likely

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outcome for Jillian and for Peter? a) Jillian will have FAS; Peter will have p-FAS. b) Jillian will have p-FAS; Peter will have FAS. c) Jillian will have FAS; Peter will have ARND. d) Jillian will have ARND; Peter will have FAS. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 184. Which of the following accurately lists the three diagnoses associated with fetal alcohol Spectrum Disorder from most to least severe? a) FAS – ARND - p-FAS b) p-FAS – ARND – FAS c) FAS – p-FAS – ARND d) p-FAS – FAS – ARND Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 185. According to the Canadian Federation for Sexual Health, ___ of conceptions ends in a miscarriage. a) 1/3 b) 1/4 c) 1/5 d) 1/10 Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 186. If a fetus is naturally expelled from the uterus prior to the 20th week of pregnancy, it is called a(n) ___. a) abortion b) fetal expulsion

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c) miscarriage d) abnormality Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 187. The age of viability a) occurs in the embryonic stage. b) is the point at which the fetus starts to move. c) happens around the 20th week of pregnancy. d) happens later for male embryos than for female embryos. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 188. What is true about the age of viability? a) It occurs in the embryonic stage. b) It is the point at which the fetus starts to move. c) It happens around the 20th week of pregnancy. d) It happens later for male embryos than for female embryos. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 189. The point at which a baby can survive outside the uterus is ___ and is called ___. a) 28 weeks; the fetal stage b) 20 weeks; the age of feasibility c) 20 weeks; the age of viability d) 28 weeks; the viability stage Answer: c Difficulty: Medium

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Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 190. Sixteen weeks is to ______________ as 20 weeks is to ________________. a) germinal stage; fetal stage b) embryonic stage; fetal stage c) miscarriage; age of viability d) age of viability; premature birth Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 191. Theresa is 24 weeks pregnant and has gone into early labour. The fetus ___. a) will not survive because Theresa is miscarrying b) will not survive because there is likely a chromosomal abnormality c) will survive because it is almost full term d) may survive because it has passed the age of viability Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 192. Zsófia is 18 weeks pregnant. If Zsófia were to give birth now, what would be the most likely outcome for her baby? a) The baby would have serious health problems and possibly birth defects. b) The baby would only have a 5% chance of survival. c) The baby would only have a 10% chance of survival. d) The baby would not survive as the age of viability is 20 weeks. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

193. The mother’s eggs are fertilized in the a) uterus. b) fallopian tube. c) embryonic canal. d) ovaries. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 194. The incredible brain growth that we see in the first 2 years of life is, at least in part, attributable to a) neurogenesis. b) increased cerebrospinal fluid. c) growth of synapses. d) decreased myelination. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 195. One way to test that the nervous system is wired properly and developing normally is to a) test sensory adaptation. b) examine the speed of habituation. c) look for consistencies in cognitive, physical, and emotional abilities. d) test infant reflexes. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 196. Which of the following statements best describes early brain development? a) As children grow into adults, the number of synapses steadily increase. b) Synaptic growth is slow during the first two or three years, and then increases dramatically for pre-schoolers.

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c) Young children’s brains create about three times more synapses than they’ll need. d) Children are born with as many synapses as they will need. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 197. Which of the following is accurate about infant brain development? a) Infants have 2500 connections per neuron at birth; this increases to 15,000 by age 2. b) The infant brain is completely myelinated by age 2. c) The number of neurons a baby has at birth does not increase, but those neurons become more complex. d) Infants are born with 15,000 connections for each neuron, however, through synaptic pruning, this number decreases to 2500 by age 2. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 198. The purpose of myelin is to a) increase the number of synaptic connections. b) eliminate excess synaptic connections. c) help electrical impulses pass more efficiently. d) allow colour vision to develop. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 199. The elimination of excess neurons in the brain is called a) synaptic pruning. b) demyelination. c) myelination. d) synaptic atrophy. Answer: a

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 200. What is a similarity between prenatal development and early childhood development? a) Both are characterized by rapid brain development. b) Both are characterized by voluntary control over body movement. c) Both are characterized by advanced visual acuity. d) Both are characterized by large changes in hormone levels. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 201. During early and middle childhood the brain becomes more efficient because ___. a) the brain increases in size b) myelination and synaptic pruning are occurring c) learning of motor skills has occurred d) of developmental milestones Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 202. As myelination of neurons continues until early adulthood, it also contributes to ___. a) neuron generation b) the development of motor and cognitive skills c) teratogenesis d) synaptic pruning Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood

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203. What pattern describes how myelination progresses? a) head-down b) proximodistal c) bottom-up d) cephalocaudal Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 204. Which of the following examples shows a proximodistal pattern of growth? a) A teenager’s feet are disproportionately large for his body. b) An infant’s head is ¼ their total height. c) A child’s fingers are much smaller for their age than their arms are. d) A teenager’s legs are much longer than their torso. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 205. Joyce is amazed at the changes her baby is going through. She wonders why it is that her baby can roll over before he can accurately grasp the toys on his mobile. Which of the following would be the best explanation to give Joyce? a) Infant development is qualitative. b) Infant development is quantitative. c) Infant development follows the laws of physics – the body is heavier so her son can get momentum. d) Infant development follows a proximodistal pattern. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 206. Baby Benjamin will reach out for a toy with his arm but is NOT yet able to pick it up from

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

the floor with his fingers and hands. Which developmental trend is illustrated by this example? a) maturational b) cephalocaudal c) proximodistal d) developmental Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 207. Three-month old infants can grasp a toy that is handed to them, but they are not able to reach for things on their own. This is because motor development follows _________________. a) a quantitative pattern b) a qualitative pattern c) a cephalocaudal pattern d) a proximodistal pattern Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 208. The fact that a baby’s head is larger in proportion to their body is an example of a) cephalodistal development. b) cephalocaudal development. c) proximodistal development. d) proximocaudal development. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 209. Just after Olivia lay her baby daughter, Rebecca, on her stomach for the first time, Rebecca raised her head. Although Rebecca is getting physically stronger, Olivia knows that it will still be several months before Rebecca will be able to sit up alone. Which of the following trends does is illustrated by this example? a) maturational

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b) cephalocaudal c) proximodistal d) developmental Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 210. Prenatal growth, as well as growth during the first few years after birth, is ______________, which means that Ella’s head and upper body will develop before the lower parts of her body. a) developmental b) cephalocaudal c) continuous d) proximodistal Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 211. Which of the following examples shows a cephalocaudal pattern of growth? a) A teenager’s feet are disproportionately large for his body. b) An infant’s head is ¼ their total height. c) A child’s fingers are much smaller for their age than their arms are. d) A teenager’s legs are much longer than their torso. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 212. Which of the following examples shows a proximodistal pattern of growth? a) A teenager’s feet are disproportionately large for his body. b) An infant’s head is ¼ their total height. c) A child can sit before she can stand. d) A child’s fingers are much smaller for their age than their arms are.

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Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 213. Which of the following statements about an infant’s senses is correct? a) All senses are highly developed at birth. b) Vision is the least developed sense at birth. c) Hearing is the most developed sense at birth. d) Although visual acuity is poor at birth, colour discrimination is at adult levels. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 214. When Adam breast feeds he stares into his mother’s eyes. However, he will NOT have visual acuity like that of an of an adult until he is ___________. a) two-months-old b) five-years-old c) an adolescent. d) one-year-old Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 215. In comparison to normal adult vision of 20/20, the acuity of the newborn’s visual system is estimated to be ___. a) 20/40 to 20/60 b) 20/100 to 20/250 c) 20/400 to 20/800 d) The acuity of a newborn’s vision cannot be estimated. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that

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take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood

216. The sense of smell a) is highly developed at birth. b) requires learning to become fully effective. c) develops gradually through puberty. d) is not fully developed until adulthood. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 217. Which of the following senses is least developed in a newborn? a) taste and smell b) hearing c) vision d) touch Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 218. Tokiko is pregnant with her first child and is choosing paint colours for the nursery. Based on what you know about newborn colour vision, what colours would her baby likely see best? a) pale yellow b) pink or blue c) stark contrasting colours such as black and white d) It does not matter as the baby will see all colours equally well. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood

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219. Xavier was diagnosed with a hearing loss during a screening text. If this text occurred in Canada and Xavier is the median age of babies identified with a hearing loss approximately how old is Xavier? a) under 1 year b) 3 years c) 5 years d) school age Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 220. Mikaela is one day old. Which of the following will Mikaela be able to do best? a) Distinguish the scent of her mother’s milk from another woman’s. b) See pictures and shelves hanging on the wall of the nursery. c) Choose a pink hippo over a blue elephant. d) Distinguish between her mother’s voice and another woman’s voice. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 221. Which of the following correctly identifies how four-day old Jade might recognize her mother? a) She can recognize the outline of her mother’s face, even though it is blurred. b) She can recognize her mother’s touch. c) She can see her mother quite clearly. d) She can recognize her mother’s smell and the sound of her voice. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 222. What inborn response causes babies to turn toward stimulation and begin to suck when something brushes their cheeks? a) Babinski reflex

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b) Moro reflex c) rooting reflex d) gripping reflex Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 223. Which of the following reflexes in a newborn does NOT serve a known purpose? a) rooting b) Babinski c) grasping d) Moro Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 224. Enid’s doctor stroked the bottom of her baby’s foot and the baby’s toes splayed outward. The doctor told Enid that she was happy with this response as the _____ reflex indicated healthy integration of the nervous system in children until they were approximately 2-years of age. a) Moro b) Babinski c) rooting d) tonic neck Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 225. Jennifer is shocked when her doctor deliberately slaps the blanket on either side of her newborn son’s head to startle him. If you were Jennifer’s birthing coach, what would you tell her to alleviate her concerns? a) The doctor is testing her baby’s hearing. b) The doctor is testing her baby’s Babinski reflex.

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c) The doctor is testing her baby’s Moro reflex. d) The doctor is testing her baby’s ability to turn away from a moving object. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 226. On average, infants can lift their head and shoulders when lying on their stomach at around ___ months of age. a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 or 5 Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 227. On average, infants can sit alone at around ___ months of age. a) 3 b) 5 c) 7 d) 8 or 9 Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 228. On average, many infants can crawl on their hands and knees at around ___ months of age. a) 5 b) 7 c) 9 d) 11 or 12 Answer: b

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 229. At around ___ months of age, many infants can stand while holding onto furniture. a) 6 b) 8 c) 10 d) 11 or 12 Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 230. Ava has been reading a book on infant development and has just read that, on average, babies can roll over at 2 months, and sit up alone at 7 months. The more she reads, the more worried she becomes as she realizes that her daughter is achieving these skills at least one month later than the ages listed in the book. What advice would you give Ava? a) Wait and see. If her daughter develops the skills eventually, it does not matter if she is late. b) Her daughter is normal because the average ages are based only on male babies. c) She needs to take her daughter to a pediatrician right away as her daughter may have a neurological problem. d) Her daughter is developing normally. The age ranges of motor skill development are more important than the averages. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 231. Motor development is highly variable and depends on several non maturational factors. Which of the following is NOT a known fact that supports this statement about motor development? a) Abuse, neglect, or poor nutrition can slow a child’s development. b) Kipsigis children are encouraged to sit up, stand, and walk. They reach motor milestones ahead of North American babies. c) Babies acquire motor skills in roughly the same order. d) Genetic variation plays a role in when children reach milestone in motor development.

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Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 232. Which of the following skills typically occurs at 11 months? a) sits alone b) stands alone c) stands holding furniture d) crawls Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 233. Which age range is considered middle childhood? a) 1–2 years b) 2–6 years c) 6–12 years d) 10–12 years Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 234. Your textbook discusses the fact that infants of the Kipsigis people encourage motor skills such as sitting up, standing, and walking shortly after birth. As a result, their children achieve motor development milestones approximately a month earlier than children raised in North America. What does this suggest about motor skill development? a) Persons of different cultures have genetic factors that influence motor development. b) Natural selection has allowed the evolution of early motor development in the Kipsigis people because it is adaptive. c) Environmental factors can modulate early motor development. d) Environmental factors can cause the rapid acceleration of motor development. Answer: c

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Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 235.The fact that children begin walking later in cultures in which they’re discouraged from walking shows us that motor skill acquisition a) is influenced by environmental factors. b) is influenced by maturational factors. c) is very similar across cultures. d) is dependent on sensory development. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 236. Dr. Moretta subscribes to the dynamic systems approach, which suggests that ___. a) motor development is strongly influenced by environmental factors b) motor development is strongly influenced by genetic factors c) motor development occurs through the coming together of many related and unrelated factors d) motor development is culturally motivated Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 237. Dr. Evans, a pediatrician, believes that, when assessing child’s motor skills, it is important to consider the age of the child as well as the many interrelated environmental factors that might influence the developmental milestones. Dr. Evans subscribes to the ________________ approach. A) preoperational systems b) integrative systems c) sociobiological d) dynamic systems Answer: d Difficulty: Medium

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 238. Cognitive development is best defined as a) changes in physical growth that happen as we age. b) changes in social interactions and perspective-taking abilities as we age. c) changes in thinking that occur over time. d) changes in brain structure and function over time. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 239. Piaget’s theory of cognitive development claims that changes in thinking occur as ___ shifts in our thinking. a) qualitative b) quantitative c) cephalocaudal d) proximodistal Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 240. Information processing theorists study how individuals a) develop into thinkers based on their unconscious motives and desires. b) study how sociocultural influences impact learning. c) respond to reinforcements and punishments. d) learn, remember, organize, and use information. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood

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241. It has been argued that information processing theorists differ from Piaget in that information processing focuses on a) what children can do rather than on what they cannot do. b) learning as a passive process. c) qualitative shifts in thinking rather than on quantitative shifts. d) a nature perspective rather than a nurture perspective. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehensive Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 242. Over time, and by focusing on children’s capacities, information processing theorists have concluded that a) that cognitive development probably involves more qualitative shifts than Piaget thought. b) that cognitive development involves the same number of qualitative shifts as Piaget suggested. c) that cognitive development involves fewer qualitative shifts than Piaget suggested. d) that cognitive development involves fewer quantitative shifts than Piaget suggested. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 243. Dr. Toledo believes that cognitive development involves fewer qualitative shifts and more quantitative shifts than Piaget believed. Dr. Toledo subscribes to the __________________ theory. a) behavioural b) information-processing c) computer analogy d) working memory Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood

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244. The person credited with advancing research in the area of cognitive development in children was a) Mary Ainsworth. b) Konrad Lorenz. c) Erik Erikson. d) Jean Piaget. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 245. Which research method was used by Piaget to formulate his theory of cognitive development? a) naturalistic observation b) correlational research c) survey d) experiment Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 246. According to Piaget, which is the MOST basic unit of intellect? a) reflexive responding b) strategy use c) schemes d) equilibration Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 247. Mental frameworks or structures that influence our understanding and thinking about the world are called ___. a) conscious thoughts b) schemes

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c) concepts d) data points Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 248. Which is the BEST definition of a scheme? a) A cognitive structure or framework consisting of many organized ideas that grow and differentiate with experience. b) A cognitive structure or framework consisting of a single idea that alters and differentiates with experience. c) A series of ideas that coalesce around a single structure and that grow and differentiate with experience. d) The earliest type of thinking that a human infant is capable of engaging in. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 249. An infant explores her world by sucking on her soother, fingers, toes, and blanket. The infant is using ___ to manage new information. a) her environment b) a scheme c) accommodation d) cognition Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 250. Amelia has moved from reflexive responses to repeating actions such as sucking her hands or feet or making cooing sounds over and over. These cognitive structures consist of several organized ideas that grow and differentiate with experience. They are called _____. a) data points b) thoughts

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c) schemas d) concepts Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 251. According to Piaget, when new experiences cause an alteration in the existing mental framework, this is called a) assimilation. b) accommodation. c) equilibrium. d) scaffolding. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 252. Piaget referred to balance in the mental adaptation framework. He called this balance a) equilibration. b) accommodation. c) assimilation. d) adaptation. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 253. Piaget referred to a state of cognitive discomfort, or imbalance, that he called a) accommodation. b) adaptation. c) disequilibration. d) assimilation. Answer: c

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 254. According to Piaget, when new experiences are incorporated into existing schemes, this is called a) assimilation. b) accommodation. c) equilibrium. d) scaffolding. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 255. Which of the following individuals is using assimilation? a) Ying has come to understand that a piano is a type of percussion instrument. b) Jordan has come to understand that a tomato is not a vegetable but a type of fruit. c) Mohamed has come to understand that a duck-billed platypus is a type of mammal but is egg-laying so is considered a monotreme. d) Jeremy has come to understand that a koala is not actually a member of the bear family but is a marsupial. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 256. Dana is looking at a school bus for the first time and mistakenly calls it a truck. Her mother corrects her, point out the yellow colour and all the windows. As a result, Dana’s idea of a truck is now a bit different. What process of acquiring knowledge would Piaget call this? a) assimilation b) accommodation c) equilibrium d) schematic reorganization Answer: b Difficulty: Medium

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Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 257. Which of the following is the BEST example of Piaget's concept of assimilation? a) Sophie transferred from another college, and right away she noticed that everyone at her new college referred to their footwear as "flip flops". Sophie was used to referring to this type of footwear as "go-aheads". However, by the time she returned home in the spring she too was calling her footwear "flip flops". b) Conan's young nephew just learned the word "kitty" and now he points at every cat he sees. Yesterday he saw a bichon shih Tzu and called it a "kitty". c) Stella's daughter, Apple, loves dogs and, until recently, called every four-legged animal "doggy". Just recently, however, Apple started distinguishing dogs from horses. d) Lincoln's students love learning about different farm animals. However, Lincoln is teaching them that all of these different animals are part of one larger, unified category of mammals. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 258. Accommodation is to assimilation as ___ is to ___. a) change; inclusion b) partial; absolute c) absolute; partial d) inclusion; change Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 259. Accommodation is a mental process in which information is ________; assimilation is a mental process in which information is a) adjusted; integrated. b) integrated; adjusted. c) altered; exchanged. d) stored; discarded. Answer: a

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 260. Inclusion is to change as ___ is to ___. a) disequilibrium; equilibrium b) equilibrium; disequilibrium c) assimilation; accommodation d) accommodation; assimilation Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 261. According to Piaget, accommodation and assimilation help us to ___. a) become operational b) achieve representational balance c) reach equilibrium d) reach disequilibrium Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 262. Eugenie is a toddler and has a pet cat at home. One day, she sees a small dog and says “kitty.” Her mother explains that the animal is a “doggie” NOT a “kitty.” What must Eugenie do to understand “doggie?” a) Eliminate her schemata for “kitty.” b) Assimilate the new information into her existing schemata. c) Accommodate the new information by changing her schemata. d) Develop a sense of object permanence. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood.

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Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 263. Marcus is a toddler and has a pet cat at home. One day on TV, he sees a lion and says “kitty.” His mother says “yes, a lion is a big kitty.” Given his mother’s response, how will Marcus process “lion?” a) Develop a sense of object permanence. b) Accommodate the new information by changing his schemata. c) Assimilate the new information into his existing schemata. d) Eliminate his schemata for “kitty.” Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 264. Mary has come to understand that a strawberry is a fruit, just like an apple. Jason has come to understand that a frog is an amphibian and not a reptile. Which of the following statements is true about these two schemas? a) Mary is assimilating, and Jason is assimilating. b) Mary is accommodating, and Jason is accommodating. c) Mary is assimilating, and Jason is accommodating. d) Mary is accommodating, and Jason is assimilating. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 265. When a Diana switched from a computer keyboard to a cell phone keyboard, her typing schema will have to ___________ to incorporate the new techniques needed for the new equipment. a) assimilate b) differentiate c) accommodate d) recapitulate Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood.

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Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 266. It is easier to _____ than to _____. a) assimilate; accommodate b) adapt; differentiate c) accommodate; assimilate d) equilibrate; organize Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 267. What is the correct order of Piaget’s stages? a) sensorimotor, concrete operational, preoperational, formal operational b) sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, formal operational c) sensorimotor, preoperational, formal operational, concrete operational d) preoperational, sensorimotor, concrete operational, formal operational Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 268. Peek-a-boo is a game that parents enjoy playing with infants because they seem to be genuinely surprised when Mom or Dad’s faces comes back into view from behind their hands. This game illustrates that children under the age of approximately 8 months have NOT yet developed which cognitive ability? a) conservation b) object permanence c) facial recognition d) egocentrism Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood

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269. A developmental researcher habituates a baby to a video of a short or tall carrot going behind a cut-out screen and coming out the other side. They then had the tall carrot go behind the cut-out screen and coming out the other side without being seen through the cut-out screen. This researcher was using the _____________ approach to examine ________________. a) habituation; conservation b) violation-of-expectation; conservation c) cognitive development; object permanence d) violation-of-expectation; object permanence Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 270. According to Piaget, object permanence develops at around ___ months. a) 6 b) 8 c) 10 d) 12 Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 277. Elise has NOT yet mastered object permanence. Which game would she find to be most entertaining? a) make believe b) hide and seek c) peek-a-boo d) Monopoly Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 278. When 6-month-old Ulrica realizes that mommy continues to exist even when she is quietly resting in another room, Ulrica has developed ___.

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a) secure attachment b) perceptual permanence c) object permanence d) equilibrium Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 279. When Thom first started playing peekaboo with his daughter Tomasita, she would cry when Thom would hide behind the blanket. But over time instead of crying, Tomasita would peek around the blanket to look for Thom. From this example, we can assume Tomasita a) understands the concept of object permanence. b) struggles with egocentrism. c) understands the concept of conservation. d) has reached the formal operations stage. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 280. One of the criticisms of Piaget’s way of assessing object permanence is that a) babies who cannot yet speak cannot tell us whether they have mastered object permanence. b) Piaget overestimated children’s developmental speed. c) babies do not yet have enough control over their bodies to initiate a search. d) eight-month-old babies still act surprised when an object reappears. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 281. When babies stop responding to a stimulus that has been repeatedly presented to them, we say they are a) habituated. b) dishabituated. c) adapted.

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d) perceptually unaware. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 282. Baby Cloe has been watching a short video of a tall carrot going out behind a screen and coming out the opposite side. After she becomes habituated to this, she is then shown a carrot go behind a cut-out screen. Although Cloe does NOT see the carrot cross through the cut-out portion of the screen, the carrot appears on the opposite side. Cloe has been presented with ___ as part of a/an ___ approach. a) expected event; object permanence b) impossible event; object permanence c) expected event; violation-of-expectation d) impossible event; violation-of-expectation Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 283. Nine-month-old Seth has been watching his mother bouncing a red ball up and down. After a couple of minutes, Seth starts looking away from the ball more and more. It appears that Seth has _____________ to the bouncing ball. a) dishabituated b) accommodated c) assimilated d) habituated Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 284. Karen Wynn used the violation-of-expectation approach to demonstrate ___. a) that babies have object permanence b) that babies can read simple words c) that babies understand simple mathematics

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d) that babies have conservation. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 285. Victoria is looking at the new kitten in the house with fascination. She cannot take her eyes off the kitten! Suddenly, the kitten scoots under the couch. Victoria does not get upset, instead she just blinks and looks at something else in her field of view. What stage would Piaget say that Victoria is in? a) sensorimotor b) preoperational c) concrete operational d) formal operational Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 286. Jason’s mother takes a can of soda and pours all of it into a tall skinny glass and gives it to Jason’s sister Alia. Then Jason’s mother takes an identical can of soda and pours all of it into a short, wide glass and gives it to Jason. Jason is outraged that his sister has more soda than he has. What stage would Piaget say that Jason is in? a) sensorimotor b) preoperational c) concrete operational d) formal operational Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 287. The preoperational stage of cognitive development lasts from ___. a) birth to age 2 years b) ages 2–7 years c) ages 7–11 years

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d) age 11 onward Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 288. According to Piaget, during which stage of cognitive development do children begin to develop the ability to hold on to ideas in their minds and work with them? a) sensorimotor b) preoperational c) concrete operational d) formal operational Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 289. Which of the following is NOT associated with Piaget’s preoperational stage? a) abstract thinking b) egocentric thinking c) ages 2–7 years old d) animistic thinking Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 290. Juanita has been watching Sesame Street on TV while mom prepares lunch in the kitchen. As they sit down to lunch, Juanita says to her mother “Wasn’t that a funny thing that Big Bird did?” When her mother says she did not see the cartoon, Juanita gets upset and insists that her mother must have seen it, because it was on the TV. Which stage of development is Juanita at? a) preoperational b) formal operational c) sensorimotor d) concrete operational

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Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 291. Tesia said, "The rain quit falling because I wanted to go out to play." This is an example of ______________, which indicates that Tesia is in the ____________ of cognitive development. a) animism; sensorimotor stage b) subjective permanence; preoperational stage c) egocentrism; preoperational stage d) flawed logic; concrete operational stage Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 292. Elijah’s mother has just given him a graham cracker. After he complains that he wanted two crackers because he is super hungry, his mother breaks his graham cracker into two pieces. Elijah is quite happy with this and is now satisfied he will have enough to eat. What stage of cognitive development is Elijah in? a) sensorimotor b) preoperational c) concrete operational d) formal operational Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 293. Charlotte and her mother are out for a walk when it begins to snow. Charlotte says that the sky is snowing because it wants her to make a snowman. Charlotte is exhibiting ___, which indicates that Charlotte is in the ___ stage of cognitive development. a) centration; concrete operational b) animism; preoperational c) egocentrism; preoperational d) irreversibility; concrete operational

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Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 294. Maja is in Piaget’s preoperational stage. The woman who lives next door dresses up as a man for Halloween, with a beard and moustache. When Maja sees her, she is likely to think a) that her neighbour is still a woman. b) that her neighbour has become a man. c) that her neighbour is both a man and a woman. d) that her neighbour is mentally ill. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 295. Jonathan is constantly asking questions, "What is that red stuff in the spaghetti?", "Why is grandpa’s hair mostly gone?", "What keeps planes up?", and so on. Jonathan is in the stage characterized by intuitive thinking called the ________ stage. a) sensorimotor b) preoperational c) concrete operational d) formal operational Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 296. When younger children see a cat in a dog mask, they do not understand that the cat is still a cat. These children have difficulty _____________ and are in the __________stage. a) with conservation; sensorimotor b) with conservation; preoperational c) distinguishing between appearance versus reality; sensorimotor d) distinguishing between appearance versus reality; preoperational Answer: d

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 297. Which of the following factors contribute to children’s lack of conservation? a) Children have difficulty distinguishing between appearance and reality. b) Children are animistic. c) Children have not mastered transductive thinking. d) Children have not yet developed object permanence. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 298. Jonathon is 5 years old and is walking with his father one evening. Jonathon looks at the moon and tells his father “the moon is following me.” Jonathon is still experiencing a) object permanence. b) reversibility. c) conservation. d) egocentrism. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 299. Preschoolers who adapt their speech by using shorter, simpler expressions when talking to 2-year-olds rather than to adults exemplify ________ behavior. a) egocentric b) reflexive c) non-egocentric d) maturational Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood.

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Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 300. Jessie and Sarah are 4-year-old twins. Their mother gives each child one scoop of macaroni for lunch. What must she be careful to do, and why? a) Let each child dish up her own macaroni, because six-year old children are egocentric. b) Let each child dish up her own macaroni, because six-year old children have difficulty with the issue of conservation. c) Use identical sized plates, because six-year old children are egocentric. d) Use identical sized plates, because six-year old children have difficulty with the issue of conservation. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 301. Jordan is five-years old. His mother says to him “If you have two apples and I give you two more apples, how many apples will you have?” Jordan correctly says, “four apples.” Then, his mother says, “If you have four apples, and you give two to me, how many apples will you have left?” Jordan replies “four.” What is Jordan’s area of difficulty? a) Jordan has difficulty with the concept of reversibility. b) Jordan has difficulty with the concept of conservation. c) Jordan has difficulty because he is egocentric. d) Jordan has difficulty with hypothetical reasoning. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 302. Jordan is five-years old. His mother says to him “If you have two apples and I give you two more apples, how many apples will you have?” Jordan correctly says, “four apples.” Then, his mother says, “if you have four apples, and you give two to me, how many apples will you have left?” What will Jordan’s response most likely be? a) zero b) two c) four d) It is impossible to predict Jordan’s answer. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium

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Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 303. Brian tells his 4-year old son, Dylan, that Uncle Jim is Daddy’s brother. If you were to ask Dylan if Uncle Jim has brother, what would Dylan say? Why? a) Yes; because Dylan has irreversibility. b) No; because Dylan is limited by irreversibility. c) Yes; because Dylan is egocentric. d) No; because Dylan is exhibiting egocentrism. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 304. A researcher places 5 daisies and 3 roses in a vase. He then asks Gabriella if there are more daisies or more flowers in the vase. Gabriella responds that there are more flowers. This answer reflects Gabriella’s ability of ___ and suggests she is in the ___ stage of cognitive development. a) irreversibility; preoperational b) conservation; concrete operational c) categorization; concrete operational d) abstract thinking; formal operational Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 305. How can researchers identify whether a child is in the preoperational or concrete operational stage? a) Test the child for full conservation. b) Test the child for language development. c) Test for object permanence. d) Test for hypothetical thinking. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 306. Which of the following of Piaget’s stages is from age 7–11 years? a) preoperational b) sensorimotor c) concrete operational d) formal operational Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 307. Once a child can perform mental operations on concrete objects and can understand the principles of conservation and reversibility, she has reached Piaget’s ___ stage. a) preoperational b) concrete operations c) formal operations d) post operational Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 308. The man who lives next door to Jacob dresses up as a woman for Halloween, with a wig and dress. Jacob’s response is, “but you’re NOT really a woman.” Jacob is most likely in Piaget’s ___ stage. a) sensorimotor b) preoperational c) concrete operational d) formal operational Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood

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309. Every time Tyler is around cats his eyes start to water, his sinuses fill, and he breaks out in hives. He concludes that he is allergic to cats. When his mother suggests he might also be allergic to other things, her responds that he is only allergic to cats. Tyler is most likely in the ___________ stage of cognitive development. a) sensory operational b) preoperational c) concrete operational d) formal operational Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 310. Eight-year-old Édouard was sitting with a researcher looking at a clear bowl filled with poker chips. Each individual poker chip in the bowl was a solid colour, red, blue, or white. The researcher told Édouard that all the chips in the bowl were just like the ones he could see. Then, as Édouard watched, the researcher reached deep into the bowl and extracted one chip. Without letting Édouard see the chip – the research looked privately at the chip held tightly in his hand, and then said to Édouard, “The chip in my hand is red AND it’s not red. Is that true, is that false, or you can’t tell?” Édouard said, “I can’t tell.” “Why not?” said the researcher. “Because I need to see it,” said Édouard. Why would Piaget say Édouard give this response? a) Édouard did not understand the task and thought perhaps some of the chips were combinations of colours despite being told differently. b) Édouard is still bound by the concrete realities of his world and therefore needs to verify his experiences. c) Édouard considered the abstract nature of the question and gave a logically reasoned response. d) Édouard is probably still reasoning at a preoperational level and so did not trust the researcher and thought he was being tricked. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 311. Nine-year-old Lucas and his fourteen-year-old sister, Tonya, have a cat named Precious. According to Piaget, if you were to tell the siblings “Let’s pretend that we live in a world where all cats have wings” and then ask them if Precious would have wings, what would be the response of each child? a) Lucas would say no; Tonya would say no.

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b) Lucas would say yes; Tonya would say no. c) Lucas would say yes; Tonya would say yes. d) Lucas would say no; Tonya would say yes. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 312. Children in Piaget’s concrete operational stage may have difficulty learning geometry because geometry requires people to a) understand the concept of conservation. b) understand abstract relationships. c) understand cause and effect. d) understand reversibility. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 313. Real-world relationships are to ____________ as abstract relationships are to ______________. a) preoperational; concrete operational b) concrete operational; preoperational c) concrete operational; formal operational d) formal operational; concrete operational Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 314. In the conservation task, a child in the __________ stage will say that the beakers have the same amount of water, whereas a child in the ______________ stage will say that taller, narrower beaker has more water. a) preoperational; concrete operational b) concrete operational; sensorimotor c) concrete operational; preoperational

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d) sensorimotor; preoperational Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 315. How can researchers identify whether a child is in the preoperational or concrete operational stage? a) Test the child for full conservation. b) Test the child for language development. c) Test for object permanence. d) Test for hypothetical thinking. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 316. Natasha is six and Philip is eight. They are each offered their choice of either: one loonie or six dimes or 10 nickels. Which combination will each child choose? a) Both children will choose the loonie. b) Natasha will choose the dimes and Philip will choose the nickels. c) Natasha will choose the nickels and Philip will choose the loonie. d) There is no way to predict which combination each child will choose. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 317. In what stage did Piaget believe that children could first think about ideas conceptually without needing concrete referents from the real world? a) preoperational b) concrete operational c) formal operational d) postformal Answer: c

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 318. Which of these children is MOST likely in the concrete operational stage of cognitive development? a) Although Benson would rather have a yellow ball than a green ball, he does not want to trade with a friend because he is worried that trading would hurt the yellow ball's feelings. b) Although you only gave him a few pieces, Ezra thinks he has more candy than you because you gave him his pieces of candy inside the original box. c) Zara smokes cigarettes with her friends, and although she knows the dangers of smoking, she feels that she is invulnerable to addiction and smoking-related illness. d) During recess, Ellie saw another student hide the teacher's chalkboard eraser. She knows that the teacher will be surprised when it is not in its usual place. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. 319. The stage of cognitive development characterized by the ability to use operations but a lack of ability to think abstractly and hypothetically is the ________ stage. a) sensorimotor b) preoperational c) concrete operational d) formal operational Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. 320. Grayson and Nathan were each asked the following question, “What would happen if the sun exploded suddenly blinding the entire human race?” Grayson answered that such a thing could NEVER happen, but Nathan suggested that people who were already blind would become the world’s leaders. Based on their answers, which of the following is most likely? a) Grayson is in the concrete operational stage; Nathan is in the formal operational stage. b) Grayson is in the formal operational stage; Nathan is in the concrete operational stage. c) Grayson is in the concrete operational stage; Nathan is in the post operational stage. d) Grayson is in the post operational stage; Nathan is in the concrete operational stage.

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Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. 321. Alison has just been given the statement, “All dogs bite”. When you then ask Alison if his dog bites, he says, “If all dogs bite, then my dog must bite.” According to Piaget, what stage of cognitive development would Alison be in? a) sensorimotor b) preoperational c) concrete operational d) formal operational Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 322. Which of the following is NOT a criticism of Piaget’s preoperational and concrete operational stages? a) Piaget’s test depended on language. By making questions non-verbal or by rewording the questions, researchers found different results. b) Piaget failed to consider the influence of social factors on children’s cognitive development. c) Piaget underestimated the abilities of children. d) Theory of mind experiments suggest children can take the perspective of others much sooner than Piaget believed. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 323. There is research evidence suggesting Piaget may have a) overestimated the rate of children's cognitive development. b) underestimated the rate of children's cognitive development. c) been mistaken in his quantitative approach to child development. d) accurately estimated the rate of infant and preschool cognitive development. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy

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Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 324. What area of research focuses on young children’s beliefs about how their minds and the minds of others work? a) theory of mind b) metacognition c) egocentrism d) scaffolding Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 325. The concept of “scaffolding” refers to a) children learning more complex actions by putting together a series of less complex actions. b) the evolution of childcare practices to reflect the changes that take place in society. c) the gradual process of a mentor taking increasingly fewer tasks as the child develops. d) the process by which children learn about the correspondence between actions and results. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 326. Dino has brought over a Lego toy to build with his niece. She has never built with Lego before, so she does not know what to do. Dino suggests that they start by looking at the instructions and getting familiar with the pieces. She quickly locates the first few pieces that go together and begins building. But then she hits another roadblock and can’t move on. Dino suggests that she turn the object upside down and work that way. With that bit of advice, his niece quickly finishes building the toy. What would Vygotsky say that Dino was doing with his niece? a) achieving object permanence b) establishing a secure attachment c) scaffolding d) staying out of the zone of proximal development Answer: c

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 327. Victor is helping his nephew complete a puzzle. His nephew is lost, so Victor suggests that they separate the edge pieces from the rest. Then his nephew works on his own for a while building the perimeter of the puzzle, but then he hits another roadblock and can’t move on. Victor then suggests that they make piles of pieces that are similar colour or pattern. His nephew quickly accomplishes the new task, occasionally asking Victor about a specific piece. After that, Victor’s nephew completes the rest of the puzzle on his own. What would Vygotsky say that Victor was doing with his nephew? a) achieving object permanence b) establishing a secure attachment c) scaffolding d) staying out of the zone of proximal development Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 328. Vygotsky’s views of cognitive development differed from those of Piaget in that Vygotsky a) saw the child as an active and independent explorer of their environment. b) saw social interaction as the key to cognitive development. c) focused on theory of mind studies. d) referred to the child’s inner reflections as important for achieving cognitive equilibrium. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 329. How did Vygotsky’s views of child cognitive development differ from those of Piaget? a) Vygotsky saw the child as an active and independent explorer of their environment. b) Vygotsky saw social interaction as the key to cognitive development. c) Vygotsky’s work focused on theory of mind studies. d) Vygotsky referred to the child’s inner reflections as important for achieving cognitive equilibrium. Answer: b

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 330. Piaget is to Vygotsky as ___ is to ___. a) early experiences; later experiences b) later experiences; early experiences c) individual; cultural d) cultural; individual Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 331. Individual is to cultural as ___ is to ___. a) Vygotsky; Piaget b) Piaget; Vygotsky c) Harlow; Ainsworth d) Ainsworth; Harlow Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 332. Psychologist A assigns greater emphasis to sociocultural factors in assessing the development of children. Psychologist B assigns greater emphasis to the children’s internal schemes. What can be inferred about these two psychologists? a) Psychologist A has been influenced by Vygotsky’s theory, while Psychologist B has been influenced by Piaget’s. b) Psychologist A has been influenced by Piaget’s theory, while Psychologist B has been influenced by Vygotsky’s. c) Neither Psychologist A nor Psychologist B have been influenced by either Vygotsky’s or Piaget’s theories. d) Both Psychologist A and Psychologist B have been influenced by both Vygotsky’s and Piaget’s theories. Answer: a

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 333. Lev Vygotsky was most interested in a) psychosocial development. b) cognitive development. c) imprinting. d) social interactions. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 334. A researcher tells 3-year old Hailey and 6-year old Maya a story about Maxi who sees his mother place chocolate in an upper cupboard. After Maxi goes outside, his mother moves the chocolate to a lower cupboard. When asked where Maxi will look for the chocolate when he comes back inside, which of the following most accurately reflects what the two children’s’ answers will be? a) Hailey – upper cupboard; Maya - upper cupboard b) Hailey – lower cupboard; Maya - lower cupboard c) Hailey – upper cupboard; Maya - lower cupboard d) Hailey - lower cupboard; Maya – upper cupboard Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 335. A researcher tells 3-year old Hailey and 6-year old Maya a story about Maxi who sees his mother place chocolate in an upper cupboard. After Maxi goes outside, his mother moves the chocolate to a lower cupboard. When asked where Maxi will look for the chocolate when he comes back inside, Maya correctly predicts that Maxi will look in the upper cupboard and Hailey predicts he will look in the lower cupboard. What conclusions can we draw from these results? a) Piaget was correct; young children are egocentric and cannot take other people’s thoughts and feelings into account. b) Piaget was incorrect; young children are not egocentric and are able to take other people’s thoughts and feelings into account

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c) Piaget was correct in that young children are focused on their own perspective, but they can take other people’s perspectives into account much sooner than Piaget thought. d) Piaget was incorrect; young children can apply other people’s perspectives to false belief tasks but not to theory of mind tasks. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 336. Four-year-old Lenka’s mother shows her a box of Smarties and asks her if she wants one. When she opens the box, however, Lenka finds the box contains pencils rather than Smarties. When she is asked what her brother Filip will think is in the box, Lenka responds “pencils”. Lenka clearly has no understanding of a) false beliefs. b) conservation. c) theory of mind. d) egocentrism. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 337. A group of children are shown a puppet show involving two puppets. One of the puppets picks up a pretty stone, puts it in a basket that is on a bench and then leaves the puppet stage without the basket. While the first puppet is gone, the second one takes the stone out of the basket and puts it in a little red box. The children are then asked, “When the first puppet returns, where will he look for the pretty stone?” This is an example of a _____________ task and is used to examine _____________. a) appearance versus reality; theory of mind b) imaginary fable; theory of mind c) violation-of expectation; theory of mind d) false-beliefs; theory of mind Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood

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338. The Smarties task is designed to test a child’s understanding of ___. a) conservation b) object permanence c) false beliefs d) personal fable Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 339. The gap between what children can accomplish by themselves and what they can accomplish with the help of others is called ___, according to Vygotsky. a) scaffolding b) the zone of proximal development c) reciprocal determinism d) conservation Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 340. According to Vygotsky's theory on cognitive development, as children enter the zone of proximal development, they are increasing able to carry out which type of task? a) A task that the child can complete and practice by himself. b) A task that the child can complete, but only with guidance. c) A task that can be attempted, but not completed, even with guidance. d) The type of task does not matter to development as much as the social context in which the task is being practiced. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood

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341. Who developed the idea of the zone of proximal development? a) Erikson b) Piaget c) Vygotsky d) Ainsworth Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 342. A biologically-based tendency to respond to certain situations in similar ways throughout childhood is the definition of a) cognition. b) genotype. c) temperament. d) disposition. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 343. Which of the following statements about temperament is NOT true? a) Temperament develops from experience with the environment. b) Approximately one-third of the children studied by Thomas and Chess did not fall into one of the three temperament styles. c) Although temperament is generally stable over time, there is variability from time to time. d) Social experience can influence temperament. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 344. When Kagan suggested that temperament is inborn, he argued that a) temperament is present at birth and remains consistent across the lifespan. b) temperament is determined in part, by individual differences in arousal of the amygdala. c) temperament is caused by parenting styles.

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d) temperament is learned by the child through observation of their parents. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 345. Personality is to ___ as temperament is to ___. a) acquired; genetic b) genetic; acquired c) adolescents; young adults d) infants; adolescents Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 346. Acquired is to ___ as genetic is to ___. a) personality; attachment b) attachment; personality c) temperament; personality d) personality; temperament Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 347. Which of the following is NOT one of Thomas and Chess’ temperament categories? a) easy b) difficult c) slow-to-warm-up d) anxious Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

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Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 348. Giada tells you that her infant daughter is irritable and responds very negatively and intensely to change. Based only on this information, what type of temperament would you predict Giada’s daughter has? a) easy b) difficult c) slow-to-warm-up d) unique Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 349. Scarlett’s infant son sleeps well and is good-natured but is quite cautious when presented with a new situation. What type of temperament would you predict Scarlett’s son has? a) easy b) difficult c) slow-to-warm-up d) unique Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 350. Adalyn has brought her infant son, Landon, to the pediatrician. She is concerned because Landon does not seem to be as active or responsive as he should be. He also seems to withdraw with concern whenever he is in a novel situation. What type of temperament would you predict Landon has? a) easy b) difficult c) slow-to-warm-up d) unique Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 351. When Kyla first started taking her nine-month-old son, Grant, to playgroup, he would cry and move away from the other children. Instead, he would cling to Kyla for the entire session. Now, after two months of attending the same play group, Grant no longer cries and plays happily on the floor with the other children. Thomas and Chess would describe Grant as a ___________________ baby. a) easy b) difficult c) slow-to-warm-up d) unique Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 352. Gino is generally irritable. His bedtime and eating routines are unpredictable. When he is unhappy, he cries for long periods of time and it is challenging to calm him down. He intensely resists new food and situations. Thomas and Chess would classify Gino‘s temperament as a) easy. b) slow-to-warm up. c) difficult. d) unique. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 353. Which of the following best reflects Kagan’s research about temperament? a) Temperament is inborn and consistent across situations and time. b) Temperament is inborn but is not consistent across situations and time. c) Temperament is not inborn but, once established, is consistent across situations and time. d) Temperament is not inborn and is not consistent across situations and time. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy

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Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 354. Anja is two months old and has been a joy for her parents. She is a good eater and sleeper, and she seems to have a regular routine. According to Thomas and Chess, what kind of temperament does Anja have? a) easy b) difficult c) slow-to-warm-up d) unique Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 355. Pablo is four months old and is very irritable. He is not a good sleeper, nor does he eat well, and he is extremely fussy. Any deviation from his normal routine causes him to become inconsolable. According to Thomas and Chess, what kind of temperament does Pablo have? a) easy b) difficult c) slow-to-warm-up d) unique Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 356. The temperamental tendency to withdraw from new or different situations is called a) borderline personality disorder. b) social anxiety. c) behavioural inhibition. d) unique temperament. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 357. Two-year-old Kiesha is withdrawn and anxious when she accompanies her mother to a coffee shop where people with whom she is unfamiliar speak to her and stroke her hair and pat her shoulder. Kiesha turns her head into her mother’s shoulder and refuses to look at any of her mother’s friends until finally her mother has to take her home. Kagan would say that Kiesha’s temperament would probably be classified as a) difficult. b) behaviourally inhibited. c) unique. d) slow-to-warm up. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 358. One of the first researchers to challenge Freud’s theory that feeding formed the basis of the mother-infant relationship was ___. a) Bowlby b) Harlow c) Ainsworth d) Vygotsky Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 359. A close, emotional bond of affection that develops between infants and their caregivers is known as ___. a) separation anxiety b) easy temperament c) attachment d) secure temperament Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

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Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 360. In early childhood, attachment can be described as the a) social interaction between infant and others. b) response of the child to the adults providing care. c) innate ability of infants to elicit caretaking. d) enduring emotional connection an infant has for a caregiver. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 261. Harlow reared rhesus monkeys with a wire “mother” with food or a soft, terry cloth “mother” without food spent most of its time with the soft “mother”. For Harlow, this finding illustrated ___. a) food is the key element in forming attachment with a caregiver b) contact is the key element in forming attachment with a caregiver c) infant monkeys do not truly form attachments to caregivers the way humans do d) the infant monkeys could only develop an attachment if they overcame the challenge of figuring out which “mother” had food Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 262. The key finding with Harlow and Zimmerman’s (1959) experiment was that a) attachment between mother and infant occurs in the first year of life. b) food is the motivating factor in an infant’s development of attachment. c) attachment is formed when the infant is rewarded for seeking the mother’s attention. d) attachment arises out of the need for comfort and security. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood

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363. Which theorist suggested that children develop internal working models of the world and themselves when they experience early attachment? a) Bowlby b) Ainsworth c) Piaget d) Wynn Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 364. According to Bowlby, infants who have strong attachments to their parents are most likely to a) show independence. b) form attachments to other people. c) feel safe. d) show neediness and dependence. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 365. Which of the following people created the “Strange Situation” paradigm to examine the relationship between attachment styles and babies’ abilities to cope with stressful situations? a) Piaget b) Ainsworth c) Bowlby d) Erikson Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 366. According to Ainsworth’s and Main’s research into attachment styles, the majority of infants’ show a(n) ___ attachment style.

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a) anxious/ambivalent b) secure c) anxious/avoidant d) insecure Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 367. How would an anxious/avoidant attached infant react in the Strange Situation procedure? a) The infant would treat the mother as a base and explore the room; the infant would get upset when the mother left but would be happy upon her return. b) The infant would not respond to the mother; the infant would not respond when the mother left or returned. c) The infant would react strongly when the mother left and show mixed emotions when she returns. d) The infant would look dazed and confused when the mother returns. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 368. How would a disorganized/disoriented attached infant react in the Strange Situation procedure? a) The infant would treat the mother as a base and explore the room; the infant would get upset when the mother left but would be happy upon her return. b) The infant would not respond to the mother; the infant would not respond when the mother left or returned. c) The infant would react strongly when the mother left and show mixed emotions when she returns. d) The infant would look dazed and confused when the mother returns. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood

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369. In the Strange Situation paradigm an infant who is anxious/avoidant will frequently ________ when the mother returns. a) show little emotion b) seem happy c) seem confused d) seem upset Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 370. Jamal is 8 months old. His mother leaves the room and leaves Jamal with another person for a few minutes. Jamal reacts strongly when his mother leaves the room, and when she returns, he goes to her, but then squirms to get away. Which of the following attachment styles describes Jamal? a) securely attached b) anxious/avoidant c) anxious/ambivalent d) disorganized/disoriented Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 371. Eleven-month-old Evan is in a room with his mother. When she gets up and leaves Evan with a stranger, he becomes extremely upset. When she returns, he initially reaches up his arms for her to pick him up, but almost immediately after she does, he struggles to be put down. According to Ainsworth, Evan is showing signs of _____________ attachment. a) secure b) anxious/ambivalent c) anxious/avoidant d) disorganized/disoriented Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood

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372. Which of the following infants shows a secure attachment style in the “Strange Situation” procedure? a) Liam, who is happy to see his mother when she returns b) Ming-Wa, who is indifferent when her mother returns c) Franco, who shows mixed emotions when his mother returns d) Kathy, who appears dazed and confused when her mother returns Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 373. Which of the following infants shows a secure attachment style in the “Strange Situation” procedure? a) Zarah, who cries when her mother leaves but is easily comforted upon her return b) Giovanni, who show little reaction when his mother leaves and ignores her when she returns c) Nina, who cries hysterically when her mother leaves, rushes to her to be picked up when she returns, and then pinches her to until she is put back down d) Timothy, who appears dazed and confused throughout his time in the procedure Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 374. Pia is bragging to all her friends at work about how good her 1-year old baby is. She said that when she dropped him off at daycare for the first time, he didn’t even cry or seem to notice that she was gone and that when she returned to pick him up at the end of the day he didn’t even care that she was there. He was so good! What kind of attachment style does it look like Pia has with her infant? a) secure b) anxious/resistant c) anxious/avoidant d) disorganized/disoriented Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood

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375. One-year-old Leyla is sitting on the floor playing with a toy while her mother sits nearby. Leyla seldom looks to see where her mother is and. In fact, when her mother gets up and leaves her with a stranger, Leyla does not seem to notice. Instead, she continues to play with the toy and does not even acknowledge when her mother returns. According to Ainsworth, Leyla is showing signs of ________________ attachment. a) anxious/ambivalent b) anxious/avoidant c) disorganized/disoriented d) insecure Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 376. Most infants who are securely attached will grow up to have ________ adult relationships. a) successful b) sensitive c) avoidant d) ambivalent Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 377. The Q-sort approach to determining attachment style a) determined an attachment quotient for children instead of categorizing them into groups. b) categorized infant attachment styles according to the age of the child. c) categorized attachment styles according to the frequency of behaviours. d) categorized attachment style by gender and degrees of security. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood

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378. The benefit of the Q-sort approach to determining attachment style is a) It can identify which children may need support. b) It can be administered to groups of children rather than one at a time. c) It does not use the Strange Situation, so it is not artificial. d) It can predict future criminal behaviour. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 379. Erik Erikson developed a ___ stage theory of development. a) psychosexual b) cognitive c) psychosocial d) identity Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 380. Erik Erikson argues that individuals needed to develop ___ at each of ___ stages of development over the lifespan a) conscious identity; 10 b) psychosocial strengths; 8 c) lifework abilities; 6 d) psychosexual beliefs; 5 Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 381. According to Erikson, what happens if we do not reach successful resolution of the conflict facing us at a given stage of psychosocial development? a) We may find it more difficult to successfully resolve subsequent stages. b) We stay at that stage until it is resolved. c) We start over at the first stage.

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d) We skip a stage. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 382. Suppose someone does not successfully resolve the conflict that faced them at a given stage of psychosocial development. According to Erikson, what happens to that person? a) They may find it more difficult to successfully resolve subsequent stages. b) They stay at that stage until it is resolved. c) They start over at the first stage. d) They skip a stage. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 383. One-year old Luka believes that others can be counted on to meet his needs and desires. Erikson would say that this means that Luka has developed a sense of a) initiative. b) autonomy. c) industry. d) trust. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 384. Given his unresponsive and insensitive parenting experiences to date, one-year old Jayden has come to view the world and those in it as unreliable, unpredictable, and inconsistent. Erikson would say that this means that Jayden has developed a sense of a) guilt. b) shame and doubt. c) inferiority. d) mistrust.

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Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 385. Erikson would argue that harsh or inconsistent parenting leads to a sense of a) inferiority. b) guilt. c) shame and doubt. d) mistrust. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 386. Erikson would argue that children who successfully act on and express their own desires develop a sense of a) initiative. b) autonomy. c) industry. d) trust. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 387. To avoid feeling unproductive, elementary-aged children must develop new, useful skills and try them out. This represents which stage of Erikson's psychosocial model? a) industry versus inferiority b) initiative versus guilt c) autonomy versus shame d) generativity versus stagnation Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 388. How does Erikson’s trust versus mistrust stage of psychosocial development differ from the autonomy versus shame stage? a) Trust versus mistrust centers on forging a connection with caregivers and autonomy versus shame centers on leveraging that connection to become independent. b) Trust versus mistrust centers on building a positive, intimate relationship with others and autonomy versus shame centers on developing as an individual inside that relationship. c) Trust versus mistrust centers on learning to trust personal judgments as valid and autonomy versus shame centers on being proud of and accepting responsibility for those judgments. d) Trust versus mistrust centers on relying on others to consider your best interests as well as their own and autonomy versus shame centers on learning not to take advantage of that consideration. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 389. Three-year old Jie’s parents constantly criticized his efforts at helping, telling him he was “too small” and that he was “in the way” and that he was wrong. Whenever Jie made an error, it was pointed out and he was censured. Erikson would say that Jie is in danger of developing a sense of a) inferiority. b) guilt. c) shame and doubt. d) mistrust. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 390. Three-year old Nadia’s parents praise her for her efforts at helping and point out how grown up she is in comparison to her baby sister. Erikson would say that Nadia will develop a sense of a) inferiority. b) guilt. c) shame and doubt. d) mistrust.

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Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 391. Based on research findings, which of the following children would likely be least negatively affected by an authoritarian parenting style? a) Jing-Mae who lives in Beijing b) Melanie, who lives in Florida c) Chico, who in Mexico City d) Richard, who lives in Paris Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 392. George does NOT allow any “backtalk” from his children. He expects them to do as they are told. George’s parenting style is a) authoritative. b) punitive. c) permissive. d) authoritarian. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 393. Donnie’s parents set very few rules. He can pretty much do what he wants if he is safe and his grades do NOT suffer. Whenever Donnie has a sports tournament, his parents are always there to cheer for him. Reggie is on Donnie’s soccer team, and he also has very few rules at home. However, his parents have never once come to his sports games and do NOT attend parent-teacher interviews or show any interest in Reggie's grades. What parenting styles are being described here? a) Donnie’s parents are permissive, while Reggie’s parents are uninvolved. b) Reggie’s parents are permissive, while Donnie’s parents are uninvolved. c) Both Reggie and Donnie’s parents are permissive.

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d) Both Reggie and Donnie’s parents are uninvolved. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 394. Delilah has very little time for her young children. She works two jobs, and when she is home, she just wants to do her own thing and be left alone, leaving her children to fend for themselves. Given Delilah’s parenting style, how are her children likely to turn out when they grow up? a) high self-esteem and social maturity b) low self-esteem and aggressive c) anxious and antisocial d) impulsive and low initiative Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 395. Vivian is the type of parent who is very warm and loving with her kids. She allows them to do whatever they want, whenever they want, just as she likes to live her own life. How are Vivian’s children likely to turn out given her parenting style? a) high self-esteem and social maturity b) low self-esteem and aggressive c) anxious and antisocial d) impulsive and low initiative Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 396. Kaeden is a 10-year old boy who is extremely hyperactive. His rambunctious behaviours have often led to injuries to both himself and his younger sister, as well as damage to the household furniture. According to reciprocal socialization, what type of parenting style would Kaeden’s parents probably use? a) authoritative

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b) authoritarian c) permissive d) uninvolved Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 397. Four-year-old Alana has just asked her mother for a snack. Her mother scolds her for asking when they are still a half hour away from snack time. Her mother also comments that Alana is always whining for one thing or another. Alana’s mother is exhibiting a(n) _________________ parenting style. a) authoritative b) authoritarian c) permissive d) uninvolved Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 398. Children raised by ___ parents tend to be unhappy, have low self-esteem, and are often angry and aggressive. a) authoritative b) authoritarian c) uninvolved d) permissive Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 399. Children raised by ___ parents tend to be anxious and have poor communication skills. a) authoritative b) authoritarian

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c) uninvolved d) permissive Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 400. Which type of parenting style typically results in the highest-achieving children? a) Authoritative b) Permissive c) Authoritarian d) Uninvolved Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 401.. Which of the following situations is most likely to occur in a household where the parents are authoritative? a) Janet is 10. She is expected to get up when her alarm goes off, dress herself, make her bed, and eat breakfast before going to school. b) Hector is 10. When he gets into a fight with another child at school, he is sent to bed with no dinner and grounded for two weeks. c) Sarah is 10. Her parents allow her to do whatever she wants if she does not get into trouble. d) Nicholas is 10. His parents do not help him with his homework and let him eat dinner in front of the TV. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 402. Which of the following young children is MOST likely to seek intimate, affectionate relationships during adulthood? a) Finn’s mom likes to hug and cuddle Finn. When she leaves the room, Finn shows moderate signs of distress that disappear as soon as mom comes back. b) Blake’s mom expects Blake to entertain herself. When she leaves the room, Blake gets very

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upset and does not stop fussing when mom returns. c) Angelo’s mom wants him to be independent and scolds Angelo when he clings to her. When she leaves the room, Ian is unconcerned and is equally unconcerned when mom returns. d) Mabel’s mom sometimes shows her affection and ignores her at other times. When she leaves the room, Mabel seems confused and is apprehensive when mom returns. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 403. Ervin is self-confident, cooperative, and has strong social skills. Which of the following parenting styles did Ervin’s parents most likely use? a) authoritarian b) authoritative c) permissive d) uninvolved d) overindulgent Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 404. Parents who are emotionally detached and have little time or affection for their children demonstrate a parenting style known as a) permissive. b) authoritarian. c) uninvolved. d) authoritative. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 405. Miranda showered her children with affection but set few limits for them. Miranda is demonstrating which type of parenting style? a) permissive

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b) authoritarian c) uninvolved d) authoritative Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 406. Which of the following is true of parenting styles? a) Mothers are much more nurturing with children, while fathers are much more physically oriented. b) Mothers are more likely to indulge their children, and fathers are more likely to impose discipline. c) Mothers have an edge in caring for children because of the maternal instinct. d) Parenting styles of mothers and fathers are largely equivalent. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 407. The United Nation’s Children’s Fund found that Canada had achieved _____ of _____ benchmarks of quality in childcare and early learning. a) 1; 10 b) 1; 20 c) 5; 10 d) 10; 20 Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 408. Ivan can engage in abstract thought. Which stage of cognitive development is Ivan in, according to Piaget? a) concrete operational b) formal operational c) postconventional

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d) conventional Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional changes that take place during adolescence. Section Reference: Adolescence 409. Cayden has developed an increased capacity for reasoning about abstract things such as, geometry or moral situations. Which stage of cognitive development is Cayden in, according to Piaget? a) concrete operational b) formal operational c) postconventional d) conventional Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional changes that take place during adolescence. Section Reference: Adolescence 410. The development of primary and secondary sex characteristics is referred to as a) puberty. b) maturity. c) the growth spurt. d) adolescence. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional changes that take place during adolescence. Section Reference: Adolescence 411. Which gland controls the onset of puberty? a) pituitary b) adrenal c) ovaries d) endocrine Answer: a

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional changes that take place during adolescence. Section Reference: Adolescence 412. The growth spurt that typically occurs at puberty is triggered specifically by the a) thyroid gland. b) adrenal glands. c) pituitary gland. d) endocrine system. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional changes that take place during adolescence. Section Reference: Adolescence 413. What is the difference between primary and secondary sex characteristics? a) The primary sex characteristics mature first, and the secondary sex characteristics mature second. b) The primary sex characteristics are directly involved in reproduction and the secondary are not. c) The primary sex characteristics evolved first, and the secondary sex characteristics evolved later. d) The primary sex characteristics are the changes that occur in the early stages of puberty and the secondary sex characteristics are the changes that occur in the later stages of puberty. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional changes that take place during adolescence. Section Reference: Adolescence 414. The difference between primary and secondary sex characteristics is that primary sex characteristics ___ and secondary sex characteristics ___. a) mature first; mature second b) are directly involved in reproduction; aren’t c) evolved first; evolved later d) are the changes that occur in the initial stages of puberty; are the changes that Answer: b Difficulty: Easy

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Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional changes that take place during adolescence. Section Reference: Adolescence 415. Which of the following is NOT a secondary sex characteristic? a) increase in breast size b) larynx enlargement c) growth of the ovaries d) pubic hair growth Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional changes that take place during adolescence. Section Reference: Adolescence 416. Fern is going through puberty and noticing many changes in her body. Which of the following changes is a primary sex characteristic? a) Fern’s ovaries are maturing. b) Fern has begun menstruating. c) Fern’s breasts are developing. d) none of the above Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional changes that take place during adolescence. Section Reference: Adolescence 417. Adam is going through puberty and noticing many changes in his body. Which of the following changes is a primary sex characteristic? a) Adam’s voice is getting deeper. b) Adam’s testicles are growing. c) Adam is growing hair on his underarms, chest, stomach, and groin. d) none of the above Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional changes that take place during adolescence. Section Reference: Adolescence

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418. Which of the following is true about those who hit puberty either early or late, as compared to those who hit puberty “on time”? a) Problems tend to occur most often for girls who mature early and boys who mature early. b) Problems tend to occur most often for girls who mature late and boys who mature late. c) Problems tend to occur most often for girls who mature early and boys who mature late. d) Problems tend to occur most often for girls who mature late and boys who mature early. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional changes that take place during adolescence. Section Reference: Adolescence 419. Which of the following is accurate regarding the timing of the onset of puberty? a) The range for the onset of puberty is so large, it is difficult to determine the effects of the timing of the onset of puberty. b) Girls who physically mature early are often more socially mature as well. c) Boys who enter puberty later are more athletic than those who enter puberty early. d) Girls who mature early and boys who mature late have more problems transitioning through adolescence. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional changes that take place during adolescence. Section Reference: Adolescence 420. With respect to the timing of puberty, who would have the most difficulty making the transition through adolescence? a) a female who develops late b) a male who develops early c) a female who develops on time d) a male who develops late Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional changes that take place during adolescence. Section Reference: Adolescence

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421. With respect to the timing of puberty, a ___ who develops ___ would have the most difficult time making the transition through adolescence. a) female; late b) male; early c) female; on time d) male; late Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional changes that take place during adolescence. Section Reference: Adolescence 422. Which of the following teenagers would most likely have a difficult time transitioning into adolescence? a) Sherrie, who went through puberty later than her peers b) Meiki, who went through puberty earlier than her peers c) Laska, who went through puberty earlier than his peers d) Bertram, who went through puberty when most of his peers were going through it Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional changes that take place during adolescence. Section Reference: Adolescence 423. The timing of puberty can make the transition into adolescence especially difficult for some teenagers. Which of the following teenagers would have the most difficult time with this transition? a) Kerrie, who went through puberty later than her peers b) Terri, who went through puberty earlier than her peers c) Harry, who went through puberty earlier than his peers d) Jerry, who went through puberty when most of his peers were going through it Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional changes that take place during adolescence. Section Reference: Adolescence 424. Sixteen-year-old Brady has not yet had a growth spurt so is much shorter than the other boys in his class. Additionally, his voice has not yet begun to change. His best friend, Gary, on

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the other hand, had his voice deepen when he was twelve, and started shaving around the age of 15. Which of the following would you hypothesize about Brady and Gary’s transition through adolescence? a) Brady would report fewer problems making the transition than Gary. b) Brady would show more self-confidence than Gary. c) Gary would report more difficulties in transitioning initially, but this would stabilize very quickly. Brady would report few problems. d) Brady would report more problems transitioning through adolescence than Gary. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional changes that take place during adolescence. Section Reference: Adolescence 425. Why do teenagers tend to show impulsive behaviour and lack of attention to the outcome of their actions? a) They just live in the moment. b) They just do whatever their peers are doing. c) It is part of experimenting and learning from the environment. d) They lack a fully functional prefrontal cortex. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional changes that take place during adolescence. Section Reference: Adolescence 426. What causes adolescents to act impulsively and fail to consider the consequences of their actions? a) They live in the moment. b) They do whatever their peers are doing. c) It is part of experimenting and learning from the environment. d) They lack a fully functional prefrontal cortex. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional changes that take place during adolescence. Section Reference: Adolescence 427. The prefrontal cortex is responsible, in part, for judgment and decision making. At what

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point is development of this important brain region complete? a) between the ages of 12 to 16 b) mid- to late-teens c) early to mid-twenties d) end of the preschool period around ages 4 - 5 Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional changes that take place during adolescence. Section Reference: Adolescence 428. After drinking a quart of rum, sixteen-year old Brady and his friends thought it would be fun to “borrow” Brady’s father’s car and take it for a drive. Brady realized his bad decision when he missed a turn and put the car in the ditch. Which of the following best explains Brady’s poor decision making? a) peer pressure b) development of Brady’s prefrontal cortex is incomplete c) alcohol has affected Brady’s judgment d) both peer pressure and the incomplete development of Brady’s prefrontal cortex. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional changes that take place during adolescence. Section Reference: Adolescence 429. Sixteen-year old Alice knew that having unprotected sex put her at risk for diseases and pregnancy but allowed her boyfriend to talk her into engaging in unprotected sex anyway. Which of the following best explains Alice’s poor decision making? a) peer pressure b) development of Brady’s prefrontal cortex is incomplete c) alcohol has affected Brady’s judgment d) both peer pressure and the incomplete development of Brady’s prefrontal cortex. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional changes that take place during adolescence. Section Reference: Adolescence 430. Wesley is with his friends and thinks it would be fun to throw a brick through the police

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station window and then run. What part of Wesley’s brain needs further development for him to make better decisions about the future? a) the visual cortex b) the parietal lobe c) the amygdala d) the prefrontal cortex Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional changes that take place during adolescence. Section Reference: Adolescence 431. Charlotte’s grandmother gave her a sweater for her birthday that Charlotte really does not like. Although she has managed to avoid wearing it, now her mother is pushing her to wear it to school. “But Mom! Everyone will laugh!” responds Charlotte. Charlotte’s outburst illustrates Elkind’s concept of the ___. a) personal fable b) imaginary audience c) illusion of vulnerability d) adolescent identity deficit Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional changes that take place during adolescence. Section Reference: Adolescence 432. Sixteen-year-old Crystal spends almost two hours getting ready for school in the morning making sure her hair and make-up are perfect. When her mother urges Crystal to hurry or she will miss the bus, Crystal responds by saying that if she goes to school with messy hair, everyone will talk about her. Crystal’s response illustrates Elkind’s concept of the ___. a) personal fable b) imaginary audience c) illusion of invulnerability d) ideation of peers Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional changes that take place during adolescence. Section Reference: Adolescence

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433. If Enrique is showing signs of the personal fable, which of the following statements might he have uttered? a) “Why is everyone staring at me all the time?” b) “No one knows what I’m feeling.” c) “I am a great driver; no one will catch me drinking and driving.” d) “I feel like I’m being scrutinized.” Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional changes that take place during adolescence. Section Reference: Adolescence 444.If Chad is showing signs of the personal fable, which of the following statements might he have said? a) “I feel like I’m under a microscope.” b) “No one understands what I’m feeling.” c) “I’m not worried that bad things will happen to me.” d) “Why are people looking at me at all the time?” Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional changes that take place during adolescence. Section Reference: Adolescence 445. Which of the following individuals is demonstrating a belief in the imaginary audience? a) Harry, who does not think his parents understand how in love he is with his girlfriend b) Isabella, who drinks and drives thinking that she will not get caught c) Youssef, who is very self-conscious and thinks that everyone is scrutinizing him all the time d) Ben, who dances with his hands in the air like he just doesn’t care Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional changes that take place during adolescence. Section Reference: Adolescence 446. Which of the following individuals is demonstrating belief in the imaginary audience? a) Sean, who steals from stores thinking that he will not get caught b) Alberto, who does not believe his parents ever felt the depth of love that he feels for his

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girlfriend c) Oscar, who feels like people stare at him all the time and it makes him very self-conscious d) Harraz, who dances with his hands in the air like he just does not care Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional changes that take place during adolescence. Section Reference: Adolescence 447. Tiffany is 15. She estimates that by the time she is 30, she will discover an invention, and become a millionaire. Which of the following best describes what reason Elkind would give for Tiffany’s belief? a) Tiffany’s prefrontal cortex is going through a process of synaptic pruning. b) Tiffany is experiencing the concept of the imaginary audience. c) Tiffany is experiencing the concept of the personal fable. d) Tiffany is going through the stage of formal operations. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional changes that take place during adolescence. Section Reference: Adolescence 448. Seventeen-year-old Jeremy engaged in unprotected sex, abused drugs and alcohol, drove dangerously fast and participated in risky sports such as mountain climbing (where he failed to address even basic safety measures). He laughingly told his friends, "You only live once, right?" But deep-down Jeremy felt that nothing would happen to him. Elkind referred to this belief that a person is an exception to the risks that others face is called a) the imaginary audience. b) the personal fable. c) primary egocentrism. d) secondary egocentrism. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional changes that take place during adolescence. Section Reference: Adolescence 449. Which feature of adolescent egocentrism causes the teenager to feel like they are on stage and that everyone is scrutinizing them all the time?

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a) personal fable b) feelings of uniqueness c) imaginary audience d) belief of invincibility Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional changes that take place during adolescence. Section Reference: Adolescence 450. Which feature of adolescent egocentrism leads the teenager to feel like they are under a microscope being carefully examined and inspected by everyone around them? a) personal fable b) feelings of uniqueness c) imaginary audience d) belief of invincibility Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional changes that take place during adolescence. Section Reference: Adolescence 451. A high school student, John, believes he has a pimple and when his parents try to console him, he says, "This pimple is so gross. You CANNOT understand what I am going through. The whole class is going to make fun of me". John is exhibiting signs of which two concepts? a) John is exhibiting an imaginary audience and a personal fable; both are associated with adolescent egocentrism. b) John is exhibiting a personal fable associated with adolescent egocentrism, and reversibility associated with his understanding of other’s feelings. c) John is exhibiting an imaginary audience associated with adolescent egocentrism, and reversibility associated with his understanding of others' feelings. d) John is exhibiting animism, understanding the pimple as alive, and an imaginary audience associated with adolescent egocentrism. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional changes that take place during adolescence. Section Reference: Adolescence

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452. Which statement BEST characterizes why adolescents are more likely to engage in risky behavior than are younger children? a) Adolescents are influenced by the personal fable. b) Younger children are less interested in engaging in risky behaviour. c) Adolescents are influenced by the imaginary audience. d) Both groups are equally likely to engage in risky behaviour. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional changes that take place during adolescence. Section Reference: Adolescence 453. What researcher expanded the theories of Piaget to focus on moral development? a) Gilligan b) Lorenz c) Kohlberg d) Skinner Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional changes that take place during adolescence. Section Reference: Adolescence 454. According to Kohlberg, moral development is related to cognitive development primarily because a) it develops along the same track as intelligence. b) developing more complex moral development is related to understanding other peoples’ points of view. c) the development of both occurs at different paces across diverse cultures. d) it is the result of a sensitive period of learning. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional changes that take place during adolescence. Section Reference: Adolescence 455. In which stage of moral development would Kohlberg argue that the person is behaving in a way that avoids others’ disapproval and ensures that they conform to the rules of society? a) preconventional

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b) conventional c) postconventional d) unconventional Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional changes that take place during adolescence. Section Reference: Adolescence 456. In which stage of moral development would Kohlberg argue that the person is behaving in a way that centres around what they can get away with? a) preconventional b) conventional c) postconventional d) unconventional Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional changes that take place during adolescence. Section Reference: Adolescence 457. It is three o’clock in the morning and you pull up to a red light. You decide about whether to go through the light. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? a) No, I do not want a ticket: preconventional. b) No, I might startle another driver: preconventional. c) Yes, lights are there to regulate traffic, but there is no traffic: postconventional. d) Yes, I am tired, and I want to go home: postconventional. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional changes that take place during adolescence. Section Reference: Adolescence 458. Christina wants to get a good grade on her exams so that she can get into university. She is deciding whether to cheat and look at a classmate’s paper, but she decides not to because she would rather earn her results honestly and know that she genuinely earned her spot and does not want to take a spot from someone else by cheating. Which stage of moral development is Christina at? a) conventional b) postconventional

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c) preconventional d) It is impossible to specify the level based on the information given. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional changes that take place during adolescence. Section Reference: Adolescence 459. In Kohlberg's postconventional level of moral development, a person a) defines "right" and "wrong" personally and devises abstract moral values that are universal, and this can be applied in innovative ways to protect human rights. b) has standards for "right" that are deeply embedded in the societal laws. c) may show inflexibility for the moral standards achieved, finding it difficult to adjust a critique of behavior that occurred some time ago. d) judges their actions and the actions of others based on the values and beliefs of the majority. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional changes that take place during adolescence. Section Reference: Adolescence 460. Jason and Julia arrive home from school and are trying to decide whether they should have a cookie. Jason says, “Mom didn’t give us permission and we might get caught.” Julie responds, “I think it will be OK as long as we don’t make a mess, because we are still three hours from dinnertime.” Jason is at the ___ stage of moral reasoning, and Julia is at the ___ stage. a) preconventional; preconventional b) conventional; conventional c) conventional; preconventional d) preconventional; conventional Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional changes that take place during adolescence. Section Reference: Adolescence 461. Warren is a taxi driver and is suddenly flagged down by a heavily pregnant woman who is holding her abdomen. He stops, and she slowly moves over and climbs into the backseat. Suddenly she screams in pain, and then tells him to speed to the hospital. If Warren is in

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Kohlberg’s preconventional stage of moral development, what is he likely to say? a) “I can’t do that; I’ll get a speeding ticket.” b) “Of course. I wouldn’t want you to think that I’m a bad taxi driver.” c) “I’m sorry, but I can’t because speeding is against the law. Let me call you an ambulance.” d) “Of course. Your welfare is much more valuable than speed limits.” Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional changes that take place during adolescence. Section Reference: Adolescence 462. Which theorist claimed that Kohlberg’s results indicated that girls were less morally developed than boys? a) Skinner b) Piaget c) Vygotsky d) Gilligan Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional changes that take place during adolescence. Section Reference: Adolescence 463. According to Carol Gilligan, Kohlberg’s assumption that the moral reasoning of girls is less well-developed than that of boys was faulty because a) the moral reasoning of girls is oriented towards relationships rather than abstract principles. b) Kohlberg’s original moral dilemma was gender-biased. c) most of our laws were written by men. d) Kohlberg’s studies did not include any girls. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional changes that take place during adolescence. Section Reference: Adolescence 464. How did Gilligan reinterpret Kohlberg’s findings on moral development? a) She argued that children of younger ages than Kohlberg thought are capable of advanced moral reasoning. b) She posited that each of Kohlberg’s stages of moral development be further subdivided into

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two stages. c) She believed that males and females are equally sophisticated in their moral reasoning. d) She suggested that in reality, no one reaches Kohlberg’s final stage of moral development. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional changes that take place during adolescence. Section Reference: Adolescence 465. Not everyone agreed with Kohlberg’s interpretation of his data on moral development. For example, Gilligan argued that a) children of younger ages than Kohlberg thought are capable of advanced moral reasoning. b) each of Kohlberg's stages of moral development be further subdivided into two stages. c) males and females are equally sophisticated in their moral reasoning. d) in reality, no one reaches Kohlberg’s final stage of moral development. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional changes that take place during adolescence. Section Reference: Adolescence 466. Most researchers believe that the difference in scores on Kohlberg’s scale between collectivist cultures and individualistic cultures is a result of a) greater industrial development in individualistic cultures. b) intense pressures towards conformity in individualistic cultures. c) the tendency for individual cultures to have democracies for governments. d) differences in the kind of moral problems faced by people in diverse cultures. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional changes that take place during adolescence. Section Reference: Adolescence 467. Which of the following is true about the relationship between moral reasoning (attitudes) and actual behaviour? a) They are closely related for women, but not for men. b) Moral attitudes do an excellent job of predicting behaviour. c) Moral attitudes do a poor job of predicting moral behaviour. d) They are closely related for collectivist cultures, but not individualistic cultures.

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Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional changes that take place during adolescence. Section Reference: Adolescence 468. Whitney is struggling to figure out who she is and is asking herself tough questions about what is important to her and what she wants to do with her life. According to Erik Erikson, what stage of psychosocial development is Whitney in? a) initiative versus guilt b) industry versus inferiority c) intimacy versus isolation d) identity versus role confusion Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional changes that take place during adolescence. Section Reference: Adolescence 469. Farley is trying to work out who he is and is asking himself soul-searching questions about what really matters to him and what he wants out of life. According to Erikson, what stage of psychosocial development is Farley most likely in? a) initiative versus guilt b) industry versus inferiority c) intimacy versus isolation d) identity versus role confusion Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional changes that take place during adolescence. Section Reference: Adolescence 470. According to Erikson, what is the difference in psychosocial development between early adults and middle adults? a) Early adults are focused on building self-esteem and middle adults are focused on contributing to the next generation. b) Early adults are focused on identity and middle adults are focused on career achievements. c) Early adults are focused on career achievements and middle adults are focused on love relationships.

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d) Early adults are focused on love relationships and middle adults are focused on contributing to the next generation. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional changes that take place during adolescence. Section Reference: Adulthood 471. According to Erikson, the difference in psychosocial development between early adults and middle adults is that early adults are focused on ___ and middle adults are focused on ___. a) building self-esteem; contributing to the next generation b) identity; career achievements c) career achievements; love relationships d) love relationships; contributing to the next generation Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the key physical, social, and emotional changes that take place throughout adulthood. Section Reference: Adulthood 472. Jacob is 55. He has taken early retirement and now mostly stays home and watches television. Which of Erikson’s stages is Jacob experiencing? a) integrity vs. despair b) identity vs. role confusion c) industry vs. inferiority d) generativity vs. stagnation (self-absorption) Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional changes that take place during adolescence. Section Reference: Adulthood 473) Juanita has a need to care for younger people through parenting and Douglas invests much of his time and energy into mentoring junior colleagues. Erikson would claim that Juanita and Douglas are each experiencing which of the psychosocial conflicts listed below? a) identity versus role confusion b) intimacy versus isolation c) generativity versus stagnation (self-absorption) d) integrity versus despair

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Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional changes that take place during adolescence. Section Reference: Adulthood 474. Twenty-four-year-old Joseph comes home from work every night and watches television. His co-workers often ask him to go out on social occasions, however, Joseph seems to prefer to be alone. According to Erikson, Joseph has failed to meet the challenge of a) generativity vs. self-absorption. b) intimacy vs. isolation. c) industry vs. inferiority. d) integrity vs. despair. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the key physical, social, and emotional changes that take place throughout adulthood. Section Reference: Adulthood 475. Which of the following are correctly matched? a) James is in a retirement complex. The other residents do not like him because all he does is complain about opportunities lost now that he is no longer in the “prime of life.” James is in the stage of generativity vs stagnation (self-absorption). b) Mrs. Wu is her block’s honorary “grandma.” Her own children are grown, but the neighbourhood children play in her backyard while she bakes them cookies. Mrs. Wu is in the stage of intimacy vs. isolation. c) Marcella is a bit of a recluse. At age 30, she is not married; she lives alone and does not get out much. When she comes home from work, she makes dinner and then watches TV. Marcella is in the stage of ego integrity vs. despair. d) Abdul never had children, but he volunteers along with some of his co-workers at the local food bank, and coach’s hockey. Abdul is in the stage of generativity vs. stagnation (selfabsorption). Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional changes that take place during adolescence. Section Reference: Adulthood 476. Which of the following people is in Erikson’s stage of identity vs. role confusion?

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a) Twenty-two-year-old Ammar is convinced that he has found the girl he wants to marry. b) Eleven-year-old Renata has just joined the chess club at school. c) Eighteen-year-old Fernando has just informed his parents that he is no longer interested in going to church. d) Thirty-two-year-old Brigit has just decided to quit her job and go to graduate school. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional changes that take place during adolescence. Section Reference: Adulthood 477. Greig is 28 years old. According to Erikson, what would Greig’s primary psychosocial conflict be? a) “What should I be when I grow up?” b) “What is important to me as a person?” c) “How can I contribute to future generations?” d) “How can I achieve an intimate and loving relationship with another?” Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the key physical, social, and emotional changes that take place throughout adulthood. Section Reference: Adulthood 478. Andre is 50 years old. According to Erikson, what would Andres’s primary psychosocial conflict be? a) “What should I be when I grow up?” b) “What is important to me as a person?” c) “How can I contribute to future generations?” d) “How can I achieve an intimate and loving relationship with another?” Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the key physical, social, and emotional changes that take place throughout adulthood. Section Reference: Adulthood 479. As we enter late adulthood, we can expect to experience the physical changes of a) a decreased immune system. b) a shrinking brain. c) becoming more nearsighted.

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d) dilated pupils. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the key physical, social, and emotional changes that take place throughout adulthood. Section Reference: Adulthood 480. Which of the following best describes adulthood? a) It is an outcome of earlier periods of development. b) Adulthood is the beginning of a period of decline. c) There are not a lot of developmental changes during adulthood. d) Adulthood is a time of continuing change. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the key physical, social, and emotional changes that take place throughout adulthood. Section Reference: Adulthood 481. Which of the following changes do we see in the brain as we age? a) Overall brain volume decreases. b) Neurogenesis ends at birth. c) The adult brain experiences significant loss of neurons. d) New neurons continue to form in the adult brain. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the key physical, social, and emotional changes that take place throughout adulthood. Section Reference: Adulthood 482. Which of the following facts about changes in the brain as we age is FALSE? a) New neurons continue to form in the adult brain. b) There is no significant loss of neurons in adulthood. c) Loss of neurons with aging is a sign of pathology and is not normal. d) Overall brain volume and weight decreases in adulthood. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension

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Learning Objective: Describe the key physical, social, and emotional changes that take place throughout adulthood. Section Reference: Adulthood 483. Micaela’s elderly aunt believes that she is forgetting things because her brain is shrinking with age. Micaela, a psychology student, laughs at her aunt’s ideas, and retorts her belief with the following piece of evidence a) the adult brain from the age of 40 onwards loses significant numbers of neurons each day. b) we are born with all the neurons we will ever have. c) if the brain is shrinking, it is due to water loss of myelin and not loss of neurons. d) new neurons are formed in certain parts of the brain throughout the lifespan. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the key physical, social, and emotional changes that take place throughout adulthood. Section Reference: Adulthood 484. Yasmine’s grandfather used to be able to recall all sorts of random facts. Now that he is slower to do this, Yasmine’s mother believes that it is since grandpa’s brain is shrinking with age. Yasmine, a psychology student, refutes her mother’s belief with which piece of evidence? a) The adult brain from the age of 40 onwards loses significant numbers of neurons each day. b) We are born with all the neurons we will ever have. c) If the brain is shrinking, it is due to water loss or myelin and not loss of neurons. d) New neurons are formed in certain parts of the brain throughout the lifespan. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the key physical, social, and emotional changes that take place throughout adulthood. Section Reference: Adulthood 485. Which of the following statements is TRUE? a) No significant loss of neurons occurs in adulthood except in cases of brain pathology. b) Gradual decline of neurons throughout the lifespan results in a significant loss of neurons by late adulthood. c) Our ability to solve problems and process information declines in adulthood. d) New learning in adulthood is due to synaptic formation rather than to the formation of new neurons. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Learning Objective: Describe the key physical, social, and emotional changes that take place throughout adulthood. Section Reference: Adulthood 486. Which of the following physical changes is matched with the correct ages? a) 20’s – immune system declines b) 30’s and 40’s – hair begins to grey, skin begins to lose elasticity c) 40’s – women go through menopause d) 60’s and 70’s – individuals start to become farsighted Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the key physical, social, and emotional changes that take place throughout adulthood. Section Reference: Adulthood 487. Which of the following physical changes is NOT matched with the correct ages? a) 20’s – peak physical condition b) 30’s and 40’s – hair begins to grey, skin begins to lose elasticity c) 40’s – women go through menopause d) 40’s – vision and hearing start to decline Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the key physical, social, and emotional changes that take place throughout adulthood. Section Reference: Adulthood 488. Gael is getting ready for work one morning and suddenly notices that the hair around his temples is showing a bit of grey. What age would Gael probably be? a) 30’s or 40’s b) 40’s or 50’s c) 50’s or 60’s d) over 60 Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the key physical, social, and emotional changes that take place throughout adulthood. Section Reference: Adulthood

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489. Joaquin is starting to notice that he is somewhat shorter and thinner than he had been and that he seems especially prone to colds and other viruses. What age would Joaquin probably be? a) 30’s or 40’s b) 40’s or 50’s c) 50’s or 60’s d) over 60 Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the key physical, social, and emotional changes that take place throughout adulthood. Section Reference: Adulthood 490. Lately Natalia has been feeling very moody, has had headaches, and at times becomes so warm she breaks out in a sweat. Natalia is likely ___ and is experiencing ___. a) In her 40’s; menarche b) In her 50’s; menarche c) In her 40’s; menopause d) In her 50’s; menopause Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the key physical, social, and emotional changes that take place throughout adulthood. Section Reference: Adulthood 491. Georgia is 48 years old and is seeing her doctor for some unusual symptoms. She has moments where she gets very hot and sweaty, she feels very moody, and very often she has a headache. What is Georgia’s doctor likely to say is happening to her? a) Her telomeres are failing to replicate. b) She is going through menopause. c) She is showing early signs of dementia. d) Her immune system is malfunctioning. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the key physical, social, and emotional changes that take place throughout adulthood. Section Reference: Adulthood 492. Which of the following is NOT true about people in their 60s and 70s?

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a) They notice a decline in their sensory abilities. b) Their pupils begin to enlarge. c) The immune system begins to decline. d) They typically become thinner. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the key physical, social, and emotional changes that take place throughout adulthood. Section Reference: Adulthood 493. Metabolism begins to first slow at around ages a) 20–30 years. b) 30–40 years. c) 40–50 years. d) 50–60 years. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the key physical, social, and emotional changes that take place throughout adulthood. Section Reference: Adulthood 494. Which of the following statements about aging is FALSE? a) A person in their 50’s and 60’s is just as able to solve problems as a person in their 20’s. b) Long-term memory begins to decline after the age of 40. c) A person in their 60’s and 70’s has less confidence in their ability to remember. d) Language ability begins to decline after age 65. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the key physical, social, and emotional changes that take place throughout adulthood. Section Reference: Adulthood 495. Which of the following statements about dementia is FALSE? a) Dementia is only moderately correlated with age. b) Dementia affects approximately 1 to 2% of people over the age of 65. c) Severe memory problems are characteristic of dementia. d) Dementia usually affects cognitive functions such as abstract thinking or language. Answer: a

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the key physical, social, and emotional changes that take place throughout adulthood. Section Reference: Adulthood 496. Which of the following theories suggests that aging is built into our cells? a) free-radical theory b) wear-and-tear theory c) cellular clock theory d) immunodeficiency theory Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the key physical, social, and emotional changes that take place throughout adulthood. Section Reference: Adulthood 497. Which theory of aging supposes that the more hard-living we expose our bodies to, the sooner our bodies will give out? a) cellular clock theory b) wear-and-tear theory c) stopwatch theory d) free-radical theory Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the key physical, social, and emotional changes that take place throughout adulthood. Section Reference: Adulthood 498. Which theory of aging supposes that we age because our cells have a built-in limit on the number of times they can reproduce? a) cellular clock theory b) wear-and-tear theory c) stopwatch theory d) free-radical theory Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

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Learning Objective: Describe the key physical, social, and emotional changes that take place throughout adulthood. Section Reference: Adulthood 499. Which theory of aging below provides a chemical-oriented explanation? a) wear-and-tear b) free radical c) cellular clock d) use-it-or-lose-it Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the key physical, social, and emotional changes that take place throughout adulthood. Section Reference: Adulthood 500. Gail is a researcher who studies aging. Her latest research investigates how our cells have built-in time limits on their ability to reproduce. What theory of aging is Gail researching? a) free-radical theory b) cellular clock theory c) circadian transition theory d) wear-and-tear theory Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the key physical, social, and emotional changes that take place throughout adulthood. Section Reference: Adulthood 501. Yael is a researcher who studies aging. His latest research investigates how negatively charged oxygen molecules attract electrons from other molecules in our body and cause destabilizing cell structures. What theory of aging is Yael researching? a) free-radical theory b) cellular clock theory c) circadian transition theory d) wear-and-tear theory Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the key physical, social, and emotional changes that take place throughout adulthood. Section Reference: Adulthood

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502. Which of the following best describes the normal adult brain? a) As we age, we typically experience shrinkage in brain volume and weight. b) Significant loss of neurons begins in middle adulthood and continues. c) No new neurons form beyond the age of 50. d) Broad intellectual capacities remain intact throughout our lives. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the key physical, social, and emotional changes that take place throughout adulthood. Section Reference: Adulthood 503. Persons who live for extended periods of time in abusive situations or in severe poverty age much faster than those who live under better conditions. Which theory of aging would best explain this? a) cellular clock b) telomere theory c) wear-and-tear theory d) free-radical theory Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the key physical, social, and emotional changes that take place throughout adulthood. Section Reference: Adulthood 504. Dorothy must have the tires changed on her car because, after seven years the tread has become very thin. This could be analogous to the ______________ theory of aging. a) cellular clock b) free-radical c) wear-and-tear d) use-and- abuse Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the key physical, social, and emotional changes that take place throughout adulthood. Section Reference: Adulthood 505. According to Levinson, early adulthood is marked by ___.

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a) high energy b) low stress c) creativity d) occupational goals Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the key physical, social, and emotional changes that take place throughout adulthood. Section Reference: Adulthood 506. Annika is very unsettled, anxious, and confused about what she wants to do with her work life, and she is just beginning to modify her relationships with her family and friends. Levinson would most likely say that Annika is in which stage of development? a) the early adult transition b) early adulthood c) the middle life transition d) middle adulthood Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the key physical, social, and emotional changes that take place throughout adulthood. Section Reference: Adulthood 507. Yamen is at a stage in his life where he finally feels like he accepts himself and others around him, and things do not bother him the way they used to. However, he also questions whether he has accomplished everything that he wanted to in life, and he is realizing that his youth is forever behind him. According to Levinson, what transition stage is Yamen in? a) middle-life transition b) early adult transition c) emerging adulthood d) old age transition Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the key physical, social, and emotional changes that take place throughout adulthood. Section Reference: Adulthood 508. Nineteen-year old Jeremy has been feeling very anxious. He has been arguing with his parents to be allowed to go away to university rather than staying to attend the local institution in

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his hometown. He feels that staying in his hometown is inhibiting his ability to establish himself as an individual. According to Levinson, what stage might Jeremy be going through? a) intimacy vs isolation b) early adulthood c) emerging adulthood d) independence vs shame and guilt Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the key physical, social, and emotional changes that take place throughout adulthood. Section Reference: Adulthood 509. Nineteen-year-old Kofi still lives at home with his family. Lately he has felt like everyone in his family disagrees with his future plans. Kofi is probably experiencing the feelings of anxiety and confusion that often accompany the stage of a) post-adolescence. b) pre-adulthood. c) early adulthood. d) emerging adulthood. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the key physical, social, and emotional changes that take place throughout adulthood. Section Reference: Adulthood 510. Forty-two-year-old Aiden seems to be going through some life changes. His wife says that, while he seems to be more compassionate and loving, he also seems to be questioning why he has not achieved more with his life. Most recently, he bought a bright red corvette. According to Levinson, Aiden is probably going through the ___ and might even be experiencing ___. a) intimacy vs isolation; a midlife crisis b) middle-life transition; a midlife crisis c) mid-adult transition; male menopause d) midlife crisis stage; male menopause Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the key physical, social, and emotional changes that take place throughout adulthood. Section Reference: Adulthood

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511. The fastest growing age group in Canada is the group between ___. a) 20–30 b) 35–24 c) 55–64 d) 75–84 Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the key physical, social, and emotional changes that take place throughout adulthood. Section Reference: Adulthood 512. Psychologists refer to people who are 85 and above as a) young-old. b) old-old. c) oldest old. d) frail elderly. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the key physical, social, and emotional changes that take place throughout adulthood. Section Reference: Adulthood 513. Although in the past, researchers have categorized elderly people according to their age; there are some who now think they should be grouped according to ___. a) chronological age b) functional age c) physical age d) mental age Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the key physical, social, and emotional changes that take place throughout adulthood. Section Reference: Adulthood 514. Laverna is 84 years old and still living at home and caring for herself. She does all her own shopping, banking, cleaning, and cooking. Her grandson, however, argues that she is going to fall one of these days and that she should go into an assisted living facility. Who is likely in the right? a) The grandson; he knows what is best for his grandmother and is aware of current thinking on

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this subject. b) The grandson; his grandmother’s chronological age suggests that she is too old to care for herself. c) Laverna; she is showing no signs of dementia. d) Laverna; her functional age suggests she has the capacity to care for herself. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the key physical, social, and emotional changes that take place throughout adulthood. Section Reference: Adulthood 515. Yvette is arguing that her 97-year-old mother should be in an assisted living facility. She reasons that her mother is old, and that therefore she is an accident waiting to happen. She could leave something on the stove or fall down the stairs. Her mother argues that she is still perfectly capable of living on her own, and that she does all her own shopping, banking, cleaning, and cooking. Who is right here? a) Yvette; she knows what is best for her mother grandmother and is aware of current thinking on this subject. b) Yvette; her mother’s chronological age suggests that she is too old to care for herself. c) Her mother; she is showing no signs of dementia. d) Her mother; her functional age suggests she has the capacity to care for herself. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the key physical, social, and emotional changes that take place throughout adulthood. Section Reference: Adulthood 516. The difference between chronological age and functional age is that chronological age is ___, while functional age is ___. a) the time between birth and puberty; the time between puberty and reproduction b) the degree of aging in the telomeres of each cell; how active the cells are c) what the calendar says you are; the age at which you feel and are capable of functioning d) your physiological age; the length of time you’ve been functional Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the key physical, social, and emotional changes that take place throughout adulthood. Section Reference: Adulthood

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517. What is the difference between chronological age and functional age? a) Chronological age is the time between birth and puberty, while functional age is the time between puberty and reproduction. b) Chronological age is the degree of aging in the telomeres of each cell, while functional age is how active the cells are. c) Chronological age is what the calendar says you are, while functional age is the age at which you feel and are capable of functioning. d) Chronological age is your physiological age, while functional age is the length of time you’ve been functional. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the key physical, social, and emotional changes that take place throughout adulthood. Section Reference: Adulthood 518. It is commonly said that older adults are increasingly likely to experience the stress of loss. Below are all reasons for why this is the case except for one. Which one is NOT a reason? a) They lose their ability to think clearly and quickly. b) They lose former activities and roles. c) They are increasingly prone to illness and injury. d) They lose their sense of purpose. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the key physical, social, and emotional changes that take place throughout adulthood. Section Reference: Adulthood 519. Isaiah has experienced adversity in his life but overcame it with resiliency, and developing mature judgment, understanding, and accumulated knowledge. Now that Isaiah is an older adult, Erikson would claim that Isaiah has obtained ____________, the goal of old age. a) family harmony b) a sense of purpose c) peace d) wisdom Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the key physical, social, and emotional changes that take place throughout adulthood. Section Reference: Adulthood

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MATCHING QUESTION 520. Match the appropriate words in the left column to the definitions in the right column. Terms A. Assimilation B. Accommodation C. Proximodistal development D. Cephalocaudal development E. Discrete trait F. Polygenic trait G. Heterozygous H. Homozygous I. Egocentrism J. Reciprocal socialization K. Qualitative development L. Quantitative development M. Cross-sectional design N. Longitudinal design O. Conservation

___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___

Definitions 1. A trait that manifests as the result of the contributions of multiple genes. 2. Both parents contribute the same genetic material for a specific trait. 3. Involves gradual increases in thinking or behaviour. 4. Researchers compare groups of different-aged people to one another at a single point in time. 5. How children’s behaviours affect parenting styles. 6. Parts closer to the centre of the body develop sooner than parts at the outer edges. 7. The inclusion of new information or experiences into pre-existing schemes. 8. Flaws in a child’s reasoning based on his or her inability to take other perspectives. 9. The ability to understand that something can stay the same even though its appearance changes. 10. The alteration of pre-existing mental frameworks to take in new information.

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ANSWERS TO MATCHING QUESTION 1.

F: Polygenic trait

H: Homozygous

L: Quantitative development

M: Cross-sectional design

J: Reciprocal socialization

6. C: Proximodistal development 7.

A: Assimilation

I: Egocentrism

O: Conservation

10. B: Accommodation Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

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FILL-IN-THE-BLANK 521. A ___ research design studies the same people over a significant period of time. Answer: longitudinal Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and discuss the advantages and disadvantages of cross-sectional and longitudinal designs for researching development. Section Reference: How Is Developmental Psychology Studied? 522. The ___ view of development suggests that how we develop is strongly influenced by genetics or biology. Answer: endogenous Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Understand the key debates underlying research and theory in child development. Section Reference: Understanding How We Develop 523. Each gene is composed of a specific sequence of ___. Answer: Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA) Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 524. A ___ trait occurs when both parents contribute the same alleles for a gene. Answer: homozygous Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 525. The ___ is a structure that exchanges oxygen and nutrients between the mother and baby. It is formed during the germinal stage.

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Answer: placenta Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 526. Drinking alcohol during pregnancy can result in ___, a disorder in which the neurons of the brain do NOT all end up where they are needed to form the neural networks in the brain, resulting in characteristic facial deformities as well as other physical deformities and mental retardation. Answer: Fetal Alcohol Syndrome (FAS) or Fetal Alcohol Spectrum Disorder (FASD) Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 527. If a newborn looks at a face, they will focus on the ___. Answer: chin or hairline Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 528. The process that removes some of our early neural connections is called synaptic ___. Answer: pruning Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 529. A ___ is a mental framework that individuals use to understand the world. Answer: schema Difficulty: Easy

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Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 530. Individuals engage in assimilation and accommodation to achieve ___. Answer: equilibrium Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 531. An alternative to Ainsworth’s attachment theory that sorts attachment behaviours into nine piles based on frequency of behaviours is the ___ approach. Answer: Q-sort Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 532. The term that refers to a child’s inability to see situations from other individuals’ perspectives is ___. Answer: egocentrism Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 533. The process of a mentor providing step-by-step assistance to an individual with less expertise is referred to as ___. Answer: scaffolding Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood

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534. Erikson’s developmental theory describes how psychosocial changes occur through the ___. Answer: lifespan Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional changes that take place during adolescence. Section Reference: Adolescence 535. The cellular clock theory of aging suggests that aging is built into our cells because ___ grow shorter each time they are used in cell reproduction. Answer: telomeres Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the key physical, social, and emotional changes that take place throughout adulthood. Section Reference: Adulthood 536. Severe memory problems combined with at least one other loss of cognitive function is known as ___. Answer: dementia Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the key physical, social, and emotional changes that take place throughout adulthood. Section Reference: Adulthood 537. The phenomenon during middle-life transition when a person may try to deny the passage of time and to recapture their youth, is often called the ___. Answer: midlife crisis Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the key physical, social, and emotional changes that take place throughout adulthood. Section Reference: Adulthood 538. An older individual’s ability to adapt their behaviour to the changing environment reflects

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their ___ age, while the number of years they have lived reflects their ___ age. Answer: functional; chronological Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the key physical, social, and emotional changes that take place throughout adulthood. Section Reference: Adulthood

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SHORT ANSWER ESSAY QUESTIONS 539. What type of research design attempts to combine the cross-sectional and longitudinal approaches? What is the primary advantage of this design? Answer: cohort-sequential design; controls for the cohort effect Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe and discuss the advantages and disadvantages of cross-sectional and longitudinal designs for researching development. Section Reference: How Is Developmental Psychology Studied? 540. What does the term “nature” refer to in the nature vs. nurture controversy? Answer: genetic inheritance Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Understand the key debates underlying research and theory in child development. Section Reference: Understanding How We Develop 541. A ___ is a developmental point or phase within which children, adolescents, or adults think, experience emotions, or behave in qualitatively different ways. Answer: stage Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Understand the key debates underlying research and theory in child development. Section Reference: Understanding How We Develop 542. What term is used to describe a point in development when an organism is especially sensitive to specific types of environmental stimuli? Answer: critical period Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Understand the key debates underlying research and theory in child development. Section Reference: Understanding How We Develop

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543. How many pairs of chromosomes do humans possess? Answer: 23 Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 544. What outcome occurs when individuals with heterozygous alleles express both of their parents’ genes in their phenotype? Answer: codominance Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 545. In what stage is a pregnant woman most vulnerable to miscarriage? Answer: embryonic Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 546. What is a reflex? Answer: programmed reaction to cues that do not require conscious thought to perform Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 547. What two processes are responsible for the growth of the brain during the first few years of life? Answer: increase in neural connections and myelination Difficulty: Easy

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Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 548. What pattern does brain and body development tend to follow? Answer: proximodistal (parts closer to the midline of the body develop first, then extremities later) and cephalocaudal (upper structures develop before lower structures) Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 549. The ___ suggests that motor development may be negatively or positively influenced by many factors including environmental support. Answer: dynamic systems approach Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 550. Colin, age 4, used his previous impressions of his pet cats at home to understand the behaviour of the lions he saw for the first time at the zoo. According to Piaget, what process did Colin use? Answer: assimilation Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 551. What term describes the phenomenon of a child stopping his/her response to a stimulus that is presented repeatedly over time? Answer: habituation Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

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Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 552. What term refers to the transaction that reflects how children’s behaviours affect parenting styles? Answer: reciprocal socialization Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 553. What term refers to the biologically-based tendency to respond to situations in similar ways throughout the lifespan? Answer: temperament Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 554. What three temperament categories can be used to describe infants? Answer: easy, difficult, slow-to-warm-up Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 555. ___ theory examines the importance of the early parent-infant relationship. Answer: Attachment Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood

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556. When do the first major developmental distinctions between boys and girls occur? Answer: approximately age 6; end of early childhood/beginning of middle childhood Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 557. What cognitive ability is associated with understanding that an object can remain the same when its appearance changes? Answer: conservation Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 558. What is the zone of proximal development? Answer: The gap between what children can accomplish independently and what they can accomplish with the help of others with greater expertise. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 559. What was a serious methodological shortcoming in Kohlberg’s early work on moral development? Answer: He only tested boys. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional changes that take place during adolescence. Section Reference: Adolescence 560. What term refers to the development of the primary and secondary sex characteristics in adolescence? Answer: puberty

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional changes that take place during adolescence. Section Reference: Adolescence 561. Provide two examples of secondary sex characteristics. Answer: deepening of the male voice, increased breast size in females, hair growth, etc. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional changes that take place during adolescence. Section Reference: Adolescence 562. What must individuals meet and reconcile in each stage of Erikson’s theory? Answer: meet challenges and reconcile conflict Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional changes that take place during adolescence. Section Reference: Adolescence 563. What factors may accelerate the wear-and-tear theory of aging? Answer: poor diet, stress, lack of exercise, etc. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the key physical, social, and emotional changes that take place throughout adulthood. Section Reference: Adulthood

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ESSAY QUESTIONS 564. Describe the drawbacks of longitudinal research designs. Answer: time-consuming, more expensive, greater risk of losing participants Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe and discuss the advantages and disadvantages of cross-sectional and longitudinal designs for researching development. Section Reference: How Is Developmental Psychology Studied? 565. Which do you believe is more important: nature or nurture? Reflect on your own life circumstances and determine whether your genetics or your environment has had a greater impact on who you are today. Provide two examples to support your choice. Answer: State whether nature or nurture is more important. State whether genetics or environment has had a greater impact. Provide two relevant examples that support their choice. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Understand the key debates underlying research and theory in child development. Section Reference: Understanding How We Develop 566. Define the term “imprinting” and identify the scientist most often associated with this research. Answer: Lorenz coined the term imprinting to describe the attachment that young geese make when they connect with the moving stimuli, they are with most often during the first 36 hours of life. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Understand the key debates underlying research and theory in child development. Section Reference: Understanding How We Develop 567. Explain two key differences between critical periods and sensitive periods of development. Answer: Should include 1) sensitive periods are largely experience-driven whereas critical periods are not influenced by experience and 2) sensitive periods have less well-defined boundaries than critical periods. Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation

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Learning Objective: Understand the key debates underlying research and theory in child development. Section Reference: Understanding How We Develop 568. Describe the difference between the genotype and phenotype of an individual. Answer: Genotype refers to the combination of genetic materials present in an individual whereas phenotype refers to the observable manifestation of a genotype. Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 569. What is the difference between dominant and recessive traits? Answer: A dominant trait is expressed whether it is homozygous or heterozygous whereas a recessive trait is only expressed when it is homozygous. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 570. Define teratogen and provide two examples of teratogens. Answer: Teratogens are environmental factors that may cause birth defects. Examples include alcohol, tobacco, high stress, environmental hazards, etc. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss patterns of genetic inheritance and describe stages and potential problems during prenatal development. Section Reference: Heredity and Prenatal Development 571. Name and describe two patterns of growth seen in babies. Answer: proximodistal pattern—a pattern in which growth and development proceed from the centre to the extremities, and cephalocaudal pattern—a pattern in which growth and development proceed from top to bottom Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood.

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Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 572. Define motor skills and provide two examples. Answer: ability to control bodily movement; crawling, walking, grasping objects, etc. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 573. How is the developmental process of accommodation different from assimilation? Answer: Assimilation uses previously-learned information to understand new experiences. Accommodation occurs when new, conflicting information requires an individual to adjust their existing schema to reach cognitive equilibrium. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 574. Describe attachment theory and explain how it relates to a child’s social and emotional development. Answer: Caregiver-infant relationship is critical to the emotional and social health as a child grows into adulthood. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 575. Describe the authoritarian parenting style as defined by Baumrind. Answer: high-demand, low-responsiveness Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood

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576. Name Piaget’s four stages of cognitive development. Answer: sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, formal operational Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 577. Explain the major difference between the focus of Piaget’s theory and that of the Information Processing theory. Answer: Piaget’s theory focuses on what children cannot do, whereas information processing theory focuses on what children can do. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 578. According to Kagan, what are two key aspects of temperament? Answer: inborn and stable across situations and time Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 579. Name Baumrind’s four parenting styles and one associated outcome of each. Answer: Authoritative—high self-esteem, cooperativeness; Authoritarian—low self-esteem, anxious; Permissive—impulsive, disobedient; Uninvolved—anxious, poor communication skills Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 580. Where is myelination concentrated in the brain during middle childhood, and what cognitive benefits result from this type of myelination? Answer: Myelination occurs in the associative regions of the brain and results in improved motor

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skills and cognitive skills such as planning and problem solving. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 581. Provide an example of how young children’s lack of conservation can be measured. Answer: Children can pour water from two identical beakers into two beakers that vary in appearance. Even though the amount of water poured in each beaker is the same, children who lack conservation believe that there is more water in the beaker that appears to have a higher water line. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 582. How did Piaget and Vygotsky differ in their assessments of private speech? Answer: Piaget believed that thinking preceded language while Vygotsky believed that language was crucial to cognitive development. Piaget thought that private speech was unimportant whereas Vygotsky thought that children used this mechanism to plan and regulate their behaviour. Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 583. What cultural differences have been observed in studies of moral development? Answer: Individuals from collectivist cultures score lower on Kohlberg’s moral scales than people from individualistic cultures. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 584. What stage of Piaget’s theory of cognitive development do adolescents typically enter after age 11? Describe the capabilities of adolescents in that stage.

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Answer: formal operational stage; problem solving, critical thinking, hypothetical reasoning, etc. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional developments that take place during infancy and during childhood. Section Reference: Infancy and Childhood 585. What challenge do adolescents face in Erikson’s theory? Answer: They must resolve the conflict between identity and role confusion when they begin making decisions that will impact their futures. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional changes that take place during adolescence. Section Reference: Adolescence 586. Explain the possible relationship between brain development and poor judgment that is sometimes shown during adolescence. Answer: Answer should include information regarding myelination of the neurons in the prefrontal cortex not occurring prior to late adolescence and the involvement of the prefrontal cortex in decision making and judgment. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the major physical, cognitive, and emotional changes that take place during adolescence. Section Reference: Adolescence 587. Describe the last conflict that older adults face according to Erikson’s theory? Answer: Older adults must reconcile their feelings of integrity versus despair by facing mortality with a sense that life was well lived. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the key physical, social, and emotional changes that take place throughout adulthood. Section Reference: Adulthood 588. Describe Levinson’s stage of early adulthood. Answer: Levinson described early adulthood as affecting persons age 22–44 years old. This

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stage is characterized simultaneously by high energy and abundance and by contradiction and stress. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the key physical, social, and emotional changes that take place throughout adulthood. Section Reference: Adulthood 589. Describe transitional events that Levinson suggests may cause stress and pressure to those in early and middle adulthood. Answer: People confront particularly difficult career, marital, and family issues and reflect on and adjust their dreams. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the key physical, social, and emotional changes that take place throughout adulthood. Section Reference: Adulthood

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CHAPTER 5 SENSATION AND PERCEPTION CHAPTER LEARNING OBJECTIVES 1. Describe characteristics shared by all the senses, including receptor cells, transduction, and thresholds, and differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processes of perception. • Our sensory systems convert physical stimuli into neural information with specialized cells called sensory receptor cells that convert a specific form of environmental stimuli into neural impulses by a process called sensory transduction. • The conversion of physical stimuli into neural impulses only occurs when the stimuli reach a certain level, or threshold. The absolute threshold is the minimum level of a stimulus we can detect. The difference threshold is the smallest difference we can detect between two similar stimuli. • Our sensory systems are set up to detect change. With continuous exposure to a stimulus, adaptation occurs. • Bottom up processing begins with the physical stimuli from the environment and proceeds through to perception. In top-down processing prior knowledge is used to interpret perceptual information. 2. Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. • Smell, our olfactory sense, converts chemical odorants into neural signals that the brain can use. Taste, our gustatory sense, is closely intertwined with smell. Most flavours are a combination of scents with the five basic tastes we can discern: sweet, salty, sour, bitter, and umami. • Taste buds in papillae on the tongue convert chemicals in our food to neural signals the brain can use. Taste receptors and smell receptors are routinely replaced, since they are more vulnerable to damage than other sensory receptors. • Information about smell goes directly from the olfactory bulb to the olfactory cortex. Areas of the brain that process smells and tastes are plastic, or changeable. Processing of smells also sometimes overlaps with emotions and memories. • Our preferred tastes change as we mature from childhood to adulthood, probably from a combination of learning and physical changes in the mouth. • True disorders of taste are rare; people more frequently lose part or all of their sense of smell. Anosmia can present safety risks and diminish pleasure in life. 3. Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. • A variety of sensory receptors throughout our bodies convert touch, pressure, or temperature stimuli into neural impulses that our brains can perceive. • The sensory cortex of the brain maps touch sensations. Especially sensitive or important body parts receive disproportionately large representation in the cortex. • Pain travels to the brain via both a fast pathway and a slow pathway.

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The gate control theory of pain suggests that certain patterns of neural activity can close a “gate” so that pain information does not reach parts of the brain where it is perceived. Medical professionals continue to search for ways to relieve people’s chronic pain. Opiate drugs that simulate natural pain-killing endorphins or enkephalins are addictive. Sometimes practitioners resort to neurosurgery, which stops a patient from receiving all touch signals. People who have lost body parts surgically or through accidents often feel phantom sensations in the missing body part. These may be related to reorganization of the somatosensory cortex after an amputation.

4. Summarize what happens when we hear. • The frequency and amplitude of sound waves produce our perceptions of pitch and loudness of sounds. • When sounds enter the ear, they move the ear drum, which sets in motion the ossicles. The last of these, the stirrup, vibrates the oval window, setting into motion fluid in the cochlea. Hair cells on the basilar membrane in the cochlea transduce movements along the basilar membrane into neural signals the brain can interpret. • Frequency theory suggests that patterns in the firing rates of the neurons are perceived as different sounds. Place theory suggests that information from different locations along the basilar membrane is related to different qualities of sound. • Top-down processing lets us use the general loudness of sounds, as well as differences in the signals received from each ear, to determine location of a sound. • Different pitches are represented in a tonotopic map in the auditory cortex of the brain. Association areas of the cortex help us recognize familiar sounds, including speech. • As young children, we experience a sensitive period during which it is especially easy for us to learn auditory information, including language and music. Some people, particularly those exposed to pure tones during this sensitive period, develop absolute pitch. • Common hearing problems include hearing loss and deafness, as well as hearing unwanted sounds, such as tinnitus. 5. Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. • Rods and cones in the retina at the back of the eye change light into neural impulses. Cones provide detailed vision and help us perceive colour, while rods provide information about intensity of light. • Two different theories in combination—trichromatic theory and opponent process theory— explain a good deal of how we perceive colour. • The fovea at the centre of the retina contains only cones and provides our sharpest vision. We have a blind spot where the optic nerve leaves the retina to carry information to the brain. • Damage to the brain can produce deficits in sensation, as well as abnormal sensory experiences. • Top-down processing is involved in much visual perception. Gestalt theorists have identified several principles by which we recognize stimuli even when visual inputs are limited. We use binocular and monocular cues for depth perception. Perceptual constancies, based on learning from previous experiences, help us to see things as stable despite constant shifts in our visual inputs. These top-down processes can be “fooled” by visual illusions. • Without adequate visual stimulation through both eyes during a critical period of life, we may not develop binocular vision, a condition known as amblyopia.

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Individuals with loss of vision can use other sensory modalities to compensate for the loss of visual information. Learning Braille with touch involves the use of brain areas normally used for vision.

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TRUE-FALSE STATEMENTS 1. Transduction is the process by which sensory receptor cells convert environmental stimuli into neural impulses. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe characteristics shared by all the senses, including receptor cells, transduction, and thresholds, and differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processes of perception. Section Reference: Common Features of Sensation and Perception 2. Bottom-up processing begins with previously acquired knowledge. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe characteristics shared by all the senses, including receptor cells, transduction, and thresholds, and differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processes of perception. Section Reference: Common Features of Sensation and Perception 3. Olfaction and gustation emerged early in our evolutionary history. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 4. Sweet/sour is the taste associated with monosodium glutamate. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 5. Studies have shown that the piriform cortex is changeable in adulthood.

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Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 6. All sensory systems send information through the thalamus. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 7. Various parts of your body have differing levels of sensitivity. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration 8. Tactile information is first sent from touch receptors in the skin to the somatosensory cortex. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration 9. Research suggests that women have twice as many pain receptors in their facial skin as men. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration

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10. Some people are incapable of detecting pain. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration 11. The frequency of a sound wave is measured in Hertz. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 12. The ossicles are fluid-filled membranes in the inner ear. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 13. The auditory receptor cells are easily replaceable. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 14. To determine the importance of a sound, it is necessary to localize it in space. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

15. Approximately 1 in 1000 people in the Western world can detect absolute pitch. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 16. Under certain conditions, people can see radio waves. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 17. The blind spot created by the location where the optic nerve leaves the eye is NOT noticeable in most people. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 18. People with red-green colour blindness have a shortage of cones that respond to either greenish or reddish wavelengths. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 19. The law of good form states that we tend to group objects that are visually attractive. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight

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20. Linear perspective occurs when parallel lines seem to diverge from one another. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 21. A musician described how he could see each musical note as a colour. This phenomenon is known as a) sensory adaptation. b) synesthesia. c) difference threshold. d) polysensory confusion. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe characteristics shared by all the senses, including receptor cells, transduction, and thresholds, and differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processes of perception. Section Reference: Common Features of Sensation and Perception 22. Which of the following is an example of a measure taken to interrupt the process of sensation? a) Holding your nose when walking past a dumpster to avoid smelling it. b) Wearing headphones when running in order to listen to your favorite songs. c) Putting your hand over your mouth when you think you are going to vomit. d) Sucking on your finger after you cut it on a kitchen knife. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe characteristics shared by all the senses, including receptor cells, transduction, and thresholds, and differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processes of perception. Section Reference: Common Features of Sensation and Perception 23. The interpretation of neural signals by the brain is called a) coding. b) sensation. c) perception. d) perceptual constancy. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe characteristics shared by all the senses, including receptor cells, transduction, and thresholds, and differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processes of perception.

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Section Reference: Common Features of Sensation and Perception 24. Sensory is to perception as _______ is to coding. a) transduction b) perception c) adaptation d) gate control Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe characteristics shared by all the senses, including receptor cells, transduction, and thresholds, and differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processes of perception. Section Reference: Common Features of Sensation and Perception 25. How do sensation and perception differ? a) Sensation creates neural impulses; perception converts neural impulses. b) Sensation converts neural impulses; perception creates neural impulses. c) Sensation constrains neural impulses; perception collects neural impulses. d) Sensation collects neural impulses; perception constrains neural impulses. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe characteristics shared by all the senses, including receptor cells, transduction, and thresholds, and differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processes of perception. Section Reference: Common Features of Sensation and Perception 26. What is the relationship of stimulus transduction to stimulus coding? a) Stimuli undergo transduction to be converted into neural impulses. These impulses then undergo coding to travel to specific parts of the brain. b) Stimuli undergo transduction to travel through the nerves to the brain. The brain then sends a response back to the body via the coding process. c) Stimuli undergo transduction to surpass the difference threshold. Stimuli then undergo coding to surpass the absolute threshold. Once the thresholds are surpassed, stimuli can reach the brain. d) Stimuli undergo transduction to trigger endorphin release. These endorphins then prompt the control gate to open and carry the stimuli to the brain. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Learning Objective: Describe characteristics shared by all the senses, including receptor cells, transduction, and thresholds, and differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processes of perception. Section Reference: Common Features of Sensation and Perception 27. What is the primary difference between transduction and coding? a) Transduction involves conversion of sensory information and coding does not. b) Transduction involves assigning meaning to sensory information and coding does not. c) Transduction involves receiving messages from various sensory organs and coding does not. d) Transduction involves messages being relayed to the brain and coding does not. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe characteristics shared by all the senses, including receptor cells, transduction, and thresholds, and differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processes of perception. Section Reference: Common Features of Sensation and Perception 28. Chef Mercedes tastes the soup-of-the-day and exclaims, “Ugh! It tastes like turquoise!” Chef Mercedes likely has a condition known as a) sensory habituation. b) synesthesia. c) visual acuity. d) sensory integration. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe characteristics shared by all the senses, including receptor cells, transduction, and thresholds, and differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processes of perception. Section Reference: Common Features of Sensation and Perception 29. Transduction is the process of a) interpreting the physical stimuli in the environment and assigning it meaning. b) converting physical stimuli in the environment into a signal that the brain can read. c) associating synchronous firing patterns in neurons throughout the brain. d) attending to and consolidating some environmental stimuli and not others. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Learning Objective: Describe characteristics shared by all the senses, including receptor cells, transduction, and thresholds, and differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processes of perception. Section Reference: Common Features of Sensation and Perception 33. Without the transduction of the physical stimulus into a neural signal that the brain can read, technically, the physical stimulus does not exist. This is most similar to the philosophical statement: a) A rolling stone gathers no moss. b) A tree falling in the woods with no one to hear makes no sound. c) Lightning never strikes the same place twice. d) Freedom never extends to outside the mind. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe characteristics shared by all the senses, including receptor cells, transduction, and thresholds, and differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processes of perception. Section Reference: Common Features of Sensation and Perception 34. The philosophical question: “Does a tree falling in the woods with no one around make a sound?” would be best interpreted by a psychologist interested in sensation and perception to mean that a) without transduction of sound waves into a neural signal, technically, there is no sound. b) bottom-up processing does not allow conceptual knowledge to influence perception, and so there is no sound. c) for a sound to be defined as such, it must cross absolute threshold in a human ear. d) vibrations in air pressure are best detected by the auditory sense, rather than the olfactory, somatosensory, gustatory, or visual sense. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe characteristics shared by all the senses, including receptor cells, transduction, and thresholds, and differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processes of perception. Section Reference: Common Features of Sensation and Perception 35. The first step in any perceptual analysis of an environmental stimulus is a) sensory adaptation. b) attention. c) transduction. d) bottom-up processing. Answer: c

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe characteristics shared by all the senses, including receptor cells, transduction, and thresholds, and differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processes of perception. Section Reference: Common Features of Sensation and Perception 36. Technically, the first thing that happens with bottom-up processing is a) attention. b) perception. c) transduction. d) sensory adaptation. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe characteristics shared by all the senses, including receptor cells, transduction, and thresholds, and differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processes of perception. Section Reference: Common Features of Sensation and Perception 37. Julian, Diego, and Ji-woo are having a disagreement. Julian claims that there are five senses. Diego, on the other hand, says that there are seven, and Ji-woo says there are six. Which student is right? a) Julian b) Diego c) Ji-woo d) None of them. There are, in fact, eight senses. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe characteristics shared by all the senses, including receptor cells, transduction, and thresholds, and differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processes of perception. Section Reference: Common Features of Sensation and Perception 38. Abigail argues that there are six senses rather than five. She says that _____ is an added sixth sense. a) proprioception b) synesthesia c) ageusia d) Abigail is incorrect, there are only five sense. Answer: a

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe characteristics shared by all the senses, including receptor cells, transduction, and thresholds, and differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processes of perception. Section Reference: Common Features of Sensation and Perception 39. When you look up at the sky and see the clouds, your eyes are engaging in the process of ___; when you think about the clouds and try to pick out recognizable shapes or object, you are engaging in the process of ___. a) perceiving; sensing b) sensing; perceiving c) passive observation; active observation d) active observation; passive observation Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe characteristics shared by all the senses, including receptor cells, transduction, and thresholds, and differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processes of perception. Section Reference: Common Features of Sensation and Perception 40. Three people standing next to each other were witnesses to a robbery. When asked for a description of the robber, each person gave a different answer. These different interpretations most likely illustrate differences in ___________________. a) sensation b) perception c) visual acuity d) accommodation Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe characteristics shared by all the senses, including receptor cells, transduction, and thresholds, and differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processes of perception. Section Reference: Common Features of Sensation and Perception 41. Detection is to identification as ___ is to ___. a) sensation; transduction b) transduction; sensation c) sensation; perception d) perception; sensation

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Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe characteristics shared by all the senses, including receptor cells, transduction, and thresholds, and differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processes of perception. Section Reference: Common Features of Sensation and Perception 42. Sensation is to perception as ___ is to ___. a) detection; identification b) recall; transduction c) top-down; bottom-up d) absolute threshold; difference threshold Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe characteristics shared by all the senses, including receptor cells, transduction, and thresholds, and differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processes of perception. Section Reference: Common Features of Sensation and Perception 43. The conscious recognition and identification of a sensory stimulus is called __________. a) sensation b) perception c) detection d) habituation Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe characteristics shared by all the senses, including receptor cells, transduction, and thresholds, and differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processes of perception. Section Reference: Common Features of Sensation and Perception 44. Petra has just identified the funky smell in her kitchen as an old peach that she threw away in the trash and then forgot. The process of having her olfactory system detect the odour is best described as a) transduction. b) sensation. c) perception. d) top-down processing. Answer: b

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe characteristics shared by all the senses, including receptor cells, transduction, and thresholds, and differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processes of perception. Section Reference: Common Features of Sensation and Perception 45. Raphael was startled when he heard something slam against his living room window. He quickly decided it was a bird and hurried out to see whether he could help it. The process of identifying what made the sound is known as a) transduction. b) sensation. c) perception. d) top-down processing. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe characteristics shared by all the senses, including receptor cells, transduction, and thresholds, and differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processes of perception. Section Reference: Common Features of Sensation and Perception 46. Jenny’s just noticeable difference for detecting a lemon flavour in a glass of water is much larger than Agustina’s just noticeable difference. This means that a) Jenny is less sensitive to changes in lemon flavour than Agustina. b) Agustina is not able to detect lemon flavour. c) Jenny needs a lot of lemon flavour in order to notice it. d) both females are considered supertasters for lemon. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe characteristics shared by all the senses, including receptor cells, transduction, and thresholds, and differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processes of perception. Section Reference: Common Features of Sensation and Perception 47. If a light bulb does NOT cast a light that can be detected, what threshold has NOT been surpassed? a) difference b) absolute c) stimulus d) transduction

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Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe characteristics shared by all the senses, including receptor cells, transduction, and thresholds, and differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processes of perception. Section Reference: Common Features of Sensation and Perception 48. We can detect a single drop of perfume diffused in an area the size of a one-bedroom apartment. This is a(n) ___. a) absolute threshold b) difference threshold c) sensory minimum d) just noticeable difference Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe characteristics shared by all the senses, including receptor cells, transduction, and thresholds, and differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processes of perception. Section Reference: Common Features of Sensation and Perception 49. The eye doctor asks you to read the chart on the wall. What is the eye doctor trying to measure? a) your absolute threshold b) your just noticeable difference c) your difference threshold d) your amount of color blindness Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe characteristics shared by all the senses, including receptor cells, transduction, and thresholds, and differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processes of perception. Section Reference: Common Features of Sensation and Perception 50. Jan turns on the news but is unable to hear it at the volume level five. As she continues to raise the volume, she can first detect sound at level 10. She does NOT notice any difference in volume at 11 but notices a difference at 12. She settles on a level of 14, where she can comfortably hear the news. Which of the following statements is most accurate about Jan’s hearing thresholds? a) The change in volume level from 10 to 11 does not meet Jan’s difference threshold, though the change from 10 to 12 does. Additionally, Jan’s absolute threshold is level 10.

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

b) The change in volume level from 10 to 11 does not meet Jan’s absolute threshold, though the change from 10 to 12 does. Additionally, Jan’s difference threshold is level 10. c) The change in volume level from 10 to 13 does not meet Jan’s absolute threshold, though the change from 10 to 14 does. Additionally, Jan’s difference threshold is level 14. d) The change in volume level from 10 to 13 does not meet Jan’s difference threshold, though the change from 10 to 14 does. Additionally, Jan’s absolute threshold is level 10. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe characteristics shared by all the senses, including receptor cells, transduction, and thresholds, and differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processes of perception. Section Reference: Common Features of Sensation and Perception 51. While walking his dog, Adam notices that the dog suddenly stops and appears startled by a noise, although Adam has NOT heard anything. Which of the following concepts BEST explains why Adam did NOT hear the sound and his dog did? a) There is a difference in absolute thresholds between Adam and his dog. b) There is a variability in difference thresholds between Adam and his dog. c) There is a variability in the principle of psychophysics between Adam and his dog. d) There is a difference in the electrochemicals transmitting signals between Adam and his dog. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe characteristics shared by all the senses, including receptor cells, transduction, and thresholds, and differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processes of perception. Section Reference: Common Features of Sensation and Perception 52. Ye-jun is participating in a study in which he is presented with different unpleasant odours that he has to identify. Unfortunately, most of the odours are presented above his absolute threshold. What does this mean? a) Ye-jun can smell most of the odours. b) Ye-jun can only smell the strongest odours. c) Ye-jun cannot tell the difference between any of the odours. d) Ye-jun did not notice most of the odours. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe characteristics shared by all the senses, including receptor cells, transduction, and thresholds, and differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processes of perception. Section Reference: Common Features of Sensation and Perception

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53. ______________ says that the response to a signal in every situation depends on an individual’s ability to differentiate between the signal and noise, and on their response criteria. a) Difference threshold theory b) Absolute threshold theory c) Just noticeable difference theory d) Signal detection theory Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe characteristics shared by all the senses, including receptor cells, transduction, and thresholds, and differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processes of perception. Section Reference: Common Features of Sensation and Perception 54. Avery is pretty sure her old car is on its last gasp, but she wants to drive it until it will not drive any more because she does not have the money to get another car right now. Avery’s partner, Kennedy, wanted Avery to stop driving the car the last time it broke down because there is a risk the car might break down again and Avery will be stuck out on near empty roads late at night without warning. Avery is not concerned, saying, “In spite of all the clunks and rattles the car makes I can what is serious because last time the engine made this constant chugging sound before the engine stopped.” In this example, what would signal detection call the clunks and rattles made by Avery’s car? a) noise b) signal c) threshold information d) a jnd Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe characteristics shared by all the senses, including receptor cells, transduction, and thresholds, and differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processes of perception. Section Reference: Common Features of Sensation and Perception 55. If a stimulus is at an intensity that does not reach your absolute threshold, what is the most likely result? a) You will not be able to distinguish this stimulus from another stimulus. b) The difference threshold is just noticeable. c) The stimulus will go unnoticed to you. d) You have adapted to the stimulus and no longer notice it. Answer: c

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe characteristics shared by all the senses, including receptor cells, transduction, and thresholds, and differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processes of perception. Section Reference: Common Features of Sensation and Perception 56. A snack manufacturer finds that it must increase the salt content of its chips by 8% so that a sample of consumers will notice that the chips are saltier than they were before. This example most nearly illustrates the concept of a(n) ___ threshold. a) transduction b) difference c) adaptation d) absolute Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe characteristics shared by all the senses, including receptor cells, transduction, and thresholds, and differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processes of perception. Section Reference: Common Features of Sensation and Perception 57. Juliana was listening to music in her room when her father called up for her to turn it down. Julianna adjusted the sound only to have her father angrily call up several minutes later to say’ “Juliana, I asked you to turn that noise down. Do it immediately!” Julianna was, in turn, angry, and shouted back, “I DID.” What has probably happened here? a) Juliana’s father had adapted to Juliana’s music. b) The amount Juliana adjusted the music by did not reach her father’s absolute threshold. c) The amount Juliana adjusted the music by did not reach her father’s difference threshold. d) Juliana’s father was unable to transduce the auditory signals from the music. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe characteristics shared by all the senses, including receptor cells, transduction, and thresholds, and differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processes of perception. Section Reference: Common Features of Sensation and Perception 58. Listening to a tape of white noise to help you fall asleep is an example of the principle of a) sensory adaptation. b) perceptual awareness. c) subliminal perception. d) gate control theory.

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Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe characteristics shared by all the senses, including receptor cells, transduction, and thresholds, and differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processes of perception. Section Reference: Common Features of Sensation and Perception 59. Which sense is most prone to adaptation? a) vision b) audition c) gustation d) olfaction Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knolwedge Learning Objective: Describe characteristics shared by all the senses, including receptor cells, transduction, and thresholds, and differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processes of perception. Section Reference: Common Features of Sensation and Perception 60. Yesterday Devon cut his hand while making dinner. Rather than stopping to apply first aid, Devon wrapped a towel around the wound and continued making dinner. Today, Devon tells you, "I don’t get it. This cut still really hurts. I’d have thought by now I’d have stopped noticing it". How would you explain this to Devon? a) "Sensory adaptation doesn’t apply to intense stimuli like a bad cut. The pain is a sensory reminder from your body to tend to your injury. So, if you want the pain to go away, go apply some first aid to that cut". b) "Gate-control theory proposes that only large injuries prompt the gate keeper to close the gate. A small injury like that is not going to have any impact on the gate. Your best bet is to numb it with some ice". c) "Endorphins are your body’s own natural painkillers and might help the pain go away. Try doing a little physical activity to get your endorphins going. You could go for a run or ride your bike". d) "Only stimuli that fall below your absolute threshold go unnoticed by your body. Unfortunately, your cut falls above your absolute threshold so you notice it. You’ll just have to wait for it to heal for the pain to stop". Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe characteristics shared by all the senses, including receptor cells, transduction, and thresholds, and differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processes of perception. Section Reference: Common Features of Sensation and Perception

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61. Amy just arrived at her grandparent’s farm for a two-week stay. She was appalled by the strong smell of manure in the fertilizer from the surrounding fields and wondered how she would possibly be able to tolerate the smell for two weeks. However, by the end of the first day, Amy was barely aware of the odour. What is the best explanation for Amy’s reduced ability to detect this smell after one day? a) It is below her just noticeable difference threshold. b) perceptual set c) sensory adaptation d) bottom-up processing Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe characteristics shared by all the senses, including receptor cells, transduction, and thresholds, and differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processes of perception. Section Reference: Common Features of Sensation and Perception 62. The idea that one’s home has a unique scent, apparent to others but unrecognizable to the homeowner, is an example of a) gate-control. b) false awareness. c) subliminal perception. d) sensory adaptation. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe characteristics shared by all the senses, including receptor cells, transduction, and thresholds, and differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processes of perception. Section Reference: Common Features of Sensation and Perception 63. Eszter thinks that the perfume her boyfriend got her is cheap, because she cannot smell it after she wears it for only a few minutes. What is another possible explanation for Eszter’s inability to smell her perfume? a) perceptual set b) It is below her just noticeable difference. c) bottom-up processing d) sensory adaptation Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Learning Objective: Describe characteristics shared by all the senses, including receptor cells, transduction, and thresholds, and differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processes of perception. Section Reference: Common Features of Sensation and Perception 67. Without sensory adaptation, our perceptual world would be chaos. What would be the biggest problem without sensory adaptation? a) Our sensory receptors would not be able to simultaneously transduce stimuli from multiple sensory systems. b) Our sensitivity to stimuli that are below threshold would be less. c) We would not have any mental resources left over to focus on potentially important environmental stimuli. d) We would succumb to top-down processing at the expense of bottom-up processing. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe characteristics shared by all the senses, including receptor cells, transduction, and thresholds, and differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processes of perception. Section Reference: Common Features of Sensation and Perception 68. What is the advantage of sensory adaptation? a) We can focus on bottom-up processing and not succumb to top-down processing. b) We can free up mental resources to focus on potentially important environmental stimuli. c) We can increase our sensitivity to stimuli that are below absolute threshold. d) Our sensory receptors are able to simultaneously transduce stimuli from multiple sensory systems. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe characteristics shared by all the senses, including receptor cells, transduction, and thresholds, and differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processes of perception. Section Reference: Common Features of Sensation and Perception 69. Taylor is anxious about his elderly neighbour next door. She frequently has falls and once lay on her floor for almost an entire day before someone came to check on her. As a result, Taylor now watchfully listens for sounds from the apartment next door that might alert him to a problem. Based on your text’s discussion, we might predict that this level of high alert will a) decrease Taylor’s absolute threshold for auditory detection. b) increase Taylor’s absolute threshold for auditory detection. c) have little or no effect on Taylor’s absolute threshold for auditory detection. d) decrease Taylor’s difference threshold for auditory detection.

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Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe characteristics shared by all the senses, including receptor cells, transduction, and thresholds, and differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processes of perception. Section Reference: Common Features of Sensation and Perception 70. In an experiment, observers first view an adapting stimulus in which small dots on a computer screen all move steadily toward the right. They then view a test stimulus in which they must determine whether a patch of dots is stationary or moving. Based on your text’s discussion, you might predict that the adapting stimulus would a) decrease observers’ absolute threshold for motion detection. b) increase observers’ absolute threshold for motion detection. c) have little or no effect on observers’ absolute threshold for motion detection. d) decrease observers’ difference threshold for motion detection. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe characteristics shared by all the senses, including receptor cells, transduction, and thresholds, and differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processes of perception. Section Reference: Common Features of Sensation and Perception 71. Why do we adapt after prolonged exposure to a constant stimulus? a) so that we continue to respond to ongoing stimulation b) so that we do not become distracted by irrelevant changes in the environment c) so that we detect potentially significant changes in what is happening in our environments d) so that we do not become overstimulated by the environment Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe characteristics shared by all the senses, including receptor cells, transduction, and thresholds, and differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processes of perception. Section Reference: Common Features of Sensation and Perception 72. “Wow! I’m sorry! I didn’t recognize you out of class!” you exclaim, excusing your blank stare when your accounting professor greets you in a café. This vignette illustrates the importance of ___ in perception. a) transduction b) adaptation c) bottom-up processes

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d) top-down processes Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe characteristics shared by all the senses, including receptor cells, transduction, and thresholds, and differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processes of perception. Section Reference: Common Features of Sensation and Perception 73. Yuor ablity to raed thsi sntenece desipte its mnay mssipllengis is deu to _____________. a) bottom-up processing b) frame of reference c) top-down processing d) cognitive flexibility Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe characteristics shared by all the senses, including receptor cells, transduction, and thresholds, and differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processes of perception. Section Reference: Common Features of Sensation and Perception 74. We largely see what we expect to see because we create ________ based on experiences, assumptions, and expectations. a) perceptual sets b) mental models c) heuristics d) frames of reference Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe characteristics shared by all the senses, including receptor cells, transduction, and thresholds, and differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processes of perception. Section Reference: Common Features of Sensation and Perception 75. Which of the following concepts most belongs with top-down processing? a) sensation b) transduction c) sensory adaptation d) perceptual sets

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Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe characteristics shared by all the senses, including receptor cells, transduction, and thresholds, and differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processes of perception. Section Reference: Common Features of Sensation and Perception 76. We largely see what we expect to see because we create ________ based on experiences, assumptions, and expectations. a) perceptual sets b) mental models c) heuristics d) frames of reference Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe characteristics shared by all the senses, including receptor cells, transduction, and thresholds, and differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processes of perception. Section Reference: Common Features of Sensation and Perception 77. Annalisa is driving along Yonge Street in Toronto. After six green lights in a row, she blows through a red light, even though she was looking at it. Which of the following explains her error? a) Annalisa’s perceptual set affected her interpretation of the red light. b) Annalisa’s perceptual constancies wavered. c) Annalisa accommodated the red light due to motion parallax. d) Annalisa experienced conversion. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe characteristics shared by all the senses, including receptor cells, transduction, and thresholds, and differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processes of perception. Section Reference: Common Features of Sensation and Perception 78. Which of the following statements is true? a) Top-down and bottom-up processes occur simultaneously during the perception of many, if not all, stimuli. b) Top-down processing always proceeds bottom-up processing in humans, but not in animals. c) Bottom-up and top-down processing always occur sequentially. d) Top-down processing is synonymous with sensation.

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe characteristics shared by all the senses, including receptor cells, transduction, and thresholds, and differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processes of perception. Section Reference: Common Features of Sensation and Perception 79. Tami is visiting a tribe that she has learned eats snake eyes and monkey brains for their festive events. In honour of her visit, they hold a festive dinner and serve Tami with a big bowl of colourful meats and vegetables. Tami tries the stew and gags at the thought that a chewy bit she found in her mouth was a piece of brain. Tami’s belief that the texture of her food resembles monkey brains is best described as a) bottom-up processing. b) sensory adaptation. c) transduction. d) a perceptual set. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe characteristics shared by all the senses, including receptor cells, transduction, and thresholds, and differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processes of perception. Section Reference: Common Features of Sensation and Perception 80. Bence is camping with his Grade 5 class and hears a ghost story about the Stick Monster in the woods. The beast is made out of sticks and it snaps children’s bones like twigs. On his way back to his tent, Bence cannot help but notice all the sticks and twigs poking at him along the narrow path. Finally, he screams with certainty that the Stick Monster has grabbed him. Bence’s belief that the Stick Monster has him is best described as a) sensory adaptation. b) bottom-up processing. c) a perceptual set. d) transduction. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe characteristics shared by all the senses, including receptor cells, transduction, and thresholds, and differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processes of perception. Section Reference: Common Features of Sensation and Perception

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81. Hunter and Samuel are both looking at an ambiguous picture that could be interpreted as either a duck or a rabbit. Hunter was shown a series of rabbit pictures in advance of viewing the ambiguous picture; whereas Samuel was shown a series of duck pictures in advance of seeing the ambiguous picture. Based on the concept of perceptual set, what would each say was the object in the picture? a) Hunter – rabbit; Samuel – duck b) Hunter – duck; Samuel – rabbit c) They would both see the same object. d) It depends on how long they have to look at the picture. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe characteristics shared by all the senses, including receptor cells, transduction, and thresholds, and differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processes of perception. Section Reference: Common Features of Sensation and Perception 82. Jake told Maddie, his wife, that he would meet her for lunch at 11:30. Just before 11:30 Maddie heard a male voice say, “Hi Maddie,” and as she was turning she responded to the male voice by saying "Hi, Gorgeous." It turned out to be her boss greeting her, rather than her husband. Maddie's error in identifying the voice illustrates the effect of (a) ______________. a) perceptual adaptation b) extrasensory perception c) perceptual set d) subliminal perception Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe characteristics shared by all the senses, including receptor cells, transduction, and thresholds, and differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processes of perception. Section Reference: Common Features of Sensation and Perception 83. Which of the following sentences expresses bottom-up processing? a) You see what is in front of you. b) You see what you want to see. c) You see what you expect to see. d) You see what you are conditioned to see. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

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Learning Objective: Describe characteristics shared by all the senses, including receptor cells, transduction, and thresholds, and differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processes of perception. Section Reference: Common Features of Sensation and Perception 87. You are walking down the hallway toward your first university class and you see an old friend from elementary school. You immediately call out to her and wave. What type(s) of processing allowed you to do this? a) top-down b) bottom-up c) top-down and bottom-up d) perceptual set Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe characteristics shared by all the senses, including receptor cells, transduction, and thresholds, and differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processes of perception. Section Reference: Common Features of Sensation and Perception 88. Proprioceptive feedback is a combination of which senses? a) visual, auditory, and vestibular b) chemical, kinesthetic, and visual c) vestibular, kinesthetic, and visual d) somatosensory, vestibular, and kinesthetic Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe characteristics shared by all the senses, including receptor cells, transduction, and thresholds, and differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processes of perception. Section Reference: Common Features of Sensation and Perception 89. Suppose Marlene is unable to balance, and Juan is unable to maintain his body’s posture. What sensory systems have most likely been damaged in each case? a) Marlene damaged her chemical sense and Juan damaged his auditory sense. b) Marlene has damaged her somatosensory system and Juan has damaged his gustatory sense. c) Marlene has damaged her vestibular sense and Juan has damaged his kinesthetic sense. d) Marlene has damaged her visual sense and Juan has damaged his auditory sense. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe characteristics shared by all the senses, including receptor cells, transduction, and thresholds, and differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processes of perception. Section Reference: Common Features of Sensation and Perception 90. Francisco has damage to his vestibular sense and Larissa has damage to her kinesthetic sense. Which of the following best describes their symptoms? a) Francisco is unable to hear, and Larissa is unable to taste or smell. b) Francisco is unable to stop running on his own once he starts and Larissa is unable to balance. c) Francisco is unable to balance, and Larissa is unable to maintain her body’s posture. d) Francisco is unable to adapt to sensory input and Larissa is unable to integrate sensory information. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe characteristics shared by all the senses, including receptor cells, transduction, and thresholds, and differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processes of perception. Section Reference: Common Features of Sensation and Perception 91. Lola has a pet mouse named Mickey. Which of the following statements would most accurately describe the difference between Lola and Mickey’s senses? a) Lola relies most heavily on vision; Mickey relies on kinesthesia. b) Lola relies most heavily on the gustation; Mickey relies on olfaction. c) Lola relies most heavily on vision; Mickey relies on olfaction. d) There is no difference. Both rely most heavily on vision. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 92. Malik’s dog Frodo and Malik take in information about the world in quite different ways. Which of the following statements would most accurately describe the difference between Malik and Frodo’s senses? a) Malik sees the world, but Frodo smells it. b) Malik tastes the world, but Frodo smells it. c) Malik hears the world, but Frodo sees it. d) There is no difference. Both rely most heavily on vision. Answer: a

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 93. Aleksander has been born a few hours ago and has spent his first moments on earth snuggled up with his mother. What is he likely able to do? a) Show a preference for bitter flavours. b) Turn away from a sweet flavour. c) Tell his own mother apart from another woman based on smell alone. d) Feel more physiologically aroused by the smell of his mother’s milk. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 94. The fact that newborns can recognize their mothers based on smell alone within a few hours after birth suggests that a) newborns have more olfactory receptors than adults. b) newborns have a lower absolute threshold for detecting odours than adults. c) olfactory information is in place before birth. d) taste preferences are innate. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 95. Martina is cooking hamburger when she suddenly finds that the smell is making her nauseous. When she checks the package, she finds that the “best before” date of the meat had expired a week before, so the meat was no longer safe to eat. What type of psychologist would find this example important to the explanation of the olfactory system? a) cognitive b) evolutionary c) behavioural d) biological Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

96. Gabrielle is recently pregnant and the sickness she feels on a daily basis prevents her from enjoying chocolate. Evolutionary psychologists would say Gabrielle is having this type of reaction because ___________________. a) it will prevent her from gaining weight too fast b) it will ensure she does not accidentally ingest something harmful to her fetus c) it helps to ensure self-care d) it signals to others she needs extra care and attention Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 97. In what hair-like structures are the sensory receptors of the olfactory system located? a) nasal mucosa b) papillae c) odorants d) cilia Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 98. Olfaction is to gustation as ___ is to ___. a) smell; taste b) hearing; taste c) taste; hearing d) taste; smell Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 99. Smell is to taste as ___ is to ___. a) somatosensory; proprioception b) enkephalins; endorphins c) papillae; cilia d) olfaction; gustation

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Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 100. The sense receptors for olfaction are located on hair-like structures called ___. They convert odorants into neural impulses, an example of a process termed ___. a) papillae; transduction b) papillae; perception c) cilia; transduction d) cilia; perception Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 101. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the responsiveness of an individual olfactory receptor? a) A given olfactory receptor responds only to a specific airborne chemical. b) A given olfactory receptor responds to a wide range of odorants. c) A given olfactory receptor responds to one of four or five basic classes of odorants. d) A given olfactory receptor responds to virtually any airborne chemical. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 102. Your text states that “continuous binding of certain odorants . . . will result in the fatigue of the olfactory receptor neurons to which they bind.” This passage should remind you of the concept of a) tolerance. b) adaptation. c) habituation. d) desensitization. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 103. Once an olfactory receptor neuron has adapted to an odor, the way it will most probably begin to respond to the same odor again is a) to smell something else. b) to increase the magnitude of the odor. c) to use top-down processing and think about the odor. d) to taste the food as it will also activate the olfactory receptors. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 104. Approximately how many taste receptors are on each taste bud? a) 20–40 b) 50–90 c) 30–50 d) 60–100 Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 105. Gustatory receptors are contained in the ___, located on the ___. a) taste buds; cilia b) cilia; taste buds c) taste buds; papillae d) papillae; taste buds Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 106. We have taste receptors for sweet, salty, sour, and a) bitter. b) bitter and spicy. c) bitter and umami.

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d) spicy and umami. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 107. How many basic types of taste are there? a) 3 b) 4 c) 4, perhaps 5 d) 5, perhaps 6 Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 108. Habanero peppers are among the hottest chili peppers in the world. The habanero is hot because it contains a chemical known as ________________ which activates the ________ receptors on the tongue. a) umami; thermal b) umami; pain c) capsaicin; thermal d) capsaicin; pain Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 109. Some of Arthurs favourite foods are ripe tomatoes, cheese, shellfish and cured meats. These foods all share a pleasant savory taste that is often referred to as _____, the ____ sense. a) umami; sixth b) umami; fifth c) capsaicin; sixth d) capsaicin; fifth Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 110. For which of the following tastes do we NOT have a receptor? a) umami b) spicy c) sweet d) bitter Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 111. Regarding taste receptors, which of the following statements is true? a) Each taste receptor responds to any of the five basic tastes. b) The diverse types of taste receptors are located on distinct parts of the tongue. c) The diverse types of taste receptors are evenly distributed across the tongue. d) The diverse types of taste receptors are not distributed evenly across the tongue. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 112. Rodrigo has just burnt his tongue eating hot pizza. Which of the following statements is NOT true? a) Rodrigo has done damage to the taste receptors on his tongue. b) If Rodrigo keeps burning his tongue, he will experience a permanently decreased sense of taste. c) Burning his tongue will not do any permanent damage as the taste receptors will regenerate. d) It is unlikely that Rodrigo has damaged enough taste receptors that he will lose his sense of taste temporarily. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 113. Margarite woke very tired on Monday morning and was therefore anxious to drink her coffee. She took a quick swallow and burned her tongue. Her tongue was painful where it was

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burned, and she is having trouble tasting anything. Margarite is very concerned about this as she has tickets to a wine tasting event in a few days time. You advise her to a) sell the tickets. The damage sustained will take weeks to repair. b) sell the tickets. The damage is serious, and she will need to see a physician about treatment if she wants to make a full recovery. c) not to worry. Taste buds are remarkably regenerative, and she will be back to normal by the time of the wine tasting event. d) not to worry. Although these taste buds are dead the rest will take over. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 114. Emlyn loves to eat spicy hot food with capsaicin. He often adds hot sauce to food that he finds bland. Since you know that capsaicin activates pain receptors in the tongue how can you account for Emlyn’s taste for this type of food? a) After the first few bites, the taste receptors adapt to the capsaicin, so they no longer respond b) After the first few bites, the pain receptors adapt to the capsaicin, so they no longer respond. c) The chemical structure of capsaicin only allows it to bind to the receptor for a very short time, so the pain wears off very quickly. d) The pain impulses act in conjunction with tactile information, as well as the smell and taste of the food and the combination produces a pleasurable sensation. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 115. Compared to our other sensory receptors, olfactory receptors and taste receptors show a remarkable ability to a) transduce neural signals. b) regenerate. c) adapt. d) activate our autonomic nervous system. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 116. Which receptors have a remarkable ability to regenerate and show a relatively fast turn-

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

over rate? a) visual receptors b) visual and auditory receptors c) olfactory and taste receptors d) gustatory receptors Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 117. If an olfactory receptor were too fatigued to fire, which of the following would cause it to respond again? a) decreasing the concentration of the odorant b) having the odour present constantly without interruption c) increasing the concentration of the odorant d) taking the odour away permanently Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 118. When olfactory information reaches the olfactory nerve, it travels to which organ located beneath the frontal lobes? a) cerebral cortex b) olfactory bulb c) piriform cortex d) amygdala Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 119. Which structure serves as a relay station for incoming sensory information to the cerebral cortex? a) hippocampus b) amygdala c) insula d) thalamus

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Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 120. Olfactory information is processed in each of these brain areas EXCEPT the a) thalamus. b) piriform cortex. c) hippocampus. d) amygdala. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 121. Which of the following statements about how the brain processes smell and taste is FALSE? a) All sensory systems have a main pathway that passes through the thalamus. b) The olfactory bulb sends information to the amygdala and indirectly to the hippocampus. c) Rewarding tastes are processed separately from aversive tastes. d) Repulsive visual stimuli, as well as disgusting tastes, activates the insula. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 122. What is a key similarity between olfaction and gustation? a) Both involve the prefrontal cortex. b) Both involve the somatosensory cortex. c) Both involve the frontal lobe. d) Both involve the temporal lobe. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

123. Our sense of taste relies in part on our sense of smell because a) both smell and taste are integrated in associated areas of the neocortex. b) both smell and taste respond to pheromones. c) smell and taste are our two most critical senses. d) both smell and taste are most important in gathering information about our environment. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 124. Which of the following statements about how the brain processes smell and taste is TRUE? a) All sensory systems have a main pathway that passes through the thalamus. b) In the disorder ageusia humans lose the ability to differentiate different odours. c) Rewarding tastes and aversive tastes are processed in similar brain areas. d) The ability of smells to create memories is related to olfactory connections to the amygdala and the hippocampus. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 125. Which part of the brain becomes active when we taste and see something revolting? a) prefrontal cortex b) insula c) amygdala d) thalamus Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 126. Meg returns home from school for a weekend, but stresses over a paper she needs to write. As she eats her mother's "famous" spaghetti, the familiar smells and tastes help to relieve some of her stress. Which part of the brain is responsible for processing combined sensory information? a) prefrontal cortex b) gustatory cortex c) somatosensory cortex

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d) thalamus Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 127. Each time Brynn eats cotton candy, she recalls fond memories of going to the fair when she was a little girl. She has fond memories of the fair. What process does her brain go through when she eats cotton candy? a) Sensory cells reactive to taste and smell receptor cells, send information to Brynn's cerebral cortex. This information combines with memories that are activated by the amygdala to produce her perception of each cotton candy experience. b) Skin cells reactive to temperature and touch combine with sensory cells responsible for texture, taste, and smell. This information is processed in the somatosensory pathway and combines with memories to produce her perception of each cotton candy experience. c) Taste and smell receptor cells, along with skin cells reactive to temperature and touch, send information to the brain where it is processed in the thalamus before combining with memories to produce her perception of each cotton candy experience. d) Sensory cells reactive to touch and temperature, along with taste and smell receptor cells, send information to her thalamus. This information combines with memories to produce her perception of each cotton candy experience. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 128. While imaging their brains, Dr. Baquero shows one group of participants repulsive scenes on a computer screen. A second group of participants tastes a small portion of revolting food. What should images from the participants’ brains reveal regarding cortical activity in the two groups of participants? a) The piriform cortex should be active among participants in the visual scene group, whereas the insula should be active among participants in the taste group. b) The insula should be active among participants in the visual scene group, whereas the piriform cortex should be active among participants in the taste group. c) The insula should be active among participants in both groups. d) The piriform cortex should be active among participants in both groups. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

129. Twenty-five-year-old Janessa, and her sixty-year old mother get into an elevator with a male passenger. Although scents do not usually affect her, Janessa is extremely bothered by the smell of the man’s aftershave, but her mother does not even seem to notice. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for Janessa and her mother’s different reactions? a) Janessa has not had the same level of exposure to aftershave as her mother. Therefore, she has not learned to like the smell. b) Because of the age differences, Janessa has not habituated to the smell as quickly as her mother c) Janessa may be ovulating whereas her mother’s sensitivity to odours has diminished after menopause. d) Repulsive odours are processed in the insula which becomes less active with age. Therefore, Janessa would be more sensitive to the odour than her mother. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 130. The relationship between smell and memory reflects connections between the olfactory bulb and the ___. The link between smell and emotion reflects connections between the olfactory bulb and the ___. a) amygdala; hippocampus b) amygdala; amygdala, also c) hippocampus; hippocampus, also d) hippocampus; amygdala Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 131. Whenever Savannah smells fresh chocolate chip cookies baking, it reminds her of when she was a little girl and her mother used to bake cookies for her after school. Now when she smells chocolate chip cookies, she feels safe and secure. Which of the following statements is NOT supported by this example? a) The olfactory system sends signals to the insula. b) The olfactory system sends signals to the hippocampus. c) The olfactory system is connected to the reward circuits in the brain. d) The olfactory system could be considered part of a network. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard

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Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 132. Thackery was on his honeymoon and was happily strolling along the fishing docks in Cuba with his partner when suddenly he was vividly reminded of the abuse he received at the hands of his father, in the fishing shed, when he was a boy. His horror and revulsion at remembering these harrowing events from his past at such a time could be accounted for by all the following EXCEPT a) The olfactory system sends signals to the amygdala. b) The olfactory system sends signals to the hippocampus. c) The olfactory system is directly connected to the thalamus. d) The olfactory system is considered part of a network. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 133. Which of the following represents the olfactory pathway from the nose to the brain? a) olfactory receptor > thalamus > insula > cortex b) olfactory bulb > olfactory nerve > thalamus > cortex c) olfactory receptor > olfactory nerve > amygdala > hippocampus d) olfactory receptor > olfactory nerve > olfactory bulb > cortex Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 134. Which of the following accurately describes the pathway for the olfactory processing? a) Nose – piriform cortex – olfactory bulb – thalamus – amygdala b) Nose – Olfactory bulb – olfactory nerve – thalamus – piriform gyrus – amygdala c) Nose – Olfactory nerve – piriform bulb – olfactory cortex – amygdala and hippocampus d) Nose – olfactory nerve – olfactory bulb – piriform cortex and other brain areas Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

135. Annelle is a professional “perfume smeller” for a major cosmetics firm. She claims that “the nose” is a gift: Some people are just born with more sensitive olfactory mechanisms than others are. How does Annelle view the relative importance of top-down and bottom-up processes in olfaction? Is Annelle’s view of an innate olfactory talent supported by empirical research? a) Annelle believes that olfaction is primarily a bottom-up process. Her view is supported by research showing that humans have difficulty learning to discriminate among odours and that the piriform cortex is not plastic. b) Annelle believes that olfaction is primarily a bottom-up process. Her view is discredited by research showing that humans can learn to discriminate among odours and that the piriform cortex is highly plastic. c) Annelle believes that olfaction is primarily a top-down process. Her view is discredited by research showing that humans have difficulty learning to discriminate among odours and that the piriform cortex is not plastic. d) Annelle believes that olfaction is primarily a top-down process. Her view is supported by research showing that humans can learn to discriminate among odours and that the piriform cortex is highly plastic. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 136. Your text states that many of the developmental changes in taste preferences “. . . are the result of learning . . . However, . . . the gustatory system itself changes from infancy to adulthood.” The nonitalicized phrase underscores the importance of ___ processes in gustatory development. The italicized phrase points out the role of ___. a) top-down; bottom-up processes b) top-down; top-down processes as well c) bottom-up; top-down processes d) bottom-up; bottom-up processes as well Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 137. Which of the basic tastes are considered rewarding? Which are considered aversive? a) Salty and sweet are considered rewarding. Sour and bitter are considered aversive. b) Sweet is considered rewarding. Salty, sour, and bitter are considered aversive. c) Sweet and sour are considered rewarding. Salty and bitter are considered aversive. d) Sweet, sour, and salty are considered rewarding. Bitter is considered aversive. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy

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Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 138. Which of the following statements about how the brain processes smell and taste is TRUE? a) All sensory systems have a main pathway that passes through the thalamus. b) Rewarding tastes are processed separately from aversive tastes. c) Olfactory and gustatory information are not combined in the brain. d) Repulsive visual stimuli activate the amygdala while repulsive tastes activate the reward pathways. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 139. Revolting tastes are to the ____________ as revolting visual images are to the _____________. a) thalamus; amygdala b) amygdala; thalamus c) insula; amygdala d) insula; insula Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 140. How does the focus of the absolute threshold concept differ from that of the difference threshold concept? a) Absolute threshold focuses on minimum stimulation levels while difference threshold focuses on changes in stimulus intensity. b) Absolute threshold focuses on opening the pain gate while difference threshold focuses on closing it. c) Absolute threshold focuses on subliminal perception of a stimulus while difference threshold focuses on its persuasive qualities. d) Absolute threshold focuses on the transduction process while difference threshold focuses on the coding process. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 141. The difference between these two concepts becomes apparent when it is recognized that the __________ focuses on minimum stimulation levels, while the __________ focuses on changes in stimulus intensity. a) absolute threshold; difference threshold b) difference threshold; absolute threshold c) coding; difference threshold d) absolute threshold; coding Answer: a Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 142. Darby is exposed to two odours that are below her just noticeable difference threshold. As a participant in a study, one of these odours is presented just before Darby receives a shock on her finger. What is likely to happen as a result? a) She will be unable to detect either odour for a few days. b) She will associate the shock with both odours. c) She will now be able to discriminate between the two odours. d) She will develop epileptic seizures triggered by either of the two odours. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 143. Nazir is unable to tell the difference between two odours that have very similar chemical structures. As a participant in a study, one of these odours is paired with the delivery of shock to the finger. What is likely to happen as a result? a) Nazir will associate shock with both odours. b) Nazir will now be able to discriminate between the two odours. c) Nazir will be unable to detect either odour for a few days. d) Nazir will develop epileptic seizures triggered by either of the two odours. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation

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Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 144. How do we know that the chemical senses can be involved in epileptic seizures? a) Some people smell a specific odour right before a migraine. b) Supertasters have more migraine headaches than normal tasters. c) The olfactory bulb is often the site of origination of epileptic seizures. d) Specific odours can trigger seizures in some people. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 145. Jahar suffers from reflex epilepsy and experiences a seizure only after smelling roses. This suggests that a) the olfactory pathways are crossed with multiple sensory pathways. b) the seizure is likely initiated in the olfactory pathways. c) Jahar will be anosmic for a few days following the seizure. d) Jahar’s olfactory bulb is overactive and firing too many action potentials. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 146. Shuji experiences a specific odour hallucination right before he has an epileptic seizure. This suggests that a) the seizure is likely initiated in the olfactory pathways. b) his olfactory bulb is overactive. c) specific odours are linked in Shuji’s memory with specific memories. d) Shuji will suffer from anosmia for a few days following the seizure. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 147. Some people experience hallucinations before or during migraines or epileptic seizures. What are these hallucinations called? Which sensory system(s) do they involve? a) These hallucinations are called auras and usually involve vision.

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

b) These hallucinations are called auras and may involve any sensory system. c) These hallucinations are called ageusia’s and usually involve taste or smell. d) These hallucinations are called ageusia’s and may involve any sensory system. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 148. Prior to a migraine headache, Freya experiences blind spots outlined by geometric designs in one of her visual fields. Freya’s friend Audrey also suffers from migraines, but she experiences a heavy metallic taste just prior to a headache. What are these sensory experiences called and what do they tell us about sensory system involvement? a) These hallucinations are called auras and involve vision; Audrey probably has a more serious condition. b) These hallucinations are called auras and may involve any sensory system. c) These hallucinations are called auras and involve vision or taste. d) These hallucinations are called auras and although they begin with migraines, they are a warning sign of future seizures. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 149. Your text offers the hypothesis that picky eating in children may be adaptive in helping us survive. Which of the following findings would offer the strongest support for this hypothesis if it were true? a) Children are picky eaters in a range of very different cultures around the world. b) Children’s pickiness in their food preferences is related to their parents’ disciplinary styles. c) In some of the world’s cultures, children are no pickier than adults in their food preferences. d) Identical twins raised in different adoptive families are equally picky in their food preferences. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 150. What advice would you give to the mother of a four-year old who is a very picky eater? a) It is normal for children to be picky eaters because they have so few taste buds, they only taste specific flavours. b) It is normal for children to be picky eaters as their taste buds are not fully developed at this

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age. c) It is normal for children to be picky eaters because they have a higher number of taste buds. d) At the age of four, children prefer foods that have a sour taste. So, feed them foods that fit into that taste category. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 151. Based on your text’s discussion of the development of the sense of taste, which of the following statements is most likely true? a) Research has confirmed the plasticity of both the piriform cortex and the insula. b) Research has yet to confirm the plasticity of either the piriform cortex or the insula. c) Research has established the plasticity of the insula. Research has yet to confirm the plasticity of the piriform cortex. d) Research has established the plasticity of the piriform cortex. Research has yet to confirm the plasticity of the insula. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 152. Daphne is 2. Eva is 8. Felipe is 14. Which alternative correctly identifies the basic tastes for which of these individuals have developed a preference? a) Daphne – sweet; Eva – sweet and sour; Felipe – sweet, sour, and bitter b) Daphne – sweet; Eva – sweet and sour; Felipe – sweet and sour c) Daphne – sweet; Eva – sweet, sour, and bitter; Felipe – sweet, sour, and bitter d) Daphne – sweet and sour; Eva – sweet and sour; Felipe – sweet, sour, and bitter Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 153. Aaron is a newborn. Which of the following statements is true with respect to his chemical senses? a) Aaron prefers the odour of his mother’s milk to the odour of another woman’s milk. b) Aaron will rapidly develop a preference for sour tastes. c) Aaron’s ability to taste is quite poor. d) Aaron does not yet show a preference for sweet tastes over bitter tastes.

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 154. Harper is one-week old. Which of the following statements is true with respect to her chemical senses? a) Harper’s ability to differentiate tastes is poor. b) Harper has a higher concentration of taste buds on her tongue than either of her parents. c) Harper has a liking for sour tastes. d) Harper does not yet show a preference for sweet tastes over bitter tastes. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 155. Yusuf is three months old and has had nothing but breast milk. Today, his mother put a small sprinkle of sugar on his tongue for the first time. What is he likely to do in reaction to the sugar? a) Turn his head away and grimace. b) Purse his lips and open his eyes very widely. c) Make sucking movements with his mouth. d) Root for his mother’s breast. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 156. Pablo and Martina are brother and sister. If each is statistically like their own gender, how does Martina’s sensitivity to smell probably compare to Pablo’s? a) Martina is less sensitive to smell than is Pablo, except during ovulation. b) Martina is more sensitive to smell than is Pablo, except during ovulation. c) Martina is less sensitive to smell than is Pablo, especially during ovulation. d) Martina is more sensitive to smell than is Pablo, especially during ovulation. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis

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Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 157. Which of the following persons would be LEAST likely to detect different odours? a) Jack – a 70-year-old male b) Jill – a 26-year-old female c) Maureen – a 65-year-old female d) Martin – a 20-year-old male Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 158. Supertasters a) have learned to become more sensitive to the four basic tastes. b) make up 10% of the population. c) can better detect a specific bitter chemical than other people can. d) are more likely to be men than women. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 159. Ömer is a supertaster. This means that he a) is especially averse to bitter flavours. b) is in the top 10% of the population for taste sensitivity. c) is most likely a very old man. d) can regenerate his taste receptors faster than most people. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 160. Farzana easily detects and responds negatively to a specific bitter chemical. Jordi detects the chemical but has no reaction. Thaddeus does not detect the presence of the chemical. Into which categories would each of these three individuals be placed? a) normal taster; diagnosed with ageusia; diagnosed with presence of dysgeusia. b) enhanced taster; average taster; normal taster.

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

c) supertaster; medium taster; non-taster. d) This is not a test used to differentiate people in any way. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 161. According to your text, the fact that a greater percentage of women than men are supertasters may have had adaptive significance. Which of the following psychologists is most likely to endorse this hypothesis? a) Dr. Hahn, an evolutionary psychologist b) Dr. Iverson, a neuropsychologist c) Dr. Joseph, a cognitive psychologist d) Dr. King, a behavioural psychologist Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 162. When given a bitter substance intended to categorize tasters, which of the following would be true? a) Supertasters would find the taste to be less bitter than medium or non-tasters. b) Medium tasters would detest the taste; supertasters would perceive the taste as a mixture of sweet and bitter. c) Non-tasters would find the substance bitter, medium tasters do find the taste bitter but particularly offensive and supertasters would not detect the bitterness at all. d) Non-tasters would not even notice the bitterness, medium tasters would notice it but not find it overly offensive, supertasters would find the taste repulsive. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 163. Which of the following best describe relative prevalence of ageusia and anosmia? a) Ageusia and anosmia are equally common. b) Ageusia is rarer than anosmia. c) Ageusia is somewhat more common than anosmia. d) Ageusia is much more common than anosmia.

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Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 164. Oscar has suffered a viral infection in his brain and now has ageusia. This means that he a) also has anosmia. b) is a supertaster. c) is unable to taste. d) suffers from seizures that are triggered by specific tastes. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 165. Jonah has suffered a viral infection in his brain and now has anosmia. This means that he a) also has ageusia. b) is a supertaster. c) is unable to smell. d) suffers from seizures that are triggered by specific tastes. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 166. The inability to taste is called ___. a) agnosia b) ageusia c) anosmia d) aphasia Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 167. Aziz has Alzheimer’s disease and is suffering from a diminished sense of smell. How is

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Alzheimer’s disease related to the olfactory system? a) Women with Alzheimer’s disease report olfactory losses that men do not report. The cause is unknown. b) There is no actual olfactory loss associated with Alzheimer’s disease; instead, patients report loss because they cannot recall specific odours. c) A common taste disorder associated with Alzheimer’s disease interferes with olfactory function. d) Degeneration of olfactory receptor neurons and neurons in the olfactory brain regions are associated with Alzheimer’s disease. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 168. Marissa suffered a head injury in a motor vehicle accident. As a result, she complains that she is unable to taste even though her gustatory system is intact. What is most likely Marissa’s problem? a) Marissa taste buds are functional, but her the message is not being transmitted from the thalamus to the amygdala. b) Marissa is suffering from ageusia. c) Marissa has suffered damage to her olfactory system. d) Marissa has probably sustained damage to her olfactory cilia. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 169. Which of the following statements about the gustatory system over time is FALSE? a) A taste for bitter foods emerges in young adulthood. b) Children have taste buds on their tongues, palates, inside their cheeks and back of their mouths. c) Children develop a taste for sour foods around age seven. d) The ability to taste is well-formed at birth. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 170. Which tactile receptors respond to vibrations and heavy pressure?

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a) Merkel’s discs b) Ruffini’s end-organs c) Pacinian corpuscles d) Meissner’s corpuscles Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration 171. Henry is working on a construction site and using a jackhammer for the first time. The machine was fairly heavy and vibrated something fierce. Which sensory receptor would most likely respond to this sensation? a) Merkel’s discs b) Pacinian corpuscles c) Meissner’s corpuscles d) Ruffini’s end-organs Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration 172. Although Rodney has the ringer on his cell phone turned off, he knows when he receives a call because he can feel the cell phone vibrate in his shirt pocket. The sensory receptors that would respond to the vibrating cell phone are the _______________. a) Meissner’s corpuscles b) Free-nerve endings c) Ruffini’s end-organs d) Pacinian corpuscles Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration 173. Which tactile receptors respond to temperature? a) Merkel’s discs b) Ruffini’s end-organs

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

c) free nerve endings d) Meissner’s corpuscles Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration 174. Ye-eun is baking a pie. When she reaches in to take the pie out of the oven, she burns the top of her arm. Which tactile receptors will inform Ye-eun she has been burned? a) Merkel’s discs b) Ruffini’s end-organs c) free nerve endings d) Meissner’s corpuscles Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration 175. Ricardo has just stubbed his toe. Which sensory receptor will send the message that he is in pain? a) free-nerve endings b) Pacinian corpuscles c) Merkel’s discs d) Meissner’s corpuscles Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration 176. Which tactile receptors register the movement of joints? a) Merkel’s discs b) Ruffini’s end-organs c) free nerve endings d) Meissner’s corpuscles Answer: b

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration 177. Which of the following tactile sensory receptors is correctly matched with a location? a) free nerve endings – deep in the skin b) Meissner’s corpuscles – near the surface of the skin c) Pacinian corpuscles – in the hairless parts of the body d) Ruffini’s end-organs – deep in the skin Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration 178. Eduardo plays hockey for a local team. Which sensory receptors would register the movement of Eduardo’s joints as he skates down the ice? a) Meissner’s corpuscle b) Merkel’s disc c) Free-nerve ending d) Ruffini’s end-organs Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration 179. Which tactile receptors are found in the hairless regions of the body? a) Merkel’s discs b) Ruffini’s end-organs c) free nerve endings d) Meissner’s corpuscles Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong.

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration 180. Martina is in a fabric store. As she runs her fingers over different fabrics, which tactile receptors would give her information about different textures? a) Merkel’s discs b) Ruffini’s end-organs c) free nerve endings d) Meissner’s corpuscles Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration 181. Holly is experiencing what it is like to read Braille by closing her eyes and running her fingertips over the arrays of bumps. Which sensory receptor would most likely respond to this sensation? a) Merkel’s discs b) Pacinian corpuscles c) Meissner’s corpuscles d) Ruffini’s end-organs Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration 182. Which of the following tactile sensory receptors is correctly matched with a function? a) Merkel’s discs –. register light to moderate pressure b) Ruffini’s end-organs –. transduces information about sensitive touch c) Meissner’s corpuscles – respond to vibrations and heavy pressure d) Pacinian corpuscles – register heavy pressure and movement of the joints Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration

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183. Which of the following tactile sensory receptors is correctly matched with a function? a) Merkel’s discs – respond to vibrations and heavy pressure b) Ruffini’s end-organs – register light to moderate pressure c) Meissner’s corpuscles – transduces information about sensitive touch d) Pacinian corpuscles – register heavy pressure and movement of the joints Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration 184. The absolute threshold for touch is ___ correlated with the density of touch receptors in the part of the body being stimulated. a) negatively b) positively c) perfectly d) not Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration 185. The areas of the body more sensitive to touch have _____free nerve endings. This relationship is _____. a) a greater number of; a negative correlation b) a greater number of; a positive correlation c) more sensitive; not meaningfully significant d) more sensitive; is not statistically significant Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration 186. Information about touch is processed in the ___ of the brain. a) frontal lobe b) motor cortex c) somatosensory cortex

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d) vestibular cortex Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration 187. Tactile input from the ___ would occupy the most cortical space in the somatosensory cortex. a) torso b) back c) hands d) feet Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration 188. Touch information is relayed from the thalamus to ___ cortex in the ___ lobe. a) motor; frontal b) motor; parietal c) somatosensory; frontal d) somatosensory; parietal Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration 189. If the somatosensory cortex were cut off from the rest of the body, this would cause a) an inability to move. b) an inability to integrate information across different senses. c) an inability to maintain body posture and balance. d) an inability to feel touch sensations. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy

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Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration 190. What would happen if the somatosensory cortex were NOT able to receive signals from the body? a) an inability to move b) an inability to integrate information across different senses c) an inability to feel touch sensations d) an inability to maintain body posture and balance Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration 191. Sunita’s power went out and she reached for her flashlight. What is the first thing that would happen in her somatosensory pathway as she touched the flashlight? a) Her thalamus relays the information to her somatosensory cortex. b) Her spinal cord sends signals to her hand to feel for the flashlight. c) Her receptors respond to the external tactile stimulation. d) The information is relayed up her spinal cord. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration 192. Chloe loved to stroke the soft fuzzy scalp of her new baby. What is the immediate thing happening in Chloe’s somatosensory system allowing her to enjoy this sensation? a) Her thalamus relays the information to her somatosensory cortex. b) Her spinal cord sends signals to her hand to feel for the flashlight. c) Her receptors respond to the external tactile stimulation. d) The information is relayed up her spinal cord. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong.

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration 193. Relative to the location of the stimulation, tactile information is processed on the __ side of the brain; that is, it is processed ___. a) opposite; ipsilaterally b) opposite; contralaterally c) same; ipsilaterally d) same; contralaterally Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration 194. Gurdeep has sustained an injury in his right somatosensory cortex in the area corresponding to his hand. What would this do to Gurdeep’s abilities? a) He would be unable to move his left hand. b) He would be unable to feel touch or temperature in his left hand. c) He would be unable to move his right hand. d) He would be unable to feel touch or temperature in his right hand. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration 195. Leah fell from a climbing wall and injured her right somatosensory cortex, specifically in the area corresponding to her leg. How would this injury manifest in Leah’s daily life? a) She would be unable to feel touch or temperature in her right leg. b) She would be unable to move her right leg. c) She would be unable to feel touch or temperature in her left leg. d) She would be unable to move her left leg. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration

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195. Ouch! A paper cut! You jerk your hand away from the sheet just as a tiny droplet of blood appears on your finger. The cut’s pain signal travels to your brain along the ___ axons of the ___ pain pathway. a) unmyelinated; slow b) myelinated; slow c) unmyelinated; fast d) myelinated; fast Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration 196. The fast pathway would most likely be used to carry pain signals in all the following examples EXCEPT a) stubbing your toe. b) getting frostbite. c) burning your hand on the stove. d) getting a paper cut. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration 197. Which of the following is NOT true about the somatosensory cortex? a) It processes information from the opposite side of the body. b) It receives tactile information via the thalamus. c) It does not have equal representation of all parts of the body. d) It receives pain information from the fast and slow pathways. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration 198. The slower pain pathway uses ___ axons and communicates with the ___ in the brain. a) myelinated; amygdala b) myelinated; hypothalamus

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c) unmyelinated; amygdala d) unmyelinated; hypothalamus Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration 199. Odelia stubbed her toe on the corner of a desk. What would be the most practical way of dealing with her pain? a) Wait it out – endorphins will ease the pain. b) Wait it out – according to gate theory, the pain will subside. c) Rub it – this will cause endorphins to be released and ease the pain. d) Rub it – according to gate theory this will prevent pain from travelling on slow pathways. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration 200. Carmen and Rosalie were recently in a car accident. Carmen broke his ankle and Rosalie broke her arm. Which of the following statements most accurately describes their pain? a) The pain message from Carmen’s ankle would travel via the fast pathway; the pain message from Rosalie’s arm would travel via the slow pathway. b) The pain message from Carmen’s ankle would travel via the slow pathway; the pain message from Rosalie’s arm would travel via the fast pathway. c) Carmen would report greater pain than Rosalie. d) Rosalie would report greater pain than Carmen. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration 201. Olivia has fallen and broken her leg. Although initially, she felt a very sharp pain, it has now progressed to a constant burning pain. Which of the following accurately describes the pain Olivia is experiencing? a) Olivia’s pain messages were and continue to be travelling along the fast pathway of myelinated neurons.

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b) Olivia’s pain messages were and continue to be travelling along the slow pathway of unmyelinated neurons. c) Olivia’s pain messages were initially sent along the myelinated neurons but is now being sent along unmyelinated neurons. d) Olivia’s pain messages were initially sent along unmyelinated neurons but is now being sent along myelinated neurons. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration 202. Pain information received via the fast pathway a) is not possible in infants immediately following birth. b) is disconnected from the somatosensory cortex and instead send signals to the spinal cord. c) uses unmyelinated axons. d) initiates a withdrawal reflex. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration 203. With respect to the development of the tactile senses, which of the following statements is true? a) Although the tactile senses are highly developed at birth, there is still substantial development in these senses for many years following birth. b) The tactile senses are almost fully developed at birth; there is only minimal development in these senses following birth. c) Although the tactile senses are poorly developed at birth, the development of these senses is virtually complete by the age of 2. d) The tactile senses are poorly developed at birth. The development of these senses continues for many years following birth. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration

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204. Which of the following is NOT true regarding the development of the tactile senses? a) Tactile senses develop at a relatively early age during prenatal development. b) Children have higher thresholds for pain than adults do. c) After birth, the ability to recognize and respond to different somatosensory stimuli depends on brain development. d) Children are more susceptible to being tickled than adults. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration 205. Ivan is going bungie jumping and he has to wear a special harness that fits snuggly across his ribs. The problem is that his ribs are extremely ticklish, and he cannot stand having the instructor buckle him up without having a tickle fit. So, he does his best to do up his own harness and the instructor inspects the finished job. Why was Ivan able to do it himself when he was too ticklish with the instructor? a) The instructor was trying to tickle him. b) The tactile stimulation is surprising when the instructor is doing it. c) Ivan’s tactile threshold is higher when the instructor is tickling him than when he tickles himself. d) Ivan is beginning to outgrow the ticklish stage, as indicated by the fact that he can no longer tickle himself. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. 206. Studies of pain thresholds suggest that which groups of individuals have a lower threshold for detecting pain? a) women b) children c) men d) older adults Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration

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207. How does your text explain the fact that the pain threshold is lower among women than among men? Is this a bottom-up or a top-down account? a) Women are not encouraged to be stoic in the face of pain. This is a bottom-up account. b) Women have more pain receptors in their skin than do men. This is a bottom-up account. c) Women are not encouraged to be stoic in the face of pain. This is a top-down account. d) Women have more pain receptors in their skin than do men. This is a top-down account. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration 208. Which of the following accurately describes the pain experience of both males and females? a) Males have a lower threshold for detecting pain than females. b) Females have a lower threshold for detecting pain than males. c) Males and females have similar thresholds for detecting pain. d) Females can detect pain better than males but are better at coping with it. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration 209. In an fMRI study, Dr. Marvin exposes participants to high heat. Participants rate how painful they find the heat. Which of the following hypotheses is most reasonable considering your text’s discussion? a) Pain ratings should be positively correlated with activity in the thalamus. b) Pain ratings should be negatively correlated with activity in the thalamus. c) Pain ratings should be positively correlated with activity in the cingulate cortex. d) Pain ratings should be negatively correlated with activity in the cingulate cortex. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration 210. As discussed in your textbook, individual responses to painful stimulation have been

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supported by which of the following conclusions? a) Participants exposed to high heat who reported pain showed thalamic changes in activity but no changes in cortical region activity whereas those who reported no pain showed changes in both thalamic and cortical region activity. b) Participants exposed to high heat who reported pain showed changes in both thalamic activity and cortical region activity whereas those who reported no pain showed thalamic changes in activity but no changes in cortical region activity. c) Participants exposed to high heat who reported pain had a higher number of sensory receptors in their skin than those who reported no pain. d) Participants exposed to high heat who reported no pain had a higher number of sensory receptors in their skin than those who reported pain. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration 211. How has the gate control theory of pain changed in recent years? a) Early versions of the theory focused on pain gates in the spinal cord. Recently, the theory has incorporated pain blocking mechanisms in the brain itself. b) Early versions of the theory focused on pain gates in the brain. Recently, the theory has incorporated pain blocking mechanisms in the spinal cord. c) Early versions of the theory focused on pain gates in the spinal cord. Recently, the theory has rejected this mechanism of pain control. d) Early versions of the theory focused on pain gates in the brain. Recently, the theory has rejected this mechanism of pain control. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration 212. According to the more recent versions of the gate control theory of pain, why are some people more sensitive to pain than others? a) Some people have more pain receptors than others. b) The spinal cord of some people is more efficient at blocking the pain signal travelling to the brain. c) Some people experience a greater release of endorphins in the brain. d) There are differences in the individuals’ gating mechanisms in the brain which causes individual differences in pain thresholds. Answer: d

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration 213. In Canada, approximately 1 in ___ people suffer from chronic pain. a) 3 b) 6 c) 8 d) 10 Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration 214. Avery injured her back, and after four surgeries, she is no longer able to work due to the pain. Based on research discussed in your textbook, there is a 50 percent probability that Avery also suffers from ___. a) cancer b) hypochondriasis c) depression d) obsessive compulsive disorder Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration 215. Bryant suffers from chronic pain. There is a _______% chance that Bryant also suffers from ____________ a) 25; anxiety b) 25; depression c) 50; anxiety d) 50; depression Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen

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when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration 216. The pain-relieving chemicals naturally produced by the nervous system belong to a class of substances called ___; this class also includes ___. a) stimulants; cocaine and amphetamine b) depressants; alcohol and valium c) opiates; heroin and morphine d) opiates; alcohol and valium Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration 217. Fernanda is training for the triathlon competition. After running 10 kilometers, she had to ride her bicycle 40 kilometers and now as she is completing the 2 kilometer swim. Fernanda had experienced a great deal of pain in her legs during the bicycle portion of the triathlon, but now she finds that she has no pain and can concentrate on completing the competition. Which of the following explains why Fernanda is no longer experiencing pain? a) Fernanda has experienced a release of adrenaline. b) Fernanda’s original pain was caused by messages travelling on the fast pathway. Now the pain is travelling on the slow pathway, so it is not as severe. c) Fernanda has experienced a release of exogenous opiates in her nervous system. d) Fernanda has experienced a release of endorphins and enkephalins. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration 218. What endogenous chemical would be released by neurons following intense physical exertion or stress? a) morphine b) GABA c) endorphins d) serotonin Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

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Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration 219. Samuel was born with the inability to detect pain. Opal lost the ability to detect pain through a medical condition blocking messages from her extremities. Samuel suffers from ___. Opal suffers from ___. a) neuropathy; neuropathy too b) neuropathy; dysautonomia c) dysautonomia; dysautonomia too d) dysautonomia; neuropathy Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration 220. Three-year-old Devin has familial dysautonomia. This means that Devin a) is not able to block pain sensations. b) is not able to produce endorphins or enkephalins. c) is not able to feel pain at all. d) is not able to feel pain in his extremities, such as his legs and feet. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration 221. Which of the following is associated with the lack of pain and temperature sensations? a) phantom limb sensations b) familial dysautonomia c) gate control theory d) enkephalins Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration

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222. Which of the following facts about detecting pain is FALSE? a) Women have adapted the ability to withstand more intense pain than men, due to the need to deliver children. b) In some areas of the body, women have twice as many pain receptors as men. c) Distraction and breathing techniques can help individuals withstand more intense pain. d) Pain sensations travelling along the slow pathway can be somewhat prevented by activating the fast pathway using touch. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration 223. Which of the following facts about detecting pain is true? a) Women have adapted the ability to withstand more intense pain than men, due to the need to deliver children. b) In some areas of the body, women have twice as many pain receptors as men. c) All pain pathways by-pass the thalamus and have direct connections with the cortex. d) Anxiously focusing on the painful stimulus makes it feel better. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration 224. Your textbook discusses why it is important for us to feel pain. Which type of psychologists would support the argument that recognizing pain is critical for preventing physical damage to the body? a) cognitive b) evolutionary c) clinical d) behavioural Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration

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225. Your text states that “when a body part is removed . . . somatosensory inputs from intact body parts expand to occupy those regions of the cortex.” Recall the processes of neural development described in Chapter 4. Which concepts are most clearly suggested by this passage? a) plasticity and neurogenesis b) plasticity and synaptogenesis c) plasticity and neuropathy d) neurogenesis and synaptogenesis Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration 226. The processes of plasticity and synaptogenesis described in Chapter are illustrated by which of the following? a) Charles has lost the ability to smell. b) Mehdi was born with the inability to feel pain and therefore chewed off part of his tongue and injured his eye when young. c) Beatriz was in a car accident that injured her back and now suffers chronic incessant pain. d) Diana suffers from phantom limb sensation, responding to a touch on the cheek as if her hand were being touched Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration 227. Kyle is experiencing extreme pain in his left arm. The only problem is that his left arm was amputated two years ago! According to Ramachandran, ___ can help decrease the pain. a) electroconvulsive therapy b) mirror box therapy c) Lamaze therapy d) meditation Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration

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228. One treatment for phantom limb is the placement of mirrors by the individual on the same side as the missing limb. The patient is then instructed to move the intact limb. This treatment is known as ___. a) limb reflection therapy b) pseudo-limb replacement therapy c) mirror box therapy d) mirror illusion therapy Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration 229. Of the following, who is MOST likely to suffer from phantom limb pain? a) Midori, who had her leg amputated after suffering very painful bone cancer. b) Julian, who was born missing his right hand. c) Letisha, who always wore a wristwatch on the arm she had amputated. d) They are all equally likely to suffer phantom limb pain. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration 230. Phantom limb sensations reflect NOT only the reorganization of somatosensory cortex, but also patients’ memory for sensations they experienced prior to the removal of the body part. The contribution of cortical reorganization to phantom limb sensations exemplifies a ___ influence. The contribution of memory exemplifies a ___. a) top-down; top-down influence also b) top-down; bottom-up influence c) bottom-up; bottom-up influence also d) bottom-up; top-down influence Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration

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231. Which of the following is a true statement?? a) Phantom limb sensation and phantom limb pain refer to the same phenomenon. b) Phantom limb sensation and phantom limb pain refer to different phenomenon. c) Phantom limb is not physically real but is instead psychologically created by the sufferer. d) Phantom limb operates independent of memory. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration 232. Phantom limb pain exists in amputees because a) the original wound was so severe that the pain never goes away. b) nerve cells send conflicting messages to the brain and those signals are interpreted as pain. c) the brain abruptly stops receiving messages from the amputated limb, which triggers a neurological "alarm". d) amputees themselves focus so hard on their injury that pain-like signals are produced. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration 233. Which of the following best describes what happens if a master classical guitarist plucks the low E string of her guitar? a) The string causes the air to vibrate and creates a wave pattern. b) The string heats the air around it, sending out sound waves. c) The string cools the air around it, compressing the molecules. d) The string vibrates faster than the higher-pitched strings. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 234. Which type of sensory information does the auditory system convert into neural impulses? a) vibrations in the air b) air temperature c) chemicals in the air d) air texture

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Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 235. The number of cycles a sound wave completes in a certain amount of time is referred to as the sound’s ___ and is measured in ___. a) amplitude; Hertz b) frequency; decibels c) amplitude; decibels d) frequency; Hertz Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 236. The frequency of a sound is responsible for producing ___. a) amplitude b) Hertz c) pitch d) timbre Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 237. Pitch is to loudness, as ___ is to ___. a) frequency; decibels b) decibels; frequency c) timbre; amplitude d) amplitude; timbre Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing

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238. Frequency is to amplitude as ___ is to ___. a) loudness; pitch b) pitch: hue c) pitch; loudness d) decibels; Hertz Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 239. Lianne is listening to a sound wave that varies in frequency from high to low. This means that the sound is a) changing from loud to soft. b) moving far away and coming closer again. c) decreasing in complexity. d) becoming lower in pitch. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 240. An example of a low-frequency sound is a) a flute. b) a baby crying. c) a tuba. d) a squeal. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 241. The strength of a given sound wave cycle is the sound’s ___ and is measured in ___. a) frequency; Hertz b) frequency; decibels c) amplitude; Hertz d) amplitude; decibels Answer: d

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 242. Which of the following would describe the pattern for a loud, low-pitched explosion such as a cannon firing? a) Amplitude would be high and frequency would be low. b) Amplitude would be high and frequency would be high. c) Amplitude would be low and frequency would be low. d) Amplitude would be low and frequency would be high. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 243. A sound wave of low amplitude would sound a) very rhythmic. b) very soft. c) very complex. d) very low pitched. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 244. Igor is listening to a sound wave that varies in amplitude from low to high. This means that the sound is a) becoming higher in pitch. b) changing from soft to loud. c) moving far away and coming closer again. d) increasing in complexity. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing

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245. In a study Dr. Enderby is systematically varying the amplitude of a sound wave and asking observers to indicate how loud the sound seems. In this study, amplitude is a(n) ___ variable. Dr. Enderby should display the results of the study using a(n) ___. a) dependent; line graph b) dependent; bar graph c) independent; line graph d) independent; bar graph Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 246. What is the technical term for the ear drum? a) occipital membrane b) tympanic membrane c) rhythmic membrane d) temporal membrane Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 247. Collectively, the three small bones in the ear are called the ___. a) maleus b) incus c) ossicles d) stapes Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 248. The ossicles are a) a thin membrane where sound waves enter the cochlea. b) a thin membrane in the cochlea. c) another word for the eardrum. d) tiny bones in the ear. Answer: d

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 249. Vibrations in the ________ create waves in the cochlear fluid, which deflects the basilar membrane. a) tympanic membrane b) oval window c) hammer d) cilia Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 250. Which of the following ear structures is correctly paired with a description? a) tympanic membrane – covered with auditory hair cells b) ossicles – bones of the middle ear c) basilar membrane – fluid-filled structure in the inner ear d) cochlea – ear drum Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 251. The last of the three ossicles contacts which part of the ear? a) the cochlea b) the basilar membrane c) the oval window d) the tympanic membrane Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing Difficulty: Medium

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Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 252. Which of the following reflects the correct order of structures that sound waves must encounter for hearing? a) tympanic membrane – oval window—ossicles—cochlea--b) oval window – tympanic membrane – ossicles—cochlea c) tympanic membrane – ossicles – oval window –cochlea d) tympanic membrane -- ossicles – cochlea – oval window Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 253. After the hair cells transduce the auditory information, it travels from the cochlea to the a) brain stem, thalamus, and then the auditory cortex. b) thalamus, brain stem, amygdala, and then the association cortex. c) brain stem, thalamus, amygdala, and then the auditory cortex. d) thalamus, amygdala, auditory cortex, and then the brain stem. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 254. In the auditory pathway, what happens immediately after the oval window vibrates? a) The tympanic membrane vibrates. b) Waves are created in the basilar membrane that bend the hair cells. c) Neural impulses are sent to the thalamus and auditory cortex. d) The incus sends a signal on to the stapes. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 255. The auditory sensory receptors are a) bipolar cells that are embedded in the cochlea. b) bipolar cells that are embedded in the basilar membrane.

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c) hair cells that are embedded in the cochlea. d) hair cells that are embedded in the basilar membrane. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 256. A high-pitched squeal could be distinguished from other sounds because a) hair cells along the ossicles would be stimulated. b) hair cells would send neural impulses to the brain at the same rate as the squeal's frequency. c) the tympanic membrane would vibrate at the same frequency as the squeal. d) different parts of the basilar membrane would selectively vibrate. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 257. If there is fluid in your cochlea, then you a) probably are experiencing conduction hearing loss. b) have tinnitus. c) are at risk for sensorineural hearing loss. d) are perfectly normal. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 258. Peri was watching a YouTube video and found it annoying because the audio and video were not synchronous. Why is this troubling to Peri? a) Peri’s tonotopic map is organized to interpret information differently than it is being projected. b) Peri’s association areas generally integrate and coordinate information from other sensory modalities. In this instance the information is not integrating. c) The hair cells in Peri’s basilar membrane are tuned to the wrong frequency and this is causing confusion. d) The visual image is unrelated to the amplitude of the sounds Peri is listening to, causing deflection in the tympanic membrane. Answer: b

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 259. Mario believes that individuals can tell the difference between certain pitches because of the stimulation of hair cells in the ear - he especially believes this to be true for high-pitched sounds. Mario believes in the a) place theory of hearing. b) frequency theory of hearing. c) audition theory. d) cochlea theory. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 260. Scientists are excited to have discovered a new species of primate deep in the jungle. Most surprising is that this new primate species has a basilar membrane that is two times longer than ours, and it contains twice as many hair cells. Based on these anatomical findings, what would the place theory of pitch perception assume about this primate’s auditory abilities? a) It would have absolute pitch. b) It would require louder sounds in order to hear them. c) It would be able to hear better under water. d) It would hear a wider range of frequencies than we do. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 261. Which of the following sequences correctly arranges the structures of the inner ear from the largest and most inclusive to the smallest and most specific? a) cochlea – basilar membrane – hair cells b) cochlea – hair cells – basilar membrane c) basilar membrane – hair cells – cochlea d) basilar membrane – cochlea – hair cells Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear.

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Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 262. Which of the following sequences correctly reflects the order of events in which sound waves are converted into neural impulses in the ear, from first to last? a) deflection of the basilar membrane – formation of wave in cochlea – vibration of the ossicles – deflection of the tympanic membrane b) deflection of the basilar membrane – vibration of the ossicles – formation of wave in cochlea – deflection of the tympanic membrane c) deflection of the tympanic membrane – formation of wave in cochlea –vibration of the ossicles – deflection of the basilar membrane d) deflection of the tympanic membrane – vibration of the ossicles – formation of wave in cochlea – deflection of the basilar membrane Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 263. In the auditory pathway, what happens immediately after the hair cells bend? a) Neural impulses are sent to the thalamus and auditory cortex. b) Neural impulses are communicated to the auditory nerve. c) Waves are created in the basilar membrane. d) The oval window vibrates. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 264. Which of the following is not a brain area to which auditory information travels after it leaves the cochlea? a) thalamus b) brain stem c) amygdala d) association cortex Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing

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265. Part of the primary auditory cortex is organized in a tonotopic map. The term “tonotopic map” refers to a) a structure in the cochlea that maps out where hair cells should be. b) a structure in the auditory cortex that maps out where sounds of different amplitudes should be. c) representation in the auditory cortex of different sound amplitudes. d) representation in the auditory cortex of difference sound frequencies. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 266. The tonotopic organization of the auditory cortex refers to the fact that in the brain, a) different sound locations from the environment are represented in different regions of the auditory cortex. b) different frequencies of sound are represented in different areas of the auditory cortex. c) different amplitudes of sound are represented in different areas of the auditory cortex. d) different kinds of sound are represented in different regions of the auditory cortex. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 267. The fact that our auditory cortex is organized tonotopically means that a) different frequencies are specifically represented. b) different locations of sounds are specifically represented. c) different types of sounds are specifically represented. d) different loudness of sound is specifically represented. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 268. Part of primary auditory cortex is organized as a ___ map of the different pitches in the sounds we hear. a) sonotopic b) audiotopic c) tonotopic d) cochleotopic

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Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 269. Dr. Horner is conducting research on the development of the tonotopic map in the auditory cortex of rats. He repeatedly exposes both young and old rats to pure tones. Which of the following statements most accurately reflects what Dr. Horner will find? a) There will be a larger representation of those sounds in the auditory cortex of the older rats. b) There will be equal representation of those sounds in the auditory cortex of both the old and young rats. c) There will be a larger representation of those sounds in the auditory cortex of the young rats. d) Bottom-up processes can help reorganize the auditory cortex of older rats even after the sensitive period is over. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 270. Which of the following is the best source of evidence that organization in the primary auditory cortex is tonotopic, and that this organization occurs during a sensitive period in development? a) Animals exposed to pure tones during a certain time in development show more representation of those sounds in the auditory cortex than similar exposure later in development. b) Infants who were exposed to pure tones during the last 2 months of gestation are more likely to exhibit absolute pitch. c) Animals raised without exposure to sound never develop the ability to hear low frequency sounds. d) Infants show a preference for female voices over male voices, and this shapes their auditory cortex to prefer higher frequencies. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 271. When you are sitting in class listening to a lecture, it is important that you understand what your professor is saying. Which of the following statements is NOT true about language comprehension?

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a) Language comprehension takes place in a brain region linked to the auditory association areas. b) It is more difficult to comprehend speech sounds if we do not also have visual information. c) Part of language comprehension involves top-down processing. d) Most of language comprehension occurs in the primary auditory cortex. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 272. Which theory of audition states that different frequencies are converted into different rates of action potentials in our auditory nerves? a) tonotopic b) place c) frequency d) association Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 273. Sandy is hiking in the woods with a friend. She hears a low growling sound coming from her right. When she asks her friend about it, he says he hears nothing. After walking a bit further, a hawk shrieks, which startles Sandy's friend. What best explains why Sandy's friend heard the hawk, but NOT the bear? a) both place and frequency theories of hearing b) the place theory of hearing c) the frequency theory of hearing d) the auditory theory of hearing Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 274. Frequency theory attempts to explain the perception of ___. Place theory attempts to explain the perception of ___. a) loudness; loudness b) loudness; pitch c) pitch; pitch

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d) pitch; loudness Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 275. Which of the following statements best captures the relative adequacy of the frequency and place theories as accounts of sound perception? a) Neither frequency theory nor place theory offer an adequate account of sound perception. b) Place theory seems a better theory of sound perception than does frequency theory. c) Frequency theory seems a better theory of sound perception than does place theory. d) Both frequency theory and place theory offer adequate accounts of sound perception. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 276. While high frequency sounds are best explained by the ___ theory of pitch perception, low frequency sounds are best explained by the ___ theory. a) timing in each ear; loudness in each ear b) tonotopic; basilar c) place; frequency d) amplitude; place Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 277. Which term refers to the rare ability to recognize an individual note in isolation? a) absolute pitch b) absolute frequency c) absolute amplitude d) absolute sound Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear.

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Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 278. Ramona hypothesizes that the ability of absolute pitch conveys an adaptive advantage. Your text reports that absolute pitch is likely among speakers of tonal languages than among speakers of nontonal languages. How does this finding relate to Ramona’s hypothesis? a) It does not; the finding is irrelevant to Ramona’s hypothesis. b) The finding argues against Ramona’s hypothesis. c) The finding offers moderate support for Ramona’s hypothesis. d) The finding offers significant for Ramona’s hypothesis. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 279. In Western countries, about 1 in ___ people have absolute pitch. a) 100 b) 1000 c) 10,000 d) 100,000 Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 280. Martina is going to undergo a test to see if she has absolute pitch. This test would be looking to see if Martina can a) detect sounds at lower intensities than the average person. b) copy any song perfectly after hearing it only once. c) recognize or produce any note on a musical scale. d) dissect complex sound waves into their individual harmonies. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 281. Dr. Peterson is performing brain surgery on a patient who has absolute pitch. What could Dr. Peterson expect to find in his patient’s brain that is different from the brain of an average person?

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a) This patient would have more synapses in their cortex. b) This patient would have more auditory receptors. c) This patient would have portions of their cortex that are thinner. d) This patient would have action potentials that travel faster in their auditory cortex. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 282. Tone deafness is also called ___. a) anaudia b) asonia c) amusia d) atonia Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 283. Mandy cannot tell the difference between tones of varying frequencies, such as the sound of her doorbell (a high-pitched ‘ding’) and the sound of her dishwasher (a low-pitched ‘ding’). She also does not enjoy listening to music the way other people do. Most likely, Mandy has a condition known as a) nerve deafness. b) conduction deafness. c) amusia. d) tinnitus. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 284. Which of the following would result in conduction hearing loss? a) Mia’s eardrum is injured during an explosion. b) Rae’s auditory nerve is damaged during surgery. c) Oscar listens to his music at top volume, making the house shake. d) Avery regularly works with explosives and does not often wear ear protection. Answer: a

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 285. Which of the following would be the biggest problem for someone diagnosed with amusia? a) if they had children with someone who also had amusia b) if they had to determine the source of a sound c) if they lived in a culture where the language is tonal d) if it occurred later in life when the auditory pathways are set Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 286. Approximately ____ of the population have amusia, which results in a) 1%; the ability to identify notes in isolation. b) 1%; the inability to identify notes in isolation. c) 4%; strong musical ability – particularly vocal ability. d) 4%; a diminished appreciation for music. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 287. The noise of the crowd in the bar fades into the background as Latriece becomes engrossed in a conversation with her date. Suddenly, she hears her name mentioned a dozen feet down the bar: her ears perk up. This example illustrates the ___ effect, a ___ influence on auditory perception. a) cocktail party; top-down b) cocktail party; bottom-up c) happy-hour; top-down d) happy-hour; bottom-up Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

288. Which of the following scenarios is the best example of the cocktail party effect? a) Otto was listening to his phone until he heard his name being spoken by someone nearby. b) Otto skipped dinner and went from one cocktail party to another all night. c) Otto put headphones on his wife’s stomach and played music for his fetus. d) Otto has a ringing in his hears after spending an evening at a cocktail party. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 289. The ability to carry on to conversation in the middle of a noisy room is called the ____________ and is an example of _______ processing. a) selective attention; top-down b) cocktail party effect; bottom-up c) cocktail party effect; top-down d) selective attention; bottom-up and top-down Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 290. What cues are used to localize sound? a) loudness in each ear b) timing c) adjusting our heads d) all the above Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 291. Hadley hears the faint sound of a police siren. As time passes, the sound of the siren gets louder. Which of the following sound cues will provide Hadley with the most useful information about the location of the police car? a) loudness in each ear b) general loudness c) distance of loudness d) timing

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Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 292. Keziah is in the library studying when there is suddenly a loud noise. Keziah immediately turns her head to the right and sees that someone has knocked a pile of books off a table onto the floor. Which sound localization cue did Keziah use to know in which direction to look? a) general loudness b) loudness in each ear c) timing d) distance of loudness Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 293. While sitting in a coffee shop, Hildebrandt is listening to a scandalous conversation at a neighbouring table. Without turning her head, which of the following sound cues will provide Hildebrandt with the MOST useful information in figuring out at which neighbouring table the conversation is taking place? a) general loudness b) loudness in each ear c) timing d) both a & b Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 294. If a sound were to come from directly above your head, which sound localization cue might be most useful in helping you locate the source of the sound? a) General loudness b) Loudness in each ear c) Distance of loudness d) Adjusting your head and body position Answer: d

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Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 295. With respect to the development of the ability to recognize sounds, which of the following statements is true? a) Although many sounds can be recognized at birth, there is still substantial development in the ability to recognize sounds for many years following birth. b) The ability to recognize sounds is almost fully developed at birth; there is only minimal development following birth. c) Although the ability to recognize sounds is poorly developed at birth, the development of this ability is virtually complete by the age of 2. d) The ability to recognize sounds is poorly developed at birth. The development of this ability continues for many years following birth. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 296. Dr. Tannenhaus is seeking funding to support a program to develop music skills among middle-school students in the fifth through seventh grades. You are on the committee evaluating his grant application. Which of the following pieces of feedback should you give him? a) I would reject Dr. Tannenhaus’ proposal. The ability to acquire music skills is fixed at birth and is unlikely to be influenced by instruction or learning. b) I would support Dr. Tannenhaus’ proposal. The program is right on target. c) I would encourage Dr. Tannenhaus to revise the proposal, targeting the program at highschoolers in the ninth through twelfth grades rather than middle-schoolers. Older students are more likely to have the cognitive skills necessary to benefit from the program. d) I would encourage Dr. Tannenhaus to revise the proposal, targeting the program at preschoolers rather than middle-schoolers. The preschool years are the sensitive period in which the ability to acquire music skills is at its peak. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 297. Which of the following supports the notion of a sensitive period in the development of language and music learning? a) Fetuses respond to loud noises with a startle reflex. b) A newborn will demonstrate a preference for their mother’s voice to other voices. c) Tonotopic mapping occurs in early stages of development.

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d) Speech sounds are preferred over nonspeech sounds in even very young infants. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 298. Maryam has accumulated so much wax in her left ear that sounds are muffled. Maryam is experiencing a) conduction deafness. b) obstructive deafness. c) nerve deafness. d) the honeycomb effect. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 299. One month ago, Felix was scuba diving and ruptured the eardrum of his right ear. He is currently unable to hear sound in his right ear. Felix is suffering from a) nerve deafness. b) conduction deafness. c) obstructive deafness. d) transmission deafness. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 300. Research has found that, since the introduction of the ‘ear bud” earphone, the hearing ability of the average 21-year old of today is equivalent to the average 80-year old of ten years ago. This suggests that the “ear bud” might be causing a) conduction deafness. b) obstructive deafness. c) amplitude deafness. d) nerve deafness. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 301. Terran has played electric guitar for years at volumes much too loud. Unfortunately, he has permanently damaged his hair cells, and they no longer function. This means that he a) cannot identify objects based on sound alone but can hear sounds. b) cannot tell the difference between two tones of different frequencies but can hear sounds. c) cannot detect where sounds are coming from but can hear sounds. d) cannot hear anything. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 302. Regarding cochlear implants, which of the following statements is true? a) Many deaf individuals choose to avoid cochlear implants. b) Cochlear implants are improving only slowly. c) Cochlear implants can enable almost every deaf person to hear sounds. d) Most deaf individuals have embraced cochlear implants. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 303. According to your text, tinnitus affects about 1 in ___ people. a) 50 b) 100 c) 200 d) 500 Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 304. The term for the perpetual sense of a ringing in the ears is called a) conduction deafness. b) amusia.

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c) tinnitus. d) strabismus. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 305. The stimulus for vision is a) thermal radiation. b) electric radiation. c) electromagnetic radiation. d) photon radiation. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 306. What is defined as the visible spectrum of light? a) 100–200 nm b) 250–350 nm c) 400–700 nm d) 750–950 nm Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 307. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the relationship between the electromagnetic spectrum and visible light? a) “The electromagnetic spectrum” is a formalized way to refer to “visible light.” They are the same thing. b) The electromagnetic spectrum refers to a small portion of the spectrum of visible light. c) A small portion of the electromagnetic spectrum is visible light. d) Most but not all the electromagnetic spectrum is visible light. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis

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5 - 101 Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 308. Transduction from light to a neural signal happens in the a) cornea. b) iris. c) optic nerve. d) photoreceptor. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 309. Theresa just walked outside into bright sunlight and her pupils constricted. What part of the eye is responsible for making this happen? a) fovea b) iris c) lens d) cornea Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 310. Visual receptors are found in the: a) cornea. b) retina. c) iris. d) optic nerve. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 311. As compared to cones, rods a) are more sensitive to light. b) are more densely concentrated in the fovea. c) are more responsible for colour perception.

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d) are less numerous. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 312. Antarctica scientists have just discovered the frozen body of a new animal species. Upon examination, they discover that the retina of one of the species is only comprised of rods. What could scientists hypothesize about this animal’s lifestyle? a) It had full colour vision. b) It did not see colour. c) It is nocturnal. d) both b and c Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 313. If you are trying to identify an object in low light conditions, which of the following would be the best strategy? a) Focus directly on the object so the image fall on cones in the fovea. b) Focus just above or to the side of the object so the image falls on your rods. c) Focus directly on the object so the image falls on the rods in the fovea. d) Focus outside the object so the image falls on the cones in the periphery of the retina. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 314. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of vision associated with rods? a) night vision b) poor visual acuity c) colour vision d) peripheral vision Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

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5 - 103 Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 315. Of the following, which apply to rods only? 1 – used primarily for daytime vision 2 – found in the periphery of the eye 3 – used for visual acuity 4 – used for colour vision 5 – used for detecting movement 6 – found in nocturnal animals 7 – more numerous in the retina a) 2, 5, 6, 7 b) 1, 3, 4, 7 c) 2, 3, 5, 6 d) 1, 2, 4, 6 Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 316. Of the following, which apply to cones only? 1 – used for daytime vision 2 – found in the periphery of the eye 3 – used for visual acuity 4 – used for colour vision 5 – used for detecting movement 6 – found in nocturnal animals 7 – more numerous in the retina a) 2, 5, 6, 7 b) 1, 3, 4 c) 2, 3, 5, 6 d) 1, 4, 7 Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 317. The optic nerve is composed of axons of ___. a) bipolar cells b) ganglion cells c) rods and cones d) foveal cells

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Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 318. The place on the retina where the optic nerve leaves the eye is called the a) optic fissure. b) visual hole. c) visual gap. d) blind spot. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 319. Addison lost the sight in her left eye when she was a child. Although she has excellent vision in her right eye, she notices that when an object is moving into sight on her right side, she will lose sight of it for a very brief second. How would you explain this to Addison? a) The vision in Addison’s right eye is deteriorating. b) The image of the object is projecting to an area of the retina that only has rods. c) The image of the object is projecting to an area of the retina called the fovea. d) The image of the object is projecting to an area of the retina called the optic disc. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 320. Which of the following correctly describes the relationship between the ganglion cells and the blind spot? a) The blind spot has no photoreceptors but is very rich in ganglion cells. b) Because the blind spot has no ganglion cells, the final stage of vision cannot occur. c) The blind spot is the place where the axons of the ganglion cells leaves the eye. d) The ganglion cells inhibit activity in the optic nerve which creates the blind spot. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception.

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5 - 105 Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 321. Which of the following sequences accurately reflects the order in which light passes through the structures of the eye during vision, from first to last? a) pupil – retina – lens b) lens –pupil – retina c) retina – pupil – lens d) pupil – lens – retina Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 322. Which of the following structures of the eye is correctly matched with its function? a) iris – detects light b) pupil – regulates the amount of light entering the eye c) lens – adjusts the size of the pupil d) rods – focus the image on the retina Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 323. In what region of the retina is vision the sharpest due to the largest concentration of cones? a) fovea b) optic nerve c) saturation d) where the optic nerve leaves the eye Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 324. Faith is watching a movie and is looking straight ahead. Which of following would NOT accurately describe what she would see? a) Objects directly in front of her would be clear. b) She would see objects moving in from the periphery.

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c) Coloured objects in the periphery would be seen in bright colours. d) Objects in front of her would be seen most clearly in daylight. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 325. Eevi has just come out of a dark movie theatre into bright sunlight. Which of the following would best describe her visual process as she leaves the theatre? a) The cones in her eye allow Eevi to immediately notice the bright colours in her environment. b) The rods in her eye allow Eevi to immediately notice objects moving in her periphery. c) Eevi’s pupils constrict to block out the bright light, allowing her eyes to adapt. d) Eevi’s pupils dilate to allow more light in, so she can adjust to the change from the dark theatre. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 326. Which of the following best expresses the relationship between the retina and the fovea? a) They are one and the same: The terms are synonymous. b) The retina is part of the fovea. c) The fovea is part of the retina. d) Light passes through the fovea on its way to the retina. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 327. Which alternative below correctly pairs a dimension of colour with its description? a) hue – how much light is reflected from the visual stimulus b) hue – how much white is mixed into the colour c) brightness – the wavelength of light that the stimulus produces d) saturation – how much white is mixed into the colour Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension

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5 - 107 Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 328. Which of the following would describe the wave pattern for a bright cherry-red car? a) high amplitude; long wavelength b) high amplitude; short wavelength c) low amplitude; long wavelength d) low amplitude; short wavelength Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 329. How are visual and auditory stimuli like one another? a) Both types of stimuli are forms of energy that travel in waves. b) Both types of stimuli are dependent upon one another for accurate perception. c) Both types of stimuli rely on a shared set of receptors. d) Both types of stimuli have higher absolute thresholds than other types of stimuli. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 330. According to the trichromatic theory of colour vision, humans have three different cone receptors, and yet we can detect about seven million different colours. Which of the following is the best explanation of this? a) Each cone type is responsible for detecting many different colours. b) Top-down processing (i.e., knowing the colour of specific objects) contributes to our perception of colours. c) It is the combination of the signals produced by the cones that allows us to perceive so many colours. d) The light wavelengths are perceived as different shades depending on the strength of the wavelengths. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight

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331. Which of the following is a major flaw in the trichromatic theory of colour vision? a) it does not explain colour after-effects b) mixing the three colour wavelengths does not yield the full spectrum of colours that can be perceived by humans c) it is based on old and faulty research d) it is based on animal studies, and we have no certainty humans see colour in the same way Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 332. The ___ theory of colour vision proposes that there are three different receptors for colour. a) trichromatic b) frequency c) opponent-process d) place Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 333. Ursula is an artist who works with three primary colours and from there, can mix any colour of the rainbow. This idea is most consistent with which theory of colour vision? a) the opponent process theory b) Gestalt theory c) the Young-Helmholtz trichromatic theory d) colour constancy theory Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 334. Colour is processed in a trichromatic fashion at the level of the _______________, and an opponent-process fashion at the level of the ___________________. a) retina; lateral geniculate nucleus b) lateral geniculate nucleus c) cones; optic nerve d) optic nerve; cones

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Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 335. With respect to colour vision, the lateral geniculate nucleus is to the retina as ___ theory is to ___ theory. a) opponent-process; trichromatic b) opponent-process; frequency c) trichromatic; opponent-process d) place; trichromatic Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 336. With respect to colour vision, opponent-process is to trichromatic as the ___ is to the ___. a) superior colliculus; retina b) superior colliculus; lateral geniculate nucleus c) lateral geniculate nucleus; superior colliculus d) lateral geniculate nucleus; retina Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 337. To what extent are colour afterimages adequately explained by trichromatic theory on the one hand, and opponent-process theory on the other? a) Trichromatic theory offers a more satisfactory account of colour afterimages than does opponent-process theory. b) Opponent-process theory offers a more satisfactory account of colour afterimages than does trichromatic theory. c) Both trichromatic theory and opponent-process theory offer satisfactory accounts of colour afterimages. d) Neither trichromatic theory nor opponent-process theory offers a satisfactory account of colour afterimages. Answer: b

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Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 338. Which of the following is consistent with the opponent processing theory of colour vision? a) colour afterimages b) three types of cone receptors c) colour blindness d) antagonistic cone receptors Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 339. According to the opponent process theory of colour vision, what would happen if you stared at a bowl of red tomatoes for a minute and then looked at an empty white plate? a) You would see the afterimage consisting of red tomatoes. b) You would see the afterimage consisting of green tomatoes. c) You would see the afterimage as inverted because of the reflection in the plate. d) You would see the afterimage consisting of black tomatoes, because this is the opposite of white. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 340. According to the opponent process theory of colour vision, why is the afterimage always the opposite colour of the image? a) because we have three kinds of photoreceptors in the eye b) because the antagonistic colour of a pair will overcompensate following release from inhibition c) because receptors in the visual cortex get fatigued and rebound to the opponent colour d) because the opposite colour is reflected off the surface while all the other colours are absorbed Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight

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341. The term “negative” is used to acknowledge that an afterimage a) has fatigued the visual system to the point of ineffectiveness. b) is a colour weakness. c) is the opposite colour of the original image. d) the visual signal is retained in the retina. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 342. For over a minute, Laura has been staring at an image with seemingly random areas of white-on-black. When she shifts her gaze from the original image to a white wall, she suddenly sees an image of Jesus on the wall. Which of the following explains this phenomenon? a) Photoreceptors in the retina have become fatigued. b) Photoreceptors in the lateral geniculate nucleus have become fatigued. c) negative afterimage d) positive afterimage Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 343. Malika has been staring at an image of a green heart framed in blue for almost a minute. When Malika shifts her gaze to a white wall, what is she likely to see? a) a red heart framed in yellow b) a yellow heart framed in red c) a green heart framed in blue d) a red heart framed in black Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 344. What type of colour blindness is most common? a) yellow-red b) blue-green c) blue-red

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d) red-green Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 345. Ludvig is a 6-year-old boy who is colouring a picture of Santa Claus standing next to a Christmas tree. When he proudly presents the finished picture to his mother, she notices that he has coloured the tree red, and Santa’s outfit green. How might you explain this to Ludvig’s mother? a) Ludvig has damage to his lateral geniculate nucleus. b) Ludvig has a shortage of either the red or green cones. c) Ludvig has a shortage of either the red or blue cones. d) Ludvig has damage to his what pathway. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 346. Oliver is a 4-year-old boy who struggles to learn colour names and seems to see the world in black and white and greys. Although it is early for a diagnosis what diagnosis might we consider for Oliver? a) Oliver is monochromatic. b) Oliver is intellectually disabled. c) Oliver is displaying a colour vision deficiency. d) Oliver is dichromatic. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 347. Which of the following sequences correctly orders the structures along the visual pathway, from first to last? a) thalamus – superior colliculus – visual cortex b) visual cortex – thalamus – superior colliculus c) superior colliculus – thalamus – visual cortex d) thalamus – visual cortex – superior colliculus Answer: c

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 348. Visual information from the middle part of the visual field is processed on the ___ side of the cortex. Visual information from the lateral part of the visual field is processed ___. a) same; on the opposite side of the cortex b) opposite; on the same side of the cortex c) same; on the same side of the cortex as well d) opposite; on the opposite side of the cortex as well Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 349. The pathway from the occipital lobe to the temporal lobe is called the ___, while the pathway from the occipital lobe to the parietal lobe is called the ___. a) temporal pathway; parietal pathway b) anterior pathway; posterior pathway c) what pathway; where pathway d) ventral pathway; lateral pathway Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 350. Which of the following alternatives BEST captures the distinction between the two major visual pathways described in your text? a) One processes object location. The other processes object identity. b) One processes chromatic aspects of the visual scene. The other processes nonchromatic aspects of the scene. c) One processes simple object features. The other processes complex object features. d) One processes stationary objects in the visual scene. The other processes moving objects. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight

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351. ____________is to the “what” pathway as ___________ is to the “where” pathway. a) Motion parallax; prosopagnosia b) Prosopagnosia; motion parallax c) Visual agnosia; hemi-neglect d) Hemi-neglect; visual agnosia Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 352. The “what” pathway terminates in the ___ lobe. The “where” pathway terminates in the ___ lobe. a) temporal; parietal b) parietal; temporal c) occipital; parietal d) temporal; occipital Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 353. Which visual object recognition disorder is correctly identified? a) the inability to recognize faces – visual agnosia b) the inability to recognize objects visually – prosopagnosia c) the apparent unawareness of one side of the visual field – hemi-neglect d) the inability to recognize faces – anosmia Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 354. Chloé has had a stroke. When asked to draw a picture of a house, Chloé only drew the right side of the house. It is likely that Chloé sustained damage to the __________ lobe. a) Frontal b) Occipital c) Parietal d) Temporal

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Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 355. Antonella has just drawn a picture of a landscape. After she is finished, her daughter notices that Antonella did NOT draw any objects or finish the scene on the left side of the drawing. Based on this it is likely that Antonella has sustained damage to the ___ pathway, leaving her with a disorder known as ___. a) left what pathway; prosopagnosia b) left where pathway; prosopagnosia c) right what pathway; hemi-neglect d) right where pathway; hemi-neglect Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 356. Wilf has suffered brain damage that causes him to ignore everything on the left side. For instance, he only eats from the right half of his plate; he only brushes his hair and teeth on the right side; and he only shaves the right half of his face. What part of the brain did Wilf most likely damage? a) the ‘what’ pathway b) the frontal lobe c) the occipital lobe d) the ‘where’ pathway Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 357. Victor suffers from prosopagnosia. With which of the following tasks would Victor have the most difficulty? a) recognizing someone’s face in a photograph b) understanding a written paragraph c) understanding a spoken paragraph d) recognizing a picture of a car in a parking lot Answer: a

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 358. Luna can recognize objects by smell or touch, but NOT by sight. She has no trouble recognizing objects verbally. Esha recognizes faces only by focusing on features such as hairstyle, eyeglasses, or jewellery. Luna suffers from ___. Esha suffers from ___. a) hemi-neglect; prosopagnosia b) visual agnosia; hemi-neglect c) prosopagnosia; visual agnosia d) visual agnosia; prosopagnosia Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 359. Kent has difficulty recognizing people’s faces so must rely on other physical features such as height. He does NOT recognize people he has met on several occasions from their facial characteristics, suggesting Kent may have a) prosopagnosia. b) amblyopia. c) hemineglect. d) strabismus. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 360. Jericho has difficulty recognizing objects, while Sarah can only seem to draw half of an object. Which of the following is accurate? a) Jericho has prosopagnosia; Sarah has visual agnosia. b) Jericho has visual agnosia; Sarah has prosopagnosia. c) Jericho has hemineglect; Sarah has visual agnosia. d) Jericho has visual agnosia; Sarah has hemineglect. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis

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Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 361. Which group of psychologists emphasized the importance of organization and patterning in enabling us to perceive whole stimuli rather than discrete parts as separate entities? a) Freudian psychoanalysts. b) Behaviorists. c) Structuralists. d) Gestalt psychologists. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 362. Early in psychology’s history, the ___ psychologists identified the principles by which visual information is organized into coherent images. a) structural b) psychoanalytic c) humanist d) Gestalt Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 363. The basic premise upon which Gestalt psychology was founded is a) each sensory input results in the top-down processing of the parts. b) bottom-up processing forms the basis of true perception. c) our perception of the whole may give us more information than simply looking at the parts separately. d) our recognition of objects is better for complex forms than simple forms. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 364. Which Gestalt law of grouping indicates that we tend to fill in the gaps of objects, so they

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are perceived as whole? a) proximity b) similarity c) continuity d) closure Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 365. Which of the following is the best example of the Gestalt principle of similarity? a) AAAABBBB b) AA AA AA AA c) A B A B A B A B d) AAAA AAAA Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 366. Matilda is counting the money from her piggy bank. When she dumps it out on the table, she sees toonies, loonies, quarters, dimes, and nickels. Which Gestalt law is consistent with this example? a) closure b) proximity c) similarity d) continuity Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 367. When you are untangling strings of Christmas lights, it is difficult to tell where one string ends and another begins. Which Gestalt law is consistent with this example? a) closure b) proximity c) similarity d) continuity

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Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 368. Which of the following Gestalt laws is correctly defined? a) proximity – we tend to fill in small gaps in objects. b) continuity – stimuli falling along the same plane tend to be grouped together. c) good form – stimuli near to one another tend to be grouped together. d) closure – stimuli resembling one another tend to be grouped together. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 369. The Gestalt psychologists believed that with respect to visual perception, the whole is more than the sum of its parts. By contrast, the ___ psychologists assumed that the whole is the sum of its parts. a) functional b) structural c) behavioural d) psychoanalytic Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 370. Structural is to Gestalt as _____ is to _____. a) “the whole is the sum of the parts”; “the whole is the sum of the parts” b) “the whole is greater than the sum of the parts; “the whole is greater than the sum of the parts” c) “the whole is the sum of the parts”; “the whole is greater than the sum of the parts” d) “the whole is greater than the sum of the parts”; “the whole is the sum of the parts” Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight

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371. Which of the following terms is the best synonym for ‘disparity’? a) distance b) depth c) constancy d) difference Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 372. Jared was sitting on the patio watching a butterfly flutter around. As he watched, the butterfly flew toward him and seemed to be planning to land on his nose. As the butterfly came closer to his nose, he could feel his eyes turn inwards. The cue that is telling Jared how close the butterfly is getting to him is known as a) retinal disparity. b) linear perspective. c) convergence. d) texture gradient. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 373. Convergence is a binocular cue based on ___. a) the brain’s ability to converge signals from both eyes into a single image b) the feeling of a change in muscular tension required to turn the eyes inward when focusing on closer objects c) the ability of the brain to triangulate the distance from the retina to the object d) the detection of movement when objects are coming toward us Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 374. Anna goes to the eye doctor because she has been having trouble seeing correctly. The doctor tells her that she has a condition where her eyes are misaligned so two different images are being sent to the brain. What condition has the doctor diagnosed Anna with?

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a) strabismus b) hyperopia c) presbyopia d) amblyopia Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 375. Which of the following is NOT a monocular depth cue? a) interposition b) linear perspective c) texture gradient d) convergence Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 376. You are standing on the beach; the sea is choppy. You observe that the crests of distant waves appear NOT only smaller, but also closer together than do the crests of waves nearer the beach. This example illustrates a depth cue known as ___. a) linear perspective b) relative size c) texture gradient d) binocular disparity Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 377. When a singer is on stage the singer can tell which fans are closer to the stage because their facial features are more distinct than those in distant rows. Which depth cue is the singer using? a) texture gradient b) interposition c) relative size d) clarity

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Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 378. As Taralee looked out her window she noticed that the distant mountains looked hazy while the trees in her yard were sharp and clear. Which depth cue is Taralee using? a) light and shadow b) clarity c) texture gradient d) relative size Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 379. When walking around town, which sight would be an example of linear perspective? a) You notice that the train tracks you pass seem to converge in the distance. b) You notice that closer objects appear to move faster than farther objects. c) You observe that closer objects obscure objects that are farther away. d) You notice that objects in the distance appear to be smaller than similar objects up close. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 380. In a beginning drawing class, your instructor suggests that an illusion of depth may be created in a two-dimensional picture by including parallel lines that converge at a vanishing point. Your instructor is referring to a monocular depth cue known as ___. a) linear perspective b) linear parallax c) relative size d) texture gradient Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight

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381. Ava saw her father and her dog Widget coming toward her across the apple orchard. Widget looked larger than her father, but Ava knew this meant that her father was some distance behind Widget. This example illustrates the ___ depth cue of ___. a) monocular; texture gradient b) binocular; retinal disparity c) monocular; relative height d) binocular; convergence Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 382. From the window of an office on a skyscraper’s 90th floor, taxis on the street look tiny. Of course, you know they are NOT toy cars; you are just a long way up. This example illustrates the ___ depth cue of ___. a) monocular; familiar size b) binocular; familiar size c) monocular; texture gradient d) binocular; texture gradient Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 383. You are shown two lines and, although they are the same length, you identify one of the lines as being shorter than the other. Which of the following are you experiencing? a) Muller-Lyer illusion b) Ponzo illusion c) perceptual constancy d) linear perspective Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 384. When you are standing at the bottom of a ladder looking up, the rungs at the bottom of the ladder look larger than the rungs at the top. This is an example of ___.

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a) the Muller-Lyer illusion b) the Ponzo illusion c) size constancy d) shape constancy Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 385. Which of the following terms reflects our tendency to view objects as unchanging in some ways even though the actual visual sensations we receive are constantly changing? a) perceptual illusion b) perceptual constancy c) binocular depth cue d) monocular depth cue Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 386. The learned tendencies to perceive the environment as stable despite changes in object size, shape, color, and brightness are called a) binocular depth cues. b) aftereffects. c) gestalt principles. d) perceptual constancies. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 387. Yvonne says goodnight to her boyfriend and watches him walk away. Although the retinal image of her boyfriend is getting smaller and smaller, Yvonne is not left wondering why he is suddenly shrinking. This is because Yvonne has a) shape constancy. b) size constancy. c) colour constancy. d) object permanence.

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Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 388. Quinn watches his white cat move into the shadows. Although the retinal image of the cat’s colour changes from white to grey, Quinn is not left wondering why his cat suddenly changed colour. This is because Quinn has a) size constancy. b) shape constancy. c) colour constancy. d) perceptual set. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 389. Lara is watching the moon rise. When the moon is on the horizon it appears to be much larger than when it is higher up in the sky. This phenomenon is called the ___ and is caused by ___. a) lunar illusion; size constancy cues b) lunar illusion; a reduction in the size constancy effect c) moon illusion; a reduction in the size constancy effect d) moon illusion; size constancy cues Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 390. Regardless of the angle at which you look at a book (e.g., if it is lying flat or standing on a shelf), you still recognize it as a book. This is an example of ___. a) size constancy b) object constancy c) shape constancy d) angle constancy Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 391. When in the Ames room, Tarana appears to grow larger or smaller as she walks from one side of the room to the other because ______________________. a) retinal disparity occurs b) accommodation cannot be determined when objects are moving c) the shape of the room provides misleading depth cues d) there is a lack of reference cues to judge the height of the people Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 392. Lore argues that the effect in the Ames room is the result of ___. a) perceptual consistency b) shape constancy c) size constancy d) both shape and size constancy Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 393. Compared to the other senses, vision is ___ developed at birth. a) less well b) equally c) more highly d) much more highly Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 394. Vinnie is 1 month old. Uri is 3 months old. Tanisha is 9 months old. Which alternative below most accurately describes the visual development of these infants? a) Vinnie focuses mostly on contrasts. Uri focuses on faces. Tanisha’s focal range is about one foot.

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b) Vinnie focuses mostly on contrasts. Uri focuses on faces. Tanisha’s visual acuity is similar to that of an adult. c) Vinnie focuses mostly on contrasts. Uri’s focal range is about one foot. Tanisha focuses on faces. d) Vinnie focuses on faces. Uri’s focal range is about one foot. Tanisha’s visual acuity is similar to that of an adult. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 395. If you were told that Jonathan focused on contrasts, Lukas focused on faces, and Dhia had visual acuity like that of an adult, what is the minimum age you think each of these babies would be? a) Jonathan – newborn; Lukas –1 month; Dhia – 4 months b) Jonathan – newborn; Lukas – 2 months; Dhia – 8 months c) Jonathan – 4 months; Lukas – 4 months; Dhia – 12 months d) This is insufficient information to make a judgment about age. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 396. Zoran has been diagnosed with strabismus. What are the effects of this condition? a) Zoran cannot identify colours. b) Zoran cannot perceive movement. c) Zoran’s primary visual cortex is not receiving signals from his lateral geniculate nucleus. d) Zoran’s eyes are each receiving a different image. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 397. Which of the following statements best expresses the relationship between strabismus and amblyopia? a) Strabismus can produce amblyopia. b) Amblyopia can produce strabismus. c) Strabismus can produce amblyopia but occasionally amblyopia can cause strabismus. d) Strabismus and amblyopia are unrelated.

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Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 398. Approximately how many people in the Canada may be characterized as blind? a) 38,000 b) 108,000 c) 278,000 d) 438,000 Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 399. When blind people read Braille, which parts of their brains become active? a) portions of the occipital lobe b) portions of somatosensory cortex in the parietal lobe c) portions of the occipital and temporal lobes – the “what” pathway in vision d) portions of the occipital and parietal lobes – the “where” pathway in vision Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 400. The sense that tells us if we are moving and in which direction, we are moving is called the ___. a) vestibular sense b) kinesthetic sense c) synesthetic sense d) locomotive sense Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight

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401. Kinesthetic receptors are found in a) muscles. b) the epidermis. c) the inner ear. d) the dermis. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 402. Charlize is skiing with friends. Which example below best illustrates kinesthesis at work? a) Her ability to consider where she is in relation to the skis and the slope as she moves down the mountain. b) Her ability to detect movement with respect to gravity as she moves down the mountain. c) Her ability to detect pressure and temperature as she moves down the mountain. d) Her tendency to become dizzy or nauseated by motion sickness as she moves down the mountain. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 403. Omar and Raya are dancing. As they sway to the music, which sense detects their body’s position in space? a) vestibular b) kinesthetic c) synesthetic d) multisthetic Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 404. Lily is taking a ferry to Vancouver Island and is feeling seasick. Seasickness is caused by a) a mismatch between the kinesthetic sense and the vestibular sense. b) a mismatch between the kinesthetic sense and the eyes. c) a mismatch between the vestibular sense and the eyes. d) mismatch between the kinesthetic sense and the synesthetic sense.

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Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 405. Jagger is traveling on an airplane with his family. When the plane begins to experience heavy turbulence, his brain receives neural impulses from cells in his inner ear, which detect body movement. What is likely to happen? a) His vestibular sense will become confused and he will experience dizziness or nausea. b) His kinesthesis sense will become confused and he will experience dizziness or nausea. c) Receptors in his muscles, joints, and tendons will cause confusion for his sense of balance. d) His vestibular sense will become confused and he will experience pressure and pain in his inner ear. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight

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MATCHING QUESTION 406. Match the appropriate words in the left column to the definitions in the right column. Terms A. Saturation B. Visual Agnosia C. Hemi-neglect D. Amblyopia E. Vestibular sense F. Merkel’s discs G. Ageusia H. Ruffini end-organs I. Insula J. Olfactory bulb K. Anosmia L. Perceptual set M. Bottom-up processing N. Sensory adaptation O. Transduction P. Cochlea Q. Absolute threshold R. Hue

___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___

Definitions 1. Perception begins with the physical stimuli in the environment. 2. Located in the semicircular canals of the inner ear. 3. Related to the “what” pathway. 4. Area of the cortex that receives taste information. 5. Reduced response from repeated sensory stimuli. 6. Experience of colour based on wavelength. 7. Loss of visual abilities in weaker eye. 8. Sensory receptors that convert information about light to Medium pressure on the skin. 9. The ability to taste is lost. 10. Minimal stimulus necessary for detection.

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ANSWERS TO MATCHING QUESTION 1.

M: Bottom-up processing

E: Vestibular sense

B: Visual Agnosia

I: Insula

N: Sensory adaptation

R: Hue

D: Amblyopia

F: Merkel’s discs

G: Ageusia

10.

Q: Absolute threshold

Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

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FILL-IN-THE-BLANK 407. The physical stimuli used by the gustatory sensory system are called ___. Answer: chemicals Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe characteristics shared by all the senses, including receptor cells, transduction, and thresholds, and differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processes of perception. Section Reference: Common Features of Sensation and Perception 408. The sensory system that responds to pressure or damage to the skin is called the ___ system. Answer: somatosensory (touch, heat, pain) Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe characteristics shared by all the senses, including receptor cells, transduction, and thresholds, and differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processes of perception. Section Reference: Common Features of Sensation and Perception 409. The method used by odorants to enter the nose and bind to specific receptor sites is similar to the method used by neurotransmitters binding to receptors sites on receiving neurons. Both bind in a(n) ___ fashion. Answer: lock-and-key Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 410. The human tongue is covered with bumps called ___. Answer: papillae Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste

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411. The olfactory bulb sends information to the ___, an area important for learning and memory. Answer: hippocampus Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 412. People who have lost the ability to smell have a disorder known as ___. Answer: anosmia Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 413. The sensory receptors that detect pain are ___. Answer: free nerve endings Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration 414. The fast pathway for pain uses ___ neurons so we can respond quickly to pain. Answer: myelinated Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration 415. The chemicals produced by our bodies that have pain relieving properties are called ___. Answer: endorphins or enkephalins Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong.

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Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration 416. A rare genetic condition associated with the inability to detect pain is known as ___. Answer: familial dysautonomia Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration 417. When we describe the “loudness” of a sound, we are referring to its ___. Answer: amplitude Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 418. The auditory sensory receptors that cover the basilar membrane in the cochlea are rows of ___. Answer: hair cells Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 419. The muscles around the opening of the ears ___ in response to loud noises. Answer: contract Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 420. Part of the primary auditory cortex is organized in a(n) ___ map. Answer: tonotopic Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

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Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 421. Another term for tone deafness is ___. Answer: amusia Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 422. The specialized sheet of nerve cells located in the back of the eye is called the ___. Answer: retina Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 423. Dilation and constriction of the ___ is one way that the visual system adapts to light. Answer: pupil Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 424. People with a specific form of visual agnosia known as ___ CANNOT recognize faces. Answer: prosopagnosia Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 425. The term that refers to each eye experiencing a slightly different image of environmental stimuli is ___. Answer: retinal disparity Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

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Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 426. Our tendency to view objects as unchanging is referred to as ___. Answer: perceptual constancy, perceptual constancies Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight

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SHORT ANSWER ESSAY QUESTIONS 427. List the technical names for each of the five sensory systems. Answer: olfactory, gustatory, somatosensory, auditory, visual Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe characteristics shared by all the senses, including receptor cells, transduction, and thresholds, and differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processes of perception. Section Reference: Common Features of Sensation and Perception 428. What sensory process describes why the continual presence of a stimulus results in a decreased response to that stimulus over time? Answer: adaptation Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe characteristics shared by all the senses, including receptor cells, transduction, and thresholds, and differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processes of perception. Section Reference: Common Features of Sensation and Perception 429. What type of perceptual processing begins with physical energies that enter the body from the environment? Answer: bottom-up Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe characteristics shared by all the senses, including receptor cells, transduction, and thresholds, and differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processes of perception. Section Reference: Common Features of Sensation and Perception 430. What sense is most closely tied to taste? Answer: smell Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste

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431. Name the five major taste receptors. Answer: sweet, salty, bitter, sour, and umami Difficulty; Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 432. “Hot” or spicy foods activate what component of the tongue that communicates pain? Answer: tactile system Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 433. What structure that is activated by the olfactory bulb is associated with regulation of emotions and fear? Answer: amygdala Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 434. Many people report that smells are evocative of past events. What two structures in the brain may be activated during these olfactory “trips down memory lane”? Answer: hippocampus and amygdala Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 435. Why may a person develop the disorder of ageusia, the loss of the ability to taste? Answer: head trauma or oral surgery Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste

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436. What term describes how tactile information on one side of the body is processed on the opposite side of the brain? Answer: contralaterally Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration 437. What tactile receptors located deep in the skin respond to the movement of joints? Answer: Ruffini’s end-organs Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration 438. What class of molecules includes endorphins and enkephalins? Answer: opiates Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration 439. Why is insensitivity to pain dangerous? Answer: Prevents detection of discomfort that may lead to serious injury. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration 440. What measure do we use to describe levels of sound? Answer: decibels

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 441. Name the three ossicles. Answer: maleus (hammer), incus (anvil), and stapes (stirrup) Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 442. What fluid-filled structure in the inner ear contains the basilar membrane? Answer: cochlea Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 443. What areas within the auditory cortex act to integrate or coordinate auditory information with signals from other sensory modalities? Answer: association Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 444. What irritating condition is described as “ringing in the ears”? Answer: Tinnitus Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 445. Name the two major classes of photoreceptors. Answer: rods and cones

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 446. What term refers to the wavelength of light that a visual stimulus produces? Answer: hue Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 447. What condition results in a person ignoring one side of their visual field? Answer: hemi-neglect Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 448. What term is used to describe how we determine the distance of objects from us and their spatial relationship with one another? Answer: depth perception Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 449. What disorder is characterized by the inability to naturally develop coordinated movement of both eyes? Answer: Strabismus Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight

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ESSAY QUESTIONS 450. Describe the difference between absolute threshold and difference threshold. Answer: An absolute threshold refers to the minimum amount of one stimulus necessary for detection to occur, whereas a difference threshold refers to the smallest amount of difference between two or more stimuli necessary for a person to be able to discriminate one stimulus from another. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe characteristics shared by all the senses, including receptor cells, transduction, and thresholds, and differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processes of perception. Section Reference: Common Features of Sensation and Perception 451. Describe how top-down processing and bottom-up processing differ. Answer: Top-down uses previously acquired knowledge and experience to assist us in recognizing environmental stimuli, whereas bottom-up uses the physical energies that enter the body from the environment. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe characteristics shared by all the senses, including receptor cells, transduction, and thresholds, and differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processes of perception. Section Reference: Common Features of Sensation and Perception 452. Why are taste and smell referred to as chemical senses? Answer: Both senses involve responses to specific chemicals such as those in ants (for smell) and in food (for taste). Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 453. How is the consistency of food communicated to the brain? Answer: Touch receptors located on the tongue relay textural information such as “slimy” to the brain. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension

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Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 454. Identify an age-related disease that produces a diminished sense of smell. What does this relationship between disease and smell indicate about brain structures? Answer: Alzheimer’s disease and the related loss of smell may indicate that the neurons in brain structures located in olfactory brain regions are deteriorating. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the biological changes that underlie smell and taste. Section Reference: The Chemical Senses: Smell and Taste 455. Describe the pathway whereby touch receptors send information to the brain. Answer: Tactile information is sent via the spinal cord to the brain where it is first received by the thalamus before being routed to the somatosensory cortex (in the parietal lobe). Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration 456. Describe the characteristics of the slow and fast pain pathways. Answer: Fast pain pathways use myelinated neurons whereas the slow pain pathways do not. Pain perceived through the fast pathways is sharp pain whereas pain perceived through the slow pathways is nagging or burning pain. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration 457. Describe the gate control theory. Answer: Some neural patterns of activity in the brain itself can create a “gate” to prevent pain messages from reaching the brain. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration

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458. Decribe phantom limb sensations. Answer: People with amputated limbs report tactile hallucinations or sensations from body parts that no longer exist. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how the different senses of touch work and what can happen when things go wrong. Section Reference: The Tactile or Cutaneous Senses: Touch, Pressure, Pain, Vibration 459. Mickey Mouse has a “high-pitched” voice. What does this mean in terms of frequency? Answer: The frequency of a sound wave refers to the number of cycles the wave completes in a certain amount of time. “High-pitched” sounds indicate that a substantial number of cycles are completed in a short period of time. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 460. Describe the place theory of audition. Answer: Differences in sound frequency activate different regions of the basilar membrane. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 461. Describe the cocktail party effect. Answer: The brain is able to filter out irrelevant noises in a loud environment so that we can focus attention on meaningful conversations around us. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 462. Define synesthesia and provide an example. Answer: Sensation disorder in which people receive sensations in a different modality than that of the original stimulus; tasting light is an example.

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 463. Describe three common causes of deafness. Answer: infections, physical trauma, overdoes of common medications, genetics, prolonged exposure to loud noises, etc. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize what happens when we hear. Section Reference: The Auditory Sense: Hearing 464. Describe the difference in the type of stimuli rods and cones are used to perceive. Answer: Rods are used to detect light and are useful in night vision. Cones are used to detect colour and minute details. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 465. Explain the trichromatic theory of vision. Answer: There are three different sensors for colour that respond to different wavelengths of light. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 466. How does Gestalt inform theories of vision? Answer: Helps add meaning to visual information; laws of grouping and figure/ground help identify how visual information is organized into coherent images. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight

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467. What is the difference between monocular and binocular depth cues? Answer: Binocular depth cues require the use of both eyes whereas monocular cues require the use of only one eye. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 468. Name three diseases that can produce blindness? Answer: Diabetes, glaucoma, macular degeneration, etc. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight 469. An image of the Ames room illusion is shown below. Explain why the illusion leads us to perceive one individual to be larger than the other individual.

Answer: The Ames room illusion is the result of both shape and size constancy. First, we expect the room to be square, but it actually is irregularly shaped. Second, because we think the room is square, we believe that both people are the same distance from us, leading us to perceive one as much larger than the other. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception.

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Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight

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LABELLING QUESTION 321. Indicate the two visual pathways and respective brain cortices on the following diagram.

Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe key processes in visual sensation and perception. Section Reference: The Visual Sense: Sight

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CHAPTER 6 CONSCIOUSNESS CHAPTER LEARNING OBJECTIVES 1. Define different levels of conscious awareness and describe key brain structures and functions associated with those levels. • Attention is one of the key aspects of conscious awareness. Other key cognitive activities underlying cognitive awareness include monitoring (our implicit decisions about what to attend to), memory, and planning. • Most biological investigators believe that consciousness results from a combination of brain activities in several brain regions. Two key brain structures appear to be the cerebral cortex, which helps regulate our awareness of attentional processes, and the thalamus, which relays sensory information from various parts of the brain to the cerebral cortex for processing. 2. Summarize the ideas of preconscious and unconscious states, including Freud’s thinking on the unconscious. • In addition to our conscious level of awareness, many psychologists believe there are other levels or degrees of consciousness, and distinguish conscious awareness from two other states—unconsciousness and preconsciousness. • Cognitive psychologists have demonstrated the existence of implicit memory; that is, memory that we do not consciously reflect upon but which, nevertheless, influences our behaviour. • Preconsciousness is a level of awareness in which information can become readily available to consciousness if necessary. • Unconsciousness is a state in which information is not easily accessible to conscious awareness. • Freud viewed the human unconscious as an important storehouse for knowledge and experience, which although not directly accessible to our conscious awareness, still influences our behaviour. • Although Freud’s ideas fell into disfavour for several years, in recent years, scientists have begun to re-examine the unconscious from different points of view. For example, implicit memory describes knowledge that we have and are able to apply to various tasks, without being able to recall it at will. 3. Describe people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. • Every 90 to 100 minutes when we sleep, we pass through a sleep cycle consisting of five different stages. The fifth stage of sleep, rapid eye movement, or REM sleep, is characterized by rapid and jagged brain-wave patterns and eye movements and irregularities in heart rate and breathing. Dreaming usually occurs during this phase of sleep. • Scientists have identified brain activities that maintain the regular rhythms of life. Our move from a sustained period of wakefulness into a period of sleep during each 24-hour period is known as a circadian rhythm.

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Scientists have not reached a definitive conclusion about why people sleep, although some scientists have suggested sleep serves an evolutionarily adaptive function, keeping our ancestors away from predators that hunted at night. Others have suggested that sleep might play a role in growth, or allow us time to restore depleted chemical resources in the brain and body and eliminate chemical wastes that have accumulated throughout the day. We also do not understand why people dream. Recent theories about dreams emphasize cognitive approaches. The information-processing theory of dreams suggests that dreams are the mind’s attempt to sort out and organize the day’s experiences and fix them in memory. The attention-synthesis hypothesis suggests that dreams are the mind’s attempts to give meaning to internally generated signals firing throughout the brain during deep sleep. Freud believed that dreams represent expressions of the internal desires and wishes that have been repressed and stored in the unconscious. Sleep deprivation can lead to feelings of fatigue, irritability, and malaise, resulting in lower productivity and a tendency to make mistakes. Loss of sleep can also affect the functioning of the immune system. The regular inability to fall asleep or stay asleep is called insomnia. Other sleep disorders include sleep apnea, narcolepsy, sleepwalking, and night terrors.

4. Discuss theories and evidence about what hypnosis is, how it works, and how it can be used. • Hypnosis is a suggestible state during which people can be directed to act in unusual ways, experience unusual sensations, remember forgotten events, or forget remembered events. • Ernest Hilgard’s theory suggests that hypnosis divides consciousness into two parts: one focused on the suggestions of the hypnotist, and the other a hidden observer. Other theorists suggest that motivated role-playing is at work in hypnosis. • Hypnosis has been used to successfully help control pain, as well as treat anxiety, skin diseases, asthma, insomnia, stuttering, high blood pressure, warts, and other forms of infection. 5. List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. • The main classes of psychoactive drugs are depressants (substances that slow down brain activity), stimulants (substances that excite brain activity), opioids (substances that attach to brain receptors that ordinarily receive endorphins), and psychedelic or hallucinogenic drugs (substances that distort sensory perceptions). • Regular ingestion of some drugs can lead to maladaptive changes in a person’s behaviour patterns and physical responses, a pattern known as addiction. Signs of addiction can include increased tolerance, the need for larger and larger doses of a substance to get the desired effect, and symptoms of withdrawal when one discontinues the drug. • Review the list of drugs and their effects in Table 6.2.

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

TRUE-FALSE STATEMENTS 1. Neuroimaging techniques have allowed investigators to meaningfully explore the relationship between brain activity and various states of consciousness. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define different levels of conscious awareness and describe key brain structures and functions associated with those levels. Section Reference: When We Are Awake: Conscious Awareness 2. Inattention blindness accounts for the fact that to be able to recount details of visual stimuli, we must pay attention to them first. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define different levels of conscious awareness and describe key brain structures and functions associated with those levels. Section Reference: When We Are Awake: Conscious Awareness 3. If either the intralaminar or midline nuclei of the thalamus are broadly damaged, people lose consciousness and enter a deep coma. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define different levels of conscious awareness and describe key brain structures and functions associated with those levels. Section Reference: When We Are Awake: Conscious Awareness 4. Jane was not thinking about her mother. However, when asked her mother’s first name Jane was easily able to retrieve the correct response, “Claire,” from memory. Freud would argue that Jane’s mother’s name was in Jane’s unconscious. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the ideas of preconscious and unconscious states, including Freud’s thinking on the unconscious. Section Reference: Preconscious and Unconscious States

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5. Jasmine is a competitive gymnast. She is able to recall detailed statistics regarding Olympic gymnasts dating back forty years or more. A cognitive view of Jasmine’s recall ability would say that she is able to recall this information due to her implicit memory. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the ideas of preconscious and unconscious states, including Freud’s thinking on the unconscious. Section Reference: Preconscious and Unconscious States 6. No consensus exists within the scientific community as to why sleep is necessary. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 7. The adrenal gland releases growth hormones during sleep. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 8. The lightbulb has been identified as an invention that has negatively influenced human circadian rhythms. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 9. The adaptive theory of sleep suggests that organisms sleep for the purpose of selfpreservation.

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Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 10. If children are going to wet the bed, they most commonly do so in Stage 4 of sleep. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 11. In REM sleep behaviour disorder people experience an uncontrollable desire to fall asleep. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 12. People who are highly susceptible to hypnosis are also likely to do what other people tell them to do when they are not hypnotized. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss theories and evidence about what hypnosis is, how it works, and how it can be used. Section Reference: Hypnosis 13. Negative hallucinations experienced during hypnosis can be effective in pain control. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss theories and evidence about what hypnosis is, how it works, and how it can be used.

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Section Reference: Hypnosis 14. Coffee is an example of a psychoactive drug. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 15. Morphine and codeine are frequently used as medical opioids. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 16. Benzodiazepines are stimulants used to treat depression. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 17. Alcohol is one in a group of drugs that depress the activity of the central nervous system. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 18. Petra is dependent on marijuana. To feel the same effect from the drug she has to use higher and higher doses. Petra has developed a tolerance for marijuana. Answer: True

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 19. Most people are within the legal limit to drive in Canada (0.05 - 0.08) after drinking three alcoholic drinks (e.g., one 4-oz glass of wine or one 12-oz beer) in 2 hours. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 20. Due to an increased THC content, the marijuana available today is more likely to lead to a pattern of addiction than marijuana available in the past. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs

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MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 21. An organism's awareness of its internal and external states is called a) selective attention. b) concentration. c) circadian rhythm d) consciousness. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define different levels of conscious awareness and describe key brain structures and functions associated with those levels. Section Reference: When We Are Awake: Conscious Awareness 22. Consciousness is defined as a) our ability to contemplate the future and remember the past. b) our immediate awareness of our internal and external states. c) our understanding of our thoughts, feelings, and behaviours. d) our feelings of continuity from moment to moment. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define different levels of conscious awareness and describe key brain structures and functions associated with those levels. Section Reference: When We Are Awake: Conscious Awareness 23. Based on what you know about consciousness, it can best be described as a) falling along a continuum. b) several discrete or highly distinct stages. c) various stages that are indistinguishable. d) evolving throughout one’s life span. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define different levels of conscious awareness and describe key brain structures and functions associated with those levels. Section Reference: When We Are Awake: Conscious Awareness 24. Why did consciousness remerge as a topic of major interest in psychology in the latter part of the twentieth century? a) the neuroscience research focus on brain activity diminished, allowing for increased study in

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

areas such as consciousness b) the overlap between consciousness and observable behaviour was better understood c) important developments in neuroscience and computer technology enabled improved exploration of consciousness d) internal thought processes were viewed as more important than physiological processes Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define different levels of conscious awareness and describe key brain structures and functions associated with those levels. Section Reference: When We Are Awake: Conscious Awareness 25. Which of the following is an example of the contents of consciousness? a) your awareness of the blister developing as your shoe rubs your foot b) the experience of being in Stage 4 sleep c) experiencing an epileptic seizure d) dreaming about your dead grandmother Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define different levels of conscious awareness and describe key brain structures and functions associated with those levels. Section Reference: When We Are Awake: Conscious Awareness 26. Which of the following statements regarding consciousness is true? a) Researchers in the area of consciousness focus more on the contents of consciousness than on the states of consciousness. b) Consciousness has several states. c) Attention and awareness are frequently dissociated. d) Individuals must be awake to be conscious. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define different levels of conscious awareness and describe key brain structures and functions associated with those levels. Section Reference: When We Are Awake: Conscious Awareness 27. Seth has suffered damage in one hemisphere to the intralaminar and midline nuclei. What are his symptoms likely to be? a) Seth will have blindsight. b) Seth will lose awareness of half of their bodies. c) Seth will be in a coma.

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d) Seth will have no sense of self if the left hemisphere is the one with the damage. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define different levels of conscious awareness and describe key brain structures and functions associated with those levels. Section Reference: When We Are Awake: Conscious Awareness 28. Ms. Badeaux has suffered damage to her left midline and intralaminar thalamic nuclei. Most likely, Ms. Badeaux will a) lose awareness of events happening on the right side of her body. b) have difficulty naming objects. c) appear unaware of objects in her environment. d) lapse into a coma. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define different levels of conscious awareness and describe key brain structures and functions associated with those levels. Section Reference: When We Are Awake: Conscious Awareness 29. The phenomenon of people ____________ aware of objects or events that occur in a picture, video, or scene they are watching is called ___________. a) being; unawareness b) not being; blindsight c) not being; inattentional blindness d) being; gist blindness Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define different levels of conscious awareness and describe key brain structures and functions associated with those levels. Section Reference: When We Are Awake: Conscious Awareness 30. What happens to someone who has extensive damage to the intralaminar and midline nuclei? a) They have blindsight. b) They have inattentional blindness. c) They have no sense of self. d) They are in a coma. Answer: d

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

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Learning Objective: Define different levels of conscious awareness and describe key brain structures and functions associated with those levels. Section Reference: When We Are Awake: Conscious Awareness 34. As part of a research study, Gina is shown a photograph of a family having a picnic on a beach for a period of 30 milliseconds and then asked to describe the contents of the photograph. Which of the following is Gina most likely to report? a) She will be able to give a general estimate of the age of the children in the photograph. b) She will not be able to describe details, but she will be able to report that it was a beach scene. c) She will be able to describe the photograph in a lot of detail. d) She will not be able to report any information about the photograph, as she would need to see it for at least 50 milliseconds. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define different levels of conscious awareness and describe key brain structures and functions associated with those levels. Section Reference: When We Are Awake: Conscious Awareness 35. Although research has not been able to pinpoint the exact location of ___ in the brain, two regions that are especially important are the thalamus and cerebral cortex. a) a theory of mind b) consciousness c) rational thought d) sense of self Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define different levels of conscious awareness and describe key brain structures and functions associated with those levels. Section Reference: When We Are Awake: Conscious Awareness 36. According to Kolb and Whishaw, how much of our brain is constantly active when we are awake? a) We only use a very small percentage of our brains, roughly 10%. b) We use half of our brain for automatic processes and 10% of our brain for conscious processes. c) We use 10% of our brain for automatic processes and half of our brain for conscious processes. d) Most of the neurons in our brain are active. Answer: d

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define different levels of conscious awareness and describe key brain structures and functions associated with those levels. Section Reference: When We Are Awake: Conscious Awareness 37. Which neuroscientist is most closely associated with split-brain studies? What did these studies demonstrate regarding consciousness? a) Split-brain studies are associated with Roger Sperry. The studies show that the left hemisphere contributes to verbal awareness, while the right hemisphere underlies nonverbal awareness. b) Split-brain studies are associated with Roger Sperry. The studies show that the right hemisphere contributes to verbal awareness, while the left hemisphere underlies nonverbal awareness. c) Split-brain studies are associated with Lawrence Weiskrantz. The studies show that the left hemisphere contributes to verbal awareness, while the right hemisphere underlies nonverbal awareness. d) Split-brain studies are associated with Lawrence Weiskrantz. The studies show that the right hemisphere contributes to verbal awareness, while the left hemisphere underlies nonverbal awareness. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Define different levels of conscious awareness and describe key brain structures and functions associated with those levels. Section Reference: When We Are Awake: Conscious Awareness 38. Eight-month old Lilly is taking part in a research study. After secretly dabbing red makeup on Lilly’s nose, the researcher sits her in front of a mirror. What will be Lilly’s reaction? a) Lilly will reach out and touch the nose of her reflection. b) Lilly will touch her own nose. c) Lilly will not notice her reflection. d) Lilly will notice her reflection but will not react to the red makeup at all. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define different levels of conscious awareness and describe key brain structures and functions associated with those levels. Section Reference: When We Are Awake: Conscious Awareness 39. Eighteen-month-old Jackson is participating in the mirror and rouge test. Results indicate that Edward has a sense of self. Which classic behaviour would Jackson have shown for this conclusion to be drawn? a) Jackson would have touched the “baby” in the mirror’s red nose.

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b) Jackson would have reached to his own nose when the “baby” nose was red. c) Jackson would have pointed to the “baby” in the mirror and said “Jackson!” d) Jackson would have ignored the application of rouge entirely. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define different levels of conscious awareness and describe key brain structures and functions associated with those levels. Section Reference: When We Are Awake: Conscious Awareness 40. One-year old Zoe is participating in an experiment that is testing whether she has a sense of self. What is the likely procedure in this study? a) She is given motor instructions and scored based on how well she completes the instructions. b) She and another child are shown the hiding place of some cookies; then, only Zoe watches the cookies get hidden in a different location, and then Zoe is asked where the other child will look for the cookies when they return. c) She is secretly dabbed on her nose with a spot of red and then shown her image in a mirror. d) She is shown a scale model of a room that contains a hidden doll and then taken to the real room and scored according to whether she can find the doll. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Define different levels of conscious awareness and describe key brain structures and functions associated with those levels. Section Reference: When We Are Awake: Conscious Awareness 41. Xander is one-year old and participating in an experiment in which a spot of red was secretly applied to his nose. After that, he was shown his reflection in a mirror. What do you expect Xander’s reaction to be? a) He will wipe his own nose. b) He will wipe the nose of the baby in the mirror. c) He will look behind the mirror for the other baby. d) He will not be able to perceive an image in a mirror under his depth perception. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define different levels of conscious awareness and describe key brain structures and functions associated with those levels. Section Reference: When We Are Awake: Conscious Awareness 42. When a kitten is presented with their own image in a mirror, the kitten will often look behind the mirror for the “other cat”. Which of the following arguments does this support?

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

a) Kittens obviously have consciousness because they know it is just a mirror. b) Kittens do not have consciousness because they look behind the mirror. c) Kittens have a self-concept because they look for the “other cat.” d) Kittens do not have a self-concept because they do not recognize the image as their own. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Define different levels of conscious awareness and describe key brain structures and functions associated with those levels. Section Reference: When We Are Awake: Conscious Awareness 43. Based on your text’s discussion of the development of consciousness during infancy, which of the following statements is most accurate? a) The development of the self-concept depends on the development of consciousness. b) The development of the self-concept precedes the development of consciousness. c) The development of the self-concept follows the development of consciousness. d) The development of the self-concept occurs simultaneously with the development of consciousness. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Define different levels of conscious awareness and describe key brain structures and functions associated with those levels. Section Reference: When We Are Awake: Conscious Awareness 44. Dr. Barton believes that infants develop full consciousness at around 22 months of age. Dr. Barton would also believe a) young infants have a rudimentary sense of self-consciousness because without it, babies could not develop any concepts at all. b) young infants possess a complete sense of self-consciousness which allows cognitive development to occur, and this leads to full consciousness. c) consciousness is rooted in language and representation; therefore, infants develop full consciousness at the time they develop language. d) consciousness is innate and allows infants to develop all other abilities as well as a sense of self. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Define different levels of conscious awareness and describe key brain structures and functions associated with those levels. Section Reference: When We Are Awake: Conscious Awareness

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45. Based on your text’s discussion, which of the following alternatives best reflects a current controversy among theorists examining the development of consciousness in infancy? a) whether it is possible to investigate the self-concept among very young infants b) whether the development of a self-concept precedes or follows the development of consciousness c) whether the development of consciousness depends on the development of language d) whether the development of consciousness depends on the development of a self-concept Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define different levels of conscious awareness and describe key brain structures and functions associated with those levels. Section Reference: When We Are Awake: Conscious Awareness 46. Thomas is an anaesthesiologist interested in where consciousness is located in the brain. He knows that when someone is undergoing surgery, the anaesthetic removes their consciousness but leaves intact their automatic body activities. The latest research suggests that this response to anaesthetic may be accomplished by affecting a) the neural networks in the brain. b) the peripheral nervous system. c) the microtubules in our neurons. d) the “what pathway” Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define different levels of conscious awareness and describe key brain structures and functions associated with those levels. Section Reference: When We Are Awake: Conscious Awareness 47. Grayson is a graduate student in psychology and is interested in studying how the brain produces consciousness. What part of the brain is the latest research focusing on to investigate this question? a) the neural networks in the brain b) the peripheral nervous system c) the microtubules in our neurons d) the “what pathway” Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define different levels of conscious awareness and describe key brain structures and functions associated with those levels. Section Reference: When We Are Awake: Conscious Awareness

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

48. What are the core component skills of consciousness? a) perception, quantification, and spatial processing b) attention, representation, and intentional behaviours c) preconscious, unconscious, and consciousness d) awareness, rationalization, and deduction Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the ideas of preconscious and unconscious states, including Freud’s thinking on the unconscious. Section Reference: Preconscious and Unconscious States 49. Studies of inattentional blindness show that a) we do not need to attend to something in order to be conscious of it. b) to be conscious of something we need to attend to it. c) attention to the non-dominant hemisphere can result in awareness. d) attention can overcome perceptual deficits. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the ideas of preconscious and unconscious states, including Freud’s thinking on the unconscious. Section Reference: Preconscious and Unconscious States 50. The big message to take away about consciousness with regards to the findings of people with blindsight is that a) attention and awareness are the same process, mediated by the same brain area. b) attention and awareness are different processes that are mediated by the same brain area. c) attention and awareness are the same process, mediated by different brain areas. d) attention and awareness are different processes that are mediated by different brain areas. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the ideas of preconscious and unconscious states, including Freud’s thinking on the unconscious. Section Reference: Preconscious and Unconscious States 51. In what way is blindsight and inattentional blindness the same? a) In both cases, the individual will report not seeing something that is in their visual field. b) In both cases, the individual will have suffered neurological damage. c) In both cases, the individual will have a learning disability.

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d) In both cases, the individual can overcome their deficit with better use of attention. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the ideas of preconscious and unconscious states, including Freud’s thinking on the unconscious. Section Reference: Preconscious and Unconscious States 52. Which of the following statements best expresses the importance of blindsight for our understanding of consciousness? a) Blindsight reveals the role of the thalamic nuclei in consciousness. b) Blindsight indicates the different contributions to consciousness of the right and left hemispheres. c) Blindsight suggests that consciousness is different from awareness. d) Blindsight underscores the contribution to consciousness of parallel processing in multiple neural networks. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the ideas of preconscious and unconscious states, including Freud’s thinking on the unconscious. Section Reference: Preconscious and Unconscious States 53. Graeme was blinded after he suffered damage to his visual cortex in a motor vehicle accident. Despite this, when his son throws a ball to him, he is often able to catch it. Graeme has ___________. a) inattentional blindness b) preconscious blindness c) unconscious awareness d) blindsight Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the ideas of preconscious and unconscious states, including Freud’s thinking on the unconscious. Section Reference: Preconscious and Unconscious States 54. Willum has been diagnosed with blindsight because of damage to his visual cortex and is trying to navigate his way down a street that contains lampposts and people walking on the sidewalk. How will Willum do at this task? a) He will report that he cannot see anything, and he will bump into the lampposts and people. b) He will report that he can see everything, but he will bump into the lampposts and people.

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

c) He will report that he cannot see anything, and he will bump into stationary objects only, such as lampposts, but not moving objects, like walking people. d) He will report that he cannot see anything, and he will navigate correctly around the lampposts and people. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the ideas of preconscious and unconscious states, including Freud’s thinking on the unconscious. Section Reference: Preconscious and Unconscious States 55. Barry is watching the football game on television. He is so absorbed in the game that he does not notice his roommate walk through the room wearing a Halloween mask. Barry has just experienced ____________. a) unconscious awareness b) blindsight c) preconscious awareness d) inattentional blindness Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the ideas of preconscious and unconscious states, including Freud’s thinking on the unconscious. Section Reference: Preconscious and Unconscious States 56. Which of the following is an example of inattentional blindness? a) Gael was not thinking about his address but when asked was easily able to recall it. b) Siya entered a restaurant and immediately thought of her grandmother due to the similar food odours. c) Jucinda was in an accident and experienced damage to her visual cortex. Now, even though she is unaware of visual objects in her path she can still avoid them. d) Grayson was deeply involved in a cell phone conversation while driving and failed to notice the light ahead was red and drove through it. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the ideas of preconscious and unconscious states, including Freud’s thinking on the unconscious. Section Reference: Preconscious and Unconscious States 57. Anna’s husband is about to walk the dogs but cannot find the leashes. Knowing she was the last to walk the dogs, he asks her where she put them. Anna thinks back to when she came

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back inside with the dogs, how it was raining so she had to put the umbrella away. And then she remembers – the leashes are with the umbrella. At what level of awareness was this information for Anna, prior to her husband’s question? a) unconscious b) preconscious c) implicit memory d) conscious Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the ideas of preconscious and unconscious states, including Freud’s thinking on the unconscious. Section Reference: Preconscious and Unconscious States 58. Kianna loves pizza, especially Hawaiian. Her best friend Emilie loves pepperoni. Kianna is on the phone ordering pizza for herself when Emilie texts her to say she is coming over for supper. Kianna needs to immediately bring into her awareness the type of pizza Emilie likes so she can order it. What level of consciousness is being used by Kianna to store the information about Emilie’s favorite type of pizza? a) preconscious b) unconscious c) subconscious d) conscious Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the ideas of preconscious and unconscious states, including Freud’s thinking on the unconscious. Section Reference: Preconscious and Unconscious States 59. Kiara’s partner arrives home from work and asks her how her day was. She says that she had lunch with Katie from work, and that they went to this new place that had amazing grilled cheese sandwiches. At what level of awareness was Kiara’s partner’s lunch information, prior to her Kiara’s question? a) unconscious b) preconscious c) implicit memory d) consciousness Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the ideas of preconscious and unconscious states, including Freud’s thinking on the unconscious.

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Section Reference: Preconscious and Unconscious States 60. Which of the following is an example of preconscious behaviour? a) talking to your friend b) walking c) sleeping d) listening to a class lecture Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the ideas of preconscious and unconscious states, including Freud’s thinking on the unconscious. Section Reference: Preconscious and Unconscious States 61. Information of which you are currently unaware but which you can recall quite easily is said to be in the ___. a) unconscious b) subliminal mind c) subconscious d) preconscious Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the ideas of preconscious and unconscious states, including Freud’s thinking on the unconscious. Section Reference: Preconscious and Unconscious States 62. How are the preconscious and unconscious different? a) With the preconscious, information can be readily available; with the unconscious, information is not readily available. b) The preconscious develops with a sense of self; the unconscious is innate. c) The unconscious is implicit memory; the preconscious is explicit memory. d) With the preconscious, information is repressed; with the unconscious, information contains wishes and fears. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the ideas of preconscious and unconscious states, including Freud’s thinking on the unconscious. Section Reference: Preconscious and Unconscious States

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63. Readily accessible is to ____________ as not readily accessible is to __________. a) unconscious; subconscious b) subconscious; unconscious c) preconscious; subconscious d) preconscious; unconscious Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the ideas of preconscious and unconscious states, including Freud’s thinking on the unconscious. Section Reference: Preconscious and Unconscious States 64. Freud suggested that most of one’s personal knowledge is contained in the ___. a) conscious mind b) subconscious c) preconscious d) unconscious Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the ideas of preconscious and unconscious states, including Freud’s thinking on the unconscious. Section Reference: Preconscious and Unconscious States 65. How has the status of the concept of the unconscious changed through psychology’s history since Freud’s time? a) It has not, really: Psychologists have continued to embrace the notion of the unconscious since the time of Freud. b) Psychologists have generally rejected the concept of the unconscious ever since Freud’s death. c) In recent decades, many psychologists have rediscovered the concept of the unconscious. d) In recent years, an increasing number of psychologists have rejected the notion of the unconscious. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the ideas of preconscious and unconscious states, including Freud’s thinking on the unconscious. Section Reference: Preconscious and Unconscious States 66. According to Freud, one of the key functions of the _________ was to house ________ thoughts and memories that are too painful for consciousness.

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

a) preconscious; subconscious b) subconscious; repressed c) unconscious; repressed d) preconscious; regressed Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the ideas of preconscious and unconscious states, including Freud’s thinking on the unconscious. Section Reference: Preconscious and Unconscious States 67. Which of the following is true regarding Freud’s views of the unconscious? a) There is extensive empirical evidence for Freud’s conceptualization of the unconscious. b) Freud’s idea of repression has a sound scientific basis. c) There is support for the idea that too much repression can lead to psychological disorders such as anxiety. d) There is no unequivocal empirical support for Freud’s views of the unconscious. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the ideas of preconscious and unconscious states, including Freud’s thinking on the unconscious. Section Reference: Preconscious and Unconscious States 68. Which of the following reflects Freud’s belief about accessing unconscious material? a) He believed we could access the unconscious material through explicit memories. b) He believed we could access the unconscious material through implicit memories. c) He believed we could access the unconscious material through our expression of anxiety. d) He believed we could access the unconscious material through Freudian slips. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the ideas of preconscious and unconscious states, including Freud’s thinking on the unconscious. Section Reference: Preconscious and Unconscious States 69. Rachel is talking to her brother about the day their father abandoned the family, roughly 15 years ago. She was 10 at the time and her brother was 8, but her brother remembers all the details and she does not remember anything. What would Freud say happened to Rachel’s memory of her dad leaving? a) She was too young to have recall of such a traumatic event.

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b) She projected her memory to her preconscious. c) She repressed the memory to her unconscious. d) She suffered hysterical amnesia due to this early childhood trauma. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the ideas of preconscious and unconscious states, including Freud’s thinking on the unconscious. Section Reference: Preconscious and Unconscious States 70. Nolan grew up in a very abusive home with an alcoholic father. He never discussed his abusive childhood with anyone and seems to have forgotten the abuse even happened. According to Freud, what would likely be the effect of this experience on Nolan? a) Nolan will never be able to develop healthy relationships. b) Nolan will be withdrawn and not have many friends. c) Nolan will have nightmares. d) Nolan will develop a psychological disorder. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the ideas of preconscious and unconscious states, including Freud’s thinking on the unconscious. Section Reference: Preconscious and Unconscious States 71. Dr. Green is a contemporary psychodynamic psychologist. Her colleague, Dr. Kagawa, is a cognitive psychologist. How does each of these psychologists view the function of unconscious thought? a) Dr. Green views unconscious processing as a mechanism protecting us from disturbing thoughts. Dr. Kagawa sees it as part of everyday information processing. b) Dr. Green views unconscious thought as part of everyday information processing. Dr. Kagawa sees it as a mechanism protecting us from disturbing thoughts. c) Both Dr. Green and Dr. Kagawa see unconscious processing as a mechanism protecting us from disturbing thoughts. d) Both Dr. Green and Dr. Kagawa see unconscious mechanisms as part of everyday information processing. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the ideas of preconscious and unconscious states, including Freud’s thinking on the unconscious. Section Reference: Preconscious and Unconscious States

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

72. Your textbook reviews the findings of a study investigating how fire chiefs make decisions in potentially life threatening circumstances. What was the main finding? a) Fire chiefs relied almost entirely on explicit memory as implicit memories are not accessible. b) Fire chiefs used only automatic thoughts to guide behaviour. c) Fire chiefs use intuitive thought processes in decision making. d) Fire chiefs consider a range of scenarios and carefully consider pros and cons. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the ideas of preconscious and unconscious states, including Freud’s thinking on the unconscious. Section Reference: Preconscious and Unconscious States 73. A Freudian slip is best defined as a) a memory that has no verbal content that influences mood and behaviour. b) a repressed idea that inadvertently enters consciousness. c) an emotionally charged event that keeps recurring in the person’s mind. d) a mistake that caused you so much embarrassment that you repressed it. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the ideas of preconscious and unconscious states, including Freud’s thinking on the unconscious. Section Reference: Preconscious and Unconscious States 74. Which of the following is an example of a Freudian slip? a) an art history student who spends a great deal of time in front of any painting with naked subjects b) a biology student who explains the life cycle of the ‘orgasm’ instead of ‘organism’ to an attractive study partner c) a chemistry professor who starts every lecture with the Adele’s song ‘Set Fire to the Rain’ followed by the lighting of a Bunsen burner d) a professor who only accepts male graduate students to her women’s study sections Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the ideas of preconscious and unconscious states, including Freud’s thinking on the unconscious. Section Reference: Preconscious and Unconscious States 75. Mia is meeting her ex’s new girlfriend, Alicia, for the first time. She smiles at the woman and, although she intends to say, “I’m glad to meet you”, she says, “I’m mad to meet you”. How

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would Freud interpret Mia’s mistake? a) He would suggest she does not like Alicia and made a Freudian error. b) He would suggest she probably made a speech error, and it has no real underlying meaning. c) He would suggest she is unconsciously jealous of Alicia and expressed it through a Freudian slip. d) He would suggest that, because of a conflict between her conscious and unconscious states of mind, she made a Freudian error. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Summarize the ideas of preconscious and unconscious states, including Freud’s thinking on the unconscious. Section Reference: Preconscious and Unconscious States 76. How is the cognitive view of the unconscious different from Freud’s view? a) The cognitive view sees the unconscious as a major contributor to decision making; Freud sees it as a main determinant of personality. b) The cognitive view sees the unconscious as the foundation for all memories; Freud sees it as the main information processor. c) The cognitive view sees the unconscious as part of daily functioning; Freud sees it as a vast storehouse for painful memories. d) The cognitive view sees the unconscious as the storehouse for all memories; Freud sees it as a storehouse of implicit memories only. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the ideas of preconscious and unconscious states, including Freud’s thinking on the unconscious. Section Reference: Preconscious and Unconscious States 77. What is the modern view about the unconscious versus Freud’s view? a) Freud was right, the unconscious is where we keep all our sexual and aggressive urges and memories. b) There is no such thing as the unconscious. c) The preconscious exists, but the unconscious only applies to patients who are in a coma. d) Unconscious functioning does occur. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the ideas of preconscious and unconscious states, including Freud’s thinking on the unconscious. Section Reference: Preconscious and Unconscious States

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

78. Memories that we cannot recall deliberately but that we use to perform tasks are termed ___. a) tacit b) implicit c) intrinsic d) internal Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the ideas of preconscious and unconscious states, including Freud’s thinking on the unconscious. Section Reference: Preconscious and Unconscious States 79. “Once you learn to ride a bike, you never forget.” This saying suggests that riding a bicycle is stored as a/an ___ memory. a) conscious b) unconscious c) explicit d) implicit Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the ideas of preconscious and unconscious states, including Freud’s thinking on the unconscious. Section Reference: Preconscious and Unconscious States 80. Khawla has a job for the summer stuffing flyers into envelopes. As she is stuffing the envelopes, she is singing along to a song on the radio. Khawla is able to do both of these things simultaneously because of _______________ memory. a) explicit b) implicit c) unconscious d) conscious Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the ideas of preconscious and unconscious states, including Freud’s thinking on the unconscious. Section Reference: Preconscious and Unconscious States 81. Which of the following is an example of an implicit memory?

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a) a repressed memory of a childhood trauma b) where you put your wallet c) playing the guitar d) recalling the last time you washed your car Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the ideas of preconscious and unconscious states, including Freud’s thinking on the unconscious. Section Reference: Preconscious and Unconscious States 82. Which of the following is an example of an explicit memory? a) playing the guitar b) recalling how to walk on stilts after twenty years of not using them c) a repressed memory of a childhood trauma d) recalling the last time you saw your grandmother Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the ideas of preconscious and unconscious states, including Freud’s thinking on the unconscious. Section Reference: Preconscious and Unconscious States 83. Hayden is learning to drive. Ida is an experienced driver. Ida drives Hayden to his written drivers’ test. Hayden relies on ___ memory to supply answers to the questions on the written drivers’ test. To successfully negotiate the light traffic on the way home, Ida depends on ___. a) implicit; implicit memory, too b) implicit; explicit memory c) explicit; implicit memory d) explicit; explicit memory, too Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the ideas of preconscious and unconscious states, including Freud’s thinking on the unconscious. Section Reference: Preconscious and Unconscious States 84. Joseph is teaching his three-year old son, Mason to button up his shirt. For Joseph, buttoning a shirt would be a(n) ____________ memory. For Mason, buttoning a shirt would be a(n) ____________ memory. a) unconscious; conscious b) explicit; implicit

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c) implicit; explicit d) explicit; explicit Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the ideas of preconscious and unconscious states, including Freud’s thinking on the unconscious. Section Reference: Preconscious and Unconscious States 85. Which theory of sleep argues that sleep allows the body to restore depleted resources and eliminate any accumulated waste? a) adaptive theory b) information-processing theory c) restorative theory d) activation-synthesis theory Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 86. According to the restorative theory, why do we require sleep? a) because we are no longer socially active b) because it allows our brain and body to replenish depleted chemical resources and eliminate chemical wastes c) because our visual systems are adapted for optimal use in daylight d) because we do not have as much to remember Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 87. Based on the evidence provided to support the restorative theory of sleep, which of these statements is a valid conclusion? a) A lack of sleep might lead to an inability to heal. b) A lack of sleep might lead to a harmful increase in growth hormone. c) A lack of sleep might lead to memory loss and a drop in IQ over time. d) A lack of sleep might lead to deterioration in physical or mental health.

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Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 88. Research shows that the biological need for sleep changes over time. Which theory does this fact support? a) adaptation/protection theory b) repair/restoration theory c) growth theory d) learning/memory theory Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 89. When Beth becomes a mother for the first time, she is surprised at how much her newborn sleeps. While she is getting by on very little sleep, her baby sleeps most of the day. The differences in their sleep patterns would support which theory of sleep? a) growth theory b) adaptive theory c) restorative theory d) learning theory Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 90. Sleep deprivation is a serious issue among university students. Therefore, it is not surprising that sleep-deprived friends Chloe, Abd, Luiza, and Maximillian all experience flus and colds during the final exam period, in spite of having spent no time together. Which of the following theories would best explain this? a) immunology theory of sleep b) adaptive theory of sleep c) growth theory of sleep d) restorative theory of sleep

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Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 91. Dr. Reid is a sleep-deprived professor. Which of the following predictions is most likely to occur? a) She will get sick during final exam week. b) She will begin having nightmares when she sleeps. c) She will rapidly lose weight, despite eating more food. d) She will start taking psychoactive drugs to induce sleep. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 92. Which theory of sleep argues that sleep serves the purpose of self-preservation from predators that are more active at night? a) adaptive theory b) restorative theory c) information-processing theory d) activation-synthesis model Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 93. Gabriel and Léa are hiking through the mountains. Knowing that there are likely to be bears along their route, they decide to hike during the day and set up their camp to sleep at night. Which theory of sleep does Gabriel and Léa’s behaviour support? a) predatory protection theory b) adaptive theory c) restorative theory d) growth theory Answer: b

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 94. What is the difference between the adaptive theory of sleep and the restorative theory of sleep? a) The adaptive theory argues that sleep is necessary for our immune system and the restorative theory believes that sleep is necessary for our brain. b) The adaptive theory suggests that sleep is important for social bonding and the restorative theory proposes that sleep is important for our physical health. c) The adaptive theory says that different sleep needs have evolved in different species and the restorative theory says that sleep allows the brain and body to recuperate from the day. d) The adaptive theory believes that sleep patterns change as we age and the restorative theory argues that sleep is essential for maintaining memories. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 95. The adaptive theory of sleep would probably be endorsed most strongly by a(n) ___ psychologist. The restorative theory of sleep would probably be endorsed most strongly by a(n) ___ psychologist. a) evolutionary; behavioural b) evolutionary; cognitive c) evolutionary; neuroscientific d) neuroscientific; evolutionary Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 96. Sleep theorists Jasmine and Ava are discussing the purpose of sleep. Jasmine says that humans sleep at night because it is safer for them to work and go about their lives during daylight hours. Ava says that sleep serves as a recovery period before the next day begins. Jasmine and Ava adhere to which theories, respectively? a) Jasmine is an adaptive theorist; Ava is a restorative theorist. b) Jasmine is a restorative theorist; Ava is an adaptive theorist. c) Jasmine is an adaptive theorist; Ava is a growth theorist.

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d) Jasmine is a growth theorist; Ava is a restorative theorist. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 97. The pattern of sleep-wake cycles that fluctuates relatively predictably over the course of a 24-hour period is called a) the sleep-wake rhythms. b) the circadian rhythm. c) the REM-NREM patterns. d) activation-synthesis pattern. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 98. Which of the following is another term for ‘circadian rhythm’ mentioned in your text? a) sleep-wake rhythms b) biological clock c) REM-NREM patterns d) activation-synthesis pattern Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 99. What disorder is associated with excessive sleepiness or insomnia due to a mismatch between one’s sleep-wake pattern and the sleep-wake schedule of others? a) narcolepsy b) jet lag c) circadian rhythm d) shift work Answer: c

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 100. Pam is a nurse who works one week of day shifts and then one week of night shifts. Lately she finds she is feeling very despondent and depressed? a) Working different shifts has upset Pam's circadian rhythm causing her to feel depressed. b) Pam is sleep-deprived which is causing her to feel depressed. c) Pam’s circadian rhythms have grown accustomed to the lack of sleep, but it has altered her mood state. d) The change in routine has temporarily disrupted Pam’s ability to release melatonin, a disruption that causes depression. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 101. Jet lag results from disruptions in a) REM sleep. b) information processing. c) circadian rhythms. d) concentration. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 102. Each of the following physiological variations reflects a circadian rhythm EXCEPT a) blood pressure fluctuations. b) hormone secretion cycles. c) variations in pain sensitivity. d) the menstrual cycle. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension

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Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 103. People often report they feel sluggish and sleepy in the early afternoon. Which of the following explains this phenomenon? a) The circadian rhythm resets itself at this time of day. b) Body temperature reaches its peak at this time of day. c) Body temperature lowers at this time of day. d) The body is releasing growth hormones. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 104. Individuals who experience excessive sleepiness due to a mismatch between their own sleep-wake patterns and the sleep-wake schedules of others in their environment have a) hypersomnolence. b) circadian rhythm sleep disorder. c) narcolepsy. d) excessive daytime sleepiness. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 105. Which of the following statements about circadian rhythms is true? a) Circadian rhythms are fully dependent on cycles of daylight. b) Younger people peak earlier in the day than older people. c) When temperature goes down people feel more fatigued. d) Growth hormones are only released when people are awake. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep

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106. Ijeoma is a 21-year old woman. Originally from Nigeria, she has been living in Canada for the past 10 years. Whose sleep-wake rhythm would Ijeoma’s most likely resemble? a) other 21-year old women b) other 21-year olds from Nigeria c) other females in general d) one or both of her parents Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 107. Waya is moving to Yellowknife where there are months in the winter without daylight. Which of the following best describes what will happen to Waya’s sleep cycle during the period of darkness? a) Waya will sleep more because his body will release more melatonin. b) Waya will sleep less because his body will release less melatonin. c) Waya will sleep less because his body will release more melatonin d) Waya’s sleep pattern will not change as long as he is exposed to sufficient hours of artificial light. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 108. Imagine that you are deprived of natural light for an extended period. Based on your text’s discussion, what might happen to the length of your body’s “day?” a) It would shorten to about 23 hours. b) It would remain at about 24 hours. c) It would lengthen to about 25 hours. d) It would lengthen to about 26 hours. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep

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109. Hyuna lived in an underground shelter for four days during a severe hurricane. When she was in the shelter, her body’s “day” shifted to ___ hours, but once she could emerge from the shelter her day shifted to ___ hours. a) 26; 23 b) 23; 26 c) 25; 24 d) 25; 23 Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 110. When a tornado destroyed her house, Christina was saved because she sought shelter in her basement. But it was three days before rescuers were able to clear the rubble and remove her from her basement. Without access to environmental shifts in sunlight and darkness, Christina’s day was likely _______________, and when she was rescued her day likely _______________. a) shortened to 23 hours; extended to 25 hours b) shortened to 23 hours; returned to normal c) extended to 25 hours; shortened to 23 hours d) extended to 25 hours; returned to normal Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 111. Andrea gets up early every morning to tidy the house and cook supper before she goes to work. Tahlia stays up late at night to do the same chores. Based on this, which of the following is most likely to be true about Andrea and Tahlia’s sleep patterns? a) Andrea is an owl and Tahlia is a lark. b) Andrea is a lark and Tahlia is an owl. c) Both Andrea and Tahlia would be owls. d) Both Andrea and Tahlia would be larks. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning.

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Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 112. Dr. Van de Berg finds that of a sample of pairs of identical twins raised together, 80% were either both “owls” or both “larks.” Dr. Van de Berg then investigates pairs of identical twins raised in different families, and pairs of fraternal twins raised either together or in different families. He again records the percentage of pairs of twins raised who were either both “owls” or both “larks.” Based on your text’s discussion, which of the following best approximates the pattern of results he should find? a) identical apart – 60%; fraternal together – 40%; fraternal apart – 20% b) identical apart – 80%; fraternal together – 80%; fraternal apart – 80% c) identical apart – 75%; fraternal together – 65%; fraternal apart – 60% d) identical apart – 65%; fraternal together – 75%; fraternal apart – 60% Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 113. Rio gets up early every morning, goes to the gym, cleans her apartment, and does her homework before going to her noon class. Yui sleeps until almost eleven o’clock every day, and then begins the same activities as Rio but goes to bed much later than Rio. In this example, Rio would be considered a(n) __________ and Yui would be considered a(n) ___________________. a) owl; lark b) lark; owl c) lark; lark d) owl; owl Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 114. How long is a typical sleep cycle, in which a sleeper progresses through some or all of the sleep stages? a) 1 hour b) 90 minutes c) 2 hours d) several hours Answer: b

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 115. Your text states that there are changes in activity in such brain areas as the reticular formation and the pons during sleep, but that “researchers have not established that changes in the activity of these areas cause us to sleep.” Based on these statements and on your knowledge of research methods in psychology, what type of research has most likely been conducted on the role of brain activity during sleep? a) experimental research b) correlational research c) case study research d) survey research Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 116. Researchers have identified changes in activity in the reticular formation and the pons during sleep but claim that this finding cannot be interpreted as causal. Based on the information provided in your text, as well as on what you know about research methodology, why do you think this is the case? a) Although this research is experimental, the findings are not significant. b) This research is correlational. c) Most of the findings to date have come from case studies. d) Imaging studies are not reliable in this area. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 117. Which of the following areas is active during sleep? a) cerebellum b) reticular formation c) amygdala d) hypothalamus Answer: b

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 118. What structure in the hypothalamus coordinates the function of the pineal gland producing melatonin? a) substantia nigra b) suprachiasmatic nucleus c) red nucleus d) pons Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 119. Circadian rhythms are regulated by the ___ nucleus in the hypothalamus. a) suprachiasmatic b) intralaminar c) ventromedial d) lateral geniculate Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 120. Doug has been experiencing sleep disturbances for the past six months and is told by his physician that he may have abnormal circadian rhythms. However, to confirm this, testing will need to be conducted on his a) suprachiasmatic nucleus. b) spinal cord. c) cerebellum. d) cerebral cortex. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

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Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 121. How does melatonin affect the body? a) As melatonin levels increase, alertness decreases. b) As melatonin levels increase, alertness also increases. c) As melatonin levels decrease, alertness decreases. d) Our body temperature rises as alertness decreases. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 122. The secretion of melatonin is ultimately regulated by a group of neurons in the ___. a) amygdala b) hypothalamus c) hippocampus d) thalamus Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 123. Which of the following alternatives best represents the sequence of events by which melatonin is secreted in the blood? a) suprachiasmatic nucleus – pineal gland – melatonin b) pineal gland – suprachiasmatic nucleus – melatonin c) suprachiasmatic nucleus + pineal gland – melatonin d) suprachiasmatic nucleus – pituitary gland – melatonin Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep

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124. Madhia was dozing off to sleep when suddenly she heard a loud crash. She jumped out of bed to find the source of the noise but found nothing out of the ordinary. Which of the following most appropriately explains the noise Madhia heard? a) Madhia was in REM sleep and was dreaming. b) Madhia was in Stage 1 sleep and was dreaming. c) Madhiawas in pre-sleep and experienced a hypnagogic hallucination. d) Madhia was in Stage 1 sleep and experienced a hypnagogic hallucination. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 125. Shortly after Tadeo goes to bed, he feels like his body is floating in space. Tadeo is experiencing the phenomenon known as a _______________. a) myoclonic hallucination b) hypnotic hallucination c) myoclonic delusions d) hypnagogic hallucinations Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 126. Isaac was drifting off to asleep when his legs suddenly jerked causing him to wake up. It is likely that Isaac experienced a ___ as part of ___. a) hypnagogic hallucination; Stage 1 sleep b) myoclonic jerk; REM sleep c) hypnagogic hallucination; REM sleep d) myoclonic jerk; pre-sleep Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 127. Just as Peyton was drifting off to sleep, she felt like she was falling off a cliff and then

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experienced a sharp muscular spasm in her arm that woke her up. Peyton’s feeling of falling was likely a __________ and the muscle spasm was a __________. a) myoclonic hallucination; myoclonic jerk b) hypnagogic hallucination; apagogic jerk c) myoclonic hallucination; hypnagogic jerk d) hypnagogic hallucination; myoclonic jerk Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 128. Which of the following sequences reflects the successive brain wave patterns sleepers display as they fall asleep and enter progressively deeper sleep stages? a) theta – alpha – delta b) alpha – delta – theta c) alpha – beta – theta d) alpha – theta – delta Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 129. Which sequence accurately illustrates brain wave changes during sleep? a) alpha waves > theta waves > sleep spindles and mixed EEG > delta waves > rapid, jagged brainwaves b) delta waves > sleep spindles > alpha waves > delta waves > rapid, jagged brainwaves c) beta waves > theta waves > sleep spindles > mixed EEG waves > delta waves d) theta waves > sleep spindles > delta waves > alpha waves > beta waves Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 130. As sleepers enter deeper sleep stages, their brain waves a) increase in complexity. b) decrease in amplitude.

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c) decrease in frequency. d) increase in frequency. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 131. Brief periods of ‘spiky’ brain wave patterns called sleep spindles are characteristic of ___ sleep. a) Stage 1 b) Stage 2 c) Stage 4 d) REM Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 132. A husband and wife, Parker, and Rae, undergo a sleep study. At midnight, they are woken up. The researcher notes that the husband’s pulse rate is high and his recorded brain waves are high and frequent. The wife’s brain wave recording shows spindles and mixed activity. How would you categorize their sleep stages? a) Parker is in REM sleep; Rae is in Stage 2. b) Parker is in Stage 4; Rae is in REM sleep. c) Parker is in Stage 3; Rae is in Stage 4. d) Parker is in Stage 4; Rae is in Stage 3. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 133. Which stage of sleep is correctly matched with its corresponding brain wave? a) REM sleep = rapid, jagged waves b) Stage 1 sleep = alpha waves prominent c) drowsy = high frequency sleep spindles d) Stage 2 sleep = beta waves

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Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 134. Collectively, Stage 3 sleep and Stage 4 sleep are termed ___ sleep. a) hypnagogic b) deep c) REM d) myoclonic Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 135. To do your best on a test you need REM sleep. Why is REM sleep important for learning? a) The amount of growth hormone released during REM sleep is directly related to one's ability to learn. b) The maintenance of connections in the brain is directly related to the amount of REM sleep. c) The amount of REM sleep decreases significantly after periods of intense learning. d) REM sleep plays an important role in the consolidation of memories for newly learned material. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 136. Based on the evidence about the REM stage of sleep, which of these statements is a valid conclusion? a) Chronic lack of REM sleep might have a direct relationship with underdevelopment of the body. b) Chronic lack of REM sleep might lead to a harmful increase in growth hormone. c) Chronic lack of REM sleep might have a direct relationship with lower test performance, including IQ tests. d) Chronic lack of REM sleep might lead to an inability to remember recently learned material.

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Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 137. Which stage of sleep is characterized by progressively more delta waves? a) Stage 3 b) Stage 1 c) Presleep d) REM sleep Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 138. Imagine a young girl who is asleep in her room. Suddenly, she sits upright and starts screaming. When her mother tries to wake her to comfort her, she is unable to do so. She hugs her child to try to calm her down and notices she has been sweating profusely. Which stage of sleep is this child most likely experiencing? a) REM b) stage 1 c) stage 2 d) stage 4 Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 139. Which of the following statements about sleep is false? a) Newborns spend about 8 hours a day in REM sleep. b) Narcoleptics immediately enter REM sleep and wake refreshed. c) Sleep deprivation does not decrease performance for interesting tasks. d) The hypnagogic state is most likely to occur in Stage 3 or 4 sleep. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium

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Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 140. Logan is in Stage 4 sleep. Which of the following would Logan NOT be experiencing? a) His heart rate will have dropped to its lowest level. b) His blood pressure will have dropped. c) His muscles will be somewhat tense. d) If he is prone to sleep walking, he will do so here. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 141. Non-rapid-eye-movement (NREM) sleep refers to which stage(s) of sleep? a) stage 1 b) stages 1 and 2 c) stages 1, 2 and 3 d) stages 1, 2, 3 and 4 Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 142. REM sleep is paradoxical because a) the brain is active, but the major skeletal muscles are paralyzed. b) the skeletal muscles remain active, but the brain is inactive. c) the brain is less active than it is during other sleep stages. d) both the brain and the body are inactive. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep

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143. It is during rapid eye movement that most people experience_____________. a) hypnagogic hallucinations and sleep walking b) non-narrative dreaming and terror c) reverse hypnosis and breathing irregularities d) paradoxical sleep and story-like dreams Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 144. Maggie is in the stage of sleep where, although her body is very still, her eyes are moving back and forth very quickly. If someone were to wake Maggie up, what would she probably report? a) that she had not actually been sleeping b) that she had a headache c) that she had been dreaming d) that she had no memory of dreaming Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 145. Amber and Maverick’s new baby, Olivia, is breathing irregularly, making little sounds, and moving her eyes rapidly back and forth under closed lids. Amber asks you if this means the baby is waking up. Based on what you know about sleep cycles, your best answer would be _________________________. a) Yes, the baby appears to be coming out of Stage 1 sleep. b) Yes, the baby appears to be coming out of non-REM sleep. c) No, the baby is in Stage 3 or 4 sleep. d) No, the baby is most likely in the REM sleep stage Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 146. Following several nights of studying for the bar exam, Jill notices that she is now having

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significantly more dreams than usual. This supports which theory of sleep? a) restorative theory b) growth theory c) memory consolidation theory d) adaptive theory Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 147. Assuming you agree with the consolidation theory, which of the following would you predict to perform better on a new task they learned the night before? a) Kyoko, who was awakened in the middle of a dream b) Heng, who was awakened from a deep sleep c) Josephine, who has suffered damage to the pons area of the brain d) There will be no difference in performance between these people. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 148. Assuming you disagree with the consolidation theory, which of the following would you predict to perform better on a new task they learned the night before? a) Jin-Yong, who was awakened in the middle of a dream b) Manual, who has suffered damage to the pons area of the brain c) Joelle, who is taking an antidepressant d) There will be no difference in performance between these people. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 149. Which piece of evidence below is correctly tagged with its relevance to the consolidation theory of the function of REM sleep? a) People who learn a task right before bed poorly perform the next day if REM sleep is interrupted – discredits consolidation theory.

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b) People with lesions to the pons have little trouble with learning and memory – discredits consolidation theory. c) Animals given antidepressants show few learning and memory deficits – supports consolidation theory. d) Animals given antidepressants show few learning and memory deficits – irrelevant to consolidation theory. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 150. Which piece of evidence below is correctly tagged with its relevance to the consolidation theory of the function of REM sleep? a) People who learn a task right before bed poorly perform the next day if REM sleep is interrupted – supports consolidation theory. b) People with lesions to the pons have little trouble with learning and memory – supports consolidation theory. c) Animals given antidepressants show few learning and memory deficits – supports consolidation theory. d) Animals given antidepressants show few learning and memory deficits – irrelevant to consolidation theory. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 151. Anastasia woke up and remembered that she was running from something in a dream. According to Freudian theory, what type of content constitutes the dream image she can recall? a) retrograde b) biological c) manifest d) latent Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep

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152. Durango was very angry with his stepmother, and wished she were dead. That night Durango dreamed that he pushed her off a cliff. According to Freud, the latent content of Durango's dream would be ___________________, while the manifest content would be ___________________. a) pushing her off the cliff; wishing she were dead b) wishing she were dead; pushing her off the cliff c) pushing her off the cliff; angry feelings d) angry feelings; wishing she were dead Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 153. Eleanor dreams that she is naked in public. Eleanor’s psychoanalyst suggests that such a dream represents a fear of exposure. Each of the following statements is true, EXCEPT a) being naked in public is a symbol. b) being naked in public is the latent content of Esther’s dream. c) being naked in public is the manifest content of Esther’s dream. d) fear of exposure is the latent content of Esther’s dream. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 154. A man has a dream about falling down a long flight of stairs, bouncing against the walls and tumbling and somersaulting as he fell. According to the psychoanalytic view of dreaming, what would be the latent content of this dream? a) the act of falling b) fear of failing c) bouncing and somersaulting d) the stairs Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep

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155 Imagine you had a dream last night in which you were taking a trip to a faraway country. According to Freud’s view of dreams, which of the following would most likely be the latent content of the dream? a) death b) the faraway country c) nighttime d) the trip Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 156. Ezra abuses cocaine. After 7 days of abstinence, he dreams that he buys cocaine only to find that it is not real. Research shows that “using” dreams are associated with a decreased probability of relapse (Hajek & Belcher, 1991). This result supports the idea that dreams reflect an attempt to work out current concerns – that is, it supports the ___ theory of dreaming. a) information-processing b) activation-synthesis c) object relations d) Freudian Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 157. Reese needs to prepare a class presentation on dream theories. Ironically, due to stress caused by the project, she begins to dream about showing up for the presentation unprepared and naked. Reese recognizes these dreams as supporting which theory? a) information-processing theory of dreams b) activation-synthesis hypothesis of dreams c) Freudian theory of dreams d) latent content of dreams Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep

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158. What do the three dream theories all have in common? a) They all consider our life experiences. b) They all perceive dreams as an outlet for our hidden desires. c) They all recognize the importance of cognitive information processing. d) They all emphasize the importance of neurons in dreaming. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 159. Khushi started a new job last week. Although she thinks she will enjoy the job, she is struggling to learn all the new information and tasks that will make her proficient in her position. Last night she dreamed that her new boss humiliated her in front of her co-workers for making mistakes. If you were to interpret this dream as Khushi’s mind attempting to sort out and give order to the stressful challenges of her new job, you would most likely agree with the ______. a) activation-synthesis model of dreaming b) Freudian dream theory c) cognitive theory of dreaming d) information-processing theory of dreams Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 160. Many famous discoveries, such as insulin, are reported to be based in part on dreams. This provides support for which theory of dreams? a) information-processing b) activation-synthesis c) Freudian d) wish-fulfillment Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep

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161. The activation-synthesis hypothesis suggests that a) dreams originate in the brain due to random stimulation of brain cells within REM sleep. b) dreams are meaningless responses to random stimuli collected throughout the day. c) dreams are activated by the brain's cataloguing of everyday experiences and thoughts. d) dreams are the synthesis of the day's unconscious desires and conscious learning. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 162. Nadia dreamed that she was repeatedly putting coins in a vending machine without getting any product. When she relays the dream to her roommate Hilde, Hilde tells her she must be feeling frustrated about something in her life and the vending machine represents whatever is frustrating her. Nadia, however, replies that she believes it is simply random neural activity in her brain. Based on this, Nadia supports the ___ theory while Hilde supports the ___ theory of dreaming. a) information-processing; activation-synthesis b) activation-synthesis; information-processing c) activation-synthesis; Freudian d) Freudian; activation-synthesis Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 163. Elzbieta is three-months into a much wanted pregnancy. She has had two previous miscarriages around this time. She keeps dreaming that her teeth are falling out. When she relays the dreams to her partner, Marke, he tells that losing her teeth must be symbolizing her concern about having another miscarriage. Elzbieta, however, replies that she believes it is simply random neural activity in her brain. Based on this, Elzbieta supports the ___ theory while Marke supports the ___ theory of dreaming. a) information-processing; activation-synthesis b) activation-synthesis; information-processing c) activation-synthesis; Freudian d) Freudian; activation-synthesis Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 164. According to Hobson and McCarley’s ___ theory, dreams begin in random neural activity. a) information-processing b) psychoanalytic c) object relations d) activation-synthesis Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 165. In what way are the information-processing theory of dreams and the activation-synthesis model of dreams similar? a) They both assume that dreaming evolved in most species as an adaptation for problem solving. b) They both assume that dreaming is the brain’s way of organizing some form of input. c) They both assume that dreaming is the brain’s way of eliminating waste and restoring resources. d) They both assume that dreaming is the brain’s way of staying active during a long night of inactivity. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 166. _______________ states that dreams are by-products of random stimulation of brain cells, whereas the _______________ suggests dreams serve to help us sift through our everyday experiences and thoughts. a) Biological; learning b) Information-processing theory; Freudian dream theory c) Activation-synthesis model; information processing theory d) Information processing theory; activation-synthesis model Answer: c Difficulty: Medium

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Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 167. Dreams in which one recognizes in the dream that one is dreaming are called ___. a) myoclonic dreams b) lucid dreams c) daydreams d) hypnagogic Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 168. Camille is in the middle of a dream where she is being chased by a dog. Although she initially feels frightened, she then realizes she is dreaming, turns around, and firmly tells the dog to go home. What term best describes Camille’s dream? a) nightmare b) night terror c) focal dream d) lucid dream Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 169. Mable is dreaming that a vampire is chasing her through a thick forest filled with twisted roots and spikey vines. She feels afraid, and realizing that this is only a dream, she invents a trap door under one of the roots and climbs through it. On the other side, she turns the land into candy land. What kind of dream did Mable have? a) nightmare b) night terror c) latent dream d) lucid dream Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 170. Proponents of which dream theory are least likely to view lucid dreaming an as especially important phenomenon? a) information-processing theory b) object relations theory c) Freudian dream theory d) activation-synthesis theory Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 171. The theory of dreams that would BEST explain lucid dreams would be a) information-processing theory. b) Freudian dream theory. c) activation synthesis model. d) object relations theory. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 172. For the last three weeks, nine-year-old Jared has regularly dreamed that his mother is killed in an accident. He wakes up extremely upset and has become so anxious he does not want her to leave the house. Jared is suffering from ___. a) night terrors b) nightmare disorder c) insomnia d) sleep-stress disorder Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep

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173. For the past month, Muhammad has dreamed that he is trapped in a burning building. He wakes up extremely upset and finds he is constantly checking the stove and worrying about a fire starting in his home. Muhammad is experiencing a) night terrors. b) a nightmare. c) insomnia. d) nightmare disorder. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 174. Each day, 6-week old Ewa spends about ___ hours in REM sleep. Ewa’s parents spend around ___ hours in REM sleep each day. a) 8; 4 b) 8; 2 c) 4; 4 d) 4; 2 Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 175. Sixty-year-old Kathleen has her seven-year-old and one-year-old granddaughters staying overnight with her. Which of the following accurately reflect the sleep patterns for Kathleen and her granddaughters? a) Kathleen will spend more time in REM than either of her grandchildren. b) Kathleen will spend the same amount of time in REM as her seven-year granddaughter, but less than the one-year old. c) Kathleen will spend less time in REM than her seven-year old granddaughter, but the same amount as the one-year old d) The one-year old will spend the most time in REM sleep. Kathleen will spend the least amount of time in REM sleep. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep

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and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 176. To which neural development process does REM sleep contribute to in infancy? a) synaptic pruning b) synaptogenesis c) programmed cell death d) neurogenesis Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 177. Jude is 7 years old. Jeremiah is 21 years old. Which of the following most accurately describes their sleep patterns? a) Jude spends more time in REM sleep than Jeremiah. b) Jeremiah spends more time in REM sleep than Jude. c) Jude sleeps for a longer time and spends more time in REM than Jeremiah. d) Jude and Jeremiah would spend the same amount of time in REM. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 178. Six-month-old Tara, six-year-old Marcia, fifteen-year-old Leigh, and sixty-year-old Charlie are participating in a sleep study. With regard to the amount of time each participant spends in REM sleep, which of the following would reflect the order from most to least? a) Charlie – Leigh – Marcia – Tara b) Tara – Marcia – Leigh – Charlie c) Tara – Marcia – Leigh and Charlie would spend the same amount of time in REM d) Tara – Marcia and Leigh would spend the same amount of time in REM - Charlie Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep

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179. Mackenzie is a healthy 20-year-old student who, when she was awakened suddenly asserts that she did NOT dream. Which of the following is most accurate about Mackenzie’s assertion? a) Mackenzie was awakened in the NREM cycle and although she had fleeting images, does not remember her dream. b) Mackenzie is lying because she is embarrassed by the content of her dreams. c) Mackenzie has a psychological disorder that causes her to repress her dreams. d) Mackenzie does not reach REM sleep and therefore never dreams. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 180. A team of researchers examines the time spent in REM sleep and in each of the NREM stages among a large sample of adults ranging in age from infants to 85 year old adults. The researchers compute three correlation coefficients: Correlation A, between participant age and total time spent in NREM stages 1 and 2; Correlation B, between participant age and total time spent in REM sleep; and, finally, Correlation C, between participant age and total time spent in NREM stages 3 and 4. Of these correlations, which should be the weakest? Which should be the strongest? a) Correlation B should be the weakest. Correlation A should be the strongest. b) Correlation B should be the weakest. Correlation C should be the strongest. c) Correlation C should be the weakest. Correlation A should be the strongest. d) Correlation A should be the weakest. Correlation C should be the strongest. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 181. A team of researchers examines the time spent in REM sleep and in each of the NREM stages among a large sample of adults ranging in age from 18 to 70 years old. The researchers compute three correlation coefficients: Correlation A, between participant age and total time spent in NREM stages 1 and 2; Correlation B, between participant age and total time spent in REM sleep; and, finally, Correlation C, between participant age and total time spent in NREM stages 3 and 4. Of these correlations, which should be the weakest? Which should be the strongest? a) Correlation B should be the weakest. Correlation A should be the strongest. b) Correlation B should be the weakest. Correlation C should be the strongest. c) Correlation C should be the weakest. Correlation A should be the strongest. d) Correlation A should be the weakest. Correlation C should be the strongest.

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Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 182. Our sleep patterns change as we age. Which of the following is accurate regarding these changes? a) The amount of REM sleep increases as we age and the amount of NREM sleep decreases. b) Newborns sleep roughly 12 hours per day, with 10 of those sleep hours being in REM. c) The largest decrease in REM and NREM sleep occurs in the first 3 years of life. d) Although the amount of REM and NREM sleep both decrease as we age, there is much more decrease in NREM than REM. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 183. Amber checks on her son, Kayden, as he is sleeping. She notices his breathing is fast and shallow, yet his body appears very relaxed and immobile. Kayden is most likely in a state of ________ sleep. a) REM b) NREM c) stage 4 d) stage 1 Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 184. Nagesh, a new mother from Kenya, always keeps her baby with her. Leda is a new mother from Canada who puts her baby down in a separate area for regular naps. Which of the following best describes the likely sleep pattern of the two babies? a) Nagesh’s baby would sleep for longer periods of time than Leda’s baby. b) Nagesh’s baby sleeps for shorter periods of time than Leda’s baby. c) Nagesh’s baby initially sleeps for shorter periods of time but by the age of 2, would sleep the same amount of time as Leda’s baby. d) Both babies sleep the same amount of time.

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Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 185. Brooke is dreaming that a zombie is chasing her through a deserted city filled with broken glass and piles of rubble. She feels terrified and realizes that she is alone, when suddenly more zombies come out from some buildings. She screams in fear, unable to move, and finds herself in her bed panting and sweating. What kind of dream did Brooke have? a) nightmare b) night terror c) latent dream d) lucid dream Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 186. ___________ is/are to REM as ____________is/are to non-REM. a) Narcolepsy; sleep apnea b) Sleep apnea; narcolepsy c) Nightmares; night terrors d) Night terrors; nightmares Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 187. Ian is a seven-year-old boy who occasionally screams in the middle of the night. During these episodes, Ian talks incoherently and will NOT wake up. Which sleep disorder is Ian likely experiencing? a) a sleep terror b) a narcoleptic episode c) a nightmare d) a sleep stressor

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Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 188. Which of the following questions regarding sleep is FALSE? a) Adolescent sleep patterns are altered by the increased social and academic pressures they are subject to. b) Left unhindered most people would sleep for nine or ten hours a day. c) Sleep loss can lower the effectiveness of the immune system. d) Adults wake more frequently than children but find it easier to go back to sleep than children do. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 189. Robin is in her last year of university and after studying for her final exams, she continues with intensive studying for the GRE. She has also just come down with a bad cold. What is the most likely explanation of Robin's cold? a) sleep deprivation hindering the effectiveness of her body’s immune system b) sleep deprivation accelerating her body’s metabolism thereby depleting all her body's resources c) sleep deprivation disrupting her internal clock that signals regular immune function d) sleep deprivation requires her to use increased mental effort required for her exams. This depletes her body's immune resources Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 190. Lauren, a competitive gymnast, took a flight from Halifax to Vancouver for a national competition. Which statement below best explains why her coach recommended that she take a nap the day after the flight? a) Flying across time zones can disrupt regular circadian rhythms. b) Flying across time zones can result in longer delta waves during Stage 4 sleep. c) Flying across time zones can affect sleep quality in the REM stage.

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d) Flying across time zones can cause an increase in stress, which can disrupt regular NREM patterns. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 191. Easton is conducting a clinical research study on circadian rhythms, paying particular attention to the correlation between levels of alertness and changes in body temperature. What is he most likely to observe? a) Core body temperature and alertness show similar patterns throughout the course of a 24hour period. b) Core body temperature rises in the afternoon while alertness dips. c) Core body temperature dips in the evening while alertness rises. d) Core body temperature and alertness show unrelated behavior throughout the course of a 24-hour period. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 192. Diane is undergoing an overnight sleep study as part of an experimental research grant. What are the researchers most likely to find? a) Diane’s body temperature drops as her level of alertness declines. b) Diane’s body temperature rises as her level of alertness declines. c) Diane’s body temperature remains the same throughout various levels of alertness. d) Diane’s body temperature rapidly fluctuates regardless of her level of alertness. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 193. How do the effects of sleep deprivation on the performance of complex logical tasks compare to the effects of sleep deprivation on simple, monotonous tasks? a) Sleep deprivation impairs performance on complex tasks than it does performance on simple, monotonous tasks.

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b) The effects of sleep deprivation on the performance of complex tasks are like its effects on the performance of simple, monotonous tasks. However, participants’ interest in complex tasks may inoculate their performance against the effects of unexpected events or distractions. c) Participants’ interest in complex tasks may compensate for their sleep deprivation. Unexpected events or distractions, though, may seriously impair their performance. d) Participants’ interest in complex tasks may compensate for their sleep deprivation and may also inoculate their performance against the effects of unexpected events or distractions. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 194. Enzo and Lévi both stayed up late studying although both must work the next morning. While Enzo works on an assembly line, Lévi is a junior accountant at a large firm. Which one of these is most likely to make mistakes at work? a) Enzo b) Lévi c) Enzo and Lévi are equally as likely to make mistakes. d) Neither Enzo nor Lévi are likely to make mistakes. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 195. Gunnar is sleep deprived. He was out all night at a buddy’s bachelor party and now he is showing up for work. His job entails checking that each pack of crackers that comes by on this assembly line has 10 crackers in it and that none of them are broken. How do you predict Gunnar will do at his job today? a) He will be unaffected by sleep deprivation because it is a well-practiced task. b) He will be unaffected by sleep deprivation because the task is so important to him. c) He will be affected by sleep deprivation because the task is boring and monotonous. d) He will be unaffected by sleep deprivation because the task does not require physical strength. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep

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196. What is insomnia? a) sudden and irresistible onset of sleep b) recurring nightmares or repetitive dreams c) difficulty falling asleep or staying asleep d) disturbances like sleepwalking or sleep talking Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 197. Which figure below best approximates the proportion of people afflicted by insomnia? a) 15% b) 25% c) 35% d) 45% Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 198. Tatiana has a great deal of trouble falling asleep at night. While her roommate is consistently asleep within 10 minutes of light’s out, Tatiana often lays there for hours until she falls asleep. What sleep disorder could Tatiana have? a) narcolepsy b) sleep apnea c) REM rebound d) insomnia Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 199. Which of the following statements is NOT accurate regarding insomnia? a) Many cases of insomnia are triggered by day-to-day stressors.

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

b) Insomnia is more common among the elderly. c) Some people suffer from insomnia because they worry about not being able to sleep. d) Sleepwalking is also considered to be a form of insomnia because it disrupts sleep. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 200. Ginny is awakened at midnight by the sound of the front door slamming shut. When she investigates, she finds her son Brian walking down the driveway. Although she tries to talk to him, he is verbally unresponsive and continues walking. This is most likely because Brian is a) sleepwalking. b) in REM sleep. c) having an episode of narcolepsy. d) suffering from sleep apnea. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 201. Francine is sleepy all day; she is unaware, though, that she wakes briefly several hundred times each night. She is likely suffering from ___, one of the sleep disturbances described in your text. a) night terror disorder b) insomnia c) sleep apnea d) narcolepsy Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 202. A friend of yours is known for his loud snoring. He complains of being tired all the time, even when he has slept for a full eight hours. Which sleep disorder is he most likely to have? a) sleepwalking b) narcolepsy

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c) night terrors d) sleep apnea Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 203. Why is sleep apnea considered one of the most serious sleep disorders? a) It is likely to lead to suffocation during sleep. b) It can lead to cardiac arrest, and fatigue-related accidents. c) Its sudden onset during waking hours can cause fatal accidents. d) It affects more people than any other sleep disorder. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 204. Which sleep disorder seems to result from muscles of the throat becoming too relaxed or from the brain's ceasing to send signals to the diaphragm? a) sleepwalking b) narcolepsy c) sleep apnea d) night terrors Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 205. Which of the following is NOT an accurate statement about sleep apnea? a) It is characterized by periods up to 30 seconds without breathing during sleep. b) Melatonin injections appear to improve symptoms. c) It is a suspected factor in snoring, high blood pressure, and heart attack. d) It is accompanied by repeated awakenings, gasping for breath, and daytime sleepiness. Answer: b

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 206. Which sleep disturbance is correctly matched with its description? a) sleep apnea – difficulty sleeping b) narcolepsy – sudden sleep during waking consciousness c) insomnia – difficulty breathing during sleep d) night terror disorder – frequent disruptive nightmares Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 207. Justin has had a sleep-wake disorder for several years. He falls asleep suddenly, even when he is actively engaged in an activity or conversation. Justin most likely has a) narcolepsy. b) sleep apnea. c) NREM sleep arousal disorder. d) insomnia. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 208. Kristi notices that each time she sits down and listens to a presentation, she falls asleep. She also had the frightening experience of falling asleep while driving, indicating that she may be suffering from a) narcolepsy. b) insomnia. c) sleep apnea. d) NREM sleep arousal disorder. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 209. Which of the following sequences correctly arranges three major sleep disorders described in your text from most to least common? a) insomnia – narcolepsy – sleep apnea b) sleep apnea – insomnia – narcolepsy c) narcolepsy – insomnia – sleep apnea d) insomnia – sleep apnea – narcolepsy Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 210. Last night Alexey sat up in bed and screamed uncontrollably, seemingly in a state of panic. The next morning, Alexey did not remember the episode at all. Most likely Alexey was experiencing a) night terrors. b) a nightmare. c) a delusion. d) narcolepsy. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 211. Anika falls into REM sleep even when in the middle of arguing with her sister or while watching an exciting movie. Each sleep episode lasts at least 15 minutes and she when she awakes, she feels refreshed. Anika has probably been diagnosed with a) night terrors. b) a nightmare. c) a delusion. d) narcolepsy. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 212. Ryder comes home from work exhausted and immediately falls asleep. After sleeping for an hour, his heart rate increases although his muscles relax. This indicates that he is in what sleep stage? a) REM b) NREM c) Stage 1 d) Stage 2 Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 213. Fourteen-year-old Mia often lays awake for hours after getting into bed, long after she would like to be asleep. In the morning she struggles to wake up. Mia suffers from anxiety, daytime sleepiness, and depression. Mia might be diagnosed with a) narcolepsy b) delayed sleep phase syndrome c) advanced sleep phase syndrome d) excessive daytime sleepiness Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 214. Which of the following sleep disorders is most accurately matched to its description? a) narcolepsy – falling asleep early in the evening against a person’s wishes b) delayed sleep phase syndrome – long lag in a person’s ability to fall asleep c) advanced sleep phase syndrome – feeling drowsy or chronically tired even after a good night sleep d) excessive daytime sleepiness - an uncontrollable urge to fall asleep Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis

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Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 215. As Kirk falls asleep, he begins to feel pins and needles in his legs and has an uncontrollable urge to move them. Kirk might be diagnosed with a) restless legs syndrome. b) REM sleep behaviour disorder c) periodic limb movement of sleep. d) somnambulism. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 216. Once Astrid’s partner falls asleep, she moves about the bed vigorously, thrashing and kicking. Astrid’s partner may have a) restless legs syndrome. b) REM sleep behaviour disorder c) periodic limb movement of sleep. d) somnambulism. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 217. Night terrors occur during ___ sleep. a) hypnagogic b) stages 1 or 2 c) stages 3 or 4 d) REM Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

218. An altered state of consciousness in which a person is very susceptible to suggestions is called a) meditation. b) REM sleep. c) hypnosis. d) intoxicated. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss theories and evidence about what hypnosis is, how it works, and how it can be used. Section Reference: Hypnosis 219. Hypnosis is best defined as a) a stage of sleep associated with jagged brainwaves, an increased heart rate, and visual hallucinations. b) an altered state of consciousness in which a person is very susceptible to suggestions. c) a technique designed to turn one’s consciousness away from the outer world toward one’s inner world. d) a waking state of consciousness in which fantasies occur and we are not fully conscious. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss theories and evidence about what hypnosis is, how it works, and how it can be used. Section Reference: Hypnosis 220. Tanner is sitting in the audience when an uncontrollable urge to stand up and sing ‘Oh Canada’ after the person on stage said the word ‘thank you’. He does not understand why he is singing, but the audience is finding his song to be hilarious. Most likely, Tanner is a) dreaming. b) meditating. c) under the influence of LSD. d) responding to a hypnotist’s suggestions. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss theories and evidence about what hypnosis is, how it works, and how it can be used. Section Reference: Hypnosis

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221. Aya went to a hypnotist show in Las Vegas and was called up on stage. On her way to the stage, Aya was concerned that the hypnotist might make her quack like a duck, which she did not want to do. What is the likely outcome for Aya? a) The hypnotist could "make" Aya do anything he wanted. b) The hypnotist could "make” Aya quack like a duck. c) The hypnotist could “make” Aya quack like a duck because quacking like a duck is not immoral d) The hypnotist could not "make” Aya quack like a duck if he is not willing Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss theories and evidence about what hypnosis is, how it works, and how it can be used. Section Reference: Hypnosis 222. What percentage of the population is highly susceptible to hypnosis? a) 10 b) 15 c) 25 d) Everyone is susceptible. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss theories and evidence about what hypnosis is, how it works, and how it can be used. Section Reference: Hypnosis 223. What percentage of the population are considered not to be hypnotizable? a) 10 b) 15 c) 25 d) Everyone is hypnotizable. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss theories and evidence about what hypnosis is, how it works, and how it can be used. Section Reference: Hypnosis 224. Which type of person would be most susceptible to hypnosis? a) a teenager b) a child

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

c) a person in pain d) someone who’s parents are not hypnotizable Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss theories and evidence about what hypnosis is, how it works, and how it can be used. Section Reference: Hypnosis 225. Which type of person would be least susceptible to hypnosis? a) a child b) someone who’s parents are not hypnotizable c) someone who tends to be especially suggestible d) someone who is open and trusting Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss theories and evidence about what hypnosis is, how it works, and how it can be used. Section Reference: Hypnosis 226. Dr. Neriani examines the hypnotic suggestibility of children in three age groups: 5- to 7year-olds, 9- to 11-year-olds, and 13- to 15-year-olds. Should Dr. Neriani use a t-test or an analysis of variance (ANOVA) to analyze her results? Based on your text’s discussion, what should she find? a) Dr. Neriani should use an ANOVA. She should find no differences in hypnotic suggestibility among the groups. b) Dr. Neriani should use an ANOVA. She should find that the older children are less suggestible than the younger children. c) Dr. Neriani should use a t-test. She should find no differences in hypnotic suggestibility among the groups. d) Dr. Neriani should use a t-test. She should find that the older children are less suggestible than the younger children. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective: Discuss theories and evidence about what hypnosis is, how it works, and how it can be used. Section Reference: Hypnosis 227. Dr. Botha examines the hypnotic suggestibility of individuals in three age groups: 3-7 year old children, 13-17 year old adolescents, and 23-27 year old adults. Should Dr. Botha use a t-

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test or an analysis of variance (ANOVA) to analyze her results? Based on your text’s discussion, what should she find? a) Dr. Botha should use an ANOVA. She should find no differences in hypnotic suggestibility among the groups. b) Dr. Botha should use an ANOVA. She should find that the children are more suggestible than the adolescents and adults. c) Dr. Botha should use a t-test. She should find no differences in hypnotic suggestibility among the groups. d) Dr. Botha should use a t-test. She should find that the adolescents are more suggestible than the younger children or the older adults. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective: Discuss theories and evidence about what hypnosis is, how it works, and how it can be used. Section Reference: Hypnosis 228. Rochelle was recently hypnotized to lose weight. If Rochelle experiences reduced feelings of hunger, as was suggested to her during hypnosis, this would be an example of a a) hypnotic suggestion. b) hypnotic hallucination. c) positive hallucination. d) posthypnotic response. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss theories and evidence about what hypnosis is, how it works, and how it can be used. Section Reference: Hypnosis 229. “Quit smoking now!” “Lose weight in 14 days!” To what extent has hypnosis aided individuals in these endeavours? a) Hypnosis has successfully aided individuals both in long-term smoking cessation and in weight loss. b) Hypnosis has failed to help people either to lose weight or to quit smoking over the long term. c) Hypnosis has successfully aided individuals in long-term smoking cessation. However, it has not helped people lose weight. d) Hypnosis has helped some people quit smoking. It has also helped people lose weight. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss theories and evidence about what hypnosis is, how it works, and how it can be used.

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Section Reference: Hypnosis 230. Lila is at a hypnotist show and enjoying it from the audience when suddenly she finds herself standing on her chair after the hypnotist touched his nose. Although everyone is looking at her and laughing, Lila does not know why she is suddenly standing on her chair. This is an example of a a) posthypnotic hallucination. b) positive amnesia. c) hyperalert hypnotic trance. d) posthypnotic response. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss theories and evidence about what hypnosis is, how it works, and how it can be used. Section Reference: Hypnosis 231. While under hypnosis, Alvaro was told that he would no longer crave cigarettes. Later, although he does not crave cigarettes, Alvaro does not remember the hypnotist suggesting. Alvaro is experiencing a a) negative posthypnotic response. b) positive posthypnotic response. c) posthypnotic amnesia. d) posthypnotic repression. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss theories and evidence about what hypnosis is, how it works, and how it can be used. Section Reference: Hypnosis 232. Which of the following is accurate about posthypnotic amnesia? a) Most people remember nothing about the hypnotist’s suggestion when directed not to. b) Hypnotized people only remember the learned material after the predetermined signal appears. c) Even though people claim they do not remember the hypnotic suggestion, research suggests they actually remember everything. d) The degree to which the earlier information is forgotten varies from not remembering anything to remembering quite a bit. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis

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Learning Objective: Discuss theories and evidence about what hypnosis is, how it works, and how it can be used. Section Reference: Hypnosis 233. Carter is being arrested for the murder of his wife. In his defense, he claims that he was hypnotized into doing it. What is wrong with Carter’s story? a) Nobody could carry out such a complex act and remain hypnotized. b) No one could stay hypnotized for as long as it would take to murder someone. c) No one can be induced into doing something against their will when hypnotized. d) When hypnotized, people walk around unaware and would therefore be incapable of murder. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss theories and evidence about what hypnosis is, how it works, and how it can be used. Section Reference: Hypnosis 234. What is the difference between a positive hypnotic hallucination and a negative hypnotic hallucination? a) A positive hallucination makes you perceive something pleasant, and a negative hallucination makes you perceive something unpleasant. b) A positive hallucination makes you perceive something that is not there and a negative hallucination makes you not perceive something that is really there. c) A positive hallucination will be remembered posthypnotically and a negative hallucination will not be remembered posthypnotically. d) A positive hallucination involves the performance of a response and a negative hallucination involves the inhibition of a response. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss theories and evidence about what hypnosis is, how it works, and how it can be used. Section Reference: Hypnosis 235. While a positive hallucination ___, a negative hallucination ___. a) makes you perceive something pleasant; makes you perceive something unpleasant b) makes you perceive something that is not there; makes you not perceive something that is there c) will be remembered posthypnotically; will not be remembered posthypnotically d) induces the performance of a response; inhibits the performance of a response Answer: b Difficulty: Easy

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss theories and evidence about what hypnosis is, how it works, and how it can be used. Section Reference: Hypnosis 236. Addison has undergone hypnosis as a method to manage chronic back pain. In this example, the effect of reduced pain is due to a) positive hypnosis. b) a positive hypnotic hallucination. c) negative hypnosis. d) a negative hypnotic hallucination. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss theories and evidence about what hypnosis is, how it works, and how it can be used. Section Reference: Hypnosis 237. Which of the following is an example of a negative hypnotic hallucination? a) Janine no longer feels the pain from her whiplash injury. b) Elijah sees a huge snake on the hypnotist’s stage when no snake is present. c) Esperanza thinks the hypnotist is her favourite movie actor. d) Desiree feels like someone is tickling her even though nobody is touching her. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss theories and evidence about what hypnosis is, how it works, and how it can be used. Section Reference: Hypnosis 238. How have psychologists applied hypnotic hallucinations to control pain? Have these efforts been successful? a) Positive hallucinations have been used to focus the individual on pleasant objects or events. These efforts have been successful. b) Positive hallucinations have been used to focus the individual on pleasant objects or events. Overall, these efforts have not been successful. c) Negative hallucinations have been used to direct the individual to ignore the pain. These efforts have been successful. d) Negative hallucinations have been used to direct the individual to ignore the pain. Overall, these efforts have not been successful. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium

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Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss theories and evidence about what hypnosis is, how it works, and how it can be used. Section Reference: Hypnosis 239. In a neuroimaging study, participants are exposed to a painful stimulus. A negative hypnotic hallucination is then suggested. The neuroimaging data should reveal that a) participants are both processing the painful stimulus and aware of the pain. b) participants are neither processing the painful stimulus, nor aware of the pain. c) participants are processing the painful stimulus but are unaware of the pain. d) participants’ processing of the painful stimulus is heightened because of the negative hallucination. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss theories and evidence about what hypnosis is, how it works, and how it can be used. Section Reference: Hypnosis 240. Which of the following disorders is hypnosis most helpful in treating? a) depression b) alcoholism c) anxiety d) narcolepsy Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss theories and evidence about what hypnosis is, how it works, and how it can be used. Section Reference: Hypnosis 241. While the social/cognitive process theory argues that ___, the dissociation theory believes that ___. a) hypnosis is the result of motivated participants acting out roles; hypnosis is a genuine phenomenon b) the hidden observer operates consciously; the hidden observer operates unconsciously c) a network of brain areas is responsible for hypnosis; a specific area of the brain is responsible for hypnosis d) social and cognitive processes are dissociated during hypnosis; conscious and unconscious processes are dissociated during hypnosis Answer: a Difficulty: Medium

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Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss theories and evidence about what hypnosis is, how it works, and how it can be used. Section Reference: Hypnosis 242. What is the difference between the divided consciousness theory and the social/cognitive process theory? a) The hidden observer operates unconsciously in the divided consciousness theory and consciously in the social/cognitive process theory. b) The social/cognitive process theory postulates a dissociation between social and cognitive processes; the divided consciousness theory postulates a dissociation between consciousness and unconsciousness. c) The divided consciousness theory argues that hypnosis is a genuine phenomenon; the social/cognitive process theory argues that hypnosis is the result of motivated participants acting out roles. d) The social/cognitive process theory focuses on the brain areas responsible for consciousness; the divided consciousness theory focuses on changes in brain states with changes in consciousness. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss theories and evidence about what hypnosis is, how it works, and how it can be used. Section Reference: Hypnosis 243. Mo Chou has been hypnotized. The hypnotist places Mo Chou’s hand in a bucket of ice water and tells her she will not feel any pain. She was also told that, if she did feel pain, she could signal this by raising the other hand. When she was awakened, Mo Chou reported that she had not felt any pain, even though she had raised her other hand a number of times while her hand was in the ice water. How would the divided consciousness theory explain this? a) Mo Chou’s consciousness has dissociated. While the hidden observer part was tuned into the hypnotist’s suggestions, the other part was still able to feel the pain. b) Mo Chou’s consciousness has dissociated. While one part was tuned into the hypnotist’s suggestions, the hidden observer part was still able to feel the pain. c) Mo Chou’s consciousness has dissociated. While one part is highly motivated to obey the hypnotist’s instructions, the other part cannot ignore the pain. d) Mo Chou’s consciousness has dissociated. While one part is able to ignore the pain, the other part is motivated to remain somewhat conscious and therefore, recognizes the pain. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Discuss theories and evidence about what hypnosis is, how it works, and how it can be used. Section Reference: Hypnosis

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244. Dr. Schumacher is a psychodynamic psychologist. Dr. Turner is a mainstream experimental psychologist. To what extent is each of these psychologists likely to endorse Hilgard’s divided consciousness theory of hypnosis? a) Dr. Schumacher is more likely to endorse Hilgard’s theory than is Dr. Turner. b) Dr. Turner is more likely to endorse Hilgard’s theory than is Dr. Schumacher. c) Both of these psychologists are equally likely to endorse Hilgard’s theory. d) Neither of these psychologists is likely to endorse Hilgard’s theory. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Discuss theories and evidence about what hypnosis is, how it works, and how it can be used. Section Reference: Hypnosis 245. Hypnotists will often instruct their clients to forget information learned during hypnosis. The fact that some people will remember quite a bit of what occurs during the hypnotic trance lends support to ___ theory because ___. a) divided consciousness theory; the hidden observer was tuned into what was happening during the hypnosis b) divided consciousness theory; the dissociation does not always last, allowing the client to later remember what happened c) social/cognitive process theory: the client is motivated to accept the hypnotist’s instructions, but the motivation does not always extend beyond the actual session d) social/cognitive process theory; the hidden observer is not motivated to forget what happened during the session Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Discuss theories and evidence about what hypnosis is, how it works, and how it can be used. Section Reference: Hypnosis 246. What is likely to be true about a memory that was recalled during hypnosis? a) It is accurate. b) It is not very detailed. c) It is not accurate and very detailed. d) It is a memory that was repressed. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss theories and evidence about what hypnosis is, how it works, and how it can be used.

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Section Reference: Hypnosis 247. When it comes to the memories that are recalled during hypnosis, they are likely to be a) more accurate and detailed than if the person was not hypnotized. b) not very detailed. c) not accurate and very detailed. d) repressed memories. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss theories and evidence about what hypnosis is, how it works, and how it can be used. Section Reference: Hypnosis 248. Peta is being hypnotized to help her remember the last thing her father told her about where he put his will. What is her hypnosis session likely to reveal? a) the true hiding place of the will b) her unconscious feelings for her father c) the locations of all the items she has ever lost d) made up directions to the will Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss theories and evidence about what hypnosis is, how it works, and how it can be used. Section Reference: Hypnosis 249. Your assignment in Introductory Psychology is to research the topic of hypnosis. Which of the following statements would NOT be accurate to include in your report? a) Hypnosis can be used successfully to help people break bad habits such as smoking, nail biting. And overeating. b) A hypnotist can quite readily influence a person’s motor control. c) Hypnosis can be used to successfully treat stuttering, high blood pressure and warts. d) Memories recovered while under hypnosis have been shown to be quite accurate. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss theories and evidence about what hypnosis is, how it works, and how it can be used. Section Reference: Hypnosis

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250. What changes in brain activity are apparent with hypnosis? a) a decrease in activity in the cerebral cortex and thalamus, followed by an increase in activity in these areas b) an increase in activity in the thalamus and a decrease in activity in the cerebral cortex c) a decrease in activity in the anterior cingulate cortex and an increase in activity in the pons d) an increase in activity in the anterior cingulate cortex and pons, followed by a decrease in activity in these areas Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss theories and evidence about what hypnosis is, how it works, and how it can be used. Section Reference: Hypnosis 251. Which part of the brain is implicated when patients use hypnosis to reduce pain? a) hippocampus b) amygdala c) basal ganglia d) anterior cingulate cortex Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss theories and evidence about what hypnosis is, how it works, and how it can be used. Section Reference: Hypnosis 252. When someone undergoes hypnosis, the activity in the cerebral cortex and thalamus ___ and then it ___. a) increases; stabilizes b) decreases; stabilizes c) increases; decreases d) decreases; increases Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss theories and evidence about what hypnosis is, how it works, and how it can be used. Section Reference: Hypnosis 253. Which conclusion about hypnosis is best supported by research? a) People who are not open to suggestion are not likely to be susceptible to hypnosis. b) Hypnosis is likely to eliminate the participant's need for traditional healthcare.

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

c) People suffering from delusions are likely to be helped by hypnosis. d) Hypnosis is likely to improve the participant's memory of events in the distant past. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss theories and evidence about what hypnosis is, how it works, and how it can be used. Section Reference: Hypnosis 254. Which of the following choices would be the most accurate and thorough synopsis of the hypnotic state? a) narrowed attention, increased use of imagination, passive and receptive attitude, decreased responsiveness to pain, heightened suggestibility b) hallucinations and delusions, passivity, rapid eye movements, increased pain tolerance, feelings of oneness with the universe c) closeness with God, auditory hallucinations, greater understanding, increased susceptibility to pain, deference to others d) rapid eye movements, increased sensitivity to touch, emotional liability, heightened selfawareness Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss theories and evidence about what hypnosis is, how it works, and how it can be used. Section Reference: Hypnosis 255. Any chemical that affects awareness, behaviour, sensation, perception, or mood is called a a) hallucinogen. b) narcotic. c) stimulant. d) psychoactive drug. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 256. What is the best definition of a psychoactive drug? a) a substance that alters perception and is addictive b) a chemical that affects awareness, behaviour, perception, or mood c) an exogenous neurotransmitter that increases brain activity

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d) a chemical that alters how others perceive us Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 257. How do most psychoactive drugs influence the nervous system? a) by affecting neural membranes throughout the nervous system b) by interacting with hormones already present in the synapse c) by increasing or decreasing the number of receiving neurons d) by changing the body's supply of neurotransmitters Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 258. Nick has been using heroin for the past six months. He finds that he needs more and more heroin to get the desired effect. Nick is experiencing a) addiction. b) withdrawal. c) tolerance. d) opioid nod. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 259. Tolerance is said to occur when a) a person has a psychological or physical compulsion to take the drug. b) a person has unpleasant and sometimes dangerous side effects after reducing the amount of intake of a drug. c) a person is required to take incrementally larger doses of the drug to achieve the same effect. d) when the drug slows the activity of the central nervous system. Answer: c

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 260. Giacomo uses crystal methamphetamine. He finds that now, rather than a “bump” or a “line”, he needs a couple of lines to feel the effects of the drug. Which term is used to describe Giacomo’s experience? a) adaptation b) tolerance c) habituation d) desensitization Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 261. Aiden quit smoking a week ago. He finds that he is feeling irritable, dizzy, and tired but he is also having trouble sleeping. It is likely that Aiden is experiencing ___ due to ___ dependence on the nicotine. a) tolerance; physical dependence b) tolerance; psychological dependence c) withdrawal; physical dependence d) withdrawal; psychological dependence Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 262. Sara, has been consuming large amounts of alcohol daily for several years now. She has tried to stop many times. Presently, Sara’s eyelids and hands are shaking, she is sweating heavily, her heart is beating rapidly, and she feels weak. Sara is most likely a) suffering from alcohol poisoning. b) showing signs of alcohol withdrawal. c) intoxicated. d) developing Korsakoff’s syndrome, caused by long-term alcoholism. Answer: b

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 263. Atticus swears he will never take “oxies” again. When Atticus stopped using oxycontin, though, he had chills, cramps, and diarrhea. Which term below offers the most specific description of Atticus’s experience? a) tolerance b) cravings c) addiction d) withdrawal Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 264. Leander’s partner threatened to leave the relationship unless Leander stopped using cocaine. Leander has stopped but is now “crashing.” Which term below offers the most specific description of Leander’s current experience? a) tolerance b) cravings c) addiction d) withdrawal Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 265. What chemical in alcoholic beverages is absorbed into the blood stream? a) GABA b) methyl alcohol c) ethyl alcohol d) carboxylic acid Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 266. Ethyl alcohol exerts its effects by influencing which of the following neurotransmitters? a) endorphins b) GABA c) acetylcholine d) serotonin Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 267. How are the neurological effects of alcohol different from most other psychoactive drugs? a) Alcohol affects many different areas of the brain and body, whereas psychoactive drugs enhance or inhibit specific neurotransmitters. b) Alcohol has fewer effects on the nervous system, whereas psychoactive drugs localize in the nervous system. c) The effects of alcohol last for a longer period of time than the effects of most psychoactive drugs. d) Alcohol does not create cross-tolerance, whereas tolerance to one psychoactive drug will result in higher tolerance to similar drugs in the same category. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 268. As compared to most other psychoactive drugs, alcohol a) produces more general effects on the nervous system because it does not target the actions of a particular neurotransmitter. b) exerts a similar agonistic effect on dopamine receptors throughout the nervous system. c) exerts a similar antagonistic effect on serotonin receptors throughout the nervous system. d) produces generalized effects on the nervous system by targeting multiple neurotransmitters. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic

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psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 269. Georgia has consumed a drug that originally made her feel more relaxed, but with more doses, she became more and more clumsy and emotionally unstable until she passed out. What drug did Georgia likely consume? a) cannabis b) LSD c) cocaine d) alcohol Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 270. Beth feels like she has the flu. She also feels irritable and restless. Alonzo has been depressed for a while and cannot seem to get out of bed. Chantel is shaking. Her heart is racing, she is sweaty, and her blood pressure has gone up. Danny is irritable. His appetite has increased, and his sleep cycle is off. Which alternative below correctly pairs one of these individuals with the psychoactive drug from which he or she is withdrawing? a) Alonzo – nicotine b) Beth – methamphetamine c) Chantel – alcohol d) Danny – marijuana Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 271. A popular 21st birthday ritual in the United States is called “21 for 21”. In this game, a person who turns 21 years old (the legal drinking age in the U.S.) is supposed to drink 21 shots in a very short period. The greatest danger of drinking this much alcohol is a) the drinker could fall and be hurt. b) the drinker may decide to drive drunk. c) the drinker could become an alcoholic. d) the drinker could become comatose and die. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 272. Adrian and his friends have been playing a drinking game while watching a hockey playoff game. Each person in the room has players and on one of the teams chosen and they must follow the rules and drink based on goals, penalties, hat tricks etc. Adrian is losing badly and has had almost 13 or 14 drinks in 2 hours. Adrian is in danger of a) falling and getting badly hurt. b) becoming a “messy” drunk, loud, and emotional. c) passing out. d) becoming comatose and dying. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 273. Nick is helping his buddy celebrate his upcoming wedding by doing a tour of all the bars in the area and having a drink at each one. Within a two-hour period, he has consumed 8 or 9 drinks. What state is Nick likely to be in after this? a) His movements and speech will become clumsy. b) He will be emotional, loud, and difficult to understand. c) He will be relaxed with increased sociability. d) He will be passed out, incapable of voluntary action. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 274. Binge drinking is defined as having five or more drinks in one sitting. Heavy drinking is defined as having five or more drinks at least five times per month. These are ___ definitions of binge drinking and heavy drinking, respectively. a) operational b) procedural c) conceptual d) experimental Answer: a

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 275. Binge drinking is defined as having five or more drinks in one sitting. Heavy drinking is defined as having five or more drinks at least five times per month. These are ___ definitions of binge drinking and heavy drinking, respectively. a) operational b) procedural c) conceptual d) experimental Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 276. Galen is a second-year university student who lives in residence. Which of the following is least likely to be true about Galen’s drinking behaviour? a) Galen probably binge drinks at least once a week. b) Galen probably drinks more than non-university students. c) Galen probably drinks more than students who do not live in residence. d) Galen probably drinks more often at the campus bar than off-campus bars. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 277. Kelsey is concerned about her daughter, Emma, going away on scholarship to university to live in residence the following fall. Kelsey is especially concerned that Emma will engage in binge drinking. How well-founded are Kelsey’s concerns? a) Not at all, girls show low rates of binge drinking in university. b) Not very, although some girls drink a bit in university, Emma is a good student and good students are at much lower risk of binge drinking. c) Somewhat, most college students report some drinking during their first year, but this risk is lower for those living in residence. d) Very, many undergraduates engage in harmful patterns of drinking, especially if they live in residence.

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Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 278. Which psychoactive drug below is correctly matched with its class? a) marijuana – stimulant b) cocaine – sedative-hypnotic c) heroin – hallucinogen d) alcohol – depressant Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 279. With respect to group differences in alcoholism prevalence, ___ have lower rates of alcoholism than do other groups; this difference may primarily reflect ___ factors. a) Native Canadians; cultural b) Native Canadians; genetic c) Asians; cultural d) Asians; genetic Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 280. According to research, which of the following persons would be least likely to become an alcoholic? a) Bob, an immigrant from the Ukraine who has lived in Canada for ten years. b) Denise, a Canadian female c) Terry, an Indigenous person in Canada d) Hong, a Chinese immigrant Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis

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Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 281. Alcohol withdrawal includes each of the following symptoms EXCEPT a) shaking. b) a rapid heartrate. c) a drop in blood pressure. d) sweating. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 282. According to your text, approximately ___ of the Canadian population displays addiction in any given year. a) 1% b) 5% c) 10% d) 15% Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 283. Nearly ___% of adult’s experience alcoholism at some point in their lives. a) 5 b) 10 c) 15 d) 20 Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs

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284. Alcoholism is implicated in about ___% of all fatal automobile accidents in Canada. a) 20 b) 35 c) 40 d) 50 Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 285. Dominic’s mother consumed a substantial amount of alcohol during her pregnancy; Dominic’s intelligence is below normal, his growth is slowed, and his facial features are slightly deformed. Dominic displays ___; on average, about one baby in every ___ is born with it. a) fetal alcohol syndrome; 200 b) fetal alcohol syndrome; 1000 c) neonatal alcohol disorder; 200 d) neonatal alcohol disorder; 1000 Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 286. What is the difference between sedative-hypnotic drugs and stimulants? a) Sedative-hypnotic drugs eliminate pain and stimulants cause hallucinations. b) Sedative-hypnotic drugs induce sleep and stimulants trigger alertness. c) Sedative-hypnotic drugs produce motor disturbances and stimulants increase neurotransmitter release. d) Sedative-hypnotic drugs result in addiction and stimulants result in tolerance. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 287. Which of the following drugs is NOT a sedative-hypnotic drug? a) Xanax b) Ativan

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c) Valium d) cocaine Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 288. Stefanie was rushed to the ER following her first experience with an illicit drug. Although she was only 25, she suffered heart irregularities and brain seizures. What drug did she MOST likely use? a) cocaine b) heroin c) LSD d) marijuana Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 289. Peter was found dead in his apartment at the age of 29. The cause of death was found to be acute heart failure related to illicit drug use, although the autopsy revealed no evidence of long-term substance use or abuse. Which drug was most likely responsible for Peter’s death? a) cocaine b) heroin c) oxycodone d) mescaline Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 290. Ryan considers himself a recreational drug user and particularly enjoys using cocaine. Although he likes the feeling the drug produces, he does NOT like the "crash" he feels when the desirable effects wear off. From a neuropsychological perspective, what is causing the "crash"? a) the depletion of dopamine and serotonin following cocaine's effects b) the increase in dopamine and serotonin levels following cocaine’s effects

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c) the cocaine’s initial stimulatory effect upon the nervous system d) the cocaine’s initial depressant effect upon the nervous system Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 291. Imagine a friend is experiencing these undesirable effects: anxiety, nausea, disorientation, and memory loss. Which type of psychoactive drug has she likely taken in excessive amounts? a) depressant b) stimulant c) opiate d) hallucinogen Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 292. Benzodiazepines include each of the following drugs EXCEPT a) Ritalin. b) Valium. c) Xanax. d) Ativan. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 293. Approximately what proportion of North American adults becomes addicted to benzodiazepines at some point in their lives? a) 0.5% b) 1% c) 2% d) 5% Answer: c

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 294. Endorphins are neurotransmitters that help relieve pain and reduce tension. Their action in the brain is mimicked by a) opioids, such as Xanax. b) opioids, such as heroin. c) alcohol. d) benzodiazepines, such as Xanax. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 295. Laura returns home from a party feeling sleepy. She is also vomiting and complaining of feeling constipated. She is breathing in a short and rapid manner. When asked, Laura admits to taking an illicit drug at the party. What has she MOST likely taken? a) heroin b) cocaine c) LSD d) marijuana Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 296. Dwayne has consumed excessive amounts of heroin. What is he likely feeling? a) intense paranoia b) intense negative visual hallucinations c) intense feelings of euphoria that are almost orgasmic d) nothing, he is in extreme danger of an overdose and dying Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 297. Your text states that heroin overdoses shut down the respiratory centre in the brain. Drawing on your knowledge of the brain, you might surmise that heroin overdoses affect the ___. a) brainstem b) midbrain c) limbic system d) neocortex Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 298. Heroin overdoses affect the brainstem. This might lead you to surmise that heroin overdoses result in a) hallucinations and other sensory issues. b) motor problems causing staggering and disjointed movement. c) personality changes leading to increases in aggression. d) the cessation of breathing leading to death. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 299. Cole has just taken a drug. He immediately feels a rush which is then followed by several hours of a nod. What drug did Cole take, and how did he administer it? a) Cole just injected an opioid. b) Cole just snorted cocaine. c) Cole just smoked marijuana. d) Cole just ingested a benzodiazepine. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects.

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Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 300. Jimena has just taken a drug. She experiences an immediate increase in energy and alertness, a depression in appetite, as well as intoxication and psychosis. What drug did Jimena take, and how did she most likely administer it? a) Jimena just ingested amphetamines. b) Jimena just snorted cocaine. c) Jimena just smoked marijuana. d) Jimena just ingested alcohol. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 301. Which is the world’s most widely used stimulant? a) caffeine b) cocaine c) nicotine d) amphetamines Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 302. Based on your knowledge of the nervous system and on the text’s discussion, which of the following statements most accurately describes the effect of caffeine and the other stimulants on the nervous system? a) They decrease central nervous system activity. b) They increase sympathetic nervous system activity. c) They decrease sympathetic nervous system activity. d) They increase parasympathetic nervous system activity. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs

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303. Based on your knowledge of the nervous system and on the text’s discussion, which of the following statements most accurately describes the effect of caffeine and the other stimulants on the nervous system? a) They decrease central nervous system activity. b) They increase sympathetic nervous system activity. c) They decrease sympathetic nervous system activity. d) They increase parasympathetic nervous system activity. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 304. In what way are caffeine and nicotine the same? a) They both decrease heart rate. b) They both increase alertness. c) They both are absorbed through the respiratory tract. d) They are both hallucinogens. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 305. After lunch, Katya enjoys a cup of coffee and a cigarette, thereby consuming two ___. a) benzodiazepines b) depressants c) stimulants d) opioids Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 306. In the past 12 hours, Jayden has consumed four cans of Red Bull. Now he is feeling restless, nervous, and euphoric. He is also talking very quickly and is extremely irritable. Jayden is probably suffering from

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a) caffeine rush. b) caffeine high. c) caffeine intoxication. d) caffeine overdose. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 307. Alice uses a drug with relaxation, alertness, and sociability. This drug is _________ and it belongs to the ______________________ category of drugs. a) nicotine; opiate b) caffeine; hallucinogen c) nicotine; stimulant d) caffeine; depressant Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 308. Sophie just gave birth to a baby boy. Her son was 6 weeks premature and was very underweight. Which of the following drugs was Sophie likely taking during her pregnancy? a) alcohol b) cocaine c) nicotine d) methamphetamines Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 309. Nina just gave birth to a baby boy, Jack. Due to her drug use, Nina had several miscarriages before Jack was born. At birth it was clear that Jack had facial deformities and that he had heart defects. Which of the following drugs was Nina likely taking during her pregnancy? a) alcohol b) cocaine

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c) nicotine d) methamphetamines Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 310. Which of the following is not a symptom of caffeine withdrawal? a) sleepiness b) anxiety c) headaches d) insomnia Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 311. Stimulants include each of the following drugs except a) cocaine. b) nicotine. c) morphine. d) methamphetamine. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 312. Which of these drugs is an opiate? a) methamphetamine (crystal meth) b) ketamine (Special K) c) morphine d) marijuana Answer: c Difficulty: Easy

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Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 313. Heroin, codeine, and morphine are considered a) depressants. b) stimulants. c) opiates. d) hallucinogens. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 314. Lee has started taking oxycodone for back pain. Which of the following would be adverse effects of this drug? a) nausea, shallow breathing b) irritability, hallucinations c) convulsions, delusions d) increased appetite, feelings of panic Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 315. Nicotine and ________ are both part of the ________ class of drugs. a) cocaine; stimulant b) alcohol; stimulant c) marijuana; depressant d) LSD; hallucinogen Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knolwedge Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs

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316. Which category of psychoactive drugs below is correctly matched with its effects on thought and behaviour? a) hallucinogens – slow the activity of the central nervous system; reduce tension and inhibitions b) stimulants – increase the activity of the central nervous system c) sedative-hypnotic drugs – produce changes in sensory perception d) depressants – produce feelings of relaxation and drowsiness Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 317. Which category of psychoactive drugs below is correctly matched with its effects on thought and behaviour? a) hallucinogens – slow the activity of the central nervous system; reduce tension and inhibitions b) stimulants – increase the activity of the central nervous system c) sedative-hypnotic drugs – produce changes in sensory perception d) depressants – produce feelings of relaxation and drowsiness Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 318. Worldwide, about ___% of the population consumes caffeine every day. In Canada ___% of all individuals over the age of 14 regularly smoke tobacco. a) 50; 20 b) 50; 30 c) 80; 20 d) 80; 30 Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 319. About how many people die each year in Canada because of smoking? a) 10,000

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b) 37,000 c) 47,000 d) 137,000 Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 320. According to Health Canada, it was estimated that approximately how many Canadians over the age of 14 used cocaine in 2008? a) 31,000 b) 301,000 c) 311,000 d) 3,311,000 Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 321. Cocaine exerts its pleasurable effects in the brain by a) stabilizing dopamine activity. b) increasing dopamine activity. c) increasing serotonin activity. d) mimicking endorphins. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 322. Mason has been snorting cocaine at a party. Initially he feels excited, energetic, and is very talkative. As the drug starts to wear off, Mason starts to feel very depressed. Which of the following terms best describe the latter part of Mason’s experience? a) freebasing b) downing c) nods d) crashing

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Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 323. Fawn consumed a large amount of a drug at a party. She is talkative, on edge, and somewhat irritable. Of the following, the drug she most likely consumed is a) heroin. b) marijuana. c) Ativan. d) methamphetamine. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 324. Which of the following is cocaine use NOT associated with? a) suicide b) brain seizures c) heart irregularity d) cirrhosis Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 325. What percentage of Canadians over the age of 15 have tried a form of methamphetamine at least once? a) 2% b) 4% c) 6% d) 10% Answer: c Difficulty: Easy

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Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 326. Which psychoactive drug below is correctly matched with the primary neurotransmitter it influences? a) methamphetamine – dopamine b) alcohol – serotonin c) heroin – GABA d) LSD – endorphins Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 327. Which of the following statements correctly identifies a difference between cocaine and methamphetamine? a) Cocaine and methamphetamine increase the activity of different neurotransmitters. b) Methamphetamine lasts longer in the body than does cocaine. c) Methamphetamine produces an emotional letdown when it leaves the body. Cocaine does not. d) Cocaine does not produce the increase in alertness and energy that methamphetamine does. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 328. Which of the following statements incorrectly identifies a commonality between nicotine and caffeine? a) Both drugs cause unpleasant withdrawal symptoms. b) Both drugs are associated with significant social and medical problems. c) Both drugs are highly addictive. d) Both drugs are stimulants. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic

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psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 329. _____ are drugs that dramatically change one’s state of awareness by causing an altered sense of time, changes in sensory perceptions, hallucinations, and illusions. a) Hallucinogens b) Stimulants c) Depressants d) Opioids Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 330. Hallucinogens are the only drugs that a) cause individuals to feel hypersexual and uninhibited. b) create a sense of euphoria, contentment, and social intimacy. c) alter consciousness, interfering with the brain’s ability to reliably perceive reality. d) shift awareness and increase stimulation. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 331. Which of the following is NOT a hallucinogen? a) LSD b) Psilocybin c) Methamphetamine d) DMT Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 332. Which of the following is a hallucinogen?

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a) Heroin b) Psilocybin c) Methamphetamine d) Cocaine Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 333. Jamie returns to his dorm and his roommate immediately notices he is very hyperactive. Jamie also starts to tell his roommate how emotionally connected he feels to him. Jamie is MOST likely under the influence of a) Ecstasy. b) morphine. c) LSD. d) marijuana. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 334. Carla took an unfamiliar pill her friend offered her at dinner. Since then, her heart has been racing and she has been unable to sleep. Carla has also been extremely euphoric and feels that she is capable of loving everyone around her. Carla is most likely under the influence of a) Ecstasy. b) codeine. c) barbiturates. d) ketamine. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 335. Ivan uses _____ to “raise his consciousness and expand his experience.” When he ingests this drug, he experiences strengthened visual perceptions, strong emotions, and a recurrence of past thoughts and emotions.

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a) cocaine b) LSD c) ecstasy d) heroin Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 336. How does ecstasy work in the brain? a) It stimulates the release of dopamine. b) It increases the rate of action potentials. c) It causes a sudden dump of serotonin. d) It blocks the reuptake of acetylcholine. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 337. Which of the following is not an immediate symptom of taking MDMA? a) euphoria b) increased social intimacy c) reduced anxiety d) depression Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 338. Landon and Aaliyah are at the beach admiring the beautiful purple sky when Aaliyah suddenly notices that her left hand has grown to three times its normal size. Although she tries to tell Landon about her hand, he is focusing on a single grain of sand that he has picked up. Which drug have Landon and Aaliyah probably taken? a) crank b) ice c) ecstasy

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d) LSD Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 339. Bethany ingested a drug that produces feeling of drowsiness and relaxation but that primarily serves to reduce her anxiety. Bethany is probably taking a) alcohol. b) benzodiazepines. c) marijuana. d) opiods. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 340. Which of the following drugs works by causing a sudden release of serotonin? a) cocaine b) amphetamines c) ecstasy d) heroin Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 341. Which drug is most likely to provide a sense of euphoria along with distortions of reality? a) LSD b) methamphetamine (crystal meth) c) alcohol d) morphine Answer: a Difficulty: Easy

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Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 342. A long time ago, Candace hung out with a group of people and they sometimes enjoyed using illegal drugs. One night, after taking a drug, she saw her arms were melting as if they were on fire, and this terrified her. She never did the drug again, but for a few years afterward she would periodically see her arms melting again. What drug did she likely consume? a) cocaine b) LSD c) heroin d) amphetamines Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 343. LSD influences the operation of the neurotransmitter ___ in the brain. a) serotonin b) norepinephrine c) endorphins d) GABA Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 344. Which of the following meets all the following requirements? This drug is known to facilitate mystical experiences, decrease anxiety, improve mood, and improve symptoms in those with treatment resistant depression. a) psilocybin b) cocaine c) LSD d) mescaline Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

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Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 345. _____ is associated with persisting positive improvements in mood, attitudes, and behaviour for up to 14 months after using the drug. a) Ecstasy b) Psilocybin c) LSD d) Mescaline Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 346. _____ binds primarily to serotonin receptors to produce a hallucinogenic experience. a) Mescaline b) Cocaine c) Methamphetamine d) Heroin Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 347. Mindy went to South America to participate in an Ayahuasca ceremony. Elder Maggie Strawberry incorporated an Ayahuasca ceremony into a four-day counselling session which led to declines in alcohol ad drug use. Both women would be utilizing what drug? a) Mescaline b) DMT c) Methamphetamine d) Ketamine Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs

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348. Dr. Herath is working with a hallucinogenic drug with a similar chemical structure to other psychedelics and that is found in the pineal gland of the human brain. What drug is Dr. Herath working with? a) Mescaline b) Ketamine c) Methamphetamine d) DMT Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 349. _____ produces auditory and musical hallucinations as well as altering colour perception, reaction time, and the perception of time. a) Mescaline b) Ketamine c) Methamphetamine d) Heroin Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 350.Auditory hallucinations produced by _____ are of particular interest to researchers studying the auditory hallucinations associated with acute schizophrenia. a) Mescaline b) Methamphetamine c) Ketamine d) DMT Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs

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351. What drug is known as “angel dust,” or “love boat,” or the “peace pill”? a) DMT b) MDMA c) THC d) PCP Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 352. Symptoms of PCP intoxication include _____ and after the drug wears off it is common for users to experience _____. a) euphoria, hallucinations, and depersonalization; persistent psychosis and flashbacks b) slowing of time, increased perception of distance and size, and sharpened perceptions; a loss of memory for recently learned material c) psychomotor agitation, repetitive and uncontrolled eye movements, and agitation; amnesia for what occurred while under the influence d) decreased anxiety and improved mood; persisting positive improvements in mood, attitudes, and behaviour Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 353. Why is marijuana classified as a hallucinogen? a) At strong doses, unusual visual experiences or hallucinations may occur. b) At strong doses, dangerous flashbacks may be triggered. c) At low doses, mild euphoria is experienced. d) At low doses, relaxation can lead to nightmares. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 354. Marijuana is classified as a hallucinogen because a) at lower doses, it soothes withdrawal from drugs like heroin.

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b) at stronger doses, it acts as a trigger for LSD flashbacks. c) at stronger doses, it mimics the effects of drugs like Ecstasy. d) at stronger doses, it mimics the effects of drugs like LSD. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 355. What chemical component in marijuana is most responsible for its effects? a) hashish b) tobacco c) THC d) nicotine Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 356. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the effects of marijuana use? a) Marijuana users often experience severe withdrawal symptoms if they quit suddenly. b) Marijuana leaves the body quickly, which makes it virtually undetectable in drug tests. c) Marijuana increases the IQ of those who use it regularly. d) Chronic use of marijuana can lead to respiratory disorders and reduced sperm count. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 357. Your text states that, “many people on a marijuana high fail to remember information, especially recently learned material.” Drawing on your knowledge of the brain, you might hypothesize that this impairment reflects a potential effect of marijuana on a structure in the brain called the ___. a) hypothalamus b) hippocampus c) thalamus d) cerebellum

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Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 358. In the 1970s marijuana use rarely led to addiction. Why, then, are so many marijuana smokers now getting caught in pattern of addiction? a) Marijuana is more readily available than in the past. b) Marijuana use itself is increasing, because it has become more socially acceptable than it was in the past. c) Marijuana today contains more THC than it did in the past. d) Marijuana is more often mixed with stronger drugs, such as cocaine, than was the case in the past. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 359. Avery had a very bad day at work. Her boss was very angry with her because she missed another deadline and threatened to fire her. That night, Avery smokes marijuana to help her relax. How is Avery likely to feel after smoking the drug? a) happy and relaxed b) irritable and anxious c) calm and sleepy d) hyperactive and alert Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 360. Twenty-year-old Toby cam home from work in a great mood and talked his thirty-year old friend Jessie, who had a terrible day and was consequently irritable, into smoking marijuana to cheer her up. However, this plan backfired on Toby. Although Toby felt happy and relaxed after smoking, Jessie was anxious and even more irritated. What might account for these different reactions. a) Cannabis has a mixture of hallucinogenic, depressant, and stimulant effects.

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b) Cannabis has differential effects on males and females. c) Cannabis has differential effects on people of different ages. d) Cannabis is a stimulant and therefore creates suggestible states based on the most immediate recent experience. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 361. The key neurotransmitter in the reward learning pathway is a) dopamine. b) serotonin. c) norepinephrine. d) GABA. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 362. The key neurotransmitter in the brain’s pleasure pathway is ___. a) GABA b) serotonin c) endorphins d) dopamine Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 363. Which statement below best describes how psychoactive drugs influence the brain’s reward centre? a) All drugs stimulate the brain’s reward centre directly. b) All drugs stimulate the brain’s reward centre indirectly. c) Cocaine and amphetamines stimulate the brain’s reward centre indirectly; other drugs stimulate it directly. d) Cocaine and amphetamines stimulate the brain’s reward centre directly; other drugs stimulate

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it indirectly. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 364. Devlin and Cooper became friends in university and often used drugs together. Although Devlin went on to be a successful lawyer, Cooper continued to use drugs regularly. As a result, Cooper has not been able to hold down a steady job and is in danger of losing his family. According to recent research discussed in the textbook, what might account for the different outcomes for these two men despite engaging in the same behaviours? a) Cooper had greater access to the drugs. b) Devlin’s reward learning pathway is not activated as readily as Cooper’s. c) Cooper’s reward learning pathway is not activated as readily as Devlin’s. d) Cooper has an addictive personality. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 365. Research suggests that people ___________ to abuse drugs may suffer from a(n) ___________. a) prone; drug-deficiency syndrome b) not prone; reward learning deficiency c) prone; reward-deficiency syndrome d) not prone; addictive personality syndrome Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 366. Nelson is trying to understand why his son abuses drugs. He knows that genetics plays a role, but he wants to go deeper than that. He comes across a theory called the rewarddeficiency syndrome, which states that people abuse drugs because a) their reward pathways do not respond normally to daily events. b) they do not receive enough love as a child.

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c) they do not value positive reinforcement and avoid punishment like normal. d) their neurotransmitters are lacking a protein substance that helps them activate the postsynaptic membrane. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drug 367. Which neurotransmitter plays a key role in the reward learning pathway? a) norepinephrine b) serotonin c) dopamine d) GABA Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drug

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MATCHING QUESTION 368. Match the appropriate words in the left column to the definitions in the right column. Terms A. Implicit memory B. Explicit memory C. Preconscious D. Unconscious E. Adaptive theory of sleep F. Restorative theory of sleep G. Circadian rhythm H. REM cycle I. Hypnagogic state J. Sleep spindles K. Activation-synthesis theory L. Information-processing theory M. Sleep apnea N. Insomnia O. Narcolepsy P. Addiction Q. Tolerance R. Withdrawal

___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___

Definitions 1. Theory that we sleep to allow the brain and body to restore certain depleted chemical resources and eliminate chemical wastes. 2. Disorder marked by uncontrollable urge to fall asleep. 3. Pattern of sleep-wake cycles often also known as the “biological clock.” 4. When a person is required to take incrementally larger doses of a drug to achieve the same effect. 5. A pre-sleep period often characterized by vivid sensory phenomena. 6. Bursts of brain activity lasting a second or two; occur during Stage 2 sleep. 7. Repeatedly ceasing to breathe during the night, depriving the brain of oxygen and leading to frequent awakenings. 8. Knowledge that we have stored in memory that we are not typically aware of or able to recall. 9. Unpleasant and sometimes dangerous side effects from abruptly stopping or reducing intake of a drug after a person has become addicted. 10. Level of awareness in which information can become readily available to consciousness if necessary.

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ANSWERS TO MATCHING QUESTION 1.

F: Restorative theory of sleep

O: Narcolepsy

G: Circadian rhythm

Q: Tolerance

I: Hypnagogic state

J: Sleep spindles

M: Sleep apnea

A: Implicit memory

R: Withdrawal

10. C: Preconscious Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

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FILL-IN-THE-BLANK 369. Weiskrantz’s study suggested that the areas of the brain that allow us to attend to stimuli are different from the areas that make us aware that we are attending to such stimuli. The term used to describe this phenomenon is ___. Answer: blindsight Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define different levels of conscious awareness and describe key brain structures and functions associated with those levels. Section Reference: When We Are Awake: Conscious Awareness 370. There is evidence that most children develop a sense of self around the age of ___. Answer: 18 months Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define different levels of conscious awareness and describe key brain structures and functions associated with those levels. Section Reference: When We Are Awake: Conscious Awareness 371. A baby must develop a sense of ___ to be fully aware of him/herself as a separate being from others. Answer: self Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define different levels of conscious awareness and describe key brain structures and functions associated with those levels. Section Reference: When We Are Awake: Conscious Awareness 372. A memory has reached the ___ level when we finally remember information. Answer: conscious Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the ideas of preconscious and unconscious states, including Freud’s thinking on the unconscious. Section Reference: Preconscious and Unconscious States 373. Freud suggested that people deal with memories that are too painful by ___ such thoughts

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and keeping them in the unconscious. Answer: repressing Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the ideas of preconscious and unconscious states, including Freud’s thinking on the unconscious. Section Reference: Preconscious and Unconscious States 374. The idea that sleep is the evolutionary outcome of self-preservation describes the ___ theory of sleep. Answer: adaptive Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 375. The idea that sleep allows the brain and body to restore depleted chemical resources and eliminate wastes is known as the ___ theory of sleep. Answer: restorative Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 376. Jarrod flew to China for a conference and had difficulty adapting to the 12-hour time difference. This difficulty was most likely due to a phenomenon known as ___. Answer: jet lag Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 377. Isla wakes up at 5:30 A.M. She goes to the gym then studies for a few hours before going to her morning classes at the university. Isla would be described as a ___ because of her ability to function well in the early morning hours.

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Answer: morning person, a lark Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 378. The drowsy pre-sleep period is called the ___ state. Answer: hypnagogic Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 379. A biological explanation for dreaming that suggests that dreams activate specific brain structures to synthesize the meaning of internal signals is known as the ___ model. Answer: activation-synthesis Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 380. Hypnosis is often referred to as a(n) ___ state of consciousness. Answer: altered Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss theories and evidence about what hypnosis is, how it works, and how it can be used. Section Reference: Hypnosis 281. When a hypnotist guides an individual to a heightened tension and awareness, the individual is in a ___ trance. Answer: hyperalert Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Learning Objective: Discuss theories and evidence about what hypnosis is, how it works, and how it can be used. Section Reference: Hypnosis 382. People who regularly ingest drugs may develop maladaptive patterns of behaviour and changes in bodily responses referred to as ___. Answer: addiction Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 383. Substances taken from the sap of the opium poppy, such as heroin and morphine are known as ___. Answer: opioids Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 384. A powerful type of amphetamine that has experienced a recent surge in popularity is ___. Answer: methamphetamine, crank Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 385. At low doses, marijuana smokers typically experience feelings of ___. Answer: happiness and relaxation Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs

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386. The drug MDMA is commonly known as the club drug ___. Answer: ecstasy Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 387. ______ is a drug is commonly used as an anaesthetic in veterinary clinics. Answer: Ketamine Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs

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SHORT-ANSWER ESSAY QUESTIONS 388. Name two elements that are involved in conscious awareness. Answer: attention, monitoring, remembering, planning Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define different levels of conscious awareness and describe key brain structures and functions associated with those levels. Section Reference: When We Are Awake: Conscious Awareness 389. What group of individuals did Sperry and Gazzaniga investigate in their research programs to determine the roles played by the different hemispheres of the brain in regulating conscious attention? Answer: split-brain patients Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Define different levels of conscious awareness and describe key brain structures and functions associated with those levels. Section Reference: When We Are Awake: Conscious Awareness 390. Finn said he “hated his attorney”. He meant to say that he “waited on his attorney”. What term is used to identify this “slip of the tongue?” How does it work? Answer: Freudian slip Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the ideas of preconscious and unconscious states, including Freud’s thinking on the unconscious. Section Reference: Preconscious and Unconscious States 391. What is the purpose of psychoanalytic psychotherapy in dealing with unconscious material? Answer: to bring unconscious material into conscious awareness Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the ideas of preconscious and unconscious states, including Freud’s thinking on the unconscious. Section Reference: Preconscious and Unconscious States

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392. What happens to a vertebrate animal if it is prevented from sleeping for a long period of time? Answer: It dies. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 393. What term associated with the sleep pattern in humans is described as the “biological clock?” Answer: circadian rhythm Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 394. What activity in Stage 2 sleep includes bursts of brain activity that last one to two seconds? Answer: sleep spindles Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 395. What sleep disorder is characterized by frequent awakening due to repeated instances in which some individuals stop breathing? Answer: sleep apnea Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 396. What percentage of the population reportedly cannot be hypnotized at all? Answer: 10%

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss theories and evidence about what hypnosis is, how it works, and how it can be used. Section Reference: Hypnosis 397. What type of response has occurred when a predetermined signal prompts a response from a person after they have been roused from a hypnotic trance? Answer: posthypnotic Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss theories and evidence about what hypnosis is, how it works, and how it can be used. Section Reference: Hypnosis 398. When hypnotized people are guided to see objects or hear sounds that are not present, what type of hallucination has occurred? Answer: positive Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss theories and evidence about what hypnosis is, how it works, and how it can be used. Section Reference: Hypnosis 399. Neuroimaging studies suggest that what part of the brain’s cerebral cortex is most involved when hypnosis is used to reduce pain? Answer: anterior cingulated cortex Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss theories and evidence about what hypnosis is, how it works, and how it can be used. Section Reference: Hypnosis 400. Name two mental processes psychoactive drugs can affect. Answer: awareness, perception, decision making, etc. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects.

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Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 401. What term refers to needing more and more of a drug to feel its desired effects? Answer: tolerance Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 402. Ethyl alcohol slows brain activity by binding to the receptor sites of which neurotransmitter? Answer: GABA Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 403. What condition of the liver may occur following long-term alcohol abuse? Answer: Cirrhosis Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 404. Name one common medical opioid that is currently used in Canada. Answer: morphine, codeine Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 405. How is nicotine most commonly taken into the body? Answer: smoking tobacco

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 406. What substances are known to produce dramatic changes in awareness by causing altered sensory perception? Answer: hallucinogens, psychedelic drugs Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 407. What is the key neurotransmitter involved in the pleasure pathway utilized by drugs in the brain? Answer: dopamine Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs

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ESSAY QUESTIONS 408. Describe the difference in conscious awareness regulation produced by the left and right hemispheres of the brain. Answer: The left cerebral cortex appears to be responsible for verbal awareness, whereas the right cerebral cortex appears to be responsible for nonverbal forms of conscious awareness such as tactile awareness. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define different levels of conscious awareness and describe key brain structures and functions associated with those levels. Section Reference: When We Are Awake: Conscious Awareness 409. Describe how consciousness may be rooted in language. Answer: Babies cannot reflect on their thoughts and behaviours because they cannot represent them with language. Due to this lack of language ability, some researchers argue that babies do not fully develop consciousness until approximately 22 months of age. Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Define different levels of conscious awareness and describe key brain structures and functions associated with those levels. Section Reference: When We Are Awake: Conscious Awareness 410. Provide an example of information that exists at the unconscious level of thought. Answer: Example that depicts that unconscious information is not readily accessible, yet it may guide our behaviour. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the ideas of preconscious and unconscious states, including Freud’s thinking on the unconscious. Section Reference: Preconscious and Unconscious States 411. Describe the difference between explicit and implicit memory processes. Answer: Explicit memory is effortfully acquired and accessible to conscious awareness, whereas implicit memory is not effortfully acquired or consciously accessible. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the ideas of preconscious and unconscious states, including Freud’s thinking on the unconscious.

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Section Reference: Preconscious and Unconscious States 412. How do proponents of the adaptive theory of sleep explain the functionality of sleep? Answer: Because sleep is related to evolution and self-preservation, organisms sleep to keep themselves isolated in safe locations from nocturnal predators. Grazing animals sleep less because they forage for food, whereas animals with dens sleep more. Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 413. What biochemical activity accompanies circadian rhythms? Explain how it is affected by the sleep-wake cycle. Answer: Body temperature increases throughout the day until we feel fatigued, at which time it declines. After an afternoon nap, body temperature will rise again until the time to sleep approaches, at which time it will decrease again. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 414. How does the presence of melatonin influence the sleep-wake cycle? Answer: The pineal gland secretes melatonin which, when circulating in the blood, causes sleepiness. Melatonin production peaks between 1 and 3 A.M., then decreases as dawn approaches. This decrease in melatonin allows sleepers to awake. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 415. Why is REM sleep referred to as paradoxical sleep? Answer: Although the body is deeply relaxed during REM, there is considerable brain activity accompanied by increased heart rate and rapid, irregular breathing. Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation

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Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 416. Describe the most common sleep disorder and the factors that may cause it. Answer: Insomnia is the most common sleep disorder; people have difficulty falling asleep, staying asleep, and feeling rested after sleep. Insomnia can be triggered by daily stressors such as job pressures, financial difficulties, or relationship problems that cause anxiety while trying to sleep. Insomnia is also more common in elderly than younger adults. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe what happens when people sleep, key theories of why we sleep and dream, and problems with sleep and how they affect functioning. Section Reference: When We Are Asleep 417. Describe two characteristics an individual must possess for the hypnotic process to work? Answer: willingness to relinquish control over certain behaviours; openness and responsiveness to suggestions made by the hypnotist Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss theories and evidence about what hypnosis is, how it works, and how it can be used. Section Reference: Hypnosis 418. Define posthypnotic amnesia and provide an example in which this may occur. Answer: Information learned during the trance state is forgotten until the hypnotist provides a predetermined signal to remember it; provide an applicable example. Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Discuss theories and evidence about what hypnosis is, how it works, and how it can be used. Section Reference: Hypnosis 419. Describe how dissociation occurs and define the activities of the “hidden observer” during hypnosis. Answer: Consciousness splits into two parts yet continues to act simultaneously during hypnosis. One part is fully tuned to the hypnotist’s suggestions while the other part, termed the “hidden observer”, operates at a less conscious level. Difficulty: Hard

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Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Discuss theories and evidence about what hypnosis is, how it works, and how it can be used. Section Reference: Hypnosis 420. Describe the types of symptoms an individual who is addicted to a drug may experience during withdrawal. Answer: Withdrawal symptoms can be unpleasant and/or dangerous and may include cravings, nausea, cramping, sweating, anxiety, etc. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 421. Describe the types of psychological problems displayed by children of alcoholic parents? Answer: low self-esteem, poor communication skills, lack of sociability, marital problems, etc. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Applied Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 422. Describe the “rush” that accompanies opioid ingestion. Answer: Brief spasm of warmth and joy that is comparable to an orgasm followed by several hours of pleasant feelings during which the user is happy and unconcerned about food and other bodily needs. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 423. What types of diseases and disorders is smoking tobacco directly related to? Answer: lung disease, high blood pressure, coronary heart disease, cancer, stroke Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects.

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Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 424. Describe the psychological impact of taking LSD. Answer: LSD ingestion results in hallucinosis which is a state marked by strengthened visual perception. Users of LSD may focus on minute details in their environments, detect changes in colour, and experience illusions. People may also experience strong emotions that may not subside for up to six hours. Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs 425. Describe reward-deficiency syndrome. Answer: Research suggests that people who are likely to abuse drugs have reward centres in their brains that are not readily activated by rewarding events in their lives. They use drugs to obtain the stimulation they are naturally lacking. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: List and describe common depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic psychoactive drugs and their effects. Section Reference: Psychoactive Drugs

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CHAPTER 7 LEARNING CHAPTER LEARNING OBJECTIVES 1. Define learning and distinguish between associative and non-associative learning. • Learning is a lasting change in the brain caused by experience. • Non-associative learning is a lasting change that happens as a result of experience with a single cue. Types of non-associative learning include habituation, in which we display decreased responses to familiar stimuli, and sensitization, in which we display increased responses to stimuli of normal strength after being exposed to an unusually strong stimulus. • Associative learning is a lasting change that happens as a result of associating two or more stimuli. Types of associative learning include classical and operant conditioning. 2. Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. • As a result of classical conditioning, a previously neutral stimulus comes to elicit a response by being paired with an unconditioned stimulus (US) that already generates the response, known as an unconditioned response (UR). The neutral stimulus becomes a conditioned stimulus (CS) when it elicits the same response as the US. The response to the CS is known as a conditioned response (CR). • Repeated presentation of the CS without the US can lead to extinction, or suppression of the CR. Extinction does not mean we forget the CS–US association, however. The CR can be spontaneously recovered. • Phobias and conditioned taste aversions can result from classical conditioning. Systematic desensitization uses classical conditioning to extinguish phobia responses. Conditioned taste aversions suggest that we are biologically prepared to quickly learn responses important to our survival. 3. Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. • Operant conditioning is a learned association between stimuli in the environment and our own behaviour. The law of effect states that we learn to repeat behaviours that will increase our rewards and help us avoid punishment. • Reinforcers are rewarding stimuli from the environment. Positive reinforcement provides a desired stimulus; negative reinforcement takes away an unpleasant stimulus. Both increase the chance a behaviour will be repeated. Primary reinforcers are reinforcing in and of themselves. Secondary reinforcers become reinforcing because of their association with primary reinforcers. • Positive punishment provides an unpleasant stimulus; negative punishment takes away a rewarding one. Both types lower the chances that a behaviour will be repeated. • Schedules of intermittent reinforcement provide reinforcements after either fixed or variable intervals of time or numbers of responses. Any intermittent reinforcement modifies behaviour more effectively than continuous reinforcement. • Shaping, or rewarding successive approximations of a behaviour, uses operant conditioning

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principles to teach new behaviours. People and animals are limited in the behaviours they can learn, however, by their biological endowments. Learned helplessness occurs when previous learning that punishment is inescapable interferes with the later ability to learn how to avoid escapable punishment. It may be related to depression or be one way to account for the behaviour of abuse victims.

4. Define observational learning and summarize concerns about observational learning from the media. • Observational learning is learning by watching the behaviour of others. We are more likely to model, or imitate, others’ behaviour that we see rewarded. • Many people are concerned that high levels of violence in the media encourage viewers to model such aggression. Studies about the causal nature of media encouraging violence have been inconclusive. 5. Define spatial navigation learning, implicit and latent learning, and insight learning. • Learning that occurs without awareness is referred to as implicit learning. • Insight learning and spatial navigation learning seem to take place in the absence of any obvious reinforcement. 6. Define massed and spaced practice and tell what conditions are best for learning semantic material, such as facts in your classes. • Massed practice occurs when learning episodes are closely spaced (e.g., “cramming”); this approach impedes learning. • Repeated, spaced practice aids learning of semantic material, such as classroom information. • According to the context effect, if you learn information in only one context, or location, you may be less likely to recall it when you are in a different context. • We can learn without paying attention, but focused attention aids semantic learning. • Sleep deprivation impairs our abilities to pay attention and to learn. 7. Summarize the types of learning that occur before we are born and during early postnatal life. • We are capable of non-associative learning, both habituation and sensitization, before birth, as well as basic associative learning, such as classical conditioning. • We become capable of increasingly complex forms of learning as relevant areas of our brains mature after we are born. 8. Define specific learning disorder and describe three major types of learning disorders. • A specific learning disorder is a specific deficiency in one or more areas of learning, while learning in other areas takes place normally. Although the DSM-5 does not consider the three categories of learning disability referred to in the DSM-IV-TR, there was discussion of three types of specific learning disorder: reading disorder, mathematical disorder, and disorder of written expression.

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

TRUE-FALSE STATEMENTS 1. Behavioural scientists study learning by measuring changes in behavioural responses. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define learning and distinguish between associative and non-associative learning. Section Reference: What Is Learning? 2. Habituation refers to an increased response to a stimulus after it has been encountered repeatedly over time. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define learning and distinguish between associative and non-associative learning. Section Reference: What Is Learning? 3. Sensitization involves an increase in response to the presentation of a single cue. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define learning and distinguish between associative and non-associative learning. Section Reference: What Is Learning? 4. Sensory habituation occurs outside of our awareness. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define learning and distinguish between associative and non-associative learning. Section Reference: What Is Learning? 7. Ivan Pavlov was a Russian psychologist.

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Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 8. Extinction does NOT represent “unlearning.” Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 9. Classical conditioning works with animals, but NOT humans. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 10. Phobias are classified as an anxiety disorder associated with specific stimuli. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 11. Producing taste aversion requires several pairings of the US and CS. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

12. Scientists suggest that the link between stomach illness and taste represents a biological propensity to learn taste aversions. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 13. According to Thorndike’s law of effect, behaviours that result in unpleasantness are more likely to occur again. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 14. Operant and instrumental conditioning refer to the same concept. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 15. Most of learning in our everyday life is active. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 16. Negative punishment takes away something unpleasant. Answer: False

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 17. Schedules of reinforcement based on “ratios” focus on the number of behavioural responses. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 18. Both punishment and reinforcement are equally effective for most people. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 19. Animals and birds are NOT capable of learning through observational learning. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 20. Researchers have shown that capuchin monkeys have an internal concept of fairness. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define observational learning and summarize concerns about observational learning from the media. Section Reference: Observational Learning

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

21. Heavy TV watching is associated with aggressive behaviour in children. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define observational learning and summarize concerns about observational learning from the media. Section Reference: Observational Learning 22. Rats exploring a maze without being reinforced is an example of latent learning. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define spatial navigation learning, implicit and latent learning, and insight learning. Section Reference: Learning and Cognition 23. Having a single exposure to information is considered an effective means for studying semantic or factual information. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define massed and spaced practice and tell what conditions are best for learning semantic material, such as facts in your classes. Section Reference: Factors that Facilitate Learning 24. Newborn humans demonstrate an almost immediate preference for their mother’s odour. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the types of learning that occur before we are born and during early postnatal life. Section Reference: Prenatal and Postnatal Learning 25. Dyslexia may manifest itself in the reversal of letters or words. Answer: True

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define specific learning disorder and describe three major types of learning disorders. Section Reference: Specific Learning Disorder

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 26. ________ is a lasting change caused by experience. a) Maturation b) Development c) Learning d) Cognition Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define learning and distinguish between associative and non-associative learning. Section Reference: What Is Learning? 27. Learning is defined as a ___ change caused by ___. a) temporary; genetics b) temporary; experience c) lasting; genetics d) lasting; experience Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define learning and distinguish between associative and non-associative learning. Section Reference: What Is Learning? 28. Which of the following statements about learning is TRUE? a) Learning is a lasting change caused by experience. b) Learning can be directly observed. c) Learning is unrelated to memory. d) Learning research has traditionally focused on human beings. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define learning and distinguish between associative and non-associative learning. Section Reference: What Is Learning? 29. Which of the following abilities allows us to flexibly respond to complex environmental cues such as spoken words and written symbols?

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a) learning b) culture c) sensitization d) habituation Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define learning and distinguish between associative and non-associative learning. Section Reference: What Is Learning? 30. Which of the following learning techniques could be used to test whether an animal or a preverbal infant can tell the difference between the sounds ‘Bah’ and ‘Gah’? a) sensitization b) dishabituation c) classical conditioning d) associative learning Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define learning and distinguish between associative and non-associative learning. Section Reference: What Is Learning? 31. The ________ paradigm is the MOST often used paradigm; used as a tool to measure the abilities of preverbal children to recognize and discriminate objects. a) sensitization b) classical conditioning c) associative learning d) habituation/dishabituation Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define learning and distinguish between associative and non-associative learning. Section Reference: What Is Learning? 32. Which of the following statements is NOT correct as it applies to the use of habituation as a tool for measuring infant abilities? a) If an infant stops looking at an object previously of interest, it indicates they have lost interest in it. b) Infants cannot verbalize their thoughts so inferences about what they can and cannot

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

discriminate must be made. c) When an infant shows renewed interest in a stimulus the researcher can be confident that the infant is discriminating this new stimulus from a previous stimulus. d) Infants cannot ethically participate in experiments and so only non-associative techniques are used when testing them. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define learning and distinguish between associative and non-associative learning. Section Reference: What Is Learning? 33. The difference between learning and memory is that learning ___ while memory ___. a) involves the parietal lobes; involves the temporal lobes b) studies traditionally use animal subjects; studies traditionally use human participants c) cannot occur without memory; can occur without learning d) is innate; is an acquired skill Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define learning and distinguish between associative and non-associative learning. Section Reference: What Is Learning? 34. What is the difference between learning and memory? a) memory relies on higher-order brain functions than does learning b) learning studies traditionally use animal subjects and memory studies traditionally use human participants c) learning cannot occur without memory, but it is possible to have memory without learning d) developmentally we are innately prepared to learn but must have active experience before we are physiologically able to remember Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define learning and distinguish between associative and non-associative learning. 35. Learning and memory are a) interrelated and share biological mechanisms. b) completely separate processes with independent brain regions. c) synergistic systems when an organism must respond in a stressful or dangerous situation. d) dependent systems and cannot operate independently.

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Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define learning and distinguish between associative and non-associative learning. 36. Although learning and memory are closely interrelated and share many brain regions, they are treated separately in most introductory textbooks in psychology. Why is this? a) Psychologists have traditionally used animal subjects in studies of learning, but human participants in studies of memory. b) Learning and memory involve different brain mechanisms. c) Learning and memory are less related than they might seem. d) Psychologists have used experimental methods to investigate memory, but correlational research to examine memory. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Define learning and distinguish between associative and non-associative learning. Section Reference: What Is Learning? 37. Which of the following can be classified as learning? a) development of neural connections in the brain b) using crutches while your broken leg heals c) writing with your left hand while the right hand is injured d) acquisition of reading skills Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define learning and distinguish between associative and non-associative learning. Section Reference: What Is Learning? 38. Learning that involves making connections between stimuli is called a) habituation. b) associative learning. c) sensitization. d) non-associative learning. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define learning and distinguish between associative and non-associative learning. Section Reference: What Is Learning? 39. What are two types of associative learning? a) classical and operant conditioning b) habituation and sensitization c) modelling and cognitive learning d) observational learning and systematic desensitization Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define learning and distinguish between associative and non-associative learning. Section Reference: What Is Learning? 40. What are two types of non-associative learning? a) classical and operant conditioning b) habituation and sensitization c) modelling and cognitive learning d) observational learning and systematic desensitization Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define learning and distinguish between associative and non-associative learning. Section Reference: What Is Learning? 41. The first time Aicha purchased a coffee from the local coffee shop, she noticed the warning, “Caution! Beverage is hot!” Now, after three years of regularly stopping by that coffee shop for coffee, she no longer notices the warning message. What type of learning has occurred for Aicha? a) sensitization b) habituation c) associative learning d) non-associative learning Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define learning and distinguish between associative and non-associative learning.

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Section Reference: What Is Learning? 42. Rio’s mother wanted Rio exposed to two languages at home, Japanese, and English. However, since both parents and all grandparents speak primarily Japanese to Rio, her mother is becoming concerned that Rio’s comprehension of English may be affected. If Rio’s mother wanted to determine whether Rio could distinguish certain sounds in English, such as ‘Lah’ and ‘Rah’ what technique could be used to make this assessment? a) sensitization b) habituation/dishabituation c) classical conditioning d) associative learning Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define learning and distinguish between associative and non-associative learning. Section Reference: What Is Learning? 43. Dr. O’Leary is testing whether a baby can detect the difference between a 680 nm light (dark orange) and a 650 nm light (yellow-orange). First, he presents the 680 nm light repeatedly for 5 seconds each time, until the baby stops looking at the light. Then, he changes the light to 650 nm and watches for the baby’s response. What is this procedure called? a) sensitization b) dishabituation c) classical conditioning d) associative learning Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define learning and distinguish between associative and non-associative learning. Section Reference: What Is Learning? 44. How do sensory adaptation and habituation differ? a) Habituation is more simplistic than sensory adaptation. b) Sensory adaptation occurs due to fatigue of neurons in the sensory receptors whereas habituation is a learning process. c) Habituation occurs due to fatigue of neurons in the sensory receptors whereas sensory adaptation is a learning process. d) Sensory adaptation and habituation both occur due to fatigue of neurons in the sensory receptors. Answer: b

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define learning and distinguish between associative and non-associative learning. Section Reference: What Is Learning? 45. _____ is a form of non-associative learning whereby a strong stimulus results in an exaggerated response to the subsequent presentation of a weaker stimuli. a) Habituation b) Dishabituation c) Sensitization d) Sensory adaptation Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define learning and distinguish between associative and non-associative learning. Section Reference: What Is Learning? 46. Indicate which of the following is an example of sensitization. a) When James entered his friend’s house, he found the smell of sardines unbearable. However, after a brief time he hardly noticed it. b) After taking on a night shift, Petra did not think she would be able to sleep during the day at home because of the noisy construction across the street. It bothered her at first. However, after a few days she could sleep without difficulty. c) Jonas’ house was flooded after a severe thunderstorm. Now Jonas frequently thinks he hears water, even when there is no water present. d) After a fire destroyed their home, five-year-old Leonid, screams at even the sight of a candle flame. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define learning and distinguish between associative and non-associative learning. Section Reference: What Is Learning? 47. Psychologists use the term ___ to refer to a lasting change in behaviours resulting from experience. a) development b) maturation c) cognition d) learning Answer: d

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define learning and distinguish between associative and non-associative learning. Section Reference: What Is Learning? 48. How does associative learning differ from non-associative learning? a) Associative learning is studied experimentally. Non-associative learning is studied using nonexperimental methods. b) Associative learning applies to humans. Non-associative learning applies to other animals. c) Associative learning is based on connecting two or more stimuli. Non-associative learning is not based on such connections. d) Non-associative learning involves memory. Associative learning does not require memory. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define learning and distinguish between associative and non-associative learning. Section Reference: What Is Learning? 49. Which of the following statements best expresses the relationship among the terms associative learning, non-associative learning, habituation, and sensitization? a) Habituation is a type of non-associative learning, whereas sensitization is a type of associative learning. b) Habituation and sensitization are types of associative learning. c) Associative learning, non-associative learning, habituation, and sensitization are four different types of learning. d) Habituation and sensitization are types of non-associative learning. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define learning and distinguish between associative and non-associative learning. Section Reference: What Is Learning? 50. Which of the following statements regarding habituation and adaptation is true? a) The two terms are synonymous. They refer to the same physiological events across nervous systems. b) Habituation involves a direct sensory response whereas adaptation involves a shift in attentional mechanisms. c) Both result in a lowered perception of and response toward a sensory stimulus. d) Both result in a decreased response to an external stimulus based on cognitive and perceptual mechanisms.

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Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective: Define learning and distinguish between associative and non-associative learning. Section Reference: What Is Learning? 51. Habituation is a type of ___ learning and sensitization is a type of ___ learning. a) non-associative; associative b) associative; non-associative c) non-associative; non-associative d) associative; associative Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define learning and distinguish between associative and non-associative learning. Section Reference: What Is Learning? 52. Habituation and sensitization both refer to a change in response because of learning. Which of the following statements best expresses the relationship between the types of changes in response denoted by the two terms? a) The two terms refer to the same type of change in response. b) The two terms refer to similar kinds of changes in response. c) The two terms refer to different sorts of changes in response. d) The two terms refer to opposite changes in response. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Define learning and distinguish between associative and non-associative learning. Section Reference: What Is Learning? 53. What is the difference between habituation and sensitization? a) habituation is the result of classical conditioning and sensitization is the result of operant conditioning b) habituation is a form of associative learning and sensitization is a form of non-associative learning c) habituation is a neurological phenomenon and sensitization is a sensory phenomenon d) habituation is a decrease in responding to a stimulus and sensitization is an increase in responding to a stimulus

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Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Define learning and distinguish between associative and non-associative learning. Section Reference: What Is Learning? 54. Hessa is a first-year psychology student; Gavin is a two-year-old child. Which of the following best describes the learning process for each of them? a) Most of Hessa’s learning is associative; most of Gavin’s learning is non-associative. b) Most of Hessa’s learning is non-associative; most of Gavin’s is non-associative. c) Most of Hessa’s learning is non-associative; most of Gavin’s is associative. d) Most of Hessa’s learning is associative; most of Gavin’s is associative. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define learning and distinguish between associative and non-associative learning. Section Reference: What Is Learning? 55. Which of the following would result in an increase in response over time? a) habituation b) sensitization c) sensory adaptation d) fatigue Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define learning and distinguish between associative and non-associative learning. Section Reference: What Is Learning? 56. Which of the following would result in a decrease in response over time? a) sensitization b) associative learning c) classical conditioning d) habituation Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Learning Objective: Define learning and distinguish between associative and non-associative learning. Section Reference: What Is Learning? 57. Talia is sleeping and is suddenly woken by a sound. Then she hears it again, a scratching sound coming from her bedroom door. She begins to feel very afraid as she imagines what the sound could be, and she slowly gets out of her bed to get her phone. As soon as her feet touch the carpet, her cat rubs up against her leg. Talia screams in fear and nearly jumps out of her skin. Talia’s reaction to the cat is likely the result of: a) sensitization. b) habituation. c) classical conditioning. d) operant conditioning. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define learning and distinguish between associative and non-associative learning. Section Reference: What Is Learning? 58. “BANG!” “What was that?” Chloe asks in a breathless panic. “That? It was just a falling pecan hitting the carport’s tin roof,” Matthew explains. A scant minute later, the doorbell rings. Chloe visibly jumps, still startled. Chloe’s behaviours reflect ___. a) sensitization b) habituation c) association d) conditioning Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define learning and distinguish between associative and non-associative learning. Section Reference: What Is Learning? 59. Habituation is to ___ learning as sensitization is to ___ learning. a) non-associative; associative b) associative; non-associative c) non-associative; non-associative d) associative; associative Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis

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Learning Objective: Define learning and distinguish between associative and non-associative learning. Section Reference: What Is Learning? 60. Callen has been feeding a stray dog for the past two weeks. When he first started, the dog was very frightened of him and would only eat once Callen was out of sight. Now, the dog will eat even though Callen is only a couple of metres away. This is an example of ___. a) dishabituation b) habituation c) sensitization d) desensitization Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define learning and distinguish between associative and non-associative learning. Section Reference: What Is Learning? 61. Genavié was excited to spend the first night in her new apartment but then the train roared by every 2 hours all night long and she could not sleep. The previous tenant had lived there for over 30 years, and Genavié wonders how they managed. Do you have any ideas? a) the previous tenant had undergone classical conditioning b) the previous tenant was habituated c) the previous tenant was sensitized d) the previous tenant had undergone operant conditioning Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define learning and distinguish between associative and non-associative learning. Section Reference: What Is Learning? 62. Habituation is to ___ as sensitization is to ___. a) increase in response; decrease in response b) increase in response; increase in response c) decrease in response; increase in response d) decrease in response; decrease in response Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define learning and distinguish between associative and non-associative learning.

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Section Reference: What Is Learning? 63. The difference between habituation and sensitization is that habituation is ___ while sensitization is ___. a) the result of classical conditioning; the result of operant conditioning b) a form of associative learning; is a form of non-associative learning c) a neurological phenomenon; a sensory phenomenon d) a decrease in responding to a stimulus; an increase in responding to a stimulus Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define learning and distinguish between associative and non-associative learning. Section Reference: What Is Learning? 64. Habituation and sensitization both refer to a change in response as a result of learning. Which of the following statements best expresses the relationship between the types of changes in response denoted by the two terms? a) The two terms refer to the same type of change in response. b) The two terms refer to similar kinds of changes in response. c) The two terms refer to different sorts of changes in response. d) The two terms refer to opposite changes in response. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define learning and distinguish between associative and non-associative learning. Section Reference: What Is Learning? 65. Which of the following alternatives correctly classifies the major types of learning described in your text? a) associative learning: classical conditioning and sensitization; non-associative learning: operant conditioning and habituation b) associative learning: classical conditioning; non-associative learning: operant conditioning c) associative learning: habituation and desensitization; non-associative learning: classical and operant conditioning d) associative learning: classical and operant conditioning; non-associative learning: habituation and sensitization Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define learning and distinguish between associative and non-associative learning.

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Section Reference: What Is Learning? 66. A key difference between associative and non-associative learning is that associative learning ___ while non-associative learning ___. a) is a form of classical conditioning; is a form of operant conditioning b) develops early in development; develops later in life c) includes linking stimuli; does not involve linking stimuli d) happens very quickly; takes a long time to achieve Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define learning and distinguish between associative and non-associative learning. Section Reference: What Is Learning? 67. Which of the following would be a change that did NOT result from learning? a) Chip opens the door after the doorbell rings. b) Freda pushes the button in the elevator. c) Giada is getting grey hair. d) Hye sings a song with the choir. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define learning and distinguish between associative and non-associative learning. Section Reference: What Is Learning? 68. Which of the following is an example of non-associative learning? a) Isabelle sleeps through the sounds of the furnace loudly turning on and off. b) Jake puts coins in a machine to get a C-train ticket. c) Machiko cannot smell her partner’s aftershave after being around him for a few minutes. d) Rose rushes to her child when she hears a sharp cry. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define learning and distinguish between associative and non-associative learning. Section Reference: What Is Learning? 69. Which of the following is an example of associative learning? a) Joran uses a cane following his knee operation.

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b) Manwa sleeps through the sounds of the traffic outside of her apartment. c) Freed writes with her left hand since her right hand is sprained. d) Dion lets his dog in when she barks at the door. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define learning and distinguish between associative and non-associative learning. Section Reference: What Is Learning? 70. Alexandra is trying to toilet train her son. If he soils his diaper, she changes him with a blank face without conversation. But if he uses the toilet, she gives him a Smartie and a lot of praise. What type of learning is Alexandra using in this case? a) habituation b) sensitization c) classical conditioning d) operant conditioning Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define learning and distinguish between associative and non-associative learning. Section Reference: What Is Learning? 71. Eva wants to train her new puppy Gus to sit on command. So, Eva surreptitiously watches Gus and whenever Gus happens to sit, she rushes over and says, “You’re sitting Gus! Good sitting Gus!” and tells him what a clever puppy he is and gives him a tiny piece of cheese. What type of learning is Eva using with Gus? a) habituation b) operant conditioning c) classical conditioning d) sensitization Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define learning and distinguish between associative and non-associative learning. Section Reference: What Is Learning? 72. ___ is credited with laying the foundation for the study of classical conditioning in psychology. a) Thorndike

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b) Skinner c) Pavlov d) Watson Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 73. Your text states that, “[Pavlov’s] dogs had learned to associate the appearance of a lab assistant with getting food.” This suggests that classical conditioning involves an association between a) a stimulus and either another stimulus, or a response. b) a stimulus and a response. c) two responses. d) two stimuli. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 74. Your text states that, “[Pavlov’s] dogs had learned to associate the appearance of a lab assistant with getting food.” This suggests that classical conditioning involves what Pavlov referred to as a(n) a) stand alone physiological response. b) innate response. c) psychic secretion. d) natural reflex. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 75. ___ is a type of learning in which a neutral stimulus comes to elicit a response after being paired with a stimulus that would elicit the same response naturally. a) Classical conditioning b) Operant conditioning

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

c) Observational learning d) Instrumental conditioning Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 76. What phenomenon did Ivan Pavlov initially set out to study? a) canine sensory perception b) canine non-associative learning c) associative learning d) salivary reflex in digestion Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 77. What is measured in classical conditioning to signify that learning has taken place? a) the US b) the CS c) the UR d) the CR Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 78. The stimulus that causes the reflexive response is called the ____. Pavlov called the reflexive response the _____. a) US; CS b) CR; CS c) US; UR d) CR; UR Answer: c

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 79. In Pavlov’s study, the US was ___; the neutral stimulus was ___; and, finally, the CS was ___. a) meat; the assistant; meat b) meat; the assistant; the assistant c) the assistant; meat; meat d) meat; meat; the assistant Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 80. The ___ occurs in time before the stimulus event that triggers a reflexive response, and this happens multiple times. At first, the ___ does not elicit a response on its own, but after some trials it does. a) unconditioned stimulus b) conditioned stimulus c) unconditioned response d) conditioned response Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 81. In classical conditioning, how are the neutral stimulus and the CS related? a) They are not related; they are completely different stimuli. b) They are synonyms for the same thing. c) The neutral stimulus becomes the CS. d) The CS becomes a neutral stimulus. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 82. Quincy got a fighting fish, and it lives in a big bowl in his kitchen. Every morning, Quincy is the first to get up and he turns on the kitchen light and feeds the fish. Within a few days, the fish was swimming to the surface looking for its food just when the light went on. What type of learning is this? a) habituation b) sensitization c) classical conditioning d) operant conditioning Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 83. Diega got a guinea pig and feeds it carrots from a plastic bag in the fridge. After about a week, the guinea pig started squeaking to the sound of the fridge opening and the plastic bag rustling. What type of learning is this called? a) habituation b) sensitization c) classical conditioning d) operant conditioning Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 84. Esther was flinched when she heard a loud clap of thunder during a rainstorm. Eventually, just the sight of lighting made her flinch. What is the conditioned stimulus in this example? a) sound of thunder b) flinching from hearing thunder c) sight of lightning d) flinching from sight of lightning Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how

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classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 85. Augustin’s girlfriend has worn the same perfume every time they have been together. One day as he is walking through the mall, he smells her perfume on another woman and finds that he immediately began to think romantic thoughts about his girlfriend. In this example, the smell of the perfume is a(n) a) unconditioned stimulus. b) conditioned stimulus. c) unconditioned response. d) conditioned response. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 86. Who conducted the study of fear conditioning with “Little Albert”? a) Thorndike b) Watson c) Skinner d) Chomsky Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 87. In classical conditioning, the conditioned response is a behavior that is a) natural. b) learned. c) reflexive. d) extinguished. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

88. You are trying to train your cat Stanley to stay off the kitchen counters. Every time he jumps up on the counter, you spray him with water, which he hates. In this example, the water is the ___, and the counter is the ___. a) CS; UCS b) UCS; CS c) CR; UCR d) UCR; CR Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 89. You are trying to train your cat Stanley to stay off the kitchen counters. Every time he jumps up on the counter, you spray him with water, which he dislikes. In this example, the CR is a) Stanley’s dislike of water b) Stanley’s enjoyment of jumping. c) Stanley’s curiosity. d) your frustration. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 90. While on a recent combat tour in Afghanistan, Sylvie learned to dive for cover at the sounds of gunfire. When she returned home, she found herself diving for cover when her husband accidently slammed a door. In this example, loud noises are a/an ___. a) unconditioned stimulus b) conditioned stimulus c) unconditioned response d) conditioned response Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning

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91. While you were sick with the stomach flu, a friend recommended strawberry Jell-O to help calm the nausea. However, each time you ate Jell-O, you felt nauseous and vomited. Now, without feeling ill otherwise, whenever you even smell strawberry Jell-O, you feel nauseous. In this scenario, the nausea a) changed from a conditioned response to an unconditioned response. b) changed from a neutral stimulus to a conditioned stimulus. c) changed from an unconditioned response to a conditioned response. d) remained a neutral stimulus. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 92. A friend made you strawberry Jell-O to eat while you were sick with the stomach flu to help relieve your nausea. Every time you ate a bowl of Jell-O, however, you vomited. Which of the following is the unconditioned stimulus? a) flu b) Jell-O c) nausea d) your friend Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 93. Every time it begins raining, you turn the television to your local weather station to make sure there are no tornadoes approaching. What is the conditioned stimulus? a) fear b) television c) rain d) tornadoes Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning

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94. Checking the local weather station every time it begins to rain because you fear tornadoes is a type of classical conditioning. What is the conditioned response? a) fear b) television c) rain d) tornadoes Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 95. Solana got a new puppy, and she keeps the puppy’s treats in a ceramic jar that makes a distinctive ‘clunk’ sound when the lid is put on or taken off. At first, the puppy comes when he sees or smells the food, but after a while, he only needs to hear the sound of the jar lid coming off to come running. In this example, the puppy’s coming to the sound of the jar is the a) conditioned stimulus. b) unconditioned stimulus. c) conditioned response. d) unconditioned response. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 96. You took your daughter to the medical clinic to receive a flu shot. Now, every time the child sees a white coat, she is scared. What is the conditioned stimulus? a) medical clinic b) flu shot c) fear d) white coat Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 97. When a neutral stimulus becomes a conditioned stimulus _______________ has occurred.

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a) acquisition. b) stimulus recovery. c) stimulus generalization. d) extinction. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 98. Which of the following are the optimal conditions for acquisition to take place? a) a few pairings and several minutes between the conditioned and unconditioned stimuli b) many pairings and several minutes between the conditioned and unconditioned stimuli c) a few pairings with half a second between the conditioned and unconditioned stimuli d) many pairings with half a second between the conditioned and unconditioned stimuli Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 99. Classical conditioning is most effective when the neutral stimulus begins a) just before the US begins. b) at precisely the same time that the US begins. c) a while before the US begins. d) immediately after the US begins. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 100. Dr. Ho is trying to replicate Ivan Pavlov’s classical conditioning experiment. He enters the room and turns on the light. About three minutes later he gives the dog food causing the dog to salivate. He repeats this many times, and yet he cannot seem to get the dog to salivate without giving him the food. Which of the following best explains this? a) Dr. Ho needs to pair the light and food for more trials. b) Dr. Ho needs to be more consistent with the pairings. c) Dr. Ho needs to present the light and the food at the same time.

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

d) The dog has habituated to the light, so Dr. Ho needs to use a different stimulus. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 101. Dr. Carver has a litter of twelve-week-old pups at home. She wants to replicate Pavlov’s experiment for her class. So, she brings some very hungry puppies to class one morning. She divides the class into groups and gives each group a bell and a bag of puppy kibble and asks the students to work on conditioning the puppies to conditionally respond to the bells. Which of the following activities should each group carry out to ensure that acquisition for “their” puppy takes place? a) The students should repeatedly ring the bell and then ½ second later give the puppy a piece of kibble. b) The students should repeatedly give the puppy a piece of kibble and ring the bell ½ second later. c) The students should pour out the bag of kibble and allow the puppy to eat it, all the while ringing the bell. d) Dr. Carver is setting a task that the students will not be able to accomplish as the puppies are too young to be classically conditioned. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 102. Which of these scenarios is a result of classical conditioning? a) A driver decreases speed on a road where he or she received a speeding ticket. b) A postman develops a fear of all dogs as a result of a dog bite. c) A child throws a tantrum until the parent buys him/her candy. d) A dog sits upon vocal command to receive a treat. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 103. Stimulus generalization occurs when

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a) a stimulus that is like the original CS triggers the same CR. b) a CR is specific to one CS and one US. c) the magnitude of the CR is proportional to the intensity of the CS. d) the CR cannot be triggered by a stimulus that is like the original CS. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 104. When a stimulus that is like the original CS triggers the same CR, this is called a) stimulus generalization. b) stimulus discrimination. c) spontaneous recovery. d) systematic desensitization. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 105. Often, a conditioned response may be elicited NOT only by the original CS, but also by a similar one. This is known as stimulus ___. a) control b) discrimination c) generalization d) diffusion Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 106. Recently, an alcoholic went through a treatment program that used a drug that made her sick whenever she would drink alcoholic drinks. As a result, the alcoholic now cannot drink any liquid without getting sick. Which principle of classical conditioning explains this problem? a) acquisition b) stimulus generalization c) stimulus discrimination

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d) spontaneous recovery Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 107. Your cat, Tikki, always comes running when he hears you shake the bag of cat food because he thinks you are going to feed him. Now, suddenly, he comes running when he hears you shake a bag of rice. This is an example of ___. a) stimulus discrimination b) stimulus generalization c) higher-order conditioning d) extinction Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 108. Your cat, Tikki, always comes running when you shake the bag of cat food. One day, to try to find where he is hiding, you shake a bag of rice. Even though the rice makes the same sound as the cat food, Tikki stays in his hiding place. This is an example of ___. a) stimulus discrimination b) stimulus generalization c) extinction d) habituation Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 109. Vincent used to work driving the ice cream truck. Every time he had to go in the cold freezer, the bells would go off, and he would shiver in response to the cold freezer. Eventually, he shivered to the sound of the bells alone, and even to other jingling sounds, such as the sound of his dishwasher when it was finished. The fact that sounds like the bells also trigger the same response is called: a) systematic desensitization

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b) stimulus generalization c) stimulus discrimination d) conditioned tolerance Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 110. Amaira’s father was often abusive when things went badly for him at work. Amaira learned to listen for his out of tune whistling which indicated that her father was returning home angry. She knew to slip out to her grandmother’s house if his whistling was out of tune but knew things were safe if he was whistling in tune. This is an example of a) stimulus discrimination b) stimulus generalization c) extinction d) habituation Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 111. If you salivate when you smell seafood cooking but NOT when you smell steak on the barbeque, you have learned a) stimulus discrimination b) stimulus generalization. c) spontaneous recovery. d) higher-order conditioning. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 112. Which of the following is an example of stimulus discrimination? a) Jaeger is a beer fan. He loves lagers, stouts, and malts, as well as ale. b) Mu tan loved shrimp until it once made her very ill. Now Mu tan will not eat any seafood at all. c) Isadora loves blackberries but will not eat raspberries or blueberries.

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d) Feng has a sweet tooth. He says he has never met a dessert he will not eat. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 113. Thadius’ cat is smart. His cat has learned that the sound of the can opener means his favourite food is coming and he begins rubbing all over Thadius’ legs and meowing. Within a short while, his cat realizes that before the can opener sound is the sound of the drawer opening, and now he gets very excited every time Thadius opens the drawer. Which type of learning does this describe? a) higher-order conditioning b) extinction c) stimulus discrimination d) spontaneous recovery Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 114. Which statement best describes the process of higher-order conditioning? a) A previously conditioned stimulus is carried over as a new conditioned response. b) A previously conditioned stimulus functions as if it is an unconditioned stimulus. c) A previously conditioned stimulus is carried over as a new neutral stimulus. d) A previously conditioned response is carried over as a new neutral stimulus. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 115. Advertiser’s pair celebrities, such as Beyoncé, with products, such as Pepsi, to increase sales by bringing attention to the product and to the brand. Which of the following correctly indicates this higher order conditioning relationship? a) US-celebrity; UR-desirability; CS1-product; CS2- sexy image; CR-desirability b) US-product; UR-sexy image; CS1-celebrity; CS2- desirability; CR-sexy image c) US-sexy image; UR-desirability; CS1-celebrity; CS2- product; CR-desirability

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d) US-celebrity; UR-sexy image; CS1-product; CS2- desirability; CR-sexy image Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 116. The learning process for classical conditioning is different than the learning process for higher-order conditioning. Which of these statements best describes the learning process for higher-order conditioning? a) Learning is based on a new behavioral response. b) Learning is based on a previous learning situation. c) Learning is a result of watching another person. d) Learning is based on the type of reinforcement. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 117. You want to improve your website to market your consultation firm. Which strategy would use the classical conditioning approach? a) Add a graph showing success rates for your clients. b) Add quotations from your clients that offer recommendations. c) Add an attractive picture of yourself. d) Add your contact information. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 118. The main difference between stimulus generalization and stimulus discrimination is that stimulus generalization ___ while stimulus discrimination ___. a) is the result of classical conditioning; is the result of operant conditioning b) occurs first; occurs second c) takes weeks to learn; can be learned in as little as a day d) means responding to more stimuli; means responding to fewer stimuli

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 119. What is the difference between stimulus generalization and stimulus discrimination? a) Stimulus generalization is the result of classical conditioning while stimulus generalization is the result of operant conditioning. b) Stimulus generalization occurs before stimulus discrimination. c) Stimulus generalization takes weeks to learn while stimulus discrimination can be learned in as little as a day. d) Stimulus generalization means responding to more stimuli while stimulus discrimination means responding to fewer stimuli. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 120. ___ occurs when a previously conditioned response decreases in frequency when the CS is presented in the absence of the US. a) Extinction b) Habituation c) Adaptation d) Deconditioning Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 121. Which of the following scenarios exemplifies extinction? a) Avni is a former cocaine user. Now that she no longer uses, her hands no longer shake and her heart no longer pounds when she hears a car pull into her drive, like her dealer used to do in his car. b) Avni uses cocaine. She no longer feels quite the same rush as she did when she fist started using. c) Avni is a former cocaine user in recovery. After a relapse, though, her hands shake and her

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heart pounds when she hears a car pull into her drive, like her dealer used to do in his car. d) Avni has relapsed on cocaine. She finds that she does not need quite as much of the drug to feel its effects as she did immediately before she stopped using the last time. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 122. Which of the following scenarios exemplifies extinction? a) Nathalie only likes Sparta apples and refuses to eat any other type. b) Fatma’s dog barks whenever he hears the doorbell. Now he has begun barking whenever Fatma’s cell phone rings. c) Banele cringes whenever he hears something by the Backstreet Boys because it reminds him of an unfortunate Karaoke experience. d)Eli is on a diet. She found when she first went to a movie and could only have water she could not stop thinking about popcorn when the coming attractions began but after a month finds that she hardly thinks about popcorn at all. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 123. Ursula’s cat nearly trips her up every time she uses her can opener. Yes, she mainly uses the can opener for the cat’s favourite food, but she occasionally uses it for other purposes. And each time the cat is in her feet, and Ursula is at risk of falling. She decides to repeatedly use the can opener on various cans without giving the cat any food. Eventually the cat stops responding to the can opener. What is this procedure called? a) spontaneous recovery b) stimulus generalization c) higher-order conditioning d) extinction Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

124. Olivia’s bird is fed treats from a jar that makes a certain sound when it is opened. Whenever the bird hears that sound, it squawks very loudly and flaps its wings, making a huge mess. Olivia is tired of it, so she tries a suggestion from her psychology class. She opens the jar repeatedly without giving the bird any treats. Eventually the bird stops responding to the jar being opened. What is this procedure called? a) spontaneous recovery b) stimulus generalization c) higher-order conditioning d) extinction Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 125. Which of the following scenarios exemplifies spontaneous recovery? a) Avni is a former cocaine user. Now that she no longer uses, her hands no longer shake, and her heart no longer pounds when she hears a car pull into her drive, like her dealer used to do in his car. b) Avni uses cocaine. She no longer feels quite the same rush as she did when she fist started using. c) Avni is a former cocaine user in recovery. Although no longer using, a short time after quitting, her hands shake and her heart pounds when she hears a car, like her old dealer’s pull into her drive. d) Avni has relapsed on cocaine. She finds that she does not need quite as much of the drug to feel its effects as she did immediately before she stopped using the last time. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 126. Which of the following scenarios exemplifies spontaneous recovery? a) Bart quit smoking five years ago when he moved for his job. After the initial quitting period he found he never thought about smoking. However, recently, Bart went home and found himself craving a cigarette while out with buddies for a drink after golfing. b) Although Artiom enjoys a glass of wine, he dislikes the smell of vodka because he reminds him of his alcoholic grandmother. c) Lily was once walking home from work and a dog attacked her. Lily now has a dog phobia. d) Zhuang used to react to the smell of a certain aftershave as it reminded him of a broken relationship but now, he rarely even notices if anyone is wearing it. Answer: a

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 127. The fact that spontaneous recovery occurs at all shows us that a) an extinguished CS is still associated with the US. b) classical conditioning is unique from operant conditioning. c) stimulus discrimination is only possible with salient stimuli. d) once a CS can elicit a CR, it is possible to serve as a US for another CS. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 128. Once a response is extinguished it can re-emerge at some later time. This is evidence that extinction is different than a) habituation. b) unlearning. c) forgetting. d) stimulus discrimination. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 129. Tanya uses cocaine, which activates her sympathetic nervous system. Expecting her dealer, her hands shake and her heart pounds. Which alternative below correctly identifies the neutral stimulus, the CS, and the US? a) neutral stimulus – knock on the door; CS – cocaine; US – cocaine b) neutral stimulus – knock on the door; CS – knock on the door; US – pounding heart c) neutral stimulus – knock on the door; CS – knock on the door; US – cocaine d) neutral stimulus – cocaine; CS – knock on the door; US – cocaine Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 130. Abena was in a car accident and had to have a great deal of painful dental work completed. She is now finished with the work and wants to express her gratitude to the office staff for their kindness and help over the length of her ordeal. She therefore buys flowers and takes them to the office for drop-off. Abena is looking forward to the pleasure and surprise she anticipates will be expressed by the staff. However, when she opens the door to the office, she hears the dental drill and is flooded with anxiety. Which alternative below correctly identifies the US, CS, and CR in this situation? a) US – sound of drill; CS – pain caused by drill; CR – anxiety b) US – sound of drill; CS – anxiety; CR – pain caused by drill c) US – anxiety; CS – sound of drill; CR – pain caused by drill d) US – pain caused by drill; CS – sound of drill; CR – anxiety Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 131. Jack has been using heroin in his apartment every day for the past two months. He finds that now it takes more heroin to get him high. He is planning on using heroin tonight at a party at his friend’s apartment. Which of the following is the most likely outcome? a) Jack will find he has developed tolerance, so he will need more heroin. b) Jack will find that he needs more heroin because of the different environment. c) Jack will risk overdosing because he needs less heroin in the different environment. d) Jack will find he needs the same amount of heroin as when he uses at his apartment. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 132. Jack has been using heroin in his apartment every day for the past two months. He finds that now it takes more heroin to get him high. This example demonstrates ___. a) drug stimulus generalization b) extinction c) drug stimulus discrimination d) tolerance Answer: d

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 133. According to Siegel and his colleagues, a consequence of taking a drug in a novel environment is that a) overdosing is more likely because the body’s compensatory response would not be triggered in a novel environment. b) people are more likely to take more of the drug in a novel environment. c) people are less likely to know whether the drug was a good or poor quality in a novel environment. d) novel environments trigger responses that anticipate a disruption to homeostasis. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 134. Siegel argues that some drug addicts die of heroin overdoses because ________ requires a larger dose to offset it. a) an acquired proprioceptive cue b) a learned compensatory response c) an unconscious stimulus generalization d) sensitization Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 135. How would work published from Siegel et al.’s research explain why drug overdoses are more likely to occur in a novel environment? a) The body’s compensatory response would not be triggered in a novel environment. b) People take more of the drug in a novel environment. c) People are less likely to know whether the drug was a good or poor quality in a novel environment. d) Novel environments trigger responses that anticipate a disruption to homeostasis. Answer: a

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 136. A space-time anomaly strands several early psychologists in the 21st century. With no way back, the psychologists attempt to continue their work in the present day. Watson proposes a ‘Little Albert’ study to a contemporary research ethics committee. Which of the following reflects the least likely response of the committee? a) “Congratulations! Your proposal has been approved! You may begin collecting data.” b) “The investigator fails to make adequate provision for the collection of informed consent from the infant’s parent or guardian.” c) “No discussion of debriefing or potential follow-up is included.” d) “The committee is concerned that the risk to the participant may outweigh the scientific benefit of the proposed work.” Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 137. The Watson and Rayner study has been criticized for several reasons. Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons? a) The research would have violated the current APA standards. b) The researchers never extinguished “Little Albert’s” fears. c) The risk to “Little Alberta” outweighed any scientific benefit. d) The research findings were not statistically significant. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 138. Aaron has a needle phobia. Which pair below correctly identifies a stimulus or response in the conditioning of his phobia? a) conditioned stimulus – pain; tissue damage b) unconditioned stimulus – anxiety; fear c) neutral stimulus – the needle itself d) unconditioned stimulus – blood

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Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 139. Rosa becomes anxious when she enters the examination room at the clinic before a blood test. She also squirms when she views injections on television. This paragraph illustrates a) non-associative learning. b) stimulus generalization. c) operant conditioning. d) sensitization. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 140. When people with phobias are exposed to their feared stimulus, what brain region have neuroimaging studies found to activate rapidly? a) prefrontal cortex b) amygdala c) hippocampus d) occipital lobe Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 141. Neuroimaging studies have suggested that the ___ is activated rapidly when people with phobias are exposed to their feared stimulus. a) prefrontal cortex b) amygdala c) hippocampus d) occipital lobe Answer: b Difficulty: Easy

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 142. In Watson and Rayner’s “Little Albert” study Watson claimed that Little Albert came to fear not only the white rat but other furry animals and stimuli as well. In part through the mechanisms of stimulus ___, “Little Albert” developed a(n) ___. a) association; neurosis b) association; phobia c) generalization; neurosis d) generalization; phobia Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 143. Sergei was in an avalanche. Now he has an exaggerated fear not only of packed snow but of mountains in general. In part through stimulus ___, Sergei has developed a(n) ___. a) association; neurosis b) association; phobia c) generalization; neurosis d) generalization; phobia Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 144. An exaggerated or irrational fear of a stimulus is termed a(n) ___. It is associated with increased brain activity in the ___. a) neurosis; amygdala b) neurosis; hypothalamus c) phobia; amygdala d) phobia; hypothalamus Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how

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classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 145. In a process known as systematic ___, phobic individuals are gradually exposed to the feared object or situation in the absence of pairing with the US. a) extinction b) desensitization c) adaptation d) relaxation Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 146. Dr. Cortese conducts a neuroimaging study of patients undergoing systematic desensitization to treat a fear of high places. The images should show that activity in the ___ occurs when patients are ___. a) hypothalamus; experiencing fear b) prefrontal cortex; experiencing fear c) amygdala; undergoing extinction d) prefrontal cortex; undergoing extinction Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 147. People experiencing treatment for phobias often undergo a process based on learning theory known as ______________________ to _______________ their fears. a) cognitive behavioural therapy; unlearn b) systematic desensitization; extinguish c) conditioned forgetting; unlearn d) flooding; spontaneously recover Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

148. Researchers Garcia and Koelling produced a taste aversion in lab rats by pairing sweetened water and radiation, which resulted in a) nausea. b) hyperactivity. c) empathy. d) fear. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 149. Chiara consumed some poorly stored sushi on a hot day; she became violently ill. Now Chiara cannot stand the sight of sushi. She has developed a(n) ___. a) phobia b) aversive taste association c) aversive taste sensitization d) conditioned taste aversion Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 150. An evolutionary approach to learning can help us understand how a) some associations are learned more readily than others. b) our overall cognitive functioning can be improved. c) memory affects various aspects of our daily lives. d) our interactions with others enhance brain development. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 151. Effie no longer eats egg salad sandwiches – some time ago, she found herself violently ill after consuming a sandwich in which the mayonnaise must have spoiled. Which alternative

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below correctly identifies a stimulus in this situation? a) US – bacteria b) CS – nausea c) US – food d) CS – bacteria Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 152. Is a conditioned taste aversion in any way an exception of sorts to the general principles of classical conditioning? If so, how? a) No, it is not an exception – it is simply another illustration of the generality of the principles of classical conditioning. b) Yes, it is an exception – conditioned taste aversions require more trials to acquire than do most CRs. c) Yes, it is an exception – conditioned taste aversions require a shorter interval between the CS and the response for their acquisition than do most CRs. d) Yes, it is an exception – conditioned taste aversions often require only a single CS-UCS pairing, rather than several pairings, for their acquisition. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 153. Humans tend to be more afraid of a spider than of a knife because the spider is an example of a(n) ________ threat. a) evolutionary b) immediate c) common d) psychological Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

154. Which of these findings is least relevant to the notion that conditioned taste aversions suggest that we are biologically predisposed to learn certain associations? a) The cues an organism learns to associate with illness depend on how members of its species detect food in the first place. b) Conditioned taste aversions may be acquired even when several hours intervene between the CS and the response. c) Individuals predisposed to nausea, like chemotherapy patients and pregnant women, are especially prone to acquire conditioned taste aversions. d) Conditioned taste aversions may be learned following a single trial. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 155. The innate readiness for members of a species to form associations between certain stimuli and responses is called a) biological preparedness. b) instinctive drift. c) operant learning. d) vicarious conditioning. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 156. Biological preparedness plays a key role in a) both classical and operant conditioning. b) non-associative learning, but not associative learning. c) classical conditioning, but not operant conditioning. d) operant conditioning, but not classical conditioning. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 157. Which of the following fears is most likely due to biological preparedness?

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a) Vikram broke his leg while skiing last year and is now afraid to return to the slopes. b) Although she has never encountered a live one, Anastasia is terrified of snakes. c) Because Albie has happy memories of hunting with his father, he is adamantly opposed to firearm legislation. d) Jonah has been afraid of caterpillars ever since one dropped out of a tree and landed on his head. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 158. Hannah went out with her officemates for snacks and drinks and became violently ill shortly afterward. She attributed her sickness to the food she ate, and if we could fast-forward ahead in her life, we would likely find that she will never eat that food again. Meanwhile, of all the events at the restaurant that she could have associated with the sickness (i.e., the background music, the server, the lighting, the smell in the air, etc.), she associated it with the food. This suggests that a) Hannah is fixated on food and as such is more likely to learn associations about food than other stimuli. b) we habituate more readily to some stimuli than others. c) we have a biological preparedness to make certain associations more readily than others. d) the meal was more salient of a stimulus than the lightning or the background music. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 159. The first time that Yvonne tried yogurt she was 7 years old, and she remembers thinking that it was a very unusual flavour, both sour and creamy. Shortly after that she became violently sick to her stomach. To this day, Yvonne cannot even be near anyone who is eating yogurt because the smell alone will make her gag. What is so unique about this type of classical conditioning? a) It was the first type of classical conditioning examined by Pavlov with his dogs. b) It does not require a salient CS or US for conditioning to occur. c) Conditioning occurs with a long CS–US interval and with just one pairing. d) It is a combination of classical and operant conditioning. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 160. How do the consequences of operant conditioning differ from the consequences of classical conditioning? a) In operant conditioning, consequences are reinforced, whereas in classical conditioning, consequences are punishments. b) In classical conditioning, consequences are subconscious, whereas in operant conditioning, consequences are intentional. c) In operant conditioning, consequences are essential, whereas in classical conditioning, consequences are irrelevant. d) In classical conditioning, consequences are always negative, whereas in operant conditioning, consequences are always positive. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 161. Operant conditioning is to ________ behavior as classical conditioning is to ________ behavior. a) voluntary; involuntary b) punishing; rewarding c) extinct; reinforced d) innate; conditional Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 162. Nathan is in the play ‘The Jungle Book’ and unfortunately, they are working with a real, live, large boa constrictor. The snake is harmless, Nathan is told, and has worked in plays and on movie sets hundreds of times. Nevertheless, Nathan is nervous of the snake. Which of the following should Nathan worry about the most? a) spontaneous recovery b) instinctive drift c) shaping d) primary reinforcers Answer: b

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 163. Biological constraints play an important role in a) both classical and operant conditioning. b) non-associative learning, but not associative learning. c) classical conditioning, but not operant conditioning. d) operant conditioning, but not classical conditioning. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 164. Cosima wants her dog to stop barking at the mail carrier. Whenever the dog barks at the carrier Cosima scolds him. As soon as the dog stops barking Cosima gives him a treat and praises him lavishly. Eventually the dog stops barking at the mail carrier. Which type of learning did Cosima’s dog experience? a) habituation b) sensitization c) classical conditioning d) operant conditioning Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 165. Terrell has a child in his grade-one class who refuses to remain in her seat and on task. Therefore, Terrell gives her a token each time he notices that she is sitting at her desk and is on task. Once she has five tokens, she trades them back to Terrell for special privileges, such as video game time. What type of learning is Terrell using? a) habituation b) sensitization c) classical conditioning d) operant conditioning Answer: d

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 166. What happens in operant conditioning? a) Two stimuli are associated with each other because one reliably precedes the other. b) Responses are changed because of consequences. c) A stimulus elicits less and less of a response with repeated presentations. d) A stimulus no longer triggers a response. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 167. Which of the following types of learning involves responses that are changed because of consequences? a) classical conditioning b) operant conditioning c) habituation d) sensitization Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 168. Behavior is strengthened through ________ and weakened through a) stimuli; conditioning. b) reinforcement; punishment. c) consequences; reinforcement. d) classical conditioning; operant learning. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours.

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Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 169. The presentation of an aversive consequence following a behaviour is called a) positive reinforcement. b) negative reinforcement. c) positive punishment. d) negative punishment. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 170. Michaela returns her library a few days late and must pay a fine of 50 cents and endure the librarian’s scorn. The next time she signs out a library book, she makes sure to return it on time. What kind of learning is this? a) classical conditioning b) operant conditioning c) habituation d) observational learning Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 171. Isak surprises his partner with a surprise trip for their anniversary and is delighted by the ecstatic response he receives so Isak immediately begins to plan another surprise. What kind of learning is this? a) classical conditioning b) operant conditioning c) habituation d) observational learning Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

172. Classical conditioning applies mostly to ___. Operant conditioning applies mainly to ___. a) involuntary behaviours; voluntary behaviours b) voluntary behaviours; involuntary behaviours c) voluntary behaviours; voluntary behaviours as well d) involuntary behaviours; involuntary behaviours as well Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 173. In classical conditioning learning ___ whereas in operant conditioning learning ___. a) precedes the response; follows the response b) follows the response; precedes the response c) is active; is passive d) is active; is reflexive Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 174. Psychology’s interest in operant conditioning may be traced to ___’s early studies of hungry cats learning to escape from cages. a) Skinner b) Thorndike c) Watson d) Pavlov Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 175. “Responses that lead to satisfying consequences are more likely to be repeated.” This is the law of ___. a) consequences b) reward c) effect

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d) reinforcement Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 176. Which of the following is an example of Thorndike's law of effect? a) A chicken keeps pecking at a bar even though it is repeatedly shocked immediately afterwards. b) A teenager regularly works part-time after school in order to make some spending money. c) A ball keeps rolling downhill because of the pull of gravity. d) A cat keeps clawing the sofa despite being squirted with water every time it does this. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 177. How did B.F. Skinner expand upon Thorndike’s law of effect? a) He included the idea of consequences. b) He introduced the puzzle box to study cat behavior. c) He emphasized punishment as a crucial component of innate behavior. d) He contended that reinforcement and punishment must occur immediately after the behavior. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 178. Zoe bought 10 bags of dog food at the Buy n’ Bag, so now her 11th one is free. According to the law of effect, what should this do to Zoe’s tendency to buy dog food at the Buy n’ Bag? a) It should not affect it. b) It will decrease, since everyone knows now that the Pet Emporium is the best. c) It will increase. d) It will decrease competition between the Buy n’ Bag and Pet Emporium. Answer: c

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 179. Perhaps the most influential psychologist to study operant conditioning was ___. a) Thorndike b) Pavlov c) Watson d) Skinner Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 180. The process by which a stimulus increases the likelihood that a preceding behaviour will be repeated is called ___. a) sensitization b) reinforcement c) conditioning d) association Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 181. The term ‘reward’ is synonymous with a) positive reinforcement only. b) positive and negative reinforcement. c) negative reinforcement only. d) negative punishment. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning

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182. Dunja’s father tells her that if she gets all “A’s” on her report card, he will buy her a new guitar. In this example, the guitar would be considered ___. a) positive reinforcement b) negative reinforcement c) conditioned response d) conditioned stimulus Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 183. Santiago is taking his little brother out trick-or-treating for the first time. For the first few houses, Santiago tells his little brother to say “Trick or treat” to be given candy. After that, Santiago notices that his little brother says it as soon as a door is open. In this example, the treat that Santiago’s brother receives is a ___. a) conditioned response b) negative reinforcer c) positive reinforcer d) conditioned stimulus Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 184. Whenever Caleb goes to the Blue Jays game, he is cold. So, tonight, since Caleb knows it is predicted to be cool and windy, he decides to take a warm jacket just in case. What type of learning has taken place for Caleb? a) positive reinforcement b) negative reinforcement c) positive punishment d) negative punishment Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

185. Which of the following scenarios illustrates negative reinforcement? a) Preston is spanked every time he teases his sister, so he stops doing this behavior. b) Vihaan buckles his seat belt every time he gets in his car to stop the annoying beeping sound. c) Felix the dog is rewarded with food every time his master comes home. d) Elodie receives a bonus of $500.00 for increasing her company’s profits. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 186. Rachana was annoyed by the dinging sound her car made when her seatbelt was NOT fastened, so she decided to fasten her seatbelt before she started the car to avoid hearing the dinging sound. What learning phenomenon is associated with the removal of such an aversive stimulus? a) positive reinforcement b) negative reinforcement c) positive punishment d) negative punishment Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 187. Negative reinforcement a) is the same thing as punishment. b) leads to an increase in the probability of a behaviour. c) decreases the likelihood that a behaviour will be performed. d) involves removing a pleasant stimulus. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning

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188. Repeating behaviour is to ___ as weakening behaviour is to ___. a) positive reinforcement; negative reinforcement b) positive; negative c) reinforcement; punishment d) punishment; reinforcement Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 189. Which of the following scenarios exemplifies negative reinforcement? a) Vanna fastens her seatbelt as soon as she gets in her car to stop the annoying alert sound. b) Drake no longer cuts class now that his parents confiscated his iPad. c) Maria now buys a different brand of cigarettes to get two packs for the price of one. d) Nate no longer arrives late at work following a reprimand from his boss. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 190. Which of the following scenarios exemplify negative punishment? a) Astrid sends her daughter to her room to be alone when she misbehaves. b) Jim makes his middle-schoolers run extra laps when they are unruly in gym class. c) Carly yells at her husband when he comes home ‘buzzed.’ d) Joanie takes several ibuprofen tablets when she has a headache. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 191. Because of the poor grades he received on his report card, Miguel’s mother took away Miguel’s video games and television privileges. Miguel’s mother is using ___. a) negative punishment b) negative reinforcement c) positive punishment d) positive reinforcement

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 192. Which of the following is an example of positive punishment? a) you clean your room because your mother promised you a chocolate bar if you did b) you clean your room because you cannot stand hearing your mother nag at you anymore c) you clean your room because your mother said she would take your PlayStation 3 away if you did not d) you clean your room because your mother said she would make you do extra chores if you did not Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 193. Reinforcers that satisfy a biological need are called ___ reinforcers. a) organic b) unconditioned c) primary d) secondary Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 194. Which of the following reinforcers is correctly categorized? a) food – secondary reinforcer b) praise – secondary reinforcer c) money – primary reinforcer d) sex – secondary reinforcer Answer: b Difficulty: Medium

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Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 195. One reason Carlos continues to work at his job is for the cheque he receives every two weeks. Carlos’ pay cheque is a ___ reinforcer. a) primary negative b) secondary negative c) primary positive d) secondary positive Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 196. Which of the following is a primary punisher? a) Poor grades b) Criticism c) Hunger d) Money Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 197. Which of the following reinforcers is correctly categorized? a) electric shock – secondary punisher b) humiliation – primary punisher c) pain – primary punisher d) thirst – secondary punisher Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

198. Vicente refuses to go back to his neighbourhood pub after a night where he became publicly drunk and aggressive. Vincente’s embarrassment is a __________ punisher. a) primary negative b) secondary negative c) primary positive d) secondary positive Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 199. A stimulus that is naturally reinforcing for an animal is called a a) primary reinforcer. b) secondary reinforcer. c) fixed reinforcer. d) variable reinforcer. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 200. A stimulus that becomes rewarding after it is paired with a primary reinforcer is called a a) contingent reinforcer. b) secondary reinforcer. c) fixed reinforcer. d) variable reinforcer. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 201. In which of the following studies can we tell that the infant is discriminating between stimuli? a) The infant relaxes when hearing a specific song because that song was previously paired with relaxation.

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b) The infant sucks longer and harder to hear their mother read a story they were exposed to prenatally than to another story. c) An infant does not avoid the odour of garlic after prenatal exposure to garlic through the mother’s digestion. d) The infant copies the facial expression of an adult who is in their visual field. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 202. Which of the following newborns is showing evidence of operant conditioning? a) Dmitry, who purses his lips when his mother purses her lips b) Salman, who sucks hard on a special pacifier to hear his mother read his favourite book c) Ha-yeon, who hears a song that makes her relax because it was previously paired with relaxation d) Duyi, who does not react to the smell of garlic after his mother ate lots of it before he was born Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 203. A hockey team manages to score on a goalie, on average, once every 10 minutes. What kind of schedule of reinforcement is this? a) fixed interval b) fixed ratio c) variable interval d) variable ratio Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 204. A hockey team manages to score on a goalie, on average, one out of every 10 shots on the net. What kind of schedule of reinforcement is this? a) fixed interval

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

b) fixed ratio c) variable interval d) variable ratio Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 205. Which of the following is an example of a variable-ratio schedule? a) In golf, you manage to sink a ball, on average, every 5 minutes. b) In golf, you manage to sink a ball exactly every 2 minutes. c) In golf, you manage to sink a ball, on average, every 4th shot. d) In golf, you manage to sink a ball exactly every 3rd shot. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 206. Which of the following is an example of a fixed-interval schedule? a) In golf, you manage to sink a ball, on average, every 5 minutes. b) In golf, you manage to sink a ball exactly every 2 minutes. c) In golf, you manage to sink a ball, on average, every 4th shot. d) In golf, you manage to sink a ball exactly every 3rd shot. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 207. If you wanted to increase the productivity of your workers, how should you pay them? a) once every 2 weeks for 40 hours of work each work b) once a week for 40 hours of work c) a fixed amount for every unit they produce d) you should pay them with units of the product they are producing Answer: c

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 208. What schedule of reinforcement would lead to the greatest response rate? a) fixed ratio b) variable ratio c) fixed interval d) variable interval Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 209. In what way is positive reinforcement like positive punishment? a) They both lead to a decrease in future behaviour. b) They both involve aversive stimuli. c) They both involve adding something to the situation. d) They both lead to an increase in future behaviour. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 210. In what way is positive reinforcement like negative reinforcement? a) they both lead to a decrease in future behaviour b) they both involve aversive stimuli c) they both involve adding something to the situation d) they both lead to an increase in future behaviour Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

211. Scott’s uncle lived in Scott’s home and was physically aggressive with Scott. Which of the following is NOT one of the outcomes of physical punishment for Scott? a) increased levels of aggression toward his uncle b) lowered self-esteem for Scott c) increased fear response toward the uncle d) reduced levels of delinquency for Scott Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 212. Xavier’s parents used to punish him by slapping him or spanking him. However, Xavier’s partner has made it clear that this form of punishment is not how they will be disciplining their own child. Instead, Xavier’s partner has said that it is less ethically problematic but also effective to a) use mild insults or sarcasm to make a point. b) use negative punishment. c) ignore instances of wrongdoing. d) use slight forms of physical restraint. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 213. You do not receive a smile or a “thank you” each time you hold a door for the person behind you, just some of the time. Door-holding is reinforced on a(n) ___ reinforcement schedule. a) continuous b) partial c) fixed d) periodic Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning

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214. On most occasions, drivers you let into your lane acknowledge the favour in some way; sometimes, though, they do not. The behaviour of letting drivers in is maintained by ___ reinforcement. a) intermittent b) primary c) negative d) non-associative Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 215. Two-year-old Rumiko started whining at the grocery store. The best way for her parents to immediately extinguish this behaviour is to praise her ___ when she is NOT whining at the store and to leave the store ___. a) consistently; every time she whines b) most of the time; every second time she whines c) some of the time; when they are done shopping d) as little as possible; as quickly as possible when they have finished shopping Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 216. Madison has a difficulty refusing to give “people food” to her dog, Chauncey, when he begs for it. However, Madison’s partner is adamant that Chauncey eats only dog food, so Madison feeds the dog “people food” only when her partner is not present. We can predict that this schedule of intermittent reinforcement will a) have no real affect on Chauncey’s begging behaviour. b) will reduce Chauncey’s begging behaviour. c) will cause Chauncey’s begging behaviour to be more difficult to extinguish. d) will result in Chauncey habituating to “people food” and losing interest. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

217. As compared to behaviours reinforced on continuous schedules, behaviours reinforced intermittently are ___ resistant to extinction. a) more b) slightly less c) equally d) much less Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 218. Pay cheques are delivered on a ___ schedule of reinforcement. a) fixed-ratio b) fixed-interval c) variable-ratio d) variable-interval Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 219. Sometimes when we call a customer service centre, we are put on hold; we do NOT know how long it will be before our holding behaviour is reinforced by the response of an associate, and it does not matter what we do in the meantime. Holding is reinforced on a ___ schedule. a) fixed-ratio b) fixed-interval c) variable-ratio d) variable-interval Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 220. Which of the following promotions exemplifies the use of a fixed-ratio schedule of

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reinforcement? a) A café prints, “You are a winner” on a random 1/12 of its coffee lids; patrons receiving such a lid can redeem it for a free beverage. b) A café offers its customers a punch card. Each time a patron purchases a beverage, a hold is punched; when ten holes are punched, the patron receives a free beverage. c) A café offers each patron an early morning two-for-one free-beverage-with-purchase deal from 5-6 a.m. on Monday mornings. d) Now and then, a café announces a two-for-one deal. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 221. The process of teaching complex behaviours by reinforcing ever closer approximations of the desired behaviours is called ___. a) stimulus control training b) discrimination training c) shaping d) behaviours modification Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 222. Ms. Martinez, a third-grade teacher, is instructing cursive writing. At first, she reinforces even crude attempts to reproduce letters with an encouraging word; as time goes on, though, she reinforces only well-formed letters. By reinforcing progressively better attempts at writing letters, Ms. Martinez is using ___. a) discrimination training b) shaping c) stimulus control training d) behaviour modification Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

223. In which of the following conditions would you use shaping? a) If you did not want to rely on secondary reinforcers. b) If you wanted to teach a new behaviour. c) If you had a client with anxiety. d) If the behaviour used to be done very frequently but has since been extinguished. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 224. The principles of operant conditioning can explain self-injurious behaviour by saying that people who self-injure a) do not have free nerve endings and therefore don’t feel pain. b) are immune to punishment and only learn through reinforcement techniques. c) interpret painful stimuli as being positively reinforcing. d) are negatively reinforced by removing inner pain. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 225. People who self-injure are believed to be negatively reinforced by removing inner pain. This claim is a) refuted by Seigel’s compensatory response theory. b) supported by Seigel’s compensatory response theory. c) refuted by Thorndike’s law of effect. d) supported by Thorndike’s law of effect. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 226. What operant conditioning technique is useful to teach a new behaviour? a) shaping b) fixed-interval schedules

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c) positive punishment d) instinctive drift Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 227. How can the principles of partial reinforcement be used to manage the behaviours of children? a) shaping b) behaviour modification c) continuous reinforcement d) learned helplessness Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 228. When a person fails to attempt an escape from an aversive situation following previous experience with an inescapable aversive situation, this is called a) fixed conditioning. b) spontaneous recovery. c) learned helplessness. d) inhibitory punishment. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 229. Learned helplessness occurs when a) an individual has learned to avoid helpless situations. b) a person has learned to become more aware of antecedent cues, so they do not feel helpless. c) someone is repeatedly exposed to ridicule and then reports feeling helpless and depressed. d) a person fails to attempt an escape from an aversive situation following previous experience with an inescapable aversive situation.

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 230. Why do young children have an innate ability to identify snakes as a potential danger? a) Parents and other caregivers respond to snakes with fear and so children do as well. b) Parents and other caregivers repeatedly warn children about snakes as dangerous. c) Snakes are an evolutionary threat to humans. d) Children are not innately afraid of snakes. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 231. Which of the following statements summarizes the distinction between punishment and negative reinforcement? a) Negative reinforcement strengthens a behavior, whereas punishment weakens a behavior. b) Negative reinforcement weakens a behavior, whereas punishment strengthens a behavior. c) Negative reinforcement involves biological needs, whereas punishment involves learned needs. d) Punishment involves learned needs, whereas negative reinforcement involves biological needs. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 232. Which of the following is an example of negative punishment? a) you clean your room because your mother promised you a chocolate bar if you did b) you clean your room because you cannot stand hearing your mother nag at you anymore c) you clean your room because your mother said she would take your PlayStation away if you did not d) you clean your room because your mother said she would make you do extra chores if you did not

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Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 233. Learned helplessness may offer an animal model of human a) anxiety. b) depression. c) schizophrenia. d) mania. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 234. Based on your text’s discussion, which of the following statements best captures the relationship between observational learning and modelling? a) Observational learning and modelling refer to unrelated learning processes. b) Observational learning and modelling refer to the same process. c) Observational learning is evidence that modelling has occurred. d) Modelling is evidence that observational learning has occurred. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define observational learning and summarize concerns about observational learning from the media. Section Reference: Observational Learning 235. Rebecca noticed that whenever her brother was rude to their mother, he lost privileges, so Rebecca tries never to be rude to her mother. Rebecca has engaged in observational learning because a) she associated two stimuli with one another, knowing that one stimulus reliably precedes the other stimulus. b) she associated a specific behaviour with a specific consequence. c) she engaged in learning that occurred without direct training but instead from watching others. d) she learned that aversive events are inescapable. Answer: c

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define observational learning and summarize concerns about observational learning from the media. Section Reference: Observational Learning 236. Daan’s niece is learning baseball for the first time so he takes her out to an empty diamond, so they can practice. He shows her where to stand, how to hold the bat, and how to swing. Then she tries to do it just like Daan. What learning technique is this? a) operant learning b) modelling c) observational consequences d) vicarious learning Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define observational learning and summarize concerns about observational learning from the media. Section Reference: Observational Learning 237. Enzo’s mother wants Enzo to learn to darn his own clothing. She sits down with him and shows him how to find the correct thread and needle and then shows him the stiches to use. After a time, she hands him the work and watches while Enzo tries to do what she showed him to do. What learning technique is Enzo’s mother using? a) operant learning b) modelling c) observational consequences d) vicarious learning Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define observational learning and summarize concerns about observational learning from the media. Section Reference: Observational Learning 238. Based on social learning theory, which of the following is the best cliché to present to a class for parents who want their children to adopt their standards of behaviour? a) “Silence is golden.” b) “Do as I say, not as I do.” c) “Because I said so.” d) “Practise what you preach.” Answer: d

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define observational learning and summarize concerns about observational learning from the media. Section Reference: Observational Learning 239. If a mother acts in a discriminatory way when she encounters someone of a different ethnic group, it is likely that her child will similarly learn to discriminate against people from other ethnic groups. This is an example of how prejudice is acquired through ___. a) shaping b) negative reinforcement c) observational learning d) latent learning Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define observational learning and summarize concerns about observational learning from the media. Section Reference: Observational Learning 240. What type(s) of media may promote aggressive behaviours in children? a) video games b) cartoons c) movies d) all the above Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define observational learning and summarize concerns about observational learning from the media. Section Reference: Observational Learning 241. Jucina's mother spanks Jucina for hitting her younger brother. According to the principles of observational learning, the mother is ___. a) extinguishing a response by applying an unpleasant consequence b) acting as a model for aggressive behaviour c) using negative reinforcement to eliminate Ursula’s behaviour d) encouraging an appropriate response by the younger brother Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Learning Objective: Define observational learning and summarize concerns about observational learning from the media. Section Reference: Observational Learning 242. Which of the following people is NOT acting as a model? a) Peyton - who is spanks her daughter because her daughter struck another child. b) Asher - who eats salad while insisting his children eat fruit. c) Hugo - who ate a stale sandwich and got sick. d) Birta – who treats all people with dignity and respect. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define observational learning and summarize concerns about observational learning from the media. Section Reference: Observational Learning 243. Serena’s mother gave her $1.00 for clearing the dishes from the table. Later Serena sees her mother give her brother $2.00 for putting away the dishes. The next time Serena’s mother asks her to do something, what will be the likely outcome? a) Serena will do it if her mother gives her another $1.00. b) Serena will not do it unless her mother gives her $2.00. c) Serena will refuse to do it. d) Serena will do it without reinforcement. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define observational learning and summarize concerns about observational learning from the media. Section Reference: Observational Learning 244. Dr. Weymouth examines the behaviour of two groups of children in an observational learning study. One group of children views a film in which an adult is reprimanded for beating a Bobo doll. Another group of children views a film in which an adult is congratulated for beating the doll. Based on your text’s discussion, what should he find? a) He should find that the children who view the congratulated model behave more aggressively toward the Bobo doll, than those who saw the reprimanded model. b) He should find both groups of children act equally aggressively toward the Bobo doll. c) He should find that the children who view the reprimanded model behave more aggressively toward the Bobo doll, than those who view the congratulated model. d) He should find that neither group acts aggressively toward the Bobo doll. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard

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Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Define observational learning and summarize concerns about observational learning from the media. Section Reference: Observational Learning 245. Bandura’s “Bobo doll” experiments were intended to demonstrate a) shaping. b) observational learning. c) latent learning. d) insight learning. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define observational learning and summarize concerns about observational learning from the media. Section Reference: Observational Learning 246. Observational learning is defined as a) associating two stimuli with one another because one stimulus reliably precedes the other stimulus. b) associating a specific behaviour with a specific consequence. c) learning that occurs without direct training but instead from watching others. d) learning that aversive events are inescapable. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define observational learning and summarize concerns about observational learning from the media. Section Reference: Observational Learning 247. While growing up, your favorite meal was your mother’s lasagna, which you watched her make many times. You find, now that you are on your own, that you are able to recreate her recipe, although you never have made it before. Which type of learning does this reflect? a) insight b) vicarious c) classical conditioning d) observational Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define observational learning and summarize concerns about observational learning from the media.

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Section Reference: Observational Learning 248. Learning that occurs without direct training but instead from watching others is called a) social reinforcement. b) modelling. c) observational learning. d) operant conditioning. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define observational learning and summarize concerns about observational learning from the media. Section Reference: Observational Learning 249. When the observer shows that an individual has learned a behaviour that was demonstrated by another, it is called a) learned helplessness. b) vicarious learning. c) social learning. d) modelling. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define observational learning and summarize concerns about observational learning from the media. Section Reference: Observational Learning 250. Evidence that observational learning has occurred is found with a) learned helplessness. b) vicarious learning. c) social learning. d) modelling. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define observational learning and summarize concerns about observational learning from the media. Section Reference: Observational Learning 251. A person who comes from a home where the parents smoke chooses NOT to be a smoker himself because he sees the negative health consequences for his parents. Which concept

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does this exemplify? a) latent learning b) observational learning c) vicarious learning d) insight learning Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define observational learning and summarize concerns about observational learning from the media. Section Reference: Observational Learning 252. A child is forbidden to eat in the living room, but sees his parents enjoying a meal there. He decides to take his breakfast out to the living room, despite the clear rule forbidding this behavior. What type of learning is this an example of? a) observational b) insight c) latent d) operant conditioning Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define observational learning and summarize concerns about observational learning from the media. Section Reference: Observational Learning 253. Mitsuki is learning how to pump up the tire on her bike by watching her dad do her front tire and then as he watches she does the back tire by herself. This is an example of a) classical conditioning. b) operant conditioning. c) habituation. d) observational learning. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define observational learning and summarize concerns about observational learning from the media. Section Reference: Observational Learning 254. The consequence received by a model is also encoded, as revealed through studies of a) vicarious learning. b) imitation.

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c) modelling. d) learned helplessness. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define observational learning and summarize concerns about observational learning from the media. Section Reference: Observational Learning 255. Every time Aryan’s little sister asks his mother a question, Aryan’s mother rolls her eyes and sighs. Aryan is now reluctant to ask his mother questions. Aryan is experiencing a) classical conditioning. b) observational learning. c) vicarious learning. d) acquisition. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define observational learning and summarize concerns about observational learning from the media. Section Reference: Observational Learning 256. One way in which observational learning is like vicarious learning is that a) they both emphasize that the consequences to the model are also learned. b) they both rely on classical and operant conditioning. c) they both involve learning a behaviour by watching another. d) they both use shaping to learn a new behaviour. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define observational learning and summarize concerns about observational learning from the media. Section Reference: Observational Learning 257. What is the difference between observational learning and vicarious learning? a) Observational learning is a type of vicarious learning. b) Observational learning is a broader term than vicarious learning. c) With vicarious learning the consequences to the model are also learned. d) With observational learning the individual is subtle about making the observations and with vicarious learning they are openly trying to copy the behaviour. Answer: c

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define observational learning and summarize concerns about observational learning from the media. Section Reference: Observational Learning 258. Which two types of learning both emphasize the importance of the consequences of behaviour? a) classical and operant conditioning b) habituation and sensitization c) modelling and observational learning d) vicarious learning and operant conditioning Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define observational learning and summarize concerns about observational learning from the media. Section Reference: Observational Learning 259. In what way is vicarious learning like operant conditioning? a) They both emphasize the importance of the consequences of a behaviour. b) They both are types of classical conditioning. c) They both depend on modelling. d) They both use shaping as a way to learn a new behaviour. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define observational learning and summarize concerns about observational learning from the media. Section Reference: Observational Learning 260. The fact that some animals react to the consequences that another receives for completing the same task shows us that they are capable of a) classical conditioning. b) operant conditioning. c) habituation. d) vicarious learning. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define observational learning and summarize concerns about observational

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learning from the media. Section Reference: Observational Learning 261. How do we know that some animals are capable of vicarious learning? a) They react to the consequences that another receives for completing the same task. b) They copy the behaviour of another even if it serves no functional purpose. c) They imitate whatever their social group is doing as they are doing it. d) They model important behaviours for younger members of the group. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define observational learning and summarize concerns about observational learning from the media. Section Reference: Observational Learning 262. Seven-year old Eddie is visiting his friend, Joey’s, house after school. Joey runs right in the house, tracking mud everywhere, and Joey’s mother scolds Joey. According to Bandura’s findings, what is Eddie likely to do? a) Walk back outside. b) Criticize Joey to the mother. c) Model his friend’s behaviour. d) Be very careful not to track any mud on the floor. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define observational learning and summarize concerns about observational learning from the media. Section Reference: Observational Learning 263. Kensei is starting a job as greens-keeper for his local golf course. He watches the previous guy cut one of the greens and he misses one entire strip down the middle and runs over part of the fringe. The boss comes over and yells at the old greens-keeper, pointing out all the mistakes. What will Kensei learn from this? a) how to cut the green and what will happen if he does not do it right b) how to cut the green and how not to cut the green c) that his future boss is very strict and a perfectionist d) nothing about cutting greens Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define observational learning and summarize concerns about observational learning from the media.

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Section Reference: Observational Learning 264. After four-year old Magdalen shows her grandparents the ballet steps she recently learned, they applaud and cheer. Almost immediately, Magdalen’s three-year old cousin begins to imitate her dancing. Which of the following does this example best demonstrate? a) vicarious learning b) positive reinforcement c) modelling d) observational reinforcement Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define observational learning and summarize concerns about observational learning from the media. Section Reference: Observational Learning 265. Which of the following people has experienced vicarious learning? a) Abigail who ate too much cheesecake and felt sick b) Reem who got her hair cut and people told her it looked nice c) Nicolás who thought of his girlfriend when he smelled her perfume on another person d) Mehdi who did not use the red printing ink after he watched his co-worker get criticized for using the red ink Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define observational learning and summarize concerns about observational learning from the media. Section Reference: Observational Learning 266. Neuroscientists believe that the neural basis for imitation and observational learning is ___. a) the involvement of the prefrontal cortex b) mirror neurons c) action detector neurons d) mimicking neurons Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define observational learning and summarize concerns about observational learning from the media. Section Reference: Observational Learning

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267. Which of the following examples illustrates the firing of mirror neurons at a basketball game? a) Spectators who become angry when an unfair call is made against their team. b) Spectators who slightly raise their hands every time a player shoots the ball. c) Spectators who cheer for their team by yelling and shouting. d) Spectators who dress up in team colors to watch the game. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define observational learning and summarize concerns about observational learning from the media. Section Reference: Observational Learning 268. Chao is watching his wife swim laps in their pool. Even though Chao is not swimming himself, it is likely that there is activity in his ___. a) mirror neurons b) vicarious neurons c) occipital lobe d) primary visual cortex Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define observational learning and summarize concerns about observational learning from the media. Section Reference: Observational Learning 269. Which of the following situations would most likely cause a mirror neuron to fire? a) Jacinda - feeling empathy for her friend who just found out that her parents are divorcing b) Braxton - feeling pain from a twisted ankle c) Robin - forming an association between the smell of perfume and his partner d) Alex - watching Josephine skating Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define observational learning and summarize concerns about observational learning from the media. Section Reference: Observational Learning 270. Ray is watching his brother practicing his slap shots in the driveway. Even though Ray is not playing, it is likely that there is activity in his ___. a) mirror neurons b) vicarious neurons

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c) occipital lobe d) primary visual cortex Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define observational learning and summarize concerns about observational learning from the media. Section Reference: Observational Learning 271. Sterling flinched in sympathy as he watched his friend tumble to the ground off his skateboard. Even though Sterling did not fall, he flinched because he was experiencing ____. a) observational learning b) activity in his mirror neurons c) activation of the sympathetic nervous system d) activation of the empathetic nervous system Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define observational learning and summarize concerns about observational learning from the media. Section Reference: Observational Learning 272. What would cause a mirror neuron to fire? a) feeling empathic b) feeling pain c) forming an association d) watching another perform an action Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define observational learning and summarize concerns about observational learning from the media. Section Reference: Observational Learning 273. Where is the neural basis for observational learning and imitation? a) mirror neurons b) vicarious neurons c) the occipital lobe d) the primary visual cortex Answer: a

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define observational learning and summarize concerns about observational learning from the media. Section Reference: Observational Learning 274. One way that observational learning flew in the face of behaviourism is it showed that a) learning can occur without directly receiving consequences. b) the timing of events in learning isn’t that important. c) attention to stimuli and responses determines conditioning. d) learning can only be accomplished through modelling. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define observational learning and summarize concerns about observational learning from the media. Section Reference: Observational Learning 275. Studies of vicarious learning have shown that a) we do not encode the actions or consequences received by another. b) this is not the most direct way of learning. c) we not only learn the actions but also the consequences received by another. d) we only learn actions through shaping, but we can learn about consequences received by another. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define observational learning and summarize concerns about observational learning from the media. Section Reference: Observational Learning 276. Michelle used to engage in vigorous exercise without warming up first. One day at the gym, she watched another woman warm up before running laps. As a result, she started warming up as well. Which term does NOT describe the type of learning that has occurred? a) vicarious b) modelling c) observational d) latent Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define spatial navigation learning, implicit and latent learning, and insight

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learning. Section Reference: Learning and Cognition 277. Tomás has watched his older brother shovel the driveway many times. His grandfather asks Tomás if he knows how to shovel. Tomás truthfully answers that he never has shovelled before and does not know how. Tomás’ grandfather then tells Tomás that he is in a hurry for the driveway to get finished and will pay Tomás five dollars to help his bother. To his surprise Tomás knows how to shovel once he begins. What type of learning has most probably occurred for Tomás? a) latent b) spatial learning c) insight learning d) semantic learning Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define spatial navigation learning, implicit and latent learning, and insight learning. Section Reference: Learning and Cognition 278. A teen is stumped, trying to download songs from his old Dell computer to his new iPad. He plays around with the programs for a while, but nothing works. He walks away, and over dinner, suddenly realizes what he needs to do. Which type of learning does this exemplify? a) latent b) insight c) observational d) trial and error Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define spatial navigation learning, implicit and latent learning, and insight learning. Section Reference: Learning and Cognition 279. What type of learning occurs when there is a change in behaviour with no obvious reinforcement? a) shaping b) operant c) latent d) insight Answer: c Difficulty: Easy

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Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define spatial navigation learning, implicit and latent learning, and insight learning. Section Reference: Learning and Cognition 280. Which two types of learning share the characteristic of showing a sudden and dramatic improvement in performance? a) latent learning and insight learning b) vicarious learning and modelling c) classical conditioning and operant conditioning d) spatial learning and observational learning Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define spatial navigation learning, implicit and latent learning, and insight learning. Section Reference: Learning and Cognition 281. The difference between implicit learning and latent learning is that implicit learning ___ while latent learning ___. a) is learning without awareness; is learning without reinforcement b) involves a sudden awareness of the solution; involves working through a solution gradually c) is not expressed until reinforcement is offered; is expressed with or without reinforcement d) includes spatial navigation; includes insight learning Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define spatial navigation learning, implicit and latent learning, and insight learning. Section Reference: Learning and Cognition 282. Almost every weekend, you aimlessly wander through the shopping mall without buying anything. One day a mother with a child asks you where the nearest toy store is. You know exactly where to direct her, even though you have never shopped in the toy store. This is an example of ___. a) Köhler's insight learning b) Tolman's latent learning c) Thorndike’s effectual mapping d) Bandura’s social-cognitive mapping Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Learning Objective: Define spatial navigation learning, implicit and latent learning, and insight learning. Section Reference: Learning and Cognition 283. Sultan, the chimpanzee, experienced ________ in Kohler’s experiment when he solved the complex task of getting a banana that was put deliberately out of reach. a) insight learning b) modelling c) latent learning d) vicarious learning Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define spatial navigation learning, implicit and latent learning, and insight learning. Section Reference: Learning and Cognition 284. What is a name for a mental representation of a physical place that a human or an animal has experienced before? a) experimental maze b) operant atlas c) latent learning d) cognitive map Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define spatial navigation learning, implicit and latent learning, and insight learning. Section Reference: Learning and Cognition 285. You are trying to visualize how to make your way around a very large campus, thinking about how to get from one class to the next. Your ability to visualize how to get around campus is an example of having a) a cognitive map. b) latent learning. c) insight. d) observation. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define spatial navigation learning, implicit and latent learning, and insight learning.

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Section Reference: Learning and Cognition 286. Nicki never does laundry at home and claims that she doesn’t know how to use the machine. However, when she gets a job at a laundromat and must do laundry all day, she does not need any training, and seems to already know how to do laundry. This is an example of: a) spatial learning b) implicit learning c) latent learning d) insight learning Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define spatial navigation learning, implicit and latent learning, and insight learning. Section Reference: Learning and Cognition 287. Learning without awareness is also known as a) implicit learning. b) vicarious learning. c) insight learning. d) spatial navigation learning. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define spatial navigation learning, implicit and latent learning, and insight learning. Section Reference: Learning and Cognition 288. Implicit learning is defined as a) learning without reinforcement. b) learning without direct consequences. c) learning without awareness. d) learning without insight. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define spatial navigation learning, implicit and latent learning, and insight learning. Section Reference: Learning and Cognition 289. Which of the following is the best example of implicit learning?

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a) When Darlene was learning to drive, she felt that too many activities needed to be “done at the same time” (e.g., stepping n the accelerator, activating on the turn signal, checking for cars nearby, etc.) but over time these simultaneous duties became less complex and more automatic. b) Trina was able to quit smoking without too much difficulty. To her surprise, however, when she started back golfing, after a long period without playing, she found herself longing for a cigarette, she realized that when she had last golfed, she was still smoking and that she smoked on the greens quite a lot at that time. c) Jody did not like Tyler when they first met. However, Tyler complimented Jody each time they subsequently ran into one another (i.e., commenting positively on Jody’s clothing, hair, humour, etc.) and now Jody quite likes Tyler. d) Daksh’s parents called to tell him when his brother died in a car accident. Then Daksh’s partner broke off their relationship by calling him to say it was over. Daksh then received a call telling him that the program he had hoped to get into was not accepting him. Now whenever Daksh’s phone rings he experiences a feeling of anxiety. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Define spatial navigation learning, implicit and latent learning, and insight learning. Section Reference: Learning and Cognition 290. Learning that occurs internally and is expressed behaviourally only when there is sufficient motivation to do so is called ___ learning. a) subliminal b) covert c) implicit d) latent Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define spatial navigation learning, implicit and latent learning, and insight learning. Section Reference: Learning and Cognition 291. With latent learning, when it is obvious that learning took place? a) only after many trials b) when another animal is present c) following extinction d) when reinforcement is made available Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension

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Learning Objective: D Define spatial navigation learning, implicit and latent learning, and insight learning. Section Reference: Learning and Cognition 292. Dr. Jickada allows a rat to explore a complex maze, and she times how long it takes for the rat to get from the start box to the last compartment. What do you predict would happen if Dr. Jickada put a piece of cheese in the last compartment on the 10th trial that the rat was in the maze? a) the rat would suddenly get flustered and take longer to complete the maze b) the rat would now search every square inch of the maze for cheese and take longer to complete it c) the rat would begin to make more errors and re-enter the same area more than once d) the rat would take less time to complete the maze on the following trial Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define spatial navigation learning, implicit and latent learning, and insight learning. Section Reference: Learning and Cognition 293. Your text describes a latent learning experiment by Tolman & Gleitman (1949) in which rats learned to run a maze. What was the critical result? a) Rats who were reinforced learned the maze more rapidly than did rats who were never reinforced. b) Rats who were not reinforced did not learn to run the maze very efficiently. c) An exploration period in which rats were not reinforced did not seem to have much effect on their maze learning. d) Rats who were allowed to explore the maze before receiving reinforcement learned the maze more readily than did rats who did not explore the maze before receiving reinforcement. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define spatial navigation learning, implicit and latent learning, and insight learning. Section Reference: Learning and Cognition 294. Which of the following statements about maze learning is the most accurate, according to Tolman? a) Maze learning proceeds better with reinforcement. b) Maze learning is faster with reinforcement. c) If maze learning happens without reinforcement, it is much longer lasting than maze learning that happens with reinforcement. d) Reinforcement offers the motivation to show that maze learning has occurred, but there is no

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difference in maze learning with and without reinforcement. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define spatial navigation learning, implicit and latent learning, and insight learning. Section Reference: Learning and Cognition 295. According to Tolman, what is the difference between learning a maze with and without reinforcement? a) Learning proceeds better with reinforcement. b) Learning is faster with reinforcement. c) If learning happens without reinforcement, it is much longer lasting than learning that happens with reinforcement. d) Reinforcement offers the motivation to show that learning has occurred, but there is no difference in learning with and without reinforcement. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define spatial navigation learning, implicit and latent learning, and insight learning. Section Reference: Learning and Cognition 296. Lior is comparing the time it takes two groups of rats to complete a maze from start to finish. Group 1 can explore the maze without any reinforcements, while Group 2 consistently finds a small piece of cheese at the finish. What do you expect Lior will find in his two groups of rats? a) both groups will take the same amount of time to complete the maze b) Group 2 will take longer to complete the maze c) Group 1 will learn the maze faster d) Group 1 will take longer on each trial to get from the start of the maze to the finish Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define spatial navigation learning, implicit and latent learning, and insight learning. Section Reference: Learning and Cognition 297. Dr. Jitsumori is comparing the time it takes the “No Cheese Group” to complete a maze with the time it takes the “Cheese Group” to complete the same maze. What do you expect he will find? a) both groups will take the same amount of time to complete the maze

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b) the “Cheese Group” will take longer to complete the maze c) the “No Cheese Group” will learn the maze faster d) the “No Cheese Group” will take longer on each trial to get from the start of the maze to the finish Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define spatial navigation learning, implicit and latent learning, and insight learning. Section Reference: Learning and Cognition 298. Which of the following individuals is exhibiting latent learning? a) Kendra who wakes in the middle of the night with a solution to a problem that has been troubling her b) Benjamin who shows he can do an excellent job mowing the lawn now that he’s getting paid to do it c) Sonni who puts a fork in a socket and gets a shock d) Amit who takes a unique way home from school to avoid a bully Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define spatial navigation learning, implicit and latent learning, and insight learning. Section Reference: Learning and Cognition 299. Why did the behaviourists have such a problem with findings like latent learning? a) because it involves classical and operant conditioning at the same time, and the behaviourists argued that learning can only be one or the other b) because it proposes learning can occur without reinforcement, and the behaviourists argued that reinforcement is necessary for learning c) because it is a type of associative learning that isn’t apparent without special experimental manipulations, and the behaviourists argued that true associative learning doesn’t require special procedures to measure it d) because it assumes that learning can take place without awareness, and the behaviourists argued that all learning requires awareness Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Define spatial navigation learning, implicit and latent learning, and insight learning. Section Reference: Learning and Cognition

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300. Spatial learning, insight learning, and latent learning a) support the behaviourist notion that direct reinforcement is not necessary for learning. b) contradict the behaviourist notion that direct reinforcement is not necessary for learning. c) support the strict behaviourist notion that direct reinforcement is necessary for learning. d) contradict the strict behaviourist notion that direct reinforcement is necessary for learning. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define spatial navigation learning, implicit and latent learning, and insight learning. Section Reference: Learning and Cognition 301. Spatial learning is defined as a) learning without awareness. b) learning without direct consequences. c) learning how to navigate correctly in an environment. d) using insight to determine behaviour. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define spatial navigation learning, implicit and latent learning, and insight learning. Section Reference: Learning and Cognition 302. A brain structure especially important in spatial learning is the ___. a) nucleus accumbens b) prefrontal cortex c) hypothalamus d) hippocampus Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define spatial navigation learning, implicit and latent learning, and insight learning. Section Reference: Learning and Cognition 303. A sudden realization of a solution to a problem is also known as a) implicit learning. b) vicarious learning. c) insight learning. d) spatial learning.

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Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define spatial navigation learning, implicit and latent learning, and insight learning. Section Reference: Learning and Cognition 304. Fern is trying to figure out a way to attach her old gazebo cover to her shed so that she can have a place to park her motorbike. Suddenly, after many days of consideration, a solution pops into her head. This is an example of a) latent learning. b) implicit learning. c) insight learning. d) spatial learning. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define spatial navigation learning, implicit and latent learning, and insight learning. Section Reference: Learning and Cognition 305. Which of the following individuals is exhibiting insight learning? a) Benedict puts a fork in the socket and gets a shock. b) Maisi brings an apple for her teacher. c) Joseph takes a different way home from school to avoid a bully. d) Amed wakes in the middle of the night with a solution to a problem that has been troubling him. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define spatial navigation learning, implicit and latent learning, and insight learning. Section Reference: Learning and Cognition 306. Zander is in a problem-solving competition and is struggling with one solution when suddenly the solution pops into his head. This is an example of a) latent learning. b) implicit learning. c) insight learning. d) spatial learning. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium

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Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define spatial navigation learning, implicit and latent learning, and insight learning. Section Reference: Learning and Cognition 307. Which of the following best demonstrates insight learning? a) After making several attempts at a math problem, you find a method that works. b) A computer programmer keeps making changes to a program until it does what she wants it to do. c) Hours after giving up on a problem, you are driving home from school when the answer suddenly comes to you. d) After struggling through one page of logic problems, you turn to the second page and find you now know exactly how to solve them. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define spatial navigation learning, implicit and latent learning, and insight learning. Section Reference: Learning and Cognition 308. Dr. Patel investigates semantic learning among college students as a function of the number of exposures to given material on the one hand, and the number of diverse types of exposures (e.g., reading, listening, writing) to the material on the other. Which of the following pairs of coefficients should she find between learning scores and the number of exposures and between learning scores and the number of types of exposures? a) learning scores and number of exposures:.30; learning scores and number of types of exposures: -.30 b) learning scores and number of exposures:.30; learning scores and number of types of exposures:.30 c) learning scores and number of exposures:.30; learning scores and number of types of exposures:.00 d) learning scores and number of exposures:.00; learning scores and number of types of exposures:.30 Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Define massed and spaced practice and tell what conditions are best for learning semantic material, such as facts in your classes. Section Reference: Factors That Facilitate Learning 309. What two reasons were given in your textbook for why massed studying is NOT a very effective studying technique? a) Massed studying does not allow consolidation and it takes longer than spaced studying. b) The brain cannot process too much information at once and it uses more energy than spaced

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studying. c) It does not allow enough time between learning trials to maximize learning and it leads to sleep deprivation compared to spaced studying. d) It forces the learned material to become associated with a specific context and the learning does not last if spaced studying. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define massed and spaced practice and tell what conditions are best for learning semantic material, such as facts in your classes. Section Reference: Factors That Facilitate Learning 310. All the following were mentioned in your text as something that facilitates learning EXCEPT a) getting adequate sleep b) the context in which studying, and the test took place c) attention d) a desire to learn the material Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define massed and spaced practice and tell what conditions are best for learning semantic material, such as facts in your classes. Section Reference: Factors That Facilitate Learning 311. Which of the following was a finding about students who use Facebook while they study and attend lectures? a) They tend to get better grades. b) They are better at multi-tasking than other students. c) They negatively affect the learning of their nearby peers. d) They are aware of the negative effects on their studying. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define massed and spaced practice and tell what conditions are best for learning semantic material, such as facts in your classes. Section Reference: Factors That Facilitate Learning 312. Which of the following was NOT a finding about students who use Facebook while they study and attend lectures? a) They tend to get lower grades. b) They are better at multi-tasking than most students. c) They negatively affect the learning of their nearby peers. d) They do not see the negative effects on their studying.

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Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define massed and spaced practice and tell what conditions are best for learning semantic material, such as facts in your classes. Section Reference: Factors That Facilitate Learning 313. You study for a psychology midterm by reviewing 60 minutes per day on each of the ten days leading up to the test. However, you study for your sociology test from 7 p.m. the night before the test straight through till 5 a.m. the morning of the test. Your method of preparing for your sociology test is termed ___ practice. All else being equal, you should perform ___ on your sociology test than on your psychology test. a) spaced; more poorly b) spaced; better c) massed; more poorly d) massed; better Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define massed and spaced practice and tell what conditions are best for learning semantic material, such as facts in your classes. Section Reference: Factors That Facilitate Learning 314. Cencio is studying for an exam using massed sessions at his desk at home. What can you say about Cencio’s study strategy? a) He is not making the best use of his study time because it is helpful to have intervals between learning sessions. b) He is not using an efficient study strategy because massed studying should only occur in the classroom setting for maximum recall. c) He is making the best use of his study time because he will encode the context with the information he is trying to learn. d) He is using an effective strategy as he is more attentionally focused on the subject matter when using few study sessions. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define massed and spaced practice and tell what conditions are best for learning semantic material, such as facts in your classes. Section Reference: Factors That Facilitate Learning 315. Which of the following individuals is likely to get the best grades, given their study strategy?

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a) Min sun, who always studies at her desk b) Irem, who studies for an hour in between classes each day c) Avigail, who studies while watching the Maple Leafs d) Chowa, who pulls an all-nighter studying before the test Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define massed and spaced practice and tell what conditions are best for learning semantic material, such as facts in your classes. Section Reference: Factors That Facilitate Learning 316. Which of the following individuals is likely to have the most effective study strategy? a) Ines who studies in the same place every night b) Mia who studies an hour each night for a week c) Petar who studies while watching the Blue Jays on TV d) Kaspur who stays up all night studying before the test Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define massed and spaced practice and tell what conditions are best for learning semantic material, such as facts in your classes. Section Reference: Factors That Facilitate Learning 317. Maja is studying for an exam using spaced sessions. What can you say about Maja’s study strategy? a) She is not making the best use of her study time because it is best to compress learning sessions for better recall. b) She is using a very efficient study strategy because studying over several learning sessions will enhance recall. c) She is not making the best use of her study time as it is best to study in massed sessions as that approach enhances motivation. d) There is insufficient information to make a judgment regarding Maja’s study strategy. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define massed and spaced practice and tell what conditions are best for learning semantic material, such as facts in your classes. Section Reference: Factors That Facilitate Learning 318. David and Viktoria have an exam in a week. David has been studying for the last two weeks, spreading out his study sessions over several days each week. Viktoria has booked the two days before the exam off work for studying and does not intend to study until then. Who is

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likely to do better on the exam and why? a) Viktoria. Massed studying allows rapid consolidation, and it takes less time than spaced studying. b) David. Spaced studying is superior as it is attentionally undemanding. c) David. Spaced studying is superior as massed studying is less effective since it does not allow enough time between learning trials to maximize learning and can lead to sleep deprivation. d) Viktoria. Massed studying is superior as spaced studying forces the learned material to become associated with many contexts and therefore the learning does not last as long. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define massed and spaced practice and tell what conditions are best for learning semantic material, such as facts in your classes. Section Reference: Factors That Facilitate Learning 319. Which hypothesis is probably the most reasonable regarding the potential influence of massed vs. spaced practice on the relationship between the number of hours spent studying and the degree to which material is learned? a) The correlation between hours of study and degree of learning should be higher for massed than for spaced practice. b) The correlation between hours of study and degree of learning should be negative for massed practice but positive for spaced practice. c) The correlation between hours of study and degree of learning should be zero for massed practice but positive for spaced practice. d) The correlation between hours of study and degree of learning should be lower for massed than for spaced practice. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Define massed and spaced practice and tell what conditions are best for learning semantic material, such as facts in your classes. Section Reference: Factors That Facilitate Learning 320. What two reasons were given in the textbook for why massed studying is NOT a very effective studying technique? a) massed studying does not allow consolidation and it takes longer than spaced studying b) the brain cannot process too much information at once and it uses more energy than spaced studying c) it does not allow enough time between learning trials to maximize learning and it leads to sleep deprivation compared to spaced studying d) it forces the learned material to become associated with a specific context and the learning is not as long-lasting as spaced studying Answer: c

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define massed and spaced practice and tell what conditions are best for learning semantic material, such as facts in your classes. Section Reference: Factors That Facilitate Learning 321. Mass is to ___ as distributed is to ___. a) many; spaced b) spaced; many c) one; many d) many; one Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define massed and spaced practice and tell what conditions are best for learning semantic material, such as facts in your classes. Section Reference: Factors That Facilitate Learning 322. What type of learning trials Is used if a student crams for an exam the night before the test? a) massed b) spaced c) single exposure d) multiple exposure Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define massed and spaced practice and tell what conditions are best for learning semantic material, such as facts in your classes. Section Reference: Factors that Facilitate Learning 323. The idea that if you learn information in only one context you may be less likely to recall it in a different location is called the ___. a) context effect b) semantic effect c) spatial location effect d) distributed studying effect Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define massed and spaced practice and tell what conditions are best for

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learning semantic material, such as facts in your classes. Section Reference: Factors That Facilitate Learning 324. How will learning material in various locations affect the learning process? a) It will increase the reinforcement effect. b) It will ensure that the material is phonologically encoded. c) It will decrease the context effect. d) It will improve multi-tasking. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define massed and spaced practice and tell what conditions are best for learning semantic material, such as facts in your classes. Section Reference: Factors That Facilitate Learning 325. What can you do to decrease the context effect? a) Learn the material in many various locations. b) Learn the material really well in the same context every day. c) Learn the material in the location that testing will occur. d) Learn the material by saying it out loud so that it is phonologically encoded. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define massed and spaced practice and tell what conditions are best for learning semantic material, such as facts in your classes. Section Reference: Factors That Facilitate Learning 326. Professor Yilmaz has told his class they will be writing in the gymnasium rather than in their regular classroom. Which of the following students will have the least difficulty with this? a) Leonie, who studies in her bedroom every evening for the week before the exam b) Fahd, who studies in the gym the day before the exam c) Evengy, who studies in the classroom in which he learned the material d) Irina, who studies in a variety of places during the week before the exam Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define massed and spaced practice and tell what conditions are best for learning semantic material, such as facts in your classes. Section Reference: Factors That Facilitate Learning 327. After studying psychology all semester in the same classroom, you have just found out that

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you will be writing your final exam in the gymnasium. Which is the most likely prediction relative to your performance on your exam? a) You will find it easier to write your exam in the gymnasium because it is a larger, more open space. b) You would do better on your exam if you wrote in the classroom where you studied. c) Where you write your exam will make no difference to your performance. d) You will find it more difficult to write in the gymnasium because there are too many distractions. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define massed and spaced practice and tell what conditions are best for learning semantic material, such as facts in your classes. Section Reference: Factors that Facilitate Learning 328. If a stimulus differs from its surroundings based on one key characteristic it may cause a _______. a) pop-out effect b) Stroop effect c) context effect d) reinforcement effect Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define massed and spaced practice and tell what conditions are best for learning semantic material, such as facts in your classes. Section Reference: Factors That Facilitate Learning 329. If a stimulus is especially different from its surroundings in one way, this can cause a) a Stroop effect. b) a pop-out effect. c) a reinforcement effect. d) a context effect. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define massed and spaced practice and tell what conditions are best for learning semantic material, such as facts in your classes. Section Reference: Factors That Facilitate Learning 330. In the ___, attention to one stimulus blocks our ability to attend to another stimulus. a) pop-out effect

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b) Stroop effect c) context effect d) reinforcement effect Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define massed and spaced practice and tell what conditions are best for learning semantic material, such as facts in your classes. Section Reference: Factors That Facilitate Learning 331. In which of the following circumstances would you experience pop-out? a) locating a rubber band in a photo of a child’s playroom b) finding Waldo in a complex scene c) finding a cross in a group of circles d) finding a blue circle in a field of red squares, blues squares, and red circles Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define massed and spaced practice and tell what conditions are best for learning semantic material, such as facts in your classes. Section Reference: Factors That Facilitate Learning 332. Kimiko is trying to find her friend at a concert. What condition would cause a pop-out effect for her friend? a) Her friend is tall and wearing a black shirt and all the other people are short and wearing black shirts. b) Her friend is short and wearing a black shirt and all the other people are short and either wearing a red or black shirt. c) Her friend is tall and wearing a red shirt and all the other people are either tall or short and wearing red shirts. d) Her friend is short and wearing a black shirt and all the other people are tall or short and wearing red or black shirts. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define massed and spaced practice and tell what conditions are best for learning semantic material, such as facts in your classes. Section Reference: Factors That Facilitate Learning 333. Six-year-old Sammi is trying to find a red circle on a page of coloured circles and squares. What condition would cause a pop-out effect for Sammi? a) A red circle on a page with red squares and blue circles.

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b) A red circle on a page with red squares and blue squares. c) A red circle on a page with blue circles and blue squares. d) Sammi is too young to experience a pop-out effect. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define massed and spaced practice and tell what conditions are best for learning semantic material, such as facts in your classes. Section Reference: Factors That Facilitate Learning 334. What do you predict would happen if you did the Stroop Test on a 3-year old child, one who knew their colours but did not know how to read? a) They would score better than an adult. b) They would score the same as an adult. c) They would score much worse than an adult. d) They would be more easily frustrated with the task than an adult. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Define massed and spaced practice and tell what conditions are best for learning semantic material, such as facts in your classes. Section Reference: Factors That Facilitate Learning 335. Duyi is participating in an experiment that requires him to do the Stroop Test. To which of the following stimuli would you expect him to respond the fastest? a) the colour of the green ink for the word ‘yellow’ b) the colour of the red ink for the word ‘red’ c) the word ‘black’ printed in yellow ink d) the word ‘yellow’ printed in orange ink Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define massed and spaced practice and tell what conditions are best for learning semantic material, such as facts in your classes. Section Reference: Factors That Facilitate Learning 336. Why does the Stroop effect occur? a) because it is more automatic for us to read the word than say the colour of the ink b) because reading is not an automatic process for us c) because people are highly tuned in to colour changes in their environment d) because we can only attend to one stimulus at a time

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Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Define massed and spaced practice and tell what conditions are best for learning semantic material, such as facts in your classes. Section Reference: Factors That Facilitate Learning 337. Atlas was asked to read aloud the colour of animal words such as rabbit, zebra, and duck. Each word was in a colour of ink. (e.g., the word duck was in violet ink and the word zebra was in green, and so on). The researcher timed how long it took Atlas to read the list. Next Atlas read a list of colour words printed in coloured ink. The colour of ink did NOT match the word, that is, the word red was in blue ink and the word green was in brown ink and so on. The researcher once again timed how long it took Atlas to read the list. Atlas took longer to read the second list. Why? a) Attending to the colour word blocks the ability to name the colour of the ink and this interference slowed Atlas down. b) Attending to the colour of animal words frees up working memory and this allowed Atlas to complete the first list quickly. c) Colour words in different colour ink is typically easy to do and so Atlas should have been faster on the second task. The researcher made an error, and the task should be re-timed. d) There is no reason that Atlas should have been faster on one task than the other – the two tasks require similar types of processing. Atlas may have misunderstood the task. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Define massed and spaced practice and tell what conditions are best for learning semantic material, such as facts in your classes. Section Reference: Factors That Facilitate Learning 338. What conclusions about studying can be drawn from the Stroop effect findings? a) Dividing attention increases interest and awareness. b) Multitasking is an efficient way to complete several tasks in a short time. c) Colour coding is a useful way to categorize information. d) The attentional system works maximally when focused on one task. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Define massed and spaced practice and tell what conditions are best for learning semantic material, such as facts in your classes. Section Reference: Factors That Facilitate Learning 339. Drishya was up all-night studying for her Introductory Psychology midterm and did not get any sleep. What is the likely consequence of this?

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a) She will get a better grade than if she had slept all night. b) She will finish the midterm faster than if she had slept all night. c) She will not retain the information as well as if she had slept. d) She will create more memory traces by studying all night. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define massed and spaced practice and tell what conditions are best for learning semantic material, such as facts in your classes. Section Reference: Factors That Facilitate Learning 340. Sleep is important for learning and memory because sleep deprivation impairs our ability to pay attention and learn in all of the following ways except one. Which way does NOT apply? a) weakens attentional mechanisms that guide decision making b) re-establishes synaptic homeostasis c) down-regulates, or reduces, energy levels d) permits newly learned material to integrate with existing memories Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define massed and spaced practice and tell what conditions are best for learning semantic material, such as facts in your classes. Section Reference: Factors That Facilitate Learning 341. Morgan is reading up on the latest ideas about why we sleep. What does the research of Tononi and Cirelli (2014) indicate is the reason we sleep? a) Sleep allows the neurotransmitters to be re-packaged in their synaptic vesicles. b) Sleep allows individual brain areas to process information without input from other brain areas. c) Sleep allows for more creative problem solving because we are not bound by the rules of logic. d) Sleep allows the brain to re-establish synaptic homeostasis. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define massed and spaced practice and tell what conditions are best for learning semantic material, such as facts in your classes. Section Reference: Factors That Facilitate Learning 342. One hotly debated question in psychology is why we sleep. According to Tononi and Cirelli (2014), sleep is very important for learning and memory. Specifically, they argue that a) sleep allows neurotransmitters to be recycled.

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b) sleep decreases cortical synaptic strength. c) sleep restores homeostatic imbalance, so the brain is ready to fire the next day. d) sleep prevents brain areas from sharing information and allows each area to process its own information. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define massed and spaced practice and tell what conditions are best for learning semantic material, such as facts in your classes. Section Reference: Factors That Facilitate Learning 343. What is the important role that sleep plays with learning and memory, according to Tononi and Cirelli (2014)? a) Sleep allows neurotransmitters to be recycled. b) Sleep decreases cortical synaptic strength. c) Sleep restores homeostatic imbalance, so the brain is ready to fire the next day. d) Sleep prevents brain areas from sharing information and allows each area to process its own information. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define massed and spaced practice and tell what conditions are best for learning semantic material, such as facts in your classes. Section Reference: Factors That Facilitate Learning 344. Eden did not get enough sleep last night because she was up all-night studying for a midterm. What is the likely consequence of this? a) she will get a better grade than if she had slept all night b) she will finish the midterm faster than if she had slept all night c) she will not retain the information as well as if she had slept d) she will create more memory traces by studying all night Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define massed and spaced practice and tell what conditions are best for learning semantic material, such as facts in your classes. Section Reference: Factors That Facilitate Learning 345. Damian is meeting with his psychology study group to discuss why we sleep and how sleep has a role in learning and memory. Which student’s view is consistent with the work of Tononi and Cirelli (2014)? a) Damian argues that sleep allows the neurotransmitters to be re-packaged in their synaptic

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

vesicles. b) Thanh says that sleep allows individual brain areas to process information without input from other brain areas. c) Haru posits that sleep allows for more creative problem solving because we’re not bound by the rules of logic. d) Dagmar believes that sleep allows the brain to re-establish synaptic homeostasis. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define massed and spaced practice and tell what conditions are best for learning semantic material, such as facts in your classes. Section Reference: Factors That Facilitate Learning 346. For which of the following types of learning is attention and awareness probably the most important? a) semantic learning b) procedural learning c) non-associative learning d) classical conditioning Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define massed and spaced practice and tell what conditions are best for learning semantic material, such as facts in your classes. Section Reference: Factors That Facilitate Learning 347. The fact that prenatal exposure to garlic causes newborns to NOT react to garlic odours suggests that a) prenatal infants are capable of habituation. b) prenatal infants can do classical conditioning. c) prenatal infants can show sensitization. d) prenatal infants can do operant conditioning. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the types of learning that occur before we are born and during early postnatal life. Section Reference: Prenatal and Postnatal Learning 348. Studies with garlic suggest that fetuses can engage in what type(s) of learning? a) non-associative b) habituation

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c) sensitization d) all the above Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the types of learning that occur before we are born and during early postnatal life. Section Reference: Prenatal and Postnatal Learning 349. All the following kinds of learning have been demonstrated prenatally or shortly after birth EXCEPT a) non-associative learning. b) classical conditioning. c) operant conditioning. d) insight learning. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the types of learning that occur before we are born and during early postnatal life. Section Reference: Prenatal and Postnatal Learning 350. What kind of learning has NOT been demonstrated prenatally or shortly after birth? a) non-associative learning b) classical conditioning c) operant conditioning d) insight learning Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the types of learning that occur before we are born and during early postnatal life. Section Reference: Prenatal and Postnatal Learning 351. In which of the following studies can we say that the infant has undergone habituation from prenatal exposure? a) The infant relaxes when hearing a specific song because that song was previously paired with relaxation. b) The infant sucks longer and harder to hear their mother read a story that they were exposed to prenatally than another story. c) An infant does not avoid the odour of garlic after prenatal exposure to garlic through the mother’s digestion.

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

d) The infant copies the facial expression of an adult who is in their visual field. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Summarize the types of learning that occur before we are born and during early postnatal life. Section Reference: Prenatal and Postnatal Learning 352. The fact that children learn language best from face-to-face interactions rather than from passively listening supports the idea that: a) imitation is innate by emphasizing the importance of social learning in cognitive growth b) language is innate by emphasizing the importance of being in control of one’s own linguistic environment c) imitation is learned by emphasizing the importance of passive exposure to many problemsolving examples d) language is learned by emphasizing the importance of independent thinking in cognitive development Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Summarize the types of learning that occur before we are born and during early postnatal life. Section Reference: Prenatal and Postnatal Learning 353. Seth is a newborn who spent the last two months in his mother’s womb going through periods in which he would hear ‘Clair de lune’ followed by a feeling of maternal relaxation. What do you expect would happen if Seth heard that song after he was born? a) he would not recognize it, the sounds in the womb are drastically different from the sounds outside of the womb b) he would relax, having paired the song with relaxation c) he would become excited by the fact that he recognized the song d) he would get hungry, having linked the song with a state of homeostasis Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the types of learning that occur before we are born and during early postnatal life. Section Reference: Prenatal and Postnatal Learning 354. What evidence suggests that the ability to imitate the behaviour of another is instinctual? a) Newborn infants remember the flavour of garlic from prenatal exposure through their mother’s

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rea and don’t avoid it. b) Newborn infants prefer to listen to a song that, prenatally, always came before maternal relaxation. c) Newborns will copy a simple facial expression of an adult in their visual field. d) Newborns will suck longer and harder to hear their mother’s voice reading a story that they were exposed to prenatally. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the types of learning that occur before we are born and during early postnatal life. Section Reference: Prenatal and Postnatal Learning 355. The fact that newborns can copy the facial expressions of an adult model suggest that a) newborns can do classical conditioning. b) newborns can do operant conditioning. c) newborns are capable of imitation. d) newborns show habituation. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the types of learning that occur before we are born and during early postnatal life. Section Reference: Prenatal and Postnatal Learning 356. What piece of evidence supports the idea that imitation is innate by emphasizing the importance of social learning in cognitive growth? a) Children learn language best from face-to-face interactions rather than from passively listening to it. b) Children are born with a sense of self and need to learn to deceive. c) Children learn how to act a certain way by watching how adults act in different situations. d) Children are instinctively social because this was adaptive to our ancestors. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the types of learning that occur before we are born and during early postnatal life. Section Reference: Prenatal and Postnatal Learning 357. The fact that newborn Petra will copy a simple facial expression of an adult in her visual field suggests that a) classical and operant conditioning occur later in development.

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b) the ability to imitate the behaviour of another is instinctual. c) most of our cognitive abilities build upon our observations of others. d) we are born without any innate knowledge. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the types of learning that occur before we are born and during early postnatal life. Section Reference: Prenatal and Postnatal Learning 358. Daniel has just gone through a long night of supporting his wife through the birth of their son. Now, as his wife rests, he gets to hold his newborn for the first time, and they get a good look at each other. After finally feeling relaxed in the quiet of the moment, Daniel yawns. What do you predict his son will do in response? a) Cry because a wide-open mouth is instinctively threatening. b) Drop off to sleep as the yawn is instinctively interpreted as a signal to sleep. c) Laugh because his dad looks funny when he yawns. d) Open his mouth wide because newborns can imitate simple facial expressions. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the types of learning that occur before we are born and during early postnatal life. Section Reference: Prenatal and Postnatal Learning 359. Wakwi is visiting her cousin’s newborn baby in the hospital and has a special moment of holding the baby with eye contact. Wakwi purses her lips at the baby, as if she is about to kiss the baby. Based on the work of Meltzoff and Moore (1977), what do you expect the baby will do? a) the baby will cry, not knowing what lip pursing means b) the baby will perform sucking motions, getting Wakwi’s mouth mixed up with a nipple c) the baby will smile, as this would be the first time, she would have seen something like that d) the baby will purse their own lips Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the types of learning that occur before we are born and during early postnatal life. Section Reference: Prenatal and Postnatal Learning 360. When does non-associative learning develop? a) prenatally

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b) in the first days of life c) in the first several months of life d) in the second year of life Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the types of learning that occur before we are born and during early postnatal life. Section Reference: Prenatal and Postnatal Learning 361. The fact that prenatal exposure to mothers reading the ‘Cat in the Hat’ aloud, causes newborns to suck harder and longer to hear their mother’s read the ‘Cat in the Hat’ after birth, suggests that a) newborns are capable of habituation. b) newborns are capable of operant conditioning. c) newborns can be classically conditioned. d) newborns can habituate. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the types of learning that occur before we are born and during early postnatal life. Section Reference: Prenatal and Postnatal Learning 362. Beatrice’s mother read the Dr. Seuss book ‘Green Eggs and Ham’ to her beginning a few months before she was born. According to the work of DeCasper and Spence (1986), for which of the following would Beatrice show a preference after she was born? a) anyone reading any Dr. Seuss book b) her mother reading any Dr. Seuss book c) any woman’s voice reading ‘Green Eggs and Ham’ d) her mother’s voice reading ‘Green Eggs and Ham’ Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the types of learning that occur before we are born and during early postnatal life. Section Reference: Prenatal and Postnatal Learning 363. What piece of evidence shows us that newborns are capable of operant conditioning? a) Prenatal exposure to garlic does not react to garlic odours after birth. b) Prenatal exposure to ‘Cat in the Hat’ causes newborns to suck harder and longer to hear their mother’s read ‘Cat in the Hat’.

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

c) Prenatal exposure to a specific song paired with relaxation caused newborns to relax following the presentation of that song. d) Newborns can imitate different facial expressions. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the types of learning that occur before we are born and during early postnatal life. Section Reference: Prenatal and Postnatal Learning 364. Ha-eun, a newborn, has learned that if she sucks harder on a special pacifier that she can hear her mother’s voice reading her favourite story. What kind of learning is this? a) habituation b) classical conditioning c) operant conditioning d) observational learning Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the types of learning that occur before we are born and during early postnatal life. Section Reference: Prenatal and Postnatal Learning 365. When Aisling was in the last 2 months of her pregnancy, she listened to Enya before she did her relaxation meditation. What do you expect would happen if Aisling’s newborn son heard the song? a) He would not recognize it, the sounds in the womb are drastically different from the sounds outside of the womb. b) He would relax, having paired the song with relaxation. c) He would become excited by the fact that he recognized the song. d) He would get hungry, having linked the song with a state of homeostasis. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the types of learning that occur before we are born and during early postnatal life. Section Reference: Prenatal and Postnatal Learning 366. Your text mentions a study in which music was paired with relaxation exercises performed by expectant mothers. The study demonstrated classical conditioning may occur prenatally. Which of the following alternatives correctly identifies the CS and CR in this study? a) CS – music; CR – decrease in fetal movement to music alone

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b) CS – maternal relaxation; CR – decrease in fetal movement in response to maternal relaxation c) CS – music; CR – maternal relaxation d) CS – maternal relaxation; CR – decrease in fetal movement to music alone Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the types of learning that occur before we are born and during early postnatal life. Section Reference: Prenatal and Postnatal Learning 367. According to the DSM-5, a disorder in one or more of the basic psychological processes involved in spoken or written language is called a a) learning disability. b) specific learning disorder. c) disorder of written expression. d) reading disorder. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define specific learning disorder and describe three major types of learning disorders. Section Reference: Specific Learning Disorder 368. According to the DSM-5, a specific learning disorder is a) a developmental disorder of intellectual functioning. b) a disorder in one or more of the basic psychological processes involved in spoken or written language. c) a disorder that is defined as having below average abilities essential for thinking or reasoning. d) a disorder involving difficulty acquiring information due to visual and/or auditory problems. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define specific learning disorder and describe three major types of learning disorders. Section Reference: Specific Learning Disorder 369. The PACFOLD data shows that approximately ___ percent of Canadian children between 6 and 15 years have a specific learning disorder. a) 0.002 b) 1.5 c) 5

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d) 8 Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define specific learning disorder and describe three major types of learning disorders. Section Reference: Specific Learning Disorder 370. When are learning problems typically detected in children, according to data from PACFOLD? a) in preschool b) in Grade 1 c) in Grade 3 d) in Grade 5 Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define specific learning disorder and describe three major types of learning disorders. Section Reference: Specific Learning Disorder 371. The difference between a specific learning disorder and an intellectual developmental disorder is that with a specific learning disorder ___ while with an intellectual developmental disorder ___. a) the person has at least average intelligence; the person is below average intelligence b) the person was born with it; it appeared gradually over time c) there is no treatment; there are learning tools that can overcome the deficits d) there is a genetic component; it is strictly due to environmental conditions Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define specific learning disorder and describe three major types of learning disorders. Section Reference: Specific Learning Disorder 372. How is a specific learning disorder different from an intellectual developmental disorder? a) With a specific learning disorder, the person has at least average intelligence, and with an intellectual developmental disorder they do not. b) With a specific learning disorder, the person was born with it, and with an intellectual developmental disorder it appeared gradually over time. c) With a specific learning disorder there is no treatment, and with an intellectual developmental disorder there are learning tools that can overcome the deficits.

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d) With a specific learning disorder there is a genetic component and with an intellectual developmental disorder it is strictly due to environmental conditions. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define specific learning disorder and describe three major types of learning disorders. Section Reference: Specific Learning Disorder 373. Kichiro is in grade 3 and struggles with reading and writing. His parents had him tested because his grades were poor, and they did not find anything wrong with his intelligence. Most likely, Kichiro a) has a developmental disorder. b) has a genetic disorder. c) has a specific learning disorder. d) has dyscalculia. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define specific learning disorder and describe three major types of learning disorders. Section Reference: Specific Learning Disorder 374. Kendall is meeting with his psychology study group and they are discussing the three major categories of learning disorders, although they can’t agree on who has it right. What do you think? a) Kendall says that the major categories of learning disorders are communication disorder, social disorder, and emotional disorder. b) Marshall says that the major categories of learning disorders are anxiety disorder, mood disorder, and panic disorder. c) Allie says that the major categories of learning disorders are science disorder, English disorder, and math disorder. d) Ceilidh says that the major categories of learning disorders are reading disorder, math disorder, and writing disorder. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define specific learning disorder and describe three major types of learning disorders. Section Reference: Specific Learning Disorder 375. Delfia has difficulty with reading and writing, although she scores above normal on an

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intelligence test. Most likely, Delfia a) has a developmental disorder. b) has a genetic disorder. c) has a specific learning disorder. d) has dyscalculia. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define specific learning disorder and describe three major types of learning disorders. Section Reference: Specific Learning Disorder 376. Ethan has a specific learning disorder. If Ethan is a typical individual with a learning disorder, what can we conclude is also true about Ethan? a) He has an intellectual developmental disorder. b) He has average or better abilities for thinking and reasoning. c) He has visual and/or auditory problems. d) He is gifted. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define specific learning disorder and describe three major types of learning disorders. Section Reference: Specific Learning Disorder 377. Graciela is in high school now but has always been far behind her peers when it came to reading, even though she excels in other subjects like math. With reading, she finds that she spends so much mental energy just deciphering the letters in the words that she has no idea about the meaning of what she is reading. What is likely going on with Graciela? a) She has dyscalculia. b) She has a disorder of written expression. c) She has dyslexia. d) She has a reading disorder. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define specific learning disorder and describe three major types of learning disorders. Section Reference: Specific Learning Disorder 378. Aylinis in the 4th grade and although she does well in subjects that involve reading or writing, she does horribly in math. She still gets mixed up when she counts, and she can’t draw

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all her numbers properly. What is likely going on with Aylin? a) She has dyscalculia. b) She has a reading disorder. c) She has a writing disorder. d) She has dysgraphia. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define specific learning disorder and describe three major types of learning disorders. Section Reference: Specific Learning Disorder 379. Mei-ling is in grade 3 now and far behind the other kids in her class when it comes to reading. She does not recognize words or letters like the other children do, although she does well in other subjects like math. What is likely going on with Mei-ling? a) She has dyscalculia. b) She has a disorder of written expression. c) She has dyslexia. d) She has a mathematics disorder. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define specific learning disorder and describe three major types of learning disorders. Section Reference: Specific Learning Disorder 380. Joo-won has great difficulty with anything mathematical. He has difficulty counting numbers accurately, recalling math symbols, doing word problems, or understanding graphs. What is likely going on with Joo-won? a) He has dyscalculia. b) He has a reading disorder. c) He has a writing disorder. d) He has dysgraphia. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define specific learning disorder and describe three major types of learning disorders. Section Reference: Specific Learning Disorder 381. Another word for a disorder of written expression is a) dyslexia.

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b) dysgraphia. c) dyscalculia. d) dysfunctionia. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define specific learning disorder and describe three major types of learning disorders. Section Reference: Specific Learning Disorder 382. Kimron is in high school but still struggles with writing. His handwriting is awful, as well as his spelling and grammar. He knows what he wants to say in his head, but he just can’t express that in writing. What could be going on with Kimron? a) dyslexia b) dyscalculia c) dysgraphia d) a mathematics disorder Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define specific learning disorder and describe three major types of learning disorders. Section Reference: Specific Learning Disorder 383. Which of the following individuals has dysgraphia? a) Kalfia who has difficulties organizing and expressing thoughts in written form b) Jorah who has difficulties with spelling and grammar c) Nila who has difficulties understanding graphs and charts d) Giffin who has difficulties recognizing individual words and letters Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define specific learning disorder and describe three major types of learning disorders. Section Reference: Specific Learning Disorder 384. Which of the following individuals has a reading disorder? a) Brody who has difficulties organizing and expressing thoughts in written form b) Tamir who has difficulties with spelling and grammar c) Jia who has difficulties understanding graphs and charts d) Milo who has difficulties recognizing individual words and letters

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Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define specific learning disorder and describe three major types of learning disorders. Section Reference: Specific Learning Disorder 385. Which of the following individuals has dyscalculia? a) Conor who has difficulties reading a paragraph b) Joshua who has difficulties solving word problems and performing simple mathematical equations c) Talan who has difficulties writing his thoughts in a sentence d) Grayden who has difficulties with spelling and grammar Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define specific learning disorder and describe three major types of learning disorders. Section Reference: Specific Learning Disorder 386. Which of the following terms is used to describe an inability to readily acquire information about mathematics? a) hyperactivity b) attention deficit c) dyslexia d) dyscalculia Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define specific learning disorder and describe three major types of learning disorders. Section Reference: Specific Learning Disorder 387. The difference between dyslexia and dysgraphia is that dyslexia ___ while dysgraphia ___. a) involves language; involves math b) is a developmental disorder; is innate c) involves reading; involves writing d) is due to poor environmental conditions; is genetic Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

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Learning Objective: Define specific learning disorder and describe three major types of learning disorders. Section Reference: Specific Learning Disorder 388. Which of the following ‘specific learning disorders’ both involve language abilities? a) dyslexia and dyscalculia b) dyscalculia and dysgraphia c) dysgraphia and dyslexia d) dyslexia and dyslinguia Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define specific learning disorder and describe three major types of learning disorders. Section Reference: Specific Learning Disorder 389. Professor Histerman has referred one of his students to be assessed for a specific learning disorder after he notices many issues with his term paper. Specifically, the student has poorly communicated and organized his thoughts and showed extremely poor grammar. Professor Histerman also recalls that he had difficulty deciphering the student’s hand-written answers on the midterms. Which of the following specific learning disorders might the student have? a) dyslexia b) dyscalculia c) dysgraphia d) ADHD Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define specific learning disorder and describe three major types of learning disorders. Section Reference: Specific Learning Disorder 390. Ella is helping her 12-year-old son with his math homework. She notices that he is having difficulty with simple mathematical calculations and cannot seem to recall math symbols. If Ella were to have her son tested for a specific learning disorder, which of the following might the tests indicate? a) mathematical dyslexia b) dysgraphia c) dyslexia d) dyscalculia Answer: d Difficulty: Medium

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Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define specific learning disorder and describe three major types of learning disorders. Section Reference: Specific Learning Disorder 391. According to your text, which is the most common type of learning disorder? a) agnosia b) attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) c) dyscalculia d) dyslexia Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define specific learning disorder and describe three major types of learning disorders. Section Reference: Specific Learning Disorder 392. Neuroimaging studies have revealed that as compared to children without the disability, children with dyslexia have reduced blood flow in the a) basal ganglia. b) left prefrontal cortex. c) right parietotemporal cortex. d) left parietotemporal cortex. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define specific learning disorder and describe three major types of learning disorders. Section Reference: Specific Learning Disorder 393. Which region or regions of the cortex seem to be involved in dyscalculia? a) right parietal and frontal cortex b) left parietal and frontal cortex c) left parietotemporal cortex d) right parietotemporal cortex Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define specific learning disorder and describe three major types of learning disorders. Section Reference: Specific Learning Disorder

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MATCHING QUESTION 394. Match the appropriate words in the left column to the definitions in the right column. Terms A. Habituation B. Sensitization C. Unconditioned stimulus D. Conditioned stimulus E. Stimulus discrimination F. Stimulus generalization G. Extinction H. Spontaneous recovery I. Classical conditioning J. Operant conditioning K. Positive reinforcement L. Negative reinforcement M. Positive punishment N. Negative punishment O. Primary reinforcers P. Secondary reinforcers Q. Observational learning R. Shaping

___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___

Definitions 1. Reduction of a conditioned response after repeated presentations of the conditioned stimulus alone. 2. Similar stimuli elicit the same response as a conditioned stimulus. 3. When behaviour is modified based on the consequences of previous behaviour. 4. Removal of an unpleasant stimulus after a response increases the probability that the behaviour will reoccur. 5. Repeated presentation of a stimulus leads to a reduction in response. 6. Presentation of an unpleasant consequence following a behaviour, decreases the probability of the behaviour being repeated. 7. A stimulus that has survival value and is therefore intrinsically rewarding. 8. A stimulus that on its own elicits a response. 9. Introducing new behaviour by reinforcing close approximations of the desired. 10. Re-emergence of a conditioned response sometime after extinction has occurred.

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ANSWERS TO MATCHING QUESTION 1.

G: Extinction

F: Stimulus generalization

J: Operant conditioning

L: Negative reinforcement

A: Habituation

M: Positive punishment

O: Primary reinforcers

C: Unconditioned stimulus

R: Shaping

10. H: Spontaneous recovery

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FILL-IN-THE-BLANK 395. The clear majority of learning that occurs in complex organisms is ___ learning. Answer: associative Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define learning and distinguish between associative and non-associative learning. Section Reference: What Is Learning? 396. Tina’s baby is initially very interested in the new rattle Tina bought for him; however, after a few minutes the baby looks away and becomes restless. This demonstrates ___. Answer: habituation Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define learning and distinguish between associative and non-associative learning. Section Reference: What Is Learning? 397. Sensitization is the result of a/an ___ in response whereas habituation is the result of a ___in response. Answer: increase; decrease Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define learning and distinguish between associative and non-associative learning. Section Reference: What Is Learning? 398. In classical conditioning, a previously ___ stimulus is associated with an unconditioned stimulus that naturally elicits some response. Answer: neutral Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning

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399. Evidence that the CS–US pairing still exists after extinction training can be recognized when the CR re-emerges at a later date in a phenomenon known as ___. Answer: spontaneous recovery Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 400. Watson’s studies with “Little Albert” would NOT be conducted today because they violate the ___ guidelines of psychological research. Answer: ethical Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 401. One approach to treating phobias is the presentation of a series of extinction trials in a process known as ___. Answer: systematic desensitization Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 402. The tendency of an organism to respond to one stimulus but NOT to another similar stimulus is called ___. Answer: stimulus discrimination Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 403. ___ occurs when a previously conditioned stimulus functions as if it is an unconditioned stimulus for further conditioning.

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Answer: Higher-order conditioning Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 404. Positive reinforcement is associated with the provision of a ___ stimulus. Answer: motivating Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 405. A ___ punisher is one that is naturally aversive to an organism, whereas a ___ punisher is one that becomes aversive through learning. Answer: primary; secondary Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 406. “Time out” is a form of ___ punishment. Answer: negative Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 407. Upon accumulating 10 “punches” on a store rewards card for buying 10 sub sandwiches, Abdul will get a free sandwich. This circumstance illustrates a ___ reinforcement schedule. Answer: fixed ratio Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how

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shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 408. Shaping as a means for teaching new behaviours relies on rewarding successive ___ of the desired behaviours until the complete behavioural sequence emerges. Answer: approximations Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 409. Humans learn by observing ___ models. Answer: role Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define observational learning and summarize concerns about observational learning from the media. Section Reference: Observational Learning 410. Chara’s mother has been helping her study her multiplication tables but does NOT seem to be making any progress. After an hour, her mother offers Chara the chance to play a video game if she learns the six times table. Chara immediately recites it without any help or prompting whatsoever. This is an example of ___ learning. Answer: latent Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define observational learning and summarize concerns about observational learning from the media. Section Reference: Observational Learning 411. Hours after giving up on a problem, you are driving home from school when the answer suddenly comes to you. This would be an example of ___learning. Answer: insight Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define observational learning and summarize concerns about observational learning from the media. Section Reference: Observational Learning

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412. George worked on his physics problem for twenty minutes before he had a “eureka” moment. A “eureka” moment is referred to as ___ learning. Answer: insight Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define spatial navigation learning, implicit and latent learning, and insight learning. Section Reference: Learning and Cognition 413. Learning that occurs without awareness is called ___. Answer: implicit learning Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define spatial navigation learning, implicit and latent learning, and insight learning. Section Reference: Learning and Cognition 414. Learning trials that occur over time are ___. Answer: spaced Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define massed and spaced practice and tell what conditions are best for learning semantic material, such as facts in your classes. Section Reference: Factors that Facilitate Learning 415. Studying in a variety of locations increase your chance of forming a strong memory of the information. This is due to ___. Answer: context effects Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define massed and spaced practice and tell what conditions are best for learning semantic material, such as facts in your classes. Section Reference: Factors that Facilitate Learning 416. Linh has been presented with a list of colour words printed in a non-matching ink colour. Although she is told to ignore the word and name the colour, she finds that she is inclined to read the word. This is known as the ___.

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Answer: Stroop Effect Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define massed and spaced practice and tell what conditions are best for learning semantic material, such as facts in your classes. Section Reference: Factors That Facilitate Learning 417. According to recent research, students who study while using Facebook have lower grade point averages. This means there is a ___ correlation between Facebook use and GPA. Answer: negative Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective: Define massed and spaced practice and tell what conditions are best for learning semantic material, such as facts in your classes. Section Reference: Factors that Facilitate Learning 418. ___ learning can occur prenatally as indicated by infants exhibiting both ___ and ___ to the odour of garlic. Answer: Non-associative; habituation; sensitization Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the types of learning that occur before we are born and during early postnatal life. Section Reference: Prenatal and Postnatal Learning 419. When repeatedly exposed prenatally to specific music and relaxation exercises, exposure to the same music resulted in lower fetal movement. This suggests that ___ learning is possible even before birth. Answer: associative Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the types of learning that occur before we are born and during early postnatal life. Section Reference: Prenatal and Postnatal Learning 420. A deficiency in learning to read is referred to as ___. Answer: dyslexia

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define specific learning disorder and describe three major types of learning disorders. Section Reference: Specific Learning Disorder 421. Jeremy is failing his math class. He finds it very difficult to perform simple mathematical equations, recall math symbols, and count accurately. He particularly has difficulty solving word problems. Jeremy may have the learning disorder known as ___. Answer: dyscalculia Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define specific learning disorder and describe three major types of learning disorders. Section Reference: Specific Learning Disorder

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SHORT ANSWER ESSAY QUESTIONS 422. Name two major types of associative conditioning. Answer: classical and operant conditioning Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define learning and distinguish between associative and non-associative learning. Section Reference: What Is Learning? 423. Name two major types of non-associative learning. Answer: habituation and sensitization Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 424. What does the term “unconditioned” refer to in the context of classical conditioning? Answer: not learned Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 425. Even after Pavlov’s assistant stopped bringing food to the dogs during visits, the dogs salivated weeks later when they saw the assistant. What learning phenomenon does this describe? Answer: spontaneous recovery Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 426. In Watson’s studies, what initially neutral stimulus did “Little Albert” eventually come to

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fear? Answer: white rat Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 427. What two groups of individuals may be especially vulnerable to conditioned taste aversion? Answer: pregnant women and those undergoing chemotherapy Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 428. What school of thought in psychology was dedicated to understanding the principles of operant conditioning? Answer: behaviourism Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 429. What learning phenomenon involves administering an unpleasant consequence? Answer: positive punishment Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 430. What reinforcement schedule is based on elapsed time? Answer: interval Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

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Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 431. What behaviour occurs when prior experiences involving inescapable punishment lead people or animals to accept punishing consequences when they could be avoided? Answer: learned helplessness Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 432. Who conducted the Bobo doll experiment? Answer: Albert Bandura Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define observational learning and summarize concerns about observational learning from the media. Section Reference: Observational Learning 433. Name one type of learning that does NOT involve the provision of obvious reinforcement. Answer: latent or insight learning Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define spatial navigation learning, implicit and latent learning, and insight learning. Section Reference: Learning and Cognition 434. What type of information do we most often learn about in educational courses? Answer: semantic or factual Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define massed and spaced practice and tell what conditions are best for learning semantic material, such as facts in your classes. Section Reference: Factors that Facilitate Learning 435. Name three specific types of learning that can occur prenatally in fetuses.

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Answer: classical conditioning, habituation, and sensitization (associative and non-associative learning) Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the types of learning that occur before we are born and during early postnatal life. Section Reference: Prenatal and Postnatal Learning 436. Jeremy is failing his math class. He finds it very difficult to perform simple mathematical equations, recall math symbols, and count accurately. He particularly has difficulty solving word problems. Which specific learning disorder might Jeremy have? Answer: dyscalculia Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define specific learning disorder and describe three major types of learning disorders. Section Reference: Specific Learning Disorder 437. Name three categories of learning disorders described in the DSM-5. Answer: reading disorders, mathematics disorders, and disorders of written expression Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define specific learning disorder and describe three major types of learning disorders. Section Reference: Specific Learning Disorder

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ESSAY QUESTIONS 438. Differentiate between associative and non-associative learning. Answer: Associative learning is characterized by linking two or more environmental stimuli together whereas non-associative learning involves a change based on experiences that occurs without linking stimuli together. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define learning and distinguish between associative and non-associative learning. Section Reference: What Is Learning? 439. Provide examples from your own life that illustrate an instance of habituation and sensitization. Answer: Example in which habituation leads to a decreased response and sensitization leads to an increased response. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define learning and distinguish between associative and non-associative learning. Section Reference: What Is Learning? 440. How do phobias develop? Answer: Learning associations between a neutral and a dangerous stimulus so that they come to fear a relatively harmless cue. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 441. Name two factors that influence the acquisition stage of learning. Answer: number of pairings and timing between the pairing of the unconditioned and conditioned stimuli Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning.

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Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 442. Identify the US, UR, CS, and CR of Pavlov’s initial study with the lab assistant. Answer: Food was the unconditioned stimulus (US) which produced salivation as the unconditioned response (UR). Initially the sight of the lab assistant was neutral, but the mere sight of the assistant paired with food (CS) eventually led to salivation (CR). Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 443. Describe how extinction occurs in the context of classical conditioning. Answer: Extinction occurs after repeated presentation of the CS without the UC. For example, in Pavlov’s studies, the lab assistant would appear, but not provide the dogs with food. Eventually, the salivation at the sight of the assistant stopped. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 444. Define stimulus generalization and describe how “Little Albert’s” fears became generalized. Answer: Similar stimuli elicit the same response as the CS. Albert’s fear of white rats generalized to fear of other white stimuli such as people with white beards. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 445. Provide an example of a specific phobia. Explain how the condition may have developed through classical conditioning by identifying the sequence of events associated with the US, UR, CS, and CR. Answer: One example is arachnophobia (fear of spiders). At some time in the past, a person may have been bitten by a spider (US) which resulted in pain (UR). Now the mere sight of a spider (CS) leads to an unreasonable degree of fear (CR). Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 446. Explain how a conditioned taste aversion occurs by identifying the US, UR, CS, and CR. Answer: true cause of illness (US) and sickness (UR); food (CS) and resulting nausea (CR) Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of classical conditioning and explain how classical conditioning is relevant to learning. Section Reference: Classical Conditioning 447. Describe Thorndike’s “puzzle box” experiment. Answer: Thorndike placed cats inside a box where they had to press a pedal to escape. Escape led to a food reward. The first escape was due to random behaviours of stepping on the pedal, but later escapes occurred more quickly when cats would immediately press the pedal to escape and get the food reward. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 448. Describe the difference between positive and negative punishment and provide an example of each. Answer: Positive punishment is when an aversive stimulus is presented to weaken a response (e.g., scolding). Negative punishment is when a pleasant stimulus is removed to weaken a response (e.g., removal of privileges) Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 449. Which has been shown to be more effective: punishment or reinforcement? Why? Answer: Reinforcement is more effective because it shows the organism how to behave in the future. Punishment just stops the current behaviour. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis

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Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 450. Provide one circumstance when “time out” may be effective and one when it might be ineffective. Answer: It may be effective if the child is acting out to gain attention. It may be ineffective if the child is placed in an environment where there are entertainment options available (TV, games, etc.) Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 451. What is the difference between a primary and secondary reinforcer? Provide an example of each. Answer: Primary reinforcers fulfill basic biological needs whereas secondary reinforcers are designed to increase the likelihood of obtaining a primary reinforcer. Examples are food and money. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 452. Define and provide examples of fixed- and variable-interval schedules of reinforcement. Answer: Fixed-interval schedules provide rewards after a certain amount of time has elapsed (e.g., weekly pay cheque). Variable-interval schedules provide rewards after varying lengths of time (e.g., games). Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 453. What is the difference between mimicry and observational learning? Answer: In observational learning the behaviour is not necessarily repeated. In mimicry, the behaviour of the model is repeated.

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 454. Describe how battered spouse syndrome may result from learned helplessness. Answer: Repeated, inescapable abuse by a spouse may lead the battered individual to accept the abuse without attempting to avoid or stop it. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the basic processes of operant conditioning and explain how shaping can be used to teach new behaviours. Section Reference: Operant Conditioning 455. Describe the methodology and the results of the Bobo doll study. Answer: One group of children saw a video of a woman beating up an inflatable doll. Then, they were given the opportunity to play in a room full of toys. Children who had seen the video were twice as likely to display violent behaviours toward the Bobo doll as children who had not seen the video. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define observational learning and summarize concerns about observational learning from the media. Section Reference: Observational Learning 456. Describe why correlational evidence does NOT imply causality when describing the relationship between television watching and child aggression. Answer: Illustrates that two variables are related; one does not necessarily cause the other. Children who watch television excessively may have less positive environmental influences in their lives. Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Define observational learning and summarize concerns about observational learning from the media. Section Reference: Observational Learning 457. Describe an example of insight learning from your own experience. Answer: Unsuccessful work on a difficult problem and a “eureka” moment at a later time that occurs when the solution became obvious.

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define spatial navigation learning, implicit and latent learning, and insight learning. Section Reference: Learning and Cognition 458. Based on the discussion in the textbook, describe three study strategies that would enhance a student’s learning and preparation for exams. Answer: distributed practice, study in various places, plenty of sleep, multiple exposure to the material in different ways (lecture, textbook, etc.) Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define massed and spaced practice and tell what conditions are best for learning semantic material, such as facts in your classes. Section Reference: Factors that Facilitate Learning 459. Awareness and attention usually enhance learning. Describe an instance when awareness and excessive attention may impair learning. Answer: Procedural learning such as skills demonstrated by gymnasts may be impaired by excessive attention. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define massed and spaced practice and tell what conditions are best for learning semantic material, such as facts in your classes. Section Reference: Factors that Facilitate Learning 460. Describe what behaviours in habituation studies allow psychologists to determine that newborns can distinguish between new and familiar stimuli. Answer: Newborns typically stop moving when they are exposed to new stimuli. When they stop displaying this behaviour, they have become accustomed to the new stimuli and they recognize it. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the types of learning that occur before we are born and during early postnatal life. Section Reference: Prenatal and Postnatal Learning 461. Miriam has just purchased several baby educational videos in the hopes that it will help her three-month-old daughter with language development. What advice would you give to Miriam about how effective this strategy will be? Why?

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Answer: Infants learn language best from face-to-face interactions rather than video or television because social learning plays a key role in cognitive development. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the types of learning that occur before we are born and during early postnatal life. Section Reference: Prenatal and Postnatal Learning 462. Discuss the relationship between specific learning disorder and intellectual ability. Answer: Specific learning disorders are distinct from intellectual disorders. In fact, having an intellectual disorder precludes the diagnosis of a specific learning disorder. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define specific learning disorder and describe three major types of learning disorders. Section Reference: Specific Learning Disorder 463. Describe the symptoms of dyslexia. Answer: deficits in reading comprehension, written spelling, and word recognition. Some also have visual processing deficits that produce perceptual problems. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define specific learning disorder and describe three major types of learning disorders. Section Reference: Specific Learning Disorder

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CHAPTER 8 MEMORY CHAPTER LEARNING OBJECTIVES 1. Define the basic activities of memory and describe two major models of memory. • Memory is our faculty for holding on to past events and past learning. It involves three basic activities: encoding, storage, and retrieval. • Researchers typically take an information-processing approach to memory, talking about different memory stores that work together in a similar way to parts of a computer, each serving particular functions and holding information for varying lengths of time. • PDP or connectionist models of memory suggest that information is stored not in a particular neuron or location in the brain, but instead across a network of connections. 2. Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. • Encoding refers to taking information in and putting it into memory. • Encoding can happen either automatically or through effortful processing. Either way, however, a person must attend to something to put it into memory. • One of the most common means of effortful processing is rehearsal of material. • Encoding takes place in the form of phonological, sound, or visual codes. 3. Describe how we organize and store information in working and long-term memory and how we can enhance our long-term memories. • The retention of information in memory is known as storage. Information can be stored in memory for anywhere from fractions of a second to a lifetime. • Sensory memory is the equivalent of the small buffer on your computer, holding a very brief visual or auditory copy of information so you can decide whether or not to encode it into working or long-term memory. Sensory memory may also help maintain the continuity of your sensory input. • Working memory is a short-term store of slightly more information that allows us to conduct simple calculations, such as memorizing a phone number so we can dial it immediately, or remembering the beginning of a sentence as we come to the end of the sentence. • It appears that, without rehearsal, we can hold 7 ± 2 pieces of information in working memory, although we can expand that capacity through techniques, such as chunking. • Long-term memory appears to be both infinite in capacity and storage time. • Information taken from working memory into long-term memory appears to be organized according to its meaningfulness and relation to other concepts in long-term storage. • Information in long-term memory may be stored in the form of explicit memories of facts or in implicit memories, knowledge about how to do something. A person cannot always articulate implicit knowledge. 4. Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval.

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The access of information from memory is known as retrieval. Retrieval can be facilitated by retrieval cues that make memories easier to access. Retrieval cues can include priming, context, and enhancing meaningfulness of the memory by making them more personally or emotionally relevant.

5. Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. • Forgetting is the inability to recall information that has previously been encoded. • Initially, researchers believed that failure to access information regularly led to its loss from awareness, a theory known as decay theory. This theory is less popular now, and researchers instead emphasize other problems with remembering. • Interference theory suggests that information gets in the way of proper encoding of information, preventing it from being remembered later. Retroactive interference comes from new information that interferes with previous memories. Proactive interference comes from earlier memories that interfere with new ones. • Motivated forgetting hypothesizes that we try to purposely forget information that is unpleasant, embarrassing, or painful. • In addition to being forgotten, memories can also be distorted or manufactured. We can make source misattributions, where we forget where information came from. We can also be exposed to new information that distorts previous information (as described in interference theory). Also, our own imaginations can play a role in distorting how our memories play out. 6. Describe how the brain is involved in memory. • Because scientists have not been able to pinpoint the place where memories are stored in the brain, they have concluded that there is no single storehouse. Instead, memory appears to be a process, resulting from activation patterns throughout the brain. • However, structures like the prefrontal cortex are extremely important in helping people hold information in working memory and to work with it as long as it is needed. Also, the hippocampus and other parts of the neocortex appear to be important in the transfer of memories into long-term memory. • Memory itself appears to be a neural circuit, a network of neurons predisposed to trigger one another whenever one is activated. Through a phenomenon called long-term potentiation, repeated stimulation of certain nerve cells increases the likelihood that the neurons will respond strongly whenever stimulated. 7. Describe the kinds of memories and memory changes that characterize early life and later life. • Babies and toddlers display many memories—from memories of faces, places, and objects, to memories of skills and procedures. But they do not retain memories of life events for very long. • The slow development of the hippocampus may be responsible for the slow development of life event memories. • Physical exercise seems to help prevent or slow down memory decline more than cognitive exercise does.

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8. Describe physical and psychological disorders that disrupt memory. • Disorders of memory can come about through aging, brain trauma, or the experience of traumatic events. Organic memory disorders, involving physical causes, include disorders such as amnesia and dementia. Major losses of memory without a clear physical cause are known as dissociative disorders. • Amnesia refers to the inability to remember things before (retrograde) or after (anterograde) an organic event, such as a head injury or brain surgery. • The other major class of organic memory disorders is dementia, characterized by severe memory problems combined with losses in at least one other cognitive function, such as abstract thinking or language. • The most common form of dementia is Alzheimer’s disease, a severe progressive form of dementia that accounts for at least half of all dementia cases. • The brains of people with Alzheimer’s disease have an extraordinarily high number of neurofibrillary tangles and senile plaques. The disease may stem from malfunctions of certain proteins or neurotransmitters involved in the normal formation of memories. A tendency toward developing these biochemical problems may be genetically inherited.

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TRUE-FALSE STATEMENTS 1. Storing is the first step in the memory process and involves recoding information in the brain. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define the basic activities of memory and describe two major models of memory. Section Reference: What Is Memory? 2. Working memory and short-term memory serve the same function. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define the basic activities of memory and describe two major models of memory. Section Reference: What Is Memory? 3. Automatic processing refers to the process by which we attend to environmental information with little or no conscious effort or thought. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 4. Sperling provided important insights into how working memory operates. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 5. Photographic or eidetic memories usually occur in adults.

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Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 6. Mnemonic devises are examples of elaborative rehearsal. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 7. Information stored in long-term memory must enter working memory for it to be active for use in an ongoing task. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how we organize and store information in working and long-term memory and how we can enhance our long-term memories. Section Reference: How Do We Store Memories? 8. Neuroimaging studies of brain-damaged patients suggest that implicit and explicit memories are stored using the same mechanisms. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how we organize and store information in working and long-term memory and how we can enhance our long-term memories. Section Reference: How Do We Store Memories? 9. Episodic memory is a type of implicit memory. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how we organize and store information in working and long-term

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memory and how we can enhance our long-term memories. Section Reference: How Do We Store Memories? 10. Retrieval cues help people to remember information they are searching for. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 11. Recognition tasks are often harder than recall tasks. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 12. A feeling can serve as a cue for remembering information if that same feeling was present when encoding the information. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 13. Recent memory research suggests that flashbulb memories may NOT be as accurate as was once thought. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 14. According to interference theory, forgetting is dependent on what happens before or after

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information is learned. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 15. According to Freud, repressed memories are lost forever and NOT be retrieved. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 16. When false information is derived from an internal source (namely our own minds), it is referred to as memory distortions due to imagination. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 17. The association areas of the visual cortex are activated in both accurate and inaccurate memories. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 18. In the early work of Karl Lashley, it was determined that memory resides in one central storehouse within the brain. Answer: False

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how the brain is involved in memory. Section Reference: Memory and the Brain 19. One of the most important brain structures involved in working memory is the prefrontal cortex. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how the brain is involved in memory. Section Reference: Memory and the Brain 20. Long-term memory largely involves the hypothalamus. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how the brain is involved in memory. Section Reference: Memory and the Brain 21. Neurons that use GABA are particularly likely to exhibit long-term potentiation. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how the brain is involved in memory. Section Reference: Memory and the Brain 22. Neurons that exhibit long-term potentiation are commonly found in the hippocampus and neocortetx. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how the brain is involved in memory. Section Reference: Memory and the Brain 23. As we age, we become more susceptible to forgetting and misremembering information. Answer: True

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the kinds of memories and memory changes that characterize early life and later life. Section Reference: Memories in the Young and Old 24. Infants do NOT show any indication of memory until they are almost 6 months old. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the kinds of memories and memory changes that characterize early life and later life. Section Reference: Memories in the Young and Old 25. After his surgery, Henry Molaison (H.M.) suffered from retrograde amnesia. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe physical and psychological disorders that disrupt memory. Section Reference: Disorders of Memory 26. Dementias only affect memory, NOT other cognitive functions. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe physical and psychological disorders that disrupt memory. Section Reference: Disorders of Memory 27. Older women are more likely to suffer from dementia than older men. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe physical and psychological disorders that disrupt memory. Section Reference: Disorders of Memory

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MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 28. All the following are basic activities of memory EXCEPT a) encoding. b) retrieval. c) consolidating. d) storage. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define the basic activities of memory and describe two major models of memory. Section Reference: What Is Memory? 29. Which of the following memory processes is associated with retaining memories for future use? a) encoding b) storage c) retrieval d) memorization Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define the basic activities of memory and describe two major models of memory. Section Reference: What Is Memory? 30. Saving money for retirement could be compared to ___. a) encoding information into memory b) storing information in memory c) retrieving information from memory d) both encoding and storing information in memory Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define the basic activities of memory and describe two major models of memory. Section Reference: What Is Memory? 31. Kamiko remarks that she needs to learn her text’s section on the structures of the brain for an upcoming test. Nikolas responds that he could not remember the function of the

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hippocampus on a test the preceding day. With respect to the three activities of memory described in the chapter, Kamiko is referring to ___, and Nikolas is referring to ___. a) encoding; storage b) retrieval; encoding c) retrieval; storage d) encoding; retrieval Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define the basic activities of memory and describe two major models of memory. Section Reference: What Is Memory? 32. Alina and her husband are buying their first home, and their agent is about to show them a listing. As Alina walks in, she quickly scans the environment and tries to take everything in. She knows that she will be relying on this memory when it comes to deciding, so she wants to make sure she remembers every detail. What basic activity of memory is Alina doing? a) encoding b) storage c) retrieval d) processing Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define the basic activities of memory and describe two major models of memory. Section Reference: What Is Memory? 33. Which activity of memory involves recording new information in our brain? a) encoding b) processing c) storage d) retrieval Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define the basic activities of memory and describe two major models of memory. Section Reference: What Is Memory? 34. Which activity of memory involves recovery of information when it is needed? a) encoding

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b) processing c) storage d) retrieval Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define the basic activities of memory and describe two major models of memory. Section Reference: What Is Memory? 35. Ace is writing his psychology test and is trying to recover some specific information that he studied last night. What basic activity of memory is Ace doing? a) encoding b) storage c) retrieval d) processing Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define the basic activities of memory and describe two major models of memory. Section Reference: What Is Memory? 36. Which of the following is a basic memory operation? a) executive functioning b) encoding c) sensory memory d) forgetting Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define the basic activities of memory and describe two major models of memory. Section Reference: What Is Memory? 37. Which of the following statements about encoding is accurate? a) Encoding requires effort. b) We must be aware of what we are attending to in order to encode it. c) Encoding is automatic and does not require attention. d) We do not encode most of the things we experience. Answer: d

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define the basic activities of memory and describe two major models of memory. Section Reference: What Is Memory? 38. Pawel is stopped on the street by a passer-by who wants to know if he knows of a good Thai restaurant in the neighbourhood. Pawel tries to recall the closest Thai restaurant. What basic activity of memory is Pawel engaged in? a) encoding b) storage c) retrieval d) processing Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define the basic activities of memory and describe two major models of memory. Section Reference: What Is Memory? 39. Which of the following sequences best reflects the order of stages in the three-stage memory model, from first to last? a) sensory memory ® working memory ® long-term memory b) working memory ® sensory memory ® long-term memory c) sensory memory ® long-term memory ® working memory d) working memory ® long-term memory ® sensory memory Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define the basic activities of memory and describe two major models of memory. Section Reference: What Is Memory? 40. When we focus our attention on sensory memories, they a) enter semantic memory. b) bypass working memory and enter long-term memory directly. c) enter working memory. d) enter a feedback loop and continually re-emerge in sensory memory. Answer: c

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define the basic activities of memory and describe two major models of memory. Section Reference: What Is Memory? 41. Information may last for ___ seconds in sensory memory. The capacity of sensory memory is ___. a) a few; small b) a few; large c) about 30; small d) about 30; large Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define the basic activities of memory and describe two major models of memory. Section Reference: What Is Memory? 42. According to the information-processing model of memory, which memory store holds a virtual copy of the environmental stimulus for a very brief amount of time? a) sensory memory b) working memory c) short-term memory d) long-term memory Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define the basic activities of memory and describe two major models of memory. Section Reference: What Is Memory 43. Saville is driving with his wife Arielle when they pass an old Victorian house painted green and purple. They both look at the house as they pass, and Arielle finds it fascinating. Later, Arielle asks Saville if he liked the house, and he tells her he does not remember seeing it. What explains Saville’s forgetfulness? a) Saville saw the house only briefly because he was driving, he did not attend to it as his wife did, so it was not committed to his short-term or long-term memory. b) Saville saw the house but hated it and repressed the memory. c) Saville noticed the house but cannot retrieve the encoded information from his short-term memory. d) Saville stored the house as an echoic memory and now cannot retrieve it from his long-term memory.

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Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define the basic activities of memory and describe two major models of memory. Section Reference: What Is Memory 44. On Canada Day, Ignas “wrote” his name in the air with a sparkler, and for a few hundred milliseconds he could see his name in the air. This example illustrates the brief visual storehouse associated with what memory store? a) sensory b) declarative c) working d) short-term Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: What Is Memory? 45. Sidney is driving home from work. She has travelled this route many times, so, although she is constantly scanning her environment, she is not really focusing her attention on it. Which of the following statements most accurately describes Sidney’s memory for the drive home? a) She would remember everything she saw because it would be stored in sensory memory. b) She would remember some of the things she saw because it would have been automatically transferred to working memory. c) If prompted, she would be able to recall most of what she saw. d) Anything she did not pay attention to would not have been moved from sensory memory and would be lost. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: What Is Memory? 46. Which memory store is paired with the correct fact? a) sensory memory – large capacity b) long-term memory – temporarily holds on to information for analysis c) working memory – lasts a few seconds d) short-term memory – relatively permanent

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Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define the basic activities of memory and describe two major models of memory. Section Reference: What Is Memory? 47. Isabella is watching late-night tv when suddenly an ad comes on for the most amazing nonstick frying pan that she has ever seen, and for only $19.99! She waits for the number to appear, then repeats it repeatedly in her head until she gets to her iPhone. According to the information-processing model of memory, what memory store would Isabella be using? a) sensory memory b) working memory c) permanent memory d) long-term memory Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define the basic activities of memory and describe two major models of memory. Section Reference: What Is Memory? 48. What type of memory storage is temporary memory that will be lost if it is NOT repeated before being passed on to long-term memory? a) sensory b) long term c) working d) episodic Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define the basic activities of memory and describe two major models of memory. Section Reference: What Is Memory? 49. Which memory store is NOT paired with the correct fact? a) sensory memory – large capacity b) long-term memory – relatively permanent c) working memory – lasts a few seconds d) short-term memory – temporarily holds on to information for analysis Answer: c

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define the basic activities of memory and describe two major models of memory. Section Reference: What Is Memory? 50. Which of the following is true about working memory? a) It has a relatively large capacity. b) Its capacity is limited to 5-9 items. c) It maintains information for a few seconds or less. d) It receives all its information from sensory memory. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define the basic activities of memory and describe two major models of memory. Section Reference: What Is Memory? 51. Clarice presses <Ctrl-S> on her keyboard to save a document she has been editing. A file is then created on her computer’s hard drive. Clarice’s action is most nearly analogous to the memory activity of ___. The computer’s hard drive is like ___ memory in the three-stage memory model. a) storage; long-term b) storage; working c) encoding; long-term d) encoding; working Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define the basic activities of memory and describe two major models of memory. Section Reference: What Is Memory? 52. Phong worked long hours off and on for a couple of weeks on a paper. He now wants to access the paper to put the finishing touches on it before handing it in. However, he cannot recall what he named the file and therefore cannot retrieve the paper. The process of saving the paper is equivalent to the memory activity of ______ in the three stage model. Moreover, the paper’s virtual existence in the computer is equivalent to Phong’s ____ in the three-stage memory model. a) storage; long-term memory b) storage; working memory c) encoding; long-term memory d) encoding; working memory

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Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define the basic activities of memory and describe two major models of memory. Section Reference: What Is Memory? 53. According to the information-processing model of memory, which memory store holds a relatively permanent record of a seemingly unlimited number of pieces of information? a) sensory memory b) working memory c) short-term memory d) long-term memory Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define the basic activities of memory and describe two major models of memory. Section Reference: What Is Memory 54. Ivan is filling out a job application and is asked for his address and phone number. He quickly provides them for the receptionist to write down. According to the information-processing model of memory, what memory store would Ivan be retrieving that information from? a) sensory memory b) permanent memory c) short-term memory d) long-term memory Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define the basic activities of memory and describe two major models of memory. Section Reference: What Is Memory 55. Which of the following statements about the information-processing model is accurate? a) It has done little to spark interest in research. b) It underestimates the number of basic activities involved in memory function. c) It has been shown that particular brain areas correspond to each of the three processes. d) It is a metaphor. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium

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Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define the basic activities of memory and describe two major models of memory. Section Reference: What Is Memory 56. Long-term memory is like sensory memory in that they both a) contain a visuospatial sketchpad and a phonological loop. b) temporarily hold information for analysis. c) have a very long duration. d) have a very large capacity. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define the basic activities of memory and describe two major models of memory. Section Reference: What Is Memory? 57. According to the three-stage memory model, information must first enter _______________ memory, and transfer to ____________ memory, and then to ___________ memory. a) sensory; working; permanent b) working; sensory; long-term c) sensory; working; long-term d) working; working; long-term Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define the basic activities of memory and describe two major models of memory. Section Reference: What Is Memory? 58. The role of attention in short term memory a) is unimportant to the encoding process. b) is crucial as it simultaneously enhances and inhibits incoming information. c) is minor, its primary role is in long term memory. d).is more bottom-up than top-down. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define the basic activities of memory and describe two major models of memory. Section Reference: What Is Memory?

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59. As you drive down the street, you see many things but remember only a few. Which of the following might explain this? a) You need to rehearse items to retain them in short-term memory. b) Although you held it in working memory, you never stored it in long-term memory. c) Most of the items you saw were only held in iconic memory which is very short. d) You did not need the information, so you took it out of long-term memory. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define the basic activities of memory and describe two major models of memory. Section Reference: What Is Memory? 60. If you are in a shopping mall and you are trying to remember how to get to your favourite coffee shop, which part of memory are you using? a) phonological loop b) executive function c) visuospatial sketchpad d) iconic Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define the basic activities of memory and describe two major models of memory. Section Reference: What Is Memory? 61. Which of the following is the most accurate description of the relationship between the information-processing and connectionist models of memory? a) They are different models. b) They are identical models. c) They are similar models. d) They model unique aspects of memory. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define the basic activities of memory and describe two major models of memory. Section Reference: What Is Memory? 62. Information-processing is to connectionist models of memory as _____ is to _____? a) stages; networks

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b) networks; stages c) visual; auditory d) auditory; visual Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define the basic activities of memory and describe two major models of memory. Section Reference: What Is Memory? 63. Which model of memory supposes that information is represented in the brain as a pattern of activation across an entire neural network? a) information-processing model b) connectionist model c) executive function model d) distributed-processing model Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define the basic activities of memory and describe two major models of memory. Section Reference: What Is Memory? 64. Which of the following correctly describes the parallel distributed-processing model? a) We store and retrieve memories piece by piece. b) When we encounter new information, it is joined with other information in memory and neural networks are either newly formed or expanded. c) It has three stages: sensory, short-term, and long-term memory. d) It is like the information-processing model but includes working memory. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define the basic activities of memory and describe two major models of memory. Section Reference: What Is Memory? 65. When Baddeley and Hitch asked participants to complete two tasks at the same time they found that as long as the two tasks were ____________they were successful. This finding supported the _____________ model of memory. a) the same; three-stage b) the same; information processing c) the same; parallel distributed-processing

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d) different; parallel distributed-processing Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define the basic activities of memory and describe two major models of memory. Section Reference: What Is Memory? 66. The fact that people can do two different tasks at once (e.g.: visual and auditory) but NOT two of the same tasks at once (e.g.: two visual) suggests that a) information is processed in parallel. b) processing of information is a serial event. c) the flow of information passes from one memory store to the next. d) visual information is processed with priority over auditory information. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define the basic activities of memory and describe two major models of memory. Section Reference: What Is Memory? 67. What evidence suggests that information is processed in parallel? a) People can do two different tasks at once (e.g., visual and auditory) but not two of the same tasks at once (e.g., two visual). b) People can do two of the same tasks at once (e.g., two visual) just as easily as they can do one of the tasks (e.g., one visual). c) People can do two different tasks at once (e.g., visual and auditory) just as easily as they can do two of the same tasks at once (e.g., two visual). d) People can do two of the same tasks at once (e.g., two visual) but not two different tasks at once (e.g., visual and auditory). Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define the basic activities of memory and describe two major models of memory. Section Reference: What Is Memory? 68. In the computer analogy, which of the following describes a key difference between the information-processing model and an actual computer? a) A computer does not have a function that is like working memory. b) A computer does not have specific structures that correspond to each function whereas memory involves a specific brain structure for each stage of memory.

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

c) A computer has specific structures for each function, whereas there are no specific brain structures for short-term and long-term memory. d) With a computer, you can change the information in storage whereas memory is like an exact copy of what happened and NOT be changed. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Define the basic activities of memory and describe two major models of memory. Section Reference: What Is Memory? 69. According to the ________________________, the barrage of information we encounter every day goes through three basic processes: encoding, storage, and retrieval. a) three-stage model b) tri-processing model c) computer model d) information-processing model Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define the basic activities of memory and describe two major models of memory. Section Reference: What Is Memory? 70. If memories are stored as a network of connections based on our experiences, what would Irena, an egg farmer, most likely think of if she were presented with the word ‘chicken’? a) orange glazed chicken with stuffed rice b) someone who is cowardly c) eggs d) rooster Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define the basic activities of memory and describe two major models of memory. Section Reference: What Is Memory? 71. For encoding to occur, individuals need to focus on environmental stimuli. This “focus” refers to what cognitive process? a) attention b) storage c) retrieval

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d) invigoration Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: What Is Memory? 72. You are comparing what you have read about a newly released movie with images you can recall from its advertising trailer and trying to decide whether to go see the movie. This is an example of how you might use your ___ component of working memory. a) visual sketchpad b) sensory memory c) phonological loop d) executive function Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define the basic activities of memory and describe two major models of memory. Section Reference: What Is Memory? 73. To decide which person to hire, Aislinn is reviewing her notes and thinking back on interviews she had with four potential job candidates. This is an example of how Aislinn is using her ___ component of working memory. a) visual sketchpad b) sensory memory c) phonological loop d) executive function Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define the basic activities of memory and describe two major models of memory. Section Reference: What Is Memory? 74. The visuospatial sketchpad and phonological loop are similar in that they are both a) processed in parallel. b) memory stores of working memory. c) retrieval strategies for long-term memory. d) unlimited in capacity.

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define the basic activities of memory and describe two major models of memory. Section Reference: What Is Memory? 75. In what way are the phonological loop and visuospatial sketchpad similar? a) They are both processed in parallel. b) They are both memory stores of working memory. c) They are both retrieval strategies for long-term memory. d) They both have unlimited capacity but a limited duration. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define the basic activities of memory and describe two major models of memory. Section Reference: What Is Memory? 76. Mila has just witnessed a car hit a parked car and then speed off. She quickly makes note of the licence plate and says it repeatedly in her head. What memory store would Mila be using to rehearse the licence plate in her head? a) visuospatial sketchpad b) phonological loop c) long-term memory d) sensory memory Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define the basic activities of memory and describe two major models of memory. Section Reference: What Is Memory? 77. Chania is in a play and is just about to go on stage. She starts thinking about her first line and how she will say it. What memory store would Chania be using to practice her lines in her head? a) visuospatial sketchpad b) phonological loop c) long-term memory d) sensory memory Answer: b

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define the basic activities of memory and describe two major models of memory. Section Reference: What Is Memory? 78. Alba is imaging now she will remodel her house. She knows she wants to knock out a kitchen wall to open the dining area, and then she knows that she will have a magnificent view out the front window. What memory store would Alba be using imagine her remodelled house? a) visuospatial sketchpad b) phonological loop c) sensory memory d) long-term memory Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define the basic activities of memory and describe two major models of memory. Section Reference: What Is Memory? 79. Drew is unable to recall whether Queen Elizabeth’s head faces left or right on the twentydollar bill. Which of the following is probably the best explanation for Drew’s memory failure? a) The information is difficult to retrieve because it is stored along with so many other pieces of information in Drew’s long-term memory. b) The information was learned so long ago that it is no longer stored in Drew’s long-term memory. c) The information was not encoded because Drew never really paid attention to Queen Elizabeth’s head on the twenty-dollar bill. d) The information was immediately displaced from Drew’s working memory after it was encoded. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 80. Gemma studies history immediately before she falls asleep, so that it will be the last thing that she learns each day. Holt plays tapes of his professor’s economics lectures while he sleeps, thinking he will absorb the material “subconsciously.” Armed with your knowledge of the psychology of memory, what might you tell Gemma and Holt? a) I would tell Gemma that material encoded immediately prior to sleep is unlikely to be rehearsed sufficiently for its optimal retention. I would tell Holt that he will learn a surprising amount that way.

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

b) I would tell Gemma that she has a clever idea, because learning material immediately prior to sleep minimizes interference. I would tell Holt that the material on his tapes will not be encoded while he sleeps. c) I would tell Gemma that material encoded immediately prior to sleep is unlikely to be rehearsed sufficiently for its optimal retention. I would tell Holt that the material on his tapes will not be encoded while he sleeps. d) I would tell both Gemma and Holt that the material they are trying to learn is unlikely to be encoded given their strategies. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 81. Which statement best expresses the relationship between attention and the memory activity of encoding? a) Attention is a by-product of encoding. b) Attention is unrelated to encoding. c) Attention is synonymous with encoding. d) Attention is necessary for encoding. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 82. ___ occurs when information is encoded with little effort or awareness. a) Automatic processing b) Effortful processing c) Mnemonic application d) Schematic encoding Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 83. Which of the following activities is correctly identified as either an automatic processing task or an effortful processing task?

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a) memorizing a sonnet — automatic processing b) estimating how long you have been studying English this evening — automatic processing c) solving an algebra problem — automatic processing d) driving a familiar route — effortful processing Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 84. Erik has played the piano since he was four-years old. Now at age twenty, he plays in a local piano bar where he often chats with the customers while he is playing. Which of the following accurately explains Erik’s ability to do both tasks at the same time? a) Erik does not require attention to talk to the customers. b) Erik is using effortful processing to play the piano which does not require attention, so he is able to engage in the automatic task of talking. c) Erik is using automatic processing to play the piano, so he is able to engage in the effortful task of having a conversation. d) Erik was accustomed to his piano teacher talking to him, so he learned how to play and talk at the same time. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 85. A significant difference between effortful processing and automatic processing is a) effortful processing is disrupted when a person performs other tasks or must attend to other information. b) effortful encoding is not enhanced by extra work. c) effortful processing is based on implicit learning. d) effortful processing is largely reflexive. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 86. Which of the following statements is true regarding automatic processing?

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

a) We are less aware of the attention we devote to automatic than to effortful processes. b) Automatic processing does not require attention. c) We are just as aware of the attention we devote to automatic as to effortful processes. d) Automatic processing requires more attention than does effortful processing. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 87. You desperately need to study French vocabulary. Your roommate recommends that you sit at your desk and turn off the TV and your phone. Is this good advice? a) Yes, it is good advice. Automatic processes are susceptible to interruption by distractions. b) Yes, it is good advice. Effortful processes are susceptible to interruption by distractions. c) No, it is not especially good advice. Automatic processes are not susceptible to interruption by distractions. d) No, it is not especially good advice. Effortful processes are not susceptible to interruption by distractions. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 88. Joaquin is starting a job as a server in a high-end restaurant. He has taken the menu home so he can memorize all the dishes and prices. To do this, he has made flash cards and is continually studying and testing himself repeatedly. What kind of processing is Joaquin doing? a) automatic b) implicit c) effortful d) mnemonic Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 89. Talyah is preparing to drive to see her brother who has moved to an unfamiliar part of the city. She is trying her best to memorize the directions he is giving her for how to get to his house

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so she will not get lost. She is What kind of processing is Talyah engaged in? a) automatic b) implicit c) effortful d) mnemonic Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 90. Dr. Simard measures the effort participants are devoting to a task using the product of heart rate and blood pressure. Dr. Simard would likely find a ___ correlation coefficient if the participant were doing an effortful processing task and a ___ correlation coefficient on an automatic processing task. a) positive; positive b) near zero; near zero c) positive; near zero d) near zero; positive Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 91. When you first learn to drive a car, you may have had to think about every step in the driving process. Now, after driving for five years, you find that you are usually able to drive without thinking about it. Initially driving required ___ processing, now it requires ___ processing. a) effortful; automatic b) automatic; effortful c) effortful; effortful d) automatic; automatic Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 92. The difference between automatic processing and effortful processing is that automatic

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

processing ___ and effortful processing ___. a) does not allow for multitasking; does b) does not require undivided attention; does c) benefits from extra effort; does not d) encodes sensory information; encodes cognitive information Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 93. What is the difference between automatic processing and effortful processing? a) Automatic processing does not allow for multitasking and effortful processing does. b) Automatic processing does not require undivided attention and effortful processing does. c) Automatic processing benefits from extra effort and effortful processing does not. d) Automatic processing encodes sensory information and effortful processing encodes cognitive information. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 94. In the late 1950s and early 1960s, psychologist George Sperling conducted key studies of a) long-term memory. b) working memory. c) effortful processing. d) sensory memory. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 95. The fact that participants in Sperling’s experiment could report any stimulus flashed in their visual field if cued to do so within half a second, this suggested that a) our short-term visual memory is virtually perfect. b) we need half a second to process new incoming information. c) it takes roughly half a second for our dominant hemisphere to interpret a visual stimulus.

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d) the length of iconic memory is about half a second. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 96. Aleksa is a participant in Sperling’s test of sensory memory, in which he is flashed a 3 x 4 grid of random letters for only 1/20th of a second. If Aleksa is asked immediately afterward, how many letters will he be able to report? a) about half b) one row c) a few d) all Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 97. Adele is a participant in Sperling’s test of sensory memory, in which he is flashed a 3 x 4 grid of random letters for only 1/20th of a second. A half second following the grid going off, Sperling then sounded a low tone indicating that Adele needed to recall the letters in the bottom row of the matrix. How many letters will Adele be able to report? a) about half b) one row c) a few d) all Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 98. ___ explains why you can recall what someone said several seconds ago, even if you were absorbed in another task when they first said it. a) Attentional recall b) Working memory c) Auditory recall

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d) Sensory memory Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 99. A ___ code would be used to represent the meaning of an event. a) visual b) verbal c) phonological d) semantic Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 100. What kind of code would we be using if we were representing the meaning of an event? a) visual b) verbal c) phonological d) semantic Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 101. “She did WHAT?” your roommate exclaims as you relate an anecdote about a mutual friend. Your roommate is processing your story in ___ memory. a) working b) sensory c) semantic d) long-term Answer: a Difficulty: Medium

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Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 102. Curtis is trying to remember the 16-digits of his new credit card. He finds that he is struggling with the last half of the number and is worried about this. What advice would you give to Curtis? a) He is having a failure of working memory. b) He will need to use a mnemonic device to encode the digits into memory. c) This is normal as the average capacity of working memory is between five and nine digits. d) He probably has difficulty with math and might even have dyscalculia. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 103. One way to ensure that information is encoded, is to consciously repeat it. This is known as a) mnemonics. b) rehearsal. c) retrieval. d) schematic encoding. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 104. Linnea has just finished visiting her uncle in the hospital and is told directions for how to get back to the highway. On her way to the elevator, Linnea repeats the directions over and over in her head, so she will not forget. What strategy is Linnea using? a) automatic processing b) mnemonic devices c) semantic encoding d) rehearsal Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

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Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 105. You and your friends decide to order a pizza. As you are ordering from the same place you have ordered from many times before, so you do not have to look up the number. This example demonstrates ___. a) eidetic memory b) mnemonics c) massed practice d) distributed practice Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 106. Daria usually “crams” for tests the night before they are given. Jun-suh generally studies each of his courses for about 45 minutes each night throughout the term. Daria relies on ___, whereas Jun-suh uses ___. a) effortful processing; automatic processing b) distributed practice; massed practice c) automatic processing; effortful processing d) massed practice; distributed practice Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 107. Jake and Jack each studied for 10 hours for the same psychology test. However, Jack studied 10 hours in a row the day before, and Jake studied 2 hours per day for the last 5 days. Who will likely to better on the test and why? a) Jack, because he learned everything at once b) Jack, because he learned everything more recently c) Jake, because his learning was spaced d) Jake, because he engaged in automatic processing Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 108. Lieke remembers the 16 ‘être’ verbs in French by remembering the name ‘Mrs. R. D. Vandertramp’ because each letter in the name corresponds to one of the 16 verbs. What memory strategy is Lieke using? a) automatic processing b) rehearsal c) schemas d) mnemonic devices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 109. Eito remembers the Big Five personality traits by remembering the word ‘ocean’, because each letter in ‘ocean’ corresponds to one of the five traits. What memory strategy is Eito using? a) automatic processing b) rehearsal c) schemas d) mnemonic devices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 110. Which of the following cases below illustrates superficial processing? a) Pedi voted for the Liberal candidate in her riding because she thought he “looked trustworthy”. b) Arlo lied to his wife about their financial affairs. c) When Thea read her textbook, she took notes on the material and later merged her textbook notes with her class notes. d) Emerson remembered his social insurance number 200 819 653 by remembering that his sister was born in 2008, his mother was born in 1965 and that he was the third child in the family. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy

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Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 111. Elaborative rehearsal is an effective strategy because it can help you remember information as well as a) understand information. b) chunk information. c) selectively forget unimportant information. d) recall information. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 112. Learning about how cameras work and linking that information to what you already know about how the human eye works is an example of a) chunking. b) maintenance rehearsal. c) encoding specificity. d) elaborative rehearsal. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 113. Techniques of artificially adding information to less meaningful information to assist in remembering it are known as a) elaborative techniques. b) mnemonic devices. c) rehearsal strategies. d) eidetic methods. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding.

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Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 114. Sam’s friend is showing her how to light the pilot light on her furnace. Sam realizes that she will remember this process because it is like lighting a kerosene heater, which she already knows how to do. Her friend, who does NOT know how to light a kerosene heater, suggests that Sam could remember the process in sequential steps. Distinguish between Sam’s memory and her friend’s memory. a) Sam is using elaborate rehearsal to remember, whereas her friend is using organization. b) Sam is using rote rehearsal to remember, whereas her friend is using elaborate rehearsal. c) Sam is using retrieval cues to remember, whereas her friend is using elaborate organization. d) Sam is using the acronym model to remember, whereas her friend is using outline organization. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 115. You are trying to remember an address long enough to enter it into Google Maps. Research suggests that you will probably encode the address using a(n) ___ code. a) phonological b) semantic c) visual d) eidetic Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 116. Esperanza is reciting a nursery rhyme to her two-year old daughter. Which type of coding did Esperanza most likely use to encode the nursery rhyme into memory? a) semantic b) phonological c) semantic d) eidetic Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different

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memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 117. While driving to school, Mallory’s car broke down. She called her father on her cell phone and he told her the phone number of a towing company to call. She keeps repeating the number over and over until she could place the call. Which type of coding is Mallory using? a) phonological b) visual c) semantic d) numerical Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 118. Your text describes a study in which 200-word poems were memorized more quickly than were 200-word prose passages, which in turn were memorized more quickly than were 200 nonsense syllables. That participants memorized poetry more quickly than prose may reflect the sound features one finds in poetry, such as rhyme and metre. Poetry, then, may allow one to take advantage NOT only of meaning, but also of distinctive ___ codes when trying to memorize it. a) eidetic b) visual c) phonological d) semantic Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 119. While we often use a ___ code to encode verbal information, we tend to use a ___ code to encode non-verbal information. a) phonological or visual; semantic b) phonological; visual or semantic c) semantic; visual or phonological d) visual; semantic or phonological Answer: c Difficulty: Easy

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Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 120. To encode verbal information, we tend to use a ___ code; to encode non-verbal information, we tend to use a ___ code. a) phonological or visual; semantic b) phonological; visual or semantic c) semantic; visual or phonological d) visual; semantic or phonological Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 121. The encoding of verbal and non-verbal information differs in that while verbal information uses a ___ code, non-verbal information uses a ___ code. a) phonological; semantic and visual b) visual or phonological; semantic c) semantic; phonological or visual d) visual; semantic or phonological Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory 122. How does the encoding of verbal and non-verbal information in long-term memory differ? a) Verbal information uses a phonological code, while non-verbal information uses a semantic and visual code. b) Verbal information uses a visual or phonological code, while non-verbal information uses a semantic code. c) Verbal information uses a semantic code, while non-verbal information uses a phonological or visual code. d) Verbal information uses a visual code, while non-verbal information uses a semantic or phonological code. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy

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Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory 123. Phonological is to semantic as ___ is to ___. a) appearance; sound b) meaning; sound c) sound; meaning d) sound; appearance Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 124. Meaning is to sound as ___ is to ___. a) pragmatics; syntax b) syntax; pragmatics c) phonological; meaning d) semantic; phonological Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 125. One major reason why our later memory of events may be flawed is that a) we tend to rely on a semantic code to transfer information into long-term memory. b) we have little flexibility with our memories. c) our memories can only last 30 seconds without rehearsal. d) we do not remember anything that we don’t attend to. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory

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126. What is a consequence of the fact that we tend to rely on a semantic code to transfer information into long-term memory? a) Our later memory of the events may be flawed. b) We have little flexibility with our memories. c) Our memories only last 30 seconds without rehearsal. d) We cannot multitask very well. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory 127. While driving to school, Mallory’s car broke down. She called her father on her cell phone and he told her the phone number of a towing company to call. Just after hanging up, a passing motorist pulls up to ask if she needs assistance. After declining his offer of help, Mallory immediately calls the tow truck. Although she did not have a chance to rehearse the number, she finds the number easy to remember because the first three digits are the same as her own phone number and the last four digits are the same as the year in which she was born. Which type of coding is Mallory using? a) phonological b) visual c) semantic d) eidetic Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 128. As you are watching television, you see an advertisement for pizza. The phone number for the pizza parlour has the same area code as your number and the rest of the number is advertised as EAT-PIZZA. Two weeks later you and your friends decide to order pizza and you immediately remember that number. If you did NOT rehearse the number, what type of coding must you have used to allow you to remember it? a) phonological b) visual c) semantic d) eidetic Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 129. Theodore is in the military and has recently returned from Iraq. Sometimes, once home, if he sees a flash of light, Theodore cannot help but remember the flash of bombs going off during the war. This would suggest that Theodore encoded the bombings in Iraq using ___ coding. a) phonological b) visual c) semantic d) long-term Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 130. Grady is writing his introductory psychology exam and is stuck on a question. He finds the answer when he pictures the relevant PowerPoint slide his professor used in class. Grady encoded the information he needs to answer the question using eidetic memory. a) a phonological code. b) a semantic code. c) a visual code. d) a non-verbal code. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 131. Approximately 1 in ___ children encode images eidetically. Eidetic memory occurs ___ frequently among adults than among children. a) 10; equally b) 10; less c) 20; equally d) 20; less Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

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Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 132. Mica, 5 years old, is very good at remembering details such as the jersey numbers of her favourite hockey players on the Montreal Canadians. When asked how she knows this, she says that she remembers them from [a highly detailed] team picture she has at home. This example illustrates what memory phenomenon? a) semantic encoding b) verbal encoding c) retrieval d) eidetic memory Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 133. Franca is 4-years-old. He has a special skill where he can look at a photograph and then answer detailed questions about it after it has been taken away. Franca probably has ________. a) visuospatial memory b) autism c) extremely high intelligence d) eidetic memory Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 134. According to your text, why do different people often seem to remember different details of the same event? a) Long-term memories are coded in terms of overall meaning rather than specific sensory details. b) Few people have the eidetic memory to recall events exactly as they occurred. c) The type of code used to store long-term memories differs greatly from person to person. d) Long-term memories tend to be coded at a superficial phonological level. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy

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Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 135. Isadora knows that during a typical job interview she will be asked to tell the interviewer a little about herself and suggest why she wants the position. Isadora has developed a(n) ___ for job interviews. a) semantic code b) elaborated representation c) mnemonic d) schema Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 136. Darin has just transferred in from another university. After his first class, he asks a classmate where he could find the library, student coffee shop, and the bookstore. Darin expects that the university would have all of these places based on his ___________ of a university. a) schema b) mnemonic assumption c) implicit knowledge d) explicit knowledge Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 137. To make material easier to remember, the decision to use mnemonic devices on the one hand, or hierarchies and schemas on the other is best based on a) how much material there is to remember. b) how much time is available to learn the material. c) how familiar one already is with the material. d) how meaningful the material is. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy

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Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 138. Nazani is using the PQRST method for studying. This method is based on organization and stands for a) plan, question, rehearse, strategies, trial exam b) preview, question, read, self-recitation, test c) prepare, query, recite, store, try-out d) practice, quiz, read, schema use, tell Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 139. Leka’s grandmother was in hospital recovering from a stroke. She asked him to go to her house and pick up her Old Age Security cheque. She told Leka the keypad number: 0-2-1-3-08-0-4 for getting into her apartment and Leka wrote it on a piece of paper. Leka was chewing gum on the drive over and, without thinking, spit his gum into the paper and threw it out in the garbage next to the door. Leka did not want to bother his grandmother during this difficult time and so thought hard about the number. Eventually he recalled that it was a combination of both is mother’s and his own birthday months and days, with his mother first: 0213-0804 and he was able to enter the building. What two ways of organizing information did Leka’s grandmother use? a) schematic verification and chunking b) mnemonic assumption and explicit knowledge c) chunking and elaboration d) elaboration and hierarchical organization Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 140. According to your text, in which of the three memory stages does storage occur? a) long-term memory only b) both working and long-term memory c) working memory only d) both sensory and working memory

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Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how we organize and store information in working and long-term memory and how we can enhance our long-term memories. Section Reference: How Do We Store Memories? 141. Working memory contributes to each of the following important functions in our daily lives EXCEPT a) carrying on a conversation. b) reading. c) solving mathematical computations. d) Working memory is important for all these functions. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how we organize and store information in working and long-term memory and how we can enhance our long-term memories. Section Reference: How Do We Store Memories? 142. To which of the following is working memory most nearly analogous? a) a legal pad on which you jot temporary notes b) a Post-It note reminding you of a future obligation c) a file on a computer hard drive d) a portrait hanging in a museum Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how we organize and store information in working and long-term memory and how we can enhance our long-term memories. Section Reference: How Do We Store Memories? 143. From which of the three memory stages does information enter working memory? a) long-term memory only b) sensory memory only c) both sensory and long-term memory d) semantic memory only Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how we organize and store information in working and long-term

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memory and how we can enhance our long-term memories. Section Reference: How Do We Store Memories? 144. In the words of George Miller, the capacity of working memory is the “magical number ___.” a) nine, plus or minus two b) six, plus or minus one c) five, plus or minus two d) seven, plus or minus two Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how we organize and store information in working and long-term memory and how we can enhance our long-term memories. Section Reference: How Do We Store Memories? 145. Which psychologist is correctly matched with the memory stage he or she studied? a) Sperling; working memory b) Loftus; sensory memory c) Ebbinghaus; long-term memory d) Miller; working memory Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how we organize and store information in working and long-term memory and how we can enhance our long-term memories. Section Reference: How Do We Store Memories? 146. What is the capacity of working memory? a) 1–8 items b) 3–11 items c) 5–9 items d) 7–13 items Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how we organize and store information in working and long-term memory and how we can enhance our long-term memories. Section Reference: How Do We Store Memories? 147. Miguel is repeating a series of digits in the order in which he heard an experimenter read

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them. The experimenter is testing the capacity of Miguel’s ___ memory. Miguel should be able to repeat about ___ digits correctly. a) working; 4 b) working; 7 c) sensory; 4 d) sensory; 7 Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how we organize and store information in working and long-term memory and how we can enhance our long-term memories. Section Reference: How Do We Store Memories? 148. Henrik is having his memory span assessed. Which of the following could he be asked to do as part of the assessment? a) Remember the last time he went to a restaurant. b) Listen to a list of words and then repeat them back in the same order. c) Name all the Canadian provinces. d) Tie his shoe. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how we organize and store information in working and long-term memory and how we can enhance our long-term memories. Section Reference: How Do We Store Memories? 149. Kieran’s working construction and as the new guy, he is in charge of ordering lunch for all the rest of the crew. They quickly ramble off their orders as Kieran tries his best to remember them all. If Kieran’s memory is average, how many lunch orders should he correctly remember? a) 3 b) 5 c) 7 d) 12 Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how we organize and store information in working and long-term memory and how we can enhance our long-term memories. Section Reference: How Do We Store Memories? 150. During an exam, Klaus found that he could look at questions and know the meaning of acronyms such as PET, MRI, fMRI, PET, and ERP. Although he found it difficult to encode the

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spelling of each word because that surpassed his 7 ± 2 working memory capacity, he knew the meaning of each letter. This example illustrates which method used to expand working memory capacity? a) spelling b) temporal overload c) chunking d) episodic buffer Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how we organize and store information in working and long-term memory and how we can enhance our long-term memories. Section Reference: How Do We Store Memories? 151. Amir sees an advertisement on television for a cover for his laptop that he really likes. At the end of the advertisement, the company flashes a phone number to call to order the cover. Although he does not write the number down, when he gets paid a week later, Amir remembers the number is 1-800- CALL-NOW. The advertiser has used the technique of ___________ to help customers increase the capacity of their _________ memory. a) a mnemonic device; working b) a mnemonic device; sensory c) chunking; working d) chunking; sensory Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how we organize and store information in working and long-term memory and how we can enhance our long-term memories. Section Reference: How Do We Store Memories? 152. Grouping pieces of information together to expand the effective capacity of working memory is termed ___. a) chunking b) clumping c) consolidating d) compacting Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how we organize and store information in working and long-term memory and how we can enhance our long-term memories. Section Reference: How Do We Store Memories?

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153. Elzbieta has just been issued her SIN number, and she knows that it is very important to memorize it. She groups the numbers into three sets of three-digits to make it easier. What memory strategy is Elzbieta using? a) priming b) creating a hierarchy c) rehearsal d) chunking Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how we organize and store information in working and long-term memory and how we can enhance our long-term memories. Section Reference: How Do We Store Memories? 154. Tamir is a first-year undergraduate student and has been assigned a nine-digit student number. Tamir thinks of the numbers as thee sets of three-digits as a way to memorize them easier. What strategy is Tamir using? a) priming b) creating a hierarchy c) rehearsal d) chunking Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how we organize and store information in working and long-term memory and how we can enhance our long-term memories. Section Reference: How Do We Store Memories? 155. When you tell an acquaintance your telephone number, you do NOT recite the digits one by one at a constant rate, as in “3, 3, 7, 2, 3, 4, 8, 3, 9, 2.” Rather, you might say, “3, 3, 7. ... 2, 3, 4. ... 83, 92.” This exemplifies ___, a strategy to enhance ___ memory. a) consolidation; sensory b) consolidation; working c) chunking; sensory d) chunking; working Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how we organize and store information in working and long-term memory and how we can enhance our long-term memories. Section Reference: How Do We Store Memories?

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156. Sari has entered a memory competition. Two of the challenges require her to memorize long sequences of information in a short period of time. Sari will then have to accurately repeat this information to the judges. What would be the best way for Sari to practice for her competition? a) Sari should practice chunking random sets of data as a method of storing information in her short-term memory. b) Sari should practice chunking random groups of numbers as a method of storing information in her long-term memory. c) Sari should practice rote rehearsal at home so that she can use it during the competition to store information in her short-term memory. d) Sari should practice rote rehearsal at home so that she can use it during the competition to store information in her long-term memory. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how we organize and store information in working and long-term memory and how we can enhance our long-term memories. Section Reference: How Do We Store Memories? 157. Our ability to chunk shows the interactive nature of ___________ and ___________ memory. a) sensory; working b) explicit; long-term c) working; long-term d) implicit; explicit Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how we organize and store information in working and long-term memory and how we can enhance our long-term memories. Section Reference: How Do We Store Memories? 158. The capacity of long-term memory is ___ that of working memory. Also, as compared to working memory, long-term memory is ___ variable from person to person. a) larger than; equally b) larger than; more c) equal to; equally d) equal to; more Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how we organize and store information in working and long-term

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memory and how we can enhance our long-term memories. Section Reference: How Do We Store Memories? 159. When we retrieve information from long-term memory, a) it enters a phonological loop. b) it is converted to a semantic code. c) it is once again available to working memory. d) it re-enters the memory system through sensory memory. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how we organize and store information in working and long-term memory and how we can enhance our long-term memories. Section Reference: How Do We Store Memories? 160. Which of the following would be least likely to be stored in long-term memory? a) a song playing in the background while you are studying b) material from your textbook that you have read several times c) the phone number of your best friend from high school d) what you did for your fifteenth birthday Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how we organize and store information in working and long-term memory and how we can enhance our long-term memories. Section Reference: How Do We Store Memories? 161. Which of the following would be most likely to be stored in long-term memory? a) The people on the sidewalk as you drive home from work. b) The song playing in the background when you are having coffee with a friend. c) How to walk. d) A recorded lecture played to you while you sleep. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how we organize and store information in working and long-term memory and how we can enhance our long-term memories. Section Reference: How Do We Store Memories? 162. In the examples below, the organization of long-term memory is most nearly analogous to the organization of

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a) a dictionary. b) a computer’s directory structure. c) an airline’s routes. d) a menu. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how we organize and store information in working and long-term memory and how we can enhance our long-term memories. Section Reference: How Do We Store Memories? 163. Which of the following factors are crucial for storing information in the long-term system? a) attention à encode working memory à store working memory àencode long term b) sensory memory à encode working memory àencode long term c) attention à sensory memory à store working memory àencode long term d) sensory memory à store working memory àencode long term. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how we organize and store information in working and long-term memory and how we can enhance our long-term memories. Section Reference: How Do We Store Memories? 164. Explicit memory is to ___ memory, as implicit memory is to ___ memory. a) episodic; procedural b) episodic; semantic c) semantic; episodic d) procedural; episodic Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how we organize and store information in working and long-term memory and how we can enhance our long-term memories. Section Reference: How Do We Store Memories? 165. Explicit is to ____________ as implicit is to ___________. a) unawareness; awareness b) awareness; unawareness c) semantic; episodic d) procedural; priming Answer: b

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how we organize and store information in working and long-term memory and how we can enhance our long-term memories. Section Reference: How Do We Store Memories? 166. The hippocampus is important in the storage of ___ while the striatum is important in the storage of ___. a) long-term memories; short-term memories b) episodic memories; semantic memories c) procedural memories; declarative memories d) explicit memories; implicit memories Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how we organize and store information in working and long-term memory and how we can enhance our long-term memories. Section Reference: How Do We Store Memories? 167. The ___ is important in the storage of explicit memories while the ___ is important in the storage of implicit memories. a) reticular formation; amygdala b) amygdala; fornix c) fornix; hippocampus d) hippocampus; striatum Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how we organize and store information in working and long-term memory and how we can enhance our long-term memories. Section Reference: How Do We Store Memories? 168. The difference between explicit and implicit memories is that explicit memories are memories ___, while implicit memories are memories ___. a) that we can consciously recall; for which we have no conscious awareness b) for personal events; for general knowledge c) for motor activities; for cognitive activities d) that are remembered long term; that are remembered short term Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension

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Learning Objective: Describe how we organize and store information in working and long-term memory and how we can enhance our long-term memories. Section Reference: How Do We Store Memories? 169. Which of the following is a type of explicit memory? a) classically conditioned memory b) procedural memory c) episodic memory d) priming Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how we organize and store information in working and long-term memory and how we can enhance our long-term memories. Section Reference: How Do We Store Memories? 170. Memories that a person is consciously aware of knowing and can bring to mind at will are called a) explicit. b) episodic. c) implicit. d) semantic. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how we organize and store information in working and long-term memory and how we can enhance our long-term memories. Section Reference: How Do We Store Memories? 171. Katrina has sustained damage to her hippocampus due to a stroke. What part of her memory is most likely affected as a result? a) short-term b) implicit c) explicit d) procedural Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how we organize and store information in working and long-term memory and how we can enhance our long-term memories. Section Reference: How Do We Store Memories?

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172. Sergio was in a horrific car accident. As a result, he cannot form any new long-term explicit memories. What area of the brain did Sergio likely damage? a) amygdala b) basal ganglia c) cerebellum d) hippocampus Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how we organize and store information in working and long-term memory and how we can enhance our long-term memories. Section Reference: How Do We Store Memories? 173. Which of the following is NOT a type of implicit memory? a) semantic memory b) procedural memory c) classically conditioned memory d) priming Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how we organize and store information in working and long-term memory and how we can enhance our long-term memories. Section Reference: How Do We Store Memories? 174. Memories that a person is NOT consciously aware of knowing or having learned are called a) explicit. b) episodic. c) implicit. d) semantic. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how we organize and store information in working and long-term memory and how we can enhance our long-term memories. Section Reference: How Do We Store Memories? 175.Saafir has sustained damage to his striatum. What part of his memory is likely to be affected as a result? a) explicit b) semantic

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c) implicit d) episodic Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how we organize and store information in working and long-term memory and how we can enhance our long-term memories. Section Reference: How Do We Store Memories? 176. Anja has had a stroke and as a result, she does not have any implicit memories. What area of the brain did Anja likely damage? a) amygdala b) striatum c) cerebellum d) hippocampus Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how we organize and store information in working and long-term memory and how we can enhance our long-term memories. Section Reference: How Do We Store Memories? 177. A person’s memory for general facts and knowledge is called a) semantic memory. b) episodic memory. c) implicit memory. d) procedural memory. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how we organize and store information in working and long-term memory and how we can enhance our long-term memories. Section Reference: How Do We Store Memories? 178. Which of the following is an example of semantic memory? a) The events around the birth of your first child. b) The winners of the figure skating pair competition at the Winter Olympics. c) Your high school graduation party. d) Your first day of college or university. Answer: b

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how we organize and store information in working and long-term memory and how we can enhance our long-term memories. Section Reference: How Do We Store Memories? 179. A person’s memory for personal events or moments from their life is called a) semantic memory. b) episodic memory. c) implicit memory. d) procedural memory. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how we organize and store information in working and long-term memory and how we can enhance our long-term memories. Section Reference: How Do We Store Memories? 180. Kenneth and his wife, Susan, are watching their oldest son graduate from university, and this accomplishment is making them remember other important events in their son’s life: The time he caught the biggest fish at the Yacht Club, the time he got a grand slam and won the provincial championships, or the time he bought his first car with his summer job money. What type of memory would Kenneth and Susan be using to remember these events? a) episodic b) semantic c) procedural d) implicit Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how we organize and store information in working and long-term memory and how we can enhance our long-term memories. Section Reference: How Do We Store Memories? 181. Lucinda remembered getting a special doll for her eighth birthday. Which type of explicit memory is being described in this example? a) semantic b) episodic c) procedural d) implicit Answer: b Difficulty: Medium

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Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how we organize and store information in working and long-term memory and how we can enhance our long-term memories. Section Reference: How Do We Store Memories? 182. Having consumed too many alcoholic shots that night, Riley barely remembers her twentyfirst birthday. That is, her ___ memory for this event is sketchy. a) semantic b) implicit c) procedural d) episodic Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how we organize and store information in working and long-term memory and how we can enhance our long-term memories. Section Reference: How Do We Store Memories? 183. Semantic is to ___, as episodic is to ___. a) knowledge; events b) events; knowledge c) events; movement d) movement; events Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how we organize and store information in working and long-term memory and how we can enhance our long-term memories. Section Reference: How Do We Store Memories? 184. Knowledge of facts and general knowledge is called ______________ memory, whereas knowledge of personal events is called ________________ memory. a) informative; autobiographical b) factual; episodic c) semantic; episodic d) semantic; procedural Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how we organize and store information in working and long-term memory and how we can enhance our long-term memories. Section Reference: How Do We Store Memories?

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185. Semantic memory and episodic memory are the same in that they are both a) types of implicit memory. b) types of working memory. c) types of explicit memory. d) the first types of memory to develop in young children. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how we organize and store information in working and long-term memory and how we can enhance our long-term memories. Section Reference: How Do We Store Memories? 186. The difference between semantic and episodic memory is that semantic memory is ___, while episodic memory is ___. a) memory for personal events; memory without conscious awareness b) memory for general knowledge; memory for personal events c) memory without conscious awareness; memory for motor activities d) long-term memory; short-term memory Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how we organize and store information in working and long-term memory and how we can enhance our long-term memories. Section Reference: How Do We Store Memories? 187. Lila broke her leg last summer and as such has not been able to ride her bicycle. After Lila’s leg heals, she finds she does not have to relearn how to ride her bike. This is because riding a bike involves ___memory, which is a subdivision of ___ memory. a) procedural; explicit b) conditioning; implicit c) procedural; implicit d) priming; explicit Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how we organize and store information in working and long-term memory and how we can enhance our long-term memories. Section Reference: How Do We Store Memories? 188. When Rebecca was six years old her grandfather ran tirelessly up and down the street

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behind her as she learned to ride her bike. As an adult, she frequently thinks about this day with her grandfather when she is out riding her bike. Rebecca’s memory of being with her grandfather is part of her _____ memory; whereas her ability to ride a bike is part of her _____ memory. a) procedural; explicit b) episodic; implicit c) semantic; implicit d) priming; explicit Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how we organize and store information in working and long-term memory and how we can enhance our long-term memories. Section Reference: How Do We Store Memories? 189. A person’s knowledge of how to ride a bicycle is called ___________ memory and is stored in the ____________ of the brain. a) episodic; striatum b) procedural; striatum c) episodic; hippocampus d) procedural; hippocampus Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how we organize and store information in working and long-term memory and how we can enhance our long-term memories. Section Reference: How Do We Store Memories? 190. Lucia has not been swimming in years, but when she falls out of the canoe at the cottage she easily stays afloat. What type of memory is Lucia using? a) procedural b) semantic c) episodic d) classically conditioned Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how we organize and store information in working and long-term memory and how we can enhance our long-term memories. Section Reference: How Do We Store Memories? 191. Tim has just finished watching a horror movie. Afterward, when his cat knocks over a plant,

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Tim jumps in fright. This is an example of ___ which is part of ___ memory. a) classically conditioning; implicit memory b) priming, implicit memory c) classically conditioning; explicit memory d) priming; explicit memory Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how we organize and store information in working and long-term memory and how we can enhance our long-term memories. Section Reference: How Do We Store Memories? 192. Jiao watched a very scary movie earlier in the evening. Later that night, a severe thunderstorm causes the loss of power in her house. Jiao begins to hear every noise in her dark house, feels very afraid and has a sense that something bad is about to happen. This example represents which of the following concepts? a) classically conditioned memory b) procedural memory c) startle reflex d) priming Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how we organize and store information in working and long-term memory and how we can enhance our long-term memories. Section Reference: How Do We Store Memories? 193. Nicole highlights the margin-definition of terms in her psychology textbook; Nathan thinks about how each term applies to his own life or to other concepts in the chapter. According to the levels of processing model, ___ is more likely to recall and use the terms better on an essay exam because ___. a) Nicole; she studied the information at a deeper level. b) Nathan; he studied the information at a deeper level. c) Nicole; Nathan focused too much attention on irrelevant details. d) There should be no difference between them. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how we organize and store information in working and long-term memory and how we can enhance our long-term memories. Section Reference: How Do We Store Memories?

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194. Craik and Lockhart’s levels of processing model would predict that ___ would result in the best recall of previously studied content. a) chunking b) rehearsal c) automatic processing d) deep processing Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how we organize and store information in working and long-term memory and how we can enhance our long-term memories. Section Reference: How Do We Store Memories? 195. The concept that the order in which we are presented with information will affect how well we retrieve that information is called the ___ effect. a) site-specific b) hierarchical c) ordering d) serial position Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 196. What happens to the serial position curve if the participant is asked to count backwards by 3’s for 20 seconds after the last list item is presented? a) The primacy effect is stronger. b) The recency effect disappears. c) The primacy effect disappears. d) The recency effect is stronger. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 197. In the serial position effect, delaying the memory test for 30 seconds ___________ because these words were not held/stored in ___________ memory. a) decreases the primacy effect; working

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

b) decreases the recency effect; working c) decreases the recency effect; long-term d) decreases the primacy effect; long-term Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 198. The jury has just finished hearing all the evidence in a robbery case. The prosecutor made his closing arguments first, followed by the defence attorney. When the jury was sent to the jury room, they seemed to remember more about the defence attorney’s arguments than the prosecutors. This example demonstrates the ___. a) primacy effect b) retrieval obfuscation effect c) tip-of-the tongue phenomenon d) recency effect Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 199. Tamiko was asked to study a list of 12 words then write down as many of the words as she could remember. She found that she was able to remember the first four words better than the rest of the words. This is called the ___ effect. a) recency b) primacy c) ordering d) hierarchical Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 200. Maeve and Diego are new teachers. They are in a workshop where they were presented with lists of children’s names for the fall, and they are working are remembering them. Each teacher was given several minutes to study the lists of names and were then asked to put down

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the list and write down as many names as they could recall. Maeve begins immediately to write out the names as soon as allowed but Diego has to answer a quick text from his partner first. In examining the names that each was able to recall, it is likely that Maeve shows a _____ and Diego shows a _____effect. a) primacy; primacy b) primacy; recency c) recency; recency d) recency; primacy Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 201. Latif’s boss lists off a dozen items that he needs to bring to the meeting, but then Latif’s administrative assistant enters with a document that needs his signature. If Latif is asked to remember the list of items right after his assistant leaves, how is he likely to do? a) He will not remember any of the items. b) He will remember the items at the beginning of the list. c) He will remember the items at the end of the list. d) He will remember all the items. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 202. Jackie and Lola are studying lists of words. After ten minutes Jackie begins to write down all the words she remembers, and Lola makes a quick phone call before writing down the words she remembers. In examining the words that each remembered, it is likely that Jackie will show a ___ effect, and Lola will show a ___ effect. a) primacy; recency b) recency; primacy c) recency; recency d) primacy; primacy Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories?

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

203. Dr. Castillo divides her class into two groups. Both groups must remember a list of words. Dr. Castillo tells Group A to record all the words they can recall as soon as they are finished listening to the list. However, Dr. Castillo tells Group B that once they are finished listening to the list, they must first say the alphabet backwards. In examining the words that each group remembered, it is likely that Group A will show a ___ effect, and Group B will show a ___ effect. a) primacy; recency b) recency; primacy c) recency; recency d) primacy; primacy Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 204. Weeks ago, Amanda talked to a new person in her chemistry class. Although she could not remember his name, she remembered that it began with a “R” and that his mother is a professor in the Chemistry department at the University of Toronto and that her classmate cheers for the Calgary Flames. This frustrating condition in which information is right at the edge of consciousness is known as what memory phenomenon? a) tip-of-the-tongue b) tongue-tied c) unconscious memory d) episodic memory Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 205. “I know it! It is um, ... um. It starts with ‘G’,” begins a trivia game contestant excitedly. The contestant is falling prey to the ___ effect. a) tip-of-the-tongue b) flashbulb memory c) motivated forgetting d) proactive interference Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 206. A stimulus reminding you of the information you need to retrieve from memory is termed a retrieval ___. a) probe b) cue c) clue d) device Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 207. A “oldie” song playing on the radio may remind you of events that occurred when the song was current. The song is acting as a retrieval ___. a) device b) schema c) cue d) prompt Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 208. No one in the class can remember what part of the brain is involved in controlling fear and aggression. The professor decides to give the first letter of the correct answer. This is an example of a ___________. a) encoding specificity cue b) priming pump c) retrieval cue d) flashbulb stimulus Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval.

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 209. Your text suggests that with respect to retrieval, sequential is to simultaneous as ___ is to ___. a) recall; recognition b) recognition; recall c) activation; search d) search; activation Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 210. What is the difference between recall and recognition? a) Recall involves retrieving information from long-term memory and recognition involves retrieving information from short-term memory. b) Recall requires participants to produce information from memory and recognition requires participants to identify whether a specific item is new or old. c) Recall involves automatic processing and recognition involves effortful processing. d) Recall is improved with elaboration and recognition is improved with rehearsal. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 211. Skylar was a witness to a hit-and-run accident. First the police had her give them a complete statement of everything she saw and then they asked her to view a line-up of men to see if she could pick out the driver. Skylar’s statement would be an example of a _________ task, while the line-up would be an example of a ______________ task. a) memory span; recognition b) recognition; recall c) recall; memory span d) recall; recognition Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval.

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Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 212. Asking students to explain the concept of classical conditioning on a test involves__________________. a) recognition b) recall c) priming d) retrieval cues Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 213. Multiple-choice tests are to essay tests as ___ is to ___. a) recall; recognition b) recognition; recall c) cueing; priming d) explicit memory; implicit memory Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 214. Multiple choice questions are to ____________, as essay questions are to _________. a) priming; cued b) cued; priming c) recognition; recall d) recall; recognition Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 215. The experience of NOT being able to recall a memory but feeling like it is just on the edge of consciousness is called

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

a) priming. b) state-dependent memory. c) encoding specificity. d) tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 216. In a tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon, one feels like a) they are not supposed to reveal a memory, even though it is accurate. b) the environmental cues of learning and testing are too different. c) the memory is extremely vivid and clear. d) a memory is just on the edge of consciousness. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 217. When you are introduced to an older gentleman with a big bushy moustache, you cannot help but think of your Uncle Mustafa who also has a similar moustache. In this example the moustache is a ___. a) prime b) retrieval cue c) tip-of-the-tongue cue d) activation cue Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 218. Desislav has been reading a book about a fictional character who kidnaps people and keeps them in his attic. While at his friend’s house one evening, Desislav hears sounds coming from upstairs. All he can think is that there must be people locked in the attic. What is the most likely explanation for this thought? a) Desislav’s thoughts are primed by the book he is reading.

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b) Desislav’s reaction is the result of classically conditioned memory based on his own fears. c) Desislav’s reaction is based on his semantic memory of the book. d) Desislav’s reaction is the result of his own episodic memories. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 219. Stimuli that remind us of the information that we need to retrieve from our memory are called a) primary stimuli. b) retrieval cues. c) state-dependent memories. d) flashbulb memories. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 220. Multiple choice questions are often easier for students than essay questions. This is because the answer choices serve as ___. a) primers b) activation cues c) retrieval cues d) tip-of-the-tongue cues Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 221. Silos wants to remember to exercise more often, so he keeps his running shoes right in front of his computer. That way, every time he sits at his computer, he is reminded about exercising. What is Silos doing in this example? a) recognizing his need to exercise and his ability to forget b) using his shoes as a retrieval cue for exercise c) priming the idea of exercise with his shoes

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

d) creating a flashbulb memory out of a mundane event Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 222. Dr. Deblanc is conducting an experiment. Two groups of participants study a word list in a psychology laboratory. Some time later, one group attempts to recall the words in the same laboratory; the other group tries to recall the words in a very different environment, a nearby city park. Dr. Deblanc is probably investigating the influence on memory of ___. a) priming b) interference c) arousal d) retrieval cues Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 223. A witness is unable to recall much about a crime when she is questioned in the police station. A police officer leads the witness back to the scene of the crime. She is now able to supply more information than she could before. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for her enhanced recall? a) The witness can take advantage of implicit memory at the crime scene, but not at the station. b) The witness experiences less interference at the scene than at the station. c) The witness is exposed to more retrieval cues at the scene than at the station. d) The witness’s arousal is higher at the scene than at the station. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 224. Dagmar wants to do well on her psychology midterm. Given what you know about retrieval cues, what do you recommend to Dagmar? a) that she stays up all night studying b) that she writes the test in the same environment where she studied

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c) that she drinks lots of coffee before the test d) that she studies right before falling asleep Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 225. The activation of a specific memory triggers the activation and potential retrieval of other memories. This is called ___. a) priming b) cueing c) recall d) distributed processing Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 226. What phenomenon is evidence that our long-term memories are linked in a network of associations? a) priming; connectionist b) flashbulb memories; information processing c) encoding specificity; PDP d) primacy effect; information processing Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 227. Paisley has slept through her iPhone alarm. Although Paisley is still not awake enough to be aware of it, when it first goes off, it is playing a song that Paisley really likes. Later that evening when Paisley is at home, she decides to listen to music in her iPhone. She immediately chooses the song from the radio earlier that day. Paisley’s choice of this specific music reflects ___. a) retrieval cues b) memory cues

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c) implicit cues d) priming Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 228. As Khloe was going into the café to have lunch, she saw a woman wearing a bright yellow dress. In the café, she decided she really wanted to eat a banana with her lunch. Khloe’s choice of fruit was most likely due to ____________. a) retrieval cues b) priming c) encoding specificity d) classical conditioning Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 229. When activation of one memory triggers activation of other, related memories, this is called a) recognition. b) priming. c) recall. d) primacy effect. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 230. The idea that memory will be facilitated if the testing conditions match the conditions present during the study phase is called a) serial position. b) elaborative encoding. c) encoding specificity. d) priming.

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Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 231. When the conditions of testing are the same as the conditions that were present when learning occurred, memory is facilitated. This phenomenon is called a) serial position. b) elaborative encoding. c) encoding specificity. d) priming. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 232. Violet was up late studying for an exam and, in doing so, drank four cups of coffee. According to the encoding specificity principle, what advice would you give to Violet to help her remember what she studied? a) Do not ingest any caffeine before the exam. b) Drink enough coffee to duplicate the arousal state she experienced when studying. c) She may have to drink more than four cups of coffee as she may have developed a tolerance to it. d) Drink a single cup of coffee to eliminate the nervousness of caffeine withdrawal. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 233. You have been "borrowing" your roommate's perfume all semester and wearing it while you furiously studied for finals. Now that it is finals week, she has caught on and hidden her perfume from you. According to the encoding specificity principle, what is likely to happen? a) You will be unaffected by this new development. b) You will not be as attractive to potential romantic partners. c) You will associate the smell of that perfume with the stress of final exams. d) You will perform worse on your finals without the smell of the perfume.

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 234. Javier left the kitchen and went upstairs to get his wallet, but when he got there, he could not remember what he had gone to get. As soon as he went back into the kitchen, he remembered he had wanted his wallet. Javier’s experience best illustrates the ____________ principle of a) contextual coding b) cued encoding c) encoding specificity d) cue retrieval Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 235. Dakota was really depressed as she studied for her psychology test in the library, and she ate a lot of candy as a result. According to state-dependent learning, what should Dakota do to maximize her grade? a) Get depressed for the test. b) Take the test in the library. c) Eat a lot of candy during the test. d) Study in many small sessions. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 236. Jaxon receives some stock tips when he is slightly drunk at an office party. Based on the notion of state-dependent memory, what might you predict regarding the likelihood that Jaxon will recall the tips the following week? a) He will probably best remember the tips if he is sober. b) He will probably best remember the tips if he has had a few drinks. c) He will probably best remember the tips if he is drunk. d) He is unlikely to remember the tips the following week whether he is sober, “tipsy,” or drunk.

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Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 237. According to the research of Bower, which of the following pairs should demonstrate the best memory retrieval? a) learned sad/tested happy b) learned happy/tested sad c) learned happy/tested happy d) mood was unrelated to Bower’s test Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 238. Emotion might enhance memory by different mechanisms. Which mechanism below is correctly matched with an example? a) increased rehearsal – Portia remembers with vivid, almost surreal, clarity everything about the night that her Mom told her that she and Portia’s father were planning a divorce. b) state dependent – During a test, Ramon tries to recapture the relaxed feeling he had when he studied the material earlier in the week. c) retrieval cue – Quinn often views the pictures he and his wife took of their joyous honeymoon. d) mood dependent – When her boyfriend embarrasses her in front of her co-workers, Serena thinks of other instances in which her boyfriend humiliated her in public. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 239. Sandy is sitting in her room worrying about finals. She suddenly begins thinking about her finals in relation to her failed driver’s test a few years before and panics even more. Why did Sandy think of these two things together? a) Sandy is stressed, which triggered a memory from her past when she was stressed for similar reasons. b) Sandy has linked the two memories through elaborate rehearsal, so when one event occurs

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

the other is recalled. c) Sandy is activating general cues regarding her earlier testing experience, which has increased her anxiety about her current test. d) Sandy is stressed, which has caused her to experience state-dependent retrieval. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 240. Emotion might enhance memory by different mechanisms. Which mechanism below is correctly matched with an example? a) flashbulb memory – Portia remembers with vivid, almost surreal, clarity everything about the night that her Mom told her that she and Portia’s father were planning a divorce. b) context dependent – During a test, Ramon tries to recapture the relaxed feeling he had when he studied the material earlier in the week. c) retrieval cue – Quinn often views the pictures he and his wife took of their joyous honeymoon. d) modulation effect – When her boyfriend embarrasses her in front of her co-workers, Serena thinks of other instances in which her boyfriend humiliated her in public. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 241. How is a flashbulb memory different from a regular memory? a) It is more accurate. b) It is less detailed. c) It represents one frozen moment in time, like a photograph. d) Participants are more confident in its accuracy. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 242. Which of the events is least likely to result in a flashbulb memory? a) September 11, 2001, terror attacks b) the fun you had at your eighth birthday party

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c) remembering watching as your cat got run over by a car when you were 10 d) watching Sidney Crosby score the game-winning goal in the men’s gold medal hockey game at the 2010 Winter Olympics Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 243. Which of the events is least likely to result in a flashbulb memory? a) September 11, 2001, terror attacks b) winning “the most read books” prize in grade six c) a new sibling coming into the home when you were four years old d) being surprised with a new puppy, after wanting one for years Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 244. Phoebe and Cara were both in high school when massive tornadoes ripped through Barrie, Ontario. Phoebe, who lives in Joplin, remembers every detail, including what song was playing on the radio when the storms occurred. Cara is Phoebe's cousin and lives in British Columbia. Cara knows she was in high school at the time, but cannot even remember what grade she was in. What might explain this difference? a) For Phoebe, her physical proximity and emotional connection to the tragedy resulted in a flashbulb memory, while for Cara it was stored as an ordinary memory. b) Phoebe's emotional connection to the tragedy led to it being consolidated in memory, while for Cara, the event was moved out of her working memory. c) Cara's emotional connection to Phoebe resulted in repression of the memory, while for Phoebe, her emotional connection resulted in a flashbulb memory. d) Phoebe's emotional connection to the tragedy made it a permanent memory, while Cara lacked the hormones to embed the memory. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories?

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

245. Malee remembers the day her little brother, who is now twelve, was brought home from the hospital following his birth like it was yesterday. She recalls that her mother came in the house first, and that she was standing in front of her dad who was holding the baby. Then her dad bent down to show the baby to Malee, and she remembers how her brother smelled that first time. What kind of memory is this? a) implicit b) recognition c) photographic d) flashbulb Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 246. Lilian clearly remembers the day her mother crashed the car backing them out of the driveway in winter. They were going to daycare, and they were late, and her mother hastily asked Lilian if there were any cars coming on her side. Lilian did not want to upset her mother, so she said no, even though there was a car coming. They were lucky that no one was hurt. What kind of memory is this? a) implicit b) recognition c) photographic d) flashbulb Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 247. The 9/11 attacks on the World Trade Center in 2001. Princess Diana’s 1997 death. The 1986 Challenger explosion. People’s explicit memories for the moment in which they learned of these events are termed ___ memories. a) thumbnail b) flashbulb c) snapshot d) photocopy Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues,

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priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 248. A few years later, Spencer still remembers exactly what he was doing when he heard about the shooting in Las Vegas where 58 innocent people were murdered. Spencer is experiencing a ___________ memory. a) snapshot b) flashbulb c) emotionally-enhanced d) state-dependent Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 249. Twenty-five year old Logan claims that he vividly recalls the day his dog, Figaro, was poisoned and died. He says he recalls every detail of that terrible day, fifteen years ago. What would research tell us regarding the accuracy of Logan’s flashbulb memory? a) It is less accurate than Logan thinks. b) Logan’s memory will be quite strong. c) Since flashbulb memories are good for adults but poor for children, Logan’s memory will be inaccurate. d) Since flashbulb memories are good for children but poor for adults, Logan’s memory will be accurate. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 250. Which of the following is the most probable correlation coefficient a researcher is likely to find between scores on a measure of the accuracy of participants’ flashbulb memories and participants’ ratings of their confidence that their flashbulb memories are accurate? a) .80 b) .50 c) –.30 d) .10 Answer: d Difficulty: Hard

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 251. Every time Josh thinks about his wedding day, he finds himself choking up with emotion. According to the modulation hypothesis, what causes Josh’s emotional memory? a) Josh’s hippocampus was highly activated during the encoding of the memory of the wedding. b) Josh’s amygdala is activated by the retrieval of the memory of the wedding. c) Josh’s amygdala was activated during the encoding of the memory of the wedding. d) Josh’s hippocampus is activated during the retrieval of the memory of the wedding. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 252. Every time Emilio thinks about the birth of his son he is overcome with emotion. According to the modulation hypothesis, what causes Emilio’s emotional memory? a) Emilio’s hippocampus was highly activated during the encoding of the memory of his son’s birth. b) Emilio’s amygdala is activated by the retrieval of the memory of his son’s birth. c) Josh’s amygdala was activated during the encoding of the memory of his son’s birth. d) Josh’s hippocampus is activated during the retrieval of the memory of his son’s birth. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 253. Which statement best captures the consensus among researchers regarding the mechanism by which emotion might improve memory? a) Emotion engages a special mechanism to facilitate memory. b) Emotion enhances memory mainly because it serves as a retrieval cue. c) Emotion promotes memory by a variety of mechanisms. d) Emotion has a surprisingly negligible effect on memory. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues,

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priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 254. Which of the following is NOT one of the mechanisms discussed in the text by which emotion might enhance memory? a) We often discuss emotional events with others, thus rehearsing them. b) We often make connections between emotional events, thereby using elaboration. c) Emotional events activate the amygdala, thereby causing long-lasting effects on memory. d) Emotional events typically involve those we care about, so they act as an emotional cue. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 255. Your text describes a study (Cahill et al., 1994) in which participants either received a tranquilizer or a placebo and heard either an emotional or a neutral story. The accuracy of participants’ story recall was then assessed. Which alternative below correctly names and identifies the variables in this study? a) independent variables – drug and story type; dependent variable – story recall accuracy b) experimental variables – tranquilizer and story type; control variable – placebo c) dependent variables – drug and story type; independent variable – story recall accuracy d) experimental variables – tranquilizer and emotional story; control variables – placebo and neutral story Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 256. Your text describes a study (Cahill et al., 1994) in which participants either received a tranquilizer or a placebo and heard either an emotional or a neutral story. The accuracy of participants’ story recall was then assessed. Which alternative below correctly identifies the outcome of this study? a) Those tranquilized recalled more details about the emotional story than those on placebo but the same about the neutral story. b) Those on the placebo drug recalled more details about the emotional story than those on tranquilizers but the same about the neutral story. c) Those tranquilized and those on placebo recalled more details about the neutral story than the emotional story. d) Those tranquilized and those on placebo recalled the same number of details about the emotional story and the neutral story.

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 257. Forgetting is best defined as a) the inability to recall information that was previously encoded into memory. b) the inability to store new information in memory. c) the inability to encode information that was presented at an earlier point in time. d) the inability to locate a piece of information in long-term memory. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 258. Because memory is a constructive process, a) errors and biases occur. b) we remember things automatically, almost as though we have an internal surveillance camera. c) stimuli presented for a very brief period of time never "make it" into storage. d) it operates similarly to a computer. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 259. What is the difference between encoding failure and retrieval failure? a) Encoding failure occurs when a lack of attention prevents details from passing into long-term memory properly; whereas retrieval failure occurs when the information is momentarily unavailable. b) Encoding failure occurs when misinformation is embedded in long-term memory; whereas retrieval failure occurs when new memories stored in long-term memory obscure old ones. c) Encoding failure occurs when memories stored in long-term memory can’t be found; whereas retrieval failure occurs when a lack of attention prevents details from passing into long-term memory properly.

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d) Encoding failure occurs when misinformation is embedded in long-term memory; whereas retrieval failure occurs when memories stored in long-term memory can’t be found. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 260. What does Ebbinghaus’s forgetting curve tell us about the way we forget material over time? a) We forget information at a constant rate. b) At first, we forget very little of what we have learned, but as time passes the rate of forgetting accelerates. c) Most forgetting happens immediately after we learn material; the rate of forgetting slows down as time goes by. d) We forget information at a variable and unpredictable rate as time passes. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 261. Damiano last studied for his psychology exam seven days ago. According to Ebbinghaus’ forgetting curve, Damiano would remember approximately _____ of the information he studied. a) 15% b) 20% c) 30% d) 45% Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 262. Last night when Hyun walked into her house, she was talking on her cell phone. This morning she could not seem to find her car keys. Which of the following offers the most likely explanation for Hyun being unable to find her keys? a) a failure of retrieval b) a failure of attention

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c) a decay of memory d) proactive interference Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 263. Dirk was driving and chatting on his cell phone. He failed to see a police car up ahead and sped by it. Dirk got a ticket for speeding and for being on his cell phone. What is the most likely explanation for Dirk failing to see the police car? a) a failure of retrieval b) a failure of attention c) a decay of memory d) proactive interference Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 264. Andrea played the flute throughout high school and college. Ten years after college, she tried to play it again, and found she could NOT remember the notes. Which theory explains this type of forgetting? a) motivated forgetting b) decay theory c) interference theory d) encoding failure theory Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 265. The saying “Use it or lose it” is most applicable to the ___ theory of forgetting. a) misattribution b) decay c) interference d) repression

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Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 266. What has been the fate of decay theory in the psychology of memory? a) It has become increasingly popular. b) It was rejected soon after Ebbinghaus’s initial work. c) Its popularity has remained relatively constant over the decades. d) It has declined in popularity over time. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 267. For the ___ theory of forgetting to make any sense, it must assume that a physical trace is laid down in the nervous system when a memory is formed. a) interference b) decay c) motivated forgetting d) repression Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 268. The fact that relearning is faster than original learning is very difficult for the ___ of forgetting to explain. a) interference theory b) motivated repression theory c) source misattribution theory d) decay theory Answer: d Difficulty: Medium

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 269. What finding does the decay theory of forgetting have difficulty explaining? a) the fact that emotionally charged events seem to have a memory advantage b) the shape of the forgetting curve c) the fact that relearning is faster than original learning d) the fact that we tend to forget unpleasant information Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 270. Jerome cannot open his term paper on his computer because the file has become corrupted. Kaci cannot find her term paper on her computer because of all the other documents she has stored on the hard drive. Jerome’s failure to retrieve his paper is analogous to the ___ theory of forgetting, whereas Kaci’s failure better resembles the ___ theory. a) interference; decay b) repression; interference c) decay; interference d) decay; repression Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 271. Some psychologists believe that test anxiety results in inferior performance on examinations because the negative thoughts accompanying the anxiety impede the retrieval of test-relevant information. This illustrates an application of the ___ theory of forgetting. a) interference b) misinformation c) decay d) repression Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension

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Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 272. What happens in proactive interference? a) Learning something new disrupts the ability to learn something new. b) Previous learning disrupts access to information in memory. c) Learning something new disrupts access to information in memory. d) Previous learning disrupts the ability to learn something new. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 273. Meghann was prompted that it was time to change her email password, so she chooses a new one that will be easy to remember. However, for the next few weeks, she keeps typing her old password. What kind of forgetting is Meghann experiencing? a) decay b) retroactive interference c) proactive interference d) motivated forgetting Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 274. Yulia was having difficulty learning Spanish in university because she kept remembering the French vocabulary she studied throughout high school. Which type of interference might account for this difficulty? a) retrograde b) proactive c) hyperactive d) retroactive Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories.

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 275. Nabeelah is taking a Spanish final at the end of the spring semester. The problem is, the French vocabulary she learned the semester before keeps getting in the way, causing her to forget Spanish words. Nabeelah is experiencing ___ interference. a) proactive b) progressive c) regressive d) retroactive Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 276. Dion keeps calling his new girlfriend, Carlie, by his old girlfriend’s name, Kaley. Jeremy keeps referring to his old girlfriend, Amanda, by his new girlfriend’s name, Amy. Neither girl is happy, but Carlie is the most upset. Dion is experiencing _____ interference, whereas Jeremy is experiencing _____ interference. a) retrograde; anterograde interference b) proactive; retroactive interference c) proactive; proactive interference as well d) retroactive; proactive interference Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 277. In ___ interference, information learned earlier disrupts the recall of information learned more recently; in ___ interference, recently learned information disrupts the recall of information learned earlier. a) retroactive; proactive b) proactive; retroactive c) regressive; progressive d) progressive; regressive Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort

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or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 278. What happens in retroactive interference? a) Learning something new disrupts the ability to learn something new. b) Previous learning disrupts access to information in memory. c) Learning something new disrupts access to information in memory. d) Previous learning disrupts the ability to learn something new. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 279. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism by which misinformation might impair a witness’ memory for the actual events in a crime? a) repression b) proactive interference c) retroactive interference d) retrograde amnesia Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 280. Matt has his Psychology final exam today, and he’s feeling pretty good about it. Since he must get ready for his Sociology final exam tomorrow, he decides to stop studying Psychology and look at his Sociology. Unfortunately, Matt didn’t anticipate that this would make it harder for him to remember his Psychology content, and his Psychology retrieval goes down slightly as a result. What type of forgetting is this called? a) proactive interference b) retroactive interference c) motivated forgetting d) decay Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories.

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Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 281. The difference between proactive and retroactive interference is that with proactive interference, information that was learned ___ interferes with ___, and with retroactive interference, information that was learned ___ interferes with ___. a) after; subsequent learning; before; previous learning b) before; previous learning; after; subsequent learning c) after; previous learning; before; subsequent learning d) before; subsequent learning; after; previous learning Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 282. What is the difference between proactive and retroactive interference? a) With proactive interference, information that was learned after interferes with subsequent learning, and with retroactive interference, information that was learned before interferes with previous learning. b) With proactive interference, information that was learned before interferes with previous learning, and with retroactive interference, information that was learned after interferes with subsequent learning. c) With proactive interference, information that was learned after interferes with previous learning, and with retroactive interference, information that was learned before interferes with subsequent learning. d) With proactive interference, information that was learned before interferes with subsequent learning, and with retroactive interference, information that was learned after interferes with previous learning. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 283. Laurent, a first-year university student, seems to have forgotten a painful and humiliating experience he endured earlier in his adolescence. Dr. MacEwan suggests that Laurent has avoided rehearsing the event and avoided situations that might provide cues for its retrieval. Dr. Norris counters that Laurent unconsciously pushed the event from his awareness. Dr. MacEwan is probably a ___ psychologist, while Dr. Norris is likely a ___ psychologist. a) psychodynamic; behavioural b) cognitive; behavioural c) psychodynamic; cognitive

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d) cognitive; psychodynamic Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 284. Marcus hates the dentist, but he needs to go. Every time he eats, he squirms in pain, and his partner keeps bugging him to make an appointment. Unfortunately, Marcus keeps forgetting to make the call. What kind of forgetting is Marcus suffering from? a) motivated forgetting b) decay c) proactive interference d) retroactive interference Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 285. The suggestion that people try to forget painful, unpleasant, or embarrassing events is the basis of a) interference theory. b) decay theory. c) motivated forgetting. d) retroactive theory. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 286. Motivated forgetting theory is based on which idea? a) Similar memories compete with each other. b) Physical connections between neurons deteriorate over time. c) There is some information that we forget because we want to. d) There are times when it is not important to remember precise details. Answer: c

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 287. We often misrepresent memories or make them up from scratch. Which of the following is NOT a common reason for this? a) source misattributions b) repression c) exposure to misinformation d) effects of imagination Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 288. The unconscious process whereby disturbing memories are prevented from entering awareness is called ___. a) repression b) denial c) projection d) suppression Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 289. Concerning repression, which of the following statements is true? a) Repression occurs only among those who have experienced highly traumatic events. b) Repression results in the deletion of information from memory. c) Repression generally occurs outside of awareness. d) Repression is a deliberate process. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort

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or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 290. When Alba was nine years old, her family were caught in a tornado and they all watched in horror as her baby brother was swept up and killed. However, as a young adult, although Alba has ben told the story, she has no memory the event. Which type of motivated forgetting may Alba be experiencing? a) repression b) suppression c) decay d) interference Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 291. What has empirical research had to say regarding the idea that people repress the memory of unpleasant events? a) Nothing. Research has yet to investigate the concept of repression. b) Empirical research offers little support for the idea of repression. c) Empirical research offers mixed support for the notion of repression. d) Empirical research strongly supports the concept of repression. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 292. According to your text, the need to reconstruct rather than simply retrieve memories stems from the ___ code used in long-term memory. a) phonological b) visual c) orthographic d) semantic Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories.

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 293. The fact that we tend to rely on semantic codes when we encode information in long-term memory means that a) we should rely more on visual and phonological codes for sensory information. b) we are vulnerable to faulty reconstructions of memory. c) emotions can influence the consolidation of our memories. d) information that comes before or after a critical event can influence memory of the critical event. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember 294. What feature of memory leads us to be vulnerable to faulty reconstructions of memory? a) the fact that we benefit from visual and phonological codes for sensory information b) that we tend to rely on semantic codes when we encode information in long-term memory c) the way that our emotions can influence the consolidation of our memories d) the fact that information that comes before or after a critical event can influence memory of the critical event Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember 295. Which of the following is probably the most plausible explanation of source misattribution? a) Even initially, we fail to encode the source of the information we learn. b) Long-term memory is more likely to code the meaning than the source of the information we learn. c) We do not have the working memory capacity to process not only the information we learn but also its source. d) Memory for the source of the information we learn decays more quickly than does the information itself. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories.

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Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 296. Laurence has heard her father tell a story about when her sister Romy got lost in a large department store and how her parents called for Romy and hunted and eventually found her asleep in a pile of stuffed animals. Laurence is convinced however that this event truly occurred to her and not to her sister. What is the most likely explanation for why Laurence has experienced this source misattribution? a) Even initially, we fail to encode the source of the information we learn. b) Long-term memory is more likely to code the meaning than the source of the information we learn. c) We do not have the working memory capacity to process not only the information we learn but also its source. d) Memory for the source of the information we learn decays more quickly than does the information itself. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 297. Kala vividly recalls when she was five years old getting lost at the Calgary Stampede and wandering for a long time in the crowds, calling for her mother. She remembers the kind police officer who picked her up and took her to the Lost Children booth. However, her parents have now told her that this could not have happened. Their family has never gone to the Calgary Stampede. They tell her this very thing did happen to Kala’s cousin, Rami. Which of the following phenomena is most likely responsible for Kala’s false memory? a) imagination b) flashbulb memory c) source misattribution and imagination d) misinformation Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 298. Kabir’s elementary school brought in a team to talk about bullying. As part of the workshop the children were asked to think about what it would be like to be bullied. Now, at twenty, Kabir is convinced he was bullied in elementary school, even though he was not. Which of the following phenomena is most likely responsible for Kabir’s false memory? a) imagination b) flashbulb memory

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c) source misattribution d) misinformation Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 299. Anne was 2 years old when her mother died. Since that time, Anne’s Aunt Jane has frequently told her about how Anne and her mother would pick strawberries. Because of this repeated story, Anne now believes that she “remembers” these trips with her mother when in fact these memories are the result of the discussions with her Aunt Jane. What type of memory distortion has occurred in this example? a) hypnosis b) misinformation c) source misattribution d) imagination Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 300. Madison reads a book about a little girl who stayed in a cottage in the mountains. Years later, she is talking with her family and brings up the memory of the cottage in the mountains. Although Madison now remembers this as having happened to her, the rest of the family swears that it did not happen. What is the most probable cause of Madison’s error? a) effects of imagination b) repression c) source misattribution d) exposure to misinformation Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 301. Thea dreams one night that she is downhill skiing with her dad. Years later, she brings up the memory of downhill skiing with her dad, but he swears that they have never skied together.

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What is the most probable cause of Thea’s error? a) effects of imagination b) repression c) source misattribution d) exposure to misinformation Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 302. Thomasz swears he remembers the cake and the guests at the party his parents held in honour of his fourth birthday. But, in fact, Thomasz merely remembers the snapshots of the event he viewed in his Mom’s photo album much later in his childhood. Thomasz’s manufactured memory reflects ___. a) source misattribution b) motivated forgetting c) imagination d) misinformation Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 303. The study of the influence of misinformation on memory is associated with ___. a) Bower b) Miller c) Sperling d) Loftus Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 304. Research on exposure to misinformation shows that a) as the source of information is forgotten, information that initially seemed unreliable is no longer discounted.

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b) recalling the source of a memory is as important as the memory itself. c) cultural factors can play a role in how well people remember what they have learned. d) information occurring after an event may further revise the memory of that event. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 305. Which factor involved in forgetting raises fundamental questions about the reliability of eyewitness testimony? a) the misinformation effect b) hindsight bias c) source amnesia d) the sleeper effect Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 306. A psychologist asks Nishi about the time she went on a helicopter ride with her dad (she did not actually do this). Although Nishi does not remember the event, the psychologist produces a [manufactured] picture of her on the helicopter with her dad and asks her to try and remember it. After continued questioning about the helicopter ride over the course of four days, Nishi now responds as 25% of participants would. What will Nishi most likely say? a) “This event never took place. I don’t know where you got this picture.” b) “I remember bits and pieces of the event, like walking up to the helicopter and feeling the wind from the blades.” c) “I still don’t remember anything about the helicopter ride.” d) “I do remember it perfectly, but I remember I was on a class trip and not with my dad.” Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 307. A psychologist is interviewing Hiran about the time he went on a hot air balloon ride with his dad (he did not). Although Hiran does not remember the event, the psychologist produces a

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[manufactured] photograph, and asks Hiran to try and remember the event. Over the course of a few days, Hiran is continually asked about the event and shown the picture. If Hiran responds as 25% of participants would, what should he say by the 4th day? a) “This event never took place. I don’t know where you got this photograph.” b) “I remember bits and pieces of the event, like walking up to the balloon and seeing the flame.” c) “I still don’t remember anything about the hot air balloon ride.” d) “I do remember it perfectly, but I remember it was a class trip and not my dad.” Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 308. Martin and his wife witness a car as it speeds through an intersection and runs a homeless person over. While waiting to talk to the police about the details, Martin mentions to his wife that the car was navy blue (but Martin was mistaken as the car was instead dark gray). If his wife is now more likely to remember the car as navy blue, what memory error is this? a) source misattribution b) motivated forgetting c) the effect of imagination d) exposure to misinformation Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 309. In a classic study on misinformation (Loftus et al., 1978), participants first viewed a brief film of a car accident. Some participants were then asked how fast the cars were going when they “hit” each other; other participants were then asked how fast the cars were going when they “smashed” into each other. Finally, all participants were asked if they saw broken glass in the film. What were the results of the study? a) The participants who were asked how fast the cars were going when they “smashed” each other remembered the cars as travelling faster than did participants who were asked how fast the cars were going when they “hit” each other. Both groups of participants were equally likely to remember broken glass in the film. b) The participants who were asked how fast the cars were going when they “smashed” each other remembered the cars as travelling faster than did participants who were asked how fast the cars were going when they “hit” each other. They were also more likely to remember seeing broken glass than were the participants who were asked how fast the cars were going when they “hit” each other. c) Both groups of participants were equally likely to remember broken glass in the film. In

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addition, the participant groups did not differ in their estimates of the speeds of the cars. d) The participant groups did not differ in their estimates of the speeds of the cars. However, the participants who were asked how fast the cars were going when they “smashed” each other remembered the cars as travelling faster than did participants who were asked how fast the cars were going when they “hit” each other. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 310. You are a forensic psychologist. A local police department seeks your expert opinion regarding the value of hypnotizing crime scene witnesses. What might you tell them? a) “Hypnotically obtained crime scene recollections are prone to the effects of misinformation.” b) “Hypnosis has rarely helped witnesses remember anything at all.” c) “The courts do value hypnotically obtained crime scene recollections.” d) “Hypnotically obtained crime scene recollections are immune to the effects of misinformation.” Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 311. While under hypnosis, Anita remembers a traumatic event from her childhood. What would be the greatest concern about Anita’s sudden memory? a) Therapists may sometimes inadvertently create false memories by introducing misinformation. b) Memories recovered under hypnosis are never accurate. c) Once recovered, therapists have a difficult time teaching their clients to forget the painful experience. d) As memories recovered under hypnosis are not admissible in court, it is unethical to expose Anita to the painful memory. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember?

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312. Concerning the activation of areas in the visual cortex by true and false memories, which of the following statements is true? a) True memories activate both the primary visual cortex and visual association areas, while false memories activate only the visual association areas. b) Both true and false memories activate not only the primary visual cortex, but also the visual association areas. c) True memories activate the primary visual cortex, while false memories activate the visual association areas. d) False memories activate both the primary visual cortex and visual association areas, while true memories activate only primary visual cortex. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 313. Which statement below describes the brain basis of memory most accurately? a) Areas throughout the brain are involved in memory, but there are several structures in the brain that are especially important to memory. b) There are two or three structures in the brain that are involved in memory. c) All the areas in the brain are approximately equally involved in memory. d) There is a specific location in the brain where memories reside. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 314. The retrieval and recall of eyewitness memories depends largely on which of the following brain regions? a) visual cortex b) cerebral cortex c) auditory cortex d) hippocampus Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember?

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315. The brain structure that is largely involved in the formation and storage of eyewitness memories is the ___. a) amygdala b) thalamus c) hypothalamus d) hippocampus Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how the brain is involved in memory. Section Reference: Memory and the Brain 316. How do the results of Lashley’s classic research on maze memory among rats inform an evaluation of connectionist models of memory? a) They cast serious doubt on connectionist models of memory. b) They pose a challenge for connectionist models of memory. c) They offer considerable support for connectionist models of memory. d) They say little with respect to connectionist models of memory. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how the brain is involved in memory. Section Reference: Memory and the Brain 317. What did Lashley (1948) find that led to the conclusion that there is no specific place in the brain where memories reside? a) that none of the rats remembered the maze after surgery b) that some of the rats remembered the maze after surgery and some rats did not c) that all rats remembered at least some of the maze, no matter what part of the brain was removed d) that the memory of the maze depended on the area of the brain removed Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how the brain is involved in memory. Section Reference: Memory and the Brain 318. Work like Lashley’s (1948) led to the conclusion that a) the hippocampus is involved in memory consolidation. b) there is no specific place in the brain where memories reside. c) short-term memory has a very limited capacity.

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d) long-term potentiation plays a role in long-term memory. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how the brain is involved in memory. Section Reference: Memory and the Brain 319. Sebastian was diving at the quarry and misjudged the truck’s distance from the ledge. He flipped the truck and landed on facedown on his head, damaging his prefrontal cortex. What function is Sebastian likely to have difficulties with because of his injury? a) working memory b) balance c) face recognition d) emotional processing Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how the brain is involved in memory. Section Reference: Memory and the Brain 320. Jafri was in a head on car collusion and his prefrontal cortex was damaged. To liken the damage experienced by Jafri to a computer, we would say Jafri is now experiencing problems with his _____. a) disk space b) his random access memory (RAM). c) search engine d) central processing unit (CPU) Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how the brain is involved in memory. Section Reference: Memory and the Brain 321. Darim is redesigning his bathroom, and he is converting some measurements in his head as he plans. This conversion of measurements requires that he hold some numbers in place while he manipulates others. What part of Darim’s brain would be especially active during this type of task? a) amygdala b) hippocampus c) cerebellum d) prefrontal cortex

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Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how the brain is involved in memory. Section Reference: Memory and the Brain 322. The prefrontal cortex is to the hippocampus as ___ memory is to ___ memory. a) long-term; working b) working; long-term c) sensory; long-term d) long-term; sensory Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how the brain is involved in memory. Section Reference: Memory and the Brain 323. Working memory is to the _____________ as long-term memory is to the _____________. a) hippocampus; hippocampus b) hippocampus; prefrontal cortex c) prefrontal cortex; hippocampus d) prefrontal cortex; prefrontal cortex Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how the brain is involved in memory. 324. Which statement best captures the role of the hippocampus in memory? a) The hippocampus is the final repository for long-term memories. b) The hippocampus is a “staging area” for the encoding of material into long-term memory. c) The hippocampus helps encode procedural memories, but not semantic ones. d) The hippocampus serves to transfer material from sensory to working memory. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how the brain is involved in memory. Section Reference: Memory and the Brain 325. Since his motorcycle accident, Sawyer has difficulty with forming new memories, retrieving autobiographical memories, and finding his way around the neighbourhood. It is most likely that

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Sawyer sustained injury to his __________ and it has affected his _____________ memory. a) hippocampus; long-term b) hippocampus; working c) prefrontal cortex; long-term d) prefrontal cortex; working Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how the brain is involved in memory. Section Reference: Memory and the Brain 326. The hippocampus was discussed in the text as having a role in all the following functions EXCEPT a) converts explicit memories into long-term memories. b) information about spatial layout. c) face recognition. d) retaining and retrieving autobiographical memories. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how the brain is involved in memory. Section Reference: Memory and the Brain 327. Nadya suffered oxygen deprivation while scuba diving and as a result her hippocampus was damaged. What will this do to Nadya’s memory? a) She will no longer have any long-term memories. b) She will no longer be able to form any new long-term memories. c) She will no longer have working memory. d) She will no longer be able to retrieve any long-term memories. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how the brain is involved in memory. Section Reference: Memory and the Brain 328. Sergio is a new student on campus and is trying to find the bookstore. He walks around a few buildings until he gets a general layout of the campus and then consults a map. What part of his brain would be especially active as these new memories he is forming become more permanent? a) hippocampus b) neocortex c) prefrontal cortex

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d) amygdala Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how the brain is involved in memory. Section Reference: Memory and the Brain 329. Long-term potentiation (LTP) is a) a biological mechanism for learning and memory. b) a type of neurotransmitter associated with learning. c) a hormone associated with emotional arousal. d) the part of the brain responsible for storing memories. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how the brain is involved in memory. Section Reference: Memory and the Brain 330. Traynor and Jose were exposed a bacterium that entered their nervous systems and affected their brains. Traynor’s hippocampus was damaged, and areas of Jose’s neocortex were damaged. Traynor will experience _____ whereas Jose will experience _____. a) problems with sensory memory; problems with short term memory. b) problems with short term memory; problems with sensory memory. c) difficulty forming new long-term memories; loss of older memories d) loss of older memories; difficulty forming new long-term memories Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how the brain is involved in memory. Section Reference: Memory and the Brain 331. Callum is travelling in the jungle and encounters a tribe that gives him some “tea”. This “tea” inadvertently contains a substance that enhances LTP development. What should this do to Callum’s memory? a) He should be able to retrieve more information from memory. b) He should be able to form more long-term memories. c) He should be able to hold more in short-term memory. d) He should be able to keep track of multiple events at once. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium

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Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how the brain is involved in memory. Section Reference: Memory and the Brain 332. Long-term potentiation can occur in two ways: through strengthening of synapses and through a) emotional arousal. b) release of hormones such as epinephrine. c) changes in the amounts of neurotransmitters that are released. d) gate-control mechanisms. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how the brain is involved in memory. Section Reference: Memory and the Brain 333. Which of these is a long-lasting increase in neural excitability believed to be a biological mechanism for learning and memory? a) gate-control b) flashbulb memories c) long-term potentiation d) neural plasticity Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how the brain is involved in memory. Section Reference: Memory and the Brain 334. When one-year-old Nessa first saw a cat, neurons in her brain became active. Now with repeated exposure to cats, Nessa’s neurons respond much stronger and more efficiently than they did the first time she saw a cat. This example illustrates the phenomenon known as ________________. a) long-term potentiation b) activation synthesis c) parallel distributed-processing d) neural activation integration Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how the brain is involved in memory. Section Reference: Memory and the Brain

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335. ___ ensures that our long-term memory is a network of associations and allows the formation of neural circuits. a) Consolidation b) Reactivation c) Connectionism d) Long-term potentiation Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how the brain is involved in memory. Section Reference: Memory and the Brain 336. Long-term potentiation refers to the process whereby a) the number of synaptic connections between neurons increases with experience. b) memories become fixed and stable for the long term. c) neural pathways become activated more easily as learning occurs. d) disturbing memories seem to gain in intensity over time. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how the brain is involved in memory. Section Reference: Memory and the Brain 337. According to your text, long-term potentiation plays a role in a) sensory memory. b) learning. c) long-term memory. d) both learning and long-term memory. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how the brain is involved in memory. Section Reference: Memory and the Brain 338. There is ample evidence suggesting that LTP plays a role in long-term memory. Which of the following is included in this category of evidence? a) Rats given glutamate showed more LTP in the hippocampus than rats not given glutamate. b) Rats deprived of acetylcholine were unable to learn a simple maze. c) Rats given cocaine reported long-lasting LTP under circumstances that usually leads to early forms of LTP. d) Rats given an LTP-enhancing drug learned and remembered a maze better than rats without

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a drug. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how the brain is involved in memory. Section Reference: Memory and the Brain 339. Rats given an LTP-enhancing drug learned and remembered a water maze better than rats without a drug, suggesting that a) rat memory traces are static. b) rats cannot learn a simple maze without enhancement. c) LTP plays a role in long-term memory. d) LTP plays a role in memory but not in learning. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how the brain is involved in memory. Section Reference: Memory and the Brain 340. We know that manipulation of LTP affects memory in experimental animals. Specifically, ___ LTP leads to ___. a) decreasing; decreases in short-term memory capacity b) decreasing; increases in transfer from short-term memory to long-term memory c) increasing; better long-term memory d) increasing; decreases in susceptibility to decay of memory traces Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how the brain is involved in memory. Section Reference: Memory and the Brain 341. Dr. Zimmerman is interested in the potential contribution of long-term potentiation to learning and memory. He administers one group of rats a drug that blocks long-term potentiation. Another group of rats receives an injection of an inert substance, such as sugar water. Next, he examines the rats’ maze-running performance. Dr. Zimmerman measures two dependent variables: trials-to-criterion (the number of trials the rats require before they can run the maze without making any wrong turns) and savings-on-relearning (the reduction in trials-tocriterion when the rats’ performance is examined several days later, after having had a break from the maze). Dr. Zimmerman finds that trials-to-criterion is higher among the rats given the drug than among the rats given the inert substance. Savings-on-relearning, though, is the same in the two groups of rats. How might Dr. Zimmerman interpret these results? Based on your text’s discussion, is this result consistent or inconsistent with existing research on long-term

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potentiation? a) The results suggest that long-term potentiation aids learning, but not memory. This is inconsistent with the body of research on long-term potentiation. b) The results suggest that long-term potentiation aids memory, but not learning. This is inconsistent with the body of research on long-term potentiation. c) The results suggest that long-term potentiation aids learning, but not memory. This is consistent with the body of research on long-term potentiation. d) The results suggest that long-term potentiation aids memory, but not learning. This is consistent with the body of research on long-term potentiation. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe how the brain is involved in memory. Section Reference: Memory and the Brain 342. Long-term potentiation is associated with the neurotransmitter ___, common in the brain’s ___ synapses. a) glutamate; inhibitory b) glutamate; excitatory c) dopamine; inhibitory d) dopamine; excitatory Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how the brain is involved in memory. Section Reference: Memory and the Brain 343. _________ is a key neurotransmitter in the formation of memories. It is present in 90% of all _____ synapses in the _____ and neocortex. a) Glutamate; inhibitory; hippocampus b) Glutamate; excitatory; hippocampus c) Dopamine; inhibitory; striate cortex d) Dopamine; excitatory; striate cortex Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how the brain is involved in memory. Section Reference: Memory and the Brain 344. Ghania is writing a paper for her graduate psychology class on the key neurotransmitters involved in learning and memory. What two neurotransmitters would Ghania’s paper focus on? a) dopamine and glutamate

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b) dopamine and GABA c) glutamate and acetylcholine d) serotonin and norepinephrine Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how the brain is involved in memory. Section Reference: Memory and the Brain 345. Glutamate is to ______________ as acetylcholine is to ____________. a) working memory; long-term memory b) LTP; separating encoding and retrieval c) Separating encoding and retrieval; LTP d) Sensory memory; working memory Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how the brain is involved in memory. Section Reference: Memory and the Brain 346. Glutamate and acetylcholine are the same in that they are both a) important in learning and memory. b) important in balance and coordination. c) very slow to show reuptake. d) concentrated in the prefrontal cortex. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how the brain is involved in memory. Section Reference: Memory and the Brain 347. Which of the following statements about the brain and memory is true? a) Acetylcholine is important for the consolidation of long-term memories. b) Serotonin neurons are more likely to exhibit long-term potentiation. c) The prefrontal cortex is involved in the consolidation of long-term memories. d) The hippocampus is a key structure in working memory. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how the brain is involved in memory.

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Section Reference: Memory and the Brain 348. As babies develop better motor control, they begin to develop which of the following types of memory? a) semantic b) episodic c) procedural d) explicit Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the kinds of memories and memory changes that characterize early life and later life. Section Reference: Memories in the Young and Old 349. Dr. Trifani is conducting a research study in which he shows infants several objects and measures how long they look at each one. This method is called the ___. a) habituation task b) dishabituation task c) preferential looking task d) gaze time task Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the kinds of memories and memory changes that characterize early life and later life. Section Reference: Memories in the Young and Old 350. Mishka is using a common test for assessing infant vision. She has infants look at checkerboard patterns and then once the infants are bored, shows them another pattern that differs in size, to assess whether the infants can tell the two patterns apart. This technique is known as the a) the habituation/dishabituation task. b) the preferential looking task. c) the infantile memory span task. d) the procedural memory task. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the kinds of memories and memory changes that characterize early life and later life. Section Reference: Memories in the Young and Old

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351. Which of the following memories would Beatrice’s 18-month old baby NOT be able to form? a) memory for how to walk b) memory of Beatrice’s face c) memory of going to the circus this morning d) memory of her favourite toy Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the kinds of memories and memory changes that characterize early life and later life. Section Reference: Memories in the Young and Old 352. Most people’s earliest memory is from when they were roughly a) 6 months old b) 1–2 years old c) 2–3 years old d) 3–4 years old Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the kinds of memories and memory changes that characterize early life and later life. Section Reference: Memories in the Young and Old 353. Infantile amnesia is defined as a) the fact that infants can only remember events for a few seconds at a time. b) the fact that all an infants’ memories are grounded in a few sensory events. c) the inability to remember content from the first few years of life. d) the inability to form new memories when we are infants. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the kinds of memories and memory changes that characterize early life and later life. Section Reference: Memories in the Young and Old 354. Harry and his mother are discussing a house they lived in when Harry was just 2 years old. Harry is surprised that he has no memory of that house. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for Harry’s memory lapse?

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a) Harry has retrograde amnesia. b) Harry has anterograde amnesia. c) Harry has infantile amnesia. d) Harry never encoded his experiences at that house. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the kinds of memories and memory changes that characterize early life and later life. Section Reference: Memories in the Young and Old 355. Which of the following is NOT one of the explanations for infantile amnesia? a) Brain circuits responsible for storing memories of events develop more slowly than regions for other memories. b) The hippocampus is a late-developing brain structure and is involved in memory. c) The young brain may not be able to transfer information from the hippocampus to other areas of the cortex. d) The young brain produces less of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine that is necessary to store long-term memories. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the kinds of memories and memory changes that characterize early life and later life. Section Reference: Memories in the Young and Old 356. Infant amnesia is most closely associated with which of the following brain structures? a) hippocampus b) hypothalamus c) amygdala d) thalamus Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the kinds of memories and memory changes that characterize early life and later life. Section Reference: Memories in the Young and Old 357. The fact that adults can remember some emotionally-charged events that occurred before the age of 4 years of age suggests that a) stress hormones are involved in the formation of episodic memories. b) glutamate, an excitatory neurotransmitter, is responsible for the formation of emotional

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memories. c) the development of episodic memory is helped at early stages by the amygdala. d) infantile amnesia may actually be a form of motivated forgetting. e) most incidents of early memory are based more on imagination than fact. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the kinds of memories and memory changes that characterize early life and later life. Section Reference: Memories in the Young and Old 358. Dr. Rajput has one group of young adults and one group of older adult’s view video clips of positive events, as well as video clips of negative events. Several days later, she tests the participants’ memories for the events. Based on your text’s discussion, which pattern of results might Dr. Rajput expect? a) The memory performance of older adults should be poorer than that of the younger adults for the negative events, but better than that of the younger adults for the positive events. b) The difference in memory performance between the young and old adults should be less pronounced for negative events than for positive events. c) The difference in memory performance between the young and old adults should be more pronounced for negative events than for positive events. d) There should be little difference in memory performance between the young and old adults for either negative or positive events. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe the kinds of memories and memory changes that characterize early life and later life. Section Reference: Memories in the Young and Old 359. Which of the following statements about memory in older adults is true? a) Older adults are more likely to remember negative than positive events. b) Semantic memories of healthy older adults may improve under normal conditions. c) Older adults are less likely to make source misattributions. d) Older adults outperform younger people on prospective memory tests. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the kinds of memories and memory changes that characterize early life and later life. Section Reference: Memories in the Young and Old

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360. Which of the following is NOT an area of memory in which elderly persons experience a decline? a) working memory b) implicit memory c) episodic memory d) encoding new memories Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the kinds of memories and memory changes that characterize early life and later life. Section Reference: Memories in the Young and Old 361. Which of the following memory tasks would an elderly person have the most difficult time? a) general knowledge questions b) how to ride a bike c) remembering an allergy to nuts d) remembering what they need to buy at the store Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the kinds of memories and memory changes that characterize early life and later life. Section Reference: Memories in the Young and Old 362. Which of the following memory tasks would an elderly person have the most difficult time? a) the name of the current prime minister and the capital of Canada b) how to swim c) remembering to go to their dental appointment d) remembering a dislike for turnips Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the kinds of memories and memory changes that characterize early life and later life. Section Reference: Memories in the Young and Old 363. The ability to remember future actions is called a) proactive memory. b) prospective memory. c) retrospective memory. d) episodic memory.

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Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the kinds of memories and memory changes that characterize early life and later life. Section Reference: Memories in the Young and Old 364. As Mishti is driving home from the university, she remembers she promised her mother she would stop at the store and pick up milk and bread. This is an example of ___ memory. a) retrospective b) implicit c) working d) prospective Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the kinds of memories and memory changes that characterize early life and later life. Section Reference: Memories in the Young and Old 365. Olivia’s boss gave her a list of five errands to run, but she forgot the list in the office. She remembers the first errand, but the remaining four escape her memory. What kind of memory failure did Olivia experience by forgetting the list? a) retroactive b) retrospective c) declarative d) prospective Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the kinds of memories and memory changes that characterize early life and later life. Section Reference: Memories in the Young and Old 366. ___ memory is to past as ___ memory is to future. a) retrospective; prospective b) prospective; retrospective c) retroactive; proactive d) proactive; retroactive Answer: a

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the kinds of memories and memory changes that characterize early life and later life. Section Reference: Memories in the Young and Old 367. What is the difference between prospective memory and retrospective memory? a) Prospective memory is the ability to store content in memory with effort, and retrospective memory is the ability to store content in memory without effort. b) Prospective memory is when something that you have to do in the future interferes with what you need to do now, and retrospective memory is when something from the past interferes with what you need to do now. c) Prospective memory is the ability to remember something in the future and retrospective memory is the ability to remember something from the past. d) Prospective memory is memory for positive content and retrospective memory is memory for negative or neutral content. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the kinds of memories and memory changes that characterize early life and later life. Section Reference: Memories in the Young and Old 368. Age-related declines in memory function begin at what age? a) 20s b) 40s c) 60s d) 80s Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the kinds of memories and memory changes that characterize early life and later life. Section Reference: Memories in the Young and Old 369. Garrett has just reached that age where his memory functions will start to decline. How old is Garrett? a) 25 b) 35 c) 45 d) 55 Answer: a

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the kinds of memories and memory changes that characterize early life and later life. Section Reference: Memories in the Young and Old 370. Twenty-five year old Himeth has been teasing his mother, who has just turned fifty years old. He tells her that now that she is old, she will begin to experience memory loss. Why should you tell Himeth to stop teasing his mother? a) Himeth’s mother, at fifty, may begin to show genuine memory losses and then Himeth will feel terrible. c) Himeth’s mother, at fifty, is at risk for heightened source misattributions and she may blame an innocent party for these jokes. b) Himeth is experiencing age-related memory declines himself. They begin in the twenties. d) Himeth will soon experience age-related memory declines himself. They begin in the thirties. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the kinds of memories and memory changes that characterize early life and later life. Section Reference: Memories in the Young and Old 371. Gretta is almost 60 years old now and aging in a healthy way. If the changes Gretta sees in her memory are average, which of the following memory abilities may show improvements with age? a) semantic memory b) episodic memory c) working memory d) memory for negative events Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the kinds of memories and memory changes that characterize early life and later life. Section Reference: Memories in the Young and Old 372. Your grandpa wants you to go with him to buy a computer and some games so he can begin to play computer games. He has read that there is research support for the cognitive benefits of playing computer games for the aging population. You tell him that while this is true there is greater support for the cognitive benefits of a) a healthy diet. b) proper amounts of sleep. c) physical exercise. d) social affiliations.

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the kinds of memories and memory changes that characterize early life and later life. Section Reference: Memories in the Young and Old 373. Dr. Voorhies tells his elderly patients to try brainteasers and crossword puzzles to help stave off memory decline. Dr. Tremblay, by contrast, encourages his elderly patients to maintain a routine of physical exercise to counter memory loss. How might you evaluate the advice of these two doctors considering empirical research? a) The advice of both doctors is probably good, but Dr. Voorhies’s advice is better supported by research. b) The advice of both doctors is probably good, but Dr. Tremblay’s advice is better supported by research. c) The advice of both doctors is equally good. d) Neither doctor’s advice enjoys much in the way of research support. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the kinds of memories and memory changes that characterize early life and later life. Section Reference: Memories in the Young and Old 374. Organic memory disorders are different from dissociative memory disorders in that organic memory disorders ___ and dissociative memory disorders ___. a) get progressively worse; pretty much stay the same b) are treatable; are not c) have a physical cause; do not d) are innate; are learned Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe physical and psychological disorders that disrupt memory. Section Reference: Disorders of Memory 375. How are organic memory disorders different from dissociative memory disorders? a) Organic memory disorders get progressively worse and dissociative memory disorders pretty much stay the same. b) Organic memory disorders are treatable and dissociative memory disorders aren’t. c) Organic memory disorders have a physical cause and dissociative memory disorders don’t. d) Organic memory disorders are innate and dissociative memory disorders are learned.

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Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe physical and psychological disorders that disrupt memory. Section Reference: Disorders of Memory 376. How are organic memory disorders, amnesic disorders, and dementias related? a) Organic memory disorders and amnesic disorders are examples of dementias. b) Organic memory disorders and dementias are types of amnesic disorders. c) Amnesic disorders and dementias are types of organic memory disorders. d) Organic memory disorders, amnesic disorders, and dementias are all types of dissociative disorders. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe physical and psychological disorders that disrupt memory. Section Reference: Disorders of Memory 377. Physical memory disorders are to psychological memory disorders as ___ are to ___. a) dissociative disorders; organic memory disorders b) organic memory disorders; dissociative disorders c) amnesic disorders; dementias d) dementias; amnesic disorders Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe physical and psychological disorders that disrupt memory. Section Reference: Disorders of Memory 378. Organic memory disorders are to ___________ as dissociative memory disorders are to ________________. a) hippocampus; prefrontal cortex b) prefrontal cortex; hippocampus c) hippocampus; thalamus d) physical; psychological Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe physical and psychological disorders that disrupt memory. Section Reference: Disorders of Memory

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

379. What kind of amnesia occurs when someone cannot form new memories? a) anterograde b) retrograde c) dissociative d) organic Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe physical and psychological disorders that disrupt memory. Section Reference: Disorders of Memory 380. Ximena cannot remember anything about the first several minutes immediately following a car crash in which she was injured. Ximena is experiencing ___ amnesia. a) proactive b) retroactive c) anterograde d) retrograde Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe physical and psychological disorders that disrupt memory. Section Reference: Disorders of Memory 381. Ji-min had a bad fall when she was rollerblading and as a result, she is no longer able to form new memories. She can hear the same stories over and over, meet the same people, watch the same TV shows – but to her each repeat is like the first time. What kind of memory problem does Ji-min have? a) retrograde amnesia b) anterograde amnesia c) dementia d) dissociative memory disorder Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe physical and psychological disorders that disrupt memory. Section Reference: Disorders of Memory 382. Meredith suffered a stroke and now cannot form new memories. Even though they have been visiting her regularly for months, when her children and grandchildren come to visit, she greets them as if it is their first visit. She introduces herself to the nurses and physicians who

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have been caring for her since the stroke, often several times a day. What kind of memory loss does Meredith have? a) retrograde amnesia b) anterograde amnesia c) dementia d) dissociative memory disorder Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe physical and psychological disorders that disrupt memory. Section Reference: Disorders of Memory 383. To control his seizures, when surgeons removed parts of both of H.M.’s temporal lobes, amygdala, and hippocampus, the result was that H.M. suffered from ___. a) retrograde amnesia b) anterograde amnesia c) dementia d) dissociative amnesia Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe physical and psychological disorders that disrupt memory. Section Reference: Disorders of Memory 384. Which of the following is NOT true of Henry Molaison (H.M.)? a) He had both hippocampi, amygdala, and parts of his temporal lobes removed. b) He had severe retrograde amnesia. c) His procedural memory was intact. d) He was unable to recognize anyone he met after the surgery. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe physical and psychological disorders that disrupt memory. Section Reference: Disorders of Memory 385. What kind of amnesia occurs when someone cannot remember events from the past? a) anterograde b) retrograde c) dissociative d) organic Answer: b

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe physical and psychological disorders that disrupt memory. Section Reference: Disorders of Memory 386. Hans was skiing and fell and hit his head on a rock. When he is interviewed at the hospital, he is unable to remember anything from his past. What kind of memory problem does Hans have? a) retrograde amnesia b) anterograde amnesia c) dementia d) dissociative memory disorder Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe physical and psychological disorders that disrupt memory. Section Reference: Disorders of Memory 387. Adam suffers from ______________ amnesia because he cannot remember any of the events that led up to his motorcycle accident. a) retroactive b) anterograde c) retrograde d) proactive Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe physical and psychological disorders that disrupt memory. Section Reference: Disorders of Memory 388. In ___ amnesia, memory is lost for events preceding an injury or accident; in ___ amnesia, memory is lost for events following an injury or accident. a) retrograde; anterograde b) anterograde; retrograde c) retroactive; proactive d) proactive; retroactive Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe physical and psychological disorders that disrupt memory. Section Reference: Disorders of Memory

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389. ___ is to loss of old memories as ___is to loss of new memories. a) retrograde amnesia; anterograde amnesia b) anterograde amnesia; retrograde amnesia c) retroactive amnesia; proactive amnesia d) proactive amnesia; retroactive amnesia Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe physical and psychological disorders that disrupt memory. Section Reference: Disorders of Memory 390. Mrs. Alvarez is 70. She exhibits memory loss but shows no other cognitive deficits. How would you identify her memory disorder, and why? a) She may be amnesic. Memory loss is her primary symptom. b) She may be suffering from dementia. Memory loss is her major symptom. c) She may be amnesic. She is over 65. d) She may be suffering from dementia. She is over 65. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe physical and psychological disorders that disrupt memory. Section Reference: Disorders of Memory 391. Mrs. Nakamura is 70. She exhibits memory loss and other cognitive deficits such as difficulties with abstract thinking and language. How would you identify her memory disorder, and why? a) She may be amnesic. Severe memory loss and other cognitive deficits are her primary symptoms. b) She may be suffering from dementia. Severe memory loss and other cognitive deficits are her primary symptoms. c) She may be amnesic. She is over 65. d) She may be suffering from dementia. She is over 65. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe physical and psychological disorders that disrupt memory. Section Reference: Disorders of Memory 392. From age 65 to age 85, the prevalence of dementia increases from ___% to ___%. a) 2; 25

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b) 2; 50 c) 10; 35 d) 10; 50 Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe physical and psychological disorders that disrupt memory. Section Reference: Disorders of Memory 393. Accounting for two-thirds of all cases, what is the most prevalent form of dementia? a) Huntington’s disease b) Korsakoff’s disease c) Alzheimer’s disease d) Parkinson’s disease Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe physical and psychological disorders that disrupt memory. Section Reference: Disorders of Memory 394. According to your text, Alzheimer’s disease is associated with a ___% reduction in the size of the ___, a structure in the brain’s limbic system. a) 20; hippocampus b) 50; hippocampus c) 20; amygdala d) 50; amygdala Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe physical and psychological disorders that disrupt memory. Section Reference: Disorders of Memory 395. Estelle has trouble completing complicated tasks and often forgets important appointments. She is best described as being in a ___ stage of Alzheimer’s disease. a) prodromal b) beginning c) middle d) final Answer: c Difficulty: Medium

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Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe physical and psychological disorders that disrupt memory. Section Reference: Disorders of Memory 396. Preston just recently passed away, and when examining his brain, the medical examiner observes some unusual characteristics. First of all, there were a large number of neurofibrillary tangles in the hippocampus and surrounding region. Furthermore, he sees many senile plaques in the space between neurons in the cerebral cortex and hippocampus. If this is what killed Preston, how did he die? a) Parkinson’s disease b) Schizophrenia c) Huntington’s disease d) Alzheimer’s disease Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe physical and psychological disorders that disrupt memory. Section Reference: Disorders of Memory 397. Alzheimer’s disease is characterized by neurofibrillary tangles and senile plaques in the brain’s ___. a) hippocampus b) cerebellum c) hypothalamus d) basal ganglia Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe physical and psychological disorders that disrupt memory. Section Reference: Disorders of Memory 398. Alzheimer’s disease is associated with low levels of the neurotransmitters a) acetylcholine and serotonin. b) norepinephrine and glutamate. c) acetylcholine and norepinephrine. d) acetylcholine and glutamate. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe physical and psychological disorders that disrupt memory. Section Reference: Disorders of Memory

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

399. Recent research in Alzheimer’s disease has suggested reduced activity of the neurotransmitters _____________ and ________________. a) serotonin; dopamine b) acetylcholine; dopamine c) serotonin; glutamate d) glutamate; acetylcholine Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe physical and psychological disorders that disrupt memory. Section Reference: Disorders of Memory 400. Regarding gender, declines in sex hormones have been implicated in the development of Alzheimer’s disease among a) men, but not women. b) women, but not men. c) both men and women. d) neither men nor women. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe physical and psychological disorders that disrupt memory. Section Reference: Disorders of Memory 401. To what extent is Alzheimer’s disease different among men than it is among women? a) It is no different between men and women. b) It is different between men and women in its effects on personality. c) It is different between men and women in its anatomical effects on the brain. d) It is different between men and women in both its anatomical effects on the brain and its effects on personality. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe physical and psychological disorders that disrupt memory. Section Reference: Disorders of Memory 402. Men and women who have Alzheimer’s disease differ with respect to their personalities in that men tend to be more ___ and women tend to be more ___. a) aggressive; depressed b) social; anxious c) introverted; extraverted

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d) risk-taking; relaxed Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe physical and psychological disorders that disrupt memory. Section Reference: Disorders of Memory 403. The risk for acquiring Alzheimer’s disease is greater in men who ___ and women who ___. a) are single; smoke b) have had a stroke; have had depression c) have insomnia; do not have children d) do not consume vitamins; sleep less than 8 hours per night Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe physical and psychological disorders that disrupt memory. Section Reference: Disorders of Memory 404. Alzheimer’s in females is to ________________ as Alzheimer’s in males is to ______________________. a) more tangles; more plaques b) more plaques; more tangles c) diabetes; stroke d) stroke; diabetes Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe physical and psychological disorders that disrupt memory. Section Reference: Disorders of Memory 405. Parker’s wife has been showing periodic lapses in attention and recent forgetfulness. When they discuss it with her doctor, he says that it sounds like the initial stages of Alzheimer’s disease, but that he cannot be sure. Parker asks him to do whatever tests are necessary to get a confirmed diagnosis. What is the doctor likely to say? a) The test is not very accurate. b) The results will not be available for up to a year. c) A clear diagnosis can only be given after death. d) The tests are very painful. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe physical and psychological disorders that disrupt memory. Section Reference: Disorders of Memory 406. Dorothy may have Alzheimer’s. Her family want her tested and were told that the only way to test for it was by a) MRI. b) EEG. c) CT scan and EEG. d) a post-mortem autopsy. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe physical and psychological disorders that disrupt memory. Section Reference: Disorders of Memory 407. Layla meets with her adult children every Sunday for dinner. Lately, when talking about childhood events and memories, Layla seems to remember these events occurring, but CANNOT recall the details even though the family has reminisced about them many times. Layla's children notice this is becoming a pattern and encourage their mother to get a physical check-up. Layla's children are MOST likely concerned about a) early-stage Alzheimer’s disease. b) retrograde amnesia. c) anterograde amnesia. d) late-stage consolidation. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe physical and psychological disorders that disrupt memory. Section Reference: Disorders of Memory 408. Which of the following would be an example of an individual with early-stage Alzheimer’s disease? a) Ryan was talking to his wife about politics and could not recall who was prime minister is. Later, he forgot their dog’s name momentarily. b) Ty does not remember most of his past, including his wife and children. Some days, however, he can remember his wedding day. c) Ally remembers most of her past, but she cannot remember who the prime minister is, or the names of most of the people she meets. d) Reina is talking to her friend about a professor they had a few years ago when they were freshman. She cannot remember his name even though he was her favorite. Answer: a

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe physical and psychological disorders that disrupt memory. Section Reference: Disorders of Memory 409. Recent research suggests that patients severely affected by epilepsy who receive electrical brain stimulation demonstrate memory improvement. How would you speculate that this treatment might also benefit Alzheimer’s patients? a) The treatment stimulates the cortex, which is one of the first parts of the brain to be damaged by Alzheimer’s disease. b) The treatment reduces seizure activity, which also occurs in Alzheimer’s patients. c) The treatment is effective for all individuals with deteriorating long-term memory. d) The treatment improves working memory and motor coordination, which deteriorate in both patients. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe physical and psychological disorders that disrupt memory. Section Reference: Disorders of Memory

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

MATCHING QUESTION 410. Match the appropriate terms in the left column to the definitions in the right column. Terms A. Episodic memory B. Procedural memory C. Automatic processing D. Effortful processing E. Distributed practice F. Mass practice G. Spacing effect H. Serial position effect I. Prospective memory J. Explicit memory K. Proactive interference L. Retroactive interference M. Misinformation N. Source misattribution O. Retrograde amnesia P. Anterograde amnesia Q. Priming R. Retrieval cues

___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___

Definitions 1. When inaccurate information distorts our recall 2. Knowledge of facts 3. When new information interferes with previous memories 4. Studying in one prolonged session 5. Memory for actions we plan to take 6. When the order in which words are studied affects the accuracy of recall for the words 7. Stimuli that remind us of the information we need to retrieve from our memory 8. Loss of memory for events prior to an injury 9. Memory for how to perform tasks 10. When activation of one piece of information triggers the memory of another piece

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ANSWERS TO MATCHING QUESTION 1.

M: Misinformation

J: Explicit memory

L: Retroactive interference

F: Mass practice

I: Prospective memory

H: Serial position effect

R: Retrieval cues

O: Retrograde amnesia

B: Procedural memory

10. Q: Priming Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

FILL-IN-THE-BLANK 411. According to the information-processing model of memory, ___is the first stage in which an image is retained by the brain for less than 1 second. Answer: sensory memory Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define the basic activities of memory and describe two major models of memory. Section Reference: What Is Memory? 412. Short-term memory includes two separate processes, working memory and ___. Answer: stores Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define the basic activities of memory and describe two major models of memory. Section Reference: What Is Memory? 413. The model of memory that suggests that new information is integrated with previously stored pieces of relevant information is called the parallel distributed-processing model, or the ___. Answer: connectionist model Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define the basic activities of memory and describe two major models of memory. Section Reference: What Is Memory? 414. You attend a party where you meet someone new. You think this person is attractive, so you employ ___ processing by paying careful attention when he/she tells you his/her name. Answer: effortful Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory?

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415. At a fireworks display, you notice that when your friend waves a flashlight through the air in a circular motion, it looks like a continuous circle of light rather than individual points of light. This example best demonstrates ___. Answer: sensory memory Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 416. ___, or consciously repeating information, increases the likelihood of information being encoded into working memory. Answer: Rehearsal Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 417. Representations based on the meaning of information are referred to as ___ codes. Answer: semantic Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 418. ___ are knowledge structures that have been developed based on previous exposure to similar experiences. Answer: Schemas Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 419. In 1885, ___ pioneered memory research by studying his own memory.

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Answer: Hermann Ebbinghaus Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how we organize and store information in working and long-term memory and how we can enhance our long-term memories. Section Reference: How Do We Store Memories? 420. Tommy is repeating a series of digits in the order in which he heard an experimenter read them. The experimenter is testing Tommy’s memory ___. Answer: span Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how we organize and store information in working and long-term memory and how we can enhance our long-term memories. Section Reference: How Do We Store Memories? 421. Ewa is trying to learn to sing a new song she has heard. Instead of trying to learn all the words to the song, she first sings the first verse over and over until she knows it, and then moves on to the second verse. This is an example of ___. Answer: chunking Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how we organize and store information in working and long-term memory and how we can enhance our long-term memories. Section Reference: How Do We Store Memories? 422. ___memories are those that can be consciously recalled. Answer: Explicit Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how we organize and store information in working and long-term memory and how we can enhance our long-term memories. Section Reference: How Do We Store Memories? 423. Hong Lee has been playing the piano since he was four years old. Now at 15 years old, he can play lengthy complex classical pieces without even looking at the music. Hong Lee’s piano playing repertoire is stored in his ___ memory, a division of ___ memory. Answer: procedural; implicit

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how we organize and store information in working and long-term memory and how we can enhance our long-term memories. Section Reference: How Do We Store Memories? 424. While playing Trivial Pursuit, Jessica remembered that Wilfrid Laurier was Canada’s first francophone prime minister. This type of memory of a piece of general historical knowledge is considered a ___ memory. Answer: semantic Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how we organize and store information in working and long-term memory and how we can enhance our long-term memories. Section Reference: How Do We Store Memories? 425. Jackie and Lola are studying lists of words. After ten minutes Jackie begins to write down all the words she remembers, and Lola makes a quick phone call before writing down the words she remembers. In examining the words that each remembered, it is likely that Jackie will show a ___ effect, and Lola will show a ___ effect. Answer: recency; primacy Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 426. “I know it! It’s um. .. um. .. It starts with ‘G’,” begins a trivia game contestant excitedly. The contestant is falling prey to the ___ effect. Answer: tip-of-the-tongue Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 427. ___ are pieces of information that remind us of the information that we are searching for in long-term memory. Answer: Retrieval cues

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 428. Brenda has slept through her iPhone alarm. Although Brenda is still NOT awake enough to be aware of it, when it first goes off, the iPhone is playing a song that Brenda really likes. Later that evening when Brenda is at home, she decides to play songs from her iPhone. She immediately chooses the song from that morning. Brenda’s choice of CD music reflects ___. Answer: priming Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 429. Multiple-choice test formats require the use of ___. Answer: recognition Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 430. Nadia was up late studying for an exam and, in doing so, drank four cups of coffee. The suggestion that Nadia should drink the same amount of coffee before the exam would support the ___ principle. Answer: encoding specificity Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 431. ___ refers to the fact that people are more likely to remember information encoded while in the same specific state they are in while they are attempting to retrieve the information. Answer: State-dependent memory Difficulty: Easy

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Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 432. The idea that long-lasting emotional effects on memory are due to the activation of the amygdala during the encoding of emotional events is called the ___. Answer: modulation hypothesis Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 433. The inability to recall information that was previously encoded is known as ___. Answer: forgetting Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 434. The saying “Use it or lose it” is most applicable to the ___ theory of forgetting. Answer: decay Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 435. When new information disrupts previously learned information, ___ interference has occurred. Answer: retroactive Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember?

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436. Sydney was having difficulty learning Spanish in university because she kept remembering the French vocabulary she studied throughout high school. Sydney’s difficulty in remembering Spanish is due to ___ interference. Answer: proactive Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 437. Jayesh has trouble remembering a friend’s new phone number; he keeps recalling the old number instead. Jayesh is experiencing ___ interference. Answer: proactive Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 438. Completing a rental application, Pippa finds she can’t recall one of her previous addresses, as she’s had several addresses since. Pippa is experiencing ___ interference. Answer: retroactive Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 439. Memory distortions occur because we tend to rely on ___ codes during encoding and we may be unable to accurately reconstruct memories during retrieval. Answer: semantic Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 440. It is likely that ___ interference occurs when new misinformation distorts older, more

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accurate information. Answer: retroactive Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 441. Areas of the primary visual cortex are only activated in ___ memories. Answer: true Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 442. One of the most important structures in working memory is the ___ cortex. Answer: prefrontal Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how the brain is involved in memory. Section Reference: Memory and the Brain 443. After suffering a traumatic brain injury, Calvin NOT remember any of the events that occurred just before the accident. Calvin has had damage to his ___. Answer: hippocampus Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how the brain is involved in memory. Section Reference: Memory and the Brain 444. The repeated stimulation of certain neurons that greatly increases the likelihood that the same neurons will respond to future stimulation of the same kind is called ___. Answer: long-term potentiation Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how the brain is involved in memory.

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Section Reference: Memory and the Brain 445. The neurons that use ___ are more likely to exhibit long-term potentiation. Answer: glutamate Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how the brain is involved in memory. Section Reference: Memory and the Brain 446. Dr. Trifani is conducting a research study in which he shows infants several objects and measures how long they look at each one. This method is called the ___. Answer: preferential looking task Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the kinds of memories and memory changes that characterize early life and later life. Section Reference: Memories in the Young and Old 447. The fact that we CANNOT remember many events prior to four years old is referred to as ___. Answer: infantile amnesia Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the kinds of memories and memory changes that characterize early life and later life. Section Reference: Memories in the Young and Old 448. As we age, parts of the brain such as the ___ begin to shrink. Answer: hippocampus Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the kinds of memories and memory changes that characterize early life and later life. Section Reference: Memories in the Young and Old 449. In research, the task of measuring how long a baby looks at familiar and unfamiliar objects is called ___.

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Answer: preferential looking Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the kinds of memories and memory changes that characterize early life and later life. Section Reference: Memories in the Young and Old 450. Older adults show a decline in their memory for intended actions. This type of memory is called ___. Answer: prospective memory Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the kinds of memories and memory changes that characterize early life and later life. Section Reference: Memories in the Young and Old 451. ___ disorders are disruptions in memory that lack a clear physical cause. Answer: Dissociative Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe physical and psychological disorders that disrupt memory. Section Reference: Disorders of Memory 452. Tevya was involved in a motor vehicle accident and is unable to remember anything about the three weeks before her accident. Tevya is suffering from ___. Answer: retrograde amnesia Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe physical and psychological disorders that disrupt memory. Section Reference: Disorders of Memory 453. Nico was involved in a motor vehicle accident and is unable to form new memories. Nico is suffering from ___. Answer: anterograde amnesia Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe physical and psychological disorders that disrupt memory. Section Reference: Disorders of Memory

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SHORT ANSWER ESSAY QUESTIONS 454. Susan and her roommates want to order a pizza. She looks up the phone number of the pizza parlour and then asks everyone what they want on the pizza. When Susan goes to call the pizza parlour, will she remember the number? Why or why NOT? Answer: She will not remember the number because the only way she can hold the information in working memory is to rehearse it. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define the basic activities of memory and describe two major models of memory. Section Reference: What Is Memory? 455. What types of information might be encoded with little or no conscious effort via automatic processing? Answer: time, space, or frequency Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 456. Which is most effective: distributed or massed practice? Answer: distributed Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 457. You need to remember the phone number of the local pizza parlour, so you repeat the number to yourself until you have it entered in the telephone. What type of memory code was used to encode that information? Answer: phonological Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding.

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Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 458. Although Rick had NOT visited the Burger King in Surrey, he knew how to order his food from the drive-up window. What knowledge structure did he use in this instance? Answer: a schema derived from previous restaurant visits Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 459. How did George Miller describe working memory capacity? Answer: magical number seven, plus or minus two Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how we organize and store information in working and long-term memory and how we can enhance our long-term memories. Section Reference: How Do We Store Memories? 460. Define the term “implicit memory.” Answer: memory that we are not consciously aware of having Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how we organize and store information in working and long-term memory and how we can enhance our long-term memories. Section Reference: How Do We Store Memories? 461. Regardless of precise organization, how are the pieces of information stored in long-term memory linked to one another? Answer: They form a network of related items. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how we organize and store information in working and long-term memory and how we can enhance our long-term memories. Section Reference: How Do We Store Memories? 462. Define priming.

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Answer: Activation of one piece of information may activate another piece of information leading to the retrieval of a specific memory. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 463. Provide an example of a test format that requires recall. Answer: essay or short answer Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 464. Dayyan felt depressed for much of the semester because he was working quite a bit and applying to graduate school. During final exams, he became ecstatic when he heard that he was accepted to the school of his choice. Given state-dependent memory, how will this change in emotional state impact his performance? Answer: It will worsen his performance. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 465. What theory of forgetting is associated with the concept that memories fade away over time because they are NOT used frequently? Answer: decay theory Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 466. What theory is built on the concept that memory leaves a physical trace on the brain when it is acquired? Answer: decay theory

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 467. What type of memory distortion is associated with failing to accurately remember where information was learned? Answer: source misattribution Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 468. What is the term that describes an instance when an internal source that we generate produces a memory distortion? Answer: imagination Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 469. What term is used to describe the phenomenon in which repeated stimulation of neurons increases the likelihood that these neurons will respond strongly to future stimulation? Answer: long-term potentiation Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how the brain is involved in memory. Section Reference: Memory and the Brain 470. In a comparison of average older participants and those with Alzheimer’s disease, how much larger was the hippocampus of those with excellent memories? Answer: 20% Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the kinds of memories and memory changes that characterize

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early life and later life. Section Reference: Memories in the Young and Old 471. What type of amnesia is described as the ongoing inability to form new memories after the onset of a disorder or event? Answer: anterograde Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe physical and psychological disorders that disrupt memory. Section Reference: Disorders of Memory 472. What structural changes to the brain are associated with a post-mortem diagnosis of Alzheimer’s disease? Answer: neurofibrillary tangles and senile plaques Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe physical and psychological disorders that disrupt memory. Section Reference: Disorders of Memory

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ESSAY QUESTIONS 473. Using the computer metaphor described in the chapter, identify the component that is analogous to the hard drive and its characteristics. Answer: The answer should identify long-term memory and mention that an indefinite number of items can be stored permanently. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define the basic activities of memory and describe two major models of memory. Section Reference: What Is Memory? 474. How is the connectionist model of memory different from the information-processing model? Answer: The answer should reflect the idea that the connectionist model joins newly acquired information to information that is already stored in long-term memory to form networks of information. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define the basic activities of memory and describe two major models of memory. Section Reference: What Is Memory? 475. While on vacation, you and your friends are driving along a highway listening to the radio. Later, as you are driving on a winding road at night, you find the radio distracting and turn it off. What would explain your change in attitude to listening to the radio? Answer: Driving on the highway used automatic processing so you could focus on more than one thing at a time. Driving on a winding road at night required effortful processing so you found the radio distracting. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 476. Explain why performing another task while engaging in effortful processing will likely disrupt encoding, whereas encoding of information during automatic processing is less likely to be affected? Provide an example. Answer: The answer should mention that a secondary task would detract from the encoding

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process and that this would differentially impact effortful rather than automatic processes. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 477. Describe the various types of information that are encoded as phonological versus visual codes. Answer: The answer should mention that phonological codes are used to encode verbal information, whereas visual codes are used to encode perceptual information as images. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 478. Describe how phonological, visual, and semantic codes might be used simultaneously. Which is most important in increasing the likelihood that information will be remembered? Answer: The answer should mention that some codes may be more active than others depending on the situation yet combining all types of coding will most likely result in a stronger memory. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 479. Provide an example of how organization can enhance our ability to encode information into long-term memory. Answer: The answer should reflect the idea that organization reformats new information to have a structure that is consistent with the familiar/old information already stored in long-term memory. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how information is encoded and transferred among different memory stores and what we can do to enhance encoding. Section Reference: How Do We Encode Information into Memory? 480. Define “chunking” and explain how this concept reveals that working memory can hold

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more than 7 plus or minus 2 words or numbers. Answer: The answer should identify chunks as larger units of information that surpass the definition of “items” as more than single digits or words. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how we organize and store information in working and long-term memory and how we can enhance our long-term memories. Section Reference: How Do We Store Memories? 481. Distinguish implicit from explicit memories and provide examples of each. Answer: The answer should include information about explicit memories being consciously accessed and acquired, whereas implicit memories are those that individuals are not consciously aware of having encoded or retrieved. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how we organize and store information in working and long-term memory and how we can enhance our long-term memories. Section Reference: How Do We Store Memories? 482. Describe the difference between semantic and episodic memory. Answer: The answer should identify that semantic information is basic general knowledge whereas episodic information is specific to episodes that occur within one’s own life. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how we organize and store information in working and long-term memory and how we can enhance our long-term memories. Section Reference: How Do We Store Memories? 483. Provide an example that illustrates how priming can be unconscious. Answer: The answer should reflect the increased likelihood of remembering an item simply because it was experienced recently. There is no conscious effort to tie information together in memory. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 484. Explain the encoding specificity principle and provide an example.

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Answer: It is the concept that memory retrieval is more efficient when the information available at retrieval is like the information available at the time of encoding. An example could include any context-effect or state-dependent memory. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 485. Dr. Smith firmly believes that students should be tested in the same room where class was routinely held. Evaluate Dr. Smith’s opinion by describing the effect of context on retrieval. Answer: The answer should mention that the match of context at the test and encoding is an important determinant of memory performance. Returning to the same lecture hall might cue memories of the encoding episode at the test, which will improve performance. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 486. How are the concepts of strong emotions and rehearsal related to the likelihood of enhanced memory? Answer: Emotional events are often repeatedly discussed with others and rehearsed. These actions lead to elaboration and an increased likelihood of remembering such events. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how we retrieve information from memory and how retrieval cues, priming, context, and emotion can affect retrieval. Section Reference: How Do We Retrieve Memories? 487. Describe the relationship between attention and forgetting. Answer: If we do not attend to information, it cannot be encoded and stored in memory. If it was never stored, it cannot be retrieved because it is not available. With forgetting, the information is stored, however, we cannot retrieve it because it is not accessible. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember?

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488. Illustrate Ebbinghaus’s forgetting curve and describe the pattern of memory loss depicted. Answer: The answer reflects the shape of the curve illustrated in Figure 8-9 and mentions that we have periods of rapid forgetting followed by stable retention of the remaining information. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 489. Describe Freud’s concept of repression and how this might serve as a mechanism for motivated forgetting. Answer: The answer should indicate that repression is a defence mechanism used by individuals to unconsciously attempt to keep traumatic events or experiences from entering their consciousness. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 490. In a classic study on misinformation (Loftus et al., 1978), participants first viewed a brief film of a car accident. Some participants were then asked how fast the cars were going when they “hit” each other; other participants were then asked how fast the cars were going when they “smashed” each other. Finally, all participants were asked if they saw broken glass in the film. What were the results of the study? Answer: The participants who were asked how fast the cars were going when they “smashed” each other remembered the cars as travelling faster than did participants who were asked how fast the cars were going when they “hit” each other. They were also more likely to remember seeing broken glass than were the participants who were asked how fast the cars were going when they “hit” each other. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 491. Describe how hypnosis might be one means of exposing individuals to memory distortions due to misinformation. Answer: The answer should reflect that people are likely to remember incorrect information offered or implied by the hypnotist.

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 492. Describe how inaccurate eyewitness testimony may lead to wrongful convictions. Answer: The answer should reflect the concept that eyewitnesses may be subjected to misinformation as they are questioned, and that this may result in a distorted memory of the crime such that a jury would not be given an accurate account of what happened. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 493. Explain the role of the hippocampus in the formation and storage of eyewitness memories. Answer: The answer should include information about synapses that change with experience and are activated when we remember. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember? 494. Describe the role of the hippocampus in memory. Answer: Converts short-term memories into long-term memories, retains and retrieves autobiographical memories, and holds information on spatial layout. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how the brain is involved in memory. Section Reference: Memory and the Brain 495. Define long-term potentiation. Answer: Repeated stimulation of neurons increases the likelihood that these neurons will respond strongly to future stimulation. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

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Learning Objective: Describe how the brain is involved in memory. Section Reference: Memory and the Brain 496. When we learn new information, what steps lead to the transmission of the information in the brain? Answer: The answer should mention the release of neurotransmitters, which travel to the neurons located in the area of the brain where the memories will be stored. Then, chemical changes occur within the receiving neurons. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how the brain is involved in memory. Section Reference: Memory and the Brain 497. Describe one approach to improving brain fitness in people aged 65 years and older. Answer: The answer should identify a study described in the book in which a computerized program has proven successful in improving memories for those aged 65 years and older or building on the idea that exercise is important for brain fitness. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the kinds of memories and memory changes that characterize early life and later life. Section Reference: Memories in the Young and Old 498. Discuss why episodic memories are so slow to develop in children? Answer: Response should include information about the late development of the hippocampus, which is involved in long-term memory storage. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the kinds of memories and memory changes that characterize early life and later life. Section Reference: Memories in the Young and Old 499. Compare prospective and retrospective memory and how it is affected by the aging process. Answer: Answer should include definitions of each and indicate that prospective memory declines with age while retrospective memory does not. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the kinds of memories and memory changes that characterize

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early life and later life. Section Reference: Memories in the Young and Old 500. Name and describe two groups of memory disorders. Answer: organic – physical causes of memory impairment can be identified; dissociative disorders – disruptions in memory lack a clear physical cause Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe physical and psychological disorders that disrupt memory. Section Reference: Disorders of Memory 501. Make a distinction between retrograde and anterograde amnesia. Answer: The answer should indicate that retrograde amnesia results in an inability to remember what occurred before the onset of a disorder or event, whereas anterograde amnesia reflects an inability to form new memories after a disorder or event. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe physical and psychological disorders that disrupt memory. Section Reference: Disorders of Memory 502. What did we learn about memory from the case of Henry Molaison (H.M.)? Answer: the structures of the brain involved in memory, specifically, the hippocampus, temporal lobe, and amygdala Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe physical and psychological disorders that disrupt memory. Section Reference: Disorders of Memory 503. Describe the difference between amnestic disorders and dementia. Answer: Amnestic disorders primarily affect memory; dementia affects both memory and other cognitive functions. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe physical and psychological disorders that disrupt memory. Section Reference: Disorders of Memory 504. Discuss the risk factors for the development of dementia in both men and women.

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Answer: men: stroke, women: depression Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe physical and psychological disorders that disrupt memory. Section Reference: Disorders of Memory

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LABELLING QUESTION 505. Label the following structures involved in eyewitness memory. amygdala hippocampus prefrontal cortex thalamus visual cortex

Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective: Summarize key theories of why we forget information and sometimes distort or manufacture memories. Section Reference: Why Do We Forget and Misremember?

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CHAPTER 9 LANGUAGE AND THOUGHT CHAPTER LEARNING OBJECTIVES 1. Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. • Language is a set of symbols used to communicate. Language comprehension understands verbal messages, and language production is creating them. • The study of language can be broken into phonology (sounds), semantics (meaning), syntax (grammar), and pragmatics (practical usage). • Most people follow a typical sequence of language acquisition that includes the ability to distinguish, but not produce, all possible phonemes at about 2 to 4 months of age, babbling at about 6 months, and speaking first words at around 1 year of age. • The standard way we learn language suggests that we have an inborn capacity for language learning, although environment contributes as well. There appears be a sensitive or critical period before about 13 years old when it is easiest to acquire language. • In most people, the language centres in the brain are in the left hemisphere. The main brain region important for speech production is Broca’s area. The main region for language comprehension is called Wernicke’s area. Several other areas of the brain are also active in language, including the frontal eye fields when we read. • There are small average gender differences in early language learning, with girls initially learning faster. These differences disappear with time. 2. Describe how thought and language are related and summarize the linguistic relativity hypothesis. • Some thoughts, including mental imagery and spatial navigation, require no words. • The linguistic relativity hypothesis suggests that the amount of vocabulary we have available in our language for objects or concepts influences the way we think about those objects or concepts. 3. Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. • We are capable of several different kinds of thought, and different types of thinking involve different brain regions, often including those related to the specific thoughts. We develop various thinking abilities gradually with age. • Controlled processing relies on the executive function of the brain. We become increasingly able to exert cognitive control as we age. • Problem solving is finding a way to reach a goal. Algorithms, problem-solving strategies that guarantee a solution if followed methodically, work best for well-defined problems. Shortcut strategies called heuristics may help with ill-defined problems. • Common problem-solving heuristics include working backwards, finding analogies to other problems, and forming subgoals. Heuristics can lead to difficulties in problem solving, including mental sets, functional fixedness, and confirmation bias.

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Decision making involves evaluating and choosing from among the options available to us. We often use heuristics to recall information to make decisions, but some, including the representativeness and availability heuristics, can bias our evaluations. Rational models of problem solving suggest that we make elimination options and/or make weighted evaluations of the utility and probability of options. We often lack time, information, or cognitive resources for rational decision making, however, so we use a strategy of limited or bounded rationality. Emotions often play a role in decision making, sometimes interfering with our ability to make rational decisions, but other times helping us to make efficient choices. Metacognition is thinking about our own thoughts. It includes reviewing and evaluating our own memories, self-reflection, and theory of mind—inferring the intentions of other people. Mirror neurons in the brain contribute to theory of mind. Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) and schizophrenia are two mental disorders that include a major thought disruption.

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TRUE-FALSE STATEMENTS 1. Language can be spoken, signed, or written. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 2. Pragmatics refers to the practical use of language. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 3. As gesturing is learned through direct observation, persons who are blind do NOT use gestures. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 4. Most younger adults score higher than older adults on tests of vocabulary. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language

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5. Child-directed speech is observed when parents communicate using sign language. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 6. Sign language activates Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas in persons with intact brains. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 7. Wernicke’s area is located in the left temporal lobe. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 8. When individuals read words that evoke odours, the smell-related portions of the brain become active. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language

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9. Spatial thinking is an example of mental imagery. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how thought and language are related and summarize the linguistic relativity hypothesis. Section Reference: The Relationship between Language and Thought 10. Evidence for the linguistic relativity hypothesis has been derived from cross-cultural studies. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how thought and language are related and summarize the linguistic relativity hypothesis. Section Reference: The Relationship between Language and Thought 11. Controlled processing requires less attention than automatic processing. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 12. Reduced ability in planning is associated with dysexecutive syndrome. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 13. Individuals are more likely to find successful solution strategies for well-defined problems. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension

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Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 14. The use of heuristics is a “best guess” that does NOT guarantee a solution. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 15. Insight typically follows periods during which we mentally “set aside” a problem. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 16. The “string problem” is a classic example of functional fixedness. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 17. People often ignore probability information when they make assumptions using the representativeness heuristic. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 18. Humans rarely rely on “gut instinct” during decision making.

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Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 19. Negative self-reflection leads to improved self-esteem. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 20. Compulsions are uncontrollable, anxiety-provoking thoughts. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought

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MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 21. Language is defined as a) a set of symbols used to communicate. b) a system of symbols and rules for combining the symbols. c) a communicative system that is used to convey one’s thoughts or feelings. d) a written or verbal expression or thought. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 22. Which of the following areas refers to the meaning of words? a) phonology b) semantics c) morphology d) pragmatics Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 23. Why has communication research with apes focused on sign language? a) Apes lack the vocal apparatus to vocalize the way humans do, which is why humans have taught apes to sign. b) Most apes are hearing impaired. c) Through sign language, apes are able to communicate more efficiently with each other than humans are. d) Most apes have complex language structures that can only be accessed through sign language. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension

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Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 27. Rocco’s parrot, Kiwi, can say about 50 words and phrases. Based on the discussion in your textbook, does Kiwi have language? Why or why NOT? a) Yes, because Kiwi has learned enough words to communicate. b) Yes, if he has learned some phrases, he can generate speech. c) Yes, because he is obviously able to express his thoughts. d) No, there is more to language that mimicking words and phrases. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 28. Which of the following accurately describes a difference between the vocalizations of a lion and those of a human? a) The lion does not roar to communicate. b) The lion does not use physical structures to produce their vocalizations. c) The lion does not learn to roar or change its roar to communicate different messages. d) The lion communicates more using body language and only uses roaring as a warning. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 29. With a mouth full of popcorn, Roger asks his mother for a drink. Even though his request is NOT clear, his mother hands him a drink of water. Which of the following statements best explains Roger’s mother’s ability to understand what he was saying? a) Unclear speech can be comprehended by all native speakers of a language. b) Unless Roger had a lisp, accent, or speech impediment, it would not be difficult to understand him. c) Language comprehension is mostly automatic, so we are able to understand speech even when it is unclear. d) His mother used other cues such as the bowl of popcorn to guess what Roger wanted. Answer: c

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 30. Two-year-old Travis does not yet speak a lot of words; however, he seems to understand many of the things that other people say to him. This would suggest that Travis has better _________________ than ______________. a) language production; vocalization b) language production; language comprehension c) language comprehension; pragmatics d) language comprehension; language production Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 31. The smallest units of a language that convey meaning is a a) phoneme. b) morpheme. c) grapheme. d) lexical meaning. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 32. Which of the following is the language element that conveys meaning but may or may NOT be a complete word? a) the phoneme b) the syntax c) the semantics d) the morpheme Answer: d

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Language and Thought

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. 33. A morpheme is defined as a) the smallest unit of sound in a language. b) the smallest unit of a language that conveys meaning. c) the dictionary meaning of a word. d) speech that consists of minimalistic sentences. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 34. How many morphemes does the word firefighters contain? a) 1 b) 2 c) 4 d) 9 Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 35. How many phonemes does the English language have? a) approximately 30 b) exactly26 c) approximately 40 d) approximately 50 Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 36. Which of the following words consists of four phonemes? a) ladder b) rabbit c) beet d) shouting Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 37. Which component of language is correctly matched with its usual representation in written language? a) syntax – syllable or word b) phoneme – letter c) morpheme – sentence d) semantics – letter Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 38. The sound of “a” in the word answer is an example of ____________. a) a morpheme b) grammar c) a phoneme d) pragmatics Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 39. What is the difference between the unit "u-" and the unit "un-" in the word "unthinkable"? a) "U-" is the smallest distinct sound unit and therefore a phoneme; "un-" is the smallest unit of meaning and therefore a morpheme. b) "U-" is the smallest unit of meaning and therefore a morpheme; "un-" is the smallest distinct sound unit and therefore a phoneme. c) "U-" is the smallest unit of meaning and therefore a phoneme; "un-" is the smallest distinct sound and therefore a morpheme. d) "U-" is the smallest distinct sound and therefore a morpheme; "un-" is the smallest unit of meaning and therefore a phoneme. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 40. In written language, letters most closely represent ___, whereas sentences may be said to reflect ___. a) syntax; semantics b) syntax; phonemes c) phonemes; syntax d) phonemes; semantics Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 41. Hattie has just sent a text message to her friend saying, “CU2nite”. Her friend understands immediately that this means, “See you tonight”. Based on the discussion in your text book, why does Hattie’s friend understand this message so easily? a) Hattie and her friend have been texting back and forth so much, they have developed their own language. b) The text message uses the same phonemes as the full words, so it is processed automatically. c) Most people can figure out these abbreviated versions of words if given enough time.

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

d) With the advent of technology, people are getting used to abbreviated words, so it has become like a language of its own. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 42. The difference between a morpheme and a phoneme is that a morpheme is ___ and a phoneme is ___. a) the system for using words; the system for using grammar b) the dictionary meaning of a word; how the word sounds c) practical aspects of language use; the non-verbal communication that occurs with language d) the smallest unit of meaning in a language; the smallest unit of sound in a language Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 43. The sound for “ng” is called _________; whereas the suffix “ing” is called _________. a) syntax; grammar b) grammar; syntax c) a phoneme; a morpheme d) a morpheme; a phoneme Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 44. The word "blanket" has ___________ phoneme(s) and __________ morpheme(s). a) one; two b) seven; two c) seven; one d) two; one

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 48. Which element of language below is matched with the most appropriate area of language study? a) –ing – semantics b) /k/ – syntax c) Melody stirred cream into her coffee – phonology d) desk – morphology Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 49. One important aspect of pragmatics is(are) a) symbols representing letters and sounds. b) context through word order. c) nonverbal communication. d) lexical meaning. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 50. When Gilda came home two hours past her curfew, her mother was waiting for her. Even though her mother said nothing, the look on her mother’s face and the way she was standing with her arms crossed told Gilda she was very angry. Gilda’s mother was using a) gestures. b) display communications. c) non-verbal communication. d) sign language. Answer: c

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 51. Which of the following best describes the difference between gestures and non-verbal communication? a) Gestures are learned by observing others, non-verbal communication is innate. b) Non-verbal communication is learned by observing others, gestures are innate. c) Gestures are used to express greater emotion than non-verbal communication. d) Non-verbal communication is used to express greater emotion than gestures. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 52. Which of the following alternatives best expresses the relationships among non-verbal communication, pragmatics, and gesturing? a) The terms are synonymous and used interchangeably. b) Non-verbal communication includes pragmatics and gesturing. c) Pragmatics includes non-verbal communication, which is synonymous with gesturing. d) Pragmatics includes non-verbal communication and gesturing. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 53. Although Annette cannot hear what the two people across the room are saying to each other, she can tell by their facial expressions, how quickly they are talking, their body posture, and way they are gesturing with their hands that they are having a heated argument. The aspect of language that allows Annette to interpret this conversation without actually hearing it is called ____________. a) semantics b) linguistics c) psycholinguistics

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

d) pragmatics Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 54. Corinne and Maia are text messaging back and forth. Although Maia’s latest message is clear, Corinne CANNOT tell if her friend is angry with her or not. Which of the following would be missing in a text message that would be present during face-to-face conversation? a) grammar b) semantics c) pragmatics d) syntax Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 55. Grammar is to meaning as ___ is to ___. a) semantics; syntax b) syntax; semantics c) syntax; phoneme d) phoneme; semantics Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 56. Which of the following defines syntax? a) the rules that describe how word parts become words b) the smallest units that carry meaning on their own c) the system used to create meaningful expressions d) the rules defining how to put words in order to convey meaning

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Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 57. A toddler says the following: “park go we.” This statement demonstrates an error in ______________. a) syntax b) semantics c) morphemes d) prefixes Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 58. Chandran received his paper back from his English teacher, Ms. Li. She informed him that adverbs follow the verbs they modify in sentence order. What level of language analysis does this represent? a) syntax b) semantics c) morphology d) pragmatics Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 59. Which of the following sentences breaks the rules for English syntax? a) The limb crawled out on the lamb of the tree. b) Streets fatal accidents rainy causes. c) 'Twas brillig, and the slithy toves did gyre and gimble in the wabe. d) all of these options

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 60. Which of the following sequences correctly orders the components of language, from the smallest or most specific to the broadest? a) phoneme à morpheme à syntax b) syntax à morpheme à phoneme c) phoneme à syntax à morpheme d) syntax à phoneme à morpheme Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 61. The sequence phoneme à morpheme à syntax à pragmatics orders the components of language, from the smallest or most specific to the broadest. Which of the sequences below correctly corresponds to this order in terms of linguistic complexity? a) social meaning; meaning; unit of meaning; unit of sound b) unit of sound; unit of meaning; meaning; social meaning c) unit of meaning; unit of sounds; social meaning; meaning d) unit of meaning; unit of sound; meaning; social meaning Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 62. Which units of language are used to form sentences? Choose the order that goes from smallest to largest components of a sentence. a) phonemes, morphemes, words, clauses b) words, clauses, morphemes, phonemes c) clauses, words, phonemes, morphemes

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d) morphemes, phonemes, words, clauses Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 63. What is the difference between a phoneme and a morpheme? a) A phoneme is the smallest unit of sound and a morpheme is a combination of phonemes that create the smallest unit of meaning of language. b) A morpheme is the smallest unit of sound and a phoneme is a combination of morphemes that create the smallest unit of meaning of language. c) A phoneme is the smallest unit of sound and a morpheme is the plural of phoneme, more than one phoneme together. d) A phoneme is the smallest unit of meaning of language and a morpheme is the morphing of these phonemes into full words. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 64. What is the difference between syntax and semantics? a) Syntax is the order in which words are put together; semantics is the way in which words are used to create meaning. b) Syntax is the system of rules that generate acceptable language; semantics is the system of rules that generate acceptable word meaning. c) Syntax is the system of rules in which words are given meaning; semantics is the system of rules that give order to words. d) Syntax is the ways in which morphemes are combined into words; semantics is the ways in which those words are used. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

65. When taking a language test, Jim answers several questions about language development. He is asked to correct the following sentence: Lilly, "You love I", said. What is the question primarily asking Jim to address? a) The question asks Jim to address the incorrect syntax, because the sentence does not use the appropriate order of words. b) The question asks Jim to address the incorrect semantics, because the sentence does not use words to create meaning. c) The question asks Jim to address the incorrect semantics, because the sentence does not employ the correct meaning with the words used. d) The question is asking Jim to address the sentence, but it is a distractor as the sentence is completely accurate, it should be marked correct. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 66. When Violet first begins expressing vocalizations, she says things like "Bah", for "bottle" and "Dah", for "dog". By the time she is in kindergarten, she can pronounce words like "disappear" and "happily". What is the difference between these two phases with regard to language production? a) Violet first produces phonemes and then produces morphemes as her language skills progress. b) Violet first produces morphemes and then produces phonemes as her language skills progress. c) Violet first produces syntax and then produces syntax as her language skills progress. d) Violet first produces semantics and then produces syntax as her language skills progress. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 67. Gustav is an infant from Germany, Anthony is an infant from Canada, and Daichi is an infant from Japan. Which infant is likely to develop language first? a) Gustav. Western European infants develop language about one month earlier than other infants. b) Anthony. Canadian and American infants develop language about one month earlier than other infants. c) Daichi. Asian infants develop language about one month earlier than other infants.

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d) There is no way to predict. Most infants worldwide develop language at approximately the same rate. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 68. Jadine is born in China and hears nothing but Mandarin Chinese for the first 4 months of her life. At that point, she is adopted by a Canadian couple. Which of the following statements best describes Jadine’s ability to learn English? a) Jadine will learn English in the same way Canadian-born children would. b) Jadine will learn English but will be slightly delayed as she will be accustomed to Chinese phonemes. c) Jadine will be able to learn English but will also speak Chinese due to the early exposure to Chinese phonemes. d) Jadine will have great difficulty learning English because she would already have lost her ability to distinguish English phonemes. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 69. When an infant begins to make non-crying vocalizations that consist mainly of vowel sounds, this is called a) babbling. b) telegraphic speech. c) prevocal learning. d) cooing. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

70. Baby Thandolwethu is sitting in his car seat happily making vowel sounds. Thandolwethu is _________ which means he is probably about _______ old. a) making prevocal sounds; less than 2 months b) making prevocal sounds; 2 – 6 months c) cooing; less than 2 months d) cooing; 2 – 6 months Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 71. When an infant is capable of perceiving the phonemes in every language, they are in the ___ stage. a) babbling b) telegraphic speech c) prevocal learning d) cooing Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 72. A particular baby is making the sounds "aaah" and "ooooh". Which is the MOST likely age of this baby? a) less than 2 months old b) between 2 months and 6 months old c) between 6 months and 9 months old d) older than 9 months old Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language

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73. Baby Kessie is experimenting with vocalizations from her native language (such as da-pada-ga-ci-meh-do). Kessie is _________ which means she is probably about _______ old. a) making prevocal sounds; less than 2 months b) making prevocal sounds; 4 months c) babbling; less than 4 months d) babbling; 6 months Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 74. By what age do typically-developing babies begin to babble? a) approximately 1 month b) approximately 3 months c) approximately 6 months d) approximately 9 months Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 75. In telegraphic speech, the dropped words are _____ because they are not necessary to determine the meaning of the phrase. a) morphemic errors. b) omitted morphemes c) syntactic morphemes d) grammatical morphemes Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

76. Ivy is a very vocal toddler. Now that she started talking, she has not stopped: "Mama go home". "Tia pick me". "Dada go bye bye". Emily, Ivy’s slightly younger cousin, is NOT as talkative, but when she has something to say, she will speak. "Emy hungry". "Emy sleepy". What can be inferred about Ivy and Emily? a) Both Emily and Ivy have progressed to telegraphic speech. b) Ivy has progressed to overextension of words; Emily has progressed to overgeneralization. c) Ivy has progressed to telegraphic speech; Emily has progressed to overextension of words. d) Both Emily and Ivy have progressed to babbling that resembles speech. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 77. Büşra is 6 months old; Vikrant is 1 year old; and Lachlan is 2 years old. Which option below correctly pairs each child with the appropriate language development stage or phenomenon? a) Büşra – prevocal learning; Vikrant – babbling; Lachlan – first words b) Büşra – babbling; Vikrant – telegraphic speech; Lachlan – first words c) Büşra – prevocal learning; Vikrant – first words; Lachlan – telegraphic speech d) Büşra – babbling; Vikrant – first words; Wayne – Lachlan hic speech Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 78. What is the difference between cooing and babbling? a) Cooing is the earliest stage of language in which vowel sounds are predominant; babbling is the second stage in which consonant sounds are introduced. b) Babbling is the earliest stage of language in which vowel sounds are predominant; cooing is the second stage in which consonant sounds are introduced. c) Cooing is the earliest stage of language in which children cannot yet say full words; babbling is the second stage in which full words are produced. d) Babbling is the earliest stage of language in which sounds are created reflexively; cooing is the second stage in which sounds are purposefully created. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis

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Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 79. Mandy and Anna meet for lunch with their babies. Mandy’s baby, Archer, makes happy noises, like "Ahh", and "Ooh", while Anna’s baby, Zachary, squeals, "Mahmahmah…dahdahdah"! What is the difference in Archer and Zachary’s stages of speech development? a) Archer demonstrates cooing while Zachary demonstrates babbling. b) Archer demonstrates babbling while Zachary demonstrates overextension. c) Archer demonstrates cooing while Zachary demonstrates overextending. d) Archer demonstrates babbling while Zachary demonstrates cooing. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 80. You are creating a language development timeline for a class presentation. Along the top of a display board, you write the following ages in sequence: 3 months à 6 months à 1 year à 2 years. How should you label these ages, from youngest to oldest? a) prevocal learning à babbling à first words à telegraphic speech b) babbling à prevocal learning à first words à telegraphic speech c) babbling à first words à telegraphic speech à pragmatic speech d) prevocal learning à first words à telegraphic speech à syntactic competence Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 81. Dorian is 18 months old; Constance is 3 years old. Dorian’s vocabulary probably contains about ___ words. Constance’s vocabulary contains about ___ words. a) 50; 500 b) 100; 500 c) 50; 1000 d) 100; 1000 Answer: c

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 82. Anthony is 3 years old. Bryce is 4 years old. Which option best describes these boys’ pragmatic and syntactic development? a) Both boys display some syntactic sophistication. Bryce, though, has also developed some pragmatic skill. b) Both boys display some pragmatic sophistication. Bryce, though, has also acquired many of the rules of grammar. c) Both boys display sophisticated pragmatic and syntactic use of language. d) Each of these boys has acquired only the rudiments of either pragmatics or syntax. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 83. Which of the following sequences would result in language production? a) Phonemes → Morphemes → Syntax b) Syntax → Phonemes → Language c) Language → Symbols → Grammar d) Symbols → Grammar → Morphemes Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 84. Matilda has just learned to understand the practical aspects of language such as inferring meaning from obscure language, understanding metaphors, and understanding sophisticated humour. Based on this information, approximately how old is Matilda? a) 5 b) 7 c) 9 d) 11

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Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 85. Twenty-six year old Jimson just finished writing the Graduate Record Exam as part of his application for graduate school. He is surprised to discover that he learned new vocabulary in the process of preparing for the exam. What would you tell Jimson regarding this perception? a) He is incorrect. He may feel that he learned new vocabulary, but all language learning occurs relatively early in life. b) He is incorrect. All types of memory processes are adversely affected by the aging process and as a young adult this process has already begun for him. c) He is correct. In healthy individuals, vocabulary increases in size and sophistication throughout life. d) He is correct. Although not common, highly educated people can learn new vocabulary in early adulthood. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 86. Freya is a healthy 84 years old and aging typically. Although she shows slowed reaction times and impaired memory for some things in her daily life compared to young adults, she still scores as higher or higher than young adults on tests of a) working memory. b) vocabulary. c) negative information. d) prospective memory. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

87. A _______ is a window of time in development during which certain influences are necessary for appropriate formation of the brain. a) critical period b) sensitive period c) neuroplastic period d) neurodevelopmental period Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 88. What does a “critical period” in language development refer to? a) period during which the brain is receptive to language learning b) period during which children are proficient in their first language c) period during which children must receive stimulation to learn language d) period during which the brain forms neural connections for language learning Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 89. Which of the following describes the differences in brain activation during speech production and comprehension between normal-hearing persons and persons who are deaf and use sign language? a) There are no differences. b) Broca’s area is not active during the use of sign language, but Wernicke’s area is more highly activated. c) Wernicke’s area is not active during the use of sign language, but Broca’s area is more highly activated. d) Broca’s area is activated less during the use of sign language; Wernicke’s area is activated the same in speech and sign language. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills.

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Section Reference: Language 90. How does the critical period for deaf children acquiring sign language compare to the critical period for hearing children acquiring spoken language? a) There really is no critical period for deaf children acquiring sign language, whereas there is quite a definite critical period for hearing children acquiring spoken language. b) The critical period for deaf children acquiring sign language is essentially the same as the critical period for hearing children acquiring spoken language. c) The critical period for deaf children acquiring sign language is shorter than the critical period for hearing children acquiring spoken language. d) The critical period for deaf children acquiring sign language is longer than the critical period for hearing children acquiring spoken language. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 91. A time window in which certain influences are necessary for appropriate brain development is called a ___ period. A time window in which the brain is susceptible to certain influences is called a ___. a) critical; sensitive period b) critical; critical period as well c) sensitive; sensitive period as well d) sensitive; critical period Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 92. Your text reports the case of a girl named Genie, who was exposed to virtually no language from the age of 20 months until the age of 13 years. In what way does Genie’s case offer support for the notion of a critical period in language acquisition? a) With intensive instruction, Genie acquired a sizeable vocabulary after the age of 13; moreover, she eventually mastered the rules of syntax. b) Even with intensive instruction, Genie acquired only a very small vocabulary after the age of 13; furthermore, she never mastered the syntactic complexities of language. c) Once she was no longer isolated, Genie acquired a sizeable vocabulary and eventually mastered the rules of syntax, even without intensive formal instruction.

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

d) Genie’s case is irrelevant to the notion of a critical period. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 93. Sammy was severely neglected for the first 11 years of his life during which he was minimally exposed to language. After being rescued and adopted into a loving home, therapists tried to teach Sammy language. The ______ period of language development would be supported if it was found that Sammy was not capable of mastering language. The _____________ period of language development would be supported if he struggled to learn language but eventually was able to master it. a) neurodevelopmental; neuroplasticity b) neuroplasticity; neurodevelopmental c) critical; sensitive d) sensitive; critical Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 94. The idea that language learning proceeds through a sensitive period is supported by a) the finding that language processing is dedicated to specific brain regions. b) the fact that animals cannot learn language. c) the case of Genie. d) the fact that low-income children hear far fewer words per hour than high-income children. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 95. What is the relationship, if any, between language comprehension and language production among young children in the “first words” stage?

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a) There is no systematic relationship between language comprehension and language production at this point: It varies from child to child. b) Language comprehension generally exceeds language production at this stage. c) Language comprehension generally lags language production at this stage. d) Language comprehension ability is generally equivalent to language production ability at this point. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 96. “Sophie kitty,” Clementine says, when her aunt asks her whether the stuffed cat belongs to her or to her sister. Clementine’s reply explains that the cat belongs to her sister and exemplifies ___ speech. a) telegraphic b) holographic c) idiographic d) agrammatic Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 97. “Me go?” Giles asks, when he sees his mother putting a bag with a change of his clothes and his favourite treats and juice boxes by the door to the garage. His mother responds, “Yes. You are coming. We are going to the zoo.” Giles adds, “See lions?” Giles speech exemplifies ___ speech. a) telegraphic b) holographic c) idiographic d) agrammatic Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills.

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Section Reference: Language 98. Which of the following utterances would indicate a child is beyond the stage of telegraphic speech in language development? a) Daddy keys. b) No night-night. c) Mama catched ball. d) Me sees dat birdie. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 99. Orion runs up to his father and says, "I runned around the tree"! His father smiles and congratulates his son on the accomplishment. Orion’s speech is an example of a) overregularization. b) overextension. c) telegraphic speech. d) cooing. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 100. Tori, a preschooler, demonstrates overregularization in the classroom when she says, a) "I drawed a picture of a kitty". b) "That's a pony!" and points to a picture of a zebra. c) "Tori play this” and picks up a ball. d) "Mine!" and grabs a toy from another child. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language

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101. Nikki is a speech therapist who works with children aged three and older. On Monday, the first child she works with tends to omit connecting words when speaking, while the second incorrectly converts verbs to past tense, such as "sitted" for "sat". What difference in language acquisition do Nikki's patients demonstrate? a) Her first patient demonstrates telegraphic speech while her second patient demonstrates overregularization. b) Her first patient demonstrates overextension while her second patient demonstrates overregularization. c) Her first patient demonstrates telegraphic speech while her second patient demonstrates overextension. d) Her first patient demonstrates overregularization while her second patient demonstrates telegraphic speech. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 102. Zella’s infant son has recently started expressing himself using sounds, and "Ahhh" is his favorite. Yesterday, as Zella was on her way to work, her two-year-old daughter said, "Mama go bye bye". How are Zella’s two children different? a) The infant is at the first stage of language production (cooing); the two-year-old has progressed and is using telegraphic speech. b) The infant is at the first stage of language production (babbling); the two-year-old has progressed to cooing. c) The infant is progressing quickly and is overextending words; the two-year-old has only progressed to overregularizing. d) The infant is using reflexive sounds with more purpose; the two-year-old has progressed to babbling whole words. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. 103. When Jane goes to her 5-year-old daughter’s parent-teacher conference, her teacher informs her that her daughter, Sylvia, still exhibits the use of overregularization in her speaking and writing. When Jane nervously asks her to explain what this means, how would Sylvia’s teacher likely respond? a) Though Sylvia’s basic grammar usage is correct, she is not applying exceptions to the rules. She will, however, learn to use these exceptions in time.

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

b) Sylvia has younger siblings and is probably still modeling her use of grammar on their less advanced skills, which will change in time. c) Sylvia has a basic grasp of grammatical expectations for her age, but to be safe her teacher recommends intervention in the form of speech pathology. d) Though Sylvia’s basic grammar usage is correct, she is over-applying grammar rules. This is something that needs to be curtailed, which her parents can do with her at home. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 104. A team of researchers computes correlation coefficients between family income and the number of words children hear each hour in the home and between family income and the ratio of affirmations to prohibitions that children hear. What sorts of coefficients are the researchers likely to find? a) They should find a positive correlation between family income and the number of words children hear, but a near-zero correlation between family income and the ratio of affirmations to prohibitions that children hear. b) They should find a near-zero correlation between family income and the number of words children hear, but a positive correlation between family income and the ratio of affirmations to prohibitions that children hear. c) They should find near-zero correlations between family income and both the number of words children hear and the ratio of affirmations to prohibitions that they hear. d) They should find positive correlations between family income and both the number of words children hear and the ratio of affirmations to prohibitions that they hear. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 105. Research suggests that there is a relationship between socio-economic status (SES) and parent-child communication, with children from poorer homes exposed to fewer words, fewer affirmations and a greater number of prohibitions. What conclusion below is also supported by the data? a) Educating parents and preschool interventions cannot override the effects SES has on children’s language development. b) If ethnicity is controlled for as a variable, this SES effect disappears. c) SES differentially affects boys and girls, with boys showing fewer effects.

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d) The causes for the observed differences in SES and language development is not yet truly understood. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 106. The biological approach to language development is associated with a) B. F. Skinner. b) Benjamin Whorf. c) Noam Chomsky. d) Amos Tversky. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 107. The language theorist Noam Chomsky proposed that a) language capability is innate. b) language determines thought. c) language shaping is learned. d) language influences thought. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 108. Carden believes that all babies are pre-programmed to learn language as evidenced by their natural ability to detect phonemes, and how rapidly they learn language. He has even gone so far as to suggest that our brains have built-in structures to allow us to acquire language. Which theorist would Carden’s beliefs support? a) B. F. Skinner b) Noam Chomsky

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

c) Benjamin Whorf d) Amos Tversky Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 109. Which statement BEST summarizes Chomsky's approach? a) Babies are born with the innate potential to learn language. b) Language development is both biological and social. c) Babies develop language by imitating the language of their caregivers. d) Language is acquired through the principles of reinforcement. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 110. Ethan, Sera, and Carter are all 6-month-old in the same mommy-and-me playgroup. Ethan was born with significant hearing loss, Sera’s parents have just moved to Quebec from the United States, and Carter’s parents both grew up in this city. They all babble incessantly and squeal when their moms’ fuss over any new audible sounds they produce. What would Chomsky determine about this group of babies? a) Children are prewired to learn language through a natural progression of development at around the same ages. b) Though children learn language at around the same age everywhere, it is primarily through feedback from their caregivers. c) Children learn language through shaping, which supports their internal language acquisition device. d) Though children are prewired to learn language through a natural progression, factors like culture and health play significant roles. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language

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111. With regards to language development, ___________ is to biology as __________ is to learning. a) Lorenz; Whorf b) B. F. Skinner; Chomsky c) Chomsky; B. F. Skinner d) Chomsky; Whorf Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 112. Eight-month old Ryan has just said “dada” for the first time. His parents are so happy, they hug him and cheer for him. Ryan, also smiles and then says “dada” again. Whose theory of language development is supported by this example? a) B. F. Skinner b) Naom Chomsky c) Benjamin Whorf d) Amos Tversky Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 113. Eighteen-month-old Aasha has just said the word “kitty” for the first time. Her mother claps her hands and gives Aasha a big hug, praising her for saying a new word. Aasha immediately says “kitty” again. This example best supports the idea that language development occurs as a result of ___________ and was suggested by ___________. a) a language acquisition device; Chomsky b) a language acquisition device; interactive theorists c) instrumental conditioning; interactive theorists d) instrumental conditioning; B. F. Skinner Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 114. A researcher notices that children from Canada and Egypt progress through the stages of language development at the same ages. Which aspect of language development does this support? a) fluency b) language acquisition device c) telegraphic speech d) cooing Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 115. Dr. Yamada is a believer in Chomsky's theory of language development. Which statement supports her stance? a) Li Mei is prewired with a language acquisition device. b) Li Mei would have learned language at a younger age if she lived in a city. c) Li Mei has developed language by imitating her parents. d) Li Mei has learned language because her parents used shaping. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 116. Zara is arguing with her husband, Adam, that their daughters’ speech is a product of a natural maturation process — speaking happens. Adam argues that if this were true, both girls would have learned the same words at the same age. Adam believes their daughters’ speech is shaped by differences in biology and experience. How do Zara and Timothy’s perspectives differ? a) Zara is expressing a position similar to Chomsky's, whereas Adam is expressing a more interactive position. b) Zara is expressing a belief in the language acquisition device, whereas Adam is not. c) Zara is expressing a more interactive position, whereas Adam is expressing a position similar to Chomsky's.

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d) Zara is expressing a belief that language is shaped, whereas Adam is expressing a belief that language is prewired. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 117. Which of the following highlights the MOST important concept of Skinner's approach to language development? a) Children develop language through the systematic process of rewards, punishments, and imitation and for which they have received attention in the past. b) Children develop language according to their innate biological programming and reach separate language milestones at predictable times. c) Children learn language through the systematic process of social imitation in terms of listening to others speak and reproducing what they have heard. d) Children learn language through the interaction of their innate biological programming, and repeating sounds and words for which they have received attention in the past. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 118. Lila is 7-month-old and has been babbling for a while now. She has recently started forming words such as "dog", and "Dad". Her parents love it when Lila speaks, and they smile and encourage her. Lila’s speech grows quickly over the next few months. From a Behaviourist position, what is the BEST explanation for this? a) Lila is the same as most other children her age, and while her language progression seems quick, it matches other children around the world. b) Lila’s language progression comes as the direct result of her parents’ encouragement. If they did not encourage her, the language development would be slowed. c) Lila started saying those words because they got responses from her parents. If she had said "table", and her parents did not smile, she would have found a new word. d) Lila’s parents have unknowingly shaped her language development, which accounts for why it has grown so quickly over time. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 119. Jen is of Armenian descent and is the first in her family to raise a Canadian-born child. She believes that she has a certain amount of power to facilitate and control her son’s development of language by rewarding him with attention when he imitates her speech patterns and repeats sounds for which he has been praised in the past. Jen’s belief is MOST in line with a) a behaviourist approach due to the reward of imitation and repetition. b) Chomsky's approach due to an innate and universal ability to acquire language skills. c) a behaviourist approach due to biologically enforced language milestones. d) Chomsky's approach due to a predictable progress of speech development across cultures. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 120. Which of the following facts is correctly tagged with the extent to which it offers support for the learning theory approach to language development? a) The more that parents speak to their young children, the more proficient the children become in language use—discredits learning theory approach. b) Children are reinforced not only when they use language correctly, but also when they use it incorrectly—supports learning theory approach. c) Psychologists have discovered specific genetic and brain mechanisms supporting language acquisition—irrelevant to learning theory approach. d) Children make overregularization errors when formal grammar instruction begins—consistent with learning theory approach. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 121. Which of the following facts is correctly tagged with the extent to which it offers support for the learning theory approach to language development? a) The more that parents speak to their young children, the more proficient the children become in language use—discredits learning theory approach.

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b) Children are reinforced not only when they use language correctly and punished when they use it incorrectly—supports learning theory approach. c) Psychologists have discovered specific genetic and brain mechanisms supporting language acquisition—irrelevant to learning theory approach. d) Children make overregularization errors when formal grammar instruction begins—discredits learning theory approach. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 122. Based on research that examined the factors that influence language acquisition, which of the following children is likely to develop language the earliest? a) Jenny, a little girl who comes from a low-income family b) Uri, a little boy who comes from a low-income family c) Ichika, a little girl who comes from a high-income family d) Amir, a little boy who comes from a high-income family Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 123. When he was ten years old and in the fifth grade, Julien’s middle-SES parents died in a tragic accident. Julien was adopted into a lower-SES environment by an aunt. Eve, on the other hand, was born into a lower-SES environment but was adopted into a middle-SES milieu as a ten year old when her mother went to prison for a life sentence. Laszlo was born into a middleSES family, and then adopted into a different middle-SES family at the age of 10 when his mother died. The vocabularies of all three children are assessed when they are 14. Which expression below provides the best estimate of their relative scores on the vocabulary test, all else being equal? a) Laszlo > Julien>Eve b) Laszlo = Julien = Eve c) Laszlo > Julien = Eve d) Laszlo = Julien>Eve Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 124. The tragic case of Genie appears to support the language critical period theory. However, this conclusion has been questioned. All the following reasons below are considerations for why this conclusion may be unfounded, EXCEPT a) Genie progressed through the normal stages of language acquisition until she stalled. b) Genie was malnourished and deprived of any cognitive stimulation. c) Genie may have been mildly intellectually disabled at birth. d) Genie was subjected to severe physical and emotional abuse. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 125. Theorists taking an interactive approach to language development ___. a) reject both the learning theory and biological approaches b) agree that we are biologically hardwired to acquire language c) downplay the role of the environment in language development d) remain unconvinced by the idea of a language-acquisition device Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 126. The fact that all children engaged in communication, even children who are born deaf, develop some form of syntax which later matches the rules of their language supports which of the following statements on language development? a) Children are biologically wired to learn language. b) Children learn language through conditioning. c) Children learn language through interactions with their social environment. d) Children learn language through an interaction of biology and environment. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium

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Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 127. Which of the following are universal characteristics of child-directed speech? a) high-pitched tone b) limited emotions c) increased volume d) increased hand gestures Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 128. When people speak to infants using high-pitched and exaggerated speech, what type of speech are they using? a) baby talk b) child-directed speech c) telegraphic speech d) pragmatic speech Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 129. Adia, a Kenyan, is the mother of a two-month-old boy. Farah, a Canadian, is the mother of a two-month old girl. Which of the following accurately describes the two women’s use of childdirected speech? a) Adia will use more child-directed speech because her baby is a male. b) Farah will use more child-directed speech because it is specific to Western cultures. c) Farah will use more child-directed speech because her baby is a girl. d) Both women will use child-directed speech equally as it is used universally. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 130. Yuna is talking to her three-month old grandson. She is using a much slower paced speech than what she would use with another adult, and she is also using much more inflection and high-pitched sounds. Why is Yuna speaking this way? a) Without more information we can only assume that she always speaks like this. b) She has heard that babies hear high frequency sounds better than low frequency sounds. c) She is using child-directed speech. d) She doesn’t want her grandson to grow up talking too quickly or low-pitched. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 131. Nomaan is listening to his wife, Binita, talk to their four-month old baby. She is speaking in a high-pitched tone and using exaggerated emotional responses. Binita is using ______________ speech. a) baby talk b) dramatic speech c) infant-directed speech d) child-directed speech Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 132. Which of the following statements reflects the linguistic relativity hypothesis? a) Language determines both our thoughts and behaviours. b) Our thoughts determine our language. c) Our language determines our thoughts. d) Behaviour determines our thoughts and language. Answer: c

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 133. The main idea of the linguistic relativity hypothesis is that a) Some cultures have a great many nouns to express the general concept of snow. b) a person's culture determines the way a person thinks. c) the English language has fewer synonyms than other languages. d) the way a person thinks determines the person's culture. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 134. If one culture has many more words to describe a specific concept, such as snow, it a) means they have a better understanding of the concept. b) does not mean they have a better understanding of the concept. c) means they can describe the concept such that it is better understood. d) means they are better able to distinguish the differences between variations of the concept. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. 135. Which of the following statements would best fit with the linguistic relativity hypothesis? a) Thought leads to language development. b) Thought and language occur simultaneously. c) Thought is influenced by language. d) Thought and language are distinct and unrelated processes. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 136. Niamh is telling her roommate a lengthy story about an argument she had with her boss and how she regrets NOT making a clever remark at the time. Niamh’s roommate, who is German, uses the single word, "treppenwitz" to describe such a situation. This example demonstrates how a) social situations occur universally. b) having a specific word for a complex social situation can provide a clearer understanding of the situation. c) a social situation can be interpreted very differently cross-culturally. d) social situations are often misunderstood by persons of different cultures. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 137. Which of the following statements best captures the theoretical interpretation of childdirected speech presented in your text? a) Child-directed speech arises automatically, showing that we are biologically predisposed to structure the environment to aid children’s language learning. In this way, child-directed speech is good evidence for an interactive perspective on language development. b) Child-directed speech shows that we structure the environment to aid children’s language development, thereby supporting the learning view of language acquisition. c) Child-directed speech arises automatically, pointing to the biological basis of language development. d) Child-directed speech is universal, appearing even among deaf parents using sign language. This suggests the biological basis of language development. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 138. Terri is a speech therapist who is scheduled to speak at a Language and Children conference. She plans to discuss her research findings that children seem to naturally process language, but how they learn is shaped by experiences. What can be said about Terri?

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a) Terri shares the interactive theorists' approach as she recognizes a neurological ability such as the language acquisition device, but also believes that certain experiences may influence how children learn language. b) Terri shares Chomsky's position because she recognizes a neurological ability such as the language acquisition device regardless of the language spoken by children. c) Terri agrees with the linguistic relativity hypothesis because the language spoken by the children determined the differences in experience. d) Terri is not a knowledgeable speech therapist, because she does not recognize the established stages of language development in children. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 139. Which of the following statements support an interactive perspective on language development? 1. Grammar rules are universal and consistent within a given language. 2. Child-directed speech is universal, even among the deaf community. 3. Child-directed speech enhances quality and quantity of communication. 4. Language must be developed within a specific critical period, generally ending in puberty. 5. Child-directed speech arises automatically. 6. Once children begin to understand the rules of syntax and grammar, they incorrectly apply those rules to exceptions. a) 2, 3, 5 b) 1, 2, 3, 5 c) 1 ,2, 3, 5, 6 d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 140. When a child learns a new grammatical rule and then uses is inappropriately with an exceptional case, this is called a) overextension. b) child-directed speech. c) overregularization.

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

d) agrammatism. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 141. Which of the following is an example of overregularization in language? a) “I drinked all my milk.” b) “I always drink milk.” c) “Milk gone.” d) “All gone milk.” Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 142. Which of the following is an example of overregularization in language? a) “I runned so fast.” b) “I always drink juice.” c) “Dada up.” d) “All gone juice.” Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 143. According to your text, reading becomes an automatic process for most children around the age of ___. a) 6 b) 7 c) 8 d) 9

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Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 144. Which of the following areas is activated when individuals read? a) pons b) medulla c) frontal eye fields d) parietal cortex Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 145. Dr. Lewis records the time it takes university students to read a brief passage. Using an eye-tracking device, he also measures a) how long the students look at each word and b) the number of times their eyes dart backward, from right to left. He should find a positive correlation between the total reading time for the passage and ___. a) how long students look at each word b) the number of backward eye movements students make c) both the length of time the students look at each word and the number of backward eye movements students make d) neither the length of time the students look at each word, nor the number of backward eye movements students make Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 146. Aaron and Bert are both reading a book in class. Aaron reads approximately 25 pages in an hour, whereas Bert only reads 10. Which of the following is likely to be a key difference between the two boys? a) Bert likely comes from a lower SES family, whereas Aaron comes from a higher SES family.

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

b) Aaron’s brain recruits more brain regions than Bert’s to process the information faster. c) Bert likely pauses more on individual words and backtracks to words already read, whereas Aaron does not. d) Bert likely has a lower vocabulary than Aaron. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 147. Which condition, resulting from damage to Broca’s area, can produce an inability to speak using proper grammar? a) Aphasia b) Agraphia c) Agrammatism d) Agnosia Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 148. Which of the following statements best expresses the relationship, if any, between agrammatism and either Broca’s aphasia, Wernicke’s aphasia, or both? a) Agrammatism is sometimes a feature of Wernicke’s aphasia. b) Agrammatism is sometimes a feature of Broca’s aphasia. c) Agrammatism is characteristic of both Wernicke’s and Broca’s aphasia. d) Agrammatism is a third type of aphasia, along with Wernicke’s and Broca’s aphasia. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 149. Following a stroke, Clive has difficulty speaking grammatically. This impairment is termed ___ and suggests that Clive may suffer from ___ aphasia.

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a) telegraphic speech – Wernicke’s b) telegraphic speech – Broca’s c) agrammatism – Wernicke’s d) agrammatism – Broca’s Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 150. When Jiro was injured in a car accident, he sustained brain damage centered in Broca's area. Which example below best demonstrates a possible result of this type of injury? a) Jiro now speaks in halting, limited phrases that are difficult to understand, yet he understands everything that is said to him. b) Jiro speaks normally, but has difficulty understanding what others are saying to him. c) Jiro demonstrates an inability to control spontaneous vocal outbursts, such as swearing. d) Jiro demonstrates improper use of syntax, even though his ability to speak fluently remains intact. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 151. Following a head injury, Cormac had trouble understanding what the medics were asking him and kept having them repeat the questions. This language deficit would MOST likely be explained by damage to a) Wernicke’s area. b) Broca’s area. c) neurotransmitters. d) semantics. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

152. Which area of the brain would become active when a person is trying to understand the words of a speaker? a) Amygdala b) Broca's area c) Hippocampus d) Wernicke's area Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 153. While Wernicke's area is associated with language comprehension, Broca’s area is linked to a) generating speech. b) understanding semantics. c) manipulating language symbols. d) creating syntax symbols. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 154. Athena is hit by a car while rollerblading and sustains injury to her brain, specifically her Wernicke's area. Which example below best demonstrates a possible result of this type of injury? a) She has difficulty understanding spoken language. b) She has difficulty with the correct syntax of words. c) She has difficulty using correct semantics when speaking. d) She has difficulty remembering basic grammar usage. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language

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155. Maya and Julio are struck by a drunk driver on their way home from a date. While they both suffer head trauma, Maya sustains damage to her Broca’s area, but Julio sustains damage to his Wernicke’s area. What are the resulting language production effects for each? a) Maya will lose her ability to vocalize most words and Julio will lose his ability to understand language. b) Maya will lose her ability to understand language and Julio will lose his ability to process speech. c) Maya will lose her ability to produce phonemes and Julio will lose his ability to produce morphemes. d) Maya will lose her ability to speak intelligibly, and Julio will lose his ability to properly form words. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 156. Where is Broca's area typically located in the brain? a) left frontal lobe b) right temporal lobe c) right hemisphere d) left posterior lobe Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 157. If doctors diagnose a patient as having damage in Broca’s area of the brain, what are the possible complications? a) The patient may have difficulty with speech production. b) The patient may not understand speech. c) The patient may not be able to use syntax. d) The patient may not be able to focus on speech. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 158. Daren was in a snowmobiling accident and as a result he is no longer able to speak. What area did he most likely damage in the accident? a) parietal lobe b) temporal lobe c) Wernicke’s area d) Broca’s area Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 159. Faye suffered an aneurysm and now is unable to comprehend speech. What area in Faye’s brain has been damaged? a) parietal lobe b) temporal lobe c) Wernicke’s area d) Broca’s area Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 160. The brain region critical for speech production is called ___ area. It is in the ___ cortex. a) Broca’s; auditory b) Broca’s; motor association c) Wernicke’s; auditory d) Wernicke’s; motor association Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension

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Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 161. Anthony forgot his helmet and rolled his bicycle. Because of this, he is unable to understand anything that is spoken to him or even things that are written. What area did Anthony most likely damage? a) Broca’s area b) Wernicke’s area c) frontal eye fields d) basal ganglia Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 162. Amandine was not wearing her helmet properly when she fell off her bicycle. Tragically, she seriously damaged Wernicke’s area. In what way is this injury likely to change Amandine’s behaviour? a) She will no longer be able to produce speech but will be able to comprehend all that is said to her. b) She will be able to speak fluently, but nonsensically, but will no longer be able to understand things that are spoken to her or even things that are written. c) She will no longer be able to recognize individual faces but will be able to recognize voices. d) She will no longer be able to hold things in memory while she works on another task and will not consolidate memories into her long term memory. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 163. After being thrown from her horse and knocked unconscious, Alexandra must undergo a PET scan because her doctor is expressing some concern over the way she is slowly enunciating and slurring her words. During the procedure, her doctor asks Alexandra to repeat back words and phrases. The area(s) of her brain MOST likely to show activity is/are a) both Broca’s and Wernicke’s area and the motor region. b) the left posterior lobe.

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

c) the amygdala. d) both Broca’s and Wernicke’s area and the right temporal lobe. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 164. The language production and comprehension centres are in the left hemisphere of the brains of about ___% of the population. a) 5 b) 50 c) 75 d) 95 Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 165. Gil is reading a dry, literal technical manual. Maud is reading a lyrical poem filled with figurative language. Which of the following statements best describes the brain hemisphere activation of these two individuals? a) Gil’s left hemisphere is active. Maud’s right hemisphere is active. b) The two hemispheres are equally active in both Gil and Maud. c) Only the left hemisphere is active in both Gil and Maud. d) Gil’s right hemisphere is active. Maud’s left hemisphere is active. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 166. After sustaining a head injury in a car accident, Maisie has difficulty understanding figurative language. For example, when her mother tells Maisie that “her head is spinning”,

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Maisie is confused because her mother’s head is not moving. Maisie has most likely sustained damage to __________. a) her amygdala b) her prefrontal cortex c) her right hemisphere d) Wernicke’s area Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 167. Mr. Kotzuga can no longer understand jokes and is confused by sayings such as “a bird in the hand is worth two in the bush.” Mr. Kotzuga appears to be suffering from ___. a) Wernicke’s aphasia b) agrammatism c) Broca’s aphasia d) right hemisphere damage Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 168. Eula has recently suffered a traumatic brain injury to a specific region in her right hemisphere. Which of the following describes how this might affect Eula’s language ability? a) Her ability to understand language would be impaired. b) Her ability to produce language would be impaired. c) She would take figurative language literally. d) She would take literal language figuratively. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

169. The term “aphasia” refers to a deficit in ___. a) language comprehension b) language production c) language development d) either language production or language comprehension Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 170. What is the difference between Broca’s aphasia and Wernicke’s aphasia? a) Broca’s aphasia is a difficulty processing speech and Wernicke’s aphasia is a difficulty processing non-linguistic sounds. b) Broca’s aphasia is a deficit in speech production and Wernicke’s aphasia is a deficit in language comprehension. c) Broca’s aphasia is a deficit in understanding grammar and Wernicke’s aphasia is a deficit in understanding vocabulary. d) Broca’s aphasia is a difficulty with semantics and Wernicke’s aphasia is a difficulty with pragmatics. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 171. Hiroko learned Japanese and English simultaneously as the daughter of immigrants to Toronto. Isaac is a Canadian from the same town who studied Japanese for several years beginning as a university freshman. Which alternative best describes the involvement of Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas in processing English and Japanese in these two individuals? a) Hiroko – Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas are heavily involved only in processing English; Isaac – Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas are heavily involved only in processing English. b) Hiroko – Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas are involved in processing both English and Japanese; Isaac – Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas are involved in processing both English and Japanese. c) Hiroko – Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas are involved in processing both English and Japanese; Isaac – Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas are heavily involved only in processing English. d) Hiroko – Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas are heavily involved only in processing Japanese; Isaac – Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas are heavily involved only in processing English.

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Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 172. One possible explanation as to why adults have greater difficulty learning a second language than children is that a) adults have developed a mindset regarding the syntactic rules of a language and have difficulty adapting them to the new language b) as we age, Wernicke’s and Broca’s areas become less plastic, so new synaptic connections are not made as easily. c) as adults, it takes longer for Hebbian synapses to form so the learning process is more difficult. d) in learning a second language, the adult brain recruits additional areas that are not typically involved in language, whereas children’s brains rely only on Wernicke’s and Broca’s areas. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 173. Fighting the freeway traffic, Eli’s remarks are studded with vivid expletives. Based on research described in your text, you suspect that Eli’s ___ is highly active. a) auditory association cortex b) prefrontal cortex c) amygdala d) motor association cortex Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 174. Ferino is thinking about a particularly scary scene in the horror movie he watched last night. Which area of his brain would be activated by these thoughts? a) frontal cortex

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b) thalamus c) visual cortex d) amygdala Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 175. Rochelle is having an argument with her girlfriend and is using profanity. In addition to Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas, which area of Rochelle’s brain would be activated by using profanity? a) right parietal lobe b) left parietal lobe c) amygdala d) prefrontal cortex Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 176. According to your text’s discussion of the brain basis of language, one of the newer brain imaging techniques is a) functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI). b) positron emission tomography (PET). c) electroencephalogram (EEG). d) transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS). Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 177. Regarding gender differences in language acquisition, which of the following statements is NOT correct?

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a) Girls learn to talk later than boys. b) Girls acquire language comprehension earlier than boys. d) Women tend to use both hemispheres to process language, whereas men tend to use only the left hemisphere. e) Girls under the age of two develop language comprehension faster than boys. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 178. Which of the following alternatives best describes gender differences in language development from birth to about age 2? a) Girls learn to speak earlier than do boys, and they acquire language comprehension skills faster than boys do. b) Girls learn to speak earlier than do boys, but they acquire language comprehension skills at about the same rate as boys do. c) Boys learn to speak earlier than do girls, and they acquire language comprehension skills faster than girls do. d) Boys learn to speak earlier than do girls, but they acquire language comprehension skills at about the same rate as girls do. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 179. Which of the following alternatives best describes gender differences in language arts skills during the K–12 years? a) Girls consistently out-perform boys during the elementary school years. This difference persists into the college years. b) Girls consistently out-perform boys during the elementary school years. This difference, however, disappears by the end of high school. c) Boys consistently out-perform girls during the elementary school years. This difference persists into the college years. d) Boys consistently out-perform girls during the elementary school years. This difference, however, disappears by the end of high school. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 180. Dr. MacIlhenny wishes to explore gender differences in language arts skills among elementary school students. She suspects, however, that gender differences in scores on language arts tests may be influenced by sex differences in the number of hours that students spend studying and doing homework each week. Which of the following research strategies should she pursue if she wishes to attribute any gender differences, she finds specifically to differences in language ability? a) She should match each boy spending a given number of hours studying each week with a girl spending the same number of hours studying each week. b) She should manipulate hours of studying or homework as an independent variable. c) She should hold hours of studying or homework constant. d) She should randomly select the samples of girls and boys used in the study. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 181. Regarding gender differences in language acquisition, which of the following is NOT true? a) Girls acquire language comprehension faster than boys. b) Girls in elementary school have stronger language skills. c) Gender differences in language comprehension diminish by age 2. d) Girls tend to have much larger vocabularies than boys until early adulthood. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 182. Which of the following statements about gender differences in language processing is TRUE? a) Women are more likely to use both hemispheres for a language task whereas men are more likely to use one hemisphere. b) Women are significantly more proficient at language abilities than men. c) Boys outpace girls in the language skills used in elementary school.

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d) Boys are better at tracking their eyes on the written page than girls. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 183. Five-year-old Dagmar just moved with her German-speaking family from Berlin to Calgary. In her new community, everything is in English, and she is being engulfed in the new language. Which of the following is most likely true about Dagmar’s English proficiency? a) She will have a tough time learning English compared to her parents. b) She will be unable to map the English phrases onto German phrases. c) She will always have a German accent when she speaks English. d) She will speak English like a native. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 184. Which of the following illustrates mental imagery? a) reviewing the items written on a grocery list b) being able to “see” the layout of a grocery store c) deciding what to include in a research proposal d) practising a speech that will be given in class Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how thought and language are related and summarize the linguistic relativity hypothesis. Section Reference: The Relationship between Language and Thought 185. Which of the following illustrates mental imagery? a) looking at your to-do list for the weekend b) “seeing” the response your eight-year old will have when you tell her the family is going to Disneyland c) deciding what to include in your research paper on colonialism d) practising the speech you are giving as best man at your cousin’s wedding

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Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how thought and language are related and summarize the linguistic relativity hypothesis. Section Reference: The Relationship between Language and Thought 186. When Kyle saw apple pie on the menu, he pictured his mother’s homemade double crust apple pie and could almost smell the cinnamon and sugar. This is an example of which of the following? a) mental image b) prototype c) artificial concept d) hierarchies Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how thought and language are related and summarize the linguistic relativity hypothesis. Section Reference: The Relationship between Language and Thought 187. Jenna has had a stressful day. She is trying to relax, so she imagines her favorite view from a mountain she hikes in the summer. Jenna can see the view of the lakes from the cliff and can almost feel the warm breeze. This is an example of a) a mental image. b) a mental set. c) an artificial concept. d) a confirmation bias. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how thought and language are related and summarize the linguistic relativity hypothesis. Section Reference: The Relationship between Language and Thought 188. Thoughts that involve conjuring up a visual representation of stored sensory input is called a) mental imagery. b) visuospatial sketchpad. c) linguistic relativity. d) sensory representation. Answer: a

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how thought and language are related and summarize the linguistic relativity hypothesis. Section Reference: The Relationship between Language and Thought 189. Yanni and Olivia are in the same psychology class. Yanni has been asked to imagine the route from the classroom to another classroom down the hall. Olivia has been asked to imagine the route from the classroom to a coffee shop across campus. Which of the following describes the results of each student’s experience? a) Yanni will use visual imagery, whereas Olivia will use narrative to imagine the route. b) Olivia will use visual imagery, whereas Yanni will use narrative to imagine his route. c) They will both use visual imagery; however, Olivia will take longer as her route is longer. d) There will be no differences in their experiences. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how thought and language are related and summarize the linguistic relativity hypothesis. Section Reference: The Relationship between Language and Thought 190. Brooklyn is reviewing directions to a party by picturing a city map in her head and thinking of the compass directions needed to reach her destination. Nelson is going to the same party but is rehearsing a verbal sequence of specific turns and landmarks. Which of the following statements is true with respect to the brain activity of these party-goers as they process the directions to their destination? a) Nelson’s right hemisphere is more active than is Brooklyn’s right hemisphere. b) The left hemisphere is more than the right in each of these party-goers. c) Both hemispheres are equally active in each party-goer. d) Brooklyn’s right hemisphere is more active than her left hemisphere. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe how thought and language are related and summarize the linguistic relativity hypothesis. Section Reference: The Relationship between Language and Thought 191. Which of the following persons is NOT using a mental image? a) Karen is savouring her memory of the taste of chocolate truffle she ate last night. b) Farique is picturing himself in his new Ferrari. c) Leroy is enjoying the chocolate chip cookie his mother put in his lunch d) Jamila is mentally reviewing the pitch and timbre of the notes in the new song she rehearsed last night.

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Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe how thought and language are related and summarize the linguistic relativity hypothesis. Section Reference: The Relationship between Language and Thought 192. Neuroimaging research has indicated that performing an activity activates ___, while imagining an activity activates ___. a) specific brain regions; those same brain regions b) the motor regions; the visual regions c) sensory regions; the long-term memory regions d) working memory regions; long-term memory regions Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how thought and language are related and summarize the linguistic relativity hypothesis. Section Reference: The Relationship between Language and Thought 193. According to neuroimaging data, what is the difference between imagining an activity and performing the activity? a) Nothing; the same brain areas are active. b) Performing an activity activates the motor regions, while imagining an activity activates the visual regions. c) Performing an activity activates sensory regions, while imagining an activity activates the long-term memory regions. d) Performing an activity activates working memory regions, while imagining an activity activates long-term memory regions. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how thought and language are related and summarize the linguistic relativity hypothesis. Section Reference: The Relationship between Language and Thought 194. Dr. Regdan shows participants a stylized map of a fictitious city. The map includes landmarks, such as a post office, a library, a shopping mall, a bus depot, and airport. Some of the landmarks are close together, such as the library and the post office. Others are far apart, such as the airport and the shopping mall. Dr. Regdan removes the map. Participants are asked to imagine walking from one landmark to another, either a nearby one or a more distant one.

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Participants press a key when they have reached the destination in their minds. What should Dr. Regdan find? What would such a result say about mental imagery? a) Participants should take the same amount of time to travel mentally between distant landmarks as between close landmarks. This result would suggest that mental imagery reflects the actual actions we perform with respect to real objects. b) Participants should take the same amount of time to travel mentally between distant landmarks as between close landmarks. This result would suggest that mental imagery does not reflect the actual actions we perform with respect to real objects. c) Participants should take longer to travel mentally between distant landmarks than between close landmarks. This result would suggest that mental imagery reflects the actual actions we perform with respect to real objects. d) Participants should take longer to travel mentally between distant landmarks than between close landmarks. This result would suggest that mental imagery does not reflect the actual actions we perform with respect to real objects. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe how thought and language are related and summarize the linguistic relativity hypothesis. Section Reference: The Relationship between Language and Thought 195. The idea that the vocabulary available for objects or concepts in a language influences how speakers of that language think about them is called the a) language acquisition hypothesis. b) cultural language hypothesis. c) linguistic cultural hypothesis. d) linguistic relativity hypothesis. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how thought and language are related and summarize the linguistic relativity hypothesis. Section Reference: The Relationship between Language and Thought 196. According to the linguistic relativity hypothesis a) our thoughts dictate what words end up in the vocabulary of our language. b) the words available for us to use in our language greatly influences our thinking. c) thinking about saying a word activates the same brain area that would be involved in speaking the word. d) our concepts are organized in different levels according to our cultural backgrounds. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension

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Learning Objective: Describe how thought and language are related and summarize the linguistic relativity hypothesis. Section Reference: The Relationship between Language and Thought 197. “We think the way our language lets us,” muses your French literature professor. Immediately, the phrase “linguistic ___ hypothesis” begins flashing in your head, in metaphorical neon lights. a) generativity b) universality c) specificity d) relativity Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how thought and language are related and summarize the linguistic relativity hypothesis. Section Reference: The Relationship between Language and Thought 198. Suppose that Mikael is raised learning a language that has a simple structure for the concept of living things. Louis, on the other hand, is raised learning a language that has a complex structure for the concept of living things. Based on what you know about how language shapes thought, what differences can you expect between Mikael and Louis? a) Louis will learn the concept of living things more completely than Mikael. b) Mikael will learn the concept of living things earlier than Louis. c) There will be no difference in how the boys learn the concept of living things. d) Whichever boy comes from the higher-income family will learn the concept better than the other boy. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how thought and language are related and summarize the linguistic relativity hypothesis. Section Reference: The Relationship between Language and Thought 199. The Dani tribe has only two words for colour, one for light and one for dark. Based on this as well as other information presented in your textbook, what do you predict will occur when Samson, a young member of the tribe, is asked to differentiate between two equally light/dark shades of blue? a) Samson will easily be able to discriminate between the two colours. b) Samson will perceive the two colours as identical. c) Samson will not be able to discriminate two shades of blue but could do the same task if the two shades were variants of green. d) Samson will not be able to understand the task so it will not be possible to measure his perception.

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Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how thought and language are related and summarize the linguistic relativity hypothesis. Section Reference: The Relationship between Language and Thought 200. According to the strict version of the linguistic relativity hypothesis, what would you predict about the musical abilities of someone who spoke a language that only had two words for different pitches, high and low? a) They would have superior musical abilities. b) They would have an easier time discriminating different pitches of sound. c) They wouldn’t be able to discriminate different pitches of sound. d) They would only be able to discriminate those pitches that appear in their native language, but not extremely high or low pitches that are not part of their native language. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how thought and language are related and summarize the linguistic relativity hypothesis. Section Reference: The Relationship between Language and Thought 201. What evidence was mentioned in your text that shows us that the linguistic relativity hypothesis, in its strict version, is NOT correct? a) Simpler language structures for a concept makes the concept easier to learn. b) The number of colour words in a language does not impact our ability to discriminate different colours. c) Languages that have a word for a specific social situation have a clearer understanding of that specific social situation. d) People who are bilingual can think about the same concept in different ways. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how thought and language are related and summarize the linguistic relativity hypothesis. Section Reference: The Relationship between Language and Thought 202. The strict version of the linguistic relativity hypothesis is NOT correct. What evidence was presented in your text that supports this point? a) Simpler language structures for a concept makes the concept easier to learn. b) The number of colour words in a language does not impact our ability to discriminate different colours.

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c) Languages that have a word for a specific social situation have a clearer understanding of that specific social situation. d) People who are bilingual can think about the same concept in different ways. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how thought and language are related and summarize the linguistic relativity hypothesis. Section Reference: The Relationship between Language and Thought 203. Suppose that Léa speaks a language that has only two words for weight (heavy and light), while Shira speaks a language that has a dozen different words for different weights. According to the linguistic relativity hypothesis, what would you expect about each person’s ability to discriminate different weights? a) Léa would be better at discriminating different weights. b) Shira would be better at discriminating different weights. c) there would be no difference in how the two people discriminate different weights. d) Léa would be better at discriminating subtle differences in weight and Shira would be better at discriminating significant differences in weight. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how thought and language are related and summarize the linguistic relativity hypothesis. Section Reference: The Relationship between Language and Thought 204. Suppose that Bettina speaks a language that has a word for a very complex social situation, such as a word for ‘when someone forgets what they were going to say only to remember it later’. Farah, on the other hand, speaks a language that has no such word. Based on what you know about how language can shape thought, what do you expect would be different between Bettina and Farah? a) Nothing would be different between the two; they would both have the same understanding of that specific social situation. b) Bettina would develop an understanding for that specific social situation later than Farah. c) Bettina would have a deeper understanding of that specific social situation than Farah. d) Farah would have a better idea of that specific social situation than Bettina. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how thought and language are related and summarize the linguistic relativity hypothesis. Section Reference: The Relationship between Language and Thought

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205. Which of the following statements best expresses the linguistic relativity hypothesis? a) Language is equivalent to thought. b) Language influences thought. c) Thought determines language. d) Language is unrelated to thought. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how thought and language are related and summarize the linguistic relativity hypothesis. Section Reference: The Relationship between Language and Thought 206. Evidence supporting the linguistic relativity hypothesis comes from ___ psychology. a) evolutionary b) cross-cultural c) behavioural d) neuroscientific Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how thought and language are related and summarize the linguistic relativity hypothesis. Section Reference: The Relationship between Language and Thought 207. A researcher shows pairs of colour patches to Canadian university students and members of the Dani culture in Papua, New Guinea. The colour members of each pair are the same or slightly different in hue. Both groups of participants are asked if the members of each colour pair are the same or different. The researcher records the accuracy of all participants’ colour discrimination. Which is the dependent variable in this study? What should the researcher find? a) Colour discrimination accuracy is the dependent variable. The researcher should find no difference in colour discrimination accuracy between the two groups. b) Colour discrimination accuracy is the dependent variable. The researcher should find that colour discrimination accuracy is higher among the Canadian than among the Dani participants. c) Participant group is the dependent variable. The researcher should find no difference in colour discrimination accuracy between the two groups. d) Participant group is the dependent variable. The researcher should find that colour discrimination accuracy is higher among the Canadian than among the Dani participants. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe how thought and language are related and summarize the linguistic relativity hypothesis.

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Section Reference: The Relationship between Language and Thought 208. Oliver is telling his friend a lengthy story about an argument he had with a co-worker. He tells his roommate how much he regrets not making a clever remark at the time and that it was only after his co-worker had left the room that he thought of the perfect thing to say. His friend, who is German, uses the single word, “treppenwitz” to describe such a situation. This example demonstrates how a) having a specific word for a complex social situation can provide a clearer understanding of the situation. b) a social situation can be interpreted very differently cross-culturally. c) a social situation occurs universally. d) social situations are often misunderstood by people from different cultures. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe how thought and language are related and summarize the linguistic relativity hypothesis. Section Reference: The Relationship between Language and Thought 209. The fact that many concepts do NOT have an adequate mental image means that a) some concepts are more difficult to learn than others. b) mental imagery cannot be the only means we have of representing thoughts. c) prior to the development of language, thoughts are very basic and limited. d) the dynamic nature of many thoughts must be made up of multiple images. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how thought and language are related and summarize the linguistic relativity hypothesis. Section Reference: The Relationship between Language and Thought 210. If Zoran is using mental imagery to find his way from the bank to the grocery store, which of the following could he be doing? a) using a map of the neighbourhood in his head b) repeating the phrase ‘turn left at the lights and then half a block’ c) remembering that the grocery store is beside the theatre d) wandering around aimlessly until he finds the grocery store Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how thought and language are related and summarize the linguistic relativity hypothesis.

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Section Reference: The Relationship between Language and Thought 211. If Lojain is NOT relying on mental imagery to find her way from the hospital to the post office, which of the following could she be doing? a) relying on a map of the neighbourhood in her head b) repeating the phrase ‘go east on 1st street and then take your first right’ c) remembering visual snapshots of the route from the hospital to the post office d) conjuring up a representation of the outside of the post office and the nearby buildings Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how thought and language are related and summarize the linguistic relativity hypothesis. Section Reference: The Relationship between Language and Thought 212. Spatial navigation is one example where a) language does not play a major role in thinking. b) language and imagery work together. c) language competes with imagery. d) language plays a major role in thinking. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how thought and language are related and summarize the linguistic relativity hypothesis. Section Reference: The Relationship between Language and Thought 213. Francois hoping to achieve feng shui by rearranging the futon, armchair, computer desk, and TV in his studio apartment. Which lobe in Franco’s brain is active as he imagines different configurations of his furniture? a) parietal b) occipital c) temporal d) frontal Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how thought and language are related and summarize the linguistic relativity hypothesis. Section Reference: The Relationship between Language and Thought

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214. The frontal and temporal lobes are highly involved in thoughts that involve a) fear. b) anxiety. c) language. d) imagery. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how thought and language are related and summarize the linguistic relativity hypothesis. Section Reference: The Relationship between Language and Thought 215. Which of the following individuals is using mental imagery? a) Terence is trying to figure out how to assemble his new barbeque. b) Janine is sipping her tea. c) Clarence is watching a movie. d) Bernice is calling for reservations at a restaurant. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how thought and language are related and summarize the linguistic relativity hypothesis. Section Reference: The Relationship between Language and Thought 216. Which of the following is NOT an example mentioned in the text about how thinking about something can activate the same brain regions as actually sensing or doing it? a) Imaging a scene activates the same visual areas involved in looking at the scene. b) Imaging a flavour activates the same gustatory and olfactory brain regions involved in tasting the flavour. c) Imaging a fearful or anxiety-provoking situation activates the amygdala. d) Imaging the solution to a problem can sometimes help with problem solving. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how thought and language are related and summarize the linguistic relativity hypothesis. Section Reference: The Relationship between Language and Thought 217. Charlize is imagining that she is eating a big piece of cheesecake. According to neuroimaging data, what brain areas are likely to be active in Charlize while she is doing this? a) The working memory areas would be active since she is holding in her mind the flavour of cheesecake.

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b) The long-term memory areas would be active since she is recalling the specific flavour of cheesecake. c) The visual areas would be active since she is using imagery. d) The same gustatory areas would be active as if she was really eating cheesecake. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how thought and language are related and summarize the linguistic relativity hypothesis. Section Reference: The Relationship between Language and Thought 218. Which of the following is accurate about thought? a) All thoughts involve imagery. b) Thinking about something often activates the same brain regions as sensing it. c) The more words we have available to us related to a single concept, the simpler our thoughts are about that concept. d) Those cultures who have limited words to describe colour, also have limited colour vision. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how thought and language are related and summarize the linguistic relativity hypothesis. Section Reference: The Relationship between Language and Thought 219. Umar is imagining himself eating a chocolate chip cookie. Leo really is eating a chocolate chip cookie. If both were undergoing neuroimaging, it would likely be found that a) the brain regions involved in taste will be activated in Leo, but not in Umar. b) the brain regions involved in taste will be activated in Umar, but not in Leo. c) the brain regions involved in taste will be activated in both Umar and Leo. d) the brain regions involved in taste will be activated in both Umar and Leo, but the activation will be much stronger in Umar. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how thought and language are related and summarize the linguistic relativity hypothesis. Section Reference: The Relationship between Language and Thought 220. Suppose Bea is asked to remember the contents along the wall of a long rectangular room. Rio is asked to remember a similar number of contents along a short wall. According to the findings of Kosslyn and Shin (1991), what do you expect would happen when both women are asked to imagine the contents of the rooms?

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a) Bea takes longer to list off the contents than Rio. b) Bea takes longer to list off the contents than Rio. c) Both women remember the same contents. d) Bea remembers more contents from the front of the room and Rio remembers more contents from the back of the room. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how thought and language are related and summarize the linguistic relativity hypothesis. Section Reference: The Relationship between Language and Thought 221. Suppose Emrick is shown a photograph of animals in a long rectangular field whereas Lyam is shown a photograph of the same animals in a short rectangular field. According to the findings of Kosslyn and Shin (1991), what do you expect would happen when both men are asked to use their imaginations to recall and list the animals present in the fields? a) Emrick takes longer to list off the animals than Lyam. b) Emrick takes longer to list off the animals than Lyam. c) Both men remember the same contents. d) Emrick remembers more farm animals and Lyam remembers more wild animals. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how thought and language are related and summarize the linguistic relativity hypothesis. Section Reference: The Relationship between Language and Thought 222. Alva and Ian, both 10-years old are having an argument. Alva says that a tomato is a fruit. She knows this because her mother told her so. Ian, on the other hand, believes that a tomato is a vegetable and he is convinced he is right because his mother told him so. This example demonstrates ___. a) the linguistic relativity hypothesis b) the effect of learning through subjective experiences on the acquisition of concepts c) the developmental process of learning concepts d) individual differences in the acquisition of concepts Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how thought and language are related and summarize the linguistic relativity hypothesis. Section Reference: The Relationship between Language and Thought

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223. Sadie and Elliot, both 10-years old are having an argument. Sadie says that Shanghai is the biggest city in the world. She knows this because her teacher told her it was so. Elliot on the other hand, believes that Beijing is the largest city it he world and he is convinced he is right because he also says he learned it in school. This example demonstrates ___. a) the linguistic relativity hypothesis b) the effect of learning through subjective experiences on the acquisition of concepts c) the developmental process of learning concepts d) individual differences in the acquisition of concepts Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how thought and language are related and summarize the linguistic relativity hypothesis. Section Reference: The Relationship between Language and Thought 224. What two factors affect the concepts we learn as we develop? a) sensory development and education b) education and personal experiences c) personal experiences and cultural community d) cultural community and learning through consequences Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how thought and language are related and summarize the linguistic relativity hypothesis. Section Reference: The Relationship between Language and Thought 225. The BEST meaning of cognition is a) the ability to form prototypes that help sort and classify experiences. b) mental processes of thinking and knowing. c) the creation of subcategories within concepts to create hierarchies. d) multiple sensory streams and abilities that control intellectual functions. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 226. The mental processes involved in thinking and knowing are grouped under the term a) multitasking. b) cognition.

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c) creativity. d) problem solving Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 227. Which of the following individual is engaged in an automatic process? a) Dougal - driving as a novice driver b) Maria Tereza - driving as an experienced driver c) Shayma - writing her first college essay d) Jacko - learning problem-solving techniques Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 228. Stevenson was an experienced taxi driver. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Stevenson’s automatic driving process? a) It occurs with little effort. b) It requires little attention. c) It relies on a limited-capacity system. d) It is not usually disrupted if Stevenson is distracted by other tasks. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 229. As compared to ___ processes, automatic processes are ___. a) explicit; more disrupted by distractions b) controlled; more disrupted by distractions c) explicit; less disrupted by distractions d) controlled; less disrupted by distractions Answer: d

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 230. As a beginning driver, Wafaa had to think consciously about the process as she negotiated traffic; now, however, driving has become second nature for her. Whereas driving initially demanded ___ processing, it now reflects ___ processing. a) implicit; explicit b) automatic; controlled c) controlled; automatic d) explicit; implicit Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 231. Emilio is reading his notes for his psychology test the next day when his roommate arrives home. While Emilio is trying to study, his friend is talking excitedly. Five minutes later, Emilio still has not moved from the paragraph he was reading when his roommate came in. Emilio’s ability to study was easily disrupted because a) it is an automatic process. b) Emilio does not have sufficient executive function ability to multi-task. c) Emilio is exhibiting signs of dysexecutive syndrome. d) studying is a controlled process. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 232. Which of the following is an advantage of controlled processing? a) It allows us to respond flexibly and creatively in new situations. b) It may occur without awareness. c) It is not susceptible to disruptions. d) It requires little cognitive effort. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy

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Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 233. The ability to direct one’s thoughts according to one’s intentions is called a) cognitive control. b) executive function. c) problem solving. d) decision making. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 234. The ability to direct attention to a specific stimulus, being able to hold a new piece of information in your mind against distraction, and resisting a compelling behaviour are all components of a) controlled processing. b) automatic processing. c) dysexecutive function. d) cognitive control. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 235. Which of the following is an example of cognitive control? a) Trying to identify your brother in a crowded restaurant. b) Being started when a friend claps you on the back from behind. c) Scratching at an itchy mosquito bite. d) Being distracted by the squealing fan in your hotel room. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought

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236. Nicole, Tim, and Jessica are working on a class presentation together. Nicole plans out what should be included in the presentation as well as who will do each part. Nicole is demonstrating a) cognitive function. b) attentional control. c) executive function. d) metacognitive function. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 237. Impairments in controlled processing are characteristic of ___ syndrome, reflecting damage to the ___ cortex. a) control deficit; prefrontal b) control deficit; parietal c) dysexecutive; prefrontal d) dysexecutive; parietal Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 238. After Phineas Gage was injured in an accident, what type of disorder did he display? a) Antisocial Personality Disorder b) Selective amnesia c) Dysexecutive syndrome d) Dissociative fugue Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought

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239. Ashanti is 4; Brian is 7; Cleo is 11. Which of these children can modulate his or her impulses for the good of peers? Which of these children can regulate his or her impulses for long-term future benefits? a) Only Cleo can modulate her impulses for the good of peers. None of these children can regulate his or her impulses for long-term future benefits. b) Brian and Cleo can modulate their impulses for the good of peers. Only Cleo can regulate her impulses for long-term future benefits. c) All three children can modulate their impulses for the good of peers. Brian and Cleo can regulate their impulses for long-term future benefits. d) All three children can modulate their impulses for the good of peers. Only Cleo can regulate her impulses for long-term future benefits. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 240. Three-year-old Kirk wants a toy that another child at the daycare center is playing with. Even though the early childhood educator tells him he must wait his turn, he reaches out and grabs the toy away from the other child. Which of the following explains Kirk’s behaviour? a) Kirk has dysexecutive syndrome. b) Kirk has not yet developed metacognition. c) Kirk has not yet developed cognitive control. d) Kirk has not yet developed attentional control. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 241. Dr. Ireland’s class is attempting to find derivatives; Dr. Ryang’s class is developing campaign strategies for a local politician. Which of the following statements is true? a) Dr. Ireland’s class is solving a well-defined problem. b) Dr. Ryang’s class is solving a well-defined problem. c) Dr. Ireland’s class is solving an ill-defined problem. d) Both classes are solving well-defined problems. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition.

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Section Reference: Thought 242. Mahesh’s water heater began to leak this morning. Mahesh has a(n) _____________ problem. a) algorithmic b) unsolvable c) ill-defined d) well-defined Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Applicable Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 243. Which of the following is an ill-defined problem? a) navigating to a museum in a nearby city b) composing a good concerto c) finding out where several well-known authors were born d) playing Scrabble Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 244. You have just found out that your roommate’s boyfriend is seeing someone else behind his back and are wondering if he will be angry with you if you tell him. This is an example of a(n) ______________ problem. a) morally-defined b) indeterminate c) ill-defined d) well-defined Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought

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245. The difference between an ill-defined problem and a well-defined problem is that a welldefined problem ___, whereas an ill-defined problem ___. a) clearly states the operators and algorithms available to solve the problem; doesn’t b) clearly states the constraints and boundaries of the problem; doesn’t c) clarifies what tools are available to reach the goal; doesn’t attempt to clarify how the problem will be solved d) has a clear beginning and end state; doesn’t have a clear end goal Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 246. Calida has been having difficulty with a co-worker and is trying to decide how to resolve the conflict. She is thinking about this problem while she is trying to balance her chequebook. In this example, Calida’s difficulty with her co-worker is a/an ___, and balancing her chequebook is a/an ___. a) well-defined problem; well-defined problem b) well-defined problem; ill-defined problem c) ill-defined problem; ill-defined problem d) ill-defined problem; well-defined problem Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 247. In ___ problems, the nature of the problem and the information needed to solve it are clear; in ___ problems, either or both the nature of the problem and the information required to solve it are unclear. a) well-defined; ill-defined b) algorithmic; heuristic c) heuristic; algorithmic d) automatic; controlled Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought

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248. The use of ________, which does NOT guarantee a solution, is a faster approach to problem-solving than ________, which does guarantee a solution despite being the slower approach. a) heuristics; an algorithm b) an algorithm; heuristics c) prototypes; a hierarchy d) hierarchies; a prototype Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 249. Dan and Lee are putting a puzzle together. Dan says that you need to start by turning all of the pieces over, then get the end pieces and build the border. Lee ignores this approach and just starts putting pieces together at random — he says it has always worked for him in the past. What is implied here? a) Dan is using an algorithm and Lee is using a heuristic. b) Dan is using a heuristic and Lee is using an algorithm. c) Both Dan and Lee are using algorithms. d) Both Dan and Lee are using heuristics. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 250. What is the difference between an algorithm and heuristics? a) An algorithm is a slower approach that guarantees a solution, whereas heuristics is a faster approach that does not guarantee a solution. b) An algorithm is a faster approach that does not guarantee a solution, whereas heuristics guarantees a solution but is slower. c) An algorithm is a scientific approach that is without bias, whereas heuristics is a social approach that has bias. d) An algorithm is a social approach that has bias, whereas heuristics is a scientific approach that is without bias. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis

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Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 251. Which of the following individuals is engaged in problem solving as defined in your text? a) Clay, who is determining which of several of used cars is least likely to present a maintenance headache b) Darla, who is concluding that a specific model of used car is a poor investment over the longer term, based on her ideas regarding the resale values of several types of cars c) Emilio, who is writing down a shopping list because he knows the number of items he needs is probably greater than the number of items he can remember d) Frankie, who is planning to pick up some extra shifts, so he can buy a used car he has made an offer on Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 252. Calista recognizes that her romantic relationship is unhealthy and knows she needs to end it. Which of the following is NOT associated with effective problem solving? a) Calista recognizing that her current state is unsatisfactory. b) Calista telling others about the current state of the relationship and seeking sympathy. c) Calista’s stated desire to reach the goal of ending the relationship. d) Calista establishing and using a set of strategies to achieve her goal of ending the relationship. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 253. A rule that guarantees the solution to a problem when it is correctly applied is termed a(n) ___. a) heuristic b) mental set c) algorithm d) schema Answer: c Difficulty: Easy

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Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 254. Devin is NOT sure what could be substituted for an egg in a cake recipe but remembers a banana bread recipe that uses vegetable oil instead of eggs. Devin decides to substitute vegetable oil in the cake recipe. This is an example of which of the following? a) use of heuristics in problem solving b) use of an algorithm in problem solving c) use of insight in problem solving d) use of an incubation period in problem solving Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 255. Eleanor was not sure which key opened the shed door, so she systematically tried every key on every key chain in the house. This is an example of which of the following? a) use of an algorithm in problem solving b) use of heuristics in problem solving c) use of insight in problem solving d) use of an incubation period in problem solving Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 256. Avery wants to change the oil in her car by herself. She carefully follows the steps in the owner’s manual and is successful. What is this thinking strategy called? a) heuristic b) algorithm c) preparation d) evaluation Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 257. After watching a news story about a man struck by lightning on a golf course, you decide that you will never play golf to avoid being struck yourself. What is this thinking strategy called? a) heuristic b) algorithm c) preparation d) evaluation Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 258. Which type of problem may be solved successfully by the application of an algorithm? a) well-defined problems only b) ill-defined problems only c) both well- and ill-defined problems d) neither well- nor ill-defined problems; algorithms apply only to decision making Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 259. Sanzhar is a research student trying to figure out how many participants he needs in his research study. When he asks his supervisor, he is given a formula to help him find the solution. Sanzhar is using a(n) __________________. a) mental set b) heuristic c) subgoal d) algorithm Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought

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260. After moving into his first apartment, Troy bought several furniture pieces that had to be assembled. Troy will be using a(n) __________ to assemble his furniture. a) formula b) rule set c) algorithm d) heuristic Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 261. Which of the following most likely makes use of heuristics? a) a chemical equation for the synthesis of sulfuric acid b) a recipe for making cookies on the back of a box of cornflakes c) an article by a Nobel Prize winner titled “How to Succeed in Science” d) a computer program for keeping track of inventory at a department store Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 262. Shira is moving to Vancouver to attend Capilano University. She needs to find an apartment close to school with a bus stop and grocery store nearby. Shira decides to take a map and locate these features, drawing a circle around them to narrow her search of appropriate places. She then contacts ads for apartments in the area within the circles. Shira has used ______________ to help her solve her problem. a) an algorithm b) a hypothesis c) cognitive mapping d) a heuristic Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought

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263. By now probably at least one of your professors has said, “When you have trouble understanding the content in class, try outlining the information in the textbook in your own words.” What is this general “rule of thumb” for solving a common academic problem called? a) a schema b) a mental set c) a heuristic d) an algorithm Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 264. Which of the following terms best captures the meaning of the term heuristic, as cognitive psychologists use it? a) recipe b) formula c) strategy d) program Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 265. The difference between an algorithm and a heuristic is that an algorithm is ___, whereas a heuristic is ___. a) fast and always correct; slow and sometimes correct b) a shortcut; meticulous and methodical c) methodical and always correct; fast and may lead to an incorrect solution d) not the path to a correct solution; always the path to a correct solution Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought

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266. ________________ do not always guarantee solutions to a problem, whereas ________________ always produce a solution. a) Hypotheses; productions b) Heuristics; algorithms c) Evaluation; productions d) Algorithms; heuristics Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 267. Tobias lost a contact lens in the kitchen; he is searching for it by examining each linoleum tile in turn to see if the lens is contained within the square. Gemma similarly lost a lens in the kitchen; she is looking for it near the base of the fridge and around the stove, the two appliances she remembers using when she was last in the kitchen. Which statement best describes the problem-solving strategies of these two individuals? a) Both Tobias and Gemma are using algorithms. b) Both Tobias and Gemma are using heuristics. c) Tobias is using a heuristic, whereas Gemma is using an algorithm. d) Tobias is using an algorithm, whereas Gemma is using a heuristic. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 268. When trying to solve a math problem, Reema realizes that the rule “add 2 to each side of the equation, then multiply by 3” is what is needed. Reema has discovered the ______________ to solve this problem. a) algorithm b) heuristic c) goal d) subgoal Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought

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269. Each of the following is a reason to use a heuristic rather than an algorithm, EXCEPT a) sometimes no algorithm is available to solve a specific problem. b) heuristics often require less time and effort to apply than do algorithms. c) heuristics produce successful problem solutions with adequate frequency to justify their use. d) heuristics yield the single best solution to a problem. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 270. Which problem solving strategy is helpful for problems with well-defined goals? a) forming subgoals b) searching for analogies c) working backwards d) heuristic Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 271. Talia is stumped by a problem in her pre-calculus text. She furtively glances at the answer provided in the back of the text to get an idea of how the solution should look before she returns to the problem. Talia’s strategy most closely resembles the problem-solving heuristic of ___. a) forming subgoals b) trial and error c) working backwards d) using an analogy Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 272. Carolyn wants to unplug her computer printer but when she looks behind her desk all she sees is a massive tangle of cords. Carolyn puts her hand on the cord where it leaves the

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computer and begins to follow it down and through the tangle until she reaches the outlet. Which problem solving approach has Carolyn used to unplug her printer? a) forming subgoals b) searching for analogies c) an algorithm d) working backwards Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 273. If someone tries to solve a larger problem by breaking it in to smaller ones, they are using the problem solving strategy of a) searching for analogies. b) working backwards. c) algorithms. d) forming subgoals. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 274. Hajari has stopped to help an elderly man with a flat tire. He knows he has to find the man’s spare tire and jack, jack up the car, remove the tire, put the spare tire on, and then let the car down off the jack. Which of the following problem-solving strategies is Hajari using? a) working backwards b) searching for analogies c) forming subgoals d) using a heuristic Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 275. A political science professor attempts to facilitate her students’ completion of a term paper assignment by requiring them to first submit a topic statement, then a list of references, then a

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draft of the introduction, and then, finally, the completed paper. The professor is encouraging her students to use the problem-solving strategy of ___. a) forming subgoals b) using an analogy c) working backwards d) trial and error Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 276. Oisha is playing chess with her grandfather. She sees that in four moves she should be able to call checkmate and win the game. Which problem solving strategy is Oisha using to play chess? a) working backwards b) forming subgoals c) an algorithm d) searching for analogies Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 277. Tamar is trying to resolve an ongoing conflict with her girlfriend. She recalls a comparable situation with one of her exes and attempts to solve her current problem in the same way. To solve her problem, Tamar is a) using an analogy. b) trying incubation. c) relying on automatic processing. d) using an algorithm. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought

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278. Francis is having difficulty understanding the material in his statistics class. He remembers that when he had problems with math in high school his parents found him a tutor who helped clarify the material. Francis decides to go to student services and seek out opportunities for students to receive help with their courses. Which of the following strategies is Francis using to solve the problem he is having with statistics? a) working backwards b) searching for analogies c) forming subgoals d) insight Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 279. Alicia is playing a video game and is having difficulty overcoming one obstacle to get to the next level. Suddenly the solution is clear to her. Alicia has overcome the obstacle using a) analogies. b) subgoals. c) insight. d) incubation. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 280. Which of the following best expresses the relationship between incubation and insight? a) Insight precedes incubation. b) Insight follows incubation. c) Insight is synonymous with incubation. d) Insight and incubation are unrelated. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought

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281. Although Eitan worked on his chemistry homework for several hours, he still did NOT understand it. While taking a break to watch television, he gained insight into the processes he had studied. What term describes his “break”? a) encoding period b) incubation period c) retrieval period d) critical period Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 282. Sheldon has been working on a crossword puzzle and has been stuck on the same word for the past 15 minutes. He decides to take a break and finds that, when he returns to the puzzle, he finds the word he is looking for right away. Sheldon has solved the problem using _____________, and the break he took from the puzzle is called a(n) __________. a) working backwards; reflective period b) forming subgoals; planning period c) searching for analogies; comparative period d) insight; incubation period Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 283. The tendency to view an object as having only one purpose or use is called a) confirmation bias. b) functional fixedness. c) mental set. d) availability heuristic. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 284. Functional fixedness occurs when

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a) we look for information that meets our expectations. b) we view an object as having only one purpose or use. c) we use problem-solving strategies that have worked in the past. d) we use a shortcut thinking strategy. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 285. Which of the following MOST clearly demonstrates overcoming functional fixedness? a) using a stone as a hammer b) using a rock as a paperweight c) using chalk on a sidewalk d) using a pet as a guard Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 286. Milan is on his way to his car in his office parking lot when suddenly a huge hailstorm breaks out and pea-sized pieces of hail begin to fall on his head. He takes his briefcase and covers his head with it as he runs to his car. It is fortunate for Milan that his problem-solving abilities aren’t suffering from a) a mental set. b) functional fixedness. c) the confirmation bias. d) the availability heuristic. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 287. Which statement describes a similarity between a mental set and functional fixedness? a) Both limit problem solving abilities due to an inability to think in new ways. b) Both overcome barriers to problem solving by creative thought. c) Both are mental shortcuts that may help or hurt problem solving.

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d) Both are strategies to find potential solutions to problems. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 288. Carla and Sam are sisters. Carla is very set in her ways. If she is able to fix a leaking faucet using one method, she will always insist that method is the only one that will work. Sam is similar. If she is outside and sees a nail that needs to be pushed in further, she will NOT pick up a rock or piece of wood but will go search for a hammer. What is implied here? a) Carla is demonstrating a mental set, while Sam is demonstrating functional fixedness. b) Carla is demonstrating functional fixedness, while Sam is demonstrating a mental set. c) Both Carla and Sam are demonstrating functional fixedness. d) Both Carla and Sam are demonstrating a mental set. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 289. Lacking the proper tools, a man uses a shoelace to bind two objects together. Which barrier to problem solving is he overcoming? a) availability heuristic b) mental sets c) confirmation bias d) functional fixedness Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 290. An interior designer on a home makeover series used the frame of a car to create a child's bed. This is an example of ______________. a) breaking free from the representativeness heuristic b) a mental set c) overcoming functional fixedness d) the successful use of an algorithm

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Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 291. Benjamin is watching his son’s baseball game. He brought his umbrella because he thought it was going to rain, but it turns out that it is incredibly sunny. Benjamin complains to the dad next to him that he forgot his sunscreen, and the other dad suggests that Benjamin use his umbrella for shade. Obviously, Benjamin’s neighbour is NOT suffering from a) a mental set. b) functional fixedness. c) the confirmation bias. d) the availability heuristic. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 292. All the following are types of problem-solving strategies EXCEPT a) algorithms. b) searching for analogies. c) functional fixedness. d) working backwards. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 293. Making several minor household repairs, Kiara uses a shoe as a hammer and a butter knife as a screwdriver. Which of the following statements best characterizes Kiara’s problem solving? a) She is constrained by a powerful mental set. b) She has been released from functional fixedness. c) She is in a period of incubation. d) She is forming subgoals.

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Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 294. Which of the following is an example of overcoming functional fixedness? a) using an old window as wall art b) repurposing art c) using milk crates as furniture d) all these options Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 295. Francine's computer was freezing up and becoming unresponsive about every 30 minutes. Previously, Francine had success when she rebooted the computer after it locked up, so she tried that even though this time the problem was more frequent. This is an example of which of the following? a) mental set b) functional fixedness c) confirmation bias d) improper use of heuristics Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 296. Ron’s apartment door is old and does NOT open easily. When he first moved into the apartment, he realized that if you pull the door towards you while unlocking it, it is much easier to open. Three years later he still uses this trick to open the door. This is an example of a) mental set. b) functional fixedness. c) confirmation bias. d) divergent thinking. Answer: a

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 297. The difference between a mental set and functional fixedness is that a mental set is ___, and functional fixedness is ___. a) getting stuck in using the same strategy that worked in the past; only seeing one purpose for an object b) using a hierarchical strategy; using the most obvious strategy c) using the same approach to solve a problem over and over again; thinking abstractly about the function of an object d) controlling and managing the processing of information; focusing primarily on obvious fixes to a problem Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 298. Which of the following statements best expresses the relationship between mental set and functional fixedness? a) Functional fixedness is really a specific instance of mental set. b) Mental set is a specific instance of functional fixedness. c) Functional fixedness and mental set are the same thing. d) Functional fixedness and mental set are distinct problem-solving impediments. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 299. Which of the following impediments to effective problem solving is correctly matched with an illustrative problem? a) mental set – 9-dot problem b) functional fixedness – Wason’s 2-4-6 task c) mental set – string problem d) confirmation bias – 9-dot problem Answer: a

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 300. Which type of research design would control for confirmation bias? a) Double blind b) Qualitative c) Correlational d) Mixed method Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 301. Which of the following impediments to effective problem solving is correctly matched with an illustrative problem? a) mental set – tower of Hanoi problem b) functional fixedness – 9-dot problem c) mental set – string problem d) confirmation bias – Wason’s 2-4-6 task Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 302. Finnegan is in the local pub claiming that there is a magic owl that lives outside of his house. He says that every evening after the owl hoots, the sun goes down. What obstacle to problem solving is Finnegan showing? a) representativeness heuristic b) availability heuristic c) confirmation bias d) functional fixedness Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 303. Keegan is a police officer who believes that young drivers speed more than older drivers. He often notices and tickets younger drivers who speed but fails pull over older drivers who are doing the same thing. Keegan fell prey to which type of error? a) availability heuristic b) functional fixedness c) confirmation bias d) representative heuristic Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 304. Helga expected that the beautifully decorated layer cake would taste divine, so she did NOT notice that it was dry and NOT very flavorful. This is an example of which of the following? a) confirmation bias b) functional fixedness c) mental set d) improper use of heuristics Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 305. A dedicated sports fan believes his team will win only if he wears his lucky team shirt. One day, he forgets to wear it, and his team loses the game. He believes his superstition is proven. Which barrier to problem solving does this represent? a) availability heuristic b) confirmation bias c) functional fixedness d) representative heuristic Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 306. Which of the following impediments to effective problem solving is correctly matched with its definition? a) functional fixedness – the tendency for old patterns of problem solving to persist b) mental set – the tendency to think of an object only in terms of its customary use c) confirmation bias – the tendency to favour existing hypotheses and to ignore evidence favouring alternatives d) confirmation bias – the tendency for old patterns of problem solving to persist Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 307. Which statement describes a similarity between confirmation bias and functional fixedness? a) Both ignore new information that could change the way one perceives a particular concept or object. b) Both are helpful tools in solving problems. c) Both are elements that lead to greater creativity. d) Both are methods of organizing and using information. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 308. Which two concepts represent the idea of ignoring new information that could help to change an individual’s earlier perceptions? a) confirmation bias and functional fixedness b) functional fixedness and algorithms c) artificial concepts and prototypes d) prototypes and confirmation bias Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis

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Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 309. Jana and Mark both have relationship problems. Jana has been dating a guy who cheats on her. But no matter how many people tell her he is cheating, she does NOT believe them, saying that they only want to hurt her. Mark has problems dating because he has an image of the perfect partner fixed in his mind, and no one he has dated can live up to that ideal. What is implied here? a) Jana is demonstrating a confirmation bias, while Mark is demonstrating the representativeness heuristic. b) Mark is demonstrating a confirmation bias, while Jana is demonstrating the representativeness heuristic. c) Both Mark and Jana are demonstrating a confirmation bias. d) Both Mark and Jana are demonstrating the representativeness heuristic. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 310. Which of the following impediments to effective problem solving is correctly matched with its definition? a) functional fixedness – the tendency to think of an object only in terms of its customary use b) mental set – the tendency to favour existing hypotheses and to ignore evidence favouring alternatives c) confirmation bias – the tendency for old patterns of problem solving to persist d) All impediments are correctly matched with an appropriate definition. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 311. Nigel often cites newspaper editorials favouring the presidential candidate he supports; he appears to ignore editorials critical of the candidate. Nigel appears prone to a) functional fixedness. b) mental set. c) confirmation bias. d) the representativeness heuristic. Answer: c

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 312. During naturalistic observation of men and women at a bar, Mareva believes that she has found evidence to support her hypothesis that men and women become more sexually aroused when under the influence of alcohol. However, Mareva only focused on information that supported her hypothesis, and later research showed that her hypothesis was not entirely correct. Mareva fell prey to which type of error? a) availability bias b) functional fixedness c) confirmation bias d) representativeness heuristic Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 313. Which of the following would MOST likely demonstrate the representativeness heuristic? a) In a toss of a coin, a person predicts a result of alternating heads and tails. b) During a race, a spectator claims that his team is BEST prepared. c) After watching one episode, a viewer predicts the next episode. d) After examining an object, a scientist determines its normal use. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 314. Which of the following situations BEST exhibits the availability heuristic? a) deciding to bicycle to work because of recent reports of train accidents b) deciding to take the train to work because the train is easy to access c) deciding to walk to work because fit people often walk to work d) deciding to drive to work because cars are most familiar to you Answer: a Difficulty: Medium

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Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 315. Calvin CANNOT decide what to cook for dinner but remembers that he has all the ingredients for spaghetti, which his family enjoyed the last time he prepared it. What problem solving method is Calvin using in this situation? a) availability heuristic b) representativeness heuristic c) work backwards from the solution d) an algorithm Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 316. The difference between the representativeness heuristic and the availability heuristic is that the representativeness heuristic assumes that ___, and the availability heuristic assumes that ___. a) we tend to look for information that supports our current beliefs; all members of a category are like the average of that category b) all members of a category share similar characteristics; events that are easy to recall are more common c) our ability to make rational decisions is limited by things beyond our control; we use whatever information is available to evaluate our options d) we tend to view objects as having only one purpose or use; we tend to use whatever strategies have worked in the past Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 317. Representativeness heuristic is to availability heuristic as _____ is to _____. a) we tend to look for information that supports our current beliefs; all members of a category are like the average of that category a) shortcut; methodical b) methodical; shortcut c) similar; salient d) salient; similar

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Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 318. The tendency to judge events that are easily recalled as more common is called a) mental set. b) representativeness heuristic. c) availability heuristic. d) confirmation bias. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 319. Farley is asked to guess as to whether more people are killed by drowning or by plane crash. He estimates that there are far more people killed by plane crashes than drowning, even though the opposite is true. What is the likely reason for Farley’s error? a) representativeness heuristic b) mental set c) confirmation bias d) availability heuristic Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 320. Stereotypes spring to mind easily. Therefore, we sometimes use them to judge the frequency of certain events, such as crimes in a specific neighbourhood. This example best describes the use of the ___ heuristic. a) frequency b) representativeness c) confirmation d) availability Answer: d

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 321. Following the September 11, 2001, Twin Towers attacks in the United States, many Canadians and Americans elected to drive rather than fly: The media coverage of the hijackings caused people to overestimate the danger of flying. This example illustrates the ___. a) availability heuristic b) representativeness heuristic c) confirmation bias d) stereotype bias Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 322. Elena and Johanna are going out for dinner. When deciding where to go, Johanna reports that several her co-workers have recently gone to a Greek restaurant downtown so it must have good food. Johanna’s recommendation is based upon the a) availability heuristic. b) confirmation bias. c) representative heuristic. d) base-rate bias. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 323. When Leilana told her new friend Saundra about her father, she described how he was always reading, loved Shakespeare, and often went to the symphony. Saundra was very surprised to learn that Leilana’s father was a construction worker as she had assumed he must be a professor. Which heuristic led Saundra to make this wrong assumption? a) availability heuristic b) representative heuristic c) probability heuristic d) bounded rationality heuristic

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Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 324. We are often prone to judge an individual by the extent to which they resemble our representation of a group or category of people; that is, we are prone to the ___ when forming impressions or making decisions about others. a) availability heuristic b) representativeness heuristic c) confirmation bias d) stereotypic bias Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 325. Ander wants a son. He has five daughters. He loves his girls very much but knows it is very important to his male relatives that he have a son. He asks his wife if they could try one more time for a son. She responds that she would also like to have a boy but that there is no way they will ever have a son at this point (of course, Ander’s wife is wrong; all pregnancies have approximately a 1 in 2 chance of being a boy). What obstacle to problem solving is Ander’s wife facing? a) representativeness heuristic b) availability heuristic c) mental set d) confirmation bias Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 326. In the context of rational decision-making theory, an option’s utility reflects its a) desirability. b) likelihood. c) practicality. d) sensibleness.

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Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 327 Chloe wants to buy a new laptop computer. She makes a list of features that she feels are necessary for the laptop to have and then looks at a number of different models that are currently on the market. After ranking each model on their utility, she decides which one she wants. Which of the following has Chloe used to make her decision? a) representative heuristic b) availability heuristic c) bounded rationality d) rational decision making Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 328. You decide which course to take at 11:00 on Mondays, Wednesdays, and Fridays the following semester by multiplying, for each course option, the priority level of the course (e.g., required course = 3; elective in major = 2; free elective = 1) and your estimated likelihood of getting into the course. You attempt to enrol in the course with the highest product. You are following the ___ model of decision making. a) metacognitive b) utility c) bounded rationality d) rational Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 329. _________ is the idea that in many situations, our ability to make clear rational decisions is limited by factors such as lack of information or time constraints. a) Emotional decision-making b) Irrational decision-making

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c) Bounded rationality d) Limited rationality Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 330. Casey needs to buy a new cell phone very quickly as he lost his on the weekend. Although he makes a list of all the features he wants in a phone, he goes back to the store where he bought his last phone and only looks at two phones before making his decision. To purchase his phone, Casey has used a decision-making model known as a) emotional probability. b) functional rationality. c) bounded rationality. d) bounded probability. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 331. The bounded rationality model of decision making suggests that a) we compute the probability and utility of each option when we make decisions. b) we use heuristics to arrive at satisfactory decisions. c) we use algorithms to make the best possible decisions. d) the decisions we make are often irrational. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 332. Magdalene has her heart set a specific make and model of a car. She has saved the down payment and is now in the sales centre preparing to buy the car she has been dreaming of. The salesperson warns her that there are some issues with the model she has in mind and shows her a better car for less money. He provides the evidence to back his claim. Nevertheless, Magdalene buys the car she came for. Magdalene has made his decision based on a) the availability heuristic.

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b) the representative heuristic. c) bounded rationality. d) an algorithm. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 333. According to Kahneman, what makes predicting human behaviour during decision making extremely difficult? a) emotion b) limited information c) external pressures d) bounded rationality Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 334. Kimberly and Darnell are touring houses with a real estate agent. After telling the agent they would like a couple of days to think about whether they will submit a bid on one specific house, the agent tells them that two other couples have looked at that house. As Kimberly and Darnell feel “sure” this is the house for them, they immediately submit an offer. What was probably the greatest influence on Kimberly and Darnell’s decision? a) bounded rationality b) impulsivity c) the anticipation of how it would feel if they missed out on buying the house d) the way in which the real estate agent framed the sales pitch Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 335. Which of the following alternatives best summarizes your text’s discussion of the influence of emotion on decision making? a) People sometimes rely on emotion to guide decision making. This is invariably a bad idea.

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b) People sometimes rely on emotion to guide decision making. This is sometimes a good idea. c) People often rely on emotion to guide decision making. This is sometimes a good idea. d) People often rely on emotion to guide decision making. This is invariably a bad idea. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 336. Which of the following patterns of association might a researcher expect to find between positive mood and the time it takes participants to make decisions, the extent to which participants consider the options in making decisions, and, finally, participants’ satisfaction with their decisions? a) Positive mood should be negatively related to the time participants take to make decisions and to the degree to which they consider the options. Positive mood should be positively associated with participants’ satisfaction in their decisions. b) Positive mood should be negatively related to the time participants take to make decisions. Positive mood should be positively associated with the degree to which participants consider their options and to their satisfaction in their decisions. c) Positive mood should be positively related to the time participants take to make decisions, the degree to which participants consider their options, and finally, to participants’ satisfaction in their decisions. d) Positive mood should be negatively related to the time participants take to make decisions and to the degree to which they consider the options. Positive mood should be unrelated to participants’ satisfaction in their decisions. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 337. Which of the following best captures the influence on our decisions of how we think we’ll feel in the future as a result? a) A good shot at happiness trumps potential disappointment. b) Potential disappointment trumps a good chance at happiness. c) Potential happiness trumps a good chance of disappointment. d) Likely disappointment trumps potential happiness. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation

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Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 338. Framing is especially effective a) when we think we stand to benefit. b) when the outcome is uncertain. c) when we are estimating risks. d) when the outcome is almost certain. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 339. People prefer to buy meat advertised as 75% lean (rather than as 25% fat). Which of the following factors is influencing the public’s judgment in this situation? a) a confirmation bias b) framing effect c) mental set d) the availability heuristic Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 340. Jordie was horrified to discover that condoms have a 2% failure rate even if you use them perfectly. He had always thought that a 98% effectiveness rate was excellent. Jordie had fallen victim to the a) a confirmation bias. b) framing effect. c) mental set effect. d) the availability heuristic. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought

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341. Fiona is contemplating when she learned about her beloved grandmother’s sickness. She remembers how her father told her one morning at breakfast, and she wonders about all the other mornings that he must have wanted to tell her but didn’t. What kind of thinking is Fiona engaging in? a) metacognition b) executive decision making c) mental set d) bounded rationality Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 342. Which of the following is NOT an example of metacognition? a) Tomáŝ is thinking about how he might have handled the argument with his father better. b) Xia is learning how to knit. c) Eduardo is thinking about what his girlfriend might like for her birthday. d) Katie is thinking about who recommended her professor to her. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 343. According to your text, metacognitive abilities reflect a) controlled processing. b) automatic processing. c) the application of algorithms. d) the use of heuristics. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought

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344. Three-year-old Keiffer is playing hide-and-go-seek with his older sister. When it is Keiffer’s turn to hide, he puts only his head behind a chair because he thinks that, if he cannot see his sister then she cannot see him. Based on Keiffer’s behaviour, he has not yet developed a) source memory. b) self-reflection. c) directed attention. d) theory of mind. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 345. Avigail felt bad about herself because she continued to ruminate about the uncontrolled behaviour she exhibited at a party last weekend. What form of metacognition does this example represent? a) theory of mind b) self-reflection c) metacognition d) sense of self Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 346. Rosie’s heart hurt for her friend Diya. Diya lost her baby in her seventh month of pregnancy. Rosie’s ability to understand her friend’s mental state is an example of a) theory of mind b) self-reflection c) metacognition d) sense of self Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought

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347. Older adults often have trouble identifying the basis of their knowledge. This deficit is known as ___ amnesia. It may reflect degeneration in the brain’s ___. a) source; hippocampus b) source; hypothalamus c) retrograde; hippocampus d) retrograde; hypothalamus Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 348. Young children are often poor eyewitnesses because they have trouble remembering where they heard about certain information. This difficulty, known as ___ amnesia, makes children prone to false memories and makes it difficult for children to understand their own memories. a) anterograde b) retrograde c) infantile d) source Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 349. A reasonably sophisticated theory of mind emerges in children by the time they are ___ years old. a) 2–3 b) 3–5 c) 5–7 d) 7–9 Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought

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350. Lying to avoid punishment is essentially universal among children by the time they are about ___ years of age. a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 7 Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 351. A developmental psychologist investigates the reasons that elementary school children lie. Which of the following coefficients is she most likely to find between age and lying to avoid punishment on the one hand, and lying to make others feel better, on the other? a) age and lying to avoid punishment: –.28; age and lying to make others feel better: –.25 b) age and lying to avoid punishment: –.28; age and lying to make others feel better: +.25 c) age and lying to avoid punishment: +.28; age and lying to make others feel better: –.25 d) age and lying to avoid punishment: +.28; age and lying to make others feel better: +.25 Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 352. In young children, jealousy is to _____________ as an inability to share is to _______________. a) self-reflection; theory of mind b) theory of mind; self-reflection c) theory of mind; source memory d) theory of mind; theory of mind Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 353. We have no trouble understanding what a friend intends to do based on a simple gesture. These abilities reflect the operation of

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a) mirror neurons. b) reflexive dendrites. c) glial cells. d) terminal buttons. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 354. Which of the following disorders is characterized by extreme disorganization of thinking? a) obsessive-compulsive disorder b) depression c) Alzheimer’s disease d) schizophrenia Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 355. Which disorder is accompanied by repetitive thoughts about hopelessness and helplessness? a) Schizophrenia b) Obsessive-compulsive c) Depression d) Panic disorder Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 356. Obsession is to compulsion as ___ is to ___. a) cognition; perception b) perception; cognition c) cognition; behaviour d) behaviour; cognition

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Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 357. Hallucination is to delusion as ___ is to ___. a) perception; cognition b) cognition; perception c) perception; behaviour d) behaviour; cognition Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 358. Victoria believed that someone would break into the house and kill her baby. She knew she had to keep him safe so constantly checked the locks on the doors and windows of the house. She knew this fear was irrational, but she became very anxious if she could not check. Victoria might be diagnosed with _____. a) schizophrenia b) obsessive-compulsive disorder c) Alzheimer’s disease d) depression Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought

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MATCHING QUESTION 359. Match the appropriate terms in the left column to the definitions in the right column. Terms Phoneme Morpheme Semantics Syntax Pragmatics Telegraphic speech Child-directed speech Broca’s aphasia Wernicke’s aphasia Agrammatism Critical period Sensitive period Executive function Dysexecutive function syndrome O. Cognitive control A. B. C. D. E. F. G. H. I. J. K. L. M. N.

___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___

Definitions 1. The system for using words and word order to convey meaning. 2. A time during development after which it becomes more difficult to develop certain capabilities. 3. A neurological condition in which the patient is unable to produce coherent speech. 4. The ability to direct thought in accord with one’s intentions. 5. The brain’s ability to control and manage the mental processing of information. 6. Impairments in the ability to control and direct mental activities. 7. The smallest unit of sound in a language: an individual sound. 8. A neurological condition in which a person cannot understand language. 9. A neurological condition in which the patient is incapable of using words in grammatical sequence. 10. The practical aspects of language usage, including speech pace, gesturing, and body language.

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ANSWERS TO MATCHING QUESTION 1.

D: Syntax

L: Sensitive period

H: Broca’s aphasia

O: Cognitive control

5. M: Executive function 6. N: Dysexecutive function syndrome 7. A: Phoneme 8. I: Wernicke’s aphasia 9. J: Agrammatism 10. E: Pragmatics Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

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FILL-IN-THE-BLANK 360. Humans make new sentences each time they speak. This refers to the concept that language is creative or ___. Answer: generative Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 361. The process of understanding spoken, written, or signed language is known as ___. Answer: language comprehension Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 362. The study of phonemes is called ___. Answer: phonology Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 363. One aspect of pragmatics is our use of body language such as facial movements and gestures that may affect the meaning of the words we speak. The use of body language is a type of ___ communication. Answer: non-verbal Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

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Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 364. Babies typically begin speaking simple words such as “mama” and “dada” around the age of ___ year(s) old. Answer: one Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 365. Psychologists often report that the years prior to age ___is especially important for language acquisition. Answer: 13 Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 366. Four-year-old Maya said, “I thinked about it.” This is an example of the linguistic error called ___. Answer: overregularization Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 367. The brain region responsible for fear and aggression that appears to be involved in the use of profanity is the ___. Answer: amygdala Difficulty: Easy

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372. It is often difficult to find solution strategies for ___ problems. Answer: ill-defined Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 373. When a large problem is divided into smaller pieces, ___ are formed. Answer: subgoals Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 374. Instances when we can solve a problem with little effort or concentration occur as a result of ___. Answer: insight Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 375. The tendency to look for information during problem solving that meets our expectations is known as ___. Answer: confirmation bias Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 376. Justin thinks that plane crashes occur daily due to his exposure to memorable media stories about plane crashes. This example illustrates Justin’s use of the ___ heuristic.

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Answer: availability Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 377. The adaptive trait that facilitates social communication with others is a ___. Answer: theory of mind Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 378. The ability to think about another person’s intentions is linked to the ___ neurons in the brain. Answer: mirror Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought

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SHORT ANSWER ESSAY QUESTIONS 379. What are the two main components of language? Answer: production and comprehension Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 380. What are the smallest units of meaning within a language called? Answer: morphemes Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 381. What makes the word “dog” different from the word “dogs”? Answer: The morpheme of “s” indicates plurality. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 382. Anil, who is 2 years old, frequently asks his mother for a drink by using two-word phrases such as, “More milk.” What type of speech does this represent? Answer: telegraphic Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language

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383. What is the term used to define the developmental time window during which the brain is especially susceptible to influences? Answer: sensitive period Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 384. What brain area is critical for speech production? Answer: Broca’s area Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 385. Damage to which hemisphere of the brain is linked to the inability to understand humour and metaphors? Answer: right Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 386. Slower readers tend to move their eyes back to words they have already passed while reading. Which term is associated with this phenomenon? Answer: backtrack Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language

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387. On average, which gender learns to speak earlier? Answer: females Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 388. When individuals remember driving directions based on the appearance of specific visual cues, what navigation strategy are they using? Answer: sense of direction Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how thought and language are related and summarize the linguistic relativity hypothesis. Section Reference: The Relationship between Language and Thought 389. What tribe that only has two words for describing colour in their vocabulary was mentioned in the textbook? Answer: Dani Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how thought and language are related and summarize the linguistic relativity hypothesis. Section Reference: The Relationship between Language and Thought 390. Provide an example of automatic processing. Answer: A task that is effortless, e.g., tying shoes. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 391. What area of the brain is typically damaged when people display dysexecutive syndrome?

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Answer: frontal lobes Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 392. What is the first step in solving a problem? Answer: developing a representation Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 393. What technique can be used with well-defined problems in which the goal is considered first, and then problem solving moves back towards the current state? Answer: working backwards Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 394. What pattern describes the tendency to use strategies that have worked in the past? Answer: mental set Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 395. What is decision making? Answer: evaluating and choosing from the alternatives available to us Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition.

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Section Reference: Thought 396. What phrase is used to describe how we rank criteria when engaging in rational decision making? Answer: judging utility Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 397. What group of individuals takes advantage of the ability to manipulate an individual’s emotions to increase the likelihood of them purchasing specific goods or services? Answer: advertisers Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 398. What term is used to describe the wording of an advertisement to emphasize its positive characteristics, thus increasing the likelihood of a purchase being made? Answer: framing Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 399. Define metacognition. Answer: thinking about thinking Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 400. At approximately what age does theory of mind begin to develop?

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Answer: later toddler years (3 to 4 years old) Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 401. What percentage of individuals in Canada have been diagnosed with schizophrenia? Answer: Approximately 1.1% have been diagnosed. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought

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ESSAY QUESTIONS 402. Why is animal communication NOT a language? Answer: Animal vocalizations are innate and do not change, whereas human speech is generative. Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 403. Define lexical meaning and describe how it changes over time. Answer: Lexical meaning refers to the dictionary meaning or words within the study of semantics. Over time, additional meanings may be added to words. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 404. Provide an example of non-verbal communication that you have encountered and explain how it actively changed the connotation of the words that were spoken. Answer: Provide an example in which the verbiage is similar, but the non-verbal component affected the interpretation of the words. For example, a sincere smile versus a sneer may influence whether a person will accept an apology. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 405. Describe Chomsky’s theory of the language-acquisition device. Answer: Chomsky believed that language acquisition in human infants is biologically programmed. The ease with which a child learns language is due to the presence of an innate language-acquisition device that is unique to humans.

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 406. Describe the interactionist theory of language development. Answer: Biological propensity for language development interacts with environmental factors to enhance language learning. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 407. Define aphasia and describe the difference between Wernicke’s aphasia and Broca’s aphasia. Answer: Aphasia is a general term that refers to difficulty with speech (either production or comprehension). Broca’s aphasia refers to difficulty in language production whereas Wernicke’s aphasia refers to difficulty in language comprehension. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 408. Define transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) and describe a study that used this technique. Answer: TMS uses a strong magnetic signal to temporarily inactivate a specific brain region. One study used this technique to investigate whether people were able to understand metaphors when their right hemisphere was impaired. They were not able to do so. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language

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409. What pattern in the progression of language development is seen in children who grow up in a bilingual or multilingual home? Answer: Learn to speak and understand language at a slightly slower pace than children who grow up in homes where one language is spoken. Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Define language, describe how we learn languages, describe parts of the brain that are involved in language, and discuss differences and problems that can affect people’s language skills. Section Reference: Language 410. Provide an example of research that suggests that thinking about something activates the same brain regions as sensing or doing it. Answer: Research that involves thinking about tastes or odours activates the gustatory or olfactory regions of the brain. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how thought and language are related and summarize the linguistic relativity hypothesis. Section Reference: The Relationship between Language and Thought 411. Illustrate how your vocabulary for colour exceeds that of the Dani tribe. What does this suggest about our efforts to conceptualize colour? Answer: We have more than two words for colour in our vocabulary. Although the Dani can perceive colour, we have named variations of colours to allow for more subtle distinctions among them. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how thought and language are related and summarize the linguistic relativity hypothesis. Section Reference: The Relationship between Language and Thought 412. Describe how the concepts of automatic and controlled processing may inform research on multi-tasking, such as driving and talking on a cellular telephone. Answer: At least one of these tasks should be automatic so that more attention can be devoted to the task requires controlled processing. If both tasks require controlled processing, the ability to perform either one successfully is impaired. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis

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Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 413. Describe how the capacity for cognitive control changes as people age. Answer: Cognitive control improves as we age, and the brain continues to develop so that we can inhibit impulses and plan for the long-term future. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 414. Describe the difference between an algorithm and a heuristic. Answer: An algorithm will always lead to a solution whereas a heuristic is a shortcut strategy that does not guarantee a solution. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 415. Describe how analogies can help with problem solving and provide an example. Answer: Experience with previously-encountered problems that were similar can help with the current problem because similar problem-solving methods can be re-used. Provide an example of similar problems in which a problem-solving method was re-used. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 416. Define functional fixedness and provide an example. Answer: Tendency to view objects as having only one use or function; provide an example of an object that is often thought to have only one use or function. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition.

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Section Reference: Thought 417. What is the representativeness heuristic? Provide an example. Answer: Assumption that individual objects or people are members of a category if they share similar characteristics; racial stereotypes are social examples of this heuristic. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 418. Describe the concept of bounded rationality and when we use it. Answer: Limiting the cognitive effort we need to invest during decision making, such that we do the best we can with the information and cognitive resources available at the time. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought 419. What two purposes does lying serve? Answer: avoiding punishment and making others feel good Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and summarize research on thinking processes, including problem solving, decision making, and metacognition. Section Reference: Thought

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LABELLING 420. On the diagram below, label the parts of the brain involved in speech. Motor association cortex Broca’s area Primary motor cortex Wernicke’s area Auditory cortex

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CHAPTER 10 INTELLIGENCE CHAPTER LEARNING OBJECTIVES 1. Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. • Scholars early in the twentieth century defined intelligence as the ability to learn and to meet the demands of the environment effectively. Later, other scholars added to this definition the ability to understand and control one’s mental activities, called metacognition. • A central issue in defining intelligence is whether it is a single, general factor or a cluster of different abilities. Charles Spearman hypothesized that a general factor, or g factor, underlies all mental abilities, while Lewis Thurstone argued that intelligence is made up of seven distinct primary mental abilities. • Although most theorists today agree that intelligence does include a g factor, modern theorists such as Howard Gardner, Robert Sternberg, and Stephen Ceci have tended to deemphasize the g factor and focus on specific abilities, or s factors. 2. Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. • The psychometric approach to studying intelligence attempts to measure intelligence with carefully constructed psychological tests. • To ensure that intelligence tests are grounded in sound scientific principles, psychologists design tests that adhere to three basic criteria: standardization, reliability, and validity. • Early pioneers of intelligence testing include Francis Galton, who proposed the theory of psychophysical performance, and Francis Binet, who developed a test to predict children’s success in school. • Adapting Binet’s work for use in the United States, Lewis Terman constructed the StanfordBinet Intelligence Test and devised the intelligence quotient (IQ). • David Wechsler broadened the usefulness of intelligence testing by developing the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS), along with several other tests. • Both the Stanford-Binet and the WAIS have high degrees of reliability. Performance on intelligence tests also correlates highly with school performance, and to some degree with other areas of functioning in life, such as occupational achievements. • Although widely used, intelligence tests are subject to several criticisms. One issue involves the culture-specific nature of the tests, which may produce bias. A related problem is stereotype threat. • Intelligence test scores from around the world have increased over time, a phenomenon known as the Flynn effect. Possible explanations include potential problems with the procedures, content, or nature of the tests and improvements in education, nutrition, health, or environments.

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3. Discuss several proposed types of intelligence that go beyond intellectual functioning. • Other theorists have broadened the definition of intelligence further to include emotional intelligence, social intelligence, wisdom, creativity, and personality. • Creativity is strongly correlated with intelligence, but intelligence is not sufficient for creative output. Creative output often requires an intrinsic drive to create as well as a strong imagination. 4. Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. • The relative contributions of biology and environment to the development of intelligence has important social implications, exemplified by the controversial book The Bell Curve, whose authors argued that group differences in IQ are likely due at least in part to genetic factors. • Family studies and research in molecular biology have indicated that heredity does play a major role in intelligence. Researchers estimate that the heritability of intelligence is about 50 percent. • Environmental factors that affect intelligence include family and home, overall culture, occupation, and schooling. • Group differences in IQ scores enable us only to make distinctions between groups, not to reach any conclusions about an individual within a group. • Studies have confirmed that environmental enrichment for members of disadvantaged groups is effective in producing at least short-term cognitive gains. 5. Describe how brain size, number of neurons, processing speed, brain activity, and cortical maturation relate to intelligence. • Neuroimaging studies suggest that overall brain size is not correlated with intelligence. The number of neurons in certain brain regions, such as the frontal lobes, may be related to intellectual functioning. • The speed with which the brain responds to stimuli, which can be measured by means of EEGs and nerve conduction velocity (NCV), also correlates with intelligence. • fMRI scans, which show what areas of the brain are active at a particular moment, have generally revealed lower activity in the brains of people performing well on an intellectual task and higher activity in the brains of people performing poorly. This suggests that the brains of the higher performers may be more efficient. • It appears that the development of intelligence involves a process of neuron growth and then neuron pruning, particularly in the prefrontal cortex—a process that is reflected by a distinct pattern of change in cortical thickness throughout childhood and adolescence. 6. Discuss intellectual disability and giftedness. • The two extremes of intelligence, as measured by IQ tests, are represented by intellectual disability and giftedness. • Home environmental causes of intellectual disability include poor and unstimulating environments and inadequate parent–child interactions. These causes have been associated in particular with mild intellectual disability, though they may also be at work in more severe cases. • Other causes of intellectual disability include genetically based chromosomal abnormalities, certain prenatal conditions in the mother, complications at delivery, and injuries and

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• • •

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infections during early childhood. These causes have been associated in particular with moderate to profound levels of intellectual disability. Down’s Syndrome is a genetic abnormality resulting in intellectual disability. Psychologists do not agree on how to define giftedness, but often identify gifted persons as having IQs at the top 1 or 2 percent of the tested population. Environment can contribute to giftedness, and gifted people are often highly motivated. However, academically gifted people may not be equally gifted with social and emotional intelligence.

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TRUE-FALSE STATEMENTS 1. Intelligent children tend to get high scores on intelligence tests. This fact supports the theoretical construct of a g factor. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 2. Thurstone developed the theory of multiple intelligences. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 3. The analytic (internal) component is part of Sternberg’s triarchic theory of intelligence. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 4. Ceci believed that one’s innate abilities are derived from biological resource pools. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 5. Standardization refers to the uniform administration and scoring of tests.

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Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 6. The Flynn affect refers to a global rise in average IQ scores. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 7. “Bell curve” is another term for a skewed distribution. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 8. Taking a test more than once to compare scores occurs is a method for measuring validity. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 9. IQ tests were originally designed to assess school performance. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence?

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10. Social intelligence is measured along 12 branches of abilities (e.g., perceiving, thinking, etc.). Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss several proposed types of intelligence that go beyond intellectual functioning. Section Reference: Additional Types of Intelligence 11. Most theorists believe that intelligence and wisdom are entirely different entities. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss several proposed types of intelligence that go beyond intellectual functioning. Section Reference: Additional Types of Intelligence 12. The correlation between creativity and intelligence diminishes beyond the IQ score of 120. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss several proposed types of intelligence that go beyond intellectual functioning. Section Reference: Additional Types of Intelligence 13. Rushton’s work was criticized because he made no attempt to separate the effects of genetic factors from the effects of environmental factors on genetic factors. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 14. The heritability coefficient for Huntington’s Disease is +1.00. Answer: True

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19. Patterns of brain development are NOT related to intellectual development. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how brain size, number of neurons, processing speed, brain activity, and cortical maturation relate to intelligence. Section Reference: The Brain and Intelligence 20. Quality of adaptation is NOT an effective predictor of intellectual disability. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss intellectual disability and giftedness. Section Reference: Extremes in Intelligence 21. An IQ score between 55 and 70 is indicative of a mild intellectual disability. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss intellectual disability and giftedness. Section Reference: Extremes in Intelligence

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MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 22. Which of the following areas is NOT included in the definition of intelligence? a) ability to learn b) ability to communicate c) ability to meet the demands of the environment d) ability to understand and control our own mental activities Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 23. The ability to learn and to meet the demands of the environment effectively is called a) natural selection. b) adaptability. c) intelligence. d) creativity. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 24. The ability to learn, to meet environmental demands, and to understand and control one’s mental activities is also known as a) intelligence. b) metacognition. c) the g factor. d) primary mental ability. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 25. ___ is a statistical method for determining if different items on a test correlate highly enough

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with each other to form a unified set. a) Factor analysis b) Specific factor analysis c) General factor analysis d) T-test factor analysis Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 26. A statistical method for determining whether certain items on a test correlate highly, therefore forming a unified set or cluster of items is called a) multivariate analysis. b) factor analysis. c) analysis of variance. d) t-test. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 27. Which of the following developed a tool for analyzing intelligence called factor analysis? a) Spearman b) Thurstone c) Gardner d) Sternberg Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 28. Dr. Rabias has been conducting a research study. He asked participants to complete a very long questionnaire and is now analyzing the data. He wants to determine whether different items on the test correlate with each other and whether specific items fall into clusters or sets. Dr. Rabias will likely be using a ___. a) analysis of variance

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b) regression analysis c) factor analysis d) t-test factor analysis Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 29. Dr. Nguyen is setting up a factor analysis to assess intelligence. A factor analysis sets up a table or matrix that _____. a) displays those factors statistically irrelevant to intelligence so they can be excluded from measurements b) reveals how scores on tests of different abilities correlate with one another c) identifies only those factors that are truly important to intelligence d) isolates those factors that are valid for intelligence tests Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 30. The ability to think about and control one’s mental abilities is the definition of a) analytical thinking. b) intelligence. c) the g factor. d) metacognition. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 31. Matthew has always struggled with mathematics. Therefore, when he began his statistics class, he hired a tutor to help him. Additionally, he kept his notes well-organized and began studying three weeks before his exam. Matthew’s recognition of the steps he needs to take to do well in his statistics class is called a) intelligence. b) intuition.

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c) metacognition. d) creativity. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 32. Although Aiden has a severe reading disability, he is a very gifted musician. Spearman would describe Aiden’s musical ability as a(n) a) IQ factor. b) primary mental ability. c) g factor. d) s factor. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 33. Which of the following theorists proposed that intelligence is composed of a g factor and several s factors? a) Thurstone b) Gardner c) Sternberg d) Spearman Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 34. Which intelligence researcher used factor analysis and claimed that a g factor underlies all mental abilities? a) Thurstone b) Spearman c) Sternberg d) Gardner

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Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 35. Seema is “book smart,” but cannot seem to keep track of her finances. Seema’s situation provides the best example of a) Spearman’s g factor. b) Spearman’s rho. c) Spearman’s s factor. d) factor analysis. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 36. Stephen has dyscalculia. On the other hand, he writes wonderful detective novels. According to Spearman, Stephen’s writing ability would be an example of a) his practical intelligence. b) his linguistic intelligence. c) a g factor. d) an s factor. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 37. Reagan has just taken an intelligence test. After it has been scored, he is given a total IQ score, as well as separate scores on the verbal, and performance sections of the test. In this example, the total IQ score would be the measure of a ___, and the scores on the verbal and performance sections would each be measures of a ___. a) s factor; g factor b) g factor; s factor c) specific factor analysis; general factor analysis d) general factor analysis; specific factor analysis Answer: b

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 38. Salman is working on a crossword puzzle. According to Spearman’s two-factor theory of intelligence, what aspect(s) of intelligence would Salman use to complete his crossword puzzle? a) g factor b) s factor for verbal ability c) both the s factor for verbal ability and the g factor d) all her primary mental abilities and some of her secondary mental abilities Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 39. Which of the following argued that intelligence is made up of seven distinct factors called primary mental abilities? a) Gardner b) Spearman c) Thurstone d) Sternberg Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 40. Corinne is a chartered accountant for a large firm. Which of Thurston’s primary mental abilities would Corrine likely score very high on? a) verbal comprehension b) reasoning c) perceptual speed d) numerical skill Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 41. According to Thurstone, which of the following is NOT a factor of intelligence? a) associative memory b) perceptual speed c) word fluency d) interpersonal skill Answer: d 36b. Thurstone believed that intelligence was made up of seven distinct factors called a) multiple intelligences. b) primary mental abilities. c) factor analysis. d) triarchic factors. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 42. Which of the following best illustrates the two-factor theory of intelligence? a) Intelligence is divided into analytical intelligence and practical intelligence. b) Intelligence is composed of fluid intelligence and crystallized intelligence. c) Intelligence has an overall general factor, and a series of specific factors. d) Intelligence is made up of both primary and secondary abilities. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 43. Which researcher claimed that intelligence is made up of seven primary mental abilities? a) Thurstone b) Spearman c) Sternberg d) Gardner Answer: a

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 44. Which of the following is NOT one of Thurstone’s primary mental abilities? a) spatial ability b) reasoning c) verbal comprehension d) emotional ability Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 45. Which of the following is/are included in Thurstone’s seven mental abilities? a) verbal comprehension b) word fluency c) perceptual speed d) all the above Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 46. Which of the following lists belongs with Thurstone’s theory of primary mental abilities? a) musical, mathematical, and interpersonal b) analytical, creative, and practical c) verbal comprehension, numerical ability, and reasoning d) potential abilities, environmental context, and internal motivation Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence?

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

47. Fiona and Mario are travelling across Europe. Fiona excels at reading the map and finding their way around each new city. Mario, on the other hand, is better at keeping track of their expenses, and figuring out how to make the most of their vacation money. According to Thurstone’s seven factors of intelligence, Fiona would probably score high on ___ while Mario would score high on ___. a) perceptual speed; numerical skill b) spatial ability; logical/mathematical c) perceptual speed; logical/mathematical d) spatial ability; numerical skill Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 48. Nico is imaging the best way to rearrange his living room. He is picturing where he should put the TV in relation to the windows, and then the best place for the couch. According to Thurstone, what factor of intelligence would Nico use to complete this task? a) spatial ability b) word fluency c) linguistic d) internal Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 49. All the following are ways in which Thurstone’s theory of intelligence differed from Gardner’s EXCEPT a) Gardner supposed that intelligence is stable throughout life, while Thurstone supposed that intelligence can increase or decrease throughout life. b) Gardner argued for several types of intelligence, while Thurstone argued for one intelligence with many facets. c) Gardner believed that intelligence should be tested in the natural environment, while Thurstone believed that intelligence can be tested in the lab. d) Gardner acknowledged the cultural influence on intelligence, while Thurstone did not. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium

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Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 50. Gardner’s theory lists ___ types of mental abilities. a) three b) five c) eight d) nine Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 51. Which of the following is NOT one of Gardner’s eight types of intelligence? a) musical b) spatial c) linguistic d) analytic Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 52. Which one of Gardner’s multiple intelligences would be beneficial to the broadest spectrum of careers? a) Intrapersonal b) Spatial c) Musical d) Naturalistic Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence?

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

53. In order to obtain an understanding of how successful a person might be as a dance instructor, the BEST test to use would be one that is based on a) Sternberg's theory of successful intelligence. b) Gardner's theory of multiple intelligences. c) Goleman's theory of emotional intelligence. d) Binet's methods of determining IQ scores. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 54. Jon is an electrical engineer who enjoys tinkering in his garage and doing Sudoku. He is fearful of nature and rarely socializes. How would Howard Gardner summarize Jon’s intelligence? a) High spatial and logical intelligence, but low interpersonal and naturalistic intelligence. b) High musical and naturalistic intelligence, but low spiritual intelligence. c) High linguistic and kinesthetic intelligence, but low logical and interpersonal intelligence. d) High spiritual and musical intelligence, but low linguistic and spatial intelligence. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 55. Marcus is a talented hockey player and has been playing since he was 4 years old. According to Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligences, what type of intelligence would Marcus excel at? a) linguistic b) logical/mathematical c) bodily/kinesthetic d) spatial Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence?

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56. Gertrude is an exceptional violinist and has been playing since she was 3 years old. According to Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligences, what type of intelligence would Gertrude excel at? a) linguistic b) logical/mathematical c) musical d) spatial Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 57. Garrett is a farmer. Although he has some dairy cows, his main source of revenue comes from crops. Garrett’s success as a farmer is largely dependent on his ability to understand patterns in weather and nature. According to Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligences, what type of intelligence would Garrett excel at? a) interpersonal b) existential c) spatial d) naturalistic Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 58. Celeste is a therapist who is client-centred, able to engage in unconditional positive regard with her clients. According to Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligences, what type of intelligence would Celeste excel at? a) interpersonal b) existential c) spatial d) naturalistic Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence?

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

59. Reem is an architect. She is likely to score high on Gardner’s ___ intelligence. a) logical/mathematical b) bodily/kinesthetic c) spatial d) musical Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 60. Dr. Tobias believes that one area of the brain is responsible for spatial functioning, while a different brain area is responsible for creating music. In fact, Dr. Tobias believes that there is a separate brain region for most mental functions. Dr. Tobias’ belief most closely resembles that of ___. a) Thurstone b) Gardner c) Sternberg d) Ceci Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 61. Heitor believes in a modular model of mental functioning. He argues that these areas influence one another but insists that each area of intelligence is distinct. Heitor’s thinking most resembles that of _____. a) Thurstone b) Gardner c) Sternberg d) Ceci Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence?

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62. As Gardner’s various intelligences are thought to emanate from different areas of the brain, his theory is often called a a) primary model of mental functioning. b) factor model of mental functioning. c) modular model of mental functioning. d) triarchic model of mental functioning. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 63. Gardner’s theory of intelligence is like that of Sternberg’s in that they both a) argue that intelligence is made up of a single g factor. b) reject the idea that intelligence is made up of multiple independent intelligences. c) agree that intelligence is not a single mental function. d) emphasize that intelligence does not change over time. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 64. A principal has decided to test the intelligence levels of the students in her school. She wants to create a test that evaluates analytical, creative, and practical skills. Which theory MOST likely influenced her structure of the test? a) Triarchic theory of intelligence. b) Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligences. c) Stanford-Binet theory of intelligence. d) Wechsler adult intelligence theory. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 65. Which of the following is NOT a component of intelligence in Sternberg’s triarchic theory? a) experiential

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

b) creative c) analytic d) existentialist Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 66. Maxim is excited to be travelling in Thailand. Before this trip, he had not even been out of British Columbia. According to Sternberg’s triarchic theory of intelligence, Maxim will do very well on his travels if he is high in which component of intelligence? a) external (creative) b) internal (analytic) c) experiential (practical) d) motivation (applied) Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 67. Naoyuki is making a new recipe and is following the directions carefully. If her dish turns out to be an enormous success, Sternberg would say that Naoyuki would score high on the ___ component of intelligence. a) external b) internal c) experiential d) motivation Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 68. A test that is based on the triarchic theory of successful intelligence should include a) three distinct scales measuring abilities such as analytical, creative, and practical skills. b) nine distinct scales measuring abilities such as language, mental mapping, body movement, introspection, problem-solving, musical skills, social skills, being attuned with nature, and

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spirituality. c) two subscales measuring innate abilities that decrease over time and acquired abilities that increase over time, both of which combine to form a single quotient. d) one comprehensive scale measuring the ability to correctly interpret, manage, and express feelings and emotions. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 69. Liam is sought out by his friends for advice, because he always gives them solutions to practical and personal problems. According to Sternberg’s triarchic theory, Liam would be considered high in _______________ intelligence. a) analytical b) linguistic c) practical d) interpersonal Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 70. Which of the following people would be the best example of Sternberg’s concept of experiential (practical) intelligence? a) Dr. Patel is a gifted cancer researcher who has written many books on the subject. b) Jason oversees finding buyers for parts from vintage cars for his family business. c) Martha is an inventor who has a knack for seeing things that others miss. d) Jeanne is a librarian with an encyclopaedic knowledge of Shakespeare. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 71. Which of the following people would be the best example of Sternberg’s concept of external (creative) intelligence? a) Dr. Patel is a gifted cancer researcher who has written many books on the subject.

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

b) Jason oversees finding buyers for parts from vintage cars for his family business. c) Martha is an inventor who has a knack for seeing things that others miss. d) Jeanne is a librarian with an encyclopaedic knowledge of Shakespeare. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 72. Sternberg’s theory of intelligence is different than Gardner’s in that a) Sternberg’s model is considered more dynamic and interactive than Gardner’s. b) In Gardner’s model each intellectual component actively relates to the others. This is not the case with Sternberg. c) Sternberg argues that intelligence is a unitary mental function whereas Gardner sees it as made up of numerous independent intelligences. d) Sternberg viewed intelligence as innate and Gardner did not. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 73. Thurstone’s theory of intelligence is similar to Sternberg’s in that they both a) agree that linguistic intelligence is the foundation of all intelligences. b) emphasize the role of the environment in intelligence. c) argue that intelligence is innate. d) view intelligence as being composed of many different facets. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 74. Which of the following pieces of evidence supports the idea that there are multiple and independent types of intelligences? a) scores on spatial problems correlate with scores on verbal problems b) savant syndrome c) several types of intelligence can influence one another d) specific experiences can shape our intelligence

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Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 75. Aidan is a twenty-year-old man with autism who does not speak. Although he tends to score quite low on intelligence tests, he can play very complex symphonies on the piano after hearing them just once. The case of Aidan demonstrates ___. a) the existence of a g factor and s factor of intelligence b) Thurstone’s creative factor of intelligence c) savant syndrome d) the lack of reliability of intelligence tests Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 76. Which of the following is an example of savant syndrome? a) Dominic memorized 1844 numbers in 30 minutes. b) Jorge can draw an accurate and detailed landscape of a city after only seeing it once. c) Cristiano can jump 44 cm into the air from a standing position. d) Ben his blind but can maneuver through his surroundings using echolocation. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 77. The theory that intelligence is a function of the interactions among innate potential abilities, environmental context, and internal motivation is called the a) triarchic theory of intelligence. b) theory of multiple intelligences. c) bioecological theory of intelligence. d) theory of primary mental abilities. Answer: c

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 78. Which theorist is associated with the bioecological theory of intelligence? a) Spearman b) Ceci c) Gardner d) Sternberg Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 79. Charles, a concert pianist, has just been described as musical genius. He responds that his talent is a combination of innate musical ability, years of lessons, and the motivation required to practice 8 hours per day. Based on Charles response, which theory of intelligence would he use to explain his musical ability? a) bioecological b) multiple intelligences c) triarchic d) primary mental abilities Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 80. Sadeen is an intelligent woman, and Ceci’s bioecological theory of intelligence would attribute Sadeen’s intelligence to an interaction among three resources. Which of the following is NOT one of these resources? a) biology b) environment c) motivation d) creativity Answer: d Difficulty: Medium

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Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 81. Which of the following statements best describes Ceci’s bioecological theory of intelligence? a) It is characterized by an interaction between innate potential abilities, environmental context, and internal motivation. b) It is a triarchic theory composed of analytical, creative, and practical intelligence. c) It is composed of a general factor and a series of specific factors. d) It is composed of eight independent intelligences. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 82. All her life, Klea has wanted to be a concert violinist. Both of her parents are violinists, so she has been exposed to the art since she was an infant and she has had her own violin since the age of two. Klea is highly motivated to play, preferring to practice her violin rather than spend time with her peers. Which theory of intelligence fits best with Klea’s musical ability? a) Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligences b) Thurstone’s primary mental ability c) Sternberg’s triarchic theory d) Ceci’s bioecological model of intelligence Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 83. Which of the following best summarizes the current view of the nature of intelligence? a) Most psychologists believe that there is an underlying g factor, but that specific abilities should also be considered. b) Most psychologists believe that intelligence is composed of a series of separate abilities. c) Most psychologists believe that analytical intelligence composes a bigger part of overall intelligence than other factors do. d) Most psychologists believe that general intelligence consistently leads to success in school. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium

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Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 84. Which of the following accurately describes the hierarchical model of intelligence? a) There is no single unified intelligence, but several independent intelligences. b) Intelligence incudes specific abilities, and special factors with a g factor involved in everything we do. c) Intelligence is made up of three interacting components – internal, external, and experiential. d) Intelligence is a function of the interactions among innate potential abilities. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 85. The ___ of intelligence suggests that, while there is an underlying g factor, specific abilities are also important in the expression of intelligence. a) two-factor theory b) primary abilities theory c) seven-factor model d) hierarchical model Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 86. Ahmed is writing a paper on the current view about intelligence and how it is structured. Which of the following views would Ahmed’s paper focus on if he were writing on what most theorists today agree? a) hierarchical model of intelligence b) bioecological theory of intelligence c) triarchic theory of intelligence d) multiple theory of intelligence Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and

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summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 87. Which of the following would be included in a hierarchical model of intelligence? a) innate potential ability, environmental context, and motivation b) g factor, specific abilities, specific factors c) g factor and proper environment d) specific abilities representing independent intelligences Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 88. One of the oldest and most enduring approaches to understanding and assessing intelligence is the a) biological approach. b) cognitive approach. c) psychometric approach. d) environmental approach. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 89. The ________ approach attempts to measure intelligence with carefully constructed psychological tests. a) psychometric b) statistical c) factor analytical d) psychophysical Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence?

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90. Which of the following statements is true about intelligence testing? a) Tests provide an independent measure of intelligence. b) Intelligence is typically measured by comparing one person’s test score with others’ test scores. c) Even the best tests rarely produce similar scores for the same test-taker over time. d) Intelligence tests avoid the use of psychometrics. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 91. The ________approach attempts to measure intelligence with carefully constructed ____________ psychological tests. a) psychometric; standardized b) psychointellectual; non-standardized c) psychophysical; non-standardized d) psychophysical; standardized Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 92. For your intelligence test score to have meaning, it must be compared to the scores of people who have already taken the test. The people who have previously taken the same intelligence test are referred to as a ___. a) normative sample b) validity sample c) reliability sample d) median sample Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 93. For an intelligence test to be recognized by the scientific community, it must be given

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identically to testers and scored using norms. In other words, intelligence tests must be a) varied. b) essay format. c) double-blinded. d) standardized. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 94. The process of obtaining meaningful test scores from a sample population is called a) reliability. b) standardization. c) validity. d) psychometrics. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 95. Standardization is best defined as a) ensuring that the exact same procedures are used every time the same test is administered and scored. b) using a large set of data from the population to interpret an individual’s score. c) the increasing trend in IQ scores over the last century. d) when a test measures what it claims to measure. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 96. Which of the following is NOT important when standardizing an intelligence test? a) The instructions must be the same for each test taker. b) The scores must be interpreted in terms of norms. c) The test must help predict the relevant behavior. d) The time limit to complete the test must not vary.

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Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 97. An esteemed social scientist has developed a rigorous set of tests designed to illuminate the relationship between intelligence, behavior, and society. Several standardizations have been set up to ensure validity and reliability. The staff is being trained on how to administer these tests. Which of the following scenarios would be unacceptable? a) Proxy A allows extra time for some subjects after receiving subject feedback that insufficient time is given to complete a section of the test. b) Proxy B always administers only the even numbered questions to her group of subjects. c) Proxy C analyzes the data to determine whether the IQ scores are consistent in the test and retest. d) Proxy D re-administers the test to the same group of subjects one month after the first session. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 98. Which of the following is an example of standardization? a) The test was administered by a proxy who carefully provided detailed instructions for each section; all individuals were required to consider each section in a specific sequence and with the exact same time allotment. b) The test was handed out to participants who were allowed to approach the test in as much time as necessary to complete and in any order that suited their individual desires and intellectual comfort. c) The test was monitored by a proxy who recorded how each individual approached the test; time allotment and section order were suggested but not mandatory. d) The test was available in a central location to all participants who wished to complete it; cameras recorded the test takers to evaluate if the directions would be read and followed. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence?

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99. To help determine whether their child has mathematical aptitude, parents request the administration of the Wechsler test. Since the child speaks only Spanish and has little experience with math so far, parents also request that the test be given in Spanish without time limits. Which conclusion BEST describes this testing situation? a) The test would not qualify as being standardized if given in a different language. b) The reliability of the test would not be assured without the test-retest method. c) The test's standardization would be compromised without a time limit. d) The test would not validly assess mathematical aptitude or reasoning. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 100. If a test is found to be valid, which of the following would be accurate? a) The validity coefficient between the test and scores on a measure of the same criterion should be 0.0. b) The score on the test should predict how well an individual would do on a measure of the same criterion. c) If a person were to take the test again, they would obtain a similar score. d) The scores on the first half of the test should correlate highly with the second half of the test. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 101. Which of the following statements is true about validity? a) Tests that are reliable also have high validity. b) A test is valid if it measures what it is supposed to measure. c) Validity is achieved by using standardization. d) A test that is valid always has a normal distribution. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence?

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

102. Dr. Singh is trying to construct a new test to measure motivation. A colleague looks at some of the questions and asks, “What do these have to do with motivation? They look more like they measure creativity.” The colleague is complaining that the test lacks a) a normal distribution. b) standardization. c) reliability. d) validity. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 103. If scores on your written driver’s test correlate with a test of your actual driving ability, the written test would probably have ___. a) content validity b) a high validity coefficient c) high reliability d) high predictive validity Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 104. If a test is found to be valid, which of the following would be accurate? a) The validity coefficient between the test and scores on a measure of the same criterion should be 0.0. b) Test scores from a large population should follow a normal distribution. c) The score on the test should predict how well an individual would do on a measure of the same criterion. d) The scores on the first half of the test should correlate highly with the second half of the test. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 105. Predictive validity is best defined as

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a) the extent to which a test measures what it says it measures. b) the degree to which a test produces the same score every time it is administered to the same person. c) the extent to which a test offers insight into how the individual would perform in a related domain in the future. d) the degree to which factors other than intelligence can predict intelligence. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 106. Olivia is about to write the Medical College Admission Test (MCATs) and she is extremely nervous. She understands some medical schools place a lot of importance on these results as they are supposed to predict how well each student will do in medical school. If this is true, one would have to say that the MCATs have high a) reliability. b) standardization. c) predictive validity. d) content validity. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 107. Micah wants to devise a test that would predict how good a golfer any player would be on a given golf course. He feels this would create better foursomes and more efficient play on the course. If Micah could devise a test that correlated with each player’s actual golfing abilities on a given course, the written test would be considered to have _____. a) a high reliability coefficient b) good content validity c) high standardization d) high predictive validity Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence?

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108. When high scores on an intelligence test successfully predict high grades later in life, the test has a) reliability. b) content validity. c) predictive validity. d) good standardization. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 109. Kathryn has applied for a highly prestigious theatre program. The program asked all applicants to fill out several questionnaires. One of the forms asks Kathryn about her religious beliefs and practices. What is wrong with this questionnaire? a) It has low standardization. b) It has low reliability. c) It has low predictive validity. d) It has low content validity. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 110. For testing, predictive validity is important because it a) affirms that no one had a special advantage when taking the test. b) proves that the test results would be the same on two similar tests. c) demonstrates how well the test relates to the intended behaviour. d) substantiates that a representative sample of test-takers were included. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 111. Safa scores high on an intelligence exam and her parents now expect high grades from her. Safa’s parents clearly perceive a correlation between Safa’s intelligence score and her

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grades. This perception is an example of a) reliability. b) standardization. c) predictive validity. d) unfair expectations. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss intellectual disability and giftedness. Section Reference: Extremes in Intelligence 112. What is the difference between content validity and predictive validity? a) Content validity refers to how well a test measures what it sets out to measure and predictive validity refers to how well a test can predict other future successes. b) Content validity refers to how much content the test covers, and predictive validity refers to future content that will be measured. c) Content validity refers to how well the test covers the specific content that it was designed to cover, and predictive validity refers to how well current test scores predict future test scores. d) Content validity refers to how well the test scores correlate with some external criterion and predictive validity refers to how well the test scores correlate with some future criterion. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 113. Which is the main reason that reliability is important in intelligence tests? a) The testing must be the same for each test taker. b) The scores must be interpreted in terms of norms. c) The test must help predict the relevant behavior. d) The test scores must not change randomly over time. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 114. The degree to which a test produces the same scores repeatedly is called a) validity. b) reliability.

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c) norms. d) standardization. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence 115. Reliability is best defined as a) the extent to which a test measures what it says it measures. b) the degree to which a test produces the same scores repeatedly. c) the extent to which the same procedures are used every time the same test is administered and scored. d) the degree to which a large population is tested on a test to determine what ‘average’ performance is. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 116. Tatsuki’s score on the intelligence test he took today is 120. He is very surprised because last time he took the same test he got a score of only 80. What is the problem with the intelligence test Tatsuki took? a) It has low predictive validity. b) It has low reliability. c) It Has Low Standardization. d) It has inappropriate norms. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 117. A professor is giving a test on a novel consisting of eight identification, five short answer, and five essay questions, for a total of eighteen questions. Which of the following would be an acceptable way to use the split-half method to assess the test's reliability? a) Give one group questions 1-9 and the other group questions 10-18. b) Give one group the even questions and second group the odd questions.

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c) Give each group any four identification questions, any two short answer, and any two essay questions. d) Give one group odd and one group even questions, eliminating the two extra types of questions. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 118. A teacher utilizes the split-half method on a standardized history test and determines that the scores do NOT match. Which of the following would be the BEST thing for the teacher to do as the next step? a) Try the split-half tests again by using the test-retest method. b) Reteach the materials and test again using the split-half method. c) Determine whether the halves created by the split-half method were equally difficult. d) Check for missed questions and move them to the opposite half for retesting. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 119. Using the test-retest method, a professor of an introductory psychology course finds the scores equivalently low in both testing situations. Which action would be the BEST step to take next? a) Retest using the split-half method to test for reliability. b) Reteach the materials and administer the test again. c) Reteach the materials and administer a different test. d) Retest and adjust the norms to match the average in the class. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 120. On the arithmetic test on the verbal scale of the Wechsler, 50% of the students in Ms. Tremblay’s math class receive poor scores. But on a test Ms. Tremblay prepared to test the same skills, students fall into the normal distribution. Which would be the BEST first plan of

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action for Ms. Tremblay to take based on these results? a) Retest the class on the Wechsler Intelligence Scale to assure reliability of the test. b) Use the split-half method to determine if the Wechsler works effectively for her class. c) Correlate the types of questions on the two tests to confirm the validity of her test. d) Begin re-teaching all the materials and then retest using the test that she already prepared. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 121. The difference between reliability and validity is that reliability is ___ and validity is ___. a) the degree to which a test score correlates with some external criterion; the degree to which a test score reflects an individual’s true abilities b) the extent that scores predict future scores; the accuracy of these scores c) how well scores correlate with future measures; the extent that scores on one test correlate with scores on a similar test d) the consistency in test scores over time; the extent to which a test measures what it says it measures Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 122. If a human resource officer gives perspective employees a test to help them decide if they would have the ability to perform a specific job, what attribute of the test should they be most concerned with? a) standardization b) reliability c) validity d) criterion norming Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 123. Emma is developing a new intelligence test. She has prepared a list of 300 questions that

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she feels are valid measures of the components of intelligence. Before she can declare her test to be legitimate, she first must a) compare the results of her test to typical scores on other intelligence tests. b) have people take the test multiple times to check the validity of the test. c) administer her test to a large number and range of people using standardized procedures to establish a normative sample. d) determine if the people who take her test are representative of all cultural groups. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 124. In a normal distribution, a) the mean, median, and mode are all equal. b) the mean is greater than the median and the mode. c) the mean and the mode are greater than the median. d) the mean, median, and mode are all different. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 125. In a normal distribution of IQ scores, the mean score is _______, the median score is ________ and the mode score is ____________. a) 100; 85; 115 b) 115; 85; 110 c) 100; 100; 100 d) 100; slightly higher; slightly lower Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 126. Daniyar gave a quiz to five students in his small lab section. They obtained the following scores: 32, 65, 75, 85, and 100. What is the median score? a) 65

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b) 71.4 c) 75 d) 80 Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 127. Daniyar gave a quiz to five students in his small lab section. They obtained the following scores: 32, 65, 75, 85, and 100. What is the mean score? a) 65 b) 71.4 c) 75 d) 80 Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 128. Middle score is to ________, as the MOST common score is to a) mean; median. b) median; mean. c) mode; median. d) median; mode. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 129. The score that occurs MOST frequently in a distribution is called the a) mean. b) mode. c) median. d) norm.

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Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 130. Dr. Lantas surveyed the students in his class for their ages. He found that, of 35 students, 5 were 20 years old, 6 were 21 years old, 15 were 22, 4 were 23, and 2 were 24 years old. What was the mode age of the class? a) 21.75 b) 22.00 c) 22.50 d) 21.00 Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 131. The mathematical average of a set of scores is called the a) mode. b) median. c) mean. d) normal distribution. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 132. A set of scores is as follows: 2, 2, 2, 2, 3, 3, 5, 5, The mean score in this distribution is a) 2 b) 2.5 c) 3 d) 5 Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 133. The median IQ score is a) 68. b) 85. c) 95. d) 100. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 134. Francis Galton believed that a) if evolutionary principles could be applied to human intelligence, the human species could be improved. b) a person’s mental age should be compared to their chronological age to determine a person’s intelligence. c) human intelligence is divided into verbal and non-verbal skills as well as an overall general intelligence score. d) socialization and emotional reaction are more important than genetics in determining intelligence. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 135. Which of the following theorists believed that gifted people scored higher in psychic energy and a heightened sensitivity to external stimuli? a) Terman b) Binet c) Galton d) Cattell Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests,

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discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 136. Galton’s theory that gifted individuals had more energy than non-gifted individuals is called the theory of a) psychic intelligence. b) intellectual energy. c) psychological intelligence. d) psychophysical performance. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 137. Keegan has just completed an intelligence test where his sensory processing, motor skills, and reaction time were assessed. The person administering the test to Keegan obviously subscribed to the beliefs of a) Terman. b) Binet. c) Galton. d) Cattell. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 138. Galton’s theory of psychophysical performance states that a) intelligence can be measured using psychometric techniques. b) gifted people scored higher in psychic energy and a heightened sensitivity to external stimuli. c) superior intelligence is correlated with superior physical abilities. d) human intelligence has a biological or genetic basis. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence?

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139. According to Galton’s theory of psychophysical performance, which of the following would most likely have greater intelligence? a) Gaston, who studies every day b) Malia, who has excellent hearing and eyesight, as well as strong motor skills c) Bertram, who is an Olympic athlete d) Gillian, whose father is a scientist Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 140. Which of the following researchers was tasked by the French government to develop a testing method to distinguish intellectually disabled individuals from those who were “intellectually capable”? a) Galton b) Sternberg c) Binet d) Cattell Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 141. Which of the following developed an intelligence test to distinguish children with intellectual disabilities from those who were having difficulties in school for other reasons? a) Binet b) Galton c) Cattell d) Wissler Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 142. Binet and Simon’s intelligence test was created with the intention of

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a) measuring a child’s inborn level of intelligence. b) identifying gifted children for placement in advanced programs. c) using test scores to rank children according to abilities. d) identifying which school placement level was most appropriate for different children. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 143. Which of the following statements about Binet is true? a) Binet believed that his intelligence test measured inborn levels of intelligence. b) Binet believed that to gauge intelligence tests needed to measure reaction time, motor skills and sensory processing. c) Binet believed that intelligence was based on memory, judgment, reasoning, and social skill. d) Binet disagreed with the notion of a general intelligence factor. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 144. Which of the following is true about mental age? a) It is typically the same as chronological age. b) It is the age at which a child is functioning. c) It is the child’s age in years. d) It is the child’s natural, innate intellectual ability. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 145. According to Binet, a child who is more intelligent than average would have a) a mental age greater than his or her chronological age. b) a mental age lower than his or her chronological age. c) a mental age equal to his or her chronological age. d) a mental age like other children of the same age.

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Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 146. If a 14 year old child functions at the level of a typical 12 year old, the child’s IQ would be ___. a) average b) below average c) above average d) It is impossible to know without knowing more information. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 147. If a 14 year old child functions at the level of a typical 14 year old, the child’s IQ would be ___. a) average b) below average c) above average d) It is impossible to know without knowing more information. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 148. The original French intelligence test was adapted for use in the United States and renamed the Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale by a) Lewis Terman. b) Francis Galton. c) David Wechsler. d) James Stanford. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy

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Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 149. Terman’s intention in developing intelligence testing was to a) apply the scientific method to the study of intelligence. b) promote the genetics movement and discourage people who were “unfit” from reproducing. c) identify which children should be placed at which grade levels, depending on their intellectual abilities. d) assist the government in implementing universal education for all children. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 150. Terman’s view of intelligence was different from that of Binet’s in that Terman believed that ___, while Binet believed that ___. a) intelligence test scores should not be used to screen potential immigrants; intelligence tests provide a valuable screening tool b) intelligence tests measured inborn differences; intelligence tests measured likelihood of success in school c) intelligence is too complex to be summarized with a single score; intelligence can be summarized with a single score d) children cannot be ranked from least to most intelligent based on a score; children can be ranked according to their IQ score Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence 151. The intelligence quotient is defined as a) MA/CA x 100. b) CA/MA x 100. c) Verbal score plus performance score. d) Mental age/years of school. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy

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Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 152. Sally is 10 years old, and she performs about as well as most 6-year-old children. Sally’s IQ is a) 60. b) 80. c) 100. d) 120. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 153. Jeremy is 8 years old, and he performs about as well as most 12-year-old children. Jeremy’s IQ is a) 80. b) 112. c) 130. d) 150. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 154. Although Ryota is 10 years old, his IQ is 120. What would his mental age be? a) 12 b) 20 c) 10 d) 8 Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence?

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155. Tia’s score on the Stanford-Binet falls two standard deviations below the national average. Determine Tia’s score. a) It is between 70 and 85. b) It is between 85 and 100. c) It is approximately 100. d) It is between 130 and 135. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 156. Jody believes that people who are of lower intelligence should be prohibited from having children. Jody seems to agree with the researcher ___ and the area of ___. a) Binet; eugenics b) Binet; evolution c) Terman; eugenics d) Terman; evolution Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 157. _____ was a proponent of the nineteenth century movement that sought to discourage people who were deemed as “unfit” for reproducing and encourage “fit” people to have children was known as a) Galton; the natural selection movement. b) Galton; the intelligence project. c) Terman; eugenics. d) Terman; Darwinism. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence?

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158. Early applications of intelligence testing were used for which of the following? a) to determine which children were adoptable b) to determine who could immigrate to the United States c) to determine which couples should be allowed to have children d) to determine who should be allowed to go to university Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 159. David Wechsler believed that intelligence is a manifestation of a) creativity. b) wisdom. c) personality. d) genetics. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 160. All the following are advantages of the Wechsler tests as compared to the Binet test EXCEPT that a) it can be used for adults as well as children. b) it largely focused on language abilities. c) it provides a greater level of fairness in testing people from different language groups. d) it bases the IQ score on the normal distribution, instead of on a ratio. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 161. Which of the following is NOT one of the sections of Wechsler’s performance IQ scale? a) digit span b) picture completion c) object assembly d) block design

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Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 162. Which of the following is NOT a subtest on the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scales – IV (current version)? a) Verbal Comprehension b) Sensory Processing c) Processing Speed d) Working Memory Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 163. The intelligence tests created by Wechsler were different in several ways from the Stanford-Binet. Which of the following is NOT one of these ways? a) The Wechsler tests derived an individual’s score from a normal distribution rather than a ratio of mental age to chronological age. b) The Wechsler tests emphasized performance IQ as much as verbal IQ while the StandordBinet just tested verbal ability. c) The Wechsler tests did not contain a verbal component while the Stanford-Binet did. d) The Wechsler tests are fair for people who do not speak English while the Stanford-Binet is not. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 164. Mishtaalways wins at games testing knowledge of trivia. On which index of the WAIS is Mishtaalways to perform extremely well? a) vocabulary b) comprehension c) memory d) reasoning

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Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 165. Josie works as a cashier at a restaurant. She notices that after having a customer’s credit card for only a couple of minutes, she can recite the credit card number both forward and backward. Josie would likely perform very well on the ___ test of WAIS. a) matrix reasoning b) similarities c) digit span d) letter-number sequence Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 166. Madeline is a stage manager for a theatre company and is unusually good at quickly perceiving visual details. She can tell if something has been added or taken away from a set after just glancing at it. Madeline would likely perform very well on the ___test of WAIS. a) picture completion b) block design c) coding d) cancellation Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 167. After taking the WAIS-IV, Sydney was told that her IQ score was 92. This means a) that Sydney answered 92% of the questions correctly. b) that Sydney has a high IQ. c) that Sydney has a low IQ. d) that Sydney is within the normal IQ range. Answer: d

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 168. What degree of reliability is demonstrated between the WAIS and Stanford-Binet intelligence tests? a).25 b).56 c).81 d).90 Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 169. The validity coefficient between intelligence tests and school performance is a) +.25. b) +.40. c) +.50. d) +.65. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 170. How well do intelligence tests predict performance? a) IQ scores have a correlation to school performance of +.90. b) IQ scores have a correlation to school performance of +.50. c) IQ scores predict performance in elementary school well, but do not predict whether people will complete higher education. d) IQ scores are not correlated to non-academic aspects of people’s lives. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests,

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discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 171. Inzhu is ten years old and is given an IQ test. She scores above average on the test. This finding can be used to predict a) whether Inzhu will get good grades in elementary school. b) whether Inzhu will go on to college or university. c) whether Inzhu will experience occupational success. d) whether Inzhu will have better health and a longer lifespan. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 172. Which of the following is NOT a concern raised by Scarr and Gunderson about the discrepancy definition of learning disabilities? a) Children with low intelligence who may still benefit from reading disability programs are excluded based on IQ scores. b) The Scarr and Gunderson effect often occurs. c) ESL children with learning disabilities are often missed. d) The Matthew effect often occurs. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 173. Which of the following aphorisms most closely resembles Scarr and Gunderson’s claims regarding the Matthew effect? a) He who hesitates is lost. b) Necessity is the mother of invention. c) The rich get richer and the poor get poorer. d) Genius is one percent inspiration and 99 percent perspiration. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence?

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174. ___ occurs when people in a specific group perform poorly on an IQ test because they fear that their performance will confirm a negative perception of their group. a) Stereotype threat b) Biased testing c) Culture-specific test construction d) Stereotype vulnerability Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 175. Julianne is taking part in a research study in which she must complete a spatial task. Before she begins, the researcher tells her NOT to feel bad if she does not do well because females tend to have poorer spatial ability than males. How will Julianne do on the task relative to other participants who are NOT told this? a) Julianne will do better as she will perceive it as a challenge. b) Julianne will do worse due to stereotype vulnerability. c) Julianne will do better than other females, so she can prove the researcher wrong. d) Julianne will do better than males due to stereotype vulnerability. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 176. Medina, a female student, is completing the math section of an IQ test. Based on the stereotype threat concept, which of the following stereotypes is most likely to negatively affect Medina’s performance? a) Women are bad at solving problems of logic. b) Women are good at reading and taking tests. c) Women are bad at math. d) Women are good at math. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence?

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177. Which of the following tests attempts to reduce test bias by focusing on non-verbal rather than verbal problems? a) Dove Counterbalance General Intelligence Test b) Progressive Matrices Test c) WAIS d) Stanford-Binet Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 178. Dr. Romero has developed a new intelligence test and has determined that there is no overall bias. She is now interested in assessing the test for item bias. Dr. Romero wants to assess for whether_____. a) members of majority culture find the non-verbal, abstract questions more difficult than the verbal questions they are used to b) particular items are contributing to the Flynn effect c) members from a particular gender or ethnic group miss an item with high frequency d) particular items reflect a genetic or environmental bias Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 179. Like most researchers, Dr. Eliah believe that the idea of totally unbiased intelligence tests is _______ but that tests should be designed so that particular cultures are _________. a) not possible; not disadvantaged b) not possible; given a potential advantage c) possible; not disadvantaged d) possible; given a potential advantage Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence?

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180. The way that researchers attempt to eliminate cultural and gender bias from IQ tests is to a) identify and remove questions that show item bias. b) create different tests for use by separate groups. c) increase the percentage of verbal items on tests and decrease the number of performance items. d) plot the distribution of test results on different charts for separate groups and only compare people from within the same group. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 181. The Flynn effect refers to a) the fact that bias continues to exist in IQ testing despite attempts to correct it. b) the fact that humans are becoming genetically more intelligent. c) the increase of intelligence test scores over time. d) the fact that researchers periodically restandardize tests. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 182. The year is 1917 and Ophelia, a woman of average intelligence, stumbles across a time machine and travels forward in time 100 years. If she were studied by scientists in our modern times and given an intelligence test, what is she likely to score? What is this effect attributed to? a) far above what she scored 100 years ago; Flynn effect b) far below what she scored 100 years ago; Flynn effect c) the same as what she scored 100 years ago; Matthew effect d) likely she would score in the average range in modern times; Matthew effect Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 183. Which of the following is NOT proposed as a likely explanation for the Flynn effect?

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a) IQ tests are easier than they used to be. b) better nutrition c) improved education d) reductions in childhood diseases Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 184. From time to time, IQ tests must be re-standardized because of a) stereotype threat. b) the Flynn effect. c) the Bell Curve. d) overlap with the GRE. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 185. Which ability does emotional intelligence refer to? a) Regulate emotion in others. b) Regulate emotion in the self. c) Assimilate emotion. d) all the above Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss several proposed types of intelligence that go beyond intellectual functioning. Section Reference: Additional Types of Intelligence 186. The ability to perceive, express, and assimilate feelings and to regulate those feelings in the self and others is called a) interpersonal intelligence. b) practical intelligence. c) intrapersonal intelligence. d) emotional intelligence.

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Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss several proposed types of intelligence that go beyond intellectual functioning. Section Reference: Additional Types of Intelligence 187. The ability to interpret emotions in others and to express and regulate our own emotions is known as a) emotional intelligence. b) social intelligence. c) wisdom. d) emotional creativity. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss several proposed types of intelligence that go beyond intellectual functioning. Section Reference: Additional Types of Intelligence 188. Michael is sensitive to the needs of others and is always first to comfort someone in pain. Which type of intelligence does Michael demonstrate in high levels? a) social b) emotional c) verbal d) generalized Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss several proposed types of intelligence that go beyond intellectual functioning. Section Reference: Additional Types of Intelligence 189. Which of the following is an example of emotional intelligence? a) Xavier is sitting alone at lunch. Mark offers to sit with him to keep him company. b) Shasta is angry because an incorrect charge to her debit card caused an overdraft, but she speaks calmly when she calls customer service. c) Emmett feels joyful every time he sees his newborn daughter. d) Parker refuses to speak to her boyfriend because she wants him to feel guilty about going to the movies without her. Answer: a

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss several proposed types of intelligence that go beyond intellectual functioning. Section Reference: Additional Types of Intelligence 190. Darius is a mentor who believes in first developing a common bond with his mentees. Darius explains how he once had difficulty with a particular subject but was able to overcome it by understanding his fear of failure was keeping him from succeeding. His mentees understand that their attitude can help them succeed. This is an example of teaching a) emotional intelligence. b) general intelligence. c) fluid intelligence. d) standardization. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss several proposed types of intelligence that go beyond intellectual functioning. Section Reference: Additional Types of Intelligence 191. Carrissa works in a vocational training center for adults with cognitive disabilities. In her job, it is important that she is empathetic and can encourage her students to keep trying to learn new skills. Carissa is likely high in ________ intelligence. a) social b) practical c) analytic d) emotional Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss several proposed types of intelligence that go beyond intellectual functioning. Section Reference: Additional Types of Intelligence 192. Which of the following people is LEAST likely to score high in emotional intelligence? a) Maeve, who always seems to know when her co-workers need encouragement. b) Vander, who works with children with autism and can effectively calm them down when necessary. c) Walker, a funeral home director who comforts families who have suffered loss. d) Ula, who makes friends easily wherever she goes. Answer: d

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss several proposed types of intelligence that go beyond intellectual functioning. Section Reference: Additional Types of Intelligence 193. Freya is a journalist who has an ability to get her guests to "open up" and divulge personal information. Which type of intelligence is Freya MOST likely high in? a) emotional b) experiential c) social d) creativity Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss several proposed types of intelligence that go beyond intellectual functioning. Section Reference: Additional Types of Intelligence 194. Horst just got rejected when he proposed marriage to his girlfriend because she wants to complete her degree before getting engaged. Although he respects her point of view, he is heartbroken, and cannot help feeling empty and alone inside. Not wanting her to feel pity for him, Horst hides his feelings, puts a smile on his face, and agrees to wait until they both graduate before they discuss marriage again. What aspect of intelligence is Horst demonstrating by being able to put on that smile? a) emotional intelligence b) social intelligence c) creativity d) wisdom Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss several proposed types of intelligence that go beyond intellectual functioning. Section Reference: Additional Types of Intelligence 195. In what way are emotional intelligence and social intelligence similar? a) They both correlate highly with practical intelligence. b) They both have an aspect of being able to ‘read something’ in others. c) Emotional intelligence is a type of social intelligence. d) They both develop before creativity. Answer: b

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss several proposed types of intelligence that go beyond intellectual functioning. Section Reference: Additional Types of Intelligence 196. Carter is a con artist. He is very good at manipulating other people and telling them what they want to hear, but he is entirely insensitive to the pain that his schemes cause people. Carter is ___ in social intelligence, and ___ in emotional intelligence. a) high; high b) low; low c) high; low d) low; high Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss several proposed types of intelligence that go beyond intellectual functioning. Section Reference: Additional Types of Intelligence 197. Empathy is to charm as _____ is to _____. a) social intelligence; emotional intelligence b) emotional intelligence; social intelligence c) creativity; wisdom d) wisdom; creativity Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss several proposed types of intelligence that go beyond intellectual functioning. Section Reference: Additional Types of Intelligence 198. In which of the following scenarios might social intelligence be an important attribute for daily functioning? a) interacting with animals as an animal curator b) working for a company that is organized in teams c) focusing on glass blowing projects d) calculating trajectories for flight paths Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss several proposed types of intelligence that go beyond intellectual

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functioning. Section Reference: Additional Types of Intelligence 199. Noah is hanging out with a few buddies in a local bar when some intoxicated patrons started bothering them. Noah, who has a way with people and whose grandmother says, “he could sell water to a fisherman,” manages to not only talk everyone out of fighting, but they all end up playing pool together for the rest of the night. What aspect of intelligence is Noah likely high in? a) emotional intelligence b) wisdom c) social intelligence d) creativity Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss several proposed types of intelligence that go beyond intellectual functioning. Section Reference: Additional Types of Intelligence 200. Nadine’s family just moved to Toronto halfway through the school year and she is going to her first day of Grade 5. Although Nadine did not know anybody, and she is entering a group of children who already have established friendships, she ended up with three new friends by the end of the day. By the end of the first week, she was nominated to head up the class social committee for their school events. What aspect of intelligence is Nadine likely high in? a) emotional intelligence b) self-efficacy c) creativity d) social intelligence Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss several proposed types of intelligence that go beyond intellectual functioning. Section Reference: Additional Types of Intelligence 201. Bridgette is a highly successful high school counselor due to her empathic and caring nature. The students trust and confide in her and are willing to follow her advice. What aspect of intelligence is Bridgette likely high in? a) emotional intelligence b) self-efficacy c) creativity d) social intelligence Answer: a

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss several proposed types of intelligence that go beyond intellectual functioning. Section Reference: Additional Types of Intelligence 202. Which of the following three factors did Edward Thorndike suggest made up intelligence? a) abstract intelligence, emotional intelligence, and social intelligence b) abstract intelligence, mechanical intelligence, and emotional intelligence c) abstract intelligence, mechanical intelligence, and social intelligence d) mechanical intelligence; social intelligence, and emotional intelligence Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss several proposed types of intelligence that go beyond intellectual functioning. Section Reference: Additional Types of Intelligence 203. A concern for the community at large and the ability to make sound and balanced judgments is characteristic of a) social intelligence. b) creativity. c) wisdom. d) emotional intelligence. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss several proposed types of intelligence that go beyond intellectual functioning. Section Reference: Additional Types of Intelligence 204. Which of the following is NOT one of the characteristics of wisdom? a) the ability to manage other people b) the ability to choose the best course of action c) the ability to make sound judgments d) the ability to balance the interests of both sides Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss several proposed types of intelligence that go beyond intellectual functioning.

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Section Reference: Additional Types of Intelligence 205. According to Sternberg, practical intelligence is necessary for a) creativity. b) social intelligence. c) emotional intelligence. d) wisdom. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss several proposed types of intelligence that go beyond intellectual functioning. Section Reference: Additional Types of Intelligence 206. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of wisdom? a) the ability to make sound judgments b) empathizing with others c) knowing intuitively what is important to others d) solving problems in such a way that a common good is achieved Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss several proposed types of intelligence that go beyond intellectual functioning. Section Reference: Additional Types of Intelligence 207. Hamza ascribes to Sternberg’s balance theory of wisdom. This means that Hamza views wisdom as a _________ and views wisdom primarily as the product of _______ intelligence and the application of ____________. a) special version of intelligence; analytical; practical intelligence b) an independent intelligence; practical; social intelligence c) an independent intelligence; analytical; innate knowledge d) special version of intelligence; practical; innate knowledge Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss several proposed types of intelligence that go beyond intellectual functioning. Section Reference: Additional Types of Intelligence 208. What is the relationship between age and wisdom?

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a) There is no relationship between age and wisdom, one has nothing to do with the other. b) Growing older causes wisdom. c) There is a strong positive correlation between age and wisdom, but age does not cause wisdom. d) All old people are wise, and few young people are wise. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss several proposed types of intelligence that go beyond intellectual functioning. Section Reference: Additional Types of Intelligence 209. Which of the following is a reason why the saying “older and wiser” might be true? a) Wisdom is related to years of education which takes time to acquire. b) It takes years and repeated experiences to acquire the skills necessary for wisdom. c) Wisdom includes a maturity component which younger people do not possess. d) Wisdom requires a high level of emotional regulation which takes years to acquire. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss several proposed types of intelligence that go beyond intellectual functioning. Section Reference: Additional Types of Intelligence 210. How does Sternberg view wisdom as different from intelligence? a) Wisdom entails a concern for the community at large and a careful balancing of interests. b) Wisdom is the same thing as practical intelligence. c) Wisdom is innate while intelligence is something that can be developed with environmental stimulation. d) Wisdom is learned while intelligence is something that you’re born with. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss several proposed types of intelligence that go beyond intellectual functioning. Section Reference: Additional Types of Intelligence 211. The Republic of Horsa and the Kingdom of Icaria are having a border dispute. Both sides want peace, but neither side wants the other to have an advantage. If the problem is NOT resolved, war could break out between them. Which type of intelligence would be of greatest value to the United Nations negotiator? a) practical intelligence

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b) wisdom c) social intelligence d) emotional intelligence Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss several proposed types of intelligence that go beyond intellectual functioning. Section Reference: Additional Types of Intelligence 212. Civic leaders, such as mayors and city councillors, often must make decisions that are in the best interest of the city as a whole while trying to maintain a balance with the needs of the individual. According to Sternberg, it would be desirable to have civic leaders who were high in ____________________. a) social intelligence b) wisdom c) analytical intelligence d) practical intelligence Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Discuss several proposed types of intelligence that go beyond intellectual functioning. Section Reference: Additional Types of Intelligence 213. In order to obtain an understanding of how good a student is at invention and dealing with change, the BEST test would be one that is based on a) Gardner's theory of multiple intelligences. b) Goleman's theory of emotional intelligence. c) Binet's methods of determining IQ scores. d) Sternberg's theory of successful intelligence. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss several proposed types of intelligence that go beyond intellectual functioning. Section Reference: Additional Types of Intelligence 214. Creativity is best defined as the ability to a) generate a variety of answers to a problem. b) open one’s mind and let information flow in unfiltered. c) produce ideas that are both original and valuable.

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d) see a problem from multiple points of view. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss several proposed types of intelligence that go beyond intellectual functioning. Section Reference: Additional Types of Intelligence 215. Which of the following describes personal qualities that seem to be key to creativity? a) extrinsic motivation, imagination, resistance to change b) intrinsic motivation, imagination, game personality c) game personality, extrinsic motivation, self-confidence d) imagination, game personality, extrinsic motivation Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss several proposed types of intelligence that go beyond intellectual functioning. Section Reference: Additional Types of Intelligence 216. Which of the following regarding creativity and intelligence is NOT true? a) High intellectual aptitude is necessary for creativity but is not the only requirement. b) Intrinsic motivation and imagination are essential to creativity. c) Successful creative people are more intelligent than less successful creative people. d) Divergent thinking is a key aspect of creativity. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analyses Learning Objective: Discuss several proposed types of intelligence that go beyond intellectual functioning. Section Reference: Additional Types of Intelligence 217. Which quality is believed to be of primary importance to creative development? a) intrinsic motivation b) self-confidence c) independence d) extroversion Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension

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Learning Objective: Discuss several proposed types of intelligence that go beyond intellectual functioning. Section Reference: Additional Types of Intelligence 218. What is the relationship between creativity and intelligence? a) They are largely unrelated. b) They are related up to a point, and then the relationship diminishes. c) Extremely intelligent people are also always exceptionally creative. d) Exceptionally creative people score higher on intelligence tests than their less creative colleagues. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss several proposed types of intelligence that go beyond intellectual functioning. Section Reference: Additional Types of Intelligence 219. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic typical of creative people? a) extrinsic motivation b) imagination c) a game personality d) complex thinking Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss several proposed types of intelligence that go beyond intellectual functioning. Section Reference: Additional Types of Intelligence 220. The aspect of creativity that is characterized by a tolerance for ambiguity, risk, and initial failure is called a) intrinsic motivation. b) tenacity. c) self-confidence. d) a game personality. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss several proposed types of intelligence that go beyond intellectual functioning. Section Reference: Additional Types of Intelligence

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221. Which of the following individuals would researchers say is most likely to show high creativity? a) Isabel, who is described as having a ‘game personality’ b) Aya, who has a vivid imagination c) Oumou, who has a strong internal drive to create d) Zara, who has a lot of belief in her abilities to succeed at any task Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss several proposed types of intelligence that go beyond intellectual functioning. Section Reference: Additional Types of Intelligence 222. Dr. Peña has just asked 10-year-old Nicothe following question: “How many different uses can you think of for a spoon?” Dr. Peña is measuring ___. a) practical intelligence b) creativity c) wisdom d) social intelligence Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss several proposed types of intelligence that go beyond intellectual functioning. Section Reference: Additional Types of Intelligence 223. Which of the following questions would most likely appear on a test measuring creativity? a) How long is the St. Lawrence River? b) What are the primary colours? c) What are all the possible uses of a paper clip? d) Who is the Governor-General of Canada? Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss several proposed types of intelligence that go beyond intellectual functioning. Section Reference: Additional Types of Intelligence 224. Leah feels most at peace when she is painting, and she has a strong urge to express herself through colours and shapes at least once a week. Although she has created many incredible pieces of art, and has even sold a few, this is NOT why she paints. What aspect of

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intelligence would Leah likely score high in? a) creativity b) social intelligence c) practical intelligence d) emotional intelligence Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss several proposed types of intelligence that go beyond intellectual functioning. Section Reference: Additional Types of Intelligence 225. Which of the following reflects the current view of the relationship between intelligence and personality? a) Emotional, motivational, and other personality characteristics are key components of social intelligence. b) Intelligence is the practical part of personality. c) Intelligence is the cognitive part of personality. d) Intelligence and personality are distinct and separate. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss several proposed types of intelligence that go beyond intellectual functioning. Section Reference: Additional Types of Intelligence 226. Some psychologists believe that personal characteristics can impact intellectual performance to some degree. For example, a high need to achieve may a) lower self-efficacy through overconfidence, thereby impairing performance on an intellectual test. b) lead to an over-focus on outcome, impairing performance on an intelligence test. c) lead to a pattern of academic success, leading to higher self-efficacy, enhancing performance on an intelligence test. d) create performance anxiety, impairing performance on an intelligence test. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss several proposed types of intelligence that go beyond intellectual functioning. Section Reference: Additional Types of Intelligence 227. Dustin recently found out his parents are getting a divorce. If Dustin were given an

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intellectual task to complete, what would be the most likely outcome? a) Dustin would perform well on the task as mood state does not typically affect performance on intellectual tasks. b) Dustin’s performance would not be affected. Mood state only affects performance on tedious, repetitive, non-intellectual tasks. c) Dustin’s performance would be somewhat impaired, particularly if the task demands attention or quick recall. d) Dustin would be unable to complete the task as his mood state would interfere with his ability to use his reasoning skills. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss several proposed types of intelligence that go beyond intellectual functioning. Section Reference: Additional Types of Intelligence 228. Addison is confident that she will do well on her statistics exam. Addison’s confidence level will likely a) enhance her performance on the exam. b) make her overly confident, thereby impairing her performance. c) cause her to overlook details, thereby impairing her performance. d) cause her to feel less motivated to study, thereby impairing her performance. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss several proposed types of intelligence that go beyond intellectual functioning. Section Reference: Additional Types of Intelligence 229. Lorenzo is good at math and has attended all his calculus classes. However, Lorenzo partied all weekend instead of studying for the exam on Monday. Lorenzo is therefore not confident that he will do well on his calculus exam. Lorenzo’s low confidence level will likely a) enhance his performance on the exam by causing him to be more cautious. b) enhance his performance by reducing his usual overconfidence. c) impair his level of motivation and therefore his performance. d) impair his performance by affecting his ability to attend and to quickly recall information. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss several proposed types of intelligence that go beyond intellectual functioning. Section Reference: Additional Types of Intelligence

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230. Which of the following controversial conclusions were published in The Bell Curve? a) IQ tests are not accurate measures of intelligence. b) Higher IQ predicts the avoidance of welfare dependence. c) There are no significant racial and ethnic differences in intelligence. d) Group differences in IQ are primarily due to environmental factors. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 231. Of the options below, which is a conclusion of The Bell Curve? a) conventional IQ tests do not accurately measure intelligence. b) people with higher IQs reach the upper levels of society, while those with lower IQs fall to the bottom. c) IQ is the product of the environment. So those who are born into a welfare family are destined to be on welfare for all of their lives. d) higher IQ levels can be found in all racial and ethnic groups. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 232. Of the options below, which is a conclusion of The Bell Curve? a) conventional IQ tests do not accurately measure intelligence. b) higher IQ levels can be found in all racial and ethnic groups c) IQ is the product of the environment. So those who are born into a welfare family are destined to be on welfare for all of their lives. d) persons with lower IQ are most likely to be on welfare or become criminals. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 233. Genevieve is a child who was born to a young single mother from a disadvantaged neighbourhood. According to Herrnstein and Murray, which of the following outcomes would you

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predict for Genevieve? a) If Genevieve works hard, she has the potential to improve her standing in life. b) As long as Genevieve’s mother provides her with lots of books and educational opportunities, she will succeed. c) Genevieve will have a low IQ so will remain in a disadvantaged neighbourhood. d) Genevieve will be motivated to study harder to improve her life standing. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 234. The discussion in your textbook about The Bell Curve relates to a) the normal distribution in statistics. b) the fact that IQ scores are increasing across time. c) IQ and heredity. d) the problem of managing stereotype threat. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 235. The book The Bell Curve was extremely controversial and sparked a heated debate among researchers. What was the source of this controversy? a) the idea that the average IQ scores have been increasing across generations b) the idea that parents have a significant role in the development of their children’s IQ c) the idea that group differences in IQ may be due mainly to genetic factors d) the idea that racial differences in IQ may be due to different environments Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 236. If intelligence were proven to be strictly due to genetic factors, what would be a social implication of this? a) more pressure on governments to provide stimulating environments b) children living in disadvantaged homes will grow up and live in similar neighbourhoods

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c) some people would think they were inherently superior to others d) people will strive to reproduce with people from more affluent environments Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 237. Which of the following would be a social implication of evidence showing that intelligence is strictly due to environmental factors? a) more pressure on governments to provide stimulating environments b) children living in disadvantaged homes will inevitably grow up and live in similar neighbourhoods, in an endless cycle c) some people may think they are inherently superior to others based on their innate intelligence d) people will strive to reproduce with people from more affluent environments for more intelligent offspring Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 238. Maryum was distressed by the ideological stance of _______ and the implied claims of racial superiority in intelligence made by him(them). a) Wechsler b) Hernstein and Murray c) Simon and Binet d) Flynn Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 239. All the following were conclusions offered by Hernstein and Murray in The Bell Curve EXCEPT a) IQ is an important predictor of many measures of success in life. b) It is likely that all the difference in intelligence between groups are due to genetic factors.

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c) People with higher intelligence reach the upper levels of society. Those with lower IQ fall toward the bottom. d) IQ tests should be used to allow those with high IQs access to opportunities. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 240. All the following are risks of exploring the issue of IQ and heredity EXCEPT a) justifying claims that some people are inherently superior to others. b) creation of a social structure that assigned people to classes according to parentage. c) using possible genetic bases as a basis for controlling people. d) raising issues about resource allocation to improve the intellectual achievements of vulnerable children in impoverished areas. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 241. The Canadian researcher who believes that races could be ranked in terms of characteristics such as IQ is a) Charles Murray. b) Philippe Rushton. c) Richard Herrnstein. d) David Suzuki. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 242. Which of the following should you do if you hear a claim like Rushton’s that there are racial differences in intelligence? a) Accept it at face value as it is based on empirical research. b) Remember that these group differences in intelligences are useful for predicting the intelligence of individuals within the group. c) Keep in mind that race-related differences in intelligence have been found to reflect

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differences in environmental opportunities and not innate differences. d) Do not forget that the tests available today are highly accurate and free of cultural biases. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 243. Which of the following is NOT accurate in terms of research on race, socio-economic status, and intelligence? a) Intelligence is correlated with socio-economic status. b) White parents put greater emphasis on IQ scores than minority parents. c) Race is correlated with poverty. d) Parents with greater financial means can supply a richer intellectual environment. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 244. All the following are benefits of exploring the issue of IQ and heredity EXCEPT a) justifying claims that some people are inherently superior to others. b) acknowledging the role of critical thought and academic freedom in areas of study. c) identifying racist views and ideologies and addressing them for what they really are. d) raising issues about resource allocation to improve the intellectual achievements of vulnerable children in impoverished areas. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 245. If the heritability of intelligence is 50 percent, this means that a) 50% of the population will have average intelligence. b) 50% of an individual’s intelligence is inherited. c) 50% of all differences or variabilities observed in a population’s intelligence test scores are due to genetic factors. d) 50% of the difference between two individuals in the intelligence test scores are due to heredity.

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Answer: c Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 246. Heritability is best defined as a) the extent to which differences between people in measures of a trait are due to genetic factors. b) the degree to which an individual’s chromosomes contribute to a given trait. c) the extent to which a given trait is malleable with environmental manipulations. d) the degree to which a given trait will be pass on to the offspring of two reproducing adults. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 247. Heritability is used to refer to a) the similarities between family members. b) the extent to which differences among people is due to environmental influences. c) the calculation of differences among people due to genetic and environmental influences. d) the extent to which differences among people are attributable to genes. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 248. A heritability coefficient of zero for intelligence would mean that a) a child’s intelligence is not at all similar to his or her parents’ intelligence. b) there is no difference between a child’s intelligence and his or her parents’. c) heredity is the sole influence on the variations of intelligence seen among people in a population. d) heredity has no influence on variations of intelligence seen among people in a population. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension

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Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 249. Which term refers to the overall extent that differences in IQ among people are attributable to genes? a) heritability b) coefficient c) biological d) environment Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 250. When researchers say that the heritability of intelligence is 50%, they mean that a) about half of a person’s intelligence is due to genetic factors. b) genetics and environment are equally important in determining intelligence. c) 50% of the variation in a population’s IQ scores is due to genetics. d) half of the population lies within the normal range for intelligence. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 251. We know that the heritability coefficient for intelligence is roughly +0.50. What does this mean? a) Intelligence is 50% heritable and 50% due to the environment. b) 50% of the variability in IQ scores within a population is due to genetics. c) If IQ scores within a population vary by more than 50%, then IQ is due to genetics. d) As genetics relatedness increases, so does the correlation between IQ scores. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors?

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252. What would the heritability coefficient be if a trait is mildly heritable? a) 0 b) +0.20 c) +0.50 d) +1.00 Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 253. If a trait is strongly heritable, the heritability coefficient could be a) 0. b) +0.20. c) +0.50. d) +.90. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 254. Javeek discovers that the heritability coefficient for the trait of ‘being able to keep a secret’ is +0.18. What does this mean? a) The trait is not heritable. b) The trait is mildly heritable. c) 18% of the people in a population will have the trait. d) 18% of the trait is inherited. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 255. Lin-Manuel discovers that the heritability coefficient for the trait of ‘enjoying horror films’ is +0.87. What does this mean? a) The trait is not heritable. b) The trait is mildly heritable.

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c) The trait is strongly heritable. d) The trait is dominant. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 256. Grayson discovers that the trait of “engaging in and watching sports” is +.35. What does this mean? a) The trait is not heritable. b) The trait is mildly heritable. c) The trait is strongly heritable. d) 50% of the people in a given population have this trait. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 257. Dr. Thomas is studying the role of genetics and environment on intelligence. He studies pairs of identical twins raised together as well as identical twins raised apart. If Dr. Thomas finds that the correlation of IQ scores for the identical twins raised together is higher than those raised apart, it would suggest a) Intelligence is largely due to environmental factors. b) Intelligence is largely due to genetic factors. c) Intelligence is due to an interaction between genetic and environmental factors. d) Intelligence is strongly influenced by parenting styles. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 258. Which of the following statements is true? a) Fraternal and identical twins have about the same correlation on IQ scores. b) The correlation of IQ scores of fraternal twins raised together is higher than the correlation of scores of identical twins raised apart. c) Fraternal twins have a correlation of +.86 on IQ scores, and identical twins have a correlation

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of +.60. d) Identical twins have a correlation of +.86 on IQ scores, and fraternal twins have a correlation of +.60. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 259. Which of the following pairs of people are most likely to score the same on an IQ test? a) Jason and Nolan, identical twins b) Davad and Enid, fraternal twins c) Malcolm and Jack, father and son d) Remas and Noor, mother and daughter Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 260. Researchers who have examined the IQ scores of adopted children have found a) a high correlation between the children’s scores and the scores of their adoptive parents. b) a high correlation between the children’s scores and the scores of their birth parents. c) modest correlations between the children’s scores and the scores of adoptive parents, and modest correlations between the children’s scores and the scores of birth parents. d) almost no correlation between the children’s scores and the scores of their adoptive parents. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 261. The correlation between the IQ test scores of Identical twins raised apart is a) +.60. b) +.75. c) +.86. d) +.92. Answer: b

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 262. The fact that the IQ scores for identical twins raised together is higher than those for identical twins raised apart suggests a) intelligence is largely due to genetic factors. b) intelligence is largely due to environmental factors. c) intelligence is negatively influenced by environmental factors. d) intelligence is due to an interaction between genetic and environmental factors. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 263. Jason and John are identical twins that have been raised in the same home. Lyle and Leon are identical twins that were adopted at birth by different families. Which of the following is the MOST likely outcome regarding the boys’ intelligence? a) Jason and John will have higher IQ scores than Lyle and Leon. b) Lyle and Leon will have higher IQ scores than Jason and John. c) Jason and John will have more similar IQ scores than Lyle and Leon. d) Lyle and Leon will have more similar IQ scores than Jason and John. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 264. Which of the following is the MOST accurate example of the interaction between genetics and environment as a determinant of intelligence? a) Fraternal twins raised together have more similar IQ scores than identical twins. b) Fraternal twins raised apart have more similar IQ scores than identical twins raised together. c) Identical twins raised together have more similar IQ scores than identical twins raised apart. d) Identical twins raised apart have more similar IQ scores than identical twins raised together. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium

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Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 265. Researchers have found that the scores of adopted children are moderately related to the scores of their adoptive parents and moderately related to the scores of their biological parents. Based on these findings, your textbook suggests that the most appropriate interpretation would be that a) heredity plays a much stronger role than environment in the development of intelligence. b) environment plays a much stronger role than heredity in the development of intelligence. c) heredity and environment are equally important. d) the nature/nurture question is not a simple one to answer. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 266. Maria and Consuela are identical twins who were separated at birth. Maria was raised by a couple in northern Manitoba who exposed her to nature and science. Consuela was adopted by a couple in Toronto who focused on academic achievement and cultural activities. The twins both take an intelligence test and Maria scores much higher than Consuela. Which of the following is the BEST explanation for this difference? a) Maria and Consuela took different intelligence tests. b) Maria’s genes were superior to Consuela’s. c) Consuela did not learn the cultural skills that her parents were emphasizing. d) The trauma of separation had a greater impact on Maria and motivated her to strive for excellence. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 267. Which of the following is a possible social consequence of identifying genes as the main determinant of intelligence? a) Intelligence could be improved by improving the quality of education to children in disadvantaged neighbourhoods. b) Greater opportunities could be provided to children from all social classes. c) Children from disadvantaged families would be expected to display lower intelligence. d) A social structure could be created which assigns people to classes based on their

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parentage. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 268. The reaction range is best defined as a) the amount that an individual’s score on a trait can change over the course of their life. b) the upper and lower limit of a trait that is set by genetic factors. c) the range in reaction times observed in an individual who is reacting to the same stimulus repeatedly. d) the variability in scores on a trait in response to environmental factors. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 269. Inez is about to adopt a newborn and is discussing it with her best friend. Although her friend is happy for her, she cannot help but express her concerns that maybe Inez will end up with a baby who came from parents that were not ideal, particularly when it comes to intelligence. Inez replies that even if that is the case, if she provides a stimulating environment, she knows that she can help this child reach their full potential. What idea does Inez agree with? a) critical period b) coefficient of variation c) heritability ratio d) reaction range Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 270. The notion of the reaction range as an interaction between genes and environment is best illustrated by which case below? a) Emy was born into a middle class family. She lived in a nurturing environment and was provided with many opportunities for stimulation. b) Luka was born to a single mother from a high risk, low income family. He was removed from

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the home before his first birthday and adopted by a nurturing upper class family that provided Luka with many opportunities. c) Clara was born into poverty and lived with a neglecting and addicted father. There was no d) Ben was born into an upper class family and provided with many opportunities for stimulation and growth. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 271. Identical twins, Dawn and Denise, are put up for adoption from birth. Although Denise is adopted by a loving upper-class family, Dawn spends most of her childhood in the orphanage with very little individual attention. Which of the following will be the most likely outcome? a) Dawn will have a higher IQ than Denise. b) Dawn and Denise will have different reaction ranges. c) Denise will have an IQ near the upper limit of her reaction range and Dawn will be at the lower end of hers. d) There will be no difference in Dawn and Denise’s IQs. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 272. The Fergusons have two adopted children. The children are NOT biologically related to each other. Which of the following is most likely to be true about the correlation of IQ scores between the two children? a) It will be higher than the correlation of biologically related siblings raised apart. b) It will be lower than the correlation between each of the children and their biological parents. c) It will be lower than the correlation between each of the children and their adoptive parents. d) It will be the same as biological siblings raised together. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 273. Dr. Jones is testing the intelligence of different pairs of twins. Aria and Amy are identical

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twins who were separated at birth and raised in different environments. Jackson and Jacob are identical twins who grew up together. Finally, Paige and Peter are fraternal twins who grew up together. Which pair of twins would most likely score the same on the test? Which pair would least likely score the same? a) Jackson and Jacob would most likely score the same; Aria and Amy would least likely score the same. b) Jackson and Jacob would most likely score the same; Paige and Peter would least likely score the same. c) Jill and Phil would most likely score the same; Aria and Amy would least likely score the same. d) both Aria and Amy and Jackson and Jacob would most likely score the same; Paige and Peter would least likely score the same. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 274. Dr. Plymouth is testing the intelligence of the following pairs of twins: 1 – Elise and Beatrice are identical twins raised apart from birth 2 – Ivy and Eva are identical twins raised together 3 – Olivia and Logan are fraternal twins raised together Rank these twins according to those who would MOST likely score the same on the intelligence test to those who would LEAST likely score the same. a) 2 – 3 – 1 b) 2 – 1 – 3 c) 3 – 2 – 1 d) 1 = 2 – 3 (i.e., 1 & 2 are the same and both are more similar than 3) Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 275. Dr. Plymouth is testing the intelligence of the following pairs of twins: 1 – Pia and Maria are identical twins raised apart from birth 2 – Alice and Elise are identical twins raised together 3 – Damian and Isla are fraternal twins raised together Rank these twins according to those who would LEAST likely score the same on the intelligence test to those who would MOST likely score the same. a) 1 – 3 – 2 b) 3 – 2 – 1 c) 3 – 1 – 2

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d) 2 = 3 – 1 (i.e., 2 & 3 are the same and both are more similar than 1) Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 276. Which of the following is NOT a suggestion for how parents can improve their children’s intelligence? a) Organize the physical environment and the child’s activity schedule. b) Set ambitious goals and reward the child for meeting them. c) Avoid too much restriction and punishment. d) Provide appropriate play materials. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 277. Which of the following best describes the relationship between intelligence and job complexity? a) More intelligent people are more likely to work in complex jobs. b) Working in complex jobs makes people more intelligent. c) Wealthy people are more likely to be intelligent and more likely to work in complex jobs. d) There is probably a reciprocal (two-way) relationship between intelligence and job complexity. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 278. Which factors may explain why the difference in IQ between individuals in urban and rural settings have declined in recent years? a) decreased travel b) internet access c) greater isolation d) declining school quality Answer: b

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 279. Rozlynn lives on a farm eighty miles from the nearest city. Which of the following is most likely when comparing Rozlynn’s IQ score to Lian’s, a child of the same age who lives in the city? a) Rozlynn’s IQ score is likely about 6 points lower than Lian’s. b) Rozlynn’s IQ score is likely about 6 points higher than Lian’s. c) Rozlynn’s IQ score is likely about 2 points lower than Lian’s. d) Rozlynn’s IQ score is likely about 2 points higher than Lian’s. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 280. Shira lives in a rural area about 50 km from the nearest town. Holly lives in the downtown core of a large Canadian city. Of all other factors were equal and you were to compare Shira and Holly’s IQ scores, which of the following would you be most likely to find? a) Shira’s IQ score would be 6 points higher than Holly’s. b) Shira’s IQ score would be 6 points lower than Holly’s. c) Shira’s IQ score would be 2 points lower than Holly’s. d) Shira’s IQ score would be 2 points higher than Holly’s. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 281. Which of the following would MOST accurately describe the relationship between schooling and IQ scores? a) Higher IQ scores lead to greater success in school. b) Higher IQ scores result from better quality education. c) Higher IQ scores lead to greater success in school, and schooling leads to higher IQ scores. d) More schooling leads to higher IQ scores. Answer: c

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 282. Why might schooling help improve intelligence scores? a) Schools provide a stronger base knowledge of facts. b) Schools provide students with the materials they require to learn. c) Schools provide opportunities to acquire information and develop skills that are measured on intelligence tests. d) Schools provide social and educational experiences that facilitate responding on intelligence tests. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 283. Which of the following statements about school and intellectual development is true? a) Children whose birthdays allow them to just make the cut-off for school attendance tend to struggle more than children who do not make the cut-off and are almost a year older when they start. b) Students’ IQ scores tend to drop during the school year as they struggle to learn a lot of additional information, and then rise during the summer when they are less stressed. c) When children are moved from financially poor schools to more affluent schools, their IQ scores increase. d) Children with very high intelligence scores tend to drop out of school because they get bored. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 284. Which of the following accurately describes the benefits of schooling to IQ scores? a) School provides students with the materials required for effective learning. b) School provides a stronger base knowledge of facts. c) Schools provide social and educational experiences that facilitate responding on intelligence tests. d) Schools provide opportunities to acquire information and develop skills that are measured on intelligence tests.

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Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 285. Agatha and Chloe attended preschool together. Next year Agatha will just be old enough to begin school, however, Chloe will miss the cut-off date by one week making it necessary for her to wait a year before she can attend. If both girls’ intelligence is measured at age 15, what will be the likely finding? a) There will be no difference between the two girls IQ scores. b) Chloe will have a higher IQ score than Agatha. c) Agatha will have a higher IQ score than Chloe. d) Agatha will have a slightly higher IQ score than Chloe, but the difference will diminish by the time they graduate. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 286. Based on the research findings presented in your textbook, which of the following reflects a difference in cultural differences toward intelligence between Westerners and TaiwaneseChinese? a) Westerners value a general cognitive factor; Taiwanese-Chinese value a specific cognitive factor. b) Westerners believe that intelligence involves verbal skills; Taiwanese-Chinese do not include this in their definition of intelligence. c) Westerners include interpersonal intelligence; Taiwanese-Chinese focus more on intrapersonal intelligence. d) Westerners include intrapersonal intelligence; Taiwanese-Chinese focus more on interpersonal intelligence. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 287. Based on the research findings presented in your text, compared to Western cultures, Taiwanese-Chinese cultures are more likely to consider ___ to be an important intellectual

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ability. a) general cognitive factor b) intellectual self-assertion c) interpersonal intelligence d) intrapersonal intelligence Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 288. Min, an exchange student from China, is discussing intelligence with his Canadian roommate, John. John feels he is intelligent because he has a high GPA. Min, on the other hand believes he is intelligent because he has many friends and is active in his community. Which student is correct? a) John, is correct as academic success is highly correlated with intelligence. b) Min is correct if he is referring to social intelligence. c) Neither is correct. Intelligence is much broader than either student is claiming. d) Both are correct. The two students have different definitions of intelligence based on their cultures. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 289. Which of the following is true about race and IQ scores? a) Differences in IQ scores may be due to genetic differences between the groups. b) Aboriginal Canadians have traditionally scored about 15 points lower than non-Aboriginal Canadians on IQ tests. c) An individual who grows up in a poor environment will score worse than the average of individuals who grow up in an enriched environment. d) Differences in environment progressively widen the gap between groups starting in high school, and this difference accelerates at the university level. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors?

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290. Research results from Cherubini & Hodson (2012) assessing the situation of Indigenous education policy and practice in Ontario suggest that a) differences in intelligence test scores between Indigenous and non-Indigenous Canadians can be the result of environmental differences between the groups. b) differences in intelligence test scores between Indigenous and non-Indigenous Canadians can be the result of genetic differences between the groups. c) differences in intelligence test scores between Indigenous and non-Indigenous Canadians can be used to predict individual performance for members of those groups. d) differences in intelligence test scores between Indigenous and non-Indigenous Canadians can occur at the level of the individual but do not differ at the group level. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 291. Gillian is an Indigenous child attending a public school in Toronto. Which of the following could most help her achieve her educational goals? a) making more funds available to the school b) if her school acknowledges and celebrates indigenous values and heritage c) if she is provided with additional educational support d) if she has an indigenous teacher Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 292. Your textbook speculates that public policy aimed at making more equitable resources available throughout society would have what effect? a) lead to little change as the genetic component of intelligence would prevent long lasting change b) cause intelligence to improve c) lead to more similar intelligence scores across groups d) create individual but not group differences Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy.

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Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 293. Which of the following statements is true? a) Early intervention programs improve the intellectual functioning of children from both impoverished and enriched environments. b) Head Start programs have a strong effect on children in their early school years, and may continue to provide moderate advantages throughout the school years. c) Early intervention programs that take place in a school setting are more effective than those that take place in a home setting. d) Head Start programs are beginning to see a decrease in political and community support. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 294. The goal of programs such as Project Head Start, and Healthy Families is to a) reduce the group differences in IQ scores. b) explain the group differences in IQ scores. c) reduce the involvement of child welfare and improve child and parental functioning. d) improve child attendance at school, thereby increasing IQ scores. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 295. Lewontin’s plant analogy of intelligence is intended to explain a) why two people who are raised in the same environment can have different IQ scores. b) why the IQ scores of adopted children are more similar to their adoptive parents than their biological parents. c) individual differences in IQ scores. d) group differences in IQ scores. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors?

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296. In Lewontin’s plant analogy of intelligence, how is the fact that the environment contributes to the variation between groups evident? a) The plants in poor soil tend to be shorter than the plants in the fertile soil. b) The plants from high quality seeds tend to be taller than the plants from low quality seeds. c) Within a soil type, there is variation in the height of the plants. d) Averages within a soil type cannot be applied to any individual in that soil type. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 297. In Lewontin’s plant analogy of intelligence, how is the fact that genetics contributes to the variation between groups evident? a) The plants in poor soil tend to be shorter than the plants in the fertile soil. b) The plants from high quality seeds in fertile soil tend to be taller than the plants from low quality seeds in poor soil. c) Within a soil type, there is variation in the height of the plants. d) Averages within a soil type cannot be applied to any individual in that soil type. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 298. A plant analogy of intelligence was discussed in your text; based on this analogy, which of the following statements is true? a) All plants from the fertile soil group will be taller than the average height of the plants from the poor soil group. b) All plants from the poor soil group will be shorter than the average height of the plants from the fertile soil group. c) The tallest plant from the fertile soil group will be taller than the tallest plant from the poor soil group. d) Plants from the fertile soil group will be taller, on average, than plants from the poor soil group. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy.

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Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 299. Enrolling in preschool and having involved parents has been shown to ________ intelligence levels. a) increase b) decrease c) maintain d) have no effect on Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 300. Students from low-income neighbourhoods were less able to identify a yacht on an intelligence exam than students from the high-income areas. While a researcher may claim that one group of students has lower intelligence, the BEST explanation for the varied response is a) genetics. b) environmental enrichment. c) the Flynn Effect. d) cultural bias. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 301. Which of the following is a criticism of earlier versions of intelligence tests? a) They did not reflect cultural differences in how intelligence was defined. b) Problem-solving questions reflected experiences encountered only in higher socio-economic classes. c) They focused on questions that were traditionally male-oriented. d) Many of the questions were at such a high a level, minorities could not perform well. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors?

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302. Jasmine is a single mother living in a low socio-economic neighbourhood. At least once a week, she takes her young son to the library to borrow books so they can read together every night. She has joined a toy library so that he can be exposed to a variety of stimulating toys. She has met with her son’s school to make sure her son takes advantage of any additional activities that might stimulate his cognitive development. This is an example of a) educational intervention. b) intellectual enrichment. c) environmental intervention. d) environmental enrichment. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 303. Which of the following is the best way to encourage intellectual development in children? a) letting them play with many other children b) sending them to preschool c) exposing them to classical music d) adding stimulating toys and books to their environment Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 304. Which of the following is true about brain size and intelligence? a) People with larger brains tend to be more intelligent. b) More neurons throughout the brain are associated with higher levels of intelligence. c) More intelligent people tend to have brains that work harder. d) People with extremely large or small brains are more likely to exhibit mental deficiencies than are people with normal sized brains. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how brain size, number of neurons, processing speed, brain activity, and cortical maturation relate to intelligence. Section Reference: The Brain and Intelligence

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305. Martina overhears someone at a party saying that studies have shown that people with larger brains are more intelligent. Furthermore, this person claims that doctors have told him that he has an extraordinarily large brain, and thus, claim to also have superior intelligence. Martina decides to avoid that conversation because she knows from her psychology class that a) people with extraordinarily large brains tend to score low on intelligence tests. b) this person is likely exceptionally brilliant. c) people with more neurons in their parietal lobe are more intelligent. d) the size of individual neurons is more important for intelligence than the number of neurons. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how brain size, number of neurons, processing speed, brain activity, and cortical maturation relate to intelligence. Section Reference: The Brain and Intelligence 306. Which of the statements regarding brain size are supported by evidence? a) slower nerve conduction velocity is indicative of processing and is therefore associated with higher intelligence b) males have 16% more neurons in their brains, and this accounts for their spatial superiority over females c) people with more neurons in their frontal lobe perform better on intelligence tests d) for those in the normal range of brain size, the overall size of the brain predicts intelligence Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how brain size, number of neurons, processing speed, brain activity, and cortical maturation relate to intelligence. Section Reference: The Brain and Intelligence 307. Studies suggest that highly intelligent brains process judgments a) slowly. b) correctly. c) quickly. d) unfairly. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how brain size, number of neurons, processing speed, brain activity, and cortical maturation relate to intelligence. Section Reference: The Brain and Intelligence 308. The overall conclusion of nerve conduction velocity and electroencephalogram studies is

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that a) highly intelligent people have larger than average brains. b) highly intelligent people are, on average, able to make decisions more quickly. c) highly intelligent people have a greater number of neurons in their brains than people of average intelligence. d) highly intelligent people have a thicker cortex than those of average intelligence. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how brain size, number of neurons, processing speed, brain activity, and cortical maturation relate to intelligence. Section Reference: The Brain and Intelligence 309. According to research using PET scans, what is a fundamental difference between intelligent brains and less-intelligent brains? a) Intelligent brains function more efficiently than less-intelligent brains. b) Intelligent brains are more impacted by genetics than less-intelligent brains. c) Intelligent brains are shaped more by environment than less-intelligent brains. d) Intelligent brains are more likely to induce impulsive behaviors than less-intelligent brains. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how brain size, number of neurons, processing speed, brain activity, and cortical maturation relate to intelligence. Section Reference: The Brain and Intelligence 310. Cory tends to process mathematical information quickly and responds decisively to equation questions. Joe tends to process mathematical information less rapidly and answer with more hesitation. What can be concluded from this information? a) Cory’s brain functions more efficiently than Joe’s brain, displaying a higher level of intelligence. b) Cory is more of a daredevil than Joe, displaying an immature emotional intelligence. c) Cory is more intelligent than Joe, revealing that his brain is bigger. d) Cory’s brain induces impulsive behavior more often than Joe’s brain. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how brain size, number of neurons, processing speed, brain activity, and cortical maturation relate to intelligence. Section Reference: The Brain and Intelligence 311. Which of the following most accurately summarizes the research on the relationship

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between brain size and mental functioning? a) Neuroimaging studies suggest that larger brain size equates to better mental functioning. b) Neuroimaging studies suggest that people with larger brains possess a larger number of neurons which facilitates mental functioning. c) Although some neuroimaging findings support a correlation between brain size and mental functioning, most studies fail to find support for the relationship. d) There is no support for a correlation between brain size and mental functioning. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe how brain size, number of neurons, processing speed, brain activity, and cortical maturation relate to intelligence. Section Reference: The Brain and Intelligence 312. Which of the following research questions could you answer using neuroimaging? a) The relationship between brain size and brain activity. b) The relationship between intelligence and brain speed. c) The relationship between intelligence and the speed with which electrical impulses are transmitted along nerve fibres. d) Gender differences in intelligence. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how brain size, number of neurons, processing speed, brain activity, and cortical maturation relate to intelligence. Section Reference: The Brain and Intelligence 313. Which of the following properties has NOT been found to be different between the brains of high and low intelligent individuals? a) brain size b) number of neurons in the frontal lobe c) neural efficiency d) speed of neural communication Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how brain size, number of neurons, processing speed, brain activity, and cortical maturation relate to intelligence. Section Reference: The Brain and Intelligence 314. Research has found that the brains of people who score high and low on intelligence tests are different. Which of the following is NOT one of these differences?

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a) Intelligent people have larger brains. b) Intelligent people have more neurons in the frontal lobe. c) Intelligent people have greater neural efficiency. d) Intelligent people have faster neural communication. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how brain size, number of neurons, processing speed, brain activity, and cortical maturation relate to intelligence. Section Reference: The Brain and Intelligence 315. Intelligence may be related to the number of neurons in the brain’s ___ lobes. a) temporal b) frontal c) parietal d) occipital Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how brain size, number of neurons, processing speed, brain activity, and cortical maturation relate to intelligence. Section Reference: The Brain and Intelligence 316. Individuals who score high on intelligence tests show some neuroanatomical differences compared to individuals who score low on intelligence tests. Which of the following is TRUE about these differences? a) People who score high on intelligence tests tend to have brains that weigh more. b) People who score high on intelligence tests have more neurons in their frontal lobes. c) People who score high on intelligence tests tend to have more neurons throughout their brain. d) People who score high on intelligence tests tend to have larger neurons. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how brain size, number of neurons, processing speed, brain activity, and cortical maturation relate to intelligence. Section Reference: The Brain and Intelligence 317. Which of the following correctly identifies the relationship between the number of neurons in the brain and intelligence? a) The number of neurons in the frontal lobe of the brain is related to general intelligence. b) The total number of neurons in the brain predicts intellectual functioning.

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c) The total number of neurons in the occipital lobe predicts intellectual functioning. d) The total number of neurons in the brain only predicts intellectual functioning in males. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how brain size, number of neurons, processing speed, brain activity, and cortical maturation relate to intelligence. Section Reference: The Brain and Intelligence 318. Which of the following persons would likely have higher intelligence? a) Eitan, a male, whose brain is larger than average b) Jie, a male, whose has a greater number of neurons in the parietal lobe c) Iris, a female, who has a 15% smaller brain than Jie and Omar d) Omar, who has a greater number of neurons in the frontal lobe Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how brain size, number of neurons, processing speed, brain activity, and cortical maturation relate to intelligence. Section Reference: The Brain and Intelligence 319. There are some differences in the brains of people who score high and low on intelligence tests. Which of the following is TRUE about these differences? a) People who score high on intelligence tests tend to show less overall brain activity in a PET scan. b) People who score high on intelligence tests tend to have larger brains. c) People who score high on intelligence tests tend to have a slower speed of neural communication. d) People who score high on intelligence tests tend to have an exceptionally thick cortex early in development. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how brain size, number of neurons, processing speed, brain activity, and cortical maturation relate to intelligence. Section Reference: The Brain and Intelligence 320. Individuals who perform highly on cognitive tasks display some differences in brain activity as revealed by PET scan compared to individuals who perform poorly on these same tasks. Which of the following is TRUE about these differences? a) People who perform highly on cognitive tasks tend to show more distributed activity in their brain.

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b) People who perform highly on cognitive tasks tend to show higher overall activity in their brain. c) People who perform highly on cognitive tasks tend to show lower overall activity in their brain. d) People who perform highly on cognitive tasks tend to show more concentrated areas of activity in their brain. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how brain size, number of neurons, processing speed, brain activity, and cortical maturation relate to intelligence. Section Reference: The Brain and Intelligence 321. Yosef is having a PET scan while he is doing a cognitive task. The PET scan shows a lower activity in Yosef’s brain while he is doing the task than for many of the other participants. What does this mean about Yosef’s performance on the task? a) Yosef is likely doing very well on the task; his brain is working hard. b) Yosef is likely not performing well on the task; his brain is not very efficient. c) Yosef has likely given up on the task; his brain is shutting down. d) Yosef has likely confused by the stimuli in the task; his working memory is disrupted. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how brain size, number of neurons, processing speed, brain activity, and cortical maturation relate to intelligence. Section Reference: The Brain and Intelligence 322. Kelly is participating in a PET scan study on intelligence. When she does a verbal task, brain activity is greater in ___ prefrontal cortex, and when she does a spatial task, brain activity is greater in ___ prefrontal cortex. a) the right; the left and right b) the left and right; the left c) the left and right; the right d) the left; the left and right Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how brain size, number of neurons, processing speed, brain activity, and cortical maturation relate to intelligence. Section Reference: The Brain and Intelligence 323. Sam is taking an intelligence test while undergoing a PET scan. Which of the following most accurately describes what the PET scan will indicate?

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a) The left lateral prefrontal cortex will be active when Sam is performing verbal tasks on the test, and the right lateral prefrontal cortex will be active when Sam is performing spatial tasks on the test. b) The right lateral prefrontal cortex will be active when Sam is performing verbal tasks on the test, and the left lateral prefrontal cortex will be active when Sam is performing spatial tasks on the test. c) The right inferior temporal cortex will be active when Sam is performing verbal tasks on the test, and the left inferior temporal cortex will be active when Sam is performing spatial tasks on the test. d) The left inferior temporal cortex will be active when Sam is performing verbal tasks on the test, and the right inferior temporal cortex will be active when Sam is performing spatial tasks on the test. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how brain size, number of neurons, processing speed, brain activity, and cortical maturation relate to intelligence. Section Reference: The Brain and Intelligence 324. Which of the following is true about brain activity and intelligence, as revealed by PET scans? a) Brain activity and sugar processing are greater in people who are performing poorly on intellectual tasks. b) Brain activity and sugar processing are greater in people who are performing well on intellectual tasks. c) Elevated levels of activity show up as green or blue on a PET scan. d) When test-takers are performing a verbal task, the right prefrontal cortex is more active on the PET scan. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how brain size, number of neurons, processing speed, brain activity, and cortical maturation relate to intelligence. Section Reference: The Brain and Intelligence 325. During a PET scan, active areas of the brain that are breaking down glucose are represented by which colour? a) orange b) green c) blue d) grey Answer: a Difficulty: Easy

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Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how brain size, number of neurons, processing speed, brain activity, and cortical maturation relate to intelligence. Section Reference: The Brain and Intelligence 326. An electroencephalogram is used to a) assess how actively the brain is metabolizing glucose at any given moment. b) examine structures of the brain. c) to record brain waves. d) measure the speed with which electrical impulses are transmitted along nerve fibres. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how brain size, number of neurons, processing speed, brain activity, and cortical maturation relate to intelligence. Section Reference: The Brain and Intelligence 327. If a researcher is interested in examining the relationship between intelligence and speed of decision making, which technology would provide the BEST measurement? a) electroencephalogram b) positron emission tomography c) functional magnetic resonance imaging d) cortical thickness imaging Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how brain size, number of neurons, processing speed, brain activity, and cortical maturation relate to intelligence. Section Reference: The Brain and Intelligence 328. Jenya is conducting a research study. She flashes an incomplete stimulus on one side of a computer screen and then quickly flashes a more complete stimulus on the other side. The participants are asked to indicate on which side the complete image appeared. If Jenya wants to measure the speed at which the brain processes the images, which of the following methods would she use? a) nerve conduction velocity b) electroencephalogram c) positron emission tomography d) fMRI Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Learning Objective: Describe how brain size, number of neurons, processing speed, brain activity, and cortical maturation relate to intelligence. Section Reference: The Brain and Intelligence 329. Chad is planning to do a research study on facial expressions using an electroencephalogram. Which of the following research questions would be BEST explored using this type of technology? a) What structure in the brain is involved in the processing of facial expressions? b) Which areas of the brain are most active during the processing of facial expressions? c) Does the brain respond faster to happy faces than to angry faces? d) Do people with larger brains process facial expressions faster? Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how brain size, number of neurons, processing speed, brain activity, and cortical maturation relate to intelligence. Section Reference: The Brain and Intelligence 330. The students in your introductory psychology class have agreed to participate in a research study using an EEG technique. Once the EEG is hooked up, the researcher flashes an incomplete stimulus on one side of the computer screen, and then a more complete stimulus on the other side of the screen. You are then asked to identify on which side of the screen the complete stimulus appeared. After the EEG portion of the study is complete, you are given an IQ test. What is the researcher most likely to find? a) Those who are slower to identify the complete stimulus will score higher on the intelligence test as they process information more completely. b) Those who are faster to identify the complete stimulus will score higher on the intelligence test as they use information more quickly than others. c) Those who are faster to identify where they thought they saw the complete stimulus make more errors and tend to score lower on the intelligence test. d) Those who are either very slow or very fast to identify the complete stimulus will have lower scores on the intelligence test. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how brain size, number of neurons, processing speed, brain activity, and cortical maturation relate to intelligence. Section Reference: The Brain and Intelligence 331. Brian and Tahlia are both writing the same psychology exam. Tahlia is going through the questions very quickly and is confident that her answers are correct. Brian, on the other hand, is struggling to remember the material he studied. If both Brian and Tahlia were undergoing a PET scan while writing the exam, what would it show? a) Brian would have higher levels of brain activity overall than Tahlia.

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b) Tahlia would have higher levels of brain activity overall than Brian. c) Brian would have higher levels of activity in both the frontal and occipital lobes than Tahlia. d) Tahlia would have higher levels of activity in both the frontal and occipital lobes than Brian. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how brain size, number of neurons, processing speed, brain activity, and cortical maturation relate to intelligence. Section Reference: The Brain and Intelligence 332. Which of the following statements about brain speed, brain activity, and intelligence is incorrect? a) Highly intelligent people make decisions faster than less intelligent people. b) EEG data indicates that more intelligent people are physiologically wired to acquire and use information more quickly than others. c) Researchers have found significant correlations between nerve conduction velocity and IQ. d) PET scans indicate that those doing well on an intellectual task show lower brain activity than those doing poorly. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how brain size, number of neurons, processing speed, brain activity, and cortical maturation relate to intelligence. Section Reference: The Brain and Intelligence 333. Nerve conduction velocity (NCV) measures a) levels of brain wave activity. b) activity in specific brain structures. c) how actively the brain is metabolizing glucose. d) the speed with which electrical impulses are transmitted along nerve fibres and across synapses. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how brain size, number of neurons, processing speed, brain activity, and cortical maturation relate to intelligence. Section Reference: The Brain and Intelligence 334. Kendall consistently scores very high on intelligence tests. What would you expect to find if you measured her nerve conduction velocity? a) It will be very low. b) It will be high for perceptual tasks and low for motor tasks.

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c) It will be very high. d) It will be high in the parietal lobe and low in the frontal lobe. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how brain size, number of neurons, processing speed, brain activity, and cortical maturation relate to intelligence. Section Reference: The Brain and Intelligence 335. Noa is the president of a large financial institution. When interviewed about her success, she reports that her ability to make quick decisions makes her an effective leader. What biological factor might contribute to Noa’s quick decision making? a) Noa probably has a larger than average brain. b) Noa probably has a thicker cortex that the average person. c) Noa probably has a greater number of neurons in her brain than the average person. d) Noa probably has a higher nerve conduction velocity than the average person. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how brain size, number of neurons, processing speed, brain activity, and cortical maturation relate to intelligence. Section Reference: The Brain and Intelligence 336. Which of the following reflects the findings of the longitudinal study by Shaw et al. (2008) regarding changes in the brain during childhood and adolescence? a) The brain becomes larger. b) The frontal lobe becomes larger. c) The brain becomes smaller as synaptic pruning occurs. d) Changes in the thickness of the cortex occur. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how brain size, number of neurons, processing speed, brain activity, and cortical maturation relate to intelligence. Section Reference: The Brain and Intelligence 337. Which of the following statements is true about the development of the cortex across the life span? a) The cortex starts to thicken in childhood and adolescence and continues to thicken as we age. b) People with dementias lose intellectual functioning because of a process called “pruning.” c) Teenagers typically have more neural connections than elementary school children.

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d) Changes in cortical thickness are most pronounced in the prefrontal cortex. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how brain size, number of neurons, processing speed, brain activity, and cortical maturation relate to intelligence. Section Reference: The Brain and Intelligence 338. The thick cortex seen in late childhood may reflect a ________ number of neural connections; a thin cortex may reflect a _______ number of neurons. a) higher; higher b) higher; lower c) lower; higher d) lower; lower Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how brain size, number of neurons, processing speed, brain activity, and cortical maturation relate to intelligence. Section Reference: The Brain and Intelligence 339. Who is likely to have the thickest cortex? a) Samuel, who suffers from Alzheimer’s disease b) Joanne, who is a healthy 40 year old c) Mirella, who is in Grade 11 d) Tyrone, who has just started kindergarten Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how brain size, number of neurons, processing speed, brain activity, and cortical maturation relate to intelligence. Section Reference: The Brain and Intelligence 340. Of the individuals below who is likely to be the most intelligent? a) Natália, who had a thin cortex in early childhood that gradually thickened until around age 11 and then thinned into her late teen years b) Enrique, who had a thick cortex in early childhood that continued to thicken until around age 11 and then thinned into his early teen years c) Rosalie, who had a thick cortex in early childhood that continued to thicken until age 8 and then thinned and stopped at puberty d) Maverick, who had a thin cortex in early childhood that continued to thin until around age 11 and then thickened into his teen years

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Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how brain size, number of neurons, processing speed, brain activity, and cortical maturation relate to intelligence. Section Reference: The Brain and Intelligence 341. When Rodolfo was born, he had a very thin cortex. Although it became much thicker, at the age of 11 or 12, it began to thin again. Based on patterns of brain growth as identified in your text, what could be predicted about Rodolfo’s intelligence? a) Rodolfo is highly intelligent. b) Rodolfo is of average intelligence. c) Rodolfo is below average intelligence. d) Rodolfo’s intelligence level is changing over time. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how brain size, number of neurons, processing speed, brain activity, and cortical maturation relate to intelligence. Section Reference: The Brain and Intelligence 342. Qualia is participating in a research study that is investigating the changes in cortical thickness across development. As such, Qualia’s cortical thickness is measured every year from age 1 to 20 years using an MRI. The researchers discover that Qualia started out with a thick cortex that thickened some more until she was 8 years old, and then it gradually thinned into adolescence. If they tested Qualia’s intelligence after her last MRI scan, how would she likely score? a) below average b) average c) above average d) It is impossible to predict based on this information. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how brain size, number of neurons, processing speed, brain activity, and cortical maturation relate to intelligence. Section Reference: The Brain and Intelligence 343. Which of the following accurately describes the relationship between cortical changes and the development of intelligence? a) Those with higher intelligence begin with a thick cortex, it becomes thicker until age 11 or 12 and then thins. Those with lower intelligence begin with a thin cortex, it becomes thicker and

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then thins. b) Those with higher intelligence begin with a thin cortex, it gets slightly thinner, and then thickens. Those with lower intelligence begin with a thick cortex, and it gradually becomes thinner across late childhood and adolescence. c) Those with higher intelligence begin with a thin cortex, it thickens until age 11 or 12, and then thins during adolescence. Those with lower intelligence begin with a thicker cortex which thickens until age 8 and then thins. d) Those with higher and lower intelligence begin with a thin cortex which thickens until late childhood, and then thinning begins. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how brain size, number of neurons, processing speed, brain activity, and cortical maturation relate to intelligence. Section Reference: The Brain and Intelligence 344. Charlotte was raised in a rich social and learning environment. Thea was raised in a deprived environment. Which of the following may be an outcome of the girls’ different upbringings? a) Charlotte’s brain will be slightly larger than Thea leading her to be more intelligent. b) Charlotte’s brain will grow faster than Thea’s leading her to be more intelligent. c) Charlotte’s prefrontal cortex will undergo a process of thickening and thinning that will unfold over a longer developmental span than Thea’s cortex. Charlotte will have a higher intelligence level than Thea. d) Charlotte’s brain will have more neurons than Thea’s leading her to have a higher level of intelligence. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how brain size, number of neurons, processing speed, brain activity, and cortical maturation relate to intelligence. Section Reference: The Brain and Intelligence 345. Which of the following is believed to be true about more intelligent people, compared to less intelligent people? a) The process of cortical growth and pruning occurs over a long developmental span. b) The process of cortical growth and pruning occurs over a short developmental span. c) More intelligent people start off with a thicker cortex. d) Pruning begins at an earlier age. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how brain size, number of neurons, processing speed, brain

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activity, and cortical maturation relate to intelligence. Section Reference: The Brain and Intelligence 346. Someone who has an intellectual disability would display a) well below average intellectual functioning and poor adaptive functioning. b) well below average intellectual functioning and good adaptive functioning. c) below average intellectual functioning and some mild problems with adaptive functioning. d) average intellectual functioning and very poor adaptive functioning. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss intellectual disability and giftedness. Section Reference: Extremes in Intelligence 347. An individual who displays general intellectual functioning that is well below average, and, at the same time, poor adaptive behaviour is described as having a(n) a) developmental disorder. b) intellectual deficit. c) intellectual disability. d) developmental challenge. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss intellectual disability and giftedness. Section Reference: Extremes in Intelligence 348. Tabitha has an intelligence level that is well below average and is unable to live independently or support herself. Tabitha would be described as having a(n) a) developmental disorder. b) intellectual disability. c) developmental challenge. d) intellectual deficit. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss intellectual disability and giftedness. Section Reference: Extremes in Intelligence 349. Which of the following is the MOST consistent sign of intellectual disability? a) very slow reaction times b) speech deficits

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c) very slow learning d) poor memory recall Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss intellectual disability and giftedness. Section Reference: Extremes in Intelligence 350. Most people who have an intellectual disability would be categorized as a) mild. b) moderate. c) severe. d) profound. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss intellectual disability and giftedness. Section Reference: Extremes in Intelligence 351. Approximately 80 – 85% of all persons with an intellectual disability fall into the category of ________ disability. a) mild b) moderate c) severe d) profound Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss intellectual disability and giftedness. Section Reference: Extremes in Intelligence 352. Ava’s mother never wanted to get pregnant, and she did not take care of herself properly throughout the pregnancy. Furthermore, after Ava was born, her mother pretty much left her alone except for feedings and a new diaper. Ava had very few toys, no books, and did not get out of the house very much. What effect might this have on Ava’s development? a) Ava may be diagnosed with a mild intellectual disability. b) Ava may be diagnosed with Down’s syndrome. c) Ava may be diagnosed with a moderate intellectual disability. d) Ava may be diagnosed with a severe intellectual disability. Answer: a

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss intellectual disability and giftedness. Section Reference: Extremes in Intelligence Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss intellectual disability and giftedness. Section Reference: Extremes in Intelligence 353. Noland is 34 years old. He lives independently, supporting himself by working as a dishwasher in a restaurant. When he was younger, he had difficulty keeping up to the other students in school and, when he was under stress, he became very agitated and upset. He eventually dropped out of school because the other students teased him. Which of the following is Noland MOST likely to have? a) Down syndrome. b) Mild intellectual disability. c) Moderate intellectual disability. d) A personality disorder. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss intellectual disability and giftedness. Section Reference: Extremes in Intelligence 354. Which of the following statements regarding mild intellectual disability is true? a) The majority of individuals with this diagnosis have also been diagnosed with Down syndrome. b) This diagnosis is linked primarily to familial factors. c) Approximately 10 percent of all individuals diagnosed with an intellectual disability are in this category. d) Mild intellectual disability is diagnosed at birth or in early infancy Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss intellectual disability and giftedness. Section Reference: Extremes in Intelligence 355. What percentage of people with an intellectual disability would be considered to belong in the category of ‘moderate’? a) 80 to 85

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b) 1 to 2 c) 10 d) 3 to 4 Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss intellectual disability and giftedness. Section Reference: Extremes in Intelligence 356. ___% of the population scores between 85 and 115 on IQ tests. a) 50 b) 68 c) 95 d) 99 Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss intellectual disability and giftedness. Section Reference: Extremes in Intelligence 357. People are categorized as intellectually disabled if their IQ score is below ___ and they have poor adaptive behaviour. a) 85 b) 70 c) 68 d) 55 Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss intellectual disability and giftedness. Section Reference: Extremes in Intelligence 358. Joey has been classified as moderately to profoundly intellectually disabled. His IQ score is lower than ___% of the population. a) 97.7 b) 95.0 c) 13.6 d) 2.3 Answer: a Difficulty: Medium

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Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss intellectual disability and giftedness. Section Reference: Extremes in Intelligence 359. Which of the following individuals, all in late elementary school, would be assessed with a moderate intellectual disability? a) Stefen – was identified at birth and has trouble walking, and with language; he requires close supervision in his day-to-day life b) Yasmin – was identified when she entered school and requires support with academic and social demands, especially when under stress c) Chad – was identified in preschool and had trouble acquiring reading and number skills; he also has trouble with adaptive skills d) Both Yasmin and Chad would be identified as moderate Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss intellectual disability and giftedness. Section Reference: Extremes in Intelligence 360. Approximately ___% of people who are classified as intellectually disabled can benefit from schooling and support themselves as adults. a) 90–95 b) 80–85 c) 50–-60 d) 30–40 Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss intellectual disability and giftedness. Section Reference: Extremes in Intelligence 361. Thirty-year-old Alex has an IQ of 67, has normal language skills, works packing groceries in a grocery store, and lives independently in his own apartment. Which of the following statements best describes Alex’s intellectual ability? a) Alex does not meet the criteria of having an intellectual disability because he does not exhibit poor adaptive behaviour. b) Alex has a mild intellectual disability. c) Alex has a moderate intellectual disability. d) Alex probably has a normal IQ and should be retested. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Learning Objective: Discuss intellectual disability and giftedness. Section Reference: Extremes in Intelligence 362. In what category of intellectual disability do most affected people fall? a) moderate b) mild c) severe d) profound Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss intellectual disability and giftedness. Section Reference: Extremes in Intelligence 363. Down syndrome is usually caused by a) prenatal exposure to a teratogen such as measles. b) the presence of extra chromosomal material on the twenty first chromosome. c) missing chromosomal material on the twenty sixth chromosome. d) heredity, as it is a genetic condition passed on by the mother. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss intellectual disability and giftedness. Section Reference: Extremes in Intelligence 364. Leland has an IQ score of 65. In addition, he has a small head, flat face, slanted eyes, and high cheekbones. Based on Leland’s description and on statistics we can conclude that Leland’s mother probably ___. a) drank alcohol during pregnancy b) was exposed to rubella during pregnancy c) was over the age of 35 when she became pregnant d) had complications during the delivery of Leland Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Discuss intellectual disability and giftedness. Section Reference: Extremes in Intelligence 365. Lina was born with Down syndrome. What label of intellectual disability would she most likely be given? a) mild

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b) profound c) moderate d) severe Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss intellectual disability and giftedness. Section Reference: Extremes in Intelligence 366. Familial is to genetic as _____ is to _____. a) moderate intellectual disability; Down syndrome b) mild intellectual disability; Down syndrome c) severe intellectual disability; FAS d) mild intellectual disability; FAS Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss intellectual disability and giftedness. Section Reference: Extremes in Intelligence 367. Which of the following is FALSE about Down’s syndrome? a) Many people with mild intellectual disability have Down’s syndrome. b) Down’s syndrome occurs in fewer than one in every 1,000 births. c) The chances of having a Down’s syndrome child increase among women who are over 35 when they become pregnant. d) Down’s syndrome is caused by a problem in the twenty-first pair of chromosomes. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss intellectual disability and giftedness. Section Reference: Extremes in Intelligence 368. Which of the following people would most likely be given a label of having a mild intellectual disability? a) Gavin - who lived in a disorganized and unstimulating home and has an unskilled job b) Halim - who has motor and communication deficits and suffers from a seizure disorder c) Farah- who was born with Down’s syndrome d) Polly – cannot feed herself and is almost completely reliant on her caregiver Answer: a Difficulty: Medium

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Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss intellectual disability and giftedness. Section Reference: Extremes in Intelligence 369. Which of the following individuals would be considered to have a moderate intellectual disability? a) Len, who showed basic motor and language deficits in infancy, and currently lives in a group home with careful supervision b) Shota, who did not show any deficits until he entered school, and now works in a low-stress, unskilled job c) Preeta, who showed very noticeable limitations at birth, developed the ability to walk and feed herself very late but continues to require constant supervision d) Devin, who showed clear deficits in language development in preschool, significant delays in reading and number skills in middle school, but as an adult can adequately communicate and care for himself Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss intellectual disability and giftedness. Section Reference: Extremes in Intelligence 370. Which of the following individuals would be considered to have a severe intellectual disability? a) Woo-jinn, who showed basic motor and language deficits in infancy, and currently lives in a group home with careful supervision b) John, who did not show any deficits until he entered school, and he works in a low-stress, unskilled job c) Shinto, who showed very noticeable limitations at birth, has developed the ability to walk and feed herself but requires constant supervision d) Adriano, who showed clear deficits in language development in preschool, significant delays in reading and number skills in middle school, but as an adult he can adequately communicate and care for himself Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss intellectual disability and giftedness. Section Reference: Extremes in Intelligence 371. Mina was identified with an intellectual disability as an infant when she first demonstrated basic motor and communication deficits. As an adolescent, she received some vocational training and now, as a young adult, works in a structured setting where she is carefully supervised. What diagnosis of intellectual disability would Mina be given? a) severe b) profound

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c) extreme d) moderate Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss intellectual disability and giftedness. Section Reference: Extremes in Intelligence 372. Augustin was born with very noticeable limitations. Although he has learned to walk, has some communicative skills, and can feed himself, he requires considerable help in a supervised environment. What diagnosis of intellectual disability would Augustin be given? a) severe b) profound c) extreme d) moderate Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss intellectual disability and giftedness. Section Reference: Extremes in Intelligence 373. What is the difference between a moderate intellectual disability and a severe intellectual disability? a) A moderate intellectual disability can be overcome with extra stimulation, whereas a severe intellectual disability cannot. b) A moderate intellectual disability is apparent in the preschool years, whereas a severe intellectual disability is apparent in infancy. c) A moderate intellectual disability typically involves a disability in one facet of intelligence, whereas a severe intellectual disability involves a disability in multiple facets of intelligence. d) A moderate intellectual disability is the diagnosis of most people with an intellectual disability, whereas a severe intellectual disability is the least common. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss intellectual disability and giftedness. Section Reference: Extremes in Intelligence 374. Statistically, are there more people that fall at the extreme low end of the IQ range or more people in the high end of the IQ range? a) there are more people at the extreme low end b) there are more people at the extreme high end c) there are equal numbers of people at the extreme low and high end

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d) there used to be more people at the low end, but today there are far more people at the high end Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss intellectual disability and giftedness. Section Reference: Extremes in Intelligence 375. If it were possible to test everyone in the world on the same intelligence test, would we find more people at the high end of the IQ range or the low end? a) There are more people at the extreme low end. b) There are more people at the extreme high end. c) There are equal numbers of people at the extreme low and high end. d) There used to be more people at the low end, but today there are far more people at the high end. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss intellectual disability and giftedness. Section Reference: Extremes in Intelligence 376. Which of the following is NOT a common characteristic among gifted people? a) They experience social and emotional difficulties, especially in adolescence. b) They were raised in nurturing and stimulating environments. c) They are intrinsically motivated. d) They were pushed by their parents to succeed. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss intellectual disability and giftedness. Section Reference: Extremes in Intelligence 377. Karim has been speaking in full sentences since he was a year old. He was completely conversational by 18 months of age. He is completing a degree in mathematics at the age of nine at Oxford University. Which of the following is probably true of Karim? a) Karim’s parents are very hardworking and supported Karim’s giftedness. b) Karim’s parents pushed Karim to study and to achieve. c) Karim’s hard work, intrinsic motivation, and perseverance are entirely responsible for Karim’s success. d) Karim experienced disproportionately more social and emotional difficulties than other children his age.

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Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss intellectual disability and giftedness. Section Reference: Extremes in Intelligence 378. Which of the following individuals shows the typical characteristics of someone who is gifted? a) Liz, who had very demanding parents who expected a lot from her b) Harry, who excels in social and emotional intelligence c) Alec, who has deep intrinsic motivation d) Mia, who came from a lower socio-economic family Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss intellectual disability and giftedness. Section Reference: Extremes in Intelligence 379. Mei Ling started playing the violin at age two. Now, at age 14, she plays lead violin with the symphony orchestra in her city. Which of the following is MOST likely accurate about Mei Ling’s parents? a) They have provided Mei Ling with high-level musical stimulation. b) They monitor her very carefully to be sure she is not losing focus. c) They make sure she practices regularly and push her to reach her full potential. d) They do not model hard work for Mei Ling. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss intellectual disability and giftedness. Section Reference: Extremes in Intelligence 380. Which of the following is NOT accurate about the social and emotional development of gifted children? a) They often experience greater social and emotional difficulties than their peers, particularly in adolescence. b) Gifted girls often try to hide their giftedness to fit in better with others. c) Gifted boys are often role models and popular with their peers. d) Gifted children are often socially isolated and introverted. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Learning Objective: Discuss intellectual disability and giftedness. Section Reference: Extremes in Intelligence 381. Nadia and Darrinare are both 11-years old and gifted in different areas. Nadia is preparing to graduate from high school, and Darrin is a pianist who has just made his concerto debut. Which of the following would likely NOT be accurate about Nadia and Darrin? a) They both have more social and emotional difficulties than their peers. b) Darrin enjoys normal social and emotional interactions; however, Nadia has greater difficulties than his peers. c) Nadia is more likely than Darrin to hide her giftedness from her peers. d) Both Nadia and Darrin feel isolated and are introverted. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss intellectual disability and giftedness. Section Reference: Extremes in Intelligence 382. Which of the following is NOT one of the characteristics of “giftedness”? a) Many gifted people are raised in stimulating and nurturing environments. b) Gifted people are often intrinsically motivated. c) Excellent work ethic, intensive training, practice, and perseverance often lead to giftedness. d) Some people who are academically gifted may not be equally gifted in social or emotional intelligence. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss intellectual disability and giftedness. Section Reference: Extremes in Intelligence 383. One of the greatest problems in studying people who are gifted is that a) there are too few of them to form a sample. b) there are too many different areas of giftedness to study any one group. c) psychologists do not agree on how to define giftedness. d) it is difficult to determine who is gifted using standard intelligence tests. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss intellectual disability and giftedness. Section Reference: Extremes in Intelligence 384. Children who are deemed ‘gifted’ share some common characteristics. Which of the

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following is one of these characteristics? a) They will work harder for external rewards. b) They have superior social and emotional intelligence along with academic intelligence. c) They are pushed by parents who set high expectations for their children. d) They are raised in stimulating environments. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss intellectual disability and giftedness. Section Reference: Extremes in Intelligence 385. Children who are deemed ‘gifted’ share some common characteristics. Which of the following is NOT one of these characteristics? a) They are intrinsically motivated. b) They have difficulties with social and emotional intelligence. c) They are pushed by parents who set high expectations for their children. d) They are raised in stimulating environments. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss intellectual disability and giftedness. Section Reference: Extremes in Intelligence 386. In what way is the label ‘intellectual disability’ like a label of ‘giftedness’? a) Both labels are obvious early in infancy. b) Both labels are solidified after adolescence. c) Both labels depend on more than just IQ scores. d) Both labels cover the same proportion of the population. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss intellectual disability and giftedness. Section Reference: Extremes in Intelligence.

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MATCHING QUESTION 387. Match the appropriate terms in the left column to the definitions in the right column. Terms g factor s factor Theory of multiple intelligence Triarchic theory of intelligence Bioecological theory of intelligence F. Standardization G. Normal distribution H. Learning disability I. Intellectual disability J. Down’s syndrome K. Reliability L. Validity M. Content validity N. Predictive validity O. Mental age P. Chronological age Q. Intelligence quotient A. B. C. D. E.

___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___

Definitions 1. Intelligence is a function of the interactions among innate potential abilities, environmental context, and internal motivation. 2. A discrepancy between assessed intelligence and achievement. 3. The use of uniform procedures in administering and scoring a test. 4. A measure of intelligence developed by Terman. 5. The extent to which a test accurately measures or predicts what it is supposed to measure or predict. 6. Theory that intelligence is made up of three interacting components. 7. The intellectual age at which a person is functioning versus how old the person is. 8. A theoretical specific factor uniquely tied to a distinct mental ability or area of functioning. 9. An inherited disorder, usually caused by the presence of extra chromosomal material on the twenty-first chromosome.

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

ANSWERS TO MATCHING QUESTION 1.

E: Bioecological theory of intelligence

H: Learning disability

F: Standardization

Q: Intelligence quotient

L: Validity

D: Triarchic theory of intelligence

O: Mental age

B: s factor

J: Down’s syndrome

Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

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FILL-IN-THE-BLANK 388. The ability to understand and control one’s mental activity is known as ___. Answer: metacognition Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 389. Spearman developed a statistical technique called ___ for analyzing intelligence. Answer: factor analysis Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 390. Psychologist Howard Gardner is known for this theory of ___. Answer: multiple intelligences Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 391. Using Sternberg’s theory of intelligence, the ___ component is used when tasks are novel. Answer: creative or external Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 392. Gardner’s theory that various intelligences emanate from different areas of the brain has caused it to be called a ___ of mental functioning.

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Answer: modular model Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 393. Individuals must be ___ motivated to fulfill their innate abilities and take advantage of their environment. Answer: internally Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 394. People with well-developed emotional intelligence tend to know how to comfort and encourage others. This element of emotional intelligence is referred to as ___. Answer: empathy Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss several proposed types of intelligence that go beyond intellectual functioning. Section Reference: Additional Types of Intelligence 395. According to Sternberg, wisdom is primarily the product of ___ intelligence. Answer: practical Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss several proposed types of intelligence that go beyond intellectual functioning. Section Reference: Additional Types of Intelligence 396. Creative people often have a ___ personality, such that they are willing to tolerate risk, ambiguity, and initial failure. Answer: game Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

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Learning Objective: Discuss several proposed types of intelligence that go beyond intellectual functioning. Section Reference: Additional Types of Intelligence 397. Intelligence test constructors typically assume a ___ view of test scores, where one person’s test score can be compared to another’s. Answer: comparative Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 398. The average score in a distribution is known as the ___. Answer: mean Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 399. A correlation called a ___ coefficient correlates test scores with some related external criterion. Answer: validity Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 400. Binet introduced the idea of ___ to illustrate how a child is intellectually functioning. Answer: mental age Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence?

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401. Some argue that Western and Eastern intelligence test results CANNOT be compared because of ___ bias. Answer: cultural Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 402. If genetic factors more clearly influence intelligence, ___ twins should have more similar IQ scores than fraternal twins. Answer: identical Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 403. Investigations of financially poor schools have demonstrated that the ___ of the school environment affects intellectual performance. Answer: quality Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 404. Researchers may investigate the bioelectrical activity of the brain by using a(n) ___. Answer: electroencephalogram (EEG) Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how brain size, number of neurons, processing speed, brain activity, and cortical maturation relate to intelligence. Section Reference: The Brain and Intelligence 405. Quade’s PET scan research suggests that verbal tests activate the left lateral ___ cortex. Answer: prefrontal

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how brain size, number of neurons, processing speed, brain activity, and cortical maturation relate to intelligence. Section Reference: The Brain and Intelligence 406. Longitudinal research by Shaw suggests that changes in the thickness of the ___ have implications for the development of intelligence. Answer: cortex Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how brain size, number of neurons, processing speed, brain activity, and cortical maturation relate to intelligence. Section Reference: The Brain and Intelligence 407. People with IQ scores between 50 and 70 are sometimes referred to as ___intellectually disabled because they can benefit from education and can support themselves as adults. Answer: moderately Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss intellectual disability and giftedness. Section Reference: Extremes in Intelligence 408. Terman defined gifted individuals as those who scored above ___ on intelligence tests. Answer: 140 Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss intellectual disability and giftedness. Section Reference: Extremes in Intelligence

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SHORT ANSWER ESSAY QUESTIONS 409. According to Spearman, what factor of intelligence underlies all distinct clusters of mental ability? Answer: g factor (general factor) Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 410. What population did Gardner study to provide supportive evidence for his theory of multiple intelligences? Answer: savants Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 411. On what construct does practical intelligence often rely? Answer: tacit knowledge Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 412. What is needed for a person with superior innate mental abilities to develop to their full potential? Answer: an encouraging environmental context Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence?

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413. What learning theorist postulated about the existence of social intelligence? Answer: Thorndike Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss several proposed types of intelligence that go beyond intellectual functioning. Section Reference: Additional Types of Intelligence 414. Who developed the balance theory of wisdom to describe how wisdom is a special version of intelligence? Answer: Sternberg Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss several proposed types of intelligence that go beyond intellectual functioning. Section Reference: Additional Types of Intelligence 415. Which theorist believed that intelligence is a manifestation of personality? Answer: Wechsler Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss several proposed types of intelligence that go beyond intellectual functioning. Section Reference: Additional Types of Intelligence 416. What process is defined as obtaining meaningful test scores from a sample population using uniform procedures? Answer: standardization Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 417. What did the intelligence quotient (IQ) originally represent? Answer: relationship or ratio between mental and chronological age Difficulty: Easy

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Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 418. What testing phenomenon may occur when people from a particular group perform poorly because they fear that their performance will conform to some negative belief about the group? Answer: stereotype threat Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 419. What did Plomin and colleagues find the correlation of IQ scores between identical twins to be? Answer: +.86 Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 420. The finding that rice farmers in Liberia are particularly adept at estimating quantities represents what type of influence on intelligence? Answer: cultural Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 421. What two trends in group differences in intelligence have been observed? Answer: Racial groups do have different average scores on intelligence tests. High-scoring individuals are more likely to attain higher levels of education and income. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy.

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Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 422. What term describes the speed at which electrical impulses are transmitted along nerve fibres and across synapses? Answer: nerve conduction velocity Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how brain size, number of neurons, processing speed, brain activity, and cortical maturation relate to intelligence. Section Reference: The Brain and Intelligence 423. What two areas of the brain may be activated by spatial tasks? Answer: left and right lateral prefrontal cortices Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how brain size, number of neurons, processing speed, brain activity, and cortical maturation relate to intelligence. Section Reference: The Brain and Intelligence 424. Changes in cortical thickness may be associated with what phenomenon? Answer: neural pruning Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how brain size, number of neurons, processing speed, brain activity, and cortical maturation relate to intelligence. Section Reference: The Brain and Intelligence 425. What generally causes severe and profound levels of intellectual disability? Answer: genetic and biological factors Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss intellectual disability and giftedness. Section Reference: Extremes in Intelligence 426. In Terman’s study, what name was given to participants with high intelligence scores who were studied longitudinally? Answer: Termites

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss intellectual disability and giftedness. Section Reference: Extremes in Intelligence

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ESSAY QUESTIONS 427. Describe the distinction between the g factor of intelligence and the s factor of intelligence as argued by Spearman. Answer: The g factor is a generalized factor that underlies all distinct clusters of mental ability, whereas the s factor is uniquely tied to specific areas of functioning. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 428. How does evidence from brain-damaged patients support Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligences? Answer: Damage to a specific structures in the brain may impair some abilities while leaving others intact. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 429. According to Sternberg, what type of intelligence is useful to possess in the workplace, and why is it important? Answer: Practical intelligence relies on tacit knowledge that is gleaned from experience in the business environment. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 430. Describe the prevailing theory of intelligence held by modern psychologists. Answer: Most modern psychologists support a hierarchical model of intelligence, in which they agree that a g factor is at work in every task, while special abilities and factors may selectively be used in some contexts but not others. Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation

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Learning Objective: Describe various ways in which intelligence has been defined and summarize the current thinking on whether intelligence is general or specific. Section Reference: What Do We Mean by Intelligence? 431. Describe how Thorndike viewed social intelligence. Answer: ability to act wisely in human relationships Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss several proposed types of intelligence that go beyond intellectual functioning. Section Reference: Additional Types of Intelligence 432. Define creativity and provide an example of one creative solution you have used to address a problem in the past. Answer: Ability to produce ideas that are original and valuable; provide applicable example of a creative solution related to a specific problem. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss several proposed types of intelligence that go beyond intellectual functioning. Section Reference: Additional Types of Intelligence 433. Describe 3 qualities of a “creative” environment. Answer: Encouraging people to be innovative, relatively free of criticism, provide freedom, creative role models, sufficient resources, and time to think and explore. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss several proposed types of intelligence that go beyond intellectual functioning. Section Reference: Additional Types of Intelligence 434. Name and describe the statistical pattern intelligence test scores tend to follow? Answer: Scores tend to follow a normal distribution, such that most individuals achieve similar scores at or near the centre of the distribution. A smaller percentage of individuals score on the extreme high and low ends of the distribution. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests.

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Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 435. Explain 2 different methods that can be used to measure the reliability of scores obtained from a testing instrument. Answer: Administer alternate versions of the test to the same people to determine whether the scores are correlated; split-half method would split one test in half and correlate an individual’s scores from each half. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 436. Describe Galton’s theory of psychophysical intelligence. Answer: More intelligent people have more energy to perform work and greater perceptual sensitivity to external stimuli. Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 437. Explain the Matthew Effect. Answer: Children with unaddressed reading issues will have intelligence test scores that fall back further and further from those of their peers as they move through their elementary school years. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 438. Terman was an advocate of the eugenics movement. How did his work with intelligence tests address this philosophy? Answer: Concept that “fit” individuals should reproduce; “fit” was defined by IQ scores. Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests.

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Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 439. Define the Flynn effect and identify 2 factors that may contribute to changes in IQ. Answer: Finding that IQ scores around the world are rising over time; factors that contribute to this effect may include better education, better nutrition, and evolutionary shifts in genetic inheritance. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Identify important considerations in the construction of intelligence tests, discuss the history of intelligence testing, and describe some criticisms of intelligence tests. Section Reference: How Do We Measure Intelligence? 440. Describe the research methodology that Plomin and colleagues used to isolate the genetic component of IQ. Answer: Assessed the IQ of identical twins separated at birth and raised in different homes. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 441. Define the concept of reaction range. Answer: Reaction range is the upper and lower level of intelligence or other outcomes made possible by a child’s genetic nature. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 442. Describe how Taiwanese-Chinese intelligence theorists define intelligence. Answer: Postulated about five factors of intelligence including a general cognitive factor, interpersonal intelligence, intrapersonal intelligence, intellectual self-assertion, and intellectual self-effacement. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors?

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443. Discuss two ways in which a lack of finances in a family may contribute to less intellectual stimulation in children? Answer: Likely to provide fewer books and educational toys, parents read to their children less, poor children encounter early environmental limitations. Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Review the contributions of biological and environmental factors to intelligence, and explain how emphasizing different factors can affect social policy. Section Reference: How is Intelligence Influenced by Biological and Environmental Factors? 444. Describe EEG findings that address intelligence. Answer: Assessing how quickly people process stimuli that are flashed before their eyes suggest that more intelligent people may be physiologically wired to acquire and utilize information more quickly than others. Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe how brain size, number of neurons, processing speed, brain activity, and cortical maturation relate to intelligence. Section Reference: The Brain and Intelligence 445. Describe general findings from PET studies that indicate that glucose metabolism is associated with intelligence. Answer: Individuals who perform well on an intellectual task show less brain activity than others. This suggests that the brains of highly intelligent people do not need to work as hard as the brains of less intelligent people. Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe how brain size, number of neurons, processing speed, brain activity, and cortical maturation relate to intelligence. Section Reference: The Brain and Intelligence 446. What pattern of cortical thickening was demonstrated by the most intelligent participants in Shaw’s study? Answer: Highly intelligent participants started with a thin cortex during childhood and it gradually thickened until the age of 11 or 12, and then began and continued thinning throughout the late teenage years. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension

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Learning Objective: Describe how brain size, number of neurons, processing speed, brain activity, and cortical maturation relate to intelligence. Section Reference: The Brain and Intelligence 447. Explain the possible effect of crowdsourcing on brain size. Answer: Greater decreases in brain size appear to be correlated with increased population density. Some scientists believe that an individual brain doesn’t need to be as big because people can rely on each other to help solve problems of living. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how brain size, number of neurons, processing speed, brain activity, and cortical maturation relate to intelligence. Section Reference: The Brain and Intelligence 448. Describe 3 characteristics of Down’s syndrome? Answer: small heads, slanted eyes, high cheekbones, reduced intellectual functioning, very affectionate with family members Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss intellectual disability and giftedness. Section Reference: Extremes in Intelligence 449. Discuss 2 common characteristics of gifted individuals. Answer: intrinsically motivated, raised in nurturing and stimulating environments, may display social and emotional difficulties Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss intellectual disability and giftedness. Section Reference: Extremes in Intelligence

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CHAPTER 11 MOTIVATION AND EMOTION CHAPTER LEARNING OBJECTIVES 1. Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. • Several theories offer explanations for our motivation, but no single theory can explain all our behaviour. • Instinct theory, which suggests that environmental cues stimulate inborn behavioural instincts, best explains motivation that serves basic biological drives, such as eating, drinking, and sex. • Drive-reduction theory suggests that internal homeostatic mechanisms produce balance within the body by reducing arousal stemming from unmet basic biological needs. • Arousal theory explains why we sometimes seek to increase arousal levels. The YerkesDodson law proposes that task performance is best if our arousal level matches that needed for a task. • Incentive learning produces extrinsic motivation to engage in experiences that do not fulfill basic biological drives. Primary and secondary incentives may both be involved. Different incentives motivate different people. Incentive motivation involves brain systems associated with pleasure, incentive learning, and the neurochemical opiate dopamine. • Maslow proposed that we are motivated by a hierarchy of needs, in which basic survival needs must be satisfied before higher-level needs for belonging, achievement, and selfactualization. 2. Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. • Thirst is the biological drive to consume fluids. We need fluid inside and outside of our cells to maintain proper cellular functioning. Our bodies our approximately 60 percent water. While it is rare, some individuals can die from water intoxication. • Hunger, our motivation to eat, is created by the interaction of signals from our stomachs, levels of food-related chemicals in our blood, and brain activity, particularly in the hypothalamus. • Culture and individual differences interact with our basic biological need for food to determine what foods we will eat, when and with whom we like to eat, and how much we eat. • Obesity is a major public-health problem in North America. It is usually caused by overeating, which can result from an interaction between genes and the environment. • Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder in which individuals believe they are fat and eat too little. Bulimia nervosa is an eating disorder in which people binge on food, then purge themselves of the food before it can add weight to their bodies. Binge eating disorder occurs when people gorge themselves on food over repeated sessions. 3. Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. • Several factors influence the people we choose to mate with, including age, body morphology, intelligence, and creativity. • Sexual practices driven by sexual motivation vary widely as a result of cultural influences.

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Research consistently shows a great deal of variety in normal sexual behaviour throughout healthy adulthood. Testosterone and other hormones affect our motivation for sexual behaviour. Many parts of our brains become active during sexual arousal and behaviour.

4. Describe how unconscious/conscious, approach/avoidance, intrinsic/extrinsic, and fixed/growth mindsets affect our motivational drive. • We are all driven by conscious and unconscious processes that influence our motivations to act. • All of us are influenced by internal motivation—doing something because it feels good— and external motivation—gaining a reward for a behaviour. In some cases, individuals are amotivated and do not have a drive to perform even the simplest of behaviours such as getting out of bed. • Approach motivation is the desire to work toward a goal that gives us pleasure versus avoidance motivation where we perform a behaviour to avoid a painful experience. • Growth and fixed mindsets can influence our motivational states. 5. Describe factors that influence our psychological motivations for affiliation and achievement. • Affiliation represents our need to interact with others, not only for survival, but also for selfworth. • Isolation puts people at risk of psychological impairments. • Self-determination theory suggests that we need competence, relatedness, and autonomy to realize our potential. • Achievement through intrinsic motivation does not involve incentives. • Individuals who are able to delay gratification can focus on goals and ignore distractions. 6. Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. • An emotion is an intrapersonal state that occurs in response to an external or internal event and includes three components: a physiological component, a cognitive component, and a behavioural component. • Researchers typically use three kinds of information to measure emotion: behavioural displays of emotion, self-reports of emotion, and physiological reactions. • Emotions serve many functions. They add colour to our lives, give us information about important events in the environment, stir us to action when necessary, and help us to coordinate relationships with others. 7. Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. • The conventional common-sense explanation of emotion holds that an event triggers an emotion, which leads to physiological changes, followed by a response to the situation. • In contrast, the James-Lange theory proposes that the emotion we feel results from bodily and behavioural responses to environmental stimuli, rather than causing those responses. • According to the Cannon-Bard theory, physiological arousal by itself cannot produce complex emotional experiences. Rather, the perception of an emotionally-stirring event

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

simultaneously sends messages to parts of the brain responsible for the subjective experience of emotion and physiological arousal. Schachter and Singer’s Two-Factor theory holds that an emotional state is a function of both physiological arousal and cognition. Building on Schachter and Singer’s Two-Factor theory, cognitive-mediational theory proposes that cognitive interpretations, and particularly appraisals, of events are in fact the keys to the experience of emotions. The facial-feedback theory of emotion, based on the ideas of Darwin, holds that facial expressions that occur in response to stimuli provide feedback to the brain that helps to shape emotional experience. Evolutionary theorists believe that emotions have been shaped by natural selection and that certain emotions have been passed down because of their role in the survival of our species.

8. Identify some factors that influence whether or not a person is happy. • Researchers have tended to focus on negative emotions, in part because of difficulties in measuring positive emotions. • Identifying what makes people happy can be difficult. Research has shown that good relationships, employment, and good health are among the things that can make people happy. In particular, though, temperament and personality predict happiness.

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TRUE-FALSE STATEMENTS 1. Many of our basic motives are innate. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 2. When an external factor alters the state of balance in an organism and it is motivated to correct that balance, the external factor creates an incentive. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 3. When an internal factor alters the state of balance in an organism, a motivation arises to correct the balance. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 4. Arousal theory deviates from drive-reduction theory because we are NOT always motivated to reduce arousal back to some neutral state. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 5. According to drive-reduction theory, if working on commission motivates you to sell more of a product, it is serving to reduce your drive to make money. Answer: False

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 6. Incentive theory highlights the influence of external stimuli on behaviour. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 7. According to drive-reduction theory, you drink water when you are thirsty to reinstate homeostasis. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 8. Letitia recently moved to a new city. According to Maslow, Letitia will be motivated to look for a new job before she looks for an apartment. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 9. Carl Rogers is famous for developing the hierarchy of needs model. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 10. Without water we would live for, at most, three days.

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Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 11. There is no such thing as water intoxication. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 12. If we did NOT have biological signals from the stomach, we would NEVER be hungry. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 13. The ventromedial region of the hypothalamus plays a role in satiation. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 14. The brain circuitry involved in eating is also active in a variety of motivational situations. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 15. People eat less when they are in a social setting. Answer: False

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 16. The body mass index is calculated as a fat-to-muscle ratio. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 17. Many of the diet programs available today have long-term, successful outcomes. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 18. A person who has an obese friend is less likely to be obese themselves. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 19. Statistics suggest that 1 in 50 young women in Canada exhibit symptoms of anorexia. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 20. The number of eyespots on the peacock’s tail predicts whether a peahen will find him attractive. Answer: False

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 21. In all known cultures, sex with 9-year-old children is considered unacceptable. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 22. Kinsey’s work during the 1940s led to the realization that “normal” people engage in sexual behaviours such as oral sex, anal sex, and having multiple partners. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 23. Testosterone is only associated with the male sex drive. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 24. Areas of the human brain related to sexual arousal can become activated even if people are presented with erotic photographs so quickly that they are NOT consciously aware of the stimuli. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 25. Sexual orientation is a continuum, and that many people are NOT exclusively heterosexual or homosexual. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 26. School performance is affected by both physical and psychological needs. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe factors that influence our psychological motivations for affiliation and achievement. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Affiliation and Achievement 27. Elderly spouses who provide more care for one another tend to live longer than those who are less considerate of one another. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe factors that influence our psychological motivations for affiliation and achievement. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Affiliation and Achievement 28. When we are denied contact with other humans, our motivation to achieve self-actualization increases. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe factors that influence our psychological motivations for affiliation and achievement. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Affiliation and Achievement

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29. Biological motivations CANNOT be inhibited. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe factors that influence our psychological motivations for affiliation and achievement. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Affiliation and Achievement 30. By 2 years of age, children can see the value of trading the acceptance of one candy for a whole bag of candy if they simply wait 30 minutes. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe factors that influence our psychological motivations for affiliation and achievement. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Affiliation and Achievement 31. A universal definition of emotion has eluded scientists. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 32. Physical manifestations of emotions such as anxiety are produced by our autonomic nervous system. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 33. Happiness is almost universally expressed with a smile. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy

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Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 34. Most human beings act to maximize positive experience. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 35. According to the James-Lange theory of emotion, an experience without a physiological response CANNOT induce an emotion. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 36. The Cannon-Bard theory of emotion postulates that the subjective experience of emotion and the activation of the sympathetic nervous system occur simultaneously. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 37. Emotional arousal related to the height of a bridge can be misinterpreted as sexual attraction. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion

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38. Facial expressions NOT only express an emotion but also intensify the physiological experience of the emotion. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 39. A rise in blood brain temperature is related to the experience of positive emotions. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 40. Wealthy people report being less happy than those of modest means. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify some factors that influence whether or not a person is happy. Section Reference: What about Positive Emotions?

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MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 41. How do psychologists define motivation? a) a condition that directs behaviour toward arousal b) a condition that directs behaviour toward a goal c) a condition that satisfies an emotional desire d) a condition that directs behaviour for survival Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 42. When you are engaging in goal-directed behavior, you may be best described as experiencing a) drive reduction. b) an incentive. c) emotion. d) motivation. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 43. Which of the following is probably NOT one of the motives driving Kobayashi to enter hot dog eating contests? a) hunger b) attention c) fame d) money Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 44. Jeremy has engaged in all the following behaviours today. Which of the following behaviours is instinctive? a) driving to work

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b) watching sports when bored c) reading when sleepy d) eating when hungry Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 45. Erin was munching on a piece of toast, watching a Snapchat of her partner rock climbing. She admired the fit body of her partner and wished she were in town, then decided she should get down to work on her history paper. She did not want to ruin her 4.0 GPA. Three basic _____ of hunger, arousal, and achievement are evident in Erin. a) emotions b) feelings c) motives d) incentives Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 46. What is the definition of an instinct? a) A set of factors that activate, direct, and maintain behavior. b) The body’s tendency to maintain a balanced and stable internal state. c) An organism’s tendency to achieve and maintain an optimal level of arousal. d) An organism's tendency to achieve and maintain an optimal level of arousal. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 47. What term is used in the textbook to describe a set of “behavioural blueprints?” a) condition b) goal c) emotional desire d) instinct Answer: d

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 48. Maggie received a baby rabbit for her birthday and introduced it to her full-grown dog. The rabbit reacted by quickly hopping away from the dog to hide under a table. The rabbit’s reaction to the dog is an example of a) instinct. b) optimal-arousal. c) drive reduction. d) homeostasis. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 49. In her science class, Jenn is asked to explain the unusual behavior of the large blue caterpillar. After hatching, the large blue caterpillar falls to the ground to be carried away by a red ant. The caterpillar lives among the ants until it matures into a butterfly. Then, the ants protect it until it is ready to fly. Which of the following provides the BEST explanation for this behavior? a) It is instinctive. b) It is motivated by drive-reduction. c) It is motivated by the desire for an optimal state of arousal. d) It is motivated by external incentive. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 50. What argument suggests that the instinct theory of motivation is INCORRECT? a) Some behaviours are innate. b) Instincts persist throughout life. c) The need for social interaction changes over time. d) Instinct theory cannot explain differences among individuals. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation.

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Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 51. Which of the following is NOT true regarding instinct theory? a) Instincts do not account for all behaviour. b) Instincts cannot explain differences between individuals. c) Instincts exist only in nonhuman species. d) Freud was a proponent of instinct theory. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 52. What is the term for a state of biological equilibrium? a) homeostasis b) self-actualization c) attribution d) biopsychosocial Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 53. What is the term for the body’s natural tendency to maintain a state of internal balance? a) homeostasis b) expectancy c) attribution d) instinct Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 54. Which theory of motivation states that our behaviours are attempts by the body to maintain homeostasis? a) drive reduction b) instinct c) arousal d) incentive

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 55. According to drive theory of motivation, if you eat when you are hungry, what is the result of eating? a) drive fulfillment and incentive reduction b) drive reduction and physiological equilibrium c) instinct fulfillment and physiological equilibrium d) arousal reduction and drive fulfillment Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 56. Which major theory of motivation believes that behaviour is motivated by biological needs to maintain the body in a state of balance? a) instinct b) drive reduction c) hierarchy of needs d) incentive Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 57. Stella went for a long run on a hot day and is thirsty. She gets a satisfying drink of water the minute she steps in the door. What theory of motivation would best explain Stella’s behaviour? a) hierarchy of needs b) instinct c) incentive d) drive reduction Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation.

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Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 58. Which of the following is explained by the drive-reduction theory of motivation? a) Omar decides to stay in the pool even after he has cooled down. b) Even though he is not thirsty, Joshua decides to drink another delicious glass of lemonade. c) Jeffrey stops running in the marathon once all his vital signs are at their maximum. d) Janice does not eat the chocolate cake offered to her because she is on a diet. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 59. ___________ theory suggests that organisms are motivated to achieve and maintain an optimal level of stimulation that maximizes their performance. a) Stimulation b) Arousal c) Motivational d) Drive-reduction Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 60. The law stating that ideal performance on a task occurs when the arousal level is optimized to the difficulty level of the task is known as ____________. a) optimal arousal b) levels of arousal c) Yerkes-Dodson d) optimal performance Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 61. Low levels of arousal lead to ____________ and high levels of arousal lead to_____________. a) reduced behaviour efficiency; reduced behaviour efficiency b) increased behaviour efficiency; reduced behaviour efficiency

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

c) increased behaviour efficiency; increased behaviour efficiency d) reduced behaviour efficiency; increased behaviour efficiency Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 62. Jane was adopted at birth by a family who led a relatively sedentary lifestyle. Jane knew early on that she was somehow "different" from her adoptive family, as she enjoyed fast-paced activities that bordered on being dangerous. Unlike her adoptive sister, who spent hours playing in her room with dolls, Jane practiced Tae-Kwon-Do and skateboarding. What is the BEST explanation for Jane’s underlying behavioral differences when compared to her adoptive family? a) Jane likes a higher level of arousal that the members of her adoptive family do. b) Jane has ADHD while members of her adoptive family do not. c) Jane is driven by seeking an optimal state of arousal, while members of her adoptive family are driven by extrinsic rewards. d) Jane desires to maintain a state of homeostasis, while members of her adoptive family do not. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 63. Kent is a 17-year-old who is facing possible time in a juvenile detention center due to being arrested several times. His arrests tend to be based on spur-of-the-moment decisions and all have involved excessive risk-taking. His parents are wealthy and have pledged their desire to help their son avoid juvenile detention in any way possible. What would you recommend to Kent’s lawyer? a) Kent should work with a therapist to learn to channel his need for high arousal into more appropriate, and legal, activities that still meet this need. b) Kent should work with a social worker to learn to function optimally at a lower level of arousal than the high level he has grown accustomed to. c) Kent’s parents should work with his attorney and the juvenile judge to enroll him in a vocational school since this will help him on the path of becoming self-actualized. d) Kent should work with his probation officer to learn how to maintain and function within a balanced state of homeostasis, as opposed to following goal-directed behaviors. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation

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64. Avery is about to skydive for the first time, and she is terrified. However, she does it anyway, and screams from the moment she jumps out of the plane until she is on the ground. What theory of motivation would have the most difficult time explaining this behaviour? a) hierarchy of needs b) incentive c) arousal d) drive reduction Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 65. Which of the following behaviours CANNOT be explained by drive-reduction theory? a) temperature regulation b) skydiving c) fluid intake d) sexual behaviour Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 66. How is an instinct similar to a drive? a) Both involve unlearned physiological responses. b) Both involve learned physiological responses. c) Both aim to restore homeostasis. d) Both seek to maintain optimal arousal. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 67. Unlearned physiological responses are involved in both a) instincts and drives. b) homeostasis and self-actualization. c) incentives and attributions. d) disinhibition and expectancies.

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 68. How is the drive-reduction theory of motivation different from the incentive theory? a) Drive-reduction theory emphasizes innate motivation, whereas incentive theory emphasizes the effect of outside variables on motivation. b) Drive-reduction theory emphasizes eliminating anxiety, whereas incentive theory acknowledges the need for anxiety. c) Incentive theory acknowledges motivation toward desirable and undesirable goals, whereas drive-reduction theory emphasizes desirable goals. d) Incentive theory explains uncommon behaviors, whereas drive-reduction theory explains behaviors found in all members of a species. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 69. Which of the following is a problem for both the instinct and drive-reduction theories of motivation? a) the fact that dopamine is triggers by reward b) the fact that we are capable of voluntarily making decisions c) the fact that most people do well with high arousal when a task is simple d) the fact that our needs progress through a hierarchy Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 70. Which of the following is a criticism of BOTH instinct and drive-reduction theory? a) They infer that all behaviours are innate. b) They have difficulty explaining group differences. c) They rely too much on biological explanations. d) They do not acknowledge voluntary decision-making in their theories. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium

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Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 71. What theory of motivation is based on the concept of homeostasis? a) instinct b) drive reduction c) arousal d) incentive Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 72. What term is used to describe the body’s internal state of balance or equilibrium? a) symmetry b) instinct c) arousal d) homeostasis Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 73. While on a multi-day hiking trip with his daughter, Mia, Jamie realizes he miscalculated the amount of food the pair would need. He feeds the last two meals to his daughter while he goes hungry. Jamie is eager to finish the trip so he can enjoy a complete meal. What is implied here? a) Jamie is experiencing heightened drive, while Mia is experiencing homeostasis. b) Mia is experiencing drive-reduction, while Jamie is experiencing homeostasis. c) Jamie is experiencing arousal, while Mia is experiencing incentive. d) Mia is experiencing arousal, while Jamie is experiencing incentive. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 74. After completing a 10k run, Jada is covered in sweat and is very thirsty. Which of the following most accurately matches Jada’s behaviours with motivational theories?

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

a) Sweating –- instinct theory; thirst – drive-reduction theory b) Sweating – drive-reduction theory; thirst – drive-reduction theory c) Sweating – instinct theory; thirst – instinct theory d) Sweating – drive-reduction theory; thirst – instinct theory Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 75. Yassine lay on the beach in the hot sun for several hours and was hot and thirsty; he towelled off and went into the hotel for water. Which of the following most accurately matches Yassine’s behaviours with motivational theories? a) Sweating –- instinct theory; thirst – drive-reduction theory b) Sweating – drive-reduction theory; thirst – drive-reduction theory c) Sweating – instinct theory; thirst – instinct theory d) Sweating – drive-reduction theory; thirst – instinct theory Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 76. How does arousal theory differ from drive-reduction theory? a) Motivation always counteracts homeostasis. b) Motivation may not always arise from a reduction of arousal. c) Over-arousal is always stimulating. d) Motivation always defers to homeostasis. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 77. What behaviour does arousal theory explain that instinct and drive-reduction theories of motivation CANNOT? a) hunger b) curiosity c) thirst d) sexual Answer: b

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Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 78. Both instinct and drive reduction theory have a problem accounting for _____. a) maintenance of emotional equilibrium b) internal biological factors c) voluntary decision making d) seeking social connections Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 79. The _____ theory of motivation can explain the non-goal-directed behaviours associated with curiosity? a) arousal b) instinct c) drive reduction d) incentive Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 80. Ever since one-year-old Tasha started walking, she seems to be getting into everything and often tries to get into the kitchen cupboards. Or, if her mother gives her small boxes, Tasha will spend a long time trying to see what is inside each of them. Which theory best explains Tasha’s need to explore? a) instinct theory b) drive-reduction theory c) arousal theory d) incentive theory Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

81. Liam and Paige got married on a high bridge and started their honeymoon with a bungeejump from the bridge. Which type of motive best explains their behaviour? a) achievement motive b) androgynous motive c) arousal motive d) the need for self-actualization Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 82. Andrea has discovered that she studies more effectively when placing herself under a moderate amount of pressure and stress. For example, if she attempts to study a week before an important exam, her mind wanders, and she is unable to pay attention. In contrast, when she studies the night before a big exam, she is highly motivated to learn the material. This is an example of which theory of motivation? a) arousal theory b) drive-reduction theory c) incentive theory d) instinct theory Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 83. Sam often spends time with his friends in small groups or at intimate dinner parties but avoids night clubs or parties with lots of people because they tend to make him feel stressed and exhausted. This is an example of a) arousal theory. b) drive-reduction theory. c) incentive theory. d) self-actualization theory. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation

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84. According to the Yerkes-Dodson law, what is the relationship between arousal level and task difficulty? a) There is no relationship. b) They are inversely related. c) This law does not address arousal. d) This law does not address task difficulty. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 85. Marc-Andre works on an assembly line building brooms and he enjoys listening to music during the workday to liven up his workday. However, at home when he builds model airplanes, he is thoroughly engaged, and needs absolute quiet during this task. What law explains this difference in Mark’s need for arousal? a) Law of Relative Arousal b) Yansoff-Dorgenin c) Yerkes-Dodson d) Fitt’s First Law of Motivation Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 86. Sebastian is performing an extremely complex task that involves his full concentration. According to the Yerkes-Dodson law, what would be Sebastian’s optimal level of arousal for him while performing the task? a) low-medium b) low c) medium-high d) high Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 87. Ideal performance occurs on a task when arousal level is properly matched to the difficulty of the task. This conclusion represents an extension of the original _____. a) instinct theory.

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

b) Yerkes-Dodson law. c) drive reduction theory. d) arousal theory. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 88. Which of the following tasks might NOT be disrupted by highly arousing circumstances? a) performing surgery b) defusing a bomb c) piloting an airplane during takeoffs/landings d) running a marathon Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 89. Which of the following tasks might NOT be disrupted by highly arousing circumstances? a) studying for an important test be given in an hour b) reading an intriguing book with a detailed plot line c) piloting an airplane during takeoffs/landings d) studying for review Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 90. The law stating that ideal performance on a task occurs when the arousal level is optimized to the difficulty level of the task is known as the ________ law. a) optimal-arousal b) arousal-task c) Yerkes-Dodson d) Schachter-Singer Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis

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Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 91. When Dr. Feldon, a neurosurgeon, is operating on his patient’s brain, he likes to have his favorite music playing in the room because he thinks it lowers his arousal level. Which of the following would support Dr. Feldon’s claim? a) law of Optimal Arousal b) Yerkes-Dodson law c) Arousal-task law d) Schachter-Singer law Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 92. Rowan’s car just broke down, so she has to run the rest of the way to school and arrives 5 minutes late for her psychology exam. Her heart is pounding, and she can hardly catch her breath. According to arousal theory, how well will Rowan perform on her exam? a) she will ace the exam b) she will be average in her performance c) her performance will be less than optimal on the exam d) there is not enough information to determine how well she will perform Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 93. Which major theory of motivation believes that behaviour is motivated by internal (intrinsic) or external (extrinsic) incentives or rewards? a) instinct b) drive reduction c) incentive d) hierarchy of needs Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

94. The theory that motivation results from external stimuli pulling people toward a desirable goal is fundamental to a) incentive theory. b) sensation seeking theory. c) drive-reduction theory. d) optimal-arousal theory. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 95. As Lisa detests cleaning her room, it is typically overrun with dirty laundry and toys scattered on the floor. To teach her to keep her room clean, her parents develop a chart that rewards her with a "ticket" each day she maintains a clean room. This is an example of which motivational theory? a) incentive theory b) drive-reduction theory c) arousal theory d) hierarchy of needs Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 96. A 6-year-old watches a folk guitarist on a children's show; immediately after the show, the child asks his parents for a guitar. Which theory of motivation could BEST explain this behavior? a) instinct b) incentive c) drive-reduction d) arousal Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 97. Which of the following is an example of an incentive? a) money b) social recognition c) food

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d) all of these Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 98. Which of the following is a primary incentive? a) sex b) money c) good grades d) praise Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 99. Despite feeling full, Karen cannot resist a hot fudge sundae for dessert. Which theory BEST relates to her motivation to eat the sundae? a) incentive b) instinct c) cognitive d) drive reduction Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 100. After Ian’s mother lost her job, they were evicted from their apartment and have been sleeping in their car. Ian spends each night feeling cold and hungry, but still attends school every day. His teacher, who is unaware of Ian’s circumstances, is becoming frustrated about Ian’s incomplete homework and apparent lack of motivation to learn. If the teacher knew about Ian's situation, she would understand that Ian’s behavior is BEST explained by a) the hierarchy of needs. b) the incentive theory. c) instinct theory. d) homeostasis. Answer: a

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 101. Debi founded a program that provides food and shelter in a secure environment for lowincome families. Once families are settled, Debi connects them with a group for emotional support. Debi’s program is an example of a) the hierarchy of needs. b) the incentive theory. c) the arousal theory. d) the drive-reduction theory. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 102. Simon hates his job at the Piggly Wiggly, but the money is good, so he stays. What theory of motivation would best explain Simon’s behaviour? a) hierarchy of needs b) arousal c) incentive d) drive reduction Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 103. Julia is helping her 10-year-old son with his math homework. Every time he gets a homework question right, she gives him a nickel. In this example, the nickel is an example of a(n) ___. a) primary incentive b) secondary incentive c) intrinsic motivator d) intrinsic incentive Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation

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104. Mia volunteers at a food kitchen because it makes her feel needed and provides her with a social outlet. Lilibet is a regular client who is struggling to put food on the table for her three children, and she frequently comes to the kitchen for meal assistance. What is the difference between Mia and Lilibet? a) Mia is satisfying her belonging and love needs, while Lilibet is satisfying her physiological needs. b) Mia is satisfying her esteem needs, while Lilibet is satisfying her physiological needs. c) Mia is satisfying her self-actualization needs, while Lilibet is satisfying her safety needs. d) Mia is satisfying her belonging and love needs, while Lilibet is satisfying her safety needs. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 105. Jiro was recently hired at a new company and is working to build a rapport with his coworkers. In contrast, his coworker Silas is eager to accumulate accomplishments and advance his career. What is implied here? a) Jiro is operating at the belonging and love level of needs, while Silas is operating at the esteem level of needs. b) Jiro is operating at the safety level of needs, while Silas is operating at the self-actualization level of needs. c) Jiro is operating at the physiological level of needs, while Silas is operating at the belonging and love level of needs. d) Jiro is operating at the esteem level of needs, while Silas is operating at the safety level of needs. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 106. Which of the following is an example of a secondary incentive? a) Jesse is working two jobs to earn the money for the car he wants. b) Amy comes in from working in the yard to put on a hat since she feels the back of her neck getting sunburned. c) Sia spends every minute she can hugging and kissing her new boyfriend. d) Kristian cannot wait until the ice cream he made is cold enough to eat. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 107. Which of the following is an example of a primary incentive? a) Connor stays late at his new job in order to impress his new boss. b) Nora comes in from working in the yard to put on a hat since she feels the back of her neck getting sunburned. c) Riley wants to have the best dress at grad so everyone will admire her. d) Morgan is working at a server job in the evenings, in addition to his fulltime day job, to earn the money he needs to go to Europe with his friends in the fall. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 108. Which of the following is a primary incentive? a) food b) money c) good grades d) praise Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 109. Scientists attribute the different motivational power of certain cues to a) instinct. b) leptin. c) primary incentives. d) incentive salience. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 110. Julie works in sales and receives monthly bonuses if she sells a certain amount of merchandise. Margaret also works in sales; however, she only gets paid minimum wage without any bonuses. According to incentive saliency, which of the following will likely describe each

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woman’s future work behaviour? a) Julie will decrease her work efforts; Margaret will increase her work efforts. b) Julie will increase her work efforts; Margaret will decrease her work efforts. c) Both women will increase their work efforts. d) Both women will decrease their work efforts. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 111. What is the difference between ‘liking’ and ‘wanting’? a) ‘Liking’ refers to the anticipation of pleasure and ‘wanting’ refers to the experience of pleasure. b) ‘Liking’ involves primary incentives and ‘wanting’ involves secondary incentives. c) ‘Liking’ activates the opiate-producing system in the brain and ‘wanting’ activates the dopamine system. d) ‘Liking’ involves the nucleus accumbens and ‘wanting’ involves the prefrontal cortex. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 112. Which of the following BEST describes the brain regions involved in wanting and liking? a) Liking is associated with areas that produce dopamine; wanting is associated with areas that produce opiates. b) Liking and wanting are both associated with areas that produce dopamine. c) Liking is associated with areas that produce opiates; wanting is associated with areas that produce dopamine. d) Liking is associated with areas that produce opiates; liking and wanting are associated with areas that produce dopamine. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 113. Seven-year-old Willis is having a birthday party on the weekend. He has been very excited about the party and has talked about nothing else for two weeks. At the party, Willis cannot stop smiling because he is having so much fun. In this example, Willis’ excitement leading up to the party would be ___________ and his experience at the party would be ________.

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

a) incentive; drive b) liking; wanting c) wanting; liking d) anticipation; wanting Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 114. _____ is associated with pleasure or liking. a) Hallucinogens b) Synthetic compounds c) Narcotics d) Opiates Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 115. “Runner’s high” from intense physical activity occurs due to the release of internal substances in the brain known as ___. a) hallucinogens b) synthetic compounds c) narcotics d) opiates Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 116. What midbrain structure contains dopamine neurons essential for reinforcement learning? a) ventral tegmental area b) basal ganglia c) pons d) nucleus accumbens Answer: a Difficulty: Easy

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Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 117. What neurotransmitter system is generally associated with rewards? a) serotonin b) dopamine c) GABA d) acetylcholine Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 118. Pleasure or liking is often associated with systems within the brain that produce which chemical? a) hallucinogens b) synthetic compounds c) narcotics d) opiates Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 119. Liking is to ___, as wanting is to ___. a) dopamine; opiates b) opiates; glutamate c) opiates; dopamine d) dopamine; glutamate Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 120. Pleasure is to _____________ as reward is to _____________. a) serotonin; dopamine b) dopamine; serotonin

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

c) opiates; dopamine d) dopamine; opiates Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 121. Abraham Maslow was responsible for developing the a) hierarchy of needs. b) theory of attribution. c) concept of sensation seeking. d) idea of homeostasis. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 122. According to Maslow’s hierarchy, where are basic needs such as eating, and drinking located? a) interspersed through the region b) at the tangent of the dodecahedron c) at the apex of the pyramid d) at the base of the pyramid Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 123. The process of self-actualization is a premise in which theory of motivation? a) hierarchy of needs b) drive-reduction c) optimal-arousal d) incentive Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation.

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Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 124. According to Maslow, people who engage in selfless, altruistic behaviour may have reached the level of ___. a) love and belonging needs b) self-actualization c) esteem needs d) unconditional positive regard Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 125. Laura is a single mother of three small children. While she is able to ensure that the most basic nutritional needs of her children are met, she is only able to afford a small apartment in a high-crime area. Which needs in Maslow’s hierarchy is Laura struggling to satisfy? a) safety needs b) physiological needs c) belonging and love needs d) esteem needs Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 126. After being laid off from his job, Ken struggled to make ends meet for several months until he was hired for a new position. He is now able to afford food and move to a home in a quiet neighborhood. What is Ken MOST likely to do next? a) begin socializing with his new coworkers and neighbors b) take classes to become more proficient at his job c) volunteer to help others who are unemployed d) stockpile a large reserve supply of food and water Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 127. Brett enjoyed a successful career as a stockbroker, but he found his greatest fulfillment

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after retirement by volunteering to help teach inner-city children how to read. Which of the following is MOST likely to be TRUE about Brett? a) Brett is working toward self-actualization. b) Brett has attained a state of homeostasis. c) Brett has prosocial instincts. d) Brett is motivated by drive-reduction. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 128. According to Maslow, belonging and self-actualization are _____________ needs and will be satisfied after physiological and safety needs. a) essential b) primary c) higher d) optional Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 129. Tyrone has just moved to a new city. According to Maslow, which of the following best predicts Tyrone’s priorities for settling into this unfamiliar environment? a) making friends, finding a job he really likes, finding an apartment b) getting dinner, finding a job he really likes, finding an apartment c) making friends, finding a job, finding an apartment d) getting dinner, finding an apartment, finding a job he really likes Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 130. Which of the following is a problem for Maslow’s theory? a) Sometimes people do better with complex tasks when they have high arousal. b) Some people give up their basic needs in order to satisfy a higher need. c) It cannot account for individual differences in motivation. d) It cannot explain why our motivations change over time.

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Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 131. In Syria, refugees often sacrificed their own safety in efforts to help others. This behaviour refutes a basic premise of which theory of motivation? a) incentive theory b) drive-reduction theory c) Maslow's theory d) cognitive theory Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 132. Kim has asthma and is prescribed a series of breathing treatments. Initially she is only compliant because she realizes that she needs to get more air into her lungs; however, she continues the treatments because she likes the energetic feeling she experiences. Kim starting the breathing treatments can be explained by _____, whereas her continuing the treatments can be explained by _____. a) drive-reduction theory; incentive theory b) incentive theory; hierarchy of needs c) arousal theory; drive-reduction theory d) hierarchy of needs; arousal theory Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 133. Aiden and Chase are both preparing a term paper for a psychology course. Aiden has learned that if he delays writing until the deadline is close, he becomes paralyzed by anxiety, so he begins at least a week in advance. In contrast, Chase finds that he works better writing the paper the day before it is due. If he writes too far in advance, he is bored and unable to concentrate. Which of the following BEST explains this difference between Aiden and Chase? a) Chase performs optimally at a higher level of arousal than Aiden. b) Chase performs better when an external stimulus pulls him, whereas Aiden performs better when he is pushed by internal drives. c) Aiden performs better with a high level of drive, whereas Chase performs better in a state of homeostasis.

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d) Aiden performs better at the lower levels of Maslow’s hierarchy, whereas Chase performs better at the higher levels of Maslow’s hierarchy. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 134. How long can a person survive without water? a) 1 day b) 3 days c) 5 days d) 10 days Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 135. The fluid found inside our cells is approximately ____ percent of our body weight whereas the fluid found outside of our cells is approximately _____ of our body weight. a) 20; 10 b) 30; 10 c) 30; 20 d) 40; 20 Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 136. Two mechanisms are important for driving the need for water. They are a) volumetric drive and maintenance of an appropriate ions-to-water balance inside the cell b) communication in the nervous system and homeostasis for potassium c) an appropriate ions-to-water balance inside the cell and satiety d) fluid debt and volumetric drive Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat.

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Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 137. In spite of the high heat, Santiago ran a marathon in record time. He accomplished this by skipping drink stations. Consequently, once the race was over, Santiago was very thirsty. He drank a great deal of water very quickly. Santiago is in danger of a) tearing his bladder. b) water intoxication leading to death. c) kidney damage. d) acutely increasing his cortisol levels. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 138. Ninety-three year old, Agnes lived in a Pecos, Texas, close to the Mexican border. At the end of a very hot day, Agnes was found unresponsive by her Meals on Wheels volunteer, and she later died. According to your textbook, what is the most likely reason for Agnes’s death? a) drinking too many soft drinks, disrupting her ion and salt balance b) water intoxication c) inadequate water intake and dehydration d) sun stroke Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 139. Eating occurs as a result of a complex interplay between ________ and ___________ a) social cues; satiety. b) hunger; social cues. c) hunger; satiety. d) genetics; social cues. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 140. Jonah was stranded on a desert island in the Pacific. Once his food ran out, he knew that the maximum time he could survive was

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a) 15 days. b) 25 days. c) 35 days. d) 40 days. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 141. What role does the stomach play in feelings of hunger? a) Stretch receptors in the stomach walls signal fullness or emptiness. b) Stomach contractions signal the brain that it is time to eat again. c) Fullness receptors and stomach contractions both play a role. d) Growling sounds from the stomach motivate a person to eat. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 142. Flynn was on a diet. He knew that the need to eat was biologically ingrained but was surprised at how difficult he was finding the diet given that he was eating adequate amounts of food and better quality food than he had been. What is most likely creating problems for Flynn? a) the level of nutrients circulating in his bloodstream b) hunger signals based on how full/empty his stomach is c) brain signals from the ventromedial region of the hypothalamus d) social factors Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 143. Which behavior of a test animal with a damaged ventromedial hypothalamus is MOST similar to behavior of a test animal with a destroyed ventromedial hypothalamus? a) The test animal may become a particularly selective eater. b) The test animal may overeat leading to obesity. c) The test animal may reject food that does not taste good. d) The test animal may refuse food to the point of starvation. Answer: b

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 144. The fact that animals with a damaged ventromedial hypothalamus do NOT exhibit the same eating behavior as animals with a destroyed ventromedial hypothalamus is MOST suggestive that a) this part of the hypothalamus has no effect on eating behavior, as opposed to earlier beliefs. b) the original views on the effect of parts of the hypothalamus on eating behavior were too simplistic. c) this part of the hypothalamus controls the desire to eat appropriately rather than the desire to stop eating. d) the behavioral effects of this part of the hypothalamus vary greatly depending upon the situation. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 145. Which of the following can activate satiety signals? a) surgically placing a balloon in the stomach b) drinking water c) low leptin levels d) damage to the VMH, increasing levels of insulin. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 146. Which of the following suggests that satiety signals are NOT the MOST important hunger cues? a) People who have their stomachs surgically removed still feel hunger. b) Individuals who have lost weight after having their stomachs stapled keep the weight off. c) People will continue eating after they are no longer hungry. d) Eating large amounts of food can stimulate additional hunger. Answer 1: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis

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Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 147. Norma is an obese woman who recently had a “lap band” procedure. All the following are/will be true for Norma EXCEPT which of the following? a) Norma will eat less, but she may continue to feel hungry. b) Norma will lose weight; but will gain some or all the weight back again. c) Norma will only be able to eat small meals, but because this will stimulate her hunger, she will eat more meals each day. d) The stretch receptors in Norma’s stomach will fail to send signals after a significant period has passed. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 148. What surgical technique might a physician use to activate stretch receptors in the stomach? a) placing a balloon in the stomach b) inserting nerve blocks c) reducing arterial flow of blood to the stomach d) removing a portion of the stomach Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 149. Which of the following is a chemical cue related to the metabolism of food that can signal hunger and satiety? a) progesterone b) leptin c) cortisol d) inosine Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger

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150. Another name for blood sugar is a) dopamine. b) lipids. c) glucose. d) collagen. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 151. Jericho is participating in medical research and just received an injection of glucose. Which of the following is Jericho likely to report? a) He feels angry. b) He feels hungry. c) He does not feel hungry. d) He feels happy. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 152. When receptors in the brain sense high levels of ___ in the blood, they in turn send signals that inhibit us from eating. a) insulin b) endorphins c) leptin d) norepinephrine Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 153. When is leptin released in our bodies? a) when collagen levels are too low b) when collagen levels are too high c) when fats cells are to small d) when fat cells grow larger Answer: d

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 154. Ai is obese. Which of the following predictions would you make about her compared to a person of normal weight? a) Ai has a lower blood level of leptin than normal, but more leptin receptors in her brain. b) Ai has a higher blood level of leptin than normal, and more leptin receptors in her brain. c) Ai has a lower blood level of leptin than normal, and fewer leptin receptors in her brain. d) Ai has a higher blood level of leptin than normal, and fewer leptin receptors in her brain. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 155. Matilda has gained over 50 pounds in the past six months. Which of the following is a possible explanation for Matilda’s weight gain? a) Her leptin levels are too high, and she has too many leptin receptors in the brain. b) Her leptin levels are too low, but she has too many leptin receptors in the brain. c) Her leptin levels are too low, and she has too few leptin receptors in the brain. d) Her leptin levels are too high, and she has too few leptin receptors in the brain. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 156. Bryant is obese. One possible explanation is that they have ____________ blood levels of leptin than normal and _________ leptin receptors in the brain. a) lower; fewer b) higher; fewer c) lower; more d) higher; more Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger

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157. Ghazal was in a car accident and sustained brain damage that caused her to overeat. What structure was damaged? a) pons b) ventromedial hypothalamus c) cerebellum d) lateral hypothalamus Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 158. Davit is involved in lab work where they lesion the ventromedial hypothalamus in rats. They are finding that the rats _____. a) only eat prey that is alive and moving b) only drink liquids and not solid food c) refuse to eat d) show an increase in insulin levels Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 159. What theory of hunger motivation proposes that activity in the lateral hypothalamus serves to inhibit the ventromedial hypothalamus, and vice versa? a) incentive b) arousal c) dual-centre d) glucose-facilitated Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 160. The idea that, when the lateral hypothalamus stimulates us to eat, it also inhibits satiety signals from the ventromedial hypothalamus is called the a) hunger-inhibition theory of motivation. b) dual-centre theory of motivation. c) insulin theory of motivation.

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d) hypothalamus regional theory of motivation. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 161. The ventromedial hypothalamus appears to be important for modulating the level of _________ in the blood. a) leptin b) lipids c) insulin d) glucose Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 162. Which of the following people is most likely satiated? a) Elias, whose glucose levels are low b) Cory, whose ventromedial hypothalamus is active c) Lily, whose leptin levels are low d) Rhea, whose stretch receptors are not active Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 163. Nathan’s leptin levels are high. Everly’s glucose levels are low. Which of the following would best describe Nathan and Everly’s motivational state? a) Nathan is hungry; Everly is satiated. b) Nathan is satiated. Everly is hungry. c) Nathan is hungry; Everly is hungry. d) Nathan is satiated; Everly is satiated. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat.

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Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 164. What brain structure sends “hunger” signals that cause an animal to eat? a) pons b) ventromedial hypothalamus c) lateral hypothalamus d) thalamus Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 165. Which area of the brain is associated with undereating when it is damaged? a) ventromedial hypothalamus b) amygdala c) insular cortex d) lateral hypothalamus Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 166. Tyler does NOT experience hunger. What could have happened to him to cause this? a) He had his stomach removed. b) He has Prader-Willi syndrome. c) He has damage to his lateral hypothalamus. d) He has damage to his ventromedial hypothalamus. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 167. Jimson has a genetic disorder, associated in part with dysfunction in the hypothalamus. He has an insatiable appetite. Jimson would be diagnosed with a) Down syndrome. b) Prader-Willi syndrome. c) familial dysautonomia. d) fetal alcohol syndrome

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Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 168. What brain structure located near the prefrontal cortex produces disgust cues when presented with unpalatable food? a) area postrema b) parietal cortex c) insular cortex d) red nucleus Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 169. Keziah is studying an aboriginal tribe from a remote region of the Amazon. At mealtime, she is disgusted to learn that they include bugs and grubs as part of their diet. Which part of Keziah’s brain would be activated when she is presented with a plate of insects for dinner? a) lateral hypothalamus b) ventral hypothalamus c) insular cortex d) prefrontal cortex Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 170. Aminah was visiting her grandmother, and her grandmother had made Amina her favorite dessert. Aminah knew that her grandmother had worked hard to make this special food for her so could not show her disgust at the long hair she found in it. What brain structure would be active in Amina given her reaction to the unpalatable food? a) area postrema b) parietal cortex c) insular cortex d) red nucleus Answer: c

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 171. Juanita is walking to school and along her walk she passes a bakery and is enticed by the smells of the baking bread and pastries and, although she had breakfast before leaving for school, she immediately feels hungry. What is happening in Juanita’s brain? a) The areas associated with the body set point have been triggered. b) The area involved in reward and punishment has triggered the insular cortex, causing her to feel hunger. c) The areas activated for reward are interacting with the brain areas involved in olfaction and in gustation, causing her to feel hunger. d) Her stretch muscles in the stomach have been triggered, causing her to feel hunger. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 172. Luka has a genetic condition associated with obesity, associated with an insatiable appetite. This genetic disorder is known as a) Prader-Willi syndrome. b) Munchausen syndrome. c) Kleinfelters syndrome. d) Downs syndrome. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 173. Maja has taken her young son to the pediatrician. Although he is only two-years old, he has an insatiable appetite and is obviously already obese. It is possible that Maja’s son has the genetic condition _______________________. a) Prader-Willi syndrome b) Klinefelter’s syndrome c) Down’s syndrome d) Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 174. What is the best technique for maintaining a lower body weight? a) Permanently change eating habits. b) Cut out all carbohydrates. c) Engage in strenuous exercise for a predetermined period of time. d) Reduce sugar intake over the holidays. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 175. Evelina has recently lost 25 pounds. Based on what you have learned about body weight set point, which of the following would you predict? a) Evelina will continue to lose weight as her metabolism will have increased. b) Evelina will gain back about 10% of the weight she lost before she begins to lose again. c) Evelina will gradually return to her original weight. d) Evelina will gain back the weight she lost and gain additional weight. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 176. Munjal found that no matter what he did during his adult life, his weight stabilized near a certain general level known as the a) homeostatic point. b) place of equilibrium. c) weight apex. d) set point. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 177. Jacinda had lost 20 pounds but finds that she is slowly going back to her starting weight. Which of the following is a reason why Jacinda cannot maintain her weight loss? a) Jacinda has sustained damage to her lateral hypothalamus.

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b) Jacinda has returned to her body weight set point. c) Jacinda was underweight to begin with. d) Jacinda has low insulin levels. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 178. Iris has recently joined a weight loss program to help her lose 50 pounds. What advice would you give Iris? a) If she follows the diet as instructed, she will probably be successful at losing the weight. b) Most diet programs involve a major lifestyle change. Therefore, they are often successful in helping clients maintain the weight loss over time. c) Most diet programs focus on eating salads; therefore, they are successful in helping clients maintain the weight loss over time. d) Most diet programs are often unsuccessful for long term weight change. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 179. Which of the following is a reason for why the set point theory has problems accounting for weight maintenance? a) People who are satiated stop eating even if offered something highly palatable. b) People who consume a high calorie drink prior to eating do not necessarily reduce their food intake. c) People who diet often rebound back toward the original weight. d) Set point maintenance alone is not a powerful tool for predicting weight from an evolutionary perspective. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 180. Which is the best definition of body mass indexes (BMI) that are categorized as obese? a) 22 and above b) 25 and above c) 27 and above d) 30 and above

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Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 181. What body mass index (BMI) score is categorized as overweight? a) 10 and below b) 15–20 c) 25–30 d) 30 or higher Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 182. Brian suffers from heart disease and diabetes. Although he wants to work out, he finds it difficult because of the strain on his knees and legs. Since he has a BMI of 31.3, Brian is considered a) obese. b) overweight. c) normal weight. d) underweight. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 183. What percentage of obesity is caused by medical conditions? a) 35% to 45% b) 20% to 30% c) 10% to 20% d) 1% to 5% Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger

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184. Which of the following describes the role of genes in obesity? a) Obesity is a genetic disorder. b) Genes interact with body chemistry to cause obesity. c) Genes may predispose people to obesity, but the environment must be conducive to overeating for them to become obese. d) Genes may predispose people to obesity, but the person must encounter stressors for them to become obese. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 185. An increase in portion size and the prevalence of prepared foods are part of the reason why there has been an increase in a) diabetes. b) the average body weight set point. c) the amount of food purchased each year. d) overeating. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 186. Adoption studies have shown that adopted children have BMIs more similar to their ___ suggesting weight is influenced more by ___ a) biological parents; genetics b) adopted parents; environment c) biological parents; environment d) adopted parents; genetics Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 187. Swati’s BEST friend is overweight. Based on recent research, which of the following could you predict about Swati? a) Swati is more likely to work hard to prevent weight gain.

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b) Swati is more likely to gain weight. c) Swati is probably as overweight as her friend. d Swati is probably slightly underweight. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 188. In addition to the physical risks associated with obesity, many obese people might also suffer from mood disorders such as a) depression. b) schizophrenia. c) paranoia. d) narcissism. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 189. Denzel maintained a normal weight as a child, but as a teenager he became obsessed with maintaining a low weight. Even when he reached a dangerously low weight, he continued exercising excessively and refusing to eat. Denzel shows signs of a) anorexia nervosa. b) bulimia nervosa. c) binge-eating disorder. d) obesity. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 190. A teenage daughter complains to her mother than she has no menstrual period. The daughter frequently refuses to eat, stating that she is becoming fat, but her mother knows that she is underweight for her age. Which of the following is MOST likely the daughter's problem? a) obesity syndrome b) bulimia nervosa c) poor self-image d) anorexia nervosa

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Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 191. Which of the following support the claim that multiple factors, including biological, psychological, social, and cultural, contribute to anorexia nervosa? a) The fact that women from Curacao, an island in the Caribbean, where being overweight is socially sanctioned, suffer from anorexia nervosa. b) The fact that one of the highest risk factors for anorexia nervosa is self-oriented perfectionism. c) The fact that 33-50% of those with an anorexia nervosa have a comorbid mood disorder. d) The fact that many of today’s cultures stigmatize “fat” bodies. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 192. Which of the following people most likely has anorexia nervosa? a) Shinjo, who has a BMI of 25 b) Lee, who eats many calories in one sitting and then purges through vomiting or consuming laxatives c) Jayme, who consumes 500 calories a day because she sees herself as fat d) Romy, who has a regular menstrual cycle Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 193. Of the following disorders which most often co-occurs with anorexia? a) separation anxiety b) attention deficit hyperactivity disorder c) panic disorder d) obsessive-compulsive disorder Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat.

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Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 194. Cruz has a disorder that involves consuming large quantities of food followed by selfinduced vomiting, the use of laxatives, or extreme exercise. Cruz might be diagnosed with _____. a) Anorexia nervosa b) The binge-purge syndrome c) Bulimia nervosa d) Pritikin dieting Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 195. While staying with his parents over summer break, Asher’s mother notices that each afternoon he eats an excessively large meal. Shortly afterward, she also notices that his teeth have rapidly deteriorated, and he has exceptionally foul breath. She is concerned that Asher may have a) bulimia nervosa. b) anorexia nervosa. c) binge-eating disorder. d) cognitive dysfunction. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 196. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of bulimia nervosa? a) People with bulimia are severely underweight. b) People with bulimia can have badly damaged teeth. c) Bulimia can lead to constipation d) Food binge and purge cycles. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 197. Each of the following medical and psychological problems are associated with bulimia

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EXCEPT one. Which one is NOT associated with bulimia? a) constipation b) cessation of menstruation c) tooth decay d) depression Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 198. Anorexia nervosa is to _________ eating, as bulimia nervosa is to ________ eating. a) under; under b) over; over c) over; under d) under; over Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 199. Sadie suffers from anorexia nervosa, while Aisha suffers from bulimia nervosa. How do Sadie and Aisha’s disorders differ? a) Sadie is more likely than Aisha to suffer from body image distortion. b) Aisha is more likely than Sadie to suffer from depression. c) Sadie is more likely than Aisha to engage in other rash, destructive behaviors. d) Lori is more likely than Aisha to engage in extreme weight-loss measures. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 200. What is the difference between anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa? a) Anorexia nervosa is characterized by self-imposed starvation, while bulimia nervosa is characterized by recurrent binging and purging. b) Anorexia nervosa is characterized by recurrent binging and purging, while bulimia nervosa is characterized by a desire for thinness. c) Anorexia nervosa is characterized by self-imposed starvation, while bulimia nervosa is characterized by a desire for pain. d) Anorexia nervosa is characterized by overeating, while bulimia nervosa is characterized by

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under-eating. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 201. What drug treatments have been found to be effective for bulimia? a) methamphetamines b) opiates c) antidepressants d) benzodiazepines Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 202. The more elaborate a male peacock’s tail, the greater the evolutionary advantage, because a more elaborate tail a) is associated with increased virility. b) increases the likelihood that a male will be chosen as a mate by a female. c) reduces the likelihood the male will engage in aggressive behaviour with other males. d) is a sign of health. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 203. Alya is visiting a zoo and notices that one male peacock has a very scrawny, thin tail compared to the other peacocks. Furthermore, this one sad looking peacock is completely ignored by all the peahens. What is most likely the reason for this? a) Peacocks advertise their health by the size of their tails. b) The peahens have already mated with him. c) The peahens are only receptive for a short period of the year. d) Peahens prefer peacocks with long tails that have more ‘eye’ spots. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium

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Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 204. Colette is looking online looking to meet someone. Although she claims that physical characteristics do not matter, she is paying close attention to the photos included in people’s profiles. Evolutionary theory would suggest that she would be interested in all of the following except _____. a) body odour b) symmetry in movement c) shoulder to hip ratio d) facial symmetry Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 205. Miguel has in mind exactly the type of person he wishes to have as a partner – someone attractive. He would be surprised to hear that what he wants coincides with what most other people want. Which evolutionary explanation below explains why this preference for attractiveness exists? a) We choose attractive people because we all want attractive children. b) These characteristics may signal good health and reproductive fitness. c) We think that being seen with an attractive person makes us more socially acceptable. d) These characteristics signal intelligence. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 206. According to David Buss, what is a key gender difference in mate selection? a) Females prefer younger males; males prefer females with greater resources. b) Males prefer younger females; females prefer older men. c) Males choose mates based on attractiveness; females choose mates based on personality. d) Males choose mates based on personality; females choose mates based on attractiveness. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy

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Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 207. Your twenty-two-year-old friend has just told you that she is dating a fifty-five-year-old man. According to David Buss, which of the following might explain the attraction between this couple? a) The male is looking for someone attractive; the female is looking for someone to provide offspring. b) The male is looking for someone who can provide offspring; the female is looking for an established male who can provide greater resources. c) Both the male and female are looking for a mate who can provide offspring. d) The female is looking for someone who is attractive; the male is looking for someone who could work and increase the number of resources. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 208. You just found out that your sixty-two year old uncle is dating a twenty-five-year-old woman. According to David Buss, which of the following might explain the attraction between this couple? a) The male is looking for someone attractive; the female is looking for someone to provide offspring. b) The male is looking for someone who can provide offspring; the female is looking for an established male who can provide greater resources. c) Both the male and female are looking for a mate who can provide offspring. d) The female is looking for someone who is attractive; the male is looking for someone who could work and increase the number of resources. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 209. According to your textbook, which of the following is NOT a physical characteristic important in human mate selection? a) body odour b) symmetry in movement c) shoulder to hip ratio

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d) breast or penis size Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 210. Fleur has been studying mate selection for her class in Evolutionary Psychology. She tells her brother that the reason he has a “type” is due to evolution. She tells him that certain preferences, such as a preference for voice pitch, body odour, or facial symmetry have evolved for all the following reasons EXCEPT a) they indicate immune function. b) they suggest the stability of an individual’s intellectual abilities. c) they communicate information about hormonal status. d) they reveal any abnormalities in the course of development. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 211. When it comes to traits that humans find attractive in a potential mate, which of the following is NOT true? a) Body odour plays an important role in attractiveness. b) Females prefer males with broad shoulders and narrow hips. c) Both sexes find facial symmetry more attractive. d) Both sexes prefer more feminine facial features in their partner. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 212. Which of the following offers the best evolutionary explanation of why we have specific preferences for certain characteristics in mate selection? a) We choose attractive people because we all want attractive children. b) These characteristics may signal good health and reproductive fitness. c) We think that being seen with an attractive person makes us more socially acceptable. d) We are naturally selecting against unattractiveness.

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Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 213. In mate selection, men are less interested in focusing on physical resources because a) they can fertilize and leave. b) they are capable of acquiring resources independently. c) physiological characteristics and resources tend to coincide in women. d) physical attractiveness is a more reliable sign of a fertile woman. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 214. Ginger just joined the dating scene after being single for six months. She is 20 years old, attractive, heterosexual, and a student. According to evolutionary theory, which of the following men would Ginger prefer to date, assuming she is looking for a potential mate? a) Gabriel who is an 18-year-old artist who lives with his parents. b) Aadil who is also a 20-year-old student with food allergies. c) Kofi who is a 25-year-old fashion model who travels a lot. d) Józef who is a 27-year-old dentist who coaches little league in the summer. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 215. Andrei just joined the dating scene after being single for six months. He is 50 years old, attractive, heterosexual, and a teacher. According to evolutionary theory, which of the following women would Andrei prefer to date, assuming he is looking for a potential mate? a) Sasha who is an attractive 18-year-old woman with an immune disorder b) Luisa who is an unattractive but very intelligent 25-year-old student c) Maélie who is a 32-year-old fashion model d) Bronwyn who is a somewhat attractive 45-year-old single mother with three children Answer: c

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Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 216. What cultural arrangement describes an instance where men have multiple wives? a) polymarital b) polyandry c) polygamy d) polynuptial Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 217. Thelma is one of four women married to Lawrence. Lawrence is part of the cultural arrangement of ___. a) polyandry b) polynuptual c) polysexual d) polygamy Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 218. Polyandry is a) the practice of males having multiple male partners. b) the practice of females having multiple female partners. c) the practice of males having multiple female partners. d) the practice of females having multiple male partners. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex.

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Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 219. Rae is a 22-year old Canadian. How many sexual partners is it statistically likely that Rae has had? a) 1 to 2 b) 2 to 3 c) 3 to 4 d) more than 4 Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 220. _____ percent of couples engage in premarital sex in the United States and _____ percent of Canadian couples living together are unmarried. a) 100; 48 b) 96; 10 c) 95; 17 d) 72; 50 Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 221. When did Kinsey begin studying human sexuality? a) 1930s b) 1940s c) 1950s d)1960s Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 222. What is NOT one of Albert Kinsey’s important contribution to sex research?

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a) He described the phases of the human sexual response cycle. b) He normalized many sexual behaviours that society previously thought were abnormal. c) He lessened taboos about discussing sexual practices. d) He placed sexual orientation on a continuum rather than dichotomizing it. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 223. Which of the following aspect of Kinsey’s theory of sexual orientation was MOST controversial? a) It suggested everyone contains a certain proportion of heterosexuality and homosexuality. b) It suggested that sexual orientation is changeable. c) It suggested everyone could become homosexual. d) It downplayed the role of the environment in sexual orientation. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 224. At what phase of sexual response are humans fully aroused, as measured by an increase in breathing and heart rate? a) excitement b) plateau c) orgasm d) resolution Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 225. Which phase of Masters and Johnson's sexual response cycle is marked by muscle tension and a flush that spreads across the chest? a) plateau b) orgasm c) resolution

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d) excitement Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 226. Which of the following is NOT a contribution that arose from Masters and Johnsons sexual research? a) Desire is important to the phases of sexual response. b) Women were encouraged to enjoy sex. c) Sexual behaviour is physically possible for healthy persons of all ages. d) Altered societal standards as to what is normal sexual behaviour. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 227. Shortly after having sex, Bella is feeling aroused again. Leon, however, does not seem to be aroused at all. Which of the following likely explains Leon’s lack of interest? a) Males are not as easily aroused as females. b) Leon did not experience the orgasm phase. c) Leon is in the refractory period. d) Leon is experiencing the plateau phase. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 228. The ______________________ is not a part of Masters and Johnson human sexual response cycle. a) desire phase b) excitement phase c) plateau phase d) resolution phase Answer: a

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 229. Sex therapist Helen Kaplan introduced the idea of _____. a) desire b) females enjoying sex c) orgasm d) sex for older adults Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 230. The testes and adrenal glands produce male hormones called a) testosterone hormones. b) progesterones. c) androgens. d) follicle-stimulating hormones. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 231. _____ are involved in the sex drive for _____. a) Progesterones; men b) Androgens; men and women c) Estrogens; men and women d) Estradiols; women Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex

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232. Where is testosterone produced in males? a) brain b) penis c) testes d) vas deferens Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 233. Blood levels of what hormone are positively related to the sex drive in males? a) testosterone b) progesterone c) estrogen d) adrenalin Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 234. What reproductive hormone is associated with how attractive a woman feels? a) testosterone b) progesterone c) estrogen d) adrenalin Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 235. The female ovaries produce the female sex hormones known as a) estrogen and androgens. b) progesterone and androgens. c) progesterone and estrogen.

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d) testosterone and androgens. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 236. Regarding sex drive, __________ are to males; as ________ are to females. a) progesterone; estrogen b) androgens; progesterone c) progesterone; androgens d) androgens; androgens Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 237. In females, _________ levels are important for physiological aspects of the sexual response, and ________ levels determine sex drive. a) progesterone; estrogen b) estrogen; progesterone c) androgen; estrogen d) estrogen; androgen Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 238. Keshon and his boyfriend are watching a movie when the two lead characters begin to have sex. Keshon finds that he becomes sexually aroused by this scene. How would you explain why Keshon is experiencing sexual arousal by watching a movie? a) The scene causes a release of testosterone in Keshon’s brain. b) The scene causes a release of estrogen in Keshon’s brain. c) The scene causes the mirror neuron system in Keshon's brain to be activated. d) The hippocampus in Keshon’s brain has been activated. Answer: c

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice 239. Greig is a participant in a research study in which the experimenter shows him a series of pictures. Although he cannot remember any of the pictures being sexual, he begins to feel sexually aroused. Which of the following is the MOST probable explanation for Greig’s sexual arousal? a) Some of the photos were sexual but were presented and removed too quickly for Greig to be consciously aware of them. b) Some of the photos evoked sexual memories for Greig which activated the mirror neuron system. c) Greig is having a sexual fantasy surrounding one of the pictures he saw. d) Greig has experienced a sudden burst of progesterone, which has caused him to experience sexual arousal. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice 240. What neural system is at work when specific areas associated with a behaviour are activated when we watch other people engage in similar behaviours? a) striatal reflective cells b) cerebellar emulating neurons c) matching cells in the amygdala d) mirror neurons Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 241. Lauren is concerned that her partner, Johan, can be aroused by watching sexual behaviour in movies or online. She feels this is not normal. What can you tell her? a) This is normal for all activities, including sexual activity. Mirror neurons are activated in ways similar to being involved in the activity itself. b) This is not normal. Most people do become sexually aroused by observing sexual contact if they are in happy relationships.

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c) This is normal but may mean the relationship needs work. Sexual urges can be activated without our knowledge., so it may be an unconscious signal that Lauren’s partner is dissatisfied. d) This is normal for men. Women need a sexual relationship with a real person in order to become aroused, but men can become aroused just thinking about sexual acts. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 242. Uma is discussing the differences in sexuality between men and women with her psychology study group. Which of the following differences is LEAST true? a) Men are more likely aroused by visual stimuli than women and women by physical contact and verbal expression. b) Men are more likely attracted to youthful qualities and women are more likely attracted to qualities that signal dependability and strength. c) Men are more likely to experience a drop in sex drive with age than women. d) Men are more likely to fantasize about a greater number of sexual partners than women. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 243. With regard to the sexual response cycle, which of the following statements is MOST accurate? a) Patterns of sexual response are more variable in women than men. b) Patterns of sexual response are more variable in men than women. c) The sexual response cycle is of shorter duration for men than for women. d) The sexual response cycle is of shorter duration for women than for men. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 244. Evidence suggests that males have a higher sex drive than women. However, this difference may, in part, be to all the following EXCEPT what? a) biases in reporting

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b) media portrayals of men and women with high versus low sex drives c) an overreporting from closeted homosexual males may be skewing the data d) actual differences in sex drive may exist Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 245. According to evolutionary theory, what type of mates do males generally prefer? a) youthful b) dependable c) friendly d) compliant Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 246. According to evolutionary theory, what type of mates do females prefer? a) youthful b) dependable c) friendly d) compliant Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 247. When it comes to sexual arousal, men are to ___as women are to ___. a) fantasy; visual stimuli b) visual stimuli; fantasy c) visual stimuli; physical contact d) physical contact; verbal expression Answer: c

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 248. When it comes to sexual arousal, visual is to _____ as physical is to _____. a) women; men b) men; women c) men; men d) women; women Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 249. Which of the following describes a difference between men and women regarding sexual fantasies? a) Women have more sexual fantasies than men. b) Men have more sexual fantasies than women. c) Men’s fantasies involve more risky sexual behaviours than women’s fantasies. d) Women’s fantasies typically involve more actors on television than men’s fantasies. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 250. Which of the following may explain gender differences in sexual desire and sexual activity? a) Males have higher testosterone levels than females. b) Women tend to be more distracted by daily life stressors than men do. c) Women are still subject to social constraints that perceive women with high sex drives negatively. d) Research has not actually found significant gender differences in sexual desire or sexual activity. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have

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sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 251. Which of the following is a universal taboo? a) sex with children under 14 years old b) incest c) sex with animals d) masturbation Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 252. Which of the following is a sexual taboo that almost seems to be universal? a) sex before marriage b) homosexuality c) bisexuality d) incest Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 253. Which of the following is a possible reason why incest is a universal taboo? a) It violates the rules of most religions. b) It increases the chance of defective recessive genes being passed on to offspring. c) It leads to birth defects and intellectual disabilities. d) It arose from the need to arrange marriages. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 254. Sexual attraction towards members of the same sex, the opposite sex, or both sexes would describe an individual's

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a) sexual response pattern. b) sexual stigma. c) sexual motivation. d) sexual orientation. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 255. Which of the following people is MOST likely to be homosexual? a) Juan, whose identical twin is homosexual. b) Eli, whose best friend is homosexual. c) Daniel, who was raised by two homosexual men. d) Jordan, who had a very close relationship with his mother. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 256. In interviewing a client seeking counseling on sexual orientation, which of the following questions a therapist could ask is MOST relevant to the client? a) Were you seduced by a same-sex adult? b) Have you had unsuccessful same-sex relationships? c) Were your parents’ homosexual partners? d) Are you attracted to men, women, or both? Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 257. Current research investigating the cause of sexual orientation suggests ___________ play the dominant role. a) culture and society b) family and church c) genetics and biology d) upbringing and education

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Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 258. Of the following, which statement is not supported by empirical research on sexual orientation? a) Studies suggest a strong genetic influence on sexual orientation. b) Prenatal hormone exposure may be an important factor in sexual orientation. c) Homosexuality exists in the animal kingdom. d) Sexual abuse in childhood, by a same-sex person, increases risk of homosexuality. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 259. Of the following, which statement is not supported by empirical research on sexual orientation? a) Concordance rates among monozygotic twins is high for sexual orientation. b) Males are more likely to be gay if they have several older brothers. c) Bonobos and other species have confirmed cases of homosexuality. d) Children sexually abused by same-sex adults are more likely to later identify as homosexual. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 260. Unconscious motivation refers to motivation that a) people are aware of. b) cannot be verbalized. c) can be verbalized. d) is repressed. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy

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Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how unconscious/conscious, approach/avoidance, intrinsic/extrinsic, and fixed/growth mindsets affect our motivational drive. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Individual Factors 261. The two most commonly used tests to tap into unconscious motivations are the ___________________. a) MMPI-2 and the TAT b) Rorschach inkblot test and the IAT c) TAT and the IAT d) MMPI-2 and the NEO-PI-R Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how unconscious/conscious, approach/avoidance, intrinsic/extrinsic, and fixed/growth mindsets affect our motivational drive. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Individual Factors 262. Which of the following tests below is used to assess unconscious motivation but is NOT considered a type of personality inventory? a) the TAT b) Myers-Briggs c) the MMPI-2 d) the NOE-PI-R Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how unconscious/conscious, approach/avoidance, intrinsic/extrinsic, and fixed/growth mindsets affect our motivational drive. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Individual Factors 263. Which of the following individuals is most likely taking the TAT? a) Aurora is taking a test where she is expected to associate objects with moral judgements. b) Gianni is taking a personality test that presents him with black and white drawing of people in a variety of ambiguous interactions. c) Hassam is taking a personality test that presents him with inkblot drawings and he must provide a label for each one as quickly as possible. d) Kennedy is taking a personality test that is asking her questions that are assessing her on five key factors of personality Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Learning Objective: Describe how unconscious/conscious, approach/avoidance, intrinsic/extrinsic, and fixed/growth mindsets affect our motivational drive. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Individual Factors 264. Which of the following statements regarding motivation is TRUE? a) Both conscious and unconscious cognitive states influence motivation. b) Individuals are aware of both their unconscious and conscious motivations. c) It is not possible to tap into a person’s unconscious motivations. d) Motivation represents an inner drive, so really only represents unconscious motivation. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how unconscious/conscious, approach/avoidance, intrinsic/extrinsic, and fixed/growth mindsets affect our motivational drive. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Individual Factors 265. Abena is shown a series of ambiguous pictures and asked to describe what she believes is happening between the people in the picture. Which test is Abena taking? a) NEO-PI-R b) Rorschach c) TAT d) MMPI Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how unconscious/conscious, approach/avoidance, intrinsic/extrinsic, and fixed/growth mindsets affect our motivational drive. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Individual Factors 266. Abdul is looking at a series of abstract patterns and is to explain what each image looks like to him. Frankie is looking at pictures and is asked to create a story about each picture. What is implied here? a) Abdul is taking a Rorschach inkblot test, while Frankie is taking a TAT. b) Abdul is taking a TAT, while Frankie is taking a Rorschach inkblot test. c) Both Frankie and Abdul are taking a TAT. d) Both Frankie and Abdul are taking a Rorschach inkblot test. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how unconscious/conscious, approach/avoidance, intrinsic/extrinsic, and fixed/growth mindsets affect our motivational drive. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Individual Factors

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267. Both Atticus and Zuko are taking projective tests. If Atticus is taking a Rorschach test and Zuko is taking a TAT test, how might they be different? a) Atticus is responding to abstract images and Zuko is responding to drawings of ambiguous scenes. b) Atticus is responding to drawings of ambiguous scenes and Zuko is responding to true/false questions. c) Atticus is responding to true/false questions and Zuko is responding to a series of interview questions. d) Atticus is responding to a series of interview questions and Zuko is responding to drawings of ambiguous scenes. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how unconscious/conscious, approach/avoidance, intrinsic/extrinsic, and fixed/growth mindsets affect our motivational drive. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Individual Factors 268. Dr. Ng wants to assess her client’s unconscious motivations for the way he interacts with the women in his life. Which of the following tests will Dr. Ng use to tap into her client’s unconscious motivations? a) MMPI b) NEO-PI-R c) Rorschach d) TAT Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how unconscious/conscious, approach/avoidance, intrinsic/extrinsic, and fixed/growth mindsets affect our motivational drive. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Individual Factors 269. Which of the following individual is most likely taking the IAT? a) Aurora is taking a test where she is expected to associate objects with moral judgements. b) Gianni is taking a personality test that presents him with black and white drawing of people in a variety of ambiguous interactions. c) Hassam is taking a personality test that presents him with inkblot drawings and he must provide a label for each one as quickly as possible. d) Kennedy is taking a personality test that is asking her questions that are assessing her on five key factors of personality Answer: a Difficulty: Medium

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how unconscious/conscious, approach/avoidance, intrinsic/extrinsic, and fixed/growth mindsets affect our motivational drive. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Individual Factors 270. What test is most commonly used to assess whether we have unconscious bias toward individuals of different ethnicities of sexual orientations? a) the TAT b) Myers-Briggs c) the IAT d) the NOE-PI-R Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how unconscious/conscious, approach/avoidance, intrinsic/extrinsic, and fixed/growth mindsets affect our motivational drive. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Individual Factors 271. The hedonic principle states that individuals a) experience self-image issues and difficulty regulating behaviour. b) pursue gratification from egoistic admiration of their self-concept. c) choose to avoid painful experiences and approach pleasurable experiences. d) display excessive attention- seeking behaviours and experience a high need for approval. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how unconscious/conscious, approach/avoidance, intrinsic/extrinsic, and fixed/growth mindsets affect our motivational drive. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Individual Factors 272. Which of the following statements regarding approach motivation is TRUE? a) Individuals who use an approach motivation style for attaining their goals experience higher rates of dissatisfaction in their personal relationships. b) Individuals who use an approach motivation style for attaining their goals experience higher well-being. c) Individuals who are motivated by both an approach motivation and an avoidance motivation are unable to cope psychologically. d) Individuals who use an approach motivation style for attaining their goals tend to be from non-Western societies. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension

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Learning Objective: Describe how unconscious/conscious, approach/avoidance, intrinsic/extrinsic, and fixed/growth mindsets affect our motivational drive. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Individual Factors 273. The statement that “When all else is equal, avoidance motivation is stronger than approach motivation” refers to what concept? a) loss aversion b) hedonistic principle c) unconscious motivations d) extrinsic motivation Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how unconscious/conscious, approach/avoidance, intrinsic/extrinsic, and fixed/growth mindsets affect our motivational drive. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Individual Factors 274. Which neurotransmitter systems are related to risk and loss aversion? a) acetylcholine and histamine b) glutamate and dopamine c) serotonin and GABA d) dopamine and norepinephrine Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how unconscious/conscious, approach/avoidance, intrinsic/extrinsic, and fixed/growth mindsets affect our motivational drive. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Individual Factors 275. The _____, _____ and _____ are key structures in the brain controlling loss aversion. a) hypothalamus; amygdala; tegmentum b) striatum; amygdala; prefrontal cortex c) limbic system; hippocampus; prefrontal cortex d) hippocampus; substantia nigra; limbic system Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how unconscious/conscious, approach/avoidance, intrinsic/extrinsic, and fixed/growth mindsets affect our motivational drive. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Individual Factors

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

276. The drug _____ is known to reduce _____. a) propranolol; loss aversion b) melatonin; hedonic motivation c) fluoxetine; loss aversion d) diazepam; hedonic motivation Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how unconscious/conscious, approach/avoidance, intrinsic/extrinsic, and fixed/growth mindsets affect our motivational drive. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Individual Factors 277. Seth, an alcoholic, and Marwa , a gambling addict, are both experiencing a(n) _____, similar to that seen with those taking the drug _____. a) increase in feelings of loss aversion; propranolol b) reduction in feelings of loss aversion; fluoxetine c) increase in feelings of loss aversion; fluoxetine d) reduction in feelings of loss aversion; propranolol Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how unconscious/conscious, approach/avoidance, intrinsic/extrinsic, and fixed/growth mindsets affect our motivational drive. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Individual Factors 278. Being without motivation is referred to as a) avoidance motivation b) anhedonia c) amotivation d) unconscious motivation Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how unconscious/conscious, approach/avoidance, intrinsic/extrinsic, and fixed/growth mindsets affect our motivational drive. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Individual Factors 279. Amotivation is fueled by feelings of a) low competency, autonomy, and relatedness. b) inadequacy and low self-esteem. c) learned helplessness. d) rejection and incompetence.

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Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how unconscious/conscious, approach/avoidance, intrinsic/extrinsic, and fixed/growth mindsets affect our motivational drive. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Individual Factors 280. Hikikomori can be considered an example of a) loss aversion without symptoms of anxiety. b) a form of paranoia. c) learned helplessness. d) extreme amotivation. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how unconscious/conscious, approach/avoidance, intrinsic/extrinsic, and fixed/growth mindsets affect our motivational drive. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Individual Factors 281. Hikikomori and amotivation a) are unrelated. b) are both extreme examples of being without motivation. c) are sequential steps moving toward a state of increased motivation and competency. d) have been shown to be precursors to schizophrenia. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how unconscious/conscious, approach/avoidance, intrinsic/extrinsic, and fixed/growth mindsets affect our motivational drive. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Individual Factors 282. Seventeen year old Makoto leaves his room for food and bathroom breaks only. He has no interactions with the other members of his family, spending his time online or in other solitary activities. This situation has persisted for months. Makoto may be experiencing a phenomenon known as _____. a) loss aversion b) hikikomori c) approach avoidance d) komorebi Answer: b

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how unconscious/conscious, approach/avoidance, intrinsic/extrinsic, and fixed/growth mindsets affect our motivational drive. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Individual Factors 283. Research indicates that amotivation is a state that a) increases with age. b) decreases with the pursuit and completion of higher education. c) is unrelated to feelings of competence. d) is more common in males. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how unconscious/conscious, approach/avoidance, intrinsic/extrinsic, and fixed/growth mindsets affect our motivational drive. 284. Anhedonia is _____ that is often associated with _____. a) a loss of motivation and pleasure; depression. b) associated with long-term perseverance to reach a goal; approach motivation. c) a state of being without motivation; anxiety d) the belief that we cannot avoid negative outcomes; learned helplessness Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how unconscious/conscious, approach/avoidance, intrinsic/extrinsic, and fixed/growth mindsets affect our motivational drive. 285. Which of the following brain areas are NOT involved in the neural connections related to motivation and feelings of pleasure or reward? a) prefrontal cortex b) ventral tegmental area c) anterior cingulate cortex d) ventral thalamus Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how unconscious/conscious, approach/avoidance, intrinsic/extrinsic, and fixed/growth mindsets affect our motivational drive. 286. Which of the following is associated with intrinsic motivation?

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a) autonomy b) dependence c) incompetence d) reliance on rewards Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how unconscious/conscious, approach/avoidance, intrinsic/extrinsic, and fixed/growth mindsets affect our motivational drive. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Individual Factors 287. Which of the following is NOT associated with intrinsic motivation? a) relatedness b) inability to accept failure c) competence d) autonomy Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how unconscious/conscious, approach/avoidance, intrinsic/extrinsic, and fixed/growth mindsets affect our motivational drive. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Individual Factors 288. What term is used to describe the satisfaction derived from simply engaging in a behaviour? a) intrinsic motivation b) extrinsic motivation c) central motivation d) inherent motivation Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how unconscious/conscious, approach/avoidance, intrinsic/extrinsic, and fixed/growth mindsets affect our motivational drive. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Individual Factors 289. Ella and Hazel are taking a pottery class. Although Hazel hopes that, with practice, she will be able to sell her pottery, Ella is just thinking of the enjoyment she will get from working with the clay. Which of the following is MOST probably TRUE? a) Ella will enjoy the pottery class more than Hazel will. b) Hazel will enjoy the pottery class more than Ella. c) Both Ella and Hazel will enjoy the class equally.

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

d) Ella will become frustrated if she is not as good a pottery as Hazel and, therefore, will quit. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how unconscious/conscious, approach/avoidance, intrinsic/extrinsic, and fixed/growth mindsets affect our motivational drive. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Individual Factors 290. Patrick has entered a sailing contest. If he wins, he will receive $10,000 which will pay for his tuition for the next year. If he does NOT win, he may have to take a year off university. Which of the following will MOST likely describe Patrick’s reaction if he wins? a) Patrick will become more confident in his sailing ability. b) Patrick will think he succeeded because of the $10,000 prize money. c) Patrick will feel ashamed that the money meant so much to him. d) Patrick will feel a greater sense of competence and autonomy. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how unconscious/conscious, approach/avoidance, intrinsic/extrinsic, and fixed/growth mindsets affect our motivational drive. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Individual Factors 291. Kevin was not enrolled in school, nor did he have a job that required mathematical skills or reasoning, yet he spent several nights a week reading and solving problems in an old calculus textbook. How would you best explain this behaviour? Kevin is a) extrinsically motivated. b) competitive. c) intrinsically motivated. d) trying to fulfill his self-esteem need. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how unconscious/conscious, approach/avoidance, intrinsic/extrinsic, and fixed/growth mindsets affect our motivational drive. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Individual Factors 292. What is the difference between intrinsic and extrinsic motivation? a) Extrinsic motivation is based on reward and punishment, while intrinsic motivation is based on personal satisfaction. b) Extrinsic motivation is based on external incentives, while intrinsic motivation is based on reward and punishment. c) Extrinsic motivation is based on personal satisfaction, while intrinsic motivation is based on a

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fear of punishment. d) Extrinsic motivation is socially influenced, while intrinsic motivation is genetic. Answer: a Learning Objective: Describe how unconscious/conscious, approach/avoidance, intrinsic/extrinsic, and fixed/growth mindsets affect our motivational drive. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Individual Factors 293. Which of the following is a correct matching of intrinsic and extrinsic motivation? a) Simona loves ballet and practices eight to ten hours a day. b) Ander trains eight to ten hours a day for the marathon he is planning to run at the end of the month. c) Alfie’s father has been grooming Alfie for the golf pro circuit since he was three-years old. Alfie practices eight to ten hours a day. d) Greta skis eight to ten hours a day, just to feel the wind in her face and the rush of the downhill speed. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how unconscious/conscious, approach/avoidance, intrinsic/extrinsic, and fixed/growth mindsets affect our motivational drive. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Individual Factors 294. Vivian and Lilian are both registered in the same psychology class. Vivian wants to do well because she is very interested in the material, while Lilian wants to do well because she wants to see an ‘A’ on her transcript. How is their achievement motivation different? a) Vivian is intrinsically motivated, and Lilian is extrinsically motivated. b) Vivian is self-determined, and Lilian is future-driven. c) Vivian is able delay her gratification and Lilian is not. d) Vivian is more likely to fail than Lilian. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how unconscious/conscious, approach/avoidance, intrinsic/extrinsic, and fixed/growth mindsets affect our motivational drive. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Individual Factors 295. Jacques always gets a reward from his parents when his team wins a soccer match. Based on this information, which of the following statements is probably true? a) Jacques has no feelings of self-worth. b) Jacques is not meeting his goals of affiliation. c) Jacques gets incredibly upset when he loses a game. d) Jacques is not extrinsically motivated.

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Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how unconscious/conscious, approach/avoidance, intrinsic/extrinsic, and fixed/growth mindsets affect our motivational drive. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Individual Factors 296. Tasha is entering an essay contest. Tasha really hopes to win the $3000 awarded for the top essay. Which of the following correctly describes how Tasha will feel when the competition is over? a) If Tasha wins, she will feel very competent. If she loses, she will work to improve her writing. b) If Tasha wins, she will feel very competent. If she loses, she will think the contest was “rigged.”. c) If Tasha wins, she will think it is because of the reward. If she loses, she will feel she has failed. d) If Tasha wins, she will think it is because of the reward. If she loses, she will work harder to win the next competition. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how unconscious/conscious, approach/avoidance, intrinsic/extrinsic, and fixed/growth mindsets affect our motivational drive. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Individual Factors 297. Fixed mindset is to _____ as growth mindset is to _____. a) innate; developed b) developed; innate c) approach motivation; avoidance motivation d) avoidance motivation; approach motivation Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how unconscious/conscious, approach/avoidance, intrinsic/extrinsic, and fixed/growth mindsets affect our motivational drive. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Individual Factors 298. Jemma was determined to succeed as a clinical psychologist. She knew the competition to get into a clinical graduate program was fierce but felt sure that if she worked hard, listened to the advice of her professors, and was strategic about acquiring important volunteer and research skills, that she would reach her goal. Which of the following is TRUE of Jemma? a) Jemma is employing avoidance motivation. b) Jemma is experiencing a reduction of loss aversion.

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c) Jemma has a growth mindset. d) Jemma has a fixed mindset. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how unconscious/conscious, approach/avoidance, intrinsic/extrinsic, and fixed/growth mindsets affect our motivational drive. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Individual Factors 299. Bethany has always wanted to be an engineer. However, she is convinced that she was not born with the necessary skills. Her friend Avery argues that instead of focusing on her innate skills, Bethany should know that hard work and perseverance will help her to reach her goal. Based on this information what can we say about Bethany and Avery’s views? a) Avery has a growth mindset and Bethany has a fixed mindset. b) Bethany has a growth mindset and Avery has a fixed mindset. c) Avery is intrinsically motivated, and Bethany l is extrinsically motivated. d) Bethany is intrinsically motivated, and Avery is extrinsically motivated. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how unconscious/conscious, approach/avoidance, intrinsic/extrinsic, and fixed/growth mindsets affect our motivational drive. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Individual Factors 300. Grit is most related to a) a fixed mindset. b) a growth mindset. c) anhedonia d) extrinsic motivation Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how unconscious/conscious, approach/avoidance, intrinsic/extrinsic, and fixed/growth mindsets affect our motivational drive. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Individual Factors 301. Brain imaging studies show that the neural connections between the _____ and the _____ are important for both grit and growth mindset. a) ventral thalamus and inferior colliculi b) cingulate cortex and prefrontal cortex c) ventral striatum/nucleus accumbens; prefrontal cortex d) hippocampus and ventral striatum/nucleus accumbens

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Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe how unconscious/conscious, approach/avoidance, intrinsic/extrinsic, and fixed/growth mindsets affect our motivational drive. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Individual Factors 302. Which of the following is a psychological need? a) water b) affiliation c) food d) sex Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe factors that influence our psychological motivations for affiliation and achievement. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Affiliation and Achievement 303. The need to form attachments to others is called a) affiliation. b) attraction. c) autonomy. d) achievement. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe factors that influence our psychological motivations for affiliation and achievement. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Affiliation and Achievement 304. What psychological need is associated with belonging? a) self-worth b) affiliation c) food d) achievement Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe factors that influence our psychological motivations for affiliation

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and achievement. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Affiliation and Achievement 305. According to Diener and Seligman, why is it important to be a part of a social group? a) need for leadership b) stress reduction c) achievement d) evolutionary advantage Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe factors that influence our psychological motivations for affiliation and achievement. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Affiliation and Achievement 306. From an evolutionary perspective, which of the following describes an evolutionary advantage of being part of a social group? a) It raises our self-esteem. b) Groups can help provide food and protection. c) It prevents loneliness and increases levels of happiness. d) It motivates us to pursue our highest need of self-actualization. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe factors that influence our psychological motivations for affiliation and achievement. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Affiliation and Achievement 307. What reflex reinforces an infant’s chances of survival due to affiliation with the mother? a) rooting b) Babinski c) tonic neck reflex d) Moro reflex Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe factors that influence our psychological motivations for affiliation and achievement. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Affiliation and Achievement 308. Positive relationships with friends and significant others help to raise ___.

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a) self-esteem b) emotional bonding c) intelligence d) achievement Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe factors that influence our psychological motivations for affiliation and achievement. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Affiliation and Achievement 309. Which of the following is NOT a need that is filled through affiliation? a) It helps us define who we are. b) It raises our self-esteem. c) It allows us to self-actualize. d) It allows us to feel secure about our place in the world. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe factors that influence our psychological motivations for affiliation and achievement. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Affiliation and Achievement 310. Richard and Marlene have been happily married for 52 years. Because of this healthy longterm relationship, what health consequences can we expect to observe? a) Both will be less depressed, and both will live longer. b) Richard will be less depressed and will live longer. c) Marlene will be less depressed and will live longer. d) We do not have enough information to predict what health consequences will arise over time for this couple. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe factors that influence our psychological motivations for affiliation and achievement. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Affiliation and Achievement 311. Troy was raised in a chaotic and unstable family. His mother had addiction issues and her boyfriends come and went and were often quite abusive. There was little to eat and no affection. Now in his teens, Troy has joined a gang. We might have predicted this outcome for Troy because a) gangs target vulnerable youth.

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b) motivation to succeed in any context is common in abused children. c) affiliation is an essential psychological need that was not being met. d) aggression is learned and requires an outlet. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe factors that influence our psychological motivations for affiliation and achievement. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Affiliation and Achievement 312. If you were researching reasons for adolescent gang involvement, which of the following would be a key factor you would likely uncover in your investigation? a) the desire for money b) the desire for power c) the desire to belong d) the desire to succeed Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe factors that influence our psychological motivations for affiliation and achievement. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Affiliation and Achievement 313. Oscar has just finished his initiation into a dangerous street gang. Although Oscar is aware of the risks, he willingly decided to join the gang. Which of the following best explains Oscar’s decision? a) Oscar likes to feel powerful. b) Oscar is a very aggressive person. c) Oscar is having his affiliation needs met by the gang. d) Oscar likes the socialization the gang has to offer. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe factors that influence our psychological motivations for affiliation and achievement. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Affiliation and Achievement 314. What brain structure is activated when people feel excluded? a) anterior cingulate cortex b) thalamus c) hypothalamus d) red nucleus

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe factors that influence our psychological motivations for affiliation and achievement. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Affiliation and Achievement 315. Danil’s anterior cingulate cortex is being activated in a social situation. What is most likely happening to Danil? a) He is being excluded. b) He is having sex. c) He is winning an award. d) He is eating. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe factors that influence our psychological motivations for affiliation and achievement. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Affiliation and Achievement 316. Hugh is a grade ten student who has just moved to a new school. As the “new kid” he has become the victim of bullying and has not yet made any friends. Which area of Hugh’s brain is likely activated? a) anterior hypothalamus b) posterior hypothalamus c) anterior cingulate cortex d) posterior cingulate cortex Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe factors that influence our psychological motivations for affiliation and achievement. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Affiliation and Achievement 317. Besides being activated by social exclusion, the anterior cingulated cortex also responds to a) overeating. b) sexual arousal. c) physical pain. d) achievement. Answer: c

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe factors that influence our psychological motivations for affiliation and achievement. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Affiliation and Achievement 318. Our motivation to belong may explain which of the following behaviours? a) abusing a significant other b) writing a novel c) joining a gang d) reading this textbook Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe factors that influence our psychological motivations for affiliation and achievement. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Affiliation and Achievement 319. After being separated from her abusive husband for two weeks, Janella decides to give him another chance. Which of the following may be a factor in Janella’s decision? a) Janella feels she can achieve more with her husband than she can alone. b) Janella feels a sense of belonging with her husband that she does not feel alone. c) Janella is intrinsically motivated to reunite with her husband. d) Janella is extrinsically motivated to reunite with her husband. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe factors that influence our psychological motivations for affiliation and achievement. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Affiliation and Achievement 320. Giovanna has been living in a women’s shelter with her two preschoolers. Her husband has begged her to return home. Giovanna has fled her home and returned before, only for the cycle of abuse to be repeated. However, she is seriously considering going home again. Which of the following may be a factor in Giovanna’s decision? a) Giovanna feels she can achieve more with her husband than she can alone. b) Giovanna feels a sense of belonging with her husband that she does not feel alone. c) Giovanna is intrinsically motivated to reunite with her husband. d) Giovanna is extrinsically motivated to reunite with her husband. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Learning Objective: Describe factors that influence our psychological motivations for affiliation and achievement. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Affiliation and Achievement 321. Which of the following two people are most likely to show activation in the SAME brain area? *Van, who just stubbed his toe *Mia, who was just kicked out of her yoga group *Gen, who is doing a logic puzzle *Lira, who is watching TV a) Gen and Lira b) Van and Mia c) Van and Gen d) Mia and Lira Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe factors that influence our psychological motivations for affiliation and achievement. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Affiliation and Achievement 322. When Katrina first went away to university, she called home almost every night because she was homesick. Six weeks into the semester, however, she only calls home once a week and is excited to tell her mother about the clubs she has joined and all the new friends she has made. Katrina probably does not call home as much because a) her drive to succeed is being met. b) she now feels connected to friends at school so her need for affiliation has been met. c) she need for autonomy has been met. d) she feels a sense of achievement. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe factors that influence our psychological motivations for affiliation and achievement. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Affiliation and Achievement 323. According to self-determination theory, our life’s purpose comes from a) reproducing and securing our future. b) instinctive feelings of competence, relatedness, and autonomy. c) having a solid family network. d) relating to our peers. Answer: b

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe factors that influence our psychological motivations for affiliation and achievement. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Affiliation and Achievement 324. What theory states that competence, relatedness, and autonomy are instinctive and give meaning to life? a) self-determination b) emotional intelligence c) affiliation d) predestination Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe factors that influence our psychological motivations for affiliation and achievement. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Affiliation and Achievement 325. Dr. Grenville believes that competence, relatedness, and autonomy are instinctive. Which of the following theories would Dr. Grenville MOST likely support? a) dual-centre theory b) triarchic theory c) self-determination theory d) set point theory Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe factors that influence our psychological motivations for affiliation and achievement. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Affiliation and Achievement 326. What is a term used to describe achievement that is motivated by incentives? a) competition b) affiliation c) self-regulation d) conviction Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe factors that influence our psychological motivations for affiliation and achievement.

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Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Affiliation and Achievement 327. Dillan was in a motor vehicle accident and suffered damage to his prefrontal cortex. Which of the following might you expect of Dillan? a) Dillan may have problems with vision. b) Dillan may not want to affiliate with others. c) Dillan will be afraid to be alone. d) Dillan will have difficulties with impulse control. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe factors that influence our psychological motivations for affiliation and achievement. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Affiliation and Achievement 328. Which of the following individuals most probably experienced prefrontal cortical damage.? a) Matthew claims he cannot see anything but is able to avoid objects in his path. b) Ramona cannot stop eating because she never feels full. c) Theo is impulsive and does not consider the future consequences for his actions. d) Bertrand has lost the ability to comprehend speech. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe factors that influence our psychological motivations for affiliation and achievement. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Affiliation and Achievement 329. Varner is 3 years old, and he is very good at delaying gratification. For instance, he waited his turn for access to a favoured toy, and he waited for his mom to find the camera when it was time to blow out his birthday candles. Based on this, what would you predict about Varner when he gets older? a) He will have gifted IQ. b) He will make a good income. c) He will be married. d) He will do better in school. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe factors that influence our psychological motivations for affiliation and achievement. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Affiliation and Achievement

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330. Three-year-old Jan and Biel were in a delay of gratification experiment in a laboratory setting. Jan was able to delay gratification and Biel was not. Research predicts that Jan will experience greater ___________ success then Biel. a) financial b) academic c) athletic d) occupational Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe factors that influence our psychological motivations for affiliation and achievement. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Affiliation and Achievement 331. Why are young children unable to delay gratification as easily as adults? a) Their prefrontal cortex is not fully developed until early adulthood. b) They do not understand the concept of time in order to wait during the delay. c) Once they put something out of their mind, they do not remember to retrieve it again after the delay. d) Their neurons do not communicate as rapidly as an adult’s. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe factors that influence our psychological motivations for affiliation and achievement. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Affiliation and Achievement 332. Research suggests that the ability to delay gratification may depend on the development of the a) autonomic nervous system. b) basal ganglia. c) prefrontal cortex. d) parietal cortex. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe factors that influence our psychological motivations for affiliation and achievement. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Affiliation and Achievement 333. Vincent is participating in a study in which he is offered 2 cookies now or 4 cookies in half

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an hour. What are the researchers looking for in Vincent? a) his ability to count b) his ability to represent different quantities of food c) his ability to respond to verbal instructions d) his ability to delay gratification Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe factors that influence our psychological motivations for affiliation and achievement. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Affiliation and Achievement 334. Zoe was very hungry, but she knew that she could NOT stop studying to eat because her final exam was in 20 minutes, and she could eat after the test. This example illustrates what phenomenon? a) self-worth b) affiliation c) delayed gratification d) achievement Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe factors that influence our psychological motivations for affiliation and achievement. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Affiliation and Achievement 335. What factor is related to the ability to delay gratification? a) confidence b) self-actualization c) achievement d) impulse control Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe factors that influence our psychological motivations for affiliation and achievement. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Affiliation and Achievement 336. Why is the ability of children to delay gratification so important? a) It is related to intelligence. b) It may predict academic and social success. c) It is linked with decreased psychological disorders.

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d) It is predictive of longevity. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe factors that influence our psychological motivations for affiliation and achievement. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Affiliation and Achievement 337. Six-year old Jerry and his two-year old brother, Liam, are playing with blocks. Every time Jerry takes a block, Liam yells, "Mine"! and grabs it from him. Jerry lets his brother have the blocks because he knows Liam will soon have a nap and he can play with all the blocks himself. Jerry appears to have developed the ability to _____. a) empathize b) delay gratification c) demonstrate sibling affiliation d) accommodate Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe factors that influence our psychological motivations for affiliation and achievement. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Affiliation and Achievement 338. Jessica, 4 years old, is unwilling to wait until her birthday to open her gifts. What neural characteristic can explain why she is having difficulty delaying gratification? a) Neurons in the prefrontal cortex are fully myelinated. b) Neurons in the prefrontal cortex are not fully myelinated. c) Neurons in the cerebellum are not fully myelinated. d) Neurons in the thalamus are fully myelinated. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe factors that influence our psychological motivations for affiliation and achievement. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Affiliation and Achievement 339. What neural characteristic may explain why young children have difficulty delaying gratification? a) Neurons in the prefrontal cortex are fully myelinated. b) Neurons in the prefrontal cortex are not fully myelinated. c) Neurons in the cerebellum are fully myelinated. d) Neurons in the cerebellum are not fully myelinated.

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Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe factors that influence our psychological motivations for affiliation and achievement. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Affiliation and Achievement 340. At what stage of development does the prefrontal cortex contain adult levels of synapses to connect the neurons? a) infancy b) later childhood c) puberty d) young adulthood Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe factors that influence our psychological motivations for affiliation and achievement. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Affiliation and Achievement 341. Forty-year-old Jason became angry and punched his thirty-nine-year old brother, Pierre. This inability to inhibit his immediate thought of aggression is most probably related to Jason’s ___. a) low levels of glucose b) undetected brain damage c) immature cognitive functioning d) poor impulse control Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe factors that influence our psychological motivations for affiliation and achievement. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Affiliation and Achievement 342. Twelve-year-old Xavier has just been caught shoplifting a video game. When the police and his mother ask him why he did it, he told them that he saw it and “just wanted it”. Xavier is exhibiting difficulty with __________ which is related to myelination of the ___________. a) episodic memory; hippocampus b) reward delay processing; parietal cortex c) impulse control; parietal cortex d) impulse control; prefrontal cortex

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Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe factors that influence our psychological motivations for affiliation and achievement. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Affiliation and Achievement 343. What is the difference between the psychological need for affiliation and the need for achievement? a) Brain size influences the need for affiliation, but not achievement. b) Achievement is defined in the same way across different societies, but affiliation is not. c) Affiliation is a basic psychological need, but achievement is not. d) Affiliation is less important than achievement. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe factors that influence our psychological motivations for affiliation and achievement. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Affiliation and Achievement 344. What might motivate someone from a collectivist society to achieve? a) to maintain self-worth b) to make the social group proud c) to help purchase items for the social group d) to make their personal success universal Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe factors that influence our psychological motivations for affiliation and achievement. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Affiliation and Achievement 345. Charlie is an accomplished violinist in his school orchestra. He is unconcerned with what MOST of his classmates think or say, but whenever the teacher gives a nuanced critique of one of Charlie’s solos, he listens with interest. What would you offer as an explanation? a) Charlie has a high need for achievement. b) Charlie prefers moderately difficult tasks. c) Charlie is competitive. d) Charlie is highly self-regulated. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium

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Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe factors that influence our psychological motivations for affiliation and achievement. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Affiliation and Achievement 346. How are motivations different from emotions? a) Motivations navigate people towards a goal, whereas emotions do not. b) Motivations respond to internal needs, whereas emotions are reactions to external stimuli. c) Motivations occur only in humans, whereas emotions are universal among all species. d) Motivations reflect a need for homeostasis, whereas emotions reflect a need for selfactualization. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 347. Which of the following is NOT a component of emotion? a) physiological b) psychological c) cognitive d) behavioural Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 348. Which of the following is a basic emotion? a) jealousy b) shock c) surprise d) shame Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions?

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349. Approximately how many words in the English language refer to emotion? a) 200 b) 300 c) 400 d) 500 Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 350. During her breakup with Jessica, Anika became “tongue-tied” and could NOT express her emotions. This seems incredible because ___words in the English language refer to emotion. a) 169 b) approximately 200 c) 432 d) over 500 Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 351. Despite _____ words in the English language that refer to emotion, Khaled was overcome and unable to express his emotions when he called his in-laws to report the birth of his son, their first grandchild. a) 169 b) approximately 200 c) 432 d) over 500 Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 352. Which of the following is NOT a component of emotion? a) affective

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b) cognitive c) behavioural d) physiological Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 353. Maja hears a funny joke and laughs until her eyes water and her cheeks are sore. Which component of emotion is displayed in this example? a) behavioural b) cognitive c) physiological d) affective Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 354. You are interviewing potential candidates at a company where the corporate culture is strong and important. One of the company’s core values is giving back to the community, so you ask the candidates how they would feel about joining in on volunteer projects on the weekend. Which candidate is revealing the MOST information through non-verbal communication? a) Hilary looks unhappy and crosses her arms as she says that she would be glad to volunteer if that is expected of employees. b) Courtney frowns as she explains that she would love to join the team but is already scheduled to be a volunteer firefighter on the weekends. c) Chelsea looks concerned as she explains that she would not usually be able to volunteer on weekends due to other commitments. d) Daphne smiles and nods as she says that she would enjoy spending a Saturday giving back to the community. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define emotion and discuss the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions?

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355. Which of the following activities is/are related to the physiological component of emotion? a) body temperature b) respiration c) pupil dilation d) all of these Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 356. As Victor is getting ready to give his valedictorian speech, he finds he is perspiring, breathing rapidly, and his mouth is so dry he can barely swallow. Victor is experiencing the ___ component of emotion. a) physiological b) cognitive c) behavioural d) emotional Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 357. What assumption is central to the idea that physiological reactions to stimuli can be used to assess emotional experiences? a) that different emotions can cause similar physiological responses b) that different emotions result in different physiological reactions c) that the emotions caused by experiencing an event are like the emotions experienced when remembering the event d) that our interpretation of the physiological reaction to an event is crucial to how we define our emotional experience Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 358. The subjective appraisal and interpretation of one’s feelings are associated with what

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component of emotion? a) physiological b) cognitive c) behavioural d) social Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 359. As Yoshie is watching the latest psychological thriller movie, she finds that she is feeling nervous, frightened, and tense. Which component of emotion does this illustrate? a) physiological b) cognitive c) behavioural d) emotional Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 360. The subjective appraisal and interpretation of an individual’s feelings and surrounding environment comprises the ________component of emotion. a) physiological b) cognitive c) behavioural d) psychological Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 361. Kai and Terra are sitting next to each other on an airplane. As soon as the plane takes off, Kai goes to sleep. Terra on the other hand is very frightened and grips the arms of the chair for the entire flight. The fact that Kai and Terra could experience the flight so differently reflects the ______________ component of emotion.

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a) physiological b) psychological c) cognitive d) behavioural Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 362. Which of the following is NOT included as part of the cognitive component of emotion? a) an appraisal of the event producing the emotion b) interpreting the emotion that has been evoked c) verbal expression of an emotion d) evaluative thoughts about an emotional experience Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 363. Following a flood, Jane was worried that desperate looters were going to attack her when they saw that she was carrying food and water. As a result, her nervous system required her to take swift action for survival by running away quickly. What response is occurring here? a) fight-or-flight response b) critical stress response c) adaptive feedback response d) parasympathetic nervous system response Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 364. Which of the following is NOT a cognitive function of emotion? a) organizing memory b) prioritizing needs and goals c) improving language acquisition d) guiding decision making

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Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 365. Most precisely, what part of the human nervous system is responsible for producing the physical manifestations of anxiety? a) peripheral nervous system b) parasympathetic nervous system c) autonomic nervous system d) sympathetic nervous system Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 366. What is the difference between the sympathetic and the parasympathetic nervous systems? a) The sympathetic nervous system controls the expression of positive emotions, and the parasympathetic nervous system controls the expression of negative emotions. b) The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for reading emotions in others and the parasympathetic nervous system is responsible for projecting our emotions to others. c) The sympathetic nervous system controls facial expressions, and the parasympathetic nervous system controls nonverbal communication of the entire body. d) The sympathetic nervous system arouses the body into action and the parasympathetic nervous system calms the body back to its normal state. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 367. During emotional arousal, the _____________ nervous system prepares the body for fight or flight and the _____________ nervous system restores the body to homeostasis. a) sympathetic; parasympathetic b) parasympathetic; sympathetic c) autonomic; somatic

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d) somatic; autonomic Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define emotion and discuss the components, measurement, and functions of emotion. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 368. Which of the following are used to express the behavioural component of emotion? a) facial expression b) gestures c) body posture d) all of these Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 369. What is the difference in the accuracy of members from a remote tribe to identify emotions from looking at photographs of facial expressions compared to people from Western society? a) No difference, both are equally accurate. b) Members from the remote tribe are more accurate than people from Western society. c) People from Western society are more accurate than members from the remote tribe. d) Members from the remote tribe are only accurate with photographs of people they know, whereas people from Western society are accurate with people from varied cultures. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 370. William is looking at photographs of a man from the Fore tribe in New Guinea who is making different facial expressions. Which of the following is likely true about William’s ability to identify the facial expressions? a) He will not be able to identify the emotion that belongs with each of the facial expressions. b) He will be able to identify the negative emotions. c) He will be able to identify the six fundamental emotions. d) He will be able to identify the positive emotions.

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Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 371. According to research by Ekman, there are six fundamental emotions. Which of the following is NOT one of these six emotions? a) curiosity b) fear c) surprise d) disgust Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 372. Which of the following is NOT one of Ekman’s six fundamental emotions that participants can typically identify in others? a) surprise b) fear c) embarrassment d) disgust Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 373. Basic emotions are best thought of as a) a group of emotions preprogrammed into all humans regardless of their background or experiences. b) the first emotions that develop in infants that are highly dependent on experience. c) the building blocks of all our complex emotions. d) the emotions of happiness, fear, sadness, and anger. Answer: a

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 374. What emotional response is associated with clenched teeth and furrowed eyebrows? a) frustration b) happiness c) sadness d) anger Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 375. While listening to a news story about the ongoing government efforts in the Middle East, Amelia frowned and slumped her shoulders. What emotion was she expressing? a) anger b) surprise c) frustration d) sadness Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 376. When Jamila discovered a dead mouse in the bag of dog food in her garage, her eyes narrowed, her nostrils were pulled straight up, producing wrinkles at the sides and bridge of the nose, and her lips were raised, with the corners of her mouth turned down. What emotion was Jamila expressing? a) anger b) surprise c) disgust d) sadness Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 377. People who score high on the personality-related dimension of alexithymia find it especially difficult to a) engage with others interpersonally. b) understand facial expressions. c) understand social-based emotions (e.g., embarrassment and shame). d) cognitively process emotion. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: What is Emotion 378. Mikael was recently found to score high on the personality-related dimension of alexithymia. Which of the following would MOST likely be true of Mikael? a) Mikael would probably be extremely sensitive to the emotions of others. b) Mikael has lower activity in his prefrontal cortex and amygdala when viewing emotional content. c) Mikael would process emotional facial expressions faster than someone who scores low on alexithymia. d) Mikael would not use emotional facial expressions. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 379. Hyuk was recently found to score high on the personality-related dimension of alexithymia. Which of the following would MOST likely be true of Hyuk? a) Hyuk would probably be extremely sensitive to the emotions of others. b) Hyuk would have difficulty remembering emotion-related words on a memory test. c) Hyuk would have extreme emotional mood swings. d) Hyuk would not use emotional facial expressions. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: What Are Emotions?

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380. Elijah has difficulty processing the emotions of other people and seems unable to remember emotion-related words. Elijah would likely score high on the personality-related dimension of _____________. a) cyclothymia b) alexithymia c) dysthymia d) emotive-dyslexia Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 381. Nevaeh participated in a study in which she was asked to describe her reactions to a short film using words that describe emotions such as cheerful, angry, and timid. What approach was being used to measure Nevaeh’s emotional experience? a) behavioural displays b) self-report c) associative learning d) physiological reactions Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 382. Piao hid behind a one-way mirror and observed the children interacting in a playroom. By carefully recording what he saw, which approach is being used to document the children’s emotional experience? a) behavioural displays b) self-report c) associative learning d) physiological reactions Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions?

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383. Dr. Griffin is conducting a research study; he shows his participants emotionally-charged photographs and observes their body language and facial expressions. What type of information is Dr. Griffin collecting to measure emotion? a) self-reports b) facial electromyography readings c) physiological responses d) behavioural displays Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 384. Which of the following is NOT a legitimate limitation of the use of self-ratings in the study of emotion? a) They provide a limited picture of a person’s emotional experience. b) They rely on a person’s ability to properly identify and describe an emotional experience. c) There are limited self-report tools available. d) They do not work well with children. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 385. Dr. Ludwig is conducting a study on emotion. He shows his participants an emotionallycharged film and then gives them a questionnaire on how different scenes in the film made them feel. Which measure of emotion is Dr. Ludwig using? a) behavioural displays b) physiological reactions displays c) self-reports d) social observations Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions?

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386. Facial electromyography measures a) a person’s startle response. b) how quickly a particular facial expression occurs. c) the contraction of certain facial muscles associated with different emotions. d) the amount of perspiration on the forehead associated with different emotions. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 387. What physiological measurement technique measures muscle contractions in areas of the face when emotionally charged stimuli are encountered? a) facial EEG b) facial PET c) facial MRI d) facial EMG Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 388. Wesley is having his facial EMG measured while he views different scenes. Which of the following is most likely to be found? a) His eyelids tense when he does not want to look at something. b) His brows furrow when looking at geometric shapes. c) His smiling muscles are active when he views upside down faces. d) His frowning muscles are active when viewing extremely unpleasant stimuli. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 389. Shawnita is on a jury and is required to look at graphic crime scene photos of a murder. How might an EMG determine whether Shawnita found these photos distressing? a) Her eyes are closed, and her head is down. b) Her upper eyelids are drooped, eyebrows are angled to form a “V,” lower lips is jutted

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outward and downward. c) Her facila muscles show heightened activity. d) Her frowning muscles are active, and her eyebrows are lowered and contracted. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 390. Martin is a movie producer who is getting ready to release a new horror movie. To see how scary movie-goers might find the film, he asks a group of people to view the film and then fill out a questionnaire about how the film made them feel. What are some of the problems that Martin may have with this type of measure of emotion? a) Martin may interpret the answers to the questions in the way that would be most favorable to the film. b) His viewers may not be able to accurately identify or describe the emotional experience evoked by the film. c) As the film presents a false scenario, it is unlikely the viewers will feel the same emotions they would in a real situation. d) The viewers probably will not be willing to admit how frightening they found the film. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 391. Shaan is taking an fMRI to demonstrate through brain activity that he is truthfully reporting to his insurance company the events surrounding the fire at his business. How might this fMRI evidence by used in court? a) It will be used as evidence because the fMRI approach can accurately show whether Shaan is telling the truth. b) It will be used as evidence because the fMRI approach can accurately show that Shaan remembers being off-site at the time the fire was set. c) It will not be used as evidence because although the fMRI approach can accurately show whether Shaan is lying, it cannot accurately show how he feels about the fire. d) It will not be used in court as evidence because the fMRI approach cannot accurately detect lying behaviour in individuals. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and

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functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 392. What is the major problem with using lie detectors? a) They have more false positives with men than women. b) They are racially biased. c) They cannot tell if a response is due to emotion or something else. d) They are inaccurate because of user error. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 393. What would be the MOST effective argument against the use of polygraph testing to determine if someone is telling the truth? a) Lying does not trigger the same physiological responses in everyone, and the test cannot attribute specific emotions to physiological changes. b) One in ten polygraph tests will result in an inaccurate determination of truthfulness. c) It has been proven that lying does not generally produce detectable physiological responses. d) Physiological changes measured by a polygraph are not consistent across cultures and should be analyzed in the context of each culture’s display rules. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 394. Which of the following would MOST allow a polygraph testing to be more dependable in detecting guilt? a) Develop a means to detect more subtle changes in autonomic arousal during questioning. b) Develop a scale that measures intensity of emotion, which correlates significantly to feelings of guilt. c) Create a dual polygraph so that a control reading can be taken from a non-guilty party. d) Create a measurement system that can read a person's intent as well as response. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions.

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Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 395. Chioke is showing emotion during a lie detector test because, although innocent, he fears that he will not be believed. Chioke’s experience demonstrates one of the biggest problems with using lie detector tests. What is it? a) The general public does not understand the technology involved well enough to interpret the data properly. b) They cannot be properly tested, because the liar is always instructed to lie, and this may cause a different physiological reaction than lying for real. c) They do not detect lies; they detect emotional reactions to stimuli. d) There is low reliability with lies and low validity with truths. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 396. What involuntary startle reflex was described in the text as a reliable measure of how adults emotionally react to life situations? a) knee jerk b) Babinski c) eye blink d) Moro Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 397. Baldwin, a police detective, is looking at crime scene photos from a murder. Which of the following is most likely to occur when Baldwin is looking at the photos? a) Baldwin’s heart rate will increase. b) Baldwin’s facial muscles will become more relaxed. c) Baldwin’s eye blinks will become more pronounced. d) Baldwin’s facial muscles will twitch. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions.

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Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 398. Dr. Cordon is conducting a research study using various measures of emotional arousal. During the experiment, she presents her participants with images depicting negative and positive emotional stimuli. Which of the following is she NOT likely to find? a) Participants would have more pronounced eye blinks when viewing positive stimuli than negative stimuli. b) Participants would have a higher galvanic skin response for negative stimuli than for positive stimuli. c) The muscles around the participants’ eyebrows would lower and contract for negative stimuli whereas the muscles around the mouth will become more active for positive stimuli. d) Participant’s heart rate would decrease when viewing unpleasant stimuli and increase when viewing pleasant stimuli. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 399. Lucia is watching a documentary on the holocaust. It shows very graphic photos of the suffering of persons in the Nazi concentration camps. She later watches a documentary about puppies. Which of the following accurately describes the changes in heart rate that Lucia would experience while watching both documentaries? a) Lucia’s heart rate would decrease while watching the documentary on the holocaust and increase with the puppy documentary. b) Lucia’s heart rate would increase while watching the documentary on the holocaust and decrease with the puppy documentary. c) Lucia’s heart rate would increase while watching both documentaries. d) Lucia’s heart rate would decrease while watching both documentaries. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 400. Joud thought about her new puppy, Max, and had warm, fuzzy, pleasant thoughts about him. If her heart rate were assessed, what pattern would be observed for this pleasant stimulus? a) reduced b) accelerated c) arrhythmic d) alpha waves

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Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 401. Xaria’s physician just told her that the medical tests indicated cancer. If her heart rate were assessed, what pattern would be observed for this unpleasant/fearful news? a) reduced b) accelerated c) arrhythmic d) alpha waves Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 402. Which of the following would be TRUE of the galvanic skin response? a) Negative emotional arousal would produce a higher galvanic skin response, whereas positive emotional arousal would produce lower response. b) Negative emotional arousal would produce a lower galvanic skin response, whereas positive emotional arousal would produce higher galvanic skin response. c) A lower galvanic skin response would be found for both positive and negative emotional arousal. d) A higher galvanic skin response would be produced by both positive and negative emotional arousal. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 403. Dr. Filbert is conducting a research study on emotional arousal. He places a large electrode on the palm of his participant’s hand and then presents them with negative and positive images. Which measurement is Dr. Filbert using? a) facial electromyography b) heart rate c) galvanic skin response d) ocularmyography

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Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 404. Tarun worked in a psychology lab that studied emotional arousal via skin conductance. Given the discussion in the text, where would a large electrode be placed to measure perspiration levels and skin conductance? a) palm of the hand b) behind the knee c) near the jugular vein in the neck d) near the left eye on the face near the hairline Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 405. Which of the following is admissible in court as evidence of lying? a) fMRI b) classic lie detectors c) facial electromyography (EMG) d) None of these measures are admissible in court. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 406. Which of the following is NOT used to measure physiological reactions of emotion? a) EEG b) facial EMG c) startle reflex d) skin conductance Answer: a Difficulty: Easy

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Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 406. Nayyir believes that she remembers every detail of the day her grandfather died. She remembers her mixed emotions when the extended family arrived at her mother’s house; then she remembers the surreal and sad emotions she experienced when the entire family went to the hospital to say their individual goodbyes. Finally, she remembers her sorrow at leaving her mother alone when the children were made to leave so that life support could be withdrawn. What function of emotions is being illustrated here? a) prioritizing concerns b) making decisions c) goal-directed behaviour d) organizing memories Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 407. Which of the following regarding the function of emotions is accurate? a) Couples who share negative emotions jeopardize the quality of their relationships. b) Emotions disrupt the organization of thoughts and behaviours. c) Individuals who keep emotions private experience difficulties in relationships. d) Emotions exist independent of behaviour. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 408. What patterns of behaviour help us to adapt and survive in our social and physical environments? a) social arbitration b) emotional profusion c) behavioural reflexes d) action tendencies Answer: d Difficulty: Easy

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Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 409. What action tendency evokes forgiveness, motivates reconciliation, and adherence to social norms? a) anger b) embarrassment c) anxiety d) sadness Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 410. Which of the following reflects an action tendency for embarrassment? a) Tony runs into a friend at the mall that he has not seen in a long time. b) When Tony runs into his friend at the mall, he apologizes because he told him he was too sick to go out. c) When Tony sees his friend at the mall, he goes into the nearest store to avoid him as he told him he was too sick to go out. d) After telling Tony he is too sick to go out, Tony runs into a friend in the mall. Tony tells his friend he does not want to speak to him again. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 411. The action tendency of directing our attention to a potential threat and taking appropriate action to avoid or cope with it is associated with the emotion of a) sadness. b) embarrassment. c) anxiety. d) anger. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 412. Jasmine just experienced an intense emotional reaction when her boyfriend of 2 years broke up with her. If she is like 90% of people who have had recent emotional experiences, what is she most likely to do? a) Use this experience as a learning tool to move forward. b) Seclude herself to allow her to express her emotions freely and alone. c) Discuss the emotional experience with someone else. d) Bottle it up inside and try to suppress her emotions. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 413. According to James-Lange, how does an emotion begin? a) elicitation of physiological change b) elicitation of behavioural change c) commitment to a decision d) perception of an event Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 414. Colin was sweaty and hot from the summer sun when his father scolded him. Colin interpreted his sweaty state as occurring due to his father reprimanding him. Who proposed a theory that suggests that physiological responses to a stimulus like the sun provides the basis for our experiencing an emotion? a) James-Lange b) Pavlov c) Cannon-Bard d) Schachter and Singer Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through

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which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 415. Which of the major theories of emotion does the following statement "I am happy because I am laughing" BEST describe? a) James-Lange b) Cannon-Bard c) Two-factor d) Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 416. Which theory of emotion states that perception of a stimulus triggers physiological arousal, which an individual experiences as emotion? a) James-Lange theory. b) Cannon-Bard theory. c) Schachter’s and Singer’s two factor theory. d) Duchenne and Mehrabian’s theory. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 417. We see a black bear in the woods, our hearts race as we begin to run, and then we experience fear. This is best explained by the ___________________. a) James-Lange theory b) Cannon-Bard theory c) facial feedback hypothesis d) Schachter Two-Factor theory Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion

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418. According to the James-Lange theory of emotion, a) the emotion causes the physiological arousal. b) the physiological arousal causes the emotion. c) the physiological arousal and emotion happen simultaneously. d) the physiological arousal and label provided for it contribute to the emotion. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 419. According to Lange, what physiological structure is the root cause of all emotion? a) emotional hub b) vasomotor centre c) sympathetic complex d) arousal nucleus Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 420. Xander believes that if he were to see a bear in the woods, his body would react physiologically and then he would feel fear. Which major theory of emotion does Xander agree with? a) James-Lange b) Cannon-Bard c) Two-Factor d) cognitive-mediational Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 421. The fact that persons with spinal cord injuries continue to experience emotional excitability similar to their functioning prior to their injury disputes which theory of emotion?

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a) James-Lange b) Cannon-Bard c) Schachter and Singer d) cognitive mediational Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 422. What would be the BEST way to scientifically study the cognitive component of emotion? a) Combine self-report surveys with corresponding physiological data. b) Use polygraph tests to measure the accuracy of subject reporting. c) Survey multiple subjects about their emotional states. d) Measure non-verbal communication across cultures. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 423. Trystan believes that the experience of emotion is based on physiological responses, but that there is also a cognitive component that provides context for the emotion. Leon, on the other hand, believes that the experience of emotion depends entirely on the vasomotor system and cognition does NOT play a role at all. Whose theories support Trystan and Leon’s beliefs? a) Trystan – Lange; Leon – James b) Trystan – James; Leon – Cannon c) Trystan – Cannon; Leon – James d) Trystan – James; Leon – Lange Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 424. What is the difference between the James-Lange and the Cannon-Bard theories of emotion? a) The James-Lange theory believes that the emotion leads to physiological arousal and the Cannon-Bard theory believes that physiological arousal leads to the emotion.

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b) The James-Lange theory posits that a cognitive label is necessary for an emotional experience while the Cannon-Bard posits that emotional experiences are separate from cognitive interpretations. c) The James-Lange theory suggests that the thalamus is involved in relaying emotional information while the Cannon-Bard does not mention a role for the thalamus. d) The James-Lange theory argues that physiological arousal precedes the emotion whereas the Cannon-Bard theory argues that physiological arousal and the emotion occur simultaneously. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 425. Which of the following points did Cannon use to dispute the accuracy of the James-Lange theory? a) All our emotions originate from the vasomotor system. b) Physiological arousal is very fast and obvious in response to emotions. c) Adrenalin injections that stimulate the sympathetic nervous system lead to discrete and identifiable emotional reactions. d) Humans with severed spinal cords still report emotional experiences. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 426. Which of the following is NOT an argument used by Cannon to dispute the James-Lange theory of emotion? a) All species display the same emotions yet have different visceral organs. b) Removal of visceral organs does not alter emotions. c) Visceral changes can occur for both emotional and non-emotional events. d) Visceral changes are too slow. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion

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427. The thalamus is responsible for which functions in the Cannon-Bard theory of emotion? a) labeling different emotions b) sending messages to the sympathetic nervous system c) causing awareness of emotion d) creating physiological arousal Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 428. The theory proposing that the subjective experience of emotion and the activation of the sympathetic nervous system occur simultaneously is known as the ________ theory of emotion. a) James-Lange b) Cannon-Bard c) Schachter and Singer d) Cognitive mediational Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 429. Xiang was alone in an elevator that suddenly plummeted several floors before it stopped suddenly. It was only a matter of seconds, but it was long enough for Xiang to simultaneously experience intense physiological arousal and terror. What theory of emotion does Xiang agree with the most? a) James-Lange b) Cannon-Bard c) facial-feedback d) Schachter and Singer’s Two-Factor Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 430. Levi was startled awake by a major earthquake. He immediately felt frightened, broke out in a cold sweat, and jumped out of bed to run for cover—all in the same instant. This description

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of Levi's experience best fits the ____________________ theory of emotion. a) Cannon-Bard b) Singer-Bard c) Cannon-Lange d) Schachter and Singer Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 431. Jonas was anxious about his upcoming wedding. According to the Cannon-Bard theory of emotion, what structure relays information about an event to the sympathetic nervous system once it perceives an event as emotionally laden? a) anterior cingulate cortex b) frontal cortex c) thalamus d) cerebellum Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 432. According to the Cannon-Bard theory of emotion, which structure relays information about an emotionally-stirring event to the sympathetic nervous system? a) anterior cingulate cortex b) frontal cortex c) thalamus d) cerebellum Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 433. According to the Cannon-Bard theory of emotion, which comes first: the experience of emotion or bodily arousal? a) Arousal occurs first.

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b) Emotion occurs first. c) The reaction varies by situation. d) Both occur simultaneously. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 435. Logan suffered a spinal cord injury that has left him paralyzed from the neck down. According to the Cannon-Bard theory of emotion, how would Logan’s experience of emotion have changed since the accident? a) Logan would experience emotions as he did before the accident and his experience may even be more intense for certain emotions. b) Logan would only feel a few emotions, and those he does feel would be much less intense than before the accident. c) Logan would feel basic emotions, but the experience of emotion would have decreased intensity. d) Logan would not experience any emotions as the physiological connection would be severed. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 436. Animals who have been surgically prevented from experiencing physiological arousal still demonstrate behaviours that are characteristic of emotional arousal. This supports the ____________________ theory of emotions. a) Cannon-Bard b) James-Lange c) Schachter's two-factor d) facial feedback Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 437. Yusuf is meeting a blind date on a rickety suspension bridge above a large canyon with

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rapids below. How is he likely to rate her attractiveness compared to if he was meeting her in a park? a) He is likely to find her more sexually attractive on the bridge. b) He is likely to find her less sexually attractive on the bridge. c) He is likely to rate her the same level of attractiveness in both settings. d) He is likely to ignore her initially and focus on the bridge but then her attractiveness will grow on him gradually as he gets used to the bridge. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 438. Participants in Schachter and Singer's classic study initially believed the experiment was testing the effect of a) vitamins on visual skill. b) adrenaline on visual skill. c) epinephrine on emotion expression. d) vitamins on emotion expression. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 439. Some participants in Schachter and Singer's classic study were told that they were getting an injection of "Suproxin". They were told this in order to a) make the participants feel their emotions more strongly. b) make them associate their emotions with the injection. c) hide from them the real purpose of the injection. d) inform them about the purpose of the injection. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 440. According to Schachter and Singer, what faculties determine our emotional state? a) physiological arousal

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b) cognitive c) evolutionary d) genetic Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 441. Schachter and Singer's two-factor theory allows for which possibility that does NOT appear in the other emotion theories? a) Emotion and physiological arousal happening simultaneously. b) Emotion happening before physiological arousal occurs. c) Emotion occurring because of physiological arousal. d) Different emotions corresponding to the same physiological signs. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 442. What group that received epinephrine in the initial study conducted by Schachter and Singer were told that they would experience no side effects? a) informed b) deceived c) misinformed d) control Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 443. Which group that received epinephrine in the initial study conducted by Schachter and Singer was immune to the arousal manipulation? a) informed b) deceived c) misinformed d) control

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Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 444. Quentin and Aiden are in basic training together and are often partnered. They have each interpreted their aversive physical arousal as dislike for the other. What theory of emotion describes the mislabelling of physical arousal? a) James-Lange b) Cannon-Bard c) Schachter-Singer d) Facial Feedback Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 445. Walking down the street, you are confronted by a dog baring its teeth and growling. Your heart rate increases, and you start to run away from this dangerous situation that has caused you to experience fear. Which theory of emotion is illustrated in this example? a) two-step phobic fear response b) Cannon-Bard c) James-Lange d) Schachter and Singer’s Two-Factor Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 446. Walking down the street, you are confronted by a dog baring its teeth and growling. According to the Schachter and Singer Two-Factor theory, which of the following is most likely to be the conclusion you reach? a) Your heart is beating faster because you are afraid. b) You are afraid because your heart is beating faster. c) As your heart is beating fast in this dangerous situation, you must be afraid. d) You are afraid because of the situation.

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Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 447. On the way home from work, Preeya just misses running over a dog because the person in front of her was not paying attention to the road. Later that same evening, her roommate annoys her by listening to her music too loudly. If the Schachter-Singer theory is true, then Preeya will likely a) snap or yell at her roommate. b) ignore the behaviour but internally seethe. c) realize that her annoyance is due to the near accident and not her roommate. d) point out how, based on her earlier experience, there is evidence that inconsideration to others can potentially cause serious problems. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 448. In what way is the James-Lange theory like the Two-Factor theory of emotion? a) They both believe that physiological arousal precedes the emotional experience. b) They both believe that cognitive labels for the physiological arousal are needed before an emotion can be experienced. c) They both place emphasis on the thalamus as a relay centre for emotional information. d) They both agree that negative emotions are processed much faster than positive emotions. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 449. Sabina sees her friend, Violet coming toward her. Violet is flushed, her eyes are wide, and she is breathing rapidly. Thinking that Violet is frightened or upset, Sabina asks Violet what has frightened her so much. Violet responds that she is not frightened at all, but she is excited because she just found out she won a large scholarship. Which theory of emotion explains Sabina’s confusion about Violet’s emotional state? a) James-Lange theory

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b) Cannon-Bard theory c) Facial-feedback theory d) Two-factor theory Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 450. Ramon is feeling particularly tense about an upcoming tennis match. He has physiological symptoms of fear, including sweaty hands and a shakiness in his legs. As he experiences these symptoms, he becomes more fearful that he will NOT succeed in playing his best. The BEST course of action would be for Ramon to a) accept the James-Lange theory and recognize that he cannot alter the feelings that are being triggered in his environment, and therefore face the match as calmly as he can. b) embrace the Schachter and Singer two-factor theory and imagine that the physiological symptoms are because the day is especially hot. c) recognize that according to the Cannon-Bard theory, the tensions and the physiological arousal are happening simultaneously, so he can alter his perception and experience simultaneous relaxation. d) utilize a synthesis of the James-Lange and the Schachter and Singer two-factor theory to reattribute his fear to fear of succeeding rather than fear of failure. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 451. How does two-factor theory differ from Cannon-Bard theory? a) Two-factor theory suggests that we actively assess the context of our arousal and assign emotion to it, while Cannon-Bard theory suggests that emotion is an unconscious reaction to stimuli. b) Two-factor theory suggests that different types of arousal occur before we feel different emotions, while Cannon-Bard theory suggests that arousal and emotion occur at the same time. c) Two-factor theory suggests that emotions trigger a physiological response, while CannonBard theory suggests that physiological arousal causes an emotional response. d) Two-factor theory suggests that arousal is generated in a different part of the brain from emotion, while Cannon-Bard theory suggests that arousal and emotion are generated in the same place. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard

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Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 452. Which is the BEST statement of synthesis of the ideas from James-Lange's, CannonBard's, and Schachter and Singer's two-factor theories of emotions? a) A cognitive appraisal of emotion occurs as well as the physiological changes; this appraisal happens at different times according to the different theories. b) Physiological arousal plays a significant role in the experiencing of emotions, whether it occurs initially, simultaneously, or resultantly. c) The experiencing of the emotional state, such as fear, is the single, culminating step in the processing of emotional reactions. d) Physiological arousal is not the only factor involved in experiencing emotions, but it is the initiating factor. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 453. How is the cognitive-mediational theory of emotion different from Schachter and Singer’s theory? a) Arousal is more important. b) Cognitive interpretations play a broader role. c) Cognitive interpretations play a lesser role. d) The id oversees cognition. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 454. The theory proposing that cognitive interpretations, particularly appraisals, of events are the keys to experiences of emotion is the ________ theory. a) James-Lange b) Cannon-Bard c) Two-factor d) Cognitive mediational Answer: d

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 455. What psychologist developed the cognitive-mediational theory of emotion? a) Piaget b) Lazarus c) Adler d) Skinner Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 456. What is a distinguishing characteristic of the two-factor theory compared to other theories of emotion? a) The two-factor theory accounts for the role of cognitive appraisal. b) The two-factor theory suggests that each emotion is physiologically distinct. c) The two-factor theory states that two messages are sent by the thalamus simultaneously. d) The two-factor theory is supported by scientific experimentation. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 457. Which of the following best illustrates cognitive-mediational theory? a) Jonah sees a bear, his heart starts to race, and he turns and runs away. b) Jonah sees a bear, realizes that it is in a cage, so he is not afraid. c) Jonah sees a bear, his heart races while he feels fear. d) Jonah is afraid of bears, so when he sees a bear, he feels fear. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion

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458. Paisley is walking home from work late at night when she hears a noise behind her. She turns and sees a man following her. Which of the following best illustrates cognitive-mediational theory? a) Paisley sees the man, her heart starts to race, and she turns and runs in fear. b) Paisley sees a man, realizes it is her co-worker and friend Jake, so she is not afraid. c) Paisley sees a man, her heart races while she feels fear. d) Paisley has a phobia of being attacked, so when she sees the man, she panics. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 459. To combat depression, Simone’s therapist told her to practice smiling. What theory of emotion does Simone’s therapist support? a) facial-feedback b) Cannon-Bard c) James-Lange d) Cognitive-mediational Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 460. Which of the following is an example of a situation that would be explained by the facialfeedback hypothesis? a) Dorian smiled to mask his nervousness giving a lecture and found that he actually felt less nervous. b) Alec felt more welcomed and at ease at a party after other partygoers smiled and shook his hand. c) Lexi learned at a young age that it was not appropriate to cry in public but it was appropriate to cry in front of close friends and family. d) Enola was not as scared when she saw that everyone else was enjoying the view from the lookout tower. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through

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which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 461. Your best friend just won the lottery. Even though you may experience envy, you also cannot help feeling excited along with him because you are both grinning from ear to ear. This reaction supports the __________________ regarding the origin and intensification of emotion. a) social reciprocity theory b) two-factor hypothesis c) facial-feedback hypothesis d) Cannon-Bard theory Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 462. What type of smile reveals genuine emotion due to facial activity around the eyes and mouth? a) Duchenne b) social c) simulated d) DuChamps Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 463. What is a difference between a Duchenne smile and a social smile? a) A Duchenne smile requires the use of more muscles than a social smile. b) A social smile requires the use of more muscles than a Duchenne smile. c) A Duchenne smile is deceptive, while a social smile is genuine. d) A social smile is culturally acceptable, while a Duchenne smile is culturally inappropriate. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion

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464. Drew and Wes are having their pictures taken professionally for their profiles on their company website. In his photo, Drew smiles with his eyes and appears open and relaxed while Wes’s smile appears tighter and more controlled. Explain the difference in their emotional expressions. a) Drew exhibits a Duchenne smile and Wes exhibits a social smile. b) Wes exhibits a private smile and Drew exhibits a social smile. c) Drew exhibits a professional smile and Wes exhibits a private smile. d) Drew exhibits a Duchenne smile and Wes exhibits a professional smile. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 465. According to Tomkins, what inborn system is activated by emotionally-stirring stimuli to bypass the parts of the brain involved in cognition? a) reflex b) affect program c) thalamus d) schematic reference Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 466. What vowel sound did Zajonc and colleagues hypothesize would result in positive emotional experiences? a) long “u” sound b) “ah” sound c) soft “a” sound d) long “i” sound Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion

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467. Dehron went to see a movie about reptiles and noticed that he felt happy after an intensive discussion about cobras. This finding is consistent with the results reported by Zajonc and colleagues because what vowel sounds are activated? a) long u b) ah c) i d) short u Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 468. Jelena is singing in a musical that involves her saying the sounds ‘ee’ and ‘ah’ repeatedly. What effect is this likely to have on her mood and why? a) It is likely to lower her mood because making these sounds stimulates a facial muscle pattern that is like when we are sad. b) It is likely to improve her mood because making these sounds lowers the temperature of the blood going to the brain. c) It is likely to lower her mood because making these sounds stimulates the same hormones involved in aggression and territory defense. d) It is likely to improve her mood because making these sounds stimulates the temporal lobe which holds our positive memories. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 469. What term refers to the sensory feedback received from the activity of facial muscles? a) facial efference b) facial emotivity c) facial expression d) facial feedback Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion

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470. Xia is an accountant and is having a busy morning. She is often putting her pencil in her teeth to hold on to it as she shuffles through her papers. According to the facial-feedback theory, what will this do to Xia’s mood? a) It will make her feel frustrated and disorganized. b) It will make her feel more pressured for time. c) It will sadden her mood. d) It will improve her mood. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 471. If you were to test the facial-feedback hypothesis by holding a pen in your mouth, which of the following outcomes would this test reveal? a) There is no difference in emotional experience between holding the pen between your lips or your teeth. b) Holding the pen with your lips (mouth closed) will produce a greater change in emotional sensations than holding the pen with your teeth (mouth open). c) More pleasant feelings will be associated with holding the pen between your teeth (mouth open) relative to holding the pen between your lips (mouth closed). d) The cognitive experience of emotion is only influenced when all of the facial muscles are involved in emotional expression. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 472. Who originated the concept of facial-feedback as a theory of emotion? a) Schachter b) Galton c) Craik d) Darwin Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion

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473. Which of the following are possible explanations as to how facial expressions might produce physiological arousal and the subjective experience of emotions? Select all that apply. a) The patterns of facial muscle activity change the temperature of blood entering the brain, thereby affecting neuron activity in the brain, and eventually producing particular emotional states. b) Facial expressions cause others around us to respond with similar expressions which cause our mood to change to match the expression. c) Facial muscle activity activates the amygdala, which in turn activates the sympathetic nervous system. This leads to the subjective experience of emotion. d) Facial muscle activity activates the hypothalamus which causes the release of the stress hormone cortisol. This activates the sympathetic nervous system and leads to the subjective experience of emotion. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 474. To Darwin, emotions served what function? a) communication b) mate selection c) survival d) affiliation Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 475. According to Darwin, why would emotional expression have evolved? a) They function to increase our awareness of things that are dangerous and safe. b) They provide us with another important clue as to how we should interpret environmental events. c) They serve a communicative function that is essential to survival. d) They provide time for cognitive interpretations of a situation to become evident. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through

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which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 478. When do people begin to display the basic emotions and associated facial expressions? a) infancy b) 2–6 years c) adolescence d) adulthood Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 479. The study and enhancement of positive feelings, positive traits, and positive abilities is called a) Constructive Psychology. b) Progressive Psychology. c) Positive Psychology. d) Pseudopsychology. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify some factors that influence whether or not a person is happy. Section Reference: What about Positive Emotions? 480. What newer area of psychological research investigates the enhancement of feelings such as happiness and optimism and traits such as perseverance and wisdom? a) positive psychology b) clinical psychology c) behaviourist psychology d) social psychology Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify some factors that influence whether or not a person is happy. Section Reference: What about Positive Emotions? 481. Positive psychology is best defined as a) the study of ways to improve ourselves, including our physical and mental health, as well as

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ways to improve society, including altruism and empathy. b) the study and enhancement of positive feelings, positive traits, positive abilities, and virtues that enhance the well-being of society. c) the study of how our personality characteristics dictate our typical ways of interpreting events. d) the study of how to turn negative emotions into positive emotions. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify some factors that influence whether or not a person is happy. Section Reference: What about Positive Emotions? 482. Dominic volunteers twice a week serving dinner at a soup kitchen. Which aspect of Positive psychology is demonstrated by this example? a) positive feelings b) positive traits c) positive abilities d) positive socialization Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Identify some factors that influence whether or not a person is happy. Section Reference: What about Positive Emotions? 483. According to Positive Psychology, which of the following would be an example of positive feelings? a) Kyle’s brother was killed by a drunk driver. Kyle forgave the driver of the car. b) Priya volunteers once a week at a local homeless shelter. c) Alexander has just lost his job. He feels that this will now give him the time he needs to look for a better job. d) Despite many personal obstacles, Isla has just graduated from university. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Identify some factors that influence whether or not a person is happy. Section Reference: What about Positive Emotions? 484. Ahmed wanted to know how he could enhance his affirming emotions to make his life and the lives of others more enjoyable. What new area of psychology should he research? a) positive psychology b) clinical psychology c) existential psychology d) psychoanalytic psychology

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Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Identify some factors that influence whether or not a person is happy. Section Reference: What about Positive Emotions? 485. Yolanda is a graduate student in clinical psychology, and she is very tired of focusing on things that are wrong with people. She instead wants to learn about people who find happiness and how they do it. What field of psychology should Yolanda switch to? a) developmental psychology b) positive psychology c) neuropsychology d) social psychology Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Identify some factors that influence whether or not a person is happy. Section Reference: What about Positive Emotions? 486. Which of the following characteristics are happy people MOST likely to possess? a) high self-esteem b) occupational satisfaction c) leadership skills d) high social skills Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Identify some factors that influence whether or not a person is happy. Section Reference: What about Positive Emotions? 487. Yvonne is a graduate student studying positive psychology. What emotion is she most likely focusing on in her studies? a) happiness b) sadness c) empathy d) compassion Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Identify some factors that influence whether or not a person is happy.

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Section Reference: What about Positive Emotions? 488. Ren is a graduate student who is focusing on how constructive life experiences play a role in adaptive qualities such as optimism, perseverance, and wisdom. Ren is most likely studying _____ psychology. a) clinical/counseling b) developmental c) positive d) cognitive Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Identify some factors that influence whether or not a person is happy. Section Reference: What about Positive Emotions? 489. Most people from around the world report that they are happy. Which of the following countries reports the highest levels of happiness? a) Mexico b) New Zealand c) United Arab Emirates d) Canada Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify some factors that influence whether or not a person is happy. Section Reference: What about Positive Emotions? 490. What percentage of people typically report being unhappy? a) 10% b) 17% c) 23% d) 30% Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify some factors that influence whether or not a person is happy. Section Reference: What about Positive Emotions? 491. What is the relationship between happiness and chronological age? a) strong b) moderate

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c) minimal d) zero Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify some factors that influence whether or not a person is happy. Section Reference: What about Positive Emotions? 492. According to a research study cited in your textbook, which of the following people would report the greatest level of enjoyment with their lives as a whole? a) Erik, from Denmark b) Jackson, from Canada c) Adam, from the United States d) Gabriella, from Spain Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Identify some factors that influence whether or not a person is happy. Section Reference: What about Positive Emotions? 493. Which of the finding is NOT an accurate research finding about happiness? a) People who are unemployed report they are not happy. b) Healthy people over the age of 65 are happier than younger people. c) Women and men are equally as happy. d) Most people with spinal cord injuries are only slightly less happy than other people. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 494. Which of the following individuals would most likely rate their happiness highly? a) Yan, 32, who has a low socio-economic status b) Rick, 46, who has a spinal injury c) Ida, who is 72 and in good health, a grandmother d) Diego, 24, who is single, and in university Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis

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Learning Objective: Identify some factors that influence whether or not a person is happy. Section Reference: What about Positive Emotions? 495. Deepti is a healthy and married 68-year-old who is very optimistic and outgoing. Which of the following characteristics of Deepti is NOT related to higher levels of happiness? a) female (compared to male) b) over 65 years of age (compared to younger adults) c) optimistic and outgoing (compared to pessimistic and reserved) d) married (compared to single) Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Identify some factors that influence whether or not a person is happy. Section Reference: What about Positive Emotions 496. Twenty-two-year-old Olivia and her forty-seven-year-old mother, Janet, are going to visit their seventy-year-old neighbor, Ruth. According to research on happiness, which one of these women will report the highest levels of happiness? a) Leslie will report being happier than Janet or Ruth. b) Janet will report being happier than Leslie, but not as happy as Ruth. c) Janet will report being happier than Ruth, but not as happy as Leslie. d) Ruth will report being happier than either Janet or Leslie. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 497. Lilly was a happy child who always displayed an optimistic attitude. As an adult, however, she struggled with poverty as well as health issues. Based on the discussion in your textbook, if you asked Lilly how happy she is, what would you expect her to report? a) She is very unhappy because poverty causes people to feel unhappy. b) She is happy because the best predictor of future happiness is past happiness. c) She is unhappy because people who have poor health report being unhappy. d) She is unhappy because women are typically less happy than men. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Identify some factors that influence whether or not a person is happy. Section Reference: What about Positive Emotions?

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498. Pablo’s identical twin, Hugo, is a very happy person. What can we expect about Pablo? a) There is no way to know. There is no correlation between twin happiness. b) He is dependent on Hugo for his happiness. c) He is depressed. d) He is also happy. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Identify some factors that influence whether or not a person is happy. Section Reference: What about Positive Emotions 499. Which of the following is not related to empirical findings? a) Highly optimistic people have a 55% reduced risk of death from any cause. b) Highly optimistic people have a 23% reduced risk of heart problems. c) A temperamental predisposition to look at life optimistically is more important than an individual’s life situation. d) Only one person in a hundred reports being “not too happy.” Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify some factors that influence whether or not a person is happy. Section Reference: What about Positive Emotions? 500. In what way does positive psychology differ from other branches of psychology? a) It does not use inferential statistics to analyze data. b) It accepts fewer objective ways of measuring behaviour compared to other branches of psychology. c) It assumes that most people are living unfulfilled lives and it strives to remedy that. d) It focuses on positive emotions and traits. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Identify some factors that influence whether or not a person is happy. Section Reference: What about Positive Emotions? 501. Which of the following is the most important factor in happiness? a) happiness means different things to different people b) wealth c) health d) being married

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Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify some factors that influence whether or not a person is happy. Section Reference: What about Positive Emotions? 502. Which of the following characteristics leads to a 55% reduced risk of death from any cause? a) being from a large family b) being married c) being optimistic d) being wealthy Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify some factors that influence whether or not a person is happy. Section Reference: What about Positive Emotions? 503. What is the best predictor of future happiness? a) clinical assessment b) past happiness c) money d) social status Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify some factors that influence whether or not a person is happy. Section Reference: What About Positive Emotions?

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MATCHING QUESTIONS 504. Match the appropriate terms in the left column to the definitions in the right column. Terms A. Intrinsic motivation B. Extrinsic motivation C. Lateral hypothalamus D. Ventromedial region of the hypothalamus E. Prefrontal cortex F. Body weight set point G. Body mass index H. Self-determination theory I. Affiliation J. Dual centre theory K. Yerkes-Dodson law L. Arousal theory M. Drive-reduction theory N. Incentive theory O. Instinct theory

___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___

Definitions 1. A weight that individuals typically return to even after dieting or overeating. 2. Belief that competence, relatedness, and autonomy are instinctive and give purpose and meaning to life. 3. Belief that behaviour is motivated by the need to match optimum levels of emotion needed for a task. 4. Belief that behaviour is motivated by biological needs to maintain the body in a state of balance or equilibrium. 5. Belief that activity in one brain area serves to inhibit the area that serves the opposite function. 6. Region of the brain important in signaling thirst and hunger. 7. Engaging in a behaviour simply for the satisfaction that is part of doing it. 8. The need to form attachments to other people for support, guidance, and protection. 9. Belief that behaviours originate from a set of behavioural blueprints. 10. Engaging in a behaviour due to the influence of factors outside ourselves.

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Answer: 1. F: Body weight set point 2.

H: Self-determination theory

L: Arousal theory

M: Drive-reduction theory

J: Dual centre theory

C: Lateral hypothalamus

A: Intrinsic motivation

I: Affiliation

O: Instinct theory

10. B: Extrinsic motivation Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

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505. Match the appropriate terms in the left column to the definitions in the right column. Terms A. James-Lange theory B. Cannon-Bard theory C. Two-factor theory D. Cognitive-mediational theory E. Facial feedback theory F. Evolutionary theory G. Differential emotions theory

___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___

Definitions 1. Some innate, basic emotions are preprogrammed into all people, regardless of culture or country of origin. 2. Subjective experiences of emotion are influenced by sensory feedback from facial muscular activity, or facial efference. 3. Specific emotions or sets of emotions become more prominent during specific life stages as they serve stage-related developmental processes. 4. A theory proposing that felt emotions result from physiological changes, rather than being their cause. 5. Belief that an emotional state is a function of both physiological arousal and cognition. 6. Cognitive interpretations, particularly appraisals, of events are the keys to experiences of emotion. 7. The subjective experience of emotion and the activation of the sympathetic nervous system (that is, bodily arousal) occur simultaneously.

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Answer: 1.

F: Evolutionary theory

E: Facial feedback theory

G: Differential emotions theory

A: James-Lange theory

C: Two-factor theory

D: Cognitive-mediational theory

B: Cannon-Bard theory

Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

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506. Match the appropriate terms in the left column to the definitions in the right column. Terms A. Sympathetic nervous system B. Parasympathetic nervous system C. Facial efference D. Basic emotions E. Emotion F. Action tendencies G. Emotional intensity H. Emotion dysregulation I. Display rules

___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___

Definitions 1. Unhealthy attempts to regulate emotion 2. An individual state that occurs in response to either an external or an internal event 3. Cultural expectations that prescribe how, when, and by whom emotions should be expressed 4. The characteristic strength with which an individual typically experiences emotion 5. Sensory feedback from facial muscular activity 6. Mobilization of internal resources to prime the organism to take swift action for survival 7. Specific emotions are associated with predictable patterns of behaviour

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Answer: 1.

H: Emotion dysregulation

E: Emotion

I: Display rules

G: Emotional intensity

C: Facial efference

A: Sympathetic nervous system

F: Action tendencies

Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

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FILL-IN-THE-BLANK 507. An example of an innate reflex in babies explained by the turning of their heads and searching for a mother’s nipple prior to feeding is the ___ reflex. Answer: rooting Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 508. The theory that best explains why we sweat on a sweltering day is ___. Answer: drive theory Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 509. The tendency of the body to maintain itself in a state of equilibrium is known as ___. Answer: homeostasis Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 510. Jasmine has just accepted a lower-paying job because the new job is more interesting. The theory that best explains Jasmine’s decision is the ___theory of motivation. Answer: arousal Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 511. Georgio has been working on an assembly line where he puts three bolts into one part of an automobile. Lately, he has been forgetting one of the bolts on several parts each day. Georgio’s inferior performance could likely be explained by the ___. Answer: Yerkes-Dodson Law

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 512. How important an incentive is to an individual person is called ___. Answer: incentive salience Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 513. At the top of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs is the need for ___. Answer: self-actualization Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 514. Intra- and extra-cellular fluid levels is critical for the generation of ___. Answer: action potentials Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 515. Water ___ occurs when ingesting too much water causes improper levels of ions and salt balance in the intra- and extracellular spaces. Answer: intoxication Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 516. Stomach cues that signal us to stop eating are known as ___ cues. Answer: satiety or satiation

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 517. A genetic condition linked to an insatiable appetite that leads to obesity is known as ___ syndrome. Answer: Prader-Willi Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 518. Current estimates indicate that nearly ___ percent of the Canadian population is obese. Answer: 23 Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 519. People with anorexia usually have a(n) ___ body image. Answer: distorted Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 520. A cultural arrangement where women have multiple male partners is termed ___. Answer: polyandry Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 521. According to Kaplan, the element of ___ occurs at the beginning of the sexual response cycle and determines whether one is “in the mood.”

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Answer: desire Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 522. On average, sex drive in males declines with age as testosterone levels ___. Answer: drop, decline, decrease Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 523. Current research strongly suggests that homosexuality is a ___ condition that CANNOT be “cured.” Answer: biological Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 524. Unconscious motivation refers to motivation that cannot be _____.. Answer: verbalized Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how unconscious/conscious, approach/avoidance, intrinsic/extrinsic, and fixed/growth mindsets affect our motivational drive. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Individual Factors 525. The concept of _____ suggests that people are more strongly motivated to avoid a loss than to achieve a gain. Answer: loss aversion Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

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Learning Objective: Describe how unconscious/conscious, approach/avoidance, intrinsic/extrinsic, and fixed/growth mindsets affect our motivational drive. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Individual Factors 526. The _____ principle states that individuals choose to avoid painful experiences and approach pleasurable experiences. Answer: hedonic Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how unconscious/conscious, approach/avoidance, intrinsic/extrinsic, and fixed/growth mindsets affect our motivational drive. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Individual Factors 527. Engaging in a behaviour that is satisfying in and of itself is ___ motivating. Answer: intrinsically Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how unconscious/conscious, approach/avoidance, intrinsic/extrinsic, and fixed/growth mindsets affect our motivational drive. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Individual Factors 528. _____ is a belief that hard work and effort can improve a person’s skill or talent in a particular area. Answer: Growth mindset Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how unconscious/conscious, approach/avoidance, intrinsic/extrinsic, and fixed/growth mindsets affect our motivational drive. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Individual Factors 529. Anna decides to take a part-time position at the local veterinary hospital because she thinks the work would be personally rewarding to her. Her action is likely a result of ___ motivation. Answer: intrinsic Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe how unconscious/conscious, approach/avoidance, intrinsic/extrinsic, and fixed/growth mindsets affect our motivational drive. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Individual Factors

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530. Being part of a ___ group, whether it is with family or friends, allows us to feel secure about our place in the world. Answer: social Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe factors that influence our psychological motivations for affiliation and achievement. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Affiliation and Achievement 531. The fear of social ___ is a powerful motivator that may explain why people remain in abusive relationships and join gangs. Answer: exclusion or isolation Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe factors that influence our psychological motivations for affiliation and achievement. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Affiliation and Achievement 532. The theory of ___ states that competence, relatedness, and autonomy are instinctive. Answer: self-determination Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe factors that influence our psychological motivations for affiliation and achievement. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Affiliation and Achievement 533. Mature thought processes such as goal setting and planning CANNOT occur without an intact ___ cortex. Answer: prefrontal Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe factors that influence our psychological motivations for affiliation and achievement. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Affiliation and Achievement 534. An individual state that occurs in response to some internal or external event is defined as a(n) ___.

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Answer: emotion Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 535. Pupil ___ is a physiological response to emotion. Answer: dilation Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 536. Ekman and colleagues found that people can typically identify 6 emotions from facial expression ___. Answer: cues Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 537. ___ observations of emotion are the most widely used approach to study emotion. Answer: Behavioural Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 538. A physiological measure of emotion that collects data on muscle contractions in the face is known as facial ___. Answer: electromyography Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

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Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 539. Patterns of behaviour that help us adapt and survive in our environments are known as ___ tendencies. Answer: action Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 540. According to Lange, a collection of nerves and muscles that causes blood vessels to constrict or dilate is referred to as the ___ centre. Answer: vasomotor Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 541. Schachter and Singer believed that earlier theories of emotion neglected the influence of ___ in our emotional experiences. Answer: cognition Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 542. Lazarus argued that cognitive ___ serves as a mediator between environmental stimuli and people’s reactions to those stimuli. Answer: appraisal Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion

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543. When a smile involves muscle activity around the eyes and mouth, it is described as a genuine or ___ smile. Answer: Duchenne Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 544. According to the evolutionary perspective, emotions serve a ___ function. Answer: communicative Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 545. In general, people with spinal cord injuries report that they are slightly ___ happy than others. Answer: less Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify some factors that influence whether or not a person is happy. Section Reference: What about Positive Emotions?

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SHORT ANSWER ESSAY QUESTIONS 546. If all behaviours were innate, which two types of psychological experiments would no longer be necessary? Answer: learning and memory Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 547. What bodily adaptation is activated when external temperature falls, and our body becomes too cold? Answer: shivering Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 548. What scientific law states that ideal task performance occurs when our arousal level is at the optimal level for the difficulty of a task? Answer: Yerkes-Dodson Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 549. Name an external motivation to graduate from university/college. Answer: employment, monetary, recognition, approval, etc. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 550. What needs reside on the tier directly above the most basic needs in Maslow’s hierarchy? Answer: safety needs

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 551. What two mechanisms drive our need for water? Answer: volumetric drive and maintaining an appropriate ion to water balance Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 552. What two chemicals that are present in the bloodstream and related to the metabolism of food have been widely studied? Answer: glucose and lipids Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 553. Explain the dual-centre theory of motivation as it applies to eating behaviour. Answer: When we are hungry, activity in one area (e.g., LH) inhibits activity in the other (e.g., VMH). After eating, the VMH becomes active and inhibits the LH. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 554. What hormone has been linked to the regulation of hunger through the ventromedial area of the hypothalamus? Answer: insulin Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 555. What is the term used to describe the weight at which our adult bodies tend to stabilize at a specific level?

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Answer: set point Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 556. In addition to the physical risks of obesity, name a psychological risk that obese individuals are at an increased risk of having. Answer: may be more likely to suffer from mood disorders such as anxiety and depression Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 557. Describe some of the negative and positive stereotypic characteristics often attributed to obese persons. Answer: Negative: less attractive, lazy, stupid, incompetent. Positive: happy, friendly Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 558. What behavioural cycle defines bulimia? Answer: bingeing and purging Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 559. What is polygamy? Answer: a cultural arrangement in which men have multiple wives Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex

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560. What significant age-related sexual finding did Masters and Johnson uncover? Answer: Sex can continue into old age if there is a willing partner and physical health remains. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 561. What area of the brain is involved in the reward processes and interacts with female hormones to influence feelings of attachment to a sexual partner? Answer: ventral tegmental Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 562. According to the evolutionary perspective, what two male characteristics do females find attractive? Answer: dependability and strength (associated with the ability to care for children) Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 563. What are the two most common tests used to tap into unconscious motivations? Answer: IAT and TAT Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how unconscious/conscious, approach/avoidance, intrinsic/extrinsic, and fixed/growth mindsets affect our motivational drive. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Individual Factors 564. What is hedonic motivation? Answer: Choosing to avoid painful experiences and approach pleasurable experiences.

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how unconscious/conscious, approach/avoidance, intrinsic/extrinsic, and fixed/growth mindsets affect our motivational drive. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Individual Factors 565. What is the basic premise of loss aversion? Answer: People are more strongly motivated to avoid a loss than to achieve a gain. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how unconscious/conscious, approach/avoidance, intrinsic/extrinsic, and fixed/growth mindsets affect our motivational drive. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Individual Factors 566. How are growth mindset and fixed mindset different?? Answer: Fixed mindset is a belief that talent is innate and relatively unaffected by hard work or effort whereas growth mindset maintains that hard work and strategy can help to achieve a goal. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe how unconscious/conscious, approach/avoidance, intrinsic/extrinsic, and fixed/growth mindsets affect our motivational drive. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Individual Factors 567. According to the evolutionary perspective, what are two advantages of belonging to a social group? Answer: Group provides food and protection. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe factors that influence our psychological motivations for affiliation and achievement. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Affiliation and Achievement 568. What area of the brain is activated when we feel the pain of social exclusion? Answer: anterior cingulate cortex Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe factors that influence our psychological motivations for affiliation and achievement. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Affiliation and Achievement

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569. Name one culture discussed in your text that reportedly places less emphasis on individualization or autonomy. Answer: Chinese Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe factors that influence our psychological motivations for affiliation and achievement. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Affiliation and Achievement 570. Describe an instance from your own life in which a biological motivation was inhibited in favour of gaining a social reward. Answer: Example: Being a “big boy” or “big girl” for a parent and not whining when you are hungry on a road trip. In effect, hunger is inhibited for the reward of the parent’s approval. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe factors that influence our psychological motivations for affiliation and achievement. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Affiliation and Achievement 571. What type of cultures do NOT consider autonomy an essential element of the selfdetermination theory? Answer: collectivist Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe factors that influence our psychological motivations for affiliation and achievement. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Affiliation and Achievement 572. Identify two changes in bodily arousal that may accompany an emotion. Answer: increased heart rate, body temperature, and respiration Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 573. Identify two ways in which emotion can be expressed.

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Answer: verbally or non-verbally (through actions such as smiling, frowning, laughing, or slouching) Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 574. What component of the nervous system acts to return the body to a normal state following an intense physiological reaction to emotion? Answer: parasympathetic nervous system Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 575. What phenomenon is described by the finding that people need to share emotionally intense experiences with others? Answer: secondary social sharing Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 576. How is heart rate affected by the presentation of unpleasant stimuli such as a picture of mutilated bodies? Answer: Heart rate declines. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 577. Which action tendency evokes forgiveness and motivates reconciliation? Answer: embarrassment

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 578. Who was the leading critic of the James-Lange theory of emotion? Answer: Cannon Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 579. When the cause for physical arousal is NOT apparent, from where do we obtain clues to help us identify the cause? Answer: environment Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 580. What types of stimuli did Lazarus use when studying emotional response? Answer: stressful films Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 581. What type of smile only involves muscles around the mouth? Answer: social Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion

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582. Why may emotional patterns be passed from one generation to the next? Answer: They play a role in survival. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 583. What term is used to describe the level of happiness people consistently return to during their lifetimes? Answer: happiness set point Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify some factors that influence whether or not a person is happy. Section Reference: What about Positive Emotions?

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ESSAY QUESTIONS 584. Name one shortcoming of instinct theory. Answer: Cannot explain individual differences; some people pursue experiences that others find aversive. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 585. Why are thrill-seeking behaviours difficult for drive-reduction theories to explain? Answer: They may scare or terrify a person out of emotional and physical equilibrium. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 586. According to the Yerkes-Dodson law, what is the relationship between task difficulty and arousal? Answer: Task difficulty is inversely related to arousal such that performance is optimal for difficult tasks when arousal is low, whereas performance is optimal for easy tasks when arousal is high; negative correlation. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 587. Describe the difference between primary and secondary incentives. Provide an example of each type of incentive. Answer: Primary incentives are innate, whereas secondary incentives are learned. A primary incentive may be food, whereas a secondary incentive may be money. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 588. Describe the behaviour of someone who has achieved self-actualization.

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Answer: Exhibits selfless, altruistic behaviour. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation 589. Describe how leptin acts as a chemical signal to “tell” the brain to stop eating. Answer: Leptin is a chemical that is released by fat cells as they grow larger. When brain receptors detect elevated levels of leptin, they send signals to inhibit further eating. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 590. Describe how damage to the ventromedial area of the hypothalamus (VMH) can change how glucose is regulated in the body. Answer: Damage to the VMH can increase insulin levels, which causes fat cells to store more glucose. This results in fat deposits regardless of the amount of food ingested as satiety signals are impeded. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our levels of hunger and our eating behaviour Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 591. Describe how the likelihood of overeating can be explained from an evolutionary perspective. Answer: Early people evolved at a time when food availability was not predictable. When they encountered an overabundance of food, they may have overeaten to store more fat, which increased the chances of survival when food was scarce. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 592. Describe the psychological effects of bulimia. Answer: Bulimics are often ashamed of their bingeing and purging cycles, so they try to keep their behaviour a secret. This need for secrecy may contribute to anxiety and depression.

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the factors that affect our motivation to drink and to eat. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Thirst and Hunger 593. The text discusses how peahens (female peacocks) seem to select their mates based on the number of tail feather “eyes” found on the male peacock’s tail. Describe how this method of mate selection may lead to natural selection and reproductive fitness. Answer: If males with a greater number of tail feather eyes have more opportunities to mate, they will produce more offspring (reproductive fitness). As the offspring will likely also have more tail feather eyes, they will also reproduce more, thereby increasing the number of peacocks with more tail feather eyes. Those peacocks with fewer tail feather eyes will be given less chance to reproduce, therefore, there will be fewer of these types of peacocks (natural selection). Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 594. Identify and describe the four phases of human sexual response as defined by Masters and Johnson. Answer: Excitement is the first phase that acts as the beginning of arousal. Plateau is the second phase during which we are fully aroused. Third, orgasm involves a peak in muscle tension and blood pressure. Finally, resolution returns the muscles and heart rate to normal. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 595. Describe the results of neuroimaging studies by indicating what brain areas are active while experimental participants are aroused. Answer: While participants watched erotic films, brain areas such as the hypothalamus, the amygdala, the prefrontal cortex, the striatum, and the ventral tegmental area were activated. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex

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596. Describe two gender-related differences in sex drives between males and females. Answer: The frequency of arousal and the number of sexual fantasies is greater for men than women, and this has led researchers to believe that men have a higher sex drive. Women are most likely to abstain from sex between relationships, and they wait longer, on average, to have sex in a relationship. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 597. Describe three possible biological factors that influence sexual orientation. Answer: genetics, hormones, and brain anatomy Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe factors that affect our motivation to choose a mate and to have sex. Section Reference: Biological Motivations: Mate Choice and Sex 598. Describe how avoidance motivation and approach motivation relate to the concepts of the hedonic principle and loss aversion. Answer: The hedonic principle maintains that we avoid painful experiences and approach pleasurable experiences. However, approach and avoidance motivation are not equal. Loss aversion proposes that avoidance motivation is stronger than approach motivation. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how unconscious/conscious, approach/avoidance, intrinsic/extrinsic, and fixed/growth mindsets affect our motivational drive. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Individual Factors 599. Describe growth mindset and fixed mindset and explain how they are related to motivation to succeed. Answer: Fixed mindset has a detrimental effect on success because the belief that talent is innate prevents individuals from persevering on a task. Growth mindset motivates individuals to succeed as this mindset is based on the belief that skill sets can be developed and enhanced through hard work. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe how unconscious/conscious, approach/avoidance, intrinsic/extrinsic, and fixed/growth mindsets affect our motivational drive.

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Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Individual Factors 600. Describe one piece of evidence that suggests that humans seek a connection from others from birth. Answer: The “rooting” reflex is displayed by young infants and includes an orientation of the head and mouth while seeking its mother’s breast for feeding. Research suggests that this behaviour is imperative for forming a healthy mother-child bond—an infant’s first social relationship. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe factors that influence our psychological motivations for affiliation and achievement. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Affiliation and Achievement 601. Describe the relationship between affiliation and achievement and self-actualization. Answer: When we are deprived of human contact, we lose our drive to achieve and therefore, lose our motivation to self-actualize. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe factors that influence our psychological motivations for affiliation and achievement. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Affiliation and Achievement 602. How does intrinsic motivation “fit” into the theory of self-determination? Answer: Intrinsic motivation is associated with the qualities of self-determination theory: competence, relatedness, and autonomy. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe factors that influence our psychological motivations for affiliation and achievement. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Affiliation and Achievement 603. What two abilities that are critical to achievement tend to develop over time as a child ages? Answer: impulse control and ability to delay gratification Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe factors that influence our psychological motivations for affiliation and achievement.

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Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Affiliation and Achievement 604. What beliefs do individuals from collectivist cultures have about achievement? Answer: Achievement is viewed as a group rather than an individual activity; individuals may be motivated to achieve, but it is generally for the good of their organization or country rather than for selfish reasons. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe factors that influence our psychological motivations for affiliation and achievement. Section Reference: Psychological Motivations: Affiliation and Achievement 605. How does the cognitive component of emotion determine how intensely we experience an emotion? Answer: We must cognitively interpret an event to judge its seriousness. The physiological characteristics of bodily arousal on a roller coaster may be similar to what is experienced prior to a plane crash, yet our emotional reaction would be quite different given the context of interpretation. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 606. What three methodologies are used to measure emotions? Answer: Researchers typically measure behavioural displays of emotion, collect self-reports of emotion, and conduct examinations of physiological reactions to emotion. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 607. Describe how skin conductance can be used to measure emotional arousal. Answer: Skin conductance or the electrical resistance of the skin reflects the level of perspiration that a person is experiencing. High conductance is associated with high emotional arousal. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension

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Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 608. Describe the relationship between emotional expression and relationship quality. Answer: People who internalize their emotions and do not express them are likely to report problems with closeness and a decreased ability to form intimate relationships. Couples who talk about their emotions report more happiness. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define emotion, types of emotion, and the components, measurement, and functions of these emotions. Section Reference: What Are Emotions? 609. Describe two of Cannon’s criticisms of the James-Lange theory of emotion. Answer: Total separation of the visceral organs from the central nervous system does not alter emotional behaviour. The viscera are insensitive structures that produce the same changes in different emotional states. Visceral changes are too slow to be the source of emotions. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 610. Describe Schachter and Singer’s Two-Factor theory of emotion. Answer: While physiological arousal is a necessary factor for an emotion to occur, it is the cognitive interpretation of the emotion that provides a label for what we are feeling. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 611. Describe the facial-feedback theory of emotion. Answer: Subjective experiences of emotion are influenced by sensory feedback from the activity of facial muscles. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through

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which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 612. Describe how facial muscle activity may influence the physiological function of the brain. Answer: Different muscle activity may change the temperature of blood entering the brain, thereby affecting neural activity and producing variable emotions. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 613. What research evidence suggests that all people, regardless of culture or country of origin, can effectively interpret basic emotions? Answer: Cross-cultural studies have investigated whether people can accurately interpret the meaning of facial expressions presented in photographs. Even people who have never seen a photograph could perform this task accurately. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss the major theories of emotion, and identify the pathways through which emotions are experienced according to each theory. Section Reference: Theories of Emotion 614. Describe three personality characteristics that happy people tend to share. Answer: Happy people are generally optimistic, outgoing, curious, goal-directed, and possess high self-esteem. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Identify some factors that influence whether or not a person is happy. Section Reference: What about Positive Emotions?

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LABELLING 615. Label the areas that are involved in the reward pathway. Ventral tegmental area Nucleus accumbens Prefrontal cortex Frontal part of cerebral cortex Cingulate cortex

Answer: from lower left – clockwise: Ventral tegmental area Nucleus accumbens Prefrontal cortex Frontal part of cerebral cortex Cingulate cortex Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation

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616. Label each of the levels of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs.

Answer: (beginning at bottom) physiological needs safety needs belonging and love needs esteem needs self-actualization needs Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Briefly explain each of the five major theories of motivation. Section Reference: Theories of Motivation

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CHAPTER 12 PERSONALITY CHAPTER LEARNING OBJECTIVES 1. Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. • Personality refers to the unique characteristics that account for enduring patterns of inner experience and outward behaviour. • Sigmund Freud’s psychoanalytic theory of personality depended to a large extent on his ideas about the conscious and unconscious mind. Most of the content of our minds, in Freud’s view, is in the unconscious. • Freud proposed three central forces in personality development: the id, the ego, and the superego. • In Freud’s view, personality develops as children pass through a series of psychosexual stages. Each stage is characterized by strong conflicts between the id, the ego, and the superego. Failure to resolve these conflicts can result in neuroses. • Conflicts result in anxiety, and Freud believed that we use unconscious tactics called defence mechanisms to protect ourselves from this anxiety. • Other psychodynamic theories include those of Alfred Adler, Carl G. Jung, and Karen Horney. 2. Describe the humanistic theories of Abraham Maslow and Carl Rogers. • Humanistic theorists, including Abraham Maslow and Carl Rogers, emphasized people’s basic goodness and their ability to fulfill their potential. • Maslow proposed that personality arises from people’s striving to meet their needs. Human needs are arranged hierarchically, with self-actualization at the top level. • Rogers based his theory of personality on his ideas about the importance of self-concept. He believed that children need unconditional positive regard to develop healthy selfconcepts. 3. Summarize the leading trait theories, and describe how the five-factor theory has evolved from the work of Gordon Allport and Hans Eysenck. • Personality traits are tendencies to behave in certain ways that remain relatively constant across situations. Trait theorists such as Gordon Allport and Hans Eysenck first proposed that central traits affect a broad range of behaviour. • Allport conducted detailed case studies that sought to reveal the unique collection of traits at play for each individual. • Eysenck, using factor analysis, identified three personality superfactors: extraversion, neuroticism, and psychoticism. • Other trait theorists proposed the five-factor theory, which identified five major trait categories: agreeableness, extraversion, neuroticism, conscientiousness, and openness to experience. • Although traits play an important role in behaviour, they can be inconsistent over time and across different situations.

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4. Describe the two major types of personality tests, and give examples of each. • Personality inventories are questionnaires that require individuals to respond to a series of true-false or agree–disagree statements designed to measure various aspects of personality. • Two widely-used personality inventories are the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory 2 (MMPI-2) and the Revised NEO-Personality Inventory (Neuroticism, Extraversion, Openness) (NEO-PI-R). The MMPI-2 is typically used to assess abnormal personality characteristics and inclinations. The NEO-PI-R evaluates traits associated with the five-factor theory of personality. • Projective tests are intended to tap into people’s unconscious minds by having them interpret ambiguous stimuli. In the case of the Rorschach Inkblot Test, the stimuli are inkblots. In the case of the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT), they are black-and-white drawings. 5. Describe and differentiate the situationist and interactionist views of personality. • Situationism holds that behaviour is governed primarily by the variables in a given situation rather than by internal traits. The behaviourist B. F. Skinner could be said to have viewed personality from this perspective. • Interactionism focuses on interactions between persons and situations. Albert Bandura’s social-cognitive theory is an example of interactionist theory. In Bandura’s view, the environment, internal mental events, and behaviour all interact to affect behaviour through the process of reciprocal determinism. 6. Discuss the heritability of personality traits and some of the neural systems that may be involved in the expression of personality. • Twin studies, such as the Minnesota Study of Twins Reared Apart, suggest that many personality traits have strong genetic links. • Certain brain structures, neurotransmitters, and hormones have been associated with personality variables. • In interpreting links between genes, physiological factors, and personality, it is important to remember that the relationships are complex and multidirectional. 7. Explain how gender and cultural differences can affect personality. • Research has found many more similarities than differences between men’s and women’s personalities. Nevertheless, some consistent differences have been identified. • Socio-cultural factors are thought to play an important role in gender differences in personality. According to social role theory, for example, boys and girls develop different behaviours and skills based largely on the division of labour between the sexes and the resulting differences in gender role expectations. • Cross-cultural research into personality has focused on personality development in individualist and collectivist cultures. Some traits observed in these cultures reflect differing cultural values. • The relationship between socio-economic conditions and personality traits has received relatively little attention. However, the investigations that have been conducted suggest that at the very least, living conditions have a direct impact on how and whether certain personality traits translate into behaviours.

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

8. Define personality disorders, and describe some of the key features of these disorders. • A personality disorder is an inflexible pattern of inner experience and outward behaviour that causes distress or difficulty with daily functioning. • The American Psychiatric Association outlines 10 personality disorders in its guide for therapists.

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TRUE-FALSE STATEMENTS 1. Freud believed that the unconscious or deepest level of the mind contains the greatest amount of content. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 2. An individual who is considered mentally healthy may become fixated at one of Freud’s psychosexual stages and suffer no adverse consequences. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 3. Freud's observations were based on a very small and select group of upper-class individuals from Vienna. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 4. Jung argued that the unconscious drives our behaviour toward joy, creativity, and internal harmony. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

5. Peak experiences have much in common with the beliefs espoused by positive psychology. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic theories of Abraham Maslow and Carl Rogers. Section Reference: The Humanistic Perspective 6. Central traits affect a broad range of individuals' behaviour. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the leading trait theories, and describe how the five-factor theory has evolved from the work of Gordon Allport and Hans Eysenck. Section Reference: The Trait Perspective 7. Eysenck's superfactors represent fundamental dimensions of personality. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the leading trait theories, and describe how the five-factor theory has evolved from the work of Gordon Allport and Hans Eysenck. Section Reference: The Trait Perspective 8. Although the five-factor model of personality generally supports Eysenck's theory, but the five-factor model does NOT include the factor of psychoticism. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the leading trait theories, and describe how the five-factor theory has evolved from the work of Gordon Allport and Hans Eysenck. Section Reference: The Trait Perspective 9. Interactionism emphasizes the relationship between underlying personality traits and situational forces. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy

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Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate the situationist and interactionist views of personality. Section Reference: The Situationist and Interactionist Perspectives 10. Researchers use personality assessment tools to learn about their clients' underlying adjustment problems and issues. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of personality tests, and give examples of each. Section Reference: Personality Assessment 11. When designing tests it is impossible to control for the factor of socially-desirable responding. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of personality tests, and give examples of each. Section Reference: Personality Assessment 12. In Canada, employers may use any of the available personality tests to assess who is the best candidate for a job they hope to fill. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of personality tests and give examples of each. Section Reference: Personality Assessment 13. One of the most famous studies of twin adoption is called the Minnesota Study of Twins Reared Apart. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss the heritability of personality traits and some of the neural systems that may be involved in the expression of personality.

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Section Reference: Biological Foundations of Personality 14. High dopamine activity in the reward centres of the brain is related to negative emotions. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss the heritability of personality traits and some of the neural systems that may be involved in the expression of personality. Section Reference: Biological Foundations of Personality 15. Individuals with low levels of negative emotionality are peaceful and satisfied with life. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss the heritability of personality traits and some of the neural systems that may be involved in the expression of personality. Section Reference: Biological Foundations of Personality 16. Gilligan found that men score higher on traits that reflect individuality and autonomy. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain how gender and cultural differences can affect personality. Section Reference: Differences in Personality 17. Women are generally superior to men in reading emotions in others and are more attuned to interpersonal concerns when making moral decisions than men. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain how gender and cultural differences can affect personality. Section Reference: Differences in Personality 18. Happiness and success are defined differently in diverse cultures. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy

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Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain how gender and cultural differences can affect personality. Section Reference: Differences in Personality 19. Personality disorders involve dramatic or emotional behaviours. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define personality disorders, and describe some of the key features of these disorders. Section Reference: Personality Disorders 20. People with borderline personalities often form relationships to exploit others for material gain or personal gratification. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define personality disorders, and describe some of the key features of these disorders. Section Reference: Personality Disorders

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 21. What was Freud's original reason for creating psychoanalysis? a) to compile an official reference on psychological disorders and what he believed were their corresponding repressions b) to develop his research on the workings of the id, ego, and superego c) to treat psychological disorders, which he believed were based on repressed instincts and memories d) to coach patients to access their preconscious minds more efficiently Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 22. Which of the following is NOT one of Freud’s levels of consciousness? a) unconscious b) subconscious c) preconscious d) conscious Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 23. According to Freud, the preconscious a) is the reservoir of sexual and aggressive instincts. b) cannot be accessed except through dreams. c) contains mental content that can be brought into the conscious mind. d) is occupied mostly by the id. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective

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24. In the movie Sienna is watching, one of the characters is celebrating their birthday. Suddenly, Sienna remembers that it is her mother’s birthday, so she quickly picks up the phone to call her. According to Freud, her mother’s birthday would have been in Sienna’s ___. a) conscious mind b) preconscious mind c) unconscious mind d) subconscious mind Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 25. At the end of a very busy week, Sumita is enjoying a jazz concert with her husband in the early evening and plans to have dinner afterwards. Which of the following statements is most likely NOT true regarding her levels of consciousness? a) Sumita’s conscious mind is aware of the music. b) A hungry feeling is tucked away in Sumita’s unconscious mind. c) The middle names of Sumita’s children are in her preconscious mind. d) With a little prompting, Sumita’s feelings of hunger could come from her preconscious mind to her conscious mind. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 26. Dillon introduced his attractive co-worker, Amber, intending to say, “Amber is the best and brightest new member of our firm.” However, what he said instead was, “Amber is the breast and brightest new member of our firm.” Freud would have said that this slip of Dillon’s was a message from Dillon’s _______ mind. a) conscious b) preconscious c) unconscious d) subconscious Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

27. Phoebe's high school field hockey team is preparing for the state championships. The bus is pulling into the parking lot and Phoebe is thinking about the opposing team's offensive line. She recalls that the last time she played against this team, one player was particularly aggressive. According to Freud's psychoanalytic theory, which level of consciousness holds her memories of the last time she played this team? a) conscious b) preconscious c) subconscious d) unconscious Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 28. When Callie was seven years old, she was in a very serious car accident. Although she did not suffer a head injury, she does not remember anything about the accident. According to Freud, the accident has become part of Callie’s ___. a) conscious mind b) preconscious mind c) unconscious mind d) subconscious mind Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 29. Bree’s parents have just told her they are getting a divorce. The thought that her parents will no longer be together makes Bree very sad and she begins to cry. According to Freud, Bree’s thoughts and feelings about her parents’ divorce are part of her ___. a) conscious mind b) preconscious mind c) unconscious mind d) subconscious mind Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality

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development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 30. Cassius spent an hour laughing and joking with friends over lunch. Then he settled at the library to study for his trigonometry exam. Although focusing on his studying Cassius suddenly recalls that he told one of the friends over lunch that he would send him a text with a mutual friend’s phone number. This recollection to send the phone number to his friend was in Cassis’s _____ mind. a) conscious mind b) preconscious mind c) unconscious mind d) subconscious mind Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 31. Nadia is recently divorced and is returning to the dating scene. She has been on a few dates with Max when he says something that reminds Nadia of an argument that she had with her husband several years ago. This is an example of a(n) a) conscious memory. b) inferiority complex. c) unconscious impulse. d) Freudian slip. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 32 According to Freud, how are the preconscious and unconscious minds distinct? a) The preconscious mind contains motives that are at the forefront of one's awareness while the unconscious mind contains hidden motives. b) The unconscious mind contains motives that are at the forefront of one's awareness while the preconscious mind contains hidden motives. c) The preconscious mind can be easily accessed while the unconscious mind is difficult or even impossible to access. d) The unconscious mind can be easily accessed while the preconscious mind is difficult or even impossible to access. Answer: c

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 33. In Freud's view, the personality forms as the result of the struggle between a) conscious and unconscious processes. b) primal needs and social or moral restraints. c) the individual and other people. d) biological drives and cognitive aspects of the personality. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 34. The ___ operates on the reality principle; the ___ operates on the morality principle; the ___ operates on the pleasure principle. a) id; ego; superego b) ego; superego; id c) superego; ego; id d) ego; id; superego Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 35. You are in a heated verbal argument with a friend, and although you want to hit him, you refrain and remain calm. You are using a) defense mechanisms. b) delayed gratification. c) the morality principle. d) the reality principle. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality

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development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 36. If the ego is NOT able to find compromises between the id and the superego, what is likely to happen, according to Freud? a) The needs of the id will win out. b) The conscience and the superego will win out. c) The ego will repress everything. d) The person may become neurotic. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 37. Which of the following is primarily associated with consciousness? a) the libido b) the id c) the superego d) the ego Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 38. Lee’s doctor is concerned that she might be at risk for developing diabetes and has told her to significantly cut back on sugar. Lee is at a party and offered a delicious dessert. Which of the following will Lee's ego likely “say” to the id? a) “Go ahead – eat it – you deserve a treat after a hard week.” b) “You should eat it. People will think you are rude if you refuse to eat something everyone else is having.” c) “You can’t have the entire thing, but a small serving won’t hurt you and it would be polite.” d) “Eating dessert when you have been told not to is wrong. Do you want your children to have a sick mother?” Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development.

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 39. Erik is very hungry, but instead of pushing his way near the front of the line in the cafeteria, he decides to wait his turn in line to get food. According to Freud’s theory, which part of Erik’s personality is dominating his behaviour at the present moment? a) id b) ego c) superego d) pleasure principle Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 40. Clay's friends are trying to convince him to lie to his parents and tell them that he is sleeping at a friend's house. They will really be going to a concert in a city about an hour away, something his parents have already forbidden. How might Clay's superego inform his actions? a) If tuning in to the superego, which operates on the morality principle, Clay would likely abide by his parents’ rules. b) If tuning in to the superego, which operates on the reality principle, Clay would likely try to come up with a compromise. c) If tuning in to the superego, which operates on the morality principle, Clay would likely inform his friends' parents of their plans. d) If tuning in to the superego, which operates on the reality principle, Clay would likely submit to the peer pressure. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 41. Ryder sees a video game that he wants in the store, but he does not have enough money. He decides to steal it. What aspect of his personality controlling Ryder’s behaviour? a) id b) ego c) superego d) conscious Answer: a Difficulty: Medium

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Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 42. In a healthy personality, Freud believed that a) the superego chooses the best course of action, considering the reality of the situation. b) the ego stops the id from satisfying its impulses. c) the id, ego, and superego are equally powerful. d) the ego acts as a mediator between the id and the superego. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 43. According to Freud, the part of the personality that we are born with and that represents our instinctual drives is called the a) id. b) ego. c) superego. d) consciousness. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 44. Which of the following is FALSE about the id? a) It can delay gratification when necessary. b) It is present from birth. c) It operates on the pleasure principle. d) It is fuelled by the libido. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

45. Aaliyah has been studying for a long time because she knows that she is behind because she has been partying instead of studying over the week and needs to make up the work. She knows she needs to study more but she is hungry and tired. So, she closes her books, eats something, and goes to bed. The part of the personality that influenced her behaviour is the a) conscious mind. b) ego. c) id. d) superego. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 46. Edward is hungry and so decides to push ahead of the line in the cafeteria to get food. What part of Edward’s personality is dominating in this situation? a) id b) ego c) superego d) conscious mind. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 47. According to Freud, what part of the personality develops during childhood and is in charge of determining which impulses can be expressed outwardly and which cannot? a) id b) ego c) superego d) consciousness Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective

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48. Freud identified three central forces in personality development. Which controls the moral limits? a) id b) superego c) ego d) unconscious Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 49. The superego's view of which behaviours are acceptable is based on a) an understanding of society's laws. b) an internalization of values that are unconsciously adopted. c) a desire to avoid punishment. d) universal standards of moral behaviour. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 50. Lauren snooped through her boyfriend's desk because she thought he was cheating on her. She did not find anything suspicious and wishes she had not done it. Now, Lauren is having trouble sleeping. Which part of the personality is keeping Lauren awake? a) id b) ego c) superego d) defence mechanisms Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 51. "I'm going to take this candy because I want it NOW!" said the ___________. "But, stealing is wrong," said the ____________. "Let's ask mom if she'll advance our allowance so we can buy it today," said the _______________.

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

a) ego; superego; id b) id; superego; ego c) superego; ego; id d) id; ego; superego Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 52. The reality principle states that a) it is not always possible or acceptable to have all desires met. b) the ego's job is to keep the personality from losing touch with reality. c) unconscious forces are realistically always going to influence personality. d) having to deal with other people is a reality of human existence. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 53. According to Freud, the most basic human drives are a) libido and morality. b) conscious and unconscious. c) sex and aggression. d) pleasure and guilt. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 54. According to Freud the ___ is a pleasure-producing area of the body. a) erogenous zone b) psychosexual sector c) Oedipal zone d) fixated genital region Answer: a

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 55. The correct order of Freud's psychosexual stages is a) oral, latency, genital, anal, phallic. b) oral, anal phallic, genital, latency. c) oral, anal, genital, phallic, latency. d) oral, anal, phallic, latency, genital. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 56. Which of the following stages are part of Freud's psychosexual stages of development? a) oral b) anal c) phallic d) all the above Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 57. According to Freud, the psychosexual stage that occurs when someone is 3–6 years of age is called a) oral. b) anal. c) phallic. d) latency. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development.

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 58. According to Freud, during which psychosexual stage do children begin to resent their same-sex parent? a) genital b) phallic c) anal d) oral Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 59. What reason does Freud provide for a girl's hostility toward her mother, which develops during the phallic stage? a) her father's love for her mother b) not getting enough attention from her father c) lack of emotional support from her mother d) blaming her mother for her lack of a penis Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 60. Bruni works for a large corporation. He is suspicious of his male boss and puts a lot of effort into proving that he is better than his male coworkers. Which of the following would Freud say is most likely Bruni’s problem? a) Bruni has penis envy. b) Bruni is fixated at the latency stage. c) Bruni is fixated at the phallic stage. d) Bruni is dominated by his superego. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective

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61. Gino’s partner is fed up. Gino does not pick up after himself, leaves dirty dishes in the sink, leaves their bathroom a mess, and never washes his clothes. Which of the following would Freud say is most likely Gino’s problem? a) Gino has penis envy. b) Gino is fixated at the anal stage. c) Gino is fixated at the phallic stage. d) Gino is dominated by his superego. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 62. A child has a specific place for each of her toys, and if someone puts her toys away in the wrong place, she gets very upset. According to Freud, which psychosexual stage might this child be fixated on? a) phallic b) oral c) anal d) latency Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 63. The Oedipus complex happens to ___ at the ___ stage of development. a) girls; genital b) girls; phallic c) boys; genital d) boys; phallic Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 64. Which of the following conflicts is correctly matched with its stage?

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

a) phallic; identification with the same-sex parent b) latency; repression of sexual impulses c) anal; weaning d) genital; attraction to opposite-sex parent Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 65. At which psychosexual stage do children have no particular psychosexual conflicts? a) oral b) phallic c) latency d) genital Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 66. Gisèle spends much of her time developing successful relationships with her same-sex peers and on school-related activities. According to Freud’s theory, Gisele is in the __________________ stage of development. a) anal b) latency c) genital d) phallic Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 67. Fenna is becoming just like her mother. She wants to dress like her mother, and she has taken an interest in all the activities that her mother does: gardening, mowing the lawn, and carpentry. According to Freud, what psychosexual stage is Fenna likely in? a) oral b) anal

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c) phallic d) latency Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 68. Nikola chews incessantly on her fingernails, and when she’s not doing that, she’s smoking or chewing on pens. According to Freud, at what stage of psychosexual development would Nikola be fixated? a) oral b) anal c) phallic d) latency Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 69. Noor is arguing with her boyfriend. “I am tired of your stubborn, controlling attitude! Not only that, but your insistence that everything has to be kept spotless is driving me crazy!” Based on Noor’s comments, it is likely that her boyfriend is fixated at Freud’s ___ stage. a) oral b) anal c) phallic d) genital Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 70. Kayden cries when his mother leaves him with his father, climbs onto her lap whenever she sits down, and only wants her when he is hurt or sick. Kayden often ignores his father or is, at times, rude to him. Based on Kayden’s behaviours, Freud would likely argue that he is in the ___ stage. a) oral

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

b) anal c) phallic d) genital Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 71. Since going through a painful divorce, a man has been unable to have respectful, committed relationships with women. According to Freud, which psychosexual stage might this man have regressed to? a) latency b) oral c) genital d) phallic Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 72. Caleb is secretly thrilled when his friend, Kim, asks him to the school dance. He is devastated when he realizes that she only asked him so that she would have a date while she spied on her real crush at the dance. For the rest of the school year Caleb spends his time with the soccer team and playing video games with his buddies, avoiding girls all together. What is the best explanation for Caleb's behavior? a) As an adolescent, Caleb is in the genital stage of Freud's psychosexual stages of development but has regressed to the latency stage as a result of this unsuccessful outcome. b) As an adolescent, Caleb is developmentally in the latency stage of Freud's psychosexual stage but becomes fixated in the genital stage due to his attraction to the opposite sex. c) Due to Caleb's unsuccessful outcome in the genital stage of Freud's psychosexual stages of development, he has developed an inferiority complex that will last indefinitely. d) Although Caleb is in the genital stage of Freud's psychosexual stages of development, he has not yet acquired the animus archetype that will allow him to understand the opposite sex. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective

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73. According to Freud, defence mechanisms are used to a) protect us from anxiety. b) resolve conflicts between the id and the superego. c) prevent us from becoming fixated at various stages. d) help us resolve our unconscious conflicts. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 74. According to Freud, a defence mechanism that involves refusing to acknowledge something unpleasant is called a) repression. b) rationalization. c) displacement. d) denial. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 75. To prevent the ___________ associated with the ego's failure to satisfy both the id and superego, Freud argued that people develop and use ______________. a) unconscious guilt; archetypes b) fixation; an ego-ideal c) regression; preconscious cognitions d) conscious anxiety; defence mechanisms Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 76. A young mother, Alma, whose finances are tight, decides to buy an expensive dress. Though she feels guilty, she rationalizes that because she spends so much self-sacrificing time

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

with spit-up in her hair and baby food splattered on her clothes, she deserves something nice to put on once in a while. How might you explain Alma's behavior using Freud's theories? a) Anxiety is uncomfortable, and when it slips into our conscious awareness, the ego attempts to reduce it by using defense mechanisms, such as rationalization. b) The ego represents our identity of ourselves and is responsible for such tasks as planning and reasoning. When it is compromised by hypersensitive emotions, it releases energy that causes us to behave in ways we might not otherwise. c) The id is impulsive and operates on the pleasure principle while the ego delays gratification and operates on the reality principle, but when there is a clash between the two, the id usually wins. d) Guilt is usually a result of a violation of the morality principle, which is controlled by the ethical superego, which can act as a catalyst for defense mechanisms. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 77. A drug addict, whose family has no food to eat, spends half his paycheck on cocaine. When guilt settles in, he tells himself that his wife does not even have a job and that he needs the drug to relax so he can succeed at work. Which defense mechanism is he most likely using? a) projection b) repression c) rationalization d) denial Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 78. Maisie’s boss unfairly criticized Maisie at work. Maisie said nothing because she needs the job. When she returned to her apartment, though, she yelled at her roommate for drinking the last of the milk. Maisie’s behaviour exhibits the defence mechanism referred to as a) sublimation. b) denial. c) displacement. d) reaction formation. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 79. Ophelia feels attracted to a coworker. She is also feeling considerable anxiety and guilt over this attraction; that evening Ophelia was very affectionate and caring toward her partner. This is an example of the defence mechanism called ________________________. a) displacement b) projection c) sublimation d) regression Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 80. A man is laid off from his job after 25 years with the company. When he gets home, he snaps at his wife and sends his children to their rooms for "monopolizing the computer". Which defense mechanism is he most likely employing? a) projection b) displacement c) sublimation d) reaction formation Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 81. A man is laid off from his job after 25 years with the company. When he gets home, he snaps at his wife and sends his children to their rooms for "monopolizing the computer". Later, he tells his wife that she should consider how her actions affect the children. Which of the following defense mechanisms is he using in giving advice to his wife? a) projection b) displacement c) reaction formation d) sublimation Answer: a Difficulty: Medium

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 82. Felix finds a wallet with $350.00 in it. Although the wallet has the owner’s identification inside, Felix decides to keep the money because he tells himself that it is the owner’s fault for losing the wallet. After all, Felix tells himself, the owner must not really need the money, or he would not have been so careless. Felix’s behaviour is an example of which defence mechanism? a) sublimation b) denial c) rationalization d) reaction formation Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 83. You would rather have fun with your new romantic partner than study for your biology exam. You know you will do poorly on the exam if you do not study, but you tell yourself that having fun will help you relax for the exam. This is an example of the defence mechanism called ___________. a) intellectualization b) rationalization c) sublimation d) reaction formation Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 84. Larissa has hostile impulses and expresses them by becoming a reporter who specializes in ruining the careers of others with the stories that she writes. Larissa’s defence mechanism is called a) reaction formation. b) denial. c) projection. d) sublimation.

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Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 85. Victor has been raised in a family that views sexual desires very negatively. He takes up painting nudes to deal with his sexual impulses. This is an example of the defence mechanism called ________________________. a) repression b) projection c) displacement d) sublimation Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 86. Lucy just found out that she has cancer in her spine. When she tells her family about it, she is completely unemotional, and just explains her situation in medical terms only, including her symptoms and treatment. What defence mechanism is Lucy likely using? a) projection b) intellectualization c) regression d) identification Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 87. Estelle just found out that she did not get the promotion she has been working toward. In frustration, she picks up her trash can and hurls it across the room. What defence mechanism is Estelle most likely using? a) projection b) intellectualization c) regression d) identification

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Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 88. Every time Nikolai gets into a big argument with his husband, he runs to his mother's home for comfort and approval. This is an example of the defence mechanism called _____________. a) sublimation b) regression c) displacement d) projection Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 89. Thirty-year-old Vanessa’s friends have begun distancing themselves from her, as her behavior has become difficult to deal with. Her friend Mario believes that she is using the defense mechanism of regression. If Vanessa is regressing, what will her response be when her friends disagree with her suggestion to go to a Thai restaurant for dinner? a) She will throw a temper tantrum. b) She will yell at her mother. c) She will petition the Thai restaurant. d) She will pretend that she does not want Thai food. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 90. Gracie is pregnant, but her boyfriend has deserted her. She really does not want this baby, but she has the baby and keeps it anyway. After the baby is born, Gracie turns into “supermom” and spends all her energies on the baby, spending every waking moment on the child’s needs. Gracie tells everyone she meets how much she loves her child. Which defence mechanism is Gracie using? a) displacement b) reaction formation c) denial

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d) regression Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 91. Alec and Jacob were two little boys who took pleasure in tormenting little creatures. As adults, Alec becomes an exterminator and Jacob goes to work for an animal activist organization. As adults, Alec is using the defence mechanism ___ and Jacob is using the defence mechanism ___. a) repression; reaction formation b) denial; sublimation c) sublimation; rationalization d) sublimation; reaction formation Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 92. Which of the following people is most clearly using the defence mechanism projection? a) Bolormaa, who yells at her husband after she had a difficult day at work b) Cody, who justifies his problem drinking by saying, “I'm just being sociable” c) Biren, who is wrestling with his own sexual identity and makes derogatory remarks about any man he suspects of being gay d) Liang, who yells and gestures at other drivers who are “in her way” Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 93. Which occupation would Freud say is an example of sublimation? a) professional boxer b) guitar player c) yoga instructor d) bank teller

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 94. Ivan is embarrassed about his arrest as a teenager for being a “peeping Tom.” Ivan is now an adult with a career. If Ivan were to use a defence mechanism to overcome his anxiety over the event, which pair of careers and defense mechanisms, based on Ivan’s anxiety, would be correctly matched? a) priest or minister; sublimation b) manager of an “adult entertainment” bar; repression c) human sexuality researcher; displacement d) prosecuting attorney for sex crimes; projection Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 95. Sanjay was abused as a child by his uncle. However, although Sanjay is very uncomfortable around men with mustaches (like his uncle’s) he has no memory of these events. Sanjay is most clearly using the defense mechanism of a) repression. b) intellectualization. c) denial. d) rationalization. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 96. A young girl witnesses a tragic accident involving her closest neighborhood friend. When the police come to get a statement from her, she remembers nothing about the accident. Which defense mechanism is she most likely using? a) sublimation b) repression c) intellectualization d) denial

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Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 97. A young girl witnesses a tragic accident involving her closest neighborhood friend. When the police come to get a statement from her, she remembers nothing about the accident. Then, when she does finally remember, she speaks of the details without emotion, as if reading a list of mundane items. In addition to the initial repression she experienced, which of the following defense mechanisms is she likely also using? a) sublimation b) denial c) intellectualization d) projection Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 98. Hugo and Addison were in a horrible car accident. Two of their friends did not survive. Addison was conscious through the entire event, but she says she does not remember any of it. Hugo remembers the event, and can discuss it, but he talks about the situation as though it happened to someone else. He does not display emotions about it. What is implied here? a) Addison is employing repression as a defense mechanism, while Hugo is employing intellectualization. b) Addison is employing denial as a defense mechanism, while Hugo is employing sublimation. c) Addison is employing repression as a defense mechanism, while Hugo is employing rationalization. d) Addison is employing regression as a defense mechanism, while Hugo is employing rationalization. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

99. Matt and Kavya's son, Asher, was struck by a school bus outside his house and is now in the intensive care unit at the local children's hospital. Matt is filled with rage and begins spending hours at the gym every evening while Kavya, a registered nurse, keeps friends and family informed of Asher's progress via emails full of medical terminology but void of much genuine emotion. Which defense mechanisms do Matt and Kavya exhibit? a) Matt is demonstrating sublimation and Kavya is demonstrating intellectualization. b) Matt is demonstrating denial and Kavya is demonstrating repression. c) Matt is demonstrating projection and Kavya is demonstrating denial. d) Matt is demonstrating intellectualization and Kavya is demonstrating displacement. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 100. Maddie's ideas are shot down during her group meeting at the advertising agency where she works. As she picks up her daughter, Jade, from daycare that evening, she snaps at her for NOT listening. When they arrive at home, Jade torments the cat by pulling its tail. According to Freud, which defense mechanisms are Maddie and Jade using? a) Maddie and Jade are both using displacement. b) Maddie is using rationalization and Jade is using displacement. c) Maddie is using projection and Jade is using regression. d) Maddie and Jade are both using projection. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 101. Meeting and observing a potential spouse’s parents can give you an idea for the type of relationship you might have with that potential spouse. This view is consistent with a) psychoanalytic theory. b) psychodynamic theory. c) trait theory. d) social-cognitive theory. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective

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102. Much of the current criticism of Freud's theory stems from the fact that a) he spent too much time talking about sexual issues. b) his theory is difficult to test. c) Freud overestimated how much influence parents had on child development. d) most psychologists do not believe in unconscious processes. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 103. Which of the following was NOT a criticism of Freud’s theory? a) It is untestable. b) It has not held up to scientific testing. c) The theory is based on very few observations from a select population. d) Studies have not found evidence for defence mechanisms. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 104. You are working to organize a presentation for your psychology class. Most of your classmates do not agree with Freud’s theories because so many have been argued against them. You would like to demonstrate that some of his theories are valid. What type of content should the presentation cover that would be best suited to achieving this goal? a) The presentation should be designed to focus on individuals’ uses of defense mechanisms, as these can be empirically proven. b) The presentation should be designed to show the progression of the psychosexual stages in multiple individuals, as these can be demonstrated in an empirical manner. c) The presentation should be designed to show that Freud’s theories are not biased against women, demonstrating his views of the phallic stage would be most helpful here. d) The presentation should be designed to disprove Karen Horney’s theories, which will work to further strengthen Freud’s originals theories. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development.

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 105. Modern empirical research supports Freud's concept of a) anal fixation. b) phallic regression. c) defense mechanisms. d) id, ego, and superego. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 106. In what way were the ideas of the neo-Freudians like Freud’s ideas? a) They all agree that human functioning is shaped by dynamic psychological forces. b) They all agree that culture is a major determinant of personality development. c) They all attempted to focus on biological forces that play on personality. d) They all believed that anxiety is the major contributor to later neuroses. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 107. Adler believed that a) humans have not only a personal unconscious, but also a collective unconscious. b) Freud's concept of penis envy was more accurately described as social envy. c) conscious thoughts were more important to human behaviour than sexual needs. d) humans are basically good and work toward self-actualization. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 108. If Amit is a typical four-year-old child, Adler would believe that Amit has a) an accurate self-concept. b) feelings of inferiority.

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c) feelings of superiority. d) strong sexual desires. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 109. Ona’s mother was highly critical of her when she was a child, often telling her she never did anything right. Now, as an adult, Ona works long hours to prove that she is better at her job than her coworkers. Which of the following best accounts for Ona’s behaviour? a) Freud’s theory of the defence mechanism of reaction formation b) Adler’s theory of how feelings of inferiority lead to over-compensation c) Jung’s theory that the unconscious includes drives toward joy and internal harmony d) Karen Horney’s theory that basic anxiety that develops in childhood leads to neuroses Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 110. Larry is twelve years old and is NOT very well liked in his junior high school. When Larry wants something, he usually has no problem getting it because he can be very persuasive. Sometimes the other children do what he wants because they are worried he will embarrass them, and other times they do so because they are scared of him. What is the best explanation for Larry’s behavior using the concepts from Adler’s theories? a) Larry has developed an inferiority complex, which has ultimately caused him to channel his energy toward a quest for superiority. b) Larry has developed this aggression due to the collective unconscious, through which he is channeling aggressive tendencies. c) Larry never moved past the phallic stage, which has caused outward aggression because he cannot deal with his own masculine feelings. d) Larry is using repression to work through his own problems at home, which is causing him to appear socially dominant. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

111. Karen Horney agreed with Freud on the point of _______________, but disagreed with him about ____________. a) the psychosexual stages; the influence of early childhood experiences on behaviour b) the collective unconscious; the influence of early childhood experiences on behaviour. c) the influence of early childhood experiences on behaviour; collective unconscious d) the influence of early childhood experiences on behaviour; the role of cultural influences on behaviour Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 112. According to Jung, what form do shared memories from the collective unconscious take on? a) free will b) emotions c) archetypes d) personal unconscious Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 113. According to Carl Jung, archetypes are a) symbols and images that appear in all cultures. b) the root cause of basic anxiety. c) a storehouse of memories shared by all humans. d) a result of our attempts to overcome inferiority. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 114. According to Jung, the coherent whole that results from integrating the conscious and unconscious minds is called the

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a) collective unconscious. b) self. c) archetype. d) psychodynamic imperative. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 115. The Myers-Briggs personality test (MBTI) is based on ___ theory. a) Freud's b) Adler's c) Jung's d) Horney's Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 116. In what way did Jung’s theory differ from Freud’s ideas? a) Jung had less emphasis on sexual and aggressive forces and more on drives toward joy and creativity. b) Jung had less acknowledgement of the unconscious as having a major influence on behaviour. c) Jung placed less importance on a search for harmony. d) Jung viewed the unconscious as a singular structure. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 117. With which of Freud’s ideas did Carl Jung agree with unquestionably? a) that the unconscious had a major influence on behaviour b) that much of the unconscious contains sexual and aggressive urges c) that the unconscious is a singular structure d) that unconscious urges do not include creativity and harmony

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Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 118. Carl Jung's personality theory differed from that of Freud's in all the following ways except one. Which way did Jung’s theory agree with Freud’s theory? a) inherited memories b) unconscious sexual and aggressive forces c) unconscious positive forces d) collective unconscious Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 119. Neo-Freudian Carl Jung is most likely to have disagreed with Freud about a) the extent of the negative influence of the unconscious. b) the existence of an unconscious part of the mind. c) the degree of inferiority children feel. d) nearly all of his theories. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 120. Maura has a severe fear of fire. She does not like to have candles burning in the house, and she is very anxious at bonfires or cookouts. Maura’s parents have told her that she has always been odd around fire, but it has become worse with time. If you were studying Carl Jung and wanted to use his theories to explain Maura’s fear, which statement would be most applicable? a) Maura’s fear is part of the collective unconscious due to the danger fire can pose. Many people in the past and present are cautious with fire because it is uncontrollable. b) Maura’s fear is part of the personal unconscious because she has had this fear her entire life, which has helped it to grow with time because it was never addressed. c) Maura’s fear is part of the collective unconscious because it is a fear that few other people

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have; Maura thinks in a different way than many others do. d) Maura’s fear is part of the personal unconscious because the fear is inherited from the logical fears of others in the past. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 121. This theorist believed that cultural differences play a more significant role in development than Freud acknowledged. a) Rogers b) Jung c) Adler d) Horney Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 122. To combat Freud's idea of penis envy, Karen Horney proposed the concept of ________ envy. a) power b) freedom c) mother d) vagina Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 123. What is the main difference between Alfred Adler's and Sigmund Freud's psychodynamic theories of personality? a) Adler believed social needs and conscious thoughts are more important to behaviour, whereas Freud believed sexual needs and unconscious motivations were more important. b) Adler believed behavior was purposeful and goal-oriented, whereas Freud believed it was motivated by unconscious forces.

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c) Adler believed in the collective unconscious, whereas Freud believed only in the personal unconscious. d) Adler believed personality was molded by parent-child relationships, whereas Freud believed personality was inherited. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 124. According to Karen Horney, penis envy was actually ___. a) women’s desire to have a penis b) women’s sexual feelings toward their fathers c) women’s envy of men’s power d) women’s envy of their mother’s relationship with their father Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Compensation Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 125. What was Karen Horney’s greatest disagreement with Freud’s ideas? a) that the unconscious influences behaviour b) that events in childhood can leave lasting impressions c) that concepts that shape development are universal and do not vary across cultures d) that dealing with a lot of anxiety can lead to neuroses Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 126. According to Karen Horney, basic anxiety develops a) when we are unsuccessful in overcoming the challenges of a psychosexual stage. b) because of feelings of inferiority in childhood. c) when our collective unconscious conflicts with our personal unconscious. d) children experience extreme feelings of isolation and helplessness. Answer: d

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 127. In what way do Jung's, Adler's, and Horney's theories relate to one another? a) Each believed that the preconscious level of awareness was more important than the unconscious level. b) Each showed interest in positive aspects of personality, not just negative ones. c) Each argued that personality development depends largely on social relationships. d) Each emphasized the roles of both masculine and feminine aspects of personality. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 128. Humanistic theories suggest that personality depends on a) social interactions and subsequent reactions. b) moderation of emotional and instinctive responses. c) individual perceptions and interpretations of the world. d) acceptance of one's own innate qualities. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic theories of Abraham Maslow and Carl Rogers. Section Reference: The Humanistic Perspective 129. Abraham Maslow believed that humans have a need to fulfill our full and special potential, which he called a) unconditional positive regard. b) reciprocal determinism. c) self-actualization. d) self-efficacy. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic theories of Abraham Maslow and Carl Rogers. Section Reference: The Humanistic Perspective

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130. Hassan recently moved to Canada from a country at war. His grade three teacher, Ms. Smith, noticed that Hassan was easily startled, frequently hungry, and has significant problems settling down to pay attention, which is contributing to his learning delays. Being an observant teacher, Ms. Smith ensures that Hassan has plenty to eat; however, he is still having problems being attentive and applying himself. As per Maslow, which of the following would be the most effective intervention for Ms. Smith to help Hassan overcome his learning delays? a) Ms. Smith should make sure that Hassan’s need to feel safe and secure is met. b) Ms. Smith should introduce Hassan to other children so that he can begin to develop friendships. c) Ms. Smith should ask the school psychologist to complete an observation on Hassan to determine whether he has attentional deficits. d) Ms. Smith should meet with Hassan’s parents to learn more about his prior educational experiences. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic theories of Abraham Maslow and Carl Rogers. Section Reference: The Humanistic Perspective 131. Tai is in therapy after another failed relationship. Each time he starts to become close to a woman, he finds himself questioning whether anyone can truly love him in spite of his flaws, which he keeps hidden deep inside. What is Tai most likely to learn in therapy with regard to his pattern of failed relationships? a) Because Tai never received unconditional positive regard as a child, he now doubts and questions the love and affection others give him, since they cannot possibly know the "real" Tai. b) Tai’s pattern of failed relationships is due to a lack of congruence between his ideal and real selves, resulting in poor self-adjustment and a low self-concept, which inevitably carry over into his relationships. c) Tai inadvertently does not have his safety needs met, therefore, he is unable to move to a higher need hierarchy which would be required in order to establish a meaningful relationship. d) Because Tai has a history of failed relationships, he has poor relational self-concept. Without realizing it, he behaves in ways that sabotage his relationship thereby creates a self-fulfilling prophecy. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic theories of Abraham Maslow and Carl Rogers. Section Reference: The Humanistic Perspective 132. Fran brings her son, Luke, to an initial family therapy session with Dr. Kay due to excessive arguing at home. Fran and Luke are asked to discuss a recent disagreement while Dr. Kay silently observes their interactions. The pair quickly begins arguing, and Dr. Kay observes as Luke justifies missing his curfew because he wanted to spend more time with his best friend

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who is moving away. Fran reacts by telling Luke he is an irresponsible teenager and a negative influence on his younger siblings. What would be the most effective way for Dr. Kay to intervene? a) Dr. Kay should help Fran understand the importance of unconditional positive regard during parental interactions with Luke. b) Dr. Kay should help Luke understand the importance of consistency and trust in the quest for self-actualization. c) Dr. Kay should explain the hierarchy of needs to Fran and Luke, illustrating that their behaviors are causing them to regress. d) Dr. Kay should help Fran and Luke build upon their current self-concepts as this will help improve their interactions. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic theories of Abraham Maslow and Carl Rogers. Section Reference: The Humanistic Perspective 133. Sami has been living on the streets for almost 2 years. He begs for money to buy food, and every night looks for a shelter, so he can sleep somewhere warm. According to Maslow, Sami would be a) improving his living situation, and so is moving up the hierarchy of needs. b) using many of his talents and capabilities to survive on the street, so is achieving selfactualization. c) fulfilling his basic physiological needs, so is probably somewhere in the middle of the hierarchy of needs. d) struggling to fulfill his basic physiological needs, so is at the bottom of the hierarchy of needs. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic theories of Abraham Maslow and Carl Rogers. Section Reference: The Humanistic Perspective 134. Rachel and her partner are divorcing. Rachel gets the house, and they had no children, but she is extremely distressed about the end of the relationship and dwells endlessly on what happened to her formerly happy relationship and what she and her partner should have done to have kept it from happening. According to Maslow, Rachel is a) seeking to realize her full potential and to be self-fulfilled, so is at the level of selfactualization. b) engaged in significant self-reflection and focusing on esteem needs, so is at the level of esteem needs. c) working to meet her need to feel love and to belong to a social group, so it at the level of belonging and love needs. d) struggling to fulfill her basic physiological needs, so is at the bottom of the hierarchy of needs. Answer: c

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic theories of Abraham Maslow and Carl Rogers. Section Reference: The Humanistic Perspective 135. Steve is a highly regarded surgeon with many friends and a loving family. After building a successful practice, he decides to reduce his work hours to allow more time to follow his TRUE passion of volunteering to help disadvantaged youth. Steve is on his way to attaining Maslow’s idea of a) self-actualization. b) the humanistic self. c) the real self. d) self-concept. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic theories of Abraham Maslow and Carl Rogers. Section Reference: The Humanistic Perspective 136. Maslow believed that we could learn a great deal about human behaviour by studying which group? a) depressed individuals b) well-adjusted people c) children d) women Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic theories of Abraham Maslow and Carl Rogers. Section Reference: The Humanistic Perspective 137. Maslow believed that we can learn the most about the human condition by a) studying “normal” or typical people. b) studying those with psychological problems. c) paying attention to the unconscious symbols in our collective ancestry. d) creating an atmosphere of openness, honesty, and freedom from judgment. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic theories of Abraham Maslow and Carl Rogers. Section Reference: The Humanistic Perspective

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138. According to Maslow, when would a person address higher-level needs, such as selfactualization? a) after they have re-evaluated their conditions of worth b) once they have received unconditional positive regard c) after all their basic needs are met d) once they have a positive self-concept Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic theories of Abraham Maslow and Carl Rogers. Section Reference: The Humanistic Perspective 139. Carl Rogers argued that poor mental health results when young children do not receive ________ from caregivers. a) discipline and clear boundaries b) unconditional positive regard c) conditional love and acceptance d) adequate physical affection Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic theories of Abraham Maslow and Carl Rogers. Section Reference: The Humanistic Perspective 140. Imagine a child who is very analytical and is always searching for creative ways to solve problems. Her parents, however, place more value on conformity than creativity. According to Carl Rogers, what is the likely result of this mismatch? a) the child's lowered self-esteem b) the child's inability to form relationships c) the child's increased drive to succeed d) the child's rebelling against her parents Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic theories of Abraham Maslow and Carl Rogers. Section Reference: The Humanistic Perspective 141. Sarah is a humanistic social worker and is working with a 20-year-old client named Miguel. Miguel was an illegal alien who just received his Canadian citizenship. Although successful in his new home country, with many new friends and a loving relationship, Miguel has experienced

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

many negative life events over his lifetime. As a result, Miguel has psychological scars and poor self-concept. What is the most effective approach for Sarah to help Miguel overcome this problem? a) She should shift the image of how he sees himself to be more aligned with how others see him. b) She should recognize his accomplishments so that he can pursue the journey toward selfactualization. c) He should return to his native country to confront the family and friends who tormented him in his youth. d) He should begin showing unconditional positive regard for others so that he will be capable of doing the same for himself. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic theories of Abraham Maslow and Carl Rogers. Section Reference: The Humanistic Perspective 142. Which of these examples is a way to discipline a child while demonstrating unconditional positive regard? a) I understand you do not want to play what your brother is playing, but nobody likes you when you act like this. Go to your room and think about how to be a nicer person. b) We do not scream at people. Apologize to your brother and then go to your room and think about how to be a good girl. c) We do not scream at people. You are always doing things like this to upset me. Go to your room and do not come out until you have learned to be good. d) I understand you do not want to play what your brother is playing, but it is not okay to scream at him. I am sending you to your room to think about better ways to share your feelings. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic theories of Abraham Maslow and Carl Rogers. Section Reference: The Humanistic Perspective 143. After spending 27 years in prison for fighting to free his country from apartheid, Nelson Mandela rose to become President of South Africa, win the Nobel Peace Prize, and was one of the most respected persons in the world prior to his death. Mandela could be considered to have achieved ___. a) positive conditions of worth b) self-actualization c) the collective unconscious d) a peak experience Answer: b Difficulty: Medium

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Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic theories of Abraham Maslow and Carl Rogers. Section Reference: The Humanistic Perspective 144. Hugo is a novelist who has sold millions of books all over the world. He lives, however, on a small farm in the middle of Northern Ontario with his wife and three dogs. He spends his days tending to his garden, biking with his dogs, and writing. Recently, he and his wife have signed up for an online cooking class, and they enjoy shopping for fresh ingredients at the markets, then spending the day cooking a perfect meal followed by sitting down to savour it. What would Maslow say about Hugo? a) He has a stable self-concept. b) He has received unconditional positive regard. c) He does not have any conditions of worth. d) He is self-actualized. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic theories of Abraham Maslow and Carl Rogers. Section Reference: The Humanistic Perspective 145. The full use and exploitation of talents, capacities, and potentialities is called a) a peak experience. b) self-concept. c) unconditional positive regard. d) self-actualization. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic theories of Abraham Maslow and Carl Rogers. Section Reference: The Humanistic Perspective 146. Which of the following people is most inconsistent with Maslow's theory? a) After Adrienne married a wealthy businessman, she became extensively involved in many her husband's charitable causes. b) Sebastian is a “starving artist” who lives in a small, cold apartment that he can barely afford. He creates beautiful paintings. c) Ji-a works in a factory. She saves a little bit from each paycheque so that she can take a vacation once a year. d) Rhys dropped out of school to look after his younger siblings after their parents died. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation

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Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic theories of Abraham Maslow and Carl Rogers. Section Reference: The Humanistic Perspective 147. According to Csikszentmihalyi, what are the feelings associated with peak experiences? a) conditions of worth b) unconditional positive regard c) unconscious impulses associated with gratifying basic needs d) joy and a suspended sense of time and reality Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic theories of Abraham Maslow and Carl Rogers. Section Reference: The Humanistic Perspective 148. Nadya enjoys going to the opera. Even though she does not understand the language in which the songs are sung, she finds that time seems to stand still, and she is always moved to tears by the emotion of the music and performance. Which of the following might best describe Nadya’s experience at the opera? a) a collective unconscious experience b) self-actualization c) a peak experience d) an experience of self-concept Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic theories of Abraham Maslow and Carl Rogers. Section Reference: The Humanistic Perspective 149. According to Carl Rogers, we need ___ to develop a healthy self-concept. a) conditions of worth b) positive psychology c) unconditional positive regard d) self-actualization Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic theories of Abraham Maslow and Carl Rogers. Section Reference: The Humanistic Perspective 150. According to Carl Rogers, healthy self-concepts develop when children receive a) unconditional positive regard.

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b) self-actualization. c) positive reinforcement. d) peak experiences. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic theories of Abraham Maslow and Carl Rogers. Section Reference: The Humanistic Perspective 151. According to Rogers, what is the root cause of a person’s maladaptive functioning? a) unconscious impulses b) conditions of worth c) unconditional positive regard d) not achieving self-actualization Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic theories of Abraham Maslow and Carl Rogers. Section Reference: The Humanistic Perspective 152. Todd exhibits harsh parenting with his daughter, often telling her she is a bad person for engaging in undesirable behaviors. Upon visiting a therapist, Todd is encouraged to change his interactions with his daughter to encourage his daughter’s positive nature while focusing the negative behavior to better facilitate an atmosphere of a) unconditional positive regard. b) unconditional love. c) self-actualization. d) authoritative parenting. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic theories of Abraham Maslow and Carl Rogers. Section Reference: The Humanistic Perspective 153. When 15-year-old Assil told her parents she was a lesbian, her parents banished her from the family home. According to Rogers, this would be an example of a _________________. a) negative regard b) condition of worth c) barrier to the development of a self-concept d) barrier to self-actualization Answer: b

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic theories of Abraham Maslow and Carl Rogers. Section Reference: The Humanistic Perspective 154. Sheng is trying out for the school play. His new girlfriend usually gets the starring role, and he is worried that she will not like him anymore if he does not get a good part. According to Rogers, what is Sheng’s problem? a) He has unconditional positive regard. b) He has a delusional self-concept. c) He has conditions of worth. d) He is approaching self-actualization. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic theories of Abraham Maslow and Carl Rogers. Section Reference: The Humanistic Perspective 155. Asiya is 4 years old and decided that her 2-year-old sister needed a haircut. In particular Asiya decided that her sister’s ringlets needed to come off, and that she needed a very short boy’s haircut. Asiya used her mother’s sewing scissors to cut her sister’s hair. When her parents saw what had happened, they let Asiya know that her behaviour was terrible, but they made sure that she knew that they always loved her, no matter what. According to Rogers, how is this likely to affect Asiya’s development? a) She will be spoiled. b) She will not understand consequences of her behaviour. c) She will develop a healthy self-concept. d) She will have many conditions of worth. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic theories of Abraham Maslow and Carl Rogers. Section Reference: The Humanistic Perspective 156. Connall’s best friend, Bernie, stole some marijuana from his older brother and Connall, Bernie and their friends smoked it before gym class. The gym teacher caught them and called the parents, suspending each of the boys from school for a week. Connall’s parents were furious with Connall and discussed his poor decision-making with him and discussed ways he could make better choices next time. They took privileges away but made clear that he remained their priority and that this event did not change their feelings for him. According to Rogers, how is this likely to affect Connall’s development? a) He will be spoiled. b) He will not understand consequences of his behaviour.

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c) He will develop a healthy self-concept. d) He will have many conditions of worth. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic theories of Abraham Maslow and Carl Rogers. Section Reference: The Humanistic Perspective 157. A class is asked to draw two circles representing the way others see them and the way they see themselves. Matt’s two circles overlap a great deal, whereas Mark’s circles do not. What is implied here? a) Matt has a higher level of positive self-concept than Mark. b) Mark has a higher level of positive self-concept than Matt. c) Matt has a greater risk of future mental illness than Mark. d) Mark has a greater risk of future mental illness than Matt. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic theories of Abraham Maslow and Carl Rogers. Section Reference: The Humanistic Perspective 158. Rogers and Maslow are similar in that a) they both believe that human nature is basically positive. b) they both emphasize the role that parents play in developing self-concept. c) they both believe that individuals grow because of peak experiences. d) they both believe that we strive to overcome inferiority. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic theories of Abraham Maslow and Carl Rogers. Section Reference: The Humanistic Perspective 159. What is the difference between Maslow’s theory and Rogers’ theory of human nature? a) Maslow’s theory is centred around conscious experiences and Rogers’ theory is centred around unconscious experiences. b) Maslow’s theory is focused on the self-concept and Rogers’ theory is focused on the selfimage. c) Maslow’s theory is built around a hierarchy of needs and Rogers’ theory is built around a selfconcept. d) Maslow’s theory involves unconditional positive regard and Rogers’ theory involves conditional reinforcement.

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Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic theories of Abraham Maslow and Carl Rogers. Section Reference: The Humanistic Perspective 160. While Maslow’s theory of human nature is built around ___, Rogers’ theory is built around ___. a) conscious experiences; unconscious experiences b) the self-concept; the self-image c) a hierarchy of needs; a self-concept d) unconditional positive regard; conditional positive regard Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic theories of Abraham Maslow and Carl Rogers. Section Reference: The Humanistic Perspective 161. What is a critical difference between self-actualization and unconditional positive regard? a) Self-actualization is an inner process, while unconditional positive regard is provided by others. b) Rogers is credited with the term self-actualization, while Maslow is credited with the term unconditional positive regard. c) Narrowness is an obstacle for self-actualization, while naïve assumptions are obstacles for unconditional positive regard. d) Self-actualization is more likely among younger individuals, while unconditional positive regard is more likely among older individuals. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic theories of Abraham Maslow and Carl Rogers. Section Reference: The Humanistic Perspective 162. What is a similarity between unconditional positive regard and self-actualization? a) Both concepts involve an ongoing process over a long period of time versus an accomplishment. b) Both concepts are essential in an individual’s ability to experience the esteem level of needs. c) Both concepts were proposed by Abraham Maslow. d) Both concepts were proposed by Carl Rogers. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium

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Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic theories of Abraham Maslow and Carl Rogers. Section Reference: The Humanistic Perspective 163. Which of the following is NOT a criticism of humanistic theories? a) They are overly positive and ignore psychological dysfunction. b) They put too much emphasis on the conflict within the personality. c) They contain abstract concepts that are difficult to test. d) They are overly simplistic. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic theories of Abraham Maslow and Carl Rogers. Section Reference: The Humanistic Perspective 164. Which of the following is a criticism of humanistic theories? a) They have had very little impact on the field of psychology. b) They put too much emphasis on the conflict within the personality. c) They contain abstract concepts that are difficult to test. d) They are overly complex. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic theories of Abraham Maslow and Carl Rogers. Section Reference: The Humanistic Perspective 165. During a psychology discussion, Chris states that he does not endorse humanistic theories because they CANNOT account for criminal activity taking place in the world. In contrast, Steve protests the validity of humanistic theories because the underlying notions CANNOT be measured or accurately studied according to the scientific method. What is the difference between Chris and Steve? a) Chris endorses the criticism that humanistic theories are overly simplistic, whereas Steve endorses the poor testability and inadequate evidence criticism. b) Chris endorses the naïve assumptions criticism, whereas Steve endorses the narrowness criticism. c) Steve endorses the poor testability and inadequate evidence criticism, whereas Chris endorses the experimental flaw criticism. d) Steve endorses the experimental flaw criticism, whereas Chris endorses the narrowness criticism. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis

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Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic theories of Abraham Maslow and Carl Rogers. Section Reference: The Humanistic Perspective 166. Freida is going to graduate school in clinical psychology so that she can help people one day. However, all her classes are about the negative side of the human mind, and all the different kinds of disorders and treatments. She thinks that it would be much more helpful to people if the focus were on how to live well, and to study people who are currently happy and see how they do it. What area of psychology should Freida be studying instead of clinical psychology? a) positive psychology b) meditative psychology c) transcendental psychology d) unconditional psychology Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic theories of Abraham Maslow and Carl Rogers. Section Reference: The Humanistic Perspective 167. Which of the following individuals would be in the field of positive psychology? a) Drisco, who studies how positive thinking can have a beneficial effect on health b) Liam, who studies happy people and the qualities that they share c) Pol, who studies how positive consequences can shape future behaviour d) Figaro, who studies how a healthy lifestyle can have positive effects on longevity Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic theories of Abraham Maslow and Carl Rogers. Section Reference: The Humanistic Perspective 168. Early ________ theorists focused on organizing lists of personality traits into meaningful chunks. a) social-cognitive b) behavioral c) psychoanalytic d) trait Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the leading trait theories, and describe how the five-factor theory has evolved from the work of Gordon Allport and Hans Eysenck. Section Reference: The Trait Perspective

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169. Personality traits are defined as a) the tendency to respond in one of five ways to a given stimulus. b) a fundamental dimension of personality made up of a related cluster. c) a tendency to behave in certain ways that remain relatively constant across situations. d) an inherent response pattern that is triggers by specific situation. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the leading trait theories, and describe how the five-factor theory has evolved from the work of Gordon Allport and Hans Eysenck. Section Reference: The Trait Perspective 170. Which of the following statements best describes the assumptions of early trait theories? a) Basic personality traits can be identified using a statistical technique. b) Personality is based on unconscious influences of the mind. c) Personality is too complex to describe with a limited number of descriptors. d) Personality is determined by early childhood experiences. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the leading trait theories, and describe how the five-factor theory has evolved from the work of Gordon Allport and Hans Eysenck. Section Reference: The Trait Perspective 171. The ability to predict real life behaviors based on personality traits a) is one of the strengths of trait theories. b) is one of the limitations of trait theories. c) is not possible due to the changing nature of personality traits. d) is not possible due to the stability of personality traits. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the leading trait theories, and describe how the five-factor theory has evolved from the work of Gordon Allport and Hans Eysenck. Section Reference: The Trait Perspective 172. The tendency to behave in certain ways that remain relatively constant across situations is called a) temperament. b) tendencies.

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c) personality traits. d) personalized response tendencies. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the leading trait theories, and describe how the five-factor theory has evolved from the work of Gordon Allport and Hans Eysenck. Section Reference: The Trait Perspective 173. Most of her life Stella has been a “people-person. “Her extroverted personality and energy when with others across situations have helped her to make friends as a child, adolescent and adult. Which tendency best describes her? a) personality state b) personality trait c) central trait d) transient state Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the leading trait theories, and describe how the five-factor theory has evolved from the work of Gordon Allport and Hans Eysenck. Section Reference: The Trait Perspective 174. Gordon Allport believed all the following EXCEPT that a) behaviour is not necessarily related to unconscious tensions. b) the present is more important than the past in understanding personality. c) individuals are unique and unified. d) without society's rules, behaviour can become unhealthy and disorganized. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the leading trait theories, and describe how the five-factor theory has evolved from the work of Gordon Allport and Hans Eysenck. Section Reference: The Trait Perspective 175. Gordon Allport disagreed with psychoanalysis in that he believed a) psychologists should focus more on the role of the collective unconscious in personality development. b) psychologists should focus more on the past than on the present. c) psychologists should focus more on latent motives that guide behaviour. d) psychologists should focus more on manifest motives rather than the unconscious.

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Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the leading trait theories, and describe how the five-factor theory has evolved from the work of Gordon Allport and Hans Eysenck. Section Reference: The Trait Perspective 176. Which of the following describes a key difference between the approaches of Freud and Allport? a) Allport believed that traits clustered together into superfactors; Freud believed in individual traits. b) Allport believed in individual traits; Freud believed that traits clustered together into supertraits. c) Freud believed that behaviour is related to unconscious tensions; Allport argued that behaviour can be healthy and organized. d) Freud believed that behaviour is related to unconscious tensions; Allport believed that behaviours were the result of tensions between conscious processes. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the leading trait theories, and describe how the five-factor theory has evolved from the work of Gordon Allport and Hans Eysenck. Section Reference: The Trait Perspective 177. Factor analysis is a) a statistical method for analyzing correlations between variables. b) a list of the five factors central to trait theory. c) a scale for assessing people's personality traits. d) an analysis of the correlation between personality traits and underlying biological tendencies. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the leading trait theories, and describe how the five-factor theory has evolved from the work of Gordon Allport and Hans Eysenck. Section Reference: The Trait Perspective 178. According to Eysenck, a fundamental dimension of personality, made up of a related cluster of personality traits, is known as a a) trait category. b) factor analysis. c) megatrait. d) superfactor.

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Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the leading trait theories, and describe how the five-factor theory has evolved from the work of Gordon Allport and Hans Eysenck. Section Reference: The Trait Perspective 179. Eysenck's three superfactors are a) extraversion, sociability, and psychoticism. b) psychoticism, extraversion, and neuroticism. c) introversion, neuroticism, and psychoticism. d) neuroticism, assertiveness, and extraversion. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the leading trait theories, and describe how the five-factor theory has evolved from the work of Gordon Allport and Hans Eysenck. Section Reference: The Trait Perspective 180. Eysenck's trait of impulsivity is related to which superfactor? a) psychoticism b) extroversion c) sociability d) assertiveness. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the leading trait theories, and describe how the five-factor theory has evolved from the work of Gordon Allport and Hans Eysenck. Section Reference: The Trait Perspective 181. Which of the following individuals represents a finding relevant to Eysenck’s work? a) Nadia and Hana are identical twins raised together and are both thoughtful and reliable. b) Ai, from China, is very passive, but cannot know whether she is introverted because Eysenck’s scale is not applicable in her country. c) Shyla and Ciara are identical twins who were adopted at birth and raised in different homes. They have developed very different personalities. d) Sahil is extroverted but for generations everyone else in his family was introverted. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis

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Learning Objective: Summarize the leading trait theories, and describe how the five-factor theory has evolved from the work of Gordon Allport and Hans Eysenck. Section Reference: The Trait Perspective 182. Beau's friends describe him as impulsive, sociable, and assertive. Which of Eysenck's superfactors does he most likely possess? a) extraversion b) introversion c) neuroticism d) psychoticism Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the leading trait theories, and describe how the five-factor theory has evolved from the work of Gordon Allport and Hans Eysenck. Section Reference: The Trait Perspective 183. Nadalia is a quiet employee who is always punctual and seldom argues, even if she feels others are wrong. She often thinks deeply on topics such as social justice and world politics. Which of Eysenck’s superfactors would Nadalia’s traits fall under? a) extraversion b) neuroticism c) psychoticism d) openness Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the leading trait theories, and describe how the five-factor theory has evolved from the work of Gordon Allport and Hans Eysenck. Section Reference: The Trait Perspective 184. When Harlow encounters even the smallest of stressors, she becomes extremely anxious and upset. She believes that negative events in her life occur because she is destined to experience bad luck. Which of Eysenck’s superfactors would encompass Harlow’s traits? a) extraversion b) psychoticism c) neuroticism d) openness Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the leading trait theories, and describe how the five-factor

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theory has evolved from the work of Gordon Allport and Hans Eysenck. Section Reference: The Trait Perspective 185. The _____ measures openness, conscientiousness, extroversion, agreeableness, and neuroticism as aspects of personality. a) state theory b) Five-Factor model c) factor analysis theory d) Eysenck’s model Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the leading trait theories, and describe how the five-factor theory has evolved from the work of Gordon Allport and Hans Eysenck. Section Reference: The Trait Perspective 186. Romy is gentle, cooperative, trusting, and helpful. Obadiah is outgoing, talkative, funloving, and affectionate. According to the Five-Factor model, it is likely that Romy scores high on _________________, and Obadiah scores high on ____________________. a) openness; agreeableness b) agreeableness; extroversion c) extroversion; openness d) eagerness; cheerfulness Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the leading trait theories, and describe how the five-factor theory has evolved from the work of Gordon Allport and Hans Eysenck. Section Reference: The Trait Perspective 187. Charles worries about everything. If he accidentally bumps into someone on the street, he immediately becomes anxious, believing the person will yell at him. Charles’s moods also fluctuate; he is happy one minute and angry the next. Charles demonstrates high levels of a) neuroticism. b) extroversion. c) openness. d) psychoticism. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the leading trait theories, and describe how the five-factor theory has evolved from the work of Gordon Allport and Hans Eysenck.

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Section Reference: The Trait Perspective 188. Charlotte talks to everyone she meets, whether it is at the post office, on the train, or in a doctor’s office. She enjoys talking to people to find out their stories, and she likes to tell them about her life. Charlotte has been like this since she was a child. Charlotte would score high for a) extroversion. b) neuroticism. c) openness. d) conscientiousness. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the leading trait theories, and describe how the five-factor theory has evolved from the work of Gordon Allport and Hans Eysenck. Section Reference: The Trait Perspective 189. Silus goes to the library every Friday. He does not talk to anyone there, and he keeps his head down so as NOT to make eye contact with anyone he passes. Silus would score a) low for extroversion. b) high for extroversion. c) high for conscientiousness. d) low for conscientiousness. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the leading trait theories, and describe how the five-factor theory has evolved from the work of Gordon Allport and Hans Eysenck. Section Reference: The Trait Perspective 190. Dillon prefers to stay home whenever possible because he likes to avoid activity. These same qualities were the reason he lost his last job because he often did not show up to work. He should be looking for a new job, but he would rather watch television. Dillon would score low for a) conscientiousness. b) extroversion. c) agreeableness. d) openness. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the leading trait theories, and describe how the five-factor theory has evolved from the work of Gordon Allport and Hans Eysenck.

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Section Reference: The Trait Perspective 191. Sara wakes up for work every weekday at 5 am. She dresses, prepares her files and paperwork, and heads into the office. Sara generally works between eight and ten hours a day and has NOT missed a day of work in over a year. Sara would score a) high for conscientiousness. b) low for conscientiousness. c) high for openness. d) low for openness. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the leading trait theories, and describe how the five-factor theory has evolved from the work of Gordon Allport and Hans Eysenck. Section Reference: The Trait Perspective 192. Caleigh’s boss can have a bad temper. When he is at his worst, he yells at everyone in the office, even Caleigh. Most of the time when he does this, she simply lets his mood pass, ignores his negative comments, and goes along with her day. His actions do not really upset her. Caleigh would score a) low for neuroticism. b) low for openness. c) high for extroversion. d) high for openness. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the leading trait theories, and describe how the five-factor theory has evolved from the work of Gordon Allport and Hans Eysenck. Section Reference: The Trait Perspective 193. Jess is an anthropologist who loves to travel to other countries and study the culture. She enjoys discovering new things on every trip she takes. Sometimes these trips bring her to dangerous locations, where she could easily be hurt. Jess stays calm, though, and does not let fear guide her. Which of the following is the explanation for Jess’ personality? a) Jess demonstrates high levels of openness and low levels of neuroticism, meaning that she is both calm in the face of adversity and adventurous enough to experience trying situations often. b) Jess demonstrates high levels of openness and high levels of neuroticism, meaning that she is both hard working when it comes to her career and ruthless when dangerous situations arise. c) Jess demonstrates high levels of extroversion and low levels of conscientiousness, meaning that she is outgoing enough to be a good anthropologist and impulsive enough not to worry about the danger around her. d) Jess demonstrates low levels of extroversion and low levels of conscientiousness, meaning

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that she enjoys anthropology because she is around people and she is also organized and responsible. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Summarize the leading trait theories, and describe how the five-factor theory has evolved from the work of Gordon Allport and Hans Eysenck. Section Reference: The Trait Perspective 194. Zaid is described by others as a very calm person. He NEVER seems to get emotional, no matter what the situation, and he is always secure in his own skin. Which of the five factors of personality would Zaid score low on? a) openness b) conscientiousness c) agreeableness d) neuroticism Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the leading trait theories, and describe how the five-factor theory has evolved from the work of Gordon Allport and Hans Eysenck. Section Reference: The Trait Perspective 195. A classmate recently took a test that measures her personality according to the Five-Factor Model (FFM). The results showed that she is original, imaginative, and artistic; but prone to insecurity, anxiety, and guilt. Which two factors did she score high on? a) neuroticism and extroversion b) openness and neuroticism c) conscientiousness and openness d) extroversion and agreeableness Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the leading trait theories, and describe how the five-factor theory has evolved from the work of Gordon Allport and Hans Eysenck. Section Reference: The Trait Perspective 196. A classmate recently took a test that measures his personality according to the Five-Factor Model (FFM). The results showed that he is irresponsible, lazy, and undependable; and quiet, passive, and reserved. Which two factors did he score low on? a) extroversion and openness b) openness and agreeableness

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

c) conscientiousness and extroversion d) agreeableness and conscientiousness Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the leading trait theories, and describe how the five-factor theory has evolved from the work of Gordon Allport and Hans Eysenck. Section Reference: The Trait Perspective 197. Beatrice is adopted and is wondering whether her personality is the way it is because she inherited those traits or because she learned them from her adoptive parents. Which bit of evidence supports the idea that she inherited her personality? a) there is no difference between fraternal twins and identical twins on personality scores b) identical twins raised together are more similar in personality scores than identical twins raised apart c) identical twins raised apart are more similar in personality scores than fraternal twins raised together d) fraternal twins raised apart differ more in personality scores than identical twins raised together Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the leading trait theories, and describe how the five-factor theory has evolved from the work of Gordon Allport and Hans Eysenck. Section Reference: The Trait Perspective 198. Laura and Ava are identical twins. Laura scores high on the superfactor of extroversion and low on the scale of neuroticism. According to Eysenk, what would you predict that Ava would score on both superfactors? a) Ava would score high on extroversion and high on neuroticism. b) Ava would score lower on extroversion than Laura, but also low on neuroticism. c) Ava would score high on extroversion, but somewhat higher than Laura on neuroticism. d) Ava would score the same as Laura on both extroversion and neuroticism. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the leading trait theories, and describe how the five-factor theory has evolved from the work of Gordon Allport and Hans Eysenck. Section Reference: The Trait Perspective 199. Which of the following does NOT demonstrate one of Eysenck’s contributions to personality theory?

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a) Maddie and Jade are identical twins and are both very outgoing and impulsive. b) Chen, from China, is very passive, whereas Luanne, from Canada, usually stands up for the things she wants. c) Bettina and Charlene are identical twins who were adopted at birth and raised in different homes. They have developed very different personalities. d) Thomas and his stepbrother Andrew are both neurotic due to their unstable family environment. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the leading trait theories, and describe how the five-factor theory has evolved from the work of Gordon Allport and Hans Eysenck. Section Reference: The Trait Perspective 200. Which of the following demonstrates one of Eysenck’s contributions to personality theory? a) Autumn and Summer are identical twins and are both very reliable and thoughtful. b) Lileng, from China, is very passive, whereas Carli, from Canada, usually stands up for the things she wants. c) Wyatt and Alex are identical twins who were adopted at birth and raised in different homes. They have developed very different personalities. d) Biyu and Heng are fraternal twins who are both sociable and outgoing. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the leading trait theories, and describe how the five-factor theory has evolved from the work of Gordon Allport and Hans Eysenck. Section Reference: The Trait Perspective 201. Jacques was often described as a person who often made those around him feel uncomfortable. On which attribute of the five-factor model would he most likely obtain a particularly low score? a) agreeableness b) extraversion c) neuroticism d) introversion Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the leading trait theories, and describe how the five-factor theory has evolved from the work of Gordon Allport and Hans Eysenck. Section Reference: The Trait Perspective

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

202. Quinn is extremely agreeable when it comes to letting her friends choose their vacation destination. Based on this, what can we predict about how agreeable she is about having her friends borrow her things and allowing her friends to choose the restaurant? a) She is likely to both have her friends borrow her things and allow them to choose the restaurant. b) She is likely to allow her friends to choose the restaurant but not necessarily allow them to borrow her things. c) She is not necessarily likely to allow her friends to choose the restaurant, but she is likely to allow them to borrow her things. d) Her tendency to do these other behaviours is unpredictable from one measure of agreeableness. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the leading trait theories, and describe how the five-factor theory has evolved from the work of Gordon Allport and Hans Eysenck. Section Reference: The Trait Perspective 203. Maeve is very organized with her work and home life, and she is extremely punctual. Which of the five factors of personality would she score high on? a) openness b) conscientiousness c) agreeableness d) neuroticism Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the leading trait theories, and describe how the five-factor theory has evolved from the work of Gordon Allport and Hans Eysenck. Section Reference: The Trait Perspective 204. Shu-hui is a student who always finishes her work on time, is never late, and is reliable when it comes to her responsibilities to others. Shu-hui is most likely _______________. a) high in agreeableness b) low in agreeableness c) high in conscientiousness d) low in conscientiousness Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the leading trait theories, and describe how the five-factor theory has evolved from the work of Gordon Allport and Hans Eysenck. Section Reference: The Trait Perspective

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205. Ayah described by others as an independent thinker, one who is curious and seeks answers to her own questions. She is also very creative and imaginative in her problem solving. Which of the five factors would Ayah score high on? a) openness b) conscientiousness c) agreeableness d) neuroticism Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the leading trait theories, and describe how the five-factor theory has evolved from the work of Gordon Allport and Hans Eysenck. Section Reference: The Trait Perspective 206. Angelica is a very talented artist, however, her art studio it is so messy and disorganized, it is difficult to understand how she can find anything. According to the five-factor model, Angelica would probably score ___, and ___. a) high on extraversion; low on openness b) high on extraversion; high on openness c) high on openness; low on conscientiousness d) high on consciousness; low on extraversion Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize the leading trait theories, and describe how the five-factor theory has evolved from the work of Gordon Allport and Hans Eysenck. Section Reference: The Trait Perspective 207. What would you predict about the level of conscientiousness that someone would show across similar situations and different situations? a) They would show various levels of conscientiousness across similar situations and across different situations. b) They would show various levels of conscientiousness across similar situations and similar levels of conscientiousness across different situations. c) They would show similar levels of conscientiousness across similar situations but different levels of conscientiousness across different situations. d) They would show similar levels of conscientiousness across similar situations and across different situations. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis

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Learning Objective: Summarize the leading trait theories, and describe how the five-factor theory has evolved from the work of Gordon Allport and Hans Eysenck. Section Reference: The Trait Perspective 208. Suppose you know someone’s conscientiousness score. If you tested them in a comparable situation, they should show ___ levels of conscientiousness; if you tested them in a different situation, they should show ___ levels of conscientiousness. a) different; different b) different; similar c) similar; different d) similar; similar Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the leading trait theories, and describe how the five-factor theory has evolved from the work of Gordon Allport and Hans Eysenck. Section Reference: The Trait Perspective 209. Which of the following corresponds to the five-factor theory of personality? a) introversion, neuroticism, sociability, openness, psychoticism b) openness, introversion, practicality, punctuality, conscientiousness c) neuroticism, extraversion, conscientiousness, agreeableness, and openness d) extraversion, emotionality, impulsivity, neuroticism, agreeableness Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the leading trait theories, and describe how the five-factor theory has evolved from the work of Gordon Allport and Hans Eysenck. Section Reference: The Trait Perspective 210. Which of the following is NOT one of the traits from the five-factor theory? a) openness b) conscientiousness c) agreeableness d) psychoticism Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the leading trait theories, and describe how the five-factor theory has evolved from the work of Gordon Allport and Hans Eysenck. Section Reference: The Trait Perspective

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211. In what way is Eysenck’s theory of personality like the five-factor model of personality? a) They both include the broad traits of extroversion and neuroticism. b) They both agree that personality traits will be unstable over time. c) They both assume that personality traits vary across situations. d) They both emphasize the trait of agreeableness. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the leading trait theories, and describe how the five-factor theory has evolved from the work of Gordon Allport and Hans Eysenck. Section Reference: The Trait Perspective 212. Research has shown that all the following are true about traits EXCEPT that a) traits are stable and consistent over time. b) between three and five of the “Big Five” personality traits can be found across all cultures. c) traits are powerful and difficult to disguise. d) traits are not always stable across situations. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the leading trait theories, and describe how the five-factor theory has evolved from the work of Gordon Allport and Hans Eysenck. Section Reference: The Trait Perspective 213. Which is TRUE of the cultural differences in the big Five superfactors? a) The Big Five personality superfactors do not generalize well across cultures. b) There is evidence that people of other cultures exhibit personality types that are captured by at least one of the Big Five superfactors. c) There is evidence that people of other cultures exhibit personality types that are captured by at least three and sometimes all five of the Big Five superfactors. d) There is evidence that people of all cultures display personality types that are captured by all of the Big Five superfactors. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the leading trait theories, and describe how the five-factor theory has evolved from the work of Gordon Allport and Hans Eysenck. Section Reference: The Trait Perspective 214. Which of the following is NOT an assumption of trait theorists? a) People have innate tendencies to respond to situations in specific ways.

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b) Response tendencies can be grouped to form broad habits. c) Broad habits are modifiable with experience. d) Trait theories are scientifically testable. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the leading trait theories, and describe how the five-factor theory has evolved from the work of Gordon Allport and Hans Eysenck. Section Reference: The Trait Perspective 215. Trait theories assume all the following EXCEPT a) that people have innate tendencies to respond to situations in specific ways. b) that response tendencies can be grouped to form broad habits. c) that broad habits are modifiable with experience. d) that trait theories are scientifically testable. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the leading trait theories, and describe how the five-factor theory has evolved from the work of Gordon Allport and Hans Eysenck. Section Reference: The Trait Perspective 216. Which of the following statements about trait theories is accurate? a) Trait theories do not explain how specific traits develop. b) There is no cross-cultural research that supports the theories. c) Trait theories fail to help psychologists explain human behavior. d) Trait theories fail to clearly define specific personality characteristics. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the leading trait theories, and describe how the five-factor theory has evolved from the work of Gordon Allport and Hans Eysenck. Section Reference: The Trait Perspective 217. One limitation of trait theories is a) they do not explain why people develop specific traits. b) there is insufficient research to support them. c) they fail to help psychologists predict behavior. d) there are too many proposed personality characteristics. Answer: a

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the leading trait theories, and describe how the five-factor theory has evolved from the work of Gordon Allport and Hans Eysenck. Section Reference: The Trait Perspective 218. Which tool is a self-reporting personality assessment that includes more than 500 statements about unusual, abnormal behavior? a) the five factor analysis b) the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory c) the Rorschach Test d) the Thematic Apperception Test Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of personality tests, and give examples of each. Section Reference: Personality Assessment 219. Which of the following behaviours has conscientiousness been used to predict? a) self-esteem b) absenteeism c) biological predispositions d) extraversion Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of personality tests, and give examples of each. Section Reference: Personality Assessment 220. Researchers recommend treating pop-culture personality quizzes as entertainment, not as scientifically accurate, because a) they may cause people personal distress if not administered with the possibility of debriefing. b) the subject matter rarely relates to real-life situations. c) they are often developed by people who want to gather information about you for illegal purposes. d) they do not usually undergo any type of testing or research. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of personality tests, and give examples of

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each. Section Reference: Personality Assessment 221. ________ are standardized questionnaires that require written, self-report responses, usually to multiple choice or TRUE/FALSE questions. a) Personality inventories b) Projective personality tests c) Personality interviews d) Personality observations Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of personality tests, and give examples of each. Section Reference: Personality Assessment 222. The most widely used personality inventories are the ___________________. a) MMPI-2 and NEO-PI-R b) Rorschach inkblot test and MMPI-2 c) TAT and Rorschach d) MMPI-2 and TAT Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of personality tests, and give examples of each. Section Reference: Personality Assessment 223. Under which assessment category does the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) fall? a) projective tests b) personality inventories c) interviews d) observations Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of personality tests, and give examples of each. Section Reference: Personality Assessment

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224. For which of the following reasons might the MMPI include similar health questions asked in different ways? a) to minimize the effects of contradictory answers b) to eliminate subjective responses c) to assess masculinity versus femininity d) to address diagnostic difficulties Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of personality tests, and give examples of each. Section Reference: Personality Assessment 225. Odelia’s therapist suspects that she has a personality disorder. Which of the following tests would the therapist most likely use to confirm this impression? a) MMPI b) NEO-PI-R c) Rorschach d) TAT Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of personality tests, and give examples of each. Section Reference: Personality Assessment 226. According to the textbook, the major objective of the MMPI-2 is to ___________________. a) assess abnormal personality characteristics and inclinations b) assess a person's tendency to lie or distort the truth c) assist in the determination of treatment for psychological disorders d) assess how individuals score on the Big-Five personality traits Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of personality tests, and give examples of each. Section Reference: Personality Assessment 227. Which of the following tests contains items simply because they have high predictive value? a) TAT b) NEO-PI-R

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c) Rorschach Inkblot Test d) MMPI Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of personality tests, and give examples of each. Section Reference: Personality Assessment 228. Laia is taking a personality test. She is given over 500 questions and asked to indicate whether she agrees or disagrees with the statements on the test. Which test is Laia taking? a) Rorschach b) NEO-PI-R c) TAT d) MMPI Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of personality tests, and give examples of each. Section Reference: Personality Assessment 229. Which of the following individuals is taking the MMPI? a) Roman, who is asked 567 questions that do not make any intuitive sense b) Qusai, who is shown inkblots that she has to label c) David, who is asked questions that obviously assess the five superfactors d) Jill, who is shown ambiguous drawings of people in different situations and she has to make up a story about each one Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of personality tests, and give examples of each. Section Reference: Personality Assessment 230. Nelson took the NEO-PI-R personality test and scored very high on conscientiousness. Based on this, what can we predict, based on the research discussed in your text? a) Nelson’s conscientiousness score will not remain stable across similar situations, but it will across different situations. b) Nelson’s conscientiousness score will remain stable across his lifespan. c) Nelson will have a longer lifespan than if he had scored low on conscientiousness. d) Nelson will have a more active social life than if he had scored low on conscientiousness.

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Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of personality tests, and give examples of each. Section Reference: Personality Assessment 231. Which of the following tests assess the dimensions comprising the five-factor model of personality? a) the NEO Personality Inventory-Revised b) the MMPI-2 c) the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) d) the Dimensional Assessment of Personality Pathology Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of personality tests, and give examples of each. Section Reference: Personality Assessment 232. The NEO-personality inventory is designed to a) evaluate traits from three superfactors. b) assess maladaptive aspects of personality. c) tap into the unconscious mind. d) force participants to project structure and meaning onto ambiguous images. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of personality tests, and give examples of each. Section Reference: Personality Assessment 233. Jane is taking a personality test that is asking her questions that are obviously assessing her on five key factors of personality. For instance, she is sure that the question “Do you seek out the company of others?” is measuring extroversion. What test is she most likely taking? a) MMPI b) NEO-PI-R c) Rorschach Inkblot Test d) TAT Answer: b

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of personality tests, and give examples of each. Section Reference: Personality Assessment 234. The main difference between the MMPI and the NEO-PI-R is that the MMPI ___ while the NEO-PI-R ___. a) does not have high predictive validity; does b) does not ask intuitively obvious questions; does c) is affected by social desirability; is not d) has not undergone many revisions; has Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of personality tests, and give examples of each. Section Reference: Personality Assessment 235. Tailoring answers on personality inventories to try to create a good impression is known as a) the fundamental attribution error. b) the self-effacing bias. c) socially desirable responding. d) personality deception bias. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of personality tests, and give examples of each. Section Reference: Personality Assessment 236. Significant concerns about personality inventories include all EXCEPT one of the following. Which one is NOT a concern? a) They rely on self-report. b) They are not always used and applied properly. c) Participants may engage in socially desirable responding. d) Items are not empirically derived. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of personality tests, and give examples of each.

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Section Reference: Personality Assessment 237. Which of the following is NOT a concern with using personality inventories as an indicator of personality? a) They typically involve self-report, so are not accurate. b) They are not used often enough to be correctly standardized. c) They can be misused or not applied correctly. d) They may be subject to social desirability responding. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of personality tests, and give examples of each. Section Reference: Personality Assessment 238. Which of the following is NOT a concern about personality inventories? a) They rely on self-reports. b) They are neither accurate nor consistent. c) They are not always used and applied properly. d) Test-takers may respond in ways that create a good impression. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of personality tests, and give examples of each. Section Reference: Personality Assessment 239. Abril is the Human Resource Manager of the Triple-City Electrical Company. She has been asked to hire a new accounting clerk and is thinking of using a personality test to help select the best candidate for the job. Which of the following tests would you suggest she use? a) MMPI – it will indicate if there are any psychological disorders. b) NEO-PI_R – it will indicate how conscientious an employee the candidate will be. c) Rorschach – it will indicate if there are any serious personality issues. d) None of the above. Personality tests are not a reliable predictor of job performance. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of personality tests, and give examples of each. Section Reference: Personality Assessment

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240. Which of the following is a concern about the use of personality inventories as part of a hiring process? a) Personality inventories are neither accurate nor consistent. b) Employers do not know how to properly interpret the results of the inventories. c) Historically, inventories have not been good at predicting who would be the best candidate for a job. d) Employers do not always know what traits are best for a particular job. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of personality tests, and give examples of each. Section Reference: Personality Assessment 241. Drew is completing a personality inventory. For one question, “I am always happy”, he responds “True”. On another question, “Sometimes I feel sad”, he responds “False”. These two questions are an example of ___. a) reliability items b) social response items c) validity items d) projective items Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of personality tests, and give examples of each. Section Reference: Personality Assessment 242. To assess the degree to which a participant is likely to answer a question in a sociallydesirable way, researchers a) assess whether the test is measuring what it claims to measure. b) assess the extent that a participant’s answers would change over time. c) include some validity items on their questionnaire. d) report whether the test is reliable. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of personality tests, and give examples of each. Section Reference: Personality Assessment 243. The Rorschach test measures personality by

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a) asking the person to explain what they see in a series of ambiguous pictures. b) asking the person about the various traits they possess. c) asking the person to agree or disagree with a series of questions. d) asking the person to explain what they see in a set of inkblots. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of personality tests, and give examples of each. Section Reference: Personality Assessment 244. A psychologist shows his client 10 inkblots and asks him to report which objects or figures he sees in them. In each blot, the man sees the same image. The psychologist interprets this as evidence of an obsession. When another psychologist is consulted, she believes the data shows signs of depression. What challenge of projective tests is demonstrated here? a) high risk of deception b) high cultural bias c) low validity d) low reliability Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of personality tests, and give examples of each. Section Reference: Personality Assessment 245. Hamish is taking a personality test that presents him with inkblot drawings and he must provide a label for each one as quickly as possible. What test is Hamish most likely taking? a) MMPI b) NEO-PI-R c) Rorschach Test d) TAT Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of personality tests, and give examples of each. Section Reference: Personality Assessment 246. Ulrich is taking a personality test that presents him with ambiguous black and white drawing of people in a variety of situations. What test is Ulrich most likely taking? a) MMPI

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b) NEO-PI-R c) Rorschach Test d) TAT Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of personality tests, and give examples of each. Section Reference: Personality Assessment 247. Which of the following theorists’ philosophies would best support using the Rorschach test? a) Skinner b) Eysenck c) Maslow d) Freud Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of personality tests, and give examples of each. Section Reference: Personality Assessment 248. Under which assessment category does the Rorschach Inkblot Test fall? a) projective tests b) personality inventories c) interviews d) observations Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of personality tests, and give examples of each. Section Reference: Personality Assessment 249. Which method of testing personality uses the Rorschach Inkblot Test or the Thematic Apperception Test? a) five factor analysis b) subjective tests c) projective tests d) humanistic observation analysis

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Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of personality tests, and give examples of each. Section Reference: Personality Assessment 250. All the following are characteristics of projective tests EXCEPT that a) they rely on clinicians' judgment for analysis. b) they have a validity scale that guards against socially-desirable responses. c) they are quite different from personality inventories. d) they have problems with reliability. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of personality tests, and give examples of each. Section Reference: Personality Assessment 251. While some clinicians rely on the use of projective tests to assess personality, a remaining issue pointed out by many others is that a) the self-reports in projective tests may be inaccurate. b) projective tests may uncover repressed conflicts. c) projective tests have low validity and reliability. d) projective tests have no systematic scoring key. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of personality tests, and give examples of each. Section Reference: Personality Assessment 252. One criticism of projective tests are that they a) have issues with reliability and validity. b) allow individuals to fake their responses. c) allow individuals to project their unconscious conflicts onto the test. d) allow individuals to be deceptive in their responses. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of personality tests, and give examples of

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each. Section Reference: Personality Assessment 253. Which type of personality assessment is criticized most for issues with reliability and validity? a) Projective tests b) Interviews c) Observations d) Objective tests Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of personality tests, and give examples of each. Section Reference: Personality Assessment 254. One advantage of personality inventories is that a) they can be administered in a short amount of time. b) they allow individuals to project their unconscious conflict onto the tests. c) individuals have the opportunity to present themselves in positive ways. d) they make it easier to pinpoint a specific psychological disorder. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of personality tests, and give examples of each. Section Reference: Personality Assessment 255. Being able to administer tests to individuals quickly is an advantage of which method of personality assessment? a) Personality inventories b) Projective tests c) Interviews d) Observations Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of personality tests, and give examples of each. Section Reference: Personality Assessment

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256. What is the difference between personality inventory and projective tests? a) Projective tests expose the individual to a stimulus, whereas personality inventories do not. b) Personality inventories expose the individual to a stimulus, whereas projective tests do not. c) Personality inventories measure an individual’s personality, whereas projective tests measure an individual’s intelligence. d) Personality inventories measure an individual’s intelligence, whereas projective tests measure an individual’s personality. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of personality tests, and give examples of each. Section Reference: Personality Assessment 257. Jack joins an online dating site and must specify some personal details in his profile. Although technically he does not have his university degree because he ended up getting a job right before he finished his last term, he writes that he has his degree. He also says that he owns his own home, even though he pays rent to stay in his parents’ basement. What issue about testing does Jack’s answer demonstrate? a) experimenter bias b) socially-desirable responding c) reliability varies across different experimental settings d) males and females respond to the same testing situation differently Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of personality tests, and give examples of each. Section Reference: Personality Assessment 258. Which of the following is NOT a type of personality inventory? a) the TAT b) Myers-Briggs c) the MMPI-2 d) the NOE-PI-R Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of personality tests, and give examples of each. Section Reference: Personality Assessment

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259. Kamala is shown a series of ambiguous pictures and asked to tell a story about what is going on between the people in the picture. Which test is Kamala taking? a) NEO-PI-R b) Rorschach c) TAT d) MMPI Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of personality tests, and give examples of each. Section Reference: Personality Assessment 260. Logan is looking at a series of abstract patterns and is to explain what each image looks like to him. Danielle is looking at pictures and is asked to create a story about each picture. What is implied here? a) Logan is taking a Rorschach inkblot test, while Danielle is taking a TAT. b) Logan is taking a TAT, while Danielle is taking a Rorschach inkblot test. c) Both Danielle and Logan are taking a TAT. d) Both Danielle and Logan are taking a Rorschach inkblot test. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of personality tests, and give examples of each. Section Reference: Personality Assessment 261. Both Leo and Carter are taking projective tests. If Leo is taking a Rorschach test and Carter is taking a TAT test, how might they be different? a) Leo is being exposed to abstract images and Carter is being exposed to obscure drawings. b) Leo is being exposed to abstract drawings and Carter is being exposed to true/false questions. c) Leo is being exposed to true/false questions and Carter is being exposed to a series of interview questions. d) Leo is being exposed to a series of interview questions and Carter is being exposed to abstract images. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of personality tests, and give examples of each. Section Reference: Personality Assessment

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262. Elsie has been given a card with an ambiguous looking inkblot on it. She is, then asked what she sees on the card. It is most likely that Elsie is being given a __________________ test. a) Rorschach b) Thematic Apperception c) subliminal perception d) implicit perception Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of personality tests, and give examples of each. Section Reference: Personality Assessment 263. The idea that behaviour is governed primarily by environmental circumstances rather than by traits is called a) behaviourism. b) situationism. c) interactionism. d) reciprocal determinism. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate the situationist and interactionist views of personality. Section Reference: The Situationist and Interactionist Perspectives 264. Recently, interactionist theorists have realized that personality shows disposition-situation consistency. In other words, a) the same situation can trigger different personality traits. b) different personality traits are typically observed to the same situation over time. c) personality traits do not change with different situations. d) certain situations trigger certain personality traits, and these show consistencies over time. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate the situationist and interactionist views of personality. Section Reference: The Situationist and Interactionist Perspectives 265. Tariq has been told that he is a disappointment to his parents his entire life. At age 22 he

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has come to believe that he is incapable of positive change. He makes no attempt to better himself through education or training. Tariq works part-time at a local fast food chain just to pay his bills. Younger employees are quickly promoted over him. This is an example of a) reciprocal determinism. b) internal locus of control. c) disproportionate self-efficacy. d) depressed cognitive expectancy. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate the situationist and interactionist views of personality. Section Reference: The Situationist and Interactionist Perspectives 266. After Jennie told her friend, Lorenzo, that she was penalized for turning her psychology paper in late. Lorenzo told her he was not surprised because Jennie usually procrastinates. When Jennie reminded him that he turned his history paper in late last semester, he responded that it was different because he had three papers due on the same day. In this example, Lorenzo is explaining Jennie’s behaviour using the _____ perspective but his own behaviour using the ____________ perspective. a) situationist; interactionist b) interactionist; situationist c) trait; situationist d) situationist; trait Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate the situationist and interactionist views of personality. Section Reference: The Situationist and Interactionist Perspectives 267. The statement “Padmini is always much more outgoing than her brother, Ajit, when it comes to sports, but Padmini is always more reserved and quieter than Ajit is at school” is typical of which perspective? a) reciprocal determinism b) interactionism c) disposition-situation consistency d) situationalism Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate the situationist and interactionist views of personality.

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Section Reference: The Situationist and Interactionist Perspectives 268. Mila has noticed that her niece is very outgoing at her soccer game but NOT at all with her class. What is this seeming discrepant observation about Mila’s niece’s personality called? a) behaviour-trait consistency b) disposition-situation consistency c) response tendencies d) reciprocal determinism Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate the situationist and interactionist views of personality. Section Reference: The Situationist and Interactionist Perspectives 269. How does social-cognitive theory differ from disposition-situation theory? a) Mischel’s theory places more emphasis on the role of the environment and situational variables in determining behaviour than Bandura’s. b) Bandura’s theory places more emphasis on the role of the environment and situational variables in determining behaviour than Mischel’s. c) Mischel’s theory places more emphasis on behavioural outcomes being shaped by an individual’s expectations of a situation than Bandura’s. d) Bandura’s theory places more emphasis on behavioural outcomes being shaped by an individual’s expectations of a situation than Mischel’s. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate the situationist and interactionist views of personality. Section Reference: The Situationist and Interactionist Perspectives 270. Jim and Tim were discussing their sister Lisa. Jim thought Lisa was shy because she lacked confidence. He wanted her to believe in herself in order to be more successful. Tim argued that Lisa was NOT always shy, only around new people; she simply needed to know people to feel comfortable with them. Jim and Tim’s discussion reflect a comparison of which two theories? a) disposition-situation theory and reciprocal determinism b) trait theory and disposition-situation theory c) reciprocal determinism and trait theory d) disposition-situation theory and trait theory Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis

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Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate the situationist and interactionist views of personality. Section Reference: The Situationist and Interactionist Perspectives 271. Dr. Baker is discussing social-cognitive theories with her psychology class. A student raises his hand and asks which theory could explain his teenage daughter’s tendency to have different personalities with her family versus her peer group. How could Dr. Baker respond to this question? a) Dr. Baker should incorporate the disposition-situation theory into the discussion which helped explain the role of situational variables in influencing behaviour. b) Dr. Baker should incorporate the work of Albert Bandura into the discussion, whose theory helped explain the interaction of variables such as environment and person in explaining behaviour. c) Dr. Baker should incorporate the notion of locus of control into the discussion since this helps explain the role of variability in personality and behaviour. d) Dr. Baker should incorporate the notion of reciprocal determinism into the discussion since this helps explain why self-efficacy changes in different situations. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate the situationist and interactionist views of personality. Section Reference: The Situationist and Interactionist Perspectives 272. According to Skinner, what we call personality is simply consistency of ___ tendencies? a) environmental b) response c) latent d) situational Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate the situationist and interactionist views of personality. Section Reference: The Situationist and Interactionist Perspectives 273. The view that behaviour is governed primarily by the variables in a given situation rather than by internal traits is known as a) interactionism. b) disposition-situation perspective. c) situationism. d) trait theory. Answer: c

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate the situationist and interactionist views of personality. Section Reference: The Situationist and Interactionist Perspectives 274. Skinner's concept of response tendencies is most closely related to a) reciprocal determinism. b) interactionism. c) situationism. d) empiricism. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate the situationist and interactionist views of personality. Section Reference: The Situationist and Interactionist Perspectives 275. When Bishal lived in the country, he used to drive very fast because his friends admired his driving ability and because he never got a speeding ticket. Once he moved to the city, his new friends did not admire him for driving fast and, he began to get speeding tickets for driving fast. Now Bishal drives within the speed limit and would describe himself as a cautious driver. According to Skinner, Bishal’s driving would be an example of a ___________ which supports the ____________ theory of personality. a) response tendencies; interactionist b) response tendencies; situationist c) behavioural tendencies; interactionist d) behavioural tendencies; reciprocal determinism Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate the situationist and interactionist views of personality. Section Reference: The Situationist and Interactionist Perspectives 276. Poppy is studying with her psychology group by playing ‘Guess the Psychologist’. It is Poppy’s turn, and she must guess the name of the psychologist who would say the following quote: “There is no such thing as personality per se, just response tendencies to environmental triggers that have led to good outcomes in the past”. Who would have said that? a) Skinner b) Bandura c) Maslow d) Mischel

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Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate the situationist and interactionist views of personality. Section Reference: The Situationist and Interactionist Perspectives 277. Which of the following contradicts the situationist perspective? a) Sobia volunteers as a research assistant because she knows it will look good on her graduate school application. b) Jodi always opens the door for other people because they usually say “thank you.” c) Prasert handed his term paper in late and was penalized 10% of his grade. Now he turns his paper in on time. d) Alba has been caught speeding seven times in the past year. She still drives above the speed limit. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate the situationist and interactionist views of personality. Section Reference: The Situationist and Interactionist Perspectives 278. Regarding personality, Skinner is to _______________ as Bandura is to _____________. a) situationism; interactionism b) interactionism; situationism c) interactionism; reciprocal determinism d) reciprocal determinism; interactionism Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate the situationist and interactionist views of personality. Section Reference: The Situationist and Interactionist Perspectives 279. Which of the following best demonstrates the situationist perspective of personality? a) Diego volunteers at a homeless centre three times a week because he finds it rewarding. b) Guillem volunteers at a homeless centre three times a week because he is very high on the trait of agreeableness. c) Julian volunteers at a homeless shelter three times a week because he fears becoming homeless himself. d) Damian volunteers at a homeless shelter three times a week because, as a child, his parents took him with them when they volunteered at a homeless shelter.

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Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate the situationist and interactionist views of personality. Section Reference: The Situationist and Interactionist Perspectives 280. Yuki works hard in school and gets very good grades. According to the situationist perspective, why would Yuki be working so hard? a) because she believes that it will make her smarter b) because she believes that she is smart, and she must prove it to others c) because she has an excellent work ethic d) because she has been rewarded for working hard in the past Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate the situationist and interactionist views of personality. Section Reference: The Situationist and Interactionist Perspectives 281. Antonio and Tyler both just received a B on their history paper. Although Tyler was quite happy with the grade, Antonio was not at all pleased. How would the situationist theory of personality explain the different responses of the students? a) Antonio has greater self-efficacy than Tyler. b) Tyler is higher in neuroticism than Antonio. c) Antonio has met the need of self-esteem, but Tyler has not. d) Antonio and Tyler probably have different histories of reinforcement and punishment. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate the situationist and interactionist views of personality. Section Reference: The Situationist and Interactionist Perspectives 282. What is the biggest problem with the situationist perspective? a) It supposes that behaviour is the result of a situational factor that is independent of inner personality. b) Reinforcement preferences change over time. c) It is not possible to test it empirically due to the focus on internalized mechanisms. d) It does not account for how we can learn from others. Answer: a

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate the situationist and interactionist views of personality. Section Reference: The Situationist and Interactionist Perspectives 283. Which of the following statements regarding the situationist perspective is true? a) There is no such thing as a purely situationist factor in human behaviour. b) There is overreliance on internal and dispositional factors. c) There needs to be an acknowledgement that personality variables and situational variables are entirely independent of one another. d) The power and influence of situations has been proven to be minimal. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate the situationist and interactionist views of personality. Section Reference: The Situationist and Interactionist Perspectives 284. Which of the following theorists best exemplifies the interactionist position? a) Skinner b) Eysenck c) Allport d) Bandura Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate the situationist and interactionist views of personality. Section Reference: The Situationist and Interactionist Perspectives 285. The assumption that personality influences and is influenced by thought, behaviors and environmental experiences is most consistent with ________ theories. a) social-cognitive b) psychoanalytic c) trait d) biological Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate the situationist and interactionist views of

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personality. Section Reference: The Situationist and Interactionist Perspectives 286. Aleix is about to try walking on stilts for the first time. Although he has NEVER tried this activity before, he is very confident that he will pick it up quickly, based on his performance on similar athletic activities. According to Bandura, Aleix has high a) reciprocal determinism. b) levels of modelling. c) self-efficacy. d) response tendencies. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate the situationist and interactionist views of personality. Section Reference: The Situationist and Interactionist Perspectives 287. Latifa has just successfully completed a self-defence class. According to Bandura’s concept of self-efficacy, Latifa would likely have a(n) __________________ belief that she could protect herself if attacked, and ___________________ beliefs about her capabilities in other areas of her life. a) decreased; uncertain b) improved; no change in her c) improved; improved d) decreased; improved Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate the situationist and interactionist views of personality. Section Reference: The Situationist and Interactionist Perspectives 288. Ariba has sent out dozens of applications and has gone to five job interviews, but still has not found a job. Ariba remains optimistic that even in a difficult economy, she has the skills and determination to land a great job. Ariba is high in a) response tendencies. b) self-efficacy. c) reciprocal determinism. d) extraversion. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate the situationist and interactionist views of personality. Section Reference: The Situationist and Interactionist Perspectives 289. Min-jun took his psychology course once before and failed. However, he refuses to give up, and believes that he can earn a better grade this time, even though he still must work parttime. It is likely that Min-jun __________________________. a) is trying to overcome an inferiority complex b) has a high locus of control c) has high self-efficacy in terms of school performance d) is seeking positive reinforcements Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate the situationist and interactionist views of personality. Section Reference: The Situationist and Interactionist Perspectives 290. Ameer works hard in school and gets very good grades. According to the interactionist perspective, why is Ameer working so hard? a) because this is what he has learned through observational learning b) because of reciprocal determinism c) because of his degree of self-efficacy d) because of innate response tendencies Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate the situationist and interactionist views of personality. Section Reference: The Situationist and Interactionist Perspectives 291. Which three factors interact in reciprocal determinism? a) thoughts, feelings, and behaviours b) self-efficacy, social environment, and physical abilities c) external environment, mental events, and behaviour d) consciousness, unconsciousness, and preconsciousness Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate the situationist and interactionist views of personality. Section Reference: The Situationist and Interactionist Perspectives

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292. Which of the following situations is the best example of Bandura's concept of reciprocal determinism? a) Jasbir knows that if he cleans up his room, his mother will give him ice cream. He cleans up his room more often than he used to. b) Reney goes jogging every day because exercising makes her feel more energetic. She stared jogging a half mile a day but now she jogs two miles every day. c) Mia used to be shy, but she has discovered that she is good at chess and is now making friends in the chess club at school. Consequently, she spends more time at the club and is getting better and making more friends. d) Arun does all his math homework and is getting good grades on his math exams this year. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate the situationist and interactionist views of personality. Section Reference: The Situationist and Interactionist Perspectives 293. Which of the following is an example of reciprocal determinism? a) Harper does not bother practicing her dance routine for the contest because she believes she is a natural born dancer and that she will win based on her talents alone. b) Ifan studies hard for his final exams because he is terrified that he will not get into graduate school. c) Alonso goes for a jog and runs his hardest to deal with the stress he is facing at work. d) Petra works hard at the law firm because she believes that she does a great job and because doing a great job in the past has been rewarding for her. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate the situationist and interactionist views of personality. Section Reference: The Situationist and Interactionist Perspectives 294. The idea that personality is influenced by the interaction of internal mental events, behaviour, and the external environment is called ___. a) reciprocal determinism b) interactionism c) disposition-situation consistency d) situationism Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

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Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate the situationist and interactionist views of personality. Section Reference: The Situationist and Interactionist Perspectives 295. One of the biggest advantages of the interactionist perspective of personality is that a) it uses a modern definition of ‘reinforcer’. b) it focuses on personality variables to explain behaviour. c) the emphasis on observable variables makes it readily testable. d) the acknowledgement of situational factors helps explain behavioural instability. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate the situationist and interactionist views of personality. Section Reference: The Situationist and Interactionist Perspectives 296. Which of the following statements about the interactionist perspective is FALSE? a) It is not testable. b) It focuses on interactions between people and situations. c) It has roots in observational learning theory and modelling. d) It is based on notions such as reciprocal determinism. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate the situationist and interactionist views of personality. Section Reference: The Situationist and Interactionist Perspectives 297. In what way are the situationist and interactionist perspectives similar? a) They both emphasize disposition-situation consistency. b) They both acknowledge the influence of the situation. c) They both acknowledge the influence of internal personality traits. d) They both agree that personality is consistent across situations. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate the situationist and interactionist views of personality. Section Reference: The Situationist and Interactionist Perspectives 298. Bennett is participating in an experiment in which he must view violent scenes while his

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brain is being imaged. What are the researchers likely to find in the brain areas responsible for regulating aggression? a) Bennett’s brain will respond more and more to the violent scenes over time. b) Bennett’s brain will respond less and less to the violent scenes over time. c) Bennett’s brain will not change in response to the violent scenes over time. d) Bennett’s brain will not respond to violent scenes because he knows this is an experiment. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate the situationist and interactionist views of personality. Section Reference: The Situationist and Interactionist Perspectives 299. What conclusions can be drawn from the effects of media as discussed in your text? a) Film and television do not negatively affect the behaviour of children and adolescents. b) Long-term permanent changes in behaviour have been documented from media influences have been documented. c) Television and movie viewing may have a potential relationship to aggression and other undesirable behaviours. d) Parent and peer influence is less significant that television and other media influence. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate the situationist and interactionist views of personality. Section Reference: The Situationist and Interactionist Perspectives 300. Based on twin data, what is the heritability coefficient for the openness superfactor? a).31 b).39 c).51 d).55 Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss the heritability of personality traits and some of the neural systems that may be involved in the expression of personality. Section Reference: Biological Foundations of Personality 301. Biological studies that reveal that parents and biological children are more similar in levels of agreeableness than parents and adopted children, lends support to the assumption that a) genes influence personality traits.

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b) social factors are more influential than genes in the development of personality. c) early childhood experiences shape personality development. d) neuroticism and extroversion are unstable personality traits. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss the heritability of personality traits and some of the neural systems that may be involved in the expression of personality. Section Reference: Biological Foundations of Personality 302. Biological studies that reveal that identical twins are more similar in personality traits than fraternal twins, lends support to the assumption that a) personality development is influenced by genes. b) age is more of an influence on personality than genes. c) environment is more influential in personality development. d) social factors are more influential on the development of personality. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss the heritability of personality traits and some of the neural systems that may be involved in the expression of personality. Section Reference: Biological Foundations of Personality 303. What does a heritability coefficient of.50 mean? a) that the trait in question is 50% genetic and 50% environmental b) that 50% of the population scores above average for this trait and 50% scores below c) that 50% of the variance in personality scores in a population is due to genetics d) that this trait is normally distributed in the population Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss the heritability of personality traits and some of the neural systems that may be involved in the expression of personality. Section Reference: Biological Foundations of Personality 304. The Minnesota Study of Twins Reared Apart found that a) both family environment and genetics predicted psychological similarity equally well. b) genetics were more important than family environment in predicting psychological similarity. c) family environment was more important than genetics in predicting psychological similarity. d) the interaction between genes and environment proved to be too intertwined to be able to draw conclusions.

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Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss the heritability of personality traits and some of the neural systems that may be involved in the expression of personality. Section Reference: Biological Foundations of Personality 305. Results of the Minnesota Study of Twins Reared Apart suggest that a) genetics only plays a small role in the development of personality. b) personality traits have a strong genetic basis, however, the response tendencies that are the expressions of personality, are learned behaviours. c) personality traits, as well as certain response tendencies, have a genetic component. d) there is a specific gene responsible for each of the Big Five personality traits. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss the heritability of personality traits and some of the neural systems that may be involved in the expression of personality. Section Reference: Biological Foundations of Personality 306. Which of the following traits was found to have the greatest heritability, according to twin studies? a) agreeableness b) warmth c) excitement d) openness Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss the heritability of personality traits and some of the neural systems that may be involved in the expression of personality. Section Reference: Biological Foundations of Personality 307. Noah and Joffrey are identical twins. On which of the following will they be least similar? a) agreeableness b) excitement c) warmth d) openness Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Learning Objective: Discuss the heritability of personality traits and some of the neural systems that may be involved in the expression of personality. Section Reference: Biological Foundations of Personality 308. The idea that personality could be determined by examining bumps on a person's skull was called a) biopsychology. b) neurophysiology. c) neurology. d) phrenology. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss the heritability of personality traits and some of the neural systems that may be involved in the expression of personality. Section Reference: Biological Foundations of Personality 309. Willow has an appointment with a new doctor. She is surprised when he runs his hands over her skull and then comments, “I can tell by this bump on your skull that you are a perfectionist.” Willow is likely seeing a doctor who practices ___. a) Neuropsychology b) Neurology c) Phrenology d) Psychology Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss the heritability of personality traits and some of the neural systems that may be involved in the expression of personality. Section Reference: Biological Foundations of Personality 310. Elizabeth is seeing a doctor who practices phrenology. Elizabeth is most probably living during which of the following time periods? a) 1700 - 1750 b) 1800 - 1850 c) 1900 - 1950 d) There is no way to know when Elizabeth likely lived based on the information presented. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss the heritability of personality traits and some of the neural systems that may be involved in the expression of personality.

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Section Reference: Biological Foundations of Personality 311. Suppose you are about to go on a blind date, and you learn that your date has right cerebral hemisphere dominance. Knowing what you do about personality, how would this make you feel about the upcoming date? a) Relaxed; you also have right cerebral hemisphere dominance, so you should get along well. b) Optimistic; you have left cerebral hemisphere dominance, so you should attract each other. c) Hopeful; your date will be generous, kind, and optimistic. d) Concerned; your date will display more negative emotions and traits. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss the heritability of personality traits and some of the neural systems that may be involved in the expression of personality. Section Reference: Biological Foundations of Personality 312. Brie is right hemisphere dominant. Which of the following could you predict about Brie’s personality? a) She will be anxious and inhibited. b) She will exhibit high levels of impulsivity. c) She will experience more negative emotions. d) She will become easily distressed in stressful situations. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss the heritability of personality traits and some of the neural systems that may be involved in the expression of personality. Section Reference: Biological Foundations of Personality 313. Which of the following brain structures plays a key role in emotionality, motivation, and the processing of negative stimuli? a) hypothalamus b) hippocampus c) amygdala d) anterior cingulate cortex Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss the heritability of personality traits and some of the neural systems that may be involved in the expression of personality. Section Reference: Biological Foundations of Personality

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314. All the following are believed to play a part in the regulation of personality EXCEPT a) the hypothalamus. b) hemispheric dominance. c) the amygdala. d) neurotransmitters. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss the heritability of personality traits and some of the neural systems that may be involved in the expression of personality. Section Reference: Biological Foundations of Personality 315. Bryce has suffered a brain injury and now is unable to learn about which stimuli around him he should fear. What brain area was most likely damaged in Bryce? a) amygdala b) basal ganglia c) cerebellum d) hippocampus Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss the heritability of personality traits and some of the neural systems that may be involved in the expression of personality. Section Reference: Biological Foundations of Personality 316. Melokuhle sustained damage to her amygdala when she was a teenager. Recently, as she was walking home from work late one night, Melokuhle was mugged. What would you predict about Melokuhle’s future behaviour? a) Melokuhle will be afraid to work late. b) Melokuhle will be afraid to walk home using the same route. c) Melokuhle will have an exaggerated fear response so will be afraid to leave the house. d) Melokuhle will not experience a learned fear response and will walk home again. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss the heritability of personality traits and some of the neural systems that may be involved in the expression of personality. Section Reference: Biological Foundations of Personality 317. Biological studies reveal that high-energy and a lack of inhibition are associated with a) dopamine.

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b) serotonin. c) acetylcholine. d) GABA. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss the heritability of personality traits and some of the neural systems that may be involved in the expression of personality. Section Reference: Biological Foundations of Personality 318. Four-year-old Joel is an extremely shy child. When his mother takes him to the playground, he is reluctant to play on the equipment because of the presence of other children and, instead, clings to his mother. Which of the following would you predict about Joel? a) Joel’s amygdala is insufficiently activated. b) Joel’s amygdala is too easily activated. c) Joel has suffered damage to his amygdala. d) Joel has high levels of dopamine. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss the heritability of personality traits and some of the neural systems that may be involved in the expression of personality. Section Reference: Biological Foundations of Personality 319. Research suggests that people who are generally sad and withdrawn a) experience lower activity in the right prefrontal cortex. b) experience lower activity in the left prefrontal cortex. c) have suffered damage to the amygdala. d) have amygdalae that are too easily activated. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss the heritability of personality traits and some of the neural systems that may be involved in the expression of personality. Section Reference: Biological Foundations of Personality 320. Sachi has been described by her teacher as being generally sad and withdrawn. Which of the following would be a feasible explanation of Sachi’s personality? a) Sachi has an overactive hypothalamus. b) Sachi has higher than normal levels of dopamine. c) Sachi has lower levels of activity in her left prefrontal cortex. d) Sachi has experienced damage to her amygdala.

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Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss the heritability of personality traits and some of the neural systems that may be involved in the expression of personality. Section Reference: Biological Foundations of Personality 321. Easton has been in an accident and an MRI has indicated that he is experiencing lower levels of activity in the left prefrontal cortex than before. You tell Easton’s family to be prepared as lowered activity in left prefrontal cortex tends to be associated with a) impaired ability to learn fear response. b) higher levels of impulsivity. c) greater levels of inhibition. d) more negative emotions and traits. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss the heritability of personality traits and some of the neural systems that may be involved in the expression of personality. Section Reference: Biological Foundations of Personality 322. Anne’s nine-month-old infant becomes extremely distraught when Anne leaves the room, even for a moment. Which of the following is most likely a factor in her baby’s behaviour? a) The baby has an overactive amygdala. b) The baby has heightened activity in the right prefrontal cortex. c) The baby has excessive levels of dopamine. d) The baby has excessive levels of cortisol. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss the heritability of personality traits and some of the neural systems that may be involved in the expression of personality. Section Reference: Biological Foundations of Personality 323. Infants who show higher levels of activity in the right prefrontal cortex, tend to exhibit a) higher levels of inhibition in novel situations. b) higher levels of distress when separated from their mothers. c) difficulty learning fear and avoidance responses. d) faster recognition of familiar faces. Answer: b

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss the heritability of personality traits and some of the neural systems that may be involved in the expression of personality. Section Reference: Biological Foundations of Personality 324. Omar is an extrovert and generally happy. All the following are likely true for Omar EXCEPT that a) Omar is probably left-brain dominant. b) Omar probably has relatively high levels of serotonin. c) Omar probably has relatively high levels of cortisol. d) Omar probably has enough dopamine. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Discuss the heritability of personality traits and some of the neural systems that may be involved in the expression of personality. Section Reference: Biological Foundations of Personality 325. Bailey says she scores high on Clark & Watson’s (1999) measures of both low emotionality and high emotionality. You tell your friend a) that is impossible; Clark & Watson did not suggest either of these as dimensions of temperament. b) it is possible; both types of emotionality exist as separate dimensions. c) it is not possible; these two types of emotionality are at opposite ends of the spectrum; Bailey has simply misunderstood how the results were presented. d) it is possible; but only if Bailey also scored high on the dimension of disinhibition. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Discuss the heritability of personality traits and some of the neural systems that may be involved in the expression of personality. Section Reference: Biological Foundations of Personality 326. Based on what you have learned about the relationship between the neural system and personality, which of the following might you expect to find in a population of violent offenders? a) They would higher than normal levels of dopamine. b) They would have higher than normal levels of cortisol. c) They would higher levels of activity in the left prefrontal cortex. d) They would have lower than normal levels of serotonin. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard

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Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Discuss the heritability of personality traits and some of the neural systems that may be involved in the expression of personality. Section Reference: Biological Foundations of Personality 327. Based on what you have learned about the relationship between the neural system and personality, which of the following might you expect to find in an outrageous stage performer? a) They would higher than normal levels of dopamine. b) They would have higher than normal levels of cortisol. c) They would higher levels of activity in the left prefrontal cortex. d) They would have lower than normal levels of serotonin. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Discuss the heritability of personality traits and some of the neural systems that may be involved in the expression of personality. Section Reference: Biological Foundations of Personality 328. Which neurotransmitter helps regulate the “pleasure pathway”? a) serotonin b) dopamine c) acetylcholine d) epinephrine Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss the heritability of personality traits and some of the neural systems that may be involved in the expression of personality. Section Reference: Biological Foundations of Personality 329. Luke and Eugene work in sales for the same company. On their last performance reviews, Luke was described as an energetic, outgoing person who is doing very well in his job. Eugene, on the other hand, is in danger of losing his job because of his lack of energy, and his nervousness in approaching the customers. If both men’s brains were examined, which of the following would probably be the outcome? a) Luke would be left-hemisphere dominant. Eugene would be right hemisphere dominant. b) Eugene would have higher levels of serotonin in his brain than Luke. c) Luke would have higher levels of dopamine in his brain than Eugene. d) Luke would have higher levels of cortisol than Eugene. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Learning Objective: Discuss the heritability of personality traits and some of the neural systems that may be involved in the expression of personality. Section Reference: Biological Foundations of Personality 330. Three-year-old Margot has low levels of dopamine. It is likely that Margot is a) extroverted. b) schizophrenic. c) inhibited. d) psychotic. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss the heritability of personality traits and some of the neural systems that may be involved in the expression of personality. Section Reference: Biological Foundations of Personality 331. According to Kagan, children with inhibited temperaments tend to have a) higher cortisol stress reactions to unfamiliar situations. b) smaller amygdalae. c) larger amygdalae. d) higher dopamine activity in the reward center. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss the heritability of personality traits and some of the neural systems that may be involved in the expression of personality. Section Reference: Biological Foundations of Personality 332. According to researchers Clark and Watson, personality types can be grouped into three broad categories of temperament. Which choice below is NOT one of these broad categories? a) negative emotionality b) positive emotionality c) excitement vs constraint d) disinhibition vs constraint Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss the heritability of personality traits and some of the neural systems that may be involved in the expression of personality. Section Reference: Biological Foundations of Personality

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333. Zara leaves town on her Harley Davidson motorcycle on the slightest whim, gets fired frequently, and is described by her friends as “living for the moment”. According to the work of Clark and Watson, which temperament does she display? a) negative emotionality b) positive emotionality c) disinhibition d) constraint Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss the heritability of personality traits and some of the neural systems that may be involved in the expression of personality. Section Reference: Biological Foundations of Personality 334. According to Clark and Watson’s personality studies, which of the following might you expect to find among persons who have a gambling addiction? a) They would score high in disinhibition. b) They would score low in positive emotionality. c) They would score high in negative emotionality. d) They would score high in positive emotionality. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss the heritability of personality traits and some of the neural systems that may be involved in the expression of personality. Section Reference: Biological Foundations of Personality 335. Becky’s personality type is high on positive emotionality. What does this mean about Becky’s personality? a) She experiences peace and has higher levels of satisfaction. b) She is very social and has a lot of enthusiasm. c) She has difficulty controlling her emotional responses and tends to be impulsive. d) She lives for the moment and does not put constraints on herself. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss the heritability of personality traits and some of the neural systems that may be involved in the expression of personality. Section Reference: Biological Foundations of Personality 336. Ciara has been out of work for three months now. She has not even bothered to apply for jobs because she is extremely shy, and she is sure she has nothing to offer an employer.

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According to Clark and Watson, which could be said about Ciara’s temperament? a) Ciara would score high on negative emotionality. b) Ciara would score high on disinhibition. c) Ciara would score low on constraint. d) Ciara would score low on positive emotionality. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss the heritability of personality traits and some of the neural systems that may be involved in the expression of personality. Section Reference: Biological Foundations of Personality 337. If someone scored high on positive emotionality, what can we say for sure? a) They also scored high on negative emotionality. b) They also scored low on positive emotionality. c) They also scored low on negative emotionality. d) There is no relationship with scores on negative emotionality. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss the heritability of personality traits and some of the neural systems that may be involved in the expression of personality. Section Reference: Biological Foundations of Personality 338. Which of the following is NOT one of Clark and Watson's temperament scales? a) disinhibition vs. constraint b) positive emotionality c) introversion/extraversion d) negative emotionality Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss the heritability of personality traits and some of the neural systems that may be involved in the expression of personality. Section Reference: Biological Foundations of Personality 339. How would individuals who are high in impulsivity, act without thinking about long term consequences, get poor grades in school, perform poorly at their jobs, and engage in risky activities, score on Clark and Watson's temperament scales? a) high in disinhibition. b) high in positive emotionality. c) high in extraversion.

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d) high in negative emotionality. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss the heritability of personality traits and some of the neural systems that may be involved in the expression of personality. Section Reference: Biological Foundations of Personality 340. Louis is arguing with his cousin about the origins of personality. Louis’s father is in jail serving a life sentence for murder and Louis’s cousin is arguing that “DNA is destiny.” Louis responds that we must be careful in drawing conclusions from genetic and neurological personality research a) because although one gene is responsible for one personality trait there is no way to ever prove which genes a person gets. b) because personality reflects activity in many brain regions and is the expression of multiple genes. c) because each personality trait originates from a specific area of the brain and he and his father are very different personalities. d) because neurotransmitter levels fluctuate dramatically over the course of a day and differentially affect personality in this way. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss the heritability of personality traits and some of the neural systems that may be involved in the expression of personality. Section Reference: Biological Foundations of Personality 341. Which of the following statements about the relationship between brain function and personality is most accurate? a) Personality is genetically based. b) Environmental experiences cause changes in biological systems. c) Biological systems cause changes in the way individuals interact with their environment. d) Environment and biological processes likely have a reciprocal, bidirectional relationship. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss the heritability of personality traits and some of the neural systems that may be involved in the expression of personality. Section Reference: Biological Foundations of Personality 342. One criticism of biological theories is that these theories a) perpetuate stereotypes.

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b) do not include scientific evidence. c) overlook environmental issues. d) rely heavily on sexual forces. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss the heritability of personality traits and some of the neural systems that may be involved in the expression of personality. Section Reference: Biological Foundations of Personality 343. When it comes to the differences in personality between men and women, the research here suggests that a) women are consistently more aggressive than men. b) men are more nurturing than women. c) men and women are more similar than they are different. d) men are more attuned to interpersonal relationships. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Explain how gender and cultural influences can affect personality. Section Reference: Differences in Personality 344. Studies examining personality differences between men and women suggest that a) the differences among individuals of each gender are greater than the differences between the genders. b) the differences between men and women are very large and cover a broad range of categories. c) the differences between men and women have a very strong biological basis. d) the differences between men and women are solely based on societal gender role expectations. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Explain how gender and cultural influences can affect personality. Section Reference: Differences in Personality 345. Oliver, Lea, Cameron, and Liv are arguing about personality differences and gender. Which of them is correct? a) Oliver argues that differences between individuals are much greater than differences between males and females. b) Lea argues that differences between men and women are much greater than differences between individuals. c) Cameron argues that gender differences in personality between men and women are

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determined by genes and hormones. d) Liv argues that gender differences in personality between men and women are determined by environment and socialization. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain how gender and cultural influences can affect personality. Section Reference: Differences in Personality 346. Ai Lun is writing a report on the socio-cultural reasons for gender differences in personality. What is the central theme of her report most likely to be? a) Males and females have different degree of hemispheric lateralization. b) Testosterone and estrogen act differently on males and females. c) Boys and girls are encouraged to behave in gender appropriate ways from a young age. d) Females tend to process information all over the brain while males tend to rely on their dominant hemisphere. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain how gender and cultural influences can affect personality. Section Reference: Differences in Personality 347. Which of the following is an area of measurable differences between men and women? a) Men are more likely to be effective leaders than women. b) Women are more accurate than men in assessing emotion in other people. c) Women tend be to more introverted than men. d) Women score higher on tests of cognitive ability than men. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Explain how gender and cultural influences can affect personality. Section Reference: Differences in Personality 348. All the following are true about gender differences EXCEPT that a) differences are not deficiencies. b) differences between men and women are substantial and consistent. c) highlighting differences between genders may serve to support prejudice and discrimination against women. d) denying the existence of some differences may downplay the unique strengths and gifts of each gender. Answer: b

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Explain how gender and cultural influences can affect personality. Section Reference: Differences in Personality 349. Dr. LeBlanc is discussing gender differences in personality with his graduate class. He offers 2% bonus marks for the first student to correctly identify these differences. Which student below will get the bonus marks? a) Lester says that women tend to score higher on individuality and men tend to score higher on emotionality. b) Kincaid says that women tend to score higher on independence and men tend to score higher on agreeableness. c) Gethin says that women tend to score higher on conscientiousness and men tend to score higher on nurturing. d) Erwan says that women tend to score higher on empathy and men tend to score higher on autonomy. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explain how gender and cultural influences can affect personality. Section Reference: Differences in Personality 350. Regarding moral decision making, women are to __________________ as men are to _________________________. a) abstract principles; interpersonal concerns b) interpersonal concerns; abstract principles c) empathy; laws d) laws; empathy Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explain how gender and cultural differences can affect personality. Section Reference: Differences in Personality 351. Luuk is playing a game with his psychology study group in which each person is given descriptions of how 4 people would respond to the same scenario, such as finding a lost puppy. Based on the 4 responses, Luuk would have to figure out which of the 4 people is the ‘odd’ gender – so if 3 of them are males, identify the one female, and vice versa. If the choices below represent what Luuk gets on his turn, what do you recommend that he chooses as the response of the ‘odd gender’? a) “I would snuggle the puppy to keep it warm.” b) “I would go around and knock on all the doors to find the owner.” c) “I would feed it some warm milk.”

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d) “I would think that someone out there is very sad about their lost puppy.” Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explain how gender and cultural influences can affect personality. Section Reference: Differences in Personality 352. Yasmine is taking part in a group study on spatial ability. Before they begin, the male experimenter comments, “research has shown that males typically do much better than females on these types of spatial tasks”. Which of the following best describes the findings related to gender differences you would expect to find in the study? a) Males would do better than females because the gender differences in spatial ability are wellestablished. b) There will be no gender differences found because research has shown there to be no difference between males and females on spatial tasks. c) Males will do better because the female participants may be influenced by the gender stereotype put forward by the experimenter. d) Females will do better than males because the experimenter’s comments will motivate them to work harder at the task. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explain how gender and cultural influences can affect personality. Section Reference: Differences in Personality 353. Which of the following statements about personality differences between men and women’s is most correct?? a) Levels of physical aggression are higher in males. b) No consistent sex differences have been documented. c) Differences between genders is larger than between individuals of each gender. d) Women score higher on traits that reflect individuality and autonomy. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Explain how gender and cultural differences can affect personality. Section Reference: Differences in Personality 354. Women are more likely than men to focus on which aspect in moral decision making? a) laws b) abstract principles c) interpersonal concerns d) justice

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Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain how gender and cultural differences can affect personality. Section Reference: Differences in Personality 355. Adele and Damon are out for a walk when they find a wallet containing $300 as well as the owner’s identification. According to Gilligan (2011), which of the following best predicts how each will respond? a) Adele will want to return the money because the person who lost it might need the money; Damon will want to keep the money. b) Adele will want to return the money because the person who lost it might need it; Damon will want to return the money because it is legally the owners. c) Adele will want to return the money because it is legally the owner’s; Damon will want to return the money because the person who lost it might need it. d) Both will want to return the money because the person who lost it might need the money. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explain how gender and cultural influences can affect personality. Section Reference: Differences in Personality 356. In the famous Heinz dilemma, when asked what Heinz should do, whether he should steal the drug or not, girls and boys give different answers. According to Gilligan (2011), which of the following is the most likely potential outcome based on gender alone? a) Girls will say that Heinz should talk to his wife about what to do; boys will say that stealing is wrong and therefore Heinz should not steal. b) Girls will say that stealing is wrong and therefore Heinz should not steal; boys will say that Heinz should talk to his wife about what to do. c) Girls will say that a good husband would steal the drug; boys would say that Heinz could be caught and sent to jail if he steals the drug. d) Girls will say that Heinz would have to go to jail if caught; boys would say he should steal the drug as that is what a good husband would do. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explain how gender and cultural influences can affect personality. Section Reference: Differences in Personality 357. According to social role theory, girls and boys develop different personality styles, behaviours, and skills based on a) family and social relationships.

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b) cultural practices that have resulted in men having more power in society. c) the division of labour between the sexes. d) imitation of same-sex models. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Explain how gender and cultural influences can affect personality. Section Reference: Differences in Personality 358. The social role theory argues that the reason that men and women differ in personality is because each sex a) inherits different genes. b) has differences in brain lateralization. c) has differences in hemispheric dominance. d) has different gender role expectations. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Explain how gender and cultural influences can affect personality. Section Reference: Differences in Personality 359. All of the following EXCEPT one reflect consistent sex differences that have been documented in the literature. Which one is INCORRECT? a) Women are more accurate than men at assessing emotion in other people. b) Men are more physically aggressive than women. c) Men are more likely to make moral decisions based on laws whereas women make moral decisions based on interpersonal concerns. d) Men score higher than women on traits that indicate leadership ability. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explain how gender and cultural influences can affect personality. Section Reference: Differences in Personality 360. Five-year-old Timothy has been given a soccer ball and action figures to play with, whereas his twin sister, Tanya, has been given dolls and toy dishes. Based on social role theory, which of the following would you predict about the two children’s personalities as they get older? a) Timothy will be more aggressive and competitive than Tanya; Tanya will be more nurturing than Timothy. b) Timothy will be more independent than Tanya; Tanya will be more nurturing. c) There will be no differences in personality between Timothy and Tanya.

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d) There will be some minor differences, but Timothy and Tanya will be more similar than different. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain how gender and cultural influences can affect personality. Section Reference: Differences in Personality 361. Leyla likes to play with trucks and trains, but her parents keep buying her dolls and other stereotypically female toys. The attitudes of Leyla's parents are closest to the premise behind a) gender identity theory. b) social schema theory. c) modelling theory. d) social role theory. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain how gender and cultural influences can affect personality. Section Reference: Differences in Personality 362. Eight-year-old Lan likes to play “house.” She often helps her mother cook dinner, bake cookies, and do the housework. Her brother, Jie, spends most of his time with his father doing things like yard work, and rebuilding a car. Based on social role theory, what would you predict about Lan and Jie’s personalities as adults? a) Lan will be very competitive and Jie will be somewhat aggressive. b) Lan will be more competitive than Jie. c) There will be no differences in Lan and Jie’s personalities as personality is genetic. d) Lan and Jie will each develop different personality attributes that will help them continue in their expected gender roles. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Explain how gender and cultural differences can affect personality. Section Reference: Differences in Personality 363. When we need to process new information about ourselves, or our interactions, we refer to our ________ for guidance. a) personality traits b) self-schemas c) relationship schemas d) world knowledge

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Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain how gender and cultural differences can affect personality. Section Reference: Differences in Personality 364. Today’s parents are more sensitive to the influence of social role theory on the development of personality. What is something that parents can do to avoid creating gender differences in personality? a) Encourage boys to play rough and girls to play nicely. b) Ignore boys when they cry getting hurt and overly attend to girls when they get hurt. c) Do not allow their sons to play with girls or their daughters to play with boys. d) Provide gender neutral toys and games. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain how gender and cultural influences can affect personality. Section Reference: Differences in Personality 365. Six-year-old Azuna likes to play with toy trucks. After her father jokes about calling her “Arthur” because only little boys play with toy trucks, Azuna starts playing with dolls. This example illustrates a) how sex differences in the brain contributes to gender stereotypes. b) how cultural practices based on religious or philosophical beliefs contribute to gender differences in personality. c) how interactions with family members influences our gender role expectations. d) how punishment influences self-schemas and leads to gender differences. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain how gender and cultural differences can affect personality. Section Reference: Differences in Personality 366. Which of the following is NOT consistent with gender schema theory? a) Gender schemas do not form until individuals reach adolescence. b) A self-schema refers to an individual's cognitive framework about himself or herself. c) Research has found that individuals' self-esteem was related to how well they lived up to gender schemas. d) Women are more likely than men to have relationship schemas. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy

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Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Explain how gender and cultural influences can affect personality. Section Reference: Differences in Personality 367 When Soren compares himself to his friends, he believes that he is better at most genderspecific tasks such as carpentry work, fixing things around the house, and working on the car. Which of the following would likely be TRUE about Soren? a) Soren would have higher self-esteem than his friends. b) Soren would have lower self-esteem than his friends. c) Soren’s self-schema would be more gender-fixed than his friends. d) Soren’s self-schema would not include any traditional female roles, such as parenting, at all. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain how gender and cultural influences can affect personality. Section Reference: Differences in Personality 368. Someone from an individualistic culture is more likely to describe themselves as a) having a specific personality trait. b) belonging to a certain social group. c) belonging to a specific religion. d) being from a specific country. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Explain how gender and cultural influences can affect personality. Section Reference: Differences in Personality 369. People from individualistic cultures tend to score higher on measures of ___ than people from collectivist cultures. a) agreeableness b) extroversion c) introversion d) conscientiousness Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Explain how gender and cultural influences can affect personality. Section Reference: Differences in Personality 370. Which of the following is TRUE about individualistic cultures, as compared to collectivist

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cultures? a) Individualistic cultures have higher rates of stress-related disease. b) People in individualistic cultures tend to score higher on measures of agreeableness. c) People in individualistic cultures report less happiness than those in collectivist cultures. d) People in individualistic cultures score lower on measures of extraversion than those in collectivist cultures. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Explain how gender and cultural influences can affect personality. Section Reference: Differences in Personality 371. Dr. LaBelle is discussing cultural differences in personality with his graduate class. He offers a 2% bonus mark for the first student to correctly identify these differences. Which student below will get the bonus marks? a) Isidora says that people from individualistic cultures tend to score higher on extroversion and people from collectivist cultures tend to score higher on agreeableness. b) Raghed says that people from individualistic cultures tend to score higher on introversion and people from collectivist cultures tend to score higher on conscientiousness. c) Lucy says that people from individualistic cultures tend to score higher on openness and people from collectivist cultures tend to score higher on competitiveness. d) Jordanka says that people from individualistic cultures tend to score higher on neuroticism and people from collectivist cultures tend to score higher on extroversion. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain how gender and cultural influences can affect personality. Section Reference: Differences in Personality 372. ______________ are to individualist cultures as __________________ are to collectivist cultures. a) Openness and agreeableness; extroversion and conscientiousness b) Extroversion and conscientiousness; openness and agreeableness c) Autonomy and accomplishment; commitment to community and family d) Commitment to community and family; autonomy and accomplishment Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explain how gender and cultural differences can affect personality. Section Reference: Differences in Personality 373. One’s cultural values can certainly affect one’s personality. For instance, collectivist

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cultures value ___ and tend to score higher on ___. a) group harmony; agreeableness b) personal success; introversion c) commitment to family; extroversion d) individual human rights; neuroticism Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Explain how gender and cultural influences can affect personality. Section Reference: Differences in Personality 374. “Frame switching” refers to the tendency of people to a) change back and forth between introversion and extraversion depending on the situation. b) change back and forth between traditional and modern gender roles depending on the situation. c) change back and forth between collectivist and individualistic norms depending on the situation. d) change back and forth between negative emotionality and positive emotionality depending on the situation. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain how gender and cultural influences can affect personality. Section Reference: Differences in Personality 375. Cheng came to Canada with his family when he was two years old. When he is with his family or Chinese friends, he speaks Mandarin Chinese. When he and his Chinese friends are with his Canadian friends, however, they speak only English. This would be an example of ___. a) a social schema b) a social role c) cultural reciprocity d) frame switching Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain how gender and cultural influences can affect personality. Section Reference: Differences in Personality 376. When Minali, who is originally from India, is at home with her family, she is quiet, obedient, and non-assertive. When she is at university with her friends, however, she is very selfconfident and outgoing. Minali is exhibiting _____________. a) social role flexibility

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b) cultural flexibility c) schema switching d) frame switching Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain how gender and cultural differences can affect personality. Section Reference: Differences in Personality 377. Ying Hui moved to Canada from China when she was five years old. Which of the following best describes changes to Ying Hui’s personality by the time she is in university? a) Ying Hui would still exhibit personality traits characteristic of her peers in China. b) Ying Hui would exhibit personality traits more like her Canadian peers than her peers in China. c) Ying Hui would exhibit lower levels of extroversion than her Chinese peers. d) We cannot predict based on previous research or on the information provided. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain how gender and cultural influences can affect personality. Section Reference: Differences in Personality 378. Elchin moved to Canada from Azerbaijan when he was five years old. Which of the following best describes changes to Elchin’s personality by the time he is in university? a) Elchin would still exhibit personality traits characteristic of his peers in Azerbaijan. b) Elchin would exhibit personality traits more like his Canadian peers than his peers in Azerbaijan. c) Elchin would exhibit lower levels of extroversion than his Azerbaijan peers. d) We cannot predict based on previous research or on the information provided. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain how gender and cultural influences can affect personality. Section Reference: Differences in Personality 379. Which of the following is true about the link between delinquency and the trait of impulsivity in 13-year-old boys? a) Boys in lower socio-economic neighbourhoods were more likely to engage in delinquent behaviours regardless of whether they ranked high in impulsivity. b) Boys who ranked high in impulsivity were more likely to engage in delinquent behaviours regardless of whether they lived in a high or low socio-economic neighbourhood. c) Boys who ranked high in impulsivity were more likely to engage in delinquent behaviours if

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they also lived in low socio-economic neighbourhoods. d) Research has been unable to determine whether a link exists between impulsivity and delinquent behaviours. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explain how gender and cultural influences can affect personality. Section Reference: Differences in Personality 380. A recent study comparing 13-year-olds from wealthy and impoverished backgrounds found that boys from lower socioeconomic neighbourhoods who scored high on impulsivity _______________ than boys who scored low on impulsivity. Boys from higher socioeconomic neighbourhoods who scored high on impulsivity ________________ than boys who scored low on impulsivity. a) were more likely to engage in delinquent behaviours; were more likely to engage in delinquent behaviours b) were more likely to engage in delinquent behaviours; were no more likely to engage in delinquent behaviours c) were no more likely to engage in delinquent behaviours; were more likely to engage in delinquent behaviours d) were more likely to commit violent crimes; were more likely to abuse substances Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explain how gender and cultural differences can affect personality. Section Reference: Differences in Personality 381. Laura is from a wealthy neighbourhood, and Lila is from a very impoverished neighbourhood. Both girls scored high on the trait of impulsivity. Based on this information, what do you predict about their tendency toward delinquent behaviours? a) Since both girls are high in impulsivity, neither of them is likely to engage in delinquent behaviours. b) Since Laura is from a wealthy neighbourhood, she is more likely to engage in delinquent behaviours than Lila. c) Since Lila is from an impoverished neighbourhood, she is more likely to engage in delinquent behaviours than Laura. d) Since the quality of neighbourhood has no bearing on the tendency to perform delinquent behaviours, both girls are equally likely to engage in delinquent behaviours. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explain how gender and cultural influences can affect personality. Section Reference: Differences in Personality

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382. Harrison is from a wealthy neighbourhood, and Nash is from a very impoverished neighbourhood. Both boys scored high on the trait of impulsivity. Since Nash is from an impoverished neighbourhood, he is more likely to engage in delinquent behaviours than Harrison. All the reasons below account for this EXCEPT one. Which one? a) Disorganized environments interact with individual characteristics to increase risk. b) High impulsivity scores are more common in impoverished areas, providing for a greater impact of peer influence. c) Affluent neighborhoods offer limited opportunities for antisocial behaviours. d) Poor neighbourhoods produce many more triggers for delinquent acts. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explain how gender and cultural influences can affect personality. Section Reference: Differences in Personality 383. What is a personality disorder? a) an innate tendency to respond in a maladaptive way to environmental stimuli b) an inflexible pattern of inner experience and outward behaviour that causes distress and interferes with daily functioning c) a disorder characterized by major loss of memory without a clear physical cause d) having a split in personality, resulting in many different personalities within the same individual Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define personality disorders, and describe some of the key features of these disorders. Section Reference: Personality Disorders 384. Personality disorders typically become evident a) during early childhood. b) during puberty. c) during adolescence or early adulthood. d) during middle age. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define personality disorders, and describe some of the key features of these disorders. Section Reference: Personality Disorders

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385. Personality disorder is defined as being a) an inflexible pattern of inner experience and outward behaviour that causes distress or difficulty with daily functioning. b) characterized by a high degree of self-interest and a high, often unrealistic, degree of selfimportance. c) characterized by extreme and callous disregard for the feelings and rights of others. d) characterized by severe instability in emotions and self-concept and high levels of volatility. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define personality disorders, and describe some of the key features of these disorders. Section Reference: Personality Disorders 386. Which of the following is NOT one of the four core features that all personality disorders share? a) develops before adolescence b) distorted and rigid thinking patterns c) significant interpersonal problems d) impulse control problems Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define personality disorders, and describe some of the key features of these disorders. Section Reference: Personality Disorders 387. Which of the following is FALSE about personality disorders? a) They are inflexible patterns of interacting with people. b) They typically become evident in childhood. c) Between 9% and13% of the U.S. population is believed to have a personality disorder. d) They may be difficult to notice without multiple encounters with the person. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define personality disorders, and describe some of the key features of these disorders. Section Reference: Personality Disorders 388. Which of the following is NOT one of the classes of personality disorders? a) dramatic-emotional cluster

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b) odd-eccentric cluster c) unstable-erratic cluster d) anxiety-fear cluster Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define personality disorders, and describe some of the key features of these disorders. Section Reference: Personality Disorders 389. Which of the following is NOT a personality disorder defined by the American Psychiatric Association? a) antisocial b) borderline c) aggressive d) narcissistic Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define personality disorders, and describe some of the key features of these disorders. Section Reference: Personality Disorders 390. If someone had a personality disorder, when do you think it would become apparent? a) as soon as they are born b) when they become school age and their personality is set c) in adolescence or early adulthood d) when they have children of their own Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define personality disorders, and describe some of the key features of these disorders. Section Reference: Personality Disorders 391. What is missing in someone with a personality disorder that makes them different from someone without a personality disorder? a) a functional daily home and work life b) a gene for empathy c) a social support network to turn to and to learn from d) a flexibility to learn from experience about which responses are likely to be most effective

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Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define personality disorders, and describe some of the key features of these disorders. Section Reference: Personality Disorders 392. Which of the following is NOT a factor that is believed to be involved in the origins of personality disorders? a) biological predisposition b) early exposure to abuse or neglect c) relationship abuse d) early experience with harsh social environments Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define personality disorders, and describe some of the key features of these disorders. Section Reference: Personality Disorders 393. Which characteristic(s) is/are related to antisocial personality disorder? a) egocentrism b) recklessness c) impulsivity d) all the above Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define personality disorders, and describe some of the key features of these disorders. Section Reference: Personality Disorders 394. Ryder is charming and manipulative. He views other people as objects to be exploited and does not feel guilty when he hurts their feelings or takes advantage of them. Ryder likely has a) antisocial personality disorder. b) narcissistic personality disorder. c) paranoid personality disorder. d) schizoid personality disorder. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Learning Objective: Define personality disorders, and describe some of the key features of these disorders. Section Reference: Personality Disorders 395. Cooper just cleaned out the bank account of his wife and left without telling anyone where he would be. He never felt any remorse for his actions and used the money to buy himself a new sports car and support his new mistress. Cooper most likely has __________________ personality disorder. a) antisocial b) borderline c) egocentric d) dissociative Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define personality disorders, and describe some of the key features of these disorders. Section Reference: Personality Disorders 396. People who do not think twice about hurting other people because they lack empathy and have a complete disregard for the feelings of others, are impulsive, and have only people in their lives they can use, most likely have ___ personality disorder. a) avoidant b) borderline c) antisocial d) schizotypal Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define personality disorders, and describe some of the key features of these disorders. Section Reference: Personality Disorders 397. Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder belongs to the ___ cluster. a) odd-eccentric cluster b) anxiety-fear cluster c) dramatic-emotional cluster d) This is not a personality disorder. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define personality disorders, and describe some of the key features of

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these disorders. Section Reference: Personality Disorders 398. Which of the following individuals most likely has obsessive-compulsive personality disorder? a) Stijn, who sometimes sees things that are not there or believes in things that are not real (e.g., fairies that live in his plants). b) Dagmar, who is crushed with the slightest hint of a criticism and who feels very inadequate in life. c) Reuben, who stays up all night working to try and reach his impossible standard of perfection. d) Celia, who only thinks of herself, as if she is the only person who matters in the world. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define personality disorders, and describe some of the key features of these disorders. Section Reference: Personality Disorders 399. Jasper is a perfectionist and works excessively long hours to be sure that everything is done exactly the way he thinks it should be. He particularly demands perfection from those around him and, if things are not done to his extremely high standards, he becomes very agitated. If Jasper were diagnosed with a personality disorder, it would most likely be a) antisocial. b) narcissistic. c) obsessive-compulsive. d) histrionic. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define personality disorders, and describe some of the key features of these disorders. Section Reference: Personality Disorders 400. What type of personality disorder is characterized by an excessive need to be noticed and be the centre of attention? a) paranoid b) borderline c) dependent d) histrionic Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

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Learning Objective: Define personality disorders, and describe some of the key features of these disorders. Section Reference: Personality Disorders 401. Which of the following does NOT belong in the dramatic-emotional cluster of personality disorders? a) borderline b) antisocial c) histrionic d) paranoid Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define personality disorders, and describe some of the key features of these disorders. Section Reference: Personality Disorders 402. Chase has had nine jobs in four years. A couple of months after he begins each new job, he begins to suspect that his boss is stealing his ideas. He has also accused his coworkers of talking about him behind his back, going through his desk, and spying on him. Although his coworkers have tried to include him in social plans, he always says he is too busy. Which of the following personality disorders best fits Chase’s behaviour? a) schizotypal b) paranoid c) borderline d) obsessive-compulsive Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define personality disorders, and describe some of the key features of these disorders. Section Reference: Personality Disorders 403. Mateo exaggerates his popularity and thinks he is “The world’s gift to women.” If anyone challenges that, Mateo becomes angry. Mateo is likely suffering from a ___ personality disorder. a) borderline b) histrionic c) narcissistic d) antisocial Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Learning Objective: Define personality disorders, and describe some of the key features of these disorders. Section Reference: Personality Disorders 404. Delilah has trouble with friendships because she is overly focused on herself. She has no patience when others try to tell her about their day, and she will interrupt them to ask about something that is important to her. What personality disorder does Delilah likely have? a) narcissistic b) borderline c) dependent d) schizoid Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define personality disorders, and describe some of the key features of these disorders. Section Reference: Personality Disorders 405. Hal is extremely emotionally volatile, especially in his relationships. Although, initially, he thinks he has found the perfect woman for him, he soon becomes disgruntled with their many faults. Despite being unhappy in the relationship, he is never the one to break it off as he is more afraid of abandonment. Which of the following personality disorders does Hal probably have? a) antisocial b) dependent c) borderline d) avoidant Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define personality disorders, and describe some of the key features of these disorders. Section Reference: Personality Disorders 406. When Sydney’s boyfriend, Alan, comments how pretty she looks, Sydney flies into a rage. “So, you are saying that I usually look horrible!” Although Alan tries to explain, Sydney kicks him out of the apartment and tells him she NEVER wants to see him again. After he leaves, she is very distraught and cries to her roommate that Alan has left her, and she does not think she can live without him. Threatening to kill herself, she locks herself in the bathroom. Which of the following personality disorders best fits Sydney’s behaviour? a) narcissistic b) histrionic c) borderline d) dependent

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Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define personality disorders, and describe some of the key features of these disorders. Section Reference: Personality Disorders 407. Bram is thirty-six years old and still lives with his parents. Although he has had many parttime jobs, he usually ends up quitting because he believes he CANNOT do anything right. When faced with even a small decision, Bram becomes very anxious and pleads with his parents to decide for him. Which of the following personality disorders best fits Bram’s behaviour? a) histrionic b) borderline c) narcissistic d) dependent Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define personality disorders, and describe some of the key features of these disorders. Section Reference: Personality Disorders 408. A person who has an excessive need to be cared for by others, exhibits clinging and submissive behaviours and has difficulty making decisions would probably be diagnosed with the personality disorder known as a) narcissistic. b) avoidant. c) dependent. d) schizoid. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define personality disorders, and describe some of the key features of these disorders. Section Reference: Personality Disorders 409. Robert’s co-workers would describe him as a loner. He hardly speaks to anyone during office hours and, when he does, he has a very flat emotional expression and appears to be completely indifferent to others. His co-workers have invited him to social events to try to get to know him better, but he never accepts. To their knowledge, he has no friends and prefers to live in isolation. Which of the following personality disorders might Robert have? a) paranoid

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b) schizoid c) antisocial d) avoidant Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define personality disorders, and describe some of the key features of these disorders. Section Reference: Personality Disorders 410. Petra is extremely insecure. She wants to be in a relationship, but she is so afraid of rejection that, every time somebody asks her out, she declines. She does not try to make friends as she is sure that, as soon as they get to know her, they will NOT like her. Petra most likely has ________ personality disorder. a) schizotypal b) borderline c) dependent d) avoidant Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define personality disorders, and describe some of the key features of these disorders. Section Reference: Personality Disorders 411. Which of the core features would be most predominant in avoidant personality disorder? a) rigid, extreme, and distorted thinking patterns b) problematic emotional response patterns c) impulse control problems d) significant interpersonal problems Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define personality disorders, and describe some of the key features of these disorders. Section Reference: Personality Disorders 412. Which of the core features would be most predominant in obsessive-compulsive personality disorder? a) rigid, extreme, and distorted thinking patterns b) problematic emotional response patterns c) impulse control problems

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d) significant interpersonal problems Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define personality disorders, and describe some of the key features of these disorders. Section Reference: Personality Disorders 413. Which of the core features would be most predominant in schizoid personality disorder? a) rigid, extreme, and distorted thinking patterns b) problematic emotional response patterns c) impulse control problems d) significant interpersonal problems Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define personality disorders, and describe some of the key features of these disorders. Section Reference: Personality Disorders 414. Which of the core features would be most predominant in borderline personality disorder? a) rigid, extreme, and distorted thinking patterns b) problematic emotional response patterns c) impulse control problems d) significant interpersonal problems Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define personality disorders, and describe some of the key features of these disorders. Section Reference: Personality Disorders 415. A personality disorder that is characterized by severe instability in emotions and selfconcept and high levels of volatility is a) narcissistic. b) antisocial. c) schizotypal. d) borderline. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy

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Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define personality disorders, and describe some of the key features of these disorders. Section Reference: Personality Disorders 416. Which of the following individuals most likely has schizoid personality disorder? a) Advik, who exploits others and has no concern for their rights b) Shayma, who does not show any emotions and is indifferent toward others c) Dakota, who is very dependent and cannot make decisions d) Javier, who needs to be the centre of attention and is only superficially concerned about others Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define personality disorders, and describe some of the key features of these disorders. Section Reference: Personality Disorders 417. In what way are antisocial personality disorder and borderline personality disorder the same? a) They both have no disregard for the feelings of others. b) They both have extreme emotional highs and lows. c) They both tend to be deceitful to others. d) They both tend to be impulsive. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define personality disorders, and describe some of the key features of these disorders. Section Reference: Personality Disorders 418. In what way are paranoid and schizotypal personality disorders the same? a) They both involve dramatic or emotional behaviour. b) Both personality disorders are marked by odd or eccentric behaviour. c) Both personality disorders involve high levels of fear and anxiety. d) They both emphasize depressive or manic emotional responses. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define personality disorders, and describe some of the key features of these disorders. Section Reference: Personality Disorders

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419. When revising the previous version of the DSM, the APA committee suggested that personality disorders should be a) classified under psychotic disorders. b) classified as a behavioural disorder. c) considered as normal behaviour and excluded from the manual. d) considered as extreme traits or dimensions rather than discrete diagnostic categories. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define personality disorders, and describe some of the key features of these disorders. Section Reference: Personality Disorders 420. The alternative model of personality disorders was proposed because a) the current measurement system relies on assessment scales which were viewed by the committee as outdated. b) there was a desire to eliminate altogether a diagnosis based on personality traits. c) healthy personality traits were being ignored in the current classification system. d) there were concerns about the existing categorical approach to personality disorders. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define personality disorders, and describe some of the key features of these disorders. Section Reference: Personality Disorders 421. The dimensional approach to personality disorders is based on the idea that personality disorders a) have been mistaken assumed to share four core features. b) do not impact day-to-day functioning, so need to be treated as unique from other psychological disorders. c) involve stable patters of behaviours identified at the extreme end of personality spectrums. d) represent normal behaviours that have been improperly categorized. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define personality disorders, and describe some of the key features of these disorders. Section Reference: Personality Disorders

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422. Which of the following is NOT considered to be one of the subclinical dark traits? a) narcissism b) psychopathy c) neuroticism d) Machiavellianism Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define personality disorders, and describe some of the key features of these disorders. Section Reference: Personality Disorders 423. All personality disorders share levels of dysfunction at the level of _____. a) dramatic behaviour and eccentricity b) the self and in interpersonal relationships c) anxiety and through immature moral development d) instability and callousness Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define personality disorders, and describe some of the key features of these disorders. Section Reference: Personality Disorders

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MATCHING QUESTION 424. Match the appropriate terms in the left column to the definitions in the right column. Terms A. Id B. Superego C. Ego D. Unconditional positive regard E. Socially-desirable responding F. Self-actualization G. Peak experiences H. Personality traits I. Self-concept J. Phallic stage K. Genital stage L. Latency stage M. Personal unconscious N. Collective unconscious O. Preconscious P. Archetypes Q. Analytical psychology R. Individual psychology

___ ___ ___

___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___

Definitions 1. Characterized by sexual role rigidity or confusion 2. Tailoring answers on personality inventories to try to create a good impression. 3. Moments in which people experience intense clarity of perception, feelings of joy and excitement, and a suspended sense of time and reality 4. A pattern of perception that remains consistent over time and can be used to characterize an individual 5. A cumulative storehouse of inherited memories shared by all humankind 6. Focused on how feelings of inferiority shape human behaviour 7. Acceptance without terms or conditions 8. The need of humans to fulfill their full and special potential 9. Determines which impulses are acceptable to express openly and which are unacceptable 10. A school of psychology developed by Jung

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ANSWERS TO MATCHING QUESTION 1.

J: Phallic stage

E: Socially-desirable responding

G: Peak experiences

I: Self-concept

N: Collective unconscious

R: Individual psychology

D: Unconditional positive regard

F: Self-actualization

B: Superego

10. Q: Analytical psychology Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

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FILL-IN-THE-BLANK 425. The unique characteristics that account for our enduring patterns of inner experience and outer behaviour is referred to as our ___. Answer: personality Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: Introduction 426. The id and our most instinctual impulses are governed by the ___ principle. Answer: pleasure Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 427. A boy entering the phallic stage may begin to feel sexual attraction toward his mother. This is referred to as the ___ complex. Answer: Oedipus Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 428. Unlike Freud, Adler was interested in how feelings of ___, stemming from childhood experiences, motivate behaviour. Answer: inferiority Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective

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429. The search for ___ is a central theme of Jung's theory. Answer: harmony Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 430. Those followers of Freud who broke away and formed their own schools of thought were called ___. Answer: Neo-Freudians Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 431. Moments when people experience intense clarity of perception, feelings of joy, and a suspended sense of time are known as ___. Answer: peak experiences Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic theories of Abraham Maslow and Carl Rogers. Section Reference: The Humanistic Perspective 432. According to Carl Rogers, ___ is a pattern of perception that remains consistent over time and can be used to characterize an individual. Answer: self-concept Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic theories of Abraham Maslow and Carl Rogers. Section Reference: The Humanistic Perspective 433. Which theory is criticized for being overly simplistic and ignoring the role of psychological dysfunction in society? a) psychodynamic b) humanistic c) cognitive behavioral d) biological

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Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic theories of Abraham Maslow and Carl Rogers. Section Reference: The Humanistic Perspective 434. Allport believed that psychologists should investigate ___ motives before delving into the unconscious. Answer: manifest Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the leading trait theories, and describe how the five-factor theory has evolved from the work of Gordon Allport and Hans Eysenck. Section Reference: The Trait Perspective 435. Research with twins and studies of hormones and blood pressure suggest that ___ factors are linked to Eysenck's superfactors at least to some degree. Answer: biological Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the leading trait theories, and describe how the five-factor theory has evolved from the work of Gordon Allport and Hans Eysenck. Section Reference: The Trait Perspective 436. Researchers have found that people tend to display the characteristic of ___ with a great degree of stability across similar situations. Answer: conscientiousness Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the leading trait theories, and describe how the five-factor theory has evolved from the work of Gordon Allport and Hans Eysenck. Section Reference: The Trait Perspective 437. Observational learning or ___ is a process by which children learn to respond to particular situations. Answer: modelling Difficulty: Easy

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Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate the situationist and interactionist views of personality. Section Reference: The Situationist and Interactionist Perspectives 438. Predicting the suitability of potential employees for various positions is a use of personality assessment utilized by employers and job ___. Answer: counsellors Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of personality tests, and give examples of each. Section Reference: Personality Assessment 439. Items that are built into a personality assessment to control for social desirability responses are referred to as ___ items. Answer: validity Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of personality tests, and give examples of each. Section Reference: Personality Assessment 440. A method of assessing a person's mental and moral qualities by studying the shape of the skull is called ___. Answer: phrenology Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss the heritability of personality traits and some of the neural systems that may be involved in the expression of personality. Section Reference: Biological Foundations of Personality 441. Low activity of the neurotransmitter ___ has been linked to anxiety, inhibition, and low energy levels. Answer: dopamine Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss the heritability of personality traits and some of the neural systems that may be involved in the expression of personality.

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Section Reference: Biological Foundations of Personality 442. An individual who displays enthusiasm and leads an active life would likely score high on Clark and Watson's component of ___. Answer: positive emotionality Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss the heritability of personality traits and some of the neural systems that may be involved in the expression of personality. Section Reference: Biological Foundations of Personality 443. The theory that boys and girls develop different personal styles based largely on division of labour between the sexes is known as the ___ theory. Answer: social role Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain how gender and cultural differences can affect personality. Section Reference: Differences in Personality 444. An individual's cognitive framework for organizing knowledge about himself or herself is referred to as a ___. Answer: self-schema Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain how gender and cultural differences can affect personality. Section Reference: Differences in Personality 445. The tendency to have unrealistically inflated feelings of self-importance and self-interest is termed ___. Answer: narcissism Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define personality disorders, and describe some of the key features of these disorders. Section Reference: Personality Disorders 446. Individuals with ___ personality disorder are most often male.

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Answer: antisocial Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define personality disorders, and describe some of the key features of these disorders. Section Reference: Personality Disorders 447. Borderline personality disorder is characterized by severe instability in ___ and selfconcept. Answer: mood Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define personality disorders, and describe some of the key features of these disorders. Section Reference: Personality Disorders

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SHORT ANSWER ESSAY QUESTIONS 448. What type of energy fuels the id? Answer: libido or sexual energy Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 449. According to Freud, what are defence mechanisms? Answer: unconscious tactics employed by our egos to protect us from anxiety Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 450. What was Adler's school of psychology called? Answer: Individual Psychology Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 451. What was Jung’s school of psychology called? Answer: Analytical Psychology Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 452. Describe basic anxiety according to Horney. Answer: Develops in children who experience extreme feelings of isolation and helplessness;

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feelings set the stage for later neuroses. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 453. What type of therapy did Rogers develop? Answer: client-centred therapy Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic theories of Abraham Maslow and Carl Rogers. Section Reference: The Humanistic Perspective 454. What statistical method did Eysenck use to study personality traits? Answer: factor analysis Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize the leading trait theories, and describe how the five-factor theory has evolved from the work of Gordon Allport and Hans Eysenck. Section Reference: The Trait Perspective 455. What acronym is useful for remembering the components of the five-factor model, and what does each letter stand for? Answer: OCEAN (openness, conscientiousness, extraversion, agreeableness, and neuroticism) Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the leading trait theories, and describe how the five-factor theory has evolved from the work of Gordon Allport and Hans Eysenck. Section Reference: The Trait Perspective 456. What lifespan findings are associated with the personality trait of conscientiousness? Answer: People rated as conscientious lived significantly longer than others. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the leading trait theories, and describe how the five-factor theory has evolved from the work of Gordon Allport and Hans Eysenck. Section Reference: The Trait Perspective

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457. Explain how modelling and self-efficacy influence personality? Answer: Bandura argued for the concept of reciprocal determinism; the higher your self-efficacy, the more likely you are to pursue goals and, ultimately, be reinforced by the outcome of your efforts. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate the situationist and interactionist views of personality. Section Reference: The Situationist and Interactionist Perspectives 458. Which type of personality assessment requires individuals to answer a series of true-false or agree-disagree statements? Answer: personality inventories Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of personality tests, and give examples of each. Section Reference: Personality Assessment 459. On the Rorschach Inkblot Test, what are examinees asked to do with each ambiguous shape of inkblots they are shown? Answer: project structure and meaning onto the images Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of personality tests, and give examples of each. Section Reference: Personality Assessment 460. What brain structure may be too easily activated in people who are shy and have a fear of the unfamiliar? Answer: amygdala Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss the heritability of personality traits and some of the neural systems that may be involved in the expression of personality. Section Reference: Biological Foundations of Personality

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461. Imaging studies of distressed infants reveal activation of what brain structure? Answer: right prefrontal cortex Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss the heritability of personality traits and some of the neural systems that may be involved in the expression of personality. Section Reference: Biological Foundations of Personality 462. Describe two lifestyle characteristics that may be observed in those who score high in disinhibition. Answer: poor grades in school, poor job performance, engaging in risky activities such as drinking and drug abuse, etc. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss the heritability of personality traits and some of the neural systems that may be involved in the expression of personality. Section Reference: Biological Foundations of Personality 463. Identify two variables that Hyde found consistent gender differences in? Answer: Males were more aggressive, and scored higher on measures of motor performance and likelihood to engage in casual sex than females. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain how gender and cultural differences can affect personality. Section Reference: Differences in Personality 464. What percentage of people in Canada qualify for the diagnosis of antisocial personality disorder? Answer: between 1.7 and 3.7% Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define personality disorders, and describe some of the key features of these disorders. Section Reference: Personality Disorders 465.Which early childhood experiences may explain the development of borderline personality disorder? Answer: abandonment, neglect, abuse, etc.

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define personality disorders, and describe some of the key features of these disorders. Section Reference: Personality Disorders

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ESSAY QUESTIONS 466. Describe how Freud conceptualized the ego. Answer: Ego is the rational, problem-solving force that strives to keep the id-based impulses in check. The ego is governed by the reality principle such that it may not always be possible to have all wants and desires satisfied. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 467. Name and describe our most basic defence mechanism according to Freud. Answer: Repression is the most basic defence mechanism that allows us to keep unpleasant memories or thoughts buried deep within the unconscious mind to avoid facing them. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 468. Name and describe the two parts of the unconscious mind identified by Jung. Answer: Personal unconscious is formed by individualized personal experiences, whereas the collective unconscious is a cumulative storehouse of inherited memories shared by all humanity. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the main ideas of the psychodynamic view of personality development. Section Reference: The Psychodynamic Perspective 469. Describe Maslow's concept of “self-actualization.” Answer: highest level of need within his hierarchy; need to fulfill our full potential as human beings Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic theories of Abraham Maslow and Carl Rogers. Section Reference: The Humanistic Perspective

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470. Describe the concept Rogers termed as “unconditional positive regard.” Answer: Children need acceptance without terms or conditions from parents and other adults to develop healthy self-concepts. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic theories of Abraham Maslow and Carl Rogers. Section Reference: The Humanistic Perspective 471. Describe Eysenck's three superfactors of personality. Answer: Extraversion is the degree to which a person is outgoing. Neuroticism is the degree to which a person experiences negative emotion. Psychoticism is the degree to which a person is vulnerable to developing a serious personality disorder. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize the leading trait theories, and describe how the five-factor theory has evolved from the work of Gordon Allport and Hans Eysenck. Section Reference: The Trait Perspective 472. Using the five-factor model, analyze your own personality by specifying how you believe your friends may label you for each of the five attributes. Answer: Make a claim for all five attributes (openness, conscientiousness, extraversion, agreeableness, and neuroticism). Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize the leading trait theories, and describe how the five-factor theory has evolved from the work of Gordon Allport and Hans Eysenck. Section Reference: The Trait Perspective 473. Define situationism. Answer: notion that behaviour is governed primarily by the variables in a situation rather than by internal traits Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate the situationist and interactionist views of personality. Section Reference: The Situationist and Interactionist Perspectives 474. Define disposition-situation consistency.

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Answer: Finding that interactive effects between traits and situations are common and relatively stable over time. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate the situationist and interactionist views of personality. Section Reference: The Situationist and Interactionist Perspectives 475. How does the MMPI-2 differ from the NEO-PI-R? Answer: MMPI-2 assesses maladaptive personality traits that may lead to psychological disorders; NEO-PI-R does not attempt to assess maladaptive aspects of personality; evaluates 30 traits that comprise 3 of the 5 superfactors. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of personality tests, and give examples of each. Section Reference: Personality Assessment 476. What is an alternative projective test to the Rorschach Inkblot Test? Describe this test. Answer: Thematic Apperception Test; people are asked to create stories about drawings they view. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the two major types of personality tests, and give examples of each. Section Reference: Personality Assessment 477. How is hemispheric dominance in the brain related to personality? Answer: Research indicates that right hemispheric dominance is related to negative emotions and traits such as withdrawal, whereas left hemispheric dominance is related to positive emotions and traits such as extraversion. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss the heritability of personality traits and some of the neural systems that may be involved in the expression of personality. Section Reference: Biological Foundations of Personality 478. Describe Kagan's (1994) study of children and stress levels.

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Answer: Measured blood cortisol levels of children reacting to stressful situations; children with inhibited personalities had higher cortisol stress reactions to unfamiliar situations. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss the heritability of personality traits and some of the neural systems that may be involved in the expression of personality. Section Reference: Biological Foundations of Personality 479. Describe how play behaviour helps teach gender roles. Answer: Boys are expected to engage in competitive games and are given fake weapons as toys, whereas girls are encouraged to play games that emphasize nurturing and interacting with peers. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Explain how gender and cultural differences can affect personality. Section Reference: Differences in Personality 480. Describe two values that individualistic cultures often embrace. Answer: They value freedom, individual success, and achievement; competition between individuals. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Explain how gender and cultural differences can affect personality. Section Reference: Differences in Personality 481. Describe how socio-economic conditions can influence whether personality traits will be expressed behaviourally. Answer: Studies of high- and low-SES neighbourhoods in Manitoba revealed that boys from a low-SES neighbourhood who scored highly on an index of impulsivity were more likely to commit delinquent acts than boys with similar scores from a high-SES neighbourhood. These situational triggers must co-occur with personality traits for behaviour to occur. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Explain how gender and cultural differences can affect personality. Section Reference: Differences in Personality

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CHAPTER 13 SOCIAL PSYCHOLOGY CHAPTER LEARNING OBJECTIVES 1. Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. • Attitudes are relatively stable and enduring evaluations of things and people. According to the ABC model, they have affective, behavioural, and cognitive components. • Parents play a major role in shaping children’s attitudes. In older children, peers, teachers, and the media also exert an influence. • Leon Festinger proposed that people change their attitudes when they experience cognitive dissonance—a state of emotional discomfort that arises when a person holds two contradictory beliefs or holds a belief inconsistent with his behaviour. • The self-perception theory of attitude change minimizes the role of emotional discomfort and suggests that people simply infer what their attitudes are by observing their own behaviour. • The attitudes people express are not necessarily related to their behaviour. In part, this is because people sometimes misrepresent their attitudes. They may wish to express socially desirable attitudes, or they may not be aware of what their implicit attitudes really are. • Stereotypes and prejudice arise in part from the human tendency to identify with a group. Various explanations of prejudice come from evolutionary theories, realistic conflict theory, and social identity theory. • People use persuasion techniques to try to influence the attitudes of others. The central route to persuasion emphasizes the content of the message, while the peripheral route depends on more superficial appeals, such as the appearance of the spokesperson. 2. Discuss how people make attributions to explain their own behaviour and the behaviour of others. • Attributions, or causal explanations of behaviour, can be dispositional (internal) or situational (external). • People tend to attribute their own behaviour to situational factors and the behaviour of others to dispositional factors. The reliance on dispositional factors to explain others’ behaviour is the fundamental attribution error. • According to the actor-observer effect, this discrepancy exists because people make situational attributions as actors and dispositional attributions as observers. • People sometimes attribute only their failures to situational factors and attribute their successes to dispositional factors, called the self-serving bias. 3. Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. • Society establishes rules, or norms, about how people are supposed to act. Social roles are sets of norms ascribed to particular social positions. Norms and roles are critical to the smooth functioning of society, but also place limits on individuals. • Conformity is the tendency to yield to real or imagined group pressure. In a famous series of experiments, Solomon Asch found that 75 percent of research participants yielded to implicit group pressure to conform to an incorrect judgment.

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Unlike conformity, obedience involves following direct orders, usually from an authority figure. Experiments by Stanley Milgram found that 65 percent of subjects continued to follow orders to administer what they believed to be dangerous electric shocks.

4. Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. • The social facilitation effect occurs when the presence of others enhances a person’s performance. Research shows that this effect holds for simple, well-learned tasks; but the presence of others can impair performance on more complicated tasks. • With social loafing, people in a group exert less effort on a task than they would if performing the task alone. • Group polarization is a phenomenon in which group discussion intensifies the already-held opinions of group members and produces a shift toward a more extreme position. • Groups with certain characteristics—a strong similarity among members, high group cohesiveness, high perceived threat, elevated stress, insulation from outside influence, and a directive leader—may become victims of groupthink, a faulty decision-making process in which group members strive for unanimity at the expense of realistically appraising alternative courses of action. • Helping behaviour is of two types: altruism, which is motivated by concern for others, and egoistic helping behaviour, which is motivated by a desire to reduce one’s own distress or receive rewards. • People are more likely to engage in helping behaviour when alone than when in the presence of others. Theorists propose that the presence of others may create a diffusion of responsibility, in which no single individual feels personal responsibility for acting. • Aggression describes a broad range of behaviours intended to do harm to another. Aggression has some biological underpinnings. In addition, the frustration-aggression hypothesis proposes that aggression arises in response to frustration. • Factors that lead to liking another person include similarity, proximity, self-disclosure, situational, and physical attractiveness. • One description of love includes three elements: attachment, caring, and intimacy. Another, Sternberg’s triangular theory of love, holds that love is composed of intimacy, passion, and commitment, which combine in varying degrees. • Similar to young children, adults display three types of attachment in love relationships: secure. 5. Describe the major findings of social neuroscience about regions of the brain particularly important to our social functioning. • Social neuroscience is the specialty of neuroscience that studies how the brain works during social functioning. Social functioning is so important and uniquely human that social neuroscientists have given the name “social brain” to the combination of brain areas that are particularly active in social functioning. • The orbitofrontal cortex, ventromedial prefrontal cortex, insula, and amygdala all have been identified as especially important in social functioning. Researchers continue to try to pinpoint neural connections related to social functioning.

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TRUE-FALSE STATEMENTS 1. Social cognition refers to how people perceive and interpret themselves and others in their social world. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 2. Social facilitation refers to the emotional discomfort we feel when we hold two contradictory beliefs. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 3. Attitudes are NOT necessarily related to behaviours. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 4. Implicit attitudes are NOT predictive of overt acts of racism. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 5. The central route of persuasion emphasizes the content of the message by using logical

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arguments to persuade. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 6. Situational attributions focus on people’s traits as a cause of their behaviour. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss how people make attributions to explain their own behaviour and the behaviour of others. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attributions 7. When we assume the “actor” role, we tend to make situational attributions about our own behaviours. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss how people make attributions to explain their own behaviour and the behaviour of others. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attributions 8. When faced with the behaviour of others, we see them as having rich, adaptive personalities. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss how people make attributions to explain their own behaviour and the behaviour of others. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attributions 9. Some social norms may NOT be openly stated, but we are aware of them. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

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Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 10. Communal gender roles are associated with aggression and control. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 11. The presence of one dissenting group member may reduce the likelihood of conformity. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 12. Due to its ethical implications, Milgram’s study would likely NOT be allowed to be replicated today. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 13. Group dynamics refer to how belonging to a group influences our thoughts and behaviours. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 14. To explain group facilitation, researchers now focus more on reactions to and interpretations

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of others’ presence rather than presence itself. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 15. During groupthink, members experience an illusion of invulnerability and inherent morality. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 16. In emergency situations, help is most likely to occur when large numbers of people are present. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 17. A shared humorous experience is a powerful means to forge closeness with a stranger. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 18. The orbitofrontal cortex is involved in social reason, reward evaluation, and reading other people. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy

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Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the major findings of social neuroscience about regions of the brain particularly important to our social functioning. Section Reference: Social Functioning 19. Jonathon suffered brain damage in a motor vehicle accident. He now has difficulty making social and moral assessments and decisions. Jonathon likely suffered damage to his orbitofrontal cortex. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the major findings of social neuroscience about regions of the brain particularly important to our social functioning. Section Reference: Social Functioning 20. The insula located beneath the frontal cortex is involved in empathy. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the major findings of social neuroscience about regions of the brain particularly important to our social functioning. Section Reference: Social Functioning

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MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 21. __________ is the term that describes the study of how others influence our thoughts, feelings, and actions, as well as group and intergroup dynamics. a) Social psychology b) Social cognition c) Attribution d) Cognitive dissonance Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 22. Which of the following accurately describes the components of the ABC model of attitudes? a) attribution – behaviour – consequence b) affective – beliefs – consequence c) antecedent – behaviour – consequence d) affective – behaviour – cognitive Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 23. Social cognition is best defined as a) the way in which people perceive and interpret themselves and others. b) the relatively stable and enduring ways that we evaluate things and people. c) the beliefs that people hold that is independent of emotions and behaviour. d) the evaluations we have about others based on their inclusion in a group. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 24. Tereen thinks a lot about why her younger siblings behave the way they do. She wonders

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which factors influence their behavior and motivations. Tereen is engaged in a) social cognition. b) saliency bias. c) attribution therapy. d) the actor-observer effect. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 25. In social psychology, a confederate is someone who a) conforms to the group norm. b) defies conformity pressures. c) takes on a leadership role in a group. d) is secretly part of the experiment. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 26. A relatively stable and enduring evaluation of things and people is a) an attitude. b) a social cognition. c) a schema. d) an opinion. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 27. Cora wanted to ensure that her children grew up to be decent, successful citizens of the world. She taught them to believe in a higher power; to treat everyone with respect and dignity; and to believe that any good thing they put their minds to was possible. Cora is trying to mold her children’s a) attitudes. b) attribution.

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c) biases. d) behaviors. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 28. Elena’s ideas about the Liberal Party were relatively stable and represented an enduring evaluation of her views of their policies and people. This type of evaluation is known as an ________________. a) acceptance b) analytics c) attitude d) attraction Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 29. Mia’s son, Dylan, has seen her behaving aggressively many times and dealing with other people in a very confrontational manner. After Dylan watched Mia engage in a particularly messy altercation, he started a fight with a friend over a basketball at the playground. Mia came to realize that she does NOT want Dylan to believe that confrontation is the way to handle any situation, even though it is what he sees her doing. What will Mia attempt to change in Dylan? a) attitude b) disposition c) situation d) attribution Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 30. Carmen could NOT understand her son Jacob. Although she and Jacob’s father were kind and respectful of others, Carmen was shocked when she overheard Jacob speaking disrespectfully to his girlfriend. What BEST explains the discrepancy between Jacob’s and his

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parents’ attitudes? a) Jacob’s attitudes may be more defined by media and social group than by his parents. b) Jacob wishes to rebel and says absurd things to shock his mother’s sensibilities. c) Jacob is suffering from the actor-observer effect in which he would find his words offensive but does not think a female should. d) Carmen is suffering from a self-serving bias in which she views her husband as good but blames Jacob’s profanity on his girlfriend. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 31. Which of the following statement about attitudes is NOT true? a) Attitudes develop, in part, due to genetics. b) Children learn attitudes through vicarious learning. c) Individual’s shape their own attitudes. d) The way we behave often does not reflect our attitudes. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 32. Which of the following is NOT one of the components of an attitude? a) behavioural b) physiological c) affective d) cognitive Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 33. Which best represents a theoretical logical sequence describing the relative function of affective, behavioral, and cognitive elements of an attitude? a) The cognitive element occurs first, followed by the behavioral element and then the affective element.

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b) The affective and cognitive elements occur nearly simultaneously and are followed by the behavioral element. c) The behavioral element occurs first, simultaneously resulting in the affective element and the cognitive element. d) The behavioral and cognitive elements occur nearly simultaneously and are followed by the affective element. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 34. When Zain is asked what he thinks about abortion, he says that he thinks it is a very difficult decision for anyone to end a pregnancy, but he also thinks that in some cases it is maybe the best thing, and that women should at least have the choice. Without choice, he says much uglier things often happen to women. Which component of an attitude is Zain making apparent? a) affective b) cognitive c) emotional d) behavioural Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 35. When Stella sees a homeless person on the street, she feels nothing but pity. Which attitude component is this an example of? a) affective b) behavioural c) cognitive d) acquisition Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 36. Regarding attitudes toward the United Nations Assistance Mission in Afghanistan, being

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fearful of unnecessary loss of life reflects the _____________ component of attitude. a) affective b) behavioural c) cognitive d) situational Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 37. When Darien meets a homeless man on the street, he turns his head away and quickly walks past him. Which attitude component is this an example of? a) affective b) behavioural c) cognitive d) acquisition Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 38. How are affect and cognitions most similar? a) Both reflect internal processes associated with attitude. b) Both reflect subjective processes associated with attribution. c) Both reflect judgmental processes associated with temperament. d) Both reflect self-serving tendencies associated with saliency. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 39. After running a mile in less than six minutes, Ron, and Chad both feel a huge sense of satisfaction, though for different reasons. Ron believes his success was due to their intensive training, while Chad believes his success was due to optimal weather conditions on the day of the run. What is the primary difference between Ron and Chad, and how will this impact their future training?

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a) Ron attributes his success to internal factors, whereas Chad attributes his success to external factors. Ron will likely train harder than Chad in the future. b) Chad attributes his success to internal factors, whereas Ron attributes his success to external factors. Chad will likely train harder than Ron in the future. c) Ron attributes his success to internal factors, whereas Chad attributes his success to external factors. Chad will likely train harder than Ron in the future. d) Chad attributes his success to internal factors, whereas Ron attributes his success to external factors. Ron will likely train harder than Chad in the future. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 40. June believes she is passing calculus because she is intelligent and capable, while Ellen believes she is passing because the tests have been easy. Which of the following is MOST likely true about June and Ellen? a) June will study harder than Ellen in calculus class. b) Ellen will study harder than June in calculus class. c) June will outperform Ellen in calculus class. d) Ellen will outperform June in calculus class. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 41. Lola recently attended a student rights rally at the university. A few days later, after carefully thinking about the presenter’s speech, Lola feels strongly enough about the issues facing students that she decides to run for President of the students’ association. The strengthening of Lola’s attitude could probably be attributed to the ___. a) attitude polarization effect b) speaker persuasion effect c) mere thought effect d) peripheral persuasion effect Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes

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42. Drew has an appointment with a car salesman to discuss buying a new car. Before the appointment, the salesman e-mails Drew some information about the advantages and strengths of the car. When Drew goes to meet with the salesman, they only discuss the great things about the car and Drew buys the car without even discussing the disadvantages. Drew’s decision to buy the car could be attributed to a) peripheral persuasion effect. b) mere thought effect. c) cognitive dissonance. d) speaker persuasion effect. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 43. Festinger and Carlsmith attempted to determine a) how far people would go in obeying an authority figure. b) whether an inconsistency between attitude and behaviour would cause people to change their attitudes. c) whether we infer our attitudes by observing our own behaviour. d) whether we will change our attitudes and behaviours in response to real or perceived group pressure. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 44. According to Leon Festinger, cognitive dissonance leads directly to: a) schema revision b) post-decision dissonance reduction c) attitudinal ambivalence d) psychological tension Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes

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45. Although neither Steve nor Kent believes in a local "get rich" workshop, they nevertheless agree to recruit participants when offered a commission. Steve is paid $5.00 for each attendee he recruits, while Kent is paid $20.00 for each attendee. Which of the following statements is most accurate and why? a) Steve experiences more cognitive dissonance than Kent because he had a weaker reason for lying. b) Kent experiences more cognitive dissonance than Steve because he had a better reason for lying. c) Steve is more likely than Kent to experience the self-serving bias because he received less money. d) Kent is more likely than Steve to experience the self-serving bias because he received more money. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 46. When someone holds a belief that contradicts their behaviour, it is called a) prejudice. b) discrimination. c) cognitive dissonance. d) a stereotype. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 47. Cognitive dissonance theory was proposed by a) Bem. b) Milgram. c) Eagly and Chaiken. d) Festinger and Carlsmith. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour.

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Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 48. One experiment, studying attitude changes, paid participants to lie. Participants who were paid less money were more apt to change their attitude. This experiment was an example of a) altruism. b) cognitive dissonance. c) egoistic model of helping. d) implicit bias. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 49. Which of the following is a defining characteristic of cognitive dissonance? a) anxiety b) anger c) joy d) contentment Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 50. Cognitive dissonance theory states that a) when we are unaware of what our true attitudes are, we infer them by observing our own behaviour. b) when an inconsistency between attitude and behaviour exists, it is unpleasant, and we are motivated to reduce or eliminate it. c) we are more likely to repeat a behaviour if it has been previously associated with a positive outcome. d) we are more likely to respond to another person’s request when that person is an authority figure than when they are not. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes

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51. Oliver believed that all children should have an equal right to education. However, he paid for his granddaughter to attend a private school and justified his actions by saying that she was "delicate". Oliver is experiencing a) cognitive dissonance. b) the self-serving bias. c) the saliency bias. d) the actor-observer effect. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 52. Karen, who was feeling fine, but was dreading spending the day with a loud group of children, experienced the unpleasant tension and anxiety caused by a discrepancy between an attitude and a behavior known as __________________ when she told her daughter she was too sick to help with her granddaughter’s birthday party. This was especially the case since Karen had urged her daughter to have the party at home instead of at an amusement park as her daughter has originally intended. Karen convinced herself she was feeling queasy after making the phone call to her daughter. a) cognitive dissonance b) implicit attitude adjustment c) self-serving bias d) social role confusion Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 53. Miriam, a major in gender studies, was in an abusive relationship with Wyatt. She experienced emotional discomfort because her beliefs about equal rights and respect in a relationship were contradicted when she tolerated Wyatt’s abusive behaviour. Which of the following best describes the discomfort Miriam experienced? a) attitude specificity b) cognitive dissonance c) associative dissonance d) all the above Answer: b

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Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 54. Owen despises his roommate Aria’s cat. The cat is mangy looking, smells bad, and is constantly meowing. Owen ignores the cat when Aria is not home, even though he knows the cat is lonely. Owen experiences emotional discomfort because he volunteers for the SPCA and knows he should be kinder to this animal. Which of the following best describes the discomfort Owen is experiencing? a) attitude specificity b) cognitive dissonance c) associative dissonance d) all the above Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 55. Zach worked for an IT company making $50 an hour when he made a lateral career change and began working for a different company. After his departure, there was a strike at his old workplace, and everyone got a significant pay raise. Mark took Zach’s place after the strike and ended up making $100 an hour for doing the same work. If Zach and Mark are each asked how much they like their jobs at each of their companies, what would cognitive dissonance theory predict they will say? a) Both Mark and Zach will say they dislike their jobs to the same degree at this company. b) Mark will rate his job at this company as better than Zach. c) Zach will rate his job at this company as better than Mark. d) Both Mark and Zach will say they like their jobs to the same degree at this company. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 56. Kyle, a business student, spent several hours applying to join the local golf club. If he is accepted for membership, the initiation fee will be $3000. Kyle wonders how he will manage to pay the $3000 out of his already overextended budget. If Kyle is accepted into the golf club and pays the initiation fee, he will most likely a) quit the golf club almost immediately.

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b) regret that he joined the golf club. c) be relatively neutral about the golf society. d) be very positive about the golf club and being a member of the golf club. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 57. In Festinger and Carlsmith’s famous study on cognitive dissonance, which group of participants rated the boring task as the most fun? a) The control group. b) The group paid $20 for telling the truth about the task. c) The group paid $20 for praising the task. d) The group paid $1 for praising the task. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 58. Michelle has an eating disorder and is very underweight. She knew that she should eat. She had seen pictures of girls who looked like her and of girls who were healthy, and she knew the healthy girls were more attractive. She felt ill at ease. She could NOT seem to reconcile her actions of NOT eating with her understanding that she looked sick. With what is Michelle struggling? a) cognitive dissonance b) actor-observer effect c) fundamental attribution error d) saliency bias Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 59. After being diagnosed with pre-diabetes, Ellison continues eating his favorite ice cream even though his doctor advised against it. As he eats an extra-large portion, he starts to feel guilty and ashamed. He reminds himself, however, that ice cream has calcium in it and that calcium is

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healthy. What is implied here? a) Ellison is engaged in cognitive dissonance. b) Ellison is engaged in the fundamental attribution error. c) Ellison is guilty of the actor-observer effect. d) Ellison is guilty of the self-serving bias. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 60. In cognitive dissonance theory, the term “insufficient justification” refers to the idea that a) the less appealing the reward for something, the less likely we are to do it. b) we are more likely to blame ourselves for our bad behaviour if we believe it was unjustified. c) we are more likely to experience a state of unpleasantness when we do not have an external reason for an inconsistency between our attitudes and our behaviour. d) we are more likely to judge other people negatively if we believe that their behaviour was unjustified. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 61. According to cognitive dissonance theory, which of the following people is most likely to change his attitude? a) Emil, who is a long-time political conservative who argues in favour of liberal policies as part of a required class assignment b) Sam, who is paid $100 to tell people how interesting a specific experiment is c) Ethan, who makes his living telling people why satellite is better than cable d) Cinar, who opposes unions, but makes up a pro-union argument just to annoy his parents Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 62. Which is the MOST accurate statement regarding cognitive dissonance? a) To relieve cognitive dissonance, the healthiest approach is to alter one's positive attitudes.

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b) Since cognitive dissonance is a perceived conflict, a person must be willing to change perceptions to end the conflict. c) Cognitive dissonance is basically an issue of self-esteem and therefore has negligible impact on confident people. d) Cognitive dissonance plays a positive role in personal growth when a person alters inappropriate behaviors to reduce discomfort. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 63. Aina and Josefa want to encourage their children to do well in school and develop an internal sense of academic pride and achievement. Which of the following is most likely to produce that result? a) Tell their children that they will get $10 for every “A” that they produce and $5 for every “B.” b) Allow them to watch TV after they have finished their homework. c) Punish them for getting bad grades. d) Give them a reasonable amount of praise when they bring home a good report card. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 64. Gregor is determined that his son, Anton, will become an Olympic gymnast. Since Anton was a preschooler Gregor has been taking him to lessons with a private coach. Now he is an adolescent, Anton spends almost all his free time training, but he does not mind. He is determined to reach the Olympics. What would likely have been Gregor’s strategy to get Anton to have this level of internal motivation? a) Paying Anton an extra allowance for every session spent with the coach. b) Giving Anton special privileges each time practiced gymnastics and worked with the coach. c) Punish Anton and express disapproval each time he demonstrated a lack of interest in gymnastics. d) Expressing reasonable pride and pleasure over Anton’s efforts and determination. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes

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65. Which is the MOST accurate statement regarding cognitive dissonance? a) To relieve cognitive dissonance positively, a person must provide himself or herself with a large reward. b) The most effective way to use cognitive dissonance is to re-evaluate one's conflicting thoughts and actions. c) Since cognitive dissonance is only a perceived conflict, a person can ignore its effects and disregard the discomfort. d) Cognitive dissonance is basically an issue of individual self-esteem and therefore has little impact on socially confident people. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 66. ________________ suggests that when people are uncertain of their attitudes, they infer what the attitudes are by observing their own behaviour. a) Cognitive dissonance b) Social role theory c) Social perception theory d) Self-perception theory Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 67. In which situation is self-perception theory particularly relevant? a) when we behave in ways that are slightly out of character b) when we behave in ways that are strikingly out of character c) when we behave in ways that are most familiar to us d) when we behave in ways that are unfamiliar to us Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes

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68. Nick has been working hard all week. On Sunday morning, he wakes up and realizes that he has just slept 10 hours. He says to himself, “Wow, I guess I was more tired than I thought.” Nick’s sudden insight would be of greatest interest to ___. a) Asch b) LaPiere c) Festinger d) Bem Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 69. Generally Sienna is a confident presenter. However, the morning of her nursing presentation she noticed her hands were shaking as she walked to the front of the room and thought, “Gosh. I must be more nervous than I thought.” Sienna’s sudden insight would be of greatest interest to ___. a) Asch b) LaPiere c) Festinger d) Bem Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 70. Ava is sitting in a lecture about Art History with her new boyfriend when he turns to her and asks with a sparkle in his eye whether she finds the lecture fascinating. She answers that she is not sure yet, and that she needs to hear more. But then she feels a yawn coming on. She manages to stifle it, but it makes her realize that she is bored to tears in this lecture. Which theory would agree the most with Ava’s conclusion? a) cognitive dissonance theory b) self-perception theory c) ABC theory d) social identity theory Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in

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behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 71. Juanita, a graphic design student, was asked to help make signs supporting a local political candidate. Although she was not really interested in local politics, after making the signs she decided she must want to vote for the candidate. Juanita’s sudden interest in local politics can be explained by a) cognitive dissonance. b) social perception theory. c) social attitude theory. d) self-perception theory. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 72. Which of the following cases is the best example of self-perception theory? a) Minnie realizes that she really likes her job after she stays late to finish a project. b) Marti works overtime to make extra money to take a vacation. c) Violette is retired with a good pension but takes a part-time job to keep busy. d) Arnau starts working harder because he realizes that he has been slacking off. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 73. Which of the following cases is the best example of self-perception theory? a) Trinity decides she really likes her business major after she volunteers with the society to prepare for new student orientation. b) Jayden is working two jobs to earn money for school. c) Diane has retired and is volunteering at the Alzheimer’s Society to meet new people and to give back to the community. d) Pedro creates a study schedule to get back on track at school. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour.

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Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 74. Edison is a member of Greenpeace but accepts advertising money for his new store from a lumber company. Wanda is a busy graduate student who goes to bed because she starts yawning. Edison is likely to experience ___ and Wanda is likely to experience ___. a) cognitive dissonance; cognitive dissonance b) cognitive dissonance; self-perception c) self-perception; cognitive dissonance d) self-perception; self-perception Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 75. What is the difference between self-perception theory and cognitive dissonance theory of attitude change? a) Self-perception theory assumes that our attitudes were not clear to begin with, whereas cognitive dissonance theory assumes that they are. b) Self-perception theory argues that we see ourselves as other see us, whereas cognitive dissonance theory argues that we can easily change what we see in ourselves and others. c) Self-perception theory assumes that we have implicit attitudes, whereas cognitive dissonance theory assumes that we are fully aware of all our attitudes. d) Self-perception theory believes that our attitudes influence our behaviours, whereas cognitive dissonance theory believes that our behaviours influence our attitudes. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 76. Which of the following statements about the relationship between attitudes and behaviours is FALSE? a) One of the leading factors in determining whether the attitude will predict the behaviour is attitude specificity. b) Stronger attitudes are better predictors of behaviour than are weak attitudes. c) General attitudes do an excellent job of predicting behaviour. d) If we know someone’s attitude, we cannot necessarily predict how they will behave. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy

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Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 77. In Richard LaPiere’s field study where he travelled across the United States with a Chinese couple in the 1930s, he found that a) most of the people who indicated that they did not want Chinese guests refused to serve them. b) most establishments served them but did so unwillingly and with poor service. c) most establishments held positive attitudes toward Chinese guests and offered them good service. d) even though most establishments did not want Chinese guests, only one establishment refused service. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 78. Which of the following people is most likely to display a behaviour that corresponds to their attitude? a) Hassan, who loves children and is asked to contribute money a relief effort for migrant children detained at the border b) Zheny, an extrovert, is asked to send money to an animal rescue effort in South America c) Trey, who rarely follows the news and is asked to donate money to tsunami relief to an area of the world with which he is unfamiliar d) Riko, who is well off, is asked to donate to Doctors Without Borders Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 79. The “bogus pipeline” technique is designed to a) help people identify what their true attitudes are. b) encourage people to give truthful answers instead of giving socially desirable answers. c) determine which people are the most prejudiced. d) create situations in which people will be exposed to cognitive dissonance. Answer: b

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 80. Which of the following techniques is used to overcome social desirability in research on attitudes? a) lie detector technique b) lie pipeline technique c) bogus pipeline technique d) bogus lie technique Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 81. Hae honestly believes that all races are equal, and that discrimination is bad. However, when Hae is talking to a person of another race, she is less likely to make eye contact, and she makes more grammatical errors than when speaking to someone of her own race. What issue would social psychologists most likely say applies to Hae? a) Hae has explicit racial attitudes. b) Hae is experiencing cognitive dissonance. c) Hae is not entirely aware of her racial attitudes. d) Hae is a hypocrite. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 82. Mick did not believe himself to be homophobic. In one class the student sitting next to him identified as homosexual to the rest of the class. Following this, the next time the class met, Mick moved because he said, and believed, that the seat he was in earlier was too distracting because he could see out of the window to people relaxing outside. Assuming Mick’s explanation to himself is an excuse, what type of attitude is being described here? a) affective b) behavioural c) explicit d) implicit

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Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 83. Attitudes that lie below the level of conscious awareness are known as a) implicit attitudes. b) prejudices. c) embedded belief systems. d) unacknowledged values. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 84. The Implicit Association Test (IAT) a) is used to make people believe that they are hooked up to a lie detector. b) uses people’s implicit attitudes to predict future behaviour. c) is used to reduce the social desirability effect. d) uses a person’s reaction times to help gauge his or her implicit attitudes. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 85. Larissa is taking a test that presents her with several words and she has to identify i) if they are related to the word “old” or the word “young” and ii) if the word is pleasant or unpleasant. It is likely that Larissa is taking the ___. a) BPT (Bogus Pipeline Test) b) TDT (Thematic Discrimination Test) c) IAT (Implicit Attitudes Test) d) UMT (Unambiguous Mindset Test) Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 86. If Jaime is participating in a research study and is asked to take the IAT, what is the researcher trying to measure? a) The researcher is measuring Jaime’s prejudices. b) The researcher is measuring Jaime’s attitudes toward political issues. c) The researcher is measuring attitudes that Jaime may not be aware she has. d) The researcher is measuring the discrepancy between Jaime’s attitudes and behaviours. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 87. What do a social desirability bias and implicit attitudes have in common? a) They are both very difficult to measure in the lab. b) They are both means of attitude change. c) They are both techniques of persuasion. d) They are both ways in which our true attitudes are not represented. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 88. A stereotype is a) a persistent negative attitude about a group of people. b) positive, while prejudice is negative. c) a generalized impression about a group of people. d) an attitude that is used to justify discrimination. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes

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89. Which of the following is defined as "a learned attitude, usually negative, directed toward specific people in a particular group"? a) discrimination b) prejudice c) ethnocentrism d) social learning Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 90. According to Gawronski, which of the following elements has the greatest effect for reducing prejudice? a) listening to persuasive messages against prejudice b) having people write arguments against prejudice c) present information about a specific group in neutral or non-affective situations d) all the above used together are most effective Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 91. Prejudice is a) a learned, generally negative attitude toward members of a group; it includes thoughts, feelings, and behavioral tendencies. b) a generalization about a group of people in which the same characteristics are assigned to all members of the group. c) negative behavior directed at others because of their membership in a particular group. d) a hidden, automatic attitude that may guide behaviors independent of a person’s awareness or control. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 92. A learned, negative attitude toward members of a group that includes thoughts, feelings,

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and behavioral tendencies is a) prejudice. b) implicit bias. c) discrimination. d) a stereotype. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 93. Discrimination is a) negative behavior directed at others because of their membership in a group. b) a generalization about a group of people in which the same characteristics are assigned to all members of the group. c) a learned, generally negative attitude toward members of a group; it includes thoughts, feelings, and behavioral tendencies. d) a hidden, automatic attitude that may guide behaviors independent of a person’s awareness or control. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 94. Negative behavior directed at others because of their membership in a particular group is called a) discrimination. b) prejudice. c) implicit bias. d) a stereotype. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 95. In what way is prejudice different from discrimination? a) Prejudice includes no behavioral component.

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b) Prejudice is an attitude not an action. c) Prejudice includes emotions and feelings. d) Prejudice comes about because of social learning. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 96. Which of the following examples include neither prejudice nor discrimination? a) Refusing to rent to an Indigenous family because the owner fears reactions from nonIndigenous people in the building. b) Denying an apartment to a family because they are Indigenous. c) Giving an apartment to an indigenous family because the owner hopes to attract other Indigenous families. d) Withholding an apartment from an Indigenous family until they can pay the standard down payment. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 97. Which of the following examples includes an example of discrimination but NOT prejudice? a) Refusing members of a visible minority entrance into a club because the owner fears Caucasians in the club will react. b) Refusing members of a visible minority entrance into a club because the owner does not have a positive attitude toward the group. c) Allowing members of a visible minority entrance into a club because the club is open to all who can pay. d) Allowing members of a visible minority entrance into a club because the owner hopes to attract more members of the group. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes

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98. Which of the following exhibits prejudice but NOT discrimination? a) Hiring a minority salesclerk because the owner feels it will make his store more diverse. b) Denying a salesclerk job to a minority applicant because the owner feels she may drive away customers. c) Refusing to hire a minority applicant because the shopkeeper feels people from this group cannot be trusted. d) Choosing a minority salesclerk for a position because his record and references are the best. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 99. An in-group is a) a popular or dominant group. b) a group about whom we have positive attitudes. c) a group of other people whom we identify as belonging together, and who are different from us. d) a group that we believe shares our own characteristics. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 100. Social identity theory proposes that in social situations an individual sees him or herself a) as a member of the group rather than as an individual. b) in terms of their specific role in the social group. c) as an individual rather than as a group member. d) as fluidly moving in and out of the group based on individual need. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 101. _______ proposes that individuals see themselves as members of the group rather than as individuals. a) Social conflict theory

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b) Social exposure theory c) Social attitude theory d) Social identity theory Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 102. Jim is a white male who believes that he is having difficulty finding a job because of affirmative action in hiring. Which of the following theories is most relevant to Jim’s belief? a) social identity theory b) realistic conflict theory c) in-group bias d) social comparison theory Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 103. According to realistic conflict theory, which of the following would result in the highest levels of gender discrimination? a) A male supervisor doubts that women can be good mechanics. b) A female executive believes that if she can be successful, all women can. c) A male shop owner worries about what his wife might think if he hires an attractive woman employee. d) A male worker in a factory is worried about possible layoffs. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 104. Dr. Redanka is an evolutionary psychologist who studies stereotypes and prejudice. Which of the following would best describe Dr. Redanka’s belief? a) We view people who are different from us as not achieving their full potential. b) We are prewired to perceive people who are different from us as inferior, so we can justify excluding them.

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c) We develop stereotypes because we are competing for scarce resources and feel rewarded when we have more than those in the out-group. d) We are classically conditioned to stick to people who are the same as us. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 105. Which of the following is NOT an evolutionary psychology explanation for prejudice and stereotyping? a) It helps us to categorize individuals into groups. b) It allowed the rapid recognition of members of one’s own tribe based on superficial information. c) It allowed us to decide with whom we wished to breed and produce offspring. d) We are prewired to think of people we perceive as different as inferior which may justify our decision to exclude or demean them. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 106. In the Robber’s Cave experiment, which of the following best describes the outcome when one group of boys were required to compete against the other? a) They were competitive, but they attempted to make friends on every opportunity. b) They began to call each other names and refused to eat in the same room. c) They realized that, if they were less competitive, everybody would succeed. d) They found common ground and worked together to achieve the same goal. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 107. In the Robber’s Cave experiment, which of the following best describes the outcome when the two groups of boys were required to work together toward a common goal? a) They started the task cooperatively but soon become competitive and aggressive with each other.

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b) They formed their own in-groups and out-groups which led to fighting. c) They overcame their animosity to work together on the challenges they faced. d) They worked as individuals refusing to speak or socialize with each other. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 108. Mrs. Julliard is a grade six teacher. She has just overheard one of her students make a racist comment to another student. Based on the Robber’s Cave experiment, what might be the best way for Mrs. Julliard to overcome the racist attitude of her student? a) Keep the two students separated. b) Talk to the racist student about his/her attitude. c) Have the two students work together on a project. d) There is little the teacher can do to change the student’s racist attitude. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 109. When a natural disaster strikes, members of a community who previously distrusted or fought with each other often work together to deal with the aftermath. Once the emergency is over, there is usually a decrease in prejudice as a result of ___________________________. a) the friendly competition fostered by the emergency team leaders b) cooperation brought on by the common goal c) sharing the near-death experience d) the scarcity of resources and abundance of problems Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 110. Based on Sherif's study, which would MOST likely bring about prejudice? a) Giving all group members the same prizes for taking part in games. b) Creating a superordinate goal that requires group responses. c) Introducing individual group members into opposing groups.

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d) Isolating groups from each other and setting up competitions. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 111. How could a teacher create a classroom environment to reduce/eliminate prejudiced thinking? a) encourage both competition and cooperation b) encourage competition over cooperation c) encourage cooperation over competition d) encourage neither competition nor cooperation Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 112. Which of the following is NOT one of the components of social identity theory? a) social categorization b) social identity c) social schema d) social comparison Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 113. Adam does not dislike people from Syria, but he feels uncomfortable interacting with his Syrian co-worker because he isn’t sure how to act. Which of the following is most relevant to Adam’s situation? a) social identity theory b) realistic conflict theory c) cognitive dissonance theory d) self-perception theory Answer: a

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 114. Sara has been living in Greece for eight years. When she first moved to Greece from Canada, she lived with a Greek family so she could learn about the appropriate cultural norms and behaviours. Now Sara no longer feels like an outsider. This illustrates the _______________ process of social identity theory. a) social categorization b) realistic conflict c) social identity d) social comparison Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 115. Jelena, an immigrant from Serbia living in Canada, is taking her friend Farida who is visiting from, India, to a new restaurant for lunch. After lunch, they order chocolate cake for dessert. Like Jelena the server is also Serbian. Based on social identity theory, what is the most likely possible outcome? a) The server wants to welcome Farida to Canada and, therefore, will give her a larger piece of cake. b) The server will honour Farida’s culture by giving her a larger piece of cake. c) The server will exhibit in-group bias and give Jelena the larger piece. d) The server will want to avoid the appearance of bias, so both women will receive equal portions of cake. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 116. Hichem listened to the prime minister give a speech and heard that there is a need for healthcare reform in Canada. Which element in this scenario is the source of persuasion? a) healthcare b) need for reform c) prime minister

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d) Hichem Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 117. Which of the following products is most likely to be marketed using the central route to persuasion? a) ice cream b) cars c) paper towels d) clothing Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 118. Which of the following products is most likely to be marketed using the peripheral route to persuasion? a) new condo development b) new gas efficient car c) new brand of potato chips d) new line of clothing Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 119. Which of the following products is most likely to use the peripheral route to persuasion? a) computers b) furniture c) toilet paper d) DVD players Answer: c

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 120. Which of the following products is most likely to use the central route to persuasion? a) computers b) golf shoes c) toilet paper d) frozen desserts Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 121. Which of the following groups is going to be most persuaded by peripheral route factors, such as attractiveness of the spokesperson? a) a group of auto workers who are being asked to make wage concessions b) a group of scientists who get together to discuss the issue of global warming c) a group of stay-at-home moms who are getting information on childhood health care d) a group of first-year college students who are being persuaded to decide between two distinct types of aid packages for Rwanda Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 122. Allie is watching television when a toothpaste commercial comes on claiming that three out of four dentists recommend their product over other products. Which of the following best describes the approach the toothpaste company is using to sell their product? a) They are using the peripheral route by using an expensive television ad campaign. b) They are using the foot-in-the-door approach. c) They are using characteristics of the source to persuade the audience. d) They are using the door-in-the face technique. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis

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Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 123. Soren has been hired by a political party to convince homeowners to allow his candidate to put a large, garish sign on their lawn. Which of the following persuasion techniques is most likely to be successful for Soren? a) Foot-in-the-door; first asking them to volunteer three times a week at the candidate’s election office. b) Door-in-the-face; first asking them to volunteer three times a week at the candidate’s election office. c) Central route to persuasion; telling them all about the candidate’s personal background and family. d) Peripheral route to persuasion; being attractive, friendly, and well dressed. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 124. Marlon is trying to convince his parents to lend him the car to go to a party. He tells his parents that he will be sure to have the car back to 4 a.m. After his parents refuse, he then says, “Ok, can I borrow it if I promise to bring the car home by midnight?” Which technique is Marlon using to persuade his parents to lend him the car? a) the foot-in-the-door technique b) the slow-and-steady technique c) the door-in-the-face technique d) the first-refusal technique Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 125. What is the difference between the central route and the peripheral routes to persuasion? a) The peripheral route is likely to cause behaviour to change much faster than the central route. b) The central route is likely to influence decisions much longer than the peripheral route. c) The central route is more likely influenced by the humour of the message than the peripheral route. d) The peripheral route is achieved by the door-in-the-face technique while the central route is achieved by the foot-in-the-door technique.

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Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 126. Saar has the most beautiful hair, but lately her shampoo has not been giving it the usual shine. She notices a commercial for shampoo while watching tv and the model has the most beautiful hair. Also, the bottle for the shampoo is unique and would match her bathroom. She decides to give that brand a try. What changed Saar’s attitude here? a) peripheral route to persuasion b) central route to persuasion c) foot-in-the-door technique d) door-in-the-face technique Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 127. The process by which a person is induced to perform larger and larger requests when demanded by others is known as a) socialization. b) the foot-in-the-door technique. c) relaxed moral guard. d) door-in-the-face technique. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 128. Which BEST defines the foot-in-the-door technique? a) The gradual way the compliance develops naturally in groups. b) Demands that move from large to small requests. c) Belief that only evil people can perpetrate evil actions. d) Demands that move from small to large requests. Answer: d

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 129. Kade’s old car has finally stopped working. Kade is looking at new cars assessing gas mileage, safety features, and is deciding whether to loan or to lease. Kade’s brother Grady is urging him to look at whether they have sunroofs, satellite radio, and whether they come in red. Kade is taking a _______ to persuading himself to buy a car and Grady is taking a _____ route. a) peripheral; central b) central; peripheral c) central; central d) peripheral; peripheral Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 130. Which of the following is NOT a technique that is used to persuade others? a) bogus pipeline technique b) foot-in-the-door technique c) door-in-the-face technique d) appeals to fear technique Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 131. Carlos asks his colleague for two dollars to buy a cup of coffee. After his colleague says yes, he then asks for ten dollars to buy a sandwich as well. Which of the following persuasion techniques is Carlos using? a) bogus pipeline technique b) foot-in-the-door technique c) door-in-the-face technique d) appeals-to-guilt technique Answer: b

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 132. Which expresses the main idea behind the foot-in-the-door technique? a) People are socialized to be more obedient if someone is already in the room. b) Sometimes a person can be persuaded gradually. c) If you start with a large request, people will obey because they think it is important. d) When you assume people will respond, they are more likely to obey without question. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 133. The foot-in-the-door technique uses the idea that a person often a) is highly motivated to try something new. b) forms a bond with the requester. c) will do something because someone else is. d) wants to impress positively an authority figure. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 134. Hugo asks his father to co-sign a loan for $60,000 for a new truck. After his father refuses, he asks him to co-sign a loan for $5000 for a used car. Which of the following persuasion techniques is Hugo using? a) bogus pipeline technique b) foot-in-the-door technique c) door-in-the-face technique d) appeals-to-guilt technique Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour.

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Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 135. What is the difference between the foot-in-the-door technique and the door-in-the-face technique? a) The foot-in-the-door first makes a large request and then a larger request, whereas the doorin-the-face first makes a small request and then a smaller request. b) The foot-in-the-door first makes a small request and then a smaller request, whereas the door-in-the-face first makes a large request and then a larger request. c) The foot-in-the-door first makes a small request and then a large request, whereas the doorin-the-face first makes a large request and then a small request. d) The foot-in-the-door first makes a large request and then a small request, whereas the doorin-the-face first makes a small request and then a large request. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 136. Attribution is BEST described as a) explaining our own and others’ actions. b) maintaining positive self-esteem. c) noticing the most obvious factors in others. d) responding to a particular object in a particular way. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 137. Attribution is a) how we explain our own and others’ actions. b) how we think about and interpret ourselves and others. c) the learned predisposition to respond cognitively, affectively, and behaviorally to a particular object, person, place, thing, or event in an evaluative way. d) the study of how others influence our thoughts, feelings, and actions, as well as group and intergroup dynamics. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss how people make attributions to explain their own behaviour and

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the behaviour of others. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attributions 138. An attribution is ___. a) a predisposition to respond to people and objects in several ways b) the tendency to explain other people’s behaviour in terms of their personal dispositions c) a set of rules about how people are supposed to behave d) an attempt to explain the reason behind people’s actions Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss how people make attributions to explain their own behaviour and the behaviour of others. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attributions 139. Attributions are best defined as a) causal explanations of our own or another’s behaviour. b) impressions about an individual based on observing their behaviour. c) motivational forces that drive behaviour. d) environmental stimuli that affect behaviour. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss how people make attributions to explain their own behaviour and the behaviour of others. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attributions 140. Traci was shocked recently when she watched her friend, Lauren, repeatedly experience road rage after another driver cut her off or slowed her down when she was late for an appointment. Traci’s role in these events was that of a(n) a) observer. b) actor. c) onlooker. d) bystander. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss how people make attributions to explain their own behaviour and the behaviour of others. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attributions

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141. When Jerry saw an unknown man on the sidewalk stagger and fall Jerry assumed that the man was drunk. This causal explanation for another person’s behaviour is known as _________________. a) social cognition b) groupthink c) attitudes d) attribution Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss how people make attributions to explain their own behaviour and the behaviour of others. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attributions 142. Which of the following individuals is making a situational attribution? a) Eliza, who says that she passed her drivers test because she is an excellent driver b) Shen, who says he cannot throw the Frisbee because it is too windy c) Bentley, who says he can cook because he grew up around cooking in his family’s restaurant d) Zhu, who says that she won the volunteer of the year award because she is dedicated to helping others Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss how people make attributions to explain their own behaviour and the behaviour of others. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attributions 143. Which of the following is an example of a dispositional factor? a) You witnessed a person swerving around the road while driving and assume that the person was irresponsibly texting. b) You watch a person respond rudely to a server in a restaurant and feel sympathy for the patron because you know the service at this restaurant is generally slow. c) You see a child throwing a tantrum and think that the child is probably overtired and needs a nap. d) You see someone walking slowly across the street and wait patiently, assuming they have some type of injury that is causing him/her to move at such a slowly pace. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss how people make attributions to explain their own behaviour and the behaviour of others. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attributions

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144. Carlos noticed that Owen received a low score on his last biology exam and assumed that Owen’s poor test performance was due to laziness. What type of attribution did Carlos make about Owen? a) social b) behavioural c) situational d) dispositional Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss how people make attributions to explain their own behaviour and the behaviour of others. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attributions 145. Which of the following reflects a clear dispositional attribution? a) “He did his best.” b) “Under the circumstances, it was all he could do.” c) “Well, everybody else was doing it.” d) “He must have gotten bad advice.” Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss how people make attributions to explain their own behaviour and the behaviour of others. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attributions 146. In an experiment by Jones and Harris, people were presented with either a pro-Castro speech or an anti-Castro speech. When people were told that the pro-Castro writer’s position had been assigned, NOT chosen, people a) made a situational attribution about the writer’s beliefs. b) made a dispositional attribution about the writer’s beliefs. c) made the same attribution for the pro-Castro speech as for the anti-Castro speech. d) made just as strong an internal disposition as when they believed the writer’s position to be freely chosen. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss how people make attributions to explain their own behaviour and the behaviour of others. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attributions

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147. The tendency to use dispositional attributions to explain the behaviour of other people is called a) the self-serving bias. b) the fundamental attribution error. c) a self-fulfilling prophecy. d) the actor-observer effect. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss how people make attributions to explain their own behaviour and the behaviour of others. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attributions 148. Frankie is at her physician’s office. While there, Frankie observes the administrative assistant crying hysterically. She is shocked at such unprofessional behavior in the workplace. After questioning her doctor later, Frankie learns that the administrative assistant had just received news that her mother had been killed in an accident. What is implied here? a) Frankie Initially made the fundamental attribution error. b) Frankie was experiencing self-serving bias. c) Frankie was in a state of cognitive dissonance. d) Frankie was experiencing the actor-observer effect. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss how people make attributions to explain their own behaviour and the behaviour of others. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attributions 149. Jocelyn aced a test and is making a situational attribution. Which of the following could he be saying about the test? a) “I’m exceptionally brilliant and knew my stuff.” b) “I am good at this subject.” c) “The prof told us what to study.” d) “I studied really hard and it paid off.” Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss how people make attributions to explain their own behaviour and the behaviour of others. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attributions 150. When we explain our successes, we tend to use a(n) ___ attribution, but when we explain

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our failures, we tend to use a(n) ___ attribution. a) self-serving; fundamental b) positive; negative c) dispositional; situational d) external; internal Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss how people make attributions to explain their own behaviour and the behaviour of others. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attributions83b. 151. What is the difference between a situational and a dispositional attribution? a) A situational attribution can be used to explain the behaviour of others, while a dispositional attribution can be used to explain the behaviour of ourselves. b) A situational attribution is used in the fundamental attribution error, while a dispositional attribution is used in the self-serving bias. c) A situational attribution is used to explain a success, while a dispositional attribution is used to explain a failure. d) A situational attribution directs the cause of behaviour to something external to the individual, while a dispositional attribution directs the cause of behaviour to something internal to the individual. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss how people make attributions to explain their own behaviour and the behaviour of others. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attributions 152. Maria and Kate were at the local farm market when they saw a woman slip an apple into her bag without paying for it. Maria commented on how immoral the woman was to steal, while Kate commented that perhaps the woman was hungry and did not have any money. Maria has explained the woman’s behaviour using a(n) ____________ attribution. Kate has explained the woman’s behaviour using a(n) ________________ attribution. a) fundamental; circumstantial b) circumstantial; fundamental c) dispositional; situational d) situational; dispositional Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss how people make attributions to explain their own behaviour and the behaviour of others.

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Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attributions 153. Dr. McIntyre’s introductory psychology class did poorly on their first test of the semester. Dr. McIntyre tells them that they need to study harder, and the students start complaining that the test was too hard. Dr. McIntyre is making an ___ attribution for the failure, and her students are making an ___ attribution for the failure. a) internal; internal b) external; external c) internal; external d) external; internal Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss how people make attributions to explain their own behaviour and the behaviour of others. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attributions 154.Cory hits the side view mirror of another car while trying to park and thinks, "Wow, that person parked really crooked". Cory later sees another driver hit someone else’s bumper while trying to park. If he is affected by the actor-observer effect, what is his likely reaction? a) Cory thinks, “Wow, that person is a bad driver”. b) Cory thinks, “I wonder if that car is crooked too”. c) Cory thinks, “Cars should be made smaller, then we wouldn’t hit each other so much”. d) Cory thinks, “I guess we have something in common”. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss how people make attributions to explain their own behaviour and the behaviour of others. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attributions 155. Cassie and Lyndsey are both on the subway but are strangers to one another. Lyndsey has her three children with her, and the children are crying and screaming. Cassie thinks "Boy, that woman is a terrible mother; my children always sit quietly on the subway because I am a better mother". Cassie does not realize that Lyndsey and her family are returning from the hospital where their father/husband just died. Cassie’s attribution is an example of a) the actor-observer effect. b) a self-serving bias. c) a saliency bias. d) cognitive dissonance. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium

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Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss how people make attributions to explain their own behaviour and the behaviour of others. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attributions 156. Justin found it hilarious when a woman fell flat on her backside after slipping on the icy sidewalk. He thought, "She should step more carefully". Ten minutes later when he found himself face first in the snow mound, he thought, "Who put this snow mound in the path of pedestrians? They should be sued". What has Justin just experienced? a) the actor-observer effect b) cognitive dissonance c) saliency bias d) self-serving bias Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss how people make attributions to explain their own behaviour and the behaviour of others. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attributions 157. Mark adopts an adorable kitten from the local shelter but returns it several days later after his young daughter has a severe allergic reaction to it. His neighbor, Jarrod, is unaware of the circumstances, and believes Mark to be an irresponsible pet owner but Mark knows that he is being a good father. Which of the following phenomena explains this difference between Mark and Jarrod’s attributions about Mark’s behaviour? a) actor-observer effect b) cognitive dissonance c) fundamental attribution error d) self-serving bias Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss how people make attributions to explain their own behaviour and the behaviour of others. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attributions 158. In considering her own failure to complete her part of a joint project on time, Lucy cites a recent illness. Which attribution could Lucy make regarding her project partner Ken's mutual inability to complete his part of the project on time that demonstrates the actor-observer effect? a) Ken had the same illness at the same time. b) Ken suffered a recent family emergency. c) Ken had a number of competing assignments. d) Ken is undependable and unpredictable.

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Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss how people make attributions to explain their own behaviour and the behaviour of others. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attributions 159. According to the actor-observer effect, what do you predict would happen if you were shown a video of yourself parking your car compared to if you were actually parking the car? a) You would more likely switch from observer to actor with the video. b) You would more likely make situational attributions with the video. c) You would more likely make the fundamental attribution error with the video. d) You would more likely succumb to the self-serving bias with the video. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Discuss how people make attributions to explain their own behaviour and the behaviour of others. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attributions 160. Jenn has known Jayden for years and views him as an irresponsible clown who goofs off. Through chance, Jenn finds herself in attendance at a workshop where Jayden is presenting. She is stunned at his no-nonsense manner and how serious and articulate he is. Jenn tells Jayden ’s co-worker, Denzel, that she has only ever seen him as a joker, and Denzel is equally surprised to hear Jenn’s perspective. What is the best explanation for the contrasting perceptions of Jayden held by Jenn and Denzel? a) Jenn and Denzel are both guilty of committing the fundamental attribution error, in which they have failed to consider circumstantial factors influencing Jayden ’s behavior. b) Jenn and Denzel are both guilty of the saliency bias, since they have failed to focus on less obvious personality factors in Jayden, such as the fact that he is both serious and sarcastic. c) Jenn and Denzel are both guilty of the self-serving bias since they have externalized the perceived causes of Jayden ’s behavior across different settings. d) Jenn and Denzel are both guilty of the actor-observer effect since they have had “tunnel vision” in only being able to view Jayden ’s behavior in the specific setting in which they have worked with him. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Discuss how people make attributions to explain their own behaviour and the behaviour of others. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attributions 161. The difference between how we explain our own behaviour and how we explain the

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behaviour of another is called a) the mere exposure effect. b) the fundamental attribution error. c) the self-serving bias. d) the actor-observer effect. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss how people make attributions to explain their own behaviour and the behaviour of others. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attributions 162. Holly lost her homework, which was a rare occurrence. While speaking to her professor about the situation, another student in the class mentioned that he had lost his homework as well. Holly concluded that the other student had not really lost his homework—he was using the excuse because he had not done his homework at all. What attribution process is illustrated by this example? a) actor-observer effect b) self-serving bias c) dispositional d) extinction Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss how people make attributions to explain their own behaviour and the behaviour of others. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attributions 163. Amelia is driving behind someone who is unbelievably slow. In fact, they are consistently driving 20 km under the speed limit, and there is no way to pass. Amelia starts to get frustrated and thinks that this person must be an idiot. She finally gets to her destination and once there discovers that, as a surprise, her friend got her a goldfish in a bowl. Preparing to go home, Amelia puts the fish on the passenger seat for her return trip, but she is very careful to drive extra slowly so she does not spill the water. She notices some idiot tail gating her, and she gets frustrated, thinking about how she cannot speed and risk spilling the water. Which of the following terms best describes Amelia’s two driving situations? a) the situational-dispositional hypothesis b) the fundamental attribution error c) the actor-observer effect d) the self-serving bias Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Learning Objective: Discuss how people make attributions to explain their own behaviour and the behaviour of others. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attributions 164. The actor-observer effect states that ___. a) as actors, we tend to make dispositional attributions about ourselves b) as observers, we tend to observe the whole situation when we are explaining other people’s behaviours c) as actors, we tend to make whichever attribution is most favourable when explaining our own behaviour d) when people switch from actor to observer, or vice versa, their attributions also tend to switch Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss how people make attributions to explain their own behaviour and the behaviour of others. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attributions 165. How is the actor-observer effect like the fundamental attribution error? a) They both argue that the self-serving bias only occurs with failures and not successes. b) They both say that we use dispositional attribution to explain the behaviour of other people. c) They both believe that the mere exposure effect can influence attributions. d) They both focus on situational attributions rather than dispositional. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss how people make attributions to explain their own behaviour and the behaviour of others. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attributions 166. Aldiyar’s friend tells him that he recently backed his car into another vehicle. Aldiyar thinks his friend is very careless. Which of the following is demonstrated by this example? a) actor-observer bias b) self-serving bias c) fundamental attribution error d) situational bias Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss how people make attributions to explain their own behaviour and the behaviour of others. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attributions

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167. Dr. Pamukl is a brilliant lecturer who strongly prefers spending time alone reading to being in the company of other people. Despite being so introverted, however, she is very outgoing while lecturing in front of her class. In fact, she is so outgoing during her lectures that her students have concluded that she is an extrovert. What error have they committed when they label her an extrovert? a) saliency bias b) self-serving error c) faulty judgment error d) fundamental attribution error Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss how people make attributions to explain their own behaviour and the behaviour of others. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attributions 168. You and a friend are watching a news story about a young man who killed his father. Your friend comments that the young man must be a “monster”. Your friend’s comment reflects a) a fundamental attribution error. b) a self-serving bias. c) the self-protecting bias. d) the observer attribution error. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss how people make attributions to explain their own behaviour and the behaviour of others. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attributions 169. Which of the following individuals is showing the fundamental attribution error? a) Ariane, who believes that her boyfriend cries whenever he feels sensitive b) Darian, who believes the waiter spilled her drink because he is clumsy c) Zaida, who believes that she ran over a dog because she was texting while driving d) Addison, who believes that she won a sprinting race because she had consumed 5 espressos 30 minutes prior to race time Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss how people make attributions to explain their own behaviour and the behaviour of others. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attributions

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170. An important purpose of the self-serving bias is to a) demonstrate we are better than others in certain situations. b) praise ourselves for success and avoid blame for failure. c) recognize the effect of our own dispositional characteristics. d) place the cause of our behaviors on environmental factors. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss how people make attributions to explain their own behaviour and the behaviour of others. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attributions 171. Rose’s colleague asks Rose for her opinion about their new employee, Milton. Rose knows that although Milton has been bragging about landing two big new clients, both clients are his relatives. She has also seen Milton blame others for several mistakes he made. How should Rose advise her colleague? a) Rose should suggest Milton is not a team player, is motivated by a self-serving bias, and will likely try to take credit for success and blame others for failure. b) Rose should employ the actor-observer effect, and first observe how Milton acts with her colleague before offering her opinion. c) Rose should be unaffected by saliency bias and understand that Milton’s behavior is part of the corporate culture. d) Rose should be careful of the fundamental attribution error; she should suggest that her colleague observe Milton in a social situation before formulating an opinion. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss how people make attributions to explain their own behaviour and the behaviour of others. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attributions 172. Corbin prides himself on being a great cook. He gladly takes credit for having made the tastiest dishes on the block. However, when he brings a casserole to a potluck, the recipe is a failure. Corbin explains that it must be because his oven was malfunctioning. What is implied here? a) Corbin is guilty of the self-serving bias. b) Corbin is guilty of the saliency bias. c) Corbin has committed the fundamental attribution error. d) Corbin is in a state of cognitive dissonance. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium

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Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss how people make attributions to explain their own behaviour and the behaviour of others. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attributions 173. Aki lives in Japan and is constantly aware of his need to work harder to overcome his lack of focus. He knows his family will be judged by his actions and he wishes to bring them honor. Adam, a New Yorker, is struggling to break into the music world; he knows that he will be judged on his own creativity and acumen. What is a likely difference between Aki and Adam? a) Adam is more susceptible to self-serving bias than Aki. b) Aki is more susceptible to self-serving bias than Adam. c) Adam would feel cognitive dissonance more intensely than Aki. d) Aki would feel cognitive dissonance more intensely than Adam. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss how people make attributions to explain their own behaviour and the behaviour of others. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attributions 174. What is a critical difference between people living in cultures promoting individualism and people living in cultures promoting being a part of a social network? a) People living in cultures promoting individualism are more likely to experience the self-serving bias than people living in cultures promoting a social network. b) People living in cultures promoting individualism are more likely to experience the saliency bias than people living in cultures promoting a social network. c) People living in cultures promoting individualism are more likely to experience the actorobserver effect than people living in cultures promoting a social network. d) People living in cultures promoting individualism are more likely to experience the fundamental attribution error than people living in cultures promoting a social network. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss how people make attributions to explain their own behaviour and the behaviour of others. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attributions 175. What is the difference between the fundamental attribution error and the self-serving bias? a) The fundamental attribution error involves attributions of other people, whereas the selfserving bias involves attributions of our own behaviour. b) The fundamental attribution error involves situational attributions, whereas the self-serving bias involves dispositional attributions. c) The fundamental attribution error involves attributions of our own behaviour, whereas the selfserving bias involves how we attribute others’ behaviour to ourselves.

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d) The fundamental attribution error uses faulty logic to attribute behaviour, whereas the selfserving bias attributes others’ behaviour to whatever serves us best. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss how people make attributions to explain their own behaviour and the behaviour of others. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attributions 176. After he failed a math exam, you blame your friend for not studying harder rather than finding out whether he was ill or stressed. Your assignment of blame is known as the ______________. a) the actor-observer effect. b) fundamental attribution error. c) the mere-exposure effect. d) saliency bias. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss how people make attributions to explain their own behaviour and the behaviour of others. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attributions 177. Which of the following individuals is showing the self-serving bias? a) Eira, who believed that she passed a test because it was easy but then believed she failed her assignment because her prof marked it unfairly b) Hannah, who believes the waiter spilled her drink because he was clumsy but believed when she spilled her own drink it was because the glass was slippery c) Rupan, who believes that when she swerved to avoid hitting a deer, she missed due to her fast reflexes but then ended up going off the road because the sun got in her eyes d) Sacha, who believes that she dropped a glass because she was clumsy but then washed a sink full of glasses because she felt guilty Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss how people make attributions to explain their own behaviour and the behaviour of others. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attributions 178. When Rani got an “A” on her biology exam she thought it was because she was so intelligent. However, when she got a “F” on her computer science exam she thought it was because the professor was such a poor lecturer. In thinking about her successes and failures in

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this way, Rani is using the a) social identity theory. b) fundamental attribution error. c) actor-observer effect. d) self-serving bias. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss how people make attributions to explain their own behaviour and the behaviour of others. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attributions 179. When Avery failed the bar exam, he claimed that it was because he was sick that day. When he passed the second time, he claimed it was because he just has a knack for the law and really understands details in contracts and policies. What is the best reason for how Avery explains his attempts at the bar exam? a) the self-serving bias b) the fundamental attribution error c) the actor-observer effect d) the situational-dispositional hypothesis Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss how people make attributions to explain their own behaviour and the behaviour of others. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attributions 180. Which of the following is true about the attributions we make about other people’s actions? a) When we are evaluating other people’s actions, we tend to take their situation into account. b) The more we know about people’s situations, the less likely we are to make dispositional attributions. c) When we are making attributions about others’ behaviour, we typically try to give people the benefit of the doubt. d) We are likely to blame people for their failures, but we are likely to attribute their successes to external factors, such as luck. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss how people make attributions to explain their own behaviour and the behaviour of others. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attributions

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181. What is a social norm? a) rules about how everyone is supposed to act b) behaviours that result in unpleasantness c) behaviours that are passive d) all the above Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 182. A norm can be defined as a a) decision by a group of people in a culture. b) group of people one admires and wants to emulate. c) way of behaving that is supported by a culture. d) choice one makes to fit into a group. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 183. Which BEST describes how norms are communicated in a culture? a) By stated comments of the right and wrong ways to behave in certain situations. b) By observed actions of people that are exhibited in the culture as a whole. c) By watching other people to see if they behave the way they promote verbally. d) By listening to leaders and respected elders to learn what the culture expects. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 184. What type of social role is most often attributed to men in Western societies? a) communal b) agentic c) positive d) negative

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Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 185. Davad is a lawyer and his partner, Keaton stays home to take care of their three children. Some people may think that Keaton is violating ___ roles by NOT also working outside of the home. a) communal b) agentic c) gender d) normative Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss how people make attributions to explain their own behaviour and the behaviour of others. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attributions 186. Javier sees flashing lights behind him and pulls to the right to allow an emergency vehicle to pass. Javier is paying attention to ___. a) a descriptive norm b) an injunctive norm c) an implicit norm d) an explicit norm Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 187. Marie is in a rush to get to the airport and is frustrated that the taxi driver keeps stopping to allow pedestrians to cross the street at crosswalks. She feels the pedestrians could wait another minute. However, the taxi driver is following a(n) a) explicit norm. b) implicit norm. c) social rule. d) referential norm. Answer: a

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 188. Which of the following is the best example of an injunctive norm? a) Drivers are prohibited from parking within 10 feet of fire hydrants. b) Drivers are encouraged to be courteous and help other drivers merge into traffic. c) The city has posted a sign in front of the hospital entrance telling drivers of waiting cars to turn off their engines. d) Drivers who are coming up in traffic behind a police car will not pass the police car very often. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 189. After eating a bag of potato chips, Meade throws the bag on the sidewalk. Which of the following types of norms has Meade violated? a) descriptive b) injunctive c) implicit d) explicit Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss how people make attributions to explain their own behaviour and the behaviour of others. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attributions 190. The expectations of duties or mode of conduct that we ascribe to a person due to their social position is/are called a) obedience. b) a social role. c) norms. d) conformity. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

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Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 191. Which of the following is FALSE about gender differences and social skills? a) Males are better at reading subtle emotional expressions. b) Males are typically leaders in group activities. c) Males adopt a less participative style in group activities. d) Females are more expressive with their faces and bodies. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss how people make attributions to explain their own behaviour and the behaviour of others. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attributions 192. Which of the following statements about roles is FALSE? a) People who step outside of traditional social roles are often judged harshly. b) Social roles are critical to the smooth functioning of society. c) A social role is a set of expectations and duties associated with the individual’s position. d) As social roles have changed, opportunities for advancement for women are at equity with those for men. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 193. Bryant was shocked when he saw a nun throw her gum wrapper on the sidewalk. This is because a) the social role associated with nuns does not fit with littering behaviour. b) nuns are supposed to conform to the expectations of others. c) obedience levels are typically higher among nuns than the general population. d) cognitive dissonance would predict that nuns would litter less often than others. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces

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194. YouTube has videos of dads learning to braid their daughter’s hair that get millions of views. This high interest is probably because a) the social role associated with dads does not fit with this type of nurturing behaviour. b) dads are supposed to conform to the expectations of others and so there is disapproval over this behaviour. c) the self-serving bias of dads makes this behaviour surprising. d) cognitive dissonance would predict that dads would engage in this type of behaviour less than moms. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 195. Regarding gender differences in emotional sensitivity, researchers believe that a) women are better at reading nonverbal social cues than men are. b) differences between men and women are grounded in biology and evolution. c) despite popular stereotypes, there are no statistically significant differences between the groups, only between individuals. d) men and women are equally skilled in these areas, but women are more likely to admit it. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 196. Which of the following best describes what was learned from the Stanford Prison experiment? a) People may initially adopt the role to which they are assigned but they quickly return to their own identity. b) People may initially adopt the role to which they are assigned, but after a short period of time they begin to question the decisions of those in authority. c) The findings of the study appear to predict behaviours in similar situations such as prison, or prisoner-of-war camps. d) There was little learned from this study because it was so ethically flawed the findings were tainted. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s

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behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 197. Which of the following is true about the Stanford Prison experiment? a) The effect of social roles on behaviour was not as strong as experimenters anticipated. b) Role playing is less likely to produce maladaptive behaviour than actual, legitimate roles. c) Social roles can have extreme effects on behaviour. d) The experiment was stopped because it lacked realistic conditions. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 198. Suppose that Isaac was a participant in the Stanford Prison experiment. Although the experiment was planned to take 14 days, Isaac ended up participating to the conclusion of the experiment, or for a) 21 days. b) 14 days. c) 10 days. d) 6 days. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 199. Although the Stanford Prison experiment was supposed to last __________, because of ethical concerns, it was cancelled after _______ days. a) ten days; four days b) ten days; six days c) two weeks; four days d) two weeks; six days Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces

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200. Philip Zimbardo conducted a study on a) obedience. b) social pressure. c) power of situations. d) socialization. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 201. Which of the following MOST clearly indicates that Zimbardo recognized the dangers of group behavior patterns in his study? a) Zimbardo gave the guards only billy clubs as weapons. b) Zimbardo screened participants and chose well-adjusted men. c) Zimbardo stopped the study before the allotted time expired. d) Zimbardo interviewed the students after to help them adjust. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 202. The MOST important reason that Zimbardo changed the time limit on his study was that he had a) already determined how groups can affect individuals' behaviors. b) observed severe psychological reactions and alarming behaviors. c) observed everything possible in a shorter time period than expected. d) recognized the need to extend the time in order to observe some change. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 203. Which of the following results of Zimbardo's study was likely MOST surprising to Zimbardo? a) The participants who were "prisoners" did not protest the treatment given to them at the start

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of the study. b) The study resulted in a recognition that people respond not only as individuals but according to their roles. c) The "guards" became so involved in their roles they abused their power to a frightening extent. d) The "prisoners" actually became passive and depressed when treated poorly by the "guards." Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 204. Zimbardo has been quoted as saying, "The situation won. Humanity lost". What does this mean? a) The power of situations rests with the dynamics of the group and therefore cannot be controlled by any one person. b) The power of situations can override a person’s moral beliefs and good sense. c) The power of the situation occurs because the norms within a group will override individual concerns and wishes. d) Human beings are not meant to exist in isolation. The power of the situation is innate. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 205. A parent whose child has been accused of a criminal act passionately fights against placing the child in a juvenile confinement facility. Which of the following is correct and could BEST justify the parent's stand for keeping the child outside of such a facility unless proven guilty? a) Milgram's study showed that the farther a person is away from a situation, the less likely the person will conform. b) Hergovich and Olbrich demonstrated that a highly cohesive group has a strong desire for agreement that might cause them to ignore outsiders' points of view. c) Asch proved that behavior can be effectively improved as a result of real or imagined group pressure. d) Zimbardo demonstrated that demands of roles and situations can produce dramatic changes in behavior or beliefs in short periods of time. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation

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Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 206. Milgram's and Zimbardo's studies suggest that people a) can be adversely affected by taking part in experiments. b) are often unwilling to take part in experiments. c) dislike having to receive punishment as part of experiments. d) will behave without considering personal morals in experiments. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 207. The tendency to yield to real or imagined social pressure is called ___. a) compliance b) conformity c) obedience d) acceptance Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 208. The conformity experiment using a perceptual line-judging task was done by a) Newcomb. b) Milgram. c) Asch. d) Sherif. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 209. In Asch’s conformity experiment,

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a) groups of all sizes produced conformity behaviour. b) the task was so obvious that only one quarter of the people were fooled into going along with the group. c) all the people in the group were actual volunteer participants. d) having just one other person defy the group dramatically reduced conformity. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 210. In Asch’s line-judging experiment, a) participants were assigned to be either prisoners or guards in a mock prison experiment. b) participants were bullied into going along with the group. c) participants were presented with a series of lines and asked to pick the one that matched the target line. d) participants were put in a dark room and asked to estimate how far a pinpoint of light moved. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 211. Ariba is participating in a replication of Asch’s study. Which of the following manipulations would decrease the tendency for her to conform? a) The group said the obvious wrong answer. b) The group was unanimous. c) The group had less than four people. d) The group was made up entirely of females. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 212. Which of the following would be least likely to conform in Asch’s experiment? a) Laia, a female, in a group of three, choosing between five lines b) Umut, a male, in a group of six, choosing between five lines c) Darius, a male, in a group of six, choosing between two lines

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d) Ji-hun, a male, in a group of three, choosing between two lines Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 213. What percentage of Asch’s participants conformed to group pressure during his classic experiment? a) 75% b) 65% c) 57% d) 41% Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 214. Erik and his friends are studying for their chemistry test. Another student comes up to the group and offers to give them the test answers. Erik’s friends are excited, but Erik thinks it is a bad idea. Eventually his friends convince Erik to look at the test answers. This is an example of a) conformity. b) obedience. c) relaxed moral guard. d) deindividuation. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 215. Speaking broadly, individualistic cultures view conformity ___; collective cultures view conformity ___. a) negatively; negatively b) negatively; positively c) positively; negatively d) positively; positively

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Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 216. Maria is a confident, successful woman who has held numerous leadership roles throughout her lifetime. She is on a search committee to hire a new professor and finds that the other five committee members disagree with her choice of candidate. Predict how Maria will react. a) Maria is unlikely to conform to the situation because she is both confident in her abilities and a natural born leader. b) Maria is unlikely to conform to the situation because she does not have the personality necessary to have a relaxed moral guard. c) Maria is likely to conform to the situation because she will strive for the acceptance and approval of others in the group. d) Maria is likely to conform to the situation because she has a very impressionable personality and will look for guidance from the group. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 217. Tommy is 32 years old and has worked at the same job since he got out of college. He enjoys his work, and he is good at it. Tommy does NOT have many friends at work, but he goes out with some of his coworkers on Friday nights. One night his coworkers try to get Tommy to prank their boss at his house. Tommy does NOT like the idea. Which of the following BEST explains what Tommy is likely to do and why? a) Tommy is likely to go along with his coworkers’ plans because he will want their approval more than he will worry about his boss’ reaction. b) Tommy is likely to go along with his coworkers’ plans because he respects them more than he respects his boss. c) Tommy is unlikely to go along with his coworkers’ plans because he will value his boss more than his coworkers. d) Tommy is unlikely to go along with his coworkers’ plans because he is confident enough to resist their attempts to convince him. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour.

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Section Reference: Social Forces 218. Sandy started hanging out with a group of her peers at the beginning of 9th grade. Within a few weeks of this new friendship, Sandy stopped wearing the baggy jeans and shirts she used to wear and started wearing clothes that were closer to her actual size. Additionally, she started wearing makeup like the other girls in the group. What is Sandy’s new behaviour an example of? a) conformity b) obedience c) group polarization d) deindividuation Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 219. Corbin’s closest friends, who all have crew cuts, are always giving him grief about his long hair. He generally laughs and ignores them. When he goes home for Thanksgiving his father takes one look at him and tells him that he needs to look cleaner cut, like his brothers, before his grandparents arrive. Corbin cuts his hair that night. What is this an example of? a) obedience b) conformity c) group polarization d) attitude-shift phenomenon Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 220. Obedience is best defined as a) social rules about how members are expected to behave. b) the tendency to yield to social pressure. c) the act of following direct commands given by an authority figure. d) the expectations and duties associated with a person’s social position. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s

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behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 221. Which of the following is the BEST example of obedience? a) Leaving a building because everyone else is leaving. b) Selecting a product because an actor tells you it is good. c) Waiting at the crosswalk until the sign tells you to walk. d) Voting for a specific candidate following her rousing speech. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 222. Who conducted the famous study of obedience? a) Asch b) Milgram c) Skinner d) Watson Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 223. What was the purpose of the study by Stanley Milgram? a) To demonstrate that participants would shock other participants. b) To observe how punishment affected the learners' responses. c) To test how punishment affected the ability to remember. d) To determine the extent to which participants would obey. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 224. In Milgram’s original obedience experiment, a) participants were randomly assigned to be either the teacher or the learner.

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b) the teacher was able to both hear and see the learner. c) the teacher was punished by the experimenter if he refused to continue administering shocks. d) the learner mentioned that he had a heart condition before the experiment began. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 225. The participants who were recruited for Milgram’s experiment thought they were participating in a study about ___. a) obedience b) learning c) group influence d) attributions Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 226. In Milgram’s obedience experiment, what percentage of participants cooperated all the way to 450 volts? a) 33 b) 55 c) 65 d) 80 Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 227. In Milgram’s ground-breaking study on obedience, what percentage of participants stopped administering shocks prior to reaching the highest level? a) 100 b) 75 c) 65 d) 35

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Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 228. When Milgram showed his experimental design to psychologists before beginning his experiment, they predicted that ___ of the people would cooperate all the way to 450 volts. a) 0% b) 1% c) 10% d) most Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 229. Suppose that Finn was a participant in Milgram’s study on obedience. If he responded in this study as most people did, what did he do? a) Shocked the learner with the maximum voltage level. b) Stopped shocking the learner after the learner complained of heart problems. c) Stopped shocking the learner as soon as they expressed that they wanted to quit. d) Refused to participate once he knew what he was going to be required to do and he did not administer any shocks to the learner. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 230. Suppose that Agustin is a participant in Milgram’s study on obedience. Which of the following manipulations would decrease the likelihood that Augustin obeys to the highest shock level? a) if the learner was in the next room beside Augustin b) if Augustin had to put the learner’s hand on the shock plate to administer the shock c) if the authority figure seemed legitimate d) if the learner’s suffering was less apparent

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Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 231. Gemma proposes to replicate Milgram’s study as part of her graduate school research. Which of the following would her supervisor be least likely to tell her about her proposal? a) The original research was unethical and should not be replicated. b) The results were not reliable. Follow-up studies have shown that females would not follow the experimenter’s orders. c) There are many factors that Milgram did not consider when he conducted his research. d) Despite several factors that Milgram did not consider, she will likely find that many people would still administer the shock to participants. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 232. Which of the following statements was reported from Milgram’s follow-up studies? a) Women were less likely than men to inflict shock to the 450-volt maximum. b) When the experiment was moved to a commercial location not connected to a university, fewer than 20% of participants cooperated to the 450-volt maximum. c) When the teacher was required to place the learner’s hand on a shock plate, 30% of participants still participated to the 450-volt maximum. d) Even when a confederate posed as another participant and defied the experimenter, 20% of participants still participated to the 450-volt maximum. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 233. Milgram’s studies identified many variables associated with a reduction in obedience. Which of the following findings below is accurate? a) If a “co-teacher” refused to continue the majority of real participants also refused. b) If the learner-victim was further from the participant the majority of participants became concerned about the learner’s welfare. c) If the learner’s face was hidden from view the majority of participants refused to continue.

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d) If the experimenter was direct and consistent the majority of participants refused to obey. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 234. The main ethical issue people had with Milgram's study was that a) participants were not informed of the true intent of the experiment. b) participants were both deceived and distressed by the experiment. c) learners suffered at the hands of the teachers. d) learners should not have received shocks for giving wrong answers. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 235. Which statement is accurate in describing conformity? a) Obedience to social norms increases when an authority figure is missing. b) Obedience to social norms increases when an authority figure is present. c) Obedience to social norms remains stable when an authority figure is present. d) Obedience to social norms remains stable when an authority figure is missing. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 236. What is the difference between conformity and obedience? a) Conformity involves a direct request, whereas obedience involves an indirect request. b) Conformity is the response to a group, whereas obedience is the response to an individual person. c) Conformity assumes that social norms are obvious, whereas obedience assumes that social roles are apparent. d) Conformity is the tendency to yield to social pressure, whereas obedience is the act of following the direct commands of an authority figure. Answer: d

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 237. How are the Stanford Prison and Milgram’s obedience studies similar? a) They both ended far earlier than predicted – the Stanford Prison in time and Milgram’s in shock level. b) Neither of them would get ethics approval today. c) Neither of them had any participants drop out. d) They both revealed findings that were predicted in advance by a pool of expert psychologists. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 238. Which study(ies) showed that the pressure of a social force was decreased by the presence of a dissenter? a) Stanford Prison experiment b) Stanford Prison experiment and Milgram’s obedience study c) Milgram’s obedience study and Asch’s conformity study d) Festinger’s cognitive dissonance study and Asch’s conformity study Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 239. Which is the BEST synthesis of the factors that drive conformity? a) Conformity is the result of overt or subtle pressures imposed by other members of society. b) Conformity results from a person's need for acceptance, belief in another, or sense of responsibility to obey authority. c) Conformity results when a person sets aside his own beliefs and needs to better match those of the society around him. d) Conformity is the result of responding to normative social influence and the power of reference groups. Answer: a

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Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 240. Which is the BEST synthesis of the factors that drive conformity? a) Conformity depends upon the realization that other people know more about what to believe and how to behave than oneself. b) Conformity is the result of overt or subtle pressures imposed by other members of society. c) Conformity is caused by a person's need to respond in a positive way to another's ideas or direct orders. d) Conformity results from a person's need for acceptance, belief in another, or sense of responsibility to obey authority. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 241. Which statement BEST synthesizes the difference between Milgram's conclusions and later social psychologists' conclusions regarding behaviors in Milgram's study? a) Whereas Milgram focused on the effects of measurable components such as proximity and personal responsibility for administering shocks during the actual testing, later social psychologists cited cultural impacts such as socialization and relaxed moral ground that are far harder to measure. b) Whereas Milgram attributed the strongest behavior changes to conformity and responsibility, later social psychologists pointed to influences that had little to do with conforming to others' behaviors or taking responsibility for one's actions. c) Whereas Milgram theorized that teachers felt most comfortable following directions when they were not being observed by the experimenter or by other teachers, later social psychologists pointed strongly to the impact of gradually gaining obedience through socialization and deindividuation. d) Whereas Milgram proposed that behaviors during the testing were most affected by the actual test conditions, later social psychologists felt that Milgram's testing situation, which was essentially flawed by deception and discomfort, resulted in erroneous conclusions. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces

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242. Which of the following was NOT a factor identified by Milgram in follow-up studies important in reducing participant’s willingness to obey? a) The proximity of the participant to the victim (learner). b) How obvious the victim’s (learner’s) suffering was. c) The gender of the teacher. d) A confederate who served as a co-teacher refused to obey. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 243. Haslam and colleagues (2014) carried out a meta-analysis and identified eight factors that predicted whether a given individual would go all the way to 450 volts in Milgram’s experiment. All but one of the statements below correctly identify some of these eight factors. Which is INCORRECT? a) How direct, legitimate, and consistent the experimenter was perceived to be. b) Whether the ethnicity of learner, teacher, and experimenter was matched. c) The amount of proximity and/or intimacy between the teacher and the learner. d) The distance between the experimenter and the teacher. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 244. What characteristic(s) describe a group? a) interdependent b) stable c) Members are aware of one another. d) all the above Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 245. A group is best defined as a) an organized collection of people who share a common identity and influence one another.

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b) many people who are all participating toward a common goal. c) any set of individuals who share a common identity, work together toward a common goal, and have some similarity to each other. d) a gathering of people who share at least one characteristic and are participating toward a common goal. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 246. Which of the following is FALSE about groups? a) Group members share a common identity. b) Group members are interdependent. c) Group members are aware of each other. d) Group members share values and a common philosophy. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 247. Which of the following would be an example of an additive task? a) a debate team, each arguing a diverse perspective b) a group of hikers, each identifying favourite areas on a map for a future hike c) people canvassing door-to-door for a charity, each collecting for the same charity d) employees at an advertising agency, each with their own portfolio Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 248. Theo, Nathan, and Brent are going out to collect donations for a charity. Each of them is assigned a three-block area to go door-to-door to ask for donations. This would be an example of a(n) ______________ task. a) additive b) disjunctive c) conjunctive

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d) divisible Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 249. Half an hour before the store closes, Bryan’s boss asks him to put away a great deal of stock. Knowing that this would take hours, five other employees offer to help Bryan. This is an example of a/an ___ task. a) additive b) conjunctive c) disjunctive d) divisible Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 250. Carl’s home is going to be flooded by the rising creek due to record rainfall. Carl gets a group of neighbours together to fill sandbags to help keep the creek out of all their basements. What kind of task is this? a) disjunctive b) conjunctive c) additive d) subtractive Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 251. Which type of task results in a group being only as productive as its weakest member? a) divisible b) additive c) disjunctive d) conjunctive

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Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 252. Hiro is part of a group that is putting together a presentation. He is frustrated because one of the group members is not contributing as much as everyone else and seems to instead be relying on the more competent members of the group. Hiro has run into a problem that is typical of ___ tasks. a) additive b) conjunctive c) disjunctive d) divisible Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 253. Melanie is a member of a singing quartet. Although they sing together, each member has their own part to sing. The quality of their singing depends on each member being able to competently sing their part. This is an example of a(n) ______________ task. a) additive b) conjunctive c) disjunctive d) injunctive Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 254. Jillian and ten of her friends volunteer every year to put together baskets for families in need. They complete the task using an assembly-line type of system, so the task is completed quickly and efficiently. This would be an example of a/an ___ task. a) additive b) conjunctive c) disjunctive d) divisible

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Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 255. Derek is one of four psychology students working on a group project. The group decides that it would be more productive if each group member were responsible for writing a different section of the paper. When all the members have written their parts of the paper, Derek will be responsible for integrating everything into a single paper. This is an example of a(n) ______________ task. a) additive b) divisible c) conjunctive d) disjunctive Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 256. Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning groupthink? a) Highly cohesive groups will not succumb to groupthink problems. b) Groups need a directive leader, which typically reduces stress. c) Group members encourage thinking outside the box. d) Groups form incomplete options without examining the risks. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 257. Which activities of a group could likely result in groupthink? a) discussing relevant details b) planning research presentations c) avoiding inconsistent information d) listening to conflicting ideas Answer: c

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 258. Which of the following groups is LEAST likely to participate in groupthink? a) members of a family b) students at a college c) advisers to the military d) teachers at a school Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 259. Which of the following is an antecedent condition for groupthink? a) exposure to outside information b) indecisive leader c) high stress from external sources d) careful study of alternatives Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 260. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of groupthink? a) belief in basic goodness of the group b) feeling of invulnerability c) false idea of total agreement d) openness to dissenters' ideas Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations

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261. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of groupthink? a) pressure on disagreeing members b) feeling unprotected and at risk c) stereotypical portrayals of others d) self-censorship of conflicting ideas Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 262. Members of a company have a weighty decision to make. Which of the following procedures could be MOST effective to avoid a groupthink situation? a) Enlist additional members from management to attend the meeting and express their viewpoints along with the existing group. b) Appoint a second leader from within the group to comment upon and possibly redirect thinking processes. c) Begin discussions with two group members in a room, and then allow one member at a time to enter and express his or her opinion before further discussion. d) Remind group members that opinions and beliefs do not necessarily need to support the most commonly accepted approach to the issue. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 263. Members of a school system have an important decision to make. Which of the following procedures could be MOST effective to avoid a groupthink situation? a) Enlist additional teachers from different content areas to attend the meeting and express their viewpoints after they listen to those of the existing group. b) Appoint a committee from within the group to discuss the possibility of an alternative solution and present it to the group. c) Remind group members that opinions and beliefs do not necessarily need to support the most commonly accepted approach to the issue. d) Ask group members to submit ideas anonymously and in writing before the group discussion begins. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard

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Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 264. Dominic has a very close group of friends. Seth is the most outgoing, so he usually makes the decisions for the group. Tonight, the group of friends were supposed to be going to the movies, but Seth decided that they would break into the community pool instead. Dominic was worried about getting caught by the police, but everyone eventually agreed that that would never happen. This is an example of a) groupthink. b) deindividuation. c) obedience. d) socialization. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 265. Richard is a private investigator at a small firm that employs three other investigators. They generally only work together on very important, and sometimes dangerous cases. The four investigators have been through a great deal together, and since Richard is the most experienced, they usually turn to him for guidance. What is this team MOST likely to participate in? a) Richard and his team are likely to be involved in groupthink, because they have a clear leader and need to work together for the safety of the entire group. b) Richard and his team are likely to be involved in groupthink because they will share a relaxed moral guard due to the nature of their job. c) Richard is likely to dominate his team resulting in groupthink, causing the team members to break away from Richard. d) Richard and his team are likely to become embroiled in groupthink until they become a rogue group, following Richard’s commands for the good of the whole. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 266. Christian has been practicing the Rubik’s cube for months and his best time to solve a randomly mixed cube is 6.23 seconds. One day he enters a competition and must solve the cube in a competition against others, some of them world champions. Although Christian does

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not win the competition, he beats his best time by almost a second. Christian experienced a) social facilitation. b) social loafing. c) groupthink. d) group polarization. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 267. Which of the following is the best example of a situation that would result in social facilitation? a) A group of gun enthusiasts meet to discuss gun laws. b) A group of volunteers picks up garbage in a public park. c) A group of politicians decides how to vote on an upcoming issue. d) A group of students works together on a class project. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 268. When the presence of others improves our performance, it is called a) social facilitation. b) group productivity. c) group polarization. d) groupthink. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 269. Which of the following factors decreases social loafing? a) when the output of individual members is kept private b) when group members are all doing the same task c) when group members are fatigued d) when group members are reminded of their importance

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Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 270. Mpho dislikes doing group projects because there is always a member of the group that does NOT “pull their weight.” What social behaviour is described in this example? a) social facilitation b) modelling c) observational learning d) social loafing Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 271. Which of the following is the best example of a situation that would result in social loafing? a) A group of gun enthusiasts meeting to discuss changing gun laws in Canada. b) A group of volunteers developing an environmentally sound strategy for keeping parks clean. c) A group of Conservation politicians deciding how to vote on an upcoming issue. d) A group of students working together on a class project. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 272. In situations where group members must pool their efforts to achieve a goal, it is not uncommon for one or more group members to be “free riders.” This is typical of ___. a) social loafing b) groupthink c) social facilitation d) group polarization Answer: a Difficulty: Easy

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Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 273. Imagine you are a schoolteacher, and you are assigning a group project. Which of the following would most reduce social loafing? a) Have students work in larger groups so each person has less work. b) Have all group members involved in all parts of the assignment. c) Have each member clearly identify the parts of the assignment they work on. d) These would all reduce social loafing. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 274. Which of the following is not a factor that reduces social loafing? a) a large group b) a cohesive group c) when the output of each member is publicly identified d) when each member is given specific and challenging goals Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 275. Which of the following individuals is social loafing? a) Reuben, who was initially slightly against the new policy, but after the meeting, he is now whole heartedly against the new policy. b) Tenshie, who is working extra hard on her new hockey team to try and impress the coach. c) Randy, who is helping his buddies move a couch but is only pretending to lift his corner. d) Muriel, who decided not to help the woman who was crying on the subway. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations

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276. Which of the following is more inclined to display social loafing? a) Simone, a 22-year-old female from Canada b) Prisha, a 26-year-old female from India c) Minh, a 22-year-old male from Vietnam d) Eddie, a 26-year-old male from Britain Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 277. Social loafing is most likely to occur a) in women. b) in people from non-Western cultures. c) in large groups. d) in cohesive groups. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 278. The intensification of an initial tendency of individual group members that is caused by discussion within the group is called a) groupthink. b) group polarization. c) social loafing. d) group facilitation. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 279. What form of faulty group decision making occurs when group members strive too hard for unanimity? a) groupthink

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b) group polarization c) social loafing d) social facilitation Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 280. Which of the following would NOT be a situation in which the phenomenon of groupthink could occur? a) a military strategy session b) a jury meeting room c) a couple planning to get married d) groupthink can occur in all these situations Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 281. Which of the following is NOT required for the phenomenon of groupthink to occur? a) a strongly cohesive group b) a directive leader c) a devil's advocate who encourages debate d) insulation of the group from outside influences Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 282. Which of the following conditions does NOT lead to groupthink? a) low stress b) insulated from outside influence c) directive leader d) high group cohesiveness Answer: a

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 283. A group of anti-logging activists meet to discuss the problem of deforestation. Arising from this discussion about their next strategy, the group is likely to devise a plan that is ___ than the original beliefs of the individual members. a) more risky b) more conservative c) either riskier or more conservative d) about the same Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 284. A jury has just unanimously decided that a man is guilty of injuring a child while driving drunk. They now must decide how much compensation to award the family of the child for the injuries suffered. Which of the following is most likely to happen? a) The jury will award a smaller compensation as the group will want to balance out the guilty verdict. b) The jury will award a very large compensation as the group will tend to go to the extreme. c) The jury will award a moderate compensation to balance the guilty verdict. d) The jury will award no compensation as the group will not want to be too extreme by adding compensation to the guilty verdict. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 285. The failure of American naval leaders to recognize the threat from the Japanese military in the days leading up to Pearl Harbor would most likely have been the result of a) social facilitation. b) group polarization. c) social loafing. d) groupthink.

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Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 286. Swissair was so successful that it was once called the “Flying Bank.” However, they became complacent; the group felt invulnerable, and individuals stopped using their own critical thinking skills, instead siding with the others in the group. Consequently, the members of the group did not question poor decisions or mismanagement and eventually Swissair went bankrupt. This faulty group decision making is called a) social facilitation. b) group polarization. c) social loafing. d) groupthink. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 287. All the following are characteristics of a group suffering from the symptoms of groupthink EXCEPT a) appraisal of alternate courses of action. b) high group cohesiveness. c) illusion of invulnerability. d) directive leader. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 288. Altruism is defined as a) helping behaviour that is intended to lower one’s own distress or gain rewards. b) any behaviour that results in a benefit to another person. c) helping another without regard for one’s own self-interest. d) the tendency to help other people when no other bystanders are present. Answer: c

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 289. Altruism is BEST defined as a) thoughts of joy and well-being toward others. b) time and money devoted to helping charities. c) behavior that helps oneself and others. d) actions taken to help others without reward. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 290. When a little boy fell off the wharf while fishing, Jian did not hesitate for a second and jumped in after him. What is Jian’s behaviour an example of? a) diffusion of responsibility b) altruism c) groupthink d) bystander effect Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 291. Jarad frequently help drivers stranded by the roadside when they appear to be helpless. This behavior is identified by social psychologists as a) altruism. b) actualization. c) affective cognition. d) attraction. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour,

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aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 292. Which of the following is the best example of altruistic behaviour? a) Lewis helps an elderly person with chores, believing that “what goes around comes around.” b) Harriet jumps into the pool to save her five-year-old from drowning. c) Sem helps an attractive woman pick up the books she dropped. d) Remas anonymously donates $100 to charity. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 293. Which of the following is most associated with true altruism? a) sustained giving b) reducing one’s own distress c) helping someone outside of one’s own group d) giving to gain rewards Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 294. According to your text, which of the following is likely to increase altruistic behaviour? a) pointing out the potential benefits of helping others b) taking the perspective of the victim c) practicing objectivity and emotional detachment when dealing with other people d) offering people alternative ways to reduce their own distress or guilt Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 295. Mr. Smith, a politician, is running for re-election. As part of his campaigning, he publicizes all the charitable acts and donations he has made in the past five years. Mr. Smith’s helping

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behaviour would be an example of ___. a) self-serving altruism b) sustained altruism c) egoistic helping behaviour d) selfless altruism Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 296. The Kitty Genovese murder and subsequent research helped psychologists understand that when people fail to help others, it is usually because a) they are apathetic and unconcerned with another person’s well-being. b) they have valid reasons for failing to help. c) they get caught up in a powerful social situation. d) they fail to see the benefits of helping others. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 297. According to research by Darley and Latané, a person needing assistance is most likely to get help when in which situation? a) when a lot of other people are around b) when only one or two other people are around c) when the victim cannot ask for help d) when the victim asks for help Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 298. According to Darley and Latané, in which of the following situations are you most likely to receive help from bystanders? a) in a room with one other person b) on a bus with several strangers

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c) in a busy campus restroom d) on a well-travelled freeway Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 299. The case of Kitty Genovese in New York City is an illustration of what effect? a) reinforced behaviour b) spaced learning c) bystander apathy d) punished behaviour Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 300. From the following list of assumptions about the Kitty Genovese murder identify which of the following later proved to be true? a) 38 eye-witnesses were involved. b) No eye-witness observed the entire sequence of events. c) None of the eye-witnesses called the police. d) No one tried to help Kitty Genovese by taking any action. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 301. The bystander effect can BEST be described as a/an a) rationalization to explain failure to help. b) rational choice obviating personal responsibility. c) emotional reaction to allow non-action in emergencies. d) inherent reaction to avoid personal conflict. Answer: b

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 302. The bystander effect is a situation that results primarily from a) responsibility. b) anxieties. c) assumptions. d) inattentiveness. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 303. Brett tells a story of getting hurt on a ski hill. No one took individual responsibility to help as there were so many other people around. This is an example of a) groupthink. b) cognitive dissonance. c) normative social influence. d) the bystander effect. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 304. Dolores is stopped at a busy intersection and sees a homeless person holding a sign saying, ‘please help’ and ‘spare some change’. She rolls down her window and hands all her loose change to the man. What did Dolores manage to overcome in this example? a) social loafing b) groupthink c) altruism d) the bystander effect Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour,

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aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 305. You are awakened from a deep sleep by a woman screaming outside your apartment building. Although it is obvious that the woman is in great distress, you assume that other people in your apartment building will probably call the police. Your behaviour demonstrates _____________ which is a factor in _____________. a) social loafing; group think b) social facilitation; group think c) social loafing; the bystander effect d) diffusion of responsibility; the bystander effect Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 306. Clarissa is walking on a busy street in the winter when suddenly a woman slips and falls on the ice, right in the middle of a busy intersection. Although there are dozens of people crossing the road, no one stops to help the woman get up. Like Clarissa, they reason that with so many people around, someone else would help her if she needed it. What is leading to bystander apathy in this example? a) The event was not noticed by anyone. b) No one felt personally responsible for helping. c) The event was interpreted as an emergency. d) People were indifferent to the woman’s suffering. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 307. “Notice, interpret, accept responsibility, know how to help, and give help” are the steps in a) Triplett’s social facilitation model. b) Latané and Darley’s model of helping behaviour. c) Janis’ model for safeguarding against groupthink. d) Seligman’s model of positive psychology. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis

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Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 308. Which is the correct sequence of events for Latané and Darley’s model of helping behaviour? a) notice, accept responsibility, interpret, know how to help, give help b) notice, interpret, accept responsibility, know how to help, give help c) notice, interpret, know how to help, accept responsibility, give help d) notice, accept responsibility, interpret, know how to help, help Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 309. Which of the following is most closely related to the issue of bystander apathy, according to Darley and Latané? a) diffusion of responsibility b) decreasing social commitment c) increasing emotional detachment in urban centers d) increases in individualism in Western culture Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 310. Reggie is boating when he notices a person canoeing who seems to be being blown by a hard wind and unable to control the canoe. According to Latane and Darley's five-step decision process, what is Reggie MOST likely to ask himself next? a) Is this really an emergency? b) Do I know how to help this boater? c) Can I reach that canoe with my boat? d) Are there coast guards boats nearby? Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction.

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Section Reference: Social Relations 311. While on a plane, the flight attendant suddenly says, “We need a doctor or someone with medical training! Is there anyone onboard who has this specialization?” Which of Darley and Latané’s steps toward intervening on someone else’s behalf does this NOT demonstrate? a) Consider what form of assistance is needed. b) Interpret the event as an emergency. c) Feel personal responsibility for acting. d) Deciding whether the individual in need is deserving of assistance. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 312. You are walking through your apartment building when you see an elderly man slumped unconscious on the floor in the hallway. According to Darley and Latané, what is the first thing you should do? a) Consider what type of help the man needs. b) Decide whether the man is deserving of help. c) Take action. d) Interpret the event as an emergency. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 313. Which of the following statements represents the BEST synthesis of the steps in Latane and Darley's five-step decision process? a) The interconnectedness of the steps in the process leads logically from awareness of an issue to a personal evaluation concerning need, responsibility, and ability to help. b) The steps in the decision-making process are so simple that anyone can apply the questions to determine whether to offer help. c) Although the steps are numbered 1 through 5, the linkage of the steps does not require an observer to follow the given order in the decision-making process. d) The steps in the process are not of equal importance in terms of whether an observer will provide help. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard

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Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 314. Diffusion of responsibility means that a) the more people who are present, the more responsible everyone feels. b) we feel less personally responsible when others are present. c) when a lot of people are present, each person only must help a small amount; the collective effort will result in success. d) we assume responsibility when we see other people acting as altruistic role models. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 315. Which is the BEST definition of aggression? a) behavior meant to harm someone b) feelings of anger toward someone c) harmful attitudes toward someone d) statements expressing anger and rage Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 316. Which of the following LEAST supports the idea that aggression can be explained biologically? a) Certain brain disorders have revealed possible brain pathways for aggression. b) A genetic predisposition to aggression has been exhibited through twin studies. c) Studies have linked testosterone and some neurotransmitters to aggression. d) People act aggressively when they only think they have had alcohol to drink. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations

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317. Which of the following is NOT a reason that some psychologists believe that aggression can be explained biologically? a) People in cultures throughout the world perpetrate aggressive acts. b) Brain injuries have revealed certain possible aggression circuits. c) Testosterone and some neurotransmitters have been linked to aggressive behavior. d) Twins have been shown to differ in their aggression when brought up apart. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 318. Which of the following is a possible explanation for aggression that is NOT a biological explanation? a) The male hormone testosterone and lowered levels of some neurotransmitters have been linked with aggressive behavior. b) People raised in a culture with aggressive models tend to emulate these models and respond aggressively. c) People in cultures throughout the world participate in aggressive behaviors intended to harm others. d) The history of aggression is long and incidents in history are common. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 319. All the following are associated with increased levels of aggression EXCEPT a) higher testosterone levels. b) lower serotonin levels. c) lower intelligence. d) higher dopamine levels. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations

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320. Violent behaviour has been linked to low levels of _______________________ and high levels of ____________. a) serotonin; dopamine b) norepinephrine; dopamine c) dopamine; serotonin d) serotonin; testosterone Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 321. Which of the following factors does NOT lead to an increase in aggression? a) elevated levels of testosterone b) elevated levels of serotonin c) alcohol d) winter weather Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 322. According to the revised frustration-aggression hypothesis, aggression occurs when a) a stressor impedes our progress toward a goal. b) the number of punishers for any event exceeds the number of reinforcers for the same event. c) an unpleasant event activates the sympathetic nervous system. d) we observe environmental cues that are suggestive of aggression. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 323. Greta and Jeanne have been working on a joint project, but Greta has been doing all the work. When Greta began to have trouble fitting a piece into place on their model, she grew irritated. The irritation turned to anger, and she became angry with Jeanne. The pattern of behaviour exemplified by Greta illustrates the

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a) frustration-aggression hypothesis. b) outgroup homogeneity effect. c) displaced aggression syndrome. d) cognitive dissonance theory. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 324. Which of the following is true about the frequency of aggressive incidents? a) They tend to peak in the spring and fall. b) They tend to be lowest in the summer. c) They tend to peak around holiday weekends. d) They tend to be lowest in the winter months. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 325. In comparing men and women regarding aggression, women tend to engage in ___ aggression while men tend to engage in ___. a) higher levels of aggression; lower levels of aggression b) hostile aggression; instrumental aggression c) direct aggression; relational aggression d) relational aggression; direct aggression Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 326. Kiana was furious that her partner embarrassed her in front of their friends. On the drive home Kiana’s partner is chatting about the evening and talking about future plans and Kiana refuses to speak or engage, stonily looking out the window and refusing to speak. Kiana is exhibiting a) frustration-aggression b) instrumental aggression

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c) relational aggression d) reciprocal aggression Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 327. Which is the BEST definition of the term "interpersonal attraction"? a) The feeling of passionate love one has for another person. b) An affinity among people who have similar interests and ideals. c) The range of feelings from admiration and friendship to lust and love. d) The strong magnetic pull people feel toward those they love. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 328. Ada and Jyrki had been friends for a long time. One semester, they had the same class, and they began studying together. Now, they are dating. Based on this information, you can see their romance is due in part to a) commitment. b) passion. c) proximity. d) saliency. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 329. What key factor(s) is/are involved in liking someone? a) similarity b) proximity c) self-disclosure d) all the above Answer: d

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 330. All the following are factors related to liking other people EXCEPT a) mutual respect. b) proximity. c) self-disclosure. d) physical attractiveness. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 331. Gilda is moving to a new city and will be attending a new school. What advice would you give her for making new friends? a) To try to find someone in her class who lives close to her. b) To join a table of other students in the cafeteria. c) To try to sit next to someone who is physically attractive. d) To join a club to meet people who share the same interests as her. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 332. Eloise is a first-year student majoring in psychology. Eloise has moved into the college dorm. Based on the proximity principle of attraction, Eloise is most likely to become friends with a) Hiro, who is also a psychology major. b) Rosica, who is a nursing student who also lives in the college dorm. c) Pridia, who is very popular. d) Jiao, who is also a first-year student. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour,

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aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 333. Dawson and Esther were randomly paired as participants as dates at a dance. What factor will be most related to whether Dawson and Esther like one another? a) proximity b) similarity c) attractiveness d) intelligence Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 334. Based on factors identified in research, which of the following people Omer has just met is he likely to prefer as a friend? a) Hudson, who is in one class with Omer and who was on a rival basketball team in high school. b) Hassan, who lives in the dorm across campus from Omer’s dorm. c) Abdiel, who is Omer’s biology lab partner and lives across the hall in the same dorm as Omer. d) Thad, who is in the same major as Omer but not in any of the same classes. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 335. Which of the following is NOT one of Rubin’s elements of love? a) caring b) attachment c) intimacy d) passion Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations

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336. Sawyer feels a sense of concern and responsibility for his partner. Rubin (1970) would call this element a) love. b) attachment. c) caring. d) intimacy. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 337. Shen is becoming increasingly confused and appears to be entering the early stages of Alzheimer’s disease. Heloise, his wife of 50 years, continues to look after him, and is protective whenever she thinks someone is criticizing him. Heloise’s behaviour is typical of the type of love Rubin calls ___. a) attachment b) intimacy c) caring d) passion Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 338. The theorist(s) who proposed that love is composed of intimacy, passion, and commitment was ___. a) Rubin b) Sternberg c) Walsler d) Maslow Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations

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339. According to Sternberg, a high degree of intimacy, passion, and commitment is characteristic of a) consummate love. b) fatuous love. c) romantic love. d) infatuated love. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 340. Tien’s relationship with his partner is based on intimacy, passion, and commitment. Sternberg would classify it as a) companionate love. b) consummate love. c) fatuous love. d) romantic love. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the major findings of social neuroscience about regions of the brain particularly important to our social functioning. Section Reference: Social Functioning 341. Clara and Eyman have been married for 45 years. They finish each other’s sentences and still hold hands in public. According to Sternberg, Clara and Eyman probably have ___. a) romantic love b) passionate love c) consummate love d) infatuated love Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 342. Jack and Lucia have been married for 15 years. They have no physical attraction to one another and rarely do anything together anymore but want to stay together until their children

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are grown. Jack and Lucia probably have ___. a) non-love b) dispassionate love c) fatuous love d) empty love Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 343. Which of the following is a psychologically based positive approach to maintaining companionate love? a) Express your disappointments of your partner's shortcomings. b) Perceive your partner as somewhat more perfect than he or she is. c) Utilize passionate symbols such as love poems and romantic gifts. d) Develop a stronger personal core so that you are less dependent. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 344. Sternberg's theory of the components of love is MAINLY important regarding whether or not a) an initial attraction of passion will be felt and expressed fully. b) a relationship will move beyond passion to intimacy and commitment. c) two partners will incorporate the components into a lasting relationship. d) a relationship's partners will be able to compromise on levels of commitment. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 345. A main difference between companionate love and romantic love is that companionate love may not a) involve intimacy. b) evolve into commitment.

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c) involve passion. d) evolve from friendship. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 346. A main difference between romantic love and companionate love is that romantic love may not a) evolve from intimacy. b) include commitment. c) evolve into infatuation. d) involve friendship. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 347. In what way is liking different from companionate love? a) Liking does not include intimacy. b) Liking plays no part in consummate love. c) Liking does not include commitment. d) Liking does not rely on infatuation. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 348. The most significant difference between companionate love and consummate love is that consummate love a) is deeper and longer lasting. b) includes the component of intimacy. c) involves the component of passion. d) includes the component of commitment. Answer: c

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 349. Growing up, Quincy’s relationship with his mother was not secure. He learned not to trust or rely on her and kept away from her as much as possible. In return, she either ignored Quincy, or was highly critical of him. How would Hazan and Shaver (2004) say Quincy is likely to behave in a relationship? a) Quincy would establish a pattern of seeking an intense relationship with his partner, then pull away, only to demand reconnection. b) Quincy would make constant demands on his partner to stay close and to prove their love. c) Quincy would find it relatively easy to get close to his partner and would have no fears of abandonment. d) Quincy would have difficulty depending on his partner and would be nervous about his partner wanting to get close to him. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 350. Growing up, Abdul’s relationship with his mother was secure. He learned to trust and rely on her. In return, his mother was nurturing and made age-appropriate demands and rewarded Abdul for compliance with those demands. How would Hazan and Shaver (2004) say Abdul is likely to behave in a relationship? a) Abdul would establish a pattern of seeking an intense relationship with his partner, then pull away, only to demand reconnection. b) Abdul would make constant demands on his partner to stay close and to prove their love. c) Abdul would find it relatively easy to get close to his partner and would have no fears of abandonment. d) Abdul would have difficulty depending on his partner and would be nervous about his partner wanting to get close to him. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 351. Abigail has dated three different people in the past six months. As soon as her boyfriends

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express how much they like her, Abigail ends the relationship. Which of the following attachment styles does Abigail exhibit? a) secure b) disorganized-disoriented c) avoidant d) anxious-ambivalent Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 352. According to the work of Hazan and Shaver about attachment styles in adults, who of the following is NOT correctly matched with their attachment style and behaviour? a) Jie - anxious-ambivalent style – she fears abandonment b) Amina - avoidant style – she fears her partner becoming too close to her c) Pierre - disorganized attachment style – he flipflops between pushing someone away and trying to get close d) Selim - secure style – he does not fear becoming too close or being abandoned Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 353. People who worry that their lovers are less interested in closeness than they are, have a/an ___ attachment style. a) secure b) insecure c) anxious-ambivalent d) anxious-avoidant Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 354. Social neuroscience is a field of study that a) studies group behaviour in animals in response to changes made through brain surgeries.

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b) studies what is happening in the brain when people are behaving socially. c) is a politically left approach to studying the brain and behaviour. d) examines ways that aggression and altruism can be manipulated by the brain. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the major findings of social neuroscience about regions of the brain particularly important to our social functioning. Section Reference: Social Functioning 355. An important brain area for socially functioning in humans is the a) prefrontal cortex. b) hippocampus. c) basal ganglia. d) inferior temporal cortex. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the major findings of social neuroscience about regions of the brain particularly important to our social functioning. Section Reference: Social Functioning 356. What does the relatively new field of social neuroscience focus on? a) what happens in the brain when people are thinking and behaving socially b) the ways in which the brain develops depending on whether the individual is introverted or extroverted c) how the brains of men and women react differently in social situations d) how the brain has evolved to accommodate our high demand for social understanding Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the major findings of social neuroscience about regions of the brain particularly important to our social functioning. Section Reference: Social Functioning 357. Karina is a graduate student who is studying the changes that happen in the brain when people are witness to social situations and are themselves in a social situation. What field is she studying? a) social neuroscience b) social psychology c) cognitive neuroscience d) developmental psychology

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Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the major findings of social neuroscience about regions of the brain particularly important to our social functioning. Section Reference: Social Functioning 358. Ximena is discussing the differences in the size of the prefrontal cortex across various species with her psychology study group. The students are hypothesizing as to what environmental pressure may have led to this difference. What does your text suggest could have caused this? a) language comprehension b) social cognition c) emotional processing d) sleep cycles Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the major findings of social neuroscience about regions of the brain particularly important to our social functioning. Section Reference: Social Functioning 359. The combination of brain regions that function together when people function socially some call the _____. a) cognitive social network b) social brain c) Hebbian social circuit d) functional social system Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the major findings of social neuroscience about regions of the brain particularly important to our social functioning. Section Reference: Social Functioning 360. What field did researchers turn to for their first clue as to the brain regions that may play a significant role in social cognition? a) developmental psychology b) evolutionary psychology c) comparative psychology d) experimental psychology

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Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the major findings of social neuroscience about regions of the brain particularly important to our social functioning. Section Reference: Social Functioning 361. What brain region is much larger in humans compared to other animals and is very active during social behaviour? a) midbrain b) cerebellum c) prefrontal cortex d) temporal lobe Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the major findings of social neuroscience about regions of the brain particularly important to our social functioning. Section Reference: Social Functioning 362. Which brain structure(s) that is/are active during social cognition is/are larger in humans than in other animals? a) prefrontal cortex b) hippocampus c) reticular system d) all the above Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the major findings of social neuroscience about regions of the brain particularly important to our social functioning. Section Reference: Social Functioning 363. The ventromedial prefrontal cortex is involved in a) reasoning, reward evaluation, and reading other people. b) deciphering nonverbal social information and making social and moral assessments. c) empathy and in reading others. d) helping us identify the emotional facial expressions of other people. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

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Learning Objective: Describe the major findings of social neuroscience about regions of the brain particularly important to our social functioning. Section Reference: Social Functioning 364. After a motor vehicle accident, Memphis has difficulty interpreting non-social information and seems to lack empathy for others. Memphis has likely suffered damage to the ___. a) prefrontal cortex b) orbitofrontal cortex c) ventromedial prefrontal cortex d) insula Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the major findings of social neuroscience about regions of the brain particularly important to our social functioning. Section Reference: Social Functioning 365. Hadrien and his community lost everything in a flash flood. Now, he’s alone in front of an abandoned store and he’s debating whether to break in and steal some food and bottles of water. He is having trouble with this decision, because he knows that stealing is wrong, but he feels like circumstances are so dire that it would be acceptable under these circumstances. What area of the brain would be especially active as Hadrien contemplates this decision? a) insula b) amygdala c) orbitofrontal cortex d) ventromedial prefrontal cortex Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the major findings of social neuroscience about regions of the brain particularly important to our social functioning. Section Reference: Social Functioning 366. Terrance suffered brain damage at birth. When he observes another person in physical pain, he does not seem to respond in any way. Which part of Terrance’s brain was damaged? a) prefrontal cortex b) orbitofrontal cortex c) ventromedial prefrontal cortex d) insula Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Learning Objective: Describe the major findings of social neuroscience about regions of the brain particularly important to our social functioning. Section Reference: Social Functioning 367. Ramona is comforting her roommate who has just told her that her fiancé broke up with her the night before. Ramona feels very sad for her friend as she can see she is in a great deal of emotional pain. Ramona’s ____________ is most likely active during this encounter. a) insula b) orbitofrontal cortex c) ventromedial prefrontal cortex d) amygdala Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the major findings of social neuroscience about regions of the brain particularly important to our social functioning. Section Reference: Social Functioning 368. Which brain regions play a significant role in empathy? a) the amygdala and the insula b) the ventromedial prefrontal cortex and the insula c) the orbitofrontal cortex and the ventromedial prefrontal cortex d) the amygdala and the hippocampus Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the major findings of social neuroscience about regions of the brain particularly important to our social functioning. Section Reference: Social Functioning 369. Delilah’s sister just lost her dog to cancer. As she comforts her sister at the vet’s office Delilah cannot help but feel some of her sister’s pain. What area of the brain is critically involved in Delilah’s feelings of empathy? a) insula b) amygdala c) dorsolateral prefrontal cortex d) orbitofrontal cortex Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the major findings of social neuroscience about regions of the brain particularly important to our social functioning.

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Section Reference: Social Functioning 370. Adam’s heart is broken. He and his wife had been trying to have a baby for three years. Tonight, his baby son was born three months early and died one hour after birth. Adam’s brother, Ty, is at the hospital attempting to comfort his brother and feel immense pain on his brother’s behalf. What area of the brain is critically involved in Ty’s feelings of empathy? a) insula b) amygdala c) dorsolateral prefrontal cortex d) orbitofrontal cortex Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the major findings of social neuroscience about regions of the brain particularly important to our social functioning. Section Reference: Social Functioning 371. Which of the following brain regions is NOT intricately involved in social functioning? a) basal ganglia b) amygdala c) prefrontal cortex d) insula Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the major findings of social neuroscience about regions of the brain particularly important to our social functioning. Section Reference: Social Functioning 372. The part of the brain that is believed to be involved in helping us identify the emotional facial expressions of other people is the ___. a) prefrontal cortex b) orbitofrontal cortex c) insula d) amygdala Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the major findings of social neuroscience about regions of the brain particularly important to our social functioning. Section Reference: Social Functioning

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373. Mikito is interpreting his wife’s facial expression and it takes him less than a second to realize he is in trouble for something. What area of the brain would NOT be active in Mikito as he is reading her facial expression? a) amygdala b) hypothalamus c) ventromedial prefrontal cortex d) orbitofrontal cortex Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the major findings of social neuroscience about regions of the brain particularly important to our social functioning. Section Reference: Social Functioning 374. How is the field of social neuroscience different from neuroscience? a) It strictly uses fMRI data and doesn’t rely on other techniques to study the brain. b) It does not use imperial statistics to analyze neurological data. c) It focuses much more energy on publicizing the results of their neuroscience research. d) It focuses on the brain regions that are active when people function socially. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the major findings of social neuroscience about regions of the brain particularly important to our social functioning. Section Reference: Social Functioning

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MATCHING QUESTION 375. Match the appropriate words in the left column to the definitions in the right column. Terms A. Attitudes B. Cognitive dissonance C. Self-perception theory D. Stereotype E. Prejudice F. Fundamental attribution error G. Actor-observer effect H. Self-serving bias I. Conformity J. Social facilitation K. Social loafing L. Group polarization M. Groupthink N. Altruism O. Bystander effect P. Descriptive norms Q. Injunctive norms

___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___

Definitions 1. The discrepancy between how we explain other people’s behaviour (dispositionally) and how we explain our own behaviour (situationally) 2. The intensification of an initial tendency of individual group members brought about by group discussion 3. The tendency people must attribute their successes to internal causes and their failures to external ones 4. Relatively stable and enduring evaluations of things and people 5. Effect in which the presence of others enhances performance 6. Self-sacrificing behaviour carried out for the benefit of others 7. When people are uncertain of their attitudes, they infer what their attitudes are by observing their own behaviour 8. A state of emotional discomfort people experience when they hold two contradictory beliefs or hold a belief that contradicts their behaviour 9. Agreed-on expectations about what members of a group ought to do 10. Generalized impressions about a person or a group of people based on the social category they occupy

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ANSWERS TO MATCHING QUESTION 1.

G: Actor-observer effect

L: Group polarization

H: Self-serving bias

A: Attitudes

J: Social facilitation

N: Altruism

C: Self-perception theory

B: Cognitive dissonance

Q: Injunctive norms

10. D: Stereotype Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

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FILL-IN-THE-BLANK 376. The area of psychology that seeks to understand, explain, and predict how people’s thoughts, feelings, and behaviours are influenced by the actual, imagined, or implied presence of others is called ___ psychology. Answer: social Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 377. The component of attitudes that describes how we feel about something is the ___ component. Answer: affective Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 378. When people experience cognitive dissonance, they are motivated to change their ___. Answer: beliefs Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 379. The more specific an attitude, the ___ likely it is to be accurately predicted. Answer: more Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes

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380. Generalized impressions of groups of people based on the social category they occupy are known as ___. Answer: stereotypes Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 381. While considering candidates vying for election, Asher noted that one candidate was more attractive than another, which illustrates his use of superficial information via the ___ route of persuasion. Answer: peripheral Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 382. Dispositional or ___ attributions focus on people’s traits to explain their behaviour. Answer: internal Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss how people make attributions to explain their own behaviour and the behaviour of others. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attributions 383. Carter thinks that his friend Allan is failing chemistry because he is not a serious student. Carter is making a/an ___ attribution. Answer: dispositional or internal Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss how people make attributions to explain their own behaviour and the behaviour of others. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attributions 384. Maude’s car was struck by a driver who ran a red light. Later, when she was telling her friends, she described the driver of the other car as reckless and irresponsible. By attributing the driver’s behaviour to dispositional factors, Jacqueline is making a ___.

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Answer: fundamental attribution error Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss how people make attributions to explain their own behaviour and the behaviour of others. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attributions 385. Individuals tend to make dispositional attributions when they assume the role of a(n) ___. Answer: observer Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss how people make attributions to explain their own behaviour and the behaviour of others. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attributions 386. If we are given detailed information about external pressures, we may attribute the behaviour of others to ___ factors. Answer: external Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss how people make attributions to explain their own behaviour and the behaviour of others. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attributions 387. Gil runs in local marathons. Whenever he wins, Gil congratulates himself for training so hard. Whenever he loses, however, Gil consoles himself by telling himself that his job has kept him so busy he has NOT been able to train enough recently. Gil is exhibiting ___. Answer: self-serving bias Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss how people make attributions to explain their own behaviour and the behaviour of others. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attributions 388. Agreed-on expectations about what members of a group are expected to do are known as ___ norms. Answer: injunctive

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 389. Concern for the welfare of other people is often attributed to ___ gender roles. Answer: communal Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 390. Groups sized fewer than ___ do NOT produce a conformity effect. Answer: four Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 391. Milgram illustrated that ___ percent of the population would hurt others if they were ordered to do so by an authority figure. Answer: 65 (roughly two-thirds) Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 392. When a group confronts an additive task, its members must perform ___ actions. Answer: parallel Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations

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393. People from Western cultures are ___ likely to display social loafing. Answer: more Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 394. Self-sacrificing behaviour for the benefit of others is called ___. Answer: altruism Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 395. When others are present, we may feel that we do not bear the burden of responsibility to act. This is known as diffusion of ___. Answer: responsibility Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 396. According to Freud, love is a(n) ___ sexual energy in which sexual desire is transformed into a socially acceptable form. Answer: sublimated Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 397. After a motor vehicle accident, Veronica cannot seem to make accurate moral decisions. Veronica probably sustained damage to the ___. Answer: ventromedial prefrontal cortex

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the major findings of social neuroscience about regions of the brain particularly important to our social functioning. Section Reference: Social Functioning 398. The structure involved in the control of emotions and identifying emotional facial expressions is the ___. Answer: amygdala Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the major findings of social neuroscience about regions of the brain particularly important to our social functioning. Section Reference: Social Functioning

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SHORT ANSWER ESSAY QUESTIONS 399. Describe a situation that would likely result in direct transmission of attitudes. Answer: Children may hear a lecture from parents or other authority figures that shapes how they conceptualize ideas and situations. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 400. Who proposed the concept of cognitive dissonance? Answer: Festinger Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 401. Define attitude strength. Answer: Stronger attitudes predict behaviour more accurately than weaker attitudes. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 402. Define prejudice. Answer: negative attitudes toward individuals from another group Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 403. Mark asked his roommate Will to clean his side of the room as a favour. When Will refused to do so, Mark made a more moderate request by asking Will to feed his pet fish over the

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weekend. What persuasion technique was used in this example? Answer: door-in-the-face Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 404. What type of attributions do people tend to rely on when describing the behaviour of others? Answer: dispositional Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss how people make attributions to explain their own behaviour and the behaviour of others. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attributions 405. Why do we judge many of our behaviours situationally? Answer: We have information about ourselves that others do not have. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss how people make attributions to explain their own behaviour and the behaviour of others. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attributions 406. What attitudinal change occurred in residents of New Orleans following Hurricane Katrina? Answer: People initially thought residents who failed to evacuate were foolish or stubborn. When it became clear that people did not evacuate because they were poor, attributions began to focus on situational factors. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss how people make attributions to explain their own behaviour and the behaviour of others. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attributions 407. What type of agreed-on expectations provides information about what members of a group do? Answer: descriptive

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 408. What famous study of social roles did Zimbardo conduct at Stanford University? Answer: prison experiment Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 409. Define obedience. Answer: likelihood that a person will follow a direct order from an authority figure Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 410. What did Milgram find when he studied gender effects on obedience? Answer: Females were no more likely to refuse a command than men. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 411. What type of group task requires a single solution? Answer: disjunctive Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations

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412. Explain two ways social loafing can be minimized. Answer: Group members are reminded of their uniqueness, importance, and group cohesiveness. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 413. What is the label applied to acts that are designed to reduce one’s own personal distress or to receive rewards? Answer: egoistic helping behaviour Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 414. What theory of aggression suggests that we use aggression as a cue to “push harder” to achieve some goal? Answer: frustration-aggression hypothesis Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 415. Name the three elements of love popularized by Rubin. Answer: attachment, caring, intimacy Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 416. Name the structure that is involved in eliciting emotional states from other people. Answer: orbitofrontal cortex

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the major findings of social neuroscience about regions of the brain particularly important to our social functioning. Section Reference: Social Functioning

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ESSAY QUESTIONS 417. Beyond parental influence, describe two factors that may shape the development of attitudes as children mature. Answer: As children grow older, they observe their peers and determine what rewards and punishments are associated with specific behaviours. Likewise, television and other media offer opportunities for modelling behaviour and experiencing consequences. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 418. Describe Bem’s self-perception theory. Answer: When people are unsure of their attitudes, they often infer their attitudes from their own behaviour, much as an outsider may observe them. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 419. Describe the bogus pipeline technique and why it is used. Answer: To eliminate social desirability, participants are told that they are hooked up to a lie detector. As a result, people are more likely to report their attitudes truthfully. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 420. According to social identity theory, what three processes create prejudice? Answer: Social categorization refers to how people interact with a specific group to learn how to react to the world. Social identity refers to a person forming an identity within a group. Social comparison occurs when the in-group is considered superior to other groups. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in

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behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 421. According to evolutionary psychologists, why were stereotypes and prejudice adaptive? Answer: Our ancestors needed to be able to quickly recognize members of their own tribe, and make judgments as to who was a friend or foe with little information. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 422. Give an example of the foot-in-the-door persuasion technique. Answer: making a small request followed by a larger request Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain how attitudes form and change and what role they play in behaviour. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attitudes 423. Provide an example of a fundamental attribution error. Answer: Example should illustrate our over-reliance on dispositional attributions to explain the behaviour of others. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss how people make attributions to explain their own behaviour and the behaviour of others. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attributions 424. Describe an example of the actor-observer effect. Answer: Example must illustrate different interpretations of the same behaviour produced by the participant and someone else. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss how people make attributions to explain their own behaviour and the behaviour of others. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attributions

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425. Give an example of the self-serving bias from your own experience. Answer: Example identifies how we tend to attribute success to internal causes while failures are attributed to external causes. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss how people make attributions to explain their own behaviour and the behaviour of others. Section Reference: Social Cognition: Attributions 426. Describe the concept of a social role. Answer: set of norms that are related to a person’s social position; provide expectations and duties that people should follow in their families, work, and communities Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 427. Define conformity and provide an example from your own experience. Answer: Conformity is the tendency to yield to real or imagined group pressure to behaviour in a certain manner. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 428. How is a study of obedience different from a study of conformity? Answer: In studies of conformity, there is no group leader or authority figure, whereas in studies of obedience, people are subjected to the demands of an authority figure. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 429. Describe three factors that may reduce people’s willingness to obey authority. Answer: if someone else also refuses to obey; the salience of the victim’s suffering; if the

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participant is near the victim Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 430. Describe what happened in Milgram’s studies when a co-teacher was present. Answer: With this social support, over 90% of participants disobeyed the order to continue. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the power of conformity and obedience in shaping people’s behaviour. Section Reference: Social Forces 431. Describe the mechanism proposed by Zajonc to explain social facilitation. Answer: Zajonc stated that the presence of others elevates arousal such that performance on simple tasks is facilitated yet interferes with complicated tasks. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 432. Provide two explanations for the occurrence of social loafing. Answer: Social loafing occurs when large groups include members who lack motivation to contribute, feel isolated, or view their contributions as unnecessary. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 433. When are people most likely to engage in altruistic behaviour? Answer: when they empathize and identify with people in need Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour,

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aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 434. Describe the differences in the types of aggression exhibited by males and females. Answer: Women engage in relational aggression where others are excluded or snubbed as a means of venting anger or frustration, whereas men demonstrate direct aggression that includes verbal and physical abuse. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 435. Describe Sternberg’s triangular theory of love. Answer: Love is composed of intimacy (feelings that promote closeness), passion (intense desires for union), and commitment (decision to maintain a relationship across time). Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations 436. Describe the roles of the ventromedial prefrontal in social behaviours. Answer: Structure plays a role in the processing of rewards and punishments, interpreting nonverbal social information, making moral assessments and decisions, and feeling empathy. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the major findings of social neuroscience about regions of the brain particularly important to our social functioning. Section Reference: Social Functioning

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LABELLING QUESTION 437. On the following diagram, label the type of relationship that results from the combination of each of Sternberg’s components. companionate love consummate love fatuous love romantic love

Answer: Starting at right and going clockwise: Fatuous love Consummate love Romantic love Companionate love Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Review major concepts in the areas of group dynamics, helping behaviour, aggression, and interpersonal attraction. Section Reference: Social Relations

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CHAPTER 14 STRESS, COPING, AND HEALTH CHAPTER LEARNING OBJECTIVES 1. Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. • Stress is a state brought on by any situation that threatens or appears to threaten a person’s sense of well-being, thus challenging the person’s ability to cope. A situation that triggers the stress response is a stressor. A stressor may be acute (short term) or chronic (long term). • People may experience stress as frustration, pressure, conflict, or danger. • Kinds of stressors include daily hassles, life changes (which can be measured by use of the Social Readjustment Rating Scale), traumatic events, chronic negative situations, and special socio-cultural conditions. 2. Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. • There are two main physiological pathways of stress: the sympathetic nervous system and the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis. Both lead to activation of the fight-or-flight response, which is an immediate response to a stressor. • Hans Selye first described the effects of chronic stress, which he called the general adaptation syndrome (GAS). The syndrome has three stages: alarm, resistance, and exhaustion. • Emotional responses to stress generally involve negative emotions. The more stress a person experiences, the more negative the emotions. • Cognitive appraisal is an important element in responses to stress. Richard Lazarus identified two steps in this process: primary appraisal, in which people assess the severity of the stressor, and secondary appraisal, in which they evaluate how well they can cope with it. • Individuals vary greatly in their responses to stress. Areas of difference include autonomic activity, explanatory style, personality, and availability of social support. 3. Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress. • Coping describes efforts to manage, reduce, or tolerate stress. • Dealing with stress by lashing out at others, using defence mechanisms such as repression, and engaging in self-indulgent behaviours such as smoking or drinking alcohol, can be destructive when used in excess. • More constructive coping strategies include directly confronting a stressor in hopes of changing the situation (problem-focused coping) and changing how you feel or think about the stressor to reduce its impact (emotion-focused coping). 4. Explain how stress can cause physical illness and discuss situations in which stress may be beneficial.

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Stress can increase risk for a number of health problems. People with Type A personalities are prone to stress and appear to be at greater risk for coronary heart disease than the more relaxed Type B personalities. Using the Social Readjustment Rating Scale, researchers have found that stress-producing life changes also increase the risk of illness. Psychoimmunology is an area of study that examines the links between stress, the immune system, and health. Severe stress may interfere with the activity of lymphocytes, a component of the immune system that helps the body to overcome invaders, such as bacteria and viruses. Stress-related biochemical changes in the body, such as changes in the activity of norepinephrine and cortisol, can eventually slow the functioning of the immune system. Behaviour, personality, and social support are additional factors affecting how much the immune system is slowed down by stress. Unlike distress, or negative stress, eustress offers benefits. Optimal levels of stress can promote the development of resilience and facilitate performance, especially for easy or moderately difficult tasks.

5. Describe the symptoms and causes of posttraumatic stress disorder, and discuss some risk factors for developing it. • Posttraumatic stress disorder is characterized by persistent, frightening thoughts or memories of a traumatic event, along with anxiety, depression, and other symptoms. • Combat, natural disasters, and abuse and victimization are among the events most likely to cause posttraumatic stress disorder. • Not everyone affected by unusual trauma develops posttraumatic stress disorder. Factors that affect the likelihood of developing the disorder include biological factors, personality factors, childhood experiences, and the availability of social support.

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TRUE-FALSE STATEMENTS 1. A stressor is defined as any situation or circumstance that triggers a stress response. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress? 2. Frustration occurs while we are gaining momentum toward completing a goal. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress? 3. Avoidance-avoidance conflicts involve a choice between two equally undesirable outcomes. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress? 4. There is no evidence to suggest that ongoing stress from daily hassles impairs our immune systems. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress? 5. Examination of the scores from the Social Readjustment Rating Scale (SRRS) indicates that high scores in terms life-change units are related to the likelihood of becoming physically ill.

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Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress? 6. As children progress from 5 years old to 12 years old, behavioural events such as getting into trouble at school become more stressful. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress? 7. The fight-or-flight response in the brain is an automatic reaction that is unrelated to the physiological effects of stress. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 8. If cortisol levels remain high for extended periods of time, high blood pressure and other adverse health consequences, such as inflammation, anxiety, and depression, may occur. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 9. Bodily arousal is the only dimension of our reaction to stressors that has been studied to date. Answer: False

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 10. The general adaptation syndrome is a six-stage response that predicts physiological resistance to a prolonged stressful event. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 11. People with Type D personalities are best described as relaxed and easy-going. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 12. Coping responses can be adaptive or maladaptive. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress. Section Reference: Coping with Stress 13. Most individuals are consciously aware of the defence mechanisms they employ. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress. Section Reference: Coping with Stress 14. A repressive coping style is used to deal directly with a stressor.

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Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress. Section Reference: Coping with Stress 15. Researchers have found a strong relationship between stress and health. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain how stress can cause physical illness, and discuss situations in which stress may be beneficial. Section Reference: Stress and Health 16. Norepinephrine increases immune functioning at low levels of stress. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain how stress can cause physical illness, and discuss situations in which stress may be beneficial. Section Reference: Stress and Health 17. People who respond to stressors with optimism are better prepared to fight off illness due to better immune system functioning. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Explain how stress can cause physical illness, and discuss situations in which stress may be beneficial. Section Reference: Stress and Health 18. Feeling detached or dazed is a common symptom of posttraumatic stress disorder. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms and causes of posttraumatic stress disorder, and discuss some risk factors for developing it.

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Section Reference: Posttraumatic Stress Disorder 19. Males are twice as likely as females to suffer from posttraumatic stress disorder. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms and causes of posttraumatic stress disorder, and discuss some risk factors for developing it. Section Reference: Posttraumatic Stress Disorder 20. People with less hardy personality styles are at greater risk of developing posttraumatic stress disorder than those with more resilient personality styles. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms and causes of posttraumatic stress disorder, and discuss some risk factors for developing it. Section Reference: Posttraumatic Stress Disorder 21. Individuals who had childhoods characterized by poverty are no more likely to develop posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) when confronted with horrific events than those raised under more affluent conditions. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms and causes of posttraumatic stress disorder, and discuss some risk factors for developing it. Section Reference: Posttraumatic Stress Disorder

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MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 22. A situation or circumstance that triggers the stress response is called a) a stressor. b) pressure. c) conflict. d) hassles. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress? 23. What is the relationship between stress and the stress response? a) The stress response is the result of the physical and psychological reaction to stress. b) Stress is caused by the body’s stress response. c) The stress response is the trigger that causes the stressors to interpret events in a negative manner. d) Stress is the interpretation of events, whereas stress responses are the triggers. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress? 24. Which of the following is classified as a chronic stressor? a) having a disagreement with a family member b) sitting in a traffic jam on your way home from work c) flight being delayed because of weather conditions d) coping with the demands of a high-pressure job Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress? 25. Which of the following is the best example of a chronic stressor?

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a) exam week b) raising children c) having the flu d) getting divorced Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress? 26. Which of the following is least in danger of suffering the effects of a chronic stressor? a) Violet, whose 6 year old child has leukemia b) Herman, who has stayed in an unhappy marriage for six years c) Joel, who has a supportive family but lives in extreme poverty d) Jonathon, who moved to a new university and is sharing a dorm room with his best friend Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress? 27. What is the difference between a chronic stressor and an acute stressor? a) An acute stressor is less intense, whereas a chronic stressor is very intense. b) An acute stressor applies to workplace stress, whereas a chronic stressor applies to family stress. c) An acute stressor has negative health effects, whereas a chronic stressor has negative psychological effects. d) An acute stressor is over quickly and has a definite end point, whereas a chronic stressor is more long term and lacks an end point. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress? 28. Valeria is studying for her psychology exam. It is in two days. The psychology exam is an example of ___. a) stress b) an acute stressor

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c) a chronic stressor d) distress Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress? 29. Which of the following is NOT an example of an acute stressor? a) final exams b) being stuck in traffic c) having to pay your phone bill d) getting a divorce Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress? 30. Which of the following people is most likely to experience stress? a) Augustine, who was already considering retirement when he got laid off b) Georges, who had a difference of opinion with a stranger in a coffee shop c) Marie, who is a millionaire and got a $100 parking ticket d) Padma, who forgot there was a calculus test today Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress? 31. Waldron and Farris both must make a presentation to their psychology class. Although Farris is feeling confident and relaxed, Waldron is very nervous about the presentation. Which of the following provides the best explanation of the two students’ experience? a) Waldron is experiencing greater conflict about presenting than Ferris. b) Ferris is experiencing less cognitive dissonance about presenting than Waldron. c) Waldron has appraised the experience of presenting as more threatening than Ferris. d) Ferris perceives presenting as a negative experience whereas Waldron perceives it as a positive experience.

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Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress? 32. Jeremiah has gone away to attend a university out of province. You warn Jeremiah that scales that have specifically targeted stressful experiences of college and university students have found that students tend to experience higher levels of stress associated with ___. a) fitting in with peers b) romantic relationships c) events surrounding exam times d) missing family members Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress? 33. Which of the following is NOT one of the four kinds of ways that we experience stress? a) pressure b) change c) conflict d) danger Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress? 34. Psychologists have identified several distinct types of stress experiences. Which of the following is one of those types of stress experiences? a) sensitization b) frustration c) happiness d) change Answer: b Difficulty: Easy

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Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress? 35. Ling oversees keeping the copy room neat and tidy, but her co-workers often leave empty wrappers lying around or do not clean up after themselves. Ling may experience the type of stress known as a) frustration. b) pressure. c) conflict. d) discord. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress? 36. Yvonne has had an itchy rash for four months. Although she has seen many specialists and has taken three distinct types of medication, nothing seems to be alleviating her symptoms. Yvonne is beginning to think she will always have the rash. Which type of stress is Yvonne probably experiencing? a) conflict b) pressure c) frustration d) none of the above Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress? 37. Which of the following is an example of a stressful situation that would involve frustration? a) You just started a new job. b) You cannot decide which restaurant you want to go to for your birthday. c) You wanted to go to a concert featuring one of your favourite bands, but it is sold out. d) You need at least a 3.8 GPA to apply to the graduate program you wish to attend. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress? 38. Which of the following statements about pressure is FALSE? a) Self-imposed pressure is often more difficult than pressure from others. b) The presence of an audience always increases pressure. c) Feelings of pressure are often associated with feelings of distress. d) Pressure often results from standards being imposed. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress? 39. Rebecca has applied for a promotion in her job. Rebecca is very anxious about the upcoming interview. She is particularly worried because she feels her boss favours the male employees over the female employees. Based on research discussed in your text, what could be a possible outcome for Rebecca if she loses the promotion to a male employee? a) The pressure and distress Rebecca feels may cause her to have conflicts with her boss. b) The pressure and distress Rebecca feels may cause her to feel depressed. c) The pressure and distress Rebecca feels may cause her to feel she has to work harder. d) The pressure and distress Rebecca feels may cause her to be unmotivated to do her job in the future. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress? 40. Kateryna is driving in the fast lane when suddenly someone cuts in front of her, causing her to slam on her brakes. What kind of stress experience is Kateryna experiencing? a) frustration b) danger c) pressure d) conflict Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and

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the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress 41. Which of the following is FALSE about the Yerkes-Dodson law? a) Low levels of physiological arousal yield the best performance under pressure. b) High levels of physiological arousal yield the best performance under pressure. c) Moderate levels of physiological arousal yield the best performance under pressure. d) Both low and moderate physiological arousal yield the best performance under pressure. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress? 42. About athletic performance, which of the following statements is true? a) The Yerkes-Dodson law correctly predicts performance. b) Athletes perform best if they practice under high-pressure conditions. c) Athletes perform best if they increase their arousal levels right before the competition begins. d) Different athletes respond best to unique styles and techniques. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress? 43. When a person must choose between two equally desirable options, what kind of conflict is this? a) avoidance-approach b) approach-avoidance c) approach-approach d) avoidance-avoidance Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress?

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44. Aurora is stressed. She needs to make a decision, but she is NOT happy with any of the options in front of her. Aurora has been putting this off for months, but now she must decide. Which type of conflict is Aurora likely experiencing? a) an avoidance-avoidance conflict b) an approach-approach conflict c) an approach-avoidance conflict d) an avoidance-approach conflict Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress? 45. Madison was asked to the prom by Taylor and Robin. She had trouble deciding which date to accept because she liked them both. Which type of conflict is this an example of? a) avoidance-avoidance b) approach-avoidance c) approach-approach d) pressure Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress? 46. Which of the following people is experiencing an approach-approach conflict? a) Nehir, who cannot decide whether to go out with good friends or stay home and hang out with her sisters who she has not seen in a quite a while b) Michel, who would like to go out with friends, but is low on cash c) Linnea, who doesn’t want to study, but is afraid of failing her exam d) Raga, who wants to go out with her best friend, but wishes her friend’s obnoxious boyfriend weren’t coming along Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress?

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47. Which of the following people is experiencing an approach-avoidance conflict? a) Nehir, who cannot decide whether to go out with good friends or stay home and hang out with her sisters who she has not seen in quite a while b) Michel, who was invited to dinner with a girl he likes, but already has plans to go skiing with his dad c) Linnea, who doesn’t want to study, but is afraid of failing her exam d) Raga, who wants to go out with her best friend, but wishes her friend’s obnoxious boyfriend weren’t coming along Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress? 48. Adam is annoyed because his car keeps breaking down, but he doesn’t want to have to make payments on a new car. Adam is experiencing ___. a) an approach-approach conflict b) an approach-avoidance conflict c) an avoidance-avoidance conflict d) pressure Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress? 49. Next semester, you must take one required course to complete your psychology major. The two sections of the course are offered at 8:00 a.m. and at noon. As you work until midnight the night before the class, the 8:00 a.m. is not appealing to you, but the section offered at noon is with a professor that has a reputation for being really boring. You now find yourself in a __________________ conflict. a) an approach-approach b) an avoidance-avoidance c) an approach-avoidance d) accept-rejection Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress?

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50. Which of the following types of conflict is most likely to result in procrastination? a) an approach-approach conflict b) an approach-avoidance conflict c) an avoidance-avoidance conflict d) There is no way to predict which one is more likely to cause procrastination. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress? 51. Kaison wants good grades but doesn’t want to study. This is an example of a) self-serving bias. b) an approach-approach conflict. c) an approach-avoidance conflict. d) an avoidance-avoidance conflict. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress? 52. All the following are approach-avoidance conflicts EXCEPT ___. a) wanting a new car, but hating the thought of car payments b) being embarrassed by your old, beat-up car, but knowing that at least it is paid for c) wanting a sports car, but being afraid of higher insurance costs d) being undecided about whether to get the exciting sports car or a roomy SUV Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress? 53. What is the difference between an approach-approach conflict and an approach-avoidance conflict?

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a) An approach-approach conflict is choosing one choice that has multiple positive options, whereas an approach-avoidance conflict is choosing one choice that has both positive and negative aspects to it. b) An approach-approach conflict is choosing between two equally desirable options, whereas an approach-avoidance conflict is choosing one choice that has both positive and negative aspects to it. c) An approach-approach conflict is choosing one desirable option after another, whereas an approach-avoidance conflict is choosing one desirable option followed by an undesirable option. d) An approach-approach conflict is choosing the option that everyone else wants, whereas an approach-avoidance conflict is choosing the less desirable option. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress? 54. Which of the following is NOT an example of a daily hassle? a) saying “no” to a persistent salesperson b) finding that you have run out of coffee c) misplacing your car keys d) ending a romantic relationship Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress? 55. In addition to major stressors such as a bad marriage, war, or a repressive political climate, our daily social lives can also be stressful. What do major stressors have in common with stressors experienced in our daily lives? a) Both require considerable thought and energy to consistently endure and manage. b) Both involve encounters with hostile people. c) Both cause feelings of terror and helplessness. d) Both result in forced choices and undesirable outcomes. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress?

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56. Manato is trying to watch his cable show when it is suddenly interrupted, and his show is cut off. He immediately tries to call the cable company and gets a message and ends up on hold for 20 minutes. Then he finally reaches a human being and that person puts him on hold for another 10 minutes. When they return, they’ve forgotten his question and put him on hold again. This time they return to say that they can’t help him, but they’ll transfer him to another department. What kind of stress is Manato experiencing? a) conflict b) change c) pressure d) daily hassles Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress? 57. Which of the following is true about daily hassles? a) Daily hassles are usually small, insignificant events. b) Their impact on health is less than the impact of major life events. c) Measuring the impact of daily hassles is difficult. d) Daily hassles only become stressful when they are combined with other events. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress? 58. What is the likely result for a person who encounters multiple occurrences of minor daily hassles over an extended period of time? a) Multiple encounters with minor daily hassles will be a major stressor that leads to burnout. b) Multiple encounters with minor daily stressors will have minimal effect on the ability to cope. c) Multiple encounters with minor daily stressors will improve the ability to problem solve and increase endurance. d) Multiple encounters with minor daily stressors will help build resilience to subsequent major stressors. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and

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the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress? 59. Which statement describes the difference between a conflict and a hassle? a) A conflict causes stress and requires that individual decide about a situation, while a hassle causes stress but does not demand a response. b) A conflict causes an individual to experience an extreme amount of stress, while the stress from a hassle is much more manageable. c) A conflict can be resolved easily, while a hassle cannot be resolved. d) A conflict can cause both physical and emotional responses to stress, whereas a hassle generally only causes emotional responses. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress? 60. Sadie wants to change jobs, but she is worried about leaving her current job because she is comfortable there. She has no idea what to do, but Sadie knows she needs to do something. Marc is driving home from a long day at work when he encounters a traffic jam. He sits there for a half hour becoming frustrated. What is implied here? a) Sadie is experiencing a conflict, while Marc is experiencing a hassle. b) Sadie is experiencing a hassle, while Marc is experiencing a conflict. c) Both Sadie and Marc are experiencing conflicts. d) Both Sadie and Marc are experiencing hassles. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress? 61. Which tool is used to measure micro-stressors as a source of stress? a) Undergraduate Stress Questionnaire b) Chronic Job Stress Scale c) Daily Hassles Scale d) Social Readjustment Rating Scale Answer: c Difficulty: Easy

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Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress? 62. The Social Readjustment Rating Scale, created by Holmes and Rahe, illustrates which of the following concepts? a) The number of life changing events that occur in a short period of time positively correlates with perceived stress levels. b) Across cultures people do not rank the magnitude of their stressful events in a similar manner. c) There is no relationship between stress and illness. d) All stressors have an equal effect on our stress level. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress? 63. Which of the following is FALSE regarding the Social Readjustment Rating Scale (SRRS)? a) It measures the stressful events within the past year. b) The scale has been criticized for failing to take cultural differences into account. c) A score of less than 150 is associated with relatively little stress. d) The events included on the stress scale are for negative events. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress? 64. Which of the following statements about the Social Readjustment Rating Scale (SRRS) is true? a) Higher scores on the SRRS predict minor illnesses but not major illnesses. b) Having a score of more than 300 points on the SRRS means that you will become ill in the next year. c) Higher scores on the SRRS have been associated with the development of cancer. d) Higher scores on the SRRS are associated with diseases that have a psychological contribution, but not diseases that have only a biological basis. Answer: c

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress? 65. What would it actually mean if you got a high score on the Social Readjustment Rating Scale? a) You have undergone many life changes. b) You have many daily hassles. c) You put a lot of internal pressure on yourself. d) You have undergone a traumatic event recently. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress? 66. Ethan just completed the Social Readjustment Rating Scale and scored 172. What does this mean about his level of stress? a) He has major life stress. b) He has moderate stress. c) He has mild stress. d) He has very low stress. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress? 67. Sydney just completed the Social Readjustment Rating Scale and scored 295. What does this mean about his level of stress? a) She has major life stress. b) She has moderate stress. c) She has mild stress. d) She has very low stress. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and

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the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress? 68. Which of the following is/are classified as a powerful stressor(s) according to the Social Readjustment Rating Scale (SRRS)? a) divorce b) death of a spouse c) facing a jail term d) all of the above Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress? 69. How do men and women typically differ with respect to what they consider stressful? a) Women find failing at their goals as much more stressful than men. b) Men find personal injury or illness and changes in work responsibilities as much more stressful than women. c) Women find death of a family member and moving as much more stressful than men. d) Men find loss of a job and credit problems as much more stressful than women. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress? 70. Regarding stressful events, young children are likely to consider ___ to be more stressful and adolescents are likely to consider ___ to be more stressful. a) physical injury; physical injury b) psychosocial events; psychosocial events c) psychosocial events; physical injury d) physical injury; psychosocial events Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress?

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71. Which of the following events would most likely create the highest level of stress for fiveyear-old Julia? a) breaking her leg b) having her best friend tell her she “hates” her c) getting caught lying to her father d) not being allowed to have dessert as a punishment for hitting her brother Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress? 72. Which of the following events would create the highest level of stress for 14-year-old Anson? a) breaking his leg b) not having enough money to buy a new video game c) not being invited to a party his friends are going to d) his mother going away for a week-long conference Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress? 73. Which of the following is true about life stressor events in different populations? a) Women are more likely than men to rate personal injury as more stressful. b) The things that are most stressful to people remain relatively stable from one generation to another. c) Traumatic events are short-term stressors, but do not usually have long-term effects once the danger has passed. d) Most of the stressful events experienced by college or university students are school-related. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress? 74. All the following are frequent sources of stress for minority group members EXCEPT

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a) frequent contact with other minority group members. b) frequent or blatant displays of racism. c) subtle messages of inferiority. d) balancing the demands of two cultures. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress? 75. Which bodily reaction(s) occur(s) in response to stress? a) increased respiration b) increased heart rate c) tightening of stomach muscles d) all of the above Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 76. Our bodies are well designed for ________ stress but poorly equipped for ________ stress. a) physical; emotional b) emotional; physical c) temporary; prolonged d) prolonged; temporary Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 77. Physiologically we have two pathways that respond to stress. These pathways are called the a) parasympathetic nervous system and thalamic-amygdala-pituitary axis. b) sympathetic nervous system and hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis. c) autonomic nervous system and central nervous system. d) tempo-parietal pathway and dorso-lateral pathway.

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Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 78. The HPA axis is responsible for secreting ___ and the ANS axis is responsible for secreting ___. a) epinephrine; ACTH b) ACTH; corticosteroids c) ACTH; norepinephrine d) epinephrine; norepinephrine Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 79. Isla was in a bank during a robbery for 20 minutes before help arrived. Silas is a soldier. He has been stationed in a militarized area for the last year, along with a number of other soldiers. What is implied here? a) Isla has experienced a traumatic event, while Silas is experiencing chronic stress. b) Isla is experiencing chronic stress, while Silas is experiencing a traumatic event. c) Both Isla and Silas are experiencing traumatic events. d) Both Isla and Silas are experiencing chronic stress. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 80. Ella is choosing her classes for next semester. She has found four but needs to pick a fifth. There are two classes she is excited about, but they will NOT both fit in her schedule so she must choose one. Vikram is also choosing his classes. For his last class he must choose between taking chemistry or physics. He does NOT want to take either. What is implied here? a) Ella is experiencing an approach-approach conflict, while Vikram is experiencing an avoidance-avoidance conflict.

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b) Vikram is experiencing an approach-approach conflict, while Ella is experiencing an avoidance-avoidance conflict. c) Vikram and Ella are both experiencing an approach-approach conflict. d) Ella and Vikram are both experiencing an avoidance-avoidance conflict. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 81. Why do we have two physiological systems operating independently to react to stress? a) because one system is for acute stressors and the other is for chronic stressors b) because different stressors elicit responses from different systems c) because males rely on one system and females rely on the other system d) because this ensures that we can mobilize enough energy to deal with a stressor Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 82. Long-lasting, or chronic, events are generally more traumatizing than acute, or short-lasting events. Which of the following is an example of an acute event? a) Fabia was sexually abused as a toddler and preschooler. b) Ikaika was in a tsunami and lost many relatives and friends. c) Darlene’s husband was an alcoholic most of their marriage. d) Vadik was bullied at school. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 83. SNS is to HPA axis as _____ is to _____. a) fast; slow b) cortisol; epinephrine c) higher energy; lower energy d) flight-or-fight; tend-and-befriend

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Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 84. In Pathway 2, the fight-or-flight response begins in the ___. a) sympathetic nervous system b) pituitary gland c) adrenal cortex d) hypothalamus Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 85. Which is the correct order of physiological response to stress? a) hypothalamus ® adrenal medulla ® pituitary b) hypothalamus ® adrenal cortex ® pituitary c) hypothalamus ® pituitary ® adrenal medulla d) hypothalamus ® pituitary ® adrenal cortex Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 86. Ryder was mugged earlier in the evening. An hour later, as he is giving his statement to the police, he is still feeling stressed. Which stress response system is most likely in effect? a) Pathway 1 (SNS) b) Pathway 2 (HPA Axis) c) Both will be exerting an effect. d) Neither of these. His motor nervous system is creating the stress at this juncture. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium

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Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 87. Which of the following is NOT part of the HPA axis? a) ACTH b) adrenal cortex c) pituitary d) epinephrine Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 88. Esma is walking home through a dark alley when she hears a noise. Which stress response system will be most effective for Esma in the first few minutes in this event? a) Pathway 1 (SNS) b) Pathway 2 (HPA Axis) c) Both will equally effective. d) Parasympathetic response system Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 89. Walter Cannon proposed that in response to stress, we experience ___. a) the general adaptation syndrome b) primary appraisal c) the fight-or-flight response d) alarm, followed by resistance, followed by exhaustion Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress

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90. Epinephrine and norepinephrine are released by the a) adrenal medulla. b) adrenal cortex. c) pituitary gland. d) hypothalamus. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 91. Cortisol is released by the a) adrenal medulla. b) adrenal cortex. c) pituitary gland. d) hypothalamus. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 92. The purpose of cortisol is to ___. a) elevate blood sugar and supply energy b) trigger the adrenal medulla to produce epinephrine c) trigger the pituitary to release ACTH d) increase heart rate, blood pressure and respiration Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 93. Elodie has been under stress for a long time. She is starting to feel anxious and depressed, and her blood pressure is elevated. These symptoms are the result of prolonged ___ activity. a) norepinephrine b) ACTH c) cortisol

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d) epinephrine Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 94. Reem has been living at a university far from her home for over a year. She hates living away from home; she misses her parents and siblings, has no close friends and finds her academics to be uninteresting and too challenging. She works part time to help with expenses but hates her job. For several months Reem has felt anxious and depressed, suffered from stomach problems, headaches, and elevated blood pressure. Reem’s symptoms are the result of prolonged ___ activity. a) norepinephrine b) ACTH c) cortisol d) epinephrine Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 95. Which of the following is an effect of cortisol on bodily organs? a) Decrease blood sugar. b) Increase inflammation. c) Supply energy. d) Decrease sweating. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 96. Adrenocorticotropic hormone is released by the a) adrenal medulla. b) adrenal cortex. c) pituitary gland. d) hypothalamus.

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Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 97. According to Selye, ___. a) we respond to physical stress physiologically, but respond to emotional stress emotionally b) we respond to stress the same way, whatever its source c) chronic stress is associated with “fight,” while acute stress is associated with “flight” d) the resistance stage is characterized by the “fight-or-flight response” Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 98. Which of the following is NOT one of the stages of Selye’s general adaptation syndrome? a) resistance b) exhaustion c) maintenance d) alarm Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 99. The progression through alarm, resistance, and exhaustion is typical of the a) HPA axis. b) ANS axis. c) fight-or-flight response. d) general adaptation syndrome (GAS). Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress,

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and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 100. What happens to a person's stress resistance during the alarm phase of the General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS)? a) It is temporarily higher than normal. b) It is temporarily lower than normal. c) It is lowered permanently. d) There is no effect on a person's stress resistance. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 101. What happens to a person's stress resistance during the exhaustion phase of the General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS)? a) It remains elevated above pre-stress levels. b) Nothing happens to a person's stress resistance. c) It drops below pre-stress levels. d) Stress resistance varies by individual. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 102. Trang is at the end of the academic semester and is busy with exams and papers. She is feeling tired and anxious but is coping with her workload as she tells herself that the semester is almost over. Trang is experiencing the ___ stage. a) alarm b) exhaustion c) resistance d) fight-or-flight Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress,

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and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 103. Ann has been working in the same job for 15 years. Over the past year she has begun to dislike her job. Some days it is hard for her to even consider going to work because she dreads it so much. The stress has caused her to lose her appetite, and she rarely sleeps. Which phase of the general adaptation syndrome is Ann experiencing? a) The exhaustion phase. b) The alarm phase. c) The resistance phase. d) The normative phase. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 104. Several months ago, Gabriel found out that his wife had filed for divorce. He has overcome the initial shock and is now beginning to adapt to living alone but he feels still feels sad and angry. What stage of GAS is Gabriel in? a) alarm b) resistance c) tertiary depletion d) exhaustion Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 105. Rajmata is driving home when suddenly a small child runs in front of her car. She quickly veers to the right and almost hits a telephone post. Her heart is beating very quickly, and her breathing rate has increased. Which stage of Selye’s general adaptation syndrome is Rajmata experiencing? a) resistance b) alarm c) exhaustion d) coping Answer: b

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 106. Hugo is making dinner on the stove when he gets a call from his girlfriend. She is very upset, and he attends to her, completely forgetting the stove. Suddenly Hugo notices a glowing reflection in the window, and he turns and sees that the entire kitchen wall is on fire. What stage of Seyle’s general adaptation syndrome would Hugo enter at this point? a) resistance b) exhaustion c) maintenance d) alarm Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 107. Minesh is an emergency room doctor who has been treating the victims of a bus accident for the past 24 hours without a break. Just as he finishes with the last patient, he is told that ambulances are bringing in six victims of a house fire. Minesh feels physically exhausted. He does not feel he has enough energy left to treat the new patients, and his body just wants to give up. Which stage of Selyes general adaptation syndrome is Minesh experiencing? a) resistance b) alarm c) exhaustion d) coping Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 108. Helene has been caring for her elderly mother, who has Alzheimer’s disease, for the past 12 years. As she is leaving the house one day, she has severe chest pains and shortness of breath. The paramedics tell her she has likely had a heart attack. At which stage of GAS would Helene most likely be? a) alarm b) resistance c) exhaustion

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d) disease of adaptation Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 109. What is the difference between the resistance and the exhaustion stages of Seyle’s general adaptation syndrome? a) The resistance stage is when resources are being used to deal with a stressor, whereas the exhaustion stage is when resources are depleted. b) The resistance stage is when the stressor is being dealt with, whereas the exhaustion stage is when the stressor is over, and resources are being replenished. c) The resistance stage is when the stressor is first present, whereas the exhaustion stage is when the stressor is being dealt with. d) The resistance stage is when the body mobilizes its resources, whereas the exhaustion stage is when the body adapts and copes with the stressor. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 110. All the following are accurate statements about Seyle's general adaptation syndrome EXCEPT one. Which is incorrect? a) When stress is prolonged, the individual becomes accustomed to the threat. b) Physiological responses to stress differ, or are specific, to specific types of stressors. c) Continuing exposure to a stress may result in the individual exhibiting increased susceptibility to diseases of adaptation. d) Initially stress causes an activation of the fight-or-flight response. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 111. Which of the following are diseases of adaptation according to Selye? a) obesity b) phobias

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c) high blood pressure d) Parkinson’s disease Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 112. Selye said that the body became vulnerable to _______ because the body is less able to marshal the energy needed to address new stresses while engaged in resisting the previous stress. a) cancer b) negative coping responses c) diseases of adaptation d) autonomic reactivity Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 113. Which of the following is true about the emotional response to stress? a) Stress is most likely to produce the emotions of depression and anxiety. b) People who experience negative emotions in response to stress do so only when stress levels are high. c) The specific emotional response that people experience when under stress varies with individual situations and personal styles. d) Some people who are under stress experience negative emotions, while others thrive on stress and experience positive emotions. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 114. Abigail has experienced a very stressful year. Which of the following is likely to be true? a) Abigail will primarily feel anxious and depressed. b) If Abigail experiences another stressor, she will then experience negative emotions.

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c) Abigail will likely experience anxiety, fear, apprehension, dejection, anger, guilt, and shame. d) Abigail is probably experiencing negative emotions; however, the type or extent of her emotions will depend on her personal style, her appraisal of the situations, and the types of stressful situations she is facing. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 115. Stella has been planning her wedding for the past year and a half. A week before the wedding, the venue where they were going to hold the reception burned down. Stella begins calling companies to see if they have had any cancellations as well as rental companies to see if it is possible to rent a large tent. Based on Stella’s response to the situation, what was likely her primary appraisal of the situation? a) She felt very overwhelmed. b) She viewed it as a challenge. c) She felt despair because she believed she would have to cancel the wedding. d) She overreacted and took on too much work to compensate for her anxiety. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 116. During secondary appraisal, ___. a) we decide how threatening a stressor is b) we evaluate our ability to cope with a threat c) we prepare to face the challenge by either fighting or fleeing d) we activate our ANS and HPA pathways Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 117. Adrian has been skipping a lot of classes this semester and as a result is in danger of failing his third-year psychology course. After carefully examining his grades, his professor tells him that, if he attends class, does well on his term paper and on his final exam, he can still pass

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the course. Although Adrian understands this, he is feeling very overwhelmed by how far behind he has fallen and does not see how he can ever catch up. What will Adrian’s probable secondary appraisal and response to this stressful situation be? a) Adrian will work hard to receive the best grade he can, thereby being able to manage the stress. b) Adrian will not even try to do better, and this will alleviate his stress levels. c) Adrian will work hard to receive the best grade he can but will experience high stress levels in doing so. d) Adrian will not even try to do better, and this will cause high stress levels. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 118. Shahid has decided that the best way to deal with his stressor of an upcoming math test is to study fifteen hours a week for the next two weeks and receive extra help from his professor. Shahid has just engaged in _______________________. a) secondary appraisal b) primary appraisal c) rationalization d) withdrawal Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 119. According to the cognitive-mediational theory of stress, a secondary appraisal involves a) assessing one’s resources and ability to cope with the stressor. b) determining the extent of the stressor. c) figuring out what needs to be done to eliminate the stressor. d) decreasing the sympathetic nervous system and increasing the parasympathetic nervous system. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress

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120. What is the difference between a primary appraisal and a secondary appraisal? a) A primary appraisal involves establishing how the stressor will be dealt with, whereas a secondary appraisal involves gathering resources to deal with the stressor. b) A primary appraisal involves determining how severe the stressor is, whereas a secondary appraisal involves assessing the resources available to cope with the stressor. c) A primary appraisal involves contributing in a direct way to minimize the stressor, whereas a secondary appraisal involves indirect opposition to a stressor. d) A primary appraisal involves using a realistic explanatory style, whereas a secondary appraisal involves using a pessimistic explanatory style. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 121. If our primary appraisal of a stressful event is that it is a challenge that can be overcome, our stress response will be _____ and our secondary appraisal will be _____. a) limited to the alarm stage; to underestimate our ability to cope. b) non-existent; overconfident. c) high; that we have no control. d) manageable; that we have the resources to cope. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 122. An important variable in determining how we appraise a situation as threatening or stressful has to do with degree to which we a) have learned from past errors and mistakes. b) engage in the appraisal process. c) feel in control of the situation. d) engage others in the appraisal process. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress

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123. Ralfs is responding to a stressor. His sympathetic system has activated his adrenal medulla, which has released epinephrine and norepinephrine, raised his blood pressure, increased his respiration and stimulated his muscles. How is this system different from the HPA response? a) It is faster to influence the body. b) It causes the release of cortisol. c) It protects the body from inflammation. d) It supplies energy to the body. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 124. In a now classic study, Rodin and Langer (1977) examined nursing home residents and found that residents were more likely to live longer if ___. a) other people took care of all their daily decisions and hassles b) they didn’t experience any stress c) they were given more control over daily decisions d) they had a lot of low-level stressors to keep them occupied Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 125. When Mara discovered that she had woken up late for work she started to panic. Her morning was extremely stressful and by lunch she was frazzled. Slowly, Mara decided to calmly approach her afternoon because it could NOT be any crazier than her morning. Her change in reaction will result in a) healthier cortisol responses. b) healthier epinephrine responses. c) higher norepinephrine levels. d) lower dopamine levels. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ.

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Section Reference: Responding to Stress 126. A researcher exposes rats to a stressful environment by exposing them to shock. Some rats (the executive rats) can turn the shock off by making a decision to press the correct lever based on different warning sounds. Other rats (the worker rats) were exposed to the same warning sounds and the same shock but were not given the chance to make decisions about which levers to press. Based on what you know about cognitive responses to stress, you would expect the “executive rat” to have ___ health problems and the “worker rat” to have ___ health problems. a) more; fewer b) fewer; more c) both rats to have the same health problems d) There is no way to predict the outcome of this study. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 127. Of the following statements regarding cognitive responses to stress, which is NOT true? a) Stress is composed of two factors, the environmental event and personal factors. b) Perception of control influences our appraisal of a stressor, even if unrealistic. c) Appraisal depends on a person’s present psychological state. d) Our perception of a threat is elevated if we do not believe we have the resources to cope with it. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 128. Which of the following is NOT a factor identified in your text as related to individual differences in response to stress? a) autonomic reactivity b) explanatory style c) intelligence d) social support Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension

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Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 129. Physiological differences in _______ cause people to experience stress reactions more often or more intensely than other people. a) explanatory style b) autonomic reactivity c) appraisal d) somatic arousal Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 130. Autonomic reactivity refers to ___. a) the degree to which the sympathetic nervous system becomes aroused in response to stress b) the degree to which coping mechanisms buffer the individual against autonomic reactivity c) the fact that more stressful events trigger higher HPA responses d) the fact that some people explain even mildly stressful events as automatically alarming Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 131. Iker and Thomas are getting ready to write a final exam. After they receive the exam, Thomas begins immediately, but Iker is unable to start because his heart is beating rapidly, and he can hardly breathe. Iker is probably experiencing ___. a) lower levels of autonomic reactivity than Thomas b) higher levels of autonomic reactivity than Thomas c) a parasympathetic response d) a frustration-fear response Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ.

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Section Reference: Responding to Stress 132. Mr. Cremini has been to the emergency room five times in the past month with complaints of rapid heart rate and difficulty breathing. Each time the doctors have ruled out a heart attack and have suggested that Mr. Cremini is experiencing a reaction to stress. Which of the following best explains Mr. Cremini’s stress response? a) Mr. Cremini probably has a pessimistic explanatory style. b) Mr. Cremini probably has an optimistic explanatory style. c) Mr. Cremini has a low level of autonomic reactivity. d) Mr. Cremini has an elevated level of autonomic reactivity. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 133. Which of the following individuals is most likely to experience stress? a) Farrok, who has a best friend to confide in b) Tegan, who has a Type B personality c) Sakura, who has a highly reactive autonomic nervous system d) Eden, who is generally optimistic about the future Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 134. Jesse just had a house fire and has lost most of his possessions. Despite this, he says, “Nobody was hurt, and stuff can be replaced.” Jesse has ___. a) low autonomic reactivity b) an optimistic explanatory style c) a Type B personality d) a Type C personality Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress

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135. Finn and Zhu both failed their written driver’s test. Finn believes that he should just give up, that he will never get it right, and that it is a very hard test. Zhu believes that she needs to work harder and practice more before her next test. Which of the two is likely to feel less stress about failing the test? a) Finn, because he has given up and doesn’t care anymore about failing b) Finn, because he can attribute his failure to the difficulty of the test c) Zhu, because she cares about it more than Finn d) Zhu, because she has an optimistic explanatory style Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 136. Petar is going to audition for a part in the community theatre’s annual production. Before the audition, he tells his friend, “I probably won’t get a part, but maybe everyone else will do even worse than me.” Petar is exhibiting ___. a) an optimistic brand of pessimism b) defensive pessimism c) Type B personality traits d) Type C personality traits Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 137. Although Bandar does not believe he will ever win the lottery, he continues to buy tickets because, “you cannot win if you don’t have a ticket”. Bandar is exhibiting a) defensive optimism. b) optimism. c) pessimism. d) optimistic brand of pessimism. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress

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138. Emily has been a straight “A” student since high school. Now in university, she studies hard and has continued to make the top grades in her program. However, every time she must write a final exam, she tells her classmates that she is certain she will fail. Emily is exhibiting ___. a) an optimistic explanatory style b) an optimistic brand of pessimism c) defensive pessimism d) a pessimistic explanatory style Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 139. Noor was planning family reunion and wanted to have it outdoors so the children would have room to play without bothering the adults. Her sister, Thalia, was sure this was a mistake. “If something can go wrong, Noor, it will,” she told her sister. “It will rain for sure if we do this.” Noor laughed and said, “I won’t let that happen.” Noor is exhibiting _____ and Thalia is exhibiting _____. a) an optimistic explanatory style; a pessimistic explanatory style b) an optimistic brand of pessimism; defensive pessimism c) an unrealistic appraisal; a realistic appraisal d) an optimistic explanatory style; an optimistic brand of pessimism Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 140. How is an optimistic brand of pessimism different from being a defensive pessimist? a) An optimistic brand of pessimism is when you have a Type B personality, and defensive pessimism is when you have a Type C personality. b) An optimistic brand of pessimism is when you cover up your pessimism with sarcasm, and defensive pessimism is when someone is overly pessimistic. c) An optimistic brand of pessimism is when you believe things will go wrong but still hope that they won’t, and defensive pessimism is expecting the worst to avoid being disappointed later. d) An optimistic brand of pessimism is when you blame your pessimism on an external source, and defensive pessimism is when you hide the fact that you’re pessimistic. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium

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Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 141. Hannah and Leon are each planning to apply to four highly competitive graduate schools. Hannah believes that she probably won’t get in but hopes that she might be lucky and get accepted to at least one of the schools. Although deep down, Leon really hopes that he will be successful, he tells Hannah that he is sure none of the graduate schools will accept him. Hannah is exhibiting ______________ and Leon is exhibiting ____________. a) defensive optimism; pessimism b) guarded optimism; defensive pessimism c) optimistic brand of pessimism; defensive pessimism d) optimistic brand of pessimism; pessimistic explanatory style Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 142. Which of the following people is more likely to experience more alarm when faced with a stressor? a) a shy person b) a bold person c) a hardy person d) a Type A person Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 143. Todd always welcomed challenges in daily life and was willing to commit himself to taking control of his life. He saw stressors as opportunities for growth rather than crises. Which type of personality best describes Todd? a) Type A b) hardy c) Type B d) Type C Answer: b

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 144. Trika is extremely ambitious in all areas of her life. If she wants something, there is very little that will stop her from achieving her goal. Ivan is competitive in his personal life and his professional life. He is always prepared for a problem to arise, and often considers how to solve them. What is implied here? a) Both Trika and Ivan have Type A personalities. b) Both Trika and Ivan have Type D personalities. c) Trika has a Type A personality, while Ivan has a Type C personality. d) Trika has a Type B personality, while Ivan has a Type D personality. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 145. Pedro is eager to start a new career; committed to solve any problems that come his way, and believes he has control over what happens in his life. This suggests that Pedro __________________________. a) uses emotion-focused coping b) has a hardy personality c) is at risk for a heart attack d) will experience more stressors when he is older Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 146. People who welcome challenges and take control in their daily lives are known as ___. a) Type A personalities b) Type B personalities c) Type C personalities d) hardy personalities Answer: d

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 147. Savanah is always pleasant to be around. She never seems sad or angry – ever. In fact, even the time that the neighbour’s dog killed her prize rooster, and then the neighbour had the nerve to invite her over for a barbecue to eat said rooster, she just smiled, thanked him for the invitation, and explained that she wasn’t hungry. What type of personality does Rabia has? a) Type A b) Type B c) Type C d) stress-resistant Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 148. Which of the following is most likely a Type C personality? a) Arnaud, who is sitting restlessly in his cardiologist’s office b) Anisa, whose psychologist is trying to get her to talk about why she’s angry c) Chaman, who waiting to have his ankle x-rayed after an injury during a soccer game d) Valeria, who has joined a support group after she was diagnosed with cancer Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 149. Jason is a Type B personality. He has just failed an exam. How is he most likely to respond? a) “This is a going to cause big problems for me in my academic career.” b) “This is terrible. The instructor is a jerk, and the test was too long.” c) “This is only one test; I’ll make it up next time.” d) “I don’t care, and I don’t want to talk about it.” Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 150. Mae is relatively relaxed, patient, easygoing, and friendly. Mae would be classified as having which of the following? a) Type B personality b) Type A personality c) Type C personality d) high self-esteem Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 151. The personality type identified by Friedman and Rosenman as being most at risk for heart disease is known as ___. a) pessimistic b) hardy c) Type A d) Type C Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 152. Which of the following statements about the role of social support is FALSE? a) It may buffer stress by increasing people’s self-esteem. b) It may buffer stress by providing people with a greater sense of control. c) It may buffer stress by distracting people from the stressful event. d) It may buffer stress by reducing physiological arousal. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress

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153. Which of the following is a physical effect associated with high stress and low social support? a) poor immune functioning b) hardiness c) eustress d) anxiety Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 154. Social support plays an important role in stress reduction. Select the answer below that has been hypothesized to explain this relationship. a) The sheer repetition of the circumstances surrounding a stressor can reduce the threat of a stressor. Close friends and relatives provide an audience for this recitation. b) Presence of those who are trusted may eliminate the need for appraisal allowing for an acceptance of the stressor without a need for evaluation. c) Presence of close friends and relatives may increase bodily arousal and alertness creating greater autonomic reactivity. d) Discussion with others may alter perceptions of threat and reduce the appraisal of the stressor’s importance. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 155. The positive role of social support a) is most effective with stress-resistant personalities. b) was first revealed in animal studies. c) has little impact on those with Type A personality. d) eliminates the role of appraisal. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress,

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and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 156. Coping is best defined as a) efforts to manage, decrease, or tolerate stress. b) the ability to push negative feelings out of awareness. c) maintaining calmness in the face of stress. d) the sharing of emotions and experiences to deal with stress. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress. Section Reference: Coping with Stress 157. Elin is about to write her final exams and she is already stressed out. To help her deal with her stress, she decides to eat a big green salad, go for a long and slow jog through the park, and get a chocolate milkshake. What are Elin’s efforts to decrease and manage her stress called? a) coping b) appraising c) self-defending d) self-disclosing Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress. Section Reference: Coping with Stress 158. Logan is frustrated because he is stuck in traffic and late for work. He bangs the steering wheel and curses out loud. What are Logan’s efforts to manage the situation called? a) coping b) appraising c) self-defending d) self-disclosing Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress. Section Reference: Coping with Stress 159. Jania has been taking care of her terminally ill mother for the past three months. She also works full time and cares for her two children. To cope with the stress she is under, Jania

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employs a few different coping strategies depending on the situation. Jania could be described as ___. a) coping-accommodated b) coping-adaptive c) coping-flexible d) coping-freestyle Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress. Section Reference: Coping with Stress 160. One explanation for the link between laughter and health is that laughter a) is associated with higher intelligence and therefore better decision-making. b) is associated with better coping styles. c) reduces blood pressure. d) creates serotonin. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress. Section Reference: Coping with Stress 161. Which of the following statements regarding laughter and health has NOT been found in research? a) Laughter is associated with improvement in immune system activity. b) Laughter is associated with better heart health. c) Laughter is associated with increased aerobic activity. d) Laughter is associated with greater social support. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress. Section Reference: Coping with Stress 162. Which is the best known practice of meditation that occurs in modern society? a) mantra b) concentrative c) yoga d) opening-up Answer: c

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress. Section Reference: Coping with Stress 163. Most prominently, meditation is associated with the Buddhist and the ___ religions. a) Confucian b) Muslim c) Hindu d) Shinto Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress. Section Reference: Coping with Stress 164. In the ___________meditative technique, the person imagines his or herself as another person. a) opening-up b) mindfulness c) concentrative d) mantra Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress. Section Reference: Coping with Stress 165. Persons who practice concentrative meditation actively concentrate on an object, word, phrase, or idea called a a) chant. b) trance. c) mantra. d) monotone. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress. Section Reference: Coping with Stress

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166. Rémy practices mindfulness meditation. Which of the following describes what Rémy is doing? a) Rémy clears his mind and focuses on a single object. b) Rémy ‘s attention is widened to include all thoughts, feelings, and sensations that flow through his mind. c) Rémy moves his body in fluid gentle ways to heighten his focus. d) Rémy incorporates prayer and communication with a deity figure into his meditation. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress. Section Reference: Coping with Stress 167. Which of the following occurs during concentrative meditation? a) The meditating person clears their mind and focuses on a single object. b) Attention is widened to include all activities and sounds around the meditating person. c) The meditating person moves their body in fluid gentle ways to heighten their focus. d)This form of mediation incorporates prayer and communication with a deity figure. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress. Section Reference: Coping with Stress 168. Research suggests that people in meditative states experience the same brainwaves as those experienced just prior to sleep EXCEPT for a) experienced meditators. b) novice meditators. c) children. d) women. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress. Section Reference: Coping with Stress 169. Which of the following is true about lashing out? a) It provides a cathartic, cleansing effect that allows emotions to vent. b) Lashing out is usually related to an explosive personality type. c) Most adults lash out at some point in time. d) Expressions of anger typically create more outbursts, not fewer.

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Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress. Section Reference: Coping with Stress 170. Matthew has been arguing with his new boss almost every day for the past month. After one particularly stressful day, he comes home to find that his roommate had left dirty dishes in the sink. Matthew becomes extremely angry and tells his roommate that he wants him to move out. Which coping style is Matthew using? a) self-defence b) reaction formation c) lashing out d) repression Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress. Section Reference: Coping with Stress 171. Taleda works full time and has three children to care for. Additionally, her mother-in-law, who has Alzheimer’s disease has been living with her and her husband for the past three months. Taleda’s husband has just told Taleda that he finds her to be angry all the time and, if she does not learn to control her temper, he is going to leave her. Which of the following is probably at the root of Taleda’s problem? a) Taleda is under stress and is using a repressive coping style. b) Taleda is under stress but is not coping-flexible. c) Taleda is under stress and is using a lashing-out coping style. d) Taleda is under stress and is using a displacement coping style. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress. Section Reference: Coping with Stress 172. Terry borrowed his stepfather’s car to run some errands. When he returned the car, the taillight was broken. His stepfather was angry, but he didn't say anything to Terry. Later, when Terry’s dog was whining Terry’s stepfather yelled at her and sent her out into the yard in the rain. Terry’s father is exhibiting the coping style called ______________. a) blocking b) lashing out c) repression d) self-defence

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Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress. Section Reference: Coping with Stress 173. Why is lashing out NOT an effective coping strategy? a) It involves reinterpreting the stressor so that the negative aspects are less upsetting. b) It diverts us from the stressor, but it doesn’t get rid of it. c) It requires that we lie to ourselves about the stressor. d) It doesn’t relieve the stress and may even increase it. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress. Section Reference: Coping with Stress 174. Yuan refused to believe that his girlfriend was cheating on him even after multiple friends provided him with irrefutable evidence. Which type of coping style is Yuan using? a) behavioural b) repressive c) lashing out d) adaptive Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress. Section Reference: Coping with Stress 175. Problem-focused coping is most effective in which type of situation? a) when the individual has some control over the situation b) when the individual does not want to completely eliminate the behavior c) when the individual is using defense mechanisms d) when the individual only wants to change his or her emotional reactions Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress. Section Reference: Coping with Stress

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176. Laredo’s doctor has just told him he has high blood pressure. When asked about his stress levels, Laredo responds that, although he has been under stress, he can push it aside and not let it bother him. Which of the following is most likely to be a factor related to Laredo’s high blood pressure? a) Laredo is using a problem-focused coping style which causes increased autonomic arousal. b) Laredo is using lashing out as a coping style and his outbursts are increasing his blood pressure. c) Laredo is using a repressive coping style and although this masks the stress, it causes increased autonomic arousal. d) Laredo is using an emotion-focused coping strategy which causes increased autonomic arousal. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress. Section Reference: Coping with Stress 177. Janice has decided to update her professional skills and resume after several interviews have NOT produced job offers. Corrine, after feeling rejected, has realized that the job position she was NOT offered simply was NOT the right path for her career. How do Janice and Corrine compare? a) Janice is employing problem-focused coping and Corrine emotion-focused coping. b) Janice is employing emotion-focused coping and Corrine problem-focused coping. c) Janice is employing a defense mechanism and Corrine a healthy coping mechanism. d) Janice is employing a healthy coping mechanism and Corrine a defense mechanism. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress. Section Reference: Coping with Stress 178. A repressive coping style most closely resembles Freud’s defence mechanism called ___. a) regression b) repression c) reaction formation d) rationalization Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress.

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Section Reference: Coping with Stress 179. How does someone with a repressive coping style deal with stressors? a) They lash out at someone else. b) They share their stressful experience with others to ease the burden. c) They do the opposite of what they feel or believe. d) They consistently block negative feelings and discomfort out of awareness. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress. Section Reference: Coping with Stress 180. Which coping strategy is associated with the most health problems? a) using a lashing-out strategy b) relying on a self-indulgent strategy c) having a repressive coping style d) increasing self-disclosure Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress. Section Reference: Coping with Stress 181. Which of the following is true about self-defence as coping? a) It involves lashing out. b) It involves putting something out of mind. c) It is an adaptive way of coping. d) It involves engaging in “comfort behaviours.” Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress. Section Reference: Coping with Stress 182. Which of the following individuals is most likely using a self-defence coping strategy to deal with the stressor of losing a job? a) Rylee, who goes for a long jog and kicks a bench b) Ben, who says that the job was holding him back and he was going to quit anyways c) Ivy, who eats a tub of cookie dough ice cream d) Jayden, who sees this as an opportunity to pursue his dream of publishing his novel

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Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress. Section Reference: Coping with Stress 183. Which maladaptive coping strategy sounds very similar to Freud’s defence mechanism of reaction formation? a) self-indulgence b) self-defence c) lashing out d) self-disclosure Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress. Section Reference: Coping with Stress 184. What do you think the primary difference between emotion-focused coping and a defense mechanism? a) whether or not reality is distorted b) whether or not the ego is soothed c) whether or not emotions are regulated d) whether or not anxiety is alleviated Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress. Section Reference: Coping with Stress 185. Joyce and Diane are adult sisters. Their elderly mother is in the hospital after a fall. After the initial shock wears off, Verna goes through her mother’s house installing safety precautions, such as handrails, nonslip mats, etc. Diane is reluctant to help Joyce but sits with their mother in the hospital all day every day. Diane reasons that accidents simply happen. What can be said of Joyce and Diane? a) Diane is employing emotion-focused coping, while Joyce is employing problem-focused coping. b) Diane is employing problem-focused coping, while Joyce is employing emotion-focused coping. c) Diane and Joyce are both employing emotion-focused coping. d) Diane and Joyce are both employing problem-focused coping.

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Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress. Section Reference: Coping with Stress 186. What do self-defence and self-indulgence have in common? a) They both damage relationships with other people. b) They both sacrifice long-term coping for short-term relief. c) They both decrease autonomic responsiveness. d) They both involve unconscious processes. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress. Section Reference: Coping with Stress 187. Which of the following is NOT true about self-indulgence? a) It may contribute to serious health effects. b) It may produce greater pressure. c) It is never an effective coping mechanism. d) It may involve consuming drugs and alcohol. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress. Section Reference: Coping with Stress 188. Which of the following is NOT a self-indulgent coping strategy? a) eating chocolate b) drinking alcohol c) ignoring the issue d) surfing the internet Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress. Section Reference: Coping with Stress

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189. Lesedi and her housemates are feeling very stressed out about their upcoming exams. They decide to blow off some steam and hit the clubs, making this a night to last them until exams are over. What kind of coping strategy is Lesedi using? a) self-indulgent coping b) lashing out c) emotion-focused d) self-defence Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress. Section Reference: Coping with Stress 190. Aubrey has just asked his boss for a pay raise and was turned down. After work, he goes to a bar and drinks five beer. What coping style does this example illustrate? a) lashing out b) over-compensating c) self-defence d) self-indulgence Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress. Section Reference: Coping with Stress 191. Micah’s partner broke off their five year relationship abruptly and unexpectedly. When family and friends tried to talk with him about the ending of the relationship, he brushed them off saying he didn’t care; he was ready to be on his own and had been feeling tied down. Despite his claims to the contrary, Micha seems depressed and anxious to those around him. What coping style might Micha be using? a) self-indulgence b) displacement c) regressive d) repressive Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress. Section Reference: Coping with Stress 192. Cliff spent money recklessly and irresponsibly. He lied to his partner about his spending and got the family into deep debt. When inevitably faced with his poor financial choices he

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vehemently denied doing anything wrong, claiming he was only trying to take care of his family. What coping style might Cliff be using? a) self-indulgence b) displacement c) regressive d) repressive Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress. Section Reference: Coping with Stress 193. Problem-focused coping is best defined as a) coping strategies focused on changing how we feel about the stressor. b) coping strategies focused on handling the stressor directly. c) coping strategies focused on denying the existence of the stressor. d) coping strategies focused on using exercise and meditation to decrease the effects of a stressor. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress. Section Reference: Coping with Stress 194. Gabriella’s car has broken down – again. She decides that this is it and she trades it in for a better, more reliable car. What kind of coping strategy did Gabriella use? a) self-disclosure b) lashing out c) emotion-focused coping d) problem-focused coping Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress. Section Reference: Coping with Stress 195. Kian just lost his job. He has already begun to review newspaper and internet ads. Kian is using ___. a) defensive coping b) problem-focused coping c) emotion-focused coping d) cognitive reappraisal

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Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress. Section Reference: Coping with Stress 196. Jiang suffers from the sleep disorder narcolepsy which causes him to uncontrollably fall asleep. He finds that he has a very difficult time staying awake in the afternoon, which has proven to be very disruptive to his work. Which of the following would be an example of a problem-focused coping strategy for Jiang? a) Jiang can use cognitive reappraisal to convince himself that he can stay awake until the end of the workday. b) Jiang can ask his boss if he can take a two-hour lunch so he can nap, but then stay later in the day. c) Jiang can tell himself that this is not a problem; he just needs to be determined and to think more positively. d) None of the above describe a problem-focused coping strategy. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress. Section Reference: Coping with Stress 197. If you want to apply a problem-focused form of coping to answer difficult questions on this exam, your best strategy would be to _____. a) make your best guess and cross your fingers b) argue with your teacher after class that some questions were unfair c) mark the difficult questions and return to them after checking other questions for clues d) spend a minute thinking about all the good things that have happened to you this week Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress. Section Reference: Coping with Stress 198. Which of the following is a constructive coping strategy when confronted with a stressor that you CANNOT exert control over? a) self-indulgence b) self-defence c) emotion-focused coping d) lashing out

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Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress. Section Reference: Coping with Stress 199. Filip got suspended from his university due to low grades. Although he was upset about it at first, he is now looking at it as an opportunity to start something new. What kind of coping strategy is Filip using? a) problem-focused coping b) self-indulgent c) emotion-focused coping d) self-defence Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress. Section Reference: Coping with Stress 200. Which of the following persons is effectively using emotion-focused coping? a) Roscoe decided that his poor grade on the math test was because his teacher was boring. b) Logan decided that not making the basketball team would give him more time to focus on his studies and finish college sooner. c) Shayma decided that all men were jerks after being dumped by five men in five years. d) Meriem decided to ignore the lump in her breast, telling herself that it was probably no big deal. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress. Section Reference: Coping with Stress 201. Which of the following about emotion-focused coping is FALSE? a) It sometimes includes cognitive reappraisal. b) It may include changing the way we feel about a stressor. c) It is more appropriate in some situations than problem-focused coping. d) It involves dealing directly with the stressor to reduce its effects. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress.

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Section Reference: Coping with Stress 202. Farida is very nervous about an upcoming surgery. Which of the following would be an effective coping strategy for Farida to use? a) repressive coping b) emotion-focused coping c) problem-focused coping d) defensive coping Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress. Section Reference: Coping with Stress 203. Santino’s girlfriend just broke up with him. To cope with the hurt he is feeling, he convinces himself that it is for the best because she was always criticizing him. Santino is using _________________ which is part of ____________ coping. a) self-defence; problem-focused b) self-defence; emotion-focused c) cognitive reappraisal; problem-focused d) cognitive reappraisal; emotion-focused Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress. Section Reference: Coping with Stress 204. What is the difference between problem-focused coping and emotion-focused coping? a) Problem-focused coping involves dealing directly with the stressor, whereas emotion-focused coping involves changing how we feel about the stressor. b) Problem-focused coping involves avoiding the stressor, whereas emotion-focused coping involves lying to ourselves about the stressor. c) Problem-focused coping involves getting rid of the source of the stressor, whereas emotionfocused coping involves lashing out. d) Problem-focused coping involves self-defensive procedures, whereas emotion-focused coping involves self-indulgent procedures. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress. Section Reference: Coping with Stress

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205. Problem-focused is to emotion-focused as _____ is to _____. a) direct; reinterpretation b) avoidance; lying c) denial; lashing out d) self-defensive procedures; self-indulgent procedures Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress. Section Reference: Coping with Stress 206. Maliya lives alone and has just been diagnosed with an illness that may require a lengthy recovery process. She has no strong connections to her family or her community. What is likely to happen to her? a) It is likely Maliya will have more physical problems and a slower recovery. b) It is likely Maliya will have adaptive cortisol responses to stress and will need hospitalization. c) It is likely Maliya has a positive outlook on life and will cope with the situation easily. d) It is likely Maliya will have the coping skills to manage this situation. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress. Section Reference: Coping with Stress 207. What challenges may a person who is socially isolated and lacking in social skills face as he or she ages? a) He or she will be at greater risk for developing illness and disease. b) He or she will be more dependent on others for activities of daily living. c) He or she will rely on deviant ways to socialize and interact with others. d) He or she will be less likely to eat a healthy diet rich in immunity-boosting nutrients. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress. Section Reference: Coping with Stress 208. Esteban was only 27 when his wife died. He had no children, never remarried, and withdrew from many social and familial relationships as he got older. In his early 60s, he noticed that he was ill frequently and had a lot of trouble sleeping. Why is this?

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a) People who lack social skills have more anxiety and are at greater risk for developing disease. b) People who do not have children get ill more frequently than those that do have children. c) People without spouses and families to take care of them when they are ill do not recover easily. d) People who lack social skills are also less likely to visit doctors when they are ill. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress. Section Reference: Coping with Stress 209. Which of the following people is the best example of someone using cognitive reappraisal? a) Jake, who has become involved in volunteer work since he was forced into early retirement b) Zaida, who finds comfort through prayer while taking care of her sick child c) Emanuel, who just broke up with his girlfriend and has started exercising instead of dating d) Tenshi, who just lost her job and is relieved that she won’t have to deal with her difficult boss anymore Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress. Section Reference: Coping with Stress 210. What do exercise and meditation have in common? a) They both increase cortisol levels. b) They both increase self-confidence. c) They both activate the sympathetic nervous system. d) They both lower blood pressure. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress. Section Reference: Coping with Stress 211. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a benefit of social support? a) providing financial resources b) providing problem-focused assistance c) reducing the impact of threatening situations d) reducing the number of threatening situations Answer: a

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress. Section Reference: Coping with Stress 211. Which of the following is a psychosomatic disease? a) ulcers b) hypertension c) migraine headaches d) all of these Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain how stress can cause physical illness, and discuss situations in which stress may be beneficial. Section Reference: Stress and Health 212. José’s doctor has told him he has a psychosomatic disease. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be true? a) José is under stress. b) José is a hypochondriac. c) José has some psychological symptoms. d) José has physical symptoms. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explain how stress can cause physical illness, and discuss situations in which stress may be beneficial. Section Reference: Stress and Health 213. Alice suffers from migraines; Ibrahim suffers from asthma; Barkley suffers from ulcers; and Pierre suffers from hypertension. Which of these individuals have diseases solely physical in nature, diseases considered psychosomatic, and diseases exacerbated (made worse) by stress? a) Barkley – solely physical; Alice, Ibrahim and Pierre psychosomatic; none exacerbated b) Barkley, Ibrahim – solely physical; Alice and Pierre psychosomatic; none exacerbated c) none – solely physical; Alice, Ibrahim and Pierre psychosomatic; Barkley exacerbated d) Alice – solely physical; Ibrahim psychosomatic; Barkley and Pierre exacerbated Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis

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Learning Objective: Explain how stress can cause physical illness, and discuss situations in which stress may be beneficial. Section Reference: Stress and Health 214. A psychosomatic disease is ___. a) imagined by the patient b) caused by psychological stress and pressure c) caused by an interaction of physical and psychological factors d) a syndrome with an unknown cause Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain how stress can cause physical illness, and discuss situations in which stress may be beneficial. Section Reference: Stress and Health 215. Which of the following is NOT a disease that is psychosomatic in nature in any form? a) migraine headaches b) ulcers c) asthma d) bipolar disorder Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain how stress can cause physical illness, and discuss situations in which stress may be beneficial. Section Reference: Stress and Health 216. Which of the following is FALSE about myocardial infarction? a) It is responsible for more than 48,000 deaths in Canada annually. b) It is caused by a combination of organ weakness and infection. c) It is the second leading cause of death in Canada for men and women over 45. d) It is more likely to occur in an individual with Type A personality. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Explain how stress can cause physical illness, and discuss situations in which stress may be beneficial. Section Reference: Stress and Health 217. Sergio is impatient and cynical. He frequently gets into disagreements with other people.

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Sergio runs an elevated risk for developing ___. a) cancer b) diabetes c) coronary heart disease d) mental illness Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain how stress can cause physical illness, and discuss situations in which stress may be beneficial. Section Reference: Stress and Health 218. Which of the following people are at greatest risk of developing coronary heart disease? a) Marie, who has few friends because of her hostile, distrustful nature b) Felix, who has some Type A personality characteristics but does not tend to be hostile c) Pau, who works most evenings and weekends d) All of these people are equally at risk. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explain how stress can cause physical illness, and discuss situations in which stress may be beneficial. Section Reference: Stress and Health 219. Which of the following people is least at risk for developing coronary heart disease? a) a person with a Type A personality b) a person with a Type B personality c) a person with a Type C personality d) a person with a coronary-prone personality Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Explain how stress can cause physical illness, and discuss situations in which stress may be beneficial. Section Reference: Stress and Health 220. Kenzo is at his doctor’s office for a yearly checkup. During the checkup Kenzo tells the doctor about how his employees do NOT do their jobs correctly and that he always needs to fix their mistakes. Kenzo also looks at the clock often, saying he really needs to go back to the work. Which of the following best explains what the doctor will likely tell Kenzo?

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a) Kenzo is at high risk for high blood pressure and potentially heart disease, due to his Type A behavior patterns. b) Kenzo is at risk for a compromised immune system and potentially cancer, due to his Type A behavior patterns. c) Kenzo could be at risk for heart disease and stroke, due to his Type B behavior patterns. d) Kenzo could be at risk for developing a gastric ulcer, due to his Type B behavior patterns. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain how stress can cause physical illness, and discuss situations in which stress may be beneficial. Section Reference: Stress and Health 221. Which of the following aspects of a Type A personality is most associated with coronary heart disease? a) impatience b) cynicism c) competitiveness d) hostility Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain how stress can cause physical illness, and discuss situations in which stress may be beneficial. Section Reference: Stress and Health 222. Which of the following statements is true? a) Coronary heart disease is the leading cause of death in middle-aged and older men, but cancer is the leading cause of death in middle-aged and older women. b) People with Type B personalities are also called coronary-prone personalities. c) Coronary heart disease is caused by an interaction between physical and psychological factors. d) Extreme competitiveness and time pressure are the primary factors associated with elevated coronary risk in Type A personalities. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Explain how stress can cause physical illness, and discuss situations in which stress may be beneficial. Section Reference: Stress and Health

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223. Sara is doing research on the relationship between Type A patterns of behavior and positive affect. She believes that the two could be related to healthier behaviors and higher immunity. What experiment do you think she could set up to prove this point? a) Sara should find a group of individuals who are often argumentative, negative, and always expecting something bad to happen. She should then work to increase their positivity and overall contentment with their lives. Sara should monitor their blood pressure for the duration of the study. b) Sara should find a group of individuals who have very little tendency toward competitive or aggressive behaviors. Then she should work with them to increase their positive affect, which will increase their confidence. c) Sara should work with a group of individuals who have high levels of ambition in regard to their jobs. She should then explore the idea behind positive affect and see how their ambition increases the positivity. d) Sara should find confident, relaxed, laid back individuals and monitor their blood pressure before and after working with them on creating a positive affect. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explain how stress can cause physical illness, and discuss situations in which stress may be beneficial. Section Reference: Stress and Health 224. Which area of study investigates the link between stress, the immune system, and health? a) psychoneuroimmunology b) psychopharmacology c) health psychology d) endocrinology Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain how stress can cause physical illness, and discuss situations in which stress may be beneficial. Section Reference: Stress and Health 225. While all of the personality characteristics of Type A behavior can cause problems, the one MOST associated with an increased risk of heart disease is a) cynicism and hostility. b) exaggerated time urgency. c) competitiveness. d) intense ambition. Answer: a

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain how stress can cause physical illness, and discuss situations in which stress may be beneficial. Section Reference: Stress and Health 226. What is psychoneuroimmunology? a) the study of how our immune system affects our psychological health b) the study of the links between stress, health, and the immune system c) the study of the relationship between health-related factors and psychological well-being d) the study of how the immune system changes over time in response to environmental stress Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain how stress can cause physical illness, and discuss situations in which stress may be beneficial. Section Reference: Stress and Health 227. White blood cells that circulate through the lymphatic system and blood stream are called a) lymphocytes. b) hemoglobin. c) natural killer T-cells. d) cytokines. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain how stress can cause physical illness, and discuss situations in which stress may be beneficial. Section Reference: Stress and Health 228. Yael had regular blood tests due to a health condition. Because of this, Yael happened to be given a blood test during the final exam period in her last year of university. Which of the following might her physician have been likely to report back to Yael? a) elevated levels of lymphocytes b) low levels of lymphocytes c) low levels of norepinephrine d) low levels of cytokines Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain how stress can cause physical illness, and discuss situations in which stress may be beneficial.

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Section Reference: Stress and Health 229. Kaelyn feels very stressed. In the last year, she has been solely responsible for caring for a bereaved parent, three young children, one diagnosed with autism, and has had to manage her career where she supervises several employees. She also has a self-focused spouse who spends money they don’t have and who is rarely home. All the following might be outcomes for Kaelyn EXCEPT a) increased viral and/or bacterial infections b) low levels of lymphocytes c) psychosomatic illnesses d) low levels of cytokines Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain how stress can cause physical illness, and discuss situations in which stress may be beneficial. Section Reference: Stress and Health 230. Which of the following statements about lymphocyte production is true? a) Stress causes the number of lymphocytes to increase. b) Lymphocytes carry oxygen to various parts of the body. c) Lymphocytes are a specific type of killer T-cell. d) Bereaved people have shown lower lymphocyte levels than people in control groups. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Explain how stress can cause physical illness, and discuss situations in which stress may be beneficial. Section Reference: Stress and Health 231. Kaleem’s lymphocyte levels are suppressed. Kaleem may be at immediate risk for ___. a) coronary heart disease b) ulcers c) influenza d) schizophrenia Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain how stress can cause physical illness, and discuss situations in which stress may be beneficial. Section Reference: Stress and Health

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232. Many students develop colds and other minor illnesses during final exam week. Based on the research into the physical responses to stress, why does this happen? a) Stress raises the level of neuropeptides and amino acids. b) Stress lowers the level of lymphocytes in the students’ blood. c) Stress lowers the level of cytokines in the students’ blood. d) Stress reduces the level of immune system activity. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain how stress can cause physical illness, and discuss situations in which stress may be beneficial. Section Reference: Stress and Health 233. Muhammad’s wife of 20 years passed away a month ago. What changes are likely present in Muhammad’s immune system? a) His lymphocytes aren’t functioning normally. b) His cytokines are too low. c) His norepinephrine levels are low. d) His cortisol levels are very low. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain how stress can cause physical illness, and discuss situations in which stress may be beneficial. Section Reference: Stress and Health 234. Although Rinshō’s daughters look after him, he is very lonely since the death of his wife. Rinshō looked after his wife for the many years she deteriorated before dying of Alzheimer’s disease. The current level of social support Rinshō is receiving might offset some physiological effects but what changes are likely present in Rinshō’s immune system? a) His lymphocytes aren’t functioning normally. b) His cytokines are too low. c) His norepinephrine levels are low. d) His cortisol levels are very low. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain how stress can cause physical illness, and discuss situations in which stress may be beneficial. Section Reference: Stress and Health

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235. How can cytokines, which help fight infection, contribute to heart disease, stroke, and other illness? a) High stress causes the lymphocytes to bind to cytokine receptors, which in turn weaken the body’s defences against bacteria and viruses. b) High stress causes the adrenal glands to release cortisol, which in turn inhibits the cytokines. c) High stress leads to high cytokine levels, which in turn leads to chronic inflammation. d) High stress leads to low cytokine levels, which in turn excite norepinephrine receptors. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Explain how stress can cause physical illness, and discuss situations in which stress may be beneficial. Section Reference: Stress and Health 236. After long term exposure to a stressor causes high levels of _____ leading to chronic _____. a) cytokines; inflammation b) cytokines; lymphocyte destruction c) lymphocytes; infection d) lymphocytes; cytokine destruction Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Explain how stress can cause physical illness, and discuss situations in which stress may be beneficial. Section Reference: Stress and Health 237. Cytokines ___. a) help reduce inflammation b) are proteins that bind to receptors throughout the body c) are also called stress hormones d) are white blood cells Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain how stress can cause physical illness, and discuss situations in which stress may be beneficial. Section Reference: Stress and Health 238. What do lymphocytes, corticosteroids, and cytokines have in common? a) They are all part of the HPA pathway. b) They are all part of the ANS pathway.

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c) They all enhance immune functioning at low stress levels and impair it at high stress levels. d) They are all components of white blood cells. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Explain how stress can cause physical illness, and discuss situations in which stress may be beneficial. Section Reference: Stress and Health 239. Tabitha is a third year university student who always seems to become ill during the final exam period. Which of the following would NOT be true? a) Tabitha has lower levels of lymphocytes. b) Norepinephrine is inhibiting Tabitha’s lymphocytes. c) Cortisol in Tabitha’s body is suppressing the production of cytokines. d) Cortisol is sending inhibitory messages to the Tabitha’s immune system. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explain how stress can cause physical illness, and discuss situations in which stress may be beneficial. Section Reference: Stress and Health 240. Tengfei has been feeling stressed lately and as a result his immune system is not functioning at its best. Which of the following biochemical changes could NOT have caused this? a) too much cortisol b) too much norepinephrine c) too many cytokines d) too many lymphocytes Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explain how stress can cause physical illness, and discuss situations in which stress may be beneficial. Section Reference: Stress and Health 241. The production of norepinephrine causes ___ in lymphocyte production at low stress levels and causes ___ in lymphocyte production at high stress levels. a) increases; increases b) increases; decreases c) decreases; decreases d) decreases; increases

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Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Explain how stress can cause physical illness, and discuss situations in which stress may be beneficial. Section Reference: Stress and Health 242. How is norepinephrine related to immune functioning? a) At high stress levels, it has no impact on immune functioning, but at low stress levels, it decreases immune functioning. b) At low stress levels, it has no impact on immune functioning but at high stress levels it increases immune functioning. c) At high stress levels, it increases immune functioning, but at low stress levels, it decreases immune functioning. d) At low stress levels, it increases immune functioning, but at high stress levels, it decreases immune functioning. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Explain how stress can cause physical illness, and discuss situations in which stress may be beneficial. Section Reference: Stress and Health 243. During periods of high and prolonged stress, norepinephrine ___ lymphocyte production and corticosteroids ___ lymphocyte production. a) increases; increases b) increases; decreases c) decreases; decreases d) decreases; increases Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain how stress can cause physical illness, and discuss situations in which stress may be beneficial. Section Reference: Stress and Health 244. Why do corticosteroids suppress immune system functioning? a) Corticosteroids help calm the body by giving inhibitory messages. b) They bind to the cytokines. c) They trigger the release of norepinephrine. d) They cause the adrenal cortex to produce ACTH.

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Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Explain how stress can cause physical illness, and discuss situations in which stress may be beneficial. Section Reference: Stress and Health 245. Which characteristic(s) is/are associated with inflammation? a) swelling b) heat c) redness d) all of the above Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain how stress can cause physical illness, and discuss situations in which stress may be beneficial. Section Reference: Stress and Health 246. Which of the following is NOT a biochemical change that we see with increased stress levels? a) norepinephrine inhibits lymphocyte activity b) decreased inflammation throughout the body c) cortisol stimulates the production of cytokines d) too much cortisol inhibits lymphocyte activity Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Explain how stress can cause physical illness, and discuss situations in which stress may be beneficial. Section Reference: Stress and Health 247. Anxiety and depression contribute to impaired immune functioning because they are associated with ___. a) increased lymphocyte production b) decreased cytokine production c) unhealthy behaviours d) ANS overactivity Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

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Learning Objective: Explain how stress can cause physical illness, and discuss situations in which stress may be beneficial. Section Reference: Stress and Health 248. Some studies have shown a link between Type C personality and increased rates of cancer. This link may exist for Type C for all the following reasons EXCEPT that those ___. a) who have difficulty acknowledging feelings may be more prone to stress b) with a repressive coping style tend to have less successful recoveries c) with a helpless coping style tend to have less successful recoveries d) with worry, gloominess, and social inhibition may be more prone to stress Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explain how stress can cause physical illness, and discuss situations in which stress may be beneficial. Section Reference: Stress and Health 249. How are Type A and Type C personalities different in terms of the effects on our health? a) While someone with a Type A personality is more likely to have coronary heart disease, someone with a Type C personality is more likely to get cancer. b) While someone with a Type A personality is more likely to have depression, someone with a Type C personality is more likely to have anxiety. c) While someone with a Type A personality is more likely to have arthritis, someone with a Type C personality is more likely to have lupus. d) While someone with a Type A personality is more likely to get cancer, someone with a Type C personality is more likely to have a stroke. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explain how stress can cause physical illness, and discuss situations in which stress may be beneficial. Section Reference: Stress and Health 250. Which of the following is associated with poorer health? a) regular church attendance b) ignoring negative feelings c) belonging to a small, close-knit community d) constructive coping Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain how stress can cause physical illness, and discuss situations in

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which stress may be beneficial. Section Reference: Stress and Health 251. According to Selye, eustress refers to ___. a) physiological stress b) psychological stress c) positive stress d) negative stress Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain how stress can cause physical illness, and discuss situations in which stress may be beneficial. Section Reference: Stress and Health 252. Today, eustress is defined as ___ levels. a) distress b) positive stress c) negative stress d) optimal stress Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain how stress can cause physical illness, and discuss situations in which stress may be beneficial. Section Reference: Stress and Health 253. Heidi is experiencing eustress in her daily life. What is this likely to do to her physical and psychological health? a) Her physical health will suffer but her psychological health will benefit. b) Her physical health will benefit but her psychological health will suffer. c) Both her physical and psychological health will benefit. d) Both her physical and psychological health will suffer. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain how stress can cause physical illness, and discuss situations in which stress may be beneficial. Section Reference: Stress and Health 254. Which of the following situations is the best example of eustress?

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a) Akiko is struggling to complete the last question on a major exam. b) Mose is performing his usual, moderate workout at the gym. c) Alban just sprained his ankle competing in a gruelling tennis match. d) Sharon gets anxious and worried prior to her appointment at the dentist. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain how stress can cause physical illness, and discuss situations in which stress may be beneficial. Section Reference: Stress and Health 255. What is the difference between distress and eustress? a) Distress is the negative health effects that a stressor can have, whereas eustress is the positive health effects that a stressor can have. b) Distress is how we feel about a stressor prior to coping, whereas eustress is the feeling we have about a stressor after coping. c) Distress is the negative emotions that accompany a stressor, whereas eustress is the negative thoughts that accompany a stressor. d) Distress is stress caused by unpleasant situations, whereas eustress is the optimal level of stress needed to promote health. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Explain how stress can cause physical illness, and discuss situations in which stress may be beneficial. Section Reference: Stress and Health 256. Elsa just got married and within a month of the wedding she was pregnant. Although she is very excited about both life events, she confides to her best friend that she feels very stressed out. Based on the research, what should her friend say in response? a) Even positive major life events can cause great deals of stress. b) Elsa should seek help from a counsellor if she’s feeling stressed. c) With all these wonderful events in her life, something is very wrong if she feels stress. d) Stress only comes from negative events, so perhaps unconsciously she really isn’t happy about being married and having a baby. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explain how stress can cause physical illness, and discuss situations in which stress may be beneficial. Section Reference: Stress and Health

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257. All the following are empirically supported benefits of stress EXCEPT a) Optimal levels of stress promote positive development. b) Inoculation to lower levels of stress can be used to control higher levels of stress. c) Eustress is defined by the stressor itself rather than by levels of stress. d) Posttraumatic growth is defined by building strength and resilience to adverse events and stress. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explain how stress can cause physical illness, and discuss situations in which stress may be beneficial. Section Reference: Stress and Health 258. In the past year, Hashem has experienced many very stressful events. Now that everything has been resolved, he finds that he feels proud of how he handled all the experiences, and the things he learned. The next time he faces a stressor, Hashem is sure he will be even better equipped to handle it. Hashem has experienced ___. a) eustress b) posttraumatic growth c) inoculation d) stress-vulnerability Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain how stress can cause physical illness, and discuss situations in which stress may be beneficial. Section Reference: Stress and Health 259. Kooru is about to be a contestant on the popular TV show ‘Survivor’, and in preparation for the conditions she will have to endure, she spends long hours in a hot sauna and drinks little water. She also eats very little to get her body used to maintaining its weight on few calories. What is Kooru doing? a) training her Type D personality for the rigors ahead b) inoculating against future stress c) engaging in posttraumatic growth d) trying to stimulate her immune system Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain how stress can cause physical illness, and discuss situations in which stress may be beneficial. Section Reference: Stress and Health

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260. Fatima is preparing to take the Medical College Admissions Test (MCAT) so she can apply to medical school. She knows that she will have a limited amount of time to complete the test, and she has heard that the questions are very difficult. To try to lower the stress she feels about taking the test, she goes to the MCAT’s online website to take the practice tests. Fatima is engaging in ___. a) posttraumatic growth b) eustress c) inoculation d) constructive coping Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain how stress can cause physical illness, and discuss situations in which stress may be beneficial. Section Reference: Stress and Health 261. Elevated levels of stress can be beneficial if ___. a) the level of stress in a controlled situation is higher than the stress people would subsequently encounter b) the task is complex or difficult c) the task is easy d) the task is moderately difficult Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Explain how stress can cause physical illness, and discuss situations in which stress may be beneficial. Section Reference: Stress and Health 262. Hudson is performing a complex task. What level of stress would be ideal for Hudson if he is going to do his best on the task? a) low b) moderate c) high d) it wouldn’t matter; stress levels have nothing to do with performance on tasks of different difficulty Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explain how stress can cause physical illness, and discuss situations in which stress may be beneficial.

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Section Reference: Stress and Health 263. Chloe must drive to another city to help a friend who is experiencing a crisis. Most of the driving will be on a straight, largely unoccupied highway; therefore, this should be a somewhat simple task. What type of arousal would be optimal for this simple task? a) low level b) moderate level c) high level d) the level of arousal depends on Chloe’s ability to cope with a simple task Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain how stress can cause physical illness, and discuss situations in which stress may be beneficial. Section Reference: Stress and Health 264. Ethan has a summer job working on an automobile assembly line. His task is to put four bolts in a car door and then pass it on to the next stage of assembly. Which of the following would be likely to optimize Ethan’s productivity? a) Set a high quota of number of pieces Ethan must get done each hour. b) Play relaxing background music to reduce the workplace stress. c) Give Ethan frequent breaks. d) Change Ethan’s job on the assembly line each week. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explain how stress can cause physical illness, and discuss situations in which stress may be beneficial. Section Reference: Stress and Health 265. Aminata is a sprinter in a track and field competition. Aminata would benefit from a _________ level of stress because her running in the race would be a task of __________ complexity. a) low; low b) low; high c) high; low d) low; high Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain how stress can cause physical illness, and discuss situations in which stress may be beneficial.

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Section Reference: Stress and Health 266. Which type of task is best suited to moderate levels of stress? a) easy b) medium c) difficult d) all types of tasks benefit from moderate levels of stress Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Explain how stress can cause physical illness, and discuss situations in which stress may be beneficial. Section Reference: Stress and Health 267. Individuals experiencing a traumatic event such as rape, a tsunami, a severe car accident, or who are witnesses to murder may experience severe psychological symptoms that last for months or years. This constellation of symptoms are known as a) stress-related dissonance. b) posttraumatic stress disorder. c) acute stress disorder. d) depression-related stress response. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain how stress can cause physical illness, and discuss situations in which stress may be beneficial. Section Reference: Stress and Health 268. _______ is a disorder characterized by persistent distressing thoughts of a specific event, accompanied by feelings of intense fear and helplessness. a) Posttraumatic stress disorder b) Major Depressive Disorder c) Primary stress disorder d) Acute Stress Disorder Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms and causes of posttraumatic stress disorder, and discuss some risk factors for developing it. Section Reference: Posttraumatic Stress Disorder

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269. Which symptom(s) characterize(s) posttraumatic stress disorder? a) sleep disorder b) difficulty concentrating c) extreme guilt d) all of the above Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms and causes of posttraumatic stress disorder, and discuss some risk factors for developing it. Section Reference: Posttraumatic Stress Disorder 270. Luiz is suffering from posttraumatic stress disorder. Which of the following symptoms is he LEAST likely feeling/expressing? a) difficulty concentrating b) repeatedly talking about the event c) nightmares connected to the traumatic event d) feel detached from others Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms and causes of posttraumatic stress disorder, and discuss some risk factors for developing it. Section Reference: Posttraumatic Stress Disorder 271. Forty-eight year-old Rafal had a difficult life. His mother was an alcoholic and he never knew his father. Rafal’s family never had enough food to eat, and their home was dirty and infested with vermin. Rafal left home at a young age and was himself addicted to drugs and alcohol for a time. He finally got control of his life and joined the military. However, two years ago, while on a peacekeeping mission in Darfur, Rafal was severely injured in an attack and two of his comrades were killed. Given Rafal’s background we would assume that a) Rafal is likely to be inoculated to the symptoms of PTSD. b) Rafal is at some risk of developing the symptoms of PTSD. c) Rafal is at high risk of developing the symptoms of PTSD. d) We do not have enough information to know whether Rafal is at risk for PTSD or not. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms and causes of posttraumatic stress disorder, and discuss some risk factors for developing it. Section Reference: Posttraumatic Stress Disorder

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272. Petra served three years in the military, two of which she spent in Afghanistan. Since returning to Canada, she has been plagued with nightmares, has given up many of the activities that she used to enjoy, and she frequently has memories of terrible things that happened during the mission. Petra likely suffers from ___. a) stress inoculation b) posttraumatic growth c) trauma repressive disorder d) posttraumatic stress disorder Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms and causes of posttraumatic stress disorder, and discuss some risk factors for developing it. Section Reference: Posttraumatic Stress Disorder 273. All the following are symptoms of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) EXCEPT ___. a) extreme feelings of guilt b) difficulty concentrating c) manic behaviours d) sleep disturbances Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms and causes of posttraumatic stress disorder, and discuss some risk factors for developing it. Section Reference: Posttraumatic Stress Disorder 274. Which estimated percentage of Canadians will suffer from posttraumatic stress disorder during their lifetimes? a) 15% b) 12% c) 10% d) 8% Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms and causes of posttraumatic stress disorder, and discuss some risk factors for developing it. Section Reference: Posttraumatic Stress Disorder

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275. Your text discusses several factors that affect the likelihood that someone will develop posttraumatic stress disorder. Which of the following is NOT one of these factors? a) education level b) personality type c) childhood events d) social support Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms and causes of posttraumatic stress disorder, and discuss some risk factors for developing it. Section Reference: Posttraumatic Stress Disorder 276. Which of the following childhood experiences is LEAST likely to contribute to posttraumatic stress disorder when confronted with a stressful event later in life? a) poverty b) abuse c) parents with a psychological disorder d) authoritative parenting style Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms and causes of posttraumatic stress disorder, and discuss some risk factors for developing it. Section Reference: Posttraumatic Stress Disorder 277. Which of the following people would be at higher risk of developing PTSD? a) Carolyn, who has a hardy personality. b) Dan, who believes that everything that happens to us is predetermined by fate. c) Grayson, who has a Type B personality. d) Jayden, who is in the military. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms and causes of posttraumatic stress disorder, and discuss some risk factors for developing it. Section Reference: Posttraumatic Stress Disorder 278. Which of the following increases the likelihood that someone will develop posttraumatic stress disorders (PTSD)? a) They did not exhibit symptoms of psychological illness prior to the trauma occurring. b) They have hardy personality traits.

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c) They have less resilient personalities. d) They view negative events as being beyond their control. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms and causes of posttraumatic stress disorder, and discuss some risk factors for developing it. Section Reference: Posttraumatic Stress Disorder 279. Which of the following is a potential biological effect of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)? a) damage to the hippocampus b) damage to the adrenal medulla c) reduced norepinephrine production d) reduced cortisol production Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms and causes of posttraumatic stress disorder, and discuss some risk factors for developing it. Section Reference: Posttraumatic Stress Disorder 280. How can posttraumatic stress disorder cause biological reactions that make the disorder more persistent? a) The increase in sympathetic nervous system activity can decrease the functioning of the parasympathetic nervous system. b) The increase in stress hormones shrinks the hippocampus, which is a structure that contributes to controlling the body’s stress hormones. c) The increase in norepinephrine decreases the number of receptors that help calm the body. d) The increase in cortisol levels causes the body to deplete itself of norepinephrine. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms and causes of posttraumatic stress disorder, and discuss some risk factors for developing it. Section Reference: Posttraumatic Stress Disorder 281. Melba was taken to the hospital after being sexually assaulted. Which of the following would put Melba at risk for developing PTSD? a) higher than normal epinephrine levels b) lower cortisol levels c) exaggerated response of the HPA axis d) a smaller than normal hippocampus

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Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms and causes of posttraumatic stress disorder, and discuss some risk factors for developing it. Section Reference: Posttraumatic Stress Disorder 282. Ansil has been diagnosed with posttraumatic stress disorder. What is likely to be true about Ansil’s biochemical reactions? a) His sympathetic nervous system is less reactive, and his norepinephrine system is overreactive. b) His sympathetic nervous system is over-reactive and his HPA axis is less reactive. c) His hippocampus is overactive, and his fight-or-flight response is extended. d) His prefrontal cortex is shrinking, and his hindbrain is static. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms and causes of posttraumatic stress disorder, and discuss some risk factors for developing it. Section Reference: Posttraumatic Stress Disorder 283. Which of the following individuals has most likely been diagnosed with posttraumatic stress disorder given that their situation is matched correctly with a telltale biochemical outcome? a) Dax, who was attacked by a homophobic mob and has an exaggerated sympathetic system response and a blunted HPA axis response. b) Hayleigh, who was buried in the rubble from her apartment building for three days following an earthquake and has a larger than average hippocampus. c) Sky, who was a combat veteran and saw people tortured and killed and has a blunted sympathetic system response and a heightened HPA axis response. d) Jorge, who was the sole survivor of ten people in a helicopter crash, who has low cortisol and norepinephrine levels. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms and causes of posttraumatic stress disorder, and discuss some risk factors for developing it. Section Reference: Posttraumatic Stress Disorder 284. Which of the following people are most likely to develop posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)? a) people with an optimistic explanatory style b) people who have come from economically affluent backgrounds

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c) people who have no previous experience with trauma in childhood d) people who view life’s negative events as beyond their control Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms and causes of posttraumatic stress disorder, and discuss some risk factors for developing it. Section Reference: Posttraumatic Stress Disorder 285. Which of the following people is most likely to experience posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)? a) Nathalie, who was sexually assaulted, and had support from family and friends b) Jiang, who lives in Calgary and watched the events of 9/11 on TV c) Roos, who had a car accident, and is now afraid to drive d) Pierre, who provided support services to troops returning from Iraq Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms and causes of posttraumatic stress disorder, and discuss some risk factors for developing it. Section Reference: Posttraumatic Stress Disorder 286. Which of the following people is most likely to experience posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)? a) Rabia, who was in a terrorist attack, and was raised by a loving and supportive single mother b) Abbi, who was raped, and treated with dignity and respect by first responders and hospital personnel c) Ezra, who was in a typhon that capsized the ferry he was in, leaving him in the water for hours, and who was raised by a schizophrenic father and a nurturing but depressed mother d) Benoit, a gay man who was attacked and robbed outside his apartment building, and has a strong support system composed of friends and family Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms and causes of posttraumatic stress disorder, and discuss some risk factors for developing it. Section Reference: Posttraumatic Stress Disorder 287. Which of the following traumatic events is NOT one of the common causes of posttraumatic stress disorder? a) victimization b) natural disasters

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c) car accidents d) combat Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms and causes of posttraumatic stress disorder, and discuss some risk factors for developing it. Section Reference: Posttraumatic Stress Disorder 288. Jade has been diagnosed with PTSD. Based on what you know about the most common causes of PTSD, which of the following is the LEAST likely cause of her disorder? a) Jade was in combat. b) Jade has a friend, Lucinda, who was victimized. c) Jade was in a natural disaster. d) Jade witnessed traumatic events through the media. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms and causes of posttraumatic stress disorder, and discuss some risk factors for developing it. Section Reference: Posttraumatic Stress Disorder 289. Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding posttraumatic stress disorder? a) Men are twice as likely as women to develop PTSD. b) Persons who watch traumatic events through the media can develop PTSD. c) Persons who view negative life events as being within their control are less likely to develop PTSD. d) Persons who grow up in poverty are more likely to develop PTSD. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms and causes of posttraumatic stress disorder, and discuss some risk factors for developing it. Section Reference: Posttraumatic Stress Disorder 290. Which of the following statements is true about posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)? a) The symptoms are intense in the beginning, but do not typically produce lasting psychological effects. b) It tends to have the greatest effect on those who are already psychologically vulnerable. c) It affects about 4% of the Canadian population at some point in their lives. d) Men are more likely to develop the disorder than women.

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Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms and causes of posttraumatic stress disorder, and discuss some risk factors for developing it. Section Reference: Posttraumatic Stress Disorder 291. Ira has elevated levels of cortisol in his urine and his blood is showing high levels of norepinephrine. What is most likely wrong with Ira? a) He has posttraumatic stress disorder. b) He is depressed. c) He has obsessive-compulsive disorder. d) He has somnambulism. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms and causes of posttraumatic stress disorder, and discuss some risk factors for developing it. Section Reference: Posttraumatic Stress Disorder 292. Posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) differs from regular stress in several ways. Which of the following is NOT one of those ways? a) PTSD is only present in adults, whereas stress is experienced by both children and adults. b) PTSD is much more intense than regular stress. c) PTSD is caused by something considered much more traumatic than regular stress. d) PTSD is longer-lasting than regular stress. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms and causes of posttraumatic stress disorder, and discuss some risk factors for developing it. Section Reference: Posttraumatic Stress Disorder 293. Of the following symptoms which is NOT commonly associated with posttraumatic stress disorder? a) guilt b) detachment from others c) compulsion d) avoidance Answer: c Difficulty: Easy

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Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms and causes of posttraumatic stress disorder, and discuss some risk factors for developing it. Section Reference: Posttraumatic Stress Disorder

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MATCHING QUESTION 294. Match the appropriate terms in the left column to the definitions in the right column. Terms A. Acute stressor B. Chronic stressor C. Micro-stressors D. Frustration E. Conflict F. Primary appraisal G. Secondary appraisal H. Coping I. Repressive coping J. Self-indulgent coping K. Problem-focused coping L. Emotion-focused coping M. Immune system N. Eustress O. Inoculation

___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___

Definitions 1. Efforts to manage, reduce, or tolerate stress 2. Appraisal of one’s personal resources and ability to cope with a stressor 3. Exposing oneself to a relatively low level of stress in a controlled situation to improve later performance in a more stressful situation 4. Coping by denying negative feelings and discomfort and pushing such emotions out of awareness 5. When efforts are aimed at dealing directly with the stressor in some way 6. Discomfort brought about by two or more goals or impulses perceived to be incompatible 7. A stressful situation or circumstance that is more long term and often lacks a definite endpoint 8. An emotion people experience when thwarted in pursuit of a goal 9. Appraisal of a stressor to determine how severe it is 10. Everyday annoyances that leave us feeling upset and at the end of our rope

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ANSWERS TO MATCHING QUESTION 1.

H: Coping

G: Secondary appraisal

O: Inoculation

I: Repressive coping

K: Problem-focused coping

E: Conflict

B: Chronic stressor

D: Frustration

F: Primary appraisal

10. C: Micro-stressors Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

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FILL-IN-THE-BLANK 295. A short-term stressor that has a definite endpoint is called a(n) ___ stressor. Answer: acute Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress? 296. When we find ourselves thwarted in the pursuit of a goal; we experience the type of stress called ___. Answer: frustration Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress? 297. Josie really wanted to go to Vancouver and attend the University of British Columbia but moving to British Columbia meant living her romantic partner and friends and family in Saskatoon. Josie is experiencing a(n) ___ conflict. Answer: approach-avoidance Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress? 298. Shifts in life circumstances that require adjustment are referred to as life ___. Answer: changes Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress?

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299. Some victims of extraordinarily traumatic events may develop ___, a condition characterized by persistent thoughts or memories of the event. Answer: posttraumatic stress disorder Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress? 300. The first theorist to connect bodily arousal with emotional responses to the need for fightor-flight was ___. Answer: Cannon Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 301. The fight-or-flight response is an early ___ adaptation. Answer: evolutionary Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 302. Researchers have found that the more stress a person experiences, the more ___ his or her emotions become. Answer: negative Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 303. What is one of the greatest appeals of meditation? Answer: stress reduction, relaxation

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress. Section Reference: Coping with Stress 304. Basic differences in autonomic ___ may cause some people to experience stress reactions more often and more intensely than other people. Answer: reactivity Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 305. People with Type ___ personalities tend to be competitive, ambitious, and in a hurry. Answer: A Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 306. People who can depart from their preferred coping styles to meet the demands at hand are known as ___ individuals. Answer: coping-flexible Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress. Section Reference: Coping with Stress 307. Overeating, smoking cigarettes, and consuming drugs to feel better are examples of ___ coping strategies. Answer: self-indulgence or self-indulgent Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress. Section Reference: Coping with Stress 308. Changing how we feel about a stressor that we have little control over is associated with

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___ coping. Answer: emotion-focused Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress. Section Reference: Coping with Stress 309. During concentrative meditation, a person actively concentrates on an object, word, or idea called a(n) ___. Answer: mantra Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress. Section Reference: Coping with Stress 310. The technical term for a heart attack is ___. Answer: myocardial infarction Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain how stress can cause physical illness, and discuss situations in which stress may be beneficial. Section Reference: Stress and Health 311. White blood cells that circulate through the lymphatic system and bloodstream are called ___. Answer: lymphocytes Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain how stress can cause physical illness, and discuss situations in which stress may be beneficial. Section Reference: Stress and Health 312. Pleasant stressors produce a state called ___. Answer: eustress Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain how stress can cause physical illness, and discuss situations in

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which stress may be beneficial. Section Reference: Stress and Health 313. The estimated percentage of people who experience posttraumatic stress disorder in Canada is ___. Answer: 10% Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms and causes of posttraumatic stress disorder, and discuss some risk factors for developing it. Section Reference: Posttraumatic Stress Disorder 314. Abnormal activity of the hormone ___ is associated with the likelihood of developing posttraumatic stress disorder. Answer: cortisol Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms and causes of posttraumatic stress disorder, and discuss some risk factors for developing it. Section Reference: Posttraumatic Stress Disorder 315. Those who view negative events as being beyond their ___ are likely to develop posttraumatic stress disorders (PTSD). Answer: control Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms and causes of posttraumatic stress disorder, and discuss some risk factors for developing it. Section Reference: Posttraumatic Stress Disorder

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SHORT ANSWER ESSAY QUESTIONS 316. Provide an example of a chronic stressor in your own life. Answer: Example must be long term and lack a definite endpoint. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress? 317. Define pressure as a type of stress. Answer: We feel pressure when there are expectations to behave in a specific way. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress? 318. Out of many, describe two types of situations that may produce feelings of endangerment. Answer: combat, natural disasters, life-threatening situations, etc. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress? 319. What range of scores on the Social Readjustment Rating Scale (SRRS) indicates moderate stress? Answer: 200–299 Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress? 320. Provide two examples of events that could lead to posttraumatic stress disorder.

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Answer: violent assault, natural disasters, terrorist attacks, combat, etc. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress? 321. What glands does the hypothalamus use to influence bodily organs indirectly? Answer: adrenal glands Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 322. Name three of the types of stressors Selye applied to his experimental animals. Answer: mild shock, pain, restraint, heat, and cold Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 323. Name two psychological disorders whose symptoms people may experience when facing severe stress? Answer: anxiety, depression, etc. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 324. What type of explanatory style is related to the belief that despite setbacks, things will improve? Answer: optimistic Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress,

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and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 325. What type of personality is associated with turning anger inwards and lacking the ability to cope with relationship problems in an effective manner? Answer: Type C Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 326. What does “lashing out” refer to within the context of coping? Answer: When a series of stressors occur, people may act out either psychologically or physically. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress. Section Reference: Coping with Stress 327. Describe three techniques that can be used to obtain the deeply relaxing and pleasant feelings of a meditative state. Answer: Control breathing, assume a specific bodily position, limit outward attention, form internal images, etc. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress. Section Reference: Coping with Stress 328. Name two common physiological effects individuals who use repressive coping often experience. Answer: high heart rates and high blood pressure Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress. Section Reference: Coping with Stress 329. Define cognitive reappraisal.

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Answer: finding a way to reinterpret the negative aspects of a situation so they are less upsetting Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress. Section Reference: Coping with Stress 330. What type of personality is often described as a coronary-prone personality? Answer: Type A Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain how stress can cause physical illness, and discuss situations in which stress may be beneficial. Section Reference: Stress and Health 331. What bodily system identifies and destroys foreign invaders such as bacteria and viruses? Answer: immune system Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain how stress can cause physical illness, and discuss situations in which stress may be beneficial. Section Reference: Stress and Health 332. When a stressor is detected, the sympathetic nervous system releases which neurotransmitter? Answer: norepinephrine Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Explain how stress can cause physical illness, and discuss situations in which stress may be beneficial. Section Reference: Stress and Health 333. In what situation may norepinephrine improve immune function? Answer: when low levels of stress are present Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Explain how stress can cause physical illness, and discuss situations in

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which stress may be beneficial. Section Reference: Stress and Health 334. How is eustress defined by modern psychologists? Answer: optimal level of stress that promotes physical and psychological health Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain how stress can cause physical illness, and discuss situations in which stress may be beneficial. Section Reference: Stress and Health 335. What is a more recent and increasingly common source of posttraumatic stress disorder today? Answer: threats of terrorism Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms and causes of posttraumatic stress disorder, and discuss some risk factors for developing it. Section Reference: Posttraumatic Stress Disorder

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ESSAY QUESTIONS 336. Name a psychological factor that determines whether an event will initiate stress. Answer: Perception of threat triggers the emotional state we connect to stress; reflects our ability or inability to cope with a situation. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress? 337. Distinguish internal sources of pressure from external sources of pressure. Provide an example of each. Answer: Internal sources of pressure come from within us, such as setting high academic standards for ourselves. External pressures come from sources around us, and may be caused by a task or situation such as performing for an audience or completing a test in an allotted amount of time. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress? 338. Define daily hassles and provide an example from your own experience. Answer: Daily hassles are the most familiar source of stress—everyday annoyances that leave us feeling upset. Examples may include finding a parking space on a crowded campus or dealing with a talkative co-worker when you are trying to complete work for an approaching deadline. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress? 339. Discuss two shortcomings of the Social Readjustment Rating Scale (SRRS)? Answer: It is criticized for including many more negative events than positive events; it cannot be generalized to all populations. Difficulty: Easy

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Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Define stress and describe the ways in which people experience stress and the kinds of situations that typically cause stress. Section Reference: What Is Stress? 340. Describe how the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal pathway works. Answer: When we are confronted with stressors, the hypothalamus alerts the pituitary gland to release adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACHT), which in turn stimulates the adrenal glands to produce corticosteroids. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 341. Describe Selye’s theory of how humans respond to stress. Answer: Selye’s general adaptation syndrome (GAS) describes a three-stage response to stress. We experience alarm, where we become physically aroused as the body prepares to fight or flee. Then, during resistance, the body attempts to stabilize functions. Finally, exhaustion depletes the level of energy available to respond to the stressor. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 342. Describe Lazarus’ cognitive-mediational theory of emotions. Answer: According to Lazarus, there are two steps in experiencing stress. During the primary appraisal, we examine the stressor and determine its severity. During the secondary appraisal, we evaluate our resources and ability to cope with the stressor. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 343. Describe two attributes of a pessimistic explanatory style. Answer: having gloomier appraisals; believing things will go wrong; likely to experience more stress than a person with a more optimistic explanatory style

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 344. Discuss the impact that social support has on stress reactions? Answer: People who can rely on others such as co-workers or caring confidantes tend to experience less distress in the workplace. This effect may be due to an increase in self-esteem or confidence as people face stressors. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the physiological, emotional, and cognitive responses to stress, and explain how individual responses to stress differ. Section Reference: Responding to Stress 345. Describe three positive physiological effects of meditation. Answer: Meditation increases the brain waves that are present during the relaxation phase that occurs prior to sleep. Positive physiological results include decreased respiration, heart rate, blood pressure, and muscle tension. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress. Section Reference: Coping with Stress 346. Discuss the long-term effects of lashing out in response to stress. Answer: Lashing out can harm or destroy a person’s social support network, thereby increasing the likelihood that stress-related problems such as anxiety and depression will arise. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress. Section Reference: Coping with Stress 347. Describe a situation in which self-indulgent coping strategies may be comforting. Describe a situation in which self-indulgent coping strategies are ineffective. Answer: comforting for simple and transient problems; ineffective for complex problems Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress.

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Section Reference: Coping with Stress 348. Provide an example of problem-focused coping. Answer: Example should describe a direct means of dealing with a stressor. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss and evaluate several ways in which people cope with stress. Section Reference: Coping with Stress 349. Describe the interaction of psychological and physiological factors in producing coronary heart disease. Answer: Job stress, a psychological factor, may interact with physiological factors such as high cholesterol and obesity to increase the prevalence of coronary heart disease. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Explain how stress can cause physical illness, and discuss situations in which stress may be beneficial. Section Reference: Stress and Health 350. When and for what purpose do corticosteroids produce inhibitory messages in the body? Answer: after stress has occurred for 30 minutes or more, for calming down an overstressed body Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Explain how stress can cause physical illness, and discuss situations in which stress may be beneficial. Section Reference: Stress and Health 351. Describe the process of inoculation. Answer: exposing oneself to small levels of stress in a controlled situation to improve performance in a more stressful situation that is not controlled Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Explain how stress can cause physical illness, and discuss situations in which stress may be beneficial. Section Reference: Stress and Health 353. Describe how the events of September 11, 2001, caused lingering psychological effects.

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Answer: Horrific images of planes crashing, and the aftermath of the World Trade Center collapse traumatized not only victims, but people who watched the events unfold on television. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms and causes of posttraumatic stress disorder, and discuss some risk factors for developing it. Section Reference: Posttraumatic Stress Disorder 354. What brain structure may be damaged by continued biochemical arousal associated with posttraumatic stress disorders (PTSD)? Answer: Evidence suggests that the hippocampus may be damaged, thus “locking in” posttraumatic stress disorders (PTSD). Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms and causes of posttraumatic stress disorder, and discuss some risk factors for developing it. Section Reference: Posttraumatic Stress Disorder 355. Describe two childhood experiences that may place an individual at a higher risk of developing the symptoms of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Answer: poverty, having family members with psychological disorders, experiencing assault, being abused, etc. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms and causes of posttraumatic stress disorder, and discuss some risk factors for developing it. Section Reference: Posttraumatic Stress Disorder

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CHAPTER 15 PSYCHOLOGICAL DISORDERS CHAPTER LEARNING OBJECTIVES 1. Identify the common features of most definitions of abnormal functioning, and describe how psychological disorders are classified and diagnosed. • The study of psychological disorders is usually called abnormal psychology. Abnormal psychological functioning is a wide-ranging problem in this country. • Definitions of psychological disorders often include the “four Ds”—deviance, distress, dysfunction, and danger. • The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM) (current version DSM-5) is the leading classification system in North America. 2. Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. • Clinicians use several major models to explain abnormal functioning, including the neuroscience, psychodynamic, cognitive-behavioural, humanistic-existential, socio-cultural, and developmental psychopathology models. • The neuroscience model views abnormal functioning as a result of malfunctions in brain structure or chemical activity. Malfunctions can be caused by injuries or other factors, including genetics or viruses. • Psychodynamic theorists view abnormal functioning as the result of unconscious conflicts that may have originated in our early development. Freud focused on fixations during the oral, anal, and phallic stages of development, while other theorists have focused on difficulties in ego development or our relationships with others. • Behavioural theorists propose that abnormal behaviours develop via the same processes as more adaptive behaviours: classical conditioning, operant conditioning, and modelling. Cognitive theorists believe that abnormal functioning can result from disordered thoughts, including basic irrational assumptions, specific upsetting thoughts, and illogical thinking processes. • Humanists suggest that people are vulnerable to psychological disorders when they develop inaccurate views of their worth or goals in life. Existentialist therapies focus on helping clients discover their personal freedom of choice and take responsibility for making choices. • According the socio-cultural model, abnormal behaviour is best understood in light of the social, cultural, and family forces brought to bear on an individual. Important factors include social change, socio-economic class membership, cultural background, social networks, and family systems. • Developmental psychopathology theorists are interested in how psychological disorders evolve, based on both genetics and early childhood experiences, and on how those early patterns affect people’s functioning as they move through later life stages. 3. Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. • The key features in mood disorders are depression—a low, sad state—and mania—a state of breathless euphoria. Most people with a mood disorder suffer only from depression.

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People with major depressive disorder suffer a variety of symptoms, including feelings of sadness and lack of interest, low levels of activity and productivity, negative views of themselves and their lives, and physical ailments. Today’s leading explanations for major depressive disorder point to neuroscientific, psychological, or socio-cultural factors. Many theorists believe that the various explanations should be combined. People with bipolar disorder experience not only the lows of depression, but also the highs of mania. In the manic state, they want constant excitement. They tend to show poor judgment and planning, hold inflated opinions of themselves, and show a great deal of energy. Although genes and biological factors appear to play key roles in the development of bipolar disorder, there is growing evidence that stress and certain kinds of environmental events also must occur in order for episodes to unfold.

4. Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. • As a group, anxiety disorders are the most common mental disorders in North America. Often, people with one type of anxiety disorder have another type as well. • People with generalized anxiety disorder experience persistent feelings of worry and anxiety. Some cognitive theorists suggest that this disorder arises in people who hold certain dysfunctional or irrational assumptions, while others focus on the individual’s intolerance of uncertainty. An important neuroscience explanation focuses on gammaaminobutyric acid, a neurotransmitter involved in fear reactions. • People with social anxiety disorder display severe, persistent, and irrational fears of social or performance situations. Some socio-cultural factors appear to be involved. • People with phobias have a persistent and irrational fear of a specific object, activity, or situation. Behavioural principles, including classical conditioning and modelling, provide the leading explanations for specific phobias. • People with panic disorder have recurrent attacks of terror. These panic attacks are sometimes accompanied by agoraphobia—a fear of venturing into public places. A neuroscience-cognitive explanation of the disorder focuses on physical sensations produced by malfunctioning brain circuitry, which are then misinterpreted. • People with obsessive-compulsive disorder feel overrun by recurrent thoughts that cause anxiety (obsessions) and by the need to perform repetitive actions to reduce this anxiety (compulsions). While cognitive-behavioural theorists focus on the role of learning in these behaviours, neuroscientists focus on abnormally low levels of serotonin or abnormal functioning in specific brain regions. • People with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) are tormented by fear and related symptoms well after a horrifying event has ended. Although extraordinary trauma causes the disorder, not everyone who experiences such trauma develops PTSD. Differences in biological processes, personalities, childhood experiences, social support systems, and cultural backgrounds make people more or less likely to respond to trauma by developing the disorder. 5. Describe the features of schizophrenia and some theories of what causes it. • Schizophrenia is a disorder in which people deteriorate into a world of unusual perceptions, odd thoughts, disturbed emotions, and motor abnormalities. These people experience psychosis, a loss of contact with reality.

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Positive symptoms of schizophrenia are “pathological excesses” in behaviour. They include delusions, disorganized thinking and speech, hallucinations, and inappropriate affect. Negative symptoms, or “pathological deficits,” include poverty of speech, flat affect, loss of volition, and social withdrawal. People with schizophrenia also sometimes experience unusual psychomotor symptoms, which in their most extreme form are collectively called catatonia. Many theorists believe that people inherit a genetic predisposition to schizophrenia. Two kinds of brain abnormalities might be inherited—biochemical abnormalities and abnormal brain structure. Although neuroscience explanations of schizophrenia have received by far the most research support, psychological and socio-cultural factors may help to bring about schizophrenia in people with a biological predisposition to develop it.

6. Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. • Somatic symptom and related disorders include five diagnoses: somatic symptom disorder, illness anxiety disorder, conversion disorder (functional neurological symptom disorder), psychological factors affecting other medical conditions, and factitious disorder. • Somatic symptom and related disorders are thought to result from classical conditioning, modelling, or misinterpretation of bodily cues, similar to anxiety disorders. Cognitive theorists suggest that people with one of these types of disorders are extremely sensitive to bodily cues and come to misinterpret them. • Changes in memory that lack a physical cause are called dissociative disorders. DSM-5 includes three major dissociative disorders: dissociative amnesia, depersonalization/derealization disorder, and dissociative identity disorder. In dissociative amnesia, people are unable to recall important information about their lives. In depersonalization/derealization disorder, stress alters perceptions, detaching the self from the body. In dissociative fugue, people not only forget their identities and their past lives, but also flee to a different location. In dissociative identity disorder, people develop two or more distinct personalities. • Psychodynamic theorists believe that dissociative disorders are caused by repression, the most basic ego defence mechanism, but this view has not received strong research support. • People with antisocial personality disorder persistently disregard and violate others’ rights. Because of their potentially negative behaviour, such as lying, impulsiveness, and recklessness, they are frequently found in prison. According to behavioural theorists, this disorder can be learned through various means. Neuroscience explanations focus on brain factors, such as low serotonin levels, deficient frontal lobe functioning, and low arousal in response to warnings. • People with borderline personality disorder display great instability, including major shifts in mood, an unstable self-image, and impulsivity. This disorder is not well understood, but a recent biosocial theory proposes that it results from a combination of internal and external forces.

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TRUE-FALSE STATEMENTS 1. The rates of psychological disorders in most other countries are lower than those in Canada. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify the common features of most definitions of abnormal functioning, and describe how psychological disorders are classified and diagnosed. Section Reference: Defining, Classifying, and Diagnosing Psychological Abnormality 2. There is no universally accepted definition of abnormal behaviour. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify the common features of most definitions of abnormal functioning, and describe how psychological disorders are classified and diagnosed. Section Reference: Defining, Classifying, and Diagnosing Psychological Abnormality 3. Most eccentric people suffer from psychological disorders. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify the common features of most definitions of abnormal functioning, and describe how psychological disorders are classified and diagnosed. Section Reference: Defining, Classifying, and Diagnosing Psychological Abnormality 4. When a person feels upset by their negative thoughts and feelings and the impact they may be having on their life, they may be described as feeling distress. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify the common features of most definitions of abnormal functioning, and describe how psychological disorders are classified and diagnosed. Section Reference: Defining, Classifying, and Diagnosing Psychological Abnormality 5. The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition, (DSM-5) provides symptoms for approximately 400 mental disorders.

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Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify the common features of most definitions of abnormal functioning, and describe how psychological disorders are classified and diagnosed. Section Reference: Defining, Classifying, and Diagnosing Psychological Abnormality 6. Low levels of dopamine are linked to depression. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 7. Cognitive-behavioural theorists view emotions and biological events as unimportant to understanding the development of abnormal functioning. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 8. According to the behavioural perspective, abnormal behaviours are acquired by the same principles of learning as adaptive behaviours. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 9. According to Freud, abnormal behaviour results when a child becomes fixated at an early stage of development. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy

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Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 10. Gender and racial prejudice and discrimination may contribute to certain forms of abnormal functioning. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 11. Men are more than twice as likely to experience major depressive disorders than are women. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 12. Most people who recover from major depressive disorder have at least one other episode of depression later in their life. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 13. People with depression have been found to have elevated levels of cortisol. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 14. People whose lives are isolated and without intimacy are less prone to becoming depressed

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in times of stress. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 15. People who are separated or divorced display lower rates of depression than married persons and people who have NEVER been married. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 16. According to most studies, bipolar disorders are equally common in women and men and among all socio-economic classes and ethnic groups. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 17. Generalized anxiety disorder is diagnosed more frequently among men than among women. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 18. Studies have found that people with generalized anxiety disorder display a greater intolerance of uncertainty than people with normal degrees of anxiety. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes

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of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 19. Panic disorder is at least twice as common among men as among women. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 20. Around 21% of all people over 15 years of age have suffered from a panic attack at some point in their lives. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 21. Obsessive-compulsive disorder is equally common in men and women, and among people of different races and ethnic groups. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 22. People with OCD experience intrusive thoughts more often than other people. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 23. Surveys indicate that a PTSD lifetime prevalence rate of 9.2 percent of people in Canada.

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Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 24. The symptoms of acute stress disorder and PTSD are almost identical. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 25. Women are at least twice as likely as men to develop stress disorders. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 26. People whose social and family support systems are weak are less likely to develop a stress disorder after a traumatic event. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 27. Equal numbers of men and women are diagnosed with schizophrenia. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the features of schizophrenia and some theories of what causes it.

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Section Reference: Schizophrenia 28. Women with a history of bipolar disorder, schizophrenia, or major depressive disorder are particularly vulnerable to postpartum psychosis. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the features of schizophrenia and some theories of what causes it. Section Reference: Schizophrenia 29. Delusions of grandeur are the most common delusions in schizophrenia. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the features of schizophrenia and some theories of what causes it. Section Reference: Schizophrenia 30. Many theorists believe that people inherit a genetic predisposition to schizophrenia. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the features of schizophrenia and some theories of what causes it. Section Reference: Schizophrenia 31. Increasing dopamine activity helps reduce the symptoms of schizophrenia. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the features of schizophrenia and some theories of what causes it. Section Reference: Schizophrenia 32. The transformation of personal distress into somatic complaints is the norm in Western cultures such as in North America. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

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Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatoform, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders 33. People with antisocial personalities often form relationships to exploit others for material gain or personal gratification. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders 34. People with antisocial personality disorder seem to have difficulty learning from punishment or negative outcomes. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders 35. Individuals diagnosed with antisocial personality disorder experience more anxiety than others in the average population. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders

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MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 36. Abnormal psychology is defined as a) the empirical analysis of case studies. b) the scientific study of psychological disorders. c) the observation and testing of deviant thoughts, behaviours, or feelings. d) the diagnosis and treatment of psychological disorders. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify the common features of most definitions of abnormal functioning, and describe how psychological disorders are classified and diagnosed. Section Reference: Defining, Classifying, and Diagnosing Psychological Abnormality 37. The distinction between normal and abnormal behavior a) is a fine line. b) falls on a continuum ranging from very healthy to very disturbed. c) is always easy to make. d) is made only by mental health professionals. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Identify the common features of most definitions of abnormal functioning, and describe how psychological disorders are classified and diagnosed. Section Reference: Defining, Classifying, and Diagnosing Psychological Abnormality 38. According to the textbook’s complete definition of abnormal behaviour, which of the following statistically infrequent behaviours would qualify as most abnormal? a) the belief that the CSIS is following you b) having your entire body tattooed c) living a completely celibate life d) all these options Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Identify the common features of most definitions of abnormal functioning, and describe how psychological disorders are classified and diagnosed. Section Reference: Defining, Classifying, and Diagnosing Psychological Abnormality 39. In each year, at least ___ percent of adults in Canada display serious psychological

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disturbance. a) 15 b) 22 c) 28 d) 35 Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify the common features of most definitions of abnormal functioning, and describe how psychological disorders are classified and diagnosed. Section Reference: Defining, Classifying, and Diagnosing Psychological Abnormality 40. Clara, a self-assured, well-liked, and otherwise average woman in sixteenth-century England wanted to pursue an education at the university level. By what definitional criterion may her behaviour be considered abnormal? a) danger b) dysfunction c) distress d) deviance Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Identify the common features of most definitions of abnormal functioning, and describe how psychological disorders are classified and diagnosed. Section Reference: Defining, Classifying, and Diagnosing Psychological Abnormality 41. Randy used to work as an analyst, but he got to the point where he could NOT go to work anymore. Most mornings he would wake up so upset about his life that he did NOT want to leave the house. Recently he has become so depressed that he has stopped eating, because he is just tired of trying. Would you classify Randy’s behavior as abnormal? a) Yes, Randy’s behavior would be abnormal because he shows advanced signs of both dysfunction and danger. b) Yes, Randy’s behavior would be abnormal because he shows signs of deviance now that he has stopped eating. c) No, Randy’s behavior would not be classified as abnormal yet. He is close to showing signs of danger, but he has not injured himself or others. d) No, Randy’s behavior would not be classified as abnormal yet. He would need to end relationships to show signs of dysfunction. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Identify the common features of most definitions of abnormal functioning, and describe how psychological disorders are classified and diagnosed.

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Section Reference: Defining, Classifying, and Diagnosing Psychological Abnormality 42. Rebe no longer has custody of her children because she could NOT control her anger. One night she got so angry that she pushed her son hard enough that he fell and broke his arm. Sandy has been concerned for a while that she is being followed, and she is convinced that many strangers watch her for no reason. What is implied here? a) Rebe fits the criteria for danger, while Sandy fits the criteria for deviance. b) Rebe fits the criteria for deviance, while Sandy fits the criteria for dysfunction. c) Both Rebe and Sandy fit the criteria for danger. d) Both Rebe and Sandy fit the criteria for distress. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Identify the common features of most definitions of abnormal functioning, and describe how psychological disorders are classified and diagnosed. Section Reference: Defining, Classifying, and Diagnosing Psychological Abnormality 43. Paige’s mother is concerned because Paige is constantly exercising and dieting. Her grades are suffering, and she has quit the basketball team because she was starting to build unwanted muscle. Paige also stopped hanging out with her friends and spends most of her time in her room reading fitness magazines. How would you categorize Page’s behavior? a) Paige’s behavior is abnormal because she meets the criteria for both distress and dysfunction. b) Paige’s behavior is abnormal because she meets the criteria for danger and deviance. c) Paige’s behavior is not abnormal, but if she loses too much weight she will meet the criteria for danger. d) Paige’s behavior is not abnormal because she is still functioning and making her own choices. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Identify the common features of most definitions of abnormal functioning, and describe how psychological disorders are classified and diagnosed. Section Reference: Defining, Classifying, and Diagnosing Psychological Abnormality 44. Logan feels like he is NOT good enough at anything. He believes that he fails at relationships, jobs, and school. He is considering giving up. Racine has a lot of anxiety, and she is scared to be around large crowds. She had to quit her job because of her anxiety. Logan likely fits into the _________ criteria for abnormal behavior, while Racine fits in the _________ criteria. a) distress; dysfunction b) dysfunction; danger c) danger; deviance d) dysfunction; deviance

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Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Identify the common features of most definitions of abnormal functioning, and describe how psychological disorders are classified and diagnosed. Section Reference: Defining, Classifying, and Diagnosing Psychological Abnormality 45. Per has difficulty controlling his anger. He often lashes out by hitting his wife and children. Per’s behavior best exemplifies which criteria of abnormal behavior? a) danger b) distress c) deviance d) dysfunction Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Identify the common features of most definitions of abnormal functioning, and describe how psychological disorders are classified and diagnosed. Section Reference: Defining, Classifying, and Diagnosing Psychological Abnormality 46. Carly often feels sad or frustrated by events in her life. Sometimes when things feel out of control, or she is angry at herself, she will cut herself. Her family and friends are unaware of Carly’s behavior. Carly best exemplifies which criteria of abnormal behavior? a) distress b) danger c) deviance d) dysfunction Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Identify the common features of most definitions of abnormal functioning, and describe how psychological disorders are classified and diagnosed. Section Reference: Defining, Classifying, and Diagnosing Psychological Abnormality 47. The link between physical illness and madness was finally made when the advanced symptoms of dementia, delusions, hallucinations, and inappropriate moods were found to be associated with ___. Ultimately this disorder was found to have a medical basis. a) general hysteria b) gonorrhea c) general paresis d) general mental illness

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Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify the common features of most definitions of abnormal functioning, and describe how psychological disorders are classified and diagnosed. Section Reference: Defining, Classifying, and Diagnosing Psychological Abnormality 48. Which of the following describes the main goal of the medical model approach to mental illness? a) treating mental illness solely with medication b) linking physical illnesses and symptoms of mental illnesses c) having mental illnesses only treated by psychiatrists who are medical doctors d) identify common symptoms, make predictions about prognoses, search for possible causes, and suggest treatment Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify the common features of most definitions of abnormal functioning, and describe how psychological disorders are classified and diagnosed. Section Reference: Defining, Classifying, and Diagnosing Psychological Abnormality 49. What is a limitation of using the medical model approach to mental illness? a) We will never fully understand all the things that can go wrong with the brain. b) We are powerless to fix anything that we find wrong with the brain. c) It ignores the influence of environmental factors in mental illness. d) It ignores the fact that mental illness would have evolved. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify the common features of most definitions of abnormal functioning, and describe how psychological disorders are classified and diagnosed. Section Reference: Defining, Classifying, and Diagnosing Psychological Abnormality 50. Which of the following is NOT one of the “four D’s” that are most commonly used as key features to define someone as having a psychological abnormality? a) dissociation b) danger c) distress d) deviance Answer: a Difficulty: Easy

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify the common features of most definitions of abnormal functioning, and describe how psychological disorders are classified and diagnosed. Section Reference: Defining, Classifying, and Diagnosing Psychological Abnormality 51. Which of the following is one of the four “Ds” of psychological dysfunction? a) delusions b) danger c) dissociation d) dynamic Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify the common features of most definitions of abnormal functioning, and describe how psychological disorders are classified and diagnosed. Section Reference: Defining, Classifying, and Diagnosing Psychological Abnormality 52. Of the four key features that are universally accepted by most definitions of a psychological abnormality, which one are you LEAST likely to see in someone with a mental illness? a) deviance b) distress c) dysfunction d) danger Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Identify the common features of most definitions of abnormal functioning, and describe how psychological disorders are classified and diagnosed. Section Reference: Defining, Classifying, and Diagnosing Psychological Abnormality 53. Lilah has recently filed a number of police reports about being followed. She notices that cars often take the same turns as her on the highway, and she knows they are following her specifically. She also broke up with her boyfriend after she realized that he was helping them to track her. Which of the following BEST explains Lilah’s behaviour? a) Lilah meets both the deviance and dysfunction criteria for abnormal behaviour because she is displaying socially divergent behaviours and thoughts, and she is losing relationships because of her condition. b) Lilah meets both the distress and deviance criteria of abnormal behaviour because she is upset about the events she believes are occurring, and her actions are affecting other people’s lives. c) Lilah’s behavior meets the danger criteria of abnormal behaviour. She is seeing people following her where there likely are none, and she is living in fear of that situation. d) Lilah’s behavior meets the dysfunction criteria of abnormal behaviour. She is becoming so upset by these events that she has involved the police to try to help her.

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Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Identify the common features of most definitions of abnormal functioning, and describe how psychological disorders are classified and diagnosed. Section Reference: Defining, Classifying, and Diagnosing Psychological Abnormality 64. Agustina is really worried about her cousin. The last time they were together, he mentioned that he thought suicide was a good option for him. What key feature(s) of a psychological abnormality is Agustina’s cousin displaying? a) distress b) dysfunction c) danger d) a and c Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Identify the common features of most definitions of abnormal functioning, and describe how psychological disorders are classified and diagnosed. Section Reference: Defining, Classifying, and Diagnosing Psychological Abnormality 65. For the past month, Marley has been unable to leave her house. Every time she tries to go out, she is overcome by intense feelings of fear and dread that something horrible is going to happen to her. Which of the following features of abnormal behaviour is Marley exhibiting? a) dysfunction b) distress c) danger d) deviance Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Identify the common features of most definitions of abnormal functioning, and describe how psychological disorders are classified and diagnosed. Section Reference: Defining, Classifying, and Diagnosing Psychological Abnormality 66. For the past two months, Luis has been going to the casino every night after work to play the slot machines. His phone and internet have been disconnected for non-payment and he is unable to pay his rent. Which of the following feature of abnormal behaviour is Luis exhibiting? a) dysfunction b) distress c) danger d) deviance

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Identify the common features of most definitions of abnormal functioning, and describe how psychological disorders are classified and diagnosed. Section Reference: Defining, Classifying, and Diagnosing Psychological Abnormality 67. Alba has difficulty understanding how to interact well with other people. She is socially awkward and withdrawn. Which of the criteria of mental illness best describes Alba? a) deviance b) distress c) dysfunction d) danger Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Identify the common features of most definitions of abnormal functioning, and describe how psychological disorders are classified and diagnosed. Section Reference: Defining, Classifying, and Diagnosing Psychological Abnormality 68. Fiona’s alcohol abuse causes her to be late to work or call in sick because of a hangover at least three times a week. Which criterion for diagnosing psychological disorders does this best represent? a) distress b) dysfunction c) danger d) deviance Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Identify the common features of most definitions of abnormal functioning, and describe how psychological disorders are classified and diagnosed. Section Reference: Defining, Classifying, and Diagnosing Psychological Abnormality 69. Assigning a diagnosis suggests that the client’s pattern of dysfunction a) is basically the same as patterns displayed by many other people. b) has been researched in numerous studies. c) has responded to certain kinds of treatment. d) all of the above. Answer: d

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify the common features of most definitions of abnormal functioning, and describe how psychological disorders are classified and diagnosed. Section Reference: Defining, Classifying, and Diagnosing Psychological Abnormality 70. Avril does not ever take off her coat. It started gradually, just wearing it to class and parties, but now she even sleeps in it. What key feature of a psychological abnormality is Avril showing? a) distress b) deviance c) danger d) dysfunction Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Identify the common features of most definitions of abnormal functioning, and describe how psychological disorders are classified and diagnosed. Section Reference: Defining, Classifying, and Diagnosing Psychological Abnormality 71. Which of the following measures of psychological dysfunction is most likely to be affected by time, culture, and history? a) deviance b) distress c) dysfunction d) danger Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify the common features of most definitions of abnormal functioning, and describe how psychological disorders are classified and diagnosed. Section Reference: Defining, Classifying, and Diagnosing Psychological Abnormality 72. Calum was a loner who lived with 200 dogs, cats, and sheep on a farm in Scotland. Although this behaviour deviates from societal norms, some may apply a specific label to describe the marked individuality of this person. What is this label? a) dysfunctional b) dangerous c) eccentric d) antisocial Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Learning Objective: Identify the common features of most definitions of abnormal functioning, and describe how psychological disorders are classified and diagnosed. Section Reference: Defining, Classifying, and Diagnosing Psychological Abnormality 73. Wealthy Sir George Sitwell famously had his cows stenciled in a blue and white willow pattern to make them look more attractive; he tried to pay his son’s fees at Eton with produce from his garden; and he had seven libraries in his home to contain all his books. According to your textbook, why would we refer to Sir Sitwell as quirky, bizarre, quaint, or eccentric rather than as deviant? a) Eccentricity is maladaptive and dysfunctional. b) Eccentricity and deviance are very similar, but the term eccentricity is more widely used for the wealthy. c) Eccentricity is benign, chosen freely, and provides pleasure. d) Eccentricity is a diagnostic term whereas deviance is a description. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Identify the common features of most definitions of abnormal functioning, and describe how psychological disorders are classified and diagnosed. Section Reference: Defining, Classifying, and Diagnosing Psychological Abnormality 74. The leading classification system for mental disorders in Canada is the a) Clinical Guidebook to Psychological Disorders. b) Dysfunction and Symptomology Manual. c) Psychiatric Assessment and Treatment Compendium. d) Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify the common features of most definitions of abnormal functioning, and describe how psychological disorders are classified and diagnosed. Section Reference: Defining, Classifying, and Diagnosing Psychological Abnormality 75. The DSM describes approximately ___ disorders. a) 50 b) 100 c) 200 d) 400 Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify the common features of most definitions of abnormal functioning,

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and describe how psychological disorders are classified and diagnosed. Section Reference: Defining, Classifying, and Diagnosing Psychological Abnormality 76. Owain is writing an article that explores the reasons why NOT all professionals have embraced the latest edition of the DSM. Which of the following is NOT one of these reasons? a) it does not list the causes of disorders. b) there are some overlapping constructs and poorly explained concepts. c) no acknowledgement of environmental factors in mental disorders (e.g., poverty, abuse). d) psychiatric drug industry played too much of a role in the development of the latest edition. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Identify the common features of most definitions of abnormal functioning, and describe how psychological disorders are classified and diagnosed. Section Reference: Defining, Classifying, and Diagnosing Psychological Abnormality 77. The International Classification of Diseases (ICD) is published by the ___. a) American Psychological Association b) American Psychiatric Society c) World Health Organization d) United Nations Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify the common features of most definitions of abnormal functioning, and describe how psychological disorders are classified and diagnosed. Section Reference: Defining, Classifying, and Diagnosing Psychological Abnormality 78. The classification system used by most countries throughout the world is the a) Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5). b) Physician's Desk Reference (PDR). c) Encyclopedia of Psychological Disorders. d) International Classification of Diseases (ICD). Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify the common features of most definitions of abnormal functioning, and describe how psychological disorders are classified and diagnosed. Section Reference: Defining, Classifying, and Diagnosing Psychological Abnormality 79. Currently the International Classification of Diseases (ICD) is in its ___ edition, while the

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Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM) is in its ___ edition. a) first / second b) second / first c) fourth / tenth d) tenth / fifth Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify the common features of most definitions of abnormal functioning, and describe how psychological disorders are classified and diagnosed. Section Reference: Defining, Classifying, and Diagnosing Psychological Abnormality 80. With regards to mental illness, identification is to _____ as outcome is to _____. a) etiology; diagnosis b) diagnosis; etiology c) prognosis; diagnosis d) diagnosis; prognosis Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Identify the common features of most definitions of abnormal functioning, and describe how psychological disorders are classified and diagnosed. Section Reference: Defining, Classifying, and Diagnosing Psychological Abnormality 81. What is the difference between neurocognitive disorders and neurodevelopmental disorders? a) Neurocognitive disorders primarily affect cognitive functioning and are the result of injury or disease; neurodevelopmental disorders affect social or academic functioning and onset occurs prior to school age. b) Neurocognitive disorders are the result of a lower intelligence; neurodevelopmental disorders are the result of injury or disease. c) Neurocognitive disorders are inherited problems, such as chromosomal abnormalities; neurodevelopmental disorders are caused by some environmental disturbances, such as injury. d) Neurocognitive disorders are treatable with intense therapy and medications; neurodevelopmental disorders are considered untreatable but manageable. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Identify the common features of most definitions of abnormal functioning, and describe how psychological disorders are classified and diagnosed. Section Reference: Defining, Classifying, and Diagnosing Psychological Abnormality

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82 Olivia was in a car accident and sustained a traumatic brain injury. Since her accident, Olivia’s moods have been unstable, and she is forgetful. Which of the following subcategories of mental disorders would she likely fit in? a) neurocognitive disorders b) neurodevelopmental disorders c) dissociative disorders d) trauma disorders Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Identify the common features of most definitions of abnormal functioning, and describe how psychological disorders are classified and diagnosed. Section Reference: Defining, Classifying, and Diagnosing Psychological Abnormality 83. Which of the following is NOT one of the somatoform disorders? a) conversion disorder b) bipolar disorder c) somatization disorder d) hypochondriasis Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Identify the common features of most definitions of abnormal functioning, and describe how psychological disorders are classified and diagnosed. Section Reference: Defining, Classifying, and Diagnosing Psychological Abnormality 84. Dr. Lindgren identified Tarren with alcohol use disorder based on the symptoms Terran reported and the way those symptoms aligned with the symptoms in the DSM-5. Dr. Lindgren is making a(n) a) judgment b) educated guess c) diagnosis d) assessment Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Identify the common features of most definitions of abnormal functioning, and describe how psychological disorders are classified and diagnosed. Section Reference: Defining, Classifying, and Diagnosing Psychological Abnormality 85. Dr. Dunne identified Lihua with post traumatic stress disorder based on the symptoms Lihua reported and the way those symptoms aligned with the symptoms in the DSM-5. Dr. Dunne is

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making a(n) a) judgment b) educated guess c) diagnosis d) assessment Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Identify the common features of most definitions of abnormal functioning, and describe how psychological disorders are classified and diagnosed. Section Reference: Defining, Classifying, and Diagnosing Psychological Abnormality 86. After administering a battery of psychological tests, Shreya’s psychologist determines that she is suffering from borderline personality disorder. Shreya’s psychologist has made a ___. a) classification b) criteria decision c) diagnosis d) psychological determination Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Identify the common features of most definitions of abnormal functioning, and describe how psychological disorders are classified and diagnosed. Section Reference: Defining, Classifying, and Diagnosing Psychological Abnormality 87. Andrea is constantly suspicious that her closest friends will suddenly decide to abandon her, as have MOST of her friends in the past. As a result, she engages in desperate behaviors that she mistakenly believes will sustain her friendships, such as doing drugs and purchasing expensive gifts to give away. Andrea MOST likely has a) borderline personality disorder. b) antisocial personality disorder. c) dissociative identity disorder. d) obsessive-compulsive disorder. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Identify the common features of most definitions of abnormal functioning, and describe how psychological disorders are classified and diagnosed. Section Reference: Defining, Classifying, and Diagnosing Psychological Abnormality 88. After completing a full psychological assessment, Dr. Gilligan concludes that Jeremy has schizophrenia. Dr. Gilligan has just made a(n)

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a) etiology. b) cause. c) diagnosis. d) assessment. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Identify the common features of most definitions of abnormal functioning, and describe how psychological disorders are classified and diagnosed. Section Reference: Defining, Classifying, and Diagnosing Psychological Abnormality 89. Another term for loss of contact with reality is a) neurosis. b) psychosis. c) anxiety disorder. d) mood disorder. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify the common features of most definitions of abnormal functioning, and describe how psychological disorders are classified and diagnosed. Section Reference: Defining, Classifying, and Diagnosing Psychological Abnormality 90. Disorders characterized by distorted perceptions, thoughts, emotions, and behaviors are known as ________ disorders. a) anxiety b) mood c) somatoform d) psychotic Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify the common features of most definitions of abnormal functioning, and describe how psychological disorders are classified and diagnosed. Section Reference: Defining, Classifying, and Diagnosing Psychological Abnormality 91. Which of the following groups of disorders is characterized by a loss of contact with reality? a) psychotic disorders b) somatoform disorders c) anxiety disorders d) personality disorders

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify the common features of most definitions of abnormal functioning, and describe how psychological disorders are classified and diagnosed. Section Reference: Defining, Classifying, and Diagnosing Psychological Abnormality 92. When someone has symptoms that qualify them for more than one diagnosis, this is called a) codominant. b) concurrent diagnoses. c) comorbidity. d) conduct disorder. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify the common features of most definitions of abnormal functioning, and describe how psychological disorders are classified and diagnosed. Section Reference: Defining, Classifying, and Diagnosing Psychological Abnormality 93. Comorbidity means that a) the disorder is a secondary complication of some other disorder. b) the disorder has potential consequences for morbidity and mortality. c) the person qualifies for diagnoses of two or more disorders. d) the person has a long-term psychological disability that has resulted in at least two hospitalizations. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify the common features of most definitions of abnormal functioning, and describe how psychological disorders are classified and diagnosed. Section Reference: Defining, Classifying, and Diagnosing Psychological Abnormality 94. Richard suffers from both depression and anxiety, a condition referred to as a) comorbidity. b) psychosis. c) insanity. d) eccentricity. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify the common features of most definitions of abnormal functioning,

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and describe how psychological disorders are classified and diagnosed. Section Reference: Defining, Classifying, and Diagnosing Psychological Abnormality 95. Maude has just been told by a mental health professional that she is showing comorbidity. What news did Maude receive? a) that her symptoms are intensifying b) that her twin died at birth, leaving her with unresolved issues c) that she has an incurable mental illness d) that she has two or more diagnoses Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Identify the common features of most definitions of abnormal functioning, and describe how psychological disorders are classified and diagnosed. Section Reference: Defining, Classifying, and Diagnosing Psychological Abnormality 96. Zehra is being treated for multiple mental health problems. She has suffered from depression for years, but recently, she has also developed obsessive-compulsive disorder that manifests as an intense fear of germs. It is so severe, that she cannot leave her house for fear of being contaminated with foreign germs, and so technically she has agoraphobia too. Psychologists would say that Zehra is showing a) post-traumatic stress disorder. b) comorbidity. c) exacerbating symptom development. d) conflicting diagnoses. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Identify the common features of most definitions of abnormal functioning, and describe how psychological disorders are classified and diagnosed. Section Reference: Defining, Classifying, and Diagnosing Psychological Abnormality 97. Dr. Schmidt is a neuroscientist who is conducting research on probable causes of depression. In which of the following might Dr. Schmidt be interested? a) situational factors that increase depressive symptoms b) the thought processes of those who are depressed c) the role of genetics and viral infections on depression d) unconscious conflicts that cause anxiety and depression Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal

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functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 98. Horace’s mother has taken him to the hospital because he claims he is hearing voices and is speaking in a very odd manner. In assessing him, Horace’s doctor conducts a CT scan to look for structural issues with his brain, and a series of blood tests to assess the chemicals in his blood stream. Horace’s doctor is using the ____________ model to assess Horace’s abnormal behaviour. a) neuroscience b) cognitive c) cognitive-behavioural d) developmental psychopathology Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 99. Which of the following would NOT fit under the neuroscience model’s view of abnormal behaviour? a) Abnormal behaviour is caused by problems in specific structures of the brain. b) Abnormal behaviour is acquired through conditioning, modelling, and cognitive processes. c) Abnormal behaviour is the result of too much or too little neurotransmitter activity. d) Abnormal behaviour can be related to abnormal hormonal activity in the endocrine system. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 100. Depression is related to the insufficient activity of which of the following neurotransmitters? a) GABA and dopamine b) norepinephrine and serotonin c) acetylcholine and epinephrine d) glutamate and GABA Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning.

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Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 101. Yuri has just suffered his first schizophrenic episode. Which of the following is LEAST related to Yuri’s schizophrenic episode? a) high levels of the neurotransmitter dopamine in Yuri’s brain b) Yuri’s mother has been diagnosed with schizophrenia c) Yuri was exposed to a virus as a small child that has only now been activated d) Yuri has been exposed to environmental stressors. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 102. Dr. Nguyen is a reductionist neuroscientist. Which of the following explanations of schizophrenia would Dr. Nguyen be least likely to support? a) It is caused by an interaction between biological and environmental factors. b) It is cause by structural abnormalities in the brain. c) It is caused by elevated levels of dopamine in the brain. d) It is caused by prenatal exposure to a virus. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 103. Marcel needs things to be clean, and if they are NOT clean, he becomes very upset. He has socializing because he worries that people will be sick or have germs. Recently, Marcel had to quit his job because of these factors. What is the BEST explanation for this behaviour? a) Marcel’s behavior is abnormal because it meets both the deviance and dysfunction criteria. Marcel is likely suffering from an obsessive-compulsive disorder. b) Marcel’s behavior is abnormal because it meets both the distress and deviance criteria. Marcel is likely suffering from an obsessive-compulsive disorder. c) Marcel’s behavior is abnormal because it meets the danger function since he cannot leave his house. Marcel is likely suffering from a dissociative disorder. d) Marcel’s behavior is abnormal because it meets the dysfunction function since his preoccupation with germs works against social norms. Marcel is likely suffering from a dissociative disorder. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard

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Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 104. Rosalyn suffers from obsessive-compulsive disorder. What would the neuroscience model say is the cause of Rosalyn’s disorder? a) She has unconscious conflicts that centre around her fixation at the anal stage. b) She has a distorted view of herself that has prevented her from achieving personal growth. c) She has a chemical imbalance in her brain. d) She has learned this behaviour as a coping mechanism in response to her unwanted thoughts. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 105. Oscar suffers from a disorder. His physician told his parents that it was possible that Oscar had been exposed to a damaging virus prenatally or in early childhood and that the virus may have lay quiet until he reached puberty. What model is the physician using and what disorder is she likely referring to? a) neuroscience; obsessive compulsive disorder. b) neuroscience; schizophrenia c) neurodevelopmental; borderline personality disorder d) neurodevelopmental; panic disorder Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 106. Dr. Khanna is a neuroscientist who believes that psychological disorders are the result of biological, social, psychological, and cultural variables. To which of the following models/perspectives does Dr. Khanna subscribe? a) diathesis–stress model b) reductionist perspective c) biopsychosocial perspective d) cognitive-biological perspective Answer: c

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 107. Dr. Grenier is a neuroscientist who believes that disorders arise because a person inherits a genetic predisposition that will not be expressed unless triggered by an environmental event. To which of the following models/perspectives does Dr. Grenier subscribe? a) diathesis–stress model b) reductionist perspective c) biopsychosocial perspective d) cognitive-biological perspective Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 108. Which of today’s leading models of abnormality is at the greatest risk of depending on a reductionist view? a) cognitive-behavioural model b) psychodynamic model c) neuroscience model d) socio-cultural model Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 109. According to the behavioural perspective, which of the following is NOT a way that abnormal behaviours are acquired? a) modelling b) classical conditioning c) operant conditioning d) maladaptive beliefs Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension

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Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 110. When Aksel was a small child, he and his father were in a serious car accident while driving over a bridge. Now Aksel finds that whenever he drives over a bridge, he becomes extremely frightened. According to the ___ perspective, Aksel’s fear is the result of ___. a) cognitive-behavioural; operant conditioning b) cognitive-behavioural; classical conditioning c) behavioural; classical conditioning d) behavioural; operant conditioning Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 111. Alejandro was recently bitten by a dog. Because he now associates dogs with pain, Alejandro is now afraid of dogs. According to the ____________ model, Alejandro’s fear of dogs is the result of __________ conditioning. a) cognitive; operant b) behavioural; operant c) cognitive; classical d) behavioural; classical Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 112. When Andre went to see a psychologist about his panic attacks, the psychologist taught him that, instead of thinking he is having a heart attack, Andre should tell himself it is just anxiety and that he is safe. This thought control, combined with deep breathing and relaxation, is causing the panic attacks to become less severe and Andre is sure he will soon be able to control them completely. Andre’s psychologist most likely uses the _______________ model in his treatment. a) socio-cultural b) psychodynamic c) cognitive-behavioural d) humanist Answer: c

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 113. The behavioural perspective suggests that abnormal behaviour is learned through ___. a) classical conditioning b) operant conditioning c) modelling d) all of the above Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 114. Willum is seeing a psychologist to try to manage his anger better. His psychologist believes that Willum expresses his anger in the same way his father did. His psychologist is suggesting that Willum’s behaviour is due to _______, which supports the ________ perspective. a) classical conditioning; behavioural b) modelling; cognitive c) modelling; behavioural d) classical conditioning; cognitive Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 115. If a psychologist is examining why some inner-city children turn to drugs and crime while others live more normal lives, they would probably be interested in studying the ______ factors for the two diverse groups of children. a) family b) socio-cultural c) risk d) genetic Answer: c Difficulty: Medium

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Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 116. The study of how problem behaviours evolve as a function of a person’s genes and early experiences, and how these early issues affect the person at later life stages is known as the ________ model. a) socio-cultural b) developmental psychopathology c) cognitive developmental d) neuroscience Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 117. Matilde’s mother suffers from depression and often drinks alcohol in excessive amounts. If a psychologist were interested in studying the influence these two factors might have on Matilde’s outcomes in later life, they would likely subscribe to the __________ model. a) socio-cultural b) cognitive developmental c) developmental psychopathology d) socio-developmental Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 118. Dr. Rigaud is studying how infants born addicted to cocaine respond to massage therapy. Specifically, she is comparing addicted infants who had massage therapy with those who did not on measures of language development when they enter kindergarten. What psychological perspective does Dr. Rigaud probably ascribe to? a) socio-cultural b) developmental psychopathology c) cognitive-behavioural d) psychodynamic Answer: b

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 119. According to the psychodynamic model, abnormal behaviours are viewed as a) the result of illogical thinking processes. b) the unconscious learning of behaviours. c) unconscious attempts to resolve inner conflicts and lessen painful inner turmoil. d) the result of rewards and punishments. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 120. Dr. Harris is a neuroscientist that believes that a person with depression probably had a genetic predisposition to the disorder and was at some point exposed to an external stressful event. To which of the following models/perspectives does Dr. Harris subscribe? a) diathesis–stress model b) reductionist perspective c) biopsychosocial perspective d) cognitive-biological perspective Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 121. Dr. Velez believes that a child can become fixated at an early stage of development and that this fixation can affect all subsequent development and can therefore contribute to abnormal functioning. To which of the following models/perspectives does Dr. Velez subscribe? a) diathesis–stress model b) behavioural c) biopsychosocial perspective d) psychodynamic Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 123. ___ theorists propose that psychological disorders result largely from a combination of problematic learned behaviours and dysfunctional thought processes. a) Psychodynamic b) Cognitive-behavioural c) Humanistic d) Socio-cultural Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 124. The perspective that proposes that psychological disorders result largely from a combination of problematic, learned behaviours and dysfunctional thought processes is the a) behavioural perspective. b) diathesis-stress model. c) cognitive- behavioural model. d) socio-cognitive model. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 125. When Atticus lost his job due to downsizing, he believed he was a failure who let his family down. He did NOT apply for jobs because he believed nobody would want someone who was a failure. The longer he was out of work, the more he felt like a failure. Atticus has recently been diagnosed with depression. According to the cognitive-behavioural model this is an example of how a) our behaviours influence the biological processes and lead to psychological disorders. b) our thoughts and societal expectations influence our behaviours. c) thoughts influence our behaviours, and behaviours influence our thought processes. d) a predisposition to a disorder. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis

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Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 126. While behavioural models focus on ___, the cognitive perspective views psychological disorders as stemming from ___. a) learning; thoughts b) conscious processes; unconscious processes c) developmental change; situational instability d) animal behaviour; social interactions Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 127. Which maladaptive belief is correctly matched with an example? a) selective perception – Damia said “good afternoon” instead of “good morning” when she first walked in to meet with the selection committee. Despite a terrific interview she is certain she did not get the job because of this error in the job interview. b) magnification – Lewis and his partner had a very enjoyable month long holiday, but Lewis cannot stop talking about how rude the steward had been on the plane ride to the island c) over generalization – Barak’s friends and family all told him that his wedding toast was hilarious, but he could not stop thinking about his uncle who did not laugh once d) illogical thinking processes – Diana learned from watching her mother to fear spiders Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 128. Dee is uncomfortable having lunch with her colleagues because she feels that they only talk to one another and never to her. Dee ignores the many times that several colleagues tried to draw her into the conversation. Dee is engaging in the illogical thinking process of a) fixation. b) selective perception. c) overgeneralization. d) magnification. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 129. According to the ___ perspective, maladaptive beliefs and illogical thinking processes are at the heart of abnormal functioning. a) psychodynamic b) behavioural c) cognitive d) socio-cultural Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 130. Dr. Langdon believes that abnormal behaviours are caused by unconscious conflicts rooted in childhood. Dr. Langdon subscribes to the ________ perspective. a) cognitive b) humanistic c) developmental psychopathology d) psychodynamic Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 131. Kaia’s mother died when she was three-years-old. Now, twenty-seven Kaia suffers from major depressive disorder. Her therapist believes that Kaia’s depression is rooted in her sense of abandonment from her mother’s death. What perspective is Kaia’s therapist using? a) cognitive b) neuroscience c) psychodynamic d) humanistic Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal

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functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 132. Liana just moved to a new town to take a promotion at her work. Instead of focusing on the benefits of her move, she only sees the negatives, such as a somewhat smaller house and a five minute longer drive to get to work. Liana is experiencing ___. a) selective perception b) magnification c) overgeneralization d) cognitive dissonance Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 133. Anaya is a ‘glass-half-empty’ kind of person. No matter what happens, she will only see the negative aspect of the situation, and all the positives will go unnoticed. For instance, at her birthday, she received many beautiful gifts, but all she kept talking about was that her birthday fell on a weekday, and how awful it is to have her birthday on a weekday. According to the cognitive perspective, what kind of illogical thinking pattern does Anaya demonstrate? a) magnification b) selective perception c) the belief that she needs everyone’s approval d) overgeneralization Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 134. ___ involves drawing broad negative conclusions on the basis of a single insignificant event. a) Selective perception b) Magnification c) Overgeneralization d) Cognitive dissonance Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 135. Laqueta hated family dinners. In spite of the fact that the rest of the family enjoyed themselves, Laqueta maintained that her mother was critical, her sisters made fun of her, and the meal was always chosen to meet the preferences of her brothers, even though Laqueta did NOT enjoy most of the food types chosen. According to Beck, when a person sees only the negative features of an event, they are engaging in the illogical thinking process of a) magnification. b) selective perception. c) overgeneralization. d) fixation. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 136. Rosalie is depressed. She goes to pour herself a glass of juice and spills it. She says to herself, “I can’t even pour a glass of juice properly; I am so incompetent.” This is an example of what Beck would call a) selective perception. b) magnification. c) overgeneralization. d) personalization. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 137. After Bader finally worked up the courage to ask a girl in his class out on a date, she rejected him. Bader has now concluded that no girl would ever want to date him. According to Beck, Bader is engaging in the illogical thinking process of _________________. a) overgeneralization b) overextension c) magnification d) fixation Answer: a

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 138. Which of the following situations below exemplifies selective perception? a) Lyle recently moved to a new city with his family. He becomes very unhappy because the local football field is smaller than the one in his previous city. b) Joan is supposed to go out for drinks with friends but does not want to go because the last time she spilled a drink and is afraid the bartender will remember it. c) Harvey is supposed to give a presentation and is worried because the last time he had to pause to find the right words. d) Although Bernie is typically an "A" student, he recently received a D on a term paper. Now he is sure he will never graduate. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 139. Rory just found out that he did not get into the psychology program at Wilfrid Laurier, and he is freaking out. Now he might as well NOT even bother going to university, which means that he will have to work for his father’s carpet cleaning company. He will probably get cancer from the chemicals and die a young man. What pattern of illogical thinking is Rory demonstrating here? a) selective perception b) overgeneralization c) magnification d) intensification Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 140. Which of the following phrases reflects the psychodynamic approach to defining abnormal behaviour? a) Abnormal behaviour is learned through the observation of societal norms. b) Abnormal behaviour results from unconscious attempts to solve conflicts. c) Abnormal behaviour is observed in other individuals we identify with. d) Abnormal behaviour is a conscious choice to resolve internal conflicts.

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 141. Sai goes to see his psychologist about how sad and unmotivated he has been feeling lately. His psychologist asks him questions about his early childhood experiences and his relationship with his mother. Sai’s psychologist is most likely using a ________________ approach. a) cognitive-behavioural b) psychodynamic c) socio-cultural d) humanist Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 142. Object relations theory states that a) people are motivated by a need to establish relationships with others. b) people are motivated by a need to achieve a sense of security through the accumulations of objects. c) people are motivated by a desire to satisfy basic needs before being able to satisfy higher needs. d) relationships between people and objects are interchangeable. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 143. Object relations theorists propose that severe ___ may result in abnormal development and psychological problems during adulthood. a) problems in early relationships b) neurotransmitter imbalances c) brain damage d) malnutrition

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Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 144. Colton’s mother was a narcissistic, self-focused woman with a drinking problem. She favoured the other children in the family and saddled Colton with the responsibility of taking care of his siblings. Colton’s therapist tells him that this early relationship issue is most probably the basis of the many failed relationships Colton has with his previous wives and children. Colton’s therapist is most likely a(n) ___ theorist. a) cognitive-behavioural b) humanist c) object relations d) socio-cultural Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 145. If Dr. Leung believes that abnormal behaviour can only be understood within the context of factors such as social change, socio-economic class membership, cultural background, and family systems, to which model would she likely subscribe? a) psychodynamic b) object relations c) socio-cultural d) developmental psychopathology Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 146. Trevor has recently lost his job as the company he works for has been downsizing. He knows he is NOT the only one as many companies and businesses have recently closed down due to an economic recession. According to the socio-cultural model, which risk factor for psychological disorders does this describe? a) social change

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

b) socio-economic class c) cultural factors d) social networks and supports Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 147. The factory in a town is closing after 75 years of production. As sixty percent of the people in the town are employed by the factory, the town is now facing an economic downturn. Which of the following would you predict for the people of the town? a) There will be increase in crime. b) There will be an increase in schizophrenia. c) There will be a decrease in mental health issues. d) There will be an increase in depression and suicide. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 148. According to the socio-cultural model, which of the following individuals is LEAST at risk for developing a psychological disorder? a) Jared, who lives in an isolated village in Alaska b) Namid, an aboriginal youth who regularly participates in cultural ceremonies c) Larissa, a single mother of two who lives in a poor neighbourhood d) Kazuto, who moved away from his family and friends six months ago and has yet to make new friends Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 149. According to the concept of ___, individuals can start out from very different places and yet, over time, because of life experiences, eventually function (or dysfunction) in similar ways. a) multifinality b) equifinality

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c) selective perception d) overgeneralization Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 150. The idea that children can start out from different places and end up at the same outcome is called a) equifinality. b) multipotentiality. c) multifinality. d) resilience. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 151. The idea that different children can start from different points and wind up at the same outcome is known as a) comorbidity. b) multifinality. c) equifinality. d) risk analysis. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 152. _______________ refers to the idea that children can start from the same point and wind up at any number of different outcomes. a) Continuity b) Discontinuity c) Equifinality d) Multifinality

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 153. Brandon and his brother Trent grew up in a poverty-stricken neighbourhood with a single mother who was working three jobs to pay the bills. While growing up, the boys were often left at home alone and thus were exposed to drugs and crime. Although Brandon grew up to be a successful physician and is happily married with two children, Trent has been in jail most of his adult life. Trent is often depressed and has been unable to hold a job and maintain his social relationships. The principle of ___ explains how Brandon and Trent started from the same point but eventually functioned in very different ways. a) selective perception b) equifinality c) multifinality d) comorbidity Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 154. Liesel and Kady are identical twins who both grew up in a loving home and attended the same schools. Once grown, Liesel married early, had twins of her own, and stayed home to contentedly raise her children. Kady, on the other hand, had an adventurous spirit and traveled extensively working as a photographer for a wildlife magazine. Developmental psychologists would say that this pattern of change in the twins demonstrates the concept of a) equifinality. b) multifinality. c) resilience. d) selective perception. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 155. One suggested explanation for multifinality may be that even among children born into the same family there may be different levels of _________________.

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a) family support b) optimism c) personality flaws d) resilience Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 156. What is a disadvantage of the biomedical models of abnormal behaviour? a) It has no empirical evidence linking abnormal behaviour to abnormal brain functioning. b) It is helpful with diagnosis but not with prognosis or treatment. c) It assumes that abnormal behaviour stems from genetics and viral infections. d) It neglects the contribution of non-biological factors to abnormal behaviour. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 157. What is the similarity between family systems theory and object relations theory? a) They both emphasize the genetic contribution to psychological disorders. b) They both stress the importance of the family in contributing to psychological disorders. c) They both view negative unconscious forces as a contributor to psychological disorders. d) They both believe that psychological disorders are learned. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 158. Which of the following is a legitimate difference between family systems theory and object relations theory? a) Object relations theory emphasizes the role of genetic contributions to psychological disorders and family systems theory does not. b) Family systems theory sees individual members of a family interacting in cohesive and consistent ways whereas object relations theory emphasizes how the relationships outside of the family were impacted by the family.

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

c) Family systems theory emphasizes the role of unconscious forces as a contributor to psychological disorders and object relations theory does not. d) Family systems theory believes that relationship issues are learned, and object relations theory does not. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 159. What is/are the key feature(s) of mood disorders? a) disposition and temperament b) depression and mania c) attitudes d) bipolar and major depression Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 160. Persistent depressive disorder is a chronic but less severe form of ___. a) major depressive disorder b) bipolar disorder c) cyclothymic disorder d) panic disorder Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 161. In a therapy session, Frankie’s psychologist asks her about any events that have occurred since their last appointment. Frankie immediately tells the therapist about a minor car accident she had and forgets to tell her about a promotion she received at work. Frankie is MOST likely being treated for a) obsessive-compulsive disorder. b) generalized anxiety disorder. c) depression. d) borderline personality disorder.

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Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 162. Lexi has been feeling sad lately. She finds herself distracted at work by the depth of her sadness and then she is consumed with guilt because she has been unproductive. This morning she was so paralyzed by this that she could NOT get out of bed. What can be inferred about Lexi? a) Lexi is suffering from major depressive disorder. b) Lexi is suffering from suicidal ideation. c) Lexi is suffering from the normal sadness of life. d) Lexi is suffering from extreme mania. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 163. Dev has been depressed for over 20 years. Although he has managed to continue functioning at home and work throughout his struggle, he is always burdened with a feeling of sadness and lack of pleasure with events in his life. What is Dev’s diagnosis? a) persistent depressive disorder b) cyclothymia c) major depressive disorder d) bipolar disorder Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 164. Major depressive disorder is to persistent depressive disorder as _____ is to _____. a) hopelessness; sadness b) mild; severe c) acute; chronic d) functional; dysfunctional Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 165. Approximately ___ of adults in Canada are diagnosed with major depressive disorder in any given year. a) 3% b) 5% c) 8% d) 12% Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 166. Studies estimate that ___ of people who suffer from severe depression commit suicide. a) 1–5% b) 6–16% c) 12–20% d) 18–24% Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 167. Raj has recently accepted a job in a remote area of the Yukon. Shortly after arriving there, he learns that his mother has been diagnosed with a serious illness. Which of the following is a potential outcome for Raj? a) He is more likely to suffer from an anxiety disorder. b) He is likely to cope better with the stressor since he has distance from the issue. c) He is more likely to become depressed. d) He is likely able to cope with the stressor the same way as he would if he were living near his mother. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 168. Which of the following is NOT a criterion for diagnosing someone with major depression?

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a) depressed mood and/or markedly diminished interest and/or pleasure in activities b) an avoidance of situations in which escape might be difficult or help unavailable c) symptoms cause significant distress or impairment in functioning d) symptoms are not due to the presence of a chemical substance or medical condition Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 169. Desma is concerned about her husband, Eterio. After being terminated from his job of over 15 years, Eterio was furious at first, but he has now withdrawn from Desma and his family. He does NOT seem to experience any pleasure in any aspect of life. He seems to feel that there is nothing he can do to change his life. What can be inferred about this situation? a) Eterio may be suffering from depression stemming from negative thinking. b) Eterio may be suffering from bipolar disorder that was triggered by his job termination. c) Eterio may be seeing hallucinations that he will not admit to. d) Eterio may be suffering from panic disorder. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 170. Mehdi is having trouble sleeping, has lost his appetite, is too tired to go to work, and CANNOT concentrate on simple television shows. It is most likely that Mehdi is experiencing a ___. a) dysthymic disorder b) cyclothymic disorder c) major depressive disorder d) bipolar disorder Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 171. Horst has not felt like himself ever since his girlfriend broke up with him last month. He does not want to eat, he sleeps all the time, and even taking care of his basic hygiene has become challenging for him. When his friends dropped by to take him out and cheer him up, he kicked them out and said he did not feel well. What kind of disorder is Horst likely suffering from?

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

a) persistent depressive disorder b) cyclothymia c) bipolar d) major depressive Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 172. Which of the following is NOT a statement that someone with major depressive disorder is likely to say? a) Why bother trying? It is not like anything is going to change. b) Of course, I did not get the promotion. Everybody thinks I am too stupid for the job. c) I have a lot of stress in my life, so I have been working a lot of overtime because it helps me deal with it. d) I know I used to like going to the gym, but I am just too tired these days, and I have not lost any weight anyway. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 173. Learned helplessness may lead to depression if a person attributes failure to a) socio-cultural factors that are outside of the person’s control. b) their personality characteristics and their lack of emotional control. c) their intelligence level and their inability to anything about it. d) a lack of control over the rewards and punishments in their lives and hold themselves responsible for this helpless state. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 174. Dr. Vick is conducting a study on learned helplessness. She is exposing rabbits to low levels of shock based upon certain behavioral patterns. Based on what you know about learned helplessness, which of the following scenarios is MOST likely to result in learned helplessness in rabbits? a) Dr. Vick applies a low-level shock to the rabbits on a constant basis for two days, and nothing the rabbits do prevents or discontinues the shock from occurring.

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b) Dr. Vick applies a low-level shock to the rabbits for three seconds over a two-week period, but only when the rabbits eat from a large, versus small, food bowl. c) Dr. Vick applies a low-level shock to the rabbits for five seconds over a one-week period, but only when the rabbits drink for more than three seconds. d) Dr. Vick applies a low-level shock to the rabbits for seven seconds over three days, but only when the rabbits are in the left side of the cage. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 175. Campbell was frequently ridiculed by both parents throughout her childhood and took on a submissive role in most of her adult relationships. She is currently in an emotionally abusive relationship, has no appetite, suffers from severe insomnia, and struggles to get through the day. How can Campbell’s situation be explained? a) Campbell seems to be experiencing depression related to learned helplessness. b) Campbell seems to be experiencing battered woman’s syndrome stemming from her parents’ treatment of her. c) Campbell seems to be experiencing a normal response to her situation. d) Campbell seems to be experiencing bipolar disorder like her parents. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 176. Imagine you have been given a list of case studies for your psychology exam. According to learned helplessness theory, which of the following individuals would be at the GREATEST risk for depression? a) Maria believes that she is a failure for having ruined her marriage due to her incompetence, and that this will lead to being a failure in other aspects of her life. b) Fikira believes that she is a failure for having dropped out of college due to her demanding work schedule, though she does not believe this will lead to being a failure in other aspects of her life. c) Naoki believes that she is generally an effective problem solver. She feels guilty about missing registration for her son’s school, and she fears this forgetfulness may cause her to miss other deadlines. d) Kristi believes that she is intelligent, although very uneducated about the politics of the workplace. She believes the impact of this lack of knowledge will be confined to the work setting. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 177. Trisha was 12 when she was kidnapped. She was held for over 5 years before the pedophile let her go because she was too old. While captive, she was tortured and violated. Upon being released, she did NOT even try to find her parents because her captor told her they hated her for being so stupid and weak. When the police found Trisha wandering the streets, she was despondent and detached. How can Trisha’s behavior be explained? a) Trisha seems to be exhibiting severe depression caused by learned helplessness while imprisoned, in which she was taught that pain was her new reality. b) Trisha seems to be exhibiting moderate depression as a normal response to the stress of her imprisonment. c) Trisha seems to be exhibiting intense mania onset by the joy of being released by her captor from her state of bondage. d) Trisha seems to be exhibiting bipolar behavior bouncing between maniac excitement and deep depression for being released. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 178. Natasha is a 20-year-old identical twin who has recently been diagnosed with major depressive disorder. Felix is a 24-year-old fraternal twin whose twin brother has been diagnosed with major depressive disorder. Twenty-two year old Zhu’s older sister, a 26-year-old female, has suffered from major depressive disorder for the past two years. According to neuroscientists, who is more likely to develop major depressive disorder? a) Natasha’s twin sister b) Felix c) Zhu d) They are all equally likely to develop major depressive disorder. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 179. Zuri did not do well on her history test. If Zuri makes internal, stable, and global statements about her poor test performance, she is at risk for developing ________________. This would support the _________________ theory. a) depression; attribution-helplessness b) bipolar disorder; learned helplessness c) depression; learned helplessness

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d) bipolar disorder; attribution-helplessness Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 180. Cyclothymic disorder is a chronic but less severe form of ___. a) major depressive disorder b) bipolar disorder c) dysthymic disorder d) panic disorder Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 181. Kim is frustrated with her son, Tyler, who refuses to complete his homework. Initially his problem was that he was excessively tired, sad, and slept too much. However, now Tyler seems to have too much energy and is bouncing off the walls; he seems unable to sit down and complete his work. The little work he does manage to complete is of poor quality but he displays it proudly and refuses to make corrections claiming that he could NOT have made any mistakes. What is implied here? a) Tyler has bipolar disorder. b) Tyler is having a depressive episode. c) Tyler is experiencing manic disorder. d) Tyler has ADHD. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 182. Lena is a seamstress who works from home. She has been inexplicably buoyant all day, bouncing all over the place, giving away her favorite creations to anyone who walks by, and chatting people’s ears off. When asked why she is so happy, Lena responds buoyantly, "It’s a beautiful day!" and starts to dance to a tune in her own head. The next day, Lena refuses to get out of bed. If you were Lena’s friend, which of the following would you do? a) Seek immediate assistance for Lena because she is exhibiting signs of bipolar disorder and has experienced a sudden emotional crash that could be dangerous. b) Talk to Lena and explain to her that whatever made her take to her bed will work itself out

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and she just needs to tough it out and go back to working. c) Wait another day to see whether Lena’s mood will balance itself. d) Encourage Lena to get some sleep, which might help her recover from the emotional high she experienced the day before. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 183. For most of her life, Winona has had a reputation for having extreme mood swings. Some days she seems to be very happy and excited, while on other days she is very sad and unmotivated. Although she is unpredictable, her symptoms are relatively mild. Which disorder best describes Winona’s symptoms? a) major depressive disorder b) dysthymia (persistent depressive disorder) c) cyclothymia d) bipolar disorder Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 184. Since Blake was an adolescent, she has experienced irregular patterns of swings in mood between short episodes of mild depression and elevated mood. Which disorder best describes Blake’s symptoms? a) major depressive disorder b) dysthymia (persistent depressive disorder) c) cyclothymia d) bipolar disorder Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 185. What is the difference between bipolar disorder and cyclothymic disorder? a) Bipolar is inherited and cyclothymic is caused by a brain injury. b) Bipolar affects women more than men and cyclothymic affects men more than women. c) Bipolar is a more severe disorder and cyclothymic is less severe but more chronic. d) Bipolar is experiencing mood swings in two directions and cyclothymic is predominantly a

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depressive state. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 186. Bipolar is to cyclothymic as _____ is to _____. a) inherited; brain injury. b) higher risk in women; higher risk in men c) severe; mild d) depression; mania Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 187. Matteo is meeting with his therapist after being diagnosed with bipolar disorder. He enjoys the "high" he is experiencing, as he has abundant energy, does NOT require sleep, and believes he is accomplishing wonderful things. His therapist tells him that the manic episode a) is temporary and will be followed by a depressive episode that will likely last longer. b) will increase the likelihood that he will develop sleep apnea due to sleep deprivation. c) is likely to be masking as an alternate form of attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder. d) will decrease the likelihood that he will suffer a depressive episode in the future. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 188. A manic episode is usually followed by a) a depressive episode. b) a period of emotional stability. c) another, more disabling, manic episode. d) another, less disabling, manic episode. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder.

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Section Reference: Mood Disorders 189. Which of the following facts about bipolar disorder is NOT true? a) It affects men and women equally. b) It is one of the most debilitating disorders globally. c) It is highly heritable. d) It is more common in economically disadvantaged populations. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 190. Adwoma has not slept for days and forgot to pay her rent. However, she has been handing out money to people who are homeless. When a police officer tries to talk to her about why she is standing on a busy street corner handing out cash to all who pass by, she rapidly answers, but her thoughts fly from one idea to another. The police officer would be correct in suspecting that Adwoma has ___. a) generalized anxiety disorder b) dysthymic disorder c) bipolar disorder d) cyclothymic disorder Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 191. Against the advice of his parents, Jayce took the money from his savings account and spent it all on lottery tickets because he “had a feeling” he was going to win. He had big plans for the winnings that he was sure he was going to get and talked loudly and incessantly about how he was going to invest his winnings in developing an underwater bar. He said that only he had a vision for how this bar would work and that only he has the sales skills to get it off the ground. He went without sleep for a week drawing plans and putting together permits etc. Jayce would probably be diagnosed with a) generalized anxiety disorder b) dysthymic disorder c) bipolar disorder d) cyclothymic disorder Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 192. Which of the following is NOT a possible cause of bipolar disorder? a) gene abnormalities b) insufficient serotonin and norepinephrine c) interaction of genetics and stress d) heritability Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 193. Miya has noticed her friend Georgia seems full of herself lately, acting like she is much more important than anyone else. She has been aggressive and unpredictable, her speech erratic and fast, as if her thoughts are likely to fly away. In fact, Georgia herself seems ready to take flight at any moment. What can be inferred about Georgia? a) Georgia is exhibiting signs of mania, which may suggest bipolar disorder. b) Georgia is exhibiting signs of mania, which may suggest major depressive disorder. c) Georgia is exhibiting signs of hyperactivity, which may suggest disruptive mood dysregulation disorder. d) Georgia is exhibiting signs of depression, which may suggest bipolar disorder. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 194. Aspen is doing a presentation for her psychology class on the causes of bipolar disorder. Unfortunately, one of her slides has an error on it. Which of the following points does NOT belong on her slide? a) genetic abnormalities b) decreased activity of norepinephrine and serotonin c) stress and certain environmental events d) reduced sodium pump activity Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders

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195. Which of the following statements below is UNTRUE? a) Family and twin studies suggest that bipolar is not heritable. b) Bipolar disorder may be linked to ion dysregulation and reduced sodium pump activity. c) A combination of gene abnormalities plays a major role in the development of bipolar disorders. d) Levels of arousal, in combination with goal-related events, can lead to the mania-related symptoms of bipolar. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 196. Ashley is woken at four in the morning by her roommate, Keomi, who is building a chicken coop in the bathroom of their apartment because she wants fresh eggs. Sue can barely understand Keomi as she is talking and moving so quickly. Suddenly, Keomi realizes that she needs to buy chickens, and she wants to borrow Ashley’s car. Ashley hesitates, and so her roommate is out the door flagging down a taxi before Ashley has time to get to the door of the building. If Keomi is suffering from a mood disorder, what state is she experiencing? a) depression b) paranoia c) delusional d) mania Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 197. Unipolar is to ____________ as bipolar is to ________________. a) anxiety; depression b) depression; anxiety c) depression; mania d) depression; depression and mania Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 198. Farimah’s family has been called in for a family meeting to assist Farimah in coping with

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her unipolar depressive disorder. Her psychiatrist, Dr. Paul, explains to her family members that they may observe severe sadness and melancholy that will be followed by a) a return to a normal emotional level. b) a state of mania. c) suicidal ideation. d) rapid cycling of depression and mania. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 199. Shen is writing a paper for his psychology class about the causes of unipolar depression. Which of the following would he NOT include in his section on how neuroscientists explain depression? a) people inherit a genetic predisposition b) low activity of norepinephrine and serotonin c) enlarged cerebral ventricles d) people with depression have abnormally elevated levels of the stress hormone, cortisol Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 200. What evidence suggests that major depressive disorder is at least partly heritable? a) Researchers have located the gene for depression on chromosome 7. b) Monozygotic twins are more similar in depression than dizygotic twins. c) Early exposure to viral infections may lead to a predisposition to develop depression. d) Adoptive siblings resemble each other more in depression than half-siblings. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 201. ___ believe that people with severe depression acquire distinctly negative behaviours and think in dysfunctional ways that help cause and lock in their disorders. a) Cognitive- behavioural theorists b) Humanistic theorists c) Psychodynamic theorists d) Neuroscientists

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Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 202. Raphael has a math test tomorrow. Although he has failed the last two tests, he has decided to go out to a movie tonight. Raphael is certain that, even if he studied, he would not pass the test because his studying in the past didn’t help so why would it now. Raphael is experiencing ___. a) the fundamental attribution error b) learned helplessness c) automatic thoughts d) dysfunctional attitudes Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 203. Jania became depressed because she thought she no longer had control over the rewards and punishments in her life and that she alone was responsible for this helpless state. Jania’s experience supports the _____________ theory of depression. a) attribution-helplessness b) learned helplessness c) cognitive dissonance d) socio-cultural blame Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 204. According to ___ of depression people become depressed when they think that they no longer have control over the reinforcements in their lives and that they themselves are responsible for this helpless state. a) Freud’s psychodynamic theory b) Roger’s humanistic theory c) the neuroscience theory d) Seligman’s learned helplessness theory Answer: d

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 205. According to attribution-helplessness theory people may feel helpless to prevent future negative outcomes and may experience depression if they attribute their present lack of control to an ___ cause. a) internal, specific, and unstable b) internal, global, and stable c) external, specific, unstable d) external, global, stable Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 206. After failing a minor quiz in her psychology course, Greta told a friend she was considering dropping out of university because she was obviously too stupid to ever graduate. Greta’s feelings about herself support a) learned helplessness theory. b) attribution-helplessness theory. c) cognitive dissonance theory. d) socio-cultural theory. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 207. Rozi is feeling as if her life is spiralling out of control. It appears that negative events keep happening to her and that she can do nothing to change this. According to the attributionhelplessness theory, Rozi is more likely to become depressed if she views her lack of control as being caused by something a) external, global, and unstable. b) external, specific, stable. c) internal, specific, unstable. d) internal, global, stable. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium

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Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 208. Therese has a statistics test tomorrow and, instead of studying is watching television. When her roommate suggests she should study, Therese replies, “What’s the point? I’m too stupid to pass the test anyway.” This is an example of ___. a) fundamental attribution theory b) dysfunctional attitude theory c) attribution-helplessness theory d) learned-attribution theory Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 209. According to Beck, the statement, "If I do NOT get all "A’s" in university, I am a failure" is an example of a(n) a) dysfunctional attitude. b) automatic thought. c) error in thinking. d) learned helplessness. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 210. According to Beck, major depressive disorder stems from ___. a) dysfunctional attitudes b) illogical thinking processes c) the cognitive triad d) all of the above Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 211. According to Aaron Beck, what is the cognitive triad of depression?

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a) negative interpretation of others, the situation, and the past b) negative interpretation of themselves, the situation, and the future c) three causes of depression – genetics, environment, and their interaction d) three symptoms of depression – sadness, dejection, and rejection Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 212. Which of the following is NOT part of Beck’s cognitive triad? a) negative thoughts about one’s experiences b) negative thoughts about oneself c) negative thoughts about others d) negative thoughts about the future Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 213. When Beck says that people have automatic thoughts, he is referring to a) ideas and attitudes brought about because of classical conditioning. b) basic irrational assumptions. c) thoughts that are a normal part of the socialization process. d) thoughts that come into our minds without conscious intent. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 214. Ester recently had her laptop computer stolen from her university locker. According to Beck’s research on automatic thoughts, which of the following thought patterns would put Ester at greatest risk for developing depression? a) Her laptop was stolen because gang members from outside the university have been coming onto campus and posing as students and stealing from lockers. b) Her laptop was stolen because she was stupid to choose such an isolated location; she should have known better. c) Her laptop was stolen because the university lockers are not built strongly enough; everyone is saying so. d) Her laptop was stolen because a rash of thefts have occurred around the university due to an

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increasing drug problem some students are facing. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 215. Maxwell was not chosen for the baseball team. Which of the following attributions will decrease his chances of feeling depressed? a) "I'm just no good at baseball." b) "I've never been good at baseball, and never will be." c) "Baseball, basketball, school -- I've failed at all of them." d) "Today just wasn't my day." Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 216. According to socio-cultural theory, which of the following persons would be least likely to develop depression? a) Tahlia who stays at home to care for her four children b) Manato who has just separated from his wife c) Sophia who has just started a new job d) Calen, who has just moved to a new city to “start over” Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 217. What socio-cultural factor can have a major impact on one’s tendency to become depressed and the duration of the depressive episode? a) income b) education level c) social support d) urban living Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis

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Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 218. Studies have found that depressed people who lack social support a) are twice as likely to commit suicide as those with a support network. b) remain depressed longer than those with a support network. c) are more likely to require antidepressant medication than those with a social support network. d) suffer higher levels of depression than those who have a support network. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 219. What is the difference between major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder? a) Major depressive disorder is genetic and bipolar disorder is acquired. b) Major depressive disorder is found equally in men and women and bipolar disorder is predominantly found in women. c) Major depressive disorder is caused by a chemical imbalance and bipolar disorder is caused by a structural problem in the brain. d) Major depressive disorder involves a depressive state and bipolar involves periods of mania alternating with depression. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 220. Feelings of extreme excitement mixed with hyperactivity are some of the signs that psychiatrists look for when diagnosing a) antisocial disorders. b) bipolar disorders. c) panic disorders. d) schizophrenia. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 221. Zayn has depression and Sage has bipolar. Sage argues that Zayn is better off because

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an important difference between major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder is that only in bipolar disorder do people have ________________________. a) irrational thoughts b) depression c) manic episodes d) a biochemical imbalance Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 222. Which of the following is NOT considered to be an anxiety disorder? a) GAD b) panic disorder c) bipolar disorder d) phobias Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 223. A phobia and a diagnosis of a generalized anxiety disorder differ in the a) body’s reaction. b) intensity of the reaction. c) cause of the reaction. d) frequency of the reaction. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 224. In any given year, as many as ___ of the adult population suffer from one or another of the anxiety disorders identified by DSM-5. a) 6% b) 12% c) 18% d) 28%

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Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 225. Surveys suggest that ___ of the North American population have the symptoms of generalized anxiety disorder in any given year. a) 1% b) 4% c) 6% d) 8.5% Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 226. Someone who is anxious a great deal of the time but cannot name something specific they are anxious about may be suffering from a) a phobia. b) generalized anxiety disorder. c) panic disorder. d) obsessive-compulsive disorder. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 227. Despite numerous reassurances from family and friends, Ann cannot shake a pervasive feeling of impending doom. She has suffered from insomnia, heart palpitations, and headaches for almost one year. Ann is MOST likely suffering from a) generalized anxiety disorder. b) panic disorder. c) social anxiety disorder. d) schizophrenia. Answer: a

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 228. Elizabeth has difficulty making decisions and even when she does decide, she worries about whether it was the right decision. Additionally, she always seems to feel “on edge” and is worried that something in her life will go wrong. However, she cannot pinpoint a specific cause for her anxiety. These symptoms can be best classified as ___. a) panic disorder b) generalized anxiety disorder c) phobia d) obsessive-compulsive disorder Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 229. Sanzhar has been working for the same company for 25 years. Even though the company announced that they had increased their profit by 20%, he was unable to sleep last night because he was worrying about losing his job and being unable to pay his bills. Which of the following disorders best describes Sanzhar’s symptoms? a) obsessive-compulsive disorder b) phobic disorder c) social anxiety disorder d) generalized anxiety disorder Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 230. Cognitive-behavioural theorists suggest that generalized anxiety disorder is caused in part by ___. a) dysfunctional assumptions b) abnormal brain structures c) abnormal neurotransmitter functioning d) unconscious conflicts

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Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 231 Ella is hypervigilant of her surroundings, always prepared for the worst-case scenario, and extremely concerned about her own shortcomings and failures. To what would you attribute these types of symptoms? a) dysfunctional assumptions b) maladaptive learning c) compulsions d) traumatic experience Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 232. Which of the following does NOT demonstrate one of the irrational assumptions that Ellis associated with persons with GAD? a) If I make a mistake in my job, my boss will realize I am a complete failure and fire me. b) I must bake cookies every week for everyone in my office, otherwise they will not like me. c) I am afraid of snakes, so I am not going to go walking in the forest. d) If I do not get that new job, my life will be over. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 233. According to Ellis, statements such as “It is a dire necessity for an adult human being to be loved or approved of by every significant person in his community” is an ________________ such as is prevalent in ____________. a) irrational assumptions; obsessive-compulsive disorder b) dysfunctional assumptions; obsessive-compulsive disorder c) irrational assumptions; generalized anxiety disorder d) dysfunctional assumptions; generalized anxiety disorder Answer: c

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 234. Jacinda has been referred for an ultrasound to discover the reason she is having abdominal pain. She wants her doctor to assure her she does not have cancer. Over the next few days, she thinks often about the ultrasound, as well as about the treatments she will have to undergo if it is cancer. She thinks about how terrible it will be for her children to grow up without a mother. Even though her doctor reassures her that it is unlikely to be cancer, she thinks about it constantly and is so anxious she is unable to sleep. According to new wave cognitive explanations of GAD, Jacinda is demonstrating ___. a) an intolerance of uncertainty b) dysfunctional assumptions c) illogical thinking d) negative confirmation bias Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 235. How do neuroscientists explain generalized anxiety disorder? a) lower levels of dopamine b) inadequate GABA activity c) excess amounts of norepinephrine d) an overactive orbitofrontal cortex Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 236. One biological explanation of generalized anxiety disorder suggests that it is caused by a malfunction of the _______ feedback system. a) glutamate b) GABA c) epinephrine d) adrenaline

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Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 237. According to neuroscience studies, which of the following neurotransmitters plays a significant role in the development of generalized anxiety disorder? a) GABA b) serotonin c) norepinephrine d) dopamine Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 238. Which of the following is NOT part of the brain circuit believed to be involved in GAD? a) amygdala b) prefrontal cortex c) hippocampus d) anterior cingulate Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 239. Lada is terrified to go to public places because she is afraid that she will embarrass herself. Consequently, Lada rarely goes anywhere alone and chooses to miss many events if she cannot find someone to accompany her. This is an example of a) social phobia. b) public phobia. c) claustrophobia. d) acrophobia. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium

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Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 240. As an exchange student visiting Japan, Ethan is curious to see that his host mother becomes paralyzed with fear when required to attend family functions. When he asks, the host mother explains that she once said something that inadvertently embarrassed her family and brought shame to them, and she is fearful of making the same mistake. This is an example of a) dysfunctional assumptions. b) obsessive-compulsive disorder. c) generalized anxiety disorder. d) social anxiety disorder. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 241. Alyssa feels uncomfortable talking in crowds. Unfortunately, her professor has assigned her an oral presentation to give in front of the class. She is afraid of “making a fool” of herself and starts to have symptoms that are similar to a panic attack. What anxiety disorder best classifies her condition? a) panic disorder b) social anxiety disorder c) generalized anxiety d) agoraphobia Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 242. Todd is attending a concert with his best friend. During the concert, Todd’s anxiety disorder surfaces, and he is overwhelmed by the fear of being attacked. His friend tries to reassure him by showing him several nearby security guards. What is Todd’s MOST likely reaction? a) Todd will continue to be fearful of impending danger. b) Upon seeing the security guards, Todd will calm down. c) Todd will develop an additional fear that his friend may harm him. d) Upon seeing the security guards, Todd will become fearful of them as well. Answer: a

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 234. Keyara is required to give a presentation at work next week in their sales meeting. It is in front of only 6 co-workers, and she will be talking about her own work. Even though this will be content she knows extremely well, she is terrified of making this presentation. She has not been able to sleep or eat all week just thinking about it, and she is contemplating quitting her job just so she will not have to do it. What type of anxiety disorder does Keyara have? a) obsessive-compulsive disorder b) panic disorder c) social anxiety disorder d) generalized anxiety disorder Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 235. Greta won a makeover at the cosmetic counter of the local department store. Once she is sitting in the chair, she suddenly feels ugly and ridiculous, and knows that the makeup artist is laughing at her and everyone who walks by is thinking how a makeover is a waste of time. Greta suffers from ___. a) generalized anxiety disorder b) social anxiety disorder c) specific anxiety disorder d) a specific phobia Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 236. Lachlan has begun refusing to go to school because he is paralyzed with the fear that his teachers will call on him and he will be unable to answer a question. Lachlan MOST likely has a) social anxiety disorder. b) panic disorder. c) obsessive-compulsive disorder. d) schizophrenia.

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Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 237. Kate feels uncomfortable talking in groups, and her professor has assigned her an oral presentation to give in front of the class. She is afraid of making a “fool” of herself and starts to have symptoms resembling a panic attack. What anxiety disorder best classifies her condition? a) panic disorder b) social anxiety disorder c) generalized anxiety d) agoraphobia. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 238. Enrique’s co-workers have invited him to go for lunch at a new restaurant down the street from the office. Unfortunately, Enrique knows that, to get to the new restaurant, he would have to walk past a glass-front café where everyone sitting at the window would be able to watch him walk by. He is certain that he would trip and fall in front of the café. Enrique most likely suffers from a) social anxiety disorder. b) generalized anxiety disorder. c) agoraphobia. d) panic disorder. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 239. Hannah has a fear of speaking in public because she is terrified that she will say something to embarrass herself. In discussing this fear with her speech teacher, Mr. Jones, what is Hannah MOST likely to reveal to him? a) Hannah is aware that her fear is unfounded but is nevertheless unable to overcome it. b) Hannah is aware her fear is unfounded, and only needs reassurance that Mr. Jones will not

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embarrass her. c) Hannah justifies her fear, explaining that she previously fainted while giving a speech and believes it will happen again. d) Hannah defends her fear, stating that she has had several teachers who deliberately attempted to embarrass her. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 240. According to cognitive-behavioural theorists, which of the following is NOT a statement that would be characteristic of a person with social anxiety disorder? a) I do not want to walk up in front of everyone; I might trip and fall. b) I am not going to go to the party. I was only invited because of my friend. Nobody likes me. c) I cannot go to the party. I might say something stupid. d) When I get up to make my speech, everyone will be thinking about how overweight I am. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 241. According to cognitive-behavioural theorists, which of the following would not be included in the cluster of social expectations held by people who have social anxiety disorder? a) They must perform perfectly in social situations. b) They must have wealth to be socially accepted. c) They do not always have control over the anxiety they feel in social situations. d) They are in danger of behaving incompetently in social situations. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 242. A persistent and unreasonable fear of a particular object, activity, or situation is a _____. a) generalized anxiety disorder b) phobia

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c) factitious disorder d) compulsion Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 243. A phobia is defined as a) a persistent and unreasonable fear of a particular object, activity, or situation. b) a severe, persistent, and irrational fear of social or performance situations. c) a feeling of excessive anxiety and worry under most circumstances. d) persistent thoughts, ideas, impulses, or images that seem to invade a person’s consciousness. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 244. Surveys suggest that ___ of people in Canada suffer from at least one specific phobia in any given year. a) 2.5% b) 6.4% c) 7.7% d) 15% Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 245. Laura has a specific phobia of heights and is working with a therapist to challenge and overcome her fears. In discussing Laura’s fears with her, what is the therapist MOST likely to find? a) Laura realizes her fear of heights is irrational and does not make sense to others. b) Laura believes her fear of heights is logical because as a child she was injured after falling through a second story window. c) Along with her fear of heights, Laura is now also becoming conditioned to be fearful of other

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situations such as being confined in small spaces. d) Upon being challenged, Laura will become resistant to therapy and avoid going. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 246. Hristo is terrified of spiders. In fact, he is so afraid, he would even try to jump out of a speeding car to get away from a spider. Hristo has ___. a) generalized anxiety disorder b) panic disorder c) agoraphobia d) a specific phobia Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 247. Ella is afraid of the colour yellow. Although she knows that the colour yellow is harmless, she cannot control her anxiety when she sees anything in the colour yellow. Which of the following is most consistent with these symptoms? a) panic disorder b) generalized anxiety disorder c) delusional anxiety disorder d) specific phobia disorder Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 248. ___ principles provide the leading explanations for specific phobias. a) Psychodynamic b) Humanistic c) Socio-cultural d) Behavioural

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Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 249. According to Mowrer’s two-factor theory of phobias, fear is created by ___, and maintained through ___. a) classical conditioning; social learning b) observational learning; operant conditioning c) classical conditioning; operant conditioning d) operant conditioning; classical conditioning Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 250. When Ira was a child, his mother took him to the circus. In an attempt to be funny, a clown startled Ira, unintentionally frightening him. Now Ira is very frightened of clowns and avoids any situation in which he thinks he might encounter a clown. Ira’s fear of clowns was acquired through ____________ and is now maintained through ____________. a) modelling; classical conditioning b) classical conditioning; modelling c) operant conditioning; classical conditioning d) classical conditioning; operant conditioning Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 251. The behavioral approach to abnormal behavior focuses on a) exaggerated forms of an adaptive reaction. b) blocked personal growth. c) unconscious, unresolved conflicts. d) inappropriate conditioning or modeling. Answer: d

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 252. For as long as she can remember, Bella has been nervous about being in the basement of her parents’ house. At a family gathering, her mother recounts that when Bella was a toddler, her older siblings thought the basement was haunted and refused to go down there. Her lingering anxiety could be explained as an example of a) modelling. b) negative reinforcement. c) faulty conditioning. d) biology. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 253. During a particularly intense thunderstorm, Kurt screamed aloud upon being startled by a loud crack of thunder. Kurt’s scream frightened his daughter, Sammi, and ever since that event, Sammi begins to cry at the onset of a thunderstorm. Which of the following processes offers the BEST explanation for Sammi’s behavior? a) modelling b) social learning c) negative reinforcement d) evolution Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 254. Which of the following individuals is MOST likely to have a panic attack? a) May, who is a 65-year-old female b) Grafton, who is a 15-year-old male c) Saffron, who is a 20-year-old female d) Noah, who is a 50-year-old male Answer: c

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 255. Which anxiety disorder could be described as a periodic bout of highly intense anxiety that seems to occur out of the blue? a) obsessive-compulsive disorder b) post-traumatic stress disorder c) generalized anxiety disorder d) panic disorder Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 256. Declan had two public incidents of becoming intensely fearful to the point where he was dizzy, shaking, and hyperventilating. Once an adventurous thrill-seeker, he is now cautious and avoidant of any experiences that he perceives as potentially distressing. Declan is exhibiting characteristics of a) panic disorder. b) generalized anxiety disorder. c) agoraphobia. d) acrophobia. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 257. Panic disorder is often comorbid with ___, which is a fear of venturing into public places, especially alone. a) agoraphobia b) bipolar disorder c) major depressive disorder d) schizophrenia Answer: a Difficulty: Easy

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Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 258. Following several unusual experiences of rapid breathing, trembling, dizziness, and an undefined feeling of dread, Mia has now developed a fear of having similar episodes in the future. Mia is MOST likely suffering from a) panic disorder. b) generalized anxiety disorder. c) negative reinforcement. d) social anxiety disorder. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 259. Which of the following statements is NOT an accurate description of the neuroscientific understanding of panic disorder? a) Panic attacks are produced by a circuit involving the amygdala, hypothalamus, and prefrontal cortex. b) Panic attacks are produced by a circuit involving the amygdala, hypothalamus, and locus ceruleus. c) Panic attacks are produced by an excess amount of norepinephrine. d) Both a and c are inaccurate. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 260. How is a phobia like panic disorder? a) They are both more common in men than women. b) They are both triggered by something tangible or specific. c) They both evoke extremely intense feelings of anxiety. d) They are both linked with elevated levels of serotonin. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis

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Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 261. How is generalized anxiety disorder like panic disorder? a) They are both caused by an overactive amygdala. b) Neither of them is triggered by something specific or tangible. c) They both evoke extremely intense feelings of anxiety. d) They both develop prior to adolescence. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 262. ___ are persistent thoughts, ideas, impulses, or images that seem to invade a person’s consciousness and the person sees as irrational. a) Compulsions b) Obsessions c) Delusions d) Repressed memories Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 263. Persistent thoughts, ideas, impulses, or images that seem to invade a person's consciousness are known as a) obsessions. b) compulsions. c) phobias. d) panic disorder. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders

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264. Obsessions are to ___ as compulsions are to ___. a) thoughts; thoughts b) thoughts; behaviours c) behaviours; behaviours d) behaviours; thoughts Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 265. Lola constantly thinks about driving her car into a tree. The only way she seems to be able to alleviate the anxiety these thoughts provoke is to recite the multiplication tables over and over to herself when she is driving. In this example, Lola’s thoughts about hitting a tree would be a(n) _____________ and her recitation of the times table would be a(n) _______________. a) delusion; ritual b) hallucination; ritual c) compulsion; obsession d) obsession; compulsion Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 266. ___ are repetitive and rigid behaviours or mental acts that people feel compelled to perform to prevent or reduce anxiety. a) Hallucinations b) Delusions c) Obsessions d) Compulsions Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 267. Raegan is getting ready to leave her house. She believes that if she turns the coffee pot on

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and off 10 times that this will guarantee it is off. When she gets to her door, she must lock it and unlock it exactly 30 times before she is satisfied that it is really locked. As soon as she walks away, she begins to question whether she really did it exactly 10 times and exactly 30 times, and she starts to worry that she did not do it right and that her entire day will be ruined as a result. So, she must go back inside and do the whole routine over again, being sure to count precisely. Sometimes she must do the routine multiple times, and she often misses appointments or is late for work as a result. What is Raegan suffering from? a) generalized anxiety disorder b) panic attacks c) a phobia d) obsessive-compulsive disorder Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 268. Salma constantly thinks about driving her car into a tree. The only way she seems to be able to alleviate the anxiety these thoughts provoke is to recite the multiplication tables over and over to herself when she is driving. Which disorder is most consistent with Salma’s symptoms? a) generalized anxiety disorder b) panic disorder c) agoraphobia d) obsessive-compulsive disorder Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 269. Which of the following most clearly illustrates an obsessive-compulsive disorder? a) A physician washes her hands repeatedly after learning that the patient she just treated has hepatitis A. b) A salesman is so anxious about his speech for tomorrow that he reviews his notes 20 times. c) Constant sexual thoughts have made Lauryn anxious for several months. She now feels the need to read a specific religious passage over and over and over. d) Mason's house was burglarized last week. He now checks the locks on his doors and windows repeatedly each night and listens to the radio to stop worrying about his safety. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis

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Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 270. Which of the following individuals is suffering from obsessive-compulsive disorder? a) Faruk, who has recurring nightmares of a car accident he was in a month ago and now cannot go near cars. b) Simon, who cannot stop thinking that his hands are dirty and so he washes them repeatedly. c) Jill, who feels intense anxiety in social situations. d) Ivan, who always senses that something really terrible is about to happen. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 271. OCD is associated with low ___ activity. a) dopamine b) GABA c) serotonin d) norepinephrine Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 272. Before leaving the house, Regina always checks the stove five times and rattles the door handle four times to make sure it is locked. David vacuums his apartment several times per day and cannot eat dinner until all the food in his pantry is neatly lined up. What is implied here? a) Regina and David both have obsessive-compulsive disorders. b) Regina and David both have addictive disorders. c) Regina has an obsessive-compulsive disorder, while David has a dissociative disorder. d) Regina has an addictive disorder, while Richard has a bipolar disorder. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders

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273. Tanner is experiencing persistent thoughts about germs, to the extent that he is cleaning his apartment repeatedly, hours at a time, to prevent the spread of germs. If Tanner were to undergo an fMRI, what area of Tan’s brain is likely to show over-activity? a) hypothalamus b) locus coeruleus c) anterior cingulated d) orbitofrontal cortex Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 274. Which of the following is NOT an area of the brain identified as being involved in obsessive compulsive disorder? a) orbitofrontal cortex b) cingulate cortex c) hippocampus d) thalamus Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 275. Which of the following persons is least at risk of developing PTSD? a) Rachelle, a rape victim, whose family offer her staunch support. b) Da-eun, a victim of a mugging, who feels that fate determines what happens to us. c) Kalinda, who grew up in a poor neighbourhood, and later witnesses a shooting. d) Nojus, a soldier, whose parents divorced when he was six years old. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 276. Which of the following individuals is suffering from post-traumatic stress disorder?

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a) Todd, who is overly alert, has trouble concentrating, and has insomnia. b) Branwen, who experiences intense anxiety whenever there is thunder. c) Alex, who deals with intense bouts of anxiety that seem to come out of the blue. d) Hamish, who constantly feels like something bad is about to happen. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 277. When Kat was seven her parents died in a car accident. She was in the back seat and survived with minor injuries. She still has nightmares about the accident. Simon has never been on a plane but is terrified of flying. He gets nervous driving past the airport. What is implied here? a) Kat has a trauma disorder, while Simon has an anxiety disorder. b) Kat has an anxiety disorder, while Simon has a dissociative disorder. c) Both Simon and Kat have trauma disorders. d) Both Simon and Kat have dissociative disorders. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 278. Karabo was beaten and robbed approximately one month ago. Following the attack, she frequently thought about it, had nightmares, and often felt afraid. Now, after a month she feels that her life has returned to normal, and she is no longer afraid. It is likely that Karabo was suffering from ___. a) agoraphobia b) panic disorder c) acute stress disorder d) post-traumatic stress disorder Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 279. PTSD is to ____________ as acute stress disorder is to ______________.

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a) trauma; everyday stress b) less than one month; more than one month c) everyday stress; trauma d) more than one month; less than one month Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 280. Studies indicate that as many as ___ of all cases of acute stress disorder develop into post-traumatic stress disorder. a) 25% b) 50% c) 65% d) 80% Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 281. Which of the following anxiety disorders is found equally among men and women? a) post-traumatic stress disorder b) panic disorder c) social anxiety disorder d) obsessive-compulsive disorder Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 282. Schizophrenia is very prevalent, with approximately ________ people developing the disorder over the course of their lives. a) one in 100 b) one in 150 c) one in 50 d) one in 200

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Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the features of schizophrenia and some theories of what causes it. Section Reference: Schizophrenia 283. Schizophrenia is defined as a) a disorder of excessive thoughts, feelings, and behaviours related to somatic symptoms. b) a disorder in which two or more distinct personalities exist within the same individual. c) a disorder characterized by severe instability in emotions and self-concept and high levels of volatility. d) a disorder characterized by disorganized thoughts, lack of contact with reality, and sometimes hallucinations. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the features of schizophrenia and some theories of what causes it. Section Reference: Schizophrenia 284. ___ is a disorder in which people deteriorate into a world of unusual perceptions, odd thoughts, disturbed emotions, and motor abnormalities. a) Agoraphobia b) Antisocial personality disorder c) Schizophrenia d) Generalized anxiety disorder Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the features of schizophrenia and some theories of what causes it. Section Reference: Schizophrenia 285. Rae has recently become very withdrawn. She sits in a chair all day and does not move, her eye contact is absent, she shows no emotional responses, and her speech is extremely minimal and slow. What diagnosis would you give Rae? a) major depressive disorder b) narcissistic personality disorder c) schizophrenia d) dissociative identity disorder Answer: c Difficulty: Medium

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Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the features of schizophrenia and some theories of what causes it. Section Reference: Schizophrenia 286. Devin’s thoughts are disordered, and he has lost touch with reality and experiences hallucinations and delusions. What diagnosis has Devin probably received? a) major depressive disorder b) narcissistic personality disorder c) schizophrenia d) dissociative identity disorder Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the features of schizophrenia and some theories of what causes it. Section Reference: Schizophrenia 287. Niles is alone in his room, but he sees a very angry-looking leprechaun sitting near the window. The leprechaun is staring at Niles, and it is making him uncomfortable. Mia is sitting in her room staring out the window at the children playing in the yard. They are always there in the afternoon, and Mia believes they are spying on her. What is implied here? a) Niles is experiencing a disturbance in perception, while Mia is experiencing a disturbance in thought. b) Niles is experiencing a disturbance in thought, while Mia is experiencing a disturbance in perception. c) Both Niles and Mia are experiencing disturbances in thought. d) Both Niles and Mia are experiencing disturbances in perception. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the features of schizophrenia and some theories of what causes it. Section Reference: Schizophrenia 288. When talking to his psychiatrist, a patient with schizophrenia said, "The pain in my head is the fusion of egg and sperm, but it only takes a father to make a baby, then the world ends." This is an example of ___. a) a hallucination b) a delusion c) disorganized thinking and speech d) inappropriate affect Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Learning Objective: Describe the features of schizophrenia and some theories of what causes it. Section Reference: Schizophrenia 289. When talking to his psychiatrist, a patient with schizophrenia said, "A needle takes blood. Blood cells combine to create a soul. Churches believe souls don’t die.” This is an example of a language disturbance called ______________________. a) derailment b) a pragmatic error c) a neologism d) catatonic syntactical confusion Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the features of schizophrenia and some theories of what causes it. Section Reference: Schizophrenia 290. Nathan was asked by his aunt why he was wearing his shirt backward and he replied, “Because it is red. Cardinals are red birds. They eat the cherries in the trees. I water them when I can. I also bicycle and eat raisins.” Nathan most likely has been diagnosed with a) anxiety. b) a depressive disorder. c) a neurocognitive disorder. d) schizophrenia. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the features of schizophrenia and some theories of what causes it. Section Reference: Schizophrenia 291. Celesse has schizophrenia and has recently been hearing things she cannot explain. Sometimes the voices she hears are angry, sometimes they are calm, and other times they tell Celesse to hurt herself. This is an example of disturbances in a) perception. b) behavior. c) language. d) emotion. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the features of schizophrenia and some theories of what causes it. Section Reference: Schizophrenia

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292. Eliah firmly believes that he is being plotted against, spied on, slandered, threatened, and attacked by his friends and family although there is a no evidence to support his beliefs. Eliah is experiencing ___. a) delusions of grandeur b) delusions of persecution c) hallucinations d) repression Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the features of schizophrenia and some theories of what causes it. Section Reference: Schizophrenia 293. Sebastian believes that his cat is really a spy who was sent by the government to collect his thoughts. Sebastian 's belief is a) a delusion of identity. b) a delusion of persecution. c) a delusion of grandeur. d) a derailment. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the features of schizophrenia and some theories of what causes it. Section Reference: Schizophrenia 294. Jed lives in a small town and always eats at the same diner. Recently, he has started to become suspicious of his waitress. She is often alone with his food for too long. Jed believes that the waitress is slowly trying to kill him by putting small amounts of poison in his food each day. This is an example of a delusion of a) persecution. b) grandeur. c) reference. d) danger. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the features of schizophrenia and some theories of what causes it. Section Reference: Schizophrenia 295. Giovanni believes that he is the pope of the Catholic church. He has told his family that he

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is only living in their house because he needed a break from his duties and insists that he will go back to Vatican City shortly. This is an example of a) a delusion of grandeur. b) a delusion of reference. c) a delusion of persecution. d) a delusion of fame. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the features of schizophrenia and some theories of what causes it. Section Reference: Schizophrenia 296. Riley believes that she is going to marry the prince of a large European country, so she is going out to buy a wedding gown. Bev does NOT trust the woman who delivers her newspapers. She believes this woman has been giving her fake newspapers with false stories. What is the difference between Riley and Bev’s delusions? a) Riley is experiencing delusions of grandeur, while Bev is experiencing delusions of persecution. b) Riley is experiencing delusions of persecution, while Bev is experiencing delusions of grandeur. c) Riley is experiencing hallucinations, while Bev is experiencing delusions of reference. d) Riley is experiencing delusions of persecution, while Bev is experiencing hallucinations. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the features of schizophrenia and some theories of what causes it. Section Reference: Schizophrenia 297. Niguel is standing in the library. He can hear voices telling him that he is NOT smart enough to read books, and that he should just leave now. As he is walking out of the library, Niguel sees his mailman, but the color of the man’s skin is green, and he looks murderous. What is MOST likely happening here? a) Niguel first had an auditory hallucination and then he had a visual hallucination. b) Niguel first had an auditory hallucination, then he experienced a delusion. c) Niguel first had an auditory delusion, then he had a sensory hallucination. d) Niguel was having a delusion both in the library and outside the library. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the features of schizophrenia and some theories of what causes it. Section Reference: Schizophrenia

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298. What is the difference between a hallucination and a delusion? a) A delusion is a false belief, and a hallucination is a false perception. b) A delusion is not a symptom of schizophrenia, and a hallucination is the defining symptom of schizophrenia. c) A delusion is the after-effect of a hallucination. d) A delusion lasts longer than a hallucination, but it is less intense. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the features of schizophrenia and some theories of what causes it. Section Reference: Schizophrenia 299. Perceptions that occur in the absence of external stimuli are known as ___. a) hallucinations b) delusions c) obsessions d) compulsions Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the features of schizophrenia and some theories of what causes it. Section Reference: Schizophrenia 300. Whenever, Kristin opens the kitchen cupboard, she hears the peanut butter making fun of her to the ketchup. What is the term for Kristin’s symptom? a) paranoia b) delusion c) hallucination d) disturbed thinking Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the features of schizophrenia and some theories of what causes it. Section Reference: Schizophrenia 301. The most common kind of hallucinations experienced by schizophrenics are ___ hallucinations. a) visual b) auditory c) gustation d) olfactory

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Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the features of schizophrenia and some theories of what causes it. Section Reference: Schizophrenia 302. Tanner has been living on the street even though his parents have pleaded with him to come home. He spends most of his time alone and does not even speak to the other homeless people he meets. Which symptom of schizophrenia does this demonstrate? a) delusions b) paranoia c) poverty of speech d) social withdrawal Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the features of schizophrenia and some theories of what causes it. Section Reference: Schizophrenia 303. Rebekah spends all her time alone, attending to her own ideas and fantasies. These ideas are illogical and confused and her isolation only makes them worse. Her family and friends have tried to draw her back in, but she prefers her isolation. Which symptom of schizophrenia does this demonstrate? a) delusions b) paranoia c) poverty of speech d) social withdrawal Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the features of schizophrenia and some theories of what causes it. Section Reference: Schizophrenia 304. Which of the following is a negative symptom of schizophrenia? a) flat affect b) hallucinations c) delusions d) derailment Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

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Learning Objective: Describe the features of schizophrenia and some theories of what causes it. Section Reference: Schizophrenia 305. In the DSM-5 classification system for types of schizophrenia, additions to or exaggerations of normal thought processes and behaviors, including delusions and hallucinations, are known as a) classic schizophrenic symptoms. b) psychogenic schizophrenic symptoms. c) positive schizophrenia symptoms. d) negative schizophrenia symptoms. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the features of schizophrenia and some theories of what causes it. Section Reference: Schizophrenia 306. What is the difference between positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia? a) Positive symptoms are treatable and negative symptoms are not. b) Positive symptoms are good symptoms and negative symptoms are bad symptoms. c) Positive symptoms represent the pathological excess in behaviours and negative symptoms represent the pathological deficit in behaviours. d) Positive symptoms involve the mind and negative symptoms involve the body. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the features of schizophrenia and some theories of what causes it. Section Reference: Schizophrenia 307. Becca used to love funny movies and jokes, and she laughed often. Now, she does NOT smile at all. She may witness a funny event, or watch a comedy, but her expression does NOT change, and she rarely laughs. Becca’s symptoms are examples of a) negative schizophrenia symptoms. b) positive schizophrenia symptoms. c) undifferentiated schizophrenia symptoms. d) disorganized schizophrenia symptoms. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the features of schizophrenia and some theories of what causes it. Section Reference: Schizophrenia

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308. Vedika does NOT trust anyone anymore. She knows they are all spying on her and reporting back to her doctors, or the government. Catrina sometimes sees people who are NOT there. It does NOT happen often, but whenever they are there the people seem angry. What is implied here? a) Vedika and Catrina are both expressing positive schizophrenia symptoms. b) Vedika and Catrina are both expressing negative schizophrenia symptoms. c) Vedika and Catrina are both expressing undifferentiated schizophrenia symptoms. d) Vedika and Catrina are both expressing residual schizophrenia symptoms. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the features of schizophrenia and some theories of what causes it. Section Reference: Schizophrenia 309. Antonella is concerned because her twenty-year-old schizophrenic son is talking to her but is NOT making sense. He is jumping from topic to topic, sometimes within the same sentence, and is totally incoherent. Antonella’s son is exhibiting the symptom of ___. a) inappropriate affect b) delusions c) derailment d) poverty of speech Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the features of schizophrenia and some theories of what causes it. Section Reference: Schizophrenia 310. When Henrik is asked about how he likes cherry pie, he replies: “I love cherry pie. It never gets old, unlike my socks. Full of holes and the air just flows through them like the wind, soaring and floating on a kite. I hate sailing, but I can’t wait to mountain bike.” Most likely, Henrik is diagnosed with ___ and is showing the symptom of a) bipolar disorder; hallucinations. b) schizophrenia; derailment. c) bipolar disorder; delusions. d) schizophrenia; catatonia. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the features of schizophrenia and some theories of what causes it. Section Reference: Schizophrenia 311. Which of the following is a psychomotor symptom of schizophrenia?

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a) hallucination b) catatonia c) delusions d) inappropriate affect Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the features of schizophrenia and some theories of what causes it. Section Reference: Schizophrenia 312. Tai has schizophrenia and is a patient in a psychiatric hospital. He spends most days squatting in a single bizarre position in a corner for hours at a time. Tai is exhibiting ___. a) catatonic stupor b) catatonic rigidity c) catatonic posturing d) waxy flexibility Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the features of schizophrenia and some theories of what causes it. Section Reference: Schizophrenia 313. Binh believes that aliens are recording his thoughts. When he is asked about it, he rambles off on many tangents and NEVER answers the question. Sometimes, he thinks he hears the devil telling him to do strange things, like cover his mirrors or don’t wear shoes. Which of the following symptoms did Binh NOT show? a) hallucinations b) catatonia c) delusions d) derailment Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the features of schizophrenia and some theories of what causes it. Section Reference: Schizophrenia 314. What is the difference between catatonic rigidity and waxy flexibility? a) With catatonic rigidity, the person holds very still for hours and with waxy flexibility they rock back and forth for hours. b) With catatonic rigidity, the person resists efforts to be moved and with waxy flexibility they allow themselves to be positioned and moved. c) With catatonic rigidity, the person maintains a stiff and straight position and with waxy

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flexibility they maintain awkward positions. d) With catatonic rigidity, the person has very brief moments of not being able to move (so they appear to have jerky movements) and with waxy flexibility they move very slowly (but not jerky). Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the features of schizophrenia and some theories of what causes it. Section Reference: Schizophrenia 315. Which of the following symptoms are correctly matched with their definition? a) catatonic stupor – withdrawing socially from family and friends b) catatonic rigidity – assuming awkward, bizarre poses for extended periods of time c) waxy flexibility – maintaining a posture into which a person has been placed by someone else d) catatonic posturing – maintaining a stiff upright posture for hours and resisting efforts to be moved Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the features of schizophrenia and some theories of what causes it. Section Reference: Schizophrenia 316. Vader has been diagnosed with schizophrenia and is sitting in a chair. As a test of his condition, his psychiatrist approaches and lifts one of Vader’s legs off the ground and both of his arms in the air. Vader holds the new position even after the doctor moves away, and he keeps the position until he is repositioned. What symptom is Vader displaying? a) catatonic rigidity b) avolition c) catatonic stupor d) waxy flexibility Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the features of schizophrenia and some theories of what causes it. Section Reference: Schizophrenia 317. Karter has been diagnosed with schizophrenia. Which of the following would NOT be true of Karter’s cognitive symptoms? a) Karter’s social and functional outcomes are related to the degree of cognitive impairment he experiences. b) Karter’s cognitive deficits can be reversed if he takes medication. c) Karter ‘s core deficit is most likely cognitive impairment. d) Karter will have deficits with executive function, memory, attention, working memory, and intelligence.

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Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the features of schizophrenia and some theories of what causes it. Section Reference: Schizophrenia 318. Which of the following is NOT a potential biological explanation of schizophrenia as identified in your text? a) excessive levels of dopamine b) enlarged ventricles of the brain c) genetic predisposition d) structural abnormalities of the hypothalamus Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the features of schizophrenia and some theories of what causes it. Section Reference: Schizophrenia 319. What brain abnormalities may someone with schizophrenia have inherited? a) low dopamine activity and enlarged ventricles b) low dopamine activity and small ventricles c) high dopamine activity and enlarged ventricles d) high dopamine activity and small ventricles Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the features of schizophrenia and some theories of what causes it. Section Reference: Schizophrenia 320. Which of the following is NOT a biochemical abnormality linked with schizophrenia? a) enlarged ventricles in the brain b) relatively small temporal and frontal lobes c) low dopamine activity d) abnormal activity of glutamate and serotonin Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the features of schizophrenia and some theories of what causes it. Section Reference: Schizophrenia

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321. Lakshmi is doing a presentation for her psychology class on the biochemical abnormalities in someone with schizophrenia. Which of the following would Lakshmi NOT be talking about? a) excessive amounts of dopamine b) enlarged ventricles c) enlarged temporal lobes and frontal lobes d) structural abnormalities in the hippocampus, amygdala, and thalamus Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the features of schizophrenia and some theories of what causes it. Section Reference: Schizophrenia 322. Piper has an identical twin sister, Teagan, who has just been diagnosed with schizophrenia. Piper is understandably concerned about her chances of also being diagnosed. She has been given a great deal of information and is not sure what to believe. You tell her she can believe all the following EXCEPT a) The more closely a person is related to someone diagnosed with schizophrenia the more likely they too will develop the disorder. b) The concordance rate for schizophrenia is 48percent in identical twins. c) Psychological and sociocultural factors play no role in the development of schizophrenia. d) Infection in the prenatal and perinatal environments plays an important role in the etiology of schizophrenia. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the features of schizophrenia and some theories of what causes it. Section Reference: Schizophrenia 323. Ralph and Sandy’s parents both had schizophrenia. Ralph grew up with their mother, but Sandy lived with their grandparents since she was three. Ralph was five when Sandy left; he remembers because it was two days after the car crash where his father died, with Ralph in the backseat. Which of the following BEST describes their chances of developing schizophrenia? a) Ralph is more likely than Sandy to develop schizophrenia because he witnessed a traumatic event which has increased his risk considerably. b) Ralph is more likely than Sandy to develop schizophrenia because he lived with their mother alone for many years. Her habits and positive symptoms will have influenced his behavior. c) Sandy is more likely than Ralph to develop schizophrenia because she is a female, which increases her risk of developing the symptoms. d) Sandy and Ralph have an equal likelihood of developing schizophrenia because both of their parents had the condition, which means they both have a high probability of expressing symptoms. Answer: a

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Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe the features of schizophrenia and some theories of what causes it. Section Reference: Schizophrenia 324. Regina and Terry are both 14 years old. They met in a support group for children whose parents have schizophrenia. Regina’s mom has the disorder and is currently living in a treatment center. Both of Terry’s parents have schizophrenia, but they are effectively treated with medication and therapy. What can be inferred here? a) Terry is more likely to develop schizophrenia later in life than Regina is. b) Regina is more likely to develop schizophrenia later in life than Terry is. c) Terry and Regina have the same likelihood of developing schizophrenia later in life. d) Regina likely already demonstrates symptoms of schizophrenia, whereas Terry will probably develop it later in life. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the features of schizophrenia and some theories of what causes it. Section Reference: Schizophrenia 325. Jenny’s identical twin sister Joan was diagnosed with schizophrenia when she was a teenager. Jenny has never shown any symptoms, but she is concerned she will develop them later in life. Which of the following jobs would MOST likely increase Jenny’s chances of triggering a schizophrenic episode? a) A full-time job as the CEO of a multinational company, working 60-70 hours per week and traveling frequently. b) A part-time job as an art historian, restoring paintings. c) A part-time job as a psychologist, providing private counseling to patients. d) A full-time job working from home as a freelance writer for an online magazine. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the features of schizophrenia and some theories of what causes it. Section Reference: Schizophrenia 326. Remi has been diagnosed with schizophrenia. Remi’s psychiatrist tells her parents that this may mean that structural abnormalities to specific brain regions in Remi’s brain may be implicated. Which of the following regions have been reported in research? a) hippocampus b) visuospatial cortex c) reticular formation d) substantia nigra Answer: a

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the features of schizophrenia and some theories of what causes it. Section Reference: Schizophrenia 327. Problems characterized by major loss of memory without a clear physical cause are known as ________ disorders. a) obsessive-health b) somatic symptom c) dissociative d) psychosomatic Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders 328. A person who develops symptoms suggestive of neurological damage although medical tests provide no evidence of an unhealthy nervous system may have ________ disorder. a) illness anxiety b) somatic symptom c) conversion d) factitious Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders 329. Quaid deliberately lies about physical symptoms such as headaches or nausea to avoid unwanted responsibilities at work. We would describe Quaid as a) having illness anxiety disorder. b) having somatic symptom disorder. c) malingering. d) having factitious disorder. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related

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disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders 330. In ___, a psychosocial conflict or need is converted into dramatic physical symptoms that affect voluntary motor or sensory functioning. a) conversion disorder b) somatic symptom disorder c) obsessive-compulsive disorder d) illness anxiety disorder Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders 331. Elin has been blind for three months. Although medical tests do NOT reveal any medical evidence to support her physiological symptoms, Elin’s blindness persists. Which of the following disorders might Elin have? a) illness anxiety b) conversion c) somatic symptom d) factitious Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders 332. Two of your friends, Violet and Luna, are arguing about a case where a patient reported paralysis from the waist down even though there is no medical evidence of any damage or disease of the nervous system. Violet has suggested the patient might have a conversion disorder; Luna argues it is likely functional neurological symptom disorder. Which of your friends is MOST likely CORRECT? a) Luna b) Violet c) neither Luna nor Violet is correct as the patient probably has somatic symptom disorder d) both Luna and Violet are correct as conversion disorder and functional neurological symptom disorder are the same disorder. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium

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Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders 333. How do we know when someone has conversion disorder and that they are NOT just malingering? a) Someone with conversion disorder deliberately causes harm to themselves. b) Someone with conversion disorder intentionally lies about their symptoms. c) Someone with conversion disorder shows disinterest in their symptoms. d) Someone with conversion disorder benefits from their symptoms. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders 334. Casey’s parents were elderly and confused and lived alone. Casey tried to get them to move out to a place where they could be cared for, but they vehemently refused. One night Casey’s mother’s scarf caught fire while she was cooking, and she burned to death in front of Casey’s father. It has been six weeks since the accident and, despite healthy vision prior to the accident, Casey’s father has been blind since his wife’s death. Casey is distraught but her father shows no interest in his visual loss whatsoever. From this scenario we would conclude that Casey’s father has _____.? a) conversion disorder b) somatic symptom disorder c) illness anxiety disorder d) lost his mind Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders 335. Conditions in which physical or psychological symptoms are falsified are known as ________ disorders. a) somatoform b) dissociative c) factitious d) eating Answer: c

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders 336. In which type of disorder does the person lie about their symptoms or deliberately cause harm to themselves to adopt the patient role? a) somatic symptom disorder b) conversion disorder c) factitious disorder d) dissociative fugue Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders 337. In the past two years, Mackenzie has told her family and friends that she has two different terminal illnesses. She has been to the doctor numerous times, and even though the doctors and specialists have failed to find anything wrong with her, she continues to tell people that she is seriously ill. Which of the following psychological disorder does Mackenzie most likely have? a) somatic symptom disorder b) illness anxiety disorder c) conversion disorder d) factitious disorder Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders 338. Eva’s friend was diagnosed with a serious illness three years ago. Although she felt bad for her friend, Eva became very jealous of all the attention she received for her illness. Eva now tells people she has a terminal illness, even though the many doctors she has seen tell her she is healthy. Eva most likely has a) Munchausen by proxy. b) conversion disorder. c) somatic symptom disorder. d) factitious disorder.

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Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders 339. One or more symptoms that cause distress and excessive health-related anxiety that lasts for at least six months suggests the presence of a ________ disorder. a) conversion b) somatic symptom c) factitious d) illness anxiety Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders 340. In the past three years, Winter has often complained of stomach pain, headaches, and dizziness. She has been hospitalized twice for diagnostic tests, and although the doctors have NOT found anything physically wrong, she continues to suffer from a variety of symptoms. Which of the following disorders is Winter most likely to have? a) somatic symptom disorder b) illness anxiety disorder c) conversion disorder d) factitious disorder Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders 341. Maite often has headaches and chest pain, but her doctor says these physical ailments have little to no organic basis. This suggests Maite may have a(n) ___. a) antisocial personality disorder b) narcissistic personality disorder c) somatization disorder d) obsessive-compulsive disorder Answer: c

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders 342. Which of the following accurately depicts the key difference between somatic symptom disorder and illness anxiety disorder? a) Illness anxiety lasts longer than six months and somatic symptom disorder lasts less than six months. b) Somatic symptom disorder lasts longer than six months and illness anxiety disorder lasts less than six months. c) Somatic symptom disorder presents with physiological symptoms whereas illness anxiety disorder has none. d) Illness anxiety disorder presents with physiological symptoms whereas somatic symptom disorder has none. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders 343. The fact that the transformation of personal distress into somatic complaints is the norm in many non-Western cultures means a) that somatic disorders are poorly understood outside Western countries. b) malingering is very common in many non-Western cultures. c) many non-Western cultures have more psychological disorders than Western cultures. d) it is less stigmatizing to handle stress in this way in many non-Western cultures. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders 344. Winona is writing a paper for her health psychology class about the causes of somatic symptoms and related disorders. Which of the following points would she NOT include in her paper? a) Behaviourists argue that the disorders are learned through conditioning or modelling. b) Cognitive theorists believe that people with the disorder are overly sensitive to their own body cues and misinterpret them. c) Neuroscientists suggest that overactive norepinephrine receptors in the somatosensory

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cortex can mimic physical symptoms of illness in various parts of the body. d) Socio-cultural theorists note that somatic complaints are much greater in cultures in which somatization is viewed as normal. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders 345. Eloisa suffered the loss of her husband and eldest son when they were killed by a drunk driver. Since that time, she has developed chest pain and headaches. Eloisa talks of these symptoms incessantly and in exaggerated and dramatic terms. How would you anticipate that people respond to this? a) In most Western cultures people would view Eloisa’s behavioural response as an inappropriate way of dealing with her distress. b) Eloisa would be diagnosed with a somatic symptom disorder in many non-Western cultures. c) Eloisa would be viewed in many non-Western cultures as behaving in a way that was socially and medically correct. d) Eloisa would be viewed as suffering from factitious disorder in any culture. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders 346. Marti keeps going to his doctor out of fear that he has cancer. He has gone three times this month already to have his doctor check and double check various parts of his body for cancer. When his doctor asks him how he feels, however, Marti says he feels fine. What disorder is Marti most likely suffering from? a) conversion disorder b) illness anxiety disorder c) somatic symptom disorder d) factitious disorder Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders

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347. Amanda is sure she has a terminal illness. She has seen three doctors and four specialists but none of them have found anything wrong with her. Amanda most likely has a) functional neurological symptom disorder. b) somatic symptom disorder. c) illness anxiety disorder. d) factitious disorder. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders 348. Which of the following individuals has a somatization disorder? a) Biyu, who is preoccupied with having a serious disease despite a lack of symptoms b) Presley, who has no memory of who he is c) Ural, who has an extreme and callous disregard for the feelings and rights of others d) Luna, who has two different personalities Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders 349. The experience of having several separate personalities that express themselves at various times is known as a) dissociative identity disorder. b) dissociative amnesia. c) dissociative fugue. d) depersonalization disorder. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders 350. Which of the following behaviors is typical of an individual with dissociative identity disorder? a) Greg attends a rock concert with co-workers, but when the same co-workers talk about the concert the next day, he states that he wishes he could have attended the concert.

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b) Greg buys tickets for a rock concert, but he ends up washing his hair for two hours while getting ready and misses the concert. c) Greg walks into a sold-out concert without a ticket, avoids security, and forces a woman to give him her seat. d) Greg attends a rock concert, consumes excessive amounts of alcohol and nachos, and becomes combative with security guards. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders 351. Psychodynamic theorists believe that dissociative disorders are caused by a) regression. b) repression. c) displacement. d) projection. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders 352. According to psychodynamic theorists, dissociative identity disorder is caused by a) a single episode of massive repression. b) a single episode of excessive repression. c) a failure to effectively repress emotional pain. d) a lifetime of excessive repression. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders 353. According to psychodynamic theorists, continuous use of repression is motivated by traumatic childhood events which cause children to _____________. a) fear the dangerous world and pretend to be another person who is observing safely. b) split consciousness into multiple parts. c) develop a personality that is aggressive enough to protect the child.

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d) feel guilty about wanting to seek revenge against their parents so they divide the guilt among several detached personalities. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders 354. Police recently picked up a young woman who was wandering the streets and acting strangely. When questioned, the woman could NOT remember who she was or any information about herself or her past. If the young woman were to be assessed by a psychodynamic psychologist, she would likely be told she was experiencing a dissociative fugue caused by a) a severe head injury. b) conscious conflict between the id, ego, and superego. c) a single episode of massive repression. d) a lifetime of excessive repression. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders 355. Failing to remember important information, usually of an upsetting nature, about one's life is known as a) dissociative fugue. b) dissociative amnesia. c) depersonalization. d) impersonalization. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders 356. Fiona has developed several distinct subpersonalities. Jake is a convenience store clerk in Halifax, NS, with no memory of his life as a waiter in London, ON, several years ago. Heather has forgotten major portions of a period of her life during which she experienced serious trauma. Which individual’s disorder is correctly identified below? a) Fiona – dissociative fugue

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b) Jake – dissociative identity disorder c) Heather – dissociative amnesia d) Jake – dissociative dementia Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders 357. Bianca has completely forgotten that she was assaulted on the weekend and asks the nurse what she is doing in the hospital. The nurse does not know what to say, so she asks Bianca questions about what she remembers. It appears that Bianca remembers all the details of the weekend, EXCEPT the attack. What is Bianca most likely suffering from? a) depersonalization/derealization disorder b) dissociative identity disorder c) dissociative amnesia d) dissociative fugue Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders 358. If Swinton does NOT engage in a cleaning ritual for several hours each day, he feels insurmountable anxiety. Manfred is unaware that he has a mental illness but does realize he occasionally has large memory lapses. What is implied here? a) Swinton has obsessive-compulsive disorder, while Manfred has dissociative identity disorder. b) Swinton has obsessive-compulsive disorder, while Manfred has antisocial personality disorder. c) Manfred has obsessive-compulsive disorder, while Swinton has borderline personality disorder. d) Manfred has borderline personality disorder, while Swinton has dissociative identity disorder. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders 359. Dr. Thurman has been asked to assess a young man who was found wandering the streets

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and acting strangely. When Dr. Thurman questions him, he cannot remember who he is or any information about his past. Dr. Thurman believes the woman is experiencing __________________. a) dissociative amnesia b) fugue c) depersonalization disorder d) dissociative identity disorder Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders 360. What is the difference between dissociative amnesia and dissociative fugue? a) With dissociative amnesia the memory loss is specific, while with dissociative fugue the memory loss is extensive. b) With dissociative amnesia the cause of memory loss is physical, while with dissociative fugue the cause of memory loss is psychological. c) With dissociative amnesia the onset would have been before adolescence, while with dissociative fugue the onset would have been after adolescence. d) With dissociative amnesia there is no treatment, while with dissociative fugue there are multiple drug therapies. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders 361. Cameron was injured in a hurricane and now cannot recall anything about the events leading up to, during, or after the hurricane. Journee cannot recall anything about her personal identity or past life. She has established a new identity and lives in another province. How would Cameron and Journee be diagnosed? a) Cameron - dissociative amnesia; Journee - dissociative fugue b) Cameron – dissociative identity disorder; Journee – depersonalization/derealization disorder c) Cameron – dissociative fugue; Journee – dissociative identity disorder d) Cameron – dissociative identity disorder; Journee – dissociative amnesia Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders.

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Section Reference: Other Disorders 362. In depersonalization/derealization disorder, the person a) has multiple personalities that take turns controlling the person’s functioning. b) is unable to recall memories surrounding a specific episode, usually traumatic. c) is unable to recall who they are or any memories from their lives. d) feels detached from themselves, as if their own point of view is outside of themselves. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders 363. Deepak reports that he often feels detached from his body and feels as if he is observing himself from outside his own body. This disorder is called personalization disorder or a) dissociative fugue. b) derealization disorder. c) body delusion disorder. d) body detachment disorder. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders 364. Since Elin was beaten and robbed, she often feels like she is watching her life as an observer. She reports to her psychologist that she feels like she is detached from her body and is in a dream from which she CANNOT wake up. Which of the following disorders does Elin likely have? a) dissociative amnesia b) dissociative fugue c) dissociative identity disorder d) depersonalization/derealization disorder Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders

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365. A psychological disorder characterized by a major loss of memory without any apparent physical cause is called a) somatic symptom disorder. b) dissociative disorder. c) factitious disorder. d) borderline personality disorder. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders 366. Najee’s nephew died in a car accident that was Najee’s fault. Although Najee was uninjured, he has been unable to recall his own name or any details about his family since the accident. Najee might be suffering from a) schizophrenia. b) a somatic symptom disorder. c) a dissociative disorder. d) a conversion disorder. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders 367. ___ is characterized by a major loss of memory without a clear physical cause. a) Narcissistic personality disorder b) Antisocial personality disorder c) Dissociative disorder d) Somatization disorder Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders 368. Which of the following dissociative disorders is correctly defined? a) dissociative amnesia – individual develops several different personalities

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b) dissociative fugue – individual forgets identity and flees to a new location c) dissociative identity disorder – individual is unable to recall vital information about her life d) dissociative amnesia – individual forgets identity and flees to a new location Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders 369. Which of the following is NOT a difference found between the brains of people with and without dissociative disorders? a) less activity in the prefrontal cortex in people with dissociative disorders b) smaller hippocampus in people with dissociative disorders c) smaller amygdala in people with dissociative disorders d) less activity in sensory cortex in people with dissociative disorders Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders 370. Which of the following individuals has a dissociative disorder? a) Maisie, who deliberately makes herself sick by swallowing laundry soap b) Farah, who is convinced that she has cancer despite no symptoms c) Fuka, who cannot remember who she is d) Cara, who has a severe instability in emotions and self-concept Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders 371. Which of the following individuals has a dissociative disorder? a) Abdallah, who views his arms and legs as unrelated to himself b) Ember, who is suffering from paralysis but has a healthy central nervous system c) Manuela, who is convinced she has multiple sclerosis even though she has no symptoms d) Asher, who claims to experience hallucinations, even though he does not have any Answer: a

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders 372. Which of the following explanations is hypothesized as a cause of dissociative disorders? a) The patient has learned to dissociate to avoid facing his problems. b) The patient’s dissociation is driven by irrational assumptions that he needs to be perfect. c) The patient’s dissociation is a product of the environment in which he was raised. d) The patient is repressing unpleasant memories or aspects of their life. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders 373. What is a critical difference between personality disorders and dissociative disorders? a) The nature of dissociative disorders tends to cause lapses in memory, whereas personality disorders do not. b) The nature of personality disorders tends to cause lapses in memory, whereas dissociative disorders do not. c) Dissociative disorders are associated with hallucinations and delusions, whereas personality disorders are not. d) Personality disorders are associated with hallucinations and delusions, whereas dissociative disorders are not. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders 374. Jane is suffering from dissociative identity disorder, while Sara is suffering from borderline personality disorder. Which of the following statements is MOST accurate about Jane and Sara? a) Unlike Jane, Sara tends to view others in absolute terms, such as good or bad. b) Unlike Sara, Jane tends to view others in absolute terms, such as good or bad. c) Unlike Jane, Sara responds to stress with abnormally low autonomic activity. d) Unlike Sara, Jane responds to stress with abnormally low autonomic activity. Answer: a

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders 375. When Jaden was fourteen-years-old he locked his three-year-old sister in a small cupboard for an entire evening. When his angry parents discovered his terrified sister he shrugged and said, “I told her to stop crying and she wouldn’t. This was her fault. Not mine.” Jaden’s parents were concerned because prior to this they had noticed Jaden behaving cruelly to the family pets and knew that he had not been going to school. Now that he is twenty-one, Jaden continues to incessantly taunt his sister and has stolen money from his parents as well as his grandmother. He blames his sister for being “such a baby” and his family for “leaving money out.” Jaden may have a) derealization disorder. b) borderline personality disorder. c) schizophrenia. d) antisocial personality disorder. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders 376. Jorge believes he is deserving and entitled to the finer things in life, so he finds it entirely justifiable to open a fraudulent charity and spend the donated money NOT on helping the poor, but on upgrading his lifestyle with a luxury car and yacht. Jorge is MOST likely suffering from a) antisocial personality disorder. b) obsessive-compulsive disorder. c) multiple personality disorder. d) attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders

377. Wesley is a con-artist who uses his charms to get old people to invest their retirement savings with him. Then, he steals their money and moves on to another city. He reasons that if the old people are this stupid with their money, that they deserve to lose it, and he doesn’t feel a

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ounce of guilt for stealing the life savings of so many people. What is most likely Wesley’s diagnosis? a) borderline personality disorder b) dissociative fugue c) depersonalization disorder d) antisocial personality disorder Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders 378. Evan, a prosecuting attorney, has just been arrested for bribing several court judges over a seven-year span. Greedy for money, he approached defendants with probable upcoming guilty convictions and offered them a commuted or mitigated prison sentence in exchange for large sums of money. Evan acknowledged his behavior but was adamant that he did NOT commit a crime. What is his MOST likely reaction after being apprehended? a) Evan does not express any feelings of shame or remorse for his actions. b) Evan apologizes to his victims and breaks down in tears at his arraignment. c) Evan offers to pay the money back as restitution. d) Evan claims that he has a severe mental disorder and was not in control of his actions. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders 379. Antonio suspects that his friend has antisocial personality disorder, and he does some research to learn about the causes of the disorder. Which of the following is NOT one of the causes that Antonio reads about? a) He learned this behaviour from watching his parents. b) He has low levels of serotonin in his brain. c) He has deficient functioning in his frontal lobes. d) His friend never learned how to regulate his emotions and handle emotional distress. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders

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380. Which of the following is NOT a possible cause of antisocial personality disorder as identified in your text? a) symptoms learned through modelling b) lower levels of serotonin c) deficient function of the temporal lobes d) insufficient anxiety levels, thereby impairing learning from negative life experiences Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders 381. What reason is there to believe that psychopathy is a more extreme disorder than antisocial personality disorder? a) because psychopaths cannot be cured b) because most criminals in Canadian jails are psychopaths c) because half of all serious crimes are committed by psychopaths d) because psychopathy is apparent in early childhood Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders 382. Which of the following people is most likely to have a borderline personality disorder? a) Morgan, who chronically over-participates in class and is always eager to show everyone that he has the right answer. b) Dushal, who is chronically late for class and expects his instructor to spend time to get him caught up when he misses a class. c) Veronica, who is sometimes very interested in participating in classroom discussions but is sometimes likely to lash out at her instructor or classmates over perceived injustices. d) Angelica, who does not interact with other students and is sure that her instructor is trying to trick people on exams. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders

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383. Lesedi seems to cycle between periods of depression, anxiety, and irritability. Her boyfriend, Filip, reports that she has sudden outbursts of rage and, at times becomes physically aggressive with him. Lately, she has begun to cut the inside of her arms and has threatened to commit suicide if Filip leaves her. Which of the following disorders does Lesedi likely have? a) bipolar disorder b) antisocial personality disorder c) borderline personality disorder d) histrionic personality disorder Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders 384. After several years of a tumultuous marriage, Dana’s husband Ted has filed for divorce due to Dana’s reckless, impulsive, and needy behavior. Dana responds by going on a spending and drinking spree. What may explain Dana’s behavior? a) Dana most likely has borderline personality disorder and is attempting to overcome her fear of abandonment by shopping and drinking. b) Dana most likely has antisocial personality disorder and continues to manipulate Ted by buying him material things. c) Dana most likely has obsessive-compulsive disorder and is overwhelmed by the obsession to shop and drink. d) Dana most likely has dissociative identity disorder and cannot recall that her husband filed for divorce; therefore, she continues to engage in erratic behavior. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders 385. How is borderline personality disorder similar to antisocial personality disorder? a) Both cause social impairment. b) Both have distinct consciousness integration. c) Both are forms of schizophrenia. d) Both are categorized by ritualistic behaviors. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related

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disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders 386. Which of the following is a criticism of the MRI finding that the amygdala and hippocampus are smaller in individuals with dissociative disorders? a) Persons with dissociative disorders tend to have stunted growth overall due to neglect and abuse. b) Only females were given the MRI so they would have smaller brain structures. c) The same brain regions are significantly smaller in individuals with a history of child trauma. d) The study was done many years ago and improved technology has shown these findings to be inaccurate. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders 387. What percentage of the population displays symptoms of borderline personality disorder? a) 2% b) 4% c) 6 % d) 8% Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders

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MATCHING QUESTION 388. Match the appropriate words in the left column to the definitions in the right column. Terms A. Hallucinations B. Delusions C. Psychosis D. Positive symptoms E. Negative symptoms F. Mania G. Equifinality H. Multifinality I. Obsessions J. Compulsions K. Automatic thoughts L. Cyclothymic disorder M. Dysthymic disorder N. Catatonia O. Resilience P. Derailment Q. Phobia R. Panic attack

___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___

Definitions 1. A steady train of unpleasant thoughts about one’s inadequacies. 2. Repetitive and rigid behaviours or mental acts that people perform to reduce anxiety. 3. Individuals from diverse backgrounds can end up functioning in the same way due to life experiences. 4. Periodic short bursts of panic. 5. Rapidly shifting from one topic to another. 6. A loss of contact with reality. 7. A less severe but chronic form of bipolar disorder. 8. Psychomotor symptoms of schizophrenia. 9. Hallucinations, inappropriate affect, and delusions in schizophrenia. 10. Ideas that are believed by a person but have no basis in fact.

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ANSWERS TO MATCHING QUESTION 1.

K: Automatic thoughts

J: Compulsions

G: Equifinality

R: Panic attack

N: Catatonia

C: Psychosis

L: Cyclothymic disorder

P: Derailment

D: Positive symptoms

10. B: Delusions Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

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FILL-IN-THE-BLANK 389. The ___ approach to understanding and treating mental illnesses encourages a search for patterns in the symptoms people present with the goal of first identifying a syndrome that is recognized, and about which one can make predictions. Answer: medical model Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify the common features of most definitions of abnormal functioning, and describe how psychological disorders are classified and diagnosed. Section Reference: Defining, Classifying, and Diagnosing Psychological Abnormality 390. Sam’s depression has caused him to have difficulty getting out of bed in the morning. After many warnings, his employer has fired him. This example demonstrates the characteristic of mental illness known as ___. Answer: dysfunction Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Identify the common features of most definitions of abnormal functioning, and describe how psychological disorders are classified and diagnosed. Section Reference: Defining, Classifying, and Diagnosing Psychological Abnormality 391. A person who deviates from common behaviour patterns or displays odd or whimsical behaviour is called an ___. Answer: eccentric Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify the common features of most definitions of abnormal functioning, and describe how psychological disorders are classified and diagnosed. Section Reference: Defining, Classifying, and Diagnosing Psychological Abnormality 392. Gergana has been admitted to the hospital after taking an overdose of sleeping pills. This is an example of the criteria ___ of abnormal behaviour Answer: danger Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Identify the common features of most definitions of abnormal functioning, and describe how psychological disorders are classified and diagnosed.

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Section Reference: Defining, Classifying, and Diagnosing Psychological Abnormality 393. Although it is often cited as a feature of abnormal behaviour, becoming ___ to oneself or to others is the exception rather than the rule. Answer: dangerous Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify the common features of most definitions of abnormal functioning, and describe how psychological disorders are classified and diagnosed. Section Reference: Defining, Classifying, and Diagnosing Psychological Abnormality 394. When clinicians conclude that a person’s symptoms fit a specific category of disorder, they can make a ___. Answer: diagnosis Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify the common features of most definitions of abnormal functioning, and describe how psychological disorders are classified and diagnosed. Section Reference: Defining, Classifying, and Diagnosing Psychological Abnormality 395. Dr. Diskler believes that mental illness can be explained solely by biological factors. Dr. Diskler subscribes to the ___ perspective/model. Answer: reductionist Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 396. Dr. Egley is a neuroscientist that believes that psychological disorders are the result of biological, social, psychological, and cultural variables. Dr. Egley subscribes to the ___ perspective/model. Answer: biopsychosocial Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality

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397. Dr. Chickley is a neuroscientist that believes that a person with depression probably had a genetic predisposition to the disorder and was at some point exposed to an external stressful event. Dr. Chickley subscribes to the ___ perspective/model. Answer: diathesis–stress Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 398. When Yegor was a small child, he and his father were in a serious car accident while driving over a bridge. Now Yegor finds that whenever he drives over a bridge he becomes extremely frightened. According to the ___ perspective, Yegor’s fear is the result of ___ conditioning. Answer: behavioural; classical Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 399. Selective perceptions, magnification, and overgeneralizations are known as ___. Answer: illogical thinking processes Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 400. Theorists who believe that individuals are motivated by a need to establish relationships with others are referred to as ___ theorists. Answer: object relations Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality

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401. Object relations theorists propose that severe problems in ___ may result in abnormal development and psychological problems during adulthood. Answer: early relationships Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 402. Societies undergoing the process of ___ usually show a rise in mental disorders due to overcrowding and migration. Answer: urbanization Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 403. Major depressive disorder is to ___, as bipolar disorder is to ___. Answer: dysthymic disorder/cyclothymic disorder Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 404. ___ is a low, sad state in which life seems dark and its challenges seem overwhelming. ___ is a state of breathless euphoria, or at least frenzied energy, in which people may have an exaggerated belief that the world is theirs for the taking. Answer: Depression/Mania Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 405. Major depressive disorder often seems to be triggered by ___. Answer: stressful life events Difficulty: Easy

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Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 406. Neuroscience studies show that depression is linked with low levels of ___. Answer: norepinephrine and serotonin Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 407. People with ___ often describe their lives as an emotional roller coaster. Answer: bipolar disorder Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 408. Surveys from around the world indicate that between ___ percent of all adults suffer from a bipolar disorder at any given time. Answer: 1 and 2.6 Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 409. Recent explanations of generalized anxiety disorder that build upon the theories of Beck and Ellis are known as ___. Answer: new wave cognitive explanations Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 410. According to the ___ theory of generalized anxiety, certain individuals consider it unacceptable that negative events may occur, even if the possibility of occurrence is small.

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Answer: intolerance of uncertainty Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 411. Surveys indicate that at least ___ of people in Western countries experience social anxiety disorder in any given year. Answer: 7.1 % Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 412. People with ___ have severe, persistent, and irrational fears of social or performance situations in which embarrassment may occur. Answer: social anxiety disorder Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 413. As many as ___ of the people in Canada suffer from obsessive-compulsive disorder in any given year. Answer: 2% Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 414. The leading explanations for OCD come from the ___ models. Answer: cognitive-behavioural and neuroscience Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

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Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 415. Evidence from brain studies shows that once a stress disorder sets in, individuals experience further biochemical arousal. This continuing arousal may eventually damage key brain areas, particularly the ___ and the ___. Answer: hippocampus; amygdala Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 416. People with ___ experience psychosis, a loss of contact with reality. Answer: schizophrenia Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the features of schizophrenia and some theories of what causes it. Section Reference: Schizophrenia 417. Approximately ___ of every 100 people in the world suffers from schizophrenia during his or her lifetime. Answer: one Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the features of schizophrenia and some theories of what causes it. Section Reference: Schizophrenia 418. ___ are characterized by a pattern of physical complaints with largely psychosocial causes. Answer: Somataform disorders Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders 419. Psychodynamic theorists believe that dissociative disorders are a result of extreme ___.

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Answer: repression Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders 420. Antisocial people are extraordinarily self-centred and often lack a moral ___. Answer: conscience Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders 421. Borderline personality disorder is characterized by severe instability in ___ and selfconcept. Answer: mood Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders

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SHORT ANSWER ESSAY QUESTIONS 422. Describe how dysfunction is used to define abnormal behaviour. Answer: when it interferes with daily functioning Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Identify the common features of most definitions of abnormal functioning, and describe how psychological disorders are classified and diagnosed. Section Reference: Defining, Classifying, and Diagnosing Psychological Abnormality 423. In North America, what classification system is used to categorize individuals with mental illnesses? Answer: Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition, (DSM-5) Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify the common features of most definitions of abnormal functioning, and describe how psychological disorders are classified and diagnosed. Section Reference: Defining, Classifying, and Diagnosing Psychological Abnormality 424. In most countries throughout the world, other than North America, what classification system is used to categorize individuals with mental illnesses? Answer: International Classification of Diseases (ICD) Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify the common features of most definitions of abnormal functioning, and describe how psychological disorders are classified and diagnosed. Section Reference: Defining, Classifying, and Diagnosing Psychological Abnormality 425. Neuroscientists have linked some mental disorders to deficient or excessive activity of different neurotransmitters. What causes these problems with brain anatomy and chemical functioning? Answer: genetics and viral infections Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality

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426. What stage of fixation from Freud’s psychosexual theory may help explain obsessively neat behaviour? Answer: anal Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 427. What purpose or function do compulsions serve? Answer: Compulsions can represent a yielding to obsessive doubts, ideas, or urges. Compulsions may also serve to control obsessions. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 428. What kinds of traumatic life events are associated with stress disorders? Answer: Stress disorders often develop in reaction to a psychologically traumatic event, such as combat, rape, an earthquake, an airplane crash, or traffic accidents. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 429. Describe the distinction between hallucinations and delusions. Answer: Hallucinations are false sensory perceptions. Delusions are false beliefs. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the features of schizophrenia and some theories of what causes it. Section Reference: Schizophrenia 430. What percentage of people in the United States qualifies for the diagnosis of antisocial personality disorder? Answer: 2% to 3.5%

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders 431. What early childhood experiences may explain the development of borderline personality disorder? Answer: a combination of internal forces (e.g., difficulty identifying and controlling one’s level of arousal) and external forces (e.g., an environment where a child’s emotions are punished or disregarded) Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders

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ESSAY QUESTIONS 432. Define the four Ds common to most definitions of abnormality. Answer: (1) Deviance: Behaviour, thoughts, and emotions are considered abnormal when they differ from a society’s ideas about proper functioning. (2) Distress: According to many clinical theorists, behaviours, ideas, or emotions usually must also cause distress or unhappiness before they can be considered abnormal. (3) Dysfunction: Abnormal behaviour also tends to interfere with daily functioning. It upsets people so that they cannot take proper care of themselves, interact well with others, or work effectively. (4) Danger: Some people with psychological dysfunction become dangerous to themselves or others. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Identify the common features of most definitions of abnormal functioning, and describe how psychological disorders are classified and diagnosed. Section Reference: Defining, Classifying, and Diagnosing Psychological Abnormality 433. How does socio-economic status (SES) influence psychological abnormality? Answer: Members of low SES groups are more likely to develop severe psychological disorders due in part to the stressors of poverty (e.g., high crime rates, unemployment, crowding, limited educational opportunities). Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 434. Describe the relationship between religion and mental health. Answer: People who are genuinely spiritual are less lonely, less pessimistic, and less prone to depression and anxiety than non-religious individuals. Such individuals also seem better able to cope with life stressors. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 435. Describe the socio-cultural factors that contribute to psychological disorders. Answer: Researchers have found relationships between abnormal functioning and factors such as widespread social change, socio-economic class membership, cultural background, social

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communities, and family systems. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 436. Explain the family systems theory of abnormality. Answer: According to family systems theory, the family is a system of interacting parts—the family members—who interact with one another in consistent ways and follow rules unique to each family. Family systems theorists believe that the structure and communication patterns of certain families force individual members to react in ways that otherwise seem abnormal. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 437. Describe the developmental psychopathology model of disorders. Answer: Developmental psychopathology theorists are interested in how psychological disorders evolve, based on both genetics and early childhood experiences. They also try to understand how those early problematic patterns affect functioning as individuals move through later life stages. Developmental psychopathologists compare abnormal behaviour patterns with more normal ones in order to identify risk factors—biological and environmental factors that contribute to negative outcomes. In addition, they seek to identify other factors that can help individuals avoid or recover from such outcomes. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the major models used by psychologists to explain abnormal functioning. Section Reference: Models of Abnormality 438. Describe the symptoms of major depressive disorder. Answer: People with major depressive disorder often report feeling sad and empty, a lack of drive, initiative, or spontaneity. Most are less active and less productive than other people, and hold very negative views about themselves, and often have physical ailments and disturbances of appetite. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders

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439. How is social support related to depression? Answer: The unavailability of social support can lead to an onset of depression. People who lack social support are also more likely to remain depressed longer than those who have supportive relationships. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 440. Describe the symptoms of mania. Answer: In mania, people have active, powerful emotions in search of an outlet. Their mood of euphoric joy or extreme agitation is out of all proportion to the actual events in the person’s life. People with mania seem to want constant excitement, involvement, and companionship. They move quickly and talk rapidly and loudly. Individuals with mania usually show poor judgment and planning, as if they feel too good or move too fast to consider possible pitfalls. Filled with optimism, they rarely listen when others try to slow them down, interrupt their buying sprees, or prevent them from investing money unwisely. They may also hold an inflated opinion of themselves, and sometimes their self-esteem approaches grandiosity. Finally, individuals feel remarkably energetic while in a manic state. They typically get little sleep, yet feel and act wide awake. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 441. Summarize the findings of research on the causes of bipolar disorder. Answer: There is now compelling evidence that a combination of gene abnormalities plays a major role in the development of bipolar disorders. There is also evidence that the disorders may be linked to irregularities in the electrically charged ions that enable neurons to fire and transmit messages. Although genes and biological factors appear to play key roles, there is growing evidence that stress and certain kinds of environmental events also must precede episodes of bipolar disorder. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe and differentiate major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder. Section Reference: Mood Disorders 442. According to the intolerance of uncertainty theory, why do people with generalized anxiety disorder continue to worry?

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Answer: Sufferers keep worrying so they can find “correct” solutions to situations at hand. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 443. Describe the distinction between the diagnosis of acute stress disorder and post-traumatic stress disorder. Answer: If the lingering stress symptoms begin within four weeks of the traumatic event and last less than a month, a diagnosis of acute stress disorder is in order. If the symptoms continue longer than a month, a diagnosis of post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is given. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 444. What regions of the brain do neuroscientists believe are most important to understanding stress disorders? Answer: Particularly important are the orbitofrontal cortex, a region in the prefrontal cortex, and the caudate nuclei, structures located within the basal ganglia. These regions are part of a brain circuit that usually converts sensory information into thoughts and actions. Based on a variety of studies, many neuroscientists have come to believe that one or both of these brain regions are too active in certain people, leading to a constant eruption of troublesome thoughts and actions. Additional parts of this brain circuit have been identified in recent years, including the thalamus, cingulate cortex, and, once again, the amygdala. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 445. What kind of “avoidance” and “safety” behaviours do individuals with social anxiety disorder take to prevent or minimize social disasters? Answer: Cognitive-behavioural theorists contend that, because of this cluster of dysfunctional notions, individuals with social anxiety disorder keep anticipating that social disasters will occur. Therefore, they repeatedly perform “avoidance” and “safety” behaviours to help prevent or minimize such disasters. Avoidance behaviours include talking only to familiar persons at meetings or parties. Safety behaviours include holding on to a podium during a classroom presentation so that their hands don’t tremble or wearing makeup to cover up blushing.

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 446. Define the four forms that obsessions may take. Answer: Obsessions often take the form of obsessive wishes (e.g., repeated wishes that one’s spouse would die); impulses (e.g., repeated urges to yell obscenities at work or in church); images (e.g., fleeting visions of forbidden sexual scenes); or doubts (e.g., concerns that one has made or will make a wrong decision). Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 447. Describe the symptoms of PTSD. Answer: Individuals with PTSD may feel overly alert (hyper alertness), be easily startled, have trouble concentrating, and develop sleep problems. They may also feel extreme guilt because they survived the traumatic event while others did not. In addition, people with the stress disorders may be battered by recurring thoughts, memories, dreams, or nightmares connected to the traumatic event. They tend to avoid all activities that remind them of the event and try to avoid related thoughts, feelings, or conversations. People with the stress disorders may feel detached from other people or lose interest in activities that once brought them enjoyment. They may feel dazed and have trouble remembering things. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 448. What biological factors contribute to the development of stress disorders? Answer: Studies have found abnormal activity of the hormone cortisol and the neurotransmitter norepinephrine in the urine, blood, and saliva of combat soldiers, rape victims, concentration camp survivors, and survivors of other traumatic events. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders

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15 - 145 Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

449. Describe the symptoms of generalized anxiety disorder. Answer: People with generalized anxiety disorder experience excessive anxiety under most life circumstances and worry about practically anything. They typically feel restless, keyed up or on edge, tire easily, have difficulty concentrating, suffer from muscle tension, and have sleep problems. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 450. What role does the anxiety feedback system and GABA activity play in the experience of generalized anxiety disorder? Answer: People with generalized anxiety disorder may have ongoing problems in their anxiety feedback system. Perhaps they have too few GABA receptors or their GABA receptors do not properly capture the neurotransmitter. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 451. What brain structures are involved in the circuit that produces anxiety reactions? Answer: The circuit that produces anxiety reactions includes the prefrontal cortex, anterior cingulate, and amygdala. According to several studies, this circuit may function improperly in people with generalized anxiety disorder. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the various types of anxiety disorders, and explain some causes of these disorders. Section Reference: Anxiety Disorders 452. Describe and give examples of the positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia. Answer: The positive symptoms of schizophrenia are “pathological excesses,” or bizarre additions, to a person’s behaviour. Delusions, disorganized thinking and speech, hallucinations, and inappropriate affect are the ones most often found in schizophrenia. The negative symptoms are those that seem to be “pathological deficits,” characteristics that are lacking in an individual. Poverty of speech, flat affect, loss of volition, and social withdrawal are commonly found in schizophrenia.

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the features of schizophrenia and some theories of what causes it. Section Reference: Schizophrenia 453. Define the concept of catatonia. Answer: Catatonia refers to the extreme psychomotor symptoms of schizophrenia, including catatonic stupor, catatonic rigidity, and catatonic posturing. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the features of schizophrenia and some theories of what causes it. Section Reference: Schizophrenia 454. Describe the diathesis–stress explanation for schizophrenia. Answer: According to the diathesis–stress model, people with a biological predisposition will develop schizophrenia only if certain kinds of psychological events, personal stress, or societal expectations are also present. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the features of schizophrenia and some theories of what causes it. Section Reference: Schizophrenia 455. Describe the brain abnormalities associated with schizophrenia. Answer: Many people with schizophrenia have enlarged ventricles (the brain cavities that contain cerebrospinal fluid), relatively small temporal lobes and frontal lobes, and abnormal blood flow in certain areas of the brain. In addition, some studies have linked schizophrenia to structural abnormalities of the hippocampus, amygdala, and thalamus. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the features of schizophrenia and some theories of what causes it. Section Reference: Schizophrenia 456. Describe the biological theory for antisocial personality disorder. Answer: Difficulty may result from an under-responsive autonomic nervous system; may explain why antisocial individuals are relatively unaffected by punishment. Also, deficient functioning in the frontal lobes and lower serotonin levels have been found and may contribute to the levels of aggression, poor planning, and lack of empathy often seen. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis

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Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders 457. How is antisocial personality disorder related to anxiety? Answer: Individuals diagnosed with antisocial personality disorder experience less anxiety than the average population. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders 458. From a psychodynamic standpoint, explain how dissociative personality disorder may develop. Answer: Psychodynamic theorists believe that dissociative disorders are caused by repression, the most basic ego defence mechanism, but this view has not received strong research support. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders 459. Describe the results of neuroscience studies of antisocial personality patients. Answer: Neuroscience explanations focus on brain factors, such as low serotonin activity in certain areas of the brain, deficient frontal lobe functioning, and low arousal in response to warnings. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Discuss the features and possible causes of somatic symptom and related disorders, dissociative, and personality disorders. Section Reference: Other Disorders

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CHAPTER 16 TREATMENT OF PSYCHOLOGICAL DISORDERS CHAPTER LEARNING OBJECTIVES 1. Explain who receives treatment for psychological problems today, how they enter treatment, and what general features characterize different types of treatment. • More than 20 million North Americans receive therapy for psychological problems in the course of a year. Almost half suffer from anxiety and depression. • Therapy was once primarily a privilege of the wealthy, but today people at all socioeconomic levels receive treatment. Similarly, while women once outnumbered men in therapy by four to one, men today are more willing to enter therapy. • People may enter therapy on their own or may be forced into treatment. Many never seek treatment at all. • A variety of professionals conduct therapy, including psychologists, psychiatrists, counsellors, and psychiatric social workers. • Most clients are treated in the community as out-patients, but some people with severe problems are treated as inpatients in private or public institutions. • All forms of therapy have three essential features: a sufferer who seeks relief, a trained healer, and a series of contacts between the two in which the healer tries to bring about changes in the sufferer’s emotional state, attitudes, and behaviour. 2. Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. • Drug therapy, electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), and psychosurgery are the three major categories of biological treatments. • Psychotropic drugs, including antianxiety, antidepressant, antibipolar, and antipsychotic drugs, have brought relief to many, but they do not work for everyone and may have undesired side effects. • Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), used primarily to treat depression, is administered less often today than in the past. Two more recently developed brain stimulation treatments, vagus nerve stimulation and transcranial magnetic stimulation, have less wide-ranging and traumatic side effects than ECT. • Psychosurgery today is much more precise than the lobotomies of the past, in which the connections between the frontal lobe and the lower brain centres were severed. • Biological treatments for psychological disorders, particularly drug treatments, are highly regarded today. However, more often than not, biological interventions alone are not enough. 3. Describe the psychodynamic treatments for psychological disorders. • Psychodynamic therapies range from classical Freudian psychoanalysis to modern therapies. All share the goals of helping clients to uncover past traumatic events and the inner conflicts that have resulted from them, and to resolve those conflicts. • Psychodynamic therapy techniques include free association; therapist interpretation of resistance, transference, and dreams; catharsis; and repeatedly working through issues. • Recent developments in psychodynamic therapy include short-term psychodynamic therapy

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and relational psychoanalytic therapy. The psychodynamic approach has had a lasting influence on the conduct of treatment and was the first to offer an alternative to biological explanations of abnormal functioning. But the effectiveness of psychodynamic therapy is not well supported by research.

4. Describe the behavioural treatments for psychological disorders. • Behavioural treatments, aimed at replacing abnormal behaviours with more functional ones, are based on learning processes. Behavioural techniques fall into three categories: classical conditioning, operant conditioning, and modelling. • Systematic desensitization and aversion therapy rely on classical conditioning. Systematic desensitization is especially effective in treating phobias, while aversion therapy has been used to treat people who want to eliminate problem behaviours, such as drinking. • Token economies follow the principles of operant conditioning and use rewards to encourage desired behaviours. • Social skills training uses modelling to help clients acquire desired social behaviours. • Research suggests that behavioural therapies are often effective. They do not always bring lasting change outside therapy, however, and do not appear particularly effective with disorders that are broad or vaguely defined. 5. Describe cognitive-behavioural therapies for psychological disorders. • Cognitive-behavioural therapists try to help people recognize and change their faulty thinking processes. Most such therapies use some behavioural techniques. Three influential cognitive-behavioural approaches are those of Albert Ellis, Aaron Beck, and the “second-wave” cognitive-behavioural therapists. • Ellis’s rational-emotive behavioural therapy focuses on helping clients to identify their maladaptive assumptions, test them, and change them. • Beck’s cognitive therapy guides clients to challenge their maladaptive attitudes, automatic thoughts, and illogical thinking. Research supports the effectiveness of cognitive therapy for depression and certain other disorders. • Second-wave cognitive-behavioural therapies help clients to accept their problem behaviours rather than judge them, act on them, or try fruitlessly to change them. • The cognitive view is quite popular today, and research suggests that cognitive treatment is often effective. It is still not clear, however, whether psychological disorders create or result from maladaptive thoughts. 6. Describe the humanistic and existential therapies for psychological disorders. • Humanistic and existential therapists try to help clients look at themselves and their situations more accurately and acceptingly. • Therapists practising Carl Rogers’ client-centred therapy try to provide unconditional positive regard, accurate empathy, and genuineness, so that clients come to value their own emotions, thoughts, and behaviours. • Gestalt therapists use skillful frustration, role playing, and rules to help clients recognize and accept their needs and goals. • Existentialist therapies focus on helping clients discover their personal freedom of choice and take responsibility for making choices. • Only recently have humanistic and existential therapies begun to undergo systematic research. Early research suggests they can be beneficial for some clients.

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

7. Describe commonly used formats of therapy. • Individual therapy, in which practitioners meet with one client at a time, is the oldest of the modern therapy formats. • In group therapy, several clients with similar problems meet with a single therapist at the same time. Self-help groups are similar, but conducted without the leadership of a therapist. Both types of groups can be helpful for certain clients. • Family therapy treats all members of a family, together or individually, and therapists usually consider the family as a system. • Two people in a long-term relationship can seek couple therapy to help address issues in their relationship. • Community mental health treatment focuses on preventing abnormal functioning through (1) primary prevention—policies that reduce psychological risk in a community; (2) secondary prevention—treating minor problems before they become serious; and (3) tertiary prevention—providing prompt treatment for moderate and severe disorders so they do not become long-term problems. 8. Summarize research on the effectiveness of therapy. • In general, receiving therapy is more likely to help people with psychological disorders than going without treatment. Research has found that each of the major forms of therapy is of some help to clients, although research also indicates that particular therapies are often best suited for certain disorders. • Successful therapists often share similar effective elements in their approaches, regardless of their particular orientations. They provide feedback, help clients focus on their own thoughts and behaviour, pay careful attention to the way they interact with clients, and try to build a sense of self-mastery in their clients. • Women and members of ethnic minority groups face pressures that sometimes contribute to psychological dysfunctioning. Culture-sensitive and gender-sensitive therapy approaches help clients become aware of and react adaptively to the gender-related and cultural pressures and issues they face. • The empirically supported or evidence-based treatment movement seeks to identify which therapies have received clear research support for particular disorders, to propose corresponding treatment guidelines, and to spread such information to clinicians.

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TRUE-FALSE STATEMENTS 1. The number and variety of problems for which treatments are available have increased during the past 110 years. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain who receives treatment for psychological problems today, how they enter treatment, and what general features characterize different types of treatment. Section Reference: Treatment in Today’s World 2. More than two-thirds of today’s therapy patients are male. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain who receives treatment for psychological problems today, how they enter treatment, and what general features characterize different types of treatment. Section Reference: Treatment in Today’s World 3. People at all socio-economic levels now receive both outpatient and inpatient therapy. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain who receives treatment for psychological problems today, how they enter treatment, and what general features characterize different types of treatment. Section Reference: Treatment in Today’s World 4. Clients who have severe psychological disorders such as schizophrenia are more likely to work with a psychologist than psychiatrist. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain who receives treatment for psychological problems today, how they enter treatment, and what general features characterize different types of treatment. Section Reference: Treatment in Today’s World 5. Most people are treated for psychological disorders on an inpatient basis.

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain who receives treatment for psychological problems today, how they enter treatment, and what general features characterize different types of treatment. Section Reference: Treatment in Today’s World 6. Hospitalization for people with psychological disorders today usually lasts weeks instead of months or years. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain who receives treatment for psychological problems today, how they enter treatment, and what general features characterize different types of treatment. Section Reference: Treatment in Today’s World 7. Antidepressant drugs stimulate the production of synapses in the hippocampus. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 8. Most patients who take selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors SSRIs report relief of their depressive symptoms almost immediately after the first day of use. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 9. Lobotomies are used frequently by modern therapists to treat mental disorders. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments

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10. Just as negative experiences can interact with brain activity to produce abnormal functioning; positive experiences can interact with the brain to make our functioning more normal. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 11. In psychodynamic therapies, the therapist is responsible for starting and leading each discussion. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the psychodynamic treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Psychodynamic Therapies 12. Only a few research studies have found psychodynamic therapies to be more effective than no treatment or placebo treatments. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the psychodynamic treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Psychodynamic Therapies 13. Research has repeatedly found that systematic desensitization and other classical conditioning techniques reduce phobic reactions more effectively than placebo treatments or no treatment at all. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the behavioural treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Behavioural Therapies 14. The effects of aversion therapy are typically short-lived. Answer: True

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the behavioural treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Behavioural Therapies 15. Dysfunctional individuals may be able to overcome their difficulties by modifying their faulty thought processes. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe cognitive-behavioural therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Cognitive-Behavioural Therapies 16. According to Beck, many of the thought processes of depressed individuals are logical. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe cognitive-behavioural therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Cognitive-Behavioural Therapies 17. In rational-emotive therapy, therapists confront clients’ irrational assumptions in a blunt and humorous manner. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe cognitive-behavioural therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Cognitive-Behavioural Therapies 18. Around one-third of depressed people who are treated with Beck’s cognitive approach improve. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe cognitive-behavioural therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Cognitive-Behavioural Therapies 19. Skillful frustration includes refusing to meet a client’s expectations or demands.

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Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic and existential therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Humanistic and Existential Therapies 20. Although some studies report improvements among people who receive client-centred therapy, most controlled research finds it to be of limited effectiveness. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic and existential therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Humanistic and Existential Therapies 21. Gestalt therapists believe that subjective experiences and self-awareness can be measured objectively in controlled laboratory studies. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic and existential therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Humanistic and Existential Therapies 22. Couples involved in marital therapy must be married or at least living together. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe commonly used formats of therapy. Section Reference: Formats of Therapy 23. According to research, people treated in couple therapy show greater improvements in their relationships than people who fail to receive such treatment. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Learning Objective: Describe commonly used formats of therapy. Section Reference: Formats of Therapy 24. Group therapy is often less helpful than individual therapy. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe commonly used formats of therapy. Section Reference: Formats of Therapy 25. Research suggests that psychodynamic therapies seem to be the most effective of all treatments for specific phobias. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize research on the effectiveness of therapy. Section Reference: Does Therapy Work? 26. Results of studies that compare the various forms of therapies to one another have shown that no one form of therapy generally stands out over all others. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize research on the effectiveness of therapy. Section Reference: Does Therapy Work? 27. Studies conducted in countries across the world have found that members of ethnic and racial minority groups typically show less improvement in clinical treatment, make less use of mental health services, and stop therapy sooner than members of majority groups. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize research on the effectiveness of therapy. Section Reference: Does Therapy Work?

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MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

28. A type of therapy that uses communication and interaction to overcome a client’s psychological difficulties is called a) biological therapy. b) physiological therapy. c) physical therapy. d) psychotherapy. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain who receives treatment for psychological problems today, how they enter treatment, and what general features characterize different types of treatment. Section Reference: Treatment in Today’s World 29. Kiefer is seeking treatment. His friend tells him that the ideal type of therapy for Keifer would be to it down with a therapist and talk out his issues. What kind of treatment is this called? a) physiological therapy b) biological therapy c) psychotherapy d) psychopharmacology Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain who receives treatment for psychological problems today, how they enter treatment, and what general features characterize different types of treatment. Section Reference: Treatment in Today’s World 30. Jian has been diagnosed with depression. He would receive the MOST effective treatment through a) electronic therapy. b) individual therapy. c) modeling therapy. d) self-help therapy. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain who receives treatment for psychological problems today, how they enter treatment, and what general features characterize different types of treatment. Section Reference: Treatment in Today’s World

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

30. Which of the following is NOT one of the features of all therapies, according to Jerome Frank? a) a warm, supportive environment to foster healing b) a sufferer who seeks relief from a healer c) a trained, socially accepted healer d) a series of contacts between the healer and sufferer to produce change. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain who receives treatment for psychological problems today, how they enter treatment, and what general features characterize different types of treatment. Section Reference: Treatment in Today’s World 31. Sotiria has had a number of distressing symptoms including an inability to sleep, a sense of profound hopelessness, a loss of pleasure in previous activities she once enjoyed, and lethargy. She is hoping to get therapy to help her with these symptoms. In this scenario Jerome Franks would say that Sotiria is the ___. a) client b) healer c) sufferer d) patient Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain who receives treatment for psychological problems today, how they enter treatment, and what general features characterize different types of treatment. Section Reference: Treatment in Today’s World 32. Pierre believes that he is the most important person in his country; in fact, he knows this is true as he hears voices everyday assuring him of his superiority. At times, even animals stop to speak to him. He carries on long rambling, disconnected conversations with people and animals and, frequently, trees and bushes. Jacinda, a psychiatrist, is treating Pierre using a biological therapy. In this scenario Jerome Frank would say that Pierre is the __________________. Jacinda is the _______________ and the biological therapy is the _________________. a) patient; physician; treatment b) client; therapist; psychotherapy c) sufferer; healer; series of contacts d) patient; healer; therapy Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Learning Objective: Explain who receives treatment for psychological problems today, how they enter treatment, and what general features characterize different types of treatment. Section Reference: Treatment in Today’s World 33. Approximately how many people (children, adolescents, and adults) in North America receive therapy for psychological problems over the course of a year? a) 2 million b) 5 million c) 10 million d) 20 million Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain who receives treatment for psychological problems today, how they enter treatment, and what general features characterize different types of treatment. Section Reference: Treatment in Today’s World 34. Ashton is playing a trivia game with his psychology study group. In this game, his team needs to identify the ‘false’ fact among a set of facts about treatment for mental illness. Which of the following facts should Ashton choose? a) One in five Canadians will experience a mental illness in their lifetime. b) Diagnoses of depression or anxiety constitute 75% of the diagnoses of mental illness. c) Two-thirds of today’s therapy patients are female. d) Most patients in therapy are treated as out-patients. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain who receives treatment for psychological problems today, how they enter treatment, and what general features characterize different types of treatment. Section Reference: Treatment in Today’s World 35. Mental illness is more prevalent than most suspect, with _____ suffering a mental illness in their lifetime.? a) 1 in 2 b) 1 in 3 c) 1 in 4 d) 1 in 5 Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain who receives treatment for psychological problems today, how they enter treatment, and what general features characterize different types of treatment.

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Section Reference: Treatment in Today’s World 36. What percentage of Canadians will experience a mental illness in their lifetime? a) 20% b) 25% c) 30% d) 40% Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain who receives treatment for psychological problems today, how they enter treatment, and what general features characterize different types of treatment. Section Reference: Treatment in Today’s World 37. What two disorders make up more than 75% of all the diagnoses in Canada for a mental disorder? a) anxiety and depression b) schizophrenia and bipolar disorder c) obsessive-compulsive disorder and borderline personality disorder d) panic attacks and hallucinations Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain who receives treatment for psychological problems today, how they enter treatment, and what general features characterize different types of treatment. Section Reference: Treatment in Today’s World 38. Which of the following are most common among Canadians diagnosed with a mental illness each year? a) substance-related disorders b) depression and anxiety disorders c) “problems in living” d) schizophrenia Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain who receives treatment for psychological problems today, how they enter treatment, and what general features characterize different types of treatment. Section Reference: Treatment in Today’s World 39. Which of the following is NOT a changing trend in the characteristics of clients who seek

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therapy? a) People at all socio-economic levels receive outpatient and inpatient therapy. b) More members of ethnic minority groups are seeking treatment for psychological problems. c) Men are more willing to seek treatment for psychological problems than before. d) These are all changes in clients who seek therapy. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Explain who receives treatment for psychological problems today, how they enter treatment, and what general features characterize different types of treatment. Section Reference: Treatment in Today’s World 40. What is the main reason that people who need help with a mental illness do not seek treatment? a) There is no treatment available for mental illness. b) The stigma associated with mental illness. c) It is too expensive. d) It takes too long. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Explain who receives treatment for psychological problems today, how they enter treatment, and what general features characterize different types of treatment. Section Reference: Treatment in Today’s World 41. Which of the following is NOT evidence of on-going stigma surrounding seeking treatment for mental illness in Canada? a) Many people wait more than two years after becoming aware they have a problem to seek treatment. b) At least half of Canadians with psychological disorders never seek treatment. c) Most people who seek treatment are concerned about their family and friends knowing about it. d) All are all evidence of on-going stigma. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Explain who receives treatment for psychological problems today, how they enter treatment, and what general features characterize different types of treatment. Section Reference: Treatment in Today’s World 42. What is a reason that many people who need treatment for a mental illness do not get it, or wait on average 2 years to seek it?

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a) Treatment does not work. b) Treatment is too expensive. c) The stigma associated with having a mental illness. d) Treatment takes too long. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Explain who receives treatment for psychological problems today, how they enter treatment, and what general features characterize different types of treatment. Section Reference: Treatment in Today’s World 43. What proportion of people treated in hospital for a mental illness are readmitted within a year? a) 1/2 b) 1/3 c) 1/4 d) 1/10 Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain who receives treatment for psychological problems today, how they enter treatment, and what general features characterize different types of treatment. Section Reference: Treatment in Today’s World 44. What is the most typical therapy patient today? a) a man suffering from schizophrenia b) a man suffering from depression c) a woman suffering from bipolar disorder d) a woman suffering from anxiety Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Explain who receives treatment for psychological problems today, how they enter treatment, and what general features characterize different types of treatment. Section Reference: Treatment in Today’s World 45. Which of the following individuals is most likely to seek treatment? a) Li Wei, who has been struggling with depression for a year b) Benjamin, who has struggled with anxiety for over 2 years now c) Zoe, who has just learned that she has a mental illness d) Lilly, who has been struggling with illness anxiety disorder for over two years

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Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explain who receives treatment for psychological problems today, how they enter treatment, and what general features characterize different types of treatment. Section Reference: Treatment in Today’s World 46 Alex has been severely depressed lately, and he is NOT sure he can handle it on his own. He thinks that he needs medication because he is frightened that he will hurt himself. What type of mental health professional should Alex make an appointment with? a) a psychiatrist b) a clinical psychologist c) a counseling psychologist d) a psychiatric social worker Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain who receives treatment for psychological problems today, how they enter treatment, and what general features characterize different types of treatment. Section Reference: Treatment in Today’s World 47. Jovana has schizophrenia. Which professional would be most likely to treat her? a) a psychologist at an inpatient clinic b) a psychologist at an outpatient clinic c) a social worker at a psychiatric hospital d) a psychiatrist Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain who receives treatment for psychological problems today, how they enter treatment, and what general features characterize different types of treatment. Section Reference: Treatment in Today’s World 48. Which of the following is a problem that has been identified around the issue of deinstitutionalization? a) Longer hospital stays have been found to decrease chances for recovery. b) The community treatment facilities cannot handle the excess number of patients this creates. c) These patients would rather be homeless than stay in the hospital. d) Most hospital patients are recovered in a matter of days, not weeks. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy

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Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Explain who receives treatment for psychological problems today, how they enter treatment, and what general features characterize different types of treatment. Section Reference: Treatment in Today’s World 49. Among other therapies, biological therapies include psychopharmacology, electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), and a) psychiatric conditioning. b) psychosurgery. c) behavioural health modeling. d) psychosomatic therapy. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 50. ________ is/are defined as the use of physiological interventions to reduce or alleviate symptoms of psychological disorders. a) Psychopharmacology b) Behavioural therapy c) Biological treatments d) Psychosurgery Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 51. Psychiatrists are more likely than other therapists to use which of the following approaches to treating psychological disorders? a) humanistic approach b) biological approach c) behavioural approach d) cognitive approach Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments

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52. Which of the following is the BEST response for why psychosurgery is typically considered a last resort in patient treatment? a) Any consequence of the treatment is usually irreversible. b) It is unethical to change another person’s behavior. c) The process is inhumane as it typically causes memory loss. d) There is not enough research on proper surgical techniques. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 53. Which of the following therapy techniques is based on the biological approach to treating psychological disorders? a) psychosurgery b) electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) c) drug therapy d) all the above Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 54. Which of the following is NOT one of the three principal types of biological treatments? a) drug therapy b) cognitive restructuring c) psychosurgery d) electroconvulsive therapy Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 55. Drugs that act primarily on the brain and significantly reduce the symptoms of psychological disorders are called a) antidepressants. b) antipsychotics. c) psychotropics. d) psychopharmacological.

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Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 56. Which of the following would be considered a psychotropic drug? a) birth control pill, Estostep Fe (Ethinyl estradiol, Norethindrone acetate) b) the antidepressant drug Prozac (fluoxetine) c) beta blocker, atenolol (Tenormin) d) acne treatment, Accutane (isotretinoin) Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 57. Antipsychotic drugs are particularly effective in dealing with a) the symptoms of hopeless and apathy in major depressive disorder. b) the symptoms of anhedonia, weight gain, and insomnia associated with major depressive disorder. c) the negative symptoms of schizophrenia. d) the positive symptoms of schizophrenia. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 58. The atypical antipsychotics are superior to classic antipsychotic drugs in that they a) have no side effects. b) alleviate negative symptoms as well as positive symptoms. c) entirely eliminate the symptoms of schizophrenia in the majority of patients. d) are older and better tested. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments

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59. Elodie is seeking treatment, and reports that sometimes she hears a voice telling her to clean her house. She also says that she believes that there are hidden cameras throughout her house that are recording the level of germs in her house, and that something bad will happen to her baby if the germ level gets too high. What type of treatment will most likely be used on Elodie? a) mood stabilizing drugs b) ECT c) antipsychotic drugs d) lobotomy Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 60. Zhu has been prescribed a medication to reduce the hallucinations, delusions, and confusion she experiences with her schizophrenia. Zhu has probably been prescribed a/an ___ drug. a) antidepressant b) antipsychotic c) mood stabilizer d) antianxiety Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 61. Ryan has been prescribed an antipsychotic drug. Which of the following symptoms would he have MOST likely been experiencing, leading to this treatment? a) Fear that a transmitter has been implanted in his brain and is sending him threatening messages. b) Fatigue, uncontrollable crying, and a loss of interest in formerly pleasurable activities. c) Long periods of depression broken up by shorter periods of euphoria and excess energy. d) Seemingly unprovoked feelings of panic causing chest pain and hyperventilation. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 62. Dr. Whitman is treating a patient with schizophrenia and is considering prescribing an

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antipsychotic. Dr. Whitman needs to consider a) whether his patient is a man or a woman; antipsychotics are less effective for women b) the common side effects of antipsychotic drugs, such as weight gain, delusions, and increased hallucinations c) the ratio of positive to negative symptoms his patient demonstrates, as antipsychotic medications are much less effective for treating negative symptoms d) the comorbidity of bipolar disorder and the history of reactions to antipsychotics in this group of patients Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 63. Chlorpromazine and clozapine are types of ___ drugs. a) antipsychotic b) antidepressant c) antianxiety d) mood stabilizers Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 64. Luis has been taking chlorpromazine but has developed side effects severe shaking, contractions of the face and body, restlessness, muscle rigidity, and tremors. What alternative might his psychiatrist recommend? a) psychotherapy b) electroconvulsive therapy c) atypical antipsychotics d) vagus nerve stimulation Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 65. Classic antipsychotics are to _____ as atypical antipsychotics are to _____. a) tardive dyskinesia; Parkinson’s disease b) Parkinson’s disease; tardive dyskinesia c) low white blood cell count; Parkinson’s disease

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d) tardive dyskinesia; diabetes and obesity Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 66. Tardive dyskinesia is to _____ as diabetes and obesity are to _____. a) classic antipsychotics; atypical antipsychotics b) serotonin-based drugs; dopamine-based drugs c) negative symptoms; positive symptoms d) late diagnosis; early diagnosis Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 67. One serious side effect of antipsychotic drugs is that they can cause a severe disorder called tardive dyskinesia. What are the symptoms of this disorder? a) brain tumours and CNS cancers b) involuntary tic-like symptoms of the face, trunk, and extremities c) lack of impulse control resulting in outbursts of anger and frustration d) difficulty with the physical production of speech or swallowing Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 68. Involuntary tic-like symptoms of the face, trunk and extremities is a disorder caused by antipsychotic medications. This disorder is called a) tardive dyskinesia. b) Sydenham’s chorea. c) Wilson’s disease. d) chorea gravidarum. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders.

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Section Reference: Biological Treatments 69. Jeremy was recently diagnosed with bipolar disorder. Which of the following medications might he be prescribed? a) antidepressant b) antipsychotic c) mood stabilizer d) antianxiety Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 70. Andrea was recently diagnosed with schizophrenia. Which of the following medications might she be prescribed? a) antidepressant b) antipsychotic c) mood stabilizer d) antianxiety Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 71. Olivia is taking a mood stabilizer. Olivia has most likely being treated for a) depression. b) anxiety. c) bipolar disorder. d) schizophrenia. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 72. Which of the following is an antidepressant? a) Lithium b) Fluoxetine c) Benzodiazepine

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d) Clozaril Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 73. The most commonly prescribed class of antidepressant drugs are ________________. a) tricyclics b) MAOI inhibitors c) SSRIs d) atypical antidepressants Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 74. A patient is likely to be prescribed an SNRI antidepressant when a) the patient's symptoms are more typical of bipolar disorder than depression. b) both psychosurgery and electroshock therapy have failed. c) the cause of the depression is unrelated to chemical imbalance. d) the patient fails to respond to other antidepressants. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 75. A patient has suffered from depression for years. Sometimes it is mild and other times it is so severe that she cannot get out of bed in the morning. This inability to function has caused her to lose her job on more than one occasion. She has tried Prozac, but it had no effect on the depression and involved unpleasant side effects. Since then, she has been going to her humanistic therapist but has sought no other treatment. Which of these treatments would be the most reasonable for her to try next? a) a mood stabilizer drug b) an SNRI c) deep brain stimulation d) an antianxiety drug Answer: b

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 76. ________ drugs work by increasing the availability of serotonin or norepinephrine in order to elevate mood. a) Antipsychotic b) Anti anxiety c) Antidepressant d) Mood stabilizer Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 77. By keeping excess serotonin from being pumped back into the sending neuron, serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) a) make more serotonin available to the receptor neuron. b) signal to the sending neuron to stop releasing serotonin. c) prevent the synapse from absorbing serotonin. d) cause more serotonin to be produced. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 78. Bonnie has been experiencing significant disruptions in her day-to-day life. She is experiencing difficulty going to sleep and remembering to eat, as she rarely feels hungry. Additionally, her friends complain that she is more easily frustrated and critical of others. Which of the following would likely be MOST effective in helping Bonnie resume her normal life activities, and why? a) SSRI would be most effective because it will restore a normal balance of serotonin. b) A neuroleptic would be most effective because Bonnie is suffering from excess dopamine. c) An anxiolytic would be most effective because Bonnie is suffering from heightened sympathetic activity. d) TMS would be most effective because Bonnie’s symptoms are too severe for psychopharmacological treatment. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard

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Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 79. After undergoing extensive neurotransmitter analysis, Kent discovers that his brain’s neural transmission of serotonin is disrupted. When serotonin is released from a neuron, instead of being absorbed by the receiving neuron, it is instead reabsorbed by the sending neuron. What is the BEST way to solve this problem? a) Taking a medication that prevents the sending neuron from reabsorbing the serotonin, thereby increasing the neurotransmitter’s availability in the brain. b) Taking a medication that stimulates production of serotonin, thereby increasing the neurotransmitter’s availability in the brain. c) Taking a medication that reduces production of serotonin, thereby decreasing the neurotransmitter’s availability in the brain. d) Taking a medication that accelerates the process of the sending neuron reabsorbing the serotonin, thereby decreasing the neurotransmitter’s availability in the brain. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 80. Ava has recently been in two car accidents, both of which were her fault. Upon further investigation, officers found that Ava suffered from drowsiness and delayed reaction time, which they attributed to medication she was taking. Because Ava is being treated for anxiety and depression, which of the following should Ava’s doctor consider? a) Ava’s doctor should consider changing her medication from an antianxiety drug to an antidepressant drug. b) Ava’s doctor should consider changing her medication from a antipsychotic drug to a moodstabilizing drug. c) Ava’s doctor should consider changing her medication from an antidepressant drug to an antianxiety drug. d) Ava’s doctor should consider changing her medication from an antianxiety to an antipsychotic drug. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 81. Which of the following is NOT an antidepressant? a) Elavil b) Norpramin c) Paxil

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d) Valium Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 82. Which drug category includes tricyclics, MAOIs, SSRIs, and SNRIs? a) mood stabilizers b) antidepressants c) antianxiety drugs d) antipsychotic drugs Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 83. How are SSRIs different from SNRIs? a) SNRIs increase levels of serotonin and norepinephrine available in the brain, whereas SSRIs only increase levels of serotonin in the brain. b) SSRIs increase levels of serotonin and norepinephrine available in the brain, whereas SNRIs only increase levels of serotonin in the brain. c) SNRIs decrease levels of serotonin and norepinephrine available in the brain, whereas SSRIs only decrease levels of serotonin in the brain. d) SSRIs decrease levels of serotonin and norepinephrine available in the brain, whereas SNRIs only decrease levels of serotonin in the brain. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 84. Which of the following best describes the difference between MAOI’s, tricyclics, and SSRI’s? a) They are used to treat different disorders. b) They all treat anxiety disorders, but act on different neurotransmitters. c) They all treat depression, but act on different neurotransmitters. d) Whereas the side effects of MAOI’s and tricyclics are mild, SSRI’s have many serious side effects including risk of suicide. Answer: c

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 85. The primary action of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) is to ___ of the neurotransmitter serotonin in the brain. a) decrease the availability b) increase the availability c) stop the production d) simulate a synthetic substance that mimics the effects Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 86. SSRIs help with depression in a multitude of ways. Which of the following is NOT one of these ways? a) restores activity in the prefrontal cortex b) increases the production of dopamine c) blocks the reuptake of serotonin d) stimulates the production of synapses in the hippocampus Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 87. Ryan is 16 years old and has begun taking an SSRI for depression. His doctor wants to keep a close eye on him for the first 2 months and see how he is doing. What is Ryan’s doctor most likely concerned about? a) tardive dyskinesia b) high blood pressure c) a rare blood disease d) suicide Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments

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88. Fujita has been recently diagnosed with bipolar disorder. Which of the following medications is she most likely to be prescribed? a) Xanax b) Fluoxetine c) Lithium d) Chlorpromazine Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 89. Louis has had several episodes of severe depression, but for the past two weeks he has been euphoric, hyperactive, has shown signs of delusions, and has not slept for the past five nights. If Louis sees a psychiatrist, which medication might he be prescribed? a) an SSRI b) a benzodiazepine c) lithium d) Thorazine Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 90. Janus refuses to adhere to his treatment protocol. He says that the medication makes him forgetful and causes bowel and bladder accidents. He is also concerned that he has developed a heart arrhythmia. What medication was Janus MOST likely prescribed? a) Paxil b) Lithium c) Thorazine d) Valium Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 91. A patient is experiencing convulsions and a widespread firing of neurons in addition to changes in the central and peripheral nervous systems, and changes in the blood-brain barrier. This is most likely a result of

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a) electroconvulsive therapy. b) biomedical therapy. c) deep brain stimulation. d) repetitive transcranial magnetic stimulation. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 92. Electroconvulsive therapy is used a) with people who have severe depression that have failed to respond to other treatment protocols. b) only in cases of depression where patients report psychosis. c) in combination with vagus nerve stimulation. d) with people who have a bipolar disorder and refuse to continue taking their medications. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 93. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is a treatment for patients who have severe ___. a) schizophrenia b) generalized anxiety disorder c) borderline personality disorder d) depression Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 94. Which of the following statements about ECT is FALSE? a) It induces seizures in the brain. b) It helps 70% of patients treated. c) It can affect short-term memory, sometimes permanently. d) It is used more now than in the past because of more advanced medical techniques. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy

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Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 95. Logan just underwent a treatment that resulted in a re-established biochemical and hormonal homeostasis in his brain areas that most affect mood. Logan most likely was administered ________ treatment. a) ECT. b) DBS. c) TMS. d) MAOI. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 96. Keziah has been diagnosed with severe depression. She has not responded to any forms of antidepressant medication or to psychotherapy. At this juncture, Keziah’s physician may be considering ________ as a therapy attempt. a) aversion therapy b) electroconvulsive therapy c) client-centred therapy d) psychosurgery Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 97. Faith has suffered from severe depression for many years. Which of the following procedures might she be considering? a) electroconvulsive therapy b) neurosurgery c) lobotomy d) trephining Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments

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98. Eymen has been dealing with major depression for years now, and nothing he has tried has worked. He has been on several types of medications, and he has tried several distinct types of talk therapies and group therapies. Nothing has worked, and now Eymen is ready to give up and is having thoughts of suicide. What is the best treatment for Eymen at this point? a) ECT b) lobotomy c) mood stabilizers d) a different kind of antidepressant Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 99. Anja is suffering from severe depression and her doctors want to use ECT as a treatment tool. What side effect should Anja be concerned about? a) She may feel more anxious afterwards. b) She may have an increase in appetite. c) She may have some memory loss. d) She may experience insomnia. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 100. Bindhu is suffering from an anxiety disorder and is considering taking medications for it. What is the main thing that Bindhu should worry about? a) Antianxiety medications take a long time to work. b) The effects of antianxiety medications last a long time. c) Antianxiety medications have an elevated risk of dependence. d) Antianxiety medications typically do not work. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 101. One reason that the benzodiazepine family of drugs are so additive is that a) they create pleasant hallucinatory effects. b) the effects of the drugs are long-lasting.

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c) they are taken in very high doses. d) there is an almost immediate alleviation of anxiety symptoms. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 102. The process of using a magnetic field to deliver an electrical current to the brain is known by the acronym of a) TMS. b) ECT. c) DBS. d) SNRI. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 103. Approximately ___ of transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) patients who are treated daily for two to four weeks report alleviated depression. a) 40% b) 55% c) 65% d) 80% Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 104. Approximately ___ of vagus nerve stimulation patients experience significant symptom relief. a) 40% b) 55% c) 65% d) 80% Answer: c Difficulty: Easy

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Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 105. How is TMS different from ECT? a) TMS uses a magnetic field, while ECT does not. b) ECT uses a magnetic field, while TMS does not. c) TMS blocks reuptake, while ECT does not. d) ECT blocks reuptake, while TMS does not. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 106. Diagnosed with major depression, Enola has NOT experienced a reduction in symptoms following trials with several medications. Her psychiatrist initially recommends that Enola undergo electroconvulsive therapy, but Enola strongly protests, arguing that she is extremely fearful of having an electrical current be applied to her brain. What alternative to ECT is her psychiatrist MOST likely to recommend? a) transcranial magnetic stimulation b) deep brain stimulation c) a lobotomy d) neurogenesis Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 107. Which of the following statements about biologically-based disorders is true? a) In most biologically-based disorders, a single gene has been identified as responsible for the disorder. b) If someone has a genetic predisposition for a specific disorder, that person will develop the disorder. c) More psychological disorders are caused by problems in neurotransmitter levels than by genetic problems. d) Abnormal functioning is a complex interaction of a variety of biological processes. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders.

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Section Reference: Biological Treatments 108. Which of the following treatments does NOT use an electric current to alleviate abnormal symptoms? a) psychosurgery b) deep brain stimulation c) ECT d) TMS Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 109. Which of the following is NOT treated using deep brain stimulation? a) Parkinson’s disease b) epilepsy c) bipolar disorder d) depression Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 110. Dana was recently treated with deep brain stimulation. Which of the following was a part of Dana’s procedure? a) implanting a pacemaker b) using powerful magnets c) cutting nerve fibers between the frontal lobes and the lower brain centres d) stimulating production of new synapses Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 111. Carrina has suffered from major depression for ten years and has had little success with medications. Her psychiatrist has suggested he could implant a small pacemaker-like device in her chest that would send electrical signals through a nerve to the nerve centres of the brain. Which of the following treatments is her psychiatrist suggesting?

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a) ECT b) transcranial magnetic stimulation c) transmagnetic nerve stimulation d) vagus nerve stimulation Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 112. Marnie has suffered from depression for almost ten years but has had no success with medications. Marnie’s doctor has suggested a new therapy that increases activity in the prefrontal cortex. Which of the following therapies is Marnie’s doctor most likely suggesting? a) vagus nerve stimulation b) transcranial magnetic stimulation c) electroconvulsive therapy d) trephining Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 113. Connections in what part of the brain are severed when a lobotomy is performed? a) Frontal lobes and the lower centres of the brain b) Thalamus and the hypothalamus c) Amygdala and the hippocampus d) Pons and the medulla Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 114. Lobotomies were a widely used treatment for ___. a) depression b) schizophrenia c) bipolar disorder d) personality disorders Answer: b

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 115. What is a potential problem associated with psychopharmacology? a) Drugs relieve symptoms but do not provide cures. b) Lengthy drug trials drive up the price of medications. c) Drugs lead to irreversible damage to the user. d) Side effects range from mild fatigue to death. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 116. Which of the following is one of the disadvantages of psychosurgery? a) Psychosurgery can cause irreversible consequences. b) Psychosurgery has not been approved by either Health Canada or the FDA. c) The drugs used during psychosurgery can be lethal. d) Doctors have overused psychosurgery in the past. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 117. ________ is based on the idea that abnormal behaviour is caused by unconscious conflicts among the three parts of the psyche. a) Psychodynamic therapy b) Humanistic therapy c) Cognitive therapy d) Observational learning Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the psychodynamic treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Psychodynamic Therapies 118. Psychodynamic therapists contend that today’s emotional disorder is the result of ___. a) yesterday’s emotional trauma

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b) yesterday’s maladaptive behaviours c) today’s negative style of thinking d) today’s abnormal brain Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the psychodynamic treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Psychodynamic Therapies 119. Manaia and Zoe are both in psychodynamic therapy. Manaia is morbidly obese and wants to learn to control her eating. Zoe suffers from repetitive debilitating headaches that have no organic cause. In both instances the therapists will share the goal of helping Manaia and Zoe to a) identify specific problem-causing behaviours and replace them with more adaptive behaviours. b) change their faulty thinking processes. c) uncover past traumatic events and inner conflicts. d) look at themselves and their situations more accurately and acceptingly. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the psychodynamic treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Psychodynamic Therapies 120. Which of the following is NOT considered a psychodynamic therapy? a) psychoanalysis b) rational-emotive therapy c) relational psychoanalytic therapy d) short-term psychodynamic therapies Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the psychodynamic treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Psychodynamic Therapies 121. Kamilè is a therapist who uses free association, interpretation, and dream analysis when treating her patients. Kamilè is practising the ___ approach to therapy. a) cognitive-behavioural b) Gestalt c) humanistic d) psychodynamic Answer: d

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the psychodynamic treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Psychodynamic Therapies 122. Julian is seeing a psychologist who tells him that his anxiety is due to unresolved conflicts with his mother. Julian’s psychologist will likely provide some form of ___________ therapy. a) humanistic b) behavioural c) cognitive-behavioural d) psychodynamic Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Explain who receives treatment for psychological problems today, how they enter treatment, and what general features characterize different types of treatment. Section Reference: Treatment in Today’s World 123. When a client begins treating the therapist as if they were someone significant from the client’s past, this is called a) resistance. b) free association. c) transference. d) projection. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the psychodynamic treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Psychodynamic Therapies 124. During what is otherwise a routine psychoanalytic session, Sherry lashes out at her therapist, accusing him of never trying. Because this is something Sherry’s father was guilty of, the therapist recognizes this accusation as an instance of a) free association. b) latency. c) transference. d) resistance. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the psychodynamic treatments for psychological disorders.

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Section Reference: Psychodynamic Therapies 125. Bastian is discussing with his therapist how competitive hockey is, and how his dad pushed him over the years to be a champion player. Later in the session, when the therapist suggests some exercises and activities that Bastion can work on between sessions, Bastian begins shouting at the therapist and pointing at him “Since I was a little kid, I have always been made to do things I don’t want to do. You are always telling me what to do!” What is Bastian’s behaviour called? a) transference b) projection c) resistance d) catharsis Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the psychodynamic treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Psychodynamic Therapies 126. Dr. Morgan has always been patient and supportive with his clients. One day, one of them says, “I completely depend on you. I do not know what I would do without you and your help and guidance. I don’t know how to even make a decision any more without discussing it with you first.” This would be seen by a Freudian therapist as an example of a) free association. b) unconditional positive regard. c) catharsis. d) transference. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the psychodynamic treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Psychodynamic Therapies 127. During today’s therapy session, Dr. Jack noticed that Jim would cut short discussion of certain topics and complain of a headache or tiredness. At other times, Jim would become agitated with him, speak tersely, or become angered seemingly without cause. How can Jim’s reactions be explained? a) Jim is unconsciously resisting certain topics and sometimes transfers his conflicting emotions onto Dr. Jack. b) Dr. Jack has failed to be an attentive listener and Jack is reacting to this perceived slight. c) Jim is experiencing resistance to Dr. Jack’s attempts at cognitive restructuring. d) Dr. Jack has been too critical with his interpretations of Jim’s free associations and dreams. Answer: a

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the psychodynamic treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Psychodynamic Therapies 128. Nivi yells at her psychoanalyst, "You’ve never listened to me or understood anything I’ve said. You do not care at all what happens to me. I hate you!" Assuming this is not how her therapist treats her, it is most likely that Nivi is experiencing _______________ in this stage of her therapy. a) resistance b) free association c) transference d) projection Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the psychodynamic treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Psychodynamic Therapies 129. After weeks of therapy, where she has been discussing her divorce, Aino thinks she is in love with her therapist and has begun to treat him as if he is her boyfriend. Aino is displaying feelings and behavior that psychoanalysts refer to as a) catharsis. b) transference. c) delusional relationship formation. d) resistance. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the psychodynamic treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Psychodynamic Therapies 130. In the middle of telling a painful story, a client undergoing psychoanalysis suddenly "forgets" what he was saying. This behaviour might be an example of a) free association. b) resistance. c) latent content. d) transference. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the psychodynamic treatments for psychological disorders.

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Section Reference: Psychodynamic Therapies 131. According to Freud, when a patient exhibits resistance, it is the therapist's job to a) provide punishments for the resistant behaviour. b) help the patient face the problem. c) help the patient "relive" past relationships. d) provide equal resistance in return. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the psychodynamic treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Psychodynamic Therapies 132. During therapy, Larissa changes the subject every time the therapist brings up her childhood. According to psychodynamic therapists, which of the following is Larissa demonstrating? a) free association b) resistance c) transference d) catharsis Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the psychodynamic treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Psychodynamic Therapies 133. Dr. Rickerby found that his patient Maya would frequently change the subject when she started to talk about her father. While he noticed another patient, Logan, had become unreasonably agitated by Dr. Rickerby during recent sessions. What pitfalls of analysis are these patients experiencing? a) Maya is experiencing resistance and Logan is experiencing transference. b) Maya is experiencing transference and Logan is experiencing resistance. c) Maya and Logan are both experiencing resistance. d) Maya and Logan are both experiencing transference. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the psychodynamic treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Psychodynamic Therapies 134. Psychodynamic therapists argue that patients need to re-experience their past repressed

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

feelings in order to resolve internal conflicts and overcome their problems. They call this a) insight. b) repression. c) catharsis. d) resistance. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the psychodynamic treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Psychodynamic Therapies 135. To gain access into his patients' unconscious minds, Freud felt it was necessary to use methods such as interpreting transference behaviour and encouraging patients to experience catharsis because a) many patients are not in therapy voluntarily and so must be tricked into sharing their innermost thoughts. b) patients' intellectual abilities may not allow open discussion of their cognitions. c) the ego works hard to keep unconscious thoughts from surfacing. d) these methods simulate childhood, where many unconscious conflicts begin. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the psychodynamic treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Psychodynamic Therapies 136. According to Freud, forbidden desires and unconscious conflicts are more freely expressed during dreams because a) the mind is focused on rest and repair. b) all ideas within dreams are acceptable. c) psychological defenses are lowered. d) connections between thoughts are strengthened. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the psychodynamic treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Psychodynamic Therapies 137. When the patient reveals every thought that comes to mind, this is called a) transference. b) free association. c) unconscious motivation. d) a Freudian slip.

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Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the psychodynamic treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Psychodynamic Therapies 138. When Xiang lies down on his therapist’s couch, he is asked to describe thoughts as they come to mind. What therapeutic technique does this describe? a) transference b) transduction c) free association d) resistance Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the psychodynamic treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Psychodynamic Therapies 139. Liya and Hugo have sought the assistance of therapists. Liya’s therapist has asked her to play a simple game to read a word then say the first thing that comes to mind. Hugo’s therapist has asked him to keep a journal noting what he can remember from his sleep each night and any recurrences or patterns. How do the therapists’ methods differ? a) Liya’s therapist is employing free association while Hugo’s is employing dream analysis. b) Liya’s therapist is analyzing resistance, while Hugo’s is analyzing transference. c) Liya’s therapist is employing unconditional positive regard while Hugo’s is employing dream analysis. d) Liya’s therapist is analyzing transference, while Hugo’s is analyzing resistance. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the psychodynamic treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Psychodynamic Therapies 140. Which of the following opportunities for interpretation by a psychodynamic therapist is matched with the correct description? a) free association – reliving of past repressed painful experiences b) resistance – reporting a stream of thoughts and feelings without censorship c) transference – treating therapist like a significant person from the past d) catharsis – missing appointments or arriving late for appointments Answer: c

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the psychodynamic treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Psychodynamic Therapies 141. Which of the following is NOT a component of psychodynamic therapy? a) reflective listening b) working through c) therapist interpretation d) catharsis Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the psychodynamic treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Psychodynamic Therapies 142. According to psychodynamic therapies, what must a client experience to overcome their problems? a) transference b) catharsis c) resistance d) free association Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the psychodynamic treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Psychodynamic Therapies 143. Haruto has just relived a painful childhood experience in his therapy session, and he feels completely drained. However, both he and his therapist feel that he made extraordinary progress in the session. What did Haruto achieve in his therapy session? a) transference b) reaction formation c) catharsis d) resistance Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the psychodynamic treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Psychodynamic Therapies

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144. According to psychodynamic therapy, what happens after a client reaches catharsis? a) Therapy ends. b) The client requires a few sessions to help with relaxation. c) The client begins a program of medications. d) The client continues therapy to work through the issues underlying their problem. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the psychodynamic treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Psychodynamic Therapies 145. In Sybil’s last therapy session, she achieved catharsis. Now that she has faced the core issues of her problem, how will her therapy progress? a) She will not need therapy anymore. b) She will need a few sessions to help her relax. c) She will need some medication to help her sleep. d) She will need extended sessions to help her work through her issues. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the psychodynamic treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Psychodynamic Therapies 146. Anastasia’s therapist has expressed concern about Anastasia’s progress as he feels that for genuine progress to be achieved Anastasia must experience _____ in addition to intellectual insight. Following this he feels it is important for several sessions to continue so Anastasia can engage in _____. a) working through; emotional catharsis b) free association; transference c) resistance; emotional catharsis d) emotional catharsis; working through Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the psychodynamic treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Psychodynamic Therapies 147. Geraldine tells her psychoanalyst about dreaming she was being chased by a wolf. Her psychoanalyst interprets this as Geraldine feeling pressured to perform better at work. According to a psychodynamic therapist, Geraldine’s being chased by a wolf would be the ___ content of her dream. a) manifest

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b) latent c) cathartic d) dynamic Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the psychodynamic treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Psychodynamic Therapies 148. Geraldine tells her psychoanalyst about dreaming she was being chased by a wolf. Her psychoanalyst interprets this as Geraldine feeling pressured to perform better at work. The therapist’s interpretation of Geraldine’s dream would be considered the ___ content of her dream. a) manifest b) latent c) cathartic d) dynamic Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the psychodynamic treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Psychodynamic Therapies 149. What did Freud call the hidden, underlying meaning of an image from a dream? a) transference b) interpretation c) manifest content d) latent content Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the psychodynamic treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Psychodynamic Therapies 150. What is the difference between the manifest and latent content of a dream? a) The manifest content is the reported storyline of the dream, and the latent content is the hidden symbolic meaning. b) The manifest content is the part we remember when we are awake and the latent content is the parts we keep hidden in our unconscious. c) The manifest content is the sensory components of the dream, and the latent content is the verbal components of the dream. d) The manifest content is stored in our preconscious and the latent content is stored in our

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consciousness. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the psychodynamic treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Psychodynamic Therapies 151. Charlotte is participating in the psychodynamic treatment that has the most empirical support regarding efficacy. What kind of treatment is Charlotte engaged in? a) relational psychoanalytic therapy b) psychoanalysis c) short-term psychodynamic therapy d) rational-emotive therapy Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the psychodynamic treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Psychodynamic Therapies 152. What is one way that short-term psychodynamic therapy differs from psychoanalytic therapy? e) Psychoanalysis is generally considered more efficient. b) Short-term psychodynamic therapists do not use interpretation. c) Psychoanalytic therapy is more concerned with the present. d) Research indicates that psychodynamic therapy is more effective. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the psychodynamic treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Psychodynamic Therapies 153. Hayden is undergoing short-term psychodynamic therapy. Which of the following should she expect? a) The therapist will use free-association to uncover the source of her conflicts. b) The therapist will discuss any of Hayden’s issues that come up as they arise. c) The therapist will address multiple issues in a single session. d) The therapist and Hayden will center their discussions around a single issue. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Learning Objective: Describe the psychodynamic treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Psychodynamic Therapies 154. Short-term psychodynamic therapy uses ___. a) free association b) dream analysis c) dynamic focus d) catharsis Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the psychodynamic treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Psychodynamic Therapies 155. Selina is undergoing short-term psychodynamic therapy. Which of the following would be an example of topics that Selina might deal with in therapy? a) her relationship with her mother and stress she is under at work b) her substance abuse, her childhood abuse, and her fear of heights c) her fear of heights and the stress she is under at work d) her fear of losing the people she loves Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the psychodynamic treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Psychodynamic Therapies 156. When Ignacio goes to his therapy appointment, the therapist tells him he wants to focus the discussion on his fear of rejection. Ignacio’s therapist is using _____ which is part of _____ therapy. a) catharsis; short-term psychodynamic b) catharsis; relational psychoanalytic c) dynamic focus; short-term psychodynamic d) dynamic focus; relational psychoanalytic Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the psychodynamic treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Psychodynamic Therapies 157. After telling his therapist about his alcoholic father, Nehir’s therapist responds by telling him about his relationship with his own father. This would suggest that Nehir is undergoing ___.

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a) relational psychoanalytic therapy b) short-term psychodynamic therapy c) cognitive-behavioural therapy d) client-centred therapy Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the psychodynamic treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Psychodynamic Therapies 158. When Robert becomes angry talking about his wife’s family and begins to shout and call them names, his therapist, Dr. McLean, tells Robert that this behaviour is making him uncomfortable, as shouting in his own family was considered a sign of disrespect. From this exchange, we can conclude that Dr. McLean practices _____ psychoanalytic therapy. a) relational b) short-term c) cognitive-behavioural d) client-centred Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the psychodynamic treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Psychodynamic Therapies 159. What is the difference between psychodynamic therapy and relational psychoanalytic therapy? a) Psychodynamic therapy takes a long time and relational psychoanalytic therapy lasts only a few weeks. b) Psychodynamic therapy assumes the therapist is the expert and relational psychoanalytic therapy assumes the client and therapist are more equal. c) Psychodynamic therapy has empirical evidence and relational psychoanalytic therapy does not have supporting evidence. d) Psychodynamic therapy is conducted individually, and relational psychoanalytic therapy is always conducted in a group setting. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the psychodynamic treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Psychodynamic Therapies 160. Which of the following statements about psychodynamic therapy is true? a) Experiencing catharsis will create lasting changes in a person.

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b) Resistance is an undesirable event and should be avoided. c) For lasting insight to be gained, a client must examine the same issues repeatedly. d) Psychodynamic therapy is as effective as most other forms of psychotherapy. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the psychodynamic treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Psychodynamic Therapies 161. Which of the following statements about the impact Freud and his followers have had on treatment is true? a) Although the first to consider the existence and value of the unconscious, virtually no therapists identify as psychodynamic today. b) They were the first to clarify the potential of psychological, as opposed to biological, treatment. c) Their ideas were derived from many other psychological treatments. d) Their ideas have been strongly supported by empirical research. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe the psychodynamic treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Psychodynamic Therapies 162. Which of the following statements about the impact Freud and his followers have had on treatment is FALSE? a) They were the first practitioners to demonstrate the value of systematically applying both theory and techniques to treatment. b) They were the first to clarify the potential of psychological, as opposed to biological, treatment. c) Their ideas have served as a starting point for many other psychological treatments. d) Their ideas have been strongly supported by empirical research. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe the psychodynamic treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Psychodynamic Therapies 163. Which type of therapy uses classical conditioning, operant conditioning, or observational learning to treat clients? a) behavioural therapy b) cognitive therapy c) humanistic therapy

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d) psychodynamic therapy Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the behavioural treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Behavioural Therapies 164. The goal of behavioural therapy is to identify the client’s ___. a) specific problem-causing behaviours and to replace them with more adaptive behaviours b) unconscious childhood conflicts and repressed memories c) source of motivation for self-actualization d) abnormal brain functioning Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the behavioural treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Behavioural Therapies 165. Which of the following types of treatment is NOT a behavioural one? a) rational-emotive therapy b) systematic desensitization c) token economy d) aversion therapy Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the behavioural treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Behavioural Therapies 166. What is one criticism of behaviour therapy? a) Behavior therapy is too time-consuming to change behavior in a patient. b) Behavior therapy does not get to the root of the problem. c) Behavior therapy often creates different results from what was expected. d) Cognitive therapies are much more effective in creating lifelong change. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the behavioural treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Behavioural Therapies

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

167. Which of the following is the best description of the therapist’s role in behavioural treatments? a) teacher b) expert c) healer d) friend Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the behavioural treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Behavioural Therapies 168. Callie has applied for a job as a mail carrier. She has long wanted to work outdoors and get exercise while working and is very excited at the prospect of getting this position. However, she has a phobia of dogs that must be overcome if she is to take this job. Therefore, Callie is seeing a behavioural therapist to work through her phobia. Which of the following would NOT be one of the types of treatments that Callie’s therapist would use? a) client-centred therapy b) systematic desensitization c) token economy d) modelling Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the behavioural treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Behavioural Therapies 169. In systematic desensitization, a) clients are exposed to excessive amounts of whatever they are afraid of. b) clients move through a fear hierarchy while practising relaxation. c) clients are conditioned to replace previously pleasant responses with unpleasant responses from the same stimulus. d) clients are given tokens that can later be exchanged for reinforcers. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the behavioural treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Behavioural Therapies 170. Carlos is a therapist who just finished his first session with a new patient who suffers from agoraphobia. Carlos is preparing a regimen to gradually expose the patient to progressively

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more crowded places. Which of the following should he include in that regimen? a) Relaxation training that will help the patient grow and remain calm when faced with the prospect of being outside of her home. b) An evolving system of extrinsic rewards that helps the patient approach the target behaviour of going to her daughter’s school. c) A positive self-talk script that the patient can use when confronted with her own fear and negativity about her behaviour. d) Modeling practice on individuals interacting in a school environment that the patient can observe and emulate in her efforts to go to her daughter’s school. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the behavioural treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Behavioural Therapies 171. Which of the following therapies would BEST help a patient suffering from a phobia? a) A therapy regimen in which the patient is taught relaxation techniques and then exposed to imaginary and real versions of the feared object or situation. b) A therapy regimen in which the patient is exposed to a second, anxiety-causing stimulus that redirects his or her attention from the feared object or situation. c) A therapy regimen in which the patient and therapist uncover and explore the underlying anxieties that are manifesting in the phobia. d) A therapy regimen in which the patient is given unconditional positive regard when he or she confronts a feared object or situation without panicking. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the behavioural treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Behavioural Therapies 172. A woman seeks therapy because of her claustrophobia. She and her therapist construct a fear hierarchy made up of images of increasingly smaller spaces. While in a state of deep relaxation, the client looks at each image in turn, visualizing herself in each place. When she feels comfortable with one visualization, she moves on to the next. Over time, she is able to feel comfortable, even riding in small elevators. Which technique is this an example of? a) shaping b) aversion therapy c) systematic desensitization d) virtual reality therapy Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the behavioural treatments for psychological disorders.

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Section Reference: Behavioural Therapies 173. Indira is so afraid of dogs that she refuses to leave her home unless she can get directly into the car in the covered garage, Indira is now seeing a therapist who wishes to combine systematic desensitization with a technique typically used with desensitization. Which form of therapy is Indira’s therapist most likely to employ? a) virtual reality therapy b) classical conditioning c) operant conditioning d) observational learning Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the behavioural treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Behavioural Therapies 174. How do therapies based on classical conditioning differ from those based on observational learning? a) Classical conditioning focuses on extinguishing maladaptive behaviours via conditioned response, while observational learning focuses on acquiring adaptive behaviours via imitation. b) Classical conditioning discourages maladaptive behaviours via rewards, while observational learning corrects the underlying assumptions via analysis of external models. c) Classical conditioning teaches coping skills via participant modeling, while observational learning teaches these same skills via modeling therapy. d) Classical conditioning introduces rewards for adaptive behaviours via shaping, while observational learning introduces negative consequences for maladaptive behaviours via modeling. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the behavioural treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Behavioural Therapies 175. How are classical conditioning therapies and observational learning therapies similar? a) Both types of therapy expose the patient to anxiety-inducing stimuli in a safe, controlled environment. b) Both types of therapy target the underlying emotional processes that produce maladaptive behaviours. c) Both types of therapy utilize extrinsic rewards as a means of helping the patient increase adaptive behaviours. d) Both types of therapy use modeling to decrease patients’ fears about specific stimuli. Answer: a

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the behavioural treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Behavioural Therapies 176. Omar has a phobia of enclosed spaces. His fear would BEST be treated with which type of therapy? a) aversion therapy b) desensitization c) modeling therapy d) shaping Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the behavioural treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Behavioural Therapies 177. Viktoria is getting over her fear of flying by learning how to relax and then working through a hierarchy of fearful events around flying. What type of therapy does it sound like Viktoria is doing? a) aversion therapy b) rational-emotive therapy c) modelling d) systematic desensitization Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the behavioural treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Behavioural Therapies 178. Abby is maintaining a deep state of relaxation as she looks at a picture of a snake, then views a snake through a window, then watches a snake from across the room, then observes a snake at arm's length, and so on. In this example, Abby is using _________________ to decrease her snake phobia. a) cognitive-relaxation therapy b) systematic desensitization c) virtual-relaxation therapy d) progressive relaxation therapy Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the behavioural treatments for psychological disorders.

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Section Reference: Behavioural Therapies 179. Macy has a crippling fear of germs. She is increasingly restricted by this fear as she will not use public transit, sit in classes if anyone is sneezing or appears ill, go to shopping malls, etc. She recognizes that this fear is irrational and adversely affecting her life. She decides to go to a therapist. Her therapist talks about “conditioning,” “fear hierarchies,” and “reinforcement” and “punishment.” Which type of therapist is Macy seeing, and what type of therapy is the therapist likely to use with Macy’s presenting issue of a phobia? a) behavioural; systematic desensitization b) behavioural; aversion therapy c) cognitive-behavioural; systematic desensitization d) cognitive-behavioural; aversion therapy Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the behavioural treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Behavioural Therapies 180. Systematic desensitization works because of the principle of a) classical conditioning. b) operant conditioning. c) modelling. d) none of the above. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the behavioural treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Behavioural Therapies 181. Which of the following problems would be treated by using classical conditioning? a) ending self-mutilation behaviour in autistic children b) reducing tantrum behaviour in a preschooler c) helping socially anxious people become more assertive d) teaching hospitalized schizophrenics to adopt better hygienic practices Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the behavioural treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Behavioural Therapies 182. A woman suffers from anorexia and bulimia. Which combination of therapies has the

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MOST potential to help this patient? a) Anti anxiety drugs and modeling therapy to encourage a positive body image. b) Anti anxiety drugs and systematic desensitization therapy to eliminate fear of obesity. c) Antidepressant drugs and aversion therapy to stop the bulimic behaviour. d) Antidepressant drugs and shaping therapy to teach healthy eating habits. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the behavioural treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Behavioural Therapies 183. What is aversion therapy? a) A type of behaviour therapy in which an unpleasant stimulus is paired with a maladaptive behaviour to create a negative association with the target stimulus. b) A behaviour therapy technique in which a patient learns to prevent the arousal of anxiety by gradually confronting the feared stimulus while relaxed. c) A type of therapy characterized by watching and imitating models that demonstrate desirable behaviours. d) A type of therapy that combines cognitive therapy to change faulty thinking with behavioural therapy to change maladaptive behaviours. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the behavioural treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Behavioural Therapies 184. Which of the following therapies pairs an unpleasant stimulus with a maladaptive behaviour to create a negative association with the target stimulus? a) aversion therapy b) systematic desensitization c) shaping d) modeling therapy Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the behavioural treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Behavioural Therapies 185. Adrian is a 12-year-old boy with severe cognitive impairment who often bites his own skin until it bleeds. His therapist has suggested that he wear an electric shock bracelet which will deliver a mild electric shock every time he tries to bite himself. Adrian’s therapist is suggesting ___.

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a) negative punishment b) desensitization therapy c) exposure therapy d) aversion therapy Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the behavioural treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Behavioural Therapies 186. A man with a gambling addiction undergoes a form of therapy that involves receiving safe but unpleasant levels of electric shock when he reaches for a deck of cards. What type of therapeutic technique is this? a) systematic desensitization b) aversion therapy c) participant modeling d) virtual reality therapy Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the behavioural treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Behavioural Therapies 187. The goal of ___ is for to clients acquire anxiety responses to stimuli that they have been finding too attractive. a) flooding b) drug therapy c) humanistic therapy d) aversion therapy Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the behavioural treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Behavioural Therapies 188. Which condition(s) below can be treated with aversion therapy? a) self-mutilation b) smoking c) sexual deviance d) all of the above Answer: d

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the behavioural treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Behavioural Therapies 189. How does systematic desensitization differ from aversion therapy? a) Systematic desensitization aims to extinguish anxiety associated with a stimulus, while aversion therapy attempts to create anxiety. b) Systematic desensitization mitigates the underlying cause of fears, while aversion therapy teaches the client to cope with fearful situations. c) Systematic desensitization aims to improve the client’s physical functioning, while aversion therapy aims to improve emotional functioning. d) Systematic desensitization teaches the client how to overcome fear in certain situations, while aversion therapy teaches the client how to avoid fearful situations. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the behavioural treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Behavioural Therapies 190. How are systematic desensitization and aversion therapy similar to one another? a) Both therapies condition the patient to decrease maladaptive behaviours by creating new associations to replace faulty ones. b) Both therapies mitigate the underlying causes of patients’ fears in order to address the source of maladaptive behaviours. c) Both therapies teach clients how to avoid fearful situations that prompt them to engage in maladaptive behaviours. d) Both therapies eliminate maladaptive behaviour through a system of rewards aimed at a target behaviour. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the behavioural treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Behavioural Therapies 191. Which pair of therapies both focus on decreasing maladaptive behaviours through the creation of new associations with a situation or stimulus? a) systematic desensitization and aversion therapy b) shaping and modeling therapy c) modeling therapy and systematic desensitization d) aversion therapy and shaping Answer: a

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the behavioural treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Behavioural Therapies 192. Which of the following is an example of shaping? a) Romy is painfully shy. To help her overcome this, her therapist initially rewards her for any type of outgoing behaviour. Over time, the therapist rewards Romy only for specific social behaviours. b) Felix is afraid of driving. To help him overcome this, his therapist has him look at a picture of a parked car. Over time, the therapist has him drive a car for long periods in busy traffic. c) Courtney does not like birds. To help her overcome this, her therapist has her watch others interact with birds and imitate their behaviour. Over time, the therapist has Courtney approach the birds. d) Éli has difficulty accepting his failures. To help him overcome this, his therapist provides unconditional positive regard. Over time, the therapist coaches him on positive self-talk. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective: Describe the behavioural treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Behavioural Therapies 193. Dr. Mora exposes Ben to fearful stimuli in a safe environment to reduce his anxiety associated with those stimuli. She exposes Claire to unpleasant stimuli alongside a maladaptive behaviour in order to create anxiety. Based on this, which of the following is TRUE? a) Dr. Mora is treating Ben with systematic desensitization and Claire with aversion therapy. b) Dr. Mora is treating Ben with aversion therapy and Claire with shaping. c) Dr. Mora is treating Ben with shaping and Claire with modeling therapy. d) Dr. Mora is treating Ben with modeling therapy and Claire with systematic desensitization. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the behavioural treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Behavioural Therapies 194. Josie is trying to get her daughter to improve her spelling. For every ten words that are spelled correctly, Josie gives her a gold star. Ten gold stars can be exchanged for one hour of TV. Josie is using a) systematic desensitization. b) a token economy. c) aversion training. d) modelling.

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Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the behavioural treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Behavioural Therapies 195. Shilpa is a kindergarten teacher. Whenever her young students pick up their toys, hang up their jackets, or sit quietly during story time, Shilpa gives them stickers. At the end of the school day, the students can trade their stickers in for time on the computer, an extra snack, or extra play time. Which of the following best describes the type of behaviour program Shilpa is using? a) social skills training b) aversion therapy c) modelling d) token economy Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the behavioural treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Behavioural Therapies 196. Noor works at an inpatient treatment facility. In the facility the staff provide residents with coins that can be exchanged for objects and events individuals desire such as candy, extra computer, or video game time, visits away for the facility, and so on. The residents earn coins by engaging in behaviours that Nor and other staff deem appropriate, desirable, or necessary. This approach is known as _____. a) social skills training b) an objective persuasion therapeutic approach c) modelling d) a token economy Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the behavioural treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Behavioural Therapies 197. What kind of behavioural therapy is social skills training? a) classical conditioning b) operant conditioning c) modelling d) Gestalt therapy Answer: d

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the behavioural treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Behavioural Therapies 198. Chance is seeing a therapist to help him prepare for upcoming job interviews. In his therapy sessions, he practices various job interview situations and how to answer them, and he gets feedback from the therapist and models the therapist’s behaviour. What kind of therapy is Chance using? a) aversion therapy b) social skills training c) systematic desensitization d) token economy Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the behavioural treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Behavioural Therapies 199. Carl is a patient on a psychiatric ward who often hits other patients to take their desserts. His behavioural therapist has been trying to get Carl to be less aggressive by discussing with him more appropriate ways to interact with the other patients, and by showing him films of people using other ways to ask for things they want. Carl has also engaged in role playing with his therapist. Which type of therapy is Carl’s therapist using? a) aversion therapy b) systematic desensitization therapy c) rational-emotive therapy d) social skills training Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the behavioural treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Behavioural Therapies 200. When therapists demonstrate appropriate behaviour to clients and then ask the clients to imitate it and rehearse it, this is called a) successive approximations. b) modelling. c) a token economy. d) social skills training. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy

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Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the behavioural treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Behavioural Therapies 201. Shreya is very shy and cannot even bring herself to answer the phone or to order food at a fast food restaurant. Which therapy would be best for helping Shreya correct her maladaptive behaviour? a) modelling therapy b) psychodynamic therapy c) aversion therapy d) Gestalt therapy Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the behavioural treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Behavioural Therapies 202. All the following are problems with the behavioural approach EXCEPT that a) there is no evidence that people acquire psychological disorders because of improper conditioning. b) improvements in a controlled environment such as a lab might not generalize to real-world settings. c) it is difficult to test empirically. d) the behaviourist view does not take the complexity of behaviour into account. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the behavioural treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Behavioural Therapies 203. Behavioural techniques fall into three categories. Which of the following behaviour technique is matched up with the WRONG category? a) systematic desensitization – operant conditioning b) token economy – operant conditioning c) social skills training – modeling d) aversion therapy – classical conditioning Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the behavioural treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Behavioural Therapies

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

204. Which of the following is a disadvantage of behavioural therapies? a) They focus on behaviours that are difficult to measure. b) The changes are not always maintained long term. c) There is no empirical evidence for behavioural treatments. d) They take a long time to work. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the behavioural treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Behavioural Therapies 205. For which of the following problems would you NOT seek a behaviour therapist’s help? a) social deficits b) bipolar disorder c) phobias d) intellectual disabilities Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the behavioural treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Behavioural Therapies 206. Which of the following accurately summarizes the generalizability criticism of behaviour therapies? a) Newly acquired behaviours will disappear because the real world does not provide consistent reinforcement of those behaviours. b) Controlling the behaviour of another person through rewards and punishments is unethical. c) Employing behaviour techniques is only useful up to a point if it does not address the cognitive structure underlying behaviours. d) Behavioural therapies prevent patients from achieving self-actualization and self-awareness by focusing only on actions. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the behavioural treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Behavioural Therapies 207. Which of the following techniques MOST closely aligns with the cognitive approach to therapy? a) Noting the behaviours of a friend who demonstrates a desired quality. b) Keeping a journal of positive experiences throughout the day.

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c) Documenting the ways that one's irrational beliefs manifest. d) Focusing on the negative impact of one's maladaptive behaviours. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the behavioural treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Behavioural Therapies 208. Which of the following therapies would NOT fit under the category of cognitivebehavioural? a) rational-emotive therapy b) systematic desensitization c) Beck’s cognitive therapy d) mindfulness Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe cognitive-behavioural therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Cognitive-Behavioural Therapies 209. Which of these is considered a cognitive-behavioural therapy? a) rational-emotive behaviour therapy b) classical conditioning behaviour therapy c) observational learning d) psychopharmacology Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe cognitive-behavioural therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Cognitive-Behavioural Therapies 210. Zion is suffering from social anxiety disorder, and it has been recommended to him that he attend therapy. If he is seeing a cognitive-behavioural therapist, what can he expect to work on during his therapy sessions? a) his unconscious aggressive impulses toward others b) his dysfunctional thinking patterns c) his ability to relax in social situations d) his true potential as a human being Answer: b Difficulty: Medium

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe cognitive-behavioural therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Cognitive-Behavioural Therapies 211. ___ developed rational-emotive behavioural therapy. a) Aaron Beck b) Albert Bandura c) Albert Ellis d) Carl Rogers Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe cognitive-behavioural therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Cognitive-Behavioural Therapies 212. Which two common therapy goals does Ellis's rational-emotive behaviour therapy MOST directly address? a) changing emotions and behaviours b) changing thoughts and emotions c) changing relationships and thoughts d) changing behaviours and relationships Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe cognitive-behavioural therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Cognitive-Behavioural Therapies 213. Which statement is a valid conclusion about the process of rational-emotive behaviour therapy? a) If a client interprets a setback erroneously, then he will not be able to see the emotional consequences of his thoughts and behaviours. b) If a client cannot see the effects of her self-defeating thoughts, then she will not be able to replace them with helpful, rational thoughts. c) If a client experiences teasing or insensitivity from her therapist, she is likely to feel defeated and be unable to continue the therapeutic process. d) If a client disputes his own irrational beliefs, he is likely to struggle with the emotional consequences of this internal conflict. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe cognitive-behavioural therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Cognitive-Behavioural Therapies

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214. Which of the following theorists would be interested in giving clients homework assignments requiring them to observe and challenge their assumptions? a) Beck b) Ellis c) Rogers d) Perls Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe cognitive-behavioural therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Cognitive-Behavioural Therapies 215. You are attending your first session with a new therapist. On his bookshelf, you see many books written by Ellis. What type of therapy might you expect the therapist to use? a) modelling therapy b) rational-emotive therapy c) cognitive therapy d) acceptance and commitment therapy Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe cognitive-behavioural therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Cognitive-Behavioural Therapies 216. Nicholas is experiencing a great deal of conflict in his life, with friends, family and at work. He does not think he is the problem but at the same time is aware that he is the common denominator. He has decided to speak to a therapist to see if he can change this pattern of conflict. The therapist uses terms such as “irrational assumptions,” “cognitive restructuring,” and “replacing negative interpretations with positive thought.” Nicholas has found a therapist who uses what type of therapy? a) modelling therapy b) rational-emotive therapy c) cognitive therapy d) acceptance and commitment therapy Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe cognitive-behavioural therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Cognitive-Behavioural Therapies

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Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

217. Cognitive restructuring involves a) accepting that negative thoughts are simply representations of reality. b) matching thoughts and feelings as modeled by the therapist. c) reordering thoughts and timelines to be more compatible with reality. d) changing negative interpretations into more positive beliefs. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe cognitive-behavioural therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Cognitive-Behavioural Therapies 218. Darinder was asked to think about the assumptions he used in his everyday life. He was then asked to test the rationality of those assumptions, and finally to then rehearse new assumptions and apply them to his work and with his friends. Darinder is most likely in _______ therapy. a) behavioural b) rationale-emotive c) psychodynamic d) Gestalt Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe cognitive-behavioural therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Cognitive-Behavioural Therapies 219. Jaan feels that there is no point in even trying to make friends at his new school as no one ever likes him. Jaan would most likely benefit from cognitive restructuring to help him a) move toward self-recognition and self-acceptance. b) change his self-defeating thinking. c) uncover past traumatic events and inner conflicts. d) learn more functional behaviours. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe cognitive-behavioural therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Cognitive-Behavioural Therapies 220. Which type of therapy works on helping clients discover their irrational assumptions and then change those assumptions to something more positive? a) rational-emotive therapy b) Beck’s cognitive therapy c) mindfulness

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d) acceptance and commitment therapy Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe cognitive-behavioural therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Cognitive-Behavioural Therapies 221. Will and James have been ordered to six months of anger management therapy. Will’s therapist spends a great deal of time trying to help Will identify the reasons for his anger. James’s therapist spends a great deal of time teaching James refocusing exercises that combat inappropriate reactions of anger. How do these therapeutic approaches differ? a) Will’s therapist is taking a psychodynamic approach; James’s therapist is taking a cognitive approach. b) Will’s therapist is taking a cognitive approach; James’s therapist is taking a psychodynamic approach. c) Will’s therapist is taking a humanistic approach; James’s therapist is taking a psychodynamic approach. d) Will’s therapist is taking a psychodynamic approach; James’s therapist is taking a humanistic approach. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe cognitive-behavioural therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Cognitive-Behavioural Therapies 222. Tamika has seen two therapists in her battle with depression. Dr. Cole focused on helping Tamika uncover the deep-rooted sources of her feelings and behaviour. Dr. Jones focused on helping her restructure her behaviour to create her desired outcome. How do Dr. Cole’s and Dr. Jones’s methods compare? a) Dr. Cole has a psychodynamic approach; Dr. Jones has a cognitive approach. b) Dr. Cole and Dr. Jones both have a psychodynamic approach. c) Dr. Cole and Dr. Jones both have a cognitive approach. d) Dr. Cole has a humanistic approach; Dr. Jones has a traditional psychoanalytic approach. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe cognitive-behavioural therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Cognitive-Behavioural Therapies 223. Saul is extremely upset that he failed his psychology midterm, because in his mind, this means that he is not smart enough to be in university. If Saul discussed this with his rationalemotive behavioural therapist, what is most likely to be the focus of the session?

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a) Saul’s unconscious feelings of inferiority and guilt about failure b) Saul’s true potential as a human being, whether it be student or something else c) Saul’s irrational assumptions about using the midterm as proof that he does not belong d) Saul’s ability to relax during a midterm and his study strategies Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe cognitive-behavioural therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Cognitive-Behavioural Therapies 224. In a therapy session, Felicia told her instructor that she thought she should drop out of university because she failed her first psychology quiz. Her therapist told her thinking was irrational and pointed out that the grade on a single quiz is NOT indicative of how she will do in the rest of the semester. Whose approach is Felicia’s therapist probably using? a) Bandura b) Ellis c) Beck d) Rogers Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe cognitive-behavioural therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Cognitive-Behavioural Therapies 225. When Cedric tells his therapist that no one at work likes him, his therapist tells him that, for homework, he wants Cedric to start conversations with five people in his office before his next appointment. Which of the following approaches is Cedric’s therapist using? a) Bandura’s modelling approach b) Beck’s cognitive therapy approach c) Ellis’ rational-emotive therapy approach d) Roger’s client-centred therapy approach Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe cognitive-behavioural therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Cognitive-Behavioural Therapies 226. Kiley has spent her whole adolescence and adulthood on a diet and hating her body and has decided that enough is enough. Perhaps there is nothing wrong with her body at all, and she needs to change how she thinks. So now she looks in a mirror and thinks ‘fat and ugly’, ideally, she will one day be able to look in a mirror and think ‘NOT Vogue centrefold but I can see some positives – my legs are great, my skin has a nice glow, and I look fabulous in this

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outfit’. If Kiley could one day reach her goal, what would Albert Ellis call this? a) mindfulness b) acceptance and commitment therapy c) cognitive restructuring d) unconditional positive regard Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe cognitive-behavioural therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Cognitive-Behavioural Therapies 227. A therapist is using cognitive restructuring to treat his client's depression. Which common goal of therapy does this technique focus on? a) changing thoughts b) changing emotions c) changing relationships d) changing biomedical chemistry Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe cognitive-behavioural therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Cognitive-Behavioural Therapies 228. What is the difference between Ellis’ rational-emotive therapy and Beck’s cognitive therapy? a) Ellis’ focuses on changing maladaptive thoughts while Beck’s focuses on changing maladaptive behaviour. b) Ellis’ works on changing unconscious impulses while Beck’s works on changing conscious impulses. c) Ellis’ treatment is for children while Beck’s treatment is for adults. d) Ellis’ is good for treating anxiety and assertiveness issues while Beck’s is good for treating depression. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe cognitive-behavioural therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Cognitive-Behavioural Therapies 229. Ellis is to Beck as treating _____ is/are to treating _____. a) maladaptive thoughts; maladaptive behaviour. b) unconscious impulses; conscious impulses. c) children; adults.

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d) anxiety; depression. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe cognitive-behavioural therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Cognitive-Behavioural Therapies 230. Which is NOT a characteristic of Beck’s cognitive therapy? a) teaching clients to recognize biased interpretations b) teaching clients to recognize errors in logic c) teaching clients to challenge their negative thoughts d) teaching clients to face their fears Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe cognitive-behavioural therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Cognitive-Behavioural Therapies 231. Which type of therapy focuses on helping depressed clients recognize and change their dysfunctional thoughts and ways of thinking? a) rational-emotive therapy b) Beck’s cognitive therapy c) mindfulness d) acceptance and commitment therapy Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe cognitive-behavioural therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Cognitive-Behavioural Therapies 232. Dr. LaMarche is a psychotherapist who helps her clients identify their negative thoughts and errors in logic and helps them change their dysfunctional thoughts. Which of the following is most likely of Dr. LaMarche? a) She is using a client-centred therapy approach. b) She is using Beck’s cognitive therapy approach. c) She is using Ellis’ rational-emotive therapy approach. d) She is using an existential therapy approach. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Learning Objective: Describe cognitive-behavioural therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Cognitive-Behavioural Therapies 233. Which of the following is most likely something a cognitive therapist would say to a client who is suffering from depression? a) Let us see if we can identify the irrational assumptions that make you feel depressed. b) So, you think you are depressed because your mother withheld her love from you as a child? c) Let us see if we can restructure your negative thoughts to become more positive. d) Let me show you films of other people who are behaving as if they are happy. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe cognitive-behavioural therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Cognitive-Behavioural Therapies 234. Beck’s cognitive therapy is most strongly recommended for people suffering from a) depression. b) anxiety disorders. c) dissociative disorders. d) schizophrenic disorders. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe cognitive-behavioural therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Cognitive-Behavioural Therapies 235. What must be understood for cognitive therapy to be effective? a) speed of human thought b) content of human thought c) how transference occurs d) how classical conditioning works Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe cognitive-behavioural therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Cognitive-Behavioural Therapies 236. According to Beck, clients who are depressed need to learn to ___. a) identify and change their irrational assumptions b) identify and change their negative thoughts and errors in logic c) identify and change their behaviours that influence their thoughts

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d) identify and change their negative emotional reactions to events in their lives Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe cognitive-behavioural therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Cognitive-Behavioural Therapies 237. You are attending your first session with a new therapist. On his bookshelf, you see many books written by Beck. What type of therapy might you expect the therapist to use? a) modelling therapy b) rational-emotive therapy c) cognitive therapy d) acceptance and commitment therapy Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe cognitive-behavioural therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Cognitive-Behavioural Therapies 238. Sarai has just begun attending sessions with a new therapist. For a month Sarai has been experiencing constant sadness, an overwhelming sense of hopelessness, and she worthless. She has no energy and has lost all interest in her former hobbies and team sports. Sarai’s therapist uses terms like “automatic thoughts,” “challenging dysfunctional thoughts,” and “cognitive triad.” Sarai’s therapist likely practices _____. a) modelling therapy b) rational-emotive therapy c) cognitive therapy d) acceptance and commitment therapy Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe cognitive-behavioural therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Cognitive-Behavioural Therapies 239. Beck’s cognitive therapy is most like a) Ellis’s rational emotive therapy. b) Perls’s Gestalt therapy. c) Roger’s client-centred therapy. d) Skinner’s behavioural approach. Answer: a

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe cognitive-behavioural therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Cognitive-Behavioural Therapies 240. Which of the following is FALSE about the cognitive model? a) It has been found to be highly effective. b) It is difficult to determine whether irrational thoughts are a cause or an effect of maladaptive behaviour. c) Research has consistently found that there is indeed a link between maladaptive thoughts and maladaptive behaviour. d) It is only applicable to the treatment of depression and has limited use in other areas. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe cognitive-behavioural therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Cognitive-Behavioural Therapies 241. How do second-wave cognitive-behavioural therapies differ from the traditional cognitivebehavioural therapies of Beck and Ellis? a) The second-wave therapies focus on accepting problematic thoughts rather than changing them. b) The second-wave therapies take much less time to complete. c) The second-wave therapies focus more on changing behaviour and less on changing thoughts. d) The second-wave therapies incorporate psychopharmacological treatments as well as cognitive-behavioural therapies. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic and existential therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Humanistic and Existential Therapies 242. Which of the following best expresses the primary way in which second-wave cognitivebehavioural therapies differ from Ellis’ and Beck’s therapies? a) Second-wave therapies use homework assignments. b) Second-wave therapies use cognitive restructuring. c) Second-wave therapies teach clients to recognize and accept their problematic thoughts. d) Second-wave therapies focus mainly on changing behaviours that cause illogical thoughts. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium

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Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe cognitive-behavioural therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Cognitive-Behavioural Therapies 243. Mindfulness is part of a broader treatment approach called _____. a) rational-emotive therapy b) client-centred therapy c) cognitive therapy d) acceptance and commitment therapy. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe cognitive-behavioural therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Cognitive-Behavioural Therapies 244. All the following patients could be treated with mindfulness-based cognitive therapy EXCEPT a) Corbin - depression. b) Janelle - schizophrenia. c) Ichika - PTSD. d) Ralfs - personality disorders. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe cognitive-behavioural therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Cognitive-Behavioural Therapies 245. Which of the following therapies is a second-wave cognitive-behavioural therapy? a) rational-emotive therapy b) systematic desensitization c) Beck’s cognitive therapy d) mindfulness Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe cognitive-behavioural therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Cognitive-Behavioural Therapies 246. Bronwyn is suffering from road rage whenever she does her commute to and from work. She decides to seek therapy for the problem. If Bronwyn sees a second-wave cognitivebehavioural therapist, what is the focus of her therapy likely to be?

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a) recognizing her unconscious feelings of inferiority and competitiveness b) becoming mindful of her thoughts while she is raging and to learn to accept them c) to relax while she is driving and do deep breathing d) to think about her happy place, such as a private tropical beach Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe cognitive-behavioural therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Cognitive-Behavioural Therapies 247. “When you are feeling anxious, I want you to be very mindful of your thoughts and recognize them as events of the mind.” If a therapist gave you this advice, which type of therapy would you be undergoing? a) rational-emotive therapy b) cognitive therapy c) thought-focused therapy d) mindfulness-based cognitive therapy Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe cognitive-behavioural therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Cognitive-Behavioural Therapies 248. The therapy that helps clients become more mindful of their streams of thoughts is part of the broader treatment approach called a) rational-emotive therapy. b) cognitive therapy. c) acceptance and commitment therapy. d) systematic desensitization therapy. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe cognitive-behavioural therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Cognitive-Behavioural Therapies 249. How do cognitive-behavioural therapies differ from behavioural therapies? a) Cognitive-behavioural therapies are willing to accept unconscious influences on behaviour. b) Cognitive-behavioural therapies focus on what is maintaining behaviour now, not what may have caused the behaviour originally. c) Cognitive-behavioural therapies usually incorporate psychopharmacological treatments. d) Cognitive-behavioural therapies focus more on changing maladaptive thought patterns and replacing them with constructive thoughts.

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Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe cognitive-behavioural therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Cognitive-Behavioural Therapies 250. How do second-wave cognitive-behavioural therapies differ from behavioural therapies? a) Second-wave therapies focus on unconscious influences on behaviour. b) Behaviourists use cognitive restructuring. c) Behaviorists teach clients to recognize and accept their problematic thoughts. d) Second-wave therapies focus mainly on changing behaviours that cause illogical thoughts. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe cognitive-behavioural therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Cognitive-Behavioural Therapies 251. The most recent group of cognitive-behavioural therapies is called a) systematic desensitization therapies. b) rational-emotive therapies. c) cognitive therapies. d) second-wave therapies. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe cognitive-behavioural therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Cognitive-Behavioural Therapies 252. Which of the following is true of acceptance and commitment therapy? a) Clients identify irrational assumptions and change them into more constructive ways of viewing the world and themselves. b) Clients acquire the ability to perform behaviours through a process of imitation and rehearsal. c) Clients accept, rather than attempt to eliminate, their streams of thought. d) genuineness Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe cognitive-behavioural therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Cognitive-Behavioural Therapies

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253. Eloise is contemplating going for therapy but does not know which kind of therapist to choose. She believes that her problem stems from her negative thinking patterns, and that she needs to work on changing those. What kind of therapy should Eloise choose? a) psychoanalysis b) existential therapy c) behavioural therapy d) cognitive-behavioural therapy Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe cognitive-behavioural therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Cognitive-Behavioural Therapies 254. Ryuga is discussing cognitive-behavioural therapies with his psychology professor. His psychology professor points out that although it does not work for everyone, cognitivebehavioural therapy has been proven effective for treating many psychological problems. Ryuga points out one more limitation, impressing his professor. Which of the following was the limitation of cognitive-behavioural therapies that Ryuga pointed out? a) It is not always clear that maladaptive thoughts are at the centre of any given problem. b) Cognitive-behavioural therapies ignore unconscious thoughts as an influence on behaviour. c) Cognitive-behavioural therapies focus on what is wrong with the individual instead of focusing on positive qualities. d) Cognitive-behavioural therapies are very costly and take a long time. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe cognitive-behavioural therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Cognitive-Behavioural Therapies 255. All the following have been identified as limitations of cognitive-behavioural therapies EXCEPT one. Which of the following is not a genuine limitation? a) It is not always clear that maladaptive thoughts are at the centre of any given disorder. b) Disturbed cognitive functioning is found in many disorders. c) Cognitive-behavioural therapies have proven effective with only a narrow range of disorders. d) In some cases, behavioural changes might be more important than cognitive changes. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe cognitive-behavioural therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Cognitive-Behavioural Therapies

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256. Disturbed cognitive functioning is a) found in many disorders. b) not a common feature of most disorders. c) independent of behaviour. d) best treated with psychotherapy rather than with biological treatments. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe cognitive-behavioural therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Cognitive-Behavioural Therapies 257. Humanists believe that psychological disorders are rooted in a) past emotional trauma. b) learned behaviours. c) dysfunctional thinking. d) self-deceit. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe cognitive-behavioural therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Cognitive-Behavioural Therapies 258. A therapist notices that his client is wringing her hands as she shares a seemingly mundane story about her mother. He says, "It seems like this story is making you pretty uncomfortable". Which approach to therapy is BEST demonstrated here? a) humanistic b) cognitive c) behavioural d) psychodynamic Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic and existential therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Humanistic and Existential Therapies 259. What type of therapy would be most likely to use active listening as a method of exploring thoughts? a) classical conditioning b) client-centred therapy c) dream analysis d) virtual-reality therapy

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Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic and existential therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Humanistic and Existential Therapies 260. Dr. Chan always assures his clients that they can say anything to him in the safety and sanctuary of the session room. He will never judge them, and no matter what they feel or do he will always be concerned about their well-being. What quality of humanistic therapy is Dr. Chan displaying? a) unconditional positive regard b) genuineness c) empathy d) active listening Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic and existential therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Humanistic and Existential Therapies 261. Halfway through a therapy session, Song apologizes to her therapist for having difficulty expressing herself. Her therapist responds, “That’s all right. You just like to choose your words carefully.” Which quality is Song’s therapist displaying? a) unconditional positive regard b) accurate empathy c) genuineness d) assured trust and sincerity Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic and existential therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Humanistic and Existential Therapies 262. A client reports to his client-centred therapist that he has cheated on his wife. The therapist, comments on his client’s behaviour, but refrains from judging the client and his actions. This represents _________________________. a) skillful listening b) unconditional positive regard c) genuine positive acceptance

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d) accurate empathy Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic and existential therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Humanistic and Existential Therapies 263. Which of the following is a belief held by existential therapists? a) Research strongly supports the effectiveness of existential therapy. b) Research somewhat supports the effectiveness of existential therapy. c) Research dehumanizes individuals so should not be conducted. d) There is a greater need for research into the effectiveness of existential therapy. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe cognitive-behavioural therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Cognitive-Behavioural Therapies 264. Which of the following therapists might advise a client that they can be happy if they were to choose a different path in life? a) client-centred b) Gestalt c) cognitive-behavioural d) existential Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe cognitive-behavioural therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Cognitive-Behavioural Therapies 265. Fahad is suffering from depression after a series of negative events turned his life upside down. First his wife left him, then he lost his job, and he got in a car accident and broke his leg. Fahad’s therapist works with him on taking responsibility for some of the choices that led up to these negative events as a way for him to achieve personal freedom. What kind of therapy is Fahad attending? a) existential therapy b) Gestalt therapy c) client-centred therapy d) rational-emotive therapy Answer: a

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic and existential therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Humanistic and Existential Therapies 266. What therapeutic approach focuses on the optimistic belief that people are born with a natural inclination for goodness and growth? a) cognitive-behavioural b) existentialism c) behaviourism d) humanism Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic and existential therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Humanistic and Existential Therapies 267. Which of the following is considered a humanistic therapy? a) rational-emotive therapy b) mindfulness c) social skills training d) client-centred therapy Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic and existential therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Humanistic and Existential Therapies 268. Which of the following about humanistic theory is FALSE? a) Humanistic therapists encourage people to change their irrational assumptions by actively challenging the client. b) It is based on the idea that we naturally try to fulfill our potential for good, and for growth. c) It is more optimistic about human nature than existentialism is. d) Psychological dysfunction occurs when people habitually deceive themselves and create a distorted view about things that happen to them. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension

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Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic and existential therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Humanistic and Existential Therapies 269. What is an advantage of humanistic and existential therapies? a) They have plenty of supportive evidence for their effectiveness. b) They focus on ways that humans can better themselves by changing behaviour. c) They emphasize factors that are important for positive functioning. d) They have many different therapists from many diverse backgrounds. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic and existential therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Humanistic and Existential Therapies 270. Takumi has spent his whole life lying to himself, and it has led to many problems as a result. He needs to learn to see himself for what he is, and then he needs to accept himself as that. What kind of therapy would help Takumi accomplish this goal? a) psychoanalysis b) behavioural therapy c) cognitive-behavioural therapy d) humanistic and existential therapies Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic and existential therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Humanistic and Existential Therapies 271. Quinn has started seeing a humanistic therapist to help her deal with her depression. What is likely to be the goal of their therapy sessions? a) to help Quinn to look at her situation more accurately and acceptingly b) to uncover the unconscious conflicts that are leading to Quinn’s symptoms c) to help Quinn change her maladaptive behaviour d) to make Quinn accountable and responsible for her own happiness Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic and existential therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Humanistic and Existential Therapies

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272. Nadia has been seeing a humanist therapist. She feels a strong connection to her therapist and feels that he genuinely listens, is empathic, warm, and accepting. Nadia feels that this ongoing interaction has helped her to accept her own emotions, thoughts, and feelings. She knows that the criticism of this type of therapy is that it _____, but she does not care. She feels better. a) focuses too much on unconscious aggressive impulses b) is largely unsupported by empirical research c) is only effective in combination with medications d) takes years to see improvements. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic and existential therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Humanistic and Existential Therapies 273. Rebecca is sitting with her therapist talking about why she ran away from home when she was 14 years old. Rebecca says she had no idea what to do at the time, then she asks her therapist what he would have done. The therapist replies honestly that he likely would have called the police first, but that he would have considered running. Her therapist is demonstrating a) genuineness. b) empathy. c) unconditional positive regard. d) active listening. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic and existential therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Humanistic and Existential Therapies 274. The humanistic practice of genuineness is similar to the behavioural technique of modeling therapy in that a) genuineness involves participant modeling, in which the client practices honest sharing in incremental steps. b) through genuineness, humanistic therapists act as models of self-trust and honest selfexpression. c) genuineness involves the use of negative associations to discourage maladaptive behaviours. d) through genuineness, humanistic therapists demonstrate ways to alleviate phobias. Answer: b

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic and existential therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Humanistic and Existential Therapies 275. Rogers said that therapy must include three important qualities: a) Existential questioning, acceptance, unconditional positive regard. b) Cognitive restructuring, reflection, rehearsal. c) Unconditional positive regard, accurate empathy, genuineness. d) Transference, resistance, dream interpretation. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic and existential therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Humanistic and Existential Therapies 276. Which of the following is NOT an important quality that Rogers believed therapists should display throughout therapy? a) skillful frustration b) genuineness c) accurate empathy d) unconditional positive regard Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic and existential therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Humanistic and Existential Therapies 277. Which of the following would be an example of a therapist demonstrating accurate empathy? a) Dan notices his client’s shaking hands, nervous gestures, and overall look of unease and says, "You were scared by that event". b) Dan notices his client is becoming unsettled talking about her past experiences and assures her that she acted correctly. c) Dan recognizes that his client is scared and tells him, "Everyone is scared at some point in their lives, and it is normal". d) Dan recognizes his client’s discomfort with the topic, so he recounts a personal experience of his own on a similar topic. Answer: a

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic and existential therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Humanistic and Existential Therapies 278. Dr. Ng is talking to one of his clients, who is describing her latest experience with depression. She explains that she was stressed and upset, and no matter what she tried everything went wrong. Dr. Ng confirms, "You were going through a stressful time, and it added to your feelings of loneliness". This is an example of a) accurate empathy. b) empathy. c) conditional positive regard. d) genuineness. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic and existential therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Humanistic and Existential Therapies 279. Hitomu’s therapist is warm and accepting toward him. For example, when Hitomu told his therapist that he cheated on an exam, his therapist said, "You must have been very anxious to do well". What quality of therapy would Carl Roger’s say Hitomu’s therapist is demonstrating? a) accurate empathy b) unconditional positive regard c) genuineness d) self-actualization Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic and existential therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Humanistic and Existential Therapies 280. After Maxime tells his therapist that he is seems to worry about a lot of unimportant things, his therapist responds with, “So you feel these things shouldn’t upset you, but they do anyway.” Which quality is Maxime’s therapist displaying? a) unconditional positive regard b) assured trust and sincerity c) accurate empathy d) genuineness Answer: c

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic and existential therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Humanistic and Existential Therapies 281. During a client-centered therapy session, Jacinda says, "The bride looked beautiful in her dress, and I couldn’t understand why I felt angry about that. I was crying because I was happy for her but also really mad." Which of the following is her therapist’s expected response? a) "So, seeing the bride triggered feelings of great irritation". b) "Please go on". c) "And anger means what to you"? d) "Did you challenge this negative thought pattern at that time"? Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic and existential therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Humanistic and Existential Therapies 282. Which of the following statements is most likely to be said by a Rogerian therapist? a) You did a wonderful thing; you are a nice person. b) You are going to have trouble with people if you continue to do that. c) I want you to think only positive thoughts about yourself. d) It sounds like you believe that you should be happy, and you do not know why you’re unhappy. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic and existential therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Humanistic and Existential Therapies 283. Radka tells her client-centred therapist that she is very afraid of her ex-husband whenever he flies into a rage and cannot stand him. Her therapist then states, “So you dislike your husband and are afraid of him.” This is an example of _________________________. a) skillful listening b) unconditional positive regard c) genuineness d) empathy Answer: a

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic and existential therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Humanistic and Existential Therapies 284. Tandy has been seeing Dr. Carol for four weeks. Over the past week she has relapsed into the negative thinking that compelled her to seek Dr. Carol’s assistance. Tandy is ashamed and hesitant to speak honestly with Dr. Carol because she anticipates his disappointment. If Dr. Carol takes a humanistic approach, what is his likely reaction? a) Dr. Carol will assure Tandy that he does not judge her for her actions and invite her to discuss them with him. b) Dr. Carol will advise Tandy that she has acted inappropriately, and she has not done the right thing by waiting so long to see him. c) Dr. Carol will question Tandy’s resistance to his attempts to interpret the underlying causes of her anxieties. d) Dr. Carol will ask Tandy to free associate about the word "shame" to evaluate the core cause of Tandy’s relapse. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic and existential therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Humanistic and Existential Therapies 285. Jared was spearheading a group session. While in a round table, Jared immediately became aware of Janet’s discomfort when her shoulder twitched. Jared in turn offered a story about a real situation in which he had felt uncomfortable and intimidated in an intimate setting. What can be inferred about Jared from this particular session? a) Jared employs empathy and genuineness with his clients. b) Jared has unconditional positive regard and empathy for his clients. c) Jared encourages free association and active listening in his sessions. d) Jared employs REBT and cognitive restructuring in his sessions. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic and existential therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Humanistic and Existential Therapies 286. Gestalt therapy was originated by a) Carl Rogers. b) Fritz Perls. c) Abraham Maslow.

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d) Albert Ellis. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic and existential therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Humanistic and Existential Therapies 287. Gestalt therapy has recently been included in a group of treatments known as ___. a) mindfulness-based therapies b) acceptance and commitment therapies c) client-centred therapies d) emotion-focused therapies Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe cognitive-behavioural therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Cognitive-Behavioural Therapies 288. Which of the following things would Gestalt therapy have in common with rational-emotive therapy? a) intentionally frustrating clients b) challenging clients’ perceptions c) imposing rules on the therapeutic process d) providing unconditional positive regard Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic and existential therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Humanistic and Existential Therapies 289. Which of the following is NOT a technique that a Gestalt therapist would use? a) role playing b) exercises and games c) skillful frustration d) offering unconditional positive regard Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension

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Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic and existential therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Humanistic and Existential Therapies 290. Ben is going for therapy because of his depression. The therapist encourages him to fully express his emotions, even to an extreme degree. The therapist is probably a) using rational-emotive therapy to help the client identify his irrational emotions. b) using Gestalt Therapy to teach the client how to accept feelings that previously made him uncomfortable. c) using Freudian therapy to facilitate free association. d) using Rogerian therapy to encourage genuineness. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic and existential therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Humanistic and Existential Therapies 291. Juan’s therapist consistently refuses to meet Juan’s expectations and demands. She is trying to help him gain insight into how often he tries to manipulate those around him to meet his own needs. To do this, Juan’s therapist is using a technique known as _____ which is part of _____ therapy. a) role playing; behavioural b) skillful frustration; Gestalt c) rules; humanist d) role playing; Gestalt Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic and existential therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Humanistic and Existential Therapies 292. Aldiyar is in therapy to deal with the depression that has encompassed him since the death of his mother last year. He had never gotten along with his mother, but they were just starting to become friends right before she died. To deal with the guilt of their lost time together, the therapist has Adliyar pretend that his mother is sitting in the next chair and has him talk to her. What technique is the therapist using with Aldiyar? a) skillful frustration b) genuineness c) role playing d) rules Answer: c

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic and existential therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Humanistic and Existential Therapies 293. Tobias is in therapy and has been told that he cannot make any statement that are not “I” statements. For example, Tobias can say “I am very angry.” But he cannot say, “This session is making me angry.” Why is the therapist using rules with Tobias? a) The therapist wants to establish dominance so Tobias will listen to her. b) The therapist is creating structure so Tobias will trust her. c) The therapist wants Tobias to examine himself closely. d) The therapist structures each session in the exact same way for every client. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic and existential therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Humanistic and Existential Therapies 294. Which of the following is NOT true of existential therapies? a) They encourage clients to accept responsibility for their lives and problems. b) They have recently been included in a group of treatments referred to as emotion-focused. c) They help clients recognize their freedom to choose a different path. d) They try to create an atmosphere of honesty, shared learning, and growth. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic and existential therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Humanistic and Existential Therapies 295. Which of the following is an example of a client benefitting from client-centered therapy? a) Xavier finds a real human connection with his therapist that allows him to see himself clearly for the first time in his life. b) Malik finds self-understanding through the unlocking of his inner psyche and the dismantling of his defensive walls. c) Makayla’s inner monologue is revealed as the source of her stymied life and the journey to redefining her perceptions. d) Laila comes to understand how her negative thoughts have created an unpleasant attitude that permeates her entire life. Answer: a

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic and existential therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Humanistic and Existential Therapies 296. Terrance is deciding which psychotherapeutic specialty to choose. He believes that every person has potential that can be met. He wants to be able to share his own experiences and positivity with others to help them find their way through their struggles. Which type of therapy would you suggest Terrance specialize in, and why? a) Terrance should specialize in humanistic therapy because he shares the core qualities of Rogerian therapists. b) Terrance should specialize in traditional psychoanalysis his own positivity probably came from his childhood and this life experience will allow him to help others to change their attitudes. c) Terrance should specialize in short-term psychodynamic therapy because he has modern attitudes. d) Terrance should specialize in cognitive therapy because it will allow him to use his own life experience to help others change the emotions driving their irrational beliefs. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic and existential therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Humanistic and Existential Therapies 297. What is the difference between Rogers’ client-centred therapy and Gestalt therapy? a) Gestalt therapy doesn’t strive to move clients toward self-recognition and self-acceptance. b) Gestalt therapy takes much longer. c) Gestalt therapy challenges and frustrates the client. d) Gestalt therapy incorporates different kinds of therapy, such as art therapy and pet therapy. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic and existential therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Humanistic and Existential Therapies 298. What is one reason that there is little evidence supporting the effectiveness of Gestalt therapy and client-centred therapy? a) It is not an effective treatment. b) Few researchers have been interested in this type of therapy. c) Supporters of this type of therapy do not believe that experimental methods can properly test its effectiveness.

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d) There have been few individuals willing to participate in these studies. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic and existential therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Humanistic and Existential Therapies 299. Controlled research on client-centred therapy has found that ______________________. a) client-centred therapy is of limited effectiveness b) there is some evidence supporting the effectiveness of client-centred therapy c) there is a considerable amount of empirical support for the therapeutic effectiveness of genuineness d) therapeutic outcomes such as self-actualization and self-awareness are not difficult to test scientifically Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic and existential therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Humanistic and Existential Therapies 300. Imagine a woman is seeking therapy to help her manage anxiety. Which of the following BEST demonstrates how behaviour therapies may be more beneficial than humanistic or cognitive-behavioural therapies in this case? a) While humanistic or cognitive-behavioural therapies would likely focus on coping with the existing anxiety, behaviour therapies could be used to eliminate the destructive thoughts at the root of the anxiety. b) Unlike humanistic or cognitive-behavioural therapies, behaviour therapies eliminate the need for a meaningful client-therapist relationship, which allows the anxious behaviour to be the true focus of therapy. c) While humanistic or cognitive-behavioural therapies would likely involve a time-consuming focus on the cause of the anxiety, behaviour therapies could more efficiently replace the anxious behaviours with more adaptive behaviours. d) Unlike humanistic or cognitive-behavioural therapies, behaviour therapies could create unpleasant associations with the anxious behaviour, which leads to a more immediate, lasting effect. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic and existential therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Humanistic and Existential Therapies

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301. When the therapist sees multiple clients at the same time, this is called a) a self-help group. b) couple therapy. c) community treatment programs. d) group therapy. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe commonly used formats of therapy. Section Reference: Formats of Therapy 302. Group therapy is effective for all the following reasons EXCEPT that a) members often provide each other with models of appropriate behaviour. b) members discover others who have similar problems. c) members develop feelings of self-worth by helping others. d) members feel more comfortable discussing issues without any trained professionals judging them. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe commonly used formats of therapy. Section Reference: Formats of Therapy 303. In what way might family therapy be helpful in treating an individual's disorder? a) It helps families cope with their emotions surrounding the disorder. b) It identifies similar interests and goals among family members. c) It teaches family members how to provide a supportive environment. d) It shows the patient that the entire family cares about his/her mental health. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe commonly used formats of therapy. Section Reference: Formats of Therapy 304. A teenager recently diagnosed with schizophrenia suffers from delusions that his parents are purposely sabotaging his future. How might family therapy be helpful to this young man? a) It could help his parents separate their own mental health from his. b) It could identify short- and long-term goals that he shares with his parents. c) It could teach him that both of his parents care about his mental health. d) It could help his parents learn supportive, beneficial ways to interact with him.

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Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe commonly used formats of therapy. Section Reference: Formats of Therapy 305. Georgia is attending a therapy session for people who have been victims of violent crimes. There are roughly a dozen people in the group, and it is led by a clinical psychologist, who directs the members of the group. What kind of therapy is Georgia attending? a) self-help group b) group therapy c) family therapy d) couple therapy Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe commonly used formats of therapy. Section Reference: Formats of Therapy 306. After her divorce, Raegan joined a group of other divorced women. The group is led by a clinical psychologist, who directs the members of the group. Reagan finds all the following helpful about the group EXCEPT one of the options below. Which is INCORRECT? a) She learns to express her feelings. b) She learns that others have similar problems. c) In this atmosphere of solidarity, she learns to take risks and accept criticism. d) Since negative criticism is not allowed, she has gained self-confidence. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe commonly used formats of therapy. Section Reference: Formats of Therapy 307. A single mother struggling to keep her family afloat seeks psychiatric treatment for depression. She demonstrates several symptoms, so the psychiatrist prescribes antidepressants and asks her to see him again in six weeks. What effective alternative to medication could the psychiatrist have recommended instead? a) virtual reality therapy b) parent support group c) modeling therapy d) psychosurgery Answer: b

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe commonly used formats of therapy. Section Reference: Formats of Therapy 308. Group therapy originated because of a) demands for cheaper forms of therapy. b) demands for time-saving alternatives to individual therapy. c) a loss of confidence in healthcare professionals. d) the emerging emphasis on humanistic therapy. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe commonly used formats of therapy. Section Reference: Formats of Therapy 309. Liam has an addiction to alcohol, and he has had no success in handling this problem on his own. He is considering attending Alcoholics Anonymous because this program uses a __________ format that Liam believes will be helpful to him. a) group therapy b) aversion therapy c) individual therapy d) biomedical therapy Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe commonly used formats of therapy. Section Reference: Formats of Therapy 310. Isaiah has been having difficulties with his parents, who are both emotionally controlling. Every Thursday Isaiah meets with a therapist. His sister is usually there with him, as well as a number of other people who struggle with controlling family relationships. What type of therapy is Isaiah involved in? a) group therapy b) a self-help group c) family therapy d) community therapy Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe commonly used formats of therapy.

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Section Reference: Formats of Therapy 311. Kajetan has been working through the grief of her husband’s death. She needs structure and wants to talk to someone who can help. Her friends and family have tried to support her, but she does not feel like anyone really understands. What would be the BEST suggestion you could provide for Kajetan? a) Kajetan should consider going to group therapy to connect with other people who have also lost a spouse. b) Kajetan should consider online counseling, as this will allow her to talk to a professional without the discomfort of face-to-face therapy. c) Kajetan should consider going to a psychiatrist who can correct the underlying chemical imbalance prolonging her depression. d) Kajetan should consider family therapy in order to work though the problems she is having with her other family members. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe commonly used formats of therapy. Section Reference: Formats of Therapy 312. Olivier is a new member of the self-help group Alcoholics Anonymous (AA). Over the past few weeks, Olivier has discovered that many other people have similar problems; this realization that he is NOT alone is helping him through his recovery. Which of the following curative features of group therapy is Olivier responding to? a) guidance b) group cohesiveness c) universality d) catharsis Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe commonly used formats of therapy. Section Reference: Formats of Therapy 313. Romy is a new member of Narcotics Anonymous (NA). She listens as other members tell of their experiences and how they overcame their challenges. Romy hears many strategies that might help her fight her addiction to drugs. Which curative feature of group therapy is Romy responding to? a) guidance b) universality c) identification d) altruism Answer: a

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe commonly used formats of therapy. Section Reference: Formats of Therapy 314. Which of the following is an alternative to individual therapy? a) existential therapy b) psychodynamic therapy c) family therapy d) client-centred therapy Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe commonly used formats of therapy. Section Reference: Formats of Therapy 315. Which of the following is true about family therapy? a) The entire family meets with the therapist at the same time. b) The family is treated as one unit, rather than as a group of individuals. c) Family therapists tend to use an eclectic approach. d) Family therapy is not generally as effective as individual therapy. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe commonly used formats of therapy. Section Reference: Formats of Therapy 316. In what way is family therapy like couple therapy? a) They both work with people who are part of a larger unit, and the goal is to improve the unit. b) They both focus on one problematic individual who is part of a larger unit. c) They both work by challenging individuals to justify their actions. d) They both are more effective if applied with a cognitive-behavioural therapist. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe commonly used formats of therapy. Section Reference: Formats of Therapy 317. Approximately ___ of couples in couple’s therapy display improved marital functioning. a) one-fourth

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b) one-third c) half d) two-thirds Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe commonly used formats of therapy. Section Reference: Formats of Therapy 318. When Josie and Davad entered couples’ therapy, the therapist wanted to talk to both at the same time. Josie and Davad wanted to discuss the issues that caused them to argue and wanted the therapist to help them resolve those issues. Instead, the therapist focused on a) how Josie and Davad’s arguments were Josie’s fault because of her pessimistic style of interaction. b) problematic communication or interaction patterns established by Josie and Davad that repeated during these disagreements. c) how Josie and Davad should focus on personal fulfillment for their own sakes and for the sake of the relationship. d) Josie and Davad’s irrational thinking, pointing out that conflict exists in all relationships. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe commonly used formats of therapy. Section Reference: Formats of Therapy 319. Greg and his partner have been going through a rough patch lately and have decided to seek therapy. What kind of therapy will they be attending? a) self-help group b) group therapy c) family therapy d) couple therapy Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe commonly used formats of therapy. Section Reference: Formats of Therapy 320. Gia has a problem with alcohol and has decided to seek help. She finds a local Alcoholics Anonymous and attends one of their meetings, just to check it out. She notices that there are roughly a dozen people at the meeting, all of them alcoholics, and that there is no counsellor. What kind of therapy would this be considered? a) self-help group

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b) community mental health treatment c) family therapy d) group therapy Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe commonly used formats of therapy. Section Reference: Formats of Therapy 321. Which of the following is NOT a reason for the increased popularity of self-help groups? a) People have lost confidence in the ability of clinicians to help with their problems. b) People find a group less threatening than individual therapy. c) People feel that group therapy is less stigmatizing than individual therapy. d) Research has shown group therapy to be more effective than individual therapy. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe commonly used formats of therapy. Section Reference: Formats of Therapy 322. Which of the following is NOT a reason why self-help groups are so popular? a) They address a wide variety of issues. b) Research has proven their effectiveness. c) Many participants have lost confidence in the ability of clinicians to help with their problem. d) They are less threatening and stigmatizing than traditional therapy. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe commonly used formats of therapy. Section Reference: Formats of Therapy 323. What is the difference between group therapy and a self-help group? a) Group therapy lasts longer. b) Group therapy requires more of a commitment. c) Group therapy is for more serious problems. d) Group therapy is led by a professional clinician. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe commonly used formats of therapy.

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Section Reference: Formats of Therapy 324. How are group therapy and self-help groups alike? a) Both are based on psychodynamic principles. b) Both have empirical support regarding their effectiveness. c) Both are made of people with similar problems who help and support one another. d) Both are led by a professional clinician. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe commonly used formats of therapy. Section Reference: Formats of Therapy 325. According to family systems theory, a) families are often disrupted by the maladaptive behaviour of an individual member. b) families actively conspire to make one person the scapegoat for all the family’s problems. c) many of the problems in modern society are caused by a breakdown of the traditional family system. d) for one family member to change, the family system must be changed. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe commonly used formats of therapy. Section Reference: Formats of Therapy 326. Community based treatments include a) community health centres, community day programs and group homes. b) community group therapy, homeless shelters, and group homes. c) community health centres, homeless shelters, and individual intervention. d) community day programs, homeless shelters, and substance abuse rehabilitation. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe commonly used formats of therapy. Section Reference: Formats of Therapy 327. Community workers identify several types of prevention. Which type of prevention is appropriately matched to its description? a) primary prevention >> improve community functioning and policies b) secondary prevention >> providing effective treatment immediately so that moderate to severe disorders do not become chronic

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c) tertiary prevention >> government intervention d) quaternary prevention >> detecting and treating psychological disorders in the early stages Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe commonly used formats of therapy. Section Reference: Formats of Therapy 328. Gabrielle is making a sign for the new community mental health treatment centre that is opening, and she can put one word only on the sign. What would be the best single word to summarize the goal of the community mental health treatment centre? a) redemption b) cooperation c) prevention d) rehabilitation Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe commonly used formats of therapy. Section Reference: Formats of Therapy 329. Adrian has schizophrenia. He lives in a group home and attends a community day program. The function of _____ is _____. a) community treatment; prevention b) mental health constraints; control c) community care: rehabilitation d) overseeing mental health; coping Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe commonly used formats of therapy. Section Reference: Formats of Therapy 330. At the secondary prevention level of community treatment, the goal is to a) detect and treat psychological disorders at the preliminary stages before they reach serious levels. b) provide effective treatment immediately so that moderate or severe disorders do not become long-term problems. c) improve community functioning and policies. d) prevent psychological disorders altogether. Answer: a

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe commonly used formats of therapy. Section Reference: Formats of Therapy 331. The Thunder Bay Board of Education has just launched a smoking awareness program to try to reduce the number of students who start smoking. This is an example of ___ prevention. a) primary b) secondary c) tertiary d) educational Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe commonly used formats of therapy. Section Reference: Formats of Therapy 332. Manato works in a community mental health treatment centre at the secondary level of prevention. Which of the following could be Manato’s responsibility? a) teaching police how to identify people with psychological disorders b) distributing medications to homeless people with schizophrenia c) improving the school lunch program d) identifying preschools in need of more staff and resources Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe commonly used formats of therapy. Section Reference: Formats of Therapy 333. Dr. Brently works in a community mental health treatment centre at the primary level of prevention. Which of the following could be Dr. Brently’s responsibility? a) detecting psychological disorders b) treating psychological disorders c) improving community functioning and policies on childcare d) giving priority to chronic problems Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe commonly used formats of therapy. Section Reference: Formats of Therapy

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334. What is the difference between the secondary and tertiary types of prevention identified by community workers? a) Secondary prevention consists of efforts to improve community functioning, while tertiary prevention consists of detecting and treating problems in the early stages. b) Secondary prevention involves detecting and treating problems in the early stages, while tertiary prevention involves treating current problems. c) Secondary prevention provides treatment to current problems, while tertiary prevention provides efforts to prevent problems altogether. d) Secondary prevention aims to prevent problems altogether, while tertiary prevention provides efforts to improve community functioning. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe commonly used formats of therapy. Section Reference: Formats of Therapy 335. Which of the following would be an example of primary prevention? a) A new walk-in clinic is built to reduce people’s reliance on hospital emergency rooms. b) After it becomes clear that Simon’s “social drinking” is problem drinking, Simon’s partner gets rid of all the alcohol in the home, so their teenagers cannot start experimenting. c) Morgan is enrolled in a diabetes support group to assist her in managing her condition. d) Various associations attempting to reduce spinal cord injuries lobby the government to pass bicycle helmet laws for children. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe commonly used formats of therapy. Section Reference: Formats of Therapy 336. What is the goal of tertiary prevention? a) to reach out to clients rather than waiting for them to reach out b) to detect and treat psychological disorders in the early stages c) to provide effective treatment so serious disorders do not become chronic d) to improve community functioning and policies Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe commonly used formats of therapy. Section Reference: Formats of Therapy 337. Research that looks at the effectiveness of various kinds of treatments are known as

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a) therapy outcome studies. b) clinically significant inquiries. c) prognostic examinations. d) treatment effectiveness research. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize research on the effectiveness of therapy Section Reference: Does Therapy Work? 338. Which of the following is NOT one of the four questions that is typically asked in a therapy outcome study? a) Are specific therapies especially effective for specific problems? b) How can therapy be improved upon? c) How effective are therapies? d) Is therapy equally effective across race and gender? Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize research on the effectiveness of therapy Section Reference: Does Therapy Work? 339. Dr. Koskinen is examining the effectiveness of a new type of cognitive therapy to treat anxiety. He compares clients who use the new therapy to clients who do not. What kind of study is this? a) clinical significance b) therapy outcome study c) treatment prognosis d) therapeutic significance Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize research on the effectiveness of therapy Section Reference: Does Therapy Work? 340. Dr. Schmid is a highly successful therapist. Which of the following would she NOT do? a) try to build a sense of self-mastery in clients b) provide feedback to clients c) focuses on a particular orientation d) help clients focus on own thoughts and behaviour Answer: c

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize research on the effectiveness of therapy Section Reference: Does Therapy Work? 341. According to a meta-analysis of 375 separate controlled studies on the effectiveness of various therapies, results showed that the average therapy client was better off than ___ of untreated control clients. a) 50% b) 65% c) 75% d) 90% Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize research on the effectiveness of therapy. Section Reference: Does Therapy Work? 342. Which of the following statements about the effectiveness of therapies is true? a) People who receive therapy are better off than 75% of people in the non-treatment control group. b) Therapy is effective in the short term but tends to wear off in about 6 months. c) It is very difficult to study the effectiveness of therapeutic outcomes because of patient confidentiality. d) People in therapy improve about one-third of the time. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize research on the effectiveness of therapy Section Reference: Does Therapy Work? 343. What is NOT a goal of the evidence-based treatment movement? a) to propose treatment guidelines for effective treatments b) to communicate proven therapies to clinicians c) to identify which therapies are proven effective for specific disorders d) to simplify the integration and eclecticism among psychotherapists Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize research on the effectiveness of therapy Section Reference: Does Therapy Work?

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344. Which of the following types of therapy is most effective at treating specific phobias? a) psychodynamic therapy b) behaviour therapy c) humanistic therapy d) drug therapy Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize research on the effectiveness of therapy Section Reference: Does Therapy Work? 345. Ameer suffers from an intense fear of snakes. It has gotten so extreme that she cannot go outside in the summer for fear that a snake will be there. Which type of therapy should Ameer try? a) behaviour therapy b) cognitive-behavioural therapy c) existential therapy d) drug therapy Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize research on the effectiveness of therapy Section Reference: Does Therapy Work? 346. Ilya must fly to Europe for work but has a fear of flying. Which of the following would be most effective in helping Ilya overcome his fear? a) humanistic therapy b) cognitive-behavioural therapy c) behavioural therapy d) group therapy Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe commonly used formats of therapy. Section Reference: Does Therapy Work? 347. Which of the following types of therapy is most effective at treating generalized anxiety disorder and panic disorder? a) psychodynamic therapy b) humanistic therapy

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c) cognitive-behavioural therapy d) drug therapy Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize research on the effectiveness of therapy Section Reference: Does Therapy Work? 348. Katerina has been diagnosed with depression. Which of the following would likely be most effective in treating Katerina? a) humanistic therapy b) cognitive-behavioural therapy c) drug therapy d) drug therapy and cognitive-behavioural therapy combined Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe commonly used formats of therapy. Section Reference: Does Therapy Work? 349. Franklyn has been diagnosed with schizophrenia. Which of the following would be most effective in helping Franklyn control his symptoms? a) drug therapy b) cognitive-behavioural therapy c) behavioural therapy d) humanistic therapy Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe commonly used formats of therapy. Section Reference: Does Therapy Work? 350. Which of the following is NOT a goal of culture-sensitive and gender-sensitive therapy? a) teaching clients how to change to fit in with either the ethnic minority group, or the maleoriented society b) increasing awareness of the impact of both the minority and majority cultures on the person’s behaviours and self-concept c) helping clients express suppressed anger and pain d) helping clients achieve a bicultural (or gender) balance that works for them Answer: a

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize research on the effectiveness of therapy Section Reference: Does Therapy Work? 351. _____ seek to address the unique issues faced by members of cultural majority groups by _____. a) Cultural dynamic therapies; helping clients achieve a personal bicultural balance b) Culture-specific therapies; helping clients assimilate with majority culture c) Global-cultural therapies; helping clients assimilate with majority culture d) Culture-sensitive therapies; helping clients achieve a personal bicultural balance Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize research on the effectiveness of therapy Section Reference: Does Therapy Work? 352. Heidi is having a difficult time coping with the stress of her daily life. She juggles being ‘mom’ with her career all the time, and although she has the support of her husband, her parents do not agree with her choice to work. If Heidi wanted to see a therapist to help her with the pressures of being female, she should seek a) social skills training. b) mindfulness. c) feminist therapy. d) culture-sensitive therapy. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize research on the effectiveness of therapy Section Reference: Does Therapy Work? 353. Which statement is most accurate when considering gender and therapy in today’s Western culture? a) Both men and women have increased demands as a result of their multiple roles. b) Neither sex has increased demands as a result of their multiple roles. c) Men typically have more demands as a result of their multiple roles. d) Women typically have more demands as a result of their multiple roles. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize research on the effectiveness of therapy Section Reference: Does Therapy Work?

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354. Regardless of where they live in the world, which of the following is true of racial minorities who attend therapy compared to members of majority groups? a) They are more likely to use mental health services. b) They typically show less improvement. c) They stay in therapy longer. d) They are more likely to try drug therapy. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize research on the effectiveness of therapy Section Reference: Does Therapy Work? 355. Huan is from a racial minority group and is suffering from depression. Which of the following is NOT likely to be his experience with therapy? a) He will make less use of mental health services than someone who is not a racial minority. b) He will have difficulties communicating his thoughts to his therapist due to a language barrier. c) He will stop therapy sooner than someone who is not a racial minority. d) He will show less improvements in therapy than someone who is not a racial minority. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize research on the effectiveness of therapy Section Reference: Does Therapy Work? 356. Which of the following is NOT true regarding members of ethic or minority groups and therapy? a) They show less improvement in clinical treatment. b) They make less use of mental health services. c) They prefer to see a therapist of their own ethnic origin or minority group. d) They stop therapy sooner than members of majority groups. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize research on the effectiveness of therapy Section Reference: Does Therapy Work? 357. Dr. Sato is a therapist who is keeping up with modern times. If this is true, then in what way should her therapy be progressing? a) She should be using more drugs with her clients. b) She should be focusing on the health of the body along with the health of the mind.

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c) She should be ending her therapy career and begin teaching others what she has learned. d) She should specialize in a specific psychotherapeutic perspective. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize research on the effectiveness of therapy Section Reference: Does Therapy Work? 358. Dr. Kobayashi is a therapist who is keeping up with modern times. If this is true, then in what way should his therapy be progressing? a) He should use more drugs with his clients. b) He should enlarge his practice to include a greater number of group therapy sessions. c) He should become part of the evidence-based treatment movement. d) He should specialize in a specific psychotherapeutic perspective. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize research on the effectiveness of therapy Section Reference: Does Therapy Work? 359. Which of the following is the best description of what an eclectic therapist might do? a) Avoid interpretation because it is ineffective. b) Use electroshock therapy on clients with moderate depression. c) Use a variety of treatment approaches based on the needs of the client. d) Avoid medications because they interfere with a patient's level of consciousness in therapy. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize research on the effectiveness of therapy Section Reference: Does Therapy Work? 360. Józef used several approaches in his practice. He leaned heavily toward behavioural approaches when dealing with patients with phobias but used more cognitive-behavioural approaches when working with patients with panic disorder or generalized anxiety disorder or depression. He also referred his patients to a physician for drug therapy in cases of bipolar or treatment resistant depression. Józef also has a group for divorced single fathers. Józef’s integration of psychotherapeutic approaches is referred to as a) eclectic. b) multimodal. c) multidimensional. d) biopsychosocial.

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Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize research on the effectiveness of therapy Section Reference: Does Therapy Work? 361. Of all the diverse types of therapy, what does research argue is the best one to use? a) behaviour therapy b) cognitive-behaviour therapy c) drug therapy d) it depends on the disorder being treated Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize research on the effectiveness of therapy Section Reference: Does Therapy Work? 362. Research indicates that when treating patients, therapists find that a) using a uniform approach is most successful. b) patients will not typically be cured by therapy alone. c) long-term treatment is more effective than short-term treatment. d) short-term treatment is more effective than long-term treatment. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize research on the effectiveness of therapy Section Reference: Does Therapy Work? 363. Overall, is therapy effective? a) No, most people who go to therapy show no improvement. b) Yes, most people who go to therapy are glad that they did. c) Yes, most people who go to therapy live longer than people who did not go to therapy. d) Yes, most people who go to therapy are better off than people who did not go to therapy. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize research on the effectiveness of therapy Section Reference: Does Therapy Work?

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MATCHING QUESTION 364. Match the appropriate words in the left column to the definitions in the right column. Terms A. Catharsis B. Free association C. Lobotomy D. Deep brain stimulation E. Trephining F. Transference G. Resistance H. Vagus nerve stimulation I. Electroconvulsive therapy J. Group therapy K. Cognitive therapy L. Rational-emotive therapy M. Social skills training N. Modelling O. Existential therapy P. Gestalt therapy Q. Token economy R. Systematic desensitization

___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___

Definitions 1. Therapy in which therapists serve as models to help clients acquire desired social behaviours. 2. Therapy that encourages clients to accept responsibility for their lives and their problems. 3. Step-by-step process aimed at teaching people with phobias to react with calm instead of fear to the objects they dread. 4. Prehistoric practice of chipping a hole in the skull as a treatment for various brain conditions. 5. Therapy that moves clients toward selfrecognition and self-acceptance by challenging and frustrating them. 6. Reliving of past repressed feelings as means of settling internal conflicts. 7. Therapy that help clients identify the irrational assumptions that seem to govern their behavioural and emotional responses. 8. When clients encounter a block in their free associations or change the subject to avoid a potentially painful discussion. 9. Surgical practice of cutting the connections between the frontal lobe and the lower centres of the brain.

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ANSWERS TO MATCHING QUESTION 1.

M: Social skills training

O: Existential therapy

R: Systematic desensitization

E: Trephining

P: Gestalt therapy

A: Catharsis

L: Rational-emotive therapy

G: Resistance

C: Lobotomy

Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

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FILL-IN-THE-BLANK 365. Studies estimate that ___ percent or more of people with psychological disorders NEVER seek treatment. Answer: 50 Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain who receives treatment for psychological problems today, how they enter treatment, and what general features characterize different types of treatment. Section Reference: Treatment in Today’s World 366. In the clinical field today there are, by some estimates, more than ___ forms of therapy, each practised by clinicians who believe that their chosen methodology is highly effective. Answer: 400 Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Explain who receives treatment for psychological problems today, how they enter treatment, and what general features characterize different types of treatment. Section Reference: Treatment in Today’s World 367. Drugs that act primarily on the brain to relieve the symptoms of mental disorders are referred to as ___ drugs. Answer: psychotropic Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 368. ___ antipsychotic drugs are NOT as likely to produce unpleasant and dangerous effects as traditional antipsychotic drugs. Answer: Atypical Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 369. The prehistoric practice of chipping a hole in the skull of a person who behaved in an

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atypical manner was called ___. Answer: trephining Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 370. Freud believed that psychodynamic therapists should take on the role of a ___ during a treatment session. Answer: neutral, distant expert Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the psychodynamic treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Psychodynamic Therapies 371. In dream analysis, the ___ content refers to the consciously remembered dream, whereas the ___ content refers to the symbolic meaning. Answer: manifest / latent Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the psychodynamic treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Psychodynamic Therapies 372. The step-by-step process by which phobias are treated using classical conditioning is known as ___. Answer: systematic desensitization Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the behavioural treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Behavioural Therapies 373. Systematic desensitization is used to treat ___. Answer: phobias (including sexual dysfunctions, posttraumatic stress disorder, and agoraphobia) Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the behavioural treatments for psychological disorders.

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Section Reference: Behavioural Therapies 374. Pointing out the social deficits of clients, and then role playing in social situations are steps used in ___ training. Answer: social skills Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the behavioural treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Behavioural Therapies 375. Programs in which desirable behaviours are rewarded with tokens that can be traded for food, privileges, or other rewards are called ___ programs. Answer: token economy Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the behavioural treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Behavioural Therapies 376. Ellis theorized that some people’s ___ assumptions guide them to act and react in ways that are inappropriate. Answer: irrational Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe cognitive-behavioural therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Cognitive-Behavioural Therapies 377. Beck’s approach to cognitive therapy is mostly used to treat ___. Answer: depression Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe cognitive-behavioural therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Cognitive-Behavioural Therapies 378. Cognitive-behavioural therapies have proved very effective for treating ___. Answer: depression, social anxiety disorder, generalized anxiety disorder, panic disorder, sexual dysfunctions, and other disorders

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe cognitive-behavioural therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Cognitive-Behavioural Therapies 379. Gestalt techniques have been included in a group of other treatments that refer to themselves as ___ focused. Answer: emotion Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic and existential therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Humanistic and Existential Therapies 380. After World War II when the demand for psychological services grew, ___ therapy became popular. Answer: group Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe commonly used formats of therapy. Section Reference: Formats of Therapy 381. The divorce rate in North America and Europe is approximately ___. Answer: 50% Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe commonly used formats of therapy. Section Reference: Formats of Therapy 382. Today’s clinicians may combine ___ approaches when treating disorders. Answer: two or more Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Summarize research on the effectiveness of therapy. Section Reference: Does Therapy Work?

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SHORT ANSWER ESSAY QUESTIONS 383. What percentage of individuals treated with electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) experience symptom relief? Answer: Approximately 70% of patient’s experience symptom relief. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 384. Name two side effects of patients who underwent lobotomies? Answer: death, seizures, extreme listlessness, stupor Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 385. What psychological phenomenon is exhibited when patients act and feel toward the therapist as they do toward influential figures in their lives, past and present? Answer: transference Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the psychodynamic treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Psychodynamic Therapies 386. What experience of reliving past, repressed feelings, is believed to be a method of gaining insight? Answer: catharsis Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the psychodynamic treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Psychodynamic Therapies 387. List the three categories of behavioural techniques. Answer: classical conditioning, operant conditioning, and modelling

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the behavioural treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Behavioural Therapies 388. What is the list of feared objects or situations that are used in systematic desensitization called? Answer: fear hierarchy Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the behavioural treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Behavioural Therapies 389. What concept describes the situation in which a desirable behaviour is rewarded with the presentation of an object that can later be exchanged for food or other rewards? Answer: token economy Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the behavioural treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Behavioural Therapies 390. In what settings do token economies typically occur? Answer: schools, prisons, institutions, or other places where a behaviour can be monitored throughout the day Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the behavioural treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Behavioural Therapies 391. What are the greatest strengths of the behavioural model of treatment? Answer: Behaviour can be observed and tested in a laboratory setting. Moreover, behavioural approaches have been effective for numerous problems, including specific fears, social deficits, and mental retardation. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the behavioural treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Behavioural Therapies

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392. What did Ellis believe led to abnormal functioning? Answer: irrational assumptions Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe cognitive-behavioural therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Cognitive-Behavioural Therapies 393. What three qualities did Rogers believe must be displayed by a therapist in client-centred therapy? Answer: unconditional positive regard, accurate empathy, and genuineness Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic and existential therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Humanistic and Existential Therapies 394. List 2 techniques that are commonly used by Gestalt therapists. Answer: skillful frustration, role playing, exercises, games, etc. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic and existential therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Humanistic and Existential Therapies 395. Intense emotional expression may result when individuals engage in which Gestalt technique? Answer: role playing Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic and existential therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Humanistic and Existential Therapies 396. What type of group therapy meets without the direct leadership of a professional clinician? Answer: self-help groups Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

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Learning Objective: Describe commonly used formats of therapy. Section Reference: Formats of Therapy 397. Describe the four questions that are addressed in therapy outcome studies. Answer: (1) Is therapy in general effective? (2) How effective are particular therapies? (3) Are particular therapies especially effective for certain problems? (4) Is therapy equally effective across race and gender? Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize research on the effectiveness of therapy. Section Reference: Does Therapy Work?

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ESSAY QUESTIONS 398. Compare the psychotherapy and biological therapy approach to treating psychological disorders. Answer: Psychotherapy is a treatment system in which a client and therapist use words and acts to overcome the client’s psychological difficulties. Biological therapy involves the use of physical and chemical procedures to help people overcome psychological difficulties. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explain who receives treatment for psychological problems today, how they enter treatment, and what general features characterize different types of treatment. Section Reference: Treatment in Today’s World 399. Describe the ways that people enter therapy. Answer: Many people decide to consult a therapist on their own. Others may do so on the advice of a friend, family member, minister, physician, or other professional with whom they have discussed their difficulties. Still others are forced into treatment. Parents, spouses, teachers, and employers may virtually order people to seek treatment if they are causing disruptions or are in obvious distress. In addition, judges may formally pronounce people mentally disturbed and dangerous and commit them to a mental hospital for treatment. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Explain who receives treatment for psychological problems today, how they enter treatment, and what general features characterize different types of treatment. Section Reference: Treatment in Today’s World 400. Discuss the strengths and weaknesses of psychodynamic therapy. Answer: Psychodynamic therapy offered first major alternative to biological treatments. A strength of the psychodynamic approach is that abnormal functioning is viewed as being rooted in same processes as normal functioning. The psychodynamic approach has been used as a model for many other psychological treatments. However, the biggest weakness is that research does not support the effectiveness of psychodynamic therapies. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Explain who receives treatment for psychological problems today, how they enter treatment, and what general features characterize different types of treatment. Section Reference: Treatment in Today’s World 401. Discuss the strengths and weaknesses of behaviour therapy.

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Answer: The primary strength of the behaviourist approach is that research often supports the effectiveness of its treatments. However, the effects of treatment may not always last long after treatment stops. Behaviour therapy may also neglect unobservable cognitive processes. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Explain who receives treatment for psychological problems today, how they enter treatment, and what general features characterize different types of treatment. Section Reference: Treatment in Today’s World 402. How can transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) be used to treat depression? Answer: TMS involves having a clinician place an electromagnetic coil on or above the patient’s head. The coil sends a current into the prefrontal cortex. At least some parts of the prefrontal cortex of depressed people are underactive. TMS appears to increase neuron activity in those regions; it helps to alleviate severe depression. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 403. Describe the procedures used in the vagus nerve stimulation treatment of depression. Answer: In this procedure, an implanted pulse generator sends electrical signals to the left vagus nerve. That nerve then delivers electrical signals to the brain, helping to reduce depression in many people. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 404. Describe the shortcomings of the biological approach to treating mental disorders. Answer: Treatments can produce significant undesirable effects, and often ignore the fact that behaviour occurs as a result of non-biological factors such as experience. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 405. How do antidepressant drugs restore brain activity to normal levels? Answer: The prefrontal cortex of depressed individuals shows reduced activity and a lower than normal level of blood flow. Some studies suggest that antidepressants ultimately raise activity in

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16 - 127 Test Bank for Psychology Around Us, Fourth Canadian Edition

this brain region and restore blood flow to levels observed in non-depressed individuals. Similar findings have been reported for the amygdala. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the major biological treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Biological Treatments 406. Discuss the similarities between Freudian psychoanalysis, short-term psychodynamic therapy, and relational psychoanalytic therapy. Answer: All three types of treatment share the goals of helping clients uncover past traumatic events and the inner conflicts that have resulted from them. All are focused on trying to resolve, or settle, those conflicts to resume interrupted personal development. Psychodynamic therapists of different theoretical persuasions might focus on different conflicts, but they tend to use similar techniques. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the psychodynamic treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Psychodynamic Therapies 407. Describe the role of the therapist in relational psychoanalytic therapy. Answer: In relational psychoanalytic therapy, therapists are key figures in the lives of clients— figures whose reactions and beliefs should be directly included in the therapy process. Thus, a key principle of relational psychoanalytic therapy is that therapists should also disclose things about themselves, particularly their own reactions to patients, and try to establish more equal relationships with clients. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the psychodynamic treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Psychodynamic Therapies 408. Describe short-term psychodynamic therapy and the concept of a dynamic focus. Answer: In short-term psychodynamic therapy, clients focus on a single problem—a dynamic focus—such as excessive dependence on other people. The therapist and client centre their discussions on this problem and work only on issues that relate to it. Short-term psychodynamic therapy takes less time, can be more efficient, and can be more cost-effective than traditional Freudian psychoanalytic therapy. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the psychodynamic treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Psychodynamic Therapies

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409. Describe the technique of “working through.” Answer: Psychodynamic therapists and their patients re-examine the same issues repeatedly during treatment with greater clarity over time to gain lasting behavioural change. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the psychodynamic treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Psychodynamic Therapies 410. Describe aversion therapy and provide an example. Answer: When a therapist helps a client acquire anxiety responses to stimuli; example: alcohol or drugs that have been too attractive in the past. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the behavioural treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Behavioural Therapies 411. Describe the criticisms of the behavioural approach to therapy. Answer: The behavioural approach is too simplistic to account for the complexity of behaviour; lab results may not generalize to real life. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe the behavioural treatments for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Behavioural Therapies 412. Describe the limitations of the cognitive-behavioural approach to therapy. Answer: First, although disturbed cognitive functioning is found in many psychological disorders, its precise role has yet to be determined. It is not always clear that it is at the centre of various disorders. Correspondingly, it is not clear whether it is the behavioural or the cognitive features of the cognitive-behavioural approaches that most powerfully propel these treatments. The assumption of many therapists is that the behavioural features help bring about essential cognitive changes. But it could well be that in many cases and disorders, it is the behavioural changes that are most important. And, finally, although cognitive-behavioural therapies are effective for many problems, they do not help everyone. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe cognitive-behavioural therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Cognitive-Behavioural Therapies

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413. Describe the rational-emotive therapy technique. Answer: Therapists using this approach first help clients identify the irrational assumptions that seem to govern their behavioural and emotional responses. Next, they help clients change those assumptions into constructive ways of viewing themselves and the world. One of the techniques the therapists may use is cognitive restructuring, in which clients learn to replace negative interpretations with more positive notions. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe cognitive-behavioural therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Cognitive-Behavioural Therapies 414. Describe second-wave cognitive-behavioural therapy and give an example of it. Answer: These approaches help clients accept many of their problematic thoughts, rather than judge them, act on them, or try fruitlessly to change them. The hope is that by recognizing such thoughts for what they are—just thoughts—clients will eventually be able to let them pass through their awareness without being particularly troubled by them. One of today’s leading second-wave cognitive-behavioural approaches is mindfulness-based cognitive therapy. Psychologist Steven Hayes and his colleagues developed this therapy as part of their broader treatment approach called acceptance and commitment therapy. Through this treatment, therapists help clients to become mindful of their streams of thoughts, including their worries, at the very moments they are occurring and to accept such thoughts as mere events of the mind. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Describe cognitive-behavioural therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Cognitive-Behavioural Therapies 415. Describe the characteristics of Gestalt therapy. Answer: Guides clients to self-recognition and self-acceptance; achieved by challenging and frustrating clients using techniques such as role playing. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic and existential therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Humanistic and Existential Therapies 416. Describe existential therapy. How is the concept of freedom addressed? Answer: Existentialists believe that we are born with complete freedom of choice in either giving meaning to our lives or shrinking from that responsibility. Existential therapists urge clients to take responsibility for their own lives and choose paths that allow them to live with greater meaning and stronger values.

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic and existential therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Humanistic and Existential Therapies 417. Compare the humanistic approach and existential approach to therapy. Answer: Gestalt therapists, like client-centred therapists, move clients toward self-recognition and self-acceptance. But, unlike client-centred therapists, Gestalt therapists often try to do this by challenging and frustrating the clients. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe the humanistic and existential therapies for psychological disorders. Section Reference: Humanistic and Existential Therapies 418. Describe the curative features of successful forms of group therapy. Answer: Provide guidance and models of appropriate behaviour; members should be allowed to take risks and accept criticism as well as discover that other people have similar problems; members can acquire and improve social skills and develop feelings of self-worth by helping others. Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: Describe commonly used formats of therapy. Section Reference: Formats of Therapy 419. What are the three types of prevention related to community mental health treatment? Describe how they differ. Answer: Primary prevention consists of efforts to improve community attitudes, whereas secondary prevention consists of identifying and treating psychological disorders in the early stages. Tertiary prevention aims to provide effective treatment as needed so that moderate or severe disorders do not become long-term problems. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Describe commonly used formats of therapy. Section Reference: Formats of Therapy 420. What kind of issues or problems can be effectively addressed in a self-help group? Answer: Self-help groups can be used to treat alcoholism and other forms of substance abuse, compulsive gambling, bereavement, overeating, phobias, child abuse, medical illnesses, rape

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victimization, unemployment, and divorce. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Describe commonly used formats of therapy. Section Reference: Formats of Therapy 421. Discuss the behaviours and characteristics of successful therapists. Answer: Successful therapists tend to do similar things: (1) They provide feedback to clients. (2) They help clients focus on their own thoughts and behaviour. (3) They pay careful attention to the way they and their clients interact. (4) They try to build a sense of self-mastery in their clients. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: Summarize research on the effectiveness of therapy. Section Reference: Does Therapy Work? 422. Describe the evidence-based treatment movement. Answer: Proponents of this movement have formed task forces that seek to identify which therapies have received clear research support for specific disorders; to propose corresponding treatment guidelines; and to spread such information to clinicians. Critics of the movement worry that such efforts are at times simplistic, biased, and even misleading. Nonetheless, the empirically supported treatment movement has been gaining momentum in recent years. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective: Summarize research on the effectiveness of therapy. Section Reference: Does Therapy Work? 423. What kind of questions should an individual ask when choosing a therapist? Answer: Some potential questions could include: What is the professional status of the potential therapists?; What is the experience level of the potential therapists?; What is the treatment orientation of the potential therapists?; What is the success rate of their treatment orientation for problems such as yours?; Do the potential therapists believe in psychotropic medication as part of therapy in certain cases?; How do the potential therapists match up on personal variables that are important to you?; Once you are in therapy, are you comfortable with the way things are going? Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: Summarize research on the effectiveness of therapy. Section Reference: Does Therapy Work?

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