TEST BANK
Chapter 01: Introduction to Radiation Protection Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Some consequences of ionization in human cells include:
1. creation of unstable atoms. 2. production of free electrons. 3. creation of reactive free radicals capable of producing substances poisonous to the cell. a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D
REF: 2
2. Which of the following is a special form of radiation that is capable of creating electrically
charged particles by removing orbital electrons from the atom of the material with which it interacts? a. Ionizing radiation b. Nonionizing radiation c. Subatomic radiation d. Ultrasonic radiation ANS: A
REF: 2
3. Patients who have an understanding of the medical benefits of an imaging procedure because
they received factual information about the study before having the examination are more likely to: a. assume a small risk of biologic damage but not overcome any radiation phobia they may have. b. cancel their scheduled procedure because they are not willing to assume a small risk of biologic damage. c. overcome any radiation phobia but not assume a small risk of possible biologic damage. d. overcome any radiation phobia and be willing to assume a small risk of possible biologic damage. ANS: D
REF: 8
4. The millisievert (mSv) is equal to: a. 1/10 of a sievert. b. 1/100 of a sievert. c. 1/1000 of a sievert. d. 1/10,000 of a sievert. ANS: C
REF: 9
5. The advantages of the BERT method are:
1. it does not imply radiation risk; it is simply a means for comparison.
2. it emphasizes that radiation is an innate part of our environment. 3. the answer given in terms of BERT is easy for the patient to comprehend. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D
REF: 9
6. If a patient asks a radiographer a question about the potential risk of radiation exposure
associated with a specific x-ray procedure, the radiographer should: a. use his or her intelligence and knowledge to answer the question honestly and provide a suitable example that compares the amount of radiation received from the procedure in question with natural background radiation received over a given period of time. b. avoid the patient’s question by changing the subject. c. tell the patient that it is unethical to discuss such concerns. d. refuse to answer the question and recommend that he or she speak with the referring physician. ANS: A
REF: 9
7. Which of the following is the intention behind the ALARA concept? a. To keep radiation exposure and consequent dose at the highest possible level b. To keep radiation exposure and consequent dose at an average level c. To keep radiation exposure and consequent dose at the lowest possible level d. To avoid the use of ionizing radiation in radiologic practice ANS: C
REF: 5
8. The basic principles of radiation protection include which of the following?
1. Time 2. Distance 3. Shielding a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D
REF: 5
9. In a hospital setting, which of the following professionals is expressly charged by the hospital
administration to be directly responsible for the execution, enforcement, and maintenance of the ALARA program? a. Assistant administrator of the facility b. Chief of staff c. Radiation Safety Officer d. Student radiologic technologist ANS: C
REF: 8
10. Why is a question about the amount of radiation a patient will receive during a specific x-ray
procedure difficult to answer? 1. Because the received dose is measured in a number of different units 2. Because scientific units for radiation dose are not comprehensible by the patient 3. Because the patient should not receive any information about radiation dose a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: A
REF: 9
11. X-rays are a form of which of the following kinds of radiation? a. Environmental b. Ionizing c. Internal d. Nonionizing ANS: B
REF: 2
12. The radiographer must answer patient questions about the potential risk of radiation exposure: a. abruptly to discourage the patient from asking any other questions. b. evasively so as not to reveal any information about radiation risk. c. honestly and in understandable terms. d. with technical terms. ANS: C
REF: 9
13. Radiation phobia can be greatly reduced by explaining the diagnostic radiation dose to the
patient by using the: a. ALARA method. b. BERT method. c. ORP method. d. TRACE method. ANS: B
REF: 10
14. Which of the following provides the basis for determining whether an imaging procedure or
practice is justified? a. ALARA program b. BERT method c. Efficacy d. TRACE program ANS: C
REF: 4
15. Which of the following is a method of explaining radiation to the public? a. ALARA b. BERT c. ORP d. Standardized dose reporting
ANS: B
REF: 10
16. Some ways of providing education for non-radiologist physicians who perform fluoroscopic
procedures can include: 1. creating increased awareness of radiation dose for specific procedures through discussion. 2. establishing goals for lowering radiation dose for patients, assisting personnel, and themselves. 3. radiographers helping physicians performing fluoroscopic procedures by informing them that they have reached a specific dose, thereby giving fluoroscopists the opportunity to decide to continue or stop a procedure. a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D
REF: 11
17. Some ways of providing education for imaging department staff are:
1. providing in-service education on various radiation safety topics to accommodate individual needs of staff members. 2. handing out a facts-to-remember sheet at the end of an in-service program. 3. e-mailing the most important topics covered in a staff in-service program to imaging staff members to help reinforce and retain vital information. a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D
REF: 11
18. The TRACE program creates: a. an analysis of radiation dose. b. greater awareness of radiation dose. c. a system of radiation dose reporting. d. a means for determining radiation dose in fluoroscopic procedures. ANS: B
REF: 11
19. Typically, people are more willing to accept a risk if they perceive that the potential benefit to
be obtained is: a. greater than the risk involved. b. equal to the risk involved. c. less than the risk involved. d. typically, people are not willing to accept risk no matter how great the benefit may be. ANS: A
REF: 8
20. Which of the following statements below is true? a. It appears that no safe dose level exists for radiation-induced malignant disease. b. The ALARA method establishes a dose level for radiation-induced malignancy. c. The BERT method establishes a dose level for radiation-induced malignancy.
d. The TRACE method establishes a dose level for radiation-induced malignancy. ANS: A
REF: 5
21. The ALARA principle provides a method for comparing the amount of radiation used in
various health care facilities in a particular area for specific imaging procedures. This information may be helpful to many: a. accrediting bodies. b. advisory groups. c. radiation standards organizations. d. regulatory agencies. ANS: D
REF: 5
22. The term as low as reasonable achievable (ALARA) is synonymous with the term: a. background equivalent radiation time (BERT). b. equivalent dose (EqD). c. diagnostic efficacy. d. optimization for radiation protection (ORP). ANS: D
REF: 5
23. Diagnostic efficacy includes:
1. imaging procedure or practice justified by the referring physician. 2. minimal radiation exposure used. 3. optimal image(s) produced. 4. presence or absence of disease revealed. a. 1, 2, and 3 only b. 1, 2, and 4 only c. 2, 3, and 4 only d. 1, 2, 3, and 4 ANS: D
REF: 5
24. The TRACE program consists of:
1. rewriting regulatory standards. 2. formulating new policies and procedures to promote radiation safety and the implementation of patient and community awareness. 3. technologic enhancements. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: C
REF: 10
25. Effective protective measures take into consideration:
1. both human and environmental physical determinants. 2. technical elements. 3. procedural factors. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D
REF: 3
Chapter 02: Radiation: Types, Sources, and Doses Received Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. When natural sources of ionizing radiation become increased because of accidental or
deliberate human actions such as mining, they are referred to as: a. artificial sources. b. enhanced natural sources. c. extraterrestrial sources. d. manmade sources. ANS: B
REF: 21
2. Electromagnetic radiation can travel through space in the form of a wave but can also interact
with matter as a particle of energy. This dual nature is referred to as: a. wave attenuation capability. b. wave-particle interchange ability. c. wave-particle duality. d. wave-particle phenomena. ANS: C
REF: 16
3. Which of the following statements concerning the 1979 nuclear reactor accident at TMI-2 is
not true? a. Excess cancer deaths have been predicted to occur in the 2 million people living within 50 miles of the plant at the time of the accident. b. Excess cancer deaths have not been predicted to occur in the 2 million people living within 50 miles of the plant at the time of the accident. c. The equivalent dose (EqD) received by 2 million people living in the vicinity of the nuclear reactor at the time of the accident was 0.02 mSv. d. No melt-through of the reactor vessel occurred during the accident. ANS: A
REF: 28
4. Terrestrial radiation includes which of the following sources? a. Long-lived radioactive elements such as uranium-238, radium-226, and thorium-
232 that are present in variable quantities in the crust of the earth b. Radioactive fallout from nuclear weapons tests in which detonation occurred
above ground c. The sun and other stars d. Video display terminals and television receivers ANS: A
REF: 21
5. According to the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), radon levels in homes should not
exceed what level? a. 200 pCi/L b. 135 pCi/L c. 47 pCi/L
d. 4 pCi/L ANS: D
REF: 23
6. Cosmic radiation occurs in which two forms? a. Solar and manmade b. Artificial and galactic c. Natural background and artificial d. Solar and galactic ANS: D
REF: 21
7. The FDA presently considers the risk of radiation exposure to the U.S. population from color
television monitors to be: a. substantial. b. moderate. c. very slight. d. negligible. ANS: D
REF: 25
8. Through which of the following routes can radon enter houses?
1. Crawl spaces under living areas 2. Floor drains and sump pumps 3. Porous cement block foundations a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D
REF: 22
9. Acute melting of the uranium dioxide fuel of a nuclear reactor core requires how great a
temperature? a. Less than 500° F b. At least 1000° F c. 2000° F d. Greater than 5000° F ANS: D
REF: 27
10. When exposed to high radon levels in the home, which of the following groups of people have
the highest risk of developing lung cancer? a. Infants b. Toddlers c. Nonsmokers d. Smokers ANS: D
REF: 23
11. Which of the following helps shield the global population from exposure to essentially all
high-energy, bombarding cosmic rays? a. Clouds
b. Fog c. Earth’s atmosphere and magnetic field d. Smog ANS: C
REF: 24
12. Which of the following is considered by the EPA to be the second leading cause of lung
cancer in the United States? a. Annual PA and lateral chest radiographs b. Cosmic ray exposure c. Radon exposure d. A fluoroscopic examination of the upper gastrointestinal tract ANS: C
REF: 23
13. Which of the following are forms of electromagnetic radiation?
1. Microwaves 2. Visible light 3. X-rays a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D
REF: 17
14. The amount of energy transferred to electrons by ionizing radiation is the basis of the concept
of: a. b. c. d.
electromagnetic radiation. nuclear power. radioactive decay. radiation dose.
ANS: D
REF: 17
15. In the electromagnetic spectrum, higher frequencies are associated with: a. longer wavelengths and lower energies. b. longer wavelengths and higher energies. c. shorter wavelengths and lower energies. d. shorter wavelengths and higher energies. ANS: D
REF: 16
16. Both occupational and nonoccupational dose limits may be stated in:
1. coulombs per kilogram. 2. grays. 3. Sieverts. a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3
ANS: C
REF: 19
17. A flight on a typical commercial airliner results in an equivalent dose rate of: a. 0.001 to 0.005 mSv/hr. b. 0.005 to 0.01 mSv/hr. c. 0.02 to 0.04 mSv/hr. d. 0.05 to 0.09 mSv/hr. ANS: B
REF: 26
18. The first decay product of radium is: a. cesium. b. radon. c. strontium. d. x-ray. ANS: B
REF: 22
19. As of 2006, when spread over the inhabitants of the United States, fallout from nuclear
weapons tests and other environmental sources along with other human-made radiations contributed: a. only a small portion of 0.1 mSv to the equivalent dose of each person. b. a dose of approximately 1.5 mSv to the equivalent dose of each person. c. a dose of approximately 3.2 mSv to the equivalent dose of each person. d. a dose of approximately 6.3 mSv to the equivalent dose of each person. ANS: A
REF: 26
20. What was the total average annual effective dose from natural background and human-made
radiations combined as of 2006? a. 2.0 mSv b. 3.2 mSv c. 6.3 mSv d. 9.6 mSv ANS: C
REF: 33
21. The mass of an alpha particle is approximately: a. two times the mass of a hydrogen atom. b. four times the mass of a hydrogen atom. c. six times the mass of a hydrogen atom. d. eight times the mass of a hydrogen atom. ANS: B
REF: 18
22. What is the half-life of radon-220? a. 54.5 seconds b. 8 days c. 2 years d. 1622 years ANS: A
REF: 21
23. Which of the following sources of radiation is human-made?
1. Atmospheric fallout from nuclear weapons testing 2. Cosmic radiation from the sun and beyond the solar system 3. Nuclear power plant accidents as a consequence of natural disasters a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: B
REF: 24
24. What is the latent period for most radiation-induced cancers? a. 1 year b. 5 years c. 7 years d. 15 years or more ANS: D
REF: 28
25. Of the two sources of ionizing radiation listed below, which source remains fairly constant
from year to year? a. Human-made b. Natural ANS: B
REF: 33
Chapter 03: Interaction of X-Radiation with Matter Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Particles associated with electromagnetic radiation that have no mass or electric charge are: a. ions. b. negatrons. c. positrons. d. x-ray photons. ANS: D
REF: 41
2. Coherent scattering is most likely to occur ____________ even though some of this scattering
occurs throughout the diagnostic range and may result in small amounts of radiographic fog. a. below 10 keV b. between 30 keV and 60 keV c. between 60 keV and 90 keV d. above 100 keV ANS: A
REF: 47
3. Which of the following is not a type of interaction between x-radiation and biologic matter? a. Compton scattering b. Bremsstrahlung c. Pair production d. Photoelectric absorption ANS: B
REF: 46
4. The symbol Z indicates: a. atomic number of an atom. b. atomic weight of an atom. c. fluorescent yield. d. the number of vacancies in an atomic shell. ANS: A
REF: 50
5. In photoelectric absorption to dislodge an inner-shell electron from its atomic orbit, the
incoming x-ray photon must be able to transfer a quantity of energy: a. less than the energy that binds the atom together. b. 10 times as great as the energy that binds the atom together. c. as large as or larger than the amount of energy that binds the electron in its orbit. d. equal to or greater than 1.022 MeV, regardless of the energy that binds the electron in its orbit. ANS: C
REF: 48
6. Which of the following interactions between photons and matter involves a matter–antimatter
annihilation reaction? a. Compton scattering
b. Coherent scattering c. Pair production d. Photoelectric absorption ANS: C
REF: 57
7. The probability of occurrence of photoelectric absorption _________ as the energy of the
incident photon decreases and the atomic number of the irradiated atoms _________. a. increases markedly, decreases b. decreases markedly, increases c. increases markedly, increases d. stays the same, increases ANS: C
REF: 50
8. Which of the following terms refers to the radiation that occurs when an electron drops down
from an outer orbit to fill a vacancy in an inner orbit of the parent atom? a. Characteristic radiation b. Bremsstrahlung c. Photoelectric radiation d. Primary radiation ANS: A
REF: 49
9. Fluorescent radiation is also known as: a. characteristic radiation. b. coherent scattering. c. Compton scattering. d. unmodified scattering. ANS: A
REF: 49
10. What is the effective atomic number of compact bone? a. 5.9 b. 7.4 c. 7.6 d. 13.8 ANS: D
REF: 50
11. Which of the following is not another term for coherent scattering? a. Characteristic b. Classical c. Elastic d. Unmodified ANS: A
REF: 46
12. Which of the following are by-products of photoelectric absorption? a. Photoelectron and Compton scattered electron b. Low-energy scattered x-ray photon and characteristic photon c. Low-energy scattered x-ray photon and Compton scattered electron d. Photoelectron and characteristic photon
ANS: D
REF: 50
13. Which two interactions between x-radiation and matter may result in the production of small-
angle scatter? a. Photoelectric absorption and Compton scattering b. Coherent scattering and Compton scattering c. Photoelectric absorption and pair production d. Coherent scattering and pair production ANS: B
REF: 54
14. Which of the following particles is considered to be a form of antimatter? a. Electron b. Positron c. X-ray photon d. Scattered x-ray photon ANS: B
REF: 57
15. Which of the following interactions results in the conversion of matter into energy? a. Classical scattering b. Photoelectric absorption c. Modified scattering d. Annihilation reaction ANS: D
REF: 57
16. Compton scattering is synonymous with: a. coherent scattering. b. incoherent scattering. c. photoelectric absorption. d. photodisintegration. ANS: B
REF: 54
17. During the process of coherent scattering, the incident x-ray photon interacts with: a. a single inner shell electron, ejecting it from its orbit. b. a single outer shell electron, ejecting it from its orbit. c. an atom transferring its energy by causing some or all of the electrons of the atom
to vibrate momentarily and radiate energy in the form of electromagnetic waves. d. a scattered photon of lesser energy, annihilating it. ANS: C
REF: 47
18. What is the term for the number of x-rays emitted per inner-shell vacancy during the process
of photoelectric absorption? a. Characteristic absorption b. Classical gain c. Fluorescent yield d. Modified pair production ANS: C
REF: 49
19. Which of the following results in all-directional scatter? a. Classical interaction b. Coherent interaction c. Photoelectric interaction d. Compton interaction ANS: D
REF: 56
20. Annihilation radiation is used in which of the following modalities? a. Computed tomography (CT) b. Digital mammography c. Positron emission tomography (PET) d. Computed radiography (CR) ANS: C
REF: 57
21. The x-ray photon energy required to initiate pair production is: a. 0.511 keV. b. 1.022 keV. c. 0.511 MeV. d. 1.022 MeV. ANS: D
REF: 57
22. Differences in density level between radiographic images of adjacent structures as seen in a
completed radiograph define: a. image attenuation. b. radiographic contrast. c. radiographic density. d. photodisintegration. ANS: B
REF: 53
23. Radiographic density is: a. caused by photodisintegration. b. defined as the degree of overall blackening on a completed radiograph. c. not affected by milliampere-seconds (mAs). d. not relevant in the production of a diagnostic radiograph. ANS: B
REF: 52
24. When a vacancy exists in an inner electron shell of an atom (as a result of photoelectric effect,
Compton scattering, or bombardment by other electrons), the energy liberated when this vacancy is filled, instead of emerging from the atom as fluorescent radiation, can be transferred to another electron of the atom, thereby ejecting the electron. Such an emitted electron is called a(n): a. Auger electron. b. Compton electron. c. Edison electron. d. Sievert electron. ANS: A
REF: 49
25. X-rays are carriers of: a. disease. b. electrons. c. fluorescent properties that make them visible. d. human-made, electromagnetic energy. ANS: D
REF: 40
Chapter 04: Radiation Quantities and Units Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Who was the first American radiation worker to die from radiation-induced cancer in October
of 1904? a. Thomas A. Edison b. Wilhelm C. Roentgen c. Clarence Madison Dally d. Marie Curie ANS: C
REF: 63
2. Which of the following effects must be measured to determine the total amount of radiation
exposure in a specific volume of dry air under standard conditions of pressure and temperature (760 mm Hg or 1 atmosphere at sea level and 22° C)? a. Biologic damage b. Cellular activity c. Energy absorption d. Quantity of ionization ANS: D
REF: 70
3. In the diagnostic radiology energy range from 23 to 150 kVp (which includes mammography),
which of the following tissues possesses the greatest ability to absorb radiant energy through the process of photoelectric absorption? a. Air b. Bone c. Fat d. Muscle ANS: B
REF: 73
4. If a patient receiving x-ray therapy treatment receives a total dosage of 6000 rads, the dosage
may be recorded as _____________ if the SI system is used. a. 12,000 Gy b. 6000 cGy c. 600 mGy d. 60 coulomb per kilogram ANS: B
REF: 74
5. Which of the following is essentially the sum total of air kerma over the exposed area of the
patient’s body surface? a. Absorbed dose b. Dose area product c. Effective dose d. Equivalent dose ANS: B
REF: 72
6. One thousand five hundred rem equals _________ Sieverts. a. 15 b. 150 c. 1500 d. 15,000 ANS: A
REF: 68
7. As the intensity of x-ray exposure of the air volume increases, the number of electron–ion
pairs produced: a. also increases. b. decreases considerably. c. decreases slightly. d. remains the same. ANS: A
REF: 70
8. Which of the following rem values equals 4000 mSv? a. 4 rem b. 40 rem c. 400 rem d. 4000 rem ANS: C
REF: 68
9. 1 gray equals: a. 10 J/kg. b. 100 J/kg. c. 100 cGy. d. 1000 cGy. ANS: C
REF: 74
10. In the SI system, an energy absorption of 1 joule (J) per kilogram of matter in the irradiated
object equals which of the following? a. 10 Sv b. 5 C/kg c. 1 mSv d. 1 Gy ANS: D
REF: 73
11. Which of the following rem values equals 35 mSv? a. 0.35 rem b. 3.5 rem c. 35 rem d. 350 rem ANS: B
REF: 77, 79
12. Which of the following are types of ionizing radiation that produce virtually the same biologic
effect for equal absorbed doses in body tissue?
a. b. c. d.
X-rays, beta particles, and gamma rays Alpha particles, beta particles, and gamma rays X-rays, neutrons, and gamma rays X-rays, alpha particles, and fast neutrons
ANS: A
REF: 75
13. Which of the following statements is correct? a. 1 C/kg of dry air = ____1____ gray
2.58 x 10-4 b. 1 C/kg of dry air = ____1____ roentgen 2.58 x 10-4 c. 2.58 x 10-4 C/kg of dry air = 10 Sievert d. 2.58 x 10-4 C/kg of dry air = 50 roentgen ANS: B
REF: 72
14. If 400 people receive an average effective dose of 0.25 Sv, what is the collective effective
dose? a. 100 person-Sieverts b. 200 person-Sieverts c. 800 person-Sieverts d. 1600 person-Sieverts ANS: A
REF: 78-79
15. For x-ray and gamma ray photons with energies up to 3 million electron volts (MeV), which
of the following quantities may be defined as the measure of the total electrical charge of one sign, either all pluses or all minuses, per unit mass that these two kinds of radiation generate in air only? a. Absorbed dose b. Equivalent dose c. Exposure d. Collective effective dose ANS: C
REF: 70
16. Of the following hereditary effects, which are considered to be late stochastic effects from
exposure to ionizing radiation? 1. Decreased birth weight 2. Increased stillbirths 3. Infant and childhood mortality a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D
REF: 66
17. Alpha particles have a radiation weighting factor (WR) that is numerically equal to: a. 1. b. 5.
c. 10. d. 20. ANS: D
REF: 76
18. Which of the following units are not SI units?
1. Roentgens 2. Coulombs per kilogram, grays, Sieverts 3. Rads and rems a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 3 only d. 1 and 3 only ANS: D
REF: 68
19. Which of the following is a unit of energy that may be defined as the work done or energy
expended when a force of 1 newton (N) acts on an object along a distance of 1 meter (m)? a. Coulomb per kilogram b. Erg c. Gray d. Joule ANS: D
REF: 73
20. Which of the following statements is true? a. 100 rem = 1 centisievert b. 10 rem = 1 centisievert c. 1 rem = 1 centisievert d. 0.1 rem = 1 centisievert ANS: C
REF: 76-77
21. Which of the following is the SI unit of electrical current? a. Ampere b. Coulomb per kilogram c. Erg d. Sievert ANS: A
REF: 71
22. Beta particles are actually: a. gamma rays. b. high-speed electrons. c. protons. d. x-rays. ANS: B
REF: 75
23. Among physicians, cancer deaths attributed to x-ray exposure were reported as early as: a. 1910. b. 1930. c. 1937.
d. 1945. ANS: A
REF: 63
24. Of the following numerical choices, which is the effective atomic number (Zeff) of soft
tissue? a. 15 b. 13.8 c. 7.4 d. 5.9 ANS: C
REF: 73
25. Who discovered x-rays on November 8, 1895? a. Thomas A. Edison b. Clarence Madison Dally c. Louis Harold Gray d. Wilhelm Conrad Roentgen ANS: D
REF: 62
Chapter 05: Radiation Monitoring Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The metal filters contained in a film badge personnel dosimeter are generally composed of
which of the following materials? a. Aluminum or copper b. Aluminum or lead c. Zinc or copper d. Lead or zinc ANS: A
REF: 90
2. What is the maximum period of time that a thermoluminescent dosimeter (TLD) may be worn
as a personnel dosimeter? a. 1 hour b. 1 week c. 1 month d. 3 months ANS: D
REF: 95
3. What do optically stimulated luminescence dosimeters (OSLs), thermoluminescent
dosimeters, film badge dosimeters, and pocket ionization chambers have in common? a. These devices are all used for area monitoring. b. These devices all use the same sensing material to detect ionizing radiation. c. These devices are all used for personnel monitoring. d. Each of these devices can only be used for personnel monitoring for a maximum of 6 months. ANS: C
REF: 85
4. Which of the following instruments is called a cutie pie? a. Geiger-Muller detector b. Ionization chamber-type survey meter c. Optically stimulated luminescence dosimeter d. Proportional counter ANS: B
REF: 101
5. Which of the following instruments generally has a check source of a weak, long-lived
radioisotope located on one side of its external surface to verify its constancy daily? a. Pocket dosimeter b. Proportional counter c. Geiger-Muller detector d. Ionization chamber-type survey meter ANS: C
REF: 101
6. Which of the following devices contains an aluminum oxide detector?
a. b. c. d.
Film badge dosimeter Optically stimulated luminescence dosimeter Pocket ionization chamber Thermoluminescent dosimeter
ANS: B
REF: 87
7. When the sensing crystals contained in the thermoluminescent dosimeter are exposed to
ionizing radiation, which of the following occurs? a. The protons in the crystalline lattice structure of the LiF molecule absorb energy and are excited to a higher energy level or bands. b. The neutrons in the crystalline lattice structure of the LiF molecule absorb energy and are excited to a higher energy level or bands. c. Some of the electrons in the crystalline lattice structure of the LiF molecule absorb energy and are excited to higher energy levels or bands. d. The electrons freed from the LiF molecule are trapped at a lower energy level or bands. ANS: C
REF: 95
8. In diagnostic imaging, the ______________ of the optically stimulated luminescence
dosimeter makes it ideal for monitoring employees working in low-radiation environments and for pregnant workers. a. decreased sensitivity b. increased sensitivity c. lack of sensitivity d. unaffected sensitivity ANS: B
REF: 89
9. The effective atomic number (Zeff) of lithium fluoride (LiF) is equal to: a. 5.9. b. 6.4. c. 7.0. d. 8.2. ANS: D
REF: 95
10. Which of the following items is not a basic component of the film badge dosimeter? a. Radiographic film packet b. Durable plastic film holder c. Charged electrodes d. Assortment of metal filters ANS: C
REF: 90
11. Which of the following personnel dosimeters resembles an ordinary fountain pen externally? a. Film badge dosimeter b. Optically stimulated luminescence dosimeter c. Pocket ionization chamber d. Thermoluminescent dosimeter
ANS: C
REF: 96
12. Of the following, which are disadvantages of using pocket ionization chambers as personnel
dosimeters? 1. Mechanical shock causes pocket chambers to discharge. 2. A permanent legal record of personnel exposure cannot be obtained with a pocket dosimeter. 3. False high readings may be obtained if the pocket dosimeter is not read each day. a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D
REF: 97
13. Which component(s) of the Geiger-Muller detector alert(s) the operator to the presence of
ionizing radiation? a. The shield covering the probe’s sensitivity chamber b. An audio amplifier and speaker c. The metal that encloses the counter’s gas-filled tube d. The meter scale ANS: B
REF: 101
14. Which of the following is not true about field survey instruments? a. They are all equally sensitive in the detection of ionizing radiation. b. They detect the presence of radiation and, when properly calibrated, give a
reasonable accurate measure of the exposure. c. They are durable enough to withstand normal use. d. They are reliable. ANS: A
REF: 100
15. Ionization chambers connected to electrometers are used by medical physicists to perform
standard measurements required by state, federal, and health care accreditation organizations for radiographic and fluoroscopic devices. Some of these measurements include: 1. x-ray output in mR/mAs. 2. reproducibility and linearity of output. 3. timer accuracy. 4. half-value layer, or beam quality. 5. entrance exposure rates for fluoroscopic units. a. 1, 2, and 3 only b. 1, 3, and 4 only c. 2, 3, and 5 only d. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 ANS: D
REF: 102
16. Which of the following should be part of the employment record of all radiation workers? a. A list of all fluoroscopic procedures performed daily b. A list of all radiographic procedures performed daily c. A record of exposure recorded by personnel dosimeters
d. A report of all procedures performed when “on call” after regular hours ANS: C
REF: 86
17. What should be given to a radiation worker on termination of employment? a. A summary of an occupational exposure report b. His or her personnel dosimeter c. A pocket ionization chamber d. An ionization chamber-type survey meter ANS: A
REF: 94
18. The front of the white paper packet of the optically stimulated luminescence (OSL) dosimeter: a. may be color coded to facilitate correct usage and placement of the badge on the
body of occupationally exposed personnel. b. must not have any type of printing on it. c. must be radiopaque. d. must never be exposed to ionizing radiation. ANS: A
REF: 88
19. Three different filters are incorporated into the detector packet of the optically stimulated
luminescence (OSL) dosimeter. These filters are respectively made of: 1. aluminum. 2. copper. 3. molybdenum. 4. rhenium tungsten. 5. tin. a. 1, 2, and 3 only b. 1, 2, and 4 only c. 1, 2, and 5 only d. 2, 4, and 5 only ANS: C
REF: 87
20. An electrometer is a device that measures: a. current. b. electrical charge. c. potential difference. d. voltage. ANS: B
REF: 96
21. Of the following personnel monitoring devices, which device could be used to provide
immediate exposure readout for a radiation worker working in a cardiac catheterization laboratory? a. Film badge dosimeter b. Optically stimulated luminescence (OSL) dosimeter c. Pocket ionization chamber d. Thermoluminescent dosimeter (TLD) ANS: C
REF: 97
22. Which of the following is a disadvantage of the optically stimulated dosimeter? a. Exposure not determinable on the day of occurrence b. Mechanical shock can cause false high reading c. No permanent, legal record of exposure d. Not cost-effective for large numbers of personnel ANS: A
REF: 89
23. Whenever the letter “M” appears under the current monitoring period or in the cumulative
columns of a personnel monitoring report, it signifies that: a. a mistake has been made in recording the equivalent dose. b. an equivalent dose higher than the minimum measurable radiation quantity was recorded during that time. c. an equivalent dose less than the minimum measurable radiation quantity was recorded during that time. d. a maximal equivalent dose has been exceeded during that time. ANS: C
REF: 91
24. The optically stimulated luminescence (OSL) dosimeter is “read out” by using: a. a densitometer. b. an ionization chamber. c. a thermoluminescent analyzer. d. laser light at selected frequencies. ANS: D
REF: 87
25. Some of the advantages of the optically stimulated luminescence (OSL) dosimeter are:
1. can be used for up to 1 year. 2. lightweight, durable, and easy to carry. 3. integrated, self-contained, preloaded packet. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D
REF: 89
Chapter 06: Overview of Cell Biology Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. In general, which of the following can human cells do?
1. Move, grow, react, and protect themselves 2. Repair damage and regulate life processes 3. Reproduce a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D
REF: 107
2. Inorganic materials are compounds that: a. contain only very small amounts of carbon. b. contain moderate amounts of carbon. c. contain large amounts of carbon. d. do not contain carbon. ANS: D
REF: 107
3. Antibodies are protein molecules produced by specialized cells in the bone marrow called: a. B lymphocytes. b. R lymphocytes. c. megakaryocytes. d. oocytes. ANS: A
REF: 110
4. The steps, or rungs, of the DNA ladder-like structure consist of complementary chemicals that
are: a. acetic acids. b. fatty acids. c. pairs of nitrogenous bases. d. sugar–phosphate compounds. ANS: C
REF: 111
5. Which of the following are compounds called purines?
1. Adenine and cytosine 2. Adenine and guanine 3. Adenine and thymine a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: B
REF: 111
6. The much smaller structures that make up nucleic acids are called: a. carbohydrates. b. fatty acids. c. nucleotides. d. polysaccharides. ANS: C
REF: 110
7. Which of the following serves as a prototype for messenger RNA (mRNA)? a. Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) b. Nitric acid (HNO3) c. Potassium (K) and sodium (Na) d. Transfer RNA (tRNA) ANS: A
REF: 113
8. The cell components that contain the centrioles are the: a. centrosomes. b. Golgi apparatus and mitochondria. c. lysosomes. d. ribosomes. ANS: A
REF: 119
9. The number of mitochondria in cells varies from a few hundred to several thousand. The
greatest number is found in cells exhibiting: a. almost no activity. b. moderate activity. c. no activity. d. the greatest activity. ANS: D
REF: 119
10. During which of the following subphases of mitosis do the centrioles migrate to opposite sides
of the cell and begin to regulate the formation of the mitotic spindle? a. Anaphase b. Metaphase c. Prophase d. Telophase ANS: C
REF: 123
11. In the human body mineral salts are necessary for:
1. proper cell function. 2. creation of energy. 3. conduction of impulses along nerves. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D
REF: 116
12. Which of the following causes an increase in cellular activity that in turn causes biochemical
reactions to occur more rapidly to meet the needs of the cell? a. Acetic acids b. Enzymes c. Hormones d. Nucleic acids ANS: B
REF: 109
13. How many different amino acids are involved in protein synthesis? a. 7 b. 15 c. 22 d. 39 ANS: C
REF: 109
14. A nucleotide is formed from a nitrogen-containing organic base, a ________________
molecule, and a phosphate molecule. a. three-carbon sugar b. five-carbon sugar c. seven-carbon sugar d. nine-carbon sugar ANS: B
REF: 111
15. Cytosine bonds only with: a. adenine. b. guanine. c. nitrogen. d. thymine. ANS: B
REF: 111
16. If exposure to outside influence such as ionizing radiation damages the components of the cell
involved in molecular synthesis beyond repair, then cells: 1. behave abnormally. 2. die. 3. take on a glowing greenish color when viewed under an electronic microscope. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: A
REF: 107
17. Which of the following is/are considered to be acellular tissue? a. Bone b. Fat c. Muscle d. Hair and nails
ANS: D
REF: 108
18. Adenine bonds only with: a. cytosine. b. guanine. c. hydrogen. d. thymine. ANS: D
REF: 111
19. What should the constant temperature of the human body be? a. 28° C b. 37° C c. 43° C d. 57° C ANS: B
REF: 116
20. When RNA is expelled into the cytoplasm, what component in the nucleus assists in the
manufacturing of protein? a. Chromosomes b. DNA c. Nucleolus d. RNA ANS: C
REF: 120
21. Which of the following is essentially a “protein machine” that segregates chromosomes to two
daughter cells during the cell division process? a. Endoplasmic reticulum b. Mitotic spindle c. Mitochondria d. Golgi apparatus ANS: B
REF: 120
22. During mitosis, which phase of the cellular life cycle is the actual DNA synthesis period? a. G1 b. G2 c. M d. S ANS: D
REF: 121
23. During what phase of mitosis do the paired sister chromatids separate from one another to
form individual daughter chromosomes? a. Prophase b. Metaphase c. Anaphase d. Telophase ANS: C
REF: 122
24. What is a highly coiled strand that is one of two duplicated portions of DNA in a replicated
chromosome that appear during cell division identified as? a. A centrosome b. A centromere c. A chromatid d. A curl ANS: C
REF: 121
25. Fraternal twins may also be referred to as: a. dizygotic twins. b. monozygotic twins. c. polyzygotic twins. d. trizygotic twins. ANS: A
REF: 125
Chapter 07: Molecular and Cellular Radiation Biology Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A biologic reaction is produced by 4 Gyt of a test radiation. It takes 16 Gyt of 250-kVp x-rays
to produce the same biologic reaction. What is the relative biologic effectiveness (RBE) of the test radiation? a. 2 b. 4 c. 8 d. 12 ANS: B
REF: 133
2. Which of the following is/are considered low-LET radiation(s)?
1. X-rays 2. Alpha particles 3. Gamma rays a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 2 and 3 only ANS: C
REF: 130
3. The radiation dose required to produce mitotic death is: a. less than the dose needed to produce apoptosis in slowly dividing cells or
nondividing cells. b. more than the dose needed to produce apoptosis in slowly dividing cells or
nondividing cells. c. the same as the dose needed to produce apoptosis in slowly dividing cells or
nondividing cells. d. nonexistent as mitotic death cannot be produced in slowly dividing cells or
nondividing cells by ionizing radiation. ANS: A
REF: 146
4. Which of the following means the loss or change of a nitrogenous base in the DNA chain? a. Aneuploidy b. Bleb c. Free radical d. Mutation ANS: D
REF: 138
5. While passing through a human cell, an x-ray photon interacts with and inactivates the cell’s
master molecule. What is the consequence for the cell? a. Loss of all intracellular fluid b. Increased pressure on the cell membrane leading to immediate rupture
c. Disruption of cell chemistry only d. Death ANS: D
REF: 134
6. Which of the following curves illustrates the radiation sensitivity of a particular type of cell? a. Epidemiologic data curve b. Extrapolation curve c. Dose-response curve d. Survival curve ANS: D
REF: 146
7. Which of the following groups of cells is least radiosensitive? a. Adult nerve cells b. Nerve cells in an embryo or fetus c. Lymphocytes d. Immature spermatogonia ANS: A
REF: 148
8. OH* + OH* = __________. a. H2O b. HOH+ c. HOH– d. H2O2 ANS: D
REF: 135
9. Which of the following humans is most radiosensitive? a. A mature adult b. An embryo or fetus during the first trimester of pregnancy c. A fetus during the third trimester of gestation d. A 5-year-old child ANS: B
REF: 151
10. _________ of the effects of x-radiation and gamma in macromolecules of living systems (in
vivo) occur as a result of indirect action. a. None b. Very few c. Some d. Most ANS: D
REF: 137
11. The normal white blood cell count for an adult ranges from: a. 1000 to 5000/mm3 of blood. b. 3000 to 6000/mm3 of blood. c. 5000 to 10,000/mm3 of blood. d. 7000 to 15,000/mm3 of blood. ANS: C
REF: 150
12. One micron (m) = __________. a. 10–6 m b. 10+6 m c. 10–3 m d. 10+3 m ANS: A
REF: 130
13. A periodic blood count is not recommended as a method for monitoring occupational radiation
exposure because: 1. biologic damage from ionizing radiation cannot be determined from a blood test. 2. biologic damage has already been sustained when an irregularity is seen in the blood count. 3. a traditional blood count is a relatively insensitive test that is unable to indicate exposures of less than 10 cGy. a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 3 only d. 2 and 3 only ANS: D
REF: 150
14. Based on current data, which of the following would be considered a safe radiation dose for
the gonads of both males and females? a. 5 Gyt b. 3 Gyt c. 1 Gyt d. 0 Gyt ANS: D
REF: 152
15. Which of the following statements is true concerning patients who receive radiation exposure
from a routine radiographic procedure such as a chest x-ray? a. Patients are expected to sustain appreciable damage to either the blood or the blood-forming organs as a consequence of the examination. b. Patients are not expected to sustain appreciable damage to either the blood or the blood-forming organs as a consequence of the examination. c. Patients are expected to sustain some damage to either the blood or the bloodforming organs as a consequence of the examination. d. Patients are expected to sustain total damage to either the blood or the bloodforming organs as a consequence of the examination, resulting in fatality. ANS: B
REF: 150
16. The term apoptosis is synonymous with: a. programmed cell death. b. meiosis. c. mitosis. d. point mutation. ANS: A
REF: 145
17. Which of the following gonadal radiation doses may cause permanent sterility in a male
human? a. 0.01 Gyt b. 1.0 Gyt c. 2.0 Gyt d. 6.0 Gyt ANS: D
REF: 152
18. Which of the following groups of cells is most radiosensitive? a. Lymphocytes b. Adult nerve cells c. Erythrocytes d. Muscle cells ANS: A
REF: 149
19. Direct action may occur after exposure to any type of radiation, but it is much more likely to
happen after exposure to: a. low-LET radiation such as x-rays. b. low-LET radiation such as gamma rays. c. high-LET radiation such as alpha particles. d. nonionizing radiation such as microwaves. ANS: C
REF: 153
20. As LET increases, the ability of ionizing radiation to cause biologic effects: a. also generally increases until it reaches a maximal value. b. decreases considerably. c. decreases slightly. d. remains constant, not increasing or decreasing. ANS: A
REF: 147
21. Neutrophils play an important role in: a. circulating blood through the human body. b. clotting blood. c. fighting infection. d. preventing hemorrhage. ANS: C
REF: 150
22. The radiosensitivity of ova: a. remains constant throughout the lifetime of the germ cell. b. varies considerably throughout the lifetime of the germ cell. c. varies slightly throughout the lifetime of the germ cell. d. is insignificant because the germ cell is not radiosensitive. ANS: B
REF: 152
23. Which of the following tissues contain cells that do not divide?
1. Epithelial tissue 2. Muscle tissue
3. Nervous tissue in an adult a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: C
REF: 151
24. Which of the following is a scavenger type of white blood cell that fights bacteria? a. Granulocytes b. Lymphocytes c. Neutrophils d. Thrombocytes ANS: A
REF: 150
25. If bone marrow cells have not been destroyed by exposure to ionizing radiation, they can: a. become insensitive to future exposures from ionizing radiation. b. overpopulate and become radioresistant. c. remain in circulating blood indefinitely. d. repopulate after a period of recovery. ANS: D
REF: 149
Chapter 08: Early Deterministic Radiation Effects on Organ Systems Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Revised atomic bomb data for Hiroshima and Nagasaki suggest that radiation-induced
leukemias and solid tumors occurring in the survivors may be attributed to exposure to which of the following? a. X-rays b. Gamma radiation c. Neutrons d. Various nonionizing radiations ANS: B
REF: 161
2. For persons with hematopoietic syndrome, survival time shortens as the radiation dose: a. decreases. b. increases. c. remains the same. d. there is no survival time for persons with the hematopoietic syndrome. ANS: B
REF: 162
3. Which of the following is not a form of acute radiation syndrome? a. Carcinogenic syndrome b. Hematopoietic syndrome c. Gastrointestinal syndrome d. Cerebrovascular syndrome ANS: A
REF: 161
4. The term LD 50/30 signifies the whole-body dose of radiation that can be lethal to: a. 50% of the exposed population in 30 days. b. 30% of the exposed population in 50 days. c. 50% of the exposed population in 50 days. d. 30% of the exposed population in 30 days. ANS: A
REF: 165-166
5. Some local tissues sustain immediate consequences from high radiation doses. Examples of
such tissues include: 1. bone marrow. 2. male and female reproductive organs. 3. skin. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D
REF: 167
6. Atrophy refers to: a. aging of the skin from radiation exposure. b. shrinkage of organs and tissues after a high radiation dose is received. c. necrosis of the hypodermis from radiation exposure. d. wrinkling of the skin from radiation exposure. ANS: B
REF: 167
7. As a result of numerous reported patient injuries that have been associated with the use of
____________________, better management of the use of such procedures is essential. a. computed tomography b. high-level fluoroscopy c. routine chest radiography d. routine fluoroscopy ANS: B
REF: 169
8. In females the oogonia, the ovarian stem cells: a. divide and reduce in number only during fetal development. b. multiply to millions of cells only during fetal development. c. are not present during fetal life. d. are present only in very small numbers during fetal life. ANS: B
REF: 170
9. The correct order of development for the female germ cell from the stem cell phase to the
mature cell is: a. ovum, mature follicle, corpus luteum, primordial follicle. b. corpus luteum, primordial follicle, mature follicle, ovum. c. primordial follicle, ovum, corpus luteum, mature follicle. d. primordial follicle, mature follicle, corpus luteum, ovum. ANS: D
REF: 170
10. Which of the following are classified as early deterministic somatic effects of ionizing
radiation? a. Erythema, cataract formation, and cancer b. Nausea, epilation, and intestinal disorders c. Male and female sterility, embryologic defects, and cancer d. Blood disorders, fever, and genetic effects ANS: B
REF: 160
11. The prodromal stage of acute radiation syndrome is also referred to as the: a. initial stage. b. latent period. c. manifest illness period. d. recovery period. ANS: A
REF: 164
12. Research has shown that repeated radiation injuries have a: a. cumulative effect.
b. quadratic effect. c. sigmoidal effect. d. threshold effect. ANS: A
REF: 167
13. The hematopoietic form of acute radiation syndrome is also called the: a. Auger syndrome. b. bone marrow syndrome. c. cerebrovascular syndrome. d. mutational syndrome. ANS: B
REF: 161
14. Genetic mutations have been produced in experimental female animals when their ovaries
were irradiated with doses as low as: a. 0.10 Gy. b. 0.15 Gy. c. 0.20 Gy. d. 0.25 Gy ANS: D
REF: 171
15. A term that is synonymous with epilation is: a. alopecia. b. atrophy. c. desquamation. d. radiodermatitis. ANS: A
REF: 168
16. A single absorbed dose of 2 Gyt can cause a radiation-induced skin erythema within: a. 1 hour after irradiation. b. 6 hours after irradiation. c. 12 hours after irradiation. d. 24 to 48 hours after irradiation. ANS: D
REF: 168
17. In 1898, after sustaining severe burns attributed to radiation exposure, this Boston dentist
began investigating the hazards of radiation exposure and became the first known advocate of radiation protection: a. Marie Curie b. Clarence Madison Dally c. Wilhelm Conrad Roentgen d. William Herbert Rollins ANS: D
REF: 167
18. The correct order of development of the male germ cell from the stem cell phase to the mature
cell is: a. spermatogonia, spermatocyte, spermatid, sperm. b. spermatocyte, spermatogonia, spermatid, sperm.
c. spermatid, spermatogonia, spermatocyte, sperm. d. sperm, spermatid, spermatogonia, spermatocyte. ANS: A
REF: 170
19. Attempts have been made to measure chromosome aberrations after diagnostic x-ray imaging
procedures: a. and these studies have been very successful in measuring the number of chromosome aberrations that occurred. b. but successful results have not been achieved in these studies. c. but these studies have only been moderately successful in measuring the number of chromosome aberrations that occurred. d. these studies have only been minimally successful in measuring the number of chromosome aberrations that occurred. ANS: B
REF: 174
20. Studies of radiation therapy patients who received orthovoltage radiation therapy treatments
provide: a. no evidence of skin damage caused by radiation exposure. b. minimal evidence of skin damage caused by radiation exposure. c. a moderate amount of evidence of skin damage caused by radiation exposure. d. significant evidence of skin damage caused by radiation exposure. ANS: D
REF: 169
21. Moist and dry desquamation can be caused by: a. high radiation doses. b. low radiation doses. c. radiation doses received during routine diagnostic imaging procedures. d. radiation doses received during routine mammography. ANS: A
REF: 168
22. Which of the following is the reason why the ovaries should be shielded whenever possible
during all imaging procedures? a. Gonadal irradiation of the ovaries can result in somatic damage that can be passed on to future generations. b. Gonadal irradiation of the ovaries can result in somatic damage, but it cannot be passed on to future generations. c. Gonadal irradiation of the ovaries can result in genetic mutations that can be passed on to future generations. d. There is no valid reason why the ovaries should be shielded whenever possible during all imaging procedures. ANS: C
REF: 171
23. A decrease in the number of neutrophils can be caused by a radiation dose of: a. 0.1 Gy. b. 0.2 Gy. c. 0.3 Gy. d. 0.5 Gy.
ANS: D
REF: 172
24. Grenz rays were once used to treat and cure: a. Acute radiation syndrome. b. cancer. c. lupus disease. d. skin diseases such as ringworm. ANS: D
REF: 169
25. During the major response stages of acute radiation syndrome after the initial stage, the period
when symptoms that affect the hematopoietic, gastrointestinal, and cerebrovascular systems become visible, is called: a. the latent period. b. manifest illness. c. the prodromal syndrome. d. recovery. ANS: B
REF: 165
Chapter 09: Late Deterministic and Stochastic Radiation Effects on Organ Systems Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Radiation-induced cataracts in humans follow a ______ dose-response relationship. a. nonlinear, nonthreshold b. linear, nonthreshold c. linear, threshold d. nonlinear, threshold ANS: D
REF: 194-195
2. Studies of Japanese atomic bomb survivors demonstrate that the incidence of leukemia has
______ since the late 1940s and early 1950s, and the incidence of solid tumors has continued to ______ since the late 1950s and early 1960s. a. slowly declined, escalate b. increased rapidly, decrease c. increased slowly, decrease d. rapidly declined, decrease ANS: A
REF: 189
3. For an accurate estimate of the number of radiation-induced leukemias and other malignancies
that may occur in some of the 135,000 evacuees from the 1986 nuclear power station accident in Chernobyl, Ukraine, the exposed population must _______. a. not be permitted to receive any additional medical radiation exposure for at least 20 years from the date of the accident. b. not be permitted to intermingle with the unexposed population. c. remain living in the same geographic area for the remainder of their lives. d. have long-term monitoring. ANS: D
REF: 191
4. Of the following late effects caused by exposure to ionizing radiation, which effect is
considered to be most important? a. Cataract formation b. Embryologic or birth defects c. Cancer d. None; all are considered to be of equal importance ANS: C
REF: 186
5. The human body can incorporate radium into bone because it is chemically similar to: a. calcium b. potassium c. phosphorus d. sodium ANS: A
REF: 186
6. Uranium miners in the Colorado plateau who developed lung cancer years after exposure
provide an example of which of the following? a. Early deterministic somatic effects b. Late stochastic effects c. Early genetic effects d. Late genetic effects ANS: B
REF: 187
7. In general, laboratory experiments with mice prove that cataracts may be induced with doses
of ionizing radiation as low as: a. 0.1 Gyt. b. 0.01 Gyt. c. 0.5 Gyt. d. 0.05 Gyt. ANS: A
REF: 194
8. In which of the following human populations is the risk for causing a radiation-induced cancer
not directly measurable? 1. All patients in diagnostic radiology subjected to a radiation dose below 0.1 Sievert 2. Chernobyl radiation accident victims living in contaminated villages 3. Japanese atomic bomb survivors a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 3 only d. 2 and 3 only ANS: A
REF: 184
9. Mutations in genes and DNA that occur at random as natural phenomena are called: a. deterministic mutations. b. sporadic mutations. c. spontaneous mutations. d. stochastic mutations. ANS: C
REF: 198
10. Existing data on radiation-induced genetic effects in humans: a. prove conclusively that radiation causes major genetic effects. b. prove conclusively that radiation causes only minor genetic effects. c. are still inconclusive. d. prove conclusively that radiation does not cause genetic effects. ANS: C
REF: 199
11. When a prediction is made that the number of excess cancers in a given population will
increase as the natural incidence of cancer increases in that population with age, the risk is described by which of the following terms? a. Absolute b. Excess c. Quadratic
d. Relative ANS: D
REF: 184-185
12. What is the mean value of the radiation doubling equivalent dose for humans, as determined
from the children of the atomic bomb survivors of Hiroshima and Nagasaki? a. 1.00 Sv b. 1.56 Sv c. 3.00 Sv d. 5.67 Sv ANS: B
REF: 200
13. Genetic effects from exposure to ionizing radiation occur as a result of radiation-induced
damage to the DNA molecule in which of the following? 1. Sperm of a man 2. Ova of a woman 3. Somatic cells of men and women a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 3 only d. 1 and 2 only ANS: D
REF: 198
14. What do agents such as chemicals, elevated temperatures, ionizing radiation, and viruses have
in common? a. Nothing b. They can increase the frequency of mutations in only those members of the population who are already genetically impaired. c. They are all mutagens that may increase the frequency of occurrence of mutations. d. They always cause spontaneous abortions during the first trimester of pregnancy. ANS: C
REF: 198
15. Which of the following groups of people exposed to ionizing radiation provide proof that low-
level radiation exposure produces late effects? a. 135,000 evacuees from the 1986 nuclear power plant accident at Chernobyl, Ukraine b. Japanese atomic bomb survivors c. Children of the Marshall Islanders who were inadvertently subjected to fallout during the atomic bomb test in 1954 d. None of the above ANS: D
REF: 183
16. During the preimplantation stage of development, a radiation dose of 0.05 to 0.15 Gyt
delivered to a human fertilized ovum will result in which of the following? a. Congenital abnormalities b. Delayed bone growth c. Embryonic death d. Microcephaly
ANS: C
REF: 196
17. After the 1986 nuclear power station accident in Chernobyl, Ukraine, an attempt was made to
prevent thyroid cancer in children in Poland and some other countries as a consequence of accidental overdose of iodine-131; _______________ was administered as a substitute for take-up of iodine-131. a. potassium bromide b. sodium chloride c. sodium bicarbonate d. potassium iodide ANS: D
REF: 191
18. Radiation dose-response curves can be used to predict the risk of ______________ in human
populations that have been exposed to low levels of ionizing radiation. a. cataract formation b. genetic effects c. malignancy d. spontaneous abortions ANS: C
REF: 180
19. Radiation-induced abnormalities are caused by unrepaired damage to: a. all stem cells in the body. b. DNA within ova or sperm. c. epithelial cells. d. somatic cells. ANS: B
REF: 198
20. Normally, mutations in genetic material occur spontaneously, without a known cause. A
genetic disorder is present in approximately _______ of all live births in the United States. a. 10% b. 20% c. 25% d. 30% ANS: A
REF: 198
21. Today, as a result of programs stressing radiation safety education and protective devices,
radiation workers employed in medical imaging: a. may only experience a moderate degree of adverse health effects as a consequence of their work. b. may only experience a small amount of adverse health effects as a consequence of their work. c. need not experience any adverse health effects as a consequence of their work. d. programs stressing radiation safety education and the use of protective devices have no impact on adverse health effects that radiation workers sustain. ANS: C
REF: 188
22. Radium decays with a half-life of:
a. b. c. d.
8 days. 50 years. 500 years. 1622 years
ANS: D
REF: 186
23. The term linear nonthreshold curve implies that the biologic response to ionizing radiation is: a. directly proportional to the dose. b. inversely proportional to the dose. c. directly proportional to the square of the dose. d. inversely proportional to the square of the dose. ANS: A
REF: 181
24. Genetic mutations at the molecular level are called: a. chromatid mutations. b. chromosome mutations. c. molecular mutations. d. point mutations. ANS: D
REF: 198
25. Studies of postpartum patients treated with ionizing radiation for relief of mastitis are a group
of individuals in whom the results of radiation exposure to healthy breast tissue indicate that radiation: a. can cause breast cancer. b. cannot cause breast cancer. c. can cause breast enlargement. d. can cause breast shrinkage. ANS: A
REF: 188
Chapter 10: Dose Limits for Exposure to Ionizing Radiation Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following terms means “random in nature”? a. Deterministic b. Epidemiologic c. Nonstochastic d. Stochastic ANS: D
REF: 216
2. When whole-body occupational exposure is controlled by keeping the effective dose (EfD)
well below the upper boundary limit, the possibility of inducing stochastic effects of radiation is: a. increased considerably. b. increased slightly. c. maintained at an acceptable level. d. minimized. ANS: D
REF: 223
3. Which of the following agencies was previously known as the Atomic Energy Commission? a. FDA b. ICRP c. NCRP d. NRC ANS: D
REF: 209
4. Which of the following are functions and/or responsibilities of the United States Occupational
Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)? 1. Functions as a monitoring agency in places of employment, predominantly in industry 2. Regulates occupational exposure to radiation through Part 1910 of Title 29 of the U.S. Code of Federal Regulations (29 CFR 1910) 3. Responsible for regulations concerning the “right to know” of employees with regard to hazards that may be present in the workplace a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D
REF: 211
5. Which of the following groups is run by the government of Japan, primarily to study Japanese
atomic bomb survivors? a. National Research Council Committee on the Biological Effects of Ionizing Radiation b. International Commission on Radiological Protection
c. Radiation Effects Research Foundation d. Nuclear Regulatory Commission ANS: C
REF: 208
6. Epidemiologic studies of atomic bomb survivors exposed in utero have provided conclusive
evidence of a dose-dependent increase in the incidence of severe mental retardation for fetal doses greater than approximately: a. 0.1 Sv. b. 0.2 Sv. c. 0.3 Sv. d. 0.4 Sv. ANS: D
REF: 219
7. Determine the cumulative effective dose (CumEfD) limit to the whole body of an
occupationally exposed person who is 46 years old. a. 4.6 mSv b. 46 mSv c. 460 mSv d. 4600 mSv ANS: C
REF: 220
8. ____________________ exists that low-level ionizing radiation causes a statistically
significant increase in the threat of malignancy. a. A substantial amount of conclusive proof b. A moderate amount of conclusive proof c. A small amount of conclusive proof d. No conclusive proof ANS: D
REF: 217
9. The main function of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) is to:
1. inspect imaging facilities. 2. oversee the nuclear energy industry. 3. regulate imaging facilities. a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: B
REF: 210
10. The effective dose (EfD) limiting system supersedes: a. all Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) regulations. b. all Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) regulations. c. the maximum permissible dose (MPD) system. d. the Consumer-Patient Radiation Health and Safety Act of 1981. ANS: C
REF: 220
11. The ALARA concept presents an extremely conservative model with respect to the
relationship between: a. health care education and radiation research. b. ionizing and nonionizing radiation. c. ionizing radiation and potential risk. d. radiation dose and biologic response. ANS: C
REF: 214
12. In general, deterministic effects typically occur: a. after all diagnostic imaging procedures. b. only after some diagnostic imaging procedures. c. only after routine fluoroscopic procedures. d. only after large doses of radiation are received. ANS: D
REF: 215
13. If a cancer induced by 2 Gy of ionizing radiation is compared with a cancer induced by 0.2 Gy
of ionizing radiation, the cancer induced by the larger absorbed dose is no worse than the cancer induced by the smaller absorbed dose, but the chance of cancer induction from the larger dose is: a. greater. b. lesser. c. the same as the chance of induction from the smaller dose. d. ionizing radiation cannot cause cancer. ANS: A
REF: 216
14. Which of the following are responsibilities of a health care facility’s radiation safety
committee (RSC)? 1. Assist in the development of the radiation safety program 2. Provide guidance for the radiation safety program 3. Facilitate the ongoing operation of the radiation safety program a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D
REF: 211
15. The essential concept underlying radiation protection is that: a. any organ in the human body is vulnerable to damage from exposure to ionizing
radiation. b. only critical organs in the human body are vulnerable to damage from exposure to
ionizing radiation. c. only the reproductive organs in male and female humans are vulnerable to damage
from exposure to ionizing radiation. d. no organ in the human body is vulnerable to damage from exposure to ionizing
radiation. ANS: A
REF: 219
16. The annual occupational effective dose (EfD) limit does not include:
1. personal medical radiation exposure from an imaging procedure. 2. natural background radiation exposure. 3. radiation exposure received on the job. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: A
REF: 220
17. Which of the following statements is true? a. Medical imaging personnel almost always receive equivalent doses that are close
to the annual effective dose limit. b. Medical imaging personnel always receive equivalent doses that are close to the
annual effective dose limit. c. Medical imaging personnel almost never receive equivalent doses that are close to
the annual effective dose limit. d. Medical imaging personnel absolutely never receive equivalent doses that are close
to the annual effective dose limit. ANS: C
REF: 220
18. Occasional exposure for the purpose of education and training is permitted, provided that
special care is taken to ensure that the annual effective dose limit of ____________ is not exceeded. a. 0.5 mSv b. 1 mSv c. 2 mSv d. 3 mSv ANS: B
REF: 222
19. Determine the cumulative effective dose (CumEfD) limit to the whole body of an
occupationally exposed person who is 52 years old. a. 5.2 mSv b. 52 mSv c. 520 mSv d. 5200 mSv ANS: C
REF: 220
20. The responsibility for maintaining radiation monitoring records for all personnel and for
providing counseling for individuals who receive monitor readings in excess of allowable limits belongs to the: a. director of human resources of a health care facility. b. designated radiation safety officer of a health care facility. c. hospital administrator. d. radiologic technologist in charge of quality control. ANS: B
REF: 212
21. Determine the cumulative effective dose (CumEfD) to the whole body of an occupationally
exposed person who is 34 years old. a. 3400 mSv b. 340 mSv c. 34 mSv d. 3.4 mSv ANS: B
REF: 220
22. A radiation safety officer in a health care facility must have sufficient authority, organizational
freedom, and management prerogative to: 1. identify radiation safety problems. 2. initiate, recommend, or provide corrective action. 3. stop unsafe operations involving by-product material. 4. verify implementation of corrective actions. a. 1, 2, and 3 only b. 1, 3, and 4 only c. 2, 3, and 4 only d. 1, 2, 3, and 4 ANS: D
REF: 212
23. To define ALARA, health care facilities usually adopt investigation levels, defined as Level I
and Level II. In the United States, these levels are traditionally _______ to ______ the applicable regulatory standards. a. one twentieth, one tenth b. one tenth, three tenths c. three tenths, one half d. one half, seven tenths ANS: B
REF: 214
24. Damage to the reproductive cells of male and female humans that is caused by irradiation of
sperm and ova before conception is termed: a. mutagenesis. b. optimization. c. spermaovagenesis. d. teratogenesis. ANS: A
REF: 217
25. Effective dose (EfD) limits may be expressed for:
1. whole-body exposure. 2. partial-body exposure. 3. exposure of individual organs. a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D
REF: 217
Chapter 11: Equipment Design for Radiation Protection Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is not an x-ray beam limitation device? a. Aperture diaphragm b. Collimator c. Filter d. Extension cylinder ANS: C
REF: 231
2. When the speed of screen-film systems doubles, for example, when changing from a 200-
speed to a 400-speed system, patient radiation exposure is ______ by approximately ______. a. increased, 25% b. increased, 50% c. reduced, 25% d. reduced, 50% ANS: D
REF: 242
3. Sharper size restriction of the radiographic beam is achieved when a cone or cylinder is: a. longer. b. shorter. c. made of aluminum. d. made of durable plastic. ANS: A
REF: 236
4. When using digital fluoroscopy systems, making use of the last-image-hold feature can: a. be an effective dose reduction technique. b. eliminate the need to collimate the primary beam. c. eliminate increased involuntary patient motion. d. eliminate increased voluntary patient motion. ANS: A
REF: 258
5. What is the purpose of radiographic beam filtration? a. To decrease beam hardness, thereby reducing patient skin dose and the dose to
superficial tissues b. To increase beam hardness, thereby reducing patient skin dose and the dose to
superficial tissues c. To eliminate short wavelength radiation to reduce the radiation received by the patient’s skin and superficial tissues d. To increase beam hardness, thereby increasing patient skin dose with only a slight increase to superficial tissues ANS: B
REF: 236-237
6. Depending on the area of the body being examined with a fluoroscopic image intensification
system, for adult patients, a range of ______ kVp is generally used. a. 30 to 60 b. 60 to 75 c. 75 to 110 d. 110 to 140 ANS: C
REF: 253
7. When performing a mobile fluoroscopic procedure, to reduce the radiation exposure to the
patient, the radiographer must use a minimal source-skin distance of: a. 15 cm. b. 30 cm. c. 38 cm. d. 45 cm. ANS: B
REF: 254
8. When a fluoroscopic image is electronically amplified by the use of an image intensification
system, which of the following benefits results? 1. Increased image brightness 2. Saving of time for the radiologist 3. Patient dose reduction a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D
REF: 252
9. Current federal standards limit entrance skin exposure rates of general-purpose intensified
fluoroscopic units to a maximum of ______________ measured at tabletop with the image intensifier entrance surface at a prescribed 30 cm above. a. 100 mGya/min b. 300 mGya/min c. 500 mGya/min d. 600 mGya/min ANS: A
REF: 254
10. During a fluoroscopic examination, a resettable cumulative timing device times the x-ray
beam-on time and sounds an audible alarm or temporarily interrupts the exposure after the fluoroscope has been activated for what length of time? a. 1 minute b. 3 minutes c. 5 minutes d. 10 minutes ANS: C
REF: 254
11. To visualize smaller and lower contrast objects during interventional procedures, high-level-
control fluoroscopy uses exposure rates that are ____________ those normally used in routine fluoroscopy. a. higher than b. lower than c. the same as d. none of the above because smaller and lower contrast objects cannot be visualized by fluoroscopy during interventional procedures ANS: A
REF: 258
12. When obtaining a dorsoplantar projection of a foot, which of the following types of filters
should be used to provide a greater uniform density of the anatomy? a. Bilateral wedge filter b. Trough filter c. Thoraeus filter d. Wedge filter ANS: D
REF: 241
13. A radiographer uses a high-speed, rare-earth screen-film system with optimal technical
exposure factors to obtain PA and lateral radiographs of a 2-year-old child’s chest. To maximize reduction of radiation exposure to the patient following adequate immobilization, the radiographer should: a. collimate the x-ray beam so that it is only slightly larger than the margins of the image receptor and shield the child’s reproductive organs. b. collimate the x-ray beam so that it is no larger than the margins of the image receptor and shield the child’s reproductive organs. c. collimate the x-ray beam so that it is smaller than the margins of the image receptor and shield the child’s reproductive organs. d. collimate the x-ray beam so that it is smaller than the margins of the image receptor and not shield the child’s reproductive organs. ANS: C
REF: 235
14. Federal government specifications recommend a minimum total filtration of
_______________ for stationary (fixed) fluoroscopic x-ray units operating above 70 kVp. a. 1.0-mm aluminum equivalent b. 1.5-mm aluminum equivalent c. 2.0-mm aluminum equivalent d. 2.5-mm aluminum equivalent ANS: D
REF: 238
15. Compared with the traditional material in the front of a cassette (aluminum or cardboard), the
cassette front containing the carbon fiber absorbs approximately ______ as much radiation, resulting in a __________ dose for the patient because ________ radiographic techniques are required to produce the recorded image. a. four times, higher, higher b. three times, higher, higher c. twice, higher, higher
d. half, lower, lower ANS: D
REF: 243
16. In standard image intensification fluoroscopy, an x-ray beam half-value-layer (HVL) of 3 to
4.5 mm aluminum is considered acceptable when peak kilovoltage ranges from: a. 50 to 60. b. 60 to 70. c. 70 to 80. d. 80 to 100. ANS: D
REF: 254
17. Digital radiography images can be accessed: a. at only one workstation at a time, thereby decreasing convenience for physicians
providing patient care. b. at no more than two workstations at a time, thereby decreasing convenience for
physicians providing patient care. c. at several workstations at the same time, making image viewing very convenient
for physicians providing patient care. d. digital images cannot be accessed at any workstations by physicians. ANS: C
REF: 247
18. When an exposed computed radiography imaging plate is ready to be processed, an imaging
reading unit is used to scan the photostimulable phosphor imaging plate with a helium–neon laser beam. This process results in the emission of violet light that is changed into an electronic signal by a device called a: a. charge-coupled-device array. b. photodiode. c. photomultiplier tube. d. scintillator. ANS: C
REF: 247
19. Computed radiography, because of its higher exposure latitude, makes grid use on the
pediatric population: a. absolutely necessary for all radiographic examinations. b. less necessary than was previously believed. c. necessary only for extremity examinations. d. unnecessary for any examination. ANS: B
REF: 250
20. CR imaging has greater ____________ flexibility than conventional screen-film radiography. a. kilovoltage b. milliamperage c. time of exposure d. x-ray beam collimation ANS: A
REF: 249
21. Of the following procedures, which involve extended fluoroscopic time?
1. Biliary drainage 2. Stent and filter placement 3. Urinary or biliary stone removal a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D
REF: 259
22. Luminance is determined by measuring the concentration of light: a. at only one particular point of the field of view. b. over a particular field of view. c. at only one particular point of the field of view and then squaring the number. d. over a particular field of view and then squaring the number. ANS: B
REF: 233
23. When settings are changed from one mA to a neighboring mA station, the most that linearity
can vary is: a. 0%. b. 10%. c. 20%. d. 50%. ANS: B
REF: 242
24. The control panel, where technical exposure factors are selected and seen on indicators by the
equipment operator, must be located: a. at the foot end of the radiographic examining table. b. at the head end of the radiographic examining table. c. behind a suitable protective barrier that has a radiation-absorbent window that permits observation of the patient during any procedure. d. behind any regular wall that has a regular glass window that permits observation of the patient during any procedure. ANS: C
REF: 261
25. Which of the following materials is commonly used in the tabletop of a radiographic
examination table to make the tabletop as radiolucent as possible so that it will absorb only a minimal amount of radiation, thereby reducing the patient’s radiation dose? a. Carbon fiber material b. Formica c. Granite d. Slate ANS: A
REF: 261
Chapter 12: Management of Patient Radiation Dose during Diagnostic X-Ray Procedures Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Any image that must be performed more than once because of human or mechanical error
during the production of the initial image is known as a repeat image. What effect does a repeat image have on the radiation dose received by the patient? a. The patient receives no additional radiation dose. b. The patient’s skin and possibly the gonads receive a double radiation dose. c. The patient’s critical organs receive a radiation dose that is 10 times greater than the initial radiation dose. d. The patient’s superficial tissues only receive a radiation dose that is four times as great as that of the original radiation dose. ANS: B
REF: 280
2. During a radiographic examination, which of the following combinations of technical
exposure factors and filtration reduce patient radiation dose? a. Lower kVp, higher mAs, decreased filtration b. Higher kVp, lower mAs, increased filtration c. Higher kVp, higher mAs, decreased filtration d. Lower kVp, lower mAs, increased filtration ANS: B
REF: 277
3. When a pregnant patient must undergo a radiographic procedure, which of the following
practices will minimize radiation exposure? a. Selecting technical exposure factors that are appropriate for the part of the body to be radiographed b. Opening the x-ray beam collimator shutters as wide as possible to ensure complete coverage of the image receptor c. Precisely collimating the radiographic beam to include only the anatomic area of interest and shielding the lower abdomen and pelvis when this area does not need to be included in the area to be irradiated d. A and C ANS: D
REF: 300
4. According to the American College of Radiology (ACR), abdominal radiologic examinations
that have been requested after full consideration of the clinical status of a patient, including the possibility of pregnancy, need: a. not to be postponed or selectively scheduled. b. to be postponed or selectively scheduled. c. to be postponed and scheduled at least 10 days after the start of the next menstrual period. d. to be postponed and scheduled 10 days before the end of the next menstrual period. ANS: A
REF: 299
5. Which of the following types of gonadal shielding provides the best protection for a male
patient when AP, oblique, and lateral projections are obtained? a. Flat contact shield containing 1 mm of lead b. Shadow shield c. Shaped contact shield containing 1 mm of lead d. None of the above because gonadal shielding is unnecessary for male patients of any age ANS: C
REF: 274
6. Specific area shielding may be selectively used during some x-ray procedures to protect which
of the following? 1. Lens of the eye 2. Breast 3. Extremities a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: A
REF: 275
7. ________________________ are the sensing devices most often used to measure skin dose
directly. a. Thermoluminescent dosimeters b. A sequence of aluminum equivalent filters of varying thicknesses c. Lead-impregnated filters d. Molybdenum and rhodium filters ANS: A
REF: 282
8. Which of the following are considered to be benefits of an aggressive repeat analysis
program? 1. Increased awareness among staff and student radiographers of the need to produce optimal quality recorded images 2. Radiographers generally become more careful in producing their images because they are aware that the images are being reviewed 3. When the repeat analysis program identifies problems or concerns, in-service education programs covering these specific topics may be designed for imaging personnel a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D
REF: 280
9. The genetically significant dose (GSD) for the population of the United States is about: a. 1.00 mSv. b. 0.80 mSv. c. 0.40 mSv.
d. 0.20 mSv. ANS: D
REF: 283
10. Which of the following must always be the first step in protection of the reproductive organs? a. Adequate and precise collimation of the radiographic beam to include only the
anatomy of interest b. Use of gonadal shielding c. Use of a mobile protective shielding device d. Use of digital imaging equipment rather than conventional equipment ANS: A
REF: 271
11. In a remote control fluoroscopic room where the x-ray tube is located above the patient,
protective shielding should: a. be placed over the patient. b. be placed under the patient. c. be placed alongside the patient. d. not be used. ANS: A
REF: 273
12. When automatic exposure control (AEC) is not used, then to ensure uniform selection of
technical x-ray exposure factors, efficient imaging departments: a. estimate technical exposure factors for all radiographic examinations. b. have the radiologist determine and set up all technical exposure factor charts. c. use technique charts borrowed from another imaging facility. d. use standardized technique charts for each x-ray unit. ANS: D
REF: 276
13. Poorly processed images on radiographic film will: a. continue to have archival quality. b. deteriorate over time. c. lose only a minimal amount of archival quality over a 10-year period. d. remain in their original condition. ANS: B
REF: 278
14. In fluoroscopy, the amount of radiation that a patient receives is usually estimated by
measuring the radiation exposure rate at tabletop and multiplying this by the: a. fluoroscopy time. b. distance between the fluoroscope and the patient. c. square of the distance between the fluoroscope and the patient. d. radiographic exposure factors. ANS: A
REF: 282
15. The radiation dose absorbed by an organ such as bone marrow: a. can be accurately measured by a direct method. b. cannot be measured by a direct method; it can only be estimated. c. is negligible for all diagnostic radiography examinations. d. can only be measured to a small degree by a direct method.
ANS: B
REF: 283
16. Digital mammography units with the ability to enhance contrast with image gray-level
manipulation offer: a. improvement for patients with small breasts. b. improvement for patients with microcalcifications in small breasts. c. improvement for patients with dense breasts. d. poor quality images for patients with dense breasts and microcalcifications. ANS: C
REF: 289
17. During mammography, axillary projections should be done only on request of the: a. ordering physician. b. patient. c. radiologist. d. technologist performing the examination. ANS: C
REF: 291
18. If a child is placed in a CT scanner and adult protocols are used: a. the child will receive the same dose as an adult. b. the child will receive a lower dose than the adult. c. the child will receive a higher dose than the adult. d. there is no radiation dose. ANS: C
REF: 295
19. The goal of the Alliance for Radiation Safety in Pediatric Imaging is to: a. increase awareness of the need to reduce patient dose for pediatric patients. b. completely eliminate the use of CT imaging for all pediatric patients. c. completely eliminate the use of CT imaging for pediatric patients younger than 1
year of age. d. completely eliminate the use of CT imaging for pediatric patients between the ages
of 3 and 4 years old. ANS: A
REF: 295
20. Which of the following is frequently a problem in diagnostic pediatric radiography? a. Lack of availability of appropriate pediatric immobilization devices b. Lack of cooperation of parents or guardian c. Lack of appropriate individuals to assist in holding a pediatric patient during an
exposure d. Patient motion ANS: D
REF: 297
21. In the event that a pregnant patient is inadvertently irradiated: a. the radiographer performing the examination should perform the calculations
necessary to determine fetal dose. b. the imaging department manager should perform the calculations necessary to determine fetal dose. c. the radiologic physicist should perform the calculations necessary to determine
fetal dose. d. the radiologist should perform the calculations necessary to determine fetal dose. ANS: C
REF: 299
22. Studies of groups such as the atomic bomb survivors of Hiroshima have shown that damage to
newborns is unlikely for doses below: a. 5 Gy. b. 2 Gy. c. 0.5 Gy. d. 0.2 Gy. ANS: D
REF: 299
23. Because most medical procedures result in fetal exposures: a. greater than 5 Gy, the risk of abnormality is large. b. greater than 1 Gy, the risk of abnormality is large. c. less than 0.5 Gy but greater than 0.01 Gy, the risk of abnormality is small. d. less than 0.01 Gy, the risk of abnormality is small. ANS: D
REF: 299
24. Of the following radiologic procedures, which is(are) considered nonessential? a. A chest x-ray on scheduled admission to the hospital b. Lumbar spine x-rays as part of a preemployment physical examination c. Whole-body multislice computed tomography (CT) screening d. All of the above ANS: D
REF: 281
25. When technical radiographic exposures are to be selected, which of the following are some of
the factors that should be considered? 1. Mass per unit volume of tissue of the area of clinical interest 2. Effective atomic numbers and electron densities of the tissue involved 3. Type and quantity of filtration used a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D
REF: 276
Chapter 13: Management of Imaging Personnel Radiation Dose during Diagnostic XRay Procedures Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following x-ray procedures increases the radiographer’s risk of exposure to
ionizing radiation? 1. Mobile C-arm fluoroscopy 2. Interventional procedures that use high-level-control fluoroscopy 3. Mobile radiographic examinations a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D
REF: 308
2. Because occupational exposure of the radiographer can be kept as low as reasonably
achievable (ALARA) through individual monitoring and other protective measures and the use of protective devices and because exposure from radiation-related jobs will not alter the ______________________, radiation workers may receive a larger equivalent dose than members of the general population. a. mean glandular dose b. genetically significant dose c. bone marrow dose d. tissue tolerance dose ANS: B
REF: 309
3. In terms of occupational risk, radiography may be compared with the occupational risk
associated with which of the following? a. Extremely hazardous industries b. Other industries considered reasonably safe, such as government and trade c. A nuclear war d. A radiation accident, such as the Chernobyl nuclear power plant disaster ANS: B
REF: 309
4. Whenever scattered radiation decreases, the radiographer’s exposure: a. decreases. b. increases slightly. c. increases considerably. d. remains the same. ANS: A
REF: 314
5. Which of the following adjustments in technical exposure factors decreases the production of
scattered radiation? a. Decrease kVp and increase mAs in compensation
b. Decrease kVp and decrease mAs c. Increase kVp and decrease mAs in compensation d. Increase kVp and increase mAs ANS: C
REF: 312
6. During which of the following x-ray examinations should a radiographer always wear a
thyroid shield? a. Fluoroscopy and special procedures b. Routine mobile radiographic procedures c. General diagnostic radiographic procedures performed in an x-ray room d. Digital radiography procedures and computed radiography procedures ANS: A
REF: 315
7. While standing behind the control-booth barrier, a radiographer makes a radiographic
exposure. The x-rays scattered from the patient’s body should ____________________. a. not have enough energy remaining that will reach behind the control-booth barrier. b. scatter only once before reaching any area behind the control-booth barrier. c. scatter a minimum of two times before reaching any area behind the control-booth barrier. d. scatter a minimum of 10 times before reaching any area behind the control-booth barrier. ANS: C
REF: 316
8. Which of the following is another term for use factor (U)? a. Workload factor b. Occupancy factor in controlled and uncontrolled areas c. Beam direction factor d. Protective barrier thickness consideration factor ANS: C
REF: 328
9. The annual effective dose limit for individual members of the general population not
occupationally exposed is ___________ for continuous or frequent exposures from artificial sources other than medical irradiation and natural background and ____________ for infrequent annual exposure. a. 1 mSv, 5 mSv b. 3 mSv, 7 mSv c. 5 mSv, 9 mSv d. 50 mSv, 25 mSv ANS: A
REF: 309
10. A spot film device protective curtain, or sliding panel, of a minimum thickness of 0.25-mm
lead equivalent should normally be positioned between the fluoroscopist and the patient to intercept which of the following types of radiation? a. Primary radiation b. Scattered radiation above the tabletop c. Exit or image formation radiation d. Direct radiation
ANS: B
REF: 320
11. If the intensity of the x-ray beam is inversely proportional to the square of the distance from
the source, how does the intensity of the x-ray beam change when the distance from the source of radiation and a measurement point is tripled? a. It increases by a factor of 3 at the new distance. b. It increases by a factor of 9 at the new distance. c. It decreases by a factor of 9 at the new distance. d. It decreases by a factor of 3 at the new distance. ANS: C
REF: 314
12. What is the term for the proportional amount of time during which the x-ray beam is
energized or directed toward a particular barrier? a. Occupancy factor b. Workload factor c. Distance factor d. Use factor ANS: D
REF: 328
13. The maximum weekly permitted equivalent dose for a controlled area must not exceed: a. 1 millisievert. b. 100 millisievert. c. 20 microsievert. d. 2 microsievert. ANS: A
REF: 328
14. When a radiologic technologist declares her pregnancy to her employer, which of the
following is appropriate? a. Her employer terminates her employment until after her child is born. b. She is able to continue her employment but is not permitted to perform any radiologic procedures during the remainder of her pregnancy. c. Her employer requires her to take a leave of absence until after the completion of the first trimester of the pregnancy and then return to her normal duties. d. She continues to perform her duties without interruption of employment, provided that she has received radiation safety counseling and follows established radiation safety practices. ANS: D
REF: 312
15. Which part(s) of a diagnostic x-ray unit should a radiographer avoid touching while a
radiographic exposure is in progress? a. Control panel b. Exposure switch c. Kilovoltage control on the control panel d. Tube housing, collimator, and high-tension cables ANS: D
REF: 319
16. When doors to radiographic and fluoroscopic rooms are closed during radiation exposures, a
substantial degree of protection is provided for persons in areas adjacent to the room door. This is because in most facilities room doors have attenuation for diagnostic energy x-ray equivalent to that provided by _______ mm of lead. a. 0.2 b. 0.4 c. 0.6 d. 0.8 ANS: D
REF: 316
17. When the time spent in a higher radiation area is reduced or limited, occupational exposure: a. is also reduced. b. is increased slightly. c. remains the same. d. is increased considerably. ANS: A
REF: 313
18. Diagnostic imaging personnel receive the highest occupational exposure during which of the
following procedures? 1. Fluoroscopy 2. Mobile radiography 3. Special procedures a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D
REF: 321
19. If the peak energy of the x-ray beam is 100 kVp, a protective lead apron must be the
equivalent to at least which of the following measures? a. 0.25-mm thickness of lead b. 0.5-mm thickness of lead c. 1.0-mm thickness of lead d. 1.5-mm thickness of lead ANS: A
REF: 318
20. For C-arm devices with similar fields of view, the dose rate to personnel located within a
meter of the patient is: a. comparable to that of routine fluoroscopy. b. far greater than the dose rate of routine fluoroscopy. c. significantly less than the dose rate of routine fluoroscopy. d. comparable to that of high-level-control fluoroscopy. ANS: A
REF: 321
21. Protective eyeglasses with optically clear lenses should contain a minimal lead equivalent
protection of: a. 0.15 mm.
b. 0.25 mm. c. 0.35 mm. d. 0.50 mm. ANS: C
REF: 318
22. _______________ is the radiation output weighted time that the unit is actually delivering
radiation during the week. a. Control designation b. Occupancy c. Use factor d. Workload ANS: D
REF: 327
23. To ensure that the lifetime risk of occupationally exposed persons remains acceptable, the
lifetime effective dose in mSv should not exceed: a. the occupationally exposed person’s age in years. b. 5 times the occupationally exposed person’s age in years. c. 10 times the occupationally exposed person’s age in years. d. 20 times the occupationally exposed person’s age in years. ANS: C
REF: 308
24. Secondary radiation includes:
1. leakage radiation. 2. primary radiation. 3. scatter radiation. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: B
REF: 326
25. Who should determine the exact shielding requirements for a particular imaging facility? a. Administrator of the facility b. Medical physicist c. Radiologist d. Radiographer ANS: B
REF: 315
Chapter 14: Radioisotopes and Radiation Protection Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Therapeutic radioisotopes are characterized by: a. very short half-lives. b. half-lives that are exactly the same. c. relatively long half-lives. d. half-lives that remain constant for all eternity. ANS: C
REF: 338
2. Iodine-125 (125I) in the form of titanium-encapsulated cylindrical seeds has been used quite
extensively within the past decade to give a tumoricidal radiation equivalent dose for: a. malignant brain tumors. b. malignant breast tumors. c. malignant lung tumors. d. prostate cancers that are confined within the prostate gland. ANS: D
REF: 339
3. Tellurium-125 (125Te) has: a. 125 protons and 125 neutrons. b. 75 protons and 63 neutrons. c. 52 protons and 73 neutrons. d. 45 protons and 58 neutrons. ANS: C
REF: 339
4. What is the half-life of Technetium-99m? a. 6 hours b. 3 hours c. 6 minutes d. 3 minutes ANS: A
REF: 341
5. In __________, a neutron transforms itself into a combination of a proton and an energetic
electron. a. alpha decay b. beta decay c. gamma decay d. x-ray absorption ANS: B
REF: 341
6. Considering the design of the medical imaging suites listed below, which suite presents the
most unique additional radiation safety problems? a. Computer radiography suite b. PET and CT imaging suite
c. Digital mammography suite d. Digital fluoroscopy suite ANS: B
REF: 343
7. While a patient receiving Iodine-131 (131I) therapy is hospitalized, a large, _________, rolling
lead shield can be positioned between the patient and any attending personnel for protection. a. up to 1-inch-thick b. 2-inch-thick c. 3-inch-thick d. 6-inch-thick ANS: A
REF: 340
8. Diagnostic techniques in nuclear medicine typically make use of ___________ radioisotopes
as radioactive tracers. a. long-lived b. short-lived c. very weak d. potentially lethal ANS: B
REF: 340
9. Each Fluorine-18 (18F) nuclear transformation by positron decay yields two highly penetrating
_________ photons. a. 250-keV b. 472-keV c. 511-kev d. 777-keV ANS: C
REF: 342
10. The design of a _______________ imaging suite involves significant radiation safety
concerns. a. diagnostic x-ray b. computed radiography c. computed tomography d. PET and CT ANS: D
REF: 343
11. Radioactive material that is attached to or associated with dust particles or in liquid form on
various surfaces defines the term: a. radioactive contamination. b. radioactive dispersal device. c. radioactive fallout. d. radioactive syndrome. ANS: A
REF: 347
12. The actual long-term health effects of a “dirty bomb” are likely to be: a. catastrophic. b. maximal.
c. minimal. d. nonexistent. ANS: C
REF: 347
13. During a radiation emergency, the dose limit for individuals engaging in lifesaving activities
is: a. b. c. d.
50 mSv per event. 100 mSv per event. 250 mSv per event. 500 mSv per event.
ANS: C
REF: 348
14. During a radiation emergency, at a dose rate of ____________, emergency personnel should
await specific instructions from radiation experts on how to proceed. a. 0.1 Sv/hr b. 0.5 Sv/hr c. 1.0 Sv/hr d. 5.0 Sv/hr ANS: A
REF: 348
15. If enough explosives are used to spread radioactive material over a broad area, then
radioactivity is: a. extremely hazardous and may be much higher than background levels. b. moderately hazardous and may be higher than background levels. c. slightly hazardous and may be only slightly higher than background levels. d. diluted and may not be much higher than background levels. ANS: D
REF: 347
