Test bank for The Science of Nutrition, 5th edition By Janice Thompson, Melinda Manore, Linda A Vaug

TEST BANK

Correct Answer Marked with * Chapter 1 1. Which of the following best describes nutrition? a. Nutrition is the study of the digestion and metabolism of food. *b. Nutrition is the science that studies food and how food nourishes our bodies and influences our health. c. Nutrition is an ancient science that dates back to the fourteenth century. d. Nutrition is the study of food.

2. Beriberi was identified in the 20th century as a deficiency of which vitamin? a. niacin *b. thiamin c. vitamin C d. biotin 3. Which best defines chronic disease? *a. a disease that comes on slowly and can persist for years b. a condition that has a rapid onset and is easily cured c. a disease caused by a microorganism d. a disease of aging 4. Nutrition researchers are interested in chronic diseases that include all the following except a. various types of cancers. b. obesity. *c. respiratory disease. d. cardiovascular disease.

5. Today, wellness is defined as a. the absence of disease. b. achieving and maintaining physical health. *c. a multidimensional process including physical, emotional, and spiritual health. d. an end point goal that exists along a continuum of health.

6. Three nutrition-related diseases that are among the top ten causes of death in the U.S. are heart disease, stroke and a. osteoporosis. b. kidney disease. *c. diabetes. d. pneumonia.

7. The health promotion and disease prevention plan for the U.S. is called a. the Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs). b. the U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA). *c. <span style="font-style: italic;">Healthy People 2020.</span> d. the Behavioral Risk Factor Surveillance System.

8. To achieve health equity, eliminate disparities, and improve the health of all population groups is a stated goal of a. the National Cancer Institute. b. the Dietary Reference Intakes. *c. <span style="font-style: italic;">Healthy People 2020.</span> d. the <span style="font-style: italic;">Journal of the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics</span>.

9. More than one-third of all American adults are obese.

This statistic provides data about what kind of information? a. incidence *b. prevalence c. association d. validity 10. How often is <span style="font-style: italic;">Healthy People 2020 revised?</span> a. every year b. when it is necessary

c. every 20 years *d. every decade 11. Which class of nutrients provides the primary source of energy for our bodies? *a. carbohydrates b. vitamins c. minerals d. water 12. Which element makes protein different from carbohydrate and fat? a. carbon b. hydrogen *c. nitrogen d. oxygen 13. Which of the following is classified as a micronutrient? a. carbohydrates *b. vitamins c. lipids d. alcohol 14. Which of the following are examples of inorganic nutrients? a. vitamins b. lipids c. carbohydrates *d. minerals 15. Which of the following nutrients is organic? a. minerals b. water *c. protein d. iron

16. Kelly consumed a breakfast that contained 85 grams of carbohydrate, 20 grams of protein, and 18 grams of fat. How many kilocalories (kcal) did Kelly eat at breakfast? a. 492 *b. 582 c. 917 d. 1,107 17. For dinner, Marcus consumes 255 grams of carbohydrate, 70 grams of protein, and 50 grams of fat. In addition, Marcus decides that he wants a glass of wine with his meal.

If he drinks one glass of wine containing 8 grams of alcohol, how many total kilocalories (kcal) does he consume in this meal? a. 56 b. 540 c. 1,675 *d. 1,806 18. Christopher's lunch contains 121 grams of carbohydrate, 40 grams of protein, and 25 grams of fat. What percent of kilocalories (kcal) in this meal come from fat? a. 19 percent *b. 26 percent c. 34 percent d. 42 percent 19. A meal contains 300 kilocalories from carbohydrates with a total kilocalorie of 561 in the meal. How many grams of carbohydrates is in the meal? a. 140 grams *b. 75 grams c. 62 grams d. 33 grams 20. Which of the following are examples of carbohydraterich foods? a. butter and corn oil b. beef and pork

*c. wheat and lentils d. bacon and eggs 21. Which of the following is NOT classified as a lipid? a. triglyceride b. sterol *c. glycine d. phospholipid 22. Which of the following nutrients contains the element nitrogen? a. carbohydrates b. lipids c. water *d. proteins 23. Which of the following nutrients yields the most energy per gram? a. carbohydrate *b. lipid c. protein d. vitamin 24. What are minerals? a. micronutrients that are broken down easily during digestion b. micronutrients that are easily destroyed by heat and light *c. micronutrients that are inorganic elements found in a variety of foods d. macronutrients that do not yield energy 25. Alcohol is not considered a ________ because it does not support the regulation of body functions or tissue repair or rebuilding. a. kilocalorie b. carbohydrate *c. nutrient

d. wellness factor 26. The building blocks of proteins are called a. fatty acids. *b. amino acids. c. saccharides. d. nitrogen fragments.

27. Which of the following statements is false? *a. Lipids are soluble in water. b. Lipids include triglycerides, phospholipids, and sterols. c. Lipids are comprised of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen. d. Lipids yield more Calories per gram than carbohydrate or protein.

28. Which of the following is an example of an organic micronutrient? *a. folate b. calcium c. fat d. iron 29. Vitamin C and the B-vitamins are examples of a. nonessential vitamins. *b. water-soluble vitamins. c. fat-soluble vitamins. d. trace vitamins.

30. Which of the following are inorganic nutrients that are NOT broken down by the human body or destroyed by heat? a. vitamins *b. minerals c. proteins d. fats

31. Which of the following is NOT a macronutrient? a. carbohydrates b. lipids *c. vitamins d. proteins 32. Which of the following is true about vitamins A, D, E, and K? a. They are excreted in the urine. b. They can all be synthesized by the body. c. They are unlikely to build up to toxic levels in the body, even when taken as supplements. *d. They are soluble in fat.

33. The primary source of fuel for the nervous system is a. protein. *b. carbohydrate. c. fat. d. cholesterol.

34. Which of the following is the only inorganic macronutrient? a. carbohydrates b. lipids c. proteins *d. water 35. In proteins, carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen assemble into small building blocks known as a. grams. b. enzymes. c. lipoproteins. *d. amino acids.

36. The water-soluble vitamins include the family of Bvitamins and vitamin a. K.

*b. C. c. D. d. A. 37. Which of the following nutrients is classified as a major mineral? *a. calcium b. iron c. iodine d. copper 38. The measurement unit for the energy derived from food is called a(n) *a. kilocalorie. b. enzyme. c. protein. d. gram.

39. The Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs) were originally adopted to prevent *a. nutrient-deficiency diseases. b. chronic diseases. c. acute illnesses. d. contagious diseases.

40. Which of the following statements about the Dietary Reference Intakes is false? *a. The Dietary Reference Intakes are dietary standards for everybody in a population. b. The Dietary Reference Intakes do not apply to people with diseases. c. The Dietary Reference Intakes identify the amount of a nutrient needed to prevent deficiency diseases in healthy individuals. d. The Dietary Reference Intakes help to prevent and reduce the risk of chronic disease and promote optimal health.

41. Trace minerals are those needed in amounts less than ________ mg per day. *a. 100 b. 50 c. 200 d. 90 42. The AMDR for carbohydrate is between a. 15 and 25 percent of total energy intake. b. 30 and 50 percent of total energy intake. *c. 45 and 65 percent of total energy intake. d. 60 and 80 percent of total energy intake.

43. The standard used to estimate the daily nutrient needs of half of all healthy individuals is the *a. EAR. b. AI. c. RDA. d. UL. 44. An RDA is established based on the a. DRI. *b. EAR. c. UL. d. AI. 45. The Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs) were established to refocus nutrient recommendations toward preventing and reducing the risk for a. nutrient deficiencies. b. infectious diseases. c. poverty. *d. chronic diseases.

46. The average daily nutrient intake level that meets the nutrient requirements of 97 to 98 percent of healthy individuals is the

a. EAR. *b. RDA. c. UL. d. AI. 47. The AMDR for fat is *a. 20-35 percent. b. less than 10 percent. c. 10-35 percent. d. 45-65 percent.

48. The AMDR for protein is a. 20-35 percent. b. less than 10 percent. *c. 10-35 percent. d. 45-65 percent.

49. What is a key limitation of most dietary assessment tools? a. They provide limited information on current nutrient intakes. b. They are easy to administer. c. Some foods cannot be assessed. *d. They rely on a person's ability to self-report.

50. Which of the following is not one of the four steps of the Nutrition Care Process? *a. nutrition-focused medical test b. nutritional-status assessment c. nutrition intervention d. nutrition monitoring and evaluation 51. Before Denise was sent home from the diabetes clinic with a dietary assessment tool, staff trained her how to use it and gave her explicit take-home instructions. What kind of tool was Denise probably given? a. a diet history b. a 24-hour recall

c. a food-frequency questionnaire *d. a diet record 52. Which of the following is used to determine a person's typical dietary pattern over a predefined period of time? a. diet history b. 24-hour recall *c. food-frequency questionnaire d. diet record 53. Josie maintains a normal body weight, but a blood test reveals both vitamin D deficiency and iron deficiency anemia. Josie's nutritional status is *a. both malnutrition and undernutrition. b. both malnutrition and overnutrition. c. overnutrition only. d. secondary deficiency.

54. In malnutrition, a primary deficiency is one in which a person *a. does not have an adequate intake of a nutrient. b. cannot absorb enough of a nutrient. c. excretes too much of a nutrient. d. cannot efficiently utilize a nutrient.

55. Which of the following is NOT considered to be a true anthropometric test factor? a. height *b. body composition c. weight d. waist circumference 56. Which of the following refers to a nutritional status in which a person consumes too much energy or too much of a given nutrient over time? a. hypernutrition b. nutrient toxicity c. undernutrition

*d. overnutrition 57. The second step of the scientific method is a. observation and description of a phenomenon. b. testing a research question or hypothesis. *c. generating a hypothesis. d. collecting data.

58. Which of the following is NOT a key element of a welldesigned experiment? a. Sample size should be adequate. *b. Have a proposed theory. c. Have a control group. d. Control for factors that may coincidentally influence the result.

59. A scientific consensus as to why a particular phenomenon occurs is a(n) a. alternate hypothesis. b. experiment. c. hypothesis. *d. theory.

60. The type of study that is used in assessing nutritional habits, disease trends, and other health phenomena of large populations, and in determining factors that influence those phenomena, is called a(n) a. case-controlled study. b. clinical trial. *c. observational study. d. animal study.

61. Dr. Sullivan is conducting a clinical trial to determine if vitamin XX can improve test performance of students in an introductory college nutrition course. Dr. Sullivan puts all the students' names in a hat and draws names to determine if they will be placed in the control or the experimental group. The experimental group receives a capsule of vitamin XX and the control group a &quot;sugar

pill&quot; that tastes and looks identical to the vitamin XX capsule. Neither Dr. Sullivan nor the participants know who is receiving which treatment. This experiment is best described as a. single-blind, randomized. b. double-blind, placebo controlled. c. single-blind, randomized, placebo controlled. *d. double-blind, randomized, placebo controlled.

62. Which of the following terms describes a scientific consensus as to why a particular phenomenon occurs? a. a study *b. a theory c. a placebo d. a hypothesis 63. In the scientific method, the possible explanation or research question is called the a. theory. b. conclusion. c. observation. *d. hypothesis.

64. Seth took part in a clinical trial in which he was given a month's supply of medication to treat his headaches. At the end of the month, he reported to his doctor that the pills had reduced both the frequency and intensity of his pain. Unknown to Seth or to his doctor was the fact that Seth had been given pills with no active ingredient. The phenomenon of improved symptoms that Seth experienced is commonly known as the a. bias toward improvement. *b. placebo effect. c. study participant bias. d. experimental result.

65. One of the most important points to consider when assessing the reliability of a media report is the issue of *a. conflict of interest.

b. availability. c. the journalist's education. d. how widely it is quoted.

66. Any factor that might prejudice or influence a researcher to favor certain results is referred to as a. conflict of interest. *b. bias. c. an opinion. d. unfair advantage.

67. A respected medical researcher reviewed the results of three clinical trials provided by Drug Maker X to the FDA to support their claim that their medication had proven clinical effectiveness in improving symptoms of depression.

The review found that the drug maker had failed to report findings that their medication was not effective, and faulted the drug maker for a. conflict of interest. b. carelessness. *c. lack of transparency. d. fraud.

68. Which of the following is not one of the tips to assist you in separating Internet fact from fiction? a. Look at the credentials of the people sponsoring and providing information. b. Look at the web address. c. Look at the date of the website. *d. Look at the references.

69. Your friend would like some professional advice on a weight loss program. Which of the following professionals would be the best source of nutrition advice? *a. registered dietitian (RD) b. PhD in nutrition c. medical doctor (MD) d. nutritionist

70. Which federal agency conducts the Behavioral Risk Factor Surveillance System (BRFSS)? a. USDA (United States Department of Agriculture) *b. CDC (Centers for Disease Control and Prevention) c. Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics d. NIH (National Institutes of Health) 71. What percentage of deaths in the United States can be attributed to unhealthful lifestyle behaviors such as smoking, alcohol misuse, physical inactivity, and a poorquality diet? a. 10 to 20 percent b. 25 to 35 percent c. 40 to 50 percent *d. 50 to 60 percent 72. Which of the following is the largest organization of food and nutrition professionals in the United States and the world? a. NIH (National Institutes of Health) *b. Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics c. CDC (Centers for Disease Control and Prevention) d. SNE (Society for Nutrition Education) 73. Which of the following is considered to be the leading federal agency that protects human health and safety? *a. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) b. Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics c. National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey (NHANES) d. National Institutes of Health (NIH) 74. Compare and contrast the earliest nutritional discoveries to current trends in nutrition research and health promotion. What are some key reasons why the focus has shifted? *a. Answers will vary.

75. Describe the various ways in which wellness is defined.

Discuss how nutrition is related to wellness and overall health. *a. Answers will vary.

76. What is the significance and what are the goals of the <span style="font-style: italic;">Healthy People 2020</span> initiative? Describe how the role of nutrition is underscored in them. *a. Answers will vary.

77. The Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs) for most nutrients consist of three of the following four values&#58; Estimated Average Requirement (EAR), Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDA), Adequate Intake (AI), and Tolerable Upper Intake Level (UL). Explain what each of these values represents. *a. Answers will vary.

78. Compare and contrast the four primary types of dietary intake tools. What are the respective strengths and limitations of the different tools? *a. Answers will vary.

79. List and describe the characteristics of a welldesigned clinical trial. *a. Answers will vary.

80. Describe the various approaches consumers can use to evaluate the truth and reliability of media reports and other sources of nutritional information. *a. Answers will vary.

81. List at least four sources of reliable and accurate nutrition information and state why they are trustworthy.

*a. Answers will vary.

Chapter 2 1. The four characteristics of a healthful diet are adequacy, balance, moderation, and a. Calories. b. color. c. value. *d. variety.

2. The RDA values were first published in *a. 1941. b. 1897. c. 1903. d. 1965.

3. Including fiber in your diet is beneficial to your GI tract, but consuming excess amounts of fiber can result in the loss of nutrients. This statement is an example of which of the factors to consider in planning diets? a. adequacy b. Calorie control c. variety *d. moderation 4. Eating the proper proportion of foods is referred to as a. restriction. *b. balance. c. moderation. d. variety.

5. Gabriel is a college athlete who requires 2,900 kcal a day to support his total energy needs. However, he only manages to consume approximately 1,800 kcal a day. Which of the four characteristics of a healthful diet is Gabriel not meeting? *a. adequacy b. moderation c. variety d. balance

6. Eve is a stay-at-home mom who generally prepares most of the meals for her household. Even though she always prepares meals that offer enough Calories and nutrients for her family of four, she often tends to make the same meals.

Which characteristic of a healthy diet is Eve not incorporating into her meal planning? a. adequacy b. balance c. moderation *d. variety 7. Planning meals that include eating a new vegetable each week is one practical approach to eating *a. a variety of foods. b. whole foods. c. well-cooked foods. d. raw foods.

8. Nutrient-dense foods and beverages supply the highest level of nutrients for the lowest number of Calories. Which of the following is an example of a nutrient-dense food? a. ice cream b. whole milk *c. nonfat milk d. cheese 9. Which statement BEST describes &quot;nutrient density&quot;? a. Choose a number of different foods within any given food group rather than the same old thing. b. Consume a variety of foods from the major food groups every day. c. Plan your entire day's diet so that you juggle nutrient sources. *d. Consume foods that have the most nutrients for their Calories.

10. Which of the following foods is MOST likely to have the greatest nutrient density?

a. 2 cups of strawberry Lifesavers (200 kcal) b. 1 cup of strawberry ice cream (160 kcal) c. a 15-gram serving of strawberry jam (40 kcal) *d. 1 cup of fresh strawberries (100 kcal) 11. Assuming each has the same number of Calories, which has the greatest nutrient density? *a. 1 small baked potato b. 1 cup orange juice c. 4 Thin Mint Girl Scout cookies d. 1 English muffin 12. Which of the following are NOT required to follow the FDA labeling guidelines? a. milk and spices *b. spices, coffee, and fresh produce c. meat and coffee d. spices and meat 13. Which of the following is NOT required on food labels? *a. a photo or illustration of the food b. the ingredient list c. the name and address of the vendor d. the net contents of package 14. The information provided on a food label that identifies intake of nutrients based on 2,000 Calories a day is called the a. Nutrition Facts panel. *b. Percent Daily Values. c. Daily Reference Value. d. Reference Daily Intake.

15. The Nutrition Facts panel on a box of crackers indicates that one serving provides 140 Calories, with 55 Calories coming from fat. What is the percentage of Calories from fat in this product? *a. 39%

b. 55% c. 85% d. 95% 16. You are reading a food label which indicates that the product contains 25% of the DV for calcium, 5% of the DV for iron and 30% of the DV from fat. Based on this information which of the following statements is correct? *a. This product is high in calcium. b. This product is high in iron. c. This product is low in fat. d. This product is low in calcium.

17. The ingredients on a packaged cookie dough is as follows&#58; enriched wheat flour, sugar, semi-sweet chocolate morsels, water, egg, molasses, salt, baking soda, vanilla extract. Which of the listed ingredient is the most predominant ingredient? *a. enriched wheat flour b. vanilla extract c. sugar d. semi-sweet chocolate morsels 18. The ingredients on a packaged cookie dough is as follows&#58; enriched wheat flour, sugar, semi-sweet chocolate morsels, water, egg, molasses, salt, baking soda, vanilla extract. Which of the listed ingredient is the least predominant ingredient? a. enriched wheat flour *b. vanilla extract c. sugar d. semi-sweet chocolate morsels 19. The government agency that regulates food labeling in the United States is the a. U.S. Dept. of Agriculture (USDA). *b. U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA). c. U.S. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).

d. U.S. Dept. of Health and Human Services (HHS).

20. Requirements for food labeling in the U.S. are identified in the a. CDC Food Labeling Guide. *b. Nutrition Labeling and Education Act. c. USDA Food Patterns. d. Dietary Guidelines for Americans.

21. How much a serving of food contributes to your overall intake of nutrients is listed on a food label as *a. percent daily values. b. ounce-equivalent. c. RDA. d. nutrient density.

22. What are the two types of claims on food labels that are regulated by the FDA? *a. nutrient and health claims b. health and beauty claims c. growth and energy claims d. energy and nutrient claims 23. The level of which of the following must be specified in the list of nutrients on a food label? a. vitamin E *b. calcium c. magnesium d. zinc 24. A food with 140 mg or less of sodium per serving could make the claim of a. very low sodium. *b. low sodium. c. reduced sodium. d. light in sodium.

25. The type of food label claim that can be made without FDA approval is called a a. health claim. *b. structure-function claim. c. nutrient claim. d. supplemental claim.

26. An important strategy for balancing your Calories is to consistently choose a. dietary supplements. *b. nutrient-dense foods. c. energy drinks. d. foods with high water content.

27. The Dietary Guidelines for Americans recommend which of the following? a. limiting Calories to lose weight b. reducing Calories to lose weight *c. balancing Calories to maintain weight d. reducing portions to maintain weight 28. The Dietary Guidelines for Americans are updated every a. year. b. two years. *c. five years. d. decade.

29. The Dietary Guidelines for Americans were developed by the USDA and which other agency? a. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) *b. U.S. Dept. of Health and Human Services (HHS) c. Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics d. Centers for Disease Control (CDC) 30. The Dietary Guidelines offer several flexible templates to follow to build a healthy eating pattern, including the USDA Food Patterns and

a. the DRIs. *b. the Mediterranean diet. c. a raw foods diet. d. the South Beach Diet.

31. Excessive alcohol intake a. promotes weight loss. *b. increases the risk for serious health and social problems. c. stimulates the nervous system. d. increases coordination.

32. In the current Dietary Guidelines for Americans, the nutrients to limit include *a. sodium. b. carbohydrates. c. protein. d. fat-soluble vitamins.

33. The Dietary Guidelines for Americans recommend a. making all of your grain choices whole grains. *b. increasing your intake of fruits and vegetables. c. engaging in aerobic exercise for 60 minutes at least five days a week. d. avoiding smoking.

34. Which of the following health problems is associated with sodium? *a. high blood pressure b. neural tube defects c. anemia d. dental caries 35. Which of the following is a set of principles developed by two U.S. federal agencies to promote health, reduce risk for chronic diseases, and reduce the prevalence of overweight and obesity through improved nutrition and physical activity?

a. USDA Food Patterns b. <span style="font-style: italic;">Healthy People 2020</span> c. Dietary Reference Intakes *d. Dietary Guidelines for Americans 36. The Dietary Guidelines recommend keeping your daily sodium intake below a. 1&#47;2 teaspoon of table salt. *b. one teaspoon of table salt. c. two teaspoons of table salt. d. one tablespoon of table salt.

37. &quot;Get your calcium-rich foods&quot; defines which USDA Food Patterns group? *a. dairy foods b. vegetables c. fruits d. protein foods 38. Which of the following is NOT a dedicated food category in the USDA Food Patterns? *a. meats b. fruits c. grains d. dairy 39. MyPlate is the visual representation of the a. previous MyPyramid graphic. b. DASH Diet. c. ideal diet for everyone. *d. USDA Food Patterns.

40. The USDA Food Patterns grains group does NOT emphasize a. whole grains. *b. enriched white bread. c. brown rice. d. fiber-rich carbohydrates.

41. Empty Calories are those which a. provide energy only in short spurts. *b. come from solid fats and&#47;or added sugars and provide few or no nutrients. c. cause you to gain weight. d. come from naturally-occurring sugars found in fruits and other sweet foods.

42. A significant shortcoming of the USDA Food Patterns and MyPlate is that they a. assume that everyone eats the same foods in the same ways. b. focus too much on whole foods, rather than prepared foods. c. leave out specific activity recommendations. *d. cannot fully address the issue of serving sizes since no national standard exists.

43. Over the past 30 years, most food portion sizes have a. fluctuated. *b. increased. c. remained largely the same. d. decreased.

44. For the USDA Food Patterns, the term &quot;ounceequivalent&quot; refers to a serving size that is 1 ounce or its equivalent for a. fruits and vegetables. b. dairy foods. *c. grains and protein foods. d. all food sections.

45. You should limit the empty Calories you consume to a small number that fits your needs depending on your a. weight, overall health, and ethnic background. b. lifestyle, goals, and preferences. *c. age, gender, and physical activity level.

d. current weight, desired weight, and dieting history.

46. When using diet-planning tools such as the USDA Food Patterns, you should learn the definition of a serving size for the tool you're using, and then a. eat as much as you're allowed to up to the serving size limit. b. estimate your approximate food intake for each food group through the day. c. compare it with the serving sizes of other tools or plans. *d. measure your food intake to determine if you are meeting the guidelines.

47. The Nutrient Database for Standard Reference *a. provides information on caffeine and phytochemicals as well as nutrients in foods. b. is a private database, but you can access it through your university library. c. is maintained by the FDA. d. is updated every five years.

48. The MyPlate website, www.choosemyplate.gov is a webbased interactive personalized guide to diet and physical activity. The website helps Americans to do all of the following except&#58; a. eat variety of foods. b. personalize their eating plan. *c. encourage Americans to eat less meat. d. set goals gradually improving their food choices and lifestyle.

49. On a Mediterranean diet, the following foods are eaten daily except&#58; a. grains. *b. fish. c. fruits. d. vegetables.

50. Foods eaten DAILY on the Mediterranean diet include a. eggs. b. sweets. *c. beans and other legumes. d. fish.

51. How often is meat eaten on a Mediterranean diet? a. weekly b. daily *c. monthly d. biweekly 52. The Mediterranean diet a. and MyPlate share precisely the same recommendations and features. *b. has been associated with a decreased risk for cardiovascular disease. c. reflects the cuisine of the Calabria region of southern Italy. d. is a type of vegetarian diet.

53. What is the purpose of the Healthy Eating Plate? *a. to assist people with designing and following a healthful eating pattern b. to assist people with diabetes to manage blood sugar c. to help people lose weight d. to help people prevent chronic disease 54. In the U.S., about what percentage of all food expenditures is now accounted for by meals eaten out? a. 20% b. 35% *c. 50% d. 65%

55. What percentage of U.S. consumers report eating at a restaurant at least once per week? a. 50% *b. 61% c. 40% d. 35% 56. Beginning in what year did the FDA require nutrition labeling in chain restaurants? a. 2014 b. 2015 *c. 2016 d. 2017 57. Which of the following characteristics BEST describe the majority of meals offered at fast-food restaurants? *a. high in Calories, high in total fat, high in sodium b. high in enriched grains, high in sodium, low in sugar c. high in sodium, high in protein, high in fiber d. high in total fat, low in Calories, low in carbohydrates 58. A sound strategy for eating out more healthfully would be to a. always order an appetizer so you're already full when the main course arrives. b. avoid grains and carbohydrates completely. *c. avoid all-you-can-eat, buffet-style restaurants. d. drink large glasses of water before, during, and after your meal.

59. List and discuss the four components of a healthful diet. Describe which of the areas you need to most work on, and why. *a. Answers will vary.

60. Describe at least three tools that are currently available to help Americans design a healthful diet, or that help promote health and disease prevention. Choose one of these tools and discuss its possible limitations. *a. Answers will vary.

61. What are the purpose and the essential aspects of the Dietary Guidelines for Americans? Discuss three examples of how you can incorporate the Dietary Guidelines into your daily life. *a. Answers will vary.

62. Carmen does not eat meat, poultry, or fish, and she is allergic to milk. List and define the five food groups in the USDA Food Patterns, and identify at least two foods Carmen could eat in each group. *a. Answers will vary.

63. What are the strengths and the limitations of the USDA MyPlate graphic and the USDA Food Patterns? Be as thorough as possible in your answer. *a. Answers will vary.

64. Describe how the USDA Food Patterns determine a serving size. What are the problems associated with determining a standard for serving sizes? Describe ways to determine how many serving sizes you actually eat. *a. Answers will vary.

65. Describe at least five appropriate and practical recommendations for eating out healthfully. *a. Answers will vary.

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Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Appetite is defined as a(n) a. basic physiological sensation. b. drive that prompts us to find food and eat. c. inborn need for certain foods. d. psychological desire to consume a specific food.

2. Hunger is BEST described as a. a physiological drive to consume food. b. a psychological drive to consume food. c. eating that is often driven by environmental cues. d. eating that is often driven by emotional cues.

3. Candace is receiving chemotherapy for cancer. She is visibly undernourished, and yet she has no appetite. The clinical term for what Candace is experiencing is a. anorexia. b. satiety. c. disordered eating. d. hunger.

4. The organ most responsible for prompting us to seek food is the a. stomach. b. small intestine. c. hypothalamus. d. mouth.

5. How do hunger and appetite differ? a. Hunger is psychosocial, appetite is physiological. b. Hunger is internally driven; appetite is externally driven. c. Hunger is typically a pleasant sensation; appetite is a negative sensation. d. Hunger relates to a specific food; appetite is a general sense of desire.

6. Which snack will have the highest satiety value, assuming the Calories are identical? a. a slice of whole-grain bread b. a piece of cheese c. a serving of apple sauce d. a glass of grape juice 7. After eating, you experience a feeling of satiation as a result of the a. decrease in blood glucose levels. b. increase in blood glucose levels. c. release of digestive enzymes in your mouth, stomach, and small intestine. d. rapid release of chyme into the small intestine.

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sn5t_sakai 3 of 23 8. Javier just finished eating a large meal. Which of the following is TRUE? a. Production and release of CCK is about to decline. b. Ghrelin levels plummet. c. Glucagon release is triggered. d. Insulin release is inhibited.

9. Feelings of hunger are triggered by stimulation of cells in the a. adrenal gland. b. pituitary gland. c. feeding center. d. satiety center.

10. Which macronutrient has the highest satiety value? a. fat b. carbohydrates c. protein d. water 11. Which of the following is not true of hormones? a. They are produced in the hypothalamus of the brain. b. They are secreted into the bloodstream by one of many endocrine glands of the body. c. They act as regulators of physiologic processes. d. Insulin and glucagon are examples of hormones.

12. Insulin and glucagon are produced in the a. liver. b. gallbladder. c. small intestine. d. pancreas.

13. A disruption in the protective mucus barrier of the stomach is called a. gastritis. b. heartburn. c. sour stomach. d. gastric inhibition.

14. What is the term that describes the process in which nutrients pass through the wall of the gastrointestinal tract? a. digestion b. absorption c. elimination d. segmentation 15. Which of the following is an accessory organ of digestion? a. mouth Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 3 of 23 b. stomach c. small intestine d. liver 16. After Michael eats breakfast, his GI tract begins the process of digesting and absorbing the nutrients from his meal.

What is the sequence in which each of the organs of the GI tract will work to achieve this process? a. mouth: esophagus: small intestine: stomach: large intestine b. mouth: esophagus: stomach: small intestine: large intestine c. mouth: stomach: esophagus: small intestine: large intestine d. mouth: stomach: esophagus: large intestine: small intestine 17. Which of the following statements about saliva is NOT true? a. It contains a mixture of water, mucus, and enzymes. b. It moistens the mouth. c. It begins the digestion of carbohydrates. d. It prepares the organs for digestion of foods.

18. What is the cephalic phase of digestion? a. the earliest phase of digestion in which the brain prepares the body in anticipation of food b. the phase in which semi-digested food leaves the stomach and slowly enters the small intestine c. the phase in which the majority of absorption occurs, primarily in the small intestine d. the final phase of digestion in which the large intestine moves the undigested components of food to the rectum for elimination 19. Olfaction occurs in which organ? a. the nose b. the mouth c. the stomach d. the small intestine 20. Which form of mechanical digestion begins in the mouth? a. chewing b. peristalsis c. segmentation d. churning 21. Which process does lingual lipase initiate? a. carbohydrate digestion b. lipid digestion c. protein digestion d. inhibition of bacterial growth 22. Digestion begins in the a. mouth. b. esophagus.

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sn5t_sakai 3 of 23 c. stomach. d. small intestine.

23. Which structure keeps swallowed food from entering the trachea? a. tonsils b. soft palate c. epiglottis d. upper esophageal sphincter 24. During digestion, hydrochloric acid (HCl) produced in the stomach begins the process of a. carbohydrate digestion. b. denaturing proteins. c. fat emulsification. d. neutralizing acidic chyme.

25. The main role of the esophagus in digestion is to a. release bile for fat emulsification. b. initiate the chemical breakdown of carbohydrates. c. compact food into feces. d. transport food to the stomach.

26. Which statement BEST explains why carbohydrate digestion ceases when food reaches the stomach? a. Carbohydrate is completely digested in the mouth. b. Salivary enzymes cannot function in the acid environment of the stomach. c. Carbohydrate is completely absorbed in the esophagus. d. Intestinal bacteria are needed for carbohydrate digestion.

27. A bolus travels from the mouth to the stomach via the a. trachea. b. nasal sinuses. c. esophagus. d. epiglottis.

28. In which organ does the majority of the GI flora reside? a. mouth b. stomach c. small intestine d. large intestine 29. Which hormone, released after the ingestion of a meal, triggers the stomach to release gastric juice? a. leptin b. insulin c. gastrin d. amylase Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 3 of 23 30. A savory taste due to the presence of glutamic acid is called a. bitter. b. sour. c. umami. d. salty.

31. Which of the following is a digestive fluid with a pH of 1? a. water b. cholecystokinin (CCK) c. hydrochloric acid (HCl) d. bicarbonate 32. Food that has been chewed and moistened in the mouth is referred to as a. a bolus. b. chyme. c. chyle. d. feces.

33. A bolus is swallowed and propelled to the stomach through the a. trachea. b. epiglottis. c. esophagus. d. mouth.

34. The sphincter muscle at the top of the esophagus is called a. epiglottis. b. lower esophageal sphincter. c. upper esophageal sphincter. d. gastroesophageal sphincter.

35. What is chyme? a. an ulceration of the esophageal lining b. healthy bacteria of the small intestine c. a mixture of partially digested food, water, and gastric juices d. a substance that allows for the emulsification of dietary lipid 36. A primary function of the mucus in the stomach is to a. neutralize stomach acid. b. activate pepsinogen to form pepsin. c. protect the stomach lining. d. emulsify fats.

37. Chyme is released from the stomach intermittently in small amounts because a. it must be converted to a much less acidic pH before entering the duodenum.

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sn5t_sakai 3 of 23 b. the ileocecal valve is too small to pass it all at once. c. the small intestine can hold only a small fraction of the stomach volume at a time. d. moving food into the small intestine too quickly can lead to an ulcer.

38. Hydrochloric acid (HCl) is secreted by which cells in the stomach? a. enterocytes b. mucous neck cells c. chief cells d. parietal cells 39. Intrinsic factor, a protein secreted by the parietal cells of the stomach, is necessary for absorption of which vitamin? a. B 12 b. B 3 c. folate d. K 40. The first section of the small intestine is called the a. bile duct. b. duodenum. c. jejunum. d. ileum.

41. Beneficial bacteria found in the large intestine are known as a. pathogens. b. diuretics. c. probiotics d. prebiotics.

42. Which of the following is NOT an organ of the of the gastrointestinal tract? a. the mouth b. large intestine c. rectum d. pancreas 43. Which of the following is the longest section of the gastrointestinal tract? a. esophagus b. small intestine c. large intestine d. rectum 44. Proteins that act to speed up body processes, but are NOT changed in the process, are called a. hormones. b. peptides.

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sn5t_sakai 3 of 23 c. enzymes. d. chyme.

45. Which two pancreatic hormones are responsible for regulating blood glucose levels? a. estrogen and testosterone b. neuropeptide Y and leptin c. insulin and glucagon d. bicarbonate and HCl 46. Chemical digestion of which nutrient occurs with the help of salivary amylase? a. alcohol b. carbohydrate c. fat d. protein 47. Food is digested through chemical reactions involving the addition of water molecules. This process is known as a. reduction. b. oxidation. c. dehydration. d. hydrolysis.

48. A lipase is an enzyme that assists in the breakdown of a. proteins. b. lipids. c. carbohydrates. d. alcohol.

49. Responding to the presence of protein and fat in our meal, cholecystokinin (CCK) signals the gallbladder to contract, thereby releasing a substance called a. lipase. b. pepsin. c. chyme. d. bile.

50. Which of the following organs is responsible for the manufacture and secretion of many digestive enzymes and bicarbonate? a. liver b. stomach c. pancreas d. gallbladder 51. Bile breaks up lipid globules into smaller droplets and then disperses them. This process is called a. liquefaction. b. oxidation. c. hydration.

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sn5t_sakai 3 of 23 d. emulsification.

52. Bile is stored in the ________. It is released into the ________ for lipid digestion. a. liver; stomach b. gallbladder; duodenum c. gallbladder; liver d. liver; duodenum 53. Bicarbonate is released into the duodenum during the process of digestion. There, it a. neutralizes the acidic chyme. b. activates hormonal release of bile. c. emulsifies lipids present in the chyme. d. lubricates the lining of the small intestine.

54. Bile is produced by the a. gallbladder. b. liver. c. stomach. d. pancreas.

55. Which large vessel transports absorbed nutrients to the liver? a. hepatic portal vein b. pulmonary vein c. aorta d. subclavian vein 56. How do the liver and gallbladder function together in the process of digestion? a. Carbohydrate digestion begins in the liver and concludes in the gallbladder. b. Both help mechanically process waste into feces. c. The liver produces bile, and the gallbladder stores and releases it for fat emulsification. d. The liver produces a variety of digestive enzymes, which the gallbladder stores and releases.

57. How do the pancreas and small intestine function together in the process of digestion? a. The pancreas produces hydrochloric acid (HCl) and releases it into the small intestine. b. The pancreas stores inactive digestive enzymes, and they are activated in the small intestine. c. The pancreas produces bile, which travels to the small intestine for fat emulsification. d. The pancreas produces insulin, which helps break apart carbohydrates in the small intestine.

58. Which of the following organs produces a variety of proteases? a. mouth b. stomach c. pancreas d. small intestine Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 3 of 23 59. Which hormone stimulates the pancreas to release acid-neutralizing bicarbonate? a. gastrin b. secretin c. cholecystokinin (CCK) d. gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP) 60. Which hormone is involved in slowing down the production of gastric acid and stimulating the release of insulin? a. gastrin b. secretin c. cholecystokinin (CCK) d. gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP) 61. What is hydrolysis? a. a chemical reaction that breaks down substances by the addition of water b. a chemical reaction that breaks down substances be the removal of water c. a chemical reaction that creates substances by addition of enzymes d. a chemical reaction that creates substances by removal water 62. Which of the following hormones decreases gastric motility? a. gastrin b. secretin c. cholecystokinin (CCK) d. somatostatin 63. The microvilli in the small intestine are collectively called the a. enterocytes. b. lacteals. c. brush border. d. rugae.

64. Immediately after absorption, what body system carries most of the fat-soluble nutrients? a. cardiovascular b. immune c. lymphatic d. enterohepatic 65. The small intestine is well equipped to carry out the majority of nutrient absorption in the GI tract because it a. has a lining made up of parietal cells and chief cells. b. is a direct link to the stomach and large intestine. c. secretes its own digestive enzymes. d. has an extensive surface area with specialized absorptive cells.

66. The type of nutrient absorption process that requires both energy and the use of a carrier protein is a. hydrolysis.

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sn5t_sakai 3 of 23 b. passive diffusion. c. facilitated diffusion. d. active transport.

67. Some large proteins, including the immune-supporting antibodies found in breast milk, are absorbed through the process of a. passive diffusion. b. facilitated diffusion. c. endocytosis. d. enterocytosis.

68. Driven by a concentration gradient, lipids are absorbed through the process of a. passive diffusion. b. facilitated diffusion. c. active transport. d. endocytosis.

69. Which type of absorption requires the use of a carrier protein but not energy? a. passive diffusion b. facilitated diffusion c. active transport d. endocytosis 70. Which type of absorption requires the use of energy to transport nutrients in combination with a carrier protein? a. passive diffusion b. facilitated diffusion c. active transport d. endocytosis 71. The division of the nervous system that is located in the walls of the GI tract and helps control digestion, absorption, and elimination is the a. central nervous system. b. hepatic nervous system. c. enteric nervous system. d. somatic nervous system.

72. The small intestine has a unique pattern of movement called a. peristalsis. b. segmentation. c. haustration. d. mass movement.

73. Sluggish contractions that move wastes toward the sigmoid colon are called a. peristalsis. b. segmentation.

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sn5t_sakai 3 of 23 c. haustration. d. mass movement.

74. The rhythmic contractions responsible for propelling food through the digestive tract are called a. elimination. b. peristalsis. c. mastication. d. locomotion.

75. Mass movement occurs in what part of the gastrointestinal tract? a. stomach b. duodenum c. jejunum d. colon 76. For many people suffering from GERD, the underlying cause is malfunctioning of a. gastric bicarbonate production. b. gastric mucous production. c. the epiglottis. d. the gastroesophageal sphincter.

77. The passing of intestinal gas is referred to as a. peristalsis. b. eructation. c. belching. d. flatulence.

78. Which of the following might be an appropriate treatment approach for someone suffering from GERD? a. surgical removal of the gallbladder b. avoidance of spicy foods c. antibiotic therapy d. weight loss and smoking cessation 79. What is the primary cause of peptic ulcers? a. stress b. H. pylori bacteria c. prolonged use of aspirin d. eating too many spicy foods 80. Which of the following treatments would be appropriate for treating a peptic ulcer? a. antibiotics b. aspirin c. ibuprofen d. avoiding alcohol consumption Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 3 of 23 81. Which protein will trigger an immune response in a person with celiac disease? a. amylase b. gluten c. albumin d. egg whites 82. Barbara has just been diagnosed with celiac disease. Which of the following foods would be MOST dangerous for her to consume? a. cornflakes b. rice cakes c. potatoes d. a plain bagel 83. What type of damage does Crohn's disease cause to the GI tract? a. permanently opened gastroesophageal sphincter b. blockage of the hepatic portal vein c. gastric ulcers d. inflammation of the small intestine 84. At a birthday party, Sam eats a chocolate chip cookie with peanuts. Within minutes, he has trouble breathing, his blood pressure plummets, and he has to be rushed to the hospital for treatment. Which condition is the MOST likely cause of his symptoms? a. celiac disease b. gastroesophageal reflux disease c. gluten intolerance d. peanut allergy 85. What is the primary cause of malabsorption in people with celiac disease? a. erosion of the villi of the small intestine b. ulceration of the large intestine c. damage to the lining of the esophagus d. an allergic reaction throughout the GI tract 86. Colorectal cancer is a. responsible for more deaths annually than any other form of cancer. b. typically too advanced when detected to treat effectively. c. characterized by unexplained weight gain. d. the most common cancer of the GI tract.

87. Which of the following is NOT a known risk factor for colorectal cancer? a. smoking b. obesity c. a diet high in red or processed meats but low in vegetables and fruits d. consumption of milk and other dairy products Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 3 of 23 88. Which of the following statements about colorectal cancer is true? a. Mortality from colorectal cancer has been declining in part because of increased screening. b. Mortality from colorectal cancer has been increasing in part because of increased rates of obesity. c. The only colorectal cancer screening test available is a colonoscopy. d. During a colonoscopy, any malignant tumors found can be removed.

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sn5t_sakai 3 of 23 Answer Key 1. d 2. a 3. a 4. c 5. b 6. b 7. b 8. b 9. c 10. c 11. a 12. d 13. a 14. b 15. d 16. b 17. d 18. a 19. a 20. a 21. b 22. a 23. c 24. b 25. d Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 3 of 23 26. b 27. c 28. d 29. c 30. c 31. c 32. a 33. c 34. b 35. c 36. c 37. c 38. d 39. a 40. b 41. c 42. d 43. b 44. c 45. c 46. b 47. d 48. b 49. d 50. c 51. d Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 3 of 23 52. d 53. a 54. b 55. a 56. c 57. b 58. c 59. b 60. d 61. a 62. b 63. c 64. c 65. d 66. d 67. c 68. a 69. b 70. c 71. c 72. b 73. c 74. b 75. d 76. d Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 3 of 23 77. d 78. d 79. b 80. a 81. b 82. d 83. d 84. d 85. a 86. d 87. d 88. a

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sn5t_sakai 5 of 23

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Alcohol is absorbed directly from the small intestine and the a. mouth. b. esophagus. c. stomach. d. large intestine.

2. Alcohol is primarily metabolized by the a. stomach. b. liver. c. kidney. d. spleen.

3. The first step in alcohol metabolism is triggered by a. glucokinase. b. alcohol dehydrogenase. c. aldehyde dehydrogenase. d. alcohol oxidase.

4. Which of the following is a condition in which the liver becomes more efficient in the breakdown of alcohol? a. hepatic efficiency b. metabolic tolerance c. functional tolerance d. alcohol tolerance 5. Chronic drinkers may show few signs of impairment or intoxication even at high blood alcohol levels. This condition is known as a. hepatic efficiency. b. metabolic tolerance. c. functional tolerance. d. alcohol tolerance.

6. Which of the following is equivalent to one drink of alcohol? a. 12 oz of beer b. 8 oz of wine c. 1 oz of distilled spirits d. 12 oz of wine cooler 7. Moderate alcohol consumption is BEST defined as a. no more than 7 drinks per week for women and 14 for men. b. up to one drink per day for women and two per day for men. c. drinking only one to two nights a week. d. drinking no more than 3 drinks on any one occasion.

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sn5t_sakai 5 of 23 8. Which of the following is a potential health benefit of moderate alcohol consumption? a. increased LDL cholesterol b. increased HDL cholesterol c. decreased HDL cholesterol d. appetite suppression 9. Alcohol provides how many kcal/g of energy? a. 4 b. 5 c. 7 d. 9 10. Alcohol consumption, even at a moderate level, increases the risk for gastrointestinal bleeding if the drinker is a. a diabetic using insulin. b. taking resveratrol supplements. c. taking aspirin or ibuprofen. d. on an antidepressant.

11. Which of the following is a chemical found in red wine and grapes that may have health benefits? a. resveratrol b. cholesterol c. beta ethanol d. beta carotene 12. Which of the following is characteristic of alcohol dependence? a. the consumption of four or more drinks on one occasion for a female and five or more on one occasion for a male b. a pattern of chronic or occasional alcohol consumption that causes distress, danger, or harm c. a strong need or urge to drink alcoholic beverages d. a syndrome of headache, nausea, sensitivity to sound and light, and other symptoms after consumption of too much alcohol 13. In the United States, about how many adults aged 18 and older have an alcohol use disorder? a. 5 million b. 15 million c. 600,000 d. 60,000 14. Binge drinking is defined as a. the consumption of five or more alcoholic drinks on one occasion by a man or four or more drinks by a woman. b. the consumption of four or more alcoholic drinks on one occasion by a man or five or more drinks by a woman. c. the consumption of five or more alcoholic drinks daily by a man or four or more drinks by a woman. d. the consumption of four or more alcoholic drinks daily by a man or five or more drinks by a woman.

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sn5t_sakai 5 of 23 15. The liver's ability to activate which of the following micronutrients may be impaired by chronic excessive alcohol consumption? a. vitamin D b. vitamin C c. iodine d. sodium 16. The current alcohol consumption recommendation for pregnant women is a. only one drink per day. b. beer and wine only. c. complete abstinence. d. clear-colored spirits only.

17. Which of the following is caused by alcohol exposure by a fetus during pregnancy? a. cataracts b. fetal alcohol syndrome c. high birth weight d. diabetes 18. The non-alcoholic components found in red wine, brandy, and whiskey that may cause some of the symptoms of a hangover are called a. enzymes. b. teratogens. c. oxidants. d. congeners.

19. Excessive alcohol consumption can cause dizziness and lightheadedness due to fluid and electrolyte imbalances because alcohol a. takes a long time to digest. b. has an inflammatory effect in the body. c. is a sedative. d. is a diuretic.

20. Victor is heading out to an off-campus party where he anticipates there will be heavy drinking. He has decided to "pace and space" his drinks. This means he will a. start with an alcoholic beverage, but follow it with a non-alcoholic beverage and continue with this pattern throughout the night. b. start with a non-alcoholic beverage, follow it with an alcoholic beverage, and continue with this pattern throughout the night. c. start with a non-alcoholic beverage, follow it with an alcoholic beverage, and rotate this pattern, drinking no more than one alcoholic beverage per hour and no more than three the entire night. d. drink no more than one alcoholic beverage an hour throughout the night.

21. Katia is a college student. Which of the following behaviors is LEAST likely to suggest that Katia has an alcohol Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 5 of 23 problem? a. Katia enjoys a glass of wine with dinner most nights of the week. b. Katia has been annoyed by her roommate's constant complaints about her heavy drinking. c. Katia turns to alcohol whenever she's feeling sad, lonely, or anxious. d. Katia has a water bottle filled with gin that she keeps with her on campus.

22. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of someone at risk of alcohol use disorder? a. drinks more or longer than intended b. drinks a glass of wine daily in the evening c. has gotten into a situation while drinking that increased risk of getting hurt d. wants to cut down or stop drinking alcohol and couldn't 23. The BEST time to encourage a friend or family member with a drinking problem to seek help is when a. you are certain that you're ready to walk away if the person doesn't take your advice. b. he or she is sober, shortly after an alcohol-related incident. c. he or she has started drinking again a few weeks after an alcohol-related incident. d. other family members and friends are upset enough to join you in confronting the person with their concerns.

24. All of the following are indicators of someone who has alcohol use disorder except a. the appearance of tremors or other signs of withdrawal. b. initiation of secretive behaviors when consuming alcohol. c. drinks a glass of wine every day. d. become defensive or hostile when asked about their use of alcohol.

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sn5t_sakai 5 of 23 Answer Key 1. c 2. b 3. b 4. b 5. c 6. a 7. b 8. b 9. c 10. c 11. a 12. c 13. b 14. a 15. a 16. c 17. b 18. d 19. d 20. c 21. a 22. b 23. b 24. c

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sn5t_sakai 4 of 23

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Which of the following carbohydrates is the end product of photosynthesis? a. glycogen b. galactose c. lactose d. glucose 2. The type of carbohydrates that consist of only a single molecule are called a. oligosaccharides. b. disaccharides. c. monosaccharides. d. starches.

3. Which monosaccharide is the preferred source of energy for the brain? a. glucose b. fructose c. galactose d. glycogen 4. Which statement about simple carbohydrate is false? a. Glucose is blood sugar. b. Maltose is table sugar. c. Lactose is milk sugar. d. Fructose is found in fruit.

5. A disaccharide is formed by the chemical bonding of a. two monosaccharides. b. two polysaccharides. c. one monosaccharide and one polysaccharide. d. two oligosaccharides.

6. Which of the following is a five-carbon monosaccharide? a. ribose b. fructose c. galactose d. glucose 7. Which of the following is a disaccharide? a. sucrose b. fructose c. galactose d. glucose 8. When fructose and glucose are bonded together, they form Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 4 of 23 a. sucrose. b. maltose. c. lactose. d. fructose.

9. When two glucose molecules are joined together, they form a. sucrose. b. maltose. c. lactose. d. fructose.

10. Which of the following is called milk sugar? a. sucrose b. maltose c. lactose d. fructose 11. Which of the following is a monosaccharide? a. sucrose b. galactose c. lactose d. maltose 12. Which of the following has the most Calories in one tablespoon? a. sucrose b. honey c. molasses d. milk 13. The term complex carbohydrates refers to a. monosaccharides. b. disaccharides. c. oligosaccharides and polysaccharides. d. glucose.

14. Which of the following is classified as an oligosaccharide? a. ribose b. starch c. raffinose d. maltose 15. In the body, the major storage sites for glycogen are the a. muscles and liver. b. kidney and muscles.

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sn5t_sakai 4 of 23 c. liver and kidney. d. liver and pancreas.

16. Which of the following is an insoluble fiber that is not actually a carbohydrate? a. mucilages b. pectins c. lignins d. gums 17. Which of the following fiber types includes fibers that can be classified as both soluble and insoluble? a. hemicelluloses b. cellulose c. lignins d. pectins 18. Which of the following statements about soluble fiber is true? a. It does not dissolve in water. b. It is usually nonviscous. c. It forms a gel when wet and is fermented. d. It is not associated with reducing blood cholesterol levels.

19. Why are most types of fiber indigestible in the human GI tract? a. The molecular structure of fiber is too highly coiled to be broken down. b. Fiber is too viscous to be digested by bacteria in the colon. c. Alpha bonds present in fiber are difficult for the body to break down. d. Beta bonds present in fiber are difficult for the body to break down.

20. Alpha bonds a. join the molecules of soluble fibers. b. join the molecules of insoluble fibers. c. join glucose and galactose to produce lactose. d. are easily digestible.

21. Lactose intolerance is due to a(n) a. deficiency of lactose. b. deficiency of lactase. c. deficiency of healthy bacteria in the GI tract. d. allergy to casein (milk protein).

22. Yogurt is tolerated better than milk by many lactose-intolerant people because a. yogurt has no lactose. b. bacteria in yogurt help digest the lactose. c. the thick consistency of yogurt improves digestibility. d. the acidity of yogurt improves digestibility.

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sn5t_sakai 4 of 23 23. What is the KEY difference between soluble fiber and insoluble fiber? a. Soluble fiber can be ingested; insoluble fiber cannot. b. Soluble fiber is found only in fruits and vegetables; insoluble fiber in whole grains. c. Soluble fiber can be digested by bacteria in the colon; insoluble fiber cannot. d. Soluble fiber contains alpha bonds; insoluble fiber contains beta bonds.

24. How do simple carbohydrates differ from complex carbohydrates? a. the type of bonds joining them b. the number of molecules of which they are made up c. their digestibility d. the type of atoms of which they are composed 25. Plants store glucose in the form of the complex carbohydrate a. starch. b. glycogen. c. glucagon. d. lipids.

26. The complex carbohydrate that is the storage form of glucose in animals is a. starch. b. glycogen. c. glucagon. d. lipids.

27. Which of the following enzymes is found in the mouth? a. lactase b. maltase c. pancreatic amylase d. salivary amylase 28. Why does carbohydrate digestion NOT occur in the stomach? a. Pancreatic amylase absorbs all carbohydrates through endocytosis. b. The stomach lining absorbs all carbohydrates. c. All carbohydrates are broken down in the mouth before they reach the stomach. d. Acid in the stomach inactivates salivary amylase.

29. One class of enzymes that breaks down carbohydrates is a. carbohydrase. b. lipase. c. peptidase. d. amylase.

30. The digestive enzymes that break disaccharides into monosaccharides are located in the a. stomach.

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sn5t_sakai 4 of 23 b. colon. c. saliva. d. microvilli.

31. The absorption of which monosaccharide does NOT require energy? a. fructose b. maltose c. galactose d. glucose 32. The primary function of liver glycogen is to a. synthesize glycoproteins. b. maintain blood glucose. c. provide energy for digestion. d. store fat.

33. Kitt is training to compete in a triathlon and is working with his team's registered dietitian to increase his storage of muscle glycogen. This technique is called a. glycolysis. b. carbohydrate loading. c. glycogen surging. d. gluconeogenesis.

34. Gluconeogenesis is the a. synthesis of new glucose from amino acids or other sources that are not carbohydrates. b. release of stored glycogen from the liver. c. process by which plants use sunlight to synthesize glucose. d. uptake of glucose by the body's cells.

35. Glycogenolysis is the a. synthesis of new glucose from amino acids. b. release of stored glycogen from the liver into the blood. c. uptake of glucose by the body's cells. d. storage of glucose in the body tissue.

36. Insulin is synthesized and released by the a. brain. b. liver. c. pancreas. d. gallbladder.

37. After a meal, which hormone is responsible for moving glucose into the body's cells? a. glucagon b. estrogen Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 4 of 23 c. CCK d. insulin 38. Which hormone works to lower blood glucose? a. glucagon b. insulin c. epinephrine d. cortisol 39. When blood glucose levels drop, all of the following may occur except a. glucagon is released. b. glycogen is broken down. c. fatty acids are used to make glucose. d. amino acids are used to make glucose.

40. Which of the following BEST describes the glycemic index? a. an individual's glucose/insulin ratio in a fasted state b. the amount of insulin required to metabolize 100 grams of glucose c. the glucose content of a given food d. the extent to which a given food raises blood glucose and insulin levels 41. The glycemic load is a. the amount of carbohydrate required to reverse hypoglycemia. b. the glycemic index multiplied by the saturated fatty acids. c. the glycemic index multiplied by the grams of carbohydrate. d. equivalent to the glycemic index.

42. How many kcal of energy does 1 gram of carbohydrate provide? a. 3 b. 4 c. 7 d. 9 43. In the absence of carbohydrate, the body breaks down stored fat in a process called a. amylosis. b. gluconeogenesis. c. ketosis. d. ketoacidosis.

44. Gretchen is determined to lose weight, and has been following a very low-carb diet and running a 12-mile loop six days a week. As her body's glycogen stores become depleted, what fuel provides energy to her brain? a. glucose b. fructose c. triglycerides Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 4 of 23 d. ketones 45. A potentially life-threatening consequence of low-carbohydrate intake is a. anaphylaxis. b. ketoacidosis. c. glycogenesis. d. septic shock.

46. Which of the following might a doctor recommend to reduce a patient's risk for diverticulosis? a. Consume more white bread and other refined foods. b. Consume a high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet. c. Eliminate insoluble dietary fiber. d. Consume more dietary fiber.

47. Red blood cells and the brain rely on which of the following for energy? a. glucose b. glucagon c. glycerol d. short-chain fatty acids 48. An adequate intake of carbohydrates a. helps initiate ketosis. b. keeps the body from using proteins as energy. c. promotes gluconeogenesis. d. causes loss of lean body tissue.

49. A disorder of the large intestine characterized by infected and inflamed pockets forming in the intestinal wall is a. metabolic disorder. b. lactose intolerance. c. diverticulosis. d. colon cancer.

50. How many grams of carbohydrate (per day) are recommended in healthy individuals to provide adequate fuel to the brain (RDA)? a. 75 grams b. 100 grams c. 130 grams d. 160 grams 51. Which of the following is MOST associated with diets high in added sugars? a. hyperactivity b. tooth decay c. diabetes d. memory loss Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 4 of 23 52. The Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Range (AMDR) for carbohydrates is up to a. 50%. b. 60%. c. 65%. d. 75%.

53. The MOST common source of added sugar in the U.S. diet is a. fruits. b. soft drinks/sodas. c. chocolate bars. d. alcoholic beverages.

54. In addition to whole grains, which of the following is a good source of dietary fiber? a. 100% fruit juice b. nuts and seeds c. refined grains d. lean red meat 55. Which of the following would provide the MOST dietary fiber? a. a serving of black beans b. a serving of applesauce c. four saltine crackers d. a glass of rice milk 56. The Adequate Intake (AI) for fiber is a. 25 g per day for men. b. 25 g/100 kcal per day. c. 14 g/1000 kcal per day. d. 38 g per day for both men and women.

57. You are scanning the range of choices in the bread aisle at the grocery store. Which phrase on the package label indicates that the bread likely contains a high amount of fiber-rich carbohydrates? a. refined b. enriched c. stone ground d. whole wheat 58. Bran is the part of a grain kernel that is very high in a. protein. b. healthful fats. c. fiber. d. water.

59. Why is white wheat flour a less nutritious choice than whole-wheat flour? a. White wheat flour retains only a fraction of wheat's fiber, vitamins, and minerals.

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sn5t_sakai 4 of 23 b. White wheat flour contains less endosperm than whole-wheat flour. c. White wheat flour consists only of wheat germ. d. White wheat flour consists only of wheat bran.

60. The Daily Value (DV) of fiber is 25 grams. If a product label indicates that it provides 20% of the DV, how much fiber does a serving contain? a. 2 grams b. 3 grams c. 4 grams d. 5 grams 61. Which part of a whole grain kernel contains most of the fiber as well as many vitamins and minerals? a. bran b. endosperm c. germ d. starch 62. Which of the following is a non-nutritive sweetener? a. sucrose b. aspartame c. sorbitol d. fructose 63. Sugar alcohols are most often used in which of the following products? a. diet sodas b. baked confections c. chewing gum d. infant formulas 64. Which artificial sweetener was once linked to cancer but later removed from the list of potential cancer-causing substances? a. saccharin b. sucralose c. aspartame d. acesulfame-K 65. Which of the following is a sugar alcohol? a. xylitol b. saccharin c. high fructose corn syrup d. glycogen 66. Individuals with the disease phenylketonuria (PKU) should not consume the artificial sweetener aspartame. Why? a. Aspartame causes their blood glucose levels to plummet. b. They are allergic to aspartame.

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sn5t_sakai 4 of 23 c. They experience severe headaches when they consume aspartame. d. They cannot metabolize the amino acid phenylalanine present in aspartame.

67. A sugar-free chocolate cookie a. is likely to be almost Calorie-free. b. will always have far fewer Calories than a regular chocolate cookie. c. may have just as many Calories as a regular chocolate cookie. d. is likely to have significantly more Calories than a regular chocolate cookie.

68. Which of the following is the most prevalent form of diabetes? a. type 1 b. type 2 c. gestational d. pediatric 69. Which of the following is contributing to the increase in type 2 diabetes? a. consuming more fiber rich foods b. the increase in obesity rate c. changes in our genes d. more sensitive immune system 70. Which of the following is a characteristic of type 1 diabetes? a. It arises most commonly during older adulthood. b. It is characterized by insulin resistance or insensitivity. c. It is commonly associated with obesity. d. It is the least common form of diabetes.

71. Which of the following is true regarding type 1 diabetes? a. Its increased prevalence is linked to the rise in obesity. b. Treatment is limited to the use of hypoglycemic medications. c. Treatment always involves insulin therapy. d. It is diagnosed only in individuals under the age of 20.

72. Diabetes is essentially a condition of a. inadequate production of glucagon. b. excessive insulin excretion. c. impaired glucose regulation. d. inadequate glucose excretion.

73. In type 1 diabetes, an autoimmune response destroys the a. alpha cells of the pancreas. b. beta cells of the pancreas. c. exocrine cells of the pancreas. d. pancreatic duct.

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sn5t_sakai 4 of 23 74. Sarah's doctor screens her for reactive hypoglycemia by having her consume a beverage very high in carbohydrate. If Sarah does have reactive hypoglycemia, what would you expect her blood glucose concentration to be approximately TWO HOURS after she drinks the beverage? a. normal b. low as compared to a healthy individual c. slightly elevated as compared to a healthy individual d. highly elevated as compared to a healthy individual 75. Trevor's doctor screens him for type 2 diabetes and finds that Trevor has a fasting blood glucose of 130 mg/dL. What does this mean? a. Trevor is not diabetic. b. Trevor has pre-diabetes. c. Trevor has diabetes. d. Trevor's blood glucose is so high that he risks falling into a diabetic coma.

76. Which of the following is a state in which the body produces too much insulin even before a meal has been consumed? a. reactive hypoglycemia b. type 1 diabetes c. fasting hypoglycemia d. gestational diabetes 77. Approximately what percentage of American college students are overweight or obese, and therefore at increased risk for developing type 2 diabetes? a. 15% b. 25% c. 35% d. 45% 78. Hector, who has type 2 diabetes, is looking through the pantry for a snack. Using the glycemic index as a guide, identify which of the following is the BEST choice to help Hector maintain a more stable glucose level. (Glycemic index values are listed in parentheses.) a. Rice Krispies (82) b. jelly beans (78) c. white rice (56) d. kidney beans (28) 79. A person who has been diagnosed with impaired fasting glucose a. has type 1 diabetes. b. has type 2 diabetes. c. is considered pre-diabetic. d. has very low levels of insulin.

80. Hypoglycemia is a condition in which fasting blood sugar levels a. are too low.

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sn5t_sakai 4 of 23 b. are normal. c. are too high. d. fluctuate rapidly.

81. A person with reactive hypoglycemia can control the condition by a. eliminating dairy products from his or her diet. b. switching to alternative sweeteners. c. administration of insulin by injection or pump. d. eating smaller, more frequent meals.

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sn5t_sakai 4 of 23 Answer Key 1. d 2. c 3. a 4. b 5. a 6. a 7. a 8. a 9. b 10. c 11. b 12. b 13. c 14. c 15. a 16. c 17. a 18. c 19. d 20. d 21. b 22. b 23. c 24. b 25. a Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 4 of 23 26. b 27. d 28. d 29. d 30. c 31. a 32. b 33. b 34. a 35. b 36. c 37. d 38. b 39. c 40. d 41. c 42. b 43. c 44. d 45. b 46. d 47. a 48. b 49. c 50. c 51. b Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 4 of 23 52. c 53. b 54. b 55. a 56. c 57. d 58. c 59. a 60. d 61. a 62. b 63. c 64. a 65. a 66. d 67. c 68. b 69. b 70. d 71. c 72. c 73. b 74. b 75. c 76. c Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 4 of 23 77. c 78. d 79. c 80. a 81. d

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sn5t_sakai 6 of 23

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Which of the following substances is classified as a lipid? a. glycogen b. alpha carbons c. sterols d. phosphates 2. The MOST common lipids found in food are a. sterols. b. triglycerides. c. phospholipids. d. glycerols.

3. The body stores lipids as a. phospholipids. b. triglycerides. c. glycerols. d. sterols.

4. A triglyceride is comprised of a. three fatty acids and one glycerol. b. three glycerols and one fatty acid. c. three phospholipids and one glycerol. d. three glycerols and one phospholipid.

5. Which of the following contains the highest amount of dietary cholesterol? a. steamed broccoli b. olive oil c. skim milk d. butter 6. The primary form in which dietary cholesterol occurs is as a. free cholesterol. b. phospholipid. c. cholesterol ester. d. omega-6 fatty acid.

7. Which type of lipid has a ring structure? a. trans fatty acids b. phospholipids c. sterols d. saturated fatty acids 8. Which of the following hormones is produced from cholesterol?

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sn5t_sakai 6 of 23 a. estrogen b. insulin c. epinephrine d. glucagon 9. Sex hormones and adrenal hormones are substances derived from which class of lipid? a. fatty acids b. triglycerides c. phospholipids d. sterols 10. Which of the following statements about cholesterol is false? a. It is used to make vitamin D. b. It is used to make bile. c. It is used to make hormones estrogen and testosterone. d. It is found mostly in olive oil, coconut oil, and avocados.

11. Triglycerides can be classified by which of the following characteristics? a. the length of the glycerol backbone b. the shape of the glycerol backbone c. whether or not it is soluble in water d. the length of the fatty acids 12. Which type(s) of phospholipids act as an emulsifier? a. lecithins b. omega-3 fatty acids c. short chain fatty acids d. triglycerides 13. Which of the following is/are a critical structural component of a cell's membrane? a. estrogen b. glycerol c. phospholipids d. triglycerides 14. A fatty acid with a 10-carbon chain and one double carbon bond is characterized as a a. saturated, medium-chain fatty acid. b. saturated, long-chain fatty acid. c. monounsaturated, medium-chain fatty acid. d. monounsaturated, long-chain fatty acid.

15. A fatty acid made up of a 16-carbon chain with no double carbon bonds is called a(n) a. saturated, short-chain fatty acid. b. saturated, medium-chain fatty acid.

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sn5t_sakai 6 of 23 c. saturated, long-chain fatty acid. d. unsaturated, long-chain fatty acid.

16. Which of the following statement about dietary sources of fat is true? a. Coconut oil is high in saturated fat. b. Canola oil is high in saturated fat. c. Olive oil is high in omega-3 fatty acid. d. Avocados are high in saturated fat.

17. Which of the following fatty acids is typically solid at room temperature? a. omega-3 b. saturated c. monounsaturated d. polyunsaturated 18. The process of adding hydrogen to an unsaturated fatty acid is called a. emulsification. b. pressurization. c. hydrogenation. d. deamination.

19. Diets high in trans fatty acids are MOST associated with a. decreased cancer risk. b. increased blood cholesterol levels. c. osteoporosis. d. decreased blood glucose levels.

20. Which of the following statements is true about trans fatty acids? a. They are made by the body in large quantities. b. Food companies do not need to identify their level on the Nutrition Facts panel. c. They decrease the risk of developing heart disease. d. They result from the hydrogenation process.

21. Which of the following ingredients would alert you to the presence of trans fatty acids in a food product? a. hydrogenated vegetable oil b. lecithin c. liquid corn oil d. vitamin E 22. Essential fatty acids (EFAs) are precursors needed to produce which type of biological compounds? a. enzymes b. eicosanoids c. cholesterols d. carbohydrates Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 6 of 23 23. Which of the following lipids plays an important role in reducing a person's risk for heart disease? a. cholesterol b. trans fatty acid c. alpha-linolenic acid d. saturated fatty acid 24. The two essential fatty acids are a. cholesterol and plant sterols. b. linoleic and alpha-linolenic acid. c. butyric and stearic acid. d. cis and trans fat.

25. Which of the following foods is the richest source of omega-3 fatty acids? a. broccoli b. sirloin steak c. tofu d. salmon 26. A fatty acid containing the maximum amount of hydrogen atoms bound to it is called a. monounsaturated. b. polyunsaturated. c. saturated. d. methylated.

27. What type of fatty acid chain contains one double carbon bond? a. monounsaturated b. polyunsaturated c. saturated d. sterol 28. Which type of fatty acid has hydrogen atoms attached on diagonally opposite sides of a double carbon bond? a. monounsaturated b. saturated c. cis d. trans 29. Why does a cis fatty acid have a kinked shape? a. Its hydrogen atoms are attached on diagonally opposite sides of the double carbon bond. b. Both hydrogen atoms are located on the same sides of the double carbon bond. c. Every one of its carbon atoms is saturated with hydrogen. d. It has only one double carbon bond.

30. Why are phospholipids NOT considered essential nutrients? a. Our bodies manufacture phospholipids.

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sn5t_sakai 6 of 23 b. Phospholipids are not naturally found in the healthy body. c. Beneficial GI bacteria produce phospholipids. d. They provide no useful function in the human body.

31. Which type of lipid is MOST abundantly found in fatty fish or fish oils? a. omega-6 fatty acid b. omega-3 fatty acid c. saturated fatty acid d. cholesterol 32. What effect does the consumption of trans fatty acids have on a person's health? a. provides essential fatty acids that reduce inflammation b. increases HDL cholesterol levels c. increases total blood cholesterol d. reduces blood levels of VLDL cholesterol 33. Which hormone signals the gallbladder to contract? a. serotonin b. lipoprotein lipase c. insulin d. cholecystokinin (CCK) 34. The primary phosphate-containing emulsifiers in bile are called a. lecithins. b. cholecystokinin (CCK). c. bicarbonate. d. electrolytes.

35. The vast majority of fat digestion and absorption occurs in the a. stomach. b. liver. c. small intestine. d. large intestine.

36. To facilitate the emulsification of dietary fats, the gallbladder stores and releases a. lipase. b. bile. c. hydrochloric acid. d. bicarbonate.

37. The primary enzyme for digesting cholesterol esters in the small intestine is called a. amylase. b. cholesterol esterase. c. lingual lipase.

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sn5t_sakai 6 of 23 d. pancreatic lipase.

38. During triglyceride digestion, two fatty acids are removed and the resulting molecule is called a a. monoacylglyceride. b. diglyceride. c. glycerol. d. phospholipid.

39. Most lipid digestion products are transported to the mucosal lining of the small intestine in spherical compounds called a. micelles. b. chylomicrons. c. monoglycerides. d. high-density lipoproteins (HDLs).

40. The lipoprotein that transports lipids from the intestine into the bloodstream is a a. chylomicron. b. very-low-density lipoprotein (VLDL). c. high-density lipoprotein (HDL). d. micelle.

41. Chylomicrons are soluble in water. Which component of their outer surface gives them this characteristic? a. triglycerides b. phospholipids and proteins c. bile d. carbohydrates 42. Where in the body are the majority of triglycerides stored for future energy needs? a. lipoproteins b. beta cells of the pancreas c. liver d. adipose tissue 43. How many kilocalories are provided by 25 grams of fat? a. 25 kilocalories b. 100 kilocalories c. 225 kilocalories d. 2,250 kilocalories 44. Yesterday Shannon consumed 250 grams of carbohydrate, 75 grams of protein, and 60 grams of fat. What percentage of Calories of her day's intake came from fat? a. 13% b. 15% c. 29% d. 35% Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 6 of 23 45. Which of the following triggers the breakdown of stored fat? a. lipoprotein lipase b. epinephrine c. insulin d. estrogen 46. How does fat consumption relate to vitamin A, D, E, and K intake? a. These vitamins are normally highly unstable molecules and are stabilized by fatty acids. b. These vitamins require dietary fats for their absorption and transport. c. Fats provide the energy required to move these large molecules across the intestinal wall. d. These vitamins are found only in the saturated fat found in animal sources.

47. What is the Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Range for fat? a. less than 15% of total energy b. 10-25% of total energy c. 20-35% of total energy d. 30-45% of total energy 48. Which of the following foods is MOST likely to contain "invisible" fats? a. olive oil b. zucchini c. chocolate cake d. butter 49. The Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Range (AMDR) for linoleic acid is at least what percentage of daily energy intake? a. 2 b. 5 c. 14 d. 17 50. One tablespoon of fish oil, which contains more than 4 grams of alpha-linolenic acid, provides a. half the Adequate Intake (AI) of omega-3 fatty acids. b. half the AI of omega-6 fatty acids. c. more than double the AI of omega-3 fatty acids. d. more than double the AI of omega-6 fatty acids.

51. Which of the following foods is BEST characterized as a rich source of saturated fatty acids? a. cashew nuts b. tomato sauce c. canola oil d. butter 52. Which of the following is BEST characterized as a rich source of unsaturated fatty acids?

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sn5t_sakai 6 of 23 a. avocado b. coconut oil c. beef fat d. cheddar cheese 53. On a food label, there is 140 Calories per serving. It contains 2 grams of saturated fat. What is the approximate percentage of Calories from saturated fat per serving of the food? a. 3.5% b. 13% c. 22.5% d. 2% 54. Which food group in the MyPlate contains the most foods that are high in saturated fat? a. diary b. vegetables c. fruits d. grains 55. Which of the following is the BEST source of heart-healthy fats? a. whole milk b. cream cheese c. walnut oil d. bacon 56. Which of the following is the BEST source of eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA) and docosahexaenoic acid (DHA)? a. flaxseeds b. avocado c. spinach d. fish oil 57. Which of the following provides both omega-3 and omega-6 fatty acids? a. flaxseed oil b. butter c. ground beef d. chicken 58. Which of the following is typically high in both unhealthful saturated fat and trans fatty acid? a. roasted pork b. Greek-style yogurt c. peanut butter d. croissant 59. Which of the following types of fish s most likely to be contaminated with mercury? a. farmed trout Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 6 of 23 b. flounder c. swordfish d. line-caught tuna 60. A typical fast-food meal of a hamburger and fries is generally not a healthy choice because it is high in a. added sugars. b. cis fatty acids. c. visible saturated fats. d. invisible trans fats and saturated fats.

61. Which of the following sources of protein includes the MOST unhealthful fats? a. poached salmon b. fried chicken c. lentils d. tempeh 62. A blood test showed that Tom's level of low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) is 210 mg/dl. What is the potential health implication of this condition? a. Tom has an increased risk of atherosclerosis. b. Tom has a decreased risk of atherosclerosis. c. Tom should adopt a very low fat diet (less than 10% of total energy). d. Tom should keep his consumption of trans fats to less than 7% of total energy.

63. How are high-density lipoproteins (HDLs) related to heart health? a. HDLs increase inflammation, which restricts blood flow. b. HDLs release artery-clogging cholesterol into the blood. c. HDLs remove artery-clogging cholesterol from the blood. d. HDLs help bind cholesterol to the walls of blood vessels, restricting blood flow.

64. What is the leading cause of death in the United States? a. cancer b. diseases of the heart c. diabetes d. stroke 65. High-density lipoproteins (HDLs) are so named because of their high proportion of a. cholesterol. b. carbohydrates. c. liquid. d. protein.

66. Blood levels of very low-density lipoproteins (VLDLs) are decreased by a. exercise. b. simple sugars.

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sn5t_sakai 6 of 23 c. extra Calories. d. dietary cholesterol.

67. Which lipoprotein transport cholesterol to the liver? a. chylomicron b. VLDL c. LDL d. HDL 68. Which type of dietary fat is known to elevate blood cholesterol levels? a. saturated b. polyunsaturated c. monounsaturated d. docosahexaenoic acid (DHA) 69. In the process known as reverse cholesterol transport a. circulating HDLs pick up cholesterol from VLDLs and LDLs and transport it to adipose cells for storage in body fat. b. circulating VLDLs and LDLs pick up cholesterol from dying cells and arterial plaques and transfer it to adipose cells for storage in body fat. c. circulating HDLs pick up cholesterol from dying cells and arterial plaques and transfer it to other lipoproteins, which return it to the liver. d. circulating chylomicrons transfer their cholesterol to HDLs, which return it to the liver.

70. What effect do statin drugs have on blood cholesterol? a. They raise levels of very-low-density lipoproteins (VLDLs). b. They lower levels of low-density lipoproteins (LDLs). c. They raise levels of LDLs. d. They lower levels of HDLs. 71. What effect does exercise have on blood-cholesterol levels? a. increases total triglycerides b. increases high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol c. decreases high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol d. increases low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol 72. Which one of the following is associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular disease? a. regular physical activity b. high intake of whole grains and high dietary fiber c. high level of LDL in blood d. a vegetarian diet 73. Public health organizations recommend which of the following strategies to prevent or reduce the risk for heart disease? a. Consume two glasses of wine per day.

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sn5t_sakai 6 of 23 b. Increase dietary fiber intake, especially from oat bran, beans, and fruits. c. Maintain high blood glucose levels. d. Avoid plant sterols.

74. How do omega-3 fatty acids decrease the risk for cardiovascular disease? a. They decrease inflammation and blood triglycerides. b. They increase the synthesis of bile and boost blood levels of low-density lipoproteins (LDLs). c. They speed up metabolism and increase total cholesterol and HDL cholesterol. d. They increase levels of very-low-density lipoproteins (VLDLs).

75. Which of the ten leading causes of death in the United States result in nearly 600,000 deaths in 2015? a. heart disease b. cancer c. stroke d. diabetes 76. The researchers have studied extensively possible relationship between dietary fat intake and the following types of cancer except a. breast cancer. b. pancreatic cancer. c. colon cancer. d. prostate cancer.

77. American Cancer Society recommends the following diet and lifestyle changes to reduce risk of cancer except a. reduce intake of high fat foods and increase intake of refined carbohydrates. b. maintain a healthy body weight and avoid weight gain. c. limit consumption of processed meats. d. stop smoking.

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sn5t_sakai 6 of 23 Answer Key 1. c 2. b 3. b 4. a 5. d 6. c 7. c 8. a 9. d 10. d 11. d 12. a 13. c 14. c 15. c 16. a 17. b 18. c 19. b 20. d 21. a 22. b 23. c 24. b 25. d Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 6 of 23 26. c 27. a 28. d 29. b 30. a 31. b 32. c 33. d 34. a 35. c 36. b 37. b 38. a 39. a 40. a 41. b 42. d 43. c 44. c 45. b 46. b 47. c 48. c 49. b 50. c 51. d Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 6 of 23 52. a 53. b 54. a 55. c 56. d 57. a 58. d 59. c 60. d 61. b 62. a 63. c 64. b 65. d 66. a 67. d 68. a 69. c 70. b 71. b 72. c 73. b 74. a 75. b 76. b Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 6 of 23 77. a

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Chapter 6 Name:

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sn5t_sakai 7 of 23

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. What element makes protein different from carbohydrate and fat? a. carbon b. hydrogen c. oxygen d. nitrogen 2. Which part of an individual amino acid distinguishes it from other amino acids? a. side chain b. central carbon c. amine group d. acid group 3. The part of the protein molecule that carries nitrogen is the a. acid group. b. amine group. c. side chain. d. hydrogen group.

4. The essential components needed to build a complete amino acid are a. carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen. b. a pentose sugar, a phosphate group, and a nucleotide. c. carbon, an amine group, and an acid group. d. carbon, hydrogen, an amine group, an acid group, and a side chain.

5. Unlike carbohydrates and lipids, proteins are composed of a. glucose molecules. b. amino acids. c. proteases. d. phospholipids.

6. At the center of each amino acid is a single atom of a. oxygen. b. carbon. c. sulfur. d. potassium.

7. How many amino acids are considered to be essential? a. none b. five c. nine d. twenty 8. There are twenty amino acids. How many are nonessential amino acids?

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sn5t_sakai 7 of 23 a. none b. eleven c. nine d. all 9. Which of the following amino acids is essential? a. arginine b. valine c. glycine d. alanine 10. The process of transferring the amine group from one amino acid to another is called a. gene expression. b. alteration. c. deamination. d. transamination.

11. Amino acids that cannot be manufactured by the body are characterized as a. transaminated. b. transcribed. c. nonessential. d. essential.

12. Amino acids are joined together by which specific type of bond? a. lipase b. disulfide c. hydrogen d. peptide 13. Which of the following is a nucleotide base in DNA? a. isoleucine b. cytosine c. valine d. threonine 14. What dictates the structure of a protein molecule synthesized by the body? a. the body's need for a protein b. the DNA inside the nucleus of the cell c. the number of essential amino acids available d. the combination of proteins consumed in the diet 15. In what cellular organelle are proteins synthesized? a. nucleus b. ribosome Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 7 of 23 c. cell membrane d. mitochondria 16. For gene expression to occur, a gene's DNA must replicate. This replica is called a. transfer RNA. b. messenger RNA. c. ribosome. d. nucleotides.

17. The process of mRNA copying the genetic information from the DNA's base sequence is called a. transferring. b. transamination. c. translation. d. transcription.

18. The specific function of a protein is determined by its a. DNA. b. length. c. three-dimensional shape. d. electric charge.

19. Milk curdles when lemon juice is added to it. The change that occurs in the protein is called a. denaturation. b. translocation. c. transcription. d. deamination.

20. The process of combining two incomplete proteins to make a complete protein is called a. the protein-combining method. b. amino-acid sequencing method. c. mutual supplementation. d. complementary supplementation.

21. The amino acid that is missing or in the smallest supply is called the a. essential amino acid. b. minor amino acid. c. limiting amino acid. d. incomplete amino acid.

22. A food that provides all nine essential amino acids is called a a. complementary protein. b. mutually exclusive protein. c. limiting protein. d. complete protein.

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sn5t_sakai 7 of 23 23. Which of the following provides incomplete protein? a. egg whites b. black beans c. chicken d. milk 24. The sequential order of the amino acids is called the a. primary structure. b. secondary structure. c. tertiary structure. d. quaternary structure.

25. The traditional Cajun dish of red beans and rice is a good example of a. complementary proteins. b. limiting proteins. c. denatured proteins. d. transaminated proteins.

26. How does the shape of proteins in muscle fibers affect their function? a. They are globular and can change shape to increase muscle mass. b. They are long, allowing muscle fibers to contract and relax. c. They are short, helping muscle fibers build up in response to weight-bearing exercise. d. They are wide, giving muscle fibers great tensile strength.

27. What characteristic of the proteins that form red blood cells allows them to change shape and flow freely through the blood? a. spherical shape b. globular shape c. long, narrow shape d. lack of quaternary structure 28. The process in which the body makes new proteins and breaks down existing proteins is known as a. protein turnover. b. protein expression. c. denaturation. d. phenylketonuria (PKU).

29. The specific sequence of amino acids that make up the individual proteins in your body is determined by a. the level of phospholipids in the blood. b. the amount of blood glucose. c. the pH balance of blood. d. your unique genetic makeup.

30. Protein digestion begins in the a. mouth.

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sn5t_sakai 7 of 23 b. stomach. c. small intestine. d. pancreas.

31. The absorption of amino acids occurs in the a. stomach. b. small intestine. c. large intestine. d. liver.

32. What is the name of the protein-digesting enzyme in the stomach? a. pepsin b. gastrin c. amylase d. hydrochloric acid 33. Which hormone controls the production of hydrochloric acid and the release of pepsin? a. pepsinogen b. insulin c. cholecystokinin (CCK) d. gastrin 34. What are proteases? a. protein messengers that are released from storage in response to an alteration in the body's homeostasis b. transport proteins that move substances throughout the body c. defense proteins that attack foreign bacteria, viruses, and toxins d. enzymes that break down proteins 35. Which of the following is used to measure protein quality? a. the amount of essential amino acids present and the protein efficiency ratio b. the digestibility of the protein and the amount of essential amino acids c. the protein-efficiency ratio and the digestibility of the protein d. the protein's chemical score and digestibility 36. A food's chemical score gives an estimate of its protein quality based on the a. Calories from protein expressed as a percentage of the total Calories a serving of the food contains. b. number of essential amino acids the food provides. c. amount of its limiting amino acid compared to the amount of the same amino acid in a reference food. d. proportion of protein as compared to carbohydrate and fat that the food contains.

37. A protein is considered high quality if it is a. derived from plants. b. easily digestible. c. high in triglycerides.

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sn5t_sakai 7 of 23 d. high in carbohydrates.

38. Which of the following are defensive proteins manufactured by the immune system? a. antigens b. antibodies c. buffers d. transport proteins 39. When the body experiences alkalosis, how do proteins help restore the acid-base balance? a. Proteins speed the transfer of amine groups to new acid groups and side chains. b. Proteins uncoil and lose their shape. c. Proteins attract hydrogen ions and neutralize their effects. d. Proteins release hydrogen into the blood.

40. Most enzymes are composed of a. carbohydrates. b. fats. c. proteins. d. cholesterol.

41. To use proteins for energy, the liver removes amine groups from amino acids in a process called a. transamination. b. deamination. c. denaturation. d. transport.

42. The process of deamination produce ammonia which is a toxic compound. Ammonia is quickly converted into what waste product? a. ketones b. urea c. free fatty acid d. carbon dioxide 43. What condition results when the blood becomes too basic? a. marasmus b. sickle cell anemia c. alkalosis d. acidosis 44. Which type of protein helps the body maintain fluid and electrolyte balance? a. antibodies b. enzymes c. transport proteins d. buffers Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 7 of 23 45. Amino acids from proteins are used to make epinephrine and norepinephrine, which serve as a. neurotransmitters. b. enzymes. c. triglycerides. d. antibodies.

46. Ferritin found in the liver is an example of a(n) a. transport protein. b. storage protein. c. neurotransmitter. d. enzyme.

47. The specialized procedure that can identify whether a person's protein intake is adequate is called a. protein recycling. b. ins and outs. c. nitrogen balance. d. amino acid balance.

48. Maria is a reasonably healthy 19-year-old college student who is sedentary. She is 5' 8" tall and weighs 145 pounds.

How many grams of protein would you recommend she consume each day? a. 45 grams b. 53 grams c. 65 grams d. 73 grams 49. Which of the following represents a positive nitrogen balance? a. pregnancy b. extended bed rest c. severe weight loss d. increased body fat 50. Jeffery is a strength athlete and a vegetarian. He weighs 205 lb and is 6' 2" tall. How much protein would you recommend he eat on a daily basis? a. 74.5 grams b. 0.8 g per kg body weight c. at least 121 grams d. 185 grams 51. Which of the following health problems has been associated with high intakes of animal-based proteins? a. elevated blood cholesterol b. marasmus c. edema d. sickle cell anemia 52. What does the most recent research suggest about the effect of protein intake on bone loss?

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sn5t_sakai 7 of 23 a. High-protein diets cause bone loss in men and women. b. High-protein diets cause bone loss in older women. c. High-protein intake, with adequate calcium intake, does not cause bone loss. d. Low-protein diets that are high in calcium do not cause bone loss.

53. Which of the following individuals should avoid a high-protein diet? a. strength athletes b. pregnant women c. people who are susceptible to kidney disease d. people who are susceptible to iron-deficiency anemia 54. Which of the following statements about protein intake is TRUE? a. Daily protein intake of no more than 2 g per kg body weight is safe. b. Daily protein intake of up to 4 g per kg body weight is safe. c. To avoid kidney damage, do not exceed the Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) for protein. d. To avoid kidney damage, keep daily protein intake below 0.5 g per kg body weight.

55. Which of the following groups requires the least protein per kilogram of body weight? a. adult men b. pregnant women c. infants d. young children 56. Which of the following is a source of complete proteins? a. broccoli b. apple c. tuna fish d. whole-grain bread 57. Which of the following foods would contain the highest protein content? a. cooked carrots b. chicken c. corn d. whole-wheat bread 58. Which of the following foods is not an example of legume? a. lentils b. peanuts c. almonds d. black beans 59. Which of the following grains is a complete protein? a. white rice b. wheat Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 7 of 23 c. corn d. quinoa 60. Which of the following statements about protein foods is TRUE? a. Quorn is a high-protein food derived from fermented corn. b. Nuts are high in protein, but also high in saturated fat and cholesterol. c. Some grains are high in protein, but no grain provides all nine essential amino acids. d. Lentils are a good source of protein, but do not provide all nine essential amino acids.

61. Which of the following supplements would you MOST recommend a vegan add to his/her diet? a. protein b. fiber c. vitamin B 12 d. vitamin C 62. Which of the following types of vegetarian diet eat cheese, but do not eat eggs? a. lactovegetarian b. lacto-ovo-vegetarian c. ovovegetarian d. semivegetarian 63. Which of the following is most likely to be high in a vegan diet? a. vitamin B 12 b. fiber c. iron d. vitamin D 64. An individual consuming a plant-based diet eats a. only grains, vegetables, fruits, nuts, and seeds. b. mostly plant foods, as well as occasional eggs and dairy. c. mostly plant foods, as well as eggs, dairy, and occasional meat, poultry, and/or fish. d. a wide variety of foods derived from both plants and animals, but avoids pork and beef.

65. As compared to people who eat meat, people who consume a balanced vegetarian diet a. have a reduced risk for heart disease. b. are more likely to experience constipation. c. have an increased exposure to carcinogens. d. are more likely to smoke.

66. All of the following are reasons people become vegetarian except a. religious. b. ecological benefits. c. vegetarian diet is best.

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sn5t_sakai 7 of 23 d. health benefits.

67. What causes the swollen belly associated with kwashiorkor? a. a high-protein diet that causes fluid buildup b. lack of protein to maintain fluid and electrolyte balance c. excess hydration d. excess fat buildup in adipose tissue 68. The type of protein-energy malnutrition characterized by sufficient intake of Calories but a lack of protein in the diet is called a. marasmus. b. sickle cell anemia. c. cystic fibrosis. d. kwashiorkor.

69. The type of protein-energy malnutrition characterized by a general lack of protein, energy, and nutrients in the diet is called a. marasmus. b. sickle cell anemia. c. cystic fibrosis. d. kwashiorkor.

70. Which of the following is associated with marasmus? a. distended abdomen b. "skin and bones" appearance c. enlarged, fatty liver d. loss of hearing 71. Which of the following statements about children with Kwashiorkor is false a. Their fat stores are completely depleted. b. Their hair changes color. c. Their skin pigment changes. d. They have retarded growth.

72. Which of the following is a genetic disorder resulting in defective assembly of a chloride transport protein and characterized by severe respiratory and digestive distress? a. cystic fibrosis b. phenylketonuria (PKU) c. hyperchloremic acidosis d. kwashiorkor 73. The genetic disorder caused by a single amino acid error in hemoglobin is called a. phenylketonuria (PKU). b. cystic fibrosis. c. sickle cell anemia.

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sn5t_sakai 7 of 23 d. marasmus.

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sn5t_sakai 7 of 23 Answer Key 1. d 2. a 3. b 4. d 5. b 6. b 7. c 8. b 9. b 10. d 11. d 12. d 13. b 14. b 15. b 16. b 17. d 18. c 19. a 20. c 21. c 22. d 23. b 24. a 25. a Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 7 of 23 26. b 27. b 28. a 29. d 30. b 31. b 32. a 33. d 34. d 35. d 36. c 37. b 38. b 39. d 40. c 41. b 42. b 43. c 44. c 45. a 46. b 47. c 48. b 49. a 50. c 51. a Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 7 of 23 52. c 53. c 54. a 55. a 56. c 57. b 58. c 59. d 60. d 61. c 62. a 63. b 64. c 65. a 66. c 67. b 68. d 69. a 70. b 71. a 72. a 73. c

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Chapter 7(2) Name:

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sn5t_sakai 9 of 23

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Which of the following are classified as micronutrients? a. vitamins and water b. vitamins and minerals c. vitamins, minerals, and water d. carbohydrates, fats, and proteins 2. In the early 1900s, Japanese children who did not consume fish developed a form of blindness. Which vitamin were they deficient in? a. vitamin A b. vitamin D c. vitamin C d. vitamin E 3. In 1906, F.G. Hopkins first called vitamins and minerals a. essential substances. b. essential factors. c. nutrients. d. accessory factors.

4. A deficiency in which vitamin causes the disease beriberi? a. niacin b. thiamin c. cobalamin d. ascorbic acid 5. All of the following vitamins can be synthesized by the body in small amount except a. vitamin K. b. vitamin D. c. thiamin. d. niacin.

6. The most common cause of vitamin toxicity is a. overconsumption of nutritional supplements. b. overconsumption of carrots. c. overapplication of vitamin A cream for acne. d. overconsumption of cod liver oil.

7. How many water-soluble vitamins are essential for human health? a. 2 b. 5 c. 7 d. 9 Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 9 of 23 8. Which water-soluble vitamin can be stored by the body? a. vitamin C b. thiamin c. riboflavin d. vitamin B 12 9. Which vitamin was discovered first? a. vitamin A b. vitamin B 12 c. vitamin C d. vitamin K 10. Which vitamin is categorized as a member of the K-vitamin "umbrella"? a. potassium b. phylloquinone c. cholecalciferol d. retinol 11. Which of the following vitamin does not have a known risk of toxicity? a. vitamin A b. vitamin D c. vitamin E d. vitamin K 12. You are reading a label and the ingredients list includes pyridoxine as an additive. Which vitamin has been added to this food? a. vitamin A b. vitamin C c. vitamin B 6 d. vitamin B 12 13. One of the primary differences between vitamins and minerals is that a. minerals are essential and vitamins are not. b. minerals are inorganic and vitamins are organic. c. minerals are large molecules and vitamins are small molecules. d. minerals are compounds and vitamins are elements.

14. Which of the following is classified as a major mineral? a. zinc b. iodine c. selenium d. sulfur Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 9 of 23 15. Which of the following minerals do we need to consume in amounts of less than 100 mg a day? a. calcium b. sodium c. fluoride d. potassium 16. Ultra-trace minerals are those that are required in amounts less than ________ mg per day. a. 1 b. 2 c. 10 d. 20 17. Which of the following is classified as an ultra-trace mineral? a. calcium b. manganese c. copper d. zinc 18. Which of the following is TRUE about iron? a. Iron is a major mineral. b. Iron is an organic compound. c. Iron is found in red blood cells and muscle cells. d. The form of iron in plant foods is more easily absorbed than the form of iron in meat, poultry, and fish.

19. Which of the following decreases the absorption of zinc and iron? a. oxalic acid b. vitamin C c. lactose d. dietary fat 20. Which of the following micronutrients may be especially important for people with diabetes to consume in adequate amounts? a. vitamin C and iron b. potassium and magnesium c. vitamin D and zinc d. vitamin E and chromium 21. What chemical changes does the body make to thiamin and B6 so that the vitamins can carry out their essential roles? a. Two hydroxyl groups are added to the vitamins. b. Two hydroxyl groups are removed from the vitamins. c. A phosphate group is added to the vitamins. d. A phosphate group is removed from the vitamins.

22. An individual with a gastrointestinal disorder that reduces his absorption of dietary fat is MOST likely to become Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 9 of 23 deficient in which of the following micronutrients? a. vitamin E b. vitamin C c. sodium d. sulfur 23. Genetics plays a role in determining an individual's required intake of vitamins and minerals. What term is used to denote the science that blends the study of human nutrition with genetics? a. nutrigenetics b. genetic-nutrition c. nutrigenomics d. genetically modified foods 24. Your friend is trying to decide if her diet provides adequate amounts of vitamins and minerals and whether she needs to take supplements. Which guideline below would best help her make a sound decision? a. Eat the nutrient, not the food. b. Eat food: not too much, mostly plants. c. Eat enriched and fortified foods to take advantage of state-of-the-art nutrition. d. Eat high on the food chain.

25. Vitamin supplements may be harmful. Which supplement, when taken in high doses, may increase the risk of osteoporosis and bone fractures in older adults? a. vitamin A b. riboflavin c. vitamin B 12 d. vitamin C 26. Which of the following statements is false about reviews of micronutrient supplements from the U.S. Preventive Services Task Force (USPSTF)? a. No evidence that micronutrient supplements reduce chronic disease risk. b. High doses of vitamin D do not prevent or lower cardiovascular disease risk. c. Neither vitamin E or beta carotene prevents or reduces risk of cardiovascular disease. d. Overall, there is sufficient evidence to determine the risks vs. benefits of using any multivitamin, pairednutrient supplements, or single-nutrient supplements for the prevention of cardiovascular disease or cancer

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sn5t_sakai 9 of 23 Answer Key 1. b 2. a 3. d 4. b 5. c 6. a 7. d 8. d 9. a 10. b 11. d 12. c 13. b 14. d 15. c 16. a 17. c 18. c 19. a 20. d 21. c 22. a 23. c 24. b 25. a Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 9 of 23 26. d

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Chapter 7 Name:

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sn5t_sakai 8 of 23

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. ________ is the sum of all the chemical and physical processes by which the body breaks down and builds up molecules. a. Calorimetry b. Catabolism c. Metabolism d. Anabolism 2. The process of making large molecules from smaller ones is called a. catabolism. b. anabolism. c. hydrolysis. d. metabolism.

3. The process of breaking down large molecules to release energy is called a. catabolism. b. anabolism. c. hydrolysis. d. metabolism.

4. The primary high-energy molecule in human metabolism is a. nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD). b. creatine phosphate. c. glucose. d. adenosine triphosphate (ATP).

5. The thermal energy released during the body's metabolic reactions a. catalyzes phosphorylation reactions. b. keeps us warm. c. is converted by cells into chemical energy. d. is sufficient to power short bursts of activity.

6. What is the name of the molecule that results from the removal of two phosphates from ATP? a. adenosine diphosphate (ADP) b. adenosine monophosphate (AMP) c. nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD) d. flavin adenine dinucleotide (FAD) 7. Which cellular organelle is the primary site of ATP production? a. ribosome b. cytoplasm c. endoplasmic reticulum d. mitochondrion Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 8 of 23 8. Which of the following is not one of the energy-containing nutrients that the cells use to release energy? a. glucose b. fatty acids c. amino acids d. vitamins 9. Which of the following activates the phosphorylation of glucose? a. glucokinase b. glucagon c. pyruvate d. ammonia 10. Which of the following may help bind the different parts of an enzyme together to speed up a metabolic reaction? a. calorimeter b. lactate c. ketone d. cofactor 11. Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) can be synthesized from adenosine monophosphate (AMP) and adenosine diphosphate (ADP) through the process of a. phosphorylation. b. dephosphorylation. c. hydrolysis. d. deamination.

12. An anabolic reaction in which water is released as a by-product is called a. hydrolysis. b. dehydration synthesis. c. phosphorylation. d. dephosphorylation.

13. Disaccharides are formed from monosaccharides by what type of reaction? a. dehydration synthesis b. hydrolysis c. hydrogen bonding d. phosphorylation 14. Through what type of reaction are disaccharides catabolized to monosaccharides? a. dehydration synthesis b. hydrolysis c. phosphorylation d. hydrogen bonding 15. Which of the following reactions represents dephosphorylation? a. breakdown of ATP Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 8 of 23 b. synthesis of sucrose c. breakdown of maltose d. synthesis of glucose phosphate 16. In oxidation-reduction reactions, what is exchanged? a. electrons b. neutrons c. protons d. quarks 17. A molecule that gives up electrons is a. reduced. b. condensed. c. oxidized. d. hydrolyzed.

18. The oxidation-reduction reactions that produce energy require which of the following coenzymes? a. vitamin C b. B-vitamins c. minerals d. fat-soluble vitamins 19. What are the three end products of the oxidation-reduction reactions involved in metabolism? a. glucose, pyruvate, and adenosine diphosphate (ADP) b. sucrose, lactate, and adenosine monophosphate (AMP) c. acetyl CoA, nitrogen, and flavin adenine dinucleotide (FAD) d. water, carbon dioxide, and ATP 20. The removal of a phosphate is called a. dephosphorylation. b. deamination. c. hydrolysis. d. oxidation-reduction.

21. A cofactor that contains carbon is known as a a. carbohydrate. b. lipid. c. coenzyme. d. carnitine.

22. Which of the following is NOT a cofactor? a. B-vitamins b. iron c. zinc Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 8 of 23 d. copper 23. Which of the following is NOT true of the fates of glucose in the liver? a. The glucose in the liver can be used for cell growth and maintenance. b. The glucose can be stored as glycogen. c. The glucose can be used to make other glucose-containing compounds. d. The glucose can be converted into fatty acids.

24. The final stage of glucose oxidation, which is carried out in the inner membranes of the mitochondria, involves which series of reactions? a. oxidation-reduction b. tricarboxylic acid (TCA) cycle c. electron transport chain d. beta-oxidation 25. The final stage of glucose oxidation, oxidative phosphorylation, ultimately yields a. carbon dioxide. b. hydrogen and carbon. c. carbon dioxide, ATP and water. d. glucose.

26. The first step of glycolysis is a. deamination of glucose. b. dephosphorylation of glucose. c. phosphorylation of glucose. d. condensation of glucose to lactate.

27. What is the end product after glucose undergoes glycolysis? a. glucose-6-phosphate b. pyruvate c. glucagon d. maltose 28. The glycolysis of glucose occurs in which cellular component? a. mitochondrion b. cytosol c. nucleus d. intercellular fluid 29. In the absence of oxygen, pyruvate is converted to a. acetyl CoA. b. phosphoenolpyruvate. c. lactic acid. d. citrate.

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sn5t_sakai 8 of 23 30. The anaerobic conversion of pyruvate to lactate occurs in cells with few or no mitochondria, such as the following except a. the lens and cornea of the eye. b. fat cells. c. red blood cells. d. muscle cells during high-intensity exercise.

31. Which of the following cells rely on anaerobic metabolism for adenosine triphosphate (ATP) production? a. liver cells b. epidermal cells c. red blood cells d. neurons 32. How many ATP are produced in anaerobic glycolysis from one pyruvate molecule? a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3 33. When oxygen is plentiful, pyruvate from glucose is converted to a. acetyl CoA. b. glycogen. c. fatty acid. d. lactic acid.

34. Which molecule is common to the metabolism of carbohydrates, fatty acids, amino acids, and alcohol? a. phosphofructokinase b. hexokinase c. carnitine d. acetyl CoA 35. The tricarboxylic acid (TCA) cycle is a continuous loop of how many metabolic reactions? a. 4 b. 8 c. 11 d. 21 36. At the beginning of the tricarboxylic acid (TCA) cycle, oxaloacetate is converted into which of the following molecules? a. pyruvate b. citrate c. ATP d. carbon dioxide 37. Which of the following metabolic pathways occurs in the cytosol of the cell?

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sn5t_sakai 8 of 23 a. glycolysis b. TCA c. electron transport chain d. beta-oxidation 38. The catabolism of triglycerides is called a. glycolysis. b. TCA. c. lipolysis. d. lipogenesis.

39. What is the first step in lipolysis? a. removal of each fatty acid from the glycerol backbone b. removal of the glycerol from the adipose tissues c. removal of triglycerides from the lipoproteins d. removal of dietary lipids from chylomicrons 40. Which of the following enzymes facilitates the release of fatty acids into the blood? a. hormone-sensitive lipase b. hexokinase c. pepsin d. peptidase 41. Which of the following situations will result in a buildup of ketones in the blood? a. low carbohydrate availability b. low levels of acetyl CoA due to increased fat mobilization c. excess of tricarboxyl acid (TCA)-cycle intermediates d. high-carbohydrate diet 42. Fruity breath is a sign of a. lipolysis. b. ketoacidosis. c. lacticacidosis. d. glycogenolysis.

43. The process of breaking down protein into single amino acids is called a. lipolysis. b. hydrolysis. c. glycolysis. d. proteolysis.

44. The end products of deamination are ammonia and a. nitrogen. b. a keto acid.

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sn5t_sakai 8 of 23 c. ATP. d. carbon dioxide.

45. In order to be used to produce energy for the body, protein—unlike carbohydrates and lipids—must first be stripped of a. carbon. b. nitrogen. c. hydrogen. d. oxygen.

46. Dirk is a bodybuilder. His daily intakes of carbohydrate and fat meet his body needs, but his daily protein intake is about twice his body needs. Dirk's excess protein intake is a. being excreted from his body in urine in the form of urea. b. being used for gluconeogenesis. c. contributing to an increase in his body's synthesis of muscle mass. d. contributing to an increase in his body's synthesis of fatty acids.

47. During protein catabolism, the body is protected against ammonia toxicity because the a. blood transport protein albumin carries ammonia to the lungs, where it is exhaled. b. blood transport protein albumin carries ammonia to working cells, which can catabolize it for energy. c. liver combines ammonia with carbon dioxide to form urea. d. kidneys excrete ammonia from the bloodstream in urine.

48. The oxidation of alcohol occurs primarily in the a. pancreas. b. stomach. c. bloodstream. d. liver.

49. Where is the first site of alcohol oxidation? a. pancreas b. liver c. stomach d. blood stream 50. For a person who chronically abuses alcohol, which alternative pathway becomes important in metabolizing it? a. microsomal ethanol oxidizing system (MEOS) b. first pass c. alcohol dehydrogenase d. aldehyde dehydrogenase 51. What is the first step in the body's metabolism of alcohol in people with low to moderate intakes? a. Acetate is converted to acetyl CoA. b. Alcohol dehydrogenase (ADH) produces acetaldehyde. c. Aldehyde dehydrogenase produces acetate.

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sn5t_sakai 8 of 23 d. P450 enzymes produce acetyl CoA. 52. In first pass alcohol metabolism, the action of gastric ADH a. reduces the absorption of alcohol by as much as 33%. b. delays the absorption of alcohol by as much as 33%. c. reduces the absorption of alcohol by as much as 20%. d. delays the absorption of alcohol by as much as 20%.

53. Glucose is stored in the body as a. triglyceride. b. glycogen. c. fatty acid. d. gluconeogenesis.

54. Evan is a well-nourished adult who weighs 70 kg (about 154 lb). How much energy reserve would his body typically store in the form of glycogen? a. 15 kg b. 2 kg c. .2 kg d. .002 kg 55. Petra is an endurance athlete who has just completed the Boston Marathon. Which of the following foods would BEST help her replenish her glycogen stores? a. fried chicken b. whole-milk mozzarella c. sirloin steak d. spaghetti 56. When we eat more Calories than we need, the body responds by using a. fat for energy and carbohydrates for storage as glycogen. b. protein for energy and carbohydrates converted to body fat. c. carbohydrates for energy and storing dietary fats as body fat. d. ketones for energy and proteins converted to body fat.

57. The process of producing glucose from noncarbohydrate sources is called a. glycolysis. b. gluconeogenesis. c. glycogenolysis. d. lipolysis.

58. Which energy yielding nutrient does the body use to produce glucose during gluconeogenesis? a. carbohydrates b. proteins c. fats d. glucose Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 8 of 23 59. As we sleep, the body maintains blood glucose levels by synthesizing glucose through a. gluconeogenesis. b. lipolysis. c. proteolysis. d. hydrolysis.

60. Carbohydrates, ketogenic amino acids, and alcohol can be converted to body fat through the process of a. proteolysis. b. lipogenesis. c. lipolysis. d. liposuction.

61. Which process plays a critical role in the synthesis of nonessential amino acids? a. gluconeogenesis b. transamination c. ketosis d. lipogenesis 62. The primary anabolic hormone is a. cortisol. b. epinephrine. c. glucagon. d. insulin.

63. Which hormone secreted by the pancreas triggers the catabolism of glycogen? a. glucagon b. epinephrine c. testosterone d. cortisol 64. Which of the following is not a catabolic hormone that triggers the breakdown of stored triglycerides, glycogen, and body proteins for energy? a. insulin b. glucagon c. epinephrine d. cortisol 65. The energy required to fight or to flee from an enemy is provided by catabolism of stored energy prompted by which of the following hormones? a. insulin b. cholecystokinin (CCK) c. ghrelin d. cortisol Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 8 of 23 66. During exercise, which hormone stimulates the breakdown of stored energy? a. insulin b. glucagon c. epinephrine d. estrogen 67. Persistent stress, coupled with a sedentary lifestyle, increases the risk for abdominal fat accumulation and glucose intolerance because of the chronic secretion of which of the following hormones? a. insulin b. glucagon c. epinephrine d. cortisol 68. For people with type 2 diabetes, the cells' ineffective response to insulin triggers a. glycogen, triglyceride, and protein anabolism. b. protein catabolism. c. essential fatty acid catabolism. d. glucose catabolism.

69. Which metabolic pathway will predominate after eating a balanced meal? a. lipolysis b. gluconeogenesis c. oxidative glycolysis d. deamination 70. Juan ate a healthy, well-balanced meal three hours ago and is resting comfortably on the couch. Which metabolic pathway is providing most of his ATP? a. beta-oxidation b. glycolysis c. gluconeogenesis d. lipogenesis 71. After a meal has been consumed and its nutrients absorbed, what are the primary metabolic processes occurring in the body? a. anabolic b. catabolic c. gluconeogenic d. ketonic 72. As an adverse effect of a prescription medication she was taking for acne, Violet experienced such persistent nausea that she could not make herself eat anything for four days, after which her physician switched her to a different medication. By the end of her fourth day of not eating, what was Violet probably experiencing? a. manic bursts of energy, high body temperature, and increased plasma ketone levels b. fatigue, low body temperature, and increased plasma ketone levels c. fatigue, fever, and an increased breakdown of glycogen stores Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 8 of 23 d. manic bursts of energy, low body temperature, and a decreased breakdown of glycogen stores

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sn5t_sakai 8 of 23 Answer Key 1. c 2. b 3. a 4. d 5. b 6. b 7. d 8. d 9. a 10. d 11. a 12. b 13. a 14. b 15. a 16. a 17. c 18. b 19. d 20. a 21. c 22. a 23. a 24. c 25. c Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 8 of 23 26. c 27. b 28. b 29. c 30. b 31. c 32. a 33. a 34. d 35. b 36. b 37. a 38. c 39. a 40. a 41. a 42. b 43. d 44. b 45. b 46. d 47. c 48. d 49. c 50. a 51. b Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 8 of 23 52. c 53. b 54. c 55. d 56. c 57. b 58. b 59. a 60. b 61. b 62. d 63. a 64. a 65. d 66. c 67. d 68. b 69. c 70. a 71. a 72. b

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Chapter 8

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sn5t_sakai 10 of 23

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. An organic molecule that combines with an enzyme to activate it is a a. mineral. b. coenzyme. c. glucogenic amino acid. d. ketoacid.

2. Which of the following is NOT a water-soluble vitamin? a. thiamin b. riboflavin c. vitamin K d. niacin 3. The primary role of most of the B-vitamins is to a. directly provide the body with energy. b. act as coenzymes. c. maintain and repair body tissues. d. maintain acid-base balance.

4. Which of the following vitamins is MOST important in energy metabolism? a. niacin b. vitamin B 12 c. vitamin C d. choline 5. Which of the B-vitamins primarily functions in cell regeneration and the synthesis of red blood cells? a. pantothenic acid b. folate c. riboflavin d. biotin 6. Which B-vitamin is part of the coenzymes FAD and FMN that aid in carbohydrate and fat metabolism? a. thiamin b. riboflavin c. niacin d. folate 7. The first B-vitamin discovered was a. niacin. b. thiamin. c. folate. d. vitamin B .

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sn5t_sakai 10 of 23 8. The vitamin thiamin is composed of a thiazole and a. an amine group. b. sulfur. c. a diphosphate ester. d. a phosphate group.

9. The coenzyme TPP plays a critical role in the breakdown of glucose for energy. Which water-soluble vitamin is part of the TPP complex? a. thiamin b. biotin c. riboflavin d. niacin 10. Which of the following vitamins is involved in breaking glucose down into a smaller molecule that can be taken up by the TCA cycle? a. riboflavin b. thiamin c. ascorbic acid d. valine 11. Who is at the greatest risk of experiencing thiamin deficiency? a. people consuming a vegan diet b. pregnant adolescents c. older adults with a poor-quality diet d. people with chronic heavy alcohol consumption and limited food intake 12. The "three Ds"—dermatitis, diarrhea, and dementia—are symptoms of the advanced progression of which deficiency disease? a. beriberi b. pellagra c. hypothyroidism d. hyperthyroidism 13. A deficiency of which of the following vitamins leads to the development of beriberi? a. vitamin B 6 b. riboflavin c. niacin d. thiamin 14. Which of the following describes the main symptom(s) of beriberi? a. dermatitis b. muscle wasting and nerve damage c. hemorrhaging d. blindness Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 10 of 23 15. Which of the following is the BEST source of thiamin? a. citrus fruits b. green, leafy vegetables c. milk d. whole grains 16. Alcohol-related thiamin deficiency is called a. Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome. b. alcohol hypothiaminosis. c. Parsonage-Turner neuropathy. d. alcohol-induced anemia.

17. A vitamin involved in oxidation-reduction reactions is a. vitamin B .

12 b. riboflavin. c. zinc. d. folate.

18. Riboflavin assists with antioxidant function through its role as a coenzyme for which enzyme system? a. glutathione peroxidase b. alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase c. succinate d. hexokinase 19. A deficiency of riboflavin is referred to as a. riboflavinitis. b. hyporiboflavin. c. ariboflavinosis. d. primary riboflavin insufficiency.

20. Approximately one third of riboflavin is supplied in the American diet by a. meat. b. milk and milk products. c. fruit. d. eggs.

21. The RDA for riboflavin for adults aged 19 years and older is 1.3 mg/day for men and a. 6 mg/day for women. b. 2.5 mg/day for women. c. .5 mg/day for women. d. 1.1 mg/day for women.

22. Which of the following is a vitamin that can be synthesized from the amino acid tryptophan? a. niacin Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 10 of 23 b. ascorbic acid c. phenylalanine d. cobalamin 23. What is the primary symptom of niacin toxicity? a. dizziness b. diarrhea c. fatigue d. flushing 24. Nicotinamide and nicotinic acid are two forms of a. niacin. b. cigarette smoke. c. folate. d. nicotine.

25. Pellagra is a disease caused by a deficiency of a. folate. b. niacin. c. thiamin. d. riboflavin.

26. Which dietary source of niacin has the highest availability for absorption? a. cereal grains b. meat c. enriched bread products d. ready-to-eat cereals 27. Niacin is a component of coenzymes involved in the a. synthesis of essential amino acids. b. synthesis of ethanol, fatty acids, and cholesterol. c. catabolism of carbohydrates, fats, proteins, and alcohol. d. synthesis and maintenance of the myelin sheath.

28. Jackie eats a banana, tuna fish sandwich, dry granola, and a slice of cheese. Which of these foods has the highest amount of available niacin? a. tuna fish b. granola c. cheese d. banana 29. Prolonged excessive niacin intake can cause a. dementia. b. dermatitis.

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sn5t_sakai 10 of 23 c. pellagra. d. liver damage.

30. Low intakes of vitamin B6, folate, and vitamin B12 are linked to a. reduction in antibody levels. b. high blood levels of heme iron. c. low blood levels of homocysteine. d. high blood levels of homocysteine.

31. Vitamin B6, Folate, and Vitamin B12 share an important role in cardiovascular health in metabolism of which amino acid? a. cysteine b. tyrosine c. homocysteine d. histidine 32. Which B-vitamin is needed for protein synthesis? a. thiamin b. riboflavin c. vitamin B 6 d. choline 33. What is the chemical name for vitamin B6? a. pantothenic acid b. pyridoxine c. folate d. niacin 34. In which of the following functions does vitamin B6 play a key role? a. blood clotting b. folding of the embryonic neural tube c. synthesis of thyroid hormones d. transamination 35. Vitamin B6 is important for the conversion of homocysteine to a. methionine. b. cysteine. c. HDL cholesterol. d. carnitine.

36. What percentage of dietary vitamin B6 comes from animal sources in a typical American diet?

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sn5t_sakai 10 of 23 a. 20% b. 40% c. 60% d. 80% 37. Sandy has just been diagnosed with atrophic gastritis. Which vitamin is her doctor MOST likely to suggest she receive in supplement form? a. folate b. thiamin c. pantothenic acid d. vitamin B 12 38. Consuming excessive amounts of vitamin B6 in supplement form has been associated with a. sensory neuropathy. b. early onset of menopause. c. reddened flushing of the skin. d. liver damage and glucose intolerance.

39. A deficiency of which of the following vitamins increases the risk for cardiovascular disease? a. niacin b. thiamin c. vitamin B 12 d. riboflavin 40. Chronic deficiency of which of the following vitamins can impair heme synthesis and lead to the formation of small red blood cells with inadequate hemoglobin? a. niacin b. folate c. vitamin B 12 d. vitamin B 6 41. When you exercise, your body uses glycogen to maintain blood glucose levels. Which vitamin acts as a coenzyme during this process? a. folate b. vitamin B 12 c. vitamin B 6 d. biotin 42. Deficiency of folate is most likely to result in birth of a newborn with a neural tube defect if it occurs a. in the father. b. in the mother, in the last few weeks before conception.

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sn5t_sakai 10 of 23 c. in the mother, in the first few weeks after conception. d. in the mother, in the last few weeks of the pregnancy.

43. Winifred gave birth to a newborn with a spinal cord malformation called a neural tube defect. Which of the following micronutrients is MOST likely to have been deficient in Winifred's diet? a. iodine b. sulfur c. thiamin d. folate 44. Gabe is a strict vegan who eats only the fruits and vegetables he grows in his own garden, dry legumes he buys in bulk at a whole foods market, nuts, seeds, locally pressed olive oil, sea salt, and his own home-baked whole-grain flatbread.

Lately, Gabe has begun exhibiting confusion, memory loss, and other signs of a neurological disorder. Deficiency of which of the following micronutrients is MOST likely to be causing Gabe's cognitive decline? a. iodine b. iron c. vitamin B 12 d. folate 45. Which of the following is a vitamin-like substance involved in energy metabolism? a. folate b. iodine c. choline d. riboflavin 46. Which of the following vitamins is metabolized into acyl carrier protein, which is involved in the synthesis of fatty acids? a. thiamin b. pantothenic acid c. riboflavin d. niacin 47. Which of the following statements is false about pantothenic acid? a. It is found in variety of foods. b. Excessive intake can result in toxicity symptoms. c. There no known effects from consuming excess amount. d. Deficiencies are very rare.

48. Which of the following vitamins is involved in the metabolism of carbohydrates and proteins, the synthesis of cholesterol, and the detoxification of drugs? a. vitamin B 6 b. vitamin B 12 c. folate d. pantothenic acid Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 10 of 23 49. The chronic overconsumption of what food can result in a biotin deficiency? a. herbal tea b. raw egg whites c. natural licorice d. grapefruit juice 50. Which of the following vitamins is a component of four carboxylase enzymes involved in carbohydrate, fat, and protein metabolism? a. biotin b. thiamin c. niacin d. riboflavin 51. Why are biotin deficiencies seen in people who consume a large number of raw eggs? a. because raw eggs contain a protein that binds with biotin and prevents its absorption b. because raw eggs do not contain any biotin c. because the biotin in eggs are not absorbed unless the eggs are cooked before consuming d. because raw eggs are hard to digest.

52. Which of the following is a component of fat-emulsifying bile? a. pantothenic acid b. biotin c. choline d. riboflavin 53. Which of the following is integral in the neurotransmitter involved in muscle movement and memory? a. biotin b. choline c. niacin d. pyridoxal 54. Eating too little of which compound below may lead to fat accumulation in the liver and eventually liver damage? a. cholesterol b. acetylcholine c. acetyl CoA d. choline 55. Which food is highest in choline? a. liver b. eggs c. milk d. salmon 56. Which of the following is a mineral involved in energy metabolism?

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sn5t_sakai 10 of 23 a. sulfur b. pyridoxine c. thiamin d. sodium 57. Chromium assists in a. calcium regulation. b. sodium transport. c. potassium transport. d. glucose uptake.

58. What is the major dietary source of iodine? a. saltwater fish b. fruits and vegetables c. dairy products d. iodized salt 59. Iodine is essential for the synthesis of a. neurotransmitters. b. growth hormone. c. thyroid hormones. d. collagen.

60. Hyperthyroidism is most commonly caused by the autoimmune disease called a. Graves' disease. b. Cushing's disease. c. beriberi. d. cretinism.

61. Which trace mineral is a cofactor involved in the formation of urea and assists in the formation of bone and cartilage? a. calcium b. iodine c. manganese d. sodium 62. Which of the following is NOT a function of thyroid hormones? a. transport macronutrients b. regulate metabolic reactions associated body temperature c. regulate Resting metabolic rate d. macronutrient metabolism 63. Which of the following Amino acid is iodized to produce thyroxine and 3, 5, 3' -triiodothyronine? a. threonine b. tyrosine Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 10 of 23 c. alanine d. cysteine 64. Iodine deficiency can cause low blood levels of thyroid hormone. This condition is known as a. hyperthyroidism. b. hypothyroidism. c. Graves' disease. d. Hashimoto's thyroiditis.

65. Which of the following is a type of mental retardation caused by insufficient iodine during fetal development? a. goiter b. fetal thyroiditis c. cretinism d. Graves' disease 66. Which of the following foods is NOT a good source of iodine? a. green leafy vegetables b. fish c. shrimp d. seaweed 67. Which of the following minerals is NOT involved in energy metabolism? a. manganese b. iodine c. chromium d. magnesium 68. What mineral do some athletes take in supplements in an effort to gain lean body mass and reduce body fat? a. chromium b. iodine c. iron d. choline 69. Which of the following is a trace mineral that enhances the ability of insulin to transport glucose into the body's cells? a. iodine b. choline c. iron d. chromium 70. Pregnant women who do not consume enough iodine have an increased risk for a. gestational diabetes. b. edema. c. postpartum hemorrhage. d. spontaneous abortion and stillbirth.

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sn5t_sakai 10 of 23 71. Which major mineral is a component of thiamin and biotin? a. iodine b. chromium c. manganese d. sulfur 72. Eric plays soccer and runs track. He relies on sports gels, candy, and soda for quick energy boosts after his games and track meets. Based on his activity level and snack preferences, he has an increased risk for a. B-vitamin deficiency. b. blurred vision and dermatitis. c. cancer. d. allergies.

73. Which of the following diets is lowest in B vitamins? a. a diet high in unenriched, processed foods b. vegan diet c. Asian diet d. a diet high in fruits and vegetables, whole grains, fish, and nonfat dairy 74. Which of the following outcomes is MOST likely in a school-age child who consumes a low-quality diet that provides only about half the RDA for thiamin, riboflavin, and vitamin B6? a. The child will need to be hospitalized. b. The child will be too ill to attend school. c. The child will be able to attend school, but will fail academically. d. The child will be able to attend school, but will not be able to keep up with the other children in physical education classes or games at recess.

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sn5t_sakai 10 of 23 Answer Key 1. b 2. c 3. b 4. a 5. b 6. b 7. b 8. a 9. a 10. b 11. d 12. b 13. d 14. b 15. d 16. a 17. b 18. a 19. c 20. b 21. d 22. a 23. d 24. a 25. b Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 10 of 23 26. b 27. c 28. a 29. d 30. d 31. c 32. c 33. b 34. d 35. b 36. b 37. d 38. a 39. c 40. d 41. c 42. c 43. d 44. c 45. c 46. b 47. b 48. d 49. b 50. a 51. a Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 10 of 23 52. c 53. b 54. d 55. b 56. a 57. d 58. d 59. c 60. a 61. c 62. a 63. b 64. b 65. c 66. a 67. d 68. a 69. d 70. d 71. d 72. a 73. a 74. d

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Chapter 9 Name:

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sn5t_sakai 11 of 23

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Approximately what percentage of the body is composed of fluid? a. 10 - 20% b. 30 - 45% c. 50 - 70% d. 60 - 80% 2. About ________ of the body's fluid is held within the walls of the cells. a. half b. two-thirds c. one-third d. one quarter 3. Intracellular fluid consists of a. tissue fluid (interstitial fluid). b. plasma. c. fluid between the body cells. d. fluid found within body cells.

4. Plasma is held in which fluid compartment? a. intracellular b. interstitial c. intravascular d. cytosol 5. What is interstitial fluid? a. the fluid that flows between the cells b. the fluid in the bloodstream c. the fluid in the lymphatic system d. the fluid inside the cells 6. What is extravascular fluid? a. fluid outside of the body's cells b. fluid within the walls of the body's cells c. fluid that flows between the cells d. fluid in the blood stream 7. Who would have the highest percent of total body water? a. 20-year-old obese male b. 20-year-old lean female c. 20-year-old lean male d. 20-year-old obese female 8. Which of the following electrolytes is negatively charged?

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sn5t_sakai 11 of 23 a. sodium b. potassium c. chloride d. calcium 9. The two most common extracellular ions are a. sodium and potassium. b. potassium and chloride. c. phosphorus and calcium. d. sodium and chloride.

10. The two most common intracellular ions are a. potassium and phosphate. b. sodium and potassium. c. phosphorus and calcium. d. sodium and chloride.

11. Which of the following is hydrophobic? a. amino acids b. lipids c. glucose d. minerals 12. Substances dissolved in a fluid are called a. ions. b. electrolytes. c. solvents. d. solutes.

13. Which of the following is a common solvent in the body? a. alcohol b. fat c. water d. carbohydrate 14. What is the function of aldosterone? a. stimulates the kidneys to reabsorb water (reducing urine output) b. stimulates the kidneys to filter out more water (increasing urine output) c. signals the kidneys to retain sodium and chloride d. signals the kidneys to release sodium and chloride 15. What is the function of an antidiuretic hormone (ADH)? a. stimulates the kidneys to reabsorb water (reducing urine output) b. stimulates the kidneys to filter out more water (increasing urine output) Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 11 of 23 c. signals the kidneys to retain sodium and chloride d. signals the kidneys to release sodium and chloride 16. From where is ADH released? a. the pituitary gland b. the hypothalamus c. the kidneys d. the liver 17. Which of the following is not a function of water? a. It is an excellent solvent. b. It helps to regulate body temperature. c. It protects and lubricate tissues. d. It increases metabolic activities.

18. Which organ plays a central role in the regulation of blood volume and blood pressure? a. small intestine b. kidneys c. liver d. pancreas 19. In the renin-angiotensin system, which protein is the active vasoconstrictor? a. renin b. angiotensinogen c. angiotensin I d. angiotensin II 20. Aldosterone is produced by which organ? a. the pituitary gland b. the hypothalamus c. the adrenal glands d. the kidneys 21. Water has a high heat capacity. What does this term mean? a. It takes a lot of energy to raise the temperature of water. b. Water heats up or cools down very quickly. c. Water provides a useful source of stored kilocalories. d. Water transports the energy-yielding nutrients throughout the body.

22. The primary reason for sweating is to a. maintain blood volume. b. maintain sodium balance. c. excrete waste products. d. regulate body temperature.

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sn5t_sakai 11 of 23 23. Which of the following will likely result if the concentration of electrolytes inside a cell is higher than in the extracellular environment? a. The cell will swell. b. The cell will shrink. c. The cell will undergo mitosis and divide. d. The cell will be unaffected.

24. A substance, such as caffeine, that increases fluid loss via the urine is called a. a diuretic. b. osmotic pressure. c. metabolic water. d. a phytic acid.

25. Cells regulate the osmotic pressure between their internal and external environments by a. transmitting signals to the hypothalamic thirst mechanism prompting us to drink. b. "drinking" in fluid via pinocytosis or expelling fluid via exocytosis. c. using transport proteins to pump electrolytes across the cell membrane. d. allowing passive diffusion of sodium and potassium across the cell membrane.

26. If enough sodium enters a nerve cell, the resulting change in electrical charge will trigger a. a muscle contraction. b. an action potential. c. a corresponding flow of potassium into the cell. d. repolarization.

27. The movement of water from areas where solutes are less concentrated to areas where they are most concentrated is called a. migration. b. permeation. c. sensible water loss. d. osmosis.

28. Which of the following stimulates the thirst mechanism? a. increased concentration of solutes in the blood b. elevated blood volume and pressure c. lubrication of the mouth and throat tissues d. decreased blood volume and pressure 29. Which region of the brain controls fluid intake? a. brain stem b. pituitary gland c. central sulcus d. hypothalamus 30. Water formed during oxidative metabolism accounts for what percentage of the water the body needs each day?

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sn5t_sakai 11 of 23 a. 0 - 5% b. 10 - 14% c. 20 - 25% d. more than 30% 31. Insensible water loss is water lost a. during illness or trauma. b. during sleep. c. through perspiration and respiration. d. through urination.

32. Sensible water loss is a. water lost during evaporation. b. water lost during exhalation. c. water lost through urination. d. fluid lost in feces.

33. Which of the following is a diuretic? a. alcohol b. milk c. water d. orange juice 34. The three major systems that account for the body's ability to regulate acid-base balance are the lungs, the kidneys, and a. the intestines. b. blood buffers. c. bone structure. d. the brain.

35. Because 13-year-old Mikkel had been vomiting repeatedly, his pediatrician admitted him to the hospital. Which of the following is the MOST significant concern in a person with uncontrolled vomiting? a. Increased renal excretion of ammonia could denature body proteins. b. Loss of body fluids could cause hyponatremia. c. Loss of gastric bicarbonate could cause acidosis. d. Loss of gastric acid could cause alkalosis.

36. In the bicarbonate-carbonic acid system, carbonic acid in the bloodstream dissociates into hydrogen ions and a. carbon monoxide. b. carbon dioxide. c. bicarbonate ions. d. ketones.

37. The DRI of water for adult women aged 19 to 50 is ________ of total water per day a. 2 L Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 11 of 23 b. 2.2 L c. 2.5 L d. 2.7 L 38. One "glass" of water is about 240 mL, which is equal to a. 24 oz. b. 6 oz. c. 12 oz. d. 8 oz.

39. Which of the following is considered the BEST source of drinking water for most Americans? a. tap water b. distilled water c. purified water d. alkaline water 40. Which of the following beverages is NOT a good source of protein? a. yogurt b. soymilk c. coconut milk d. kefir 41. Which of the following has the least amount of caffeine? a. coffee b. tea c. cocoa d. colas 42. Oscar and Olivia are enjoying a break between classes in their campus coffee shop. Oscar is drinking an 8-ounce cup of hot coffee containing 145 mg caffeine and 2 teaspoons of sugar. Olivia is drinking an 8-ounce energy drink containing the same amount of caffeine and 8 g added sugars. Olivia's energy drink may cause greater stress to her nervous and cardiovascular systems than Oscar's drink because a. females are more sensitive to caffeine than males. b. the sugar in Olivia's drink is probably high-fructose corn syrup. c. Olivia has a higher ratio of body fat to lean tissue than Oscar. d. Oscar is likely to sip his coffee slowly and Olivia is likely to drink her energy drink quickly.

43. Which of the following individuals would most benefit from consuming a sports beverage? a. a farm worker picking crops in the hot sun all day b. an outfielder during a college baseball game c. an office worker who goes for a 3-mile run on her lunch break d. an obese man who has just begun a new exercise program of walking for 30 minutes in his neighborhood 44. Diets high in sodium are associated with a. breast cancer.

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sn5t_sakai 11 of 23 b. diabetes mellitus. c. obesity. d. hypertension.

45. The AI for sodium (for adult men and women aged 19-50 years of age) is a. 5 g/day. b. 1.5 g/day. c. 2.4 g/day. d. 3 g/day.

46. Most people in the United States consume nearly ________ of sodium per day. a. 1.5 g b. 2.3 g c. 2.4 g d. 3.5 g 47. Most of the dietary sodium consumed come from which of the following sources? a. processed and restaurant foods b. sodium added during cooking c. sodium naturally found in food d. sodium added to food after cooking 48. Most of the sodium consumed is absorbed from the a. mouth. b. stomach. c. small intestine. d. large intestine.

49. Hyponatremia is associated with a. insufficient water intake. b. excessive intake of dietary sodium in a person with congestive heart failure. c. insufficient intake of dietary sodium and overhydration. d. excessive consumption of sports beverages.

50. Which of the following individuals is MOST at risk for hyperkalemia? a. a marathon runner b. a newborn c. an individual who consumes a diet rich in processed foods d. an individual with kidney disease 51. Which of the following is the BEST source of potassium? a. nuts and seeds b. meats and eggs c. legumes and other vegetables Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 11 of 23 d. table salt 52. Unlike sodium, the majority of Americans do not consume enough potassium. The following are ways to increase consumption except a. eat whole grain unsweetened cereals. b. eat fruits and vegetables. c. decrease soft drink consumption and add low-fat milk, or soymilk. d. eat white and brown rice.

53. The majority of dietary chloride is consumed from a. animal protein sources. b. alcohol. c. table salt. d. water.

54. What percentage of salt is composed of chloride? a. 10% b. 50% c. 60% d. 80% 55. The majority of our body's phosphorus is stored in the a. kidneys. b. bones. c. blood. d. liver.

56. Phosphorus in plants is primarily found in the form of a. phosphate. b. phosphorate. c. phytic acid. d. phospholipid.

57. Phosphorus absorption is enhanced by a. vitamin C. b. potassium. c. vitamin D. d. iron.

58. Which of the following individuals is MOST at risk for a phosphorus deficiency? a. a premature infant b. an individual suffering from kidney disease c. an individual consuming vitamin D supplements d. an individual who is a vegetarian Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 11 of 23 59. Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding phosphorus? a. Phosphorus from animal sources is more readily absorbed than the phosphorus from plant sources. b. Humans absorb about 50% of phosphorus from plant sources. c. On average, Americans do not consume enough phosphorus in their diets. d. Bacteria in the large intestine can break down the phosphorus from plant sources.

60. Which of the following groups are the MOST vulnerable to dehydration? a. pregnant women and the elderly b. adolescents and children c. infants and pregnant women d. infants and the elderly 61. Dehydration is classified in terms of the a. amount of weight lost relative to a person's original weight. b. subjective amount of thirst a person experiences. c. percentage of weight loss exclusively due to loss of fluid. d. relative amount of fluids consumed against the amount of urine excreted.

62. Overhydration most commonly occurs in a. healthy adults who consume primarily vegetables and fruits. b. people with health problem that cause the kidneys to retain too much water. c. infants and young children. d. athletes.

63. In a person who is well hydrated, the urine color should be a. brown. b. dark yellow. c. clear to pale yellow. d. slightly cloudy.

64. A potentially fatal condition characterized by the failure of the body's heat-regulating mechanisms is a. hypertension. b. fever. c. dehydration. d. heat stroke.

65. In the majority of cases, the cause of hypertension is a. excessive salt intake. b. kidney disease. c. sleep apnea. d. unknown.

66. Hypertension affects approximately what percentage of adult Americans? a. 10% Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 11 of 23 b. 33% c. 60% d. 75% 67. Optimal blood pressure is a systolic pressure less than 120 mmHg and a diastolic pressure less than a. 100 mmHg. b. 80 mmHg. c. 140 mmHg. d. 90 mmHg. 68. Which of the following has NOT been shown to improve blood pressure levels? a. losing weight b. eating more whole grains, fruits, and vegetables c. drinking 1 to 2 alcoholic beverages per day d. not smoking or quitting smoking 69. A U.S. population group that is at particularly high risk for hypertension is a. Caucasian women. b. African Americans. c. Hispanic men. d. Asian Americans.

70. The risk of hypertension is increased by all of the following except a. high protein intake. b. obesity. c. sedentary lifestyle. d. high sodium intake.

71. Consumption of which of the following is thought to have contributed MOST significantly to weight gain and obesity in the United States in recent years? a. desserts, including cake, cookies, ice cream, etc. b. soft drinks and fruit juices c. take-out and restaurant meals d. frozen prepared meals 72. Blood pressure exerted in the arteries during heart contractions is called a. diastolic. b. systolic. c. elevated. d. anabolic.

73. In the majority of individuals with hypertension, the condition is classified as a. secondary. b. aggravated.

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sn5t_sakai 11 of 23 c. resistant. d. primary.

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sn5t_sakai 11 of 23 Answer Key 1. c 2. b 3. d 4. c 5. a 6. a 7. c 8. c 9. d 10. a 11. b 12. d 13. c 14. c 15. a 16. a 17. d 18. b 19. d 20. c 21. a 22. d 23. a 24. a 25. c Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 11 of 23 26. b 27. d 28. a 29. d 30. b 31. c 32. c 33. a 34. b 35. d 36. c 37. d 38. d 39. a 40. c 41. c 42. d 43. a 44. d 45. b 46. d 47. a 48. c 49. c 50. d 51. c Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 11 of 23 52. d 53. c 54. c 55. b 56. c 57. c 58. a 59. c 60. d 61. c 62. b 63. c 64. d 65. d 66. b 67. b 68. c 69. b 70. a 71. b 72. b 73. d

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Chapter 10(2) Name:

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sn5t_sakai 13 of 23

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. According to the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA), a dietary supplement is a. a product containing ingredients such as vitamins, minerals, herbs, amino acids, or other dietary substances intended to supplement the diet, to treat, diagnose, prevent, and cure disease. b. a product containing ingredients such as vitamins, minerals, herbs, amino acids, or other dietary substances intended to supplement the diet, not to treat, diagnose, prevent, or cure disease. c. a product containing ingredients such as vitamins, minerals, herbs, amino acids, or other dietary substances intended treat, diagnose, prevent, or cure disease. d. a product containing chemical ingredients intended to supplement the diet, not to treat, diagnose, prevent, or cure disease.

2. Which of the following is NOT information that is required to be on a supplement label? a. a health claim b. statement of identity c. net quantity of contents d. supplement facts panel 3. According to the Food and Drug Administration, supplement label with a claim must include the disclaimer: a. This statement has not been evaluated by the FDA. This product is not intended to diagnose, cure, or prevent any disease. b. This statement has not been evaluated by the FDA. This product may be used to diagnose, cure, or prevent any disease. c. This statement has been evaluated by the FDA. This product may be used to diagnose, cure, or prevent any disease. d. This statement has not been evaluated by the FDA. This product may cure or prevent any disease.

4. The Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act (DSHEA) of 1994 classified dietary supplements within the general group of foods, not drugs. What does this mean? a. This means that the regulation of supplements is more rigorous than the regulation of drugs. b. This means that the regulation of supplements is as rigorous as the regulation of drugs. c. This means that supplements are regulated as much as foods. d. This means that the regulation of supplements is much less rigorous than the regulation of drugs.

5. Which of the following is responsible for the safety of supplements? a. the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) b. the manufacturer of the supplement c. the United States Department of Agriculture (USDA) d. the purchaser of the supplement 6. Which of the following is false about the responsibility of the Food and Drug Administration as it relates to supplements? a. The Food and Drug Administration tests the supplement for safety prior to marketing. b. The Food and Drug Administration reviews notification from supplement companies if their supplement contains a new dietary ingredient. c. The Food and Drug Administration removes a supplement from the market if it is found to be unsafe or if the Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 13 of 23 claims on the label are false and misleading. d. The Food and Drug Administration requires supplement manufacturers to produce products of quality and free of contamination.

7. Grace is trying to decide which brand of supplement to purchase from her local drug store. One of the supplement labels contained the U.S. Pharmacopeia (USP) seal and the other one did not have the seal. Which of the following statement is a good reason for Grace to choose the supplement with the USP seal? a. The USP seal indicates that the supplement is effective in treating any condition. b. The USP seal indicates that the supplement is safe. c. The USP seal indicates the supplement has been tested prior to marketing. d. The USP seal indicates that the manufacturer followed standards that the USP has established for features such as purity, quality, and labeling.

8. The National Center for Complementary and Integrative Health (NCCIH) defines an herb as a. a plant that can be used to promote good health. b. a plant or plant part that is used for its flavor, scent, and/or potential health-related properties. c. a plant that has been used for centuries to cure and prevent disease. d. a plant or plant part that contain flavors used in cooking.

9. According to recent survey, what percentage of Americans use some type of dietary supplement? a. 76% b. 67% c. 37% d. 86% 10. Which of the following individuals is least likely to benefit from taking supplement? a. a pregnant woman b. a healthy 20-year-old male c. a vegan d. an athlete 11. Grace is a vegan. She is trying to increase her intake of calcium and vitamin D by taking a dietary supplement. How can she determine whether it contains enough of these nutrients to meet her needs but not so much that it will cause toxicity? a. She should select a supplement that contains half of her recommended intake of calcium and vitamin D. b. She should select a supplement that contains at least 100% of the recommended levels. c. She should select a supplement that contains no more than 100% of the recommended levels for calcium and vitamin D. d. She should not take any supplement at all since she is not deficient.

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sn5t_sakai 13 of 23 Answer Key 1. b 2. a 3. a 4. d 5. b 6. a 7. d 8. b 9. a 10. b 11. c

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Chapter 10 Name:

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sn5t_sakai 12 of 23

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. The gaining of electrons by an atom during metabolism is called a. oxidation. b. reduction. c. radiation. d. mineralization.

2. The loss of electrons by an atom during metabolism is called a. oxidation. b. reduction. c. radiation. d. exchange reaction.

3. What is a free radical? a. A free radical is an atom with paired electrons in its outmost shell. b. A free radical is an atom with an unpaired electron in it outmost shell. c. A free radical is an atom that donates an unpaired electron in its outmost shell. d. A free radical is an atom with too many electrons in its outmost shell.

4. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding free radicals? a. Free radicals are formed as a by-product of healthy metabolism. b. Our body has no mechanism to combat free radicals. c. Exposure to pollution decreases free radical production. d. A free radical is an atom with paired electrons in its outermost shell.

5. Which of the following statements about antioxidants is TRUE? a. The largest class of antioxidants are phospholipids in the cell membrane. b. A build-up of antioxidants is a risk factor for cancer. c. Antioxidants reduce free radicals by removing an electron. d. By donating an electron, antioxidants reduce free radicals.

6. Which antioxidant enzyme system helps remove hydrogen peroxide from the body by reducing it to water? a. superoxide dismutase b. beta-carotene c. glutathione peroxidase d. the microsomal enzyme-oxidizing system 7. Which of the following are required components of many antioxidant enzyme systems? a. antioxidant minerals b. antioxidant vitamins c. phytochemicals d. gastrointestinal microflora 8. From what source does the body obtain the majority of its antioxidants?

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sn5t_sakai 12 of 23 a. sunlight b. the by-products of healthy metabolism c. the diet d. gastrointestinal microflora 9. How do antioxidant vitamins stabilize free radicals? a. by donating electrons or hydrogen ions to them b. by enzymatic destruction c. by stimulating an immune response against them d. by breaking them down into less damaging molecules 10. Which of the following diseases has been linked to free radical damage? a. cancer b. celiac disease c. anemia d. gallstones 11. When an oxygen molecule becomes a free radical, it is referred to as a(n) a. reactive oxygen species (ROS). b. carcinogen. c. prooxidant. d. antioxidant.

12. A highly unstable atom with an unpaired electron is a(n) a. provitamin. b. antioxidant. c. prooxidant. d. free radical.

13. Antioxidants stabilize free radicals by a. denaturing them. b. covalently bonding to them. c. donating an electron to them. d. removing an electron from them.

14. Which of the following is not a characteristic of vitamin E? a. It is a fat-soluble vitamin. b. It a known antioxidant. c. It is used to make collagen. d. It is part a part of very low-density lipoproteins.

15. The reason most fast foods don't contain much vitamin E is that a. they have too much fat content. b. heating vegetable oils destroys vitamin E. Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 12 of 23 c. vitamin E is not present in most cooking oils. d. vitamin E-containing foods are best cooked slowly.

16. The most powerful and abundant form of vitamin E is a. alpha-tocopherol. b. alpha-tocotrienol. c. gamma-tocopherol. d. delta-tocopherol.

17. Which water-soluble vitamin can regenerate vitamin E after it has been oxidized? a. vitamin D b. vitamin B 12 c. vitamin C d. folate 18. About 90% of vitamin E is stored in a. adipose tissue. b. the liver. c. cell membranes. d. the skin.

19. Which of the following is a function of vitamin E? a. protecting fatty components of cell membranes from oxidation b. regenerating vitamin C by donating an electron c. improving the absorption of vitamin C if dietary intake is low d. increasing bone density 20. Which of the following foods are the richest sources of vitamin E? a. milk and dairy products b. fruits and vegetables c. meat, fish, and poultry d. vegetable oils 21. Which of the following foods will have the LEAST amount of viable vitamin E? a. chicken fried in vegetable oil b. bread dipped in sunflower oil c. peanuts, dry roasted d. salad with canola oil and vinegar 22. Taking vitamin E supplements along with which of the following can cause uncontrollable bleeding? a. antidepressants b. anticoagulants c. cholesterol-lowering medications d. oral contraceptives Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 12 of 23 23. Long-term use of vitamin E supplement may lead to a. excessive coagulation. b. blood clotting. c. hypovitaminosis E. d. hemorrhagic stroke.

24. Vitamin E is added to many oil-based skin care products because it a. prevents oxidation in these products. b. has an additive effect on the function of the products. c. is an inactive filler. d. improves the smell and texture of the products.

25. Vitamin E is critical for a. normal fetal and early childhood development. b. athletic performance. c. postmenopausal bone health. d. adolescent growth.

26. Diseases that cause the malabsorption of fat can result in a deficiency of a. copper. b. vitamin E. c. vitamin C. d. selenium.

27. All of the following are characteristics of vitamin C except a. it is a water-soluble vitamin. b. excess intake of vitamin c is stored in the body for later use. c. there are two active forms of vitamin C. d. vitamin C is absorbed in the intestines via active transport.

28. Which of the following nutrients requires the most frequent consumption to ensure adequate body stores? a. vitamin A b. vitamin E c. vitamin C d. beta-carotene 29. The deficiency disease associated with vitamin C is a. scurvy. b. erythrocyte hemolysis. c. night blindness. d. Keshan disease.

30. Vitamin C assists in the formation of a structural protein called Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 12 of 23 a. protease. b. collagen. c. fibrin. d. osteocalcin.

31. The doctor has recently told Julie that she is anemic and has prescribed an iron supplement. The doctor has advised Julie to increase her body's absorption of the iron by taking the supplement with a. a tablespoon of castor oil. b. a glass of milk. c. a glass of orange juice. d. a glass of water.

32. Which of the following increases the RDA for vitamin C? a. smoking cigarettes b. drinking alcohol c. following a vegan diet d. taking vitamin C supplements 33. Which of the following are rich sources of vitamin C? a. milk and cheese b. seafood c. wheat and oats d. green and red peppers 34. Which of the following is the best source of vitamin C? a. citrus fruit b. pork chops c. walnuts d. butter 35. Vitamin C is added to cured and processed meats in order to a. protect them from microbial contamination. b. enhance their nutritional profile. c. reduce the formation of nitrosamines. d. increase the formation of vitamin E. 36. Which of the following symptoms is associated with consuming a megadose of vitamin C? a. night blindness b. scurvy c. nausea and diarrhea d. erythrocyte hemolysis 37. Which of the following is NOT a function of vitamin C? a. It is critical for normal fetal and early childhood development of nerves and muscles.

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sn5t_sakai 12 of 23 b. It helps to synthesize tissues. c. It acts as an antioxidant. d. It boosts absorption of iron.

38. Keshan disease is a deficiency of which nutrient? a. vitamin C b. vitamin E c. selenium d. iron 39. Which of the following hormones requires selenium for its synthesis? a. estrogen b. insulin c. cortisol d. thyroxine 40. Where in the body is selenium contained? a. in the liver b. in adipose tissue c. in the lymph system d. in amino acids 41. Which of the following foods is MOST likely to have the highest concentration of selenium? a. apples b. whole wheat pasta c. cheese d. liver 42. Copper, zinc, and manganese are part of which antioxidant enzyme system? a. superoxide dismutase b. catalase c. haloperoxidase d. glutathione peroxidase 43. As part of the antioxidant enzyme catalase, which of the following helps promote the elimination of hydrogen peroxide from the body? a. magnesium b. manganese c. iodine d. iron 44. Which of the following is considered an essential nutrient? a. glycerol b. beta-carotene Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 12 of 23 c. homocysteine d. vitamin A 45. Which of the following carotenoids can be converted to retinol in the body? a. lutein b. beta-carotene c. lycopene d. retinol 46. Which of the following is a function of carotenoids? a. produces thyroxine b. activate the glutathione peroxidase enzyme system c. supports the immune system d. increases cellular metabolic rate 47. What are provitamins? a. vitamins with overwhelmingly positive effects when taken in the correct amounts b. inactive forms of vitamins that the body cannot use until they're converted to their active form c. inactive enzymes that become activated with the help of prooxidants d. vitamins with antioxidant properties 48. Compared to vitamin E, beta-carotene is a. a relatively weak antioxidant. b. more easily absorbed and utilized by the body. c. a better choice for people with GI tract problems. d. needed in greater amounts.

49. Which of the following contains the greatest amount of bioavailable beta-carotene? a. 1 cup raw carrots b. 1 cup frozen carrots c. 1 cup lightly cooked carrots d. 1 cup thoroughly cooked carrots 50. Foods that use beta-carotene as a natural coloring agent a. generally must be processed heavily. b. are not significant sources of beta-carotene. c. are largely foods with a high fat content. d. also acquire a distinctive taste.

51. Which of the following is a poor source of Beta-Carotene? a. milk b. carrots c. sweet potatoes d. apricots Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 12 of 23 52. Vitamin A is derived from what provitamin? a. beta carotene b. panthenol c. provitamin D 3 d. ergosterol 53. Your skin can turn yellow or orange if you frequently consume foods that are high in a. vitamin C. b. selenium. c. chlorophyll. d. beta-carotene.

54. The retinoid that has the most significant physiological role in the human body is a. retinol. b. retinoic acid. c. retinal. d. beta-carotene.

55. Where is beta-carotene converted to retinol? a. in the stomach b. in the liver c. in the small intestine d. in the large intestine 56. Which of the following foods would be the BEST dietary source of pre-formed vitamin A? a. carrots b. egg c. cantaloupe d. rice 57. Vitamin A affects our vision in two ways: it enables us to react to changes in brightness, and it a. enables us to see different colors. b. enables us to focus on distant objects. c. supports eye functioning later in life. d. supports the development of eye functioning in fetuses.

58. Vitamin A is transported from the liver through the bloodstream to target tissues and cells with the assistance of a. retinol-binding protein. b. beta-carotene. c. opsin. d. tocopherols.

59. Because vitamin A is a fat-soluble vitamin, what problem can readily occur? a. spoilage Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 12 of 23 b. intensification of anticoagulant medications c. toxicity d. deficiency 60. About 90% of the vitamin A we absorb is stored in the a. pancreas. b. liver. c. intestines. d. kidneys.

61. Which of the following fast foods is higher in vitamin A? a. French fries b. hamburger c. grilled chicken sandwich d. pizza 62. Advanced vitamin A deficiency can lead to a condition of irreversible blindness known as a. hyperkeratosis. b. Kashin-Beck disease. c. xeropthalmia. d. anemia.

63. People who are vitamin A deficient may suffer from a condition known as a. astigmatism. b. near-sightedness. c. night blindness. d. partial blindness.

64. The longest stage in cancer development, during which mutated cells repeatedly divide, is known as a. initiation. b. promotion. c. progression. d. metastasis.

65. The specific term for agents that can cause cancer is a. free radicals. b. tumors. c. carcinogens. d. mutations.

66. Persephone is being treated for liver cancer with a series of injections that destroy the blood vessels supplying the tumor. Which of the following statements is true of Persephone's cancer? a. It is almost certainly benign. b. It almost certainly began in her liver and has now spread throughout her body.

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sn5t_sakai 12 of 23 c. It almost certainly began somewhere else in her body and has metastasized to her liver. d. It is in the third stage, known as progression.

67. Research studies have demonstrated an association between a reduced risk for cancer and a. the use of vitamin C supplements. b. increased consumption of fruits and vegetables. c. increased consumption of monounsaturated fatty acids. d. the use of beta-carotene supplements.

68. Which of the following has been associated with an increased risk for cancer? a. a diet high in saturated fats and low in fruits and vegetables b. excessive caffeine consumption c. use of fluoridated water d. a diet high in omega-3 fatty acids 69. Dave, a two-pack a day smoker, does not smoke in the home, but he does allow himself to smoke in his car, including when his toddler is in the back seat. What process in the development of cancer is Dave's smoking prompting in his toddler? a. initiation b. promotion c. progression d. metastasis 70. Regarding second-hand smoke from tobacco products, research indicates that a. minimal exposure poses few risks. b. exposure is situational; not all products exert the same level of danger. c. air circulation significantly mitigates the problem of exposure. d. there is no risk-free level of exposure.

71. Growing evidence of the past two decades indicates that which of the following behaviors does NOT reduce cancer risk? a. antioxidant supplementation b. reducing exposure to UV rays c. antioxidants consumed in foods d. increasing physical activity 72. The leading cause of death for adults in the United States is a. cancer. b. cardiovascular disease (CVD). c. diabetes. d. AIDS. 73. Vitamin E may offer protection against heart disease in part by a. acting as an anticoagulant. b. inhibiting the release of cortisol.

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sn5t_sakai 12 of 23 c. transporting LDLs from the blood vessels to the liver for processing. d. inhibiting the prooxidant effects of iron.

74. In laboratory blood tests, the marker that indicates the degree of inflammation is called a. iodopsin. b. C-reactive protein. c. reactive oxygen species (ROS). d. selenomethionine.

75. Which of the following is not an antioxidant but has been found to reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease? a. soluble fiber b. vitamin C c. vitamin A d. vitamin E

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sn5t_sakai 12 of 23 Answer Key 1. b 2. a 3. b 4. a 5. d 6. c 7. a 8. c 9. a 10. a 11. a 12. d 13. c 14. c 15. b 16. a 17. c 18. a 19. a 20. d 21. a 22. b 23. d 24. a 25. a Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 12 of 23 26. b 27. b 28. c 29. a 30. b 31. c 32. a 33. d 34. a 35. c 36. c 37. a 38. c 39. d 40. d 41. d 42. a 43. d 44. d 45. b 46. c 47. b 48. a 49. c 50. b 51. a Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 12 of 23 52. a 53. d 54. a 55. c 56. b 57. a 58. a 59. c 60. b 61. d 62. c 63. c 64. b 65. c 66. d 67. b 68. a 69. a 70. d 71. a 72. b 73. a 74. b 75. a

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Chapter 11 Name:

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sn5t_sakai 14 of 23

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Bones are living organs that contain several tissues, including two types of bone tissue, cartilage and a. nerve tissue. b. skeletal tissue. c. cortical tissue. d. connective tissue.

2. The compact bone that makes up the outer surface of bone is called a. cortical. b. spongy. c. collagen. d. trabecular.

3. Minerals make up approximately what percentage of bone? a. 25% b. 35% c. 50% d. 65% 4. Which organic protein is responsible for the bone matrix that hydroxyapatite binds to? a. osteocalcin b. collagen c. hemoglobin d. trabecular bone 5. Eighty percent of bone is made up of a. spongy bone. b. collagen. c. cortical bone. d. trabecular bone.

6. What percentage of bone is made up of trabecular bone? a. 20% b. 35% c. 65% d. 80% 7. When does bone growth and modeling start? a. during fetal development b. at birth c. during infancy d. during childhood 8. The two-step process in which bone tissue is recycled is called Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 14 of 23 a. bone growth. b. bone modeling. c. bone remodeling. d. bone regeneration.

9. Bone cells that are responsible for eroding the bone surface during resorption are called a. osteoclasts. b. cortical. c. osteoblasts. d. trabecular.

10. The tiny mineral crystals that cluster around collagen fibers in bone are called a. osteoclasts. b. hydroxyapatite. c. trabecular. d. osteoblasts.

11. In addition to proper growth and development, bone remodeling is critical in maintaining a. blood glucose levels. b. blood calcium levels. c. blood coagulation. d. vitamin D production.

12. By about what age does bone resorption generally begin to occur more rapidly than bone formation? a. 10 b. 20 c. 40 d. 60 13. Peak bone mass is typically achieved by what age? a. 2 years b. puberty c. 21 years d. 30 years 14. Which of the following factors is not associated with a lower peak bone density? a. late pubertal age in boys b. early onset of menstruation in girls c. low body weight d. physical inactivity during adolescence 15. Currently the most accurate assessment tool for measuring bone density is a. X-ray. b. dual energy X-ray absorptiometry.

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sn5t_sakai 14 of 23 c. hydrostatic weighing. d. computed axial tomography.

16. A T-score between -1 and 1 on a dual energy x-ray absorptiometry (DXA) signifies a. lower-than-normal bone density. b. osteoporosis. c. normal bone density. d. growing bone.

17. Which of the following T-scores indicates osteoporosis? a. -3 b. -2 c. 0 d. 2 18. Lily-Grace is a 62-year-old female who recently had a bone density scan. Her T-score was -1.5. What does this score indicate? a. Lily-Grace has normal bone density. b. Lily-Grace has low bone mass. c. Lily-Grace has bone fractures. d. Lily-Grace has osteoporosis.

19. Which group of people do doctors generally advise get a dual energy X-ray absorptiometry (DXA) test? a. pubescent women b. postmenopausal women c. middle-aged men d. weightlifters 20. A T-score compares a person's assessed bone density to the average a. peak bone density of a healthy 30-year-old. b. peak bone density of a healthy 20-year-old. c. bone density of a person with osteoporosis. d. bone density of a person at puberty.

21. Dual energy X-ray absorptiometry (DXA) measures bone density in a person's a. lower limbs. b. hands. c. hips. d. whole body.

22. The quick, portable procedure that calculates bone density by using sound waves to scan the heel, shin, and kneecap is known as a. dual energy X-ray absorptiometry. b. single energy X-ray absorptiometry. c. quantitative ultrasound.

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sn5t_sakai 14 of 23 d. peripheral ultrasound.

23. Which is the most abundant mineral in the body? a. calcium b. iron c. phosphorus d. fluoride 24. What percentage of our entire body weight is calcium? a. 0.2% b. 2% c. 20% d. 80% 25. Which of the following is TRUE concerning calcium? a. Calcium's alkalinity assists in regulating acid-base balance. b. Ninety-nine percent of calcium is found in the blood and soft tissue. c. When blood calcium rises, osteoclasts will liberate calcium from the skeleton. d. Calcium is a trace mineral.

26. Which of the following hormones is released when blood calcium levels fall? a. parathyroid hormone b. hydroxyapatite c. calcitonin d. thyroxin 27. Calcium is primarily absorbed from which area of the intestinal tract? a. mouth b. stomach c. duodenum d. ileum 28. At which of the following stages of the life cycle is calcium absorption the most efficient? a. pregnancy b. infancy c. adulthood d. later life 29. Phytates and oxalates in certain plant-based foods can inhibit the absorption of a. vitamin D. b. thiamin. c. calcium. d. protein.

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sn5t_sakai 14 of 23 30. Which of the following hormones is secreted by the thyroid gland when blood levels of calcium are too high? a. calcitonin b. thyroxin c. parathyroid hormone d. T3 31. Which of the following is a hormone that is released in response to low blood calcium levels? a. serotonin b. estrogen c. parathyroid hormone d. insulin 32. What is the Tolerable Upper Intake Level of calcium for all age groups? a. 1,000 mg b. 1,200 mg c. 1,300 mg d. 2,500 mg 33. Which of the following foods contains the same amount of calcium as 8 oz of nonfat milk? a. 4.9 oz plain, nonfat yogurt b. 4.9 oz Swiss cheese c. 1.5 oz canned sardines d. 1 cup of lima beans 34. Of the following foods, which has the highest bioavailability of calcium? a. raw spinach b. unprocessed tofu c. whole wheat bread d. cooked kale 35. Assuming equal serving sizes, which of the following foods would be the poorest source of calcium? a. skim milk b. whole milk c. cheddar cheese d. cottage cheese 36. Which of the following plant sources of calcium has the lowest bioavailability? a. kale b. spinach c. broccoli d. Brussels sprouts 37. Which of the following nutrients is necessary for the absorption of calcium? a. iron Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 14 of 23 b. vitamin D c. zinc d. phosphorus 38. Which of the following is MOST likely to occur if you were to consume too much calcium via the diet? a. You would experience hypercalcemia. b. You would begin to produce kidney stones. c. Your absorption of other minerals would be reduced. d. Calcium deposits would accumulate in the soft tissues of the body.

39. In addition to being a nutrient, vitamin D is also considered a(n) a. enzyme. b. cholesterol. c. provitamin. d. hormone.

40. Which of the following organs converts the inactive form of vitamin D into the active form calcitriol, which the body can use? a. parathyroid b. lungs c. kidneys d. gallbladder 41. Which of the following is the active form of vitamin D? a. 7-dehydrocholesterol b. cholecalciferol c. calcifediol d. calcitriol 42. Who is at HIGHEST risk for vitamin D deficiency? a. a college student living in Boston b. a nursing home resident living in Seattle c. a child living in San Diego d. a house painter living in Miami 43. What is the primary source of vitamin D in the American diet? a. seafood b. chicken c. green leafy vegetables d. fortified foods, such as milk 44. Vitamin D toxicity is associated with a. sunburns. b. suntan lotions.

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sn5t_sakai 14 of 23 c. seafood. d. supplements.

45. One microgram of vitamin D is equivalent to how many International Units (IU)? a. 10 IU b. 20 IU c. 30 IU d. 40 IU 46. A vitamin D deficiency in adults can lead to a. hypocalcemia. b. rickets. c. osteomalacia. d. calcium deposits.

47. Vitamin D deficiency can develop in individuals who have diseases that result in the malabsorption of a. vitamin B .

12 b. fat. c. minerals. d. protein.

48. Insufficient vitamin D during childhood is associated with a. rickets. b. osteomalacia. c. osteoporosis. d. hypocalcemia.

49. Most vitamin K is stored in a. adipose tissue. b. the liver. c. bile. d. the lymph nodes.

50. During the production of various proteins involved in the coagulation of blood and in bone metabolism, vitamin K serves as a. a regulatory hormone. b. a coenzyme. c. an antagonist. d. a carrier compound.

51. Newborns receive a single injection of vitamin K at birth because a. newborns do not have enough bacteria in their small intestine to make vitamin K. b. breast milk is a poor source of vitamin K. c. the trauma of labor and delivery depletes the newborn's vitamin K stores.

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sn5t_sakai 14 of 23 d. newborns cannot absorb any of the vitamin K from breast milk or formula.

52. A recent meta-analysis of studies evaluating vitamin K's role in maintaining bone health has shown that vitamin K a. is only involved in bone remodeling. b. plays no role in bone metabolism. c. is the primary determinant of bone density. d. has a modest impact on bone density.

53. The body's supply of vitamin K comes from dietary sources and is also produced in the a. brain. b. mouth. c. stomach. d. large intestine.

54. Hydroxyapatite crystals are mineral complexes composed of calcium and a. sodium. b. chloride. c. phosphorus. d. vitamin K. 55. Which of the following foods is high in phosphorus? a. eggs b. apples c. oranges d. table salt 56. Most of the body's phosphorus is stored in a. the liver. b. adipose tissue. c. the bones. d. the kidneys.

57. Which of the following foods are good sources of magnesium? a. green, leafy vegetables b. citrus fruits c. french fries d. soft drinks 58. Which of the following enhances the absorption and retention of dietary magnesium? a. fiber b. phytates c. protein d. fat Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 14 of 23 59. Ronald has kidney disease, and was recently hospitalized for treatment of hypermagnesemia, which his physician attributed to his a. use of antacids. b. consumption of raw eggs. c. high meat consumption. d. high caffeine consumption.

60. Which of the following is the animal form of vitamin K, produced by bacteria in the large intestine? a. osteocalcin b. menaquinone c. phylloquinone d. phosphorus 61. Foods that contain protein have a high amount of a. calcium. b. vitamin K. c. phosphorus. d. oxalates.

62. What percentage of the body's phosphorus is stored in bones? a. 15% b. 20% c. 85% d. 90% 63. Which of the following foods is not a good source of phosphorus? a. cabbage b. milk c. eggs d. chicken 64. Which of the following is responsible for the regulation of blood magnesium levels? a. liver b. kidneys c. small intestine d. thyroid hormone 65. A condition of abnormally high concentration of magnesium in blood is referred to as a. hypercalcemia. b. hyperkalemia. c. hypermagnesemia. d. hypermagnesia.

66. The majority of our body's fluoride is stored in the a. liver.

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sn5t_sakai 14 of 23 b. adipose tissue. c. teeth and bones. d. interstitial fluid.

67. Nine-year-old Avery's dentist attributes her fluorosis to her a. living in a community without fluoridated water. b. habit of swallowing her bubble-gum flavored toothpaste. c. inadequate consumption of dietary vitamin D. d. vegan diet.

68. Which component of teeth increases their resistance to destruction by acids and bacteria? a. calcium b. phosphorus c. hydroxyapatite d. fluorohydroxyapatite 69. How does fluoride protect against dental caries (cavities)? a. decreases and reverses tooth demineralization b. inhibits bone modeling c. speeds up metabolism of acid-producing bacteria d. decreases tooth mineralization 70. How can children reduce their risk of fluorosis? a. They can take fluoride supplements. b. They can be careful not to swallow fluoridated dental products. c. They can take vitamin D supplements. d. They can increase their intake of phosphorus from dietary sources.

71. Fluoride deficiency has been shown to result in a. osteoporosis. b. dental caries. c. osteoarthritis. d. kyphosis.

72. Kyphosis, or dowager's hump, can develop in a person with a. fluorosis. b. osteoporosis. c. rickets. d. osteoarthritis.

73. What is the primary reason osteoporosis incidence in the United States is expected to increase? a. increased rates of overweight and obesity b. increased diagnostic tools c. increased longevity of the population Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 14 of 23 d. decreased milk consumption 74. Which individual is at the LEAST risk for osteoporosis? a. normal weight, elderly male b. male tennis player in his 30s c. petite Asian female d. thin Caucasian female in her 40s 75. During which phase of a woman's life cycle is bone loss the greatest? a. puberty b. pregnancy c. lactation d. menopause 76. Which of the following is a risk factor that increases one's chances of developing osteoporosis? a. participation in weight-bearing exercise b. consumption of a plant-based diet c. smoking d. moderate alcohol intake 77. Mary is 60 years old and concerned about her risk for osteoporosis. In addition to calcium, which of the following nutrients should Mary consume in adequate amounts in her diet to minimize bone loss? a. omega-3 fatty acids b. vitamin C c. potassium d. vitamin D 78. The most effective exercise programs recommended for osteoporosis treatment emphasize a. stretching. b. swimming. c. recumbent cycling. d. weight-bearing activities.

79. Selective estrogen receptor modulators have been used to treat osteoporosis. They work by a. increasing the amount and activity of thyroid hormones. b. increasing the levels of phosphorus in the blood. c. promoting an estrogen-like effect on bone tissue. d. combining estrogen with progestin.

80. Which thyroid hormone is used to treat osteoporosis? a. calcitonin b. testosterone c. insulin d. parathyroid hormone Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 14 of 23 81. A recent systematic review study has found that treatment with prescription bisphosphonates a. prevents osteoporosis in premenopausal women and prevents fractures in postmenopausal women. b. increases a woman's risk for heart disease and breast cancer. c. increases a woman's risk for atypical fractures. d. can cure osteoporosis.

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sn5t_sakai 14 of 23 Answer Key 1. d 2. a 3. d 4. b 5. c 6. a 7. a 8. c 9. a 10. b 11. b 12. c 13. d 14. b 15. b 16. c 17. a 18. b 19. b 20. a 21. d 22. c 23. a 24. b 25. a Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 14 of 23 26. a 27. c 28. b 29. c 30. a 31. c 32. d 33. a 34. d 35. d 36. b 37. b 38. c 39. d 40. c 41. d 42. b 43. d 44. d 45. d 46. c 47. b 48. a 49. b 50. b 51. a Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 14 of 23 52. d 53. d 54. c 55. a 56. c 57. a 58. c 59. a 60. b 61. c 62. c 63. a 64. b 65. c 66. c 67. b 68. d 69. a 70. b 71. b 72. b 73. c 74. b 75. d 76. c Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 14 of 23 77. d 78. d 79. c 80. a 81. c

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Chapter 12 Name:

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sn5t_sakai 15 of 23

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Which of the following cells are key to our immune function? a. erythrocytes b. leukocytes c. macrocytes d. osteocytes 2. Red blood cells are also called a. platelets. b. leukocytes. c. enterocytes. d. erythrocytes.

3. The cell fragments found in blood that help form clots and stop bleeding are called a. platelets. b. plasma. c. erythrocytes. d. leukocytes.

4. Which of the following is not one of the four components of blood? a. erythrocytes b. leukocytes c. platelet d. myoglobin 5. Which component of blood is fluid and necessary for maintaining adequate blood volume? a. erythrocyte b. leukocyte c. platelet d. plasma 6. The most common micronutrient deficiency worldwide is a. calcium. b. vitamin B .

12 c. iron. d. folate.

7. Hemoglobin and myoglobin are to proteins involved in the transport and metabolism of a. oxygen. b. nitrogen. c. platelets. d. sulfur.

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sn5t_sakai 15 of 23 8. The oxygen-carrying protein found in our red blood cells is called a. myoglobin. b. hemoglobin. c. iron. d. hemosiderin.

9. The oxygen-carrying protein used to transport oxygen in muscle is called a. myoglobin. b. hemoglobin. c. iron. d. ferritin.

10. The iron-containing molecule found in hemoglobin and myoglobin is called a. nonheme. b. heme. c. ferritin. d. plasma.

11. The body's ability to absorb dietary iron is influenced by all of the following factors except a. the level of dietary iron consumption. b. the type of iron present in the foods consumed. c. that amount of stomach acid present to digest the foods. d. the stage of life of the individual.

12. The "meat factor" is a(n) a. substance found in meat, fish, and poultry that enhances nonheme iron absorption. b. substance found in meat, fish, and poultry that enhances heme iron absorption. c. iron-containing coenzyme involved in the metabolism of animal-based proteins. d. substance found in meat and poultry, but not fish, that enhances heme iron absorption.

13. Which of the following will impair nonheme iron absorption? a. low amounts of stomach acid b. low dietary intake of iron c. iron-deficiency anemia d. chronic blood loss 14. Iron absorption is enhanced by a. polyphenols. b. fiber. c. phytates. d. vitamin C. 15. Insufficient intake of iron will FIRST affect the body's levels of a. hemoglobin.

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sn5t_sakai 15 of 23 b. hephaestin. c. transferrin. d. ferritin.

16. The two storage forms of iron are ferritin and a. ceruloplasmin. b. transferrin. c. hemosiderin. d. hephaestin.

17. The majority of the body's iron is found in a. ferritin. b. hemoglobin. c. ferroportin. d. transferrin.

18. Which of the following is a good source of heme iron? a. fish b. spinach c. fortified bread d. beans 19. Stage I of iron deficiency is also called a. iron-deficiency erythropoiesis. b. iron depletion. c. iron-deficiency anemia. d. microcytic anemia.

20. Which of the following is least likely to have low iron store a. a woman of childbearing years. b. a pregnant woman. c. a pre-pubescent girl. d. a female athlete.

21. Which iron transporter helps regulate intestinal iron absorption and release? a. hephaestin b. ferroportin c. platelets d. ferritin 22. In the United States, accidental overdose of which micronutrient is the most common cause of poisoning deaths in children under age six? a. copper b. iron Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 15 of 23 c. vitamin C d. zinc 23. The second stage of iron deficiency, in which the body experiences a decrease in the transport of iron, is called a. iron-deficiency erythropoiesis. b. iron-deficiency anemia. c. iron depletion. d. hemochromatosis.

24. The small red blood cells that characterize microcytic anemia do not contain enough hemoglobin to transport adequate oxygen or allow a. aerobic respiration. b. adequate production of growth hormones. c. adequate transfer of electrons to produce energy. d. the production of plasma cells.

25. Which of the following is a positively-charged trace mineral? a. calcium b. zinc c. sodium d. chloride 26. It is estimated that more than ________ different enzymes within the body require zinc for their functioning. a. 100 b. 200 c. 300 d. 400 27. Consuming which of the following foods would assist zinc absorption? a. chicken b. tomato c. spinach d. whole wheat bread 28. Zinc is a structural component of the DNA-binding proteins that help regulate gene expression. These proteins are known as a. zinc blocks. b. zinc enzymes. c. zinc coenzymes. d. zinc fingers.

29. Approximately what is the highest rate of absorption of dietary zinc? a. 5% b. 10% c. 35% Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 15 of 23 d. 80% 30. A majority of zinc is carried in the blood by a. transferrin. b. albumin. c. lipoproteins. d. chylomicrons.

31. The copper-containing protein found in the blood that oxidizes iron for transport is a. ferritin. b. transferrin. c. ceruloplasmin. d. ferric copper.

32. Copper is absorbed from the a. mouth. b. stomach. c. small intestine. d. large intestine.

33. After absorption, which blood protein binds copper for transport to the liver? a. transferrin b. albumin c. globulin d. hemoglobin 34. Which of the following foods is not a good source of copper? a. organ meats b. dairy c. seafood d. nuts and seeds 35. Which of the following individuals is MOST likely to have a copper deficiency? a. an adult vegan b. premature infant fed milk-based formula c. adolescent female gymnast d. adolescent male long-distance runner 36. Which disorder is closely associated with copper toxicity? a. Wilson's disease b. macrocytic anemia c. Alzheimer's disease d. rickets Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 15 of 23 37. Which of the following nutrients is crucial in maintaining blood health? a. thiamin b. folate c. phosphorus d. calcium 38. Which of the following individuals would be MOST at risk for a vitamin K deficiency? a. a 55-year-old menopausal woman b. a 16-year-old who drinks 4-5 cans of soda each day c. a 30-year-old with Crohn's disease d. a 6-year-old who doesn't eat any vegetables 39. Excess vitamin K is excreted in a. urine. b. stool. c. blood loss. d. sweat.

40. The primary sources of folate in the American diet are a. milk and dairy products. b. fresh fruits and vegetables. c. meat, fish, and poultry. d. enriched ready-to-eat cereals and breads.

41. Which form of folate is found in most supplements? a. folic acid b. folate c. five hydroxy folate d. prefolate 42. How does folate function in maintaining blood health? a. Folate is essential for synthesis of new red blood cells. b. Folate is essential for the synthesis of heme iron. c. Folate acts as a coenzyme in blood coagulation. d. Folate is essential for iron oxidation.

43. During stage II of folate deficiency, the lack of folate results in a. low levels of methionine. b. copper toxicity. c. iron deficiency. d. high levels of homocysteine.

44. Folate deficiency during pregnancy increases the risk for a. a newborn with Down's syndrome.

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sn5t_sakai 15 of 23 b. gestational diabetes in the mother. c. a newborn with a neural tube defect. d. a large-for-gestational age newborn.

45. During the fourth and final stage of folate deficiency, the body can experience a. pernicious anemia. b. iron-deficiency anemia. c. macrocytic anemia. d. microcytic anemia.

46. Stage II folate deficiency is called a. folate-deficiency erythropoiesis. b. folate-deficiency anemia. c. folate depletion. d. negative folate balance.

47. Consumption of high levels of folate supplements can mask deficiency of a. niacin. b. vitamin B 6. c. iron. d. vitamin B 12.

48. Vitamin B12 is also called a. ascorbic acid. b. cyanocobalamin. c. folate. d. pyridoxal.

49. Vitamin B12 plays a role in the formation of red blood cells as a component of coenzymes that a. synthesize heme. b. assist with DNA synthesis. c. assist in the coagulation of blood. d. assist in iron oxidation.

50. Which nutrient requires intrinsic factor for absorption? a. ascorbic acid b. cyanocobalamin c. zinc d. potassium 51. Who is MOST likely to be vitamin B12 deficient? a. an ovo-lacto vegetarian Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 15 of 23 b. a vegan c. a pesce vegetarian d. a person who eats meat, poultry, and fish 52. Vitamin B6 is essential for the synthesis of a. T cells. b. memory cells. c. heme. d. iron.

53. Prothrombin and factor VII are a. hormones that regulate the pH of the blood. b. proteins that are involved in the coagulation of blood. c. cofactors of energy metabolism. d. transport proteins that aid in the absorption of iron.

54. Inadequate intrinsic factor is associated with a. pernicious anemia. b. sickle-cell anemia. c. neural tube defects. d. thalassemia.

55. To reduce the chances of having a baby with neural tube defects, all women of childbearing age should ensure they maintain an adequate intake of which vitamin? a. niacin b. folate c. ascorbic acid d. cyanocobalamin 56. Pernicious anemia is classified as a type of a. macrocytic anemia. b. microcytic anemia. c. coagulation disorder. d. autoimmune disease.

57. Which of the following is part of the nonspecific branch of the immune system? a. stomach acid b. complement proteins c. corticosteroids d. lymphocytes 58. Antigen-sensitized cells that remain in circulation for long periods of time are called a. platelets. b. erythrocytes.

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sn5t_sakai 15 of 23 c. leukocytes. d. memory cells.

59. Which of the following cells plays a key role in nonspecific immunity? a. T cells b. B cells c. plasma cells d. natural killer cells 60. The cells of the specific immune system attack which of the following targets? a. plasma b. macrophages c. antibodies d. antigens 61. Which type of white blood cell can become either a memory cell or a plasma cell to be used in a specific immune response? a. T cell b. B cell c. natural killer cell d. erythrocyte 62. Which type of white blood cells can fight infection by killing body cells that contain viruses or other harmful non-self substances? a. erythrocytes b. cytotoxic T cells c. B cells d. antigens 63. Antiserum delivers immediate protection when administered after a snakebite by providing a. antibodies to attack the snake venom. b. a small amount of snake venom to activate specific immunity. c. neutrophils to attack the snake venom. d. undifferentiated B cells.

64. Vaccinations help the body develop immunity to a disease by providing a. a flood of the specific microbe to cause the disease. b. cytotoxic T cells to attack the microbes. c. helper T cells to activate other immune cells. d. a small amount of weakened or killed antigen from a specific microbe to activate the specific immune response.

65. Which of the following is NOT one of the four primary ways in which humans acquire immunity to specific invaders? a. vaccinations b. injection of antiserum Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 15 of 23 c. never have a disease once d. maternal antibodies 66. Which of the following nutrients is a coenzyme for glutathione peroxidase? a. selenium b. copper c. ascorbic acid d. zinc 67. How does protein-energy malnutrition affect the immune system? a. It suppresses nonspecific immune responses. b. It has no effect on the immune system. c. It diminishes immune response to antigens. d. It enhances specific immune responses.

68. How does vitamin A affect the immune system? a. It has no effect on the immune system. b. It is necessary for the differentiation of immune cells. c. It suppresses the immune response. d. It takes up and stores iron, keeping it away from invading microbes.

69. Vitamins C and E protect the cell membrane from damage by a. natural killer cells. b. reactive oxygen species molecules. c. erythrocytes. d. cytotoxic T cells.

70. Excessive supplementation of which of the following minerals results in diminished absorption of copper and depressed immunity? a. manganese b. zinc c. selenium d. iron 71. Excessive amounts of which trace mineral can act as a potent pro-oxidant that damages the membranes of immune cells? a. selenium b. calcium c. zinc d. iron 72. Which nutrient deficiency causes viruses to multiply over a longer period of time and to mutate into more pathogenic strains? a. zinc b. selenium Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 15 of 23 c. iron d. copper 73. Infectious disease can promote malnutrition by a. decreasing the individual's resting metabolic rate. b. decreasing the individual's body temperature. c. increasing the loss of nutrients through diarrhea and/or vomiting. d. increasing the individual's appetite.

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sn5t_sakai 15 of 23 Answer Key 1. b 2. d 3. a 4. d 5. d 6. c 7. a 8. b 9. a 10. b 11. b 12. a 13. a 14. d 15. d 16. c 17. b 18. a 19. b 20. b 21. b 22. b 23. a 24. c 25. b Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 15 of 23 26. c 27. a 28. d 29. c 30. b 31. c 32. c 33. b 34. b 35. b 36. a 37. b 38. c 39. a 40. d 41. a 42. a 43. d 44. c 45. c 46. c 47. d 48. b 49. b 50. b 51. b Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 15 of 23 52. c 53. b 54. a 55. b 56. a 57. a 58. d 59. d 60. d 61. b 62. b 63. a 64. d 65. c 66. a 67. c 68. c 69. b 70. b 71. d 72. b 73. c

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Chapter 13 Name:

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sn5t_sakai 16 of 23

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Among other qualities, a healthful body weight is characterized as a. consistent with social and cultural standards of beauty. b. within the "normal weight" range of BMI. c. appropriate for an individual's age, genes, and stage of development. d. one that supports human reproduction and activities of daily living.

2. Which of the following individuals is maintaining a healthful weight? a. Evita is 5'1" tall and weighs 100 pounds. In order to maintain this weight, she follows a strict macrobiotic diet, weighing her food and calculating her kcal intake. She also works out daily for at least 60 minutes a session. b. Raylene is 5'3" tall and weighs 150 pounds. Throughout high school, she participated in basketball and track, and weighed about 30 pounds less than she does now. Since starting college, her weight has slowly crept upward, probably because she snacks excessively while studying and no longer participates in sports. Her only regular physical activity is walking between buildings on campus. She is very unhappy with her current weight. c. Zach is 5'7" tall and weighs 150 pounds. His male relatives are all short, small-boned, and thin. Zach is determined to bulk up, so he works out with weights six days a week, eats a high-protein diet, and takes an illegal steroid supplement he obtains from a bodybuilding friend. d. Sandeep is 5'9" tall and weighs 150 pounds. He is a busy pre-med student, but he makes it a habit to walk the 2 miles to and from campus each day, and takes a twice-weekly power-yoga class. Sandeep's blood pressure is 110/70, and his blood glucose and blood lipids are normal.

3. A person with a body weight that exceeds 100% of the normal standard for a given height is considered a. overweight. b. obese. c. morbidly obese. d. severely obese.

4. Body mass index is a. a percentage of body weight. b. a measure of body density. c. the ratio of a person's body weight to his or her height squared. d. the ratio of a person's height to the square of his or her body weight.

5. Jill is 5' 10" tall and weighs 167 pounds. What is her BMI (body mass index)? a. 20 b. 24 c. 27 d. 32 6. Jerome is 5' 9" tall and weighs 210 pounds. Jerome's BMI indicates that he is a. underweight. b. at a healthy weight. c. overweight. d. obese.

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sn5t_sakai 16 of 23 7. A BMI above what value is associated with increased risk for chronic disease? a. 18.5 b. 20 c. 25 d. 30 8. A person with a BMI of 23 indicates that the person is a. underweight. b. healthy weight. c. overweight. d. obese.

9. A limitation in using the body mass index is that it a. is difficult to determine. b. does not take body composition into account. c. is not a good predictor of health risks. d. is not accurate when used on women.

10. Which method of assessing body composition is considered to be the gold standard? a. body mass index (BMI) b. underwater weighing c. skinfold test d. waist circumference measurement 11. Apple-shaped fat patterning increases a person's risk for a. type 1 diabetes. b. heart disease. c. osteoporosis. d. lactose intolerance.

12. Which of the following assessment techniques can be used to evaluate an individual's fat distribution pattern? a. body mass index (BMI) b. underwater weighing c. bioelectrical impedance analysis (BIA) d. waist circumference measurement 13. Paula's waist measurement is 38 inches and her hip measurement is 36 inches. Based on her waist-to-hip ratio, how would you classify Paula's health risk? a. high because her waist-to-hip ratio is over 0.80 b. low because her waist-to-hip ratio is over 0.80 c. high because her waist-to-hip ratio is less than 0.80 d. low because her waist-to-hip ratio is less than 0.80 14. In men, a waist-to-hip ratio greater than what value is associated with an increased disease risk?

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sn5t_sakai 16 of 23 a. 2.0 b. 1.0 c. 0.9 d. 0.8 15. Which of the following methods estimates energy expenditure by measuring carbon dioxide produced and oxygen consumed by the body? a. dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DXA) b. bioelectrical impedance analysis (BIA) c. direct calorimetry d. indirect calorimetry 16. Energy expenditure is a. the amount of energy expended at rest. b. the amount of energy expended during physical activity. c. the amount of energy expended at rest and during physical activity. d. the amount of energy consumed.

17. The energy balance equation states that energy balance occurs when a. energy consumed is less than energy expended. b. energy expended is less than energy consumed. c. the ratio of energy consumed to energy expended is less than or equal to 2:1. d. energy consumed equals energy expended.

18. Joe would like to lose two pounds a week. If his present energy intake is 4,200 kcal a day and his energy expenditure does not change, how many kilocalories should he consume each day to achieve his goal? a. 2,000 kcal b. 2,500 kcal c. 3,200 kcal d. 3,700 kcal 19. Grace would like to lose to pounds. Her current energy intake is 2,250 kcal a day. If she reduces her energy intake to 2,000 kcal a day, how long would it take for Grace to meet her goal of losing ten pounds? a. 2 weeks b. 20 weeks c. 2 months d. 6 months 20. Which of the following provides 4 kcal of energy per gram? a. carbohydrates b. fats c. alcohol d. water 21. A food contains 15 grams of fat. How many kcal from fat does the food contain?

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sn5t_sakai 16 of 23 a. 60 kcal b. 105 kcal c. 135 kcal d. 30 kcal 22. An excess energy intake of approximately how many Calories will lead to a gain of one pound of body weight? a. 1,000 b. 2,500 c. 3,500 d. 4,000 23. The label on a ready-to-eat cereal box indicates that 1 cup contains 32 grams of carbohydrate, 4 grams of protein, and 2 grams of fat. How many kcal are there in two cups of this cereal? a. 162 kcal b. 187 kcal c. 256 kcal d. 324 kcal 24. What is the MOST critical limitation of direct and indirect calorimetry methods? a. They are less accurate than other methods. b. They give data only under physically active conditions. c. They must be performed in a laboratory or special chamber. d. The necessary supplies are difficult to acquire.

25. At its lowest level, about what percentage of our total daily energy expenditure is attributable to basal metabolism? a. 20 b. 35 c. 60 d. 80 26. At its highest level, about what percentage of our daily energy expenditure is attributable to the thermic effect of food? a. 5 b. 10 c. 35 d. 60 27. At its highest level, about what percentage of our daily energy expenditure is attributable to physical activity and activities of daily living? a. 5 b. 10 c. 35 d. 75 28. The primary determinant of basal metabolic rate is an individual's a. gender.

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sn5t_sakai 16 of 23 b. fat tissue mass. c. lean tissue mass. d. age.

29. Which of the following individuals would most likely have the highest basal metabolic rate? a. a 20-year-old conditioned male athlete b. a 50-year-old normal weight woman c. a 45-year-old obese male d. a 20-year-old sedentary female college student 30. At about what age does basal metabolic rate begin to gradually decrease? a. 15 b. 25 c. 30 d. 45 31. Molly is an 18-year-old college student who is 5' 7" tall and weighs 140 pounds. How many kilocalories does she expend each day for basal metabolism? a. 1,375 kcal b. 1,527 kcal c. 3,024 kcal d. 3,360 kcal 32. What are the three components of total energy expenditure? a. basal metabolic rate, physical activity, and adaptive thermogenesis b. basal metabolic rate, physical activity, and the thermic effect of food c. basal metabolic rate, physical activity, and sleep activity d. basal metabolic rate, the thermic effect of food, and adaptive thermogenesis 33. The amount of energy expended by the body in digesting, absorbing, transporting, metabolizing, and storing nutrients is called a. the basal metabolic rate. b. the nutrient expenditure quotient. c. the thermic effect of food. d. adaptive thermogenesis.

34. George's dinner contains 750 kilocalories. At most, how many kilocalories will George expend in order to process this meal? a. 7.5 kcal b. 50 kcal c. 75 kcal d. 150 kcal 35. Which component of energy expenditure is the most variable from one person to another? a. basal metabolism Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 16 of 23 b. thermic effect of food c. energy cost of physical activity d. adaptive thermogenesis 36. Patrick weighs 250 pounds and is trying to lose weight. He decides to start an exercise program and starts walking (2 mph) for 30 minutes, five days a week. This activity burns 0.044 kcal/kg body weight/minute. How many additional kcal will Patrick burn each week with this exercise regime? a. 290 kcal b. 560 kcal c. 750 kcal d. 980 kcal 37. Jamie eats 240 gm of carbohydrate, 220 gm from fat, and 132 gm from protein each day. What is Jamie's daily Caloric intake? a. 592 kcal b. 3,028 kcal c. 3,468 kcal d. 4,584 kcal 38. Current research suggests that the classic energy balance equation a. can accurately predict precisely how many pounds a college student of a given weight and BMI will lose while following a given diet and physical activity program for one year or more. b. does not help explain why people with similar energy intake and expenditure over time gain or lose different amounts of weight. c. needs to be replaced with an equation that can be applied when individuals are weight stable. d. is valid and reliable in explaining weight gain or loss with populations varying in age, gender, ethnicity, level of physical activity, and BMI. 39. The energy we expend just to maintain our resting functions, such as respiration and circulation, is our a. basal metabolic rate (BMR). b. thermic effect of food. c. energy cost of physical activity. d. body mass index.

40. Different researchers have proposed that what percentage of our BMI is influenced by genetic factors? a. 10-20% b. 25-50% c. 33-66% d. 50-90% 41. The thrifty gene theory suggests that a. our bodies are designed to maintain weight within a narrow range. b. some people possess a gene that allows them to expend less energy at rest and during activity than people without this gene. c. adult body weight is determined by the weight of our parents.

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sn5t_sakai 16 of 23 d. our adult weight is determined by the diet our parents fed us when we were infants and young children.

42. The set-point theory suggests that a. the human body has evolved to maintain its weight within a narrow range. b. some people possess a gene that allows them to expend the same amount of energy whether they are at rest or engaging in physical activity. c. all people maintain a certain average body temperature that is unique to each individual. d. our appetite and satiety are predetermined by genes regulating the hypothalamic feeding and satiety centers.

43. Leptin, which functions as a hormone, is produced by a. liver cells. b. pancreatic cells. c. muscle cells. d. adipose cells.

44. Which of the following hypothesis suggest that we eat more total kcal because our body is trying to meet our genetically programmed protein target? a. the set-point hypothesis b. the protein leverage hypothesis c. thrifty gene hypothesis d. the drifty gene hypothesis 45. Calvin has had a genetic test that reveals he has the FTO gene. Which of the following is TRUE? a. Calvin can weaken the effects of this gene by engaging in regular physical activity. b. Calvin is genetically programmed to become obese. c. Calvin is genetically predisposed to have a stronger appetite than people without the FTO gene but also to have a stronger satiety response. d. Calvin's genetic makeup is unusual: only about 5-10% of the U.S. population has this gene.

46. Special cells in which of the following organs are responsible for the drive to eat? a. stomach b. hypothalamus c. small intestine d. pituitary gland 47. Which of the following is not a genetic factor that influence body weight in different ways? a. the thrifty gene b. FTO gen c. the drifty gene d. uncoupling proteins 48. The physiological state reached in which there is no longer a desire to eat is referred to as a. appetite. b. hunger. c. satiety.

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sn5t_sakai 16 of 23 d. repletion.

49. Which of the following decreases appetite? a. beta-endorphins b. ghrelin c. peptide YY d. uncoupling proteins 50. Which of the following accurately describes ghrelin? a. It is a lipid hormone synthesized by the small intestine. b. It is now available in a synthetic form for use as a prescription weight-loss drug. c. Levels plummet when we have not eaten and rise within about an hour after a meal. d. Levels increase after weight loss.

51. Which of the following conditions is conducive to weight loss? a. low leptin sensitivity b. high ghrelin sensitivity c. low peptide YY sensitivity d. increased uncoupling-protein activity 52. The thrifty gene theory suggests that, during times of plenty, a person with a thrifty metabolism a. burns more Calories. b. is more resistant to weight loss. c. has more lean muscle mass. d. draws on fat stored in adipose tissue.

53. The set-point theory suggests that when a person is on a restrictive diet, the body responds by initiating physiological changes that a. slow down the basal metabolic rate. b. increase the basal metabolic rate. c. increase the thermic effect of food. d. increase fidgeting and other spontaneous physical activity.

54. Which of the following statements is evidence for the set-point theory? a. At rest and during active times, energy expenditure is constant. b. The fat mass and obesity-associated (FTO) gene is common. c. Native American tribes have been exposed to cycles of feast and famine for centuries. d. Many people maintain a certain weight over long periods despite changes in energy intake.

55. Which of the following individuals would be MOST resistant to weight gain and obesity? a. a person with a thrifty gene(s) b. a person who is insensitive to the effects of leptin c. a person with more uncoupling proteins d. a person with fewer, less active uncoupling proteins Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 16 of 23 56. Which type of adipose tissue has a greater number of mitochondria in its cells? a. white adipose tissue b. brown adipose tissue c. red adipose tissue d. yellow adipose tissue 57. One theory researchers propose to explain why people who live in poor neighborhoods have higher obesity rates is that they might a. have lower-paying jobs. b. eat more nutrient-dense foods because they have limited funds to pay for food. c. not engage in walking and other forms of physical activity because of perceived pollution and safety risks in their neighborhood. d. be motivated to keep their children in school and off the streets for more hours per day.

58. Children who watch more than 2 hours of television per day are a. more likely to be overweight or obese than children who watch less than 2 hours per day. b. less likely to be overweight or obese than adults who watch more than 2 hours of television per day. c. likely to consume at least 200 fewer Calories per day than children who watch less than 2 hours per day. d. more likely to bully other children than those who watch less than 2 hours per day.

59. What percentage of U.S. adults is now obese? a. nearly 15% b. nearly 26% c. nearly 35% d. nearly 66% 60. Obesity increases an individual's risk for a. sickle-cell anemia. b. type 1 diabetes. c. osteoporosis. d. certain cancers.

61. Obesity increases the risk for all of the following conditions except a. dyslipidemia. b. type 1 diabetes. c. osteoarthritis. d. sleep apnea.

62. Abdominal obesity is specifically a. a large amount of subcutaneous fat stored in the abdomen. b. a large amount of visceral fat stored in the abdomen. c. due to heavy alcohol consumption. d. caused by metabolic syndrome.

63. Sharon has high triglycerides, low HDL levels, and high blood pressure. With which condition is this cluster of risk Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 16 of 23 factors associated? a. hypoglycemia b. underweight c. osteoporosis d. metabolic syndrome 64. What is a multifactorial disease? a. a disease that exhibits many different forms, depending upon the individual b. a disease that has many different causes c. a disease that affects many different organ systems d. a disease that requires many different treatments or therapies 65. A landmark report on body weight and obesity identified at least how many variables influencing energy balance? a. 7 b. 50 c. 100 d. 350 66. Which of the following weight-loss medications can be obtained without a prescription? a. Alli b. Saxenda c. Contrave d. Bontril 67. A majority of prescription weight-loss drugs currently on the market work by a. suppressing the release of digestive enzymes from the pancreas or bile from the gallbladder. b. slowing gastric emptying. c. increasing basal metabolic rate. d. suppressing appetite and increasing satiety.

68. Which of the following is a weight-loss medication that inhibits the absorption of dietary fat? a. orlistat b. caffeine c. diazepam d. naltrexone 69. Stimulants used in many weight-loss supplements a. counter the effects of caffeine. b. can cause a serious and even fatal increase in heart rate and blood pressure. c. prompt weight loss by reducing the individual's anxiety. d. promote weight loss by decreasing basal metabolic rate.

70. Bariatric surgery is advised for people who a. have tried other weight loss treatments, including prescription medication, for at least five years but have not been able to lose weight or maintain weight loss.

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sn5t_sakai 16 of 23 b. have been diagnosed with both type 2 diabetes and hypertension. c. have a BMI greater than or equal to 30. d. have a BMI greater than or equal to 40.

71. Which of the following is a surgical procedure in which much of the stomach and all of the duodenum are removed and the remaining small pouch of stomach is connected to the jejunum? a. sleeve gastrectomy b. gastric bypass c. gastric banding d. liposuction 72. A diet consisting of less than 10% of total energy as fat is classified as a a. very low-Calorie diet. b. very low-fat diet. c. low-fat diet. d. high-carbohydrate diet.

73. What type of weight loss will an individual experience by restricting Calories but not increasing his or her level of physical activity? a. The individual will lose mostly adipose tissue. b. The individual will lose mostly lean body tissue. c. The individual will lose both adipose and lean body tissue. d. The individual will not lose any body weight.

74. What is the National Weight Control Registry? a. a list of medical doctors specially trained in treating individuals with obesity b. a government agency that monitors fad diets for quackery c. recommendations from hundreds of registered dietitians suggesting ways to achieve a healthy body weight d. an ongoing project detailing the habits of people who have lost at least 30 pounds and maintained their weight for at least one year 75. According to the National Weight Control Registry, a majority of people who were able to maintain their weight loss reported changes in a. diet only. b. exercise only. c. diet and exercise. d. portion sizes.

76. A realistic weight-loss goal is a. 0 to 1 pound a week. b. 0.5 to 2 pounds a week. c. 1 to 3 pounds a week. d. 2 to 3.5 pounds a week.

77. A good weight loss strategy includes all of the following except Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 16 of 23 a. set realistic goal. b. follow a low-Calorie, low-fat diet. c. eat small portions of nutrient dense foods. d. participate in regular physical activity.

78. Jenna wants to lose 30 pounds in the nine weeks remaining before her sister's wedding. She has just started a diet she tells you is based on a new discovery about human metabolism and is guaranteed to enable her to lose "up to 5 pounds a week." Today her food choices are eggs, cauliflower, citrus fruits, and pumpkin seeds. Which of the following statements about Jenna's diet is TRUE? a. It is a fad diet. b. It is a low-carb diet. c. It is almost certainly based on the New Pritikin Program. d. It will almost certainly enable Jenna to meet her weight-loss goals.

79. Eating a diet composed of low energy-dense foods results in a. a decrease in basal metabolic rate. b. a decrease in satiation. c. an increase in fat stored as adipose tissue. d. greater weight loss than by simply reducing portion size.

80. Which of the following is a low energy-dense food? a. a bowl of vegetable soup b. French fries c. a bagel with cream cheese d. apple pie 81. Which of the following is MOST recommended for successful, healthful weight loss? a. Consume 45% of Calories from carbohydrates. b. Exercise 120 minutes at high intensity every day. c. Consume fewer than 1200 kcal per day. d. Exercise at least 30 minutes per day, five times per week.

82. Mindful eating a. is defined as consumption of food in total silence. b. may enhance weight-loss efforts in people with obesity. c. has been shown to boost social interaction during shared meals. d. is an especially helpful technique to use when you're eating while driving.

83. A BMI of 18.4 indicates a status of a. underweight. b. healthy weight. c. overweight. d. obesity.

84. Being underweight increases a person's risk of developing Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 16 of 23 a. infection and illness. b. high blood pressure. c. cancer. d. heart disease.

85. Which of the following correctly describes anabolic substances? a. They have been proven to enhance muscle gain and strength and to improve athletic performance. b. It is currently illegal to sell them in the United States. c. They were a popular weight-loss therapy of the 1980s. d. They are banned by the National Collegiate Athletic Association (NCAA).

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sn5t_sakai 16 of 23 Answer Key 1. c 2. d 3. c 4. c 5. b 6. d 7. d 8. c 9. b 10. b 11. b 12. d 13. a 14. c 15. d 16. c 17. d 18. c 19. b 20. a 21. c 22. c 23. d 24. c 25. c Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 16 of 23 26. b 27. c 28. c 29. a 30. c 31. a 32. b 33. c 34. c 35. c 36. c 37. c 38. b 39. a 40. d 41. b 42. a 43. d 44. b 45. a 46. b 47. d 48. c 49. c 50. d 51. d Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 16 of 23 52. b 53. a 54. d 55. c 56. b 57. c 58. c 59. c 60. d 61. b 62. b 63. d 64. b 65. c 66. a 67. d 68. a 69. b 70. d 71. b 72. b 73. b 74. d 75. c 76. b Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 16 of 23 77. b 78. a 79. d 80. a 81. d 82. b 83. a 84. a 85. d

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sn5t_sakai 18 of 23

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. An eating disorder is defined as a. a psychiatric condition that requires a physician's diagnosis. b. any condition in which one's eating behavior changes more than six times per year. c. a variety of abnormal or atypical eating behaviors. d. atypical eating behaviors that people use to achieve or maintain a lower body weight.

2. What percentage of the population is affected by body dysmorphic disorder? a. 0.1% b. 1% c. 0.2% d. 2% 3. Strict food and exercise routines, compulsive checking and counting, and a high need for control describes traits associated with a. anorexia nervosa. b. bulimia nervosa. c. binge-eating disorder. d. obesity.

4. Which of the following increases one's risk of developing an eating disorder? a. large family size b. having peers with a high BMI c. having a sibling with an eating disorder d. old age 5. Which population group has the highest incidence of eating disorders? a. white females in Western societies b. black females in Western societies c. white males in Western societies d. Asian females in Eastern societies 6. The type of eating disorder characterized by episodes of binging and purging is a. anorexia nervosa. b. bulimia nervosa. c. compulsive eating disorder. d. binge-eating disorder.

7. Which of the following is not one of the signs and symptoms of anorexia nervosa? a. purging b. amenorrhea c. extremely restrictive eating pattern d. fasting Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 18 of 23 8. According to the American Psychiatric Association, anorexia nervosa is diagnosed when a client a. refuses to maintain body weight at or above a minimally normal weight for age and height. b. has an intense fear of losing weight or becoming thin. c. experiences repeated episodes of binge eating. d. experiences repeated episodes of purging.

9. What percentage of U.S. females develop anorexia nervosa? a. about 0.25% b. less than 4% c. 14% d. nearly 25% 10. The Office of Women's Health estimates that what percentage of individuals diagnosed with anorexia nervosa are female? a. about 50% b. 50 to 70% c. 75 to 80% d. 85 to 95% 11. Bulimia nervosa is characterized by a. extreme Calorie restriction without purging. b. episodes of binge eating and self-induced vomiting. c. episodes of binge eating and without purging. d. excessive exercise without purging.

12. Jessica always works out on the Stairmaster for hours after eating a huge meal. This type of behavior is MOST common in a. obesity. b. bulimia nervosa. c. the female athlete triad. d. night-eating syndrome.

13. Which of the following characteristics is MOST strongly associated with bulimia nervosa? a. obesity b. fractures c. chronically inflamed sore throat d. loss of muscle tissue 14. Purging is a type of a. eating disorder. b. compensatory behavior. c. vomiting associated with binge-eating disorder. d. disordered eating syndrome.

15. Which of the following athletes would be at greatest risk for developing bulimia nervosa?

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sn5t_sakai 18 of 23 a. a basketball player b. a football player c. a jockey d. a sprinter 16. Which of the following BEST describes an episode of binge eating? a. eating a large amount of food in a short period of time b. heightened sense of control over eating c. sense of depression when consuming excess Calories d. consuming any food outside the parameters of a self-imposed restrictive diet 17. To be a diagnostic symptom of bulimia nervosa, binge eating must occur on average at least a. once a week for three months. b. twice a week for three months. c. four times a week for one month. d. seven days a week for one month.

18. Which of the following eating disorders is the MOST common among men? a. anorexia nervosa b. bulimia nervosa c. binge-eating disorder d. fad dieting 19. Which of the following BEST explains why female athletes with low energy availability have an increased risk for developing low bone density? a. low estrogen levels b. frequent electrolyte imbalance c. compromised immune system d. decreased cortisol secretion 20. Which of the following eating disorders is associated with obesity? a. anorexia nervosa b. female athlete triad c. bigorexia d. night-eating syndrome 21. Consuming at least 25% of daily energy after the evening meal is characteristic of which eating disorder? a. anorexia nervosa b. night-eating syndrome c. binge-eating disorder d. bulimia nervosa 22. A warning sign of the female athlete triad includes a. frequent snacking.

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sn5t_sakai 18 of 23 b. sleep apnea. c. stress fractures. d. hip fractures.

23. Premature bone loss associated with the female athlete triad is also called a. osteoporosis. b. amenorrhea. c. estrogen deficiency. d. anorexia nervosa.

24. Jennifer is severely underweight, anemic, and at risk for electrolyte imbalances. At this time, Jennifer's best treatment option is a. outpatient psychotherapy. b. outpatient nutrition counseling. c. twice weekly clinic visits for medical monitoring. d. hospitalization.

25. Before talking with a friend you suspect may have an eating disorder, a. locate a specialist to whom you can refer your friend. b. go through your friend's kitchen to gather evidence to confirm your suspicions. c. keep a log of your friend's behaviors for at least six months. d. arrange to meet your friend at a restaurant so that you can comment on his or her eating behaviors.

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sn5t_sakai 18 of 23 Answer Key 1. a 2. d 3. a 4. c 5. a 6. b 7. a 8. a 9. b 10. d 11. b 12. b 13. c 14. b 15. c 16. a 17. b 18. c 19. a 20. d 21. b 22. c 23. a 24. d 25. a Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 18 of 23

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Chapter 14 Name:

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sn5t_sakai 17 of 23

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Which of the following BEST describes exercise? a. any movement produced by muscles that increases energy expenditure b. maximal force or tension level that can be produced by a muscle group c. physical activity that is purposeful, planned, and structured d. ability to move a joint fluidly through the complete range of motion 2. Which of the following BEST describes a physically fit individual? a. ability to carry out daily activities with vigor and alertness b. participation in purposeful, planned, and structured activities c. having a low basal metabolic rate d. having a low resting heart rate and blood pressure 3. Physical activity not related to a person's job is defined as a. non-occupational physical activity. b. leisure-time physical activity. c. occupational fitness. d. physical fitness.

4. Which of the following is a benefit of regular physical activity? a. increased percent body fat b. increased LDL cholesterol c. increased HDL cholesterol d. increased systolic blood pressure 5. How does regular exercise contribute to reducing the risk of type 2 diabetes? a. increases LDL cholesterol b. enhances the action of insulin c. decreases the cellular uptake of blood glucose d. increases triglyceride levels 6. Which of the following components of physical fitness allows the heart, lungs, and blood vessels to support the work of our muscles? a. cardiorespiratory fitness b. musculoskeletal fitness c. flexibility d. body composition 7. Which component of physical fitness does stretching improve? a. cardiorespiratory fitness b. flexibility c. body composition d. blood insulin levels Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 17 of 23 8. Which of the following activities would have the biggest positive impact on a person's cardiorespiratory fitness? a. weightlifting b. yoga c. walking d. push-ups 9. Which of the following components of physical fitness is MOST enhanced by sit-ups? a. cardiorespiratory fitness b. musculoskeletal fitness c. flexibility d. body composition 10. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of physical activity? a. promotes a healthy body composition and body weight b. reduces risk of bone, muscle, and joint injuries c. reduces risk of type 2 diabetes d. increases longevity 11. The Institute of Medicine recommends a minimum of how many minutes of physical activity each day for adults to optimize health? a. 15 b. 30 c. 45 d. 60 12. According to the Surgeon General's report, to maintain a general level of health, a person should a. exercise at least 60 minutes each day. b. achieve 20 to 30 minutes of continuous activity every day. c. get 30 minutes of high-intensity exercise each day. d. accumulate at least 30 minutes of activity most days.

13. According to the 2018 Physical Activity Guidelines for Americans, the minimum amount of vigorous intensity physical activity a person should engage in weekly to gain health benefits is a. 30 minutes. b. 55 minutes. c. 75 minutes. d. 150 minutes.

14. Which of the following is considered moderate physical activity? a. washing dishes b. gardening c. typing on the computer d. strolling for five minutes 15. What is the minimum amount of moderate-intensity physical activity a person should engage in every week to gain Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 17 of 23 health benefits? a. 30 minutes b. 55 minutes c. 150 minutes d. 240 minutes 16. What is the specificity principle? a. a physical activity program designed to meet an individual's personal fitness goal b. a physical activity program designed to target a specific part of the body c. a physical activity program designed based on a person's age d. a physical activity program designed to support a specific diet 17. Which of the following is NOT an intrinsic factor to motivate someone to be active? a. the desire to gain competence b. the desire to be challenged c. self-efficacy d. the desire to improve appearance 18. Which of the following is an example of extrinsic factor to motivate someone to be active? a. the desire to gain competence b. the desire to be challenged c. the desire to avoid feeling of guilt and shame d. self-efficacy 19. Training more than six days per week a. substantially increases the chances of injury. b. will maximize fitness in the shortest time. c. produces double the fitness of training three days per week. d. is necessary only for competitive athletes.

20. What is meant by the overload principle? a. subjecting the body to inappropriately high stress b. stretching a muscle group beyond the joint's healthy range of motion c. improving fitness by placing extra physical demands on the body d. complete depletion of the body's glycogen 21. The acronym FITT stands for a. fatigue, intensity, temperature, and training. b. frequency, intensity, time, and type of activity. c. flexibility, increase, timetable, and training. d. fitness, increase, test, and time.

22. The FITT principle suggests that the optimal frequency of physical activity to achieve cardiorespiratory fitness is a. 7 days a week.

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sn5t_sakai 17 of 23 b. 3 to 6 days a week. c. 2 to 5 days per week. d. 2 to 3 days per week.

23. The formula "220 minus age" a. represents the lower threshold for an optimal training heart rate. b. should be used only by athletes as their training heart rate. c. is a rough estimate of your maximal heart rate. d. represents the target heart rate for effective cardiorespiratory training.

24. Muscle atrophy results from a. disuse. b. progressive overload. c. cellular damage. d. regular exercise.

25. The goal of the pre-exercise warm-up is a. increased muscle temperature. b. muscle fatigue. c. glycogen depletion. d. breakdown of muscle fiber to promote muscle growth.

26. To achieve muscular fitness, it is recommended that training should occur a. daily. b. 2 to 3 days a week. c. 3 to 5 days a week. d. more than 5 days a week.

27. Measurement of which of the following is traditionally used to evaluate the level of intensity of aerobic activity? a. heart rate/pulse b. blood glucose level c. blood pressure d. distance traveled per unit of time (e.g., steps per hour) 28. The most accurate way to precisely determine your maximal heart rate is to complete a a. marathon. b. respiratory test. c. maximal exercise test. d. cardiac stress test.

29. For older adults and previously inactive individuals, exercise intensity should fall closer to what percentage of the maximal heart rate? a. 15% b. 50% Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 17 of 23 c. 80% d. 90% 30. In the metabolic pathways that result in ATP production during exercise, fatty acids are predominantly metabolized via which of the following pathways? a. aerobic b. anaerobic c. aerobic and anaerobic d. catabolic 31. In which of the following types of exercise would creatine phosphate (CP) be an important source of energy? a. running a 10-kilometer road race b. 3-mile mountain bike ride with 2000-feet elevation gain c. 1-mile open water swim d. sprinting in the 100-meter race 32. The primary end product of glycolysis is a. adenosine triphosphate (ATP). b. creatine phosphate (CP). c. lactic acid. d. pyruvate.

33. The amount of ATP stored in a muscle cell will fuel the muscle's activity for a. less than a second. b. no more than 3 seconds. c. at least 3 minutes. d. no more than 30 minutes.

34. When oxygen is scarce, pyruvate from glycolysis is converted to a. glucose. b. ATP. c. lactic acid. d. fatty acids.

35. During anaerobic glycolysis, each molecule of glucose produces how many molecules of ATP? a. 2 b. 4 c. 36 d. 129 36. Each day Bill power-walks for 45 minutes. Which fuel source(s) provide(s) energy during this activity? a. amino acids and fatty acids b. fatty acids and glucose c. amino acids and glucose Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 17 of 23 d. glucose only 37. Which of the following activities is fueled primarily by fat? a. hours of hiking b. sprinting c. one-hour power cycling d. short distance running 38. Which of the following BEST describes how ATP provides energy to the body's cells? a. Energy is released when a phosphate group is cleaved from the ATP molecule. b. Energy is released when two molecules of ATP combine. c. Energy is released when ATP is transported out of the cell membrane. d. Energy is released when adenosine binds to three phosphate molecules.

39. Which of the following is the term for the type of metabolism that supports physical activity lasting more than 3 minutes? a. anaerobic b. aerobic c. nitrogen d. fatty acid 40. Which is the largest energy-storage site? a. muscle glycogen b. blood glucose c. muscle protein d. body fat 41. At rest, the body's fuel source is primarily a. protein. b. carbohydrate. c. fat. d. vitamins and minerals.

42. The main disadvantage of using fat as a fuel is a. the body's limited storage capability. b. its slow metabolic breakdown. c. its low energy density. d. the limitation of anaerobic metabolism.

43. Depending on the intensity and duration of activity, amino acids may contribute no more than what percentage of the energy needed? a. 1% b. 6% c. 10% d. 20% Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 17 of 23 44. Which of the following energy sources does the body rely on during short-term activities such as sprinting and resistance training? a. fatty acids b. carbohydrates c. choline d. creatine phosphate 45. Which of the following is not a major source of fuel during exercise? a. ATP and Creatine Phosphate b. amino acids c. fat d. carbohydrates 46. Joseph plays basketball for his high school team, and he is concerned that he is not consuming enough kilocalories to support his activity. Which of the following would be the best indicator that he is not consuming adequate kilocalories? a. His performance has been impaired. b. He is losing weight. c. His blood glucose levels are low. d. His hemoglobin is low.

47. Agnes weighs 150 pounds and jogs for 30 minutes four times a week. How many grams of protein does she need daily to maintain lean body mass? a. 68 grams b. 102 grams c. 136 grams d. 150 grams 48. Grace weighs 135 pound. She consumes 2,000 kilocalories per day. What is the minimum amount of protein she should consume daily? a. 40 grams b. 50 grams c. 60 grams d. 70 grams 49. Rachel is a gymnast who consumes 2,500 kilocalories per day. What is the minimum number of kilocalories she should be consuming from carbohydrate sources? a. 1,125 kcal b. 1,376 kcal c. 1,588 kcal d. 1,625 kcal 50. The best time to replenish glycogen stores is a. the day before exercising. b. in the first few hours after exercising.

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sn5t_sakai 17 of 23 c. about 24 hours after exercising. d. a few days after exercising.

51. In which of the following events would carbohydrate loading be the MOST beneficial? a. weight lifting b. baseball game c. cross-country skiing d. 100-yard dash 52. Another name for carbohydrate loading is a. high-carbohydrate meal. b. glycogen loading. c. low-fat diet. d. protein depletion.

53. Tomas is a college junior and a competitive swimmer. Which of the following is the MOST sensible way for him to meet his high energy needs? a. by consuming 40% of his daily energy intake as fat, 30% as carbohydrate, and 30% as protein b. by consuming 2.5 g protein per kg of body weight c. by grazing d. by consuming amino acid supplements 54. Which group is MOST likely to need more protein than the current RDA? a. all competitive athletes b. recreational athletes c. athletes restricting Calories to promote fat loss d. sedentary adults 55. Which of the following best describes Dr. Barry Sears' Zone Diet for athletes? a. It is a high-carbohydrate diet moderate in fat and protein. b. It is a high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet. c. It is a vegan diet. d. It is a macrobiotic diet.

56. Which of the following is a good source of energy and dietary fiber for vigorous athletic training? a. chocolate milk b. lean meat c. yogurt and cheese d. whole grains 57. Which types of foods should athletes consume after training to enhance glycogen storage? a. foods high in monounsaturated fatty acids b. foods high in omega-6 fatty acids c. high glycemic index foods Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 17 of 23 d. low glycemic index foods 58. An athlete who alters exercise duration and carbohydrate intake to maximize muscle glycogen is practicing a. the overload principle. b. ergogenic aid. c. heat syncope. d. carbohydrate loading.

59. Lauren has just finished a cross-country skiing workout and is looking for a snack to recover her energy stores. Which of the following snacks would work best for her needs? a. wheat bran cereal with raisins and milk b. cooked white rice c. a handful of almonds d. tuna fish salad with mayonnaise 60. Carbohydrate loading maximizes the storage in skeletal muscles of what compound? a. glucose b. glycogen c. protein d. creatine phosphate 61. Lucas has been training to compete in the Boston Marathon. In the week before the race, he has incorporated carbohydrate loading as part of his training. On the third and second days before the marathon, what should his training consist of? a. rest and high carbohydrate intake b. a high-intensity run and moderate carbohydrate intake c. a light run and high carbohydrate intake d. a high-intensity run and high carbohydrate intake 62. Which of the following is a potential side effect of carbohydrate loading? a. metabolic syndrome b. diarrhea c. hypoglycemia d. night sweats 63. Which of the following conditions is the most serious? a. heat cramps b. heat stroke c. heat exhaustion d. heat syncope 64. Following an exercise, what is the recommended intake of fluid for each pound of body weight lost? a. 1 cup b. 2 cups c. 3 cups Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 17 of 23 d. 4 cups 65. Performance can be impaired by a fluid-related decrease in body weight of as little as a. 1%. b. 5%. c. 10%. d. 12%.

66. Which of the following athletes would be LEAST likely to develop iron deficiency? a. a female marathon runner b. a male distance swimmer c. a male basketball player who is a vegan d. a female gymnast 67. Some athletes believe that caffeine can enhance athletic performance but caffeinated beverages should be avoided as a source of fluid replacement because they a. decrease muscle flexibility and strength. b. increase the depletion of glycogen stores. c. may cause gastrointestinal distress. d. increase urine output and decrease fluid retention.

68. Lucia ran a 5K on a hot afternoon. A few hours later, the muscles in her legs began to spasm painfully. What condition was Lucia MOST likely experiencing? a. exercise-induced hypotension b. a seizure c. edema d. heat cramps 69. Which of the following is a result of the impact on the feet of endurance running? a. loss of iron b. build-up of calcium deposits c. an increased risk for osteoporosis d. sports anemia 70. Annie has been running on a treadmill for 40 minutes in an air-conditioned gym. Cathy has been running on paved roads for 40 minutes in high heat and humidity. Which of the following is TRUE? a. Cathy's body is losing more calcium than Annie's body. b. Both Annie and Cathy should replace their fluids throughout their workout with carbonated water. c. Annie's environment promotes evaporative cooling, but Cathy's environment does not. d. Both Annie and Cathy are at high risk for heat stroke.

71. There is evidence that physically active adults may need more than the current RDA for which of the following vitamins? a. thiamin, riboflavin, and vitamin B 6 Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 17 of 23 b. niacin, biotin, and vitamin B 12 c. thiamin, niacin, and folate d. vitamin B , folate, and vitamin B 6 12 72. The process by which more blood flows towards the surface of the skin, allowing heat to be released through sweat, is known as a. carbohydrate loading. b. evaporative cooling. c. the overload principle. d. dehydration.

73. Dizziness brought on by standing too long in the heat or suddenly stopping exercising is referred to as heat a. syncope. b. cramps. c. exhaustion. d. stroke.

74. Excessive sweating accompanied by cold and clammy skin, rapid but weak pulse, weakness, nausea, dizziness, headache, and difficulty concentrating are early signs of a. hypothermia. b. heat cramps. c. heat syncope. d. heat exhaustion.

75. A muscle spasm that results from excessive sweat loss coupled with high fluid intake, low urine output, and inadequate sodium intake is known as a a. heat syncope. b. heat cramp. c. heat stroke. d. charley horse.

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sn5t_sakai 17 of 23 Answer Key 1. c 2. a 3. b 4. c 5. b 6. a 7. b 8. c 9. b 10. d 11. d 12. d 13. c 14. b 15. c 16. a 17. d 18. c 19. a 20. c 21. b 22. b 23. c 24. a 25. a Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 17 of 23 26. b 27. a 28. c 29. b 30. a 31. d 32. d 33. b 34. c 35. a 36. b 37. a 38. a 39. b 40. d 41. c 42. b 43. b 44. d 45. b 46. b 47. a 48. b 49. a 50. b 51. c Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 17 of 23 52. b 53. c 54. a 55. b 56. d 57. c 58. d 59. a 60. b 61. c 62. b 63. b 64. c 65. a 66. b 67. d 68. d 69. a 70. c 71. a 72. b 73. a 74. d 75. b

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Chapter 15 Name:

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sn5t_sakai 19 of 23

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Microorganisms are termed "pathogenic" when they a. are capable of causing disease. b. mutate into other forms. c. have died. d. have multiplied rapidly.

2. According to the CDC, approximately how many Americans report experiencing foodborne illness each year? a. 8 million b. 24 million c. 48 million d. 84 million 3. Which of the following statements about foodborne illness is TRUE? a. The effects of foodborne illness are less severe in young children as compared to teens, as they have a reduced immune response. b. Each year, approximately 48 thousand Americans experience foodborne illness. c. The human immune system is unable to defend effectively against most cases of foodborne illness, and a visit to the individual's healthcare provider is usually necessary. d. Foodborne illness includes disorders that result from consumption of food contaminated with toxic metals such as mercury.

4. The group NOT among those at greatest risk for serious foodborne illness is a. people who are very old. b. women who are breastfeeding. c. fetuses, infants, and young children. d. people who have received an organ transplant.

5. How many people die of foodborne illness each year? a. 1,000 b. 2,000 c. 3,000 d. 5,000 6. Federal oversight of food safety a. is primarily the responsibility of the Environmental Protection Agency. b. is coordinated by a robust Food Safety Working Group, which has been meeting at least quarterly since 2011. c. is fragmented among over a dozen federal agencies. d. has reduced by half the incidence of foodborne illness from six major bacterial culprits since 2011.

7. Food contamination a. can occur only before produce was originally harvested. b. is most likely to occur during the processing stage. c. is unlikely to result from retail environments such as grocery stores and restaurants.

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sn5t_sakai 19 of 23 d. can occur at any point in the food production, retail, and preparation process.

8. Many contaminants are killed within our bodies by our own a. red blood cells. b. enzymes and acids. c. antibodies. d. willpower.

9. Which of the following government agency does not regulate food safety? a. U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) b. U.S. Food and Drug Administration c. Environmental Protection Agency d. Department of Health and Human Services 10. Which of the following statements BEST describes what food intoxication results from? a. consuming food that contains living microorganisms b. overcooking food c. adding alcohol to food d. consuming food in which microbes have secreted toxins 11. Most food infections are caused by a. parasites. b. viruses. c. bacteria. d. fungi.

12. The leading cause of foodborne infection in the United States is a. E. coli. b. Salmonella. c. Giardia. d. norovirus.

13. Viruses a. are metabolically independent. b. are living cells. c. survive by infecting and reproducing within living cells. d. are larger than bacteria.

14. Which of the following is not a way for virus to be transmitted? a. contact with an infected person b. contact with an infected surface c. cell-to-cell contact d. living next to an infected person Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 19 of 23 15. The best way to prevent the spread of norovirus is a. stay away from an infected person. b. stay indoors. c. wash your hands. d. cover your mouth when you sneeze or cough.

16. Tapeworms, flukes, and roundworms are examples of a. bacteria. b. helminthes. c. viruses. d. prions.

17. One of the most common causes of waterborne illness worldwide is a. Giardia. b. Salmonella. c. flukes. d. fungi.

18. Toxins are categorized by a. how dangerous they are. b. the type of cell they bind to. c. how persistent they are. d. how they are spread.

19. Bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE) is a foodborne disease also known as a. mad cow disease. b. typhoid fever. c. Norwalk virus. d. hepatitis A. 20. Enterotoxins target the a. spine and brain stem. b. gastrointestinal system. c. cardiovascular system. d. nervous system.

21. Mad cow disease is caused by a. bacteria. b. a virus. c. a parasite. d. prions.

22. The second leading cause of foodborne illness and the microorganism responsible for the most deaths related to foodborne illness is a. E. coli.

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sn5t_sakai 19 of 23 b. Salmonella. c. Listeria. d. norovirus.

23. Green potatoes are toxic because a. the green pigment, called chlorophyll, is toxic. b. bacterial microorganisms have had an opportunity to replicate beneath their skin. c. a plant toxin called solanine has developed during the greening process. d. they have become contaminated with parasitic algae.

24. Foods MOST commonly affected by Salmonella are a. dried foods. b. eggs and poultry. c. untreated water. d. leftovers.

25. The four factors affecting the survival and reproduction of food microorganisms are temperature, humidity, acidity, and a. light. b. space. c. time. d. oxygen content.

26. The temperature "danger zone" at which microorganisms thrive in food is a. below 40°F. b. 40-140°F. c. 70-170°F. d. 90-190°F. 27. Which of the following is the BEST example of a natural food barrier? a. an egg shell b. an egg yolk c. a layer of cream on top of milk d. fat embedded within meat 28. Norovirus is so common and contagious that it's frequently referred to as the a. common cold. b. tremors. c. stomach flu. d. curse.

29. The three common types of fungi are molds, mushrooms, and a. spongiforms. b. yeasts.

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sn5t_sakai 19 of 23 c. prions. d. protozoa.

30. Which of the following is BEST protected against replication of foodborne bacteria? a. raw ground beef on the grocery store shelf b. raw ground beef in your freezer c. raw ground beef in your refrigerator d. raw ground beef on your countertop 31. An infectious protein is a(n) a. prion. b. helminth. c. protozoa. d. fungi.

32. Mushrooms are MOST associated with a. bacterial toxins. b. protozoa. c. fungal toxins. d. toxic algae.

33. The two primary types of toxins associated with foodborne illness are neurotoxins and a. hemotoxins. b. enterotoxins. c. cytotoxins. d. biotoxins.

34. To protect yourself from foodborne illness, which is the BEST water temperature to wash your hands in? a. hot b. warm c. cool d. cold 35. How long does proper handwashing take to prevent the spread of pathogens? a. 1 minute b. 20 seconds c. 10 seconds d. 2 minutes 36. One of the easiest and most effective ways to prevent foodborne illnesses is to a. consistently wash hands before and after handling food. b. buy meats and produce only from well-known, reliable retail outlets. c. check food's smell, color, and appearance before purchasing it. d. avoid eating away from home.

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sn5t_sakai 19 of 23 37. Using separate cutting boards for meats and produce is an example of which foodborne illness-prevention strategy? a. Contain molds. b. Keep cold foods cold and hot foods hot. c. Clean. d. Don't cross-contaminate.

38. The standard rule for dealing with leftovers at home is to a. refrigerate cold and lukewarm foods promptly, but let hot foods cool down gradually on their own. b. eat only what is cooked for the meal and throw leftovers away. c. refrigerate all foods within two hours of serving. d. freeze leftovers, as there is no safe level of refrigeration.

39. Poultry should be cooked to the minimum temperature of a. 145 degree. b. 160 degree. c. 165 degree. d. 185 degree.

40. Julie is planning dinners for the coming week. She has some uncooked hamburger meat in the refrigerator that she brought home from the store today. How long does she optimally have to store that meat before its ideal preservation period in the refrigerator expires? a. one to two days b. three to four days c. up to six days d. one day only 41. The most ancient methods of food preservation all relied on a. drawing water out of the plant or animal cells. b. changing the molecular structure of foods. c. heating techniques. d. very brief preservation periods.

42. The average shelf life for most canned foods is at least a. six months. b. four years. c. ten weeks. d. two years.

43. Which of the following food preservation methods destroys microorganisms by exposing foods to very high heat for a brief period of time? a. irradiation b. aseptic packaging c. smoking d. pasteurization Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 19 of 23 44. The process that uses gamma rays to eliminate harmful bacteria in foods is called a. irradiation. b. aseptic packaging. c. high-pressure processing. d. pasteurization.

45. A form of food sterilization that replaces the oxygen in a container of food with inert gas is called a. aseptic packaging. b. high-pressure processing. c. pasteurization. d. modified atmospheric packaging.

46. Yellow dye #5, monosodium glutamate, and lecithin are all examples of a. additives. b. pesticides. c. preservatives. d. genetically modified organisms.

47. The GRAS list stands for a. Genetically Reliable and Stable. b. Generally Recognized as Safe. c. Government Rated and Secure. d. Grown Regionally as a Staple.

48. Two food additives that have raised health concerns are sulfites and a. humectants. b. stabilizers. c. propionic acids. d. nitrites.

49. In 2015, the FDA announced that which of the following food ingredients is NOT GRAS? a. high fructose corn syrup b. tartrazine c. monosodium glutamate d. partially hydrogenated oils 50. Which of the following describes the Delaney Clause? a. government regulation that prohibits the use in foods of compounds that have been shown to cause cancer in animals or humans b. government recommendation that all predatory fish be tested for mercury before being sold to the consumer c. the establishment of a system in which the FDA investigates consumer, physician, and food company complaints about additives d. pending legislation to ban irradiation as a method of food preservation 51. Which of the following additives help keep fats evenly dispersed within foods?

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sn5t_sakai 19 of 23 a. humectants b. emulsifiers c. stabilizers d. desiccants 52. Natural or synthetic chemicals put into foods to enhance appearance, palatability, and/or quality are called a. additives. b. preservatives. c. contaminants. d. enhancements.

53. Agents added to foods to give them "body" and help maintain a desired texture or color are BEST known as a. texturizers. b. emulsifiers. c. stabilizers. d. humectants.

54. The process of genetic modification involves a. preserving organisms until they can be treated to render them harmless. b. altering the DNA of an organism to bring about specific changes in its seeds or offspring. c. distinguishing harmful microorganisms from harmless ones. d. treating organisms with radiation and then combining or breeding them for desired effects.

55. In recombinant DNA technology, after a gene that expresses a desired trait is identified and extracted, that gene is a. manipulated in a laboratory to cause it to assemble the desired protein. b. implanted into a target organism, such as a corn seedling, that lacks this gene. c. combined with the DNA of a host cell, usually a microorganism, which is then cultured. d. copied using 3D printing technology and shipped to genetic libraries worldwide.

56. In the United States, the primary reason that crops are genetically modified is to a. increase their nutrient density. b. confer resistance to drought. c. confer resistance to herbicides. d. increase their fiber content.

57. HT GMOs are a. high-tech genetically modified organisms. b. high-threshold genetically modified organisms. c. heat-treated genetically modified organisms. d. herbicide-tolerant genetically modified organisms.

58. Which human organ system is MOST affected by toxic levels of mercury? a. nervous b. renal Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 19 of 23 c. cardiovascular d. digestive 59. Persistent organic pollutants consumed as food residues may act on the body as a. antioxidants. b. diuretics. c. carcinogens. d. methyl donors.

60. Persistent organic pollutants are a. also known as food residues. b. chemicals that are released as a result of human activity into the environment and emit ionizing radiation as they decompose. c. harmful, highly stable chemicals that are released as a result of human activity into the environment. d. a family of chemicals used to decrease crop destruction and losses.

61. Which of the following is the BEST example of a persistent organic pollutant (POP)? a. lead b. GMO c. sulfite d. coal tar 62. Pesticides are chemicals a. added to food to enhance them in multiple ways. b. added to food that help prevent microbial spoilage and enzymatic deterioration. c. used on crops to decrease destruction caused by weeds, animals, insects, and fungi. d. produced by microorganisms that harm tissue and elicit an immune response.

63. A concern related to the health effects of persistent organic pollutants is that they act as endocrine disruptors, chemicals that a. mimic hormones, block their binding sites, or alter their synthesis and metabolism. b. gradually destroy hormone-secreting endocrine tissues throughout the body. c. cause nerve damage and cancer. d. increase the consumer's risk for type 1 diabetes, hypothyroidism, and other endocrine disorders.

64. Why is recombinant bovine growth hormone (rBGH) administered to U.S. dairy cows? a. to prevent the growth of microbes in the cows' milk b. to improve the nutritional quality of the cows' milk c. to strengthen the cows' immune systems d. to increase milk output 65. Which of the following seafood is likely to have the lowest level of methylmercury? a. shark b. king mackerel c. swordfish Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 19 of 23 d. salmon 66. The BEST way you can reduce your risk of exposure to plasticizers is by a. trimming the fat off of meats and removing the skin from poultry before cooking. b. choosing glass, porcelain, or stainless-steel containers for foods and beverages. c. avoiding purchasing take-out pizza, fast food, or microwave popcorn. d. buying organic foods whenever possible.

67. The BEST way you can reduce your risk of exposure to dioxins is by a. alternating the days you consume meat, milk, and cheese. b. switching from nonfat milk to full fat milk and from plant oils to butter. c. eating vegetarian and vegan meals more often. d. buying foods only from alternative groceries or co-ops.

68. For foods to be labeled as "Organic" and bear the USDA organic seal, they must contain at least what percentage of organically produced ingredients? a. at least 50% b. at least 70% c. at least 95% d. 100% 69. Which government agency regulates organic farming standards in the United States? a. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) b. United States Department of Agriculture (USDA) c. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) d. Centers for Disease Control (CDC)

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sn5t_sakai 19 of 23 Answer Key 1. a 2. c 3. d 4. b 5. c 6. c 7. d 8. b 9. d 10. d 11. b 12. d 13. c 14. d 15. c 16. b 17. a 18. b 19. a 20. b 21. d 22. b 23. c 24. b 25. d Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 19 of 23 26. b 27. a 28. c 29. b 30. b 31. a 32. c 33. b 34. b 35. b 36. a 37. d 38. c 39. c 40. a 41. a 42. d 43. d 44. a 45. d 46. a 47. b 48. d 49. d 50. a 51. b Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 19 of 23 52. a 53. c 54. b 55. c 56. c 57. d 58. a 59. c 60. c 61. a 62. c 63. a 64. d 65. d 66. b 67. c 68. c 69. b

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Chapter 16 Name:

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sn5t_sakai 20 of 23

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. The average life expectance in the wealthiest U.S. counties is a. 85 years for women and 81 years for men. b. 78 years for women and 85 years for men. c. 81 years for women and 85 years for men. d. 85 years for women and 78 years for men.

2. Worldwide, about how many people experience hunger? a. nearly 80 million b. about 395 million c. about 815 million d. about 1 billion 3. Hunger is most prevalent in a. sub-Saharan Africa. b. China. c. the Middle East. d. Southeast Asia.

4. Unreliable access to a sufficient supply of nourishing food is called a. malnutrition. b. food insecurity. c. undernourishment. d. food poverty.

5. In 2016, approximately what percentage of U.S. households experienced food insecurity? a. 2.2% b. 5.4% c. 9.3% d. 12.3% 6. What percentage of all U.S. children experience very low food security? a. 1% b. 2% c. 10% d. 20% 7. Which of the following U.S. population groups is MOST likely to be food insecure? a. Asian Americans living in the Northeast b. Hispanic Americans living in the South c. college students with an income at 285% of the official poverty threshold d. retired couples with an income at 385% of the official poverty threshold 8. Severe food shortages affecting a large percentage of a population within a given area at a particular time is known as a Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 20 of 23 a. food/population imbalance. b. famine. c. natural disaster. d. nutrition paradox.

9. Which of the following events contributes the greatest to the number of people chronically undernourished worldwide? a. pest infestations b. wars c. tsunamis d. plant diseases 10. Which population is MOST likely to experience hunger as a result of culturally based patterns of food distribution? a. men b. boys c. girls d. tribal officials 11. Worldwide, the major cause of undernutrition is a. overpopulation. b. diseases (such as AIDS). c. poor farming practices. d. unequal distribution of food.

12. Currently, the world's population is a. about 700 million. b. about 2 billion. c. about 7.5 billion. d. about 12 billion.

13. When resources are insufficient to support the number of people living in a given area, that area is called a. famished. b. overpopulated. c. transitioning. d. malnourished.

14. Which of the following is the strategy MOST likely to improve an area's food/population ratio? a. Decrease the import of foods into the area. b. Increase the birthrates. c. Improve the education of boys and men. d. Improve the education of girls and women.

15. Crops grown with the intention to be sold rather than consumed as food are known as a. cash crops. b. profit crops.

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sn5t_sakai 20 of 23 c. subsistence crops. d. displacement crops.

16. Paved roads, a reliable supply of electricity, and methods of water management are examples of a. governmental resources. b. infrastructure. c. agricultural techniques. d. natural resources.

17. A primary way that HIV infection contributes to global hunger is by a. causing the disability or death of young adults who are the primary wage earners in a family. b. causing the disability or death of infants and young children who are the family's future wage earners. c. disqualifying families affected by AIDS from local food distribution programs. d. forcing older adults to return to the workforce.

18. The increase in temperature that has occurred near the Earth's surface over the past century is known as a. thermal instability. b. global thermogenesis. c. global warming. d. climate change.

19. The extremely high level of snowfall experienced in New England during the early months of 2015 is an example of a. global warming. b. climate change. c. a precipitation extreme that may or may not be due to climate change. d. inadequate municipal planning.

20. The condition of extreme energy deficit, causing tissue wasting, is known as a. pellagra. b. kwashiorkor. c. severe acute malnutrition (SAM). d. marasmus.

21. Wasting is a condition characterized by a. decreased Caloric intake. b. short-stature-for-age. c. extreme thinness. d. nutrient overload.

22. Infant mortality is defined as the death of a. a fetus before birth. b. newborns between birth and 28 days of age. c. infants between birth and 1 year of age. d. any child before age 3.

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sn5t_sakai 20 of 23 23. In impoverished countries, which of the following micronutrient deficiency is not a major public health concern? a. iron b. vitamin C c. iodine d. vitamin A 24. Scurvy, pellagra, goiter, rickets, and night blindness are all a. treatable with vitamin A supplementation. b. micronutrient deficiency diseases. c. linked to poor carbohydrate consumption. d. conditions that disproportionately affect children.

25. Which sequence below BEST describes the vicious cycle of malnutrition? a. infection, malnutrition, wasting, death b. disease, infection, malnutrition, susceptibility to additional diseases c. relative health, infection, worsening health, poverty, malnutrition d. malnutrition, infection, worsening malnutrition, increased vulnerability to infections 26. The MOST common micronutrient deficiency in the world is a. sodium. b. iron. c. selenium. d. calcium.

27. The leading cause of blindness in children is a. vitamin A deficiency. b. vitamin C deficiency. c. iodine deficiency. d. iron deficiency.

28. The leading cause of preventable mental impairment worldwide is a. vitamin A deficiency. b. vitamin C deficiency. c. iodine deficiency. d. iron deficiency.

29. The three micronutrient deficiencies of greatest concern in impoverished countries are a. calcium, iron, and folate. b. folate, vitamin A, and iodine. c. iron, iodine, and vitamin A. d. vitamin E, iron, and calcium.

30. In numerous developing countries, the distribution of what type of supplements has contributed to a nearly 23% reduction in childhood mortality? a. protein powders Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 20 of 23 b. powdered infant formula c. iron supplements d. vitamin A supplements 31. An adult who was undernourished as a child and short due to growth stunt is now experiencing rapid weight gain as the family is transitioning out of poverty is an example of a. poverty-obesity paradox. b. nutrition paradox. c. fetal origins theory. d. double-burden of malnutrition.

32. The premise that fetal undernourishment increases susceptibility later in life to obesity and chronic disease is known as a. the nutrition paradox. b. the overnutrition dilemma. c. the fetal origins theory. d. the poverty-obesity paradox.

33. Mariela was raised in such extreme poverty that undernourishment stunted her growth. Now, as an adult, she is able to afford adequate food, and is in fact obese. This situation is referred to as the a. nutrition paradox. b. overnutrition dilemma. c. fetal origins theory. d. poverty-obesity paradox.

34. Which of the following factors BEST characterize a transitioning region in which the nutrition paradox is common? a. increased availability of and preference for foods high in added sugars b. decreased reliance on carbohydrates combined with increased reliance on protein c. increased physical activity combined with decreased availability of staple foods d. decreased physical activity combined with increased intake of energy-dense food 35. Studies following children over time have found that a reduction in family income in early childhood a. increases the child's risk for undernourishment. b. increases the likelihood that an overweight or obese child will lose weight. c. increases the child's risk for overweight and obesity. d. decreases the child's risk for overweight and obesity.

36. Between 1980 and 2014, the worldwide prevalence of obesity a. stayed about the same. b. increased by 50%. c. doubled. d. tripled.

37. All of the following factors are theorized to contribute to the poverty-obesity paradox EXCEPT a. the increased tendency of low-income people to purchase inexpensive, energy-dense foods that have a longer Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 20 of 23 shelf life. b. the increased tendency of low-income people to spend too much money on relatively expensive sources of protein, such as meats, poultry, and fish. c. the increased tendency of low-income people to live in regions that are not served by markets selling fresh, affordable food. d. the increased level of stress experienced by low-income people, which results in the frequent release of hormones that slow metabolism and increase appetite, and may deplete their ability to make thoughtful choices about foods.

38. Areas or regions where people lack access to fresh, healthful, and affordable food are called a. unsustainable zones. b. food deserts. c. deprivation zones. d. food islands.

39. A majority of contingent farm workers a. have healthcare insurance. b. have paid sick leave. c. are younger than 12 years of age. d. are not entitled to breaks for rest or meals mandated by law for other U.S. workers.

40. What is the largest federal program designed to make sure that all Americans have access to an adequate diet? a. Special Supplemental Nutrition Program for Women, infants, and Children (WIC) b. National School Lunch Program c. National School Breakfast Program d. Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP) 41. Which of the following employee is NOT a member of the "working poor"? a. a retail cashier b. a waiter c. a bank teller d. a fast food worker 42. Which of the following statements about American food service workers is TRUE? a. A majority of food service workers receive Medicare. b. Food service workers typically do not have paid sick leave, and so may be more likely to show up to work when they are ill with an infectious disease. c. Food service workers must be paid a minimum of $8.84 an hour. d. The fifth leading cause of the spread of norovirus is through infected food service workers.

43. Sustainability is the ability to a. produce foods organically at the cheapest cost for the greatest number of people over a sustained period of time. b. meet humanity's need for food, energy, and other resources while adequately replacing those resources. c. produce foods domestically, and import or export them as needed, under the supervision of an international Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 20 of 23 regulating body overseeing safety and security. d. meet or satisfy basic needs now and in the future without undermining the natural resource base and environmental quality.

44. Revisions in the 1960s to the federal Agricultural Adjustment Act encouraged the production of a. a wider variety of fruits, vegetables, and grains. b. single crops on a massive scale. c. genetically modified crops. d. organic crops.

45. Which of the following is an effect of the Green Revolution? a. decreased vulnerability to climate events b. increase in food diversity c. increased release of greenhouse gases d. conservation of topsoil 46. A key characteristic of the Green Revolution was the introduction of a. high-yield grain varieties. b. crop rotation. c. minimal tillage. d. local, site-specific farming methods.

47. As compared to agricultural variety, monoculture farming a. requires a lighter application of pesticides. b. requires a heavier application of fertilizers. c. decreases a region's vulnerability to food shortages during heat waves, droughts, and floods. d. is better able to provide a range of nutrients, phytochemicals, and types of dietary fiber.

48. The U.S. food industry attempts to influence our diet in all of the following ways EXCEPT by a. donating money to congressional candidates' election campaigns. b. attempting to defeat or repeal legislation to tax its products or regulate food labeling. c. lobbying FDA officials to require labeling of GMO foods. d. spending billions of dollars annually in advertising.

49. The U.S. food industry a. produces about 25% more Calories per capita per year than Americans require. b. spends nearly $1 billion a year to advertise its products. c. spends twice as much money to advertise fast food than it spends to advertise fruits and vegetables. d. must encourage Americans to overeat if it is to remain profitable.

50. The solutions critical to achieving and maintaining global food security will MOST need to be a. initiated by developed countries. b. long term and sustaining. c. developed by the most affected countries themselves.

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sn5t_sakai 20 of 23 d. short term and urgent.

51. International public health organizations encourage women to breastfeed a. in concert with formula-feeding through the first three months of the baby's life. b. only if their baby is at or above normal weight and is healthy. c. exclusively until their baby is 1 year of age. d. exclusively until their baby is 6 months of age.

52. The international Micronutrient Initiative promotes children's intakes of a. vitamins A and B , iron, and iodine.

12 b. vitamins A, D, and B , iron, and calcium.

12 c. vitamin A, folic acid, iron, zinc, and iodine. d. vitamins D and B , zinc, and calcium.

12 53. Which of the following federal programs focuses on increasing inner-city residents' access to nourishing food? a. the CDC's Healthy Corner Stores initiative b. the USDA's National School Lunch Program c. the USDA's Commodity Supplemental Food Program d. the USDA's Special Supplemental Nutrition Program for Women, Infants, and Children (WIC) 54. The development of food production techniques that preserve the environment is the goal of a. community supported agriculture. b. the slow food movement. c. the local food movement. d. sustainable agriculture.

55. Which of the following statements about farming in the U.S. is TRUE? a. In community supported agriculture, an entire neighborhood or town purchases and cultivates farmland. b. Over the past decade, the number of small farms (1 to 9 acres) in the U.S. has been stable or increased. c. Slow food is defined as locally grown food sustainably produced. d. All famers' markets in the U.S. are required by law to accept SNAP benefits for payment.

56. While shopping, Jenna decided to purchase a bag of coffee bearing the Fair Trade Certified logo. What does this mean? a. No child labor was used in growing or harvesting this coffee. b. Profits from the sale of this coffee will be redistributed equitably to the workers who produced it. c. The coffee was produced by a business that has been certified as paying workers a living wage and providing humane working conditions and is supported in using sustainable methods of production. d. The coffee was produced without the use of toxic and persistent pesticides or synthetic fertilizers, and farm workers were humanely treated and paid the equivalent of the U.S. minimum wage.

57. Two strategies for promoting "good" food are to volunteer with groups working to relieve hunger, and to a. choose foods that are healthful to you and to the environment.

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sn5t_sakai 20 of 23 b. eat lean red meat more often. c. promptly throw away spoiled food. d. "eat globally, think locally."

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sn5t_sakai 20 of 23 Answer Key 1. a 2. c 3. a 4. b 5. d 6. a 7. b 8. b 9. b 10. c 11. d 12. c 13. b 14. d 15. a 16. b 17. a 18. c 19. c 20. c 21. c 22. c 23. b 24. b 25. d Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 20 of 23 26. b 27. a 28. c 29. c 30. d 31. d 32. c 33. a 34. d 35. c 36. c 37. b 38. b 39. d 40. d 41. c 42. b 43. d 44. b 45. c 46. a 47. b 48. c 49. d 50. b 51. d Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 20 of 23 52. c 53. a 54. d 55. b 56. c 57. a

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Chapter 17 Name:

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sn5t_sakai 21 of 23

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Which of the following males is MOST likely to have normal, healthy sperm? a. a man who is normal weight and does not drink alcohol, but smokes a pack a day b. a man who is obese but does not drink alcohol or smoke c. a man who is normal weight and does not smoke, but drinks one glass of beer or wine a day d. a man who is obese and does not smoke, but occasionally engages in binge drinking 2. Women who are obese are at an increased risk for infertility due to a disorder known as a. binge-eating disorder. b. polycystic ovarian syndrome. c. night-eating syndrome. d. anovulatory cycle disorder.

3. A substance that causes a birth defect is called a a. teratogen. b. parturition. c. blastocyst. d. neural tube defect.

4. Women with a pre-pregnancy body mass index (BMI) in what range have the lowest risk for a complicated pregnancy and delivery? a. less than 18.8 b. between 19.8 and 26.0 c. between 22.5 and 39.8 d. greater than 30.0 5. The point at which the ovum becomes fertilized by the sperm is called a. implantation. b. conception. c. parturition. d. gestation.

6. At approximately day 15, when the implanted blastocyst differentiates into distinct layers of cells, the mass is called a(n) a. fetus. b. infant. c. embryo. d. placenta.

7. A full-term pregnancy lasts about how many weeks? a. 28-32 b. 36-40 c. 38-42 d. 42-44 Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 21 of 23 8. A full trimester of pregnancy lasts about how many weeks? a. 11-12 b. 13-14 c. 15-16 d. 17-18 9. Grace is pregnant and is now in week 32 of gestational period. What trimester is Grace in? a. pre-gestational b. first trimester c. second trimester d. third trimester 10. The embryo is most vulnerable to teratogens during which stage of pregnancy? a. first trimester b. second trimester c. third trimester d. Teratogens do not affect the embryo.

11. From the beginning of the third month to term, the developing conception is called a(n) a. fetus. b. embryo. c. zygote. d. blastocyst.

12. The term used to describe the period from conception to birth is a. fertilization. b. post-pregnancy. c. ovulation. d. gestation.

13. A pregnancy-specific organ formed from maternal and embryonic tissues and which exchanges nutrients, oxygen, and waste products between mother and fetus is called a. a blastocyst. b. placenta. c. amniotic fluid. d. the umbilical cord.

14. What happens to the embryo during the third month of pregnancy? a. The embryo becomes bigger. b. The embryo transitions into a fetus. c. The embryo transitions into a zygote. d. The embryo may split into two.

15. The term "neonatal" Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 21 of 23 a. refers to the first two years of life. b. refers to the mother-infant bond. c. refers to a newborn. d. is synonymous with the term "pediatric."

16. A single, fertilized human egg is referred to as a(n) a. fetus. b. blastocyst. c. zygote. d. embryo.

17. An underweight mother is MOST likely to give birth to a(n) a. low-birth-weight infant. b. large-for-gestational-age infant. c. post-term infant. d. infant with diabetes.

18. A preterm infant is one who is born a. weighing less than 5.5 lbs. b. small for gestational age. c. before 38 weeks' gestation. d. prior to the full development of the respiratory system.

19. A low-birth-weight infant will weigh a. less than 4.5 pounds. b. less than 5.5 pounds. c. less than 6.5 pounds. d. less than 7.5 pounds.

20. Recommended weight gain during pregnancy is based on the mother's pre-pregnancy weight and a. whether she is carrying a boy or a girl. b. how many children she has already had. c. whether the pregnancy involves one or multiple fetuses. d. the mother's age.

21. During the first trimester, women are advised to gain no more than a. 3-5 pounds. b. 5-10 pounds. c. 10-15 pounds. d. 15-20 pounds.

22. Gwen's BMI prior to been pregnant was 20. What is the recommended total weight that Gwen should gain during pregnancy? a. 11-20 pounds Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 21 of 23 b. 15-25 pounds c. 28-40 pounds d. 25-35 pounds 23. How many pounds lighter can a woman expect to be immediately after birth? a. 10-20 b. 3-5 c. 9-10 d. 8-9 24. Why is gaining too much weight during pregnancy or being obese prior to pregnancy risky? a. because it increases risk of low-birth-weight infant b. because it increases risk of high-birth-weight infant c. because it decreases risk of high-birth-weight infant d. because it increases risk of preterm infant 25. During the second and third trimesters, a pregnant woman's energy needs increase by about how many kilocalories (kcal) per day? a. 100-200 b. 350-450 c. 450-550 d. 750-850 26. During the first trimester it is generally recommended that pregnant women increase their daily energy intake by how many kcal? a. 100-200 b. 350-450 c. 450-550 d. zero 27. Inadequate intake of what nutrient during pregnancy is associated with neural tube defects in the fetus? a. protein b. iron c. folate d. calcium 28. The recommended protein intake during the full 9 months of pregnancy is a. 0.8 g/day per kg body weight. b. 1.1 g/day per kg body weight. c. 1.4 g/day per kg body weight. d. 2.0 g/day per kg body weight.

29. What is the recommended daily intake of protein during pregnancy for a woman who weighs 150 pounds? a. 55 grams per day b. 75 grams per day Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 21 of 23 c. 95 grams per day d. 136 grams per day 30. Which of the following fatty acids is uniquely critical to fetal neurologic and eye development? a. linoleic acid b. monounsaturated fatty acids c. docosahexaenoic acid (DHA) d. palmitic acid 31. During pregnancy, fish consumption should not exceed 12 oz. per week in order to reduce the risk for contamination with what nerve toxin? a. mercury b. lead c. arsenic d. nitrogen 32. Which of the following types of fish should be avoided during pregnancy? a. salmon b. tilapia c. king mackerel d. catfish 33. At what point during pregnancy is adequate folate the MOST important? a. prior to conception b. during the first four weeks c. during the second trimester d. during the last trimester 34. Why is adequate intake of folate especially critical during the first 8 days after conception? a. Deficiency of folate increases risk of low-birth-weight infant. b. Adequate folate is required for the formation and closure of the neural tube. c. Toxicity of folate increases risk of premature birth. d. Adequate intake of folate decreases the risk of craniofacial malformations.

35. Spina bifida and anencephaly are associated with inadequate maternal intake of what micronutrient? a. niacin b. folate c. vitamin C d. iron 36. The RDA for folate for all women capable of becoming pregnant is a. 200 µg. b. 300 µg. c. 400 µg.

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sn5t_sakai 21 of 23 d. 600 µg.

37. Macrocytic anemia results from a deficiency of a. folate or vitamin B 12. b. vitamin B or vitamin C. 6 c. vitamin B or vitamin D. 12 d. niacin or folate.

38. The RDA for calcium during pregnancy a. does not change. b. increases by 200 mg/day. c. increases by 300 mg/day. d. decreases by 200 mg/day.

39. Fetal demand for iron is highest during the a. first trimester. b. second trimester. c. third trimester. d. entire gestational period.

40. It is important for the fetus to store adequate iron during gestation because a. breast milk is low in iron. b. infant formula is low in iron. c. iron derived from breast milk and formula is poorly absorbed. d. during the first month of life, the infant is unable to store iron.

41. Which of the following statements about zinc is TRUE? a. Zinc absorption is inhibited by vitamin C. b. Zinc is critical for fetal protein synthesis, growth, and development. c. The RDA for zinc does not increase during pregnancy. d. Fresh fruits and vegetables are the best food sources of zinc.

42. The AI for fluid intake during pregnancy is a. 1 liter per day. b. 2 liters per day. c. 3 liters per day. d. 4 liters per day.

43. Nausea and vomiting during the first trimester of pregnancy is commonly referred to as a. a hangover. b. morning sickness. c. fetal distress. d. psychosomatic disorder.

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sn5t_sakai 21 of 23 44. Carla is 10 weeks pregnant. She has little appetite, but finds herself craving toothpaste. Carla is MOST likely suffering from a. fluoride deficiency. b. pica. c. morning sickness. d. primitive eating syndrome.

45. The primary cause of heartburn during pregnancy is a. increased secretion of stomach acid. b. overeating. c. intolerance to prenatal vitamins. d. relaxation of the smooth muscle tissue in the lower esophagus.

46. Which of the following is MOST closely associated with gestational diabetes? a. birth of a low-birth-weight infant b. birth of a premature infant c. increased maternal risk of experiencing a seizure d. increased maternal risk of developing type 2 diabetes 47. What approximate percentage of pregnancies in the United States are complicated by some form of hypertension? a. 1-2% b. 8% c. 13-15% d. 25% 48. A sudden increase in maternal blood pressure with the presence of swelling, rapid weight gain, and protein in the urine is characteristic of a condition called a. preeclampsia. b. eclampsia. c. gestational hypertension. d. pregnancy-induced edema.

49. The BEST recommendation for pregnant women experiencing constipation is to a. stay rested and use over-the-counter fiber supplements. b. stay rested and take an over-the-counter stimulant laxative. c. increase dietary fiber and fluid intake and keep active. d. adopt a gluten-free diet and keep active.

50. The only thing that will "cure" preeclampsia is a. birth of the infant. b. hypertensive medication. c. a low-sodium diet. d. bed rest.

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sn5t_sakai 21 of 23 51. Which of the following is NOT a significant risk factor for developing gestational diabetes? a. obesity b. BMI of 20 to 24 c. previous birth of a large-for-gestational-age baby d. 35 years of age or older 52. The BEST advice for women who are or may be pregnant to prevent birth of a baby with fetal alcohol syndrome is to a. consume no more than one alcoholic beverage per day. b. avoid distilled ("hard") liquors during pregnancy; stick to beer or wine. c. dilute mixed drinks; add fruit juice or seltzer to wine; choose "lite" beers. d. practice total alcohol abstinence.

53. Unpasteurized milk and cheeses should be avoided during pregnancy because they may be contaminated with a. Salmonella. b. mold. c. Listeria monocytogenes. d. mercury.

54. Pregnant women who follow an ovo-lacto vegetarian diet may require supplements containing a. vitamin B .

12 b. folate and dietary fiber. c. iron and zinc. d. calcium and omega-3 fatty acids.

55. Sheila, who is three months pregnant, continues to enjoy her favorite drink, a White Russian made with coffee liqueur, vodka, and cream, a few nights a week. Sheila is increasing the risk that she will give birth to a baby with what disorder? a. milk anemia b. a neural tube defect c. fetal alcohol syndrome d. colic 56. Which of the following is considered the MOST risky during pregnancy? a. consuming an ovo-lacto vegetarian diet b. engaging in vigorous aerobic activity c. using the artificial sweeteners Splenda and Stevia d. smoking 57. Which of the following botanical products is considered safe to consume in moderation during pregnancy? a. peppermint tea b. yerba mate tea c. St. John's wort infusion d. licorice root supplements 58. A generally temporary condition in which a pregnant woman produces insufficient insulin or becomes insulin resistant Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 21 of 23 is called a. pica. b. type 1 diabetes. c. spina bifida. d. gestational diabetes.

59. A dangerous, sudden increase in maternal blood pressure, swelling, and protein in the urine is characteristic of a. preeclampsia. b. gestational diabetes. c. a urinary tract infection. d. anencephaly.

60. Which of the following hormones stimulates breast milk production? a. estrogen b. prolactin c. lutein stimulating hormone d. cortisol 61. During the first six months of breastfeeding, mothers over age 19 should increase their pre-pregnancy energy intake by how many kcal/day? a. 180 b. 330 c. 450 d. 520 62. The AI for fluid intake for breastfeeding women is about a. 8 cups of beverages a day. b. 10 cups of beverages a day. c. 13 cups of beverages a day. d. 16 cups of beverages a day.

63. The stimulus needed for continued and sustained production of breast milk is a. high fluid intake by the mother. b. high protein intake by the mother. c. infant suckling or a breast pump. d. ovulation.

64. Milk that is high in fat, produced late in a nursing session, and thought to satiate an infant is termed a. hindmilk. b. colostrum. c. final milk. d. foremilk.

65. Premilk, which is rich in immune factors and protein, is also called a. prolactin.

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sn5t_sakai 21 of 23 b. colostrum. c. lactation. d. oxytocin.

66. In breastfeeding, the "let-down" hormone is called a. prolactin. b. colostrum. c. lactation. d. oxytocin.

67. Milk-producing glands in the breasts are called a. meconium. b. alveoli. c. nipples. d. milk ducts.

68. An organization that is specifically dedicated to supporting nursing mothers and encouraging breastfeeding is called a. La Leche League International. b. the World Health Organization. c. Planned Parenthood. d. the Women's Health Initiative.

69. Breastmilk a. provides a higher level of all micronutrients than infant formula. b. is lower in fat than cow's milk. c. is relatively high in cholesterol. d. is entirely sufficient to sustain an infant for the first nine months of life.

70. Which of the following claims about breast milk is FALSE? a. It provides a nursing infant both antibodies and immune cells. b. Infants who breastfeed have a lower risk of becoming overweight or obese as compared to formula-fed infants. c. HIV can be transmitted from mother to baby in breast milk. d. Stimulants such as caffeine do not pass into breast milk, but depressants such as alcohol do.

71. The growth of the human brain is most rapid during what stage of life? a. the first year b. the first three years c. the first five years d. the teen years 72. Billy is six months old. Since his birth, Billy's weight and height have been in the 90th percentile on the growth charts.

What does this tell you about Billy's growth and expected development? a. Billy is underweight and is not growing well. b. Billy is overweight and is consuming too many Calories.

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sn5t_sakai 21 of 23 c. Billy is growing consistently; he may grow to be a larger, but healthy, adult. d. Billy is growing normally; he may grow to be a smaller, but healthy, adult.

73. Audrey is now 10 months old and weighs 20 pounds. What is the recommended intake of kilocalories per day to meet her energy requirement? a. 800 kcal b. 1,000 kcal c. 1,200 kcal d. 1,500 kcal 74. Because infants' kidneys are immature, no more than 20% of their daily energy should come from a. starches. b. protein. c. sugars. d. fats.

75. Which of the following statements about the introduction of solid foods is TRUE? a. Infants are not physically ready for solid foods until they are at least six months old. b. Infants have a physiologic need for solid foods by about six months of age. c. There is evidence of physiologic harm if infants are given solid foods before six months of age. d. The ability to digest starches does not fully develop until about six months of age.

76. What tongue movement, which limits an infant's ability to accept solid foods, usually begins to recede around 4 to 5 months of age? a. spitting b. burping c. the suckling reflex d. the extrusion reflex 77. At what age are infants introduced to solid food? a. around 6 months b. around 9 months c. at 12 months d. at 18 months 78. Corn syrup and honey can be dangerous for infants because they may contain a. Salmonella. b. Clostridium botulinum spores. c. parasites. d. too much sugar.

79. The condition of relentless crying spells in infants for no clear reason is called a. pica. b. sudden infant crying syndrome. c. colic.

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sn5t_sakai 21 of 23 d. gastroesophageal reflux.

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sn5t_sakai 21 of 23 Answer Key 1. c 2. b 3. a 4. b 5. b 6. c 7. c 8. b 9. d 10. a 11. a 12. d 13. b 14. b 15. c 16. c 17. a 18. c 19. b 20. c 21. a 22. d 23. a 24. b 25. b Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 21 of 23 26. d 27. c 28. b 29. b 30. c 31. a 32. c 33. b 34. b 35. b 36. c 37. a 38. a 39. c 40. a 41. b 42. c 43. b 44. b 45. d 46. d 47. b 48. a 49. c 50. a 51. b Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 21 of 23 52. d 53. c 54. c 55. c 56. d 57. a 58. d 59. a 60. b 61. b 62. c 63. c 64. a 65. b 66. d 67. b 68. a 69. c 70. d 71. a 72. c 73. b 74. b 75. b 76. d Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 21 of 23 77. a 78. b 79. c

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Chapter 18 Name:

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sn5t_sakai 22 of 23

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. A toddler will grow about 5.5 to 7.5 inches and gain an average of a. 12 to 15 pounds. b. 9 to 11 pounds. c. 6 to 8 pounds. d. 3 to 5 pounds.

2. The transition from infancy to toddlerhood begins at what age? a. 6 months b. 1 year c. 2 years d. 3 years 3. The EER for toddlers a. is 30-40% of total energy needs. b. is 1300-1400 kcal/day. c. varies according to a toddler's age, weight, and activity. d. cannot be determined.

4. The current AMDR for fat for toddlers is a. 10-20%. b. 20-30%. c. 30-40%. d. 40-50%.

5. During the toddler years, adequate consumption of fats, especially AA and DHA, is particularly important for the development of what body system? a. digestive system b. nervous system c. skeletal system d. urinary system 6. The current RDA for protein for toddlers is a. 0.8 g/kg body weight per day. b. 1 g/kg body weight per day. c. 1.1 g/kg body weight per day. d. 2.0 g/kg body weight per day.

7. What is the recommended daily intake of protein for a toddler weighing 10 kilogram? a. 8 grams b. 11 grams c. 22 grams d. 20 grams Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 22 of 23 8. The current AMDR for carbohydrate for toddlers is a. 25-45%. b. 35-55%. c. 45-65%. d. 55-75%.

9. The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends that the intake of fruit juice for children 1 to 6 years of age be a. limited to no more than 1 cup. b. limited to no more than 6 oz. c. encouraged. d. avoided.

10. Which type of milk should NOT be given to toddlers until at least age 2? a. soy milk b. whole milk c. reduced-fat or nonfat milk d. milk with chocolate powder 11. "Priority nutrients" for children aged 2 to 4 years are calcium, iron, and a. vitamin C. b. vitamin D. c. folate. d. vitamin E. 12. The most common nutrient deficiency in young children in the U.S. and around the world is a. calcium deficiency. b. iron deficiency. c. folate deficiency. d. protein deficiency.

13. Which of the following types of foods can be added to a toddler's diet to prevent iron deficiency anemia? a. fruits b. grains c. fish d. milk 14. Consuming which nutrient at the same meal will enhance the absorption of nonheme iron? a. vitamin A b. zinc c. folate d. vitamin C 15. Which of the following is TRUE about fluid recommendations in toddlers? a. Toddlers lose more fluid from evaporation than infants.

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sn5t_sakai 22 of 23 b. The kidneys of toddlers are less efficient, causing them to lose more fluid through urine. c. Toddlers are more active than infants and thus lose more fluid through sweat. d. Toddlers will reliably drink when they are thirsty.

16. The developmental phase MOST characterized by picky eating, increased activity, developing chewing skills, and choking dangers is a. infancy. b. toddlerhood. c. childhood. d. adolescence.

17. Which of the following foods is developmentally appropriate for a toddler? a. a small slice of cheese b. hazel nuts c. cherry tomatoes d. raisins 18. A guideline regarding serving sizes for toddlers is that a. toddlers should eat 1/3 of their total daily energy requirements at each meal. b. the serving sizes listed on food labels are appropriate for toddlers. c. serving sizes for toddlers and adolescents are the same; adolescents just get more servings. d. one tablespoon of food for each year of age is a serving.

19. Nicole is four years old. What serving size of green lentils is recommended for her? a. 2 tablespoons b. 3 tablespoons c. 4 tablespoons d. 6 tablespoons 20. To better identify food allergens in toddlers, it is recommended that a. new foods are presented in combination and then individual foods are eliminated to identify the allergen. b. citrus fruits and melons should not be given together. c. at some point before the toddler's second birthday, the family have the child follow an allergy-elimination diet for at least two weeks. d. new foods should be presented one at a time and the toddler monitored for allergic reactions for a week.

21. Which of the following is a potential problem associated with a vegan diet for toddlers? a. Calcium intake may be low because of avoidance of dairy foods. b. Protein intake may be too high. c. Fiber intake may be lower than recommended. d. Calories may exceed energy expenditure.

22. Toddlers need small meals, interspersed with nutritious snacks a. twice a day. b. every 5 to 6 hours.

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sn5t_sakai 22 of 23 c. every 2 to 3 hours. d. three times a day.

23. How many children under the age of 5 are estimated to have blood lead levels that exceed the CDC limit? a. 50,000 b. 100,000 c. 500,000 d. 4 million 24. Which of the following micronutrients is commonly added to municipal water supplies to promote healthy teeth formation? a. fluoride b. iodine c. calcium d. vitamin D 25. The preschool years are BEST characterized by a. increased percentage of Calories derived from fat. b. swift and fluctuating growth rate. c. increased physical coordination and dexterity. d. increased dependence on adults.

26. As compared to the toddler years, from ages 4 through 8 the recommended values for most nutrients a. shift as the children develop. b. increase. c. remain the same. d. decrease slightly.

27. Until what age are the DRIs for boys and girls the same? a. 3 b. 5 c. 9 d. onset of puberty 28. While the preschool and school-age years are a good time to transition away from full-fat to lower-fat dairy foods, a child's diet should provide at least what percentage of Calories from fat? a. 40% b. 25% c. 15% d. 10% 29. The RDA for protein for children age 4 through 13 is a. 1.1 g/kg body weight. b. 1.0 g/kg body weight. c. 0.95 g/kg body weight.

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sn5t_sakai 22 of 23 d. 0.85 g/kg body weight.

30. What is the recommended intake of fiber for a 10-year-old consuming a 1,500 kcal per day? a. 7 grams b. 14 grams c. 21 grams d. 25 grams 31. Which of the following is the BEST potential candidate for a multivitamin/mineral supplement? a. a child who eats an ovo-lacto vegetarian diet b. a child who has asthma c. a child who is a picky eater d. a child who frequently snacks 32. What are dental caries? a. baby teeth b. cavities c. spotting on tooth enamel d. the space that is left following the natural loss of teeth in early childhood 33. Which of the following correctly describes "milk displacement"? a. the self-weaning of an infant from breast milk b. the surge in infant formula use in recent years c. the avoidance of dairy products due to the fear of allergic reactions d. the selection by children of low-nutrient beverages (such as soda) instead of milk 34. The developmental phase MOST characterized by a slow and steady rate of physical growth, increasing independence in food choices, and highly varied physical activity is a. infancy. b. toddlerhood. c. childhood. d. adolescence.

35. The American Academy of Pediatrics has stated that sweetened coffee drinks a. are healthful beverage choices for children if diluted with milk. b. are an acceptable alternative to energy drinks for children. c. should be reserved for occasional treats. d. have no place in a child's diet.

36. Which of the following factors plays a key role in improving the food choices of school-aged children? a. regular physical activity b. shared family meals c. sleep habits d. body image Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 22 of 23 37. Overall, approximately what percentage of U.S. children experience food insecurity? a. 5% b. 10% c. 15% d. 20% 38. What percentage of public schools currently participate in the National School Lunch Program (NSLP)? a. 66% b. 75% c. 85% d. 99% 39. What is the term for the condition in which a family is not able to ensure a consistent, dependable supply of safe and nutritious food for its members? a. food inhibited b. food insecure c. food challenged d. food abandoned 40. In order for a student to qualify for reduced-price or free meals under the School Breakfast and School Lunch programs, the student must be from family with income a. above 185% of the federal poverty level. b. at or below 185% of the federal poverty level. c. equal to 100% of the federal poverty level. d. twice as high as the federal poverty level.

41. The 2010 Health, Hunger-Free Kids Act requires that school lunches a. be offered free to all students. b. be free of saturated and trans fats. c. contain no more than 500 mg of sodium. d. offer both fruits and vegetables every day.

42. Growth acceleration in adolescence is primarily driven by a. increased physical activity. b. increased energy intake. c. hormonal changes. d. sleep patterns.

43. At what age do growth spurt tend to occur in adolescence boys? a. 9 to 10 years of age b. 10 to 11 years of age c. 12 to 13 years of age d. 14 to 15 years of age 44. When is adolescence typically considered to begin?

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sn5t_sakai 22 of 23 a. at the start of high school b. at age 13 for girls and age 15 for boys c. at 12 years of age for boys and girls d. at the onset of puberty 45. Menarche is another term for a. the onset of puberty. b. the onset of menstruation. c. the closure of the epiphyseal plate in long bones. d. the adolescent growth spurt.

46. The cartilage located at the end of long bones that closes when bone growth ceases is a. cortical bone. b. trabecular bone. c. pubertal cartilage. d. epiphyseal plate.

47. During adolescence, on average, teens experience a. a growth in height of about one inch each year. b. a 20-25% increase in height. c. a weight gain of about 15 to 25 pounds. d. an increase in adipose tissue but a decrease in lean body mass.

48. Girls reach nearly their full body height by a. the beginning of adolescence. b. about age 18. c. the onset of menstruation. d. about age 16.

49. Estimated Energy Requirement (EER) for adolescence is based on the following except a. age. b. weight. c. height. d. appetite.

50. The RDA for carbohydrate in adolescence is a. higher than the RDA for adults. b. the same as the RDA for adults. c. lower than the RDA for adults. d. 45-65% of total energy.

51. The RDA for calcium for adolescents age 14 to 18 is a. higher for females than for males. b. lower for adolescent males than for pregnant women.

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sn5t_sakai 22 of 23 c. 1,300 mg/day. d. easily achieved by consuming two servings of dairy or calcium-fortified products a day.

52. The developmental phase MOST characterized by rapid physical growth, changes in body composition, greater body image self-consciousness, and increasing independence is a. infancy. b. toddlerhood. c. childhood. d. adolescence.

53. ________ are likely to be deficient in an adolescent's diet. a. Sodium and selenium b. Iodine and vitamin A c. Fruits and vegetables d. Protein and zinc 54. There is some limited evidence that which of the following may be a factor contributing to adolescent acne? a. vitamin A deficiency b. a diet high in fried and other fatty foods c. a high glycemic-load diet d. alcohol abuse 55. Among adolescents, smoking is MOST associated with a. increased participation in other risky behaviors. b. increased appetite. c. elevated mood. d. overweight and obesity.

56. Obesity in children is defined as a. BMI ≥ 75th percentile. b. BMI ≥ 85th percentile. c. BMI ≥ 95th percentile. d. BMI ≥ 100th percentile.

57. Approximately what percentage of U.S. children and youth age 2 to 19 are obese? a. 7% b. 17% c. 27% d. 37% 58. Marco's BMI is 36.0, and his weight is about 125% of the 95th percentile for boys his age. Which of the following statements is TRUE? a. Marco is classified as overweight. b. Marco has class 1 obesity. c. Marco has class 2 obesity.

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sn5t_sakai 22 of 23 d. Marco has class 3 obesity.

59. About one-third of obese children a. develop fatty liver disease. b. suffer from clinical depression. c. maintain their higher weight as adults. d. have class 3 obesity.

60. Pediatric obesity is a. caused by children eating too much and getting too little physical activity. b. due to genetics. c. due to low parental education and income. d. multifactorial.

61. The Institute of Medicine recommends that children participate in at least how many minutes of aerobic physical activity and exercise each day? a. 30 b. 45 c. 60 d. 90 62. The MOST important players in a successful strategy to combat pediatric obesity are a. state and federal governments. b. physical education teachers, school nurses, and registered dietitians. c. parents and pediatricians. d. the family and the school.

63. Which of the following is not recommended for treating childhood obesity? a. skipping breakfast b. cutting back on sugary beverages c. including moderate-intensity exercise d. eating more fruits and vegetables 64. An example of vigorous-intensity aerobic activity suitable for young children is a. baseball. b. push-ups. c. jumping rope. d. hiking.

65. Stage 2 treatment for pediatric obesity includes a. lifestyle modifications and medication. b. lifestyle modifications and consultation with a Registered Dietitian Nutritionist. c. family therapy and medication. d. medication and bariatric surgery.

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sn5t_sakai 22 of 23 66. The drug metformin, which reduces blood glucose in children with type 2 diabetes, a. modestly reduces body weight in children. b. inhibits the action of lipase and thus fat absorption. c. increases resting metabolic rate and suppresses appetite. d. is FDA-approved for pediatric weight loss.

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sn5t_sakai 22 of 23 Answer Key 1. b 2. b 3. c 4. c 5. b 6. c 7. b 8. c 9. b 10. c 11. b 12. b 13. c 14. d 15. c 16. b 17. a 18. d 19. c 20. d 21. a 22. c 23. c 24. a 25. c Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 22 of 23 26. b 27. c 28. b 29. c 30. c 31. c 32. b 33. d 34. c 35. d 36. b 37. d 38. d 39. b 40. b 41. d 42. c 43. c 44. d 45. b 46. d 47. b 48. c 49. d 50. b 51. c Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 22 of 23 52. d 53. c 54. c 55. a 56. c 57. b 58. c 59. a 60. d 61. c 62. d 63. a 64. c 65. b 66. a

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Chapter 19 Name:

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sn5t_sakai 23 of 23

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. In 2015, people aged 65 and older made up about what percentage of the U.S. population? a. 5% b. 15% c. 25% d. 35% 2. It is estimated that by the year 2030, the elderly will account for about what percent of the American population? a. 5% b. 10% c. 20% d. 30% 3. Which U.S. ethnic group is growing at the fastest rate? a. Native American b. Hispanic American c. African American d. Asian American 4. The fastest growing U.S. population subgroup is a. adolescents. b. adults age 65 to 74. c. adults age 75 to 84. d. adults age 85 and older.

5. A person over the age of 100 years is referred to as a(n) a. nonagenarian. b. septuagenarian. c. octogenarian. d. centenarian.

6. Since the opening of the twentieth century, the average life expectancy in the U.S. has increased by a. just over 10 years. b. nearly 20 years. c. about 25 years. d. more than 30 years.

7. A person over the age of 110 is referred to as a(n) a. centenarian. b. supercentenarian. c. octogenarian. d. centurion.

8. The age to which the longest-living member of the species has lived is called the Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 23 of 23 a. life expectancy. b. life span. c. life time. d. life-term.

9. Currently, the human life span is a. nearly 79 years. b. 83 years. c. 100 years. d. 122 years.

10. Which of the following is not a reason why life expectancy in the U.S. has increased in the past century? a. vaccination b. better nutrition c. increase in income d. improved sanitation 11. Violet is 88 years old. She lives in an assisted living community, where she does her own shopping and housekeeping, swims, golfs, and plays tennis. She sleeps well, rarely feels ill, and takes no prescription medications. Violet is demonstrating a. delayed aging. b. health-related quality of life. c. chronologic aging. d. active senescence.

12. Oxidative stress is cited as evidence in support of the a. error theory of aging. b. programmed theory of aging. c. endocrine theory of aging. d. Hayflick theory of aging.

13. The proposed mechanism of aging known as glycosylation results in a. deposition of glucose in the brain and an increased risk for dementia. b. impaired storage of liver and muscle glycogen. c. loss of flexibility in tissue proteins. d. insulin resistance and an increased risk for type 2 diabetes.

14. Programmed theories of aging propose that a. aging follows a biologically driven time line. b. aging occurs as a result of cell and tissue damage. c. we still don't know exactly why humans age. d. the aging process follows a random sequence of physiological events.

15. Michael is a 60-year-old man who believes that he would live past the age of 95. His believe was based on the fact that both his grandparents were over the age of 95 before they died. Michael's father is 82 years old and still alive and Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 23 of 23 well. Michael's believe about his life expectancy is based on a. error theories of aging. b. glycosylation of aging. c. programmed theories of aging. d. biologic aging.

16. The gene that prolongs life span in certain laboratory animals is dubbed the a. I'm Still Here gene. b. immortality gene. c. I'm Not Dead Yet gene. d. vampire gene.

17. Biologic age can be accelerated by which of the factors below? a. gender b. genetics c. heavy alcohol consumption d. a diet rich in fruits and vegetables 18. Smoking cigarettes increases a. chronologic age. b. biologic age. c. respiratory age. d. cardiovascular age.

19. The primary risk factor for age-related skin discoloration and thinning is a. vitamin E status. b. race/ethnicity. c. sunlight exposure. d. gender.

20. The term used to describe the age-related processes that increase risk of disability, disease, and death is a. senescence. b. pre-programmed aging. c. morbid aging. d. life span.

21. What percentage of people over the age of 80 experience loss of olfactory (odor) perception? a. 50 b. 65 c. 70 d. 75 22. An elderly man in a nursing home requires feeding assistant. At meal time, he is prone to choking and coughing with food that have mixed textures. Which of the following conditions best describes the man's symptoms? a. xerostomia Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 23 of 23 b. dysphagia c. achlorhydria d. dysgeusia 23. The condition, common in many elderly adults, of experiencing abnormal taste perception when eating is called a. dysgeusia. b. xerostomia. c. dysphagia. d. senescence.

24. Aging is often associated with dysphagia, which is the condition of a. slowing of the gastrointestinal tract. b. difficulty swallowing foods. c. abnormal taste perception. d. decrease in muscle strength.

25. Aging is often associated with xerostomia, a condition characterized by a. vision disturbances. b. dry mouth and decreased salivary production. c. decreased sense of smell. d. problems chewing.

26. Achlorhydria may lead to which of the following? a. limited absorption of minerals and certain B vitamins b. excessive absorption of minerals and certain B vitamins c. impaired digestion of the energy-yielding nutrients d. peptic ulcers 27. Age-related changes in the release of CCK and ghrelin may MOST contribute to a. sarcopenic obesity. b. achlorhydria. c. the anorexia of aging. d. constipation.

28. What percentage of older Americans has at least some level of lactose intolerance? a. 10% b. 30% c. 50% d. 70% 29. An age-related loss of muscle mass, strength, and function is known as a. senescence. b. sarcopenia. c. sarcopenic obesity.

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sn5t_sakai 23 of 23 d. the atrophy of aging.

30. A condition in which increased body weight and body fat mass coexist with inappropriately low muscle mass and strength is known as a. senescence. b. sarcopenia. c. sarcopenic obesity. d. muscle atrophy.

31. Which of the following statements is MOST characteristic of body composition changes associated with aging? a. Men experience a greater increase in percentage of body fat than women. b. In the decades between age 60 and 70, both men and women lose about 25% of their lean body mass. c. With aging, body fat storage shifts from subcutaneous stores to visceral sites. d. In a large sample of older Americans, about 85% of males and females were diagnosed with sarcopenia.

32. Bennie has Parkinson's disease, and finds milkshakes easier to drink than thin beverages such as juice and water.

Bennie probably suffers from a. dementia. b. diarrhea. c. dysgeusia. d. dysphagia.

33. "Aging gut" refers to a. an increased risk for constipation as we age. b. impairment of the accessory organs of digestion. c. reduction in the biodiversity of gut microbiota and increase in pathogenic bacteria. d. an age-related increase in gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD).

34. The AMDR for total fat for older adults is a. 5 to 20% of total energy. b. 10 to 25% of total energy. c. 15 to 30% of total energy. d. 20 to 35% of total energy.

35. A man who needed 2,500 kcal at age 20 needs how many kcal daily at age 70? a. 1,400 kcal b. 1,650 kcal c. 2,000 kcal d. 2,500 kcal 36. Many researchers argue that older adults need a protein intake of up to a. 0.9 g/kg/day. b. 1.0 g/kg/day. c. 1.1 g/kg/day. d. 1.2 g/kg/day.

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sn5t_sakai 23 of 23 37. The recommended fiber intake for older adults is lower than for younger adults because a. they are likely to develop diverticular disease. b. their digestive tracts would be overwhelmed with higher fiber. c. they are at increased risk for constipation. d. they are likely to consume less energy.

38. In older adults, adequate status of which of the following micronutrients is CRITICAL to maintain the health of the immune system, cardiovascular system, musculoskeletal system, pancreas, and possibly even the brain? a. vitamin A b. folate c. vitamin D d. copper 39. Which factor below MOST increases the need for supplemental vitamin D? a. sunscreen use b. excessive sun exposure c. vegetarian diet d. use of calcium supplements 40. Iron needs in elderly women decrease due to reduced muscle mass and a. decreased sun exposure. b. the cessation of menstruation. c. the onset of dementia. d. reduced vision capacity.

41. The AI for fluids a. increases with age. b. is the same for all adults regardless of age. c. decreases with age. d. fluctuates in the elderly as a consequence of shifting health status.

42. For which of the following micronutrients does absorption increase with age? a. iron b. calcium c. vitamin B 12 d. vitamin A 43. Which of the following is TRUE about multi-vitamin/multi-mineral (MVMM) supplements for older adults? a. Because of the physiologic changes of aging, the Institute of Medicine recommends that all older adults take an MVMM supplement. b. Many healthcare providers recommend an MVMM supplement for older adults, unless the older adult suffers from depression or dementia. c. Many healthcare providers recommend an MVMM supplement for older adults, as well as a single-nutrient Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 23 of 23 supplement for vitamin B12. d. Many healthcare providers recommend an MVMM supplement for older adults, as well as a high-potency single-nutrient supplement for vitamin C. 44. Mortality rates are higher in older adults who are a. underweight. b. normal weight. c. overweight. d. dieting.

45. Which item below is NOT one of the "nine Ds" of geriatric weight loss? a. depression b. delirium c. dysgeusia d. dysphagia 46. Onset of osteoporosis in men usually happens later in life compared to women because a. men typically have higher peak bone density. b. testosterone levels do not decline until men are in their 70s and 80s. c. older men live longer than older women. d. men's biologic age increases more rapidly.

47. Which of the factors listed below is the MOST likely source of constipation problems in elderly adults? a. dementia b. immobility c. weight loss d. weight gain 48. A "wear-and-tear" disease of the joints that is common in older adults, especially those who are overweight, is a. osteoporosis. b. osteoarthritis. c. rheumatoid arthritis. d. Parkinson's disease.

49. Which of the following foods would be suitable for an older adult with constipation and dental problems? a. raw carrot sticks b. a bagel and cream cheese c. steak d. a bowl of oatmeal 50. The leading cause of blindness in the elderly in the United States is a. cataracts. b. presbyopia. c. age-related macular degeneration.

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sn5t_sakai 23 of 23 d. vitamin A deficiency.

51. Two large studies have found that supplementation with certain antioxidant nutrients and phytochemicals may a. slow the progression of osteoporosis. b. slow the progression of age-related macular degeneration and cataracts. c. halt the progression of Alzheimer's disease. d. heal pressure ulcers.

52. The most common form of dementia is a. Alzheimer's disease. b. Parkinson's disease. c. Crohn's disease. d. senescence.

53. Which of the following has been shown to reduce the risk of cognitive decline in older adults? a. low fat diet b. physical activity and fitness c. moderate consumption of alcohol d. supplementation 54. Because of a concern about increased risk for liver damage, the common painkillers ibuprofen and acetaminophen should not be taken with a. supplemental vitamin E. b. alcohol. c. antacids. d. caffeine.

55. The concurrent use of more than five medications is called a. polypharmacy. b. drug abuse. c. excessive polypharmacy. d. prescription drug syndrome.

56. Many diuretics a. disrupt the activation of vitamin D. b. increase the kidneys' excretion of sodium and potassium. c. increase the excretion of fat-soluble vitamins. d. cause weight gain.

57. The MOST common cause of food insecurity and hunger among older adults is a. unavailability of quality food. b. inability to cook. c. poverty. d. depression and withdrawal from life.

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sn5t_sakai 23 of 23 58. Which of the following older adults would be at HIGHEST risk for food insecurity? a. three Caucasian couples sharing a home together in Oregon b. an African American male living in an upscale assisted living community in Massachusetts c. a Hispanic couple living with their adult daughter in California d. a depressed widow living on her Social Security benefits in Arkansas 59. Lack of adequate transportation, language barriers, mobility restrictions, and death of a spouse are all factors that can increase an older adult's risk for a. social isolation. b. substance abuse. c. dementia. d. senescence.

60. Participation in ________ MOST improves the dietary quality and nutrient intakes of at-risk older adults. a. social clubs b. school and library outreach program c. senior center activities d. community services and nutrition assistance programs 61. Providing a favorite sweetened lemonade to ease thirst in a terminally ill patient is an example of a. cross-cultural care. b. palliative care. c. complementary and integrative care. d. elder abuse.

62. A facility that specializes in end-of-life comfort, social, and spiritual care is called a a. hospital. b. hospice facility. c. terminal unit. d. nursing home.

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sn5t_sakai 23 of 23 Answer Key 1. b 2. c 3. b 4. d 5. d 6. d 7. b 8. b 9. d 10. d 11. b 12. a 13. c 14. a 15. c 16. c 17. c 18. b 19. c 20. a 21. d 22. b 23. a 24. b 25. b Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 23 of 23 26. a 27. c 28. d 29. b 30. c 31. c 32. d 33. c 34. d 35. c 36. d 37. d 38. c 39. a 40. b 41. b 42. d 43. c 44. a 45. b 46. a 47. b 48. b 49. d 50. c 51. b Powered by Cognero

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sn5t_sakai 23 of 23 52. a 53. b 54. b 55. a 56. b 57. c 58. d 59. a 60. d 61. b 62. b

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Table of Contents 1. The Science of Nutrition: Linking Food, Function, and Health 2. Designing a Healthful Diet 3. The Human Body: Are We Really What We Eat? 4. Carbohydrates: Plant-Derived Energy Nutrients 4.5. In Depth: Alcohol 5. Lipids: Essential Energy-Supplying Nutrients 6. Proteins: Crucial Components of All Body Tissues 7. Metabolism: From Food to Life 7.5. In Depth: Vitamins and Minerals: Micronutrients with Macro Powers 8.

Nutrients Involved in Energy Metabolism

9.

Nutrients Involved in Fluid and Electrolyte Balance

10. Nutrients Involved in Antioxidant Function and Vision 10.5 In Depth: The Safety and Effectiveness of Dietary Supplements 11. Nutrients Involved in Bone Health 12. Nutrients Involved in Blood Health and Immunity 13. Achieving and Maintaining a Healthful Body Weight 14. Nutrition and Physical Activity: Keys to Good Health 14.5 In Depth: Disorders Related to Body Image, Eating, and Exercise 15. Food Safety and Technology: Protecting Our Food 16. Food Equity, Sustainability, and Quality: The Challenge of “Good” Food 17. Nutrition Through the Life Cycle: Pregnancy and the First Year of Life 18. Nutrition Through the Life Cycle: Childhood and Adolescence 19. Nutrition Through the Life Cycle: The Later Years