CHAPTER 1 1)
All of the following are examples of maintaining homeostasis except:
A) By opening and closing pores in their leaves, plants continuously exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide with the atmosphere. B) A sensor detects CO 2 levels in the blood and triggers an increase or decrease in the rate of breathing. C) Feelings of hunger and then fullness affect the length of time between meals and quantity of food you eat, keeping your weight near a "set point." D) A drop in body temperature triggers shivering which generates heat; an increase in body temperature triggers sweating which releases heat. E) A cancerous tumor continues to grow larger and then metastasizes, spreading to new areas of the body.
2)
Biodiversity in a particular ecosystem A) includes the variability of the individual genes. B) All of the choices are correct. C) is the total number of species in that ecosystem. D) impacts the function of the ecosystem in which the species live.
3)
Organisms belonging to the same _____ would be the most closely related. A) phylum B) family C) kingdom D) class E) order
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4) Tropical rain forests have many species that are found in great abundance. A study in the Brazilian rain forest found 487 tree species growing on a single hectare (2.5 acres). In the U.S. and Canada together, there are only 700 species of trees on millions of acres. In one park in a Peruvian rain forest, scientists have identified over 1,300 species of butterflies, while in all of Europe there are approximately 320 butterfly species. These findings suggest that A) rain forests are biologically more diverse than other ecosystems. B) the number of tree species and butterfly species are about the same throughout the ecosystems of the world. C) as many as 400 species a day are lost due to human activity. D) rain forests are biologically less diverse than other ecosystems on Earth. E) rain forests do not have any type of value to humans.
5) Some members of Daphnia, a water flea, have a genetic mutation that causes them to prefer warmer environments. These members reproduce and pass these genetic changes to their offspring. The next generation will occupy warmer environments not previously occupied by this species. This is an example of A) All of the choices are correct. B) irritability. C) homeostasis. D) adaptation.
6) Which of the following terms best describes a conceptual scheme in science that is strongly supported, has not yet been found incorrect, and is based on the results of many observations? A) experimental results B) a scientific model C) a scientific theory or principle D) descriptive research E) an experiment
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7)
The expected outcome of an experiment is known as A) a prediction. B) experimental results. C) an experiment. D) a scientific theory or principle. E) a scientific model.
8)
Single-celled prokaryotes A) lack a membrane-bounded nucleus. B) are classified in the domains Bacteria and Archaea. C) are found in almost all habitats. D) All of the choices are correct.
9)
What type of information does science provide for society? A) information about the natural world B) information about religious beliefs C) information about the supernatural world D) information about religious beliefs and the natural world
10) A doctor is testing the effectiveness of a new antibiotic. He gives the first group of patients a placebo, a second group receives antibiotic A, while the third group receives antibiotic B. Which of the groups is considered the control group?
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A) the group that received antibiotic B B) both groups receiving antibiotic A and B C) the group that received the placebo D) the group that received antibiotic A
11)
The selective agents for natural selection can be either abiotic or biotic. ⊚ ⊚
true false
12) Living and nonliving entities share some characteristics. Which statements are TRUE and which are FALSE about the living and nonliving components of an ecosystem?
12.1)
All living things and nonliving materials are made of cells.
⊚ ⊚
true false
12.2)
All living things and nonliving materials exhibit homeostatic controls.
⊚ ⊚
true false
12.3)
All matter, whether alive or not, is comprised of atoms.
⊚ ⊚
true false
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12.4)
Both living and nonliving entities adapt to the environment.
⊚ ⊚
true false
13) Dr. James isolated Staphylococcus aureus, a type of bacteria, from the leg wound of a ten-year-old boy. He suspected these bacteria would grow better at body temperature than room temperature (72°F), but thought that he should collect data to support his thinking. Dr. James introduced the same number of Staphylococcus bacteria into each of six test tubes containing the same type and amount of nutrient broth. Three test tubes were incubated at 98.6°F (Group 1), while three test tubes (Group 2) sat at 72°F. After 24 hours, Dr. James compared the turbidity (indicative of growth) of all six tubes and rated each on a scale of 0 - 4. 0 indicates no turbidity (no growth), while 4 indicates high turbidity (high growth). The following data were collected:
13.1) After reading the scenario, write the hypothesis that was being tested in Dr. James's experiment.
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13.2)
Would you consider this to be a controlled experiment?
13.3) Evaluate the data presented here to reach a conclusion. Would you reject or accept the null hypothesis?
13.4)
The dependent (responding) variable in this experiment is
A) the time that the test tubes were allowed to sit. B) the temperature. C) amount of initial inoculum, or number of bacteria introduced into each test tube. D) growth of bacteria, as indicated by the turbidity in the test tubes.
13.5)
The independent (experimental) variable is
A) amount of initial inoculum. B) incubation period. C) temperature. D) growth of bacteria.
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13.6) To ensure a controlled experiment, all of the following conditions (variables) should be identical in Group 1 and Group 2: A) type of bacteria, incubation period, amount of bacteria used B) temperature and amount of initial inoculum (bacteria used) C) type of bacteria, temperature, and incubation period D) degree of turbidity, incubation period, and amount of bacteria
13.7)
Choose which of the the following statements is ahypothesis for an experiment.
A) Based on observation, it is predicted that S. aureus will grow better at body temperature than at room temperature. B) Based on the data collected during the experiment, it is confirmed that S. aureus grew better at room temperature. C) S. aureus grew equally well at room temperature and atbody temperature. D) Based on the datacollected during an experiment, S. aureus growsbetter at body temperature than room temperature.
13.8) Dr. James performed another experiment. Instead of inoculating the test tubes with Staphylococcus, he used the bacterium, Streptococcus. He found that Streptococcus grew better at body temperature than at room temperature. This is a replicate of the first experiment. A) False B) True
13.9) Dr. James considers the bacteria grown at body temperature to be the control group and room temperature the experimental group. Do you agree with this reasoning?
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14)
The manner in which a scientist intends to conduct an experiment is called A) data collection and analysis. B) the experimental design. C) the conclusion. D) inductive reasoning.
15) Some biologists study the complex interactions of animals and plants in forests or prairies. Such ecology field research often produces slightly different results for different researchers. In contrast, ecology experiments that are run indoors with one organism in a terrarium usually produce results that are repeatable. What is the most likely explanation? A) The scientific method is only useful in laboratory settings. B) It is not possible to establish a control group outside of a laboratory. C) Field research is only descriptive, and descriptive research is not strictly "science." D) Fieldwork is inductive; lab work is deductive. E) It is easier to hold all but one variable constant in a laboratory.
16) Which of the following organisms are ultimately dependent on the sun as a source of energy? A) All of the choices are NOT ultimately dependent on the sun. B) An underground earthworm that avoids the sun. C) A night-blooming flower that is pollinated by night-flying bats. D) All of the choices ARE ultimately dependent on the sun. E) A cave fish that feeds on plant debris.
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17) Due to human activities, more carbon dioxide is being released into the atmosphere than is being removed. What happens to this extra carbon dioxide? Select all that apply. A) Some of the carbon dioxide stays in the atmosphere which causes surface temperature to rise. B) Approximately half of the extraneous carbon dioxide is being expelled into deep space. C) Trees and other plants have increased their rates of photosynthesis and are effectively removing most of the extraneous carbon dioxide. D) Much of the extraneous carbon dioxide is dissolved into the oceans where it is causing acidification.
18)
Living organisms are characterized by A) displaying homeostatic controls. B) evolving over time. C) All of the choices pertain to living organisms. D) adapting to the environment.
19)
A cell is to a tissue as an atom is to a A) electron. B) subatomic particle. C) population. D) molecule.
20)
Which definition best describes a population?
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A) the members of aspecies in a given area B) the interactionbetween various groups of organisms in a given environment C) the region of Earththat contains living organisms D) all of the females of a given speciesin a particular area E) the interactionbetween the organisms and their environment
21) A researcher is interested in determining the average length and weight of loblolly pine tree needles in the southeast United States. Will the data be obtained through observation or experimentation? A) experimentation B) Both observation and experimentation. C) Neither observation nor experimentation. D) observation
22) A university biology department wishes to hire a scientist to work on the relationships among the wolves, moose, trees, and physical features on an island. If you were charged with writing the job description, you should title the position A) ecosystem ecologist. B) islandzoologist. C) molecular biologist. D) organismal physiologist. E) population geneticist.
23) You are interested in the effect of increased carbon dioxide versus normal air on the growth of corn plants as well as the effect of green light versus full sunlight on the growth of corn plants. Your plan is to set up your experiment inside a greenhouse where you can control the environment. Which of the following is an aspect of the experiment that should be considered and controlled?
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A) All seedlings come from one uniform strain. B) All temperatures and available water remain the same for all plants. C) The intensity or brightness of the green light equals the intensity of the full sunlight. D) All of the choices are important considerations. E) An increase in carbon dioxide should not result in a substantial decrease of other necessary gases.
24) The control group in an experiment receives all the same treatments as the experimental group(s), except for the one variable being tested. ⊚ ⊚
true false
25) Which of the following domains contains prokaryotes that are known for living in extreme environments? A) Plantae B) Eukarya C) Archaea D) Bacteria E) Fungi
26)
Which of the following features are present at the ecosystem level? A) chemical cyclingthrough the food chain B) energy flow thatbegins at the producer level C) input of solarenergy D) complexinteractions between a variety of populations E) All are features of an ecosystem.
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27)
In the scientific method, what precedes the formation of the hypothesis? A) a prediction B) analysis of results C) experimentation D) observation
28) An earlier classification system grouped organisms by whether they inhabited the air, land, or sea. More modern classification systems such as the three-domain system are divided into class-order-family-genus-species as described in this chapter. What advantages does the more modern classification system have over the older system? A) All of the choices are correct. B) The modern classification system reflects the evolutionary relationships between organisms. C) The more modern classification system groups organisms based on similarities related to their structure and evolution. D) The modern classification system better represents the unity of life. E) The modern classification system allows for the precise organization of a multitude of species.
29) For five years, you wake up before the alarm is set to ring each morning. This leads you to conclude that all people have a built-in "alarm clock" capable of waking them up. From a science viewpoint, this conclusion
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A) is science because it is predictive of what will happen tomorrow morning. B) may not be valid because it generalizes about all people, and there may have been other variables that could awaken you without a built-in clock. C) is science because it is based on real observations. D) is scientifically valid because 5 years ×365 days is a large number of trials. E) cannot be scientifically tested because it involves human behavior.
30)
Which listing correctly indicates a sequence of increasing biological organization? A) atom, molecule, organelle, cell B) molecule, cell, organelle, atom C) organ, tissue, atom, molecule D) organelle, tissue, cell, molecule
31)
What is the best description of technology? A) Technology is the use of power to make human life easier. B) Technology is the advancement of the functionality of computers. C) Technology is the development of new tools. D) Technology is the application of scientific knowledge to the interests of humans.
32)
Which of the following concepts is NOT one of the basic theories of biology? A) All living thingshave a common ancestor and are adapted to a particular way of life. B) The internal environment of an organism stays relatively constant. C) Life may arise through spontaneous generation. D) New cells only come from preexisting cells. E) All organisms are composed of cells.
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33) Living organisms on Earth share many common characteristics. Which statements are TRUE and which are FALSE about nearly all living things?
33.1)
All living organisms are made up of cells.
⊚ ⊚
true false
33.2)
Living things must have an outside source of nutrients and energy.
⊚ ⊚
true false
33.3)
In multicellular organisms, tissues are comprised of many different types of cells.
⊚ ⊚
true false
33.4)
Only multicellular organisms need to maintain homeostasis.
⊚ ⊚
true false
33.5)
The ultimate source of energy for nearly all forms of life on Earth is water.
⊚ ⊚
true false
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34)
Arrange in order, the levels of ecological study from most inclusive to most exclusive: A) individual organism, population, community, ecosystem, biosphere B) individual organism, community, population, ecosystem, biosphere C) biosphere, ecosystem, community, population, individual organism D) ecosystem, biosphere, population, community, individual organism
35)
Choose the correct order of classification from most inclusive to most exclusive. A) Kingdom-Domain-Class-Phylum-Order-Family-Genus-Species B) Kingdom-Domain-Class-Phylum-Order-Genus-Species-Family C) Kingdom-Class-Phylum-Domain-Genus-Order-Family-Species D) Domain-Kingdom-Phylum-Class-Order-Family-Genus-Species
36) The classification system most commonly used by biologists today contains five domains. ⊚ ⊚
true false
37) Climate change is primarily due to an imbalance in the chemical cycling of the element carbon. ⊚ ⊚
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true false
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 01_14e_Mader 1) E 2) B 3) B 4) A 5) D 6) C 7) A 8) D 9) A 10) C 11) TRUE 12) Section Break 12.1) FALSE 12.2) FALSE 12.3) TRUE 12.4) FALSE 13) Section Break 13.4) D 13.5) C 13.6) A 13.7) A 13.8) A 14) B 15) E 16) D 17) [A, D] Version 1
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18) C 19) D 20) A 21) D 22) A 23) D 24) TRUE 25) C 26) E 27) D 28) A 29) B 30) A 31) D 32) C 33) Section Break 33.1) TRUE 33.2) TRUE 33.3) FALSE 33.4) FALSE 33.5) FALSE 34) C 35) D 36) FALSE 37) TRUE
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CHAPTER 2 1) This system of chemicals, , act as a buffer in the blood. If hydrogen ions are added to blood which of the following reactions would occur?
A) B)
2)
Which statement is NOT true about covalent bonds? A) A single covalent bond is drawn as a line between two atoms. B) A pair of electrons is shared between two atoms for each covalent bond. C) Covalent bonds form when an electron is completely lost or gained from an atom. D) Shared electrons allow an atom to complete its valence shell in a covalent molecule. E) A covalent molecule contains one or more covalent bonds.
3)
The mass numberrefers to the number of _____ and _____ within an element. A) protons; electrons B) protons; molecules C) electrons; neutrons D) protons; neutrons E) electrons; atoms
4) that
The blood buffer reactions described by H
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3
H
+
+ HCO
3- indicate
1
A) scientists are uncertain which direction the equation flows. B) the reaction goes back and forth in an unpredictable manner. C) the reaction can flow either direction depending on whether there is too much H + or more H + is needed. D) any reaction in one direction causes an immediate reverse reaction. E) chemicals can swing wildly from acidic to basic.
5) If the atomic number of chlorine is 17 and the mass number is 35, how many neutrons are there in the nucleus? A) 35 B) 18 C) 70 D) 17
6)
A solution with a pH of 7.0 has _____ times _____ H
+
than a solution of pH 10.
A) None of these are correct. B) 1000; more C) 30; more D) 300; less E) 1000; less
7)
Which substances are on the basic side of the pH scale?
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A) baking soda, oven cleaner, and urine B) Great Salt Lake, oven cleaner, and tears C) baking soda, oven cleaner, and human blood D) beer, vinegar, and black coffee E) tomatoes, oven cleaner,and human blood
8)
Which of the following elements would be the most reactive with other elements? A) helium, #2 B) argon, #18 C) neon, #10 D) boron, #5
9) From the below table, it is apparent that Bond Energy (kcal/mol) C-C 83 C=C 146 C-O 84 C=O 170 A) carbon forms onlysingle bonds. B) double bonds are weaker than single bonds. C) double bonds are stronger than single bonds. D) carbon bonds are the strongest bonds.
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10) What relationship can be determined from the following information: ● The radioactive isotope iodine 131 has a half-life of 8.1 days and emits 0.8 MeV (millielectronvolts) of energy. ● The radioactive isotope phosphorus 32 has a half-life of 14.3 days and emits 1.7 MeV of energy. ● The radioactive isotope phosphorus 33 has a half-life of 25.5 days and emits 0.25 MeV of energy. ● The radioactive isotope sulfur 35 has a half-life of 87.5 days and emits 0.2 MeV of energy.
A) The longer the half-life, the less energy emitted by the particles. B) Energy and half-life are not directly related. C) Radioisotopes of the same element must emit the same amount of energy in their emissions and decay at the same rate. D) The longer the half-life, the more energy emitted by the particles. E) Adjusted for time, radioisotopes emit the same amount of energy in their emissions.
11) The periodic table gives the following information about oxygen: 8 O 15.99 A scientific article that you are reading mentions oxygen-18. How is oxygen-18 different from the typical oxygen atom described in the periodic table? Select all that apply. A) Oxygen-18 has 2 additional neutrons. B) Oxygen-18 has more protons and fewer neutrons than a typical oxygen atom. C) Oxygen-18 has a full valence shell and is therefore nonreactive. D) Oxygen-18 has 10 additional protons. E) Oxygen-18 is an isotope.
12)
As a solid, water floats. This means that
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A) solid water is less dense than liquid water. B) organisms in ponds, lakes, and reservoirs can survive under the ice cover. C) the hydrogen bond arrangement differs between ice and liquid water. D) All of the choices are correct.
13)
Which statement is NOT true about subatomic particles? A) Protons are found in the nucleus. B) Electrons contain much less mass than neutrons. C) Electrons are found in orbitals around the nucleus. D) All electrons in an atom contain the same amount of energy. E) Neutrons have no electrical charge.
14) An article in a medical journal indicates that researchers have used an isotope 3H to trace a certain metabolic process. From the symbol that is given, we know this is a hydrogen isotope with A) three neutrons. B) three electrons. C) two protons and one neutron. D) one proton and two neutrons. E) three protons.
15) If an element contains eight electrons how many electrons will be placed in the second valence shell?
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A) 2 B) 5 C) 11 D) 8 E) 6
16)
Which type of covalent bond is the strongest? A) triple B) double C) All covalent bonds are equal in strength. D) single E) quadruple
17)
The characteristic way in which atoms of an element react is most related to the A) number of electrons in the innermost shell. B) number of electrons in the valence shell. C) number of neutrons in the nucleus. D) size of the nucleus.
18) Prior to prescription medications to control stomach acid and heart burn, people consumed baking soda (sodium bicarbonate) to alleviate their symptoms. To be effective, baking soda must: A) block acid production by combining with OH-. B) release water and dilute the stomach acid. C) neutralize stomach acid by combining with excess H+. D) effectively buffer stomach acid by releasing H+.
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19)
Both
18
O and
16
O are found in nature. However,
16
O is the most common. Therefore,
A) 18O has two additional electrons in its outer shell. B) these are different elements. C) oxygen atoms can have eight or 10 neutrons. D) only the common form of 16O can bond with hydrogen atoms to form H 2O. E) 18O is the form of oxygen that provides living cells with life.
20) To determine the age of fairly recent fossils and organic artifacts, it is possible to analyze the amounts of the isotopes 14C and 14N, because over time the 14C-which originated in the atmosphere-breaks down into 14N through a process known as beta decay. What net change occurred for this to happen? A) The 14C gained a proton. B) The 14C lost a proton. C) The 14C gained an electron. D) The 14C gained a neutron. E) The 14C lost an electron.
21)
Which property of water allows it stick to surfaces like glass? A) high heatcapacity B) Water is a good solvent. C) high heat ofevaporation D) adhesion E) The frozen form is less dense than the liquid form.
22) Your roommate has heartburn and you hand her a bottle of antacids. She wants you to explain how the antacids will make her feel better. What do you tell her? Version 1
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A) Antacids contain mostly water and so they neutralize the solution. B) Antacids are bases and by definition can take up OH - thereby increasing the acidity of the solution. C) Antacids are bases and can take up H + thereby reducing the acidity of the solution. D) Antacids dilute the solution, therefore lowering the pH.
23)
Which statement is NOT true about ionic bonds? A) Electrons are completely lost or gained in ion formation. B) An ionic bond occurs between positive ions and negative ions. C) A salt such as NaCl is formed by an ionic reaction. D) One atom acts as an electron donor and another atom acts as an electron acceptor. E) An ion has the same number of electrons as a nonionic atom of the same element.
24)
Which of the following substances attract water molecules? A) a nonpolar substance B) a polar substance C) an ionic substance D) All of the above will attract water molecules. E) Both polar and ionic substances.
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25)
What does this graph reveal about the heat of vaporization and the heat of fusion?
26)
An atom's atomic mass is best described as the mass of A) protons and neutrons it contains. B) the protons it contains. C) electrons in the outermost shell. D) protons and electrons it contains. E) the neutrons it contains.
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27)
Which of the following statements is NOT true about electron configurations? A) If an atom has two or more shells, the outer shell is complete with eight electrons. B) Atoms with more than eight electrons in the outer shell react by gaining electrons. C) If an atom has only one shell, it is complete with two electrons. D) If an atom has two or more shells, the octet rule applies. E) Atoms with eight electrons in the outer shell are not reactive.
28) A coastal climate is moderated primarily by which of the following properties of water? Water A) is cohesive and adhesive. B) has a high surface tension. C) is the universal solvent. D) has a high heat ofevaporation.
29)
In a water molecule,
A) unequal sharing of electrons results in a polar molecule. B) All of the choices are correct. C) the oxygen atom is more electronegative than the hydrogen atoms. D) the oxygen atom has an overall negative charge with the hydrogen atoms having an overall positive charge.
30) Is ice more or less dense than liquid water? Explain. Make sure to discuss hydrogen bonds.
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31)
How many atoms are required to form a molecule? A) at least two B) at least five C) only one D) at least four E) at least three
32)
Which of the following statements is/are true about the pH scale?
32.1) The scale indicates the relative concentrations of hydrogen and hydroxide ions in a solution. ⊚ ⊚
true false
32.2)
The scale ranges from 1 to 15.
⊚ ⊚
true false
32.3)
pH 7 has a balanced level of H
⊚ ⊚
true false
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and OH -.
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32.4) Any substance below pH 7 is considered acidic and any substance above pH 7 is considered basic or alkaline. ⊚ ⊚
true false
32.5) A change of one pH unit represents a ten-fold increase or decrease in hydroxide ion concentration. ⊚ ⊚
true false
33) The periodic table displays the following information about the element phosphorus: 15 P 30.794 Based on this information, which of the following are true statements about phosphorus? Select all that apply. A) Phosphorus has a complete valence shell. B) Phosphorus has 15 protons. C) Phosphorus will form chemical bonds with other elements. D) Phosphorus has 30.794 electrons. E) The atomic number of phosphorus is 30.794.
34)
Which term refers to the attraction of water molecules to one another? A) photolysis B) hydrolysis C) cohesion D) polarity E) adhesion
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35) All of the following are examples of damage caused by acid deposition from rain EXCEPT A) damage to marble and limestone monuments. B) leaching of aluminum from the soil into lakes which results in the formation of toxic methyl mercury from mercury in the lake sediments. C) weakens trees in the forests and kills seedlings. D) increased agricultural yields.
36)
What is the maximum number of electrons that will be in the first valence shell? A) six B) three C) two D) one E) eight
37)
The electrons are unequally shared in _____, and transferred in _____. A) CH 4;N 2 B) O 2;CH 4 C) H 2O; Na +Cl D) Na +Cl -;H 2O
38)
Which statement is NOT true about polar covalent bonds?
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A) When covalent bonds are nonpolar, the electrons are shared fairly equally between the atoms. B) Polar covalent bonds are important in the characteristics of water. C) The oxygen of a water molecule is electropositive relative to the hydrogen. D) Electrons are shared unequally in a polar covalent bond. E) The larger atom in a polar bond attracts the electron more strongly than the smaller atom.
39)
A solution with a pH of 6 has _____ times _____ OH
-
than a solution with a pH of 10.
A) 4; less B) 10,000 more C) 4000; less D) 40; more E) 10,000; less
40) Study the chart to determine the relationship between H+ concentration and pH. If you were to create a herbal remedy to decrease excess stomach acid, would you create a solution with a relatively greater or lesser number of hydrogen ions?
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41) Following nitrogen (78%) and oxygen (21%), argon is the next most common gas in the atmosphere (less than 1%). Checking the table of elements, you discover that argon is one of a family of atoms with outer shells already full of electrons. How is this related to the fact that these atoms have virtually no biological importance?
42)
A valence shell is best described as A) the outermost electron shell of an atom. B) the original energy level of electrons in photosynthesis. C) the volume of space in which electrons are most often found. D) the electron shell closest to the nucleus.
43)
Human blood has a pH of about 7.4. This is A) very acidic. B) slightly basic. C) slightly acidic. D) neutral.
44)
Which one is NOT one of the properties of water?
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A) Water has a high heat capacity. B) Water is a solvent. C) Water moderates temperature. D) Water has a high heat of evaporation. E) The frozen form is more dense than the liquid form.
45) If you place the corner of a paper towel into a droplet of water, the water moves into the paper towel. Which of the following would explain the movement of the water? A) adhesion B) Both cohesion and adhesion. C) surface tension D) cohesion
46)
Which is NOT true about the electrical charges of elements? A) An atom is neutral when the positive and negative charges balance. B) Protons carry a positive charge. C) In an atom, the number of protons and neutrons must be equal. D) Neutrons have no electrical charge.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 02_14e_Mader 1) A 2) C 3) D 4) C 5) B 6) B 7) C 8) D 9) C 10) B 11) [A, E] 12) D 13) D 14) D 15) E 16) A 17) B 18) C 19) C 20) A 21) D 22) C 23) E 24) E 26) A 27) B Version 1
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28) D 29) B 31) A 32) Section Break 32.1) TRUE 32.2) FALSE The scale ranges from 0 to 14. 32.3) TRUE 32.4) TRUE 32.5) TRUE 33) [B, C] 34) C 35) D 36) C 37) C 38) C 39) E 42) A 43) B 44) E 45) B 46) C
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CHAPTER 3 1) If an animal needed to store energy for long-term use which of the following would be the best choice? A) fat molecules B) glycogen with extensive side branches of glucose C) fructose and glucose in the form of honey D) starch E) complex cellulose molecules
2)
The alpha helix and beta sheet are found at which level of protein organization? A) tertiary structure B) primary structure C) quaternary structure D) secondary structure
3)
A dehydration reaction can also be called a(n) _____ reaction since it forms water. A) monomer formation B) isomeric C) energy-releasing D) condensation E) hydrolysis
4) Which of the following is true about the differences between organic and inorganic molecules?
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A) Organic molecules are living and inorganic molecules are nonliving. B) Organic molecules contain at least carbon and hydrogen and inorganic molecules do not. C) Organic molecules are relatively unstable and inorganic molecules are relatively stable. D) Organic molecules are held together primarily with ionic bonds and inorganic molecules are held together primarily with covalent bonds.
5)
Which carbohydrate is found in the cell walls of plants? A) glycerol B) starch C) cellulose D) glycogen E) chitin
6)
Starch is a polysaccharide that stores energy in animal cells. ⊚ ⊚
true false
7) In lab, your biology instructor has asked you to identify an unknown solution. During one of the tests you perform your sample turns light purple indicating the presence of peptide bonds. Based on this information, you determine your solution contains A) protein. B) starch. C) DNA. D) lipids. E) monosaccharides.
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8) What is the molecular formula of these molecules? How do these molecules differ? Are these the same molecule?
9) Chitin and cellulose are both carbon-based molecules that do not spontaneously decompose. What would happen if all of the chitin and cellulose decomposers were destroyed?
10)
Which carbohydrate is found in the exoskeleton of insects and crabs? A) glycerol B) glycogen C) chitin D) cellulose E) starch
11) At the molecular level, cells from different types of organisms vary in their tolerance to temperature and pH. This variation can mostly likely be attributed to Version 1
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A) ATP efficiency. B) replication of nucleic acids. C) extent of saturation of fatty acids. D) ability of the cells to form glucose polymers. E) the types of enzymes present in the cells.
12) What is the molecular formula for five glucose (C together by dehydration synthesis?
6H
12O
6) molecules bonded
A) C30H50O30 B) C 30H 52O 26 C) C 30H 60O 30 D) C30H50O26
13)
A carbon atom can form up to three single covalent bonds with other atoms. ⊚ ⊚
true false
14) How many molecules of water are used during hydrolysis to break the following polypeptide into its constituent amino acids: alanine-leucine-tryptophan-glycine-valine-alanine? A) six B) seven C) five D) one
15)
Which of the following are characteristic of carbohydrates? Select all that apply.
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A) The monomer subunits are called amino acids. B) Chitin is a carbohydrate found in the exoskeletons of crabs and other similar animals. C) Carbohydrates provide an immediate source of energy for cells. D) Starch is a carbohydrate found specifically in fungi. E) The monomer subunits are constructed primarily from carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen.
16)
Which of the following is the primary function of carbohydrates in living organisms? A) Carbohydrates are used as an immediate energy source. B) Carbohydrates store hereditary information. C) Carbohydrates are used mainly for insulation and protection. D) Carbohydrates form the basic structural framework of all cell membranes.
17) Which of the following carbohydrates would NOT be a molecule used for energy storage? A) glycogen B) All of the aboveare used for energy storage C) starch D) cellulose
18)
ATP is a nucleotide that functions in providing energy for cellular work. ⊚ ⊚
true false
19) Fish sperm is composed mostly of DNA. If we tested a sample chemically, we should find relatively high amounts of Version 1
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A) nitrogenous bases, sugar, and phosphate groups. B) amino acids and unsaturated fats. C) globular proteins and stored fats. D) phospholipids and steroids. E) triglycerides and ATP.
20)
A polysaccharide is a polymer made up of which kind of monomers? A) simple sugars B) fatty acids and glycerol C) amino acids D) alternating sugar and phosphate groups E) nucleotides
21) What term is used for molecules that have identical molecular formulas but the atoms in each molecule are arranged differently? A) isomer B) homomolecules C) isotope D) balanced E) organic
22)
Which of the following is a function of a steroid?
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A) insulation againstcold B) transmission ofgenetic information C) long term energystorage D) protective layer E) sex hormone
23) You come across an article that discusses a new drug that interferes with hydrogen bonding during protein formation. Based on your understanding of the levels of protein organization, which of the following is a probable consequence following exposure to this new drug? A) Protein folding will arrest during the formation of tertiary structure. The drug would interfere with the ability of the alpha helix or beta sheet to form the bonds necessary to fold into a globular protein. B) The polypeptide would be unable to form a quarternary structure because it would be unable to form the bonds necessary to link up with other protein molecules. C) The drug would prevent amino acids from bonding together which would in turn prevent the formation of the primary structure of the protein. D) Protein folding will arrest during the formation of secondary structure. The drug would prevent the polypeptide from forming an alpha helix or a beta sheet.
24)
Organic molecules are those that contain at least A) carbon and hydrogen. B) carbon. C) carbon and oxygen. D) carbon, oxygen, and hydrogen.
25) A strand of DNA has the following base sequence: ATTGCGAATGGCA. Construct the complementary strand of DNA.
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26)
Which of the following is NOT a function of proteins? A) transportation B) defense C) motion D) support E) storage of energy
27)
Waxes consist of a glycerol bonded to three long-chain fatty acids. ⊚ ⊚
true false
28) A polypeptide has an amino acid sequence of: alanine-leucine-tryptophan-glycine-valinealanine. This chain of amino acids is further organized into a helix that folds in and around itself to form a globular structure. The primary structure of this polypeptide is A) alpha helix. B) pleated-sheet. C) alanine-leucine-tryptophan-glycine-valine-alanine. D) globular.
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29) If a DNA molecule contains20% guanine, how much cytosine will the DNA molecule contain?
30) The feet of penguins and reindeer contain large amounts of unsaturated fatty acids. Why would these animals have these fats in their feet rather than saturated fats?
31)
A saturated fat A) is often solid atroom temperature. B) has fatty acids with no double bonds between the carbon atoms. C) is of animal origin. D) All of the choices are correct.
32)
Choose the figure that depicts polymer synthesis.
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A) Figure 1 B) Figure 2
33)
Which of these statements is NOT true about DNA? A) It forms a double helix. B) Adenine pairs with thymine and guanine pairs with cytosine. C) The sugar and phosphate groups form the backbone of the molecule. D) It is the genetic material of the cell. E) It contains the sugar ribose.
34)
Migratory birds store energy as glycogen which is lighter than fat. ⊚ ⊚
true false
35) Construct a portion of cell membrane using the typical phospholipid symbols. Indicate the location of the cytoplasm and outside of the cell. Explain how the chemical characteristics of phospholipidmolecules dictate membrane structure and cause it to be fluid in nature.
36)
Which of the following are structural carbohydrate molecules?
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A) cellulose and chitin B) glycogen and cellulose C) starch and cellulose D) glycogen and chitin E) starch and glycogen
37) Due to an increased risk of heart disease many doctors have suggested shifting our diet to include more unsaturated fats and less saturated fats.As you cook dinner tonight the recipe calls for two Tbs of oil. Which of the following would be the healthiest choice? A) lard that was leftout at room temperature B) olive or safflower oil C) melted butter D) pork fat E) All of these choices are saturated fats.
38) How do the lipids of the cell membrane and the lipids found in butter and vegetable oil differ? A) the type of glycerol molecule B) the carbon to carbon bonds C) lipids of the cell membrane are solid at body temperature whereas the lipids found in vegetable oil and butter are liquid at body temperature. D) the number of fatty acids
39) Your professor shows you a computer model of a protein and asks you to identify the highest structural level. It appears to consist of only one polypeptide chain and has a globular shape. What is your determination?
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A) The protein has quaternary structure. B) The protein has tertiary structure. C) The protein has secondary structure. D) This is not a picture of a protein. E) The protein has primary structure.
40)
What are the basic structures that make up a nucleotide? A) pentose sugar, sodium, and nitrogen-containing base B) pentose sugar, nitrate, and phosphorus-containing base C) pentose sugar, phosphate, and nitrogen-containing base D) pentose sugar, phosphate, and sulfur-containing base E) hydroxide group, phosphate, and nitrogen-containing base
41)
Which carbohydrate is used to store energy in the liver? A) chitin B) glycerol C) cellulose D) glycogen E) starch
42)
The reactivity of an organic molecule is primarily dependent upon _____ of the molecule. A) the carbon skeleton B) All of the choices are correct. C) the attached functional groups D) the isomer
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43)
Identify the following molecule:
A) carbohydrate B) amino acid C) hydrocarbon D) cholesterol E) alcohol
44)
Saturated fatty acids and unsaturated fatty acids differ in A) the number of carbon-to-carbon bonds. B) All of the choices are differences between saturated and unsaturated fatty acids. C) the consistency at room temperature. D) the number of hydrogen atoms present.
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45)
Identify this molecule:
A) hydrocarbon B) amino acid C) lipid D) alcohol E) carbohydrate
46) You come across an image of a molecule in research article about fatty acids. You notice the molecule has several double bonds in its structure. Based on your knowledge of fatty acids, you conclude that this molecule is most likely A) a saturated fatty acid. B) an unsaturated fatty acid. C) something other than a fatty acid because fatty acids don't have double bonds.
47)
Which statement below correctly describes why ATP is a high energy structure? A) ATP has three phosphate bonds, twoof whichare unstable and easily broken. B) ATP contains hydro-carbon chains that hold energy. C) ATP has three phosphate bonds that are very stable and difficult to break. D) ATP is composed of thymine which is a high energy molecule. E) ATP contains two phosphate bonds that contain high levels of energy.
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48)
Which statement is true about RNA? A) It contains the sugar deoxyribose. B) It contains adenine paired to thymine. C) One of the bases from DNA is replaced by uracil. D) It is a double-stranded molecule. E) Its nucleotides contain twice as many phosphate groups as DNA's nucleotides.
49)
If 15% of the bases in a DNA molecule are adenine, what percentage is cytosine? A) 15% B) 70% C) 35% D) 30%
50)
A triglyceride is a polymer made up of which kind of subunits? A) amino acids B) alternating sugar and phosphate groups C) glucose or modified glucose molecules D) nucleotides E) fatty acids and glycerol
51)
A hydrocarbon is hydrophobic
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A) at all times. B) only in the living cell environment. C) except when it has a polar functional group attached. D) in carbohydrates but not in lipids.
52)
A peptide bond is found in which type of biological molecule? A) nucleic acid B) lipid C) protein D) carbohydrate
53)
Which of the following structures is classified as a nucleic acid? A) RNA B) glycerol C) glucose D) cytosine E) myosin
54)
Which functional group when attached to a hydrocarbon chain will form an alcohol? A) carbonyl B) hydroxyl C) phosphate D) carboxyl E) amino
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55)
Which of the following represents a sulfhydryl group? A) C=O B) SH C) OH D) H-N-H E) 0=C-OH
56)
Which of the following protein is correctly matched with its location? A) Actin is found within the tendons. B) Hemoglobin is found within the red blood cells. C) Keratin is found within the cell membrane. D) Myosin is found within the ligaments. E) Collagen is found within the muscle cells.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 03_14e_Mader 1) A 2) D 3) D 4) B 5) C 6) FALSE 7) A 10) C 11) E 12) B 13) FALSE 14) C 15) [B, C, E] 16) A 17) D 18) TRUE 19) A 20) A 21) A 22) E 23) D 24) A 26) E 27) FALSE 28) C 31) D Version 1
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32) A 33) E 34) FALSE 36) A 37) B 38) D 39) B 40) C 41) D 42) C 43) D 44) B 45) E 46) B 47) A 48) C 49) C 50) E 51) C 52) C 53) A 54) B 55) B 56) B
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CHAPTER 4 1)
_____ are to ribosomes as lipids are to _____. A) Carbohydrates; rough endoplasmic reticulum B) Sugars; peroxisomes C) Proteins; smooth endoplasmic reticulum D) Nucleoli; lysosomes
2) Most bacteria live in a solution that is hypotonic relative to the cytoplasm of the bacteria. This means that the bacterial cell is constantly taking in water. The cell wall of a bacterium is a peptidoglycan polymer that is tightly cross-linked. This would therefore function to A) make all bacteria fairly uniform in metabolic chemistry. B) provide a rigid wall that prevents the cell from shrinking. C) provide a rigid wall that prevents the cell from swelling. D) confirm a close relationship to plant cells that have a similar structure and live in hypotonic solutions. E) regulate the flow of most molecules into and out of the bacterial cell.
3)
Chloroplasts are to _____ as _____ are to aerobic respiration. A) thylakoid membranes; matrix B) photosynthesis; mitochondria C) protein synthesis; lysosomes D) stroma; cristae
4)
Which is NOT a characteristic of mitochondria?
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A) The inner space of the mitochondrion contains a fluid matrix. B) Mitochondria contain DNA and ribosomes. C) Mitochondria havea single membrane for cellular respiration. D) Mitochondria are the site of cellular respiration. E) The folded membrane in mitochondria forms cristae.
5)
Which of the following organelles is NOT part of the endomembrane system? A) lysosomes B) endoplasmic reticulum C) mitochondria D) Golgi complex
6) Mitochondria and chloroplasts are able to reproduce independently from the division of the cell. ⊚ ⊚
true false
7) What organelle would be found in increased quantities in the liver cells of a person who abuses alcohol and / or other drugs on a regular basis?
8)
Which is NOT true about the cell theory?
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A) It states that bacteria and other small organisms can arise spontaneously. B) It is accepted today by biologists as applying to virtually all forms of life. C) It states that all organisms are composed of cells. D) It states that all cells come from preexisting cells. E) Its various parts were described by Schleiden, Schwann, and Virchow.
9)
All of the following are true statements about eukaryotic cells except: A) Eukaryotic cells contain many organelles in the cytoplasm. B) Eukaryotic cells contain membrane-bounded organelles. C) A true nucleus contains the chromosomes. D) Eukaryotic cells contain peptidoglycan in their cell walls. E) Eukaryotic cells contain mitochondria.
10)
Which is a true statement about ribosomes? A) Ribosomes are only found associated with the endoplasmic reticulum in prokaryotic
cells. B) Polyribosomes are the subunits of ribosomes. C) Ribosomal subunits leave the nucleus after being formed by the nucleolus. D) Ribosomes contain DNA and protein. E) Ribosomes are active in carbohydrate synthesis.
11) A researcher is studying the effects of anew drug on the endomembrane system. She notices the Golgi apparatus is not receiving any proteins and that it is not able toship any proteins. What part of the endomembrane system was probably affected by this new drug?
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A) nucleus B) smooth endoplasmic reticulum C) vesicles D) mitochondria E) ribosomes
12) Use figures A, B, and C to answer the following questions. Figure A is an 8-cm. cube. Figure B is eight, 4-cm cubes. Figure C is sixty-four, 2-cm cubes.
12.1) What figure has the greatest surface area (height x width x number of sides x number of cubes)? A) Figure A B) All of these arethe same. C) Figure C D) Figure B
12.2)
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A) Figure B B) Figure A C) Figure C D) All of these arethe same.
12.3) If the figures represented cells, what size cell has the greatest potential to bring nutrients in and rid itself of waste? A) The individual cells in Figure C. B) The individual cells in Figure B. C) All cells have thesame potential. D) The cell in Figure A.
12.4)
As a cell increases in size, the
A) surface-area-to-volume ratio increases. B) surface-area-to-volume ratio decreases. C) change in surface area relative to volume is unpredictable and depends on the type of cell. D) surface-area-to-volume stays the same.
13)
Mitochondria have an inner membrane system called the thylakoid membranes. ⊚ ⊚
14)
true false
According to the endosymbiosis theory _____were engulfed by larger eukaryotic cells.
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A) mitochondria B) Golgiapparatus C) ribosomes D) lysosomes
15) Which of the following is true regarding the surface area-to-volume ratio needed for cells to function properly? A) The surface area should be equal to the volume of cell in order to adequately bring nutrients in and get rid of waste. B) The surface-area-to-volume ratio changes constantly. Sometimes the surface area is greater and other times the volume is bigger. C) The volume of the cell should be larger than the surface area to ensure that all waste products are effectively removed from the cell. D) A large surface-area-to-volume ratio is needed to furnish nutrients to and expel wastes from the volume (cytoplasm).
16)
Which of the following gives rise to both lysosomes and vesicles? A) ribosomes B) Golgiapparatus C) rough endoplasmic reticula D) mitochondria
17) An amino sugar called N-acetylmuramic acid is an important building block of the cell wall of some bacteria. Penicillin prevents this amino sugar from being incorporated into the bacterial cell wall. Based on this information, select all the of the following statements that are true.
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A) Penicillin would stop the growth of active colonies of susceptible bacteria. B) Penicillin affects bacteria but not eukaryotic animal cells. C) Penicillin affects bacterial cell walls and eukaryotic plant cell walls. D) Bacterial cells that had already formed their cell walls would be unaffected.
18)
Which of the following gives rise to both lysosomes and vesicles? A) mitochondria B) ribosomes C) centrioles D) Golgi apparatus E) rough endoplasmic reticulum
19) Insulin is synthesized in significant quantities only in beta cells in the pancreas. When the beta cell is appropriately stimulated by rising blood glucose levels, insulin is secreted from the cell by exocytosis. What organelle would be responsible for the packaging and transporting the insulin out of the cell? A) lysosomes B) nucleus C) ribosomes D) centrioles E) Golgi apparatus
20)
Which cytoskeletal element is NOT correctly associated with its characteristic?
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A) Microtubules are made up of a globular protein called tubulin. B) Centrioles are found in the microtubule organizing centers of plants. C) Cilia are small extensions of membrane-surrounded microtubules. D) Flagella have a nine+ two pattern of microtubule structure. E) Basal bodies are located at the base of cilia and flagella.
21) As they flow over rotten logs, slime molds appear to lack any partitioning into individual cells; however, slime molds do become cellular when they change form to produce spores. In light of the cell theory that "all living things are composed of cells," then A) these tissues are not living because they are not cellular. B) these tissues are a bridge between nonliving and primitive living cells. C) the general concept still holds because these organisms are cellular at specific stages in their life cycle. D) this proves that a "vital force" beyond cell chemistry can give life to substances.
22) What structures enable the vesicles from the Golgi apparatus to fuse with the cell membrane? A) phospholipids B) cholesterolmolecules within the cell membrane C) secretory vesiclesthat engulf the Golgi apparatus will allow the vesicles to fuse D) membrane-associated proteins
23) Mitochondria are thought to be derived from aerobic bacteria that became part of the eukaryotic cell through endosymbiosis. ⊚ ⊚
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24) What cellular structure is responsible for synthesizing proteins based on the information in an mRNA molecule? A) lysosome B) ribosome C) Golgi body D) nucleus
25) Which of the following is NOT offered as evidence in support of the endosymbiotic theory, which proposes that eukaryotic cells have evolved as a "committee" of prokaryotic cells? A) All of the choices offer support of the endosymbiotic theory. B) The ribosomes of chloroplasts and mitochondria are similar to bacteria. C) Mitochondria and chloroplasts are similar in size and structure to some species of bacteria. D) Mitochondria and chloroplasts have their own DNA coding separate from the eukaryotic nucleus. E) Mitochondria and chloroplasts can actively break away from eukaryotic cells and live on their own.
26)
Which of the following products can be found in vacuoles? A) sugars B) water C) water-solublepigments D) All of these are found in vacuoles.
27)
The central vacuole
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A) is a reservoir for water. B) provides the plant cell with support. C) All of the choices are correct. D) stores nutrients and cellular waste products.
28) If you were to design a structure that would have the greatest potential to interact with the environment through surface area contact, would you design a structure similar to Figure A, B, or C? Explain your answer.
29)
What is the smallest unit of living matter? A) nucleus B) Golgiapparatus C) element D) atom E) cell
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30) Which of the following help direct the movement of materials or organelles throughout the cell? A) rough endoplasmic reticulum B) All of the choices are true. C) smooth endoplasmic reticulum D) cytoskeleton
31)
All cells have these two characteristics: A) have a plasma membrane and ribosomes in the cytoplasm B) contain DNA in the nucleus and have a plasma membrane C) produce a cell wall outside of the plasma membrane D) contain mitochondria and chloroplasts
32) During cellular movement which of the following filaments will be the ones that are responsible for attaching and pulling the other filaments along? A) intermediatefilaments B) myosin C) trypsin D) actin
33) DNA is housed within the nucleus, but the mRNA code needs to leave in order to be translated into a protein. How does the mRNA code leave the nucleus if the nucleus is surrounded by the nuclear envelope?
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A) A vesicle will budoff from the nuclear envelope containing the mRNA. B) The nuclearenvelope dissolves in order to allow the mRNA code to leave. C) The mRNA will be coded into a protein within the nucleus. Then the protein leaves the nucleus. D) The nuclear envelope contains pores which provide passage for the mRNA.
34)
A multicellular organism, such as a rabbit, is A) composed of one giant cell. B) composed of a variety of different cell types. C) composed of a single cell. D) composed of many cells that are all the same type.
35) Which of the following statements about bacterial anatomy are correct? Select all that apply. A) On the outside of the cell there may be fimbriae. B) The glycocalyx lies on the inside of the cell membrane. C) Inside the cell there may be plasmids. D) The cell wall is located outside of the plasma membrane. E) Inside the cell, the DNA is separated from the rest of the cell by a membrane.
36) What are the potential consequences of a genetic disorder that prevents an individual from properly forming microtubules? Select all the apply. A) The cilia located on the respiratory cells would not function correctly. B) Their cells would not be able to divide correctly during cellular division. C) Their cells would not be able to breakdown fatty acids and lipids. D) Their cells will not be able to maintain a normal cell shape.
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37) If a researcher was interested in slowing down the movement of amoebas by disrupting their cell membranes, which protein filaments should she be studying? A) intermediates B) microtubules C) actin D) myosin
38) Which of the following organelles is found in autotrophiceukaryotic cells but not heterotrophiceukaryotic cells? A) chloroplast B) ribosomes C) mitochondria D) lysosomes E) rough endoplasmic reticulum
39)
Which organelle is primarily responsible for the breakdown of lipids within the cell? A) chloroplast B) vacuole C) peroxisome D) Golgi apparatus
40)
All cells have a cell wall that regulates the passage of molecules into and out of the cell. ⊚ ⊚
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41)
Which statement is NOT true about bacteria? A) Bacteria contain membrane bound organelles. B) All bacteria are prokaryotes. C) Some are photosynthetic. D) Bacteria have a cell wall that contains peptidoglycan. E) Some are motile due to flagella.
42) Membrane-bounded vesicles that contain enzymes that break down fatty acids while producing hydrogen peroxide as a waste product are called A) vesicles. B) vacuoles. C) glyoxysomes. D) lysosomes. E) peroxisomes.
43)
Which cellular organelle is the most prominent? A) mitochondria B) nucleus C) nucleolus D) lysosome
44)
Which of the following features are found in a bacterial cell? Select all that apply.
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A) nucleus B) cell wall C) Golgi apparatus D) ribosomes E) cell membrane
45) Cell biologists have introduced radioactively labeled carbohydrates, fats, and amino acids to living cells, allowed time for cell metabolism, and then placed the cells in a blender and separated out the various cell organelles from the cytoplasm. They found the radioactive molecules could soon be detected as part of various cellular compounds, although the visible cell structures appeared unchanged. Which of the following is the best conclusion based on this information? A) Molecules diffuse at random through the cytoplasm and into cell organelles. B) These "food" molecules are used only for energy. C) Most cell components are constantly being broken down and rebuilt. D) Radioactivity was transferred from the introduced molecules to the resident stable molecules. E) Radioactivity has an unusual role in the metabolism of living cells.
46)
All of the following are associated with the mitochondria except: A) stroma B) cristae C) matrix D) ATP production
47) Single-celled paramecia as well as the cells that line our respiratory tract have these short hairlike projections:
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A) microfilaments B) pili C) flagella D) centrioles E) cilia
48) Each time the water in a cell freezes slowly, long sharp crystals spear through the membrane structures of the cell. However, in the frozen state, virtually no chemical reactions occur. The most likely explanation for the bad taste of meat that has "freezer burn" from repeated freezing is the destruction of A) lysosomes, which results in the cell digesting itself. B) rough endoplasmic reticulum causing the release of ribosomes. C) the Golgi bodies and their vesicles. D) the nuclear membrane causing mixing of nucleoplasm and cytoplasm. E) ribosomes causing them to break into subunits.
49)
Without a cytoskeleton, eukaryotic cells would NOT A) have an efficient way to transport materials from one organelle to another. B) digest large molecules and old organelles to recycle their components. C) have an efficient means of metabolism. D) synthesize protein.
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50) According to the endosymbiotic theory, mitochondria and chloroplasts evolved from aerobic and photosynthetic bacteria that were engulfed and "took up" residence in a host prokaryotic cell. Use your knowledge of how plant and animal cells differ to answer the following questions: A. Did the ancestral plant cell engulf both types of bacteria? Cite evidence to justify your answer. B. Did the ancestral animal cell engulf both types of bacteria? Cite evidence to justify your answer. C. If the answer to either A or B is yes, then which type of bacteria would have been engulfed first? Cite evidence to justify your answer.
51)
Which of the following features is unique to bacterial cells compared to eukaryotic cells? A) cell membrane B) nucleoidregion C) nucleus D) ribosome E) cell wall
52)
Which statement about the nucleus is incorrect?
A) The nucleuscontains the information that ribosomes use to carry out protein synthesis. B) The nucleuscontains the genetic material of the cell. C) The nucleuscontains the instructions for copying itself. D) The nucleuscontains the information that ribosomes use to carry out cellularrespiration.
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53)
During the sequencing of DNA into a protein, what is the first step? A) An enzyme removes the signal peptide from the peptide chain. B) mRNA is copied from a gene. C) A ribosome attaches to the mRNA and signals protein synthesis. D) SRP binds to the signal peptide to shut down synthesis.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 04_14e_Mader 1) C 2) C 3) B 4) C 5) C 6) TRUE 8) A 9) D 10) C 11) C 12) Section Break 12.1) C 12.2) C 12.3) A 12.4) B 13) FALSE 14) A 15) D 16) B 17) [A, B, D] 18) D 19) E 20) B 21) C 22) A 23) TRUE Version 1
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24) B 25) E 26) D 27) C 29) E 30) B 31) A 32) B 33) D 34) B 35) [A, C, D] 36) [A, B, D] 37) C 38) A 39) C 40) FALSE 41) A 42) E 43) B 44) [B, D, E] 45) C 46) A 47) E 48) A 49) A 51) B 52) D 53) B
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CHAPTER 5 1) A 10% glucose solution is placed in the thistle tube. The thistle tube is placed in a beaker that contains a 5% glucose solution. There is a differentially permeable membrane across the broad end of the tube, which is permeable to water but not to the sugar glucose. What will occur over time to the water? To the solute?
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2) Some parasites and disease agents regularly change their identity before our immune system can build up substantial antibodies. How can cells change their chemical identity on a regular basis? A) Cells eliminate all surface proteins and present only a naked lipid bilayer. B) Because the membrane is "set," the cell must reproduce and then the cell with the old membrane must die. C) A new phospholipid bilayer is generated to replace the old layer. D) Different glycolipids and glycoproteins are produced internally and moved into the plasma membrane. E) Rapid evolution produces mutations.
3) Red blood cells come in many "blood types" including type A, type B, type AB, type O [lacking proteins A and B], Rh positive, Rh negative [lacking Rh +], and many others. If blood is transfused, the recipient detects any new or "foreign" proteins. These blood type proteins are A) on the outer surface of the red blood cell membrane. B) evenly distributed throughout the cell contents and plasma. C) inside the red blood cell cytoplasm. D) in the red blood cell nucleus. E) in the plasma where they have been secreted by the red blood cells.
4) What type of transport mechanism is required to move sodium ions against their concentration gradient? A) active B) passive C) osmosis D) diffusion
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5)
Having similar _____ would allow tissues and organs to be transplanted easily. A) carbohydrate chains in the cell membrane B) major histocompatibility complex proteins C) cell recognition proteins D) All of the choices are involved in tissue transplantation.
6)
Which cell junction is unique to animals? A) All are unique to animals. B) desmosomes C) gap D) tight
7)
Which of the following is NOT associated with animal cells? A) adhesion junctions (desmosomes) B) an extracellular matrix C) gap junctions D) plasmodesmata E) tight junctions
8) Design an experiment that illustrates how any one of these factors (temperature, pressure, molecule size) may affect the rate of diffusion.
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9) If a living plant were moved from a freshwater aquarium to a saltwater aquarium, which of the following would occur? A) The plant's cells would take on ions. B) Nothing. The plant would be fine in either aquarium. C) The plant's cells would lose water and plasmolysis would occur. D) The plant's cells would take on water and would lyse.
10) Which type of molecule will not diffuse directly across the cell membrane without the help of transport proteins? A) oxygen B) Na + C) carbon dioxide D) nonpolar molecules
11)
An extracellular matrix helps some cells adhere to neighboring cells. ⊚ ⊚
true false
12) Which of the following are major functions of the plasma membrane? Select all that apply.
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A) maintaining connections between adjacent cells B) production of proteins used in construction of the cell wall C) recognition and communication between different cells and tissues D) regulation of molecules and ions that pass into and out of the cell E) separation of the fluid environments inside and outside the cell
13)
Sugars and amino acids are carried into the cell by means of A) facilitated transport. B) diffusion. C) endocytosis. D) exocytosis.
14) Before boarding an airplane on a commercial flight, the traveler must show personal identification and a ticket to airport security. The traveler must then remove his shoes and place any carry-on items on the belt of an X-ray machine before walking through the checkpoint. How is the passage of molecules through a membrane similar to travelers passing through airport security?
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15)
Study the series of pictures to identify the process as
A) osmosis. B) active transport. C) passive transport. D) facilitated transport.
16) The process by which a white blood cell or an amoeba engulfs bacteria is called pinocytosis. ⊚ ⊚
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17) A 10% glucose solution is placed in the thistle tube. The thistle tube is placed in a beaker that contains a 5% glucose solution. There is a differentially permeable membrane across the broad end of the tube, which is permeable to water but not to the sugar glucose. As diffusion occurs,
A) the 10% solution will become less concentrated and the 5% solution will become more concentrated. B) both solutions will become more concentrated. C) the 10% solutionwill become more concentrated and the 5% solution will become lessconcentrated. D) both solutions will become less concentrated.
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18)
Which statement is true about the plasma membrane?
A) The proteins make up the matrix of the membrane. B) The model can be likened to a sandwich where phospholipids are like the bread and proteins are like the filling. C) The fluid nature of the membrane is regulated by flip-flopping of the phospholipids from one side of the membrane to the other. D) Proteins and phospholipids can move sideways within the plane of the membrane.
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19) A 10% glucose solution is placed in the thistle tube. The thistle tube is placed in a beaker that contains a 5% glucose solution. The solution in the thistle tube is _____ to the solution in the beaker.
A) hypotonic B) hypertonic C) none of the answer choices D) isotonic
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20) Study the series of pictures to identify the process through which materials are being transported across the membrane. Explain how you arrived at your answer.
21) Fluidity of a membrane increases as the percentage of unsaturated fatty acids in the phospholipids decreases. ⊚ ⊚
22)
true false
Which is the best definition of osmosis?
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A) The movement of water across a semipermeable membrane from an area of higher water concentration to an area of lower water concentration. B) The movement of water across a semipermeable membrane from an area of lower water concentration to an area of higher water concentration. C) The movement of a substance against its concentration gradient through the release of energy from ATP. D) The movement of molecules from an area of their lower concentration to an area of their higher concentration. E) The movement of molecules from an area of their higher concentration to an area of their lower concentration.
23) Which of the following protein functions is not correctly associated with the correct integral protein? A) channel proteins—block the activity of carrier proteins B) carrier proteins—facilitate passage of molecules through the membrane C) cell recognition proteins—recognize pathogens D) enzymatic proteins—catalyze a specific reaction
24) Explain why the head of one phospholipid would never be found pointing to the tail of another phospholipid.
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25) A 10% glucose solution is placed in the thistle tube. The thistle tube is placed in a beaker that contains a 5% glucose solution. Where is the highest concentration of water found?
A) in the 5% solution B) None of the answer choices C) in the 10% solution D) the concentration of water is the same in both solutions
26)
Active transport
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A) is involved in diffusion. B) requires an input of ATP. C) All of the choices are correct. D) occurs in osmosis and facilitated transport.
27) Which process is responsible for moving cellular wastes across the cell membrane and out of the cell? A) pinocytosis B) endocytosis C) receptor-mediatedendocytosis D) exocytosis
28)
Which cell junction will allow the movement of molecules between two plant cells? A) plasmodesmata B) gap C) tight D) adhesion
29) Freshwater protozoans react to a/an _____ environment by removing water through _____. A) hypertonic; a contractile vacuole B) isotonic; a contractile vacuole C) hypotonic; a contractile vacuole D) hypotonic; turgor pressure E) hypertonic; turgor pressure
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30) A crystal of green dye is added to a beaker of water. Explain what will happen to the crystal of green dye. Define diffusion and state the ultimate outcome of diffusion.
31) All life forms currently have a basic cell membrane so we hypothesize that the earliest cells also had membranes. It is likely that the primordial environment was acidic. In order for a cell to function in this type of environment, the cell membrane would have to include A) mitochondria underneath in order to provide energy for active transport. B) an acid-proof cell wall. C) a totally nonpermeable membrane. D) a proton (H +) pump. E) a sodium (Na +) pump.
32) Which type of junctions will create a solid barrier to prevent molecules from moving between the cells? A) Plasmodesmata are narrow channels B) gap C) tight D) desmosomes
33)
Whether a molecule can cross the plasma membrane depends upon
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A) All of the choices are correct. B) the chemical properties of the molecule. C) the shape of the molecule. D) the size of the molecule. E) the charge of the molecule.
34) In the cells that line the lumen of the small intestine, gap junctions keep materials from the digestive tract from slipping between the cells and entering the tissues. ⊚ ⊚
true false
35) In the sodium-potassium pump, sodium is transported into the cell and potassium is transported out of the cell using ATP energy. ⊚ ⊚
36)
true false
Which channel protein assists the passage of water across the cell membrane? A) integrin. B) the sodium-potassium pump. C) aquaporin. D) ATP synthase.
37)
Plants show turgor pressure when
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A) water is being used up in photosynthesis. B) water is being evaporated from the leaves. C) cells are losing water from their water vacuoles. D) cells contain water vacuoles that are full of water.
38) You are helping your roommate study for her biology exam. You ask her to draw a picture of a phospholipid bilayer. She draws the phosphate heads pointing inwards and the fatty acid tails pointing outward. Is her drawing accurate? Why or why not? Explain.
39) Eukaryotic cells are substantially larger than bacterial cells and average over 20 times more volume-per-surface-area than bacterial cells. How can the eukaryotic cell membrane provide this higher rate of exchange of materials? A) Large molecules are engulfed by vesicle formation. B) Carrier proteins speed the rate at which a solute crosses the plasma membrane in the direction of decreasing concentration. C) Plasma membrane folds increase the surface area. D) Mitochondria are concentrated near membranes to provide energy for active transport of molecules or ions. E) All of the choices are correct.
40)
Which is the best definition of active transport?
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A) movement of water across a semi permeable membrane from an area of lower water concentration to an area of higher water concentration B) movement of a substance against its concentration through the release of energy from ATP C) movement of molecules from an area of their lower concentration to an area of their higher concentration D) movement of molecules from an area of their higher concentration to an area of their lower concentration E) movement of water across a semi permeable membrane from an area of higher water concentration to an area of lower water concentration
41)
Which of the following is true with respect to plant cell walls? A) Lignin is found in primary cell walls of plants. B) They all have secondary cell walls. C) They contain n-acetylglutamic acid. D) There is a greater amount of cellulose in secondary cell walls than in primary cell
walls.
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42) Is this cell an animal or plant cell? In what type of environment is this cell found? Is there a net movement of water into or out of the cell? Explain your answer.
43)
Proteins in a membrane are
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A) Neither answer choice is true. B) integral if they are embedded in the membrane and protrude from either surfaces of the bilayer. C) Both answer choices are true. D) peripheral if they are on the inside surface held in place by the cytoskeleton.
44) In the cell pictured, there is no net movement of water. The amount leaving the cell and entering the cell is the same. In what type of environment is this cell found?
A) isotonic B) None of the above. C) hypertonic D) hypotonic
45) Which type of cellular process will most likely be used by an amoeba in order to obtain food? A) receptor-mediatedendocytosis B) pinocytosis C) phagocytosis D) exocytosis
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46) Receptor-mediated endocytosis involves the use of specific proteins in the cell membrane. ⊚ ⊚
47)
true false
Why is the energy expended during endocytosis worth it? A) The cellincreases the amount of ATP produced in order to complete endocytosis. B) There is no energyexpenditure during endocytosis. C) The cell expendssuch a small amount of energy to run endocytosis it doesn't really
matter. D) The contents drawn into the cell are isolated from the cytoplasm preventing them from altering cellular function.
48)
Which of the following situations is most likely to produce a heart attack?
A) The cell walls havebroken down and are not able to support the heart. B) The tight junctionhas ripped and is allowing ions to leak through the membrane lining theheart. C) The plasmodesmatahave collapsed and they do not allow the correct flow of ions from one cell tothe next. D) The gap junctionshave collapsed and they do not allow the correct flow of ions from one cell tothe next.
49) The component of an animal cell membrane that regulates the fluidity by stiffening the membrane at higher temperatures and preventing the membrane from freezing at lower temperatures is
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A) All of the choices are correct. B) lipid in nature. C) cholesterol. D) a steroid.
50) Which of the following is the reason why plants wilt if they are watered with a salt solution? A) Wilting protects the leaves from full exposure to the salt solution. B) Wilting results from an increase in turgor pressure. C) Wilting results from the salt weakening the plant cell walls. D) Wilting results from the loss of water.
51) The process by which cholesterol is transported into the cell by the binding of LDL to its receptor and the internalization of the receptor-LDL complex is A) cotransport. B) active transport. C) facilitated transport. D) receptor-mediated endocytosis. E) exocytosis.
52) Which scenario is most likely to occur if the mitochondria in the kidney cells were to decrease in function? A) The kidneys wouldimprove in function. B) The amount ofactive transport in the kidneys would significantly decrease. C) The kidneys wouldbegin excreting large amounts of waste products. D) The amount ofactive transport in the kidneys would increase.
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53) Why can nonpolar molecules freely cross the cell membrane while polar molecules require energy?
54)
Why do membranes self-assemble into their characteristic phospholipids bilayer?
55)
Which of the following is an example of active transport through a cell membrane?
A) movement of oxygen from the lungs into the bloodstream B) The movement of chlorine ions from an area of low concentration on one side of the membrane to an area of high concentration on the other side of the membrane. C) movement of carbon dioxide out of the bloodstream and into the lungs D) movement of sweat onto the surface of your skin
56)
What will happen to a celery stick that is placed in a glass of water? A) Water will move into the celery cells from the surrounding solution. B) None of these choices will occur. C) Salts will move into the celery cells from the surrounding solution. D) Water will move out of the celery cells into the surrounding solution. E) Salts will move out of the celery cells into the surrounding solution.
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57)
In a phospholipid bilayer, the A) fatty acid tails are ionized. B) fatty acid tails are hydrophilic. C) phosphate groups are hydrophobic. D) proteins are located only between the two layers. E) phosphate heads are oriented toward the exterior of the cell or toward the cytoplasm.
58)
Which statement is NOT true about the proteins in the plasma membrane?
A) The hydrophobic portion of a protein is embedded within the membrane. B) Integral proteins are responsible for membrane functions. C) Proteins may be attached to the inner surface of the plasma membrane. D) Some peripheral proteins are connected to cytoskeletal filaments. E) Glycoproteins contain carbohydrate chains that are oriented toward the inner surface of the membrane.
59) Which sentence does NOT describe one of the functions of proteins of the plasma membrane? A) Proteins of the plasma membrane can increase the rate of a chemical reaction. B) Proteins of the plasma membrane can initiate the replication of the genetic material. C) Proteins of the plasma membrane can form a channel through the membrane. D) Proteins of the plasma membrane can bind to a substance to carry it through the membrane. E) Proteins of the plasma membrane can act as a receptor for substances external to the cell.
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60) Imagine a person has a genetic disorder that prevents them from producing the protein collagen. What types of cellular issues will they be faced with? A) All of the choicesare plausible. B) The cell will nothave the ability to regulate the movement of molecules through themembrane. C) The cell will nothave the ability to divide properly. D) The cell would notbe recognized by the body's immune system. E) The cell would nothave the ability to resist stretching.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 05_14e_Mader 2) D 3) A 4) A 5) D 6) A 7) D 9) C 10) B 11) TRUE 12) [A, C, D, E] 13) A 15) D 16) FALSE 17) A 18) D 19) B 21) FALSE 22) A 23) A 25) A 26) B 27) D 28) A 29) C 31) D 32) C Version 1
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33) A 34) FALSE 35) FALSE 36) C 37) D 39) E 40) B 41) D 43) C 44) A 45) C 46) TRUE 47) D 48) D 49) A 50) D 51) D 52) B 55) B 56) A 57) E 58) E 59) B 60) E
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CHAPTER 6 1) In order to roll a rock down a hillside, you must first push it up the hill. Pushing the rock is analogous to the energy of activation of a chemical reaction. ⊚ ⊚
true false
2) In living cells of all types, the hydrolysis of ATP to ADP + P is the main supply of energy. ATP releases its energy in areas of the cell where some work is being carried out. In such cases, special enzymes (ATPases) are necessary for the hydrolysis of ATP. How does the universality of ATP and the diversity of enzyme systems relate to the unity and diversity of life through evolution?
3)
A coenzyme is A) a nonprotein organic molecule that interacts with an enzyme to allow it to work. B) an inorganic ion that interacts with an enzyme to allow it to work. C) a protein-based organic molecule that interacts with an enzyme to allow it to work. D) an inorganic ion that interacts with an enzyme to inhibit it.
4) ATP is considered a high-energy compound because under cellular conditions, 7.3 kcal per mole of energy is released when a bond is broken between
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A) the adenosine and the phosphate groups. B) the adenosine diphosphate and the third phosphate. C) the base adenine and the sugar ribose. D) All of the bonds release energy as ATP is completely broken down. E) the base adenine and the phosphate groups.
5) While science is not yet able to describe the phenomenon of "thinking" in physical terms, we can be certain that it is a process involving the metabolism of brain cells. With positron emission tomography (PET scan) it is possible to inject short-lived isotopes and image the regions of the brain that have the most active metabolism during various mental activities. For different mental functions, different regions and amounts of nerve cells become active. However, A) "thought" cannot be linked to cell processes because energy is not related to matter. B) the cellular energy expended in "thinking" must be less than the chemical bond energy supplied in food to these brain cells. C) "thinking" is beyond the scope of science to study. D) since thoughts can occur over and over, the requirement for a continual input of energy to prevent entropy does not apply to this cell activity.
6) Which statement is NOT true about how various conditions will affect the activity of an enzyme? A) Above a certain range of temperatures, the protein of an enzyme is denatured. B) An enzyme's activity is generally reduced by an increase in substrate concentration. C) A change in pH can cause an enzyme to be inactivated. D) When sufficient substrate is available, the active site will nearly always be occupied. E) Higher temperatures generally increase the activity of an enzyme up to a point.
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7)
B → C is
A) No answer choice is correct. B) endergonic. C) exergonic.
8)
An enzyme is a protein that causes the rate of the reaction to slow down. ⊚ ⊚
9)
true false
Endergonic reactions
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A) have a negative ΔG and occur spontaneously. B) release energy. C) have products with less free energy than the reactants. D) can only occur if there is an input of energy. E) All of the choices are correct.
10)
The activity of an enzyme might be increased by all of the following except A) a two to four degree increase in temperature. B) a vitamin. C) the presence of other enzymes. D) an increase in substrate concentration.
11) You are interrupted while eating some yogurt and you store the remaining yogurt in the refrigerator. A day later you return and find the surface of the yogurt is no longer smooth but has broken into several liquified areas. You correctly guess that enzymes from your saliva, via the spoon, have continued digesting the yogurt in your absence. If you left the yogurt on the counter for another 24 hours, what would happen? A) The reaction will soon stop because the amount of saliva is small, and you would have to add more saliva to continue the degradation. B) The reaction will continue since the enzymes have plenty of substrate. Additionally, it would speed up since the enzymes are exposed to warmer temperatures. C) The reaction will stop because you have altered the environment and denatured the enzyme. D) The reaction will continue until half is digested and then stop because the reaction between substrate and product will be balanced.
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12) <p>In this pathway, B endergonic or exergonic.
C is coupled with ADP
ATP. Categorize the reactions as
A->B->C->D->E A) B C is endergonic and ADP ATP is exergonic. B) ADP ATP is endergonic and B C is exergonic. C) Both B C and ADP ATP are endergonic. D) Both B C and ADP ATP are exergonic.
13) An automobile engine is about 20 to30% efficient in converting chemical energy to mechanical energy. Cells are about 39% efficient in the transformation of glucose to ATP. The rest of the energy is lost as heat. This is illustrative of the A) first law of thermodynamics. B) second law of thermodynamics. C) the cell theory. D) third law of thermodynamics.
14)
Which best describes the first law of thermodynamics?
A) Energy is not created nor destroyed, but it can change from one energy form to another. B) Some useful energy is lost as heat whenever an energy transfer occurs. C) Energy transfers are always 100% efficient in changing energy from one useful form to another. D) Energy can be created from matter or used to produce matter. E) Energy can be created or destroyed and it cannot be changed from one form of energy to another.
15)
Which of the following is a true statement about enzyme inhibition?
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A) In competitive inhibition, the inhibitor binds to the active site of the enzyme. B) In irreversible inhibition, a poison binds to the enzyme so that it can never work again. C) Most inhibitors act in a reversible fashion. D) In noncompetitive inhibition, the inhibitor binds to the allosteric site of the enzyme. E) All of the statements are true.
16)
Which best describes the second law of thermodynamics?
A) Some useful energy is lost as heat whenever an energy transfer occurs. B) Energy is not created nor destroyed, but it can change from one energy form to another. C) Energy is not created nor destroyed, but it can change into matter. D) Energy transfers are always 100% efficient in changing energy from one useful form to another. E) Energy can be created from matter or used to produce matter.
17) _____ represent(s) the first reactant(s) of this metabolic pathway and _____ represent(s) the end product(s) of this pathway. A->B->C->D->E
A) A; E B) B; E C) A and B; D and E D) A; D
18) During the conversion of glucose into a free form of energy only some of the energy is converted into usable ATP. What happens to the rest of the energy?
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A) The energy is converted into more glucose. B) The energy is converted to CO 2. C) The energy is released in H 2O. D) The energy is converted to heat.
19)
Which of these statements is NOT a consequence of the second law of thermodynamics?
A) While the total amount of energy is unchanged, the energy lost as heat is no longer useful to the cell in doing work. B) To maintain organization of a cell, a continual input of energy is required. C) The amount of disorder in the universe is always increasing. D) Reactions that occur spontaneously are those that increase the amount of useful energy in a system.
20) In living cells, the hydrolysis of ATP to ADP + P is the main supply of energy. ATP releases its energy in areas of the cell where some work is being carried out. If ATP underwent hydrolysis spontaneously, anywhere and at anytime within a cell, would life as we know it be possible?
21)
Which of the following is NOT a form of potential energy?
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A) a muscle contracting B) All of the above. C) food D) water in a dam
22) What does this graph reveal about the rate of reaction of the two different enzymes? What are the implications of this finding?
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23) Examine the graph showing the progress of a reaction in a metabolic pathway. State what the blue bracket is labeling and what the tan bracket is labeling, and explain what the difference is between the reaction progress illustrated by the blue line and the reaction progress illustrated by the tan line.
24) Which of the following scenarios accurately represents the second law of thermodynamics? A) As our bodyconverts glucose into ATP some of the energy is given off in the form ofheat. B) When we are coldour body shivers as a response to the decrease in body temperature. C) All of these are consistent with the second law of thermodynamics. D) The temperatureof your car's engine begins to increase as you drive to work.
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25) Analyze this figure to categorize the chemical reaction as a synthesis reaction or a degradation reaction. Cite evidence to support your answer.
26)
Which of the following substrates is essential to an organism that utilizes photosynthesis? A) 6O 2 B) C 6H 12O 6 C) 6H 2O D) 6 carbon atoms
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27)
Which of the following labels is incorrectly identified?
A) B refers to the substrate-enzyme complex. B) C refers to the reactants. C) A refers to the products. D) D refers to the product.
28)
Which organelles are involved in a redox cycle? A) endoplasmic reticulum and vesicles B) Golgi complexes and lysosomes C) mitochondria and chloroplasts D) mitochondria and endoplasmic reticulum E) vacuoles and vesicles
29)
What are the end products of photosynthesis?
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A) carbon dioxide and energy B) oxygen and NADP+ C) glucose and oxygen D) glucose and ATP E) carbon dioxide and water
30)
Which form of energy is NOT correctly associated with the related example? A) chemical energy: glucose B) kinetic energy: movement of muscles C) potential energy: ATP D) kinetic energy: fat molecules E) potential energy: water held behind a dam
31) Explain how, at a glance, it appears that life must violate the laws of thermodynamics. Provide a brief explanation on how life does NOT violate these rules.
32) Which of the following is consistent with the laws of thermodynamics' governing energy?
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A) Eventually sunlight that is absorbed on the earth returns to space as dispersed heat. B) Chemical bonds are a case of converting energy to matter; breaking the bonds converts matter to energy. C) A calorie of sunlight becomes a calorie of plant tissue that, eaten by you, becomes a calorie of heat lost in muscle "power." D) When a liter of gasoline is burned in a car engine, 100% of its energy goes into moving the car along the road. E) You eat a "quarter-pounder" hamburger and assemble exactly a quarter-pound of additional body weight on your body.
33)
ATP is considered to be A) a molecule that carries a great deal of chemical energy in a chemical bond. B) the precursor of a high-energy membrane-bounded protein. C) an enzyme used widely in all kinds of cells. D) a coenzyme used to inhibit or activate different enzymes.
34) Enzyme inhibition is the process that turns off an enzyme in a metabolic pathway. One way this can happen is for the end product of the pathway to act as an inhibitor. ⊚ ⊚
true false
35) If a change in pH alters an allosteric site where an inhibitor binds, it would be possible for an enzyme-controlled reaction to occur as normal. ⊚ ⊚
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13
36) If there are twelve different intermediate products produced in the stages of a metabolic pathway within a cell, we can expect that there A) is one enzyme that carries this process through to the end product. B) is one enzyme for degradation and another enzyme for synthesis. C) may not be any enzymes involved if this is a natural cell product. D) must be twelve different raw materials combined in the cell by one enzyme. E) are about twelve enzymes, at least one responsible for each step in the metabolic pathway.
37)
The sum of the chemical reactions in a cell constitute A) endergonic reactions only. B) exergonic reactions only. C) coupling reactions. D) metabolism. E) free energy.
38) While we are sitting down to lunch, we are consuming _____ energy, which will then be converted into _____ energy as we work until dinner time. A) kinetic; free B) potential; kinetic C) potential; stored D) kinetic; potential
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39)
Study the figure shown here. What does the letter "A" depict?
A) energy of activation B) energy of the product C) substrate concentration D) energy of the reactant
40)
All of the following would denature a protein except A) a missing coenzyme. B) addition of a strong base. C) heating to temperatures above 100° C. D) addition of a strong acid.
41)
In the reaction NAD --> NADH, the NAD is _____, while the NADH is _____.
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A) reduced; oxidized B) oxidized; reduced C) reduced; reduced D) oxidized; oxidized
42) Which statement describes the currently accepted theory of how an enzyme and its substrate fit together? A) When the product binds to the enzyme, the substrate changes shape to accommodate the reaction. B) The enzyme is like a key that fits into the substrate, which is like a lock. C) The active site is permanently changed by its interaction with the substrate. D) As the substrate binds to the enzyme, the shape of the active site changes to accommodate the reaction.
43)
The metabolic pathway below involves how many possible chemical reactions?
A->B->C->D->E A) one B) six C) five D) four
44) Astrophysicists explain that eventually the sun will swell to become a red giant, engulf the earth, and "burn out" with all forms of energy dispersing in a final "heat death." Compared with conditions today, the entropy of the universe then will
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A) remain the same because new energy will replace the energy destroyed. B) have increased greatly. C) remain the same because energy cannot be created or destroyed. D) have decreased greatly.
45) C -> D is coupled with the reaction ATP->ADP. Based on this information the reaction C->D is _____. A->B->C->D->E A) endergonic B) spontaneous C) It cannot be determined from the information given. D) exergonic
46) Lactose is milk sugar, and as infants, humans produce substantial amounts of the lactase enzyme to digest it. However, as we age, we soon lose some or even all of our lactase. In such cases, undigested lactose passes to the lower intestine where bacteria break it down into lactic acid and CO 2, causing painful gas and bloating. This problem could be avoided by A) consuming lactose in tablet form. B) taking lactase enzyme tablets or avoiding all dairy products. C) avoiding all dairy products containing lactose. D) taking any enzyme tablets when consuming dairy products. E) taking lactase enzyme tablets when consuming lactose products.
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47)
Study the graph shown here. The letter "B" depicts the _____, while "C"depicts _____.
A) reactant concentration; activation energy B) energy of activation; energy of the product C) energy of the reactant; energy of the product D) energy of the product; energy of activation
48)
Energy coupling of endergonic and exergonic reactions within cells
A) All of the choices are correct. B) permits energetically favorable and unfavorable reactions to occur in the same place, at the same time. C) utilizes ATP to carry energy between the energetically favorable and unfavorable reactions. D) uses energy released by one reaction to fuel the other reaction.
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49)
Which of the following substrates are required for cellular respiration? A) oxygen and carbon dioxide B) glucose and carbon dioxide C) sunlight and glucose D) sunlight and oxygen E) glucose and oxygen
50)
Coupling occurs when the energy released by an exergonic reaction is A) All of the choices are correct. B) used to drive another exergonic reaction. C) used to drive an endergonic reaction. D) lost as nonusable heat to the environment. E) used to decrease the entropy of the universe.
51)
Which of the following is an example of potential energy? A) a glass of milk B) an apple C) All are examples of potential energy. D) a Snickers bar
52) A living organism represents stored energy in the form of chemical compounds. When an organism dies, what happens to this stored energy?
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A) The chemical compounds remain exactly intact and ready to start up again unless digested by a consumer or decay organism. B) All chemicals immediately lose their high-energy bonds. C) All molecules immediately degrade into basic elements. D) All energy immediately leaves, and that is one manifestation that the organism is dead. E) The chemical compounds in cells lose their organization over time because there is no longer an input of energy to maintain the organized state.
53)
Which substrate is missing: 6CO
2 + _____ + energy = C
6H
12O
6 + 6O
2?
A) glucose B) 4H 2O C) 4O 2 D) 6H 2O
54)
The subunits from which ATP is made are A) ADP and NAD +. B) ADP and FAD. C) FAD and NADPH. D) FAD and NAD +. E) ADP and phosphate.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 06_14e_Mader 1) TRUE 3) A 4) B 5) B 6) B 7) C 8) FALSE 9) D 10) C 11) B 12) B 13) B 14) A 15) E 16) A 17) A 18) D 19) D 21) A 24) C 26) C 27) D 28) C 29) C 30) D 32) A Version 1
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33) A 34) TRUE 35) TRUE 36) E 37) D 38) B 39) A 40) A 41) B 42) D 43) D 44) B 45) A 46) B 47) C 48) A 49) E 50) C 51) C 52) E 53) D 54) E
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CHAPTER 7 1) The first event in the Calvin cycle is the attachment of carbon dioxide to the five-carbon RuBP molecule, which decreases cell carbon dioxide levels, which increases the diffusion gradient. ⊚ ⊚
true false
2) Correlate the relative efficiency of CAM, C enzymatic systems active in this process.
3, and C
4 plants in photosynthesis with the
3) Photorespiration is the process by which light is used to release the stored energy in carbohydrate molecules to perform all work in plant cells. ⊚ ⊚
4)
true false
Which of the following plants is an example of a CAM plant? A) pineapple B) wheat C) corn D) oak tree E) rice
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5) The action spectrum of photosynthesis shows a high light absorption for violet/blue and orange/red and a low absorption for green/yellow. If we were to set up an experiment where narrow bands of unicolored light were shown on an aquatic plant such as Elodea, and we counted the number of bubbles of oxygen produced as an indicator of photosynthetic rate, how would the graph appear? A) a descending line because ultraviolet light has more energy than infrared B) just like the action spectrum with peaks at violet/blue and orange/red and a trough at yellow/green C) perfectly flat because many wavelengths are used by chlorophyll D) exactly inverted from the action spectrum with a peak for yellow/green E) There is no way to guess without actually running the experiment.
6)
What structure is required for an eukaryotic organism to be classified as an autotroph? A) nucleus B) Golgi body C) chloroplast D) mitochondria
7)
Why are plants green?
A) They absorb only green wavelengths of light. B) They reflect the colors of the visible light spectrum and absorb all of the wavelengths associated with the ultraviolet spectrum. C) They absorb only yellow and blue wavelengths of light, which when mixed within the leaf, give plants their characteristic green color. D) They reflect green wavelengths of light and absorb other colors of the visible light spectrum. E) They reflect all of the ultraviolet wavelengths and absorb all of the visible light spectrum.
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8) Phosphoenolpyruvatecarboxylase (PEPCase) fixes carbon dioxide (C form oxaloacetate(C 4) within mesophyll cells of the C 4 plants. ⊚ ⊚
9)
1) to PEP (C
3) to
true false
Characterize these reactions involved in the Calvin cycle.
A) These are reactions involved in the regeneration of RuBP. The reactions include an exergonic reaction (ATP breaks down into ADP) and the reduction of the coenzyme NADPH. B) These reactions areinvolved in the fixation of CO 2. Energy isrequired in the form of ADP, which is hydrolyzed to ATP. The substrate BPG isoxidized, while the coenzyme NADPH is reduced. C) These reactions are part of the light reactions in a noncyclic pathway. ATP and NADPH are used during these reactions. D) These reactions areinvolved in the reduction of CO 2. Energy isrequired in the form of ATP, which is hydrolyzed to ADP. The substrate BPG isreduced, while the coenzyme NADPH is oxidized.
10)
A product of photosynthesis, _____, is the chief source of energy for most organisms.
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A) glucose B) All of the answer choices. C) sucrose D) oxygen
11)
Which is most closely associated with the Calvin cycle? A) removal of electrons from water for passage through an electron transport system B) ATP production C) oxygen production D) carbon dioxide fixation E) carbon dioxide production
12)
To what does the term stroma refer? A) a stack of thylakoid membrane structures B) the double membrane surrounding the chloroplast C) the fluid-filled space of the chloroplast D) a flattened disk or sac in the chloroplast E) the pores on the underside of the leaf that facilitate gas exchange
13) The first event in the Calvin cycle is the attachment of carbon dioxide to the five-carbon RuBP molecule, which forms a six-carbon molecule that breaks down into two 3PG molecules. ⊚ true ⊚ false
14)
During the light reactions, what structure is responsible for absorbing the solar energy?
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A) stroma B) stoma C) chloroplast D) bark of thetree
15) Oxygen production in photosynthesis involves which of the following? Select all that apply. A) Calvin cycle B) light reactions C) splitting of water D) photosystem II E) photosystemI
16) What is the ultimate destination for the energized electrons during the light reactions of photosynthesis? A) They are taken up by NADPH to produce NADP +. B) They are taken up by NADP + to produce NADPH. C) They are taken up by NADH to produce NAD +. D) They are taken up by NAD + to produce NADH.
17)
Photorespiration occurs mainly in A) CAM plants. B) C 3 plants. C) All of the answer choices. D) C 4 plants.
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18) Which of the following is a common photosynthetic pigment found in plants? Select all that apply. A) chlorophyll a B) carotenoids C) chlorophyll c D) chlorophyll b
19)
Chemiosmotic ATP synthesis occurs in the cytosol of the cell. ⊚ ⊚
20)
true false
Which statement is NOT true about the noncyclic electron pathway? A) Electrons are boosted to higher energy level in photosystem I. B) Sunlight excites electrons in photosystem II. C) It produces ATP. D) It produces NADPH. E) It produces carbohydrates through carbon dioxide fixation.
21) Photosynthesis involves oxidation - reduction and the movement of electrons from one molecule to another. Recall what oxidation and reduction reactions are and study the figure to identify A and B as either oxidation or reduction.
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22)
Plants that conduct C ⊚ ⊚
4 metabolism are desert plants.
true false
23) _____ is a product of the Calvin cycle that is used to form glucose phosphate, amino acids or fatty acids. A) PEP carboxylase (PEPcase) B) glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (G3P) C) ribulose bisphosphate (RuBP) D) ATP E) carbon dioxide
24) Protons (H +) accumulate in the thylakoid space during electron transport between photosystems II and I.Which of the following describes what will happen to these protons next? A) The protons will move from the thylakoid space to the stroma through an ATP synthase complex that generates ATP. B) The protons will raise the pH of the thylakoid space until it becomes alkaline at which point the protons are pumped out of the thylakoid, generating ATP. C) The protons will reenter the electron transport chain and be used to generate water. D) The protons will diffuse out of the lipid layer surrounding the thylakoid and exit the plant during gas exchange. E) The protons will be used to oxidize NADPH to NADH, generating ATP in the process.
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25) G3P (glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate) can be used by plants to form which of the following? Select all that apply. A) starch B) NADPH C) carbon dioxide D) fatty acids E) amino acids
26)
To what does the term grana refer? A) the pores on the underside of a leaf that facilitate gas exchange B) the double membrane that surrounds the chloroplast C) a flattened disk or sac in the chloroplast D) a stack of thylakoid membranes E) the fluid-filled space of the chloroplast
27)
The light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis occur in the stroma of the chloroplast. ⊚ ⊚
28)
true false
The function of sunlight in photosynthesis is to A) excite electrons in chlorophyll. B) fix O2 in the Calvin cycle. C) split water releasing oxygen. D) reduce NADPH to NADP. E) combine carbon dioxide and water to form ATP and NADPH.
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29) The first event in the Calvin cycle is the attachment of carbon dioxide to the five-carbon RuBP molecule, which immediately becomes a six-carbon sugar that is the base for starch, sucrose, cellulose, etc. ⊚ ⊚
true false
30) When an electron has been excited to a higher energy state, it can then drop back to the original level, re-emitting the light as fluorescence. When chlorophyll is extracted in solution, and a bright red or blue light is shown on it, the chlorophyll fluoresces brightly. However, when the chlorophyll is packaged inside chloroplasts and the red or blue light is turned on, there is no fluorescence. This most likely indicates that A) the red and blue light waves are reflected by the chlorophyll membrane. B) chlorophyll in solution is a different molecule than chlorophyll in a chloroplast. C) green light must be used to make living cells fluoresce. D) fluorescence does not work in living cells. E) excited electrons are transferred to electron acceptors in the chloroplast.
31) Create an experiment that tests this null hypothesis: The rate of photosynthesis does not vary with different wavelengths of light.
32) If plants were no longer able to perform the light reactions and they could only utilize the Calvin cycle, which of the following would be true? Select all that apply.
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A) G3P would be produced in much smaller quantities. B) Plants would not produce oxygen. C) NADPH production would decrease while ATP production increased. D) G3P would be produced in much greater quantities.
33) The fixation of carbon dioxide in the first step of the Calvin cycle is facilitated by which enzyme? A) PEP carboxylase B) RuBPcarboxylase C) glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (G3P) D) lactate dehydrogenase
34) While C 4 plants have carbon dioxide fixation and carbon dioxide uptake separated by location within the plant, CAM plants A) have these processes separated by time. B) are found in tropical regions where nutrients are abundant. C) fix much greater amounts of carbon dioxide than C 4 plants. D) have these processes separated among two leaf types.
35)
Which of the following organisms are capable of photosynthesis? A) plants and algae only B) plants and some bacteria only C) plants only D) plants, algae, and some bacteria
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36) The first event in the Calvin cycle is the attachment of carbon dioxide to the five-carbon RuBP molecule, which is a reaction assisted by large quantities of RuBP carboxylase enzyme. ⊚ true ⊚ false
37)
Fossil fuels are full of energy stored from photosynthesis millions of years ago. ⊚ ⊚
true false
38) In the questions that follow, you will be asked to identify the blanks on the below diagram using the word bank: NADPH, NADP, ATP, ADP + P, carbon dioxide, oxygen, carbohydrate, water. Briefly explain the significance of each item.
38.1)
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38.2)
B is _____.
38.3)
C is _____.
38.4)
D is _____.
38.5)
F is _____.
38.6)
E is _____.
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39)
38.7)
H is _____.
38.8)
G is _____.
Which of the following are characteristics of C
4 plants? Select all that apply.
A) C 4 plants are found in hot, dry climates. B) C 4 plants experience more photorespiration than C 3 plants. C) C 4 plants have a net photosynthetic rate two or three times greater than C 3 plants. D) C 4 plants separate carbon fixation from the Calvin cycle. E) C 4 plants store carbon dioxide temporarily as oxaloacetate.
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40) Use the data provided to identify the lines on the graph as the absorption spectrums of chlorophyll a, chlorophyll b, and the carotenoids. Max. absorption of chlorophyll a —430 & 662 nm Max. absorption of chlorophyll b—453 & 642 nm Max. absorption of carotenoids —bimodal; approx. 450 & 490 nm
41)
What would happen if the stomata of a leaf remained closed all day? Select all that apply. A) Oxygen in the air spaces would increase. B) The amount of water within the air spaces would decrease. C) Photorespiration would increase in C 3 plants. D) Photorespiration would increase in CAM plants. E) Carbon dioxide in the air spaces of the leaf would decrease.
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42)
What are the end products of photosynthesis? A) carbohydrate and water B) water and carbon dioxide C) water and oxygen D) oxygen and carbohydrate
43)
Which of the following pairs is correct? A) C 3plants = bundle sheath cells contain chlorophyll B) C4 plants = stoma contain chlorophyll C) C 4plants = bundle sheathcells contain chlorophyll D) CAM plants = epidermal cells contain chlorophyll
44) If the photosynthetic rate of C 4 plants such as sugarcane, corn, and Bermuda grass is about two or three times that of C 3plants—and both are substantially more productive than CAM plants—then why, over time, have C 4 plants not outcompeted and eliminated C 3 and CAM plants?
45)
What would happen if adrug directly interferedwith the functioning of RuBPcarboxylase? A) Chemiosmosisand ATP production would cease,halting the Calvin cycle. B) Carbon dioxide would not be fixed toRuBP, stalling the Calvin cycle. C) RuBPwould not be regenerated from G3P, halting the Calvin cycle. D) Water would not be split at the start of photosystem II, halting the light reactions.
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46)
Which of the following statements about the Calvin cycle is correct? A) The CO2 is absorbed and used to form ATP. B) The CO- is absorbed and reduced to CH2O. C) The CO2 is absorbed and reduced to C2H2O2. D) The CO2 is absorbed and reduced to CH2O.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 07_14e_Mader 1) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) A 5) B 6) C 7) D 8) TRUE 9) D 10) A 11) D 12) C 13) TRUE 14) C 15) [B, C, D] 16) B 17) B 18) [A, B, D] 19) FALSE 20) E 22) TRUE 23) B 24) A 25) [A, D, E] 26) D 27) FALSE 28) A Version 1
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29) FALSE 30) E 32) [A, B] 33) B 34) A 35) D 36) TRUE 37) TRUE 38) Section Break 39) [A, C, D, E] 41) [A, C, E] 42) D 43) C 45) B 46) D
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CHAPTER 8 1)
Which of these processes occurs in the cytosol? A) the electron transport system B) the citric acid cycle C) glycolysis D) the preparatory reaction
2) Which of the following coenzymes will accept two electrons and two hydrogen ions during the oxidation of glucose? A) FADH B) NAD + C) NADH D) FAD
3)
The majority of the carbon dioxide we exhale is produced in A) the electron transport system. B) the citric acid cycle. C) glycolysis. D) lactate fermentation.
4)
Acetyl CoA is produced from
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A) pyruvate and CoA. B) citric acid and CO 2. C) citric acid and CoA. D) ATP and pyruvate. E) CO 2 and pyruvate.
5) Why is it beneficial for pyruvate to be reduced via fermentation when oxygen is not available? A) The fermentation reaction regenerates NAD+, which is required for the first step in the energy-harvesting phase of glycolysis. B) None of the choices is an advantage. C) All of the choices are advantages. D) Fermentation can provide a rapid burst of ATP. E) The organism can survive short spells of anaerobic conditions and maintain growth and reproduction.
6)
Identify"a."
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A) outer membrane B) intermembrane space C) grana D) cristae E) matrix
7)
For fatty acids to enter the citric acid cycle of aerobic respiration, the fatty acids must be A) converted to acetyl groups. B) converted into five-carbon sugars. C) combined with glycerol. D) deaminated. E) combined with ATP.
8)
Complete oxidative breakdown of glucose results in _____ ATP molecules. A) 4-6 B) 40-42 C) 24-26 D) 14-16 E) 36-38
9)
The preparatory reaction converts A) glucose into pyruvates. B) pyruvates into glucose. C) pyruvates into acetyl CoA and carbon dioxide. D) pyruvates into acetyl CoA and water. E) acetyl CoA into pyruvates and carbon dioxide.
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10)
The amino acids we cannot synthesize are called _____ because we _____. A) essential; mustinclude them in our diet B) limiting; must include them in our diet C) unnecessary; therefore do not need them D) anabolic; must use alternative amino acids E) superfluous; mustsurvive without them
11) What is the correct summary for the energy investment vs. energy harvesting steps of glycolysis? A) 2 ATP are invested and no ATP are harvested to produce a net loss of 2 ATP. B) No ATP are invested and 2 ATP are harvested to produce a net gain of 2 ATP. C) 2 ATP are invested and 4 ATP are harvested to produce a net gain of 2 ATP. D) 4 ATP are invested and 6 ATP are harvested to produce a net gain of 2 ATP.
12) Some desert beetles can live without ever drinking liquid water. They survive on "metabolic water," which A) is water absorbed directly from the atmosphere. B) is water formed during glycolysis. C) is water obtained from eating other organisms. D) is water formed during the electron transport chain. E) is water that was stored in the beetle's tissue during its larval stage.
13) Chloroplasts are capable of performing photosynthesis which is the most common anabolic process on the planet.
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⊚ ⊚
true false
14) Normally our body will run aerobic respiration in order to produce the required amount of ATP to sustain life. When we run out of oxygen we will shift over to anaerobic respiration. What is the value of anaerobic respiration to our system?
15)
The first phase of cellular respiration is A) the citric acid cycle. B) fermentation. C) the preparatory reaction. D) glycolysis. E) the electron transport system.
16) The first reaction in the citric acid cycle binds which of the following molecules together? A) carbon dioxide to a four-carbon (C 4) molecule. B) acetyl CoA to a C 5 molecule. C) carbon dioxide to a five-carbon (C 5) molecule. D) acetyl CoA to a C 4 molecule.
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17) During glycolysis _____ carbons will enter the pathway and _____ carbons will leave in the form of pyruvates. A) 6; 3 B) 3; 6 C) oxaloacetate D) 6; 6 E) 12; 6
18)
Which process reduces molecular oxygen to water? A) the electron transport system B) the preparatory reaction C) glycolysis D) the citric acid cycle E) fermentation
19)
Decide whether the following statements concerning glycolysis are true or false.
19.1)
Glycolysis occurs before fermentation.
⊚ ⊚
true false
19.2)
Glycolysis occurs before the preparatory reaction and the citric acid cycle.
⊚ ⊚
true false
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20)
19.3)
Glycolysis will yield a net of 2 ATP only during aerobic respiration.
⊚ ⊚
true false
19.4)
Glycolysis produces 1 pyruvate and 3 NADH coenzymes.
⊚ ⊚
true false
19.5)
Glycolysis is a catabolic process.
⊚ ⊚
true false
Identify "b."
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A) matrix B) cristae C) outer membrane D) inner membrane E) intermembrane space
21)
One turn of the citric acid cycle produces A) 1 NADH, 3 FADH 2, and 2 ATP. B) 3 NADH, 1 FADH 2, and 1 ATP. C) 2 NADH, FADH 2, and 2 ATP. D) 3 NADH, 2 FADH 2, and 1 ATP. E) 3 NADH, 1 FADH 2, and 2 ATP.
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22)
Study the figure to match the substrates with the corresponding pathway.
A) A is glycerol; B is amino acids; C is glucose; D is fatty acids B) A is glucose; B is fatty acids; C is glycerol; D is amino acids C) A is amino acids; B is glucose; C is glycerol; D is fatty acids D) A is amino acids; B is fatty acids; C is glucose; D is glycerol
23)
Aerobic cellular respiration yields about ____ of the energy of glucose in ATP molecules.
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A) 15% B) 2% C) 28% D) 39%
24) Each molecule of NADH produced in the mitochondria provides enough energy to form two ATP molecules. ⊚ ⊚
true false
25) Compared with other components found in a plant cell such as the cell membrane, the chloroplasts or the nucleus, the mitochondria would be the only one that would A) form an electrochemical gradient across a membrane. B) release protons (H +). C) use significantamounts of oxygen to produce ATP. D) produce ATP via glycolysis. E) use a chemiosmoticcomplex to produce ATP.
26) The final electron acceptor in glycolysis is oxygen and this step will occur within the matrix of the mitochondria. ⊚ ⊚
27)
true false
Why does your body store more energy as fat than as carbohydrate?
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28)
Which statement is correct about the input and output of carbon during glycolysis? A) There is an input of 6 carbons (glucose) and an output of 6 carbons (2 pyruvates). B) There is an input of 6 carbons (glucose) and an output of 3 carbons (pyruvate). C) There is an input of 6 carbons (glucose) and an output of 6 carbons (6 CO2). D) There is an input of 6 carbons (2 pyruvates) and an output of 6 carbons (1 glucose).
29)
Identify "e."
A) inner membrane B) matrix C) intermembrane space D) cristae E) outer membrane
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30)
Compare and contrast how ATP is formed in photosynthesis and aerobic respiration.
31) Aerobic respiration involves oxidation - reduction and the movement of electrons from one molecule to another. Study the figure to identify A and B as either oxidation or reduction.
32)
The breakdown of glucose in cellular respiration is a catabolic reaction. ⊚ ⊚
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33)
Identify "c."
A) intermembrane space B) inner membrane C) cristae D) outer membrane E) matrix
34) During the preparatory reaction of aerobic respiration what happens to the carbon molecules? A) The carbon molecules are broken down from a 3-carbon to a 1-carbon acetyl group and two 1-carbon CO2 are released. B) The carbon molecules are broken down from a 4-carbon to a 3-carbon acetyl group and a 2-carbon CO2 is released. C) The carbon molecules are converted from a 2-carbon to a 3-carbon acetyl group and a 1-carbon CO2 is consumed. D) The carbon molecules are broken down from a 3-carbon to a 2-carbon acetyl group and a 1-carbon CO2 is released.
35)
Degradative reactions
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A) tend to be endergonic. B) include the buildup of products such as complex proteins and nucleic acids. C) cause death. D) can drive anabolic reactions. E) All of the choices are true.
36) Compare the metabolic oxidation of proteins to the metabolic oxidation of carbohydrates in terms of efficiency and specificity.
37) The membrane protein_____ will catalyze the reaction ADP + P down a gradient from the intermembrane space into the matrix.
ATP as H
+
flow
A) cholesterol B) ATP synthase C) NADH-Q reductase D) the sodium-potassium pump
38)
Adult humans cannot synthesize _____ out of the _____ common amino acids. A) nine; twenty B) eleven; twenty C) nine; eleven D) half; all E) any; twenty
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39)
The most important contribution of the citric acid cycle to cellular respiration is A) release of CO2. B) reduction of glucose and corresponding oxidation of carbon dioxide. C) oxidation of metabolite molecules and the corresponding reduction of coenzymes. D) creation of proton gradients. E) production of large quantities of ATP.
40) The electron transport chain and chemiosmosis produce _____ ATP from each NADH and _____ ATP from each FADH 2 entering the system. A) 2; 4 B) 2; 3 C) 4; 2 D) 3; 2
41) Compare the efficiency of aerobic respiration and fermentation in ATP energy production. If aerobic respiration converts 40% of the available energy of glucose into ATP, then what percentage does fermentation convert to ATP?
42)
The correct sequence for aerobic metabolic breakdown of glucose is
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A) glycolysis—preparatory reaction—citric acid cycle—electron transport system. B) electron transport system—citric acid cycle—preparatory reaction—glycolysis. C) preparatory reaction—glycolysis—electron transport—citric acid cycle. D) None of the choices are correct.
43) Alcohol fermentation is used to produce beer, wine, and other alcoholic beverages. Archeological evidence suggests that people were producing wine as early as 6000 to 5000 BC. How might the first wine have been "discovered"? Why would wine have been a more convenient drink than the grape juice from which wine is made?
44)
Fermentation follows glycolysis in some cells when oxygen is not available. ⊚ ⊚
true false
45) Some bacteria are strict aerobes and others are strict anaerobes. Some bacteria, however, are facultative anaerobes and can live with or without oxygen. If given the choice of using oxygen or not, which pathwayshould a facultative anaerobe perform? A) It doesn'tmatter; both processes will produce the same results. B) Avoid using oxygen since anaerobic metabolism provides more ATP per molecule of carbohydrate than aerobic metabolism. C) Use oxygen since aerobic metabolism provides more ATP per molecule of carbohydrate than anaerobic metabolism.
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46) Fermentation is the process that produces bubbles of carbon dioxide that makes bread dough rise. ⊚ ⊚
47)
true false
Identify "d."
A) outer membrane B) inner membrane C) intermembrane space D) matrix E) cristae
48)
Which process produces both NADH and FADH
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A) the citric acid cycle B) fermentation C) the electron transport system D) glycolysis E) the preparatory reaction
49)
Which process produces alcohol or lactate? A) the citric acid cycle B) glycolysis C) the electron transport system D) fermentation E) the preparatory reaction
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50)
What would happen to the process in this figure if oxygen was not available?
51) Relate the overall processes of photosynthesis and aerobic respiration in terms of substrates, end products, byproducts, and locations.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 08_14e_Mader 1) C 2) D 3) B 4) A 5) C 6) D 7) A 8) E 9) C 10) A 11) C 12) D 13) TRUE 15) D 16) D 17) D 18) A 19) Section Break 19.1) TRUE 19.2) TRUE 19.3) FALSE 19.4) FALSE 19.5) TRUE 20) A 21) B 22) C Version 1
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23) D 24) FALSE 25) C 26) FALSE 28) A 29) A 32) TRUE 33) D 34) D 35) D 37) B 38) A 39) C 40) D 42) A 44) TRUE 45) C 46) TRUE 47) C 48) A 49) D
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CHAPTER 9 1)
What occurs in anaphase? A) Centrioles move to opposite poles. B) Chromosomes line up along the equator of the dividing cell. C) Chromatids are separated and move to opposite poles. D) The nuclear envelope disappears. E) The nuclear envelope is constructed.
2)
Cytokinesis in plant cells differs from animal cells because
A) the inner plasma membrane divides by cytokinesis as in animal cells and then secretes a cellulose cell wall. B) the lysosomes within the plant cell forms a cell plate. C) microtubulesare used to form the cell plate. D) the Golgi apparatus produces vesicles that migrate along microtubules and fuse to become a cell plate.
3)
Apoptosis refers to cell death and A) is merely the accumulation of genetic errors. B) is a failure in the translation or transcription mechanism. C) can be programmed and is essential to normal development. D) is always biologically detrimental to an organism. E) is any failure of the genetic machinery to work properly.
4)
The haploid (n) number of chromosomes for a human being is
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A) 44. B) 46. C) 23. D) 24. E) 48.
5)
Cytokinesis in plant cells differs from animal cells because
A) the inner plasma membrane divides by cytokinesis as in animal cells and then secretes a cellulose cell wall. B) the Golgi apparatus produces vesicles that migrate along microtubules and fuse to become a cell plate. C) the lysosomes within the plant cell forms a cell plate. D) microtubulesare used to form the cell plate.
6) Contact inhibition stops normal cells from dividing when they come in contact with neighboring cells, but this is not functional in cancer cells. ⊚ ⊚
7)
true false
Which of the following statements applies to mitosis but not to cytokinesis? A) It results in two daughter cells that are half the size of the original cell. B) It requires a large amount of ATP in order for the cellular mechanisms to function. C) If it is disrupted, it can lead to an abnormal cell. D) It contains a checkpoint that will evaluate the quality of the cell.
8)
The region that contains the genetic information in a bacterial cell is called the
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A) nucleoprotein. B) nucleosome. C) nucleoid. D) nucleolus. E) nucleus.
9)
What phase of mitosis is pictured?
A) prometaphase B) anaphase C) metaphase D) prophase E) telophase
10)
What phase of mitosis is pictured?
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A) metaphase B) prometaphase C) anaphase D) telophase E) prophase
11)
Which statement is NOT true about eukaryotic chromosomes? A) Chromosomes are not located within the nuclear envelope during mitosis. B) Chromosomes contain both DNA and associated histones. C) Chromosomes condense from chromatin at the start of mitosis. D) There is only one chromosome of each type in each body cell. E) Chromosomes disperse back into chromatin at the end of mitosis.
12)
The diploid (2n) number of chromosomes for a human being is A) 23. B) 46. C) 24. D) 44. E) 48.
13)
Which statement below lists the correct steps for binary fission?
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A) 1. attachment ofchromosome to the plasma membrane, 2. enlargement of cell volume, 3. DNAreplication occurs, 4. cell elongates and chromosomes are pulled apart, 5. anew cell wall and plasma membrane divide the cell in half B) 1. attachment ofchromosome to the plasma membrane, 2. enlargement of cell volume, 3. DNAreplication occurs, 4. a new cell wall and plasma membrane divide the cell inhalf, 5. cell elongates and chromosomes are pulled apart C) 1. a new cell wall and plasma membrane divide the cell in half, 2.attachment of chromosome to the plasma membrane, 3. enlargement of cell volume,4. DNA replication occurs, 5. cell elongates and chromosomes are pulledapart D) 1. enlargement ofcell volume, 2. attachment of chromosome to the plasma membrane, 3. DNAreplication occurs, 4. cell elongates and chromosomes are pulled apart, 5. anew cell wall and plasma membrane divide the cell in half
14) Explain how a geneticist could attempt to prevent cancer by manipulating a person's proto-oncogenes.
15)
What might prevent a cell from passing the G
1 checkpoint?
A) The DNA has not completed replication. B) Only B and C are correct. C) The cell may have damaged DNA and need to undergo apoptosis. D) Only A and B are correct. E) The cell may need to enter the G 0 stage.
16)
The event that signals the start of anaphase is
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A) a cleavage furrow starts to form. B) division of the centromeres to separate sister chromatids. C) asters disappear. D) migration of the centrioles to opposite poles of the nuclear space.
17)
Which of the following is NOT true about cancer cells? A) They exhibit contact inhibition. B) They never fully differentiate. C) They exhibit uncontrolled growth. D) They may undergo metastasis. E) They exhibit disorganized growth.
18)
The enzymes that bring about apoptosis are ordinarily held in check by inhibitors. ⊚ ⊚
19)
true false
Which of the following are necessary for a cell to pass the G
1 checkpoint?
A) All of these. B) Sufficient nutrients must be available. C) Growth signals must be present. D) The DNA must be undamaged. E) None of these.
20) If a parent cell has 48 chromosomes, how many chromosomes will each daughter cell have after mitosis and cytokinesis occurs?
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A) 96 chromosomes B) 24 chromosomes C) 12 chromosomes D) 48 chromosomes
21) Explain how a geneticist could attempt to prevent cancer by manipulating a person's proto-oncogenes.
22) Cancer cells require many nutrients which are supplied by blood vessels. The growth of new blood vessels into cancerous tissue is called A) apoptosis. B) metastasis. C) angiogenesis. D) carcinogenesis.
23)
The enzymes that bring about apoptosis are called caspases. ⊚ ⊚
24)
true false
The region that contains the genetic information in a bacterial cell is called the
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A) nucleus. B) nucleoid. C) nucleoprotein. D) nucleosome. E) nucleolus.
25)
The event that signals the start of anaphase is A) division of the centromeres to separate sister chromatids. B) asters disappear. C) migration of the centrioles to opposite poles of the nuclear space. D) a cleavage furrow starts to form.
26) All of the following are true about the chromosomes of a multicellular organism EXCEPT: A) They are made up of DNA and protein. B) All cells contain chromosomes that carry the same genetic information. C) Each chromosome is replicated into two chromatids during the S phase of interphase. D) Each chromosome separates into two daughter chromosomes by binary fission.
27)
The enzymes that bring about apoptosis can be unleashed by internal or external signals. ⊚ ⊚
28)
true false
In some organisms, mitosis occurs without cytokinesis. This results in
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A) a multinucleated cell. B) cells with no nucleus. C) cell death. D) uncontrolled cell division. E) cells arrested in the G0 phase.
29)
All of the following are characteristics of oncogenes EXCEPT A) they are tumor suppressor genes. B) they cause cancer. C) they are mutated proto-oncogenes. D) they are genes that stimulate uncontrolled cell division.
30) Which of the following codes for theproteins that will promote the normal cell cycle and prevent apoptosis? A) proto-oncogenes B) tumor suppressor genes C) oncogenes D) caspases
31)
Which represents the correct sequence of stages in the cell cycle? A) G 1, M, G 2, S B) G 1, S, G 2, M C) G 1, G 2, S, M D) G 1, G 2, M, S
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32) Male honeybees are haploid (n) while the females are diploid (2n). Based on this information, which of the following are true statements? A) Only A and B are true. B) A single set of chromosomes is sufficient to code for a functional individual. C) As compared to the females, male honeybees have twice the number of chromosomes. D) As compared to a female, a male honeybee has half the amount of DNA.
33)
Angiogenesis A) brings nutrients and oxygen to a tumor. B) None of these. C) is the growth of blood vessels into the tumor. D) All of these. E) is directed by additional mutations in tumor cells.
34)
Which of the following statements applies to mitosis but not to cytokinesis? A) It requires a large amount of ATP in order for the cellular mechanisms to function. B) If it is disrupted, it can lead to an abnormal cell. C) It results in two daughter cells that are half the size of the original cell. D) It contains a checkpoint that will evaluate the quality of the cell.
35) Which of the following descriptions of malignant and benign tumors are true? Select all that apply.
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A) Both benign and malignant tumors are forms of abnormal cell growth. B) Benign tumors can metastasize while malignant tumors tend to stay in one location. C) Malignant tumors have more genetic mutations than benign tumors. D) Benign tumors tend to grow very large while malignant tumors stay small.
36) Generally, brain and nerve cells are not able to regenerate after injury because they have left the cell cycle and are unable to return. ⊚ ⊚
37)
true false
Eukaryotic chromosomes A) All of the choices are correct. B) contain histones responsible for packaging DNA to fit into a small space. C) may occur as chromatin. D) consist of both DNA and protein. E) Only A and B are correct.
38)
The function of mitosis is A) asexual reproduction in some species. B) All of the choices are correct. C) growth of the organism and tissue repair. D) to ensure that each new cell receives a complete set of genetic information.
39)
Which of the following are necessary for a cell to pass the G
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A) None of these. B) The DNA must be undamaged. C) All of these. D) Sufficient nutrients must be available. E) Growth signals must be present.
40)
Name the labeled structures in the figure and answer the following questions.
A. _____ B. _____ C. _____ D. When the structures labeled "A" separate, what are they called? E. What is the function of the structure labeled "C"?
41)
Which sequence of the mitotic stages is correct?
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A) telophase, anaphase, prophase, prometaphase, metaphase B) anaphase, prometaphase, metaphase, prophase, telophase C) prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase D) prophase, telophase, anaphase, prometaphase, metaphase E) prophase, anaphase, prometaphase, metaphase, telophase
42)
Which is NOT correctly associated with cancer? A) Angiogenesis forms new blood vessels and brings nutrients and oxygen to the tumor. B) Metastasis establishes new tumors distant from the site of the primary tumor. C) The cells are organized in a single layer. D) Cells may have abnormally large nuclei.
43)
Which statement below lists the correct steps for binary fission?
A) 1. enlargement ofcell volume, 2. attachment of chromosome to the plasma membrane, 3. DNAreplication occurs, 4. cell elongates and chromosomes are pulled apart, 5. anew cell wall and plasma membrane divide the cell in half B) 1. attachment ofchromosome to the plasma membrane, 2. enlargement of cell volume, 3. DNAreplication occurs, 4. cell elongates and chromosomes are pulled apart, 5. anew cell wall and plasma membrane divide the cell in half C) 1. a new cell wall and plasma membrane divide the cell in half, 2.attachment of chromosome to the plasma membrane, 3. enlargement of cell volume,4. DNA replication occurs, 5. cell elongates and chromosomes are pulledapart D) 1. attachment ofchromosome to the plasma membrane, 2. enlargement of cell volume, 3. DNAreplication occurs, 4. a new cell wall and plasma membrane divide the cell inhalf, 5. cell elongates and chromosomes are pulled apart
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44)
What phase of mitosis is pictured?
A) prometaphase B) metaphase C) prophase D) anaphase E) telophase
45)
Apoptosis
A) is programmed cell death. B) frees the fingers and toes of the human embryo from their "webbed" structure to independent structures. C) All of the choices are correct. D) is a process that acts to decrease the number of somatic cells.
46)
Which statement is NOT true about eukaryotic chromosomes? A) Chromosomes disperse back into chromatin at the end of mitosis. B) Chromosomes contain both DNA and associated histones. C) Chromosomes condense from chromatin at the start of mitosis. D) Chromosomes are not located within the nuclear envelope during mitosis. E) There is only one chromosome of each type in each body cell.
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47)
Cloning can only be carried out using adult stem cells. ⊚ ⊚
48)
true false
Binary fission in bacteria differs from mitosis because
A) None of thechoices are correct. B) there is no nuclear membrane to break down and rebuild. C) the chromosome is a simple DNA strand without complex proteins and there is no spindle formation. D) the chromosome copies attach to the plasma membrane and are pulled apart by cell growth. E) All of the choices are correct.
49) If a parent cell has 48 chromosomes, how many chromosomes will each daughter cell have after mitosis and cytokinesis occurs? A) 24 chromosomes B) 96 chromosomes C) 48 chromosomes D) 12 chromosomes
50)
Interphase
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A) All of the answer choices are correct. B) results in an increase in cell size C) occupies the majority of the cell cycle D) Only A and C are correct. E) includes G1, S, and G2 stages
51) Although cancer may originate in many regions of the body, why do many patients die from cancerous growth in the lungs, lymph glands, or liver? A) Metastasis occurs more commonly in these organs because they have a filter effect. B) Cancerous growth in all other areas of the body is benign. C) These organs are more significantly damaged by proteinase enzymes. D) Cancer in these areas of the body spread easily by angiogenesis.
52) In the bone marrow, stem cells produce erythrocytes which lose their nucleus and function for a few months in the bloodstream before they die. Erythrocytes never divide. Based on this information, erythrocytes A) leave the cell cycle in a G 3 phase, which immediately follows G 2. B) continually cycle but simply fail to go through cytokinesis. C) reverse from G 2 to G 1. D) leave the cell cycle in a G 0 phase, after exiting G 1. E) halt in the midst of the S phase.
53) Viruses and chemical exposure can cause mutations in proto-oncogenes which can lead to cancer. ⊚ ⊚
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true false
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54)
Which sequence of the mitotic stages is correct? A) anaphase, prometaphase, metaphase, prophase, telophase B) telophase, anaphase, prophase, prometaphase, metaphase C) prophase, anaphase, prometaphase, metaphase, telophase D) prophase, telophase, anaphase, prometaphase, metaphase E) prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
55) In the bone marrow, stem cells produce erythrocytes which lose their nucleus and function for a few months in the bloodstream before they die. Erythrocytes never divide. Based on this information, erythrocytes A) halt in the midst of the S phase. B) reverse from G 2 to G 1. C) leave the cell cycle in a G 0 phase, after exiting G 1. D) leave the cell cycle in a G 3 phase, which immediately follows G 2. E) continually cycle but simply fail to go through cytokinesis.
56)
Which of the following is/are true statements about mitosis? Select all that apply.
A) Mitosis is the process by which both plants and animals grow in size. B) Animal cells, but not plant cells, have centrioles. C) Animal cells form a cell plate during cytokinesis while plant cells form a cleavage furrow and then pinch into two daughter cells. D) Both plant and animal cells undergo cytokinesis.
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57)
Answer the following questions concerning the following figure.
A. Name the structure labeled "A." B. What process is occurring in the figure? C. Is this an animal or plant cell? Explain
58)
How does euchromatin differ from heterochromatin? Select all that apply.
A) Euchromatin is more representative of the chromosomes during mitosis. B) Heterochromatin is more compacted than euchromatin. C) Most chromosomes contain both regions of euchromatin and heterochromatin. D) Euchromatin represents the active chromatin containing genes that are being transcribed.
59)
Virtually all of the specialized cells of multicellular organisms
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A) contain less genetic material than less specialized cells of the same organism. B) contain more genetic material than less specialized cells of the same organism. C) have the sameamount of DNA and the same number of chromosomes as all other cells of theorganism and develop from the same basic stem cells. D) develop through mutation from less specialized cells of the organism.
60)
Which of the following events does NOT occur during telophase? A) The nucleolus reforms. B) The nuclear envelope is reconstructed. C) The beginning of cytokinesis D) The centromeres split apart. E) Chromosomes de-condense into chromatin.
61) Cancer cells require many nutrients which are supplied by blood vessels. The growth of new blood vessels into cancerous tissue is called A) angiogenesis. B) carcinogenesis. C) metastasis. D) apoptosis.
62)
Which of the following is NOT true about cancer cells? A) They may undergo metastasis. B) They exhibit disorganized growth. C) They never fully differentiate. D) They exhibit uncontrolled growth. E) They exhibit contact inhibition.
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63) Which of the following codes for theproteins that will promote the normal cell cycle and prevent apoptosis? A) oncogenes B) tumor suppressor genes C) caspases D) proto-oncogenes
64)
Which of the following accurately describe mitosis? Select all that apply.
A) Mitosis uses a diploid (2n) parent cell to form daughter cells containing a haploid number(n) of chromosomes. B) Mitosis is involved in development of a fertilized egg into a multicellular organism. C) Mitosis is a process that divides the nuclear contents only. D) Mitosis produces two daughter cells that contain the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell. E) Mitosis produces two daughter cells that are exactly the same size and have the same number of organelles as the parent cell.
65)
Which is NOT correctly associated with cancer? A) Angiogenesis forms new blood vessels and brings nutrients and oxygen to the tumor. B) Metastasis establishes new tumors distant from the site of the primary tumor. C) The cells are organized in a single layer. D) Cells may have abnormally large nuclei.
66)
Which of the following events does NOT occur during telophase?
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A) The beginning of cytokinesis B) The nuclear envelope is reconstructed. C) The nucleolus reforms. D) Chromosomes de-condense into chromatin. E) The centromeres split apart.
67) Which stage of the cell cycle focuses on cell growth, replication of organelles, and the accumulation of material for synthesizing DNA? A) G 1 phase B) S phase C) G 0 phase D) G 2 phase E) M phase
68)
Virtually all of the specialized cells of multicellular organisms
A) contain less genetic material than less specialized cells of the same organism. B) develop through mutation from less specialized cells of the organism. C) contain more genetic material than less specialized cells of the same organism. D) have the sameamount of DNA and the same number of chromosomes as all other cells of theorganism and develop from the same basic stem cells.
69)
Organisms produced as a result of mitosis exhibit a great deal of genetic variation. ⊚ ⊚
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true false
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70) Which stage of the cell cycle focuses on cell growth, replication of organelles, and the accumulation of material for synthesizing DNA? A) G 0 phase B) S phase C) G 2 phase D) M phase E) G 1 phase
71)
Which statement below best describes the difference between mitosis and cytokinesis?
A) Mitosis is the portion of the cell cycle that uses a contractile ring to divide the nuclear material while cytokinesis uses the contractile ring to divide the cell membrane. B) Mitosis is the portion of the cell cycle that uses a cell plate to divide the cell membrane in plant cells while cytokinesis uses a contractile ring to divide the cell membrane in animal cells. C) Mitosis is the portion of the cell cycle that divides the nuclear material while cytokinesis divides the cytoplasm. D) Mitosis is the portion of the cell cycle that divides the cytoplasm while cytokinesis divides the nuclear material.
72)
The purpose of therapeutic cloning is A) to produce specialized tissue cells. B) to stimulate cells that have been arrested in the S phase. C) None of the answer choices are correct. D) to produce an individual to the donor of the nucleus.
73)
The diploid (2n) number of chromosomes for a human being is
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A) 48. B) 23. C) 46. D) 44. E) 24.
74)
Which of the following are the critical checkpoints during interphase? A) G 1 to S stage and G 2 to M stage B) M to G 1 stage and G 2 to M stage C) S to G 2 stage and G 2 to M stage D) M to G 1 stage and S to G 2 stage
75) The enzymes that bring about apoptosis are only present in the cell immediately before apoptosis begins. ⊚ ⊚
76)
true false
Apoptosis refers to cell death and A) is merely the accumulation of genetic errors. B) is always biologically detrimental to an organism. C) is a failure in the translation or transcription mechanism. D) can be programmed and is essential to normal development. E) is any failure of the genetic machinery to work properly.
77) Which of the following descriptions of malignant and benign tumors are true? Select all that apply. Version 1
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A) Both benign and malignant tumors are forms of abnormal cell growth. B) Benign tumors tend to grow very large while malignant tumors stay small. C) Benign tumors can metastasize while malignant tumors tend to stay in one location. D) Malignant tumors have more genetic mutations than benign tumors.
78)
What might prevent a cell from passing the G
1 checkpoint?
A) Only A and B are correct. B) Only B and C are correct. C) The cell may need to enter the G 0 stage. D) The cell may have damaged DNA and need to undergo apoptosis. E) The DNA has not completed replication.
79)
Answer the following questions concerning the following figure.
A. Name the structure labeled "A." B. What process is occurring in the figure? C. Is this an animal or plant cell? Explain
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80)
In some organisms, mitosis occurs without cytokinesis. This results in A) cells with no nucleus. B) a multinucleated cell. C) cells arrested in the G0 phase. D) cell death. E) uncontrolled cell division.
81) Viruses and chemical exposure can cause mutations in proto-oncogenes which can lead to cancer. ⊚ ⊚
82)
true false
Which of the following accurately describe mitosis? Select all that apply.
A) Mitosis produces two daughter cells that contain the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell. B) Mitosis is involved in development of a fertilized egg into a multicellular organism. C) Mitosis uses a diploid (2n) parent cell to form daughter cells containing a haploid number(n) of chromosomes. D) Mitosis is a process that divides the nuclear contents only. E) Mitosis produces two daughter cells that are exactly the same size and have the same number of organelles as the parent cell.
83)
The function of mitosis is
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A) to ensure that each new cell receives a complete set of genetic information. B) asexual reproduction in some species. C) growth of the organism and tissue repair. D) All of the choices are correct.
84)
Cloning can only be carried out using adult stem cells. ⊚ ⊚
85)
true false
Which of the following are the critical checkpoints during interphase? A) M to G 1 stage and S to G 2 stage B) M to G 1 stage and G 2 to M stage C) S to G 2 stage and G 2 to M stage D) G 1 to S stage and G 2 to M stage
86)
Binary fission in bacteria differs from mitosis because
A) the chromosome copies attach to the plasma membrane and are pulled apart by cell growth. B) the chromosome is a simple DNA strand without complex proteins and there is no spindle formation. C) All of the choices are correct. D) None of thechoices are correct. E) there is no nuclear membrane to break down and rebuild.
87)
The haploid (n) number of chromosomes for a human being is
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A) 46. B) 23. C) 48. D) 24. E) 44.
88)
Which statement below best describes the difference between mitosis and cytokinesis?
A) Mitosis is the portion of the cell cycle that uses a cell plate to divide the cell membrane in plant cells while cytokinesis uses a contractile ring to divide the cell membrane in animal cells. B) Mitosis is the portion of the cell cycle that divides the cytoplasm while cytokinesis divides the nuclear material. C) Mitosis is the portion of the cell cycle that uses a contractile ring to divide the nuclear material while cytokinesis uses the contractile ring to divide the cell membrane. D) Mitosis is the portion of the cell cycle that divides the nuclear material while cytokinesis divides the cytoplasm.
89)
All of the following are characteristics of oncogenes EXCEPT A) they are mutated proto-oncogenes. B) they cause cancer. C) they are genes that stimulate uncontrolled cell division. D) they are tumor suppressor genes.
90)
Interphase
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A) All of the answer choices are correct. B) includes G1, S, and G2 stages C) occupies the majority of the cell cycle D) results in an increase in cell size E) Only A and C are correct.
91) A human cell contains at least 2 m of DNA, yet all of this DNA is packed into a nucleus that is about 6 μm in diameter. How is this accomplished? Select all that apply. A) The DNA is coiled into radial loops. B) The DNA is cut at several locations and each section is loosely wrapped into a beadlike shape. C) DNA is wrapped around histone proteins giving it the appearance of a string of beads. D) DNA is folded into a zigzag structure.
92)
Apoptosis
A) frees the fingers and toes of the human embryo from their "webbed" structure to independent structures. B) All of the choices are correct. C) is a process that acts to decrease the number of somatic cells. D) is programmed cell death.
93) Contact inhibition stops normal cells from dividing when they come in contact with neighboring cells, but this is not functional in cancer cells. ⊚ ⊚
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true false
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94)
Organisms produced as a result of mitosis exhibit a great deal of genetic variation. ⊚ ⊚
95)
true false
What phase of mitosis is pictured?
A) telophase B) anaphase C) prometaphase D) metaphase E) prophase
96) Which stage is most associated with a cell that is unable to divide again, such as a muscle or nerve cell? A) G 1 phase B) M phase C) G 0 phase D) G 2 phase E) S phase
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97) Generally, brain and nerve cells are not able to regenerate after injury because they have left the cell cycle and are unable to return. ⊚ ⊚
true false
98) Which stage is most associated with a cell that is unable to divide again, such as a muscle or nerve cell? A) S phase B) M phase C) G 1 phase D) G 2 phase E) G 0 phase
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99)
Name the labeled structures in the figure and answer the following questions.
A. _____ B. _____ C. _____ D. When the structures labeled "A" separate, what are they called? E. What is the function of the structure labeled "C"?
100)
Which represents the correct sequence of stages in the cell cycle? A) G 1, G 2, S, M B) G 1, M, G 2, S C) G 1, G 2, M, S D) G 1, S, G 2, M
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101) Although cancer may originate in many regions of the body, why do many patients die from cancerous growth in the lungs, lymph glands, or liver? A) Cancerous growth in all other areas of the body is benign. B) Metastasis occurs more commonly in these organs because they have a filter effect. C) These organs are more significantly damaged by proteinase enzymes. D) Cancer in these areas of the body spread easily by angiogenesis.
102)
The purpose of therapeutic cloning is A) to produce specialized tissue cells. B) to produce an individual to the donor of the nucleus. C) None of the answer choices are correct. D) to stimulate cells that have been arrested in the S phase.
103)
Eukaryotic chromosomes A) consist of both DNA and protein. B) contain histones responsible for packaging DNA to fit into a small space. C) All of the choices are correct. D) Only A and B are correct. E) may occur as chromatin.
104)
What occurs in anaphase?
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A) The nuclear envelope disappears. B) Centrioles move to opposite poles. C) Chromatids are separated and move to opposite poles. D) Chromosomes line up along the equator of the dividing cell. E) The nuclear envelope is constructed.
105)
How does euchromatin differ from heterochromatin? Select all that apply.
A) Euchromatin is more representative of the chromosomes during mitosis. B) Most chromosomes contain both regions of euchromatin and heterochromatin. C) Heterochromatin is more compacted than euchromatin. D) Euchromatin represents the active chromatin containing genes that are being transcribed.
106) All of the following are true about the chromosomes of a multicellular organism EXCEPT: A) Each chromosome is replicated into two chromatids during the S phase of interphase. B) All cells contain chromosomes that carry the same genetic information. C) They are made up of DNA and protein. D) Each chromosome separates into two daughter chromosomes by binary fission.
107)
Angiogenesis A) All of these. B) brings nutrients and oxygen to a tumor. C) is the growth of blood vessels into the tumor. D) None of these. E) is directed by additional mutations in tumor cells.
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108)
Which of the following is/are true statements about mitosis? Select all that apply.
A) Both plant and animal cells undergo cytokinesis. B) Mitosis is the process by which both plants and animals grow in size. C) Animal cells form a cell plate during cytokinesis while plant cells form a cleavage furrow and then pinch into two daughter cells. D) Animal cells, but not plant cells, have centrioles.
109) Male honeybees are haploid (n) while the females are diploid (2n). Based on this information, which of the following are true statements? A) As compared to the females, male honeybees have twice the number of chromosomes. B) Only A and B are true. C) As compared to a female, a male honeybee has half the amount of DNA. D) A single set of chromosomes is sufficient to code for a functional individual.
110) A human cell contains at least 2 m of DNA, yet all of this DNA is packed into a nucleus that is about 6 μm in diameter. How is this accomplished? Select all that apply. A) The DNA is coiled into radial loops. B) DNA is folded into a zigzag structure. C) The DNA is cut at several locations and each section is loosely wrapped into a beadlike shape. D) DNA is wrapped around histone proteins giving it the appearance of a string of beads.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 09_14e_Mader 1) C 2) D 3) C 4) C 5) B 6) TRUE 7) D 8) C 9) C 10) A 11) D 12) B 13) A 15) B 16) B 17) A 18) TRUE 19) A 20) D 22) C 23) TRUE 24) B 25) A 26) D 27) TRUE 28) A Version 1
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29) A 30) A 31) B 32) A 33) D 34) D 35) [A, C] 36) TRUE 37) A 38) B 39) C 41) C 42) C 43) B 44) D 45) C 46) E 47) FALSE 48) E 49) C 50) A 51) A 52) D 53) TRUE 54) E 55) C 56) [A, B, D] 58) [B, C, D] 59) C 60) D Version 1
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61) A 62) E 63) D 64) [B, C, D] 65) C 66) E 67) A 68) D 69) FALSE 70) E 71) C 72) A 73) C 74) A 75) FALSE 76) D 77) [A, D] 78) B 80) B 81) TRUE 82) [A, B, D] 83) D 84) FALSE 85) D 86) C 87) B 88) D 89) D 90) A 91) [A, C, D] Version 1
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92) B 93) TRUE 94) FALSE 95) B 96) C 97) TRUE 98) E 100) D 101) B 102) A 103) C 104) C 105) [B, C, D] 106) D 107) A 108) [A, B, D] 109) B 110) [A, B, D]
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CHAPTER 10 1) Identify the chromosomal abnormalities as well as the physical features present in a person suffering from Turner syndrome.
2)
At which stage of meiosis is each chromosome composed of a single chromatid? A) telophase I B) prophase II C) anaphase II D) prophase I E) metaphase II
3)
It is estimated that an average of two or three crossovers occur per human chromosome. ⊚ ⊚
4)
true false
All of the following are true concerning Down syndrome EXCEPT A) it is the most common trisomy in humans. B) it is caused by autosomal trisomy 21. C) chances of a woman having a child with Down syndrome decrease as she gets older. D) in 23% of cases, the sperm contributes the extra chromosome.
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5)
Why is crossing-over important? A) It increases chromosome condensation. B) It separates the homologous chromosomes. C) It provides extra genetic material for the daughter cells. D) It produces the proteins that are associated with DNA in chromosomes. E) It increases the likelihood that daughter cells contain different genetic material.
6) Study the figure depicting the process of spermatogenesis. Name the labeled cells and tell whether they are haploid or diploid. In what part of meiosis is the number of chromosomes reduced by half?
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7) Spindle formation, centrosome migration, the fragmentation of the nuclear envelope, and the disappearance of the nucleolus are characteristic of prophase I of meiosis but not prophase of mitosis. ⊚ ⊚
8)
true false
Which of the following statements correctly compares the events of meiosis and mitosis?
A) After telophase I ofmeiosis, each daughter cell is diploid;after telophaseIof mitosis, each daughter cell is haploid. B) During prophase II of meiosis, the homologous chromosomes cross-over; there is no crossing-over during prophase of mitosis. C) During anaphase I ofmeiosis, the homologues pairs separate; during anaphase of mitosis, the homologous pairs stay together. D) During metaphase I of meiosis, the bivalents are present at the metaphase plate; during metaphase of mitosis, the duplicated chromosomes are at the metaphase plate.
9) If a cell contains 12 chromosomes at the end of meiosis I, how many chromosomes will the daughter cells contain at the end of meiosis II? A) 12 B) 24 C) 6 D) 3
10)
To what does the term chiasma refer?
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A) structures that hold the chromosomes in alignment on the metaphase plate B) the process of crossing-over C) the period between meiosis I and meiosis II D) the process of fertilization E) a structure that holds together homologues during crossing-over
11)
Some plants are tetraploid (4n). How might such a plant arise?
12) Dogs have 39 chromosome pairs. Based on this information, determine which of the following statements are true. Select all that apply. A) At the end of meiosis II, a cell would have 39 chromosomes. B) At the end of mitosis, a cell would have 78 chromosomes. C) The haploid number for dogs is 39. D) Meiosis does not occur in dogs. E) At the end of meiosis I, a cell would have 78 chromosomes.
13)
What is the function of polar bodies?
A) They orient the sperm toward the egg. B) They orient the egg for penetration by the sperm. C) They allow areduction in chromosomes while preserving most of the cytoplasm for oneegg. D) They nurse the egg as it leaves the follicle.
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14) Aneuploidy is a change in the number of chromosomes resulting from nondisjunction during meiosis. ⊚ ⊚
15)
true false
Study the diagram to answer the following questions.
A. What process is occurring in this diagram? B. What structures, represented by (ABCD) and (abcd), are participating in this process? C. How has this changed the structures?
16) Characterize the following statements about changes in chromosome number and structure as True or False.
16.1) Version 1
The correct number of chromosomes in a species is known as aneuploidy. 5
⊚ ⊚
true false
16.2) A change in the chromosome number resulting from nondisjunction is called euploidy. ⊚ ⊚
true false
16.3) Monosomy occurs when an individual has only one of a particular type of chromosome. ⊚ ⊚
true false
16.4) Primary nondisjunction occurs during meiosis II when the sister chromatids fail to separate and both daughter chromosomes go in the same gamete. ⊚ ⊚
true false
16.5) Sex chromosome aneuploids are better tolerated and have a better chance of producing survivors. ⊚ ⊚
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true false
6
17)
The following picture depicts which of the following changes in chromosome structure?
A) duplication B) aneuploidy C) deletion D) translocation
18)
Interkinesis is different from interphase in which way? A) Interphase involves DNA replication and interkinesis does not. B) Interkinesis is the stage that precedes a prophase stage. C) Interkinesis can be variable in length. D) Interkinesis occurs after a cell finishes a nuclear division.
19)
Which of the following is NOT true about daughter cells of mitosis or meiosis?
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A) In meiosis, the daughter cells are genetically identical. B) In mitosis, the daughter cells are genetically identical. C) In mitosis, there are two daughter cells. D) In meiosis, there are four daughter cells. E) In meiosis, daughter cells are haploid.
20) Sources of genetic variation in sexually reproducing organisms include(s) which of the following? A) crossing-over in prophase I of meiosis B) fertilization C) independent assortment in metaphase I of meiosis D) None of thechoices are sources of genetic variation. E) All of the choices are sources of genetic variation.
21)
In human females, when is meiosis II completed? A) immediately after the sperm penetrates the primary oocyte B) immediately after the sperm penetrates the secondary oocyte C) at ovulation D) after the zygote has formed
22)
Which statement is NOT true about homologous chromosomes in meiosis I?
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A) Homologous chromosomes interact with the spindle as if they were one chromosome. B) Homologous chromosomes separate and go to different daughter cells. C) Homologous chromosomes form tetrads. D) Homologous chromosomes exchange genetic material between nonsister chromatids. E) Each pair of homologous chromosomes break into four separate chromatids.
23) Species X reproduces asexually by fission and species Y reproduces sexually. Consider that all other relevant characteristics are similar between these species. When the environment changes, then A) species X should have a better chance of surviving than species Y. B) species Y should have a better chance of surviving than species X. C) species X and Y will have an equal chance of surviving. D) neither species should have an advantage in surviving since organisms often become extinct when the environment changes.
24)
The polar body is A) a precursor cell that becomes an egg cell. B) another name for an egg cell. C) a nonfunctional cell formed at the same time as an egg cell. D) the cell produced when fertilization occurs.
25)
Which of the following statements is true about the life cycle of animals?
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A) The gametes arethe haploid phase of the animals life cycle. B) The products ofthe haploid phase of the life cycle are larger than those of the diploidphase. C) Meiosis is not anecessary component of the animal life cycle. D) The gametes arethe diploid phase of the life cycle.
26)
Which of the following is/are true about sexual reproduction? A) None of the choices are true. B) The production of gametes is known as gametogenesis. C) A fertilized egg is known as a zygote. D) All of the choices are true. E) Gametes are the only haploid phase of the human life cycle.
27) Which of the following accurately describe anaphase I and anaphase II? Select all that apply. A) Anaphase I occurs in both males and females but anaphase II only occurs in females. B) Homologous chromosomes separate during anaphase I and sister chromatids separate during anaphase II. C) Anaphase I occurs in a haploid cell while anaphase II occurs in a diploid cell. D) At the end of anaphase I, each chromosome is composed of two chromatids and at the end of anaphase II, sister chromatids have separated.
28) During which stage of meiosis are the bivalents arranged along the equator of the spindle?
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A) metaphase II B) metaphase I C) anaphase II D) prophase I E) prophase II
29) There is a species of desert lizard that is entirely female. It is nevertheless necessary for two females to court and for one to assume the posture of a male to stimulate the female to produce eggs. No fertilization can occur, and the eggs develop into female lizards. What is the probable evolutionary mechanism for this occurring? A) This is probably an asexual organism attempting to mimic sexual reproduction. B) The desert is relatively uniform and there is little advantage to maintaining variation, but the animal has not been able to completely evolve away from its heritage of sexual reproduction. C) The mating behavior probably evolved accidentally. D) The species is probably going extinct.
30)
Which statement applies only to plants? A) They will have a haploid and diploid phase of the life cycle. B) They use sexual reproduction to produce new offspring. C) They use meiosis in order to produce the gametes. D) The haploid phase can be larger than the diploid phase.
31)
Meiosis accomplishes all of the following EXCEPT
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A) providing genetic variation in sexually reproducing organisms. B) reduction of chromosome number (from 2n to n). C) gamete production. D) growth and repair.
32) A primary spermatocyte has 64 chromosomes. After meiosis I, each secondary spermatocyte would have 32 chromosomes. After meiosis II, each spermatid would have 16 chromosomes. ⊚ ⊚
true false
33) If a sperm cell contains 8 chromosomes, it comes from an animal whose regular body cells have _____ chromosomes. A) 8 B) 12 C) 16 D) 24 E) 4
34) During _____, the homologous chromosome pairs independently align themselves at the equator of the cell. A) independentassortment B) crossing-over C) anaphase I D) mitosis
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35)
Study the figure to answer the following questions.
A. Is this cell going through mitosis or meiosis? B. Explain your answer. C. Identify the stage.
36) If the diploid number of chromosomes for an organism is 52, what will the haploid number of chromosomes be? A) 112 B) 24 C) 26 D) 48
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37)
The followingpicture depicts which of the following changes in chromosome structure?
A) translocation B) aneuploidy C) deletion D) duplication
38)
During which stage of meiosis do the homologous chromosomes separate? A) anaphase II B) prophase II C) telophase I D) anaphase I E) prophase I
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39) Study the diagram below. This is one cell with three homologous pairs of chromosomes pictured in eight different patterns. A. What is this diagram illustrating? B. How many daughter nuclei will result from these cells? C. How many different combinations of chromosomes are there?
40) In a particular eukaryotic organism, in which phases of meiosis and mitosis is the number of chromatids in a cell the same? A) prophase II and prophase B) anaphase II and anaphase C) telophase I and telophase D) metaphase I and metaphase
41)
Which of the following is a true statement concerning meiosis in males and females?
A) Males provide more genes in sperm than females provide in eggs. B) Spermatogenesis in males results in four functional sperm while oogenesis in females results in only one egg. C) Sperm that contain a recombination of genes are usually more successful in fertilizing an egg. D) Crossing-over occurs more often in the formation of sperm than in eggs.
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42)
Meiosis occurs during which of the following? A) oogenesis. B) spermatogenesis. C) None of the answers are correct. D) gametogenesis. E) Gametogenesis, oogenesis, and spermatogenesis all involve meiosis.
43) Oogenesis always involves an equal division of cell contents in the formation of an egg and polar bodies. ⊚ ⊚
44)
true false
During which stage of meiosis does crossing-over occur? A) telophase I of meiosis I B) prophase I of meiosis I C) anaphase II of meiosis I D) anaphase I of meiosis II E) prophase II of meiosis II
45) If gametes had the same number of chromosomes as body cells, and an organism had 12 chromosomes in its body cells, how many chromosomes would it have after three generations? How does this illustrate the necessity of meiosis for gamete formation?
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46)
Which of the following is nota characteristic of homologous chromosomes? A) They are similar in shape and location of the centromere. B) They carry the same alleles for all traits. C) They are similar in size. D) They carry genes for the same traits.
47)
Where in the human male does spermatogenesis occur? A) ovaries B) testes C) prostate gland D) penis E) epididymus
48) A lattice holds the members of a bivalent together in such a way that the RNA of the nonsister chromatids is aligned. ⊚ ⊚
49)
true false
Which of the following would NOT contribute to genetic variation? A) the combination ofsperm and egg genes B) crossing-over of homologous chromosomes C) the random alignment of the chromosomes during metaphase I D) crossing-over of sister chromatids
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50)
Which does NOT occur in meiosis? A) two daughter cells at completion B) formation of bivalents C) two nuclear divisions D) four daughter cells at completion
51)
Only one of the four daughter cells becomes a functional gamete in spermatogenesis. ⊚ ⊚
true false
52) In meiosis, the reduction from 2n to n is accomplished by sister chromatids splitting apart and migrating to opposite daughter cells. ⊚ ⊚
53)
true false
The cell formed after fertilization of an egg by a sperm is called a(n) A) zygote. B) sperm cell. C) egg cell. D) gamete. E) ovum.
54)
Jacobs syndrome, XYY, results from nondisjunction during spermatogenesis.
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⊚ ⊚
true false
55) Identify which event will occur during prophase I of meiosis but does not occur during prophase of mitosis. A) Spindles form as centrosomes migrate away from each other. B) Chromatin will condense into chromosomes. C) Nuclear envelope will dissolve. D) Bivalents will form.
56) Sexual reproduction brings about genetic variation within a species. How does sexual reproduction contribute to variation? Why is genetic variation so important to the survival of a species? Support your answer with an example.
57)
Another name for a tetrad is a(n) A) polar body. B) gamete. C) homologue. D) oocyte. E) bivalent.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 10_14e_Mader 2) C 3) TRUE 4) C 5) E 7) FALSE 8) D 9) A 10) E 12) [A, B, C] 13) C 14) TRUE 16) Section Break 16.1) FALSE 16.2) FALSE 16.3) TRUE 16.4) FALSE 16.5) TRUE 17) D 18) A 19) A 20) E 21) B 22) E 23) B 24) C 25) A Version 1
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26) D 27) [B, D] 28) B 29) B 30) D 31) D 32) FALSE 33) C 34) A 36) C 37) D 38) D 40) D 41) B 42) E 43) FALSE 44) B 46) B 47) B 48) FALSE 49) D 50) A 51) FALSE 52) FALSE 53) A 54) TRUE 55) D 57) E
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CHAPTER 11 1) If the probability of event A is 3/4 and the probability of event B is 1/4, then the probability of both A and B occurring at the same time is A) 3/16. B) 1/2. C) 3/4. D) 1/4. E) 1 or absolute certainty.
2) Polygenic traits such as height or weight are often influenced by the environment of the organism. ⊚ ⊚
true false
3) When an individual of African descent marries and has children with an individual of European descent, their children often have a mid-shade of skin color, but they could also have a light shade or a dark shade.This can best be described as A) X-linked inheritance. B) polygenic inheritance. C) pleiotropic inheritance. D) the dominance of the gene for dark skin tone.
4) As many as 60% of people in malaria-infected regions of Africa have the sickle-cell allele, but only about 10% of the U.S. population of African ancestry carries the allele. Malaria remains a major disease in central Africa but has not been a serious problem in the U.S. for many generations. What is/are the reason(s) for the difference in the percentages and what is a reasonable statement about future percentages?
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A) The presence of malaria in Africa maintains the advantage of the heterozygous sickle-cell trait, and the prevalence of malaria will likely continue to preserve the 60% rate. B) Lack of widespread malaria in the United States would have resulted in both homozygous and heterozygous carriers of sickle cell undergoing several generations of negative selection. We should expect this to continue unless innovative therapies give all individuals an equal chance of surviving and reproducing. C) All of the choices are reasonable. D) The U.S. percentage may have always been somewhat lower due to immigration from nonmalaria regions, but changes in sites and rates of immigration could occur.
5) Some plants fail to produce chlorophyll, and this trait appears to be recessive. Many plants also self-pollinate. If we locate a pea plant that is heterozygous for this trait, self-pollinate it and harvest seeds, what are the likely phenotypes of these seeds when they germinate? A) About one-half will be green and one-half white. B) About one-fourth will be green and three-fourths white. C) All will be white and lack chlorophyll. D) About one-fourth will be white and three-fourths green. E) All will be green with chlorophyll.
6)
What is the blending theory of inheritance? How did Mendel disprove this theory?
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7) When crossing a true-breeding red snapdragon flower with a true-breeding white flower of the same species, all offspring are pink. This would seem to support the pre-Mendel view that inheritance is a blending of parental traits. However, Mendel and conventional wisdom agree that "blending" of parental traits is not correct and that particles of inheritance are actually involved. Which of the following statements supports the idea of particulate inheritance? A) Over many generations of crossing individuals with the incompletely dominant phenotype, all the progeny are pink. B) Two parents that show the incompletely dominant phenotype produce some offspring that are red and some that are white. C) There is no way to directly prove that incomplete dominance is not a case of blending. D) In meiosis, alleles of different genes assort independently of each other during gamete formation.
8) Computer simulations are sometimes used to demonstrate the outcome of monohybrid fruit fly crosses, where a student can run generation after generation of fruit flies with 100 offspring produced each generation, half male and half female, and a 3-to-1 phenotype ratio (or 75 to 25) in the F 1 generation. Compared with real genetics results, A) rarely would exactly 100 fly offspring be produced or survive. B) All of the choices are true. C) a precise 3-to-1 ratio would be uncommon. D) an exact balance between males and females would be rare.
9) If individuals exhibiting a dominant phenotype are crossed and produce only offspring with the dominant phenotype, which of the following could be the genotype of the parents?
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A) One is heterozygous and one is homozygous dominant. B) Both are heterozygous. C) Both are homozygous dominant. D) Two of the options may be correct. E) Both are homozygous recessive.
10) The reason why some individuals who inherit polydactyly (having an extra digit on the hand or feet) do not express the trait is due to A) pleiotropy. B) incomplete dominance. C) None of the answers are correct. D) gene linkage. E) incomplete penetrance.
11) Women with an X-linked disorder could pass the genes for the disorder to _____, and men with an X-linked disorder could pass the genes for the disorder to _____. A) both their daughters and sons; their daughters and sons B) both their daughters and sons; only their sons C) only their daughters; only their daughters D) both their daughters and sons; only their daughters
12)
Which allele combination represents a homozygous dominant individual? A) Aa B) None of these are homozygous dominant individuals. C) aa D) AA
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13) In 1940, two researchers named Weiner and Landsteiner discovered that about 85 percent of the human population sampled possessed a blood cell protein that had been previously detected in Rhesus monkeys. This blood type was labeled Rh positive, and Rh + was found to be dominant over the absence of the blood factor (Rh -). Under normal Mendelian inheritance, which of the following statements is FALSE? A) Two Rh - parents could have an Rh + child. B) Two Rh + parents could have an Rh - child. C) An Rh - child would require that both parents be carriers of at least one Rh - gene. D) It is possible with just one pair of parents to have children where some siblings are Rh and some are Rh +. E) All of the choices are false.
14)
Which of the following is not part of Mendel's law of segregation? A) Each gamete will carry two factors for a trait. B) The factors segregate during meiosis. C) Each individualhas two factors for each trait. D) Fertilizationgives the offspring two factors for each trait.
15) Upon examination, a person is found to only have half the normal number of LDLcholesterol receptors. Which of the following best explains this? A) incompletedominance B) X-linkedinheritance C) polygenicinheritance D) pleiotropicinheritance
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16) Black and brown guinea pigs are bred together. Assuming their color is determined by one gene, and that there is a dominant and a recessive allele, how would you determine which allele is dominant? How could you determine the genotypes of the parents? Explain.
17) If an individual with a dominant phenotype is crossed with an individual with a recessive phenotype, 4 of their 9 offspring show the recessive phenotype. What is the genotype of the first parent? A) Aa B) AA C) aa D) The answer cannot be determined from this information.
18)
What is pleiotropy? A) A single mutant gene affects one trait. B) A single mutant gene has no affect on an individual's phenotype. C) A single mutant gene affects two or more distinct and seemingly unrelated traits. D) Two mutant genes affect one trait.
19) An individual with blood type A marries an individual with blood type B. A. What blood types could their offspring exhibit? B. Provide the possible genotypes of parents and offspring produced. C. What pattern of inheritance is this?
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20) The pedigree chart depicts the inheritance pattern of _____. Circles depict females and squares depict males. Colored shapes represent affected individuals (expressing a trait) and uncolored shapes are unaffected (do not express a trait).
A) an autosomal recessive characteristic with both parents being homozygous recessive B) None. C) an autosomal recessive characteristic with both parents being heterozygous D) an autosomal dominant characteristic with both parents being homozygous dominant
21) In what kind of classic Mendelian cross would you expect to find a ratio of 9:3:3:1 among the F 2 offspring? A) None of the choices are correct. B) monohybrid cross C) testcross D) dihybrid cross
22)
What is the blending theory of inheritance?
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A) A theory that describes how offspring show traits intermediate between those of the parents. B) Mendel's theory of how traits are passed from parent to offspring. C) The modern theory of how genetic information is passed from parents to offspring. D) Darwin's theory of how traits are passed from the parent to the offspring.
23)
The offspring of a monohybrid testcross could have what possible genotype(s)? A) AA only B) AA, Aa, and aa C) Aa and aa D) aa only E) AA and Aa
24)
The most common lethal genetic disease among Caucasians is A) Tay-Sachs disease. B) albinism. C) cystic fibrosis. D) neurofibromatosis. E) phenylketonuria.
25) Since each child of two heterozygous parents has a 50% chance of receiving a recessive trait from each parent,
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A) if the first child is phenotypically recessive, then the next child has a 3/4 chance of being phenotypically recessive. B) no matter what the first child's phenotype, the next child will have a 1/4 chance of being phenotypically recessive. C) if the first child is phenotypically recessive, then the next child must be phenotypically dominant. D) if the first child is phenotypically recessive, then the next child has a 1/2 chance of being phenotypically recessive.
26) During Mendel's pea plants experiment, he discovered that the trait for tallness is dominant to that of shortness. Which of the following statements is correct? A) Tall = tt whileshort = TT or Tt B) None of thesestatements are correct. C) Tall = TT or Ttwhile short = tt D) Tall = TT or ttwhile short = Tt
27)
Which of the following disorders is not a X-linked trait? A) All of these are X-linked disorders. B) muscular dystrophy C) hemophilia D) adrenoleukodystrophy
28) In pea plants, the gene for round seeds (R) is dominant, and wrinkled seeds (r) is recessive. The endosperm of the pea is also either starchy, a dominant gene (S), or waxy (s). What can be said of a fully heterozygous, dihybrid cross?
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A) All of these choices are possible combinations in a dihybrid cross. B) Some offspring could be homozygous for both recessive genes. C) All of these choices are impossible combinations in a dihybrid cross. D) Some offspring could be homozygous for both dominant genes. E) Some offspring could be homozygous for one dominant gene such as round seed and homozygous recessive for the other recessive waxy gene.
29)
Which is associated with the inability to produce factor VIII in the blood? A) hemophilia A B) trisomy 21 C) Duchenne muscular dystrophy D) Williams syndrome E) color blindness
30)
Which of the following statements accurately describes Gregor Mendel?
A) He was very deliberate and followed the scientific method closely while doing his research. B) All of the statements accurately describe Gregor Mendel. C) He conducted many preliminary studies with various animals and plants. D) He had a strong background in mathematics. E) He kept very detailed records of his research.
31) In a case of incomplete dominance, the phenotypic ratio of the F same as the genotypic ratio. ⊚ ⊚
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true false
10
32) If a woman is a carrier for the color blind recessive allele and her husband is normal, what are their chances that their son will be color blind? A) None since he will be a carrier like his mother. B) 100% because the mother is a carrier. C) 50% since the mother is a carrier. D) None since the father is normal.
33) Haiti is settled by peoples of both African and European ancestry. A young couple, both with mixed ancestry, marry and have several children. The children, who all have equal exposure to sunlight, vary widely in the amount of skin melanin. One child is lighter than both parents, and one is darker. The simple explanation for this is A) epistasis. B) multiple alleles are available for the one chromosomal locus that governs skin color. C) polygenic inheritance. D) gene linkage. E) the environment influenced the phenotypes of the children.
34) If an individual is heterozygous for a particular trait, the gametes that individual produces will contain 3/4 dominant and 1/4 recessive alleles. ⊚ ⊚
35)
true false
Which allele combination represents a heterozygous individual?
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A) None of these represent a heterozygous individual. B) AA C) aa D) Aa
36) A single, simple, recessively inherited mutation inactivates the enzyme that converts phenylalanine to tyrosine. Homozygous recessive individuals possess an excessive amount of phenylalanine and a deficiency of tyrosine. Additionally, these individuals may be mentally deficient, have abnormally light hair and abnormally light skin color. This disorder is an example of A) pleiotropy. B) polygenic inheritance. C) incomplete dominance. D) incomplete penetrance.
37) Which of the following statements is NOT true according to Mendel's law of segregation? A) One factor must be dominant and one factor recessive in each individual. B) Fertilization restores the presence of two factors. C) Each individual contains two factors for each trait. D) Factors separate from each other during gamete formation. E) Each gamete contains one copy of each factor.
38) A testcross involves an individual with the dominant phenotype but unknown genotype being crossed with an individual that has a(n) ________ genotype.
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A) heterozygous dominant B) homozygous dominant C) homozygous recessive D) Any of the choices.
39) If black fur is produced by a recessive allele, which genotype is most likely to produce a black individual? A) BB B) bb C) Cb D) Bb
40) Which of the following is NOT a trait that is the result of, or is affected by, the interaction of more than one gene? A) cleft palate B) human skin color C) sickle-cell anemia D) height
41) The ability to roll the edges of the tongue upward in a U-shape is considered to be an inherited trait. The standard assumption is that tongue-rolling is a dominant allele at a single gene locus. Which of the following would cast doubt on this assumption? Select all that apply.
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A) A student who can roll his tongue has both a mother and father who cannot. B) A student who cannot roll his tongue has both a mother and father who can. C) A research study with 1,000 participants reports that most non-tongue-rollers can learn to roll their tongues. D) In a large research study, the majority of tongue-rollers were male.
42) If two parents have blood genotypes I genotypes are possible in their children?
A
i and I
B
i, which of the following blood
A) I AI A, I BI B, and I AI B only B) I Ai, I Bi, and I AI B only C) I Ai and I Bi only D) I Ai, I Bi, I AI B and ii E) I Ai, I Bi, and ii only
43)
Which statement about the blending concept of inheritance is correct?
A) A cross between atall man and a short woman would always produce children of medium height. B) A cross between atall man and a short woman can produce some children that are tall while othersare short. C) Genetic material isunstable which accounts for such a wide diversity in our offspring. D) A cross between a tall man and a short woman produces tall children who can then produce short grandchildren.
44)
The particulate theory of inheritance
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A) All of the choices are correct. B) is based on particles or hereditary units we now call genes. C) Two of the above choices are correct. D) preceded Mendel's research by a century. E) was proposed by Mendel.
45) If a human who is a tongue roller (T) and has unattached ear lobes (E) marries a person who cannot roll their tongue and has attached earlobes, could they produce an offspring that was also a non-tongue-roller with attached earlobes? What would be the genotype of the first parent? The second parent? A) unable to determine from the information given B) yes; TtEE; ttEe C) yes; TtEe; ttee D) no; TTEE; ttee
46) The F 2 offspring of a classic Mendelian monohybrid cross between homozygous dominant and homozygous recessive parents would produce the genotype(s) A) Aa only. B) AA and Aa. C) Aa and aa. D) AA only. E) AA, Aa, and aa.
47) Unattached earlobes (EE or Ee) are described in the textbook as dominant over attached earlobes (ee). A couple both have unattached earlobes. Both notice that one of their parents on both sides has attached earlobes (ee). Therefore, they correctly assume that they are carriers for attached earlobes (Ee). The couple proceeds to have four children.
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A) Two heterozygous, one homozygous recessive, and one homozygous dominant is a likely outcome, but all heterozygous, or two, three, or all four homozygous are also possible. B) They can be certain that three will be heterozygous and one homozygous recessive. C) If the first three are heterozygous, the fourth must be homozygous recessive. D) All children must have unattached earlobes since both parents possess the dominant gene for it. E) The children must repeat the grandparents' genotype (Ee).
48)
If a pea plant shows a recessive phenotype, A) the genotype may be Tt or tt. B) the genotype can only be tt. C) the genotype may be TT or Tt. D) the genotype can only be TT. E) the genotype may be TT, Tt, or tt.
49)
What are alleles? A) the locations of genes on a chromosome B) the recessive form of a gene C) genes for different traits, such as hair color or eye color D) alternative forms of a gene for a single trait, such as blue eyes or brown eyes E) the dominant form of a gene
50)
In a Punnett square,
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A) all the possible types of eggs are lined up either horizontally or vertically. B) the results show the offspring's expected genotypes. C) Only two of thechoices are correct. D) All of the choicesare correct. E) all the possible types of sperm are lined up either horizontally or vertically.
51) In a classic Mendelian monohybrid cross between a homozygous dominant parent and a homozygous recessive parent, which generation is always completely heterozygous? A) F 2 generation B) F 3 generation C) F 1 generation D) P generation
52) Lethal genes (genes that result in the failure to develop a vital organ or metabolic pathway) are nearly always recessive. Animal breeders who discover a unique trait and selectively breed to increase the occurrence of that trait often encounter a noticeable increase in lethal genes. Why? A) "Epistasis"—selection for the desired trait may result in "uncovering" the lethal gene. B) The lethal recessive gene may be incompletely dominant. C) "Pleiotropy"—the gene that is being selected for this trait may have the second effect of being lethal. D) The selective-mating of closely related individuals, or inbreeding, increases the chances that two recessive genes will "meet" in offspring. E) Spreading the gene among offspring of both sexes will increase the likelihood it will be sex-linked and expressed.
53)
Cystic fibrosis and phenylketonuria are common autosomal dominant disorders.
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⊚ ⊚
true false
54) If white eyes are produced by a recessive allele, what is the likely genotype of a whiteeyed individual? A) Rr B) RR C) RB D) rr
55) During what stage of meiosis does independent assortment occur? What is segregation and when does it occur in meiosis? How do these processes affect the gametes formed during meiosis? Explain.
56) Which of the following crosses will NOT produce offspring with the recessive phenotype? Select all that apply. A) TT x Tt B) Tt x Tt C) TT x TT D) Tt x tt E) tt x tt
57)
Why did Mendel choose pea plants for his research?
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A) Pea plants have a short generation time. B) Peas are easy to cultivate. C) Many true-breeding varieties were available. D) Pea plants are self-pollinating but can be cross-fertilized easily. E) All of these were important characteristics in Mendel's selection.
58)
Each gamete carries one factor, now called an allele, for each inherited trait. ⊚ ⊚
true false
59) What aspect of Mendel's background gave him the necessary tools to discover the laws of inheritance? A) He lived in Austria. B) He had studied mathematics and probability. C) He was a monk. D) He corresponded with Charles Darwin. E) He was a teacher.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 11_14e_Mader 1) A 2) TRUE 3) B 4) C 5) D 7) [B, D] 8) B 9) D 10) E 11) D 12) D 13) A 14) A 15) A 17) A 18) C 20) C 21) D 22) A 23) C 24) C 25) B 26) C 27) A 28) A 29) A Version 1
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30) B 31) TRUE 32) C 33) C 34) FALSE 35) D 36) A 37) A 38) C 39) B 40) C 41) [A, C, D] 42) D 43) A 44) C 45) C 46) E 47) A 48) B 49) D 50) D 51) C 52) D 53) FALSE 54) D 56) [A, C] 57) E 58) TRUE 59) B
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CHAPTER 12 1) An unknown chemical is analyzed and found to contain the bases thymine and guanine. This chemical is most likely A) tRNA. B) rRNA. C) mRNA. D) DNA.
2) Which of the following statements is NOT true about the debate over the nature of genetic material? A) Many scientists believed that DNA was not the genetic material because, with only four types of nucleotides, DNA did not have enough variability to store information. B) Some scientiststhought that RNA was likely to be the genetic material. C) Many scientists thought that proteins had a greater capacity for storing information because proteins contain 20 amino acids that could be sequenced differently. D) Scientists focused on carbohydrate and protein in their studies of possible genetic material since they knew that genes were on chromosomes and that chromosomes were made of carbohydrate and protein.
3) Which of the following statements applies to the semiconservative nature of DNA replication? A) The old strand ispulled apart and reformed into the new strand. B) The new strandserves asa template for the old strand. C) None of thesestatements apply to the semiconservative nature of DNA replication. D) The old strandsserve as a template for the new strand.
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4) What properties must a substance possess in order to serve as the genetic material? Select all that apply. A) It must consist of many different types of subunits in order to code for the large variety of characteristics of a living organism. B) It must be able to store information that pertains to the development,structure, and metabolic activities of the cell or organism. C) It must be able to catalyze chemical reactions at very high speeds in order to direct the metabolic activities of the cell. D) It must be able to undergo rare changes, called mutations, that provide the genetic variability required for evolution to occur. E) It must be stable, so that it can be replicated with high accuracy during cell division and be transmitted from generation to generation.
5) Growth at two replication forks arising from a single origin of replication produce a "bubble" as daughter DNA molecules form. ⊚ ⊚
true false
6) Scientists have created genetically modified organisms (GMOs) by isolating and then transferring the jellyfish gene for green fluorescent protein into pigs, bacteria, plants, and mice. The result was bioluminescent organisms! These experiments demonstrate that A) genes have no difficulty crossing the species barrier. B) animal genes from one species will not function if transferred into other animals. C) genes can only be transferred to other organisms within the same species. D) jellyfish genes may be transferred into other aquatic ectotherms, but not mammals.
7) In order to help firmly establish DNA as the genetic material, Hershey and Chase radioactively tagged viral protein in one experiment and radioactively tagged viral RNA in the other experiment.
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⊚ ⊚
8)
true false
All of the following are associated with translation except A) Binding of two tRNA molecules per ribosome. B) Growth of a polypeptide chain. C) Liberation of polypeptide from the ribosome. D) Production of mRNA. E) Attachment of a ribosome to mRNA.
9)
In the Watson and Crick model of DNA, the "steps" of the ladder are composed of A) two purines. B) a purine and a pyrimidine. C) sugars. D) two pyrimidines. E) a sugar and a phosphate molecule.
10)
Which is NOT true about the genetic code? A) It contains start and stop codons as instructions. B) Each codon consists of three bases. C) It is composed of triplet codes. D) The groundwork for cracking the code began with the use of synthetic RNA. E) Most amino acids have only one codon.
11)
For translation to take place, which of the following does NOT need to be present?
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A) rRNA B) mRNA C) ribosome D) tRNA-amino acid complex E) DNA
12) Transfer RNA (tRNA) takes a message from DNA in the nucleus to the ribosomes in the cytoplasm. ⊚ ⊚
true false
13) During DNA replication, the enzyme _____ catalyzes the elongation of new DNA strands. A) ATP synthase B) helicase C) DNA polymerase D) DNA ligase
14) During the elongation of a polypeptide chain, _____ occurs when the mRNA moves to the next site on the ribosome to read the next codon. A) transcription B) translation C) translocation D) transference
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15) A sample of Chargaff's data on the DNA base composition in various species is provided. Discuss several conclusions that may be drawn from this data. 16) Which of the following polypeptide chains would be sequenced from the mRNA code AGG-GAG-CCC? A) serine - leucine -proline B) arginine -glutamate - proline C) arginine -glutamate - alanine D) serine - aspartate - proline
17) According to Watson and Crick's model, DNA consists of two strands of nucleotides that are antiparallel. What does this mean? What evidence supports the antiparallel nature of the strands?
18) In order for a new nucleotide to be joined to a growing nucleic acid, it must be linked to the phosphate group on the 5' end of the previous nucleotide. ⊚ ⊚
true false
19) During the replication of DNA, DNA polymerase has to synthesize the daughter strand in the 5' to 3' direction because DNA polymerase can only join nucleotides to the 3' end of the growing new strand. ⊚ ⊚
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5
20)
Which of the following items relate specifically to purines? Select all that apply. A) nucleotides with a double ring B) nucleotides with a single ring C) adenine D) guanine E) cytosine
21) In order to help firmly establish DNA as the genetic material, Hershey and Chase performed an experiment using viruses and mice. ⊚ ⊚
true false
22) Write an essay describing the 3 main steps of DNA replication in the correct order. Be sure to include the key structures involved in the process.
23)
Which statement is NOT true about DNA replication in prokaryotes?
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A) Since bacterial cells replicate so rapidly, a second round of replication may begin before the first has been completed. B) Replication occurs at about 1 million base pairs per minute. C) Replication is bidirectional from the origin(s). D) There are many bacterial chromosomes, with replication occurring in each at the same time. E) Replication begins at a single origin of replication.
24) Approximately how many base pairs are improperly matched before being repaired by the DNA polymerase? A) 1 in a billion B) 1 in 10,000 C) 1 in 1,000,000 D) 1 in 10,000,000 E) 1 in 100,000
25) Which of the following statements are true about DNA replication in eukaryotes? Select all that apply. A) Multiple sites of replication are present on each chromosome. B) Eukaryotes have many different chromosomes, with replication occurring in each at the same time. C) Replication occurs at the rate of about 500-5000 base pairs per minute. D) Replication of the entire genome takes about ten minutes. E) A replication fork occurs at each growing point of the replicating chromosome(s).
26)
Nucleotides contain all of the following except
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A) histones. B) a phosphate group. C) a nitrogen base. D) a 5-carbon sugar.
27) Determine the number of codon sequences it would require to produce the following amino acid sequence: alanine - proline - serine - isoleucine - stop. A) It would take 6codon sequences. B) It would take 4codon sequences. C) It would take 5codon sequences. D) It would take 3codon sequences.
28)
Codons A) are each comprised of a triplet of nucleotides. B) All of the choices are correct. C) provide the instructions for synthesizing proteins. D) are unambiguous.
29) Why was the X-ray diffraction photography of Rosalind Franklin and Maurice Wilkins considered critical evidence in the study of DNA? A) The photographs showed equal numbers of purines and pyrimidines. B) The photographs showed the bases of DNA were held together by hydrogen bonds. C) The photographs indicated that DNA has a double helix structure. D) The photographs revealed the structure of the deoxyribose sugar. E) The photographs showed the location of each adenine, guanine, cytosine, and thymine.
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30)
The correct sequence of events in translation is A) initiation, termination, elongation. B) initiation, elongation, termination. C) elongation, termination, initiation. D) termination, elongation, initiation. E) elongation, initiation, termination.
31) While many body cells only replicate 40 to 60 times, cells that produce certain white blood cells may replicate many more times. It is, therefore, crucial that proofreading and repair occur so that the transfer of biological information is accurate. On the other hand, absolute accuracy in replication of biological information would cancel out mutations that are the raw material of evolution. Why is accuracy in transcription and translation less critical than accuracy in gene replication?
32) Transformation of bacteria was shown to occur when _____ bacteria were injected into mice and the mice _____. A) live R strain; didn't die B) live R strain and dead S strain; died C) live S and R strain; died D) live S strain and dead R strain; didn't die E) live S strain; died
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33) If a DNA sample contains 13% adenine, what percentage of the sample contains cytosine? A) 74% B) 26% C) 37% D) 13%
34) You come across an article on alien nucleic acid structure. The article states that researchers have discovered a new single-ring nucleotide. Based on your knowledge of nucleic acids here on Earth, which of the following characteristics might apply to this new nucleotide? Select all that apply. A) The new nucleotide may be similar to uracil. B) The new nucleotide may be similar to cytosine. C) The new nucleotide may be similar to guanine. D) The new nucleotide is probably a pyramidine. E) The new nucleotide is probably a purine.
35) A(n) _____ is a group of three bases on tRNA that is complementary to a specific mRNA codon. A) codon B) anticodon C) cap D) poly-A tail
36) A DNA molecule is considered antiparallel because the sugar-phosphate groups that are chained together to make each strand are oriented in opposite directions.
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⊚ ⊚
true false
37) Before Watson and Crick described DNA structure, Linus Pauling proposed a possible model with three strands of support running down the middle and the bases extending out the sides. How did Pauling's model differ from Watson and Crick's? A) Pauling proposed that the bases stick out the sides of the molecule while Watson and Crick proposed the bases were paired in the middle. B) All of the choices describe how Pauling's model was different than Watson and Crick's model. C) Pauling proposed the support strands ran down the middle of the molecule while Watson and Crick proposed the support strands ran down the sides. D) Pauling proposed three support strands while Watson and Crick proposed two strands.
38)
Which of the following statements concerning ribosomes are true?
A) Ribosomes join amino acids to form a polypeptide. B) Several ribosomes are often attached to and translating the same mRNA. C) No protein synthesis within a cell would occur without ribosomes. D) Ribosomes have a binding site for mRNA and three binding sites for tRNA molecules. E) All of the above statements are true.
39) Which of the following amino acid chains would be produced from the mRNA sequence AUA-CUU-CCU-AGU-UGA?
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A) Isoleucine - leucine - stop - proline - serine B) Isoleucine - alanine - proline - serine - stop C) Isoleucine - leucine - proline - serine - stop D) Glycine - glutamate - lysine - lysine - stop
40) If one strand of DNA has the base sequence AAG-CAA, the complementary strand has which of the following sequences? A) UUC-GUU B) TTC-GTT C) UTC-GTU D) TTC-GTG E) AAG-CAA
41) DNA was shown to be the transforming substance when only the _____ enzymes could inhibit transformation. A) lipase B) DNAase C) proteinase D) RNAase
42)
Transcription begins when A) initiation factors assemble ribosomal subunits, mRNA, and initiator tRNA. B) new nucleotidesare added to an existing strand of nucleotides. C) RNA polymerase binds to a region of DNA called the promoter. D) RNA polymerase comes to a stop sequence.
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43) Ribozymes are RNA molecules that function as enzymes, catalyzing reactions during RNA splicing. ⊚ ⊚
44)
true false
DNA replication is considered semiconservative because A) it uses one old strand as a template for the synthesis of a new strand. B) it never replicates in the 5' to 3' prime direction. C) it always replicates in the 3' to 5' prime direction. D) it will create three new identical strands when finished.
45)
Which statement is NOT true about DNA replication?
A) DNA can only replicate at one point on a chromosome at one time. B) DNA replication is considered semiconservative because there is always an old strand acting as a template for a new strand. C) It occurs more rapidly in bacteria than in eukaryotes. D) One strand of new DNA is replicated faster than the other strand at the replication fork. E) It proceeds in a 5'-to-3' direction only.
46)
Which of the following would be transcribed into mRNA? A) a protein-coding gene B) a noncoding gene C) a ribozyme D) a promoter
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47)
One of Chargaff's rules states that A) A = T + G + C. B) A = C and T = G. C) A = T and G = C. D) A = G and T = C.
48)
Telomerase is an enzyme that unwinds DNA during DNA replication. ⊚ true ⊚ false
49) Transcription of a DNA molecule with a nucleotide sequence of AAA-CAA-CTT results in an mRNA molecule with the complementary sequence of A) GGG-AGA-ACC. B) CCC-ACC-TCC. C) UUU-CUU-CAA. D) UUU-GUU-GAA. E) TTT-GAA-GCC.
50)
Which of the following statements about DNA replication is NOT correct?
A) Unwinding of the DNA molecule occurs as hydrogen bonds break. B) Complementary base pairs are held together with hydrogen bonds. C) The process is known as semiconservative replication because one old strand is conserved in the new molecule. D) The enzyme that catalyzes DNA replication is DNA polymerase. E) Replication occurs as each base is paired with another exactly like it.
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51) When experimenting with Streptococcus pneumoniae in the 1920s, Griffith concluded that some substance from the dead S strain bacteria passed to the R strain bacteria, imparting virulence and the ability to form a capsule. Avery and others continued the search for the substance that "transformed" the R strain into the S strain. Hypothesis I: Genetic material or "transforming substance" is protein. Hypothesis II: Genetic material or "transforming substance" is RNA. Hypothesis III: Genetic material or "transforming substance" is DNA.
51.1) An experiment was performed that demonstrated that the addition of a proteindegrading enzyme did not prevent transformation. This finding A) rejects Hypothesis III only. B) supports Hypothesis II. C) rejects Hypothesis I only. D) does not support any of these hypotheses. E) supports Hypothesis I. F) supports Hypothesis III. G) rejects Hypothesis II only.
51.2) An experiment was performed in which DNAase enzyme digestion prevented transformation. This finding A) supports Hypothesis II. B) supports Hypothesis I. C) rejects Hypothesis II only. D) does not support any of these hypotheses. E) supports Hypothesis III. F) rejects Hypothesis I only. G) rejects Hypothesis III only.
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51.3) In an experiment, neither heat-killed R strain nor heat-killed S strain killed the mice. This finding A) does not support or provide information to reject any of these hypotheses. B) rejects Hypothesis II only. C) supports Hypothesis I. D) rejects Hypothesis III only. E) supports Hypothesis II. F) rejects Hypothesis I only. G) supports Hypothesis III.
51.4) An experiment was performed that demonstrated that RNAase failed to prevent transformation of the R strain to S strain. This finding A) rejects Hypothesis II only. B) supports Hypothesis II. C) rejects Hypothesis III only. D) does not support or provide information to reject any of these hypotheses. E) supports Hypothesis I. F) rejects Hypothesis I only. G) supports Hypothesis III.
51.5) An experiment was performed that demonstrated that DNA extracted from the S strain bacteria transformed R strain bacteria. This finding
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A) supports Hypothesis III. B) rejects Hypothesis III only. C) supports Hypothesis I. D) does not support any of these hypotheses. E) supports Hypothesis II. F) rejects Hypothesis II only. G) rejects Hypothesis I only.
52)
Which section of the pre-mRNA contains the protein-coding regions? A) exons B) introns C) The pre-mRNA doesnot code for proteins at all. D) The entire pre-mRNA contains protein-coding regions.
53)
The first codon to be deciphered was _____, which codes for _____. A) TTT; arginine B) UUU; phenylalanine C) AAA; proline D) CCC; glycine E) GGG; alanine
54) Approximately how many base pairs are still improperly matched in the bacterial genome after the DNA polymerase proofreads the DNA strand?
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A) 1 in 100,000 B) 1 in a billion C) 1 in 10,000 D) 1 in 1,000,000 E) 1 in 100,000,000
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 12_14e_Mader 1) D 2) D 3) D 4) [B, D, E] 5) TRUE 6) A 7) FALSE 8) D 9) B 10) E 11) E 12) FALSE 13) C 14) C 16) B 18) FALSE 19) TRUE 20) [A, C, D] 21) FALSE 23) D 24) E 25) [A, B, C, E] 26) A 27) C 28) B 29) C Version 1
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30) B 32) B 33) C 34) [A, B, D] 35) B 36) TRUE 37) B 38) E 39) C 40) B 41) B 42) C 43) TRUE 44) A 45) A 46) A 47) C 48) FALSE 49) D 50) E 51) Section Break 51.1) C 51.2) E 51.3) A 51.4) A 51.5) A 52) A 53) B 54) E
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CHAPTER 13 1) _____ occurs as _____ builds up in the system if Enzyme A is nonfunctional because of an inherited mutation.
A) xeroderma pigmentosum; tyrosine B) androgen insensitivity; tyrosine C) albinism; melanin D) phenylketonuria; phenyalanine
2) When a bacterium is introduced to a new environment with plenty of nutritional resources, binary fission will allow for rapid growth of the population (2-4-8-16-32-64 . . . etc.). However, there is usually a slight lag before the rapid growth begins. What is the best explanation for this lag period? A) The new media contains compounds that turn on repressor proteins. B) Structural genes act more slowly than metabolic genes. C) Binary fission becomes more and more efficient after each cell division. D) It takes time to induce and amplify the production of the enzymes needed for binary fission. E) It takes time for bacterial cells to duplicate enough organelles to digest new media.
3)
Which component in an operon is incorrectly matched with its function? A) regulator gene—binds to the repressor protein B) structural gene—makes mRNA by transcription C) operator—if not bound to the repressor, allows RNA polymerase to bind to the DNA D) promoter—where RNA polymerase first binds to DNA
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4) Compared to just a century ago, a much larger percentage of the population is living to be 80–90 years old. Why does cancer seem to be a much larger problem today than a century ago?
5)
Which of the following structures is not part of an operon? A) promoter B) regulator gene C) operator D) All of these are part of an operon. E) structural gene
6) Which level of primary control in eukaryotic gene activity involves changes in the polypeptide chain before it becomes functional? A) feedback control B) posttranslational control C) transcriptional control D) posttranscriptional control E) translational control
7)
The term "operon" comes from the Latin root word for
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A) controller. B) copy-producing. C) structure. D) works. E) gene.
8)
Active genes in eukaryotic cells are associated with A) DNA with many methyl groups. B) heterochromatin. C) euchromatin. D) methylated RNA and histones.
9)
List, in order, the levels of control of gene expression in eukaryotic cells.
10)
If CAP is absent from a cell, what are the potential consequences?
A) All of these areconsequences of the absence of CAP. B) The individual doesnot have a backup system for survival when glucose is absent. C) The individual will not be able to metabolize enough energy if glucose is absent. D) The individualcannot activate the catabolism of various other metabolites in the absence ofglucose.
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11) The level of genetic control that involves the processing of early RNA transcripts to mRNA and the rate at which mRNA leaves the nucleus is A) transcriptional control. B) translational control. C) posttranslational control. D) feedback control. E) posttranscriptional control.
12)
A deletion of one base pair that alters the sequence of codons is called a(n) A) oncogene. B) frameshift mutation. C) transposon. D) carcinogen. E) substitution mutation.
13) All genes are active at the same time in a prokaryotic cell and controlled by positive regulation, but not in a eukaryotic cell. ⊚ ⊚
true false
14) Identify which of the operon elements plays the most critical role in determining gene regulation in prokaryotes.
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15)
The mRNA strand includes both introns and exons. ⊚ ⊚
16)
true false
In transcriptional control in eukaryotic cells
A) Only two of thechoices are correct. B) enhancers may be involved in the promotion as well as regulation of gene transcription. C) a different combination of DNA-binding proteins (transcriptional factors) may regulate the activity of a particular gene. D) the control may be due to the phosphorylation of transcriptional factors by a kinase. E) All of the choices are correct.
17)
All of these are considered carcinogens EXCEPT A) ethylene dibromide (EDB). B) ziram, a chemical used to prevent fungal diseases on crops. C) cabbage and related vegetables. D) ultraviolet light. E) cigarette smoke.
18)
Which statement is NOT correct about the lac operon?
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A) Lactose binds to the repressor protein and inactivates it. B) The structural genes make products that allow lactose metabolism. C) It regulates the production of a series of five enzymes. D) It is an inducible system. E) It is normally turned off if glucose is present.
19)
The regulator gene codes for the DNA-binding proteins that act as repressors. ⊚ ⊚
20)
true false
Once proteins are functional, they are no longer subject to cellular control. ⊚ ⊚
true false
21) Identify the major tumor suppressor gene that is more frequently mutated in human cancers than any other known gene. A) p16 B) hemoglobin gene C) RB tumor-repressor gene D) p53 gene E) ras oncogene
22)
A form of gene regulation that occurs while RNA is still in the nucleus is
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A) feedback control. B) rate of binding to ribosomes. C) enzymatic cleavage of a polypeptide. D) differential intron removal and exon splicing.
23) The universal regulatory mechanism in eukaryotes for controlling gene expression includes A) control of the genes transcribed and the rate they are transcribed. B) control of polypeptides after they have been synthesized but before they are functional. C) control of the processing of mRNA after it is transcribed from DNA but before it leaves the nucleus, and control of the rate it leaves the nucleus. D) All of these mechanisms are used; there is no single universal mechanism. E) control of mRNA in the cytoplasm after it leaves the nucleus, including changes to mRNA before translation begins.
24)
An oncogene is A) a bacterial gene that causes cancer in the host. B) a viral gene with no relation to the host cell's genes. C) a gene that turns off cellular reproduction. D) always seen in human cancer cells. E) a mutated form of a proto-oncogene.
25) In the transcription of DNA, remodeling proteins push the histone portion of the nucleosome aside so that transcription may begin. ⊚ ⊚
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26)
One-third of all cancer deaths are due to mutations that arise from smoking tobacco. ⊚ ⊚
27)
true false
Germ-line mutations A) occur in sex cells. B) Only two of the answer choices are true. C) All of the answer choices are true about germ-line mutations. D) can be passed to subsequent generations. E) may range from having no effect to completely inactivating protein activity.
28)
Which of the following problems can arise during posttranscriptional control?
A) All of these areerrors that can occur during posttranscriptional control of geneexpression. B) Incomplete excising of all introns from the pre-mRNA strand, leaving fragments to be joined with the exons. C) Differentialsplicing of exons that can lead to an altered gene expression. D) Excising an exonfrom the pre-mRNA strand.
29) "Jumping genes" that have the ability to move within and between chromosomes are called
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A) introns. B) oncogenes. C) exons. D) transposons. E) retroviruses.
30)
Explain how the actions of the lac operon are different from the trp operon.
31)
Explain how the trp operon is regulated in a prokaryotic cell when tryptophan is present.
32)
A change in a regulatory gene A) can increase or decrease the expression of a structural gene. B) is always beneficial to the organism in which it occurs. C) must be dominant to be effective. D) is what happens in the production of sickle-cell hemoglobin.
33)
Transposons
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A) are specific DNA sequences that move within and between chromosomes. B) have been discovered in corn, fruit flies, bacteria, and humans. C) alter the expression of neighboring genes especially if the transposon is a regulator gene. D) All of the choices are correct.
34)
A Barr body A) Two of the above answers are correct. B) exists within the cell in the form of euchromatin. C) is an inactive Y chromosome that produces reduced amount of gene products. D) exists within the cell in the form of heterochromatin. E) is an inactive X chromosome that does not produce gene products.
35) The genes of a single operon are all regulated by the same repressor, operator, and promoter. ⊚ ⊚
36)
true false
Which of the following series of events is associated with the formation of cancer?
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A) The proto-oncogenes mutate and become oncogenes which stop functioning altogether. There is also an associated increase in the tumor suppressor gene activity allowing uncontrolled growth of cells. B) The proto-oncogenes mutate and become oncogenes which are continuously active. There is also an associated loss of tumor suppressor gene activity allowing uncontrolled growth of cells. C) The oncogenes mutate and become proto-oncogenes which stop functioning altogether. There is also an associated increase in the tumor suppressor gene activity allowing uncontrolled growth of cells. D) The oncogenes mutate and become proto-oncogenes which are continuously active. There is also an associated loss of tumor suppressor gene activity allowing uncontrolled growth of cells.
37)
Mutagens and carcinogens are associated with A) None of the above. B) spontaneous mutations. C) transposon activity. D) induced mutations.
38) Which of the following situations would be considered an example of positive regulation of gene expression in a prokaryote? A) The CAP protein activating the lac operon when lactose is absent and glucose is present. B) The repressor protein activating the lac operon when glucose is absent and lactose is present. C) The CAP protein activating the lac operon when glucose is absent and lactose is present. D) The repressor protein activating the lac operon when lactose is absent and glucose is present.
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39)
Which statement is NOT correct about the trp operon?
A) Tryptophan acts as the corepressor. B) Tryptophan binds to the repressor protein and inactivates it. C) The structural genes make products that are part of an anabolic pathway for the synthesis of tryptophan. D) It is normally turned off if tryptophan is present.
40)
The most critical level of eukaryotic genetic control is _____ control. A) transcriptional B) translational C) posttranslational D) feedback E) posttranscriptional
41) The level of genetic control that involves the life span of the mRNA molecule and the ability of the mRNA to bind to ribosomes is _____ control. A) translational B) transcriptional C) posttranscriptional D) feedback E) posttranslational
42)
Which of the following is a method of posttranscriptional control?
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A) Both C and D are methods of posttranscriptional control. B) the lifespan of an mRNA molecule C) how fast the mRNA leaves the nucleus D) transcription factors E) differential processing of mRNA
43)
Androgen insensitivity is characterized by A) the internal sex organs of a female and may bear children. B) external female genitalia. C) a female karyotype. D) a lack of male hormones, such as testosterone.
44)
Frameshift mutations
A) can result in a completely new codon sequence that results in the production of nonfunctional proteins. B) most often happen when one or more nucleotides are inserted or deleted from the DNA. C) applies to the reading frame (sequence of codons) being changed. D) All of the choices are correct.
45)
In the lac operon, if lactose is present, which of the following occurs?
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A) Lactose binds to the repressor, changing its shape so that it does not bind to the operator. RNA polymerase then transcribes the needed genes. B) Lactose binds to the repressor, changing its shape so that it can bind to the operator and the structural genes are not expressed. C) Lactose bind to RNA polymerase, which then binds to the promoter and transcribes the needed genes. D) Lactose binds to the operon, which attracts RNA polymerase, then transcription of the needed genes occurs.
46)
Thymine dimers A) are rarely removed by DNA repair enzymes. B) form when DNA is exposed to carcinogens such as tobacco smoke. C) result in abnormal protein structure which causes red blood cells to sickle. D) form when DNA is exposed to UV radiation.
47)
The DNA of a _____ is wrapped around histone molecules to form a "beaded string." A) prokaryote B) eukaryote C) bacterium D) All of the answer choices are correct.
48)
Point mutations
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A) may change a specific codon. B) All of the choices are correct. C) are due to a change in one DNA nucleotide. D) can cause a genetic disease such as sickle-cell disease that is due to a base change that codes for valine rather than glutamate.
49)
You are more likely to develop some form of cancer if you A) All of the choices are correct. B) have a high incidence of cancer in your family history. C) are exposed to higher doses of radiation including X-rays. D) are exposed to carcinogens.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 13_14e_Mader 1) D 2) D 3) A 5) D 6) B 7) D 8) C 10) A 11) E 12) B 13) FALSE 15) FALSE 16) E 17) C 18) C 19) TRUE 20) FALSE 21) D 22) D 23) D 24) E 25) TRUE 26) TRUE 27) C 28) A 29) D Version 1
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32) A 33) D 34) A 35) TRUE 36) B 37) D 38) C 39) B 40) A 41) A 42) A 43) B 44) D 45) A 46) D 47) B 48) B 49) A
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CHAPTER 14 1)
A transgenic organism A) contains a foreign gene within its genome. B) is produced by cloning a mutant cell. C) is any genetically modified organism resulting from laboratory research. D) is produced by the polymerase chain reaction. E) acts as the vector for DNA being moved into another organism.
2) Proteomics involves the application of computer technologies to study databases of genetic information. ⊚ ⊚
true false
3)
Explain the applications for polymerase chain reaction technology.
4)
Gene pharming is the use of A) bacteria for bioremediation. B) STR profiling to determine evolutionary relationships among organisms. C) transgenic farm animals to produce pharmaceuticals. D) transgenic plants to produce larger vegetables and sweeter fruits.
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5) A. What type of enzyme is used to cleave DNA? B. What type of "ends" are produced? C. How do the "ends" function in cloning DNA?
6)
All of the following are true regarding transgenic animals EXCEPT
A) foreign genes are micro-injected into eggs, fertilized in vitro, and the zygotes are placed in host females to develop. B) the process has been used to develop organisms that are partially animal and partially plant. C) the product desired by the transgenic procedure may be secreted in the milk of female offspring. D) the process has created mice that have a phenotype similar to that of a person with cystic fibrosis.
7) PCR is a relatively new advance in DNA technology that targets specific sequences in the DNA for removal or replacement.
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⊚ ⊚
true false
8) RNA interference (RNAi) was first discovered in prokaryotes and is thought to have evolved as protection against certain types of viruses. ⊚ ⊚
true false
9) When bone marrow stem cells are removed from the patient, infected with a virus that carries a normal gene, and returned to the patient, this is an example of A) PCR. B) in vivo gene therapy. C) ex vivo genetherapy. D) chemotherapy. E) viral disinfection.
10) Gene cloning can be accomplished by recombinant DNA technology and polymerase chain reactions. ⊚ ⊚
true false
11) All of the following statements about genes and copy number variations are true EXCEPT
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A) copy number variations have been associated with specific diseases. B) individuals may differ as to the number of copies of a particular gene. C) an individual’s genome often contains multiple copies of a gene. D) All of the answer choices are true.
12) Small, variable regions of DNA that may change an individual's susceptibility to disease are called SNPs (single nucleotide polymorphisms). ⊚ ⊚
13)
true false
What is the first step in producing a transgenic animal?
A) inject the desired gene(s) into a donor egg B) transgenic eggs are harvested from the surrogate mother C) implantation of a donor egg into the host mother D) transgenic organism produces offspring that have the desired gene which can then produce more transgenic offspring
14)
What is the function of naturally occurring restriction enzymes in bacterial cells? A) They reattach pieces of DNA into a continuous molecule after DNA replication. B) They cut the bacterial cell's DNA. C) They separate the DNA strands during DNA replication. D) They cut any viral DNA that enters the cell.
15) Polymerase chain reactions utilize a heat-stable DNA polymerase that was isolated from the bacterium Thermus aquaticus.
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⊚ ⊚
16)
true false
How is RNA interference (RNAi) used as a form of gene therapy?
A) Stem cells are removed from a patient, injected with large pieces of RNAi that carry the gene recipe for a particular enzyme, and returned to the body of the patient. B) Small pieces of RNAi are used to silence the expression of specific alleles. C) Small pieces of RNAi are used to map the location of specific genes that need to be edited out of the genome. D) Large pieces of RNAi are directly injected into the damaged cells of a patient in order to deliver functional gene recipes.
17) Leber congenital amaurosis (LCA) is a disorder characterized by early-onset retinal dystrophy which causes severe visual impairment beginning in infancy. The most common cause of the disorder is a mutated intron located in gene CEP290. Targeted deletion of the mutated intron shows promise as a treatment for LCA. The treatment of LCA is an example of the application of which of the following types of biotechnology? A) recombinant DNA technology B) PCR C) microarrays D) genome editing E) cloning
18)
The function of DNA ligase in recombinant technology is to
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A) separate fragments of DNA by their length and electrical charges. B) make millions of copies of a specific segment of DNA. C) seal DNA into an opening created by restriction enzymes. D) cut DNA into many fragments. E) carry DNA into a new cell.
19)
The polymerase chain reaction uses RNA polymerase. ⊚ ⊚
20)
true false
The introduction of normal genes into an afflicted individual for therapeutic use is called A) genetic profiling. B) gene therapy. C) proteomics. D) human cloning.
21) What consequences could arise if the field of bioinformatics ceased to exist as a field of study? A) All of these areconsequences if the field of bioinformatics ceased to exist as a field ofstudy. B) Many cures forgenetic disorders would not be discovered. C) Progress indetermining the function of DNA sequences, making comparisons between ourgenome and other model organisms, and understanding how genes and proteinsinteract with cells would stop. D) The creation of new transgenic plants, animals, and bacteria that benefit society would not occur.
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22)
The function of a vector in genetic engineering is to A) separate fragments of DNA by their length and electrical charges. B) introduce rDNA into a host cell. C) cut DNA into many fragments. D) link together newly joined fragments of DNA. E) make millions of copies of a specific segment of DNA.
23)
Which of the following statements about RNAi are true? Select all that apply.
A) Once the complementary RNAi sequences enter the cell, they bind with the target RNA, producing double-stranded RNA molecules. B) These double-stranded RNA molecules are then broken down by a series of enzymes within the cell. C) RNAi sequences are designed to carry enzymes to target and destroy mRNA sequences within the cell. D) RNAi is being researched as a potential treatment for a number of human diseases including cancer and hepatitis.
24)
It is estimated that humans have approximately _____ base pairs in our genome. A) 3 billion B) 12 trillion C) 180 million D) 2.5 million
25) Gene therapy is being used in cancer patients to make healthy cells more tolerant of chemotherapy and to make tumors more vulnerable to chemotherapy.
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⊚ ⊚
26)
true false
All of the following statements are true about restriction enzymes EXCEPT
A) hundreds of different ones have been isolated and purified. B) they produce single-stranded complementary ends that can join to two different DNA strands by complementary base-pairing. C) each enzyme cuts DNA at a different specific base sequence. D) they are made by bacteria and viruses.
27)
Transgenic plant products include all of the following EXCEPT
A) soybeans that are resistant to a common herbicide. B) antibodies produced by corn plants that deliver radioisotopes to tumor cells. C) suicide genes that cause the plants to self-destruct after their product has been produced. D) an antibody produced by soybeans to treat genital herpes.
28)
The term "ligase" adds the suffix "-ase" to the Latin root word for A) gene. B) copy-producing. C) cut. D) work. E) bind.
29)
What is the difference between ex vivo and in vivo gene therapy?
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30) Place the following steps for cloning DNA in the correct order: 1 - use vector to deliver new rDNA to bacterial or other cells 2 - use restriction enzymes to cut a plasmid and add the desired gene 3 - isolate and cut out a desired gene using restriction enzymes 4 - use DNA ligase to seal the new gene 5 - allow bacterial cells to replicate and produce desired product A) 2, 5, 3, 1, 4 B) 5, 3, 2, 4, 1 C) 3, 2, 4, 1, 5 D) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
31)
The function of the polymerase chain reaction in genetic engineering is to A) cut DNA into many fragments. B) carry DNA into a new cell. C) make multiple copies of a specific segment of DNA. D) link together newly joined fragments of DNA. E) separate fragments of DNA by their length and electrical charges.
32)
Under which of the following circumstances would a DNA microarray be useful?
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A) None of these are circumstances in which a DNA microarray would be useful. B) Researchers aretrying to determine if an individual has inherited a genetic disease from theirparents. C) All of these arecircumstances in which a DNA microarray would be useful. D) It would enable aresearcher to determine the differences in gene expression between celltypes. E) It would enable doctors to determine which genes are responsible for producing diseased tissue in an individual.
33)
Plants have been genetically engineered for all of the following reasons EXCEPT A) to produce human proteins. B) to have a higher vitamin A content. C) to reduce food spoilage. D) All of the choices are correct. E) to make the plant more resistant to pests.
34) A DNA chip that contains rows of DNA sequences for mutations that indicate the presence of particular genetic disorders is representative of what type of biotechnology? A) gene pharming B) gel electrophoresis C) PCR D) DNA microarrays E) DNA fingerprinting
35)
What is the function of gel electrophoresis in genetic engineering?
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A) separate fragments of DNA by their length and electrical charges B) cut DNA into many fragments C) carry DNA into a new cell D) make millions of copies of a specific segment of DNA E) link together newly joined fragments of DNA
36)
Familial hypercholesterolemia
A) is characterized by high blood levels of cholesterol. B) is a condition that develops when liver cells lack a receptor protein for removing cholesterol from the blood. C) Only two of the answer choicesare true. D) All of the answer choices are true. E) may be treated by ex vivo gene therapy.
37)
Human gene therapy
A) has been used in a trial to treat familial hypercholesterolemia. B) All of the choices are correct. C) includes the insertion of genetic material into human cells for the treatment of a genetic disease. D) has been used for treatment of children who have severe combined immunodeficiency.
38)
A common method used to introduce rDNA into bacterial host cells is
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A) bacteriophage infection. B) plasmid transfer. C) viral infection. D) laser irradiation of cells in a fluid containing DNA. E) microinjection of DNA.
39) When using bacteria to clone a human gene and express its product, as in the case of insulin, the gene cannot contain introns because bacteria do not have the enzymes to process mRNA. How do scientists overcome this challenge?
40)
Animal cloning is a difficult process with a low success rate. ⊚ ⊚
true false
41) Describe the procedure used to produce a transgenic cow that will produce human growth hormone in their milk.
42)
Biotechnology products produced by bacteria include all of the following EXCEPT
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A) insulin. B) human growth hormone. C) clotting factor VIII. D) antibodies to deliver radioisotopes to tumor cells.
43)
Which of the following statements about CRISPR are accurate? Select all that apply.
A) CRISPR can only be used by researchers to target a specific sequence of nucleotides in single-celled prokaryotes and eukaryotes. B) CRISPR utilizes an endonuclease enzyme called Cas9. C) CRISPR requires a guide RNA molecule to identify the nucleotide sequence destined for editing. D) CRISPR was first discovered in single-celled eukaryotes. E) Where naturally found in cells, CRISPR acts as a form of immune defense against viruses.
44)
Gene therapy in humans has been used to treat A) cancer. B) inborn errors of metabolism. C) Only two of the answer choices. D) cystic fibrosis. E) All of the answer choices.
45) In what field of study would scientists predict a protein's three-dimensional shape and how DNA mutations would affect protein function?
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A) bioinformatics B) All of the answer choices. C) proteomics D) genomics
46) Describe the newest method of DNA fingerprinting, which uses PCR and short tandem repeat sequences (STRs).
47)
Which of the following molecules forms lengths of DNA with "sticky ends"? A) RNA polymerase B) DNA polymerase C) DNA ligase D) restriction enzyme E) reverse transcriptase
48)
State the difference between a transgenic animal and a cloned animal.
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49)
Which of the following is mismatched?
A) genomics—the study of the genomes of humans and other organisms B) proteomics—the study of species' proteins C) bioinformatics—the study of genomic and proteomic information using computer analysis D) polymerase chain reaction—process that separates DNA fragments according to size
50) Transgenic _____ have been given suicide genes that cause them to self-destruct when the job for which they are engineered has been accomplished. A) bacteria B) All of the choices are correct. C) fungi D) animals E) plants
51)
Differentiate between structural, functional, and comparative genomics.
52)
To carry out a polymerase chain reaction (PCR), you must have DNA polymerase and A) a DNA probe. B) the nucleotides to synthesize new DNA strands. C) a blueprint or gene map of the sequence you wish to copy. D) a DNA synthesizer machine.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 14_14e_Mader 1) A 2) FALSE 4) C 6) B 7) FALSE 8) FALSE 9) C 10) TRUE 11) D 12) TRUE 13) A 14) D 15) TRUE 16) B 17) D 18) C 19) FALSE 20) B 21) A 22) B 23) [A, B, D] 24) A 25) TRUE 26) D 27) C 28) E Version 1
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30) C 31) C 32) C 33) D 34) D 35) A 36) D 37) B 38) B 40) TRUE 42) D 43) [B, C, E] 44) E 45) B 47) D 49) D 50) A 52) B
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CHAPTER 15 1)
Linnaeus developed his classification system for organisms according to A) a theory of descent by modification. B) Lamarck's theory of evolution. C) fixity of species and the sequential ladder of life. D) Darwin's theory of evolution.
2) Which of the following misconceptions about evolution can be refuted with the molecular evidence that is being collected through DNA analysis? A) There are notransitional fossils. B) Evolutionproposes life changed as a result of random events; traits are too complex tohave originated by chance alone. C) Evolution is atheory about how life originated. D) Evolution is notobservable or testable, thus it is not science.
3) A line of evidence NOT considered by Darwin in his development of the theory of natural selection is A) comparative anatomy. B) comparative biochemistry. C) the fossil record. D) biogeography.
4) Marsupials are more numerous in Australia than South America because of less competition with placental mammals. ⊚ ⊚ Version 1
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5) Erasmus Darwin, in his discussion of evolutionary possibilities, included all of the following EXCEPT A) changes during the development of organisms. B) vestigial organs. C) comparative anatomy of plants and algae. D) animal breeding by humans.
6) Homologous structures such as the bones in wings, flippers, and arms would be studied in the field of A) comparative embryology. B) biogeography. C) the fossil record. D) comparative anatomy. E) comparative biochemistry.
7) During a break at work you and a coworker begin discussing the topic of evolution. He indicates that he does not believe in evolution because it is justa theory about how life originated and this is in direct conflict with the beliefs he was taught during his childhood. How would you convince him that evolution is factual?
8)
Tiktaalik roseae, also known as the “fishapod,” is an example of an extant species.
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⊚ ⊚
9)
true false
A population must have _____ for natural selection to occur. A) a stable environment B) many individuals C) abundant resources D) heritable variation
10) What is the main reason that the alternative explanations to evolution are not considered scientific? A) The scientificcommunity is biased and will not look at any other explanation. B) The peoplesuggesting the alternative explanations are not scientists. C) The alternativeexplanations are not testable by the scientific method. D) All of these are reasons why the alternative explanations are not considered scientific.
11)
Which of the following observations is not part of natural selection as posed by Darwin? A) Organisms becomeadapted to conditions as the environment changes. B) All of these observations are part ofnatural selection as posed by Darwin. C) Organisms competefor available resources. D) Individuals withina population differ in terms of reproductive success. E) Individuals withina species exhibit variation.
12)
Which of the following ideas was most commonly held in the eighteenth century?
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A) the fixity of species B) evolution by natural selection over time C) genetic change through mutation D) changes in a species through adaptation to the environment
13) Cutting off the tails of mice over several generations should cause the tails of their offspring to become shorter, according to the ideas of which of these scientists? A) Cuvier B) Lamarck C) Lyell D) Wallace E) Darwin
14)
Hutton's theory of geological change included all EXCEPT A) extreme geological change occurring over a long period of time. B) slow cycles of erosion and uplift. C) sudden extinction of species due to sudden, widespread disasters. D) production of layers of sediment through slow deposition.
15)
Which of the following is an example of evolutionthat can be observed and studied? A) All are examplesof evolution that can be observed and studied. B) bacterialresistance to antibiotics C) resistance of HIVto drug treatment D) resistance ofweeds to select herbicides
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16) Which scientist presented arguments to support a theory of geological change, proposing that the earth was subject to slow but continuous erosion and uplift? A) Lyell B) Lamarck C) Cuvier D) Leclerc
17)
Baron Georges Cuvier_____.(Select all that apply.) A) was particularly interested in vestigial structures B) was an advocate for the ideas of the fixity of species and special creation C) proposed the idea of uniformitarianism D) used comparative anatomy to devise a system for classifying animals E) founded the science of paleontology
18) Which naturalist wrote a 44-volume natural history on plants and animals, and suggested migration, environmental influences, isolation, and overcrowding might affect how organisms descend with modifications? A) Lyell B) Cuvier C) Lamarck D) Leclerc E) Darwin
19) Most of Darwin's observations about changes in species over time and in different environments took place in and near
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A) South America. B) Asia. C) Greenland. D) Africa. E) North America.
20) Fossils are the remains and traces of past life that have been preserved in the Earth's crust. What type of fossils is most important in supporting the principle of evolution? Explain your answer and give examples.
21) Explain how the graphed data of beak size and weather conditions is evidence for natural selection.
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22)
All of the following are examples of natural selection EXCEPT
A) two of these are not examples of natural selection. B) a rise in bacterial resistance to antibiotics. C) the reduction in beak length of scarlet honeycreepers when they changed food sources. D) the 150 breeds of dogs developed from ancestral wolves. E) the distribution of dark and light colored peppered moths in Britain.
23)
HIV and cancer cells are becoming more drug resistant over time. ⊚ ⊚
true false
24) Individual "A" produces 10 offspring, 8 of whom survive to adulthood. Individual "B" (a member of the same population) produces 15 offspring, 7 which survive to adulthood. Based on the concept of natural selection, individual "A" has the higher fitness. ⊚ ⊚
true false
25) In his theory of natural selection, Darwin incorporated the premise that available resources were not sufficient for all members of a population to survive. Darwin adopted these ideas of competition and survival from
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A) Plato. B) Lamarck. C) Cuvier. D) Erasmus Darwin. E) Malthus.
26)
What was Darwin's main purpose during his time aboard the HMS
Beagle?
A) to serve as the ship's naturalist B) Darwin was a sailor with no specific purpose aboard the HMSBeagle. C) to document evidence that would support the concept of natural selection D) to develop evidence that could be used to support the theory of evolution
27) Before Darwin could conceive of the idea of "descent with modification," he first had to accept A) the earth was very old. B) that the size of human populations is limited only by the quantity of resources. C) that organisms could inherit acquired characteristics. D) the idea of catastrophism.
28)
Darwin observed that
A) there is a constant struggle for survival of organisms. B) None of thechoices are correct. C) All of the choices are correct. D) members of a population vary in their functional, physical, and behavioral characteristics. E) organisms in a normal population differ in reproductive success.
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29)
Fossils like Archaeopteryx offer evidence linking A) birds and dinosaurs. B) amphibians and reptiles. C) birds and mammals. D) reptiles and mammals. E) fish and amphibians.
30) The chart depicts the number of amino acid differences in cytochrome C between several different organisms and humans. What conclusions can you draw from this chart?
31) Which of the following piece of fossil evidence was not observed during Darwin's journey aboard the Beagle?
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A) fossilized marineshells in the cliffs of the Andes Mountains B) 13 different species of fossilized finches on the Galápagos Islands C) fossilized remainsof a giant ground sloth D) fossilized remainsof the Glyptodont
32) The oldest mammals were large, dinosaur-like creatures that flourished over 600 million years ago. ⊚ ⊚
true false
33) Explain how the overuse of antibiotics could lead to the evolution of drug resistant strains of bacteria.
34)
Natural selection was independently proposed as a means of evolution by Darwin and A) LeClerc. B) Lyell. C) Lamarck. D) Wallace.
35) Darwin's assumption that living forms must be descended from extinct forms was based on ________ evidence.
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A) biochemical B) biogeographical C) anatomical D) fossil
36) Georges-Louis Leclerc was an eighteenth-century taxonomist who developed the binomial system of nomenclature. ⊚ ⊚
true false
37) During the course of Darwin's journey aboard the HMS Beagle he was collecting and recording _____ and _____. A) geological;biological diversity evidence B) fossils; geological evidence C) religious; political evidence D) historical;biological evidence E) biological; genetic evidence
38) The theory of _____ proposed that sudden and widespread disasters that result in mass extinctions followed by repopulation could explain why species change over time. A) artificial selection B) catastrophism C) natural selection D) uniformitarianism
39)
Which of the following is/are true about natural selection?
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A) All of the choices are correct. B) It always selects for more complex forms. C) On average, it favors the survival of individuals that have adaptive characteristics. D) It acts on genotypes rather than phenotypes. E) It assures the survival of every fit individual.
40)
An idea that could be traced back to Plato is that A) variation is due to imperfections in copies of some perfect ideal form. B) artificial selection of animals by humans proves that evolution can occur. C) worldwide catastrophes caused extinction, followed by creation of new species. D) acquired characteristics could be passed from parents to offspring. E) species could change with time.
41)
The distribution of species can help provide information about all of the following except A) past geologicalevents. B) the movement ofcontinents. C) ecologicalchange. D) formation ofvolcanic islands. E) the time period in which a species waspresent on Earth.
42)
Darwin's geometric ratio of increase pertains specifically to A) the inheritance of acquired traits. B) the overproduction potential of a species. C) the inheritable variations found in a population. D) the artificial selection of traits in plants or animals.
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43) The organisms on the Galápagos Islands that were most important to the development of Darwin's theory of natural selection were A) rabbits and hares. B) snails and fish. C) monkeys and armadillos. D) tortoises and finches. E) plants and fungi.
44)
The post Darwinian view of the world includes which of the following idea(s)?
A) the age of the Earth is billions of years old. B) Only two of the answers are correct. C) All of the choices are correct. D) an interaction of random variation and environmental conditions produce environmental adaptation. E) species are related by descent.
45) Which of the following observations were made during Darwin's journey aboard the Beagle that led him to believe in evolution? A) All of the above are correct. B) geological formations and species variations C) geological formation and the fixation of species D) artificial selection and species variation
46) Darwin was very interested in why animals on distant and isolated landmasses appear related to animals on the mainlands, yet were very distinct. Which of the following types of evidence would help Darwin make sense of his observations? Version 1
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A) fossil B) biochemical C) biogeographical D) anatomical
47) Which of the following features were present in the transitional species between amphibian tetrapods and the fishes? A) lungs, fins, and scales B) a flat head with eyes on the top, fins, andscales C) fins, rounded head with eyes on the side, and a neck D) fins, simple wrist bones, and expanded ribs
48) Analogous structures serve the same function, are similarly constructed, and are inherited from a common ancestor. ⊚ ⊚
true false
49) Alfred Wallace came to his conclusions about natural selection after eight years of collecting and identifying thousands of species in the Malay Archipelago. ⊚ ⊚
50)
true false
Aristotle believed that
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A) every species on Earth has a perfect or "essential" form. B) life originated from inorganic substances. C) all species are equal in complexity. D) living organisms can be arranged based on their order of increasing complexity.
51) The fossilized remains of two different species are found and scientists are interested in determining the evolutionary relationship of the two species. Which of the following could be used to determine the relatedness? A) vestigial structures B) biogeography C) All of the choices could be examined to determine relatedness. D) homologous structures
52) At Thanksgiving, your friend laments about having to eat Brussels sprouts. "I hate Brussels sprouts. I wish humans had never caused Brussels sprouts to evolve!" Based on your knowledge of biology, you know that humans caused the evolution of Brussels sprouts through the mechanism of uniformitarianism. ⊚ ⊚
53)
true false
Which of the following statements relate to natural selection? Select all that apply. A) heritable variation B) fitness C) differential reproductive success D) competition for resources E) breeding to increase the frequency of desired traits
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54) Erasmus Darwin, Charles Darwin's grandfather, suggested the possibility of evolutionary descent in his writings. ⊚ ⊚
true false
55) About 12,000 years ago, a mass extinction event occurred and 75% of the world’s large mammal species were eliminated. While a small number of cheetahs managed to survive and restore the world’s population of cheetahs, this event caused an extreme reduction of the cheetah’s genetic diversity. Based on the principles of natural selection, which of the following is a consequence of their reduced genetic diversity? A) Cheetahs are unable to effectively compete with each other for resources. B) Cheetahs within the same population do not vary in their reproductive success. C) Cheetahs have never fully adapted to the current environment. D) Cheetahs have very little heritable variation, which will make it difficult for them to adapt as the environment changes.
56)
Lamarck's inheritance of acquired characteristics included the idea that A) local catastrophes cause mass extinctions of species. B) species are only produced through special creation. C) there is a natural force in all living things that pushes them toward perfection. D) species are fixed and unchanging over time.
57) Birds and insects both have wings, but we do not consider this similarity as evidence of relatedness because
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A) the wings are not homologous structures with a common ancestral origin. B) there is no fossil link between these groups. C) bird wings, but not insect wings, function on the physics principles of lift. D) insect wings are vestigial. E) they did not evolve in the same region or live at the same time period.
58) On the Galápagos Islands, the amazing tool-using "woodpecker finch" can modify twigs to pry out grubs. Because there are no true woodpeckers on the Galápagos Islands, this behavior allows this finch to exploit an untapped food source. However, not all members of this species exhibit this behavior, which is probably learned from watching other finches. Therefore, A) All of the choices are correct. B) there must be a great advantage to reaching this food source for this learned behavior to be repeated by most descendants of each generation. C) it is probably not "hardwired" in the brain as a behavior passed on genetically. D) young chicks isolated at hatching will not know how to do this.
59) Over many generations man has chosen certain desirable characteristics in dogs by allowing dogs possessing those characteristics to reproduce. In this way, 150 breeds of dogs, all the same species, have descended from wolves. This process is referred to as A) convergent evolution. B) artificial selection. C) natural selection. D) inheritance of acquired traits.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 15_14e_Mader 1) C 2) B 3) B 4) TRUE 5) C 6) D 8) FALSE 9) D 10) C 11) B 12) A 13) B 14) C 15) A 16) A 17) [B, D, E] 18) D 19) A 22) D 23) TRUE 24) TRUE 25) E 26) A 27) A 28) C 29) A Version 1
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31) B 32) FALSE 34) D 35) D 36) FALSE 37) A 38) B 39) C 40) A 41) E 42) B 43) D 44) C 45) B 46) C 47) D 48) FALSE 49) TRUE 50) D 51) C 52) FALSE 53) [A, B, C, D] 54) TRUE 55) D 56) C 57) A 58) A 59) B
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CHAPTER 16 1) The northern elephant seal was hunted almost to extinction during the 18th and 19th centuries. Less than 100 seals were left to contribute to the gene pool of their future generations. Since the early 20th century, the elephant seals have been protected by law in both the U.S. and Mexico. Over 100,000 seals now inhabit the western shores of North America, all related to the small population that survived the slaughter of hunters. Scientists fear the elephant seals may be more susceptible to disease and pollution due to A) bottleneck effect. B) disruptive selection. C) founder effect. D) heterozygous advantage.
2)
The most common source of genetic variation in sexually reproducing organisms is A) duplication of chromosomes. B) mutation. C) duplication of genes. D) recombination of alleles through meiosis and fertilization.
3) You have been doing extensive research for 30 years on the frequency of coat colors (black, gray, white) in a guinea pig population located in the Andes Mountains. You suspect that your guinea pig population is undergoing stabilizing selection. If this is the case, what would you expect to find when you graph your data? Select all that apply. A) A graph with a single tall and narrow peak located in the center. B) A graph indicating that gray guinea pigs are being selected against. C) A graph indicating gray guinea pigs have an advantage over black guinea pigs and white guinea pigs. D) Two peaks, one at each end of the graph. E) A graph with a single peak towards the far right.
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4)
Which of the following statements about natural selection are true? Select all that apply.
A) Directional selection is most common in stable environments. B) Directional selection occurs when one extreme phenotype in the population is favored. C) Disruptive selection favors two extreme phenotypes. D) Stabilizing selection favors all phenotypes equally.
5)
Explain why male baboons have evolved to be larger than the females of the species.
6) You have been studying a newly discovered species of lemur. You have established that sexual selection has been a powerful force in the evolution of this species and it is clear that female choice plays an important role in determining which males procure mates. After many hours of observation and data collection, you find that females prefer males that are more proficient at collecting sap and fruit. You should conclude that your datastrongly supports the good genes hypothesis. ⊚ ⊚
true false
7) Hospital data shows that human infants born with an intermediate birth weight have a better chance of survival than those that weigh much less or much more. Larger than normal babies may have a difficult delivery, while smaller than normal babies may not be fully developed. What type of selection is occurring? Is the variability in birth weight in human populations increasing or decreasing?
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8)
Which of the following is true about genetic drift? A) It increases the number of heterozygotes in a population. B) It may lead to an allele becoming fixed in a population. C) It increases the frequency of rare alleles in a population. D) It is more likely to occur in a large population than in a small population.
9) Social research indicates that a person is most likely to marry someone from the same village or city, or a high school or college classmate. Therefore, the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium does not apply well to human populations because A) there is limited gene flow in the human population. B) natural selection is shaping mate choice in humans. C) the human population is small. D) individuals arenot pairing up by chance across the whole population. E) selection of mates is random.
10) What is the most plausible explanation for why the male of most bird species have elaborate plumage and mating rituals? A) gene flow B) sexual selection C) genetic drift D) natural selection
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11) The bottleneck effect is thought to be responsible for the loss of genetic variability in certain populations. ⊚ ⊚
12)
true false
Which of the following likely reflects the presence of one or more gene mutations?
A) All of the choices are correct. B) Radiation causes an alteration in a DNA nucleotide sequence, which is discovered when mapped, but which appears to be neither increasing nor decreasing in successive generations. C) A chemical leaking from the surface of an old abandoned coal mine alters a regulatory gene so that a cricket nymph develops an extra set of eyes. D) Fruit flies subjected to intense radiation produce a wider array of variable offspring. E) The bacteria that cause gonorrhea, a common sexually transmitted disease, have previously been killed by penicillin; however, after continuous usage of the antibiotic, penicillinresistant strains are now becoming prevalent.
13) A dominant allele is found in a population with a frequency of 0.8. As the environment begins to change, the dominant allele is not favored. Scientists find that the frequency of the dominant allele decreases by half each generation. What are the allele, genotype, and phenotype frequencies before and one generation after the population begins to change? Is Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium maintained?
14) All the members of a single species that occupy a particular area at the same time are known as a
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A) population. B) subspecies. C) sub-population. D) gene pool. E) group.
15)
Variation within a population is maintained by A) All of the choices are correct. B) gene flow. C) mutation. D) genetic recombination due to fertilization.
16)
What do the founder effect and the bottleneck effect have in common? A) Both the founder effect and the bottleneck effect result from an increase in gene
flow. B) Both the founder effect and the bottleneck effect are examples of disruptive selection. C) Both the founder effect and the bottleneck effect result from mutation. D) Both the founder effect and the bottleneck effect are forms of genetic drift.
17) Natural selection can maintain genetic variation by favoring heterozygous genotypes. In equatorial Africa, the best genotype to have for hemoglobin is heterozygous (HbA / HbS). In the United States, there is no advantage to the heterozygous genotype. HbA codes for normal hemoglobin, whereas HbS codes for abnormal hemoglobin that causes red blood cells to become distorted in shape (sickle cell). Explain why the heterozygous state is advantageous in Africa, but not in the United States. What has happened to the sickle-cell allele in Africa? What has happened to the sickle-cell allele in the United States?
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18) Which of the following conditions is not necessary to maintain the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? A) mutation B) large gene pool C) random mating D) no migration E) no selection
19)
Which statement is NOT true about the founder effect?
A) It produces a high frequency of some rare alleles in a small isolated population. B) It is a form of genetic drift. C) Founding members contain a tiny fraction of the alleles found in the original population. D) The founder effect occurs when a population is subjected to near extinction and then recovers so that only a few alleles are left in survivors.
20) Which of the following agents of evolution will help a population become better adapted to its environment? A) genetic drift B) gene flow C) bottleneck D) natural selection E) mutation
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21) If the mutation rate of individual genes is taken to be about one in 100,000 genes per cell cycle across many organisms, we might expect evolution to proceed at a consistent rate for various forms of life. Which factor could make the accumulation of gene mutations faster or slower among different organisms? A) Some organisms may be more effective at repairing mutations before they are passed on to the next generation. B) Organisms with more genes will likely have more mutations per generation. C) All of the choices are correct. D) Organisms vary in the percent of loci that have multiple alleles. E) More selection of mutations can occur in a shorter period of time for bacteria that replicate each twenty minutes than for humans with a (roughly) 20-year generation span.
22)
Which of the following is required for natural selection to occur in a population? A) accumulation of adaptive traits B) differential reproduction C) heritable variation D) All of the choices are correct.
23)
Mutations that result in resistance to specific antibiotics in bacterial organisms occur A) only when the bacteria are exposed to radiation or other mutagens. B) more often when the bacteria are exposed to the drug. C) at any time, even when the bacteria are not exposed to the drug. D) only when the bacteria are exposed to the drug to which they become resistant.
24) Which of the following conditions is necessary to maintain the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? Version 1
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A) mutations B) genetic drift C) gene flow D) random mating E) sexual selection
25) The founder effect is an example of genetic drift in which rare alleles occur at a higher frequency in a population isolated from the general population. ⊚ ⊚
true false
26) If there is gene flow between two adjacent populations of the same species, then the two populations will A) have similar gene pools. B) develop into different species. C) become isolated from each other. D) adapt to different conditions and become separate.
27) A random alteration in the sequence of DNA nucleotides that provides a new variant allele is known as a A) gene mutation. B) polymorphism. C) gene frequency. D) disruption.
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28) A student proposes that left-handedness is a recessive trait and is hidden in much of the human population. A survey of his class of 36 students finds that 9 students are left-handed. Using the Hardy-Weinberg formula, what would be the expected allelic and genotypic frequencies in this theoretical population? A) P =.27 q =.09;p2 =.07, 2pq =.048, q2=.00479 B) They cannot be estimated using these limited data. C) P =.75 q =.25;p2 =.56, 2pq =.25, q2=.25 D) P =.5 q =.5;p2 =.25, 2pq =.50, q2=.25
29)
Which of the following is/are a biological "population?" A) all of the human population of a rural western town B) all of the corn plants in a cornfield C) all male and female English sparrows that reside in your community D) All of the choices are correct. E) all of the variable-colored ladybird beetles of the species Harmonia axyridis in a
forest
30) Over the course of millions of years various environments have changed. As grasslands slowly took the place of forests the inhabitants were forced to adapt or they went extinct. During this time period the horse gradually evolved from a small cat sized creature to the size of the modern horses we see today. This is an example of which type of natural selection? A) stabilizing B) drift C) artificial D) directional E) disruptive
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31) You are employed by the Natural History Museum of Chicago as a wildlife biologist. You recently completed an expedition to Indonesia where you discovered a new and very colorful species of beetle. Based on observations, youhypothesize that sexual selection may be playing a role in the evolution of this species. Which of the following observations would support your hypothesis? A) Males defend territories. B) Male beetles are bigger and more brightly colored than females. C) Female preference for larger, brightermales. D) All of the above observations would support your hypothesis.
32) What is the relative biological fitness of an individual who is heterozygous for sickle-cell disease who lives in central Illinois vs. an individual who is heterozygous and lives in South Africa?
33)
Which genotype is most likely to survive in a region of the world that contains malaria? A) homozygous recessive for hemoglobin shape B) All genotypes have the same potential for survival in a region that contains malaria. C) homozygous dominant for hemoglobin shape D) heterozygous for hemoglobin shape
34) Amish populations in Lancaster County, Pennsylvania have high rates of a rare form of dwarfism. The recessive allele that codes for this disorder is found in 1 of 14 individuals in this Amish population, in contrast to 1 in 1,000 in the general population. In Ohio, an Amish population suffers with higher than normal rates of cystic fibrosis and a host of other genetic diseases so rare that some have not yet been named. What factors have caused such severe genetic problems in these two communities?
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35)
Dominant alleles are always the most common alleles in a population. ⊚ ⊚
true false
36) A population of organisms that reproduce asexually will display more variation than a population that reproduces sexually. ⊚ ⊚
true false
37) A certain species of butterfly varies in color from white to dark blue. The birds found in the same area feed on the white or lightly colored butterflies, leaving butterflies that are darkly colored. This is an example of what type of selection? A) artificial selection B) disruptive selection C) directional selection D) stabilizing selection
38) British land snails are an example of disruptive selection. In the grassy fields, the lightbanded snails escape bird predators. In the darker forest, the dark snails survive and the lightbanded snails are eaten. The different colored snails have the opportunity to interact and breed across the British landscape. Why doesn't this "disruptive selection" eventually lead to two separate species?
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A) There is no reproductive isolation to prevent gene flow. B) They are already two separate species, and the intermediate forms are hybrids. C) The color forms are probably not genetically determined. D) This will result in the formation of two species if given a long enough time.
39) Which of these conditions is NOT among the requirements of the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? A) no selection of one phenotype over another B) no net migration of alleles into or out of the population C) small population D) no net mutations E) random mating population
40) Scientists have studied, in detail, the evolution of the peppered moth, Biston betularia, over the last two hundred years. The peppered moths rest on tree trunks and are a tempting treat for birds in the area. In the mid-1800s the trees in their England habitat were covered with lichens, which are a light, grayish-green color. Although color variations occurred, the vast majority of the moths were light-colored. Because their light coloration effectively camouflaged them against the lichens-covered trees, they were not as easily seen by birds as darker colored moths. The light colored moths flourished. The environment changed, as the Industrial Revolution progressed. By 1900, the lichens had died and trees were coated with soot due to industrial pollution. The lighter colored moths were no longer "hidden" in their environment, and in fact, were easily seen by their predators. Their numbers dwindled. At the same time, the darker-colored moths flourished because of their ability to hide on the soot-covered trees. a. What type of selection is this? b. What is the agent of selection? c. What alleles were favored in the clean environment? The polluted environment?
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41) The black bellied seed cracker, Pyrenestes, is a West African finch. Within the same geographic region, two subspecies of the finch are found. One subspecies has a large beak, which is efficient at cracking the hard seeds of the sedge, Scleria verrucosa. The other subspecies has a small beak, which is more efficient at eating the soft seeds of the sedge, Scleria goossensii. What type of selection occurred to produce this situation? Explain what a population distribution graph would look like that would depict this type of selection.
42)
Which of the following would change the allele frequencies of a population? A) Lack of mutation in the DNA B) Mating is random with no selection occurring C) All of the answer choices would change allele frequencies of a population. D) None of the answer choices would change allele frequencies of a population. E) A population on an island remains isolated and no one leaves or moves onto the
island.
43) Members of a population of guinea pigs exhibit one of three possible coat colors: black, gray, or white. Due to habitat loss, the population has recently colonized a new environment that has areas of black rocks as well as areas of white rocks. In addition, this new habitat contains several predators. If you could visit this population several generations later, what kind of phenotypic pattern, in terms of coat color, would you expect to find in this population? A) Most guinea pigs would be either black or white. B) There would be no difference in the frequency of coat colors. C) Most guinea pigs would be black. D) Most guinea pigs would be white. E) Most guinea pigs would be gray.
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44)
Define and give an example of assortative mating. Will this affect genotype frequencies?
45) The difference in temperature preference between two populations of Daphnia water fleas is due to a mutation. The original population prefers temperatures near 20°C, while the mutant population prefers temperatures between 25°C and 30°C. Predict how natural selection might affect the geographical distribution of these two populations.
46) What is the term used to describe the changes in allele frequencies of a population over generations? A) founder effect B) genetic drift C) directional selection D) microevolution
47) At the beginning of a research project on egg laying in seagulls, a researcher noted that the birds laid an average of 7-9eggs per clutch. After studying the population for 15 generations, the researcher noted that the birds were now laying 3-4 eggs per clutch. What type of natural selection is occurring in the population of gulls?
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A) There is no selection occurring in this population. B) disruptive C) stabilizing D) directional
48) If the small groups of Viking explorers in Greenland and North America had survived and given rise to new populations, such a scenario would be an example of A) the bottleneck effect. B) gene flow from continent to continent. C) the founder effect. D) directional selection. E) genetic drift among the original Viking explorers.
49) The recessive allele for sickle cell anemia is more prevalent in regions of Africa where malaria is prevalent, than it is in regions where there is no malaria. This is due to A) founder effect. B) heterozygous advantage. C) frequency dependent selection. D) bottleneck effect.
50) In the case of the peppered moths in England, when Kettlewell set up cameras to document that more white or black moths were eaten by birds on clean or sooty trees, he was verifying which factor involved in evolution by natural selection?
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A) More young are born than can survive, so there will always be competition. B) The organisms vary in traits and that these traits may be acquired during a lifetime. C) The variation is inherited. D) Some individuals are better adapted to a particular environment than other individuals.
51) Scientists have studied, in detail, the evolution of the peppered moth, Biston betularia, over the last two hundred years. The peppered moths rest on tree trunks and are a tempting treat for birds in the area. In the mid-1800s the trees in their England habitat were covered with lichens, which are a light, grayish-green color. Although color variations occurred, the vast majority of the moths were light-colored. Because their light coloration effectively camouflaged them against the lichens-covered trees, they were not as easily seen by birds as darker colored moths. The light colored moths flourished. The environment changed, as the Industrial Revolution progressed. By 1900, the lichens had died and trees were coated with soot due to the industrial pollution. The lighter colored moths were no longer ‘hidden' in their environment, and in fact, were easily seen by their predators. Their numbers dwindled. At the same time, the darker-colored moths flourished because of their ability to hide on the darkened trees. Describe what the initial normal population curve would look like before pollution. Describe what the population curve would look likeafter the Industrial Revolution and indicate what phenotype was favored.
52) In a population, the allele frequency for red flower color remained at 0.7 and the allele frequency for white flower remained at 0.3 for six generations. This _____ an example of a Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium in that _____.
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A) is; evolution occurred B) is not; evolution did not occur C) is not; evolution occurred D) is; evolution did not occur
53) A population was surveyed to determine the percentage of individuals with detached earlobes and attached earlobes. 16% of the population was found to have attached earlobes, a trait coded for by a recessive allele. Calculate the allele, genotype and phenotype frequencies of the population, assuming Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is maintained.
54) Gene mutation occurs at any time, without respect to the mutation's adaptive value or benefit to the organism. ⊚ ⊚
55)
true false
If the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is met, what is the net effect? A) evolution leading to a population better adapted to an unchanging environment B) very slow and continuous evolution with no increased adaptation C) evolution leading to a population better adapted to a changing environment D) no evolution because the alleles in the population remain the same
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 16_14e_Mader 1) A 2) D 3) [A, C] 4) [B, C] 6) TRUE 8) B 9) D 10) B 11) TRUE 12) A 14) A 15) A 16) D 18) A 19) D 20) D 21) C 22) D 23) C 24) D 25) TRUE 26) A 27) A 28) D 29) D 30) D Version 1
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31) D 33) D 35) FALSE 36) FALSE 37) C 38) A 39) C 42) D 43) A 46) D 47) D 48) C 49) B 50) D 52) D 54) TRUE 55) D
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CHAPTER 17 1) Evolutionary change above the species level is referred to as _____, whereas evolutionary change below the species level is known as _____. A) convergent; divergent B) microevolution; macroevolution C) macroevolution; microevolution D) punctuated; gradualistic
2) _____ is when one species splits into two species or when one species transforms into another over time. A) Both reproductiveisolationand speciation are correct. B) Speciation C) The founder effect D) Reproductive isolation E) Convergent evolution
3) Isolating mechanisms that prevent reproductive attempts or make it unlikely that reproductive attempts will be successful are referred to as A) postgametic isolating mechanisms. B) None of the answer choices are correct. C) prezygotic reproductive isolating mechanisms. D) postzygotic isolating mechanisms. E) pregametic isolating mechanisms.
4)
The biological species concept is limited, and may not be applied to
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A) All of the answer choices are correct. B) asexually reproducing organisms. C) species that could possibly interbreed if they lived near one another. D) organisms known only in the fossil record.
5) Members of the ancestral salamander species live in northern California. As they migrate southward, populations are separated by the Central Valley. With limited contact between populations on the east and west of the valley, genetic differences accumulate. What type of speciation occurs under these conditions?
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A) sympatric speciation B) Both sympatric and allopatric speciation. C) Neither sympatric or allopatric. D) allopatric speciation
6) A cross between a female horse and a male donkey produces a mule. Mules are an example of A) zygote mortality. B) gametic isolation. C) hybrid infertility. D) temporal isolation.
7)
A _____ is the first cell that results when an egg is fertilized by a sperm. A) spermatogonium B) blastula C) zygote D) gastrula
8)
The history of life on Earth can be studied by looking at A) microevolution. B) sexual selection. C) gene flow. D) macroevolution.
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9)
What type of scientist classifies organisms into groups? A) botanist B) geneticist C) taxonomist D) embryologist E) zoologist
10) An insect population lives along the edge of a north-south mountain range. The populations from the east and west slope eventually join in a low northern pass and interbreed, producing fertile offspring, but they do not circle around the southern edge because of a desert barrier. When glaciers move southward, the populations are pushed south of the northern pass and are isolated. While isolated, the two populations develop enough differences over time that when the glaciers retreat north and the insects again share the same pass, they no longer mate at the same time, nor can they produce fertile offspring. These insects A) were originally one species but are now two species. B) were originally two species and remain two species. C) were originally two species but are now one species. D) began as one species and therefore remain one species. E) The number of species cannot be determined from the information given.
11) Norway rats (Rattus norvegicus) and roof rats (Rattus rattus) are different species. Occasionally, mating occurs if the two species are kept together in captivity. The resulting pregnancies are not successful and the embryos die. This is an example of A) hybrid inviability. B) lack of F 2 fitness. C) mechanical isolation. D) hybrid sterility.
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12)
Reproductive isolation is more likely to occur when A) hybrids are more fit than members of the parent species. B) hybrids are less fit than members of the parent species. C) there are no differences between the fitness of the parent species and hybrids. D) None of the answer choices are true.
13) Male birds often perform a special dance or set of physical displays to attract females. This would be an example of a behavioral isolation mechanism. ⊚ ⊚
14)
true false
The Greek root words meaning "together" and "fatherland" are the basis for the term A) prezygotic. B) adaptive radiation. C) allopatric. D) speciation. E) sympatric.
15) The three processes that are commonplace throughout the evolutionary history of a species and illustrate that macroevolution is not goal-directed are speciation, diversification, and extinction. ⊚ ⊚
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16) The Acadian flycatcher, Willow flycatcher, and Least flycatcher are morphologically very similar, but live in different habitats and do not reproduce with one another. Which species concept would be the most useful in determining if these flycatchers are different species? Explain.
17)
Which of the following scenarios is explained by adaptive radiation?
A) A plant species arrives on an island and gives rise to an extremely diverse clade of trees, shrubs, and other species at a relatively rapid pace. B) The color patternof the moths living in the woods of England become darker as the levels ofpollution increase during the Industrial Revolution. C) The averagerunning speed of a cheetah increases each generation due to the gazellesgetting faster. D) All of these areexamples of adaptive radiation.
18) Which of the following examples is best explained by the process of convergent evolution? A) Wolves and coyotesboth producing milk for their young. B) A human cell and a fruit fly cell both going through the process of transcription and translation in order to produce a gene. C) The wings of birdsand butterflies being used for flight. D) Both mice and ratshaving a tail.
19)
The biological species concept relies mainly on _____ to define a species.
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A) reproductive isolation B) comparative biochemical analysis C) the presence of analogous traits D) morphological differences
20) In _____, proteins on the surface of the sperm are not able to bind to proteins on the surface of the egg. A) behavioral isolation B) gametic isolation C) mechanical isolation D) temporal isolation
21) Several species of Caribbean Anoline lizards have evolved from a single ancestral species. The species occupies a wide variety of ecological niches, such as tree trunks and the ground, or tree trunks only, or tree trunks and the crown of trees, etc. This type of allopatric speciation is called A) autoploidy. B) alloploidy. C) hybridization. D) adaptive radiation.
22) Holt-Oram syndrome (HOS) is an autosomal dominant condition characterized in part by upper limb malformations. The most likely cause of this disorder would be a mutation in a Pax6 gene. ⊚ ⊚
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23) Animal diversity is due to variations in the expression of ancient genes in addition to the evolution of new and different genes. ⊚ ⊚
true false
24) All of the following statements concerning the evolutionary species concept are true EXCEPT A) it requires that the members of a species share a distinct evolutionary pathway. B) an evolutionary “family tree" is used to identify species based on a common ancestor. C) abrupt changes in traits are indicative of the evolution of a new species in the fossil record. D) it relies on identification of certain morphological traits to distinguish one species from another.
25) The process in which natural selection favors the continual development of prezygotic isolating mechanisms is called A) reinforcement. B) mutation. C) disruptive selection. D) sympatric speciation.
26) The morphological species concept involves the identification of certain structural traits, called _____, to distinguish one species from another.
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A) diagnostic traits B) homologous traits C) convergent traits D) analogous traits
27)
Adaptive radiation occurs when organisms A) remain in the same, stable environment. B) undergo autoploidy and alloploidy. C) occupy the same habitat as their ancestral species. D) exploit a variety of new environments.
28) Study the chart of the mating seasons of these five species of frogs. What factor keeps the frogs reproductively isolated? What other factors may be involved?
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29) Female Anolis distinguish males of their species by the color of their dewlap, a colorful flap of skin in the neck region. This is an example of A) hybrid inviability. B) a postzygotic isolating mechanism. C) temporal isolation. D) a prezygotic isolating mechanism.
30) A reproductive isolation mechanism includes any structural, functional, or behavioral characteristic that blocks reproductive ability. ⊚ ⊚
true false
31)
Compare the key differences between microevolution and macroevolution.
32)
In speciation which of the following is mismatched? A) postzygotic isolation-hybrid offspring sterility B) sympatric speciation-absence of a geographic barrier C) allopatric speciation-geographic isolation D) adaptive radiation-chance for new species to adapt to new habitats E) None of the answers are mismatched.
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33)
The _____ was proposed to help explain speciation that appears in the fossil record. A) morphologicalspecies concept B) genetic divergencespecies concept C) phylogeneticspecies concept D) evolutionaryspecies concept
34)
Reproductive isolation A) means there is no gene flow between two groups of organisms. B) is necessary for species to remain separate. C) None of thechoices are correct. D) is maintained by certain prezygotic and postzygotic barriers. E) All of the choices are correct.
35)
_____ prevent hybrid offspring from developing or if the hybrid is born, it is infertile. A) Postzygotic isolating mechanisms B) Two oftheseare correct. C) Prezygotic reproductive isolating mechanisms D) Temporal isolation mechanisms E) None of the answer choices are correct.
36)
Which of the following would result in reproductive isolation?
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A) A lion and a tiger mate in the artificial confines of a zoo but the offspring is infertile. B) Two populations of crickets are indistinguishable in physical features, but the females in each group only come to the different songs of their males. C) One brood of the seventeen-year cicada emerged in 1987 (and will do so every 17 years) and lives a few months as adults; another brood emerged in 1992 (and will do so every 17 years); the larvae of both feed side-by-side on tree roots. D) All of the choices are correct. E) Fruit flies on one Hawaiian island live for hundreds of generations and do not come in contact with fruit flies on another island except when blown there by rare tropical storms.
37)
Which figure depicts a punctuated equilibrium model of evolution?
A) Figure B B) Figure A
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38) The ranges of the red-legged frog and the yellow-legged frog overlap in California.The red-legged frog (Rana aurora, left) breeding season lasts from January to March.The closely related yellow-legged frog (Rana boylii, right) breeds from late March through May. What type of reproductive isolating mechanism is mainly responsible for keeping these two species separate? A) mechanical isolation B) habitat isolation C) temporal isolation D) behavioral isolation E) gamete isolation
39) Some genes can bring about radical changes in body shape and organs. The Pax6 gene is one such gene and is involved in A) eye formation in all animals. B) determining the location of repeated structures in all vertebrates. C) breast cancer. D) the development of limbs.
40) When a diploid plant produces diploid gametes due to nondisjunction during meiosis, what occurs? A) A triploid or tetraploid plant may occur. B) An increase in the number of chromosomes above the parent species occurs. C) Autoploidy is occurring. D) All of the answer choices are true.
41)
Reinforcement would eventually
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A) reduce the formation of hybrids. B) favor and therefore increase the formation of hybrids. C) have no effect on hybrid formation. D) increase the fitness of hybrids.
42) Once members of a species are geographically isolated, what factors may cause them to differ from each other over time? A) genetic drift B) natural selection C) All of the above are correct. D) sexual selection E) new mutations
43)
In which model of evolution are many transitional forms predicted? A) gradualistic B) punctuatedequilibrium C) Neither punctuated equilibrium nor gradualistic. D) Both punctuatedequilibrium and gradualistic.
44) Plant species A has a diploid number of 28 chromosomes, while Plant species B has a diploid number of 14 chromosomes. Species A and B produce a hybrid through alloploidy. The diploid number of chromosomes of the hybrid is A) 14. B) 21. C) 28. D) 42.
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45)
Explain the key differences between gradualistic equilibrium and punctuated equilibrium.
46) _____ is said to occur when a similar trait evolves in two unrelated species while _____ is when a species evolves in response to another species. A) Coevolution; convergent evolution B) Allopatric speciation; convergent evolution C) Sympatric speciation; coevolution D) Convergent evolution; coevolution
47)
Macroevolution is opportunistic, not goal oriented. Explain what this means.
48)
What type of speciation requires a geographic barrier? A) Neither sympatric or allopatric speciation require a geographic barrier. B) sympatric speciation C) allopatric speciation D) Both sympatric and allopatric speciation require a geographic barrier.
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49) Two species of the garter snake in the genus Thamnophis are found in the same geographic region. These species are not likely to meet and attempt to reproduce because one lives mainly in the water, while the other species spends most of its time on land. This is known as A) temporal isolation. B) behavioral isolation. C) habitat isolation. D) zygote mortality.
50) Male fireflies are recognized by females of their species by their flash pattern, while male crickets are recognized by females of their species by their chirping. These are examples of A) temporal isolation. B) habitat isolation. C) mechanical isolation. D) behavioral isolation.
51) Why is the use of morphological traits to distinguish species considered to be a disadvantage?
52) Scientists developed the _____ model after their studies of the fossil record revealed that some species appear quite suddenly and then remain essentially unchanged phenotypically for a long period of time.
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A) punctuated equilibrium B) Hardy-Weinberg C) Urey-Miller D) gradualistic
53) Descriptions of new species of insects are more likely to contain diagrams of the shape of the male genitalia than head, wing, or leg parts. Why? A) Small changes in the genitalia cause reproductive isolation while a single species can tolerate wider variation in head, wing, and leg morphology. B) This is where mutations usually express themselves in animals. C) Radiation damage to genes usually occurs in genitalia. D) This is the convention or custom of entomology. E) Arthropods have hard exoskeletons so head, wing, and leg structures can't vary as much.
54)
Sympatric speciation in plants, as a result of _____, is well documented. A) a series of islands off of a mainland B) any type of geographic barrier C) mountain ranges D) polyploidy
55)
Diagnostic traits can be used to distinguish between species of living organisms only. ⊚ ⊚
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 17_14e_Mader 1) C 2) B 3) C 4) A 5) D 6) C 7) C 8) D 9) C 10) A 11) A 12) B 13) TRUE 14) E 15) TRUE 17) A 18) C 19) A 20) B 21) D 22) FALSE 23) TRUE 24) B 25) A 26) A 27) D Version 1
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29) D 30) TRUE 32) E 33) D 34) E 35) A 36) D 37) A 38) C 39) A 40) D 41) A 42) C 43) A 44) D 46) D 48) C 49) C 50) D 52) A 53) A 54) D 55) FALSE
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CHAPTER 18 1) The place where two plates meet and scrape past one another, creating stress that results in earthquakes, is a(n) A) transform boundary. B) supercontinent. C) subduction zone. D) oceanic ridge.
2) Evidence supports the theory of mass extinctions being caused by crater-forming meteorites that initiated climatic changes. ⊚ ⊚
true false
3) The formation of the ozone shield during the Precambrian era helped to create favorable conditions for the evolution of terrestrial life forms. ⊚ ⊚
4)
true false
The first eukaryotic cells probably arose about _____ billion years ago. A) 3.5 B) 4.5 C) 2.2 D) 2.5
5)
Which of the following mass extinction events is correct?
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A) At the end of the Cretaceous period, over 90% of the species went extinct due to a meteoriteimpacting the Earth's surface and causing a cloud of ash to reduce solar exposure for several weeks. B) At the end of the Devonian period, 70% of the terrestrial vertebrates went extinct when Gondwana drifted back towards the South Pole. C) During the Permian period, over 90% of the species disappeared due to an excess of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. D) At the end of the Ordovician period, over 90% of the species went extinct due to a meteroriteimpacting the Earth's surface and causing a cloud of ash to reduce solar exposure for several weeks.
6) If the hypothesis that protocells were based on an "RNA world" is correct, what would be necessary to shift to a "DNA world"? A) new enzymes for transcribing DNA back to RNA B) All would be necessary to switch to a "DNA world." C) new enzymes to replicate the DNA D) enzymes for reverse transcription of RNA into DNA E) an enzyme or reaction capable of removing one oxygen from ribose in nucleotides
7)
_____ proposed that polypeptides and RNA evolved simultaneously. A) Sidney Fox B) Thomas Cech C) AleksanderOparin D) Stanley Miller E) GrahamCairns-Smith
8)
The term "reducing atmosphere" for the early Earth means that the atmosphere
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A) contained only two or three kinds of gases. B) contained little or no carbon dioxide. C) was much thinner around the surface of the Earth than now. D) contained little or no free nitrogen. E) contained little or no free oxygen.
9) Plate tectonics explain that the amount of Earth being formed is much greater than the amount of the Earth's crust being destroyed in subduction zones. ⊚ ⊚
true false
10) Which of the following forms of energy was NOT involved in the production of large organic molecules in the primitive reducing atmosphere? A) radiation from the sun B) electrical energy C) sound D) heat E) radioactivity
11) Who was the individual who proposed the hypothesis of continental drift during the 1920s? A) Charles Lyell B) Charles Darwin C) Alfred Wegener D) Alfred RusselWallace
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12) Miller and Urey's experiment provided support for what hypothesis? In what way did the discovery of hydrothermal vents alleviate concern about the validity of their simulation of the Earth's primitive atmosphere?
13) Africa, Asia, South America, and Antarctica share some patterns of primitive (fossil) plants and early reptiles, but do not have similar mammal populations. These findings A) cast serious doubts upon the theory of continental drift and fused land masses. B) suggest that the earlier plants and reptiles evolved while continents were joined, but mammals radiated into diverse groups after separation. C) suggest that the mammals evolved earlier while continents were joined, but plants and reptiles radiated into diverse groups after separation. D) suggest that a pattern of land bridges existed at different times in geological history. E) are an unsolved puzzle probably due to the random nature of biological evolution.
14) The formation of simple organic monomers, such as sugars, amino acids, and nucleotide bases, from inorganic molecules is A) genetically modified photosynthesis. B) chemoautotrophic activity. C) abiotic synthesis. D) biosynthesis.
15)
Which of the following lists of mass extinctions and eras is correct?
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A) The Precambrian experienced 0, Paleozoic experienced 2, Mesozoic experienced 3, and the Cretaceous experienced 0 mass extinctions. B) The Precambrian experienced 1, Paleozoic experienced 3, Mesozoic experienced 2, and the Cretaceous experienced 1 mass extinctions. C) The Precambrian experienced 2, Paleozoic experienced 2, Mesozoic experienced 3, and the Cretaceous experienced 0 mass extinctions. D) The Precambrian experienced 0, Paleozoic experienced 3, Mesozoic experienced 2, and the Cretaceous experienced 0 mass extinctions.
16) Dinosaurs were the dominant group during the Mesozoic Era and many scientists believe that they were A) endothermic, or warm-blooded. B) exergonic, or energy releasing. C) ectothermic, or cold-blooded. D) both endothermic and ectothermic. Some scientists believe that certain dinosaurs were endothermic while others believe that certain dinosaurs were ectothermic.
17) Which of the following molecules are believed to have been absent from the primitive reducing atmosphere? A) oxygen (O 2) B) hydrogen (H 2) C) carbon dioxide (CO 2) D) nitrogen (N 2) E) water vapor (H 2O)
18)
Which piece of evidence best supports the endosymbiotic theory of organelle evolution?
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A) Mitochondria and chloroplasts divide by binary fission. B) All of these are correct. C) The outer membrane of chloroplasts and mitochondria resembles that of a eukaryotic cell while the inner membrane resembles that of a bacterial cell. D) Mitochondria and chloroplasts are the same size as bacteria. E) Mitochondria and chloroplasts both contain DNA and some can make their own proteins.
19)
Which of the following statements is true regarding the theory of continental drift?
A) Charles Darwinbelieved that the continents formed a supercontinent called Pangea. B) Alfred Wegenerbelieved that the continents formed a supercontinent called Pangea. C) Charles Lyellbelieved that the continents split into two smaller continents called Gondwanaand Laurasia. D) Alfred Wallacebelieved that the distribution of seed fern fossils supported continentaldrift.
20) _____ discovered that a variety of amino acids and organic acids could be produced in the laboratory in a reducing atmosphere with electrical sparks. A) Stanley Miller B) Thomas Cech C) Sidney Fox D) AleksanderOparin E) GrahamCairns-Smith
21) Some viruses never use DNA to carry out protein synthesis and have only RNA as their genetic material. This would lend evidence to which theory?
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A) protein-first hypothesis B) RNA-firsthypothesis C) endosymbiotic theory of eukaryote evolution D) simultaneous evolution of RNA and proteins
22)
Which of the following time periods contains the others? A) Jurassic B) Mesozoic C) Cretaceous D) Triassic
23)
Fossils used to define and identify geologic periods are _____ fossils. A) body B) trace C) index D) stromatolite
24) Which hypothesis states that the synthesis of DNA or RNA from the small molecules in the ocean would have come after the evolution of the plasma membrane and enzymes? A) RNA-first hypothesis B) clay-catalyst hypothesis C) chloroplast D) protein-first hypothesis
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25) With the appearance of photosynthetic cyanobacteria and aerobic bacteria during the Precambrian era, A) an oxidizing atmosphere developed on Earth. B) All of the choices are correct. C) the formation of the ozone shield occurred. D) the amount of UV light reaching the Earth was reduced and chemical evolution slowed.
26) The distribution of mammalian fossils on Australia, South America, and Africa help support the idea of continental drift. ⊚ ⊚
27)
true false
Which piece of evidence would best support the theory of continental drift?
A) All of the choices are correct. B) Australia, South America, and Africa all share a similar mammalian fauna due to the lineage being present on Gondwana. C) The reptiliandiversity on Earth is very different due to the separation of the continentsbillions of years ago. D) Fossils of seed ferns can only be found on North America and Europe but nowhere else in the world.
28)
Which piece of evidence best supports the endosymbiotic theory of organelle evolution?
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A) Mitochondria and chloroplasts are much larger than present day bacteria. B) Both mitochondria and chloroplasts divide by mitosis. C) The outer membrane of a mitochondrion and chloroplast resembles a eukaryotic cell while the inner membrane resembles that of a bacterial cell. D) The inner membrane of a mitochondrion and chloroplast resembles a eukaryotic cell while the outer membrane resembles that of a bacterial cell.
29) The scientific study of fossils and what they reveal about prehistoric life in relation to ancient climates and environments is A) biogeography. B) paleontology. C) geology. D) comparative molecular biology.
30) All of the following statements concerning the theory of continental drift are true EXCEPT A) the coastlines of several continents are mirror images. B) the unique distribution patterns of several fossils is explained by continental drift. C) similar geological structures are found in areas where the continents touched. D) continental drift has ceased.
31)
The Greek terms for "small" and "ball" are the root words for
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A) coacervate. B) polymer. C) microsphere. D) proteinoid. E) liposome.
32)
The first cells gave rise to A) bacteria and archaea. B) archaea and protists. C) eukaryotes and bacteria. D) bacteria and fungi.
33)
The Carboniferous Period is extremely significant to our current society because A) plants and animals first adapted to a terrestrial environment during this period. B) the Carboniferous forests turned into the coal that fuels modern society. C) mammals diversified. D) human evolution began in the period.
34)
The fact that a nucleic acid is a very complicated molecule suggests that
A) no natural system could ever generate it. B) the RNA-first hypothesis is impossible. C) the protein-first hypothesis is therefore the only plausible hypothesis. D) sophisticated enzymes were not present or available to synthesize it. E) RNA could not have arisen on its own by chance, but required enzymes to guide the synthesis of nucleotides and then nucleic acids.
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35) Which of the following mass extinctions is correctly matched with the date of the extinction? A) Cretaceous—65.5 mya B) Silurian—445.2 mya C) Triassic—251 mya D) Devonian—443.7 mya
36)
Mass extinctions A) All of the choices are correct. B) may have been due to changing environments caused by continental drift. C) have occurred at least 5 times in the Earth's history. D) may have been due to climatic changes after meteorite collisions.
37) ago.
Fossils of prokaryotic cells are dated as far back as approximately _____ billion years
A) 4.8 B) 2.8 C) 1.5 D) 3.8
38) Biological evolution differs from chemical evolution in that it would have been possible only after the development of
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A) nucleic acids. B) a metabolic pathway. C) true cells. D) enzymes.
39)
The first known multicellular organisms evolved approximately how many years ago? A) 2.1 BYA B) 1.4 BYA C) 3.5 BYA D) 100 MYA
40)
Fossils from the Paleozoic are plentiful because A) this is the time period most studied. B) multicellular organisms first evolved during this time. C) hard body parts evolved in plants and animals. D) mammals greatly diversified during this time.
41)
Which event and date is mismatched? A) origin of multicellular organisms—650 million years ago B) origin of eukaryotic cells—2.2 billion years ago C) origin of life—4.8 billion years ago D) All the choices are incorrect.
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42) Explain why stromatolites are believed to hold a clue to the origin of the first prokaryotic cells on Earth during the Precambrian Era.
43) Which of the following major divisions of geologic time is mismatched with the organisms that flourished during that time period? A) Holocene epoch—The Age of Man B) Cambrian Period—Age of Fish C) Carboniferous Period—Age of Amphibians D) Mesozoic Era—Age of Reptiles
44) The time that it takes for half of a radioactive isotope to change into another stable element is its A) chemical life cycle. B) life span. C) activation time. D) half-life.
45)
Which statement is NOT true about the RNA-first hypothesis?
A) It is supported by the discovery that RNA can act as an enzyme. B) It says that first RNA, then DNA, and then proteins would have been necessary to interact in the chemical evolution that would have led to the development of the first cells. C) It suggests that there was an "RNA world" about 4 billion years ago. D) It is supported by the fact that some viruses have RNA as their genetic material.
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46)
Which statement is NOT true about a protocell?
A) It might have been like a coacervate droplet in which a semipermeable boundary allows some materials to be absorbed from the surrounding environment. B) It would have contained a biochemical pathway for energy metabolism. C) It would have contained DNA as its genetic material. D) It would have had a lipid and protein membrane forming the outer layer. E) It would have been present before the development of a true cell.
47)
Describe plate tectonics and why it is important in the evolution of life forms.
48) The first person who proposed that small organic molecules could have arisen by chemical evolution was A) Aleksander Oparin. B) Thomas Cech. C) Graham Cairns-Smith. D) Sidney Fox. E) Stanley Miller.
49) Three fossils are found in undisturbed layers of rock, or strata. Fossil A is closest to the Earth's surface and Fossil C was deeper than Fossil B. Given this limited data, what assumptions can you make about these fossils?
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50)
When and where did the first multicellular protists evolve? A) Africa, 2.3 BYA B) Middle East, 4.6 BYA C) Canada, 1.4 BYA D) Asia, 3.2 BYA
51)
Organisms today are living in the Pleistocene epoch of the Cenozoic era. ⊚ ⊚
52)
true false
It is likely that the protocell was A) a decomposer. B) chemoautotrophic. C) heterotrophic. D) either heterotrophic or chemoautotrophic. E) photoautotrophic.
53) The lack of oxygen in the ancient Earth's atmosphere was beneficial because oxygen combines with organic molecules to prevent them from forming polymers. ⊚ ⊚ Version 1
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54)
The oxygen in the atmosphere developed approximately _____ billion years ago. A) 4.5 B) 3.5 C) 1.5 D) 2.0
55) List in order of appearance the four stages of the origin of life and explain what was necessary to occur in order for life to have evolved in this fashion.
56)
Which biological events took place during the Paleozoic Era and the Mesozoic Era?
A) During the Paleozoic Era, five mass extinctions occurred which led to the colonization of land by plants, while during the Mesozoic Era, angiosperms became the dominant plant life. B) During the Mesozoic Era, five mass extinctions occurred which led to the colonization of land by plants, while during the Paleozoic Era, angiosperms became the dominant plant life. C) During the Mesozoic Era, three mass extinctions occurred which led to the colonization of land by plants, while during the Paleozoic Era, gymnosperms became the dominant plant life. D) During the Paleozoic Era, three mass extinctions occurred which led to the colonization of land by plants, while during the Mesozoic Era, gymnosperms became the dominant plant life.
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57) Wegener first presented the idea of continental drift in 1920 and this theory was confirmed in 1960. ⊚ ⊚
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 18_14e_Mader 1) A 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) C 5) C 6) B 7) E 8) E 9) FALSE 10) C 11) C 13) B 14) C 15) D 16) D 17) A 18) B 19) B 20) A 21) B 22) B 23) C 24) D 25) B 26) TRUE 27) B Version 1
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28) C 29) B 30) D 31) C 32) A 33) B 34) E 35) A 36) A 37) D 38) C 39) B 40) C 41) C 43) B 44) D 45) B 46) C 48) A 50) C 51) FALSE 52) D 53) TRUE 54) D 56) D 57) TRUE
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CHAPTER 19 1) Domain Archaea is the only domain in which the organisms lack membrane-bound organelles. ⊚ ⊚
2)
true false
Which of the following lists of features exemplifies the domain Archaea?
A) Multicellular, varying branched lipids in their cell membrane, no nuclear envelope, and contain some introns B) Unicellular, varying branched lipids in their cell membrane, no nuclear envelope, and contain some introns C) Unicellular, varying branched lipids in their cell membrane, nuclear envelope, and contain some introns D) Unicellular, unbranched phospholipids in their cell membrane, no nuclear envelope, and contain some introns
3)
Which of the following best represents analogous structures? A) the wing of a butterfly and the wing of a bee B) the arm of a human and the leg of a human C) the wing of a bat and the wing of a butterfly D) the arm of a human and the wing of a bat
4) The famous Greek philosopher Aristotle could be thought of as a taxonomist since he sorted organisms into groups based on a set of shared traits. ⊚ ⊚
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5)
Which kingdom is correctly described? A) Fungi: unicellular and photosynthetic B) Protists: unicellular and heterotrophic only C) Animals: multicellular and saprotrophic D) Plants: multicellular and photosynthetic
6)
The scientific name of the giant swallowtail is Heraclides cresphontes. Therefore, A) it belongs to the genus Heraclides. B) the specific epithet is cresphontes. C) It belongs to the species Heraclides cresphontes D) All of the choices are correct.
7) A recent book by a reputable biologist suggests there is a deep, hot, acidic biosphere under the Earth's crust that may have more biomass than all life at the Earth's surface. What type of organisms would most likely be found in this deep biosphere? A) fungi living on the detritus from above B) viruses C) thermoacidophilic archaea D) primitive heat-loving plants E) primitive animals
8) Convergent evolution has occurred when distantly related species have a structure that looks the same only because of adaptation to the same type of environment.
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⊚ ⊚
true false
9) The newest issue of your favorite science magazine has an article about several recently discovered archaeans. These organisms were found living in swamp mud. Based on this information, these archaeans are probably halophiles. ⊚ ⊚
10)
true false
Single-celled eukaryotic cells belong to which of the following domains? A) Eukarya B) Animalia C) Plantae D) Fungi
11)
Scientists use Italian when constructing scientific names. ⊚ ⊚
12)
true false
Which of the following features would be used to construct a phylogenetic tree? A) amino acid sequences B) mtDNA sequences C) All of the answer choices are correct. D) homologous structures E) fossil record data
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13)
In cladistics, _____ is(are) the primary criterion used to classify organisms. A) shared, derived traits B) ecological niche C) mating behavior D) observable traits E) All of the answer choices are correct.
14)
New data about rRNA led to the three-domain system of classification. ⊚ ⊚
15)
true false
_____ is the process of naming and assigning organisms to a taxon. A) Phylogeny B) Taxonomy C) Classification D) None of the answer choices are correct. E) Cladistics
16) The amino acid sequences in cytochrome c were determined for chickens, ducks, and humans. Scientists found a difference of 3 amino acids between chickens and ducks, and 13 differences between chickens and humans. Based on this information, one can conclude that A) chickens are more closely related to ducks than they are to humans. B) chickens are more closely related to humans than they are ducks. C) ducks are more closely related to humans than they are to chickens. D) chickens are as closely related to humans as they are to ducks.
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17) When ectoparasites first arrive and adapt to the fur or feathery habitat of a host, they often lose more complex ancestral features. So it is possible to gain a trait in evolution and subsequently lose it. However, it is considered vastly improbable that this same trait will again re-evolve. Therefore, in trying to trace evolutionary lineages, can we always expect the most primitive forms to be the simplest and the most advanced to be the most complex? Why or why not?
18) Whittaker's classification included kingdom Monera, which included all prokaryotes. Why is this classification obsolete? A) Based on molecular data, Monera has been divided into the two distinct domains, Archaea and Bacteria. B) This kingdom now includes more organisms, so the name has been changed. C) The prokaryotes, which were included in this kingdom, are now included in Protista. D) Based on fossil evidence, this group has been divided into three newly named kingdoms.
19) A study of echinoderm embryos, such as sea stars, confirms a similar developmental pattern to that of vertebrates. In both, the blastopore becomes the anus. This would be considered A) analogy. B) synapomorphy. C) convergent evolution. D) behavioral data. E) homology.
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20) Which of the following are ways in which scientific names are derived? Select all that apply. A) Scientific names can be descriptive. B) Scientific names can be derived from the name of a person. C) Scientific names can be based on mythical characters. D) Scientific names can include geographic descriptions. E) Scientific names are often based on an organism's common name.
21) Charles Darwin is credited with creating the binomial nomenclature system of classification. ⊚ ⊚
22)
true false
A taxon is the general name for a group of organisms that exhibit a set of shared traits. ⊚ ⊚
true false
23) Which of the following lists best describes the features used to classify an organism as a member of domain Bacteria? A) Unicellular, lacking a nuclear envelope and membrane-bound organelles, contains ribosomes but lacks introns B) Unicellular, lacks anuclear envelope and membrane-bound organelles, contains introns but lacks ribosomes C) Unicellular, contains anuclear envelope and membrane-bound organelles, contains ribosomes but lacks introns D) Multicellular, lacks anuclear envelope and membrane-bound organelles, contains introns but lacks ribosomes
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24) DNA or protein can be used as a ‘‘molecular clock" that tells how long it has been since two species have diverged from a common ancestor. ⊚ ⊚
25)
true false
Taxonomy
A) is the branch of biology dealing with the naming, identification, and classification of organisms. B) uses a binomial system developed by Linnaeus. C) uses reproductive isolation as the basis of definition of a species. D) All of the choices are correct.
26)
DNA barcoding is a method that can be used to identify any organism. ⊚ ⊚
27)
true false
Which of the following scientific names includes an eponym? A) Allium hendersonii B) Abies grandis C) Zeus olympius D) Aconitum columbianum
28)
The scientific name of the family dog is Canis familiaris. Canis represents the species'
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A) phylum name. B) kingdom. C) species name. D) genus name.
29) What is the correct order of the Linnaean system of classification, starting with the most general category? A) domain, kingdom, phylum, class B) kingdom, class, phylum, species C) domain, phylum, class, kingdom D) genus, order, class, phylum
30) The evolution of organisms in the three domains and four kingdoms is most accurately described by which sequence? A) Prokaryotes to Protists, separately to Animals and Plants with Fungi a loss of plant photosynthesis B) Prokaryotes to Fungi to Protists to Plants to Animals C) Prokaryotes to Protists to Plants, from Plants separately to both Animals and Fungi D) Protists to Prokaryotes to Fungi, from Fungi separately to Plants and Animals E) Prokaryotes to Protists, from Protists separately to Fungi, Plants, and Animals
31) The scientific name of the American copperhead is Agkistrodon contortrix and the scientific name of the Australian pygmy copperhead is Austrelaps labialis. Based on this information, which of the following statements is true?
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A) Both copperheads are classified in the same genus. B) The common name "copperhead" must mean the two snakes are closely related. C) Both copperheads are the same species. D) None of the above are correct.
32) Hair is a character shared by all mammals, but not found in their ancestral lineage. Hair is therefore considered to be a(n) A) shared derivedcharacter (trait). B) shared ancestral character (trait). C) analogous structure. D) clade.
33)
Order these major taxonomic categories into an increasingly inclusive hierarchy. A) domain, kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species B) class, order, family, genus, species, kingdom, phylum, domain C) genus, species, class, order, family, domain, kingdom, phylum D) species, genus, family, order, class, phylum, kingdom, domain
34) Nonscientists often use the words ‘‘name," ‘‘identify," and ‘‘classify" interchangeably. When they want to know what an organism is, they may ask "Can you name this?" or "Can you identify this?" or "Can you classify this?" Which of the following is/are correct usage(s) of the term(s)?
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A) A farmer using a key to detect pest insect species in his fields is identifying insects but not naming or necessarily classifying them. B) All of the choices are correct. C) Only the scientist who first describes a new species actually names it. D) Classifying is grouping, and to classify something requires several organisms so you can group one as closer to a second and distant from a third. E) A scientist who publishes the name and description of a new species must necessarily also know both how to identify and classify the species.
35)
A multicellular organism with no cell wall would belong to which domain? A) Eukarya B) Monera C) Bacteria D) Archaea
36) If there are so many million insects and so few scientists to describe them, perhaps we could just assign the insects numbers and descriptions, rather than names. Describe why this would not accomplish the same "job" as giving them a scientific name, and provide two potential items of knowledge that would be missing with just a number and description. Simply, what does naming an organism accomplish?
37)
The use of a molecular clock may be used to indicate relatedness and evolutionary time
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A) but is more strongly supported when it can be compared with the fossil record. B) All of the choices are correct. C) if nucleic acid changes occur at a fairly constant rate. D) if nucleic acid changes are neutral and not tied to adaptation.
38)
Create a list of the features used to describe members of domain Eukarya.
39)
A(n) _____ is one that is present in the common ancestor and all members of a group. A) cladistic characteristic B) divergent characteristic C) shared ancestralcharacter D) analogous structure E) shared derived character
40)
Which of the following statements about taxonomy is NOT true?
A) Analogous structures are derived from a common ancestral structure to perform the same function. B) In cladistics, a common ancestor and all its descendents that share one or more derived traits are placed in a single clade. C) Biochemical data and the fossil record can be used to indicate the length of time since two species diverged from a common ancestor. D) Homologous structures are derived from a single structure in the ancestor, although they may be adapted to different uses in the descendent species.
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41)
When comparing archaea with bacteria,
A) bacteria are not very diverse and are limited in distribution, while archaea are far more diverse and found everywhere. B) None of the choices are true. C) both archaea and bacteria are easily cultured and studied in the laboratory. D) the archaea and bacteria are both derived from early eukarya. E) the chemical nature of the cell wall of archaea and bacteria is identical and shows their early relationship.
42)
Which domains replaced kingdom Monera? A) Bacteria and Eukarya B) Archaea and Bacteria C) Archaea and Eukarya D) Protista and Archaea
43) Which type of trait is more valuable in determining the evolutionary relationship between two organisms? A) derived B) ancestral C) Neither trait isuseful in determining the evolutionary relationship between two organisms. D) Both traits areequally valuable in determining the evolutionary relationship between twoorganisms.
44)
Which of the following are the three domains proposed in Woese's classification system?
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A) Archaea, Bacteria and Eukarya B) Protista, Fungi,and Eukarya C) Fungi, Monera, andArchaea D) Monera, Archaea, and Bacteria
45)
Of those listed, which level of classification is the most specific? A) class B) family C) phylum D) kingdom E) domain
46) When creating a molecular clock, investigators often use mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) because it mutates much more quickly than nuclear DNA. ⊚ ⊚
true false
47) Which of the following domains include the majority of the organisms that were previously classified in kingdom Monera? A) Eukarya andBacteria B) Archaea andBacteria C) Protista andEukarya D) Bacteria andEubacteria E) Archaea andAlgae
48)
All of the following are true regarding systematics EXCEPT that it
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A) is the study of the diversity of organisms at all levels of organization. B) relies on data from the fossil record, homology, and molecular data. C) utilizes protein, DNA, and RNA comparisons to determine relatedness of individuals. D) is the specific study of identification, naming, and classification of organisms.
49) The principle of parsimony states that a cladogram produces the best hypothesis about relationships of organisms when the maximum number of assumptions is considered. ⊚ ⊚
true false
50) Cladists feel that a cladogram is a hypothesis about the evolutionary history of a group. Using what you have learned about scientific hypotheses, support this view of a cladogram.
51) The opposable thumb in primates is an example of an ancestral trait in mammals, while mammary glands are an example of a derived trait. ⊚ ⊚
true false
52) If you were using cladistics to construct a phylogenetic tree of birds, what is the best outgroup?
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A) robins B) eagles C) bats D) eastern bluebirds
53) Which kingdom or supergroup is characterized by organisms that are saprotrophic by absorption? A) Protists B) Animal C) Plant D) Fungi
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 19_14e_Mader 1) FALSE 2) B 3) C 4) TRUE 5) D 6) D 7) C 8) TRUE 9) FALSE 10) A 11) FALSE 12) C 13) A 14) TRUE 15) C 16) A 18) A 19) E 20) [A, B, C, D] 21) FALSE 22) TRUE 23) A 24) TRUE 25) D 26) TRUE 27) A Version 1
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28) D 29) A 30) E 31) D 32) A 33) D 34) B 35) A 37) B 39) C 40) A 41) B 42) B 43) A 44) A 45) B 46) TRUE 47) B 48) D 49) FALSE 51) FALSE 52) C 53) D
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CHAPTER 20 1)
Which statement is true about prokaryotes? A) They contain a nucleus. B) They do not divide by mitosis. C) They usually lack a cell wall. D) They lack ribosomes. E) They contain a long, linear strand of DNA as the genetic material.
2) Which group of Archaea are chemoautotrophic anaerobes that use hydrogen as an electron donorand sulfur compounds as terminal electron acceptors? A) Halophiles B) Methanogens C) Thermoacidophiles D) Cyanobacteria
3)
In order to infect a cell, a virus must
A) produce a special extension of its cytoplasm when it comes into contact with the appropriate host cell. B) inject its protein into the cell while the nucleic acid remains attached to the host cell surface. C) actively burrow through the cell wall or cell membrane of the host cell to reach the cell's nucleus. D) have a special protein on its surface that can interact with a protein on the surface of the host cell.
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5)
What is the correct sequence of events in viral reproduction? A) attachment, penetration, biosynthesis, maturation and release B) endocytosis, uncoating, maturation, and release C) penetration, attachment, integration, biosynthesis, maturation, release D) attachment, fusion, biosynthesis, maturation, and release
6) Consider again the discussion of "properties of life" and describe at least three distinct reasons why viruses are not classified as living organisms.
7)
Which enzyme enables a retrovirus to convert its RNA genome into DNA? A) DNA ligase B) DNA helicase C) reversehelicase D) reversetranscriptase
8)
Which description best describes the cell wall of a Gram-positive bacteria?
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A) It is composed ofa single plasma membrane and a thick outer layer of peptidoglycan. B) It is composed ofa double layer in the plasma membrane and a thin outer layer ofpeptidoglycan. C) It is composed ofa single plasma membrane and a thin outer layer of cellulose. D) It is composed of a thick inner layer of peptidoglycanand a double layer of plasma membrane on the outside. E) It is composed ofa single plasma membrane and a thin outer layer of peptidoglycan.
9) In your analysis of a newly discovered bacterial species, you find the bacteria reduce carbon dioxide to organic compounds but do not produce oxygen. The nutritional mode of this new bacterial species is most likely A) anoxygenic photoautotroph. B) anoxygenicchemoautotroph. C) anoxygenicchemoheterotoph. D) oxygenic photoautotroph. E) oxygenic chemoautotoph.
10) Bacteriophages carry portions of bacterial DNA from one cell to another in a process called A) infection. B) replication. C) transduction. D) transformation. E) conjugation.
11)
Identify the correct sequence of events that occur during the reproduction of HIV.
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A) virus attaches to a host cell - the virus enters the cell - viral DNA is incorporated into the host DNA - reverse transcriptase occurs -viral / host DNA is turned into a viral mRNA code the viral RNA forms into a mature virus - mature viruses leave the host cell B) virus attaches to a host cell - the virus enters the cell - viral / host DNA is turned into a viral mRNA code -viral DNA is incorporated into the host DNA - reverse transcriptase occurs the viral RNA forms into a mature virus - mature viruses leave the host cell C) virus attaches to a host cell - the virus enters the cell - reverse transcriptase occurs viral DNA is incorporated into the host DNA - viral / host DNA is turned into a viral mRNA code - the viral RNA forms into a mature virus - mature viruses leave the host cell D) virus attaches to a host cell - the virus enters the cell - viral DNA is incorporated into the host DNA - reverse transcriptase occurs -the viral RNA forms into a mature virus - viral / host DNA is turned into a viral mRNA code - mature viruses leave the host cell
12) Imagine a researcher is trying to genetically engineer this virus so it attacks the lung cells of a human in order to "infect" the host with a particular gene to cure a genetic disorder. Explain which structure the researcher would be most interested in working with in order to get the virus to attack the lung cell of a human.
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13) You are analyzing some material gathered from a bacterial cell. You find it tests positive for both polysaccharides and amino acids. What part of the bacterial cell did this sample come from? A) S-layer B) cell membrane C) cell wall D) nucleoid E) glycocalyx
14)
Explain the biochemical features that are unique to archaea.
15)
All of the following are true about HIV EXCEPT
A) HIV must reproduce immediately upon entering a host cell because it cannot survive a latent period. B) cDNA precedes double-stranded DNA. C) HIV carries RNA as its genetic material. D) HIV contains an enzyme called reverse transcriptase.
16)
The innermost portion of a virus's structure is made up of
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A) both DNA and RNA. B) a protein capsid. C) a membranous envelope. D) either DNA or RNA. E) microtubules.
17)
Short, bristlelike fibers extending from the surface of a prokaryote are known as A) flagella. B) villi. C) cilia. D) fimbriae.
18)
Which of the following characteristics about saprotrophs is NOT true? A) Saprotrophs are also called decomposers. B) They are viruses that infect plant and fungal cells. C) They are ecologically important in recycling matter. D) They are bacteria that decompose large organic molecules.
19)
What are the two prokaryotic domains? A) Eukarya &Bacteria B) Archaea &Bacteria C) Protista &Archaea D) Archaea &Eukarya
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20)
Similarities between the archaea and eukarya include A) similar tRNA. B) similar initiationof transcription. C) All of the choices are correct similarities. D) that they are more closely related to each other than to the bacteria. E) the same ribosomal proteins.
21) In your analysis of a new bacterial species, you gram stained the bacteria and observed them under the microscope. The bacteria appear to have a round shape and a pink color. Based on this information, you would classify these bacteria as A) Gram-positive spirilla. B) Gram-negative bacilli. C) Gram-positivebacilli. D) Gram-positive cocci. E) Gram-negative cocci.
22) The cycle of viral infection that will rapidly result in the death of a bacterial cell is called the _____ cycle. A) lysozyme B) lysosome C) lysogenic D) lysol E) lytic
23)
All of the following are means of genetic recombination in prokaryotes EXCEPT
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A) transformation. B) crossing over. C) conjugation. D) transduction.
24)
Name the labeled structures of the virus pictured in this figure.
A: _____________ B: _____________ C: _____________ D: _____________ E: _____________
25)
Like most eukaryotic animal cells, bacterial cells are diploid. ⊚ ⊚
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26)
Which of the following is a mismatch? A) halophiles - live in high salt environments B) thermophiles -live in extremely cold temperatures C) methanogens - prefer anaerobic environments D) thermoacidophiles - live in high temperatures and acidic environments
27) An environmental change, such as exposure to ultraviolet light, may cause a lysogenic virus to enter a lytic cycle. ⊚ ⊚
true false
28) Chemoautotrophs oxidize which of the following to obtain the energy necessary to reduce carbon dioxide to an organic compound? A) ammonia B) All of the above. C) hydrogensulfide D) nitrites E) hydrogen gas
29) Binary fission is a form of sexual reproduction in which the daughter cells have a different genetic combination than the parent cell. ⊚ ⊚
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30) The endosymbiotic theory suggests that chloroplasts evolved from cyanobacteria. What features of cyanobacteria support this premise?
31) You recently discovered a new photosynthetic bacterial cell. Based on your knowledge of prokaryotes, what else should be present in the cell? A) mitochondria B) viral DNA C) many infolds of the plasma membrane D) additional plasmids E) chloroplasts
32)
A lichen is a symbiotic relationship between cyanobacteria and fungi. ⊚ ⊚
true false
33) Describe how halophiles metabolize nutrients in environments that contain a high salt concentration.
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34) Explain which features of cyanobacteria enable them to survive in a variety of environments.
35) Ivanowsky first recognized that something smaller than a bacterium, called a filterable virus, was able to cause disease in the year A) 1650. B) 1700. C) 2001. D) 1892. E) 1965.
36)
Halophiles A) may be chemoheterotrophs or photosynthetic. B) increase the chloride level within their cells. C) All of the choices are correct. D) use bacteriorhodopsin to capture solar energy. E) require a high salt environment.
37) The cycle of viral infection in which the viral DNA is integrated into the host's DNA is called the _____ cycle.
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A) lysogenic B) lysol C) lysozyme D) lysosome E) lytic
38) A facultative anaerobe is an organism that can metabolize effectively in the presence or absence of oxygen. ⊚ ⊚
true false
39) Pasteur's experiments are depicted in this diagram. Do the results of the first experiment confirm the prediction of Hypothesis A or Hypothesis B? Explain.
40)
All of the following are true of methanogens EXCEPT
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A) their biogas may contribute to global warming. B) they producemethane from CO 2 and H 2. C) they require hot, acidic environments for methanogenesis. D) they live in the intestinal tracts of cows, humans, and termites. E) they live in swamps and marshes.
41) A Gram-negative bacteria will have a peptidoglycan layer that is sandwiched between two plasma membranes and will stain purple. ⊚ ⊚
42)
true false
Study the life cycle diagram. Label B is the _____ life cycle.
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A) lysogenic B) alternation of generations C) sexual D) lytic
43)
Some enveloped animal viruses enters a host cell by A) Both B and C. B) endocytosis. C) fusion of their envelope with the host cell's plasma envelope. D) injecting their DNA or RNA into the host cell. E) All of the above.
44)
Which of these is the best description of a virus? A) chemical complexes of RNA or DNA protected by a protein shell B) a noncellularliving organism C) an invasive cell D) the smallest bacteria known E) a member of the kingdom Virusae
45)
If a virus is latent, it A) is easy to develop immunity against it. B) cannot be a retrovirus. C) is gaining a new envelope via "budding." D) has not entered a lysogenic cycle. E) is not actively replicating.
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46) In an analysis of a new bacterial species, a microbiologistfinds that the bacteria has an outer layer comprised primarily of proteins. This layer of proteins is known as aglycocalyx. ⊚ ⊚
true false
47) Influenza strains that sweep around the world often carry names such as H 2N 2. If they are both flu viruses, why do they differ in their H and N numbers?
5N
1 or H
A) The H and N numbers indicate the order in which the virus was discovered. B) The H and N numbers indicate the toxicity of the virus to humans and nonhumans. C) The H and N numbers indicate the geographical region in which the virus was discovered. D) The H and N numbers indicate the type of glycoprotein spikes found in the viral envelope.
48)
Prokaryotes generally range in size from A) 10–100 µm. B) 1–10 µm. C) 50–100 nm. D) 20–300 mm. E) 10–400 nm.
49)
Viruses are categorized according to all of the following EXCEPT
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A) their type of nucleic acid. B) their method of reproduction, whether asexual or sexual. C) the presence or absence of an envelope. D) size and shape.
50)
Pasteur chose the Latin root word for "virus" meaning A) poison. B) non-living. C) contagious. D) extremely small. E) particle.
51) Bacterial cells pick up free pieces of DNA that were secreted by live bacteria or released from dead bacteria in their environment. This process is called A) replication. B) transformation. C) transduction. D) conjugation. E) infection.
52) Describe the lysogenic cycle of a bacteriophage and/or a prophage. Why do you think it would be useful to the virus to have this cycle?
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53) Eukarya are believed to have diverged from the bacterial line of descent. The Eukarya are, therefore, more closely related to the Bacteria than to the Archaea. ⊚ ⊚
54)
true false
Study the life cycle diagram. Label A is the _____ life cycle.
A) lysogenic B) alternation of generations C) sexual D) lytic
55)
When conditions are unfavorable, some bacteria form
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A) capsules. B) pili. C) thylakoids. D) galls. E) endospores.
56) A prokaryotic cell that contains branched-chain hydrocarbons linked to glycerol belongs to an archaean. ⊚ ⊚
57)
true false
Prokaryotes that require high salt concentrations would be classified as A) archaeans. B) bacteria. C) viruses. D) cyanobacteria. E) thermoacidophiles.
58)
Some, but not all, virus capsids are surrounded by A) a membranous envelope. B) a protein spore coat. C) a protein capsid. D) either DNA or RNA. E) both DNA and RNA.
59)
Which statement is NOT true about retroviruses?
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A) They contain an enzyme called reverse transcriptase. B) They incorporate themselves into the host cell genome, but replicate independently of the host DNA. C) cDNA is used as a template to transcribe double-stranded DNA. D) HIV is a retrovirus.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 20_14e_Mader 1) B 2) C 3) D 5) A 7) D 8) A 9) A 10) C 11) C 13) C 14) The archaea have a variety of unique features that make them different thanthe bacteria and eukarya. These include a unique sequence of bases associated with their rRNA, their plasma membrane containing unusual lipids that allow the archaea to function at high temperatures, and their lipids containing glycerol linked to branched-chain hydrocarbons. They also have diverse cell wall types which facilitate their survival in extreme environments. The cell walls lack peptidoglycan, are often composed of polysaccharides, protein, or are absent altogether. 15) A 16) D 17) D 18) B 19) B 20) C
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21) E 22) E 23) B 25) FALSE 26) B 27) TRUE 28) B 29) FALSE 31) C 32) TRUE 35) D 36) C 37) A 38) TRUE 40) C 41) FALSE 42) A 43) A 44) A 45) E 46) FALSE 47) D 48) B 49) B 50) A 51) B 53) FALSE 54) D 55) E 56) TRUE Version 1
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57) A 58) A 59) B
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CHAPTER 21 1) Identify the organism in the picture and the supergroup it belongs to. What characteristic(s) helped you to identify the organism?
2)
"Red tides" are produced by massive blooms of A) amoebozoans. B) dinoflagellates. C) apicomplexans. D) ciliates. E) green algae.
3)
How does the green algae Chlamydomonas reproduce when conditions are unfavorable?
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A) Diploid cells produce male and female gametes that fuse to form diploid zygotes. B) Haploid cells of different mating types fuse to form a diploid zygote. C) Chlamydomonas does not reproduce during unfavorable conditions. D) Haploid cells reproduce asexually by meiosis.
4) The members of the supergroup Archaeplastida that have cell walls impregnated with calcium carbonate and help build coral reefs are the A) multicellular green algae. B) brown algae. C) diatoms. D) dinoflagellates. E) red algae.
5)
The deposits of chalky fossils that built the White Cliffs of Dover were formed by A) amoebozoans. B) ciliates. C) diatoms. D) foraminiferans. E) dinoflagellates.
6) Imagine you are working for the Florida Public Health Department and you have been assigned the task of preventing malaria from spreading throughout the southern Everglades. Which of the following scenarios would have a chance of success?
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A) All of these scenarios would have a chance of success in preventing malaria from spreading throughout the southern Everglades. B) developing a vaccination that would prevent the ability of the merozoites to reproduce within the host's bloodstream C) devising an insect repellant that would prevent the Anopheles mosquito from biting a human host D) spraying the edges of the Everglades with a pesticide that will kill mosquitos
7) Which of the following characteristics was the most important factor in grouping the taxa in the Supergroup Rhizaria together? A) the presence of flagella B) morphological similarity C) rRNA sequence data D) DNA sequence data
8)
Which description best supports the endosymbiotic theory of organelles?
A) Eukaryotic cells acquired mitochondria and flagella by engulfing free-living bacteria and developed a symbiotic relationship with them. Mitochondria were derived from aerobic bacterium while flagella were derived from motile bacteria. B) Eukaryotic cells acquired mitochondria and plastids by engulfing free-living bacteria and developed a symbiotic relationship with them. Mitochondria were derived from aerobic bacterium while chloroplasts were derived from cyanobacterium. C) Eukaryotic cells acquired nuclei and flagella by engulfing free-living bacteria and developed a symbiotic relationship with them. Nuclei were derived from aerobic bacterium while flagella were derived from motile bacteria. D) Eukaryotic cells acquired mitochondria and plastids by engulfing free-living bacteria and developed a symbiotic relationship with them. Mitochondria were derived from anaerobic bacterium while chloroplasts were derived from aerobic bacterium.
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9)
Which of the following protists is incorrectly matched with its form of locomotion? A) sporozoan—pellicle B) ciliates—cilia C) excavates—flagella D) amoeboids—pseudopodia
10) Each time a diatom reproduces sexually, the size of the daughter cells decreases until diatoms are about 30% of their original size. At this point, they begin to reproduce asexually. ⊚ ⊚
11)
true false
Which structure of a plasmodial slime mold produces spores? A) Zygote B) Sporangium C) Flagellated cells D) Plasmodium
12) In Plasmodium, sexual reproduction occurs in the _____, while asexual reproduction occurs in _____. A) humans; mosquitoes B) tsetse fly; humans C) mosquito; humans D) deer tick; deer
13)
Which feature has to be present in a protist in order to classify it as a photoautotroph?
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A) the ability to synthesize inorganic compounds B) the ability to synthesize organic compounds C) the presence of cellulose in the cell wall D) the presence of mitochondria within the cell E) the presence of a light-trapping pigment
14)
Which of the following organisms belong to the supergroup Excavata? A) diplomonads, euglenids, and diatoms B) euglenids, amoeboids, and cellular slime molds C) foraminiferans, radiolarians, and fungi D) diplomonads, euglenids, and parabasalids
15)
The 1840s Irish potato famine was caused by a water mold parasite on potatoes. ⊚ ⊚
16)
true false
What is the function of the “collar” portion of the cells of choanoflagellates? A) It takes in food particles by phagocytosis. B) It is a sensory structure. C) It creates water currents to draw in food particles. D) It is used for reproduction.
17) Slime molds were once classified as fungi. What characteristics of the slime molds distinguish them from fungi?
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A) Slime molds lack cell walls. B) They are flagellated cells at certain stages of the life cycle. C) All of these characteristics distinguish slime molds from fungi. D) The vegetative state of the slime mold is mobile and amoeboid.
18)
Which supergroup includes the animals? A) Archaeplastida B) Opisthokonta C) Rhizaria D) Amoebozoa
19)
Which of the following alga is mismatched with its description? A) Chlamydomonas—unicellular B) Ulva—multicellular C) Volvox—filamentous D) Chara—multicellular
20) Which of the below organisms has flagellated cells that are very similar to the choanocytes possessed by sponges? A) cercozoans B) chlorophytes C) euglenoids D) choanoflagellates
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21)
Which of the following organisms belong to the supergroup Amoebozoa? A) amoeboids and euglenoids B) cellular slime molds and radiolarians C) plasmodial and water molds D) plasmodial and cellular slime molds E) choanoflagellates and diplomonads
22) It is believed that eukaryotes evolved their mitochondria from a symbiotic relationship with a free-living aerobic bacteria. ⊚ ⊚
true false
23) DNA sequencing suggests that among the green algae, the _____ are most closely related to land plants. A) Spirogyra B) Chlamydomonas C) Volvox D) Ulva E) Stoneworts
24)
Which organelles serve as the energy centers for most protists? A) chloroplasts and Golgi bodies B) mitochondria andnucleus C) mitochondria andplastids D) mitochondria and endoplasmic reticulum
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25) This name of the filamentous algae pictured here, belonging to the supergroup Archaeplastida,is
A) Plasmodium. B) Volvox. C) Spirogyra. D) Ulva. E) Chlamydomonas.
26)
Which of the characteristic(s) apply to the supergroup Archaeplastida? A) All of these apply. B) They containplastids that originated from endosymbiotic cyanobacteria. C) They includemulticellular and unicellular organisms. D) They include organisms with plastids. E) They include land plants and the green algae, Chlorophyta.
27)
Which definition would best describe the mode of nutrition of Euglena?
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A) photoautotrophic B) mixotrophic C) decomposer D) carnivorous E) heterotrophic
28)
A common cause of amoebic dysentery is A) Giardia intestinalis. B) Entamoeba histolytica. C) Trichomonas vaginalis. D) Plasmodium falciparum.
29)
Describe the life cycle of Plasmodium vivaxand explain how humans fit into itslife cycle.
30) Brown algae that live along the rocky shores of the north temperate zones are able to withstand pounding tides and drying because of their holdfasts and the water-retaining material in their cell walls. ⊚ ⊚
31)
true false
Many taxa in the supergroup Rhizaria
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A) contain chloroplasts. B) have threadlike pseudopods. C) are parasitic. D) are covered in cilia.
32)
The most widely accepted formal classification of protists assigns them to A) six different supergroups. B) domain Eubacteria C) the kingdom Protista. D) domain Archaea.
33) Describe the evidence that supports that protists have evolved into multiple evolutionary lineages.
34)
Amoebic dysentery is transmitted by (through) A) ingesting contaminated water or food. B) having sex with an infected partner. C) the bite of a mosquito. D) the bite of a tsetse fly.
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35) Why are the fossil remains of dead foraminiferans in sedimentary layers useful to scientists? A) All of the answer choices are correct. B) They provide evidence of the antiquity of protists. C) The presence of certain types of tests can indicate the presence of oil. D) Foraminiferans can be used as index fossils to date sedimentary rock.
36) Which of the below species has a life cycle similar to land plants with alternation of generations between diploid sporophytes and haploid gametophytes? A) The chlorophyte Chlamydomonas B) The colonial chlorophyte Volvox C) The multicellular chlorophyte Ulva D) The charophyte Spirogyra
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37)
The evolutionary relationships between the eukaryotic supergroups are depicted in the diagram.
37.1) Diatoms share a more recent common ancestor with dinoflagellates than with water molds. Version 1
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⊚ ⊚
true false
37.2) Based on the evolutionary tree shown, which of the following pairs of protists are most closely related? A) alveolates & stramenopiles B) rhizaria & amoebozoans C) archaeplastids & rhizaria D) amoebozoans & excavates
38)
Which disease is incorrectly matched with the causative agent? A) African sleeping sickness—a trypanosome B) fish ick—a ciliate C) malaria—an amoebozoan D) fish kills—dinoflagellate
39)
A flagellated protist that is sexually transmitted is A) Paramecium. B) Entamoeba. C) Plasmodium. D) Trichomonas. E) Giardia.
40) _____ is a mixotrophic protozoan that is able to combine autotrophic and heterotrophic nutritional modes.
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A) Plasmodium B) Giardia C) Amoeba D) Euglena
41)
Which organisms are classified as archaeplastids? Describe their mode of nutrition.
42) If a public health official was trying to reduce the potential for human exposure to a "red tide," which of the following actions would they take? A) All of these actions would help reduce the potential for human exposure to a "red tide." B) decrease the amount of nutrients that are washed into the aquatic ecosystem C) ban swimming and other recreational activities in the area D) place a ban on eating shellfish that were exposed to the dinoflagellate Alexandrium catanella
43)
Which of the below taxa contains endosymbiotic cyanobacteria? A) Foraminiferans B) Cercozoans C) Radiolarians D) Amoebozoans
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44)
Which of the below is NOT true about the plasmodium stage of a plasmodial slime mold? A) It is multinucleate. B) It is diploid. C) It is a sluglike slime mass. D) Its cells are haploid.
45)
The opisthokonts include all of the following organisms EXCEPT A) choanoflagellates. B) animals. C) plants. D) fungi.
46)
Which of the following protozoans is mismatched with the disease that it causes? A) Entamoeba histolytica—amoebic dysentery B) Trypanosoma brucei—sleeping sickness C) Giardia lamblia—malaria D) Trichomonas vaginalis—vaginitis and urethritis
47) The reason biologists believe that green algae and land plants, both members of the supergroup Archaeplastida,are related is because both of them possess chlorophyll a and b, as well as cell walls made of starch. ⊚ ⊚
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48)
Water molds are heterotrophic because they are parasitic on plants and insects. ⊚ ⊚
49)
true false
Protist reproduction A) is most commonly asexual by mitosis. B) is most commonly sexual by meiosis. C) is only sexual by mitosis. D) is only asexual by binary fission.
50)
What is unique about the endosymbiosis between cercozoans and cyanobacteria? A) The endosymbiotic cyanobacteria provide no benefit to their host. B) The endosymbiosis event took place only about 100 million years ago. C) The cyanobacteria produce the pseudopods of the cercozoans. D) The endosymbiosis event took place approximately one billion years ago.
51)
Which protistan structure is NOT correctly matched with its function? A) pseudopodia—movement and feeding B) cyst—a reproductive structure C) trichocyst—defense and capture of prey D) pyrenoid—synthesis of starch
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52)
The endosymbiont hypothesis proposes all of the following EXCEPT A) mitochondria and chloroplasts were once free-living bacteria. B) a nucleated cell engulfed an aerobic bacterium which evolved into mitochondria. C) chloroplasts originated when a nucleated cell engulfed a cyanobacterium. D) prokaryotes evolved when an aerobic bacterium engulfed a cyanobacterium.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 21_14e_Mader 2) B 3) B 4) E 5) D 6) A 7) C 8) B 9) A 10) FALSE 11) B 12) C 13) E 14) D 15) TRUE 16) A 17) C 18) B 19) C 20) D 21) D 22) TRUE 23) E 24) C 25) C 26) A 27) B Version 1
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28) B 30) TRUE 31) B 32) A 34) A 35) A 36) C 37) Section Break 37.1) FALSE 37.2) A 38) C 39) D 40) D 42) A 43) B 44) D 45) C 46) C 47) FALSE 48) TRUE 49) A 50) B 51) B 52) D
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CHAPTER 22 1)
Mycorrhizal sac fungi that live in association with oak and beech tree roots are A) ergot. B) truffles. C) yeast. D) chytrids.
2) The current hypothesis about fungal evolution suggests that Microsporidia are most distantly related to Neocallimastigomycota. ⊚ ⊚
true false
3) The parasitic sac fungus that grows on rye and other grains and contains the hallucinogenic chemical lysergic acid is A) Penicillin. B) Aspergillus. C) Rhizopus. D) Saccharomyces. E) ergot.
4) A normal inhabitant of the vaginal tract that causes "yeast infections" under certain circumstances is Saccharomyces. ⊚ ⊚
5)
true false
Explain how the mycorrhizae and plant root interaction is considered symbiotic.
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6)
Which is NOT a correct association of a fungus and product? A) Saccharomyces cerevisiae—beer and wine B) Aspergillus—soy sauce C) rusts and smuts—truffles D) Penicillium—blue cheese
7) You are studying a newly discovered fungus and find an area of a hyphae that contains cells with two nuclei. You should classify these cells as diploid. ⊚ ⊚
8)
true false
Which of the following statements describes mycorrhizae? A) A mycorrhiza is a parasitic relationship between bacteria and the roots of most
plants. B) None of these statements describes a mycorrhiza. C) A mycorrhiza is a mutualistic relationship between bacteria and the roots of most plants. D) A mycorrhiza is a mutualistic relationship between fungi and the roots of most plants.
9) Which of the following statements most accurately describes the structural components of fungi?
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A) The vast majority of fungi are multicellular organisms that are composed of a single hyphae and multiple mycelium. Chitin is a structural carbohydrate that makes up the cell wall of fungi. B) The vast majority of fungi are multicellular organisms that are composed of a mycelium as well as individual hyphae. Chitin is a structural carbohydrate that makes up the cell wall of fungi. C) The vast majority of fungi are unicellular organisms that are composed of a mycelium as well as individual hyphae. Chitin is a structural carbohydrate that makes up the cell wall of fungi. D) The vast majority of fungi are multicellular organisms that are composed of a mycelium as well as individual hyphae. Cellulose is a structural carbohydrate that makes up the cell wall of fungi.
10)
Which of the following structures are NOT involved in sexual reproduction? A) mushrooms B) conidia C) gametangia D) ascocarps
11)
An asexual spore produced by a sac fungus or club fungus is called a(n) A) basidiospore. B) conidiospore. C) ascospore. D) sporangiospore. E) zygospore.
12)
Which of the following fungi/phylum associations is incorrect?
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A) button mushrooms / Basidiomycota B) Chytriomyces / Chytridiomycota C) morel mushroom /Ascomycota D) cup fungus / Glomeromycota E) black bread mold / Zygomycota
13) In differentiating fungi from plants and animals, which of the following statements is NOT true? A) Plants have cell walls of cellulose; fungi have cell walls of chitin. B) The energy reserve of fungi is starch while the energy reserve of animals is glycogen. C) Animals are heterotrophic by ingestion while fungi are heterotrophic by absorption. D) Fungal spores develop into haploid hyphae; in animals, haploid gametes combine to form a diploid organism.
14)
Fungi and animals share a more recent common ancestor than do fungi and plants. ⊚ ⊚
true false
15) What is the correct order of reproduction in members of phylum Basidiomycota? a. Cytoplasmic fusion results in a dikaryotic mycelium. b. The mycelium produces basidiocarps. c. Nuclear fusion produces a diploid nucleus. d. Meiosis produces basidiospores. e. Spores germinate into haploid hyphae. f. Basidia develop on the gills of the mushroom. g. Basidiospores are released.
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A) a - b - f - d - c- g - e B) a - d - b - f - c - g - e C) a - b - f - c - d- g - e D) a - c - f - d - c- g - e
16)
Which of the following traits is NOT found in both fungi and animals? A) consumers B) saprotrophic C) multicellular D) heterotrophic
17) Determine which of the following scenarios would be most likely to occur if the cyanobacteria was removed from a lichen. A) The fungi wouldstart to dry out due to the lack of water retention ability. B) The nutrientsproduced from the photosynthetic cyanobacteria would no longer be available forthe fungal cells. C) The nutrients produced from the photosynthetic fungi would no longer be available for the cyanobacterial cells. D) There wouldn't beany type of impact to the lichen at all.
18)
The difference between septate hyphae and aseptate hyphae is A) determined by whether the hyphae have cross walls or lack cross walls. B) a classification trait that separates basidiomycotes from ascomycotes. C) a difference in haploid and diploid cells. D) a distinction between saprotrophic fungi and parasitic or disease-causing fungi. E) a distinction between plasmodial masses with many nuclei and nonliving zygospores.
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19)
Which of the following traits are found in both fungi and animals? A) saprotrophs & contain cell walls of chitin B) multicellular & saprotrophs C) heterotrophic &absorb food D) heterotrophic &consume preformed organic matter E) saprotrophs & contain cell walls of cellulose
20) Arbuscular mycorrhizal fungi invade plant roots, with many species forming mutualistic associations that benefit both the fungus and the plant. ⊚ ⊚
21)
true false
The fungi that parasitize cereal crops such as corn, wheat, oats, and rye are the A) rusts and smuts. B) stinkhorns. C) yeasts. D) truffles. E) lichens.
22) One of the long, branching filaments that collectively make up the mycelium of a fungus is called a(n)
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A) hypha. B) basidiospore. C) mycelium. D) ascospore. E) conidium.
23)
A sexual spore produced by a sac fungus is called a(n) A) basidiospore. B) ascospore. C) conidiospore. D) zygospore. E) sporangiospore.
24)
A mushroom would produce a sexual spore known as a(n) A) conidium. B) ascospore. C) basidiospore. D) mycelium. E) hypha.
25)
The relationship between the fungi and algae in lichens is best described as
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A) a possible controlled parasitism wherein the fungi withdraw food from the algae and the algae do not benefit from the association. B) a simple cooperative mutualism between normally free-living strains. C) a complete mixing of the genomes of the two groups at the cellular level. D) a possible controlled parasitism wherein the algae are moistened and protected by the fungi, but the fungi do not benefit from the association. E) an endosymbiotic transfer of the chloroplasts of algae to the hyphae cells.
26)
Which of the following does NOT describe phylum Ascomycota? A) The fruiting bodyis known as an ascocarp. B) They are limited to only asexual reproduction. C) They use conidiospores during reproduction. D) Morel mushrooms are members of this phylum.
27)
Species of _____ are known to decompose jet fuel and wall paint. A) chytrids B) sac fungi C) club fungi D) AM fungi
28)
Chytrids are the only fungi with flagellated gametes and spores. ⊚ ⊚
true false
29) Why are fungi classified in the supergroup Opisthokonta, which includes animals and heterotrophic protists? Version 1
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30)
Which of the following statements about mycorrhizae is/are true?
A) The presence of the fungi gives plants a greater absorptive surface for the intake of minerals. B) Fungi may enter the cortex of plant roots but do not enter the cytoplasm of plant cells. C) A, B, and C are correct. D) Plants are harmed,while fungi benefit. E) A and C are correct.
31) Which statement is the most likely description of the common ancestor that exists between fungi and animals? A) The ancestor was a multicellular organism that lived in some type of aquatic environment. It was most likely a flagellated protist. B) The ancestor was a flagellated organism that lived in some type of aquatic environment. It was most likely a multicellular protist. C) The ancestor was a flagellated organism that lived in some type of aquatic environment. It was most likely a unicellular protist. D) The ancestor was a flagellated organism that lived on the terrestrial environment. It was most likely a unicellular protist.
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32) What is the correct order of reproduction in members of phylum Zygomycota? a. Hyphae of opposite mating strains touch each other. b. Gametangia merge, nuclei pair and fuse. c. Spores are released from the sporangium. d. Gametangia form at the end of the hyphae. e. A thick wall develops around the zygospore. A) a - b - e - c -d B) a - d - b - e - c C) a - b - c - d -e D) e - d- a - b - c
33)
The presence of _____ indicates that the air is healthy for humans to breathe. A) ergot B) yeast C) smuts D) lichens E) morels
34)
Fungi are thought to have been the first kind of eukaryotic cells that evolved. ⊚ ⊚
true false
35) Mycorrhizae are a mutualistic relationship between fungi and algae in which the algae takes advantage of the fungi. ⊚ ⊚
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36)
Crustose, fruticose, and foliose are varieties of A) mycorrhizae. B) mushrooms. C) yeasts. D) lichens. E) rusts and smuts.
37) Which of the following information provides the strongest evidence to support the evolutionary relatedness between fungi and animals? A) Molecular data shows a similarity in DNA/RNA base sequences. B) Some fungi and animals have flagella. C) They both possess a cell wall made of chitin. D) Both are heterotrophic.
38) Invasive fungi have caused ecological disasters in the U.S. during the last century. The American chestnut tree commonly grew in forests from Michigan to Louisiana and from Maine to Georgia. In the 1900s Cryphonectria parasitica, an invasive species, commonly known as Chestnut blight , decimated the chestnut tree population leading to one of the worst ecological disasters in U.S. history. It is thought that the invasive fungus was imported from Japan and China. Other invasive fungi have destroyed large numbers of redbay, dogwood, and oak trees. Is human activity to blame for such disasters? What can be done to alleviate this problem?
39)
Which of the fungal groups is mismatched with the asexual spore produced?
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A) Chytridiomycota—zoospores B) Ascomycota—conidiospores C) Zygomycota—sporangiospores D) None are mismatched. They are all correctly matched.
40) When the cap of an average gilled mushroom is cut off and placed on paper, a spoke-like print eventually appears on the paper under the cap. This powdery material would be A) sporangiospores. B) mycelia. C) basidiospores. D) hyphae. E) conidiospores.
41) The part of a mushroom that we eat is usually the reproductive structure that supports the fruiting body. ⊚ ⊚
42)
true false
Fungal diseases include all of the following EXCEPT A) athlete's foot. B) ringworm. C) oral thrush. D) strep throat (pharyngitis).
43)
Which of the following spores is the result of asexual reproduction?
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A) sporangiospores B) basidiospores C) ascospores D) zygospores
44) Batrachochytrium dendrobatidis, which reproduces asexually through the production of zoospores, recently destroyed populations of harlequin frogs in Central and South America. It is a member of which phylum of fungi? A) Zygomycota B) Chytridiomycota C) Glomeromycota D) Basidiomycota
45)
Yeasts A) reproduce asexually by budding. B) are often members of Ascomycota. C) All of the choices are correct. D) are responsible for beer, wine, and bread production.
46)
Dikaryotic cells of fungi A) is just another name for diploid cells. B) are just another form of haploid cells. C) contain paired haploid nuclei that fail to fuse for an extended period of time. D) are nonseptate plasmodial masses with many nuclei and no cell partitioning. E) are potential symbionts that can join with algae to form lichens.
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47) Poisonous or physiologically active chemicals found in various fungi include all of the following EXCEPT A) psilocybin, a structural analog of LSD and mescaline. B) muscarine and muscardine. C) digitoxin. D) ergot alkaloids.
48)
Penicillium is a club fungus that is used to make beer and wine. ⊚ ⊚
true false
49) Fungi were once classified as plants, but molecular data has shown that fungi are more closely related to animals than plants. Compare and contrast fungi to both plants and animals.
50)
Fungal infections are difficult to treat because
A) All of the answer choices are correct. B) fungal and human cells are so similar that it is difficult to make fungal medications that do not harm human cells. C) they "hide out" inside of cells, and have long latent periods where medications can not get to the organism. D) they mutate very rapidly and therefore become resistant to most medications.
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51) Name the labeled structures of the black bread mold pictured hereand describe the function of these structures.
a. ______________________ b. ______________________ c. ______________________ d. ______________________ e. ______________________
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 22_14e_Mader 1) B 2) FALSE 3) E 4) FALSE 6) C 7) FALSE 8) D 9) B 10) B 11) B 12) D 13) B 14) TRUE 15) C 16) B 17) B 18) A 19) D 20) TRUE 21) A 22) A 23) B 24) C 25) A 26) B 27) B Version 1
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28) TRUE 30) E 31) C 32) B 33) D 34) FALSE 35) FALSE 36) D 37) A 39) D 40) C 41) TRUE 42) D 43) A 44) B 45) C 46) C 47) C 48) FALSE 50) B
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CHAPTER 23 1)
Identify the species that is NOT classified as a pteridophyte. A) Equisetum B) Hart's tongue C) Marchantia D) Psilotum
2) It is possible to take a mature fern frond and rub the circular brown growths on the lower surface over a wet plug of peat moss. Soon small heart-shaped green structures grow on the nutritious peat moss plugs. What has happened? A) Spores released from the underside of the fern frond germinated on the peat plug and formed sporophyte rhizomes that give rise to many indusium. B) Spores released from the underside of the frond germinated on the peat plug and formed the gametophyte called a prothallus. C) Eggs and sperm released from the underside of the fern frond united on the peat plug and grew into sporophyte prothalli. D) Zygotes released from the bottom of the fern frond germinated on the peat plug and grew into gametophyte fiddleheads. E) Gametes released from the underside of the fern frond germinated on the peat plug and formed a sporophyte structure called an archegonium.
3)
All of the following are milestones in the evolution of plants EXCEPT
A) nourishment of a multicellular embryo within the body of the female plant. B) the development of vascular tissues to conduct water and solutes throughout the body of the plant. C) seed production. D) the switch to chlorophyll as the primary photosynthetic pigment. E) flower production.
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4)
A characteristic only shared by angiosperms and gymnosperms is A) vascular tissue. B) the production of seeds. C) fruit production. D) protection of the embryo.
5)
Asexual reproduction in the liverwort Marchantia is by means of A) the fusion of antheridial and archegonial products. B) the detachment of gemmae. C) budding of daughter cells. D) fragmentation of plant tissue.
6) The reproductive structures of some cycad species produce nectar, and insects play a role in the pollination of these species. ⊚ ⊚
true false
7) As a botanist working for a field museum, you spend many hours in the field looking for new species. On a recent trip you may have discovered a new plant species. Your observations of the new plant include small leaves with a single, unbranched vein and roots that seem to be simple extensions of the stem. Your new plant species is probably a(n):
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A) Fern B) Liverwort C) Gnetophyte D) Angiosperm E) Lycophyte
8)
Which of these vascular plants produce seeds? A) ferns B) horsetails C) whisk ferns D) club mosses E) gnetophytes
9) When a moss spore lands on an appropriate site, it germinates into the first stage of the gametophyte called a(n) A) archegonium. B) prothallus. C) antheridium. D) rhizoid. E) protonema.
10)
Which of the following is NOT an adaptation of plants to a terrestrial environment?
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A) a dominant sporophyte with vascular tissue B) stomata to regulate gas exchange with the atmosphere C) the evolution of photosynthesis in order to supply the energy necessary to live on land D) a cuticle to prevent water loss from exposed parts of the plant
11)
Which of the following groups ofplants contain microphylls? A) Angiosperms B) Bryophytes C) Gymnosperms D) Lycophytes E) Pteridophytes
12) Evidence for the evolution of plants from a freshwater algal species is supported by all of the following EXCEPT: A) molecular evaluation of ribosomal RNA provides evidence of the evolutionary relationship of plants and green algae. B) both green algae and plants have chlorophylls a and b and various accessory pigments. C) plants and green algae share a significant number of structural similarities in root, stem, and leaf structures. D) both green algae and plants store excess carbohydrates as starch and have cellulose in their cell walls.
13)
All of the following are true about bryophytes EXCEPT
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A) they produce peat that can be used as fuel. B) they are now the most abundant plant group on land. C) they erode rocks to produce soil. D) they can be found from the Antarctic to the tropics.
14)
Which of the following is a nonvascular plant? Select all that apply. A) moss B) fern C) gymnosperm D) hornwort E) liverwort
15) Flagellated sperm and a sporophyte that is dependent on the gametophyte are characteristics of A) moss. B) gymnosperm. C) ferns. D) lycophytes. E) angiosperm.
16)
Which of the following is a male reproductive structure found in plants? A) pistil B) archegonia C) megaspore D) pollen cone
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17) Explain why the seed plants would have an advantage over the seedless plants within a community.
18)
Why are seed producers the dominant plant today?
19) Molecular data suggest that mosses, hornworts, and liverworts have individual lines of descent, but that they form a monophyletic group. ⊚ ⊚
true false
20) Which of the following features would have helped early plant ancestors evolve to a terrestrial existence? A) a cuticle B) apical cells C) plasmodesmata D) All of these features would have helped. E) placenta
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21)
The largest and oldest treesin the world that are pollinated by animalsare conifers. ⊚ ⊚
true false
22) Angiosperms are referred to as _____ when the male and female reproductive parts are on different individuals of the same species. A) dioecious B) tetraploid C) bryophytes D) monoecious
23)
All of the following structures are associated with lycophytes EXCEPT A) microphylls. B) archegonia. C) rhizome. D) microspores.
24)
Fossils of vascular plants appear earlier in the fossil record than those of algae. ⊚ ⊚
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25) As a botanist working for a field museum, you spend many hours in the field looking for new species of plant. On a recent trip, you came across a group of plants that may represent a new species. Each plant has seeds but they are not encased in fruit. Additionally, you notice that male and female cone structures are found on different plants. The cones are very large, and you determine average weight to be 30 kg. In which of the following groups would this plant most likely be classified? A) angiosperm B) cycad C) conifer D) fern E) gnetophyte
26)
Molecular data shows that land plants and charophytes A) are in different clades but form a monophyletic group. B) do not share common ancestry. C) are in different clades and form a polyphyletic group. D) are in the same clade and form a monophyletic group. E) are in the same clade but form a polyphyletic group.
27)
In the pine life cycle
A) seed cones are located near the tips of higher branches and pollen cones develop near the tips of lower branches. B) the gametophyte generation is dominant and the sporophyte generation is inconspicuous. C) fertilization occurs shortly after pollination to produce the zygote. D) seed cones are smaller than pollen cones. E) the cone is the fruit that surrounds the seeds.
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28)
Which of the following is a trait that evolved in ALL land plants? A) apical growth B) seeds C) protection of the embryo D) vascular tissue
29)
Which portion of the plant life cycle is haploid? A) Both sporophyte and gametophyte are haploid. B) sporophyte C) gametophyte D) zygote
30)
The first fossil evidence of vascular tissue is seen in the A) bryophytes. B) green algae. C) tree ferns. D) tracheophytes. E) rhyniophytes.
31) As a botanist working for a field museum, you spend many hours in the field looking for new species. On a recent trip you may have discovered a new plant species. The plant is very short, and has a stem but no roots or leaves. The stem forks and has branches that have sporangia on the tips. Further analysis reveals vascular tissue. What type of plant might you have discovered?
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A) Angiosperm B) Gingko C) Gymnosperm D) Bryophyte E) Rhyniophyte
32) Gymnosperms are characterized by producing "naked seeds." Which of the following groups is NOT classified as a gymnosperm? A) cycads B) conifers C) ginkgoes D) gnetophytes E) horsetails
33)
Which of the following descriptions applies to megaphylls? A) are broad leaves with branched veins B) allowed early plants to photosynthesize more efficiently C) evolved around 370 MYA D) can be found in both the pteridophytes and seed plants E) All of the answer choices apply to megaphylls.
34)
The first plants to colonize land were the A) pteridophytes. B) lycophytes. C) gametophytes. D) bryophytes.
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35)
Which of the following features would NOT be found in bryophytes? A) megaphylls B) a gametophyte dependent on the sporophyte C) flagellated sperm D) alternation of generations
36) In gymnosperms and angiosperms, seeds disperse the _____ stage of the life cycle and in mosses and ferns, spores disperse the _____ stage of the life cycle. A) sporophyte; sporophyte B) microsporocytes; megasporocytes C) sporophyte; gametophyte D) gametophyte; sporophyte
37)
Which of the following is NOT an adaptation of plants to life on land? A) waxy cuticle on leaves to prevent drying out B) waxy cuticle on roots to prevent drying out C) vascular system (in most plants) to move water internally D) protection of the embryo from drying out
38)
Which of these statements is NOT true about fertilization in a fern plant?
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A) The sperm is carried by the wind to the egg. B) An egg is produced in an archegonium. C) The eggs and sperm are produced on the same plant. D) Eggs and sperm are produced by the gametophyte generation. E) A sperm is produced in an antheridium.
39) Compile a list of features that are found in the monocots and compare it to those features found in the eudicots.
40) Briefly describe how the angiosperm population in a community would be impacted if the honeybee population were to decline.
41)
The gymnosperms produce seeds that are enclosed within a fruit. ⊚ ⊚
true false
42) A characteristic of land plants is the presence of small openings, found mostly on the underside of leaves, that allow gas exchange between the plant and its environment. These structures are called
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A) stomata. B) chloroplasts. C) thallus. D) rhizoids. E) cuticles.
43)
Horsetails are generally found in dry, sandy environments. ⊚ ⊚
44)
true false
A microspore develops into a(n) A) male gametophyte. B) seed. C) female gametophyte. D) sporophyte. E) ovule.
45)
Which of the following is NOT part of an alternation of generations life cycle? A) sporophyte generation B) a diploid zygote C) gametophyte generation D) haploid spores E) triploid gametes
46)
Characteristics of eudicots include all EXCEPT
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A) flower parts in fours and fives. B) vascular bundles arranged irregularly in the stem. C) two cotyledons. D) leaves with netted veins. E) woody or herbaceous plants.
47)
Which group of gymnosperms is found in tropical and subtropical forests? A) Gnetophytes B) Ginkgoes C) Lycophytes D) Cycads E) Conifers
48) Describe why the taproot of a eudicot can give them an advantage in environments that are periodically exposed to drought conditions.
49)
In the moss life cycle, the _____ is the dominant generation. A) diploid gametophyte B) haploid sporophyte C) haploid gametophyte D) diploid sporophyte
50)
Identify the feature found in Cooksonia that qualifies it as a vascular plant.
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A) the presence of branches B) presence of leaves C) presence of roots D) the production of windblown spores E) the production of seeds
51)
In the alternation of generations life cycle of plants, gametes are produced by the A) fruit. B) homospores. C) sporophyte. D) gametophyte. E) strobili.
52)
In the fern life cycle, the _____ generation is dominant. A) haploid gametophyte B) diploid gametophyte C) diploid sporophyte D) haploid sporophyte
53)
Which group of gymnosperms is represented by only one surviving species? A) Gnetophytes B) Cycads C) Pines D) Conifers E) Ginkgoes
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54)
As plants invaded the land, all of the following were true EXCEPT A) there was an increased threat from predation by animals. B) there was a greater availability of light for photosynthesis. C) there was an increased threat of desiccation of unprotected cells. D) there was a greater concentration of carbon dioxide available in the atmosphere.
55) Which of the following features would disqualify a plant from being classified as a bryophyte? A) nonvascular tissues B) presence of flagellated sperm C) ability to reproduce sexually and asexually D) gametophyte is the dominant stage of the life cycle E) dispersal of gametes by wind
56)
Molecular data suggests that land plants evolved from A) rhodophyta. B) dinoflagellates. C) charophytes. D) ciliates. E) the water molds.
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57) What is the correct sequence of events during the life cycle of a moss? a. Gametes are produced in the archegonia and antheridia. b. Spores are released. c. The zygote develops within the archegonium. d. The mature sporophyte develops from the gametophyte and produces spores. e. Flagellated sperm swim towards the egg for fertilization. f. Spore germinates into the protonema. A) f - e - b - d - a- c B) a - e - f - d - b- c C) a - e - c - d - b- f D) a - b - d - c - b- f
58)
Seedless vascular plants include all of the following EXCEPT A) Sphagnum—Bryophyta. B) Psilotum—Pteridophytes. C) whisk ferns—Psilotophyta. D) horsetails—Sphenophyta.
59)
Which of the following statements about lycophytes is correct? A) The microsporeswill develop into female gametophytes. B) The megasporeswill develop into female gametophytes. C) The megasporeswill develop into male gametophytes. D) Lycophytes werethe first land plants to evolve megaphylls.
60) What trends occurred in the size of the sporophyte and gametophyte generations as plants became adapted to life on land? How can these trends be explained?
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61)
Cite various instances of how flowers and the pollination process have "coevolved."
62) The dominant plants in modern times are the _____ due to their relationship with animal pollinators. A) club mosses B) angiosperms C) ferns D) gymnosperms
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 23_14e_Mader 1) C 2) B 3) D 4) B 5) B 6) FALSE 7) E 8) E 9) E 10) C 11) D 12) C 13) B 14) [A, D, E] 15) A 16) D 19) FALSE 20) A 21) FALSE 22) A 23) B 24) FALSE 25) B 26) D 27) A 28) C Version 1
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29) C 30) E 31) E 32) E 33) E 34) D 35) A 36) C 37) B 38) A 41) FALSE 42) A 43) FALSE 44) A 45) E 46) B 47) D 49) C 50) A 51) D 52) C 53) E 54) A 55) E 56) C 57) C 58) A 59) B 62) B
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CHAPTER 24 1)
Which of these vascular tissue cells is alive but lacks a nucleus? A) vessel element B) tracheid C) sieve-tube members D) companion cell
2) You need to identify a plant, but it is winter and the leaves have fallen to the ground and mixed with leaves from other plants. The parts of flowers, fruits, and seed leaves of germinating seeds are not available either. Your best clue to identify the plants as a monocot or a eudicot is to A) inspect the stem for woody bark, as only eudicots have woody tissue. B) determine if the roots lack phloem and xylem to identify it as a monocot. C) determine if there are parallel xylem tubes in the stem to identify it as a monocot. D) cut the stem and if the vascular bundles are in a distinct ring, it is a monocot. E) cut the stem and if the vascular bundles are scattered in the stem, it is a monocot.
3)
In older woody plants, the epidermis of the stem is replaced by A) collenchyma. B) trichomes. C) tracheids. D) periderm.
4)
Which one or more of the following meristem and tissue matches are mismatched?
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A) ground meristem - ground tissue B) protoderm - vascular tissue and procambrium - epidermal tissue C) protoderm -vascular tissue D) procambrium -epidermal tissue E) None of these aremismatched.
5)
Which of the following structures is an underground horizontal stem? A) rhizome B) bulb C) stolon D) corm
6) Strawberry plants vegetatively reproduce by forming new plants where the nodes of stolons touch the ground. ⊚ ⊚
7)
true false
Which statement is NOT true about woody stems?
A) Cork cambium produces waterproof cork cells that become bark. B) Secondary phloem accumulates to form the wood. C) Woody stems contain secondary growth. D) The vascular cambium is located between the xylem and phloem of the vascular bundles in a woody stem. E) The stem is organized into a central pith, wood, and outer bark.
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8) Using the word bank, name the labeled structures. Briefly describe their function (shoot system, root system, terminal bud, internode, node, stem, axillary bud, leaf, petiole).
A. _____ B. _____ C. _____ D. _____
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9) Which of the following tissue types will produce root hairs within the zone of maturation? A) vascular tissue B) epidermis C) endodermis D) cortex
10) Identify the leaf pictured as a compound or simple leaf. Explain what observations were used to make your decision.
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11) old.
If a plant contains seven bud scale scars this would indicate that the plant is _____ years
A) seven B) You cannot tellthe age of a plant by the number of bundle scars. C) four D) fourteen
12)
Which statement is NOT true about vascular tissue in plants?
A) Phloem cells are hollow and nonliving, and they form a continuous pipeline that transports sugars. B) In roots, the vascular tissue is found in the central vascular cylinder. C) In leaves, the vascular tissue is found in the leaf veins. D) Xylem cells are hollow and nonliving, and they form a continuous pipeline that transports water and minerals. E) In stems, the vascular tissue is found in the vascular bundles.
13)
Vascular tissue that transports organic nutrients and sugars from the leaves to the roots is A) cambium. B) phloem. C) xylem. D) sclerenchyma. E) periderm.
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14)
Identify this plant as a monocot or eudicot after examining its stem and leaf.
A) This plant is a monocot. B) Not enough information is provided to differentiate the plant as a monocot or eudicot. C) This plant is a eudicot.
15)
Which of the following features are necessary to classify a plant as a monocot?
A) The plant will contain one cotyledon, have a netted vein patternin the leaves, and the flowers will be in multiples of threes. B) The plant will contain two cotyledons, have parallel veins in the leaves, and the flowers will be in multiples of threes. C) The plant will contain one cotyledon, have parallel veins in the leaves, and the flowers will be in multiples of threes. D) The plant will contain one cotyledon, have vascular bundles in a distinct ring, and the flowers will be in multiples of threes. E) The plant will contain one cotyledon, have parallel veins in the leaves, and the flowers will be in multiples of fours or fives.
16) Which of these plant tissue types is composed of cells with primary walls thickened at the corners that provide support for immature parts of the cell body?
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A) phloem B) sclerenchyma C) collenchyma D) xylem E) parenchyma
17) In large woody plants, the wood is essentially made of _____ and the bark is essentially made of _____. A) vascular tissue; epidermal tissue B) xylem; phloem and cork C) pith; collenchyma D) the cortex; the epidermis
18)
Which of the following tissues transports water and nutrients within the plant? A) vascular tissue B) ground tissue C) meristematic tissue D) epidermal tissue
19)
Explain how various leaves have evolved to capture insects.
20) To prepare a microscope slide of mitosis, where would one most likely find examples of cell division in a plant? Version 1
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A) anywhere in the mesophyll of a leaf B) near the root tip C) at the center of a root, back from the tip D) in a tree trunk, near the center
21) Which of these plant tissue types most closely corresponds to the "typical" unspecialized plant cell? A) phloem B) xylem C) collenchyma D) sclerenchyma E) parenchyma
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22)
Identify the labeled zones and briefly state what occurs in each region.
A. _____ B. _____ C. _____
23) Which of these plant tissue types is composed of sieve-tube members and companion cells, and transports organic nutrients made in the leaves? Version 1
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A) sclerenchyma B) collenchyma C) phloem D) xylem E) parenchyma
24) Many homeowners often attempt to transplant bushes and small trees but with limited success. Which of the following is the most likely reason for this? A) Most homeownersremove too many of the leaves, not allowing the plant to efficiently runphotosynthesis. B) Most homeownerspull the bush out without clearing enough of the soil from around the rootsystem. This causes the branching roots to be torn off. C) Most homeownerspull the bush out without clearing enough of the soil from around the rootsystem. This causes the lateral roots and root hairs to be torn off. D) Most homeowners cutthe bush off at the base and don't have any of the root system available.
25)
Which of the following tissues forms the outer protective covering of the plant? A) vascular tissue B) ground tissue C) meristematic tissue D) epidermal tissue
26) Describe the pathway that a drop of water would go through starting at the root system and leaving at the leaf.Be sure to indicate the various tissue types that the water will come in contact with along its pathway.
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27) The shoot system of the plant is the aboveground portion that includes stems and leaves for capturing the energy of sunlight. ⊚ ⊚
28)
true false
Which of the following tissues makes up the majority of the interior of the plant? A) vascular tissue B) ground tissue C) epidermal tissue D) meristem
29)
Which of the following structures is a stem adaptation instead of a root adaptation? A) corms B) These are all are stem adaptations. C) stolons D) rhizomes E) tubers
30)
The meristems that arise from the apical meristem include all of the following EXCEPT
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A) procambrium. B) protoderm. C) ground meristem. D) epidermis.
31)
Label the leaf arrangements as opposite, whorled, or alternate.
A. _____ B. _____ C. _____
32)
All of the following are specialized epidermal cells except
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A) root hairs. B) collenchyma. C) trichomes. D) guard cells.
33)
An axillary bud may produce A) nothing—it is shed with the leaf. B) inhibitors of growth. C) wood and lateral branches. D) a lateral branch or a flower.
34) The cortex found in the center of a dicot stem or a monocot root is made of what type of tissue? A) dermal tissue B) ground tissue C) epithelial tissue D) vascular tissue
35) Which of these plant tissue types is composed of hollow nonliving tracheids and vessel elements that transport water and nutrient minerals from the roots to the leaves? A) collenchyma B) parenchyma C) sclerenchyma D) phloem E) xylem
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36) Describe three of the key features that you can use to identify whether a plant is a monocot or a eudicot.
37) Farmers have been able to genetically engineer a wide variety of crops that possess an enormous diversity of traits. If a farmer wanted to increase the ability of his crops to access ground water that is several meters below ground which type of root system would he want? A) pneumatophores B) aerial roots C) fibrous roots D) prop roots E) taproot
38)
Damage to the parenchyma cells can lead to which of the following issues?
A) an increase in the plant's ability to run photosynthesis and storing the sugars produced from photosynthesis B) a decrease in the structural support for various components of the plant C) a decrease in the plant's ability to run photosynthesis or store the sugars produced from photosynthesis D) a decrease in the plant's ability to defend against predators
39)
The layers of cells that protect the root apical meristem are the
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A) bark. B) periderm. C) cortex. D) endodermis. E) root cap.
40)
Which one or more of the following is true about root endodermis?
A) The endodermis forms a boundary between the cortex and inner vascular cylinder of the root. B) The endodermiscontains impermeable lignin and suberin called a Casparian strip that controls water and nutrient movement between adjacent cell walls. C) The endodermisis two to three layers of spherical cells. D) All of the choices are true of root endodermis. E) The endodermisforms a boundary between the cortex and inner vascular cylinder of the root and contains impermeable lignin and suberin.
41) Considering that leaf stoma have the conflicting functions of allowing gaseous carbon dioxide into the leaf, yet preserving the plant's supply of water, which of the following is (are) reasonable? A) All of the choices are reasonable. B) A submerged-water plant would have no stoma. C) Tree leaves that orient flat and present the top side to the sun would have most of their stoma on the bottom of the leaf. D) Corn, oats, rice, and wheat-all monocots-have relative upright blades with sunlight hitting both sides and would have stoma distributed evenly on both sides. E) None of the choices are reasonable, since stoma are found uniformly on all type of leaves.
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42)
Plant roots function to A) produce hormones that stimulate stem growth. B) anchor the plant. C) store the products of photosynthesis. D) All of the choices are plant root functions.
43) If this structure were nibbled off by browsing deer, it would decrease the potential for an increase in height of the plant. A) the stem B) the leaf scar C) the bark D) the terminal bud E) the axillary bud
44)
The mesophyll layer of leaves is important to plants because A) it anchors the plant to the soil. B) most of the water needed for photosynthesis is absorbed here. C) it keeps the plant from drying out. D) most of the photosynthesis occurs here.
45) During the spring and fall each year thousands of maple trees are tapped for their fluids in order to make "real" maple syrup. If you were to tap into a maple tree to extract the syrup (sucrose) which tissue layer do you want to tap into?
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A) phloem B) ground tissue C) epidermis D) periderm E) xylem
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46) Using the word bank, name the labeled structures. Briefly describe their function (shoot system, root system, terminal bud, internode, node, stem, axillary bud, leaf, petiole).
E. _____ F. _____ G. _____ H. _____
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47) A fifteen-foot tree growing in a fence row is used as a fence post, to which barbed wire is stapled at a height of five feet. Years later, the tree is thirty feet high. The fence is A) approximately five feet up since a tree grows longer at the tips of its stem, branches, and roots. B) split because the trunk grew up but the bottom stayed at ground level. C) twenty feet up because it added fifteen feet to the original five-foot height. D) twenty feet up, still ten feet from the top of the tree. E) fifteen feet up because the tree doubled in height.
48)
Identify the incorrect pairing of tissue type with cell type. A) epidermal tissue - parenchyma cells B) ground tissue - collenchyma cells C) vascular tissue - xylem D) epidermal tissue - cuticle
49) The number of growing seasons that a plant survives is determined by two flowerinducing genes, LEAFY and Apetala1. If scientists were to block these genes resulting in an annual plant to survive multiple growing seasons, how would this plant now be described?
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A) monocot B) perennial C) vegetative D) eudicot
50) A typical leaf is composed of multiple layers of specialized cells. What is the correct order of layers starting on the upper surface of the leaf and progressing to the lower surface? A) cuticle -epidermis - palisade mesophyll - epidermis - spongy mesophyll - cuticle B) cuticle -epidermis - palisade mesophyll - spongy mesophyll- epidermis - cuticle C) palisademesophyll - cuticle - epidermis - epidermis - spongy mesophyll - cuticle D) epidermis -cuticle - epidermis - palisade mesophyll - epidermis - spongy mesophyll
51) Which of the following statements is NOT correct about the arrangement of tissues in the eudicot root? A) The specialized root tissues are seen at the zone of maturation. B) The star-shaped phloem is located in the center of the vascular cylinder, with xylem arranged between the arms of phloem. C) The pericycle is the outer layer of cells in the vascular cylinder, with the ability to form secondary or branch roots. D) The epidermis of the root has no cuticle on its outer surface, unlike other epidermal tissues. E) The Casparian strip is a waxy lining on four sides of the cells of the endodermis, which forces water into the endodermal cells.
52)
Which statement is NOT true of the epidermis of a plant?
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A) Root hairs increase the surface area of epidermal cells on roots. B) The epidermis is impervious to gas exchange. C) Cork cells replace epidermal cells on older woody plants. D) The epidermis covers the entire body of a herbaceous plant. E) Guard cells are specialized epidermal cells found on root surfaces.
53)
Which statement about leaves is NOT correct?
A) Regulation of gas exchange through the leaf is the responsibility of the guard cells. B) The epidermis is covered by a waxy layer of cuticle that reduces water loss. C) In eudicots, the photosynthetic mesophyll is made up of an upper spongy layer and a lower palisade layer. D) Gas exchange occurs through tiny openings in the leaf surface called stomata. E) Vascular tissue is arranged in a net pattern in eudicots and a parallel pattern in monocots.
54) tip?
Which of the following tissue types are found only in the zone of cell division of the root
A) xylem &phloem B) All of these are restricted to the zoneof cell division of the root tip. C) endodermis D) groundmeristem E) None of these arerestricted to just the zone of cell division of the root tip.
55) Monocot roots have centrally located ground tissue called pith, surrounded by a ring of xylem and phloem bundles. ⊚ ⊚
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56) An insect destroying the _____ layer of tissues in a leaf would lead to a decrease in the ability of gas exchange within the leaf. A) spongymesophyll B) xylem C) palisademesophyll D) cuticle E) epidermis
57)
Vascular tissue extends through the roots, stems, and leaves of the entire plant. ⊚ ⊚
58)
Mycorrhizae are associations between bacteria and the roots of select plants. ⊚ ⊚
59)
true false
true false
Which of the following statements best describes a herbaceous eudicot stem?
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A) Vascular bundlesare arranged in a ring which stores water and the products ofphotosynthesis. B) Vascular bundlesare scattered throughout the stem which is also capable of conductingphotosynthesis. C) Vascular bundles are arranged in a ring and the cortex and pith are notdistinguishable. D) Vascular bundles are arranged scattered throughout the stem which alsostores water and the products of photosynthesis. E) The stem iscomposed of primary and secondary tissues.
60)
All of the following are taproots that are consumed as vegetables EXCEPT A) turnips. B) radishes. C) carrots. D) celery. E) beets.
61)
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of plant cells? A) Centrioles are present during mitosis. B) Cell wall is present. C) Plasmodesmata are present. D) Plastids are present.
62)
The outer annual rings where transport occurs is called heartwood. ⊚ ⊚
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63) Consider the possibility that we discover a gene that regulates both the amount of root hairs and where root hairs grow on a root tip. Since the surface area provided by root hairs is so critical to their uptake of water and nutrients, expanding their growth area seems a great advantage. However, which of these might be a problem? A) Growth of root hairs in the root cap would cause them to be shredded off since this area takes substantial abrasion. B) Growth of root hairs in the zone of elongation would cause them to be shredded off as they anchored in soil and the root lengthened. C) Growth of root hairs in the zone of cell division would interfere with root cell proliferation. D) All of these choices pose a problem.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 24_14e_Mader 1) C 2) E 3) D 4) B 5) A 6) TRUE 7) B 9) B 11) A 12) A 13) B 14) A 15) C 16) C 17) B 18) A 20) B 21) E 23) C 24) C 25) D 27) TRUE 28) B 29) B 30) D 32) B Version 1
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33) D 34) B 35) E 37) E 38) C 39) E 40) E 41) A 42) D 43) D 44) D 45) A 47) A 48) A 49) B 50) B 51) B 52) E 53) C 54) E 55) TRUE 56) A 57) TRUE 58) FALSE 59) A 60) D 61) A 62) FALSE 63) D
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CHAPTER 25 1) If you cut a herbaceous stem and observe fluids continually seeping upward and out of the cut, it is most likely due to A) active transport by phloem. B) root pressure. C) cohesion to the xylem walls. D) turgor pressure. E) tension caused by transpiration.
2) Phytoremediation is the use of a plant's ability to uptake minerals in order to remove pollutants from the environment. ⊚ ⊚
true false
3) Select the correct sequence for mineral uptake in plants. a.The root cells will initially uptake the minerals. b.The upwards movement of water will carry the minerals towards the leaves. c. Some of the minerals are deposited in the leaf cells. d. The minerals move into the xylem of the vascular tissue. e. Some of the minerals leave the xylem and enter the various tissues that require them. A) d - b - e - a -c B) a - b - d - e -c C) a - d - b - e -c D) d - b - c - a - e E) c- a - d - b -e
4)
Rhizobium bacteria live in root nodules and
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A) fix carbon dioxide so that the carbon may be used to build glucose. B) increase the surface area, thereby increasing the water absorbing capacity of the plant's roots. C) All of the answer choices are correct. D) fix atmospheric nitrogen to NH 4+ to build organic compounds.
5) The early experiment by Van Helmont (1600s) describes how he grew a tree in a large pot and found that after five years, the amount of soil in the pot had not changed. He concluded that the increase in weight was due to the addition of water. At that time, the compounds in air had not yet been identified. Today, you know that he only discovered half the story. Which additional experiment would provide evidence for the rest of the story? A) Carbon is discovered as a major element in trees and is lacking in water molecules. B) A very careful measurement of the water taken in and lost by the tree would have revealed only half the added weight gained by the tree was from water. C) All of theexperiments but for an analysis of nutrients in the soil would account for halfthe weight of the tree. D) Radioactive carbon in carbon dioxide in the air is identified as part of the tree structure. E) Analysis ofnutrients in the soil would account for half the weight of the tree.
6)
Which of the following conducting cells are associated with xylem? A) tracheids & sieve-tube members B) sieve-tube members& vessel elements C) sieve-tube members& companion cells D) tracheids &vessel elements E) vessel elements& companion cells
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7) Water moves into the guard cells by osmosis in response to the movement of K+ into the guard cells. ⊚ ⊚
true false
8) Analysis of the nutrient content of phloem is performed on phloem sap that is made available when an aphid is cut away from its stylet. ⊚ ⊚
true false
9) Water is forced to enter root endodermal cells by a strip of suberin in the four sides of root endodermal cells called the Casparian strip. ⊚ ⊚
10)
true false
Which of the following is NOT one of the three most common elements in plants? A) oxygen B) carbon C) hydrogen D) sulfur
11)
Which statement is NOT true about the pressure-flow model of phloem transport?
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A) Phloem has been measured moving at a velocity of 1 m an hour. B) Pressure is created in the phloem by the buildup of water and sugar. C) Sugar is actively transported out of the phloem at a sink area such as the root. D) Water is actively transported into phloem. E) Sugar produced by photosynthesis is actively transported into phloem cells.
12)
The degree of erosion in the United States is best described by the following statement.
A) Farmland soil is eroding faster than it is being formed. B) Removal of trees helps build up topsoil and prevents erosion. C) There is a set amount of soil that was originally formed and erosion continually removes some of it; therefore we will one day run out of topsoil due to erosion. D) Soil forms at generally the same rate as soil erodes, so there is an overall balance just as worldwide precipitation equals evaporation; it is just not evenly spread across the landscape.
13)
Evaporation of water through the stomata of leaves is A) transpiration. B) guttation. C) respiration. D) photosynthesis.
14)
Which statement is NOT true about stomata?
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A) As guard cells become turgid, the stomataopen. B) There are two guard cells around each stomata. C) The blue light component of sunlight is a signal that can cause stomata to close. D) Guard cells take up potassium ions and water enters the guard cells. E) Stomata open and close on a daily basis, even if kept in the dark, on a circadian rhythm.
15)
List the steps associated with the cohesion-tension model of xylem transport.
16)
The main components of soil are A) a mixture of soil particles of different sizes. B) All of these are components that define soil. C) both living organisms and decaying organic material. D) air and water.
17) Because most roots need gaseous oxygen as well as liquid water, the best soil for agricultural plants is
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A) clay, since it holds onto water better than silt or sand. B) silt, because it is intermediate between sand and clay in size. C) All sizes of soil particles (sand, silt, clay) are equal in soil properties. D) loam, which is a mixture of all size soil particles, and therefore is able to hold water but drain well. E) sand, since it has the greatest pore spaces.
18) Some scientists predict that the Earth will lose almost all of its topsoil by the middle of the next century. What factors are involved in the erosion of soil? A) All of these factors cause erosion. B) desertization C) poor farming practices D) deforestation
19) Hypothesis I: A flavin pigment absorbs blue light; this pigment then activates the proton pump. Hypothesis II: When CO 2 concentration rises, a membrane receptor inactivates the proton pump.
19.1) Which hypothesis is supported by the fact that stomataopen when exposed to white light, a mixture of all colors of light? A) Supports neither hypothesis. B) Supports both hypothesis I and II. C) Supports only hypothesis II. D) Supports only hypothesis I.
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19.2)
Stomatado not open when exposed to a narrow band of green light.
A) Supports only hypothesis II. B) Supports only hypothesis I. C) Supports neither hypothesis. D) Supports both hypothesis I and II.
19.3) Researchers discover that guard cells of the lady slipper orchid lack chloroplasts; yet the guard cells regularly open and close. A) Supports neither hypothesis. B) Supports only hypothesis I. C) Supports both hypothesis I and II. D) Supports only hypothesis II.
19.4) Which hypothesis is supported by the fact that cells of wilting leaves produce abscisic acid, which causes guard cells to close? A) Supports only hypothesis II. B) Supports both hypothesis I and II. C) Supports neither hypothesis. D) Supports only hypothesis I.
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19.5) Stomata closure in darkened environment, at time zero, with air (0.03% CO2) or CO2-free airflow through leaf. (Note: A decrease in conductance indicates inactivation of the proton pump.)
A) Supports both hypothesis I and II. B) Supports only hypothesis II. C) Supports neither hypothesis. D) Supports only hypothesis I.
19.6) Stomata opening after illumination following eight hours in darkness: plant is Xanthium pennsylvanicum.
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A) Supports only hypothesis I. B) Supports neither hypothesis. C) Supports both hypothesis I and II. D) Supports only hypothesis II.
19.7)
Stomata rhythm in wheat under continuous light at 25°C.
A) Supports neither hypothesis. B) Supports only hypothesis I. C) Supports both hypothesis I and II. D) Supports only hypothesis II.
19.8) Air with varying amounts of CO 2, within the ranges found in nature, is forced across leaf surfaces and into sub-stomatal cavities; this produces closure of the stomata. A) Supports only hypothesis I. B) Supports only hypothesis II. C) Supports both hypothesis I and II. D) Supports neitherhypothesis.
20)
The transpiration rate in plants is increased by
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A) increased sunlight intensity. B) elevated temperature. C) wind. D) All of the choices increase the rate of transpiration.
21) Arrange the soil particles according to size, from largest to smallest: silt, clay, and sand. Briefly describe the content of loam soils in terms of these three particles and tell why loam soils are the most productive.
22) The coastal wetlands are losing soil at an alarming rate. In Louisiana, it is estimated that 24 mi 2 of wetlands are lost each year, which equates to one football field every 38 minutes. Why is the loss of these wetlands so critical?
23)
Which of the following is NOT involved in mineral uptake by plant roots? A) root hairs that increase surface area B) root nodules that fix atmospheric nitrogen C) expending energy in uptake/active transport D) cuticles that protect surfaces
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24)
Sieve-tube membersare connected by A) sieve plates. B) companion cells. C) tight junctions. D) tracheids.
25) The carbon needed to build organic compounds in plants comes from _____, while the hydrogen and oxygen comes from _____. A) carbon dioxide; water B) oxygen in the atmosphere; hydrogen peroxide C) glucose; hydrochloric acid D) carbohydrates; hydrogen and oxygen gasses in the atmosphere
26)
In the pressure-flow model of phloem transport, the sink is normally A) the roots. B) lenticels. C) xylem. D) the stem.
27)
What is the main factor that will determine whether or not water can enter the root cells?
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A) A lower osmoticpressure in the root tissues than the soil solution B) Volume of wateravailable C) A higher osmoticpressure in the root tissues than the soil solution D) Type of plant cells that are exposed to the water
28)
Describe the steps required for a plant to take up minerals from the environment.
29) When you have waxed your car, rainfall makes very large droplets that roll around on the hood. This property of the water molecule is known as A) transpiration. B) adhesion. C) cohesion. D) turgor pressure. E) negative pressure potential.
30) Which type of soil will supply nutrients to plants while its acidity leaches minerals from rock? A) sand B) clay C) loam D) humus
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31)
How can researchers confirm that phloem moves from a source to a sink? A) They can observe the effects of girdling a tree below the level of the majority of
leaves. B) They can use radioactive tracers to measure the flow of sap between two distances over time. C) They can study the cause of maple sap flow in producing syrup. D) They can observe aphids and cut off their beaks. E) They can observe the uptake of ink into the stem of celery.
32)
Entry of mineral ions into the xylem is regulated by cells of the cortex. ⊚ ⊚
33)
true false
Which force is responsible for moving water up to the tops of the trees? A) guttation B) water stress C) transpiration D) root pressure E) atmospheric pressure
34) Which type of soil is best able to retain calcium and potassium, preventing them from being leached away by runoff?
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A) All soils areequal in preventing leaching of minerals. B) None of thesesoils would prevent leaching of minerals. C) clay D) sand E) humus
35)
Which statement is NOT true about water uptake in a plant root? A) Water travels by diffusion through the cell walls of the epidermis and cortex. B) Water enters the root from the soil by osmosis. C) Water must enter the cytoplasm of the endodermal cells to get past the Casparian
strip. D) Water enters the cytoplasm of the root hairs by active transport.
36)
Essential plant nutrients include carbon, potassium, calcium, and nitrogen. ⊚ ⊚
37)
true false
Which is a correct relationship between soil particles and soil characteristics? A) Clay particles hold tight to NO 3 - and the nitrogen content of clay soils is therefore
high. B) Sand prevents water erosion and leaching. C) Clay is unable to retain Ca 2+ and K + which are easily leached away. D) Clay holds water and clumps.
38)
Soil formation is due to
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A) mechanical weathering of bedrock. B) chemical weathering of rock. C) All of the choices are correct. D) decomposition of organic matter.
39) Mature soil generally has three horizons. Label the soil horizons A, B, and C in the following picture. In addition, describe the contents of the horizons by labeling D through G.
D. _____ E. _____ F. _____ G. _____
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40) Stomata allow carbon dioxide into the leaf and water out of the leaf under normal environmental conditions. ⊚ ⊚
41)
true false
Nitrogen is an essential nutrient for optimal plant growth because it is used to build A) All of these are correct. B) nucleicacids. C) protein. D) mitochondria. E) DNA.
42) Which of the following particles are retained by clay soil and exchanged for hydrogen ions when plants take them up? A) sodium &sulphur B) iron & boron C) calcium & potassium D) calcium & copper E) calcium & ammonium
43)
Which statement is NOT true about root adaptations in plants?
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A) Fungal mycorrhizae depend on plants for the fungus's supply of water and minerals. B) Some plants have very poorly developed roots or none at all. C) Some plants, including orchids, require the presence of fungal symbionts to survive. D) Parasitic plants have root adaptations called haustoria that draw nutrients from the host. E) Bacteria of the genus Rhizobium live in root nodules in legumes, producing available nitrogen that the plant uses.
44)
Which term describes the forcing out of water at the surface of a plant's leaves? A) guttation B) root pressure C) atmospheric pressure D) transpiration E) water stress
45)
All of the following statements about the cohesion-tension model are true EXCEPT
A) tension created by transpiration in the leaves pulls water along the phloem from the roots hairs to the leaves. B) it is a model of how water and minerals are transported in xylem. C) it is dependent on the cohesive and adhesive properties of water. D) there is no expenditure of energy.
46) Some plants are not photosynthetic and must depend upon bacteria in their root nodules for nutrients. ⊚ ⊚
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47)
List the steps associated with the pressure-flow model of phloem transport.
48)
Which force pushes water into the xylem as osmosis moves water into the root? A) guttation B) water stress C) atmospheric pressure D) transpiration E) root pressure
49) Within a mycorrhizal relationship the fungi provide a greater surface area for mineral and water loss while the plant furnishes the fungi with sugars and amino acids. ⊚ ⊚
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 25_14e_Mader 1) B 2) TRUE 3) C 4) D 5) C 6) D 7) TRUE 8) TRUE 9) TRUE 10) D 11) D 12) A 13) A 14) C 16) B 17) D 18) A 19) Section Break 19.1) D 19.2) C 19.3) D 19.4) C 19.5) B 19.6) C 19.7) A 19.8) B Version 1
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20) D 23) D 24) A 25) A 26) A 27) A 29) C 30) D 31) A 32) FALSE 33) C 34) C 35) D 36) TRUE 37) D 38) C 40) TRUE 41) A 42) C 43) A 44) A 45) A 46) FALSE 48) E 49) FALSE
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CHAPTER 26 1)
Which of the following is (are) an effect(s) of auxin?
A) Auxin production by seeds promotes the growth of fruit. B) All of the choices are effects of auxin. C) Applied to a woody cutting, auxin causes roots to develop. D) Under the effect of gravity, auxin moves to the lower surface of roots and stems, causing roots to curve downward and stems to curve upward. E) Trees sprayed with auxin will keep mature fruit from falling to the ground.
2) Explain the mechanisms required for a Venus flytrap to close its trap when stimulated by an insect.
3)
How does gibberellin actually work?
A) In the presence of blue light, it triggers additional photosynthesis and growth. B) In the presence oflight, it increases the formation of additional DNA that codes for additionalplant structures. C) It attaches to aplasma membrane receptor and results in gene activation to produce the enzymeamylase that releases sugars for additional cell growth, division, andelongation. D) In the presence ofunidirectional light, it moves to the shady side and activates an ATP-drivenproton pump that results in weakened cell walls and eventual elongation. E) In the presence of light, it increases the turgor pressure of the cell and accelerates growth.
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4) Explain how abscisic acid promotes the closure of stomates. Identify the molecules involved at each step.
A. _____ B. _____ C. _____ D. _____
5) Horticulturists often use _____ and other growth regulators applied as a paste to plant cuttings to stimulate root formation. A) ethylene B) auxin C) cytokinins D) abscisic acid
6)
Which plant hormone produced in apical meristems inhibits the growth of axillary buds?
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A) cytokinin B) ethylene C) gibberellin D) auxin E) abscisic acid
7)
Which of the following is NOT a physiological change related to photoperiodism? A) seed germination B) breaking bud dormancy C) onset of senescence D) root branching E) some flowering
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8)
The cylinders in this experiment represent a 24-hour period. The light area represents light periods during a 24-hr. period and the dark area represents dark periods during a 24-hr. period. The critical length of dark vs. light periods for flowering is depicted by the dotted line. Note that some plants are flowering and some are not flowering. Study the results of this experiment on photoperiodism and flowering to determine whether the following statements are true or false.
8.1)
Short-day plants flower when the day length is longer than the critical length.
⊚ ⊚
true false
8.2) Short-day plants flower when the day length is shorter than the critical length, but the required dark period is interrupted by a flash of light. ⊚ ⊚
true false
8.3)
Long-day plants flower when the day length is longer than the critical period.
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⊚ ⊚
true false
8.4) Long-day plants will never flower if the day length is shorter than the critical period. ⊚ ⊚
true false
8.5) The conclusion drawn from these results is that the length of the dark period, not the light period, controls flowering. ⊚ ⊚
9)
true false
What is the tropism that describes the movement of a plant towards light? A) positive gravitropism B) negative phototropism C) positive phototropism D) thigmotropism E) negative gravitropism
10) If a plant is placed on its side, cells on the lower side of the stem will respond to gravity and elongate, making the stem turn so that it continues to grow downward. ⊚ ⊚
11)
true false
Which of the following pertain to movement of plants?
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A) All of the choices are correct. B) thigmotropism C) gravitropism D) phototropism E) nasticmovements
12)
Which statement about plant hormones is NOT true? A) Responses to plant hormones may be observed in nearly any part of a plant. B) All known growth regulators of plants are chemicals produced naturally in plants. C) Each naturally occurring hormone has a specific chemical structure. D) Plant hormones include at least one form that is a gas. E) Hormones are among the principal internal regulators of plant growth.
13)
Explain how a hormone will trigger the signal transduction pathwayin aplant.
14)
Describe how phytochrome is used todetermine plant spacing.
15) Explain how the stems and roots of a plant will respond at the cellular level if it is placed upon its side.
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16) Removing the top of a plant to create fuller growth involves which of the following hormones? A) cytokinins B) gibberellins C) auxins D) ethylene
17)
The general sequence by which a plant responds to external stimuli is A) chloroplast-vascular bundle-sap. B) sensory nerve-interneuron-motor nerve. C) reception-transduction-cellular response. D) input-reflex-output. E) leaf-stem-root.
18) Which of the following plant hormones stimulates the ripening of fruit and inhibits plant growth? A) cytokinin B) ethylene C) abscisic acid D) gibberellin E) auxin
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19)
Which statement is NOT true about photoperiodism?
A) A long-day plant will flower when the day length is longer than a critical length. B) A day-neutral plant flowers according to some form of regulation other than photoperiodism. C) The phytochrome form P fr is converted to P r in daylight, producing the active form that induces flowering in long-day plants. D) A short-day plant flowers when the day length is shorter than a critical length.
20)
Auxin stimulates leaf release, while ethylene keeps leaves from falling. ⊚ ⊚
true false
21) Which of the following plant hormones is used to prolong the life of flower cuttings and stored vegetables? A) IAA B) auxins C) cytokinins D) ethylene
22) Which of the following plant hormones breaks dormancy in seeds and buds when applied to the plant?
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A) gibberellins B) auxin C) abscisic acid D) ethylene E) cytokinin
23) The Pr→Pfrconversion cycle is known to control various growth functions in plants. Which of the following functions does the cycle NOT control? A) inhibit shoot elongation B) decrease water transport C) promote seed germination D) promote flowering E) affect accumulation of chlorophyll in plant tissue
24)
Which of the following is a receptor that responds to light? A) Phytochrome and phototropin are correct. B) gibberellins C) phototropin D) phytochrome E) cytokinins
25)
A chemical messenger from the embryo that stimulates a seed to digest the endosperm is
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A) abscisic acid. B) ethylene. C) cytokinin. D) gibberellin. E) auxin.
26)
Which of the following statements is NOT correct about a circadian rhythm?
A) The primary usefulness of circadian rhythms seems to be to measure day-length changes so plants respond appropriately to seasonal environmental changes. B) These rhythms tend to persist even in the absence of daily light cues. C) An example is the opening of stomatain the morning and their closing at night. D) If plants are maintained in total darkness or total light, their circadian rhythm acts on a faster time scale.
27) Which of the following statements best describes how plants use hormones during signal transduction? A) None of thesedescribes how plants use hormones during signal transduction. B) The hormone will bind to a specific receptor in the plasma membrane. It will then trigger a series of relay proteins that alter the signal into one that will impact the cellular machinery. Once the machinery is altered a change in gene expression will occur causing a change in the physical expression of the plant. C) The hormone will trigger a series of relay proteins to alter the signal into one that will impact the cellular machinery. Once the signal is changed the hormone will bind to a specific receptor in the plasma membrane. It will then cause a change in gene expression to occur causing a change in the physical expression of the plant. D) The hormone will bind to a specific receptor in the plasma membrane. It will then trigger a series of relay proteins that alter the signal into one that will impact the cellular machinery. Once the machinery is altered a change in the physical expression will occur causing a change in the actual genes of the plant.
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28) _____ is often referred to as the "stress" hormone since it initiates and maintains seed and bud dormancy. A) Ethylene B) Gibberellins C) Abscisic acid D) Cytokinins
29) Which of the following plant hormones is associated with the closure of stomata when a plant experiences water stress? A) abscisic acid B) gibberellins C) auxin D) cytokinin
30) Went's experiment in 1926 with oat coleoptiles showed that agar that absorbed auxin from the tips would cause a tipless shoot to curve away from the side where he had placed the agar, suggesting that auxin causes cells to elongate. ⊚ ⊚
31)
true false
In order for signal transduction to work properly in plants, the
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A) relay proteins need to amplify the signal and convert it into one that will alter the cellular machinery. B) correct hormone needs to bind to the appropriate receptor in order to enter the cell. C) All of the answer choices are correct. D) gene expression must change to produce the appropriate cellular process.
32) In order for hormones like auxin to be used as a chemical signal within a plant it must travel through the xylem to reach the site of activity. ⊚ ⊚
true false
33) A hormone that causes cell division and is found in coconut milk and in dividing root tissue is A) gibberellin. B) auxin. C) cytokinin. D) ethylene. E) abscisic acid.
34) A plant's response to an external stimulus involves receptors. A receptor that responds to light normally contains A) a transduction pathway. B) a series of relay proteins. C) a pigment component. D) an end product of a metabolic pathway.
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35) Which of the following plant hormones was studied in the 1880s by Charles and Francis Darwin in experiments on phototropism? A) gibberellin B) ethylene C) auxin D) cytokinin E) abscisic acid
36)
Which of the following hormones are believed to be involved in abscission? A) ethylene B) gibberellin C) auxin D) All of the answer choices are correct.
37) Which of the following plant hormones is associated with the closure of stomata in a plant under water stress? A) gibberellin B) ethylene C) abscisic acid D) auxin E) cytokinin
38) A hormone is produced in small amounts in a tissue, and it causes a physiological action within that same tissue soon after its production. ⊚ ⊚
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39)
Which of the following events will occur in response to gravitropism?
A) The guard cellswill swell with water due to an increase in sodium ions which will cause theplant to grow upright. B) The stems on theshady side of the plant will elongate due to the presence of auxin. C) Because of the change in the plant's position, it will have sediments of statoliths (amyloplasts containing starch granules) settle towards the lower side of the stems and roots and come into contact with the cytoskeletal elements. D) The tendril of the plant will coil around any type of substrate that itcomes into contact with.
40) If you are trying to alter the defensive mechanisms of a plant, which component of the signal transduction pathway would be the ideal place to do this? A) Change the geneexpression or the cellular process that affects the plants growth. B) Block the relayproteins within the cytoplasm that will convert the signal. C) Alter the receptor molecule on the plasma membrane, cytoplasm, or nucleus. D) All of these wouldalter the defensive mechanisms of the plant.
41)
Which of the following plant hormones prevents plant tissues from senescing, or aging? A) abscisic acid B) cytokinin C) auxin D) ethylene E) gibberellin
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42) Thigmomorphogenesis is a touch response where the whole plant responds to an environmental stimulus. ⊚ ⊚
true false
43) Which of the following ions is associated with auxin and used during signal transduction that causes a plant to bend towards a light source? A) H + B) Ca 2+ C) Mg 2+ D) Na +
44) Indoleacetic acid (IAA) is the most commonly occurring form of which of the following plant hormones? A) auxin B) gibberellin C) abscisic acid D) cytokinin E) ethylene
45)
Photoperiodism requires
A) a biological clockwhich can measure time. B) protease inhibitors. C) a biological clockwhich can measure time and a photoreceptor called phytochrome only arecorrect. D) a photoreceptorcalled phytochrome. E) increased turgor pressure.
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46) Which of the following plant hormones was discovered in infected rice seedlings that grew extremely tall and slender with "foolish seedling disease"? A) gibberellins B) ethylene C) abscisic acid D) cytokinin E) auxin
47) Plants could readily develop seasonal responses for floweringbased on temperature changes but have "elected" through evolution to manage their rhythms based on a comparison of daylight and darkness. Why has the day-night ratio system been selected? A) A plant's nervous system is tuned to light stimuli and not to temperature stimuli. B) Temperatures fluctuate widely across seasons and from year to year, but photoperiod comparisons are a more reliable indicator of season. C) Temperature is a gradation but day/night is all-or-nothing. D) Temperature has no effect upon plant biochemistry.
48)
How does auxin actually cause stems to curve towards the light?
A) In the presence of light, auxin increases the turgor pressure of the cell and accelerates growth. B) In the presence of unidirectional light, auxin moves to the shady side and activates an ATP-driven proton pump that results in weakened cell walls and eventual elongation. C) In the presence of blue light, auxin triggers additional photosynthesis and growth. D) In the presence of light, auxin moves toward the light source and activates a protein that binds to DNA and starts enzyme production. E) In the presence of light, auxin increases the formation of hydrolytic enzymes that release energy needed for growth purposes.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 26_14e_Mader 1) B 3) C 5) B 6) D 7) D 8) Section Break 8.1) FALSE 8.2) FALSE 8.3) TRUE 8.4) FALSE 8.5) TRUE 9) C 10) FALSE 11) A 12) B 16) C 17) C 18) B 19) C 20) FALSE 21) C 22) A 23) B 24) A 25) D 26) D Version 1
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27) B 28) C 29) A 30) TRUE 31) C 32) FALSE 33) C 34) C 35) C 36) D 37) C 38) FALSE 39) C 40) D 41) B 42) TRUE 43) A 44) A 45) C 46) A 47) B 48) B
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CHAPTER 27 1) Which method of asexual reproduction would be most likely to occur in a wild population of plants? This method enables the parent plant to produce multiple offspring that start to grow away from the parent plant. A) The root developsslips which can produce new offspring. B) growth of stolons C) production of suckers from the parent plant D) growth of rhizomes
2) Which of the following floral structures are present during the diploid stage of a flowering plant's life cycle? A) Ovule B) Anther C) Sporophyte D) Everything except the pollen grain. E) Pollen grain
3)
List the eight key components of the flowering plants life cycle.
4) When a monocot such as corn germinates, the immature leaves are covered by a _____ while the radicle is covered by the _____.
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A) plumule; coleorhiza B) hypocotyl; primary root C) coleoptile; coleorhiza D) hypocotyl; epicotyl
5) Explain why an aggregate fruit, such as a blackberry, would have a greater reproductive potential than a drupe (peach).
6)
Bee-pollinated flowers A) have little odor. B) are predominately blue or yellow. C) are red. D) All of the choices apply.
7) Plants that reproduce asexually by growth of a new plant from stems or roots show vegetative propagation. ⊚ ⊚
8)
true false
All of the following statements are true about seed germination EXCEPT
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A) all seeds require a period of dormancy before germinating. B) in the temperate region, seeds often require a period of cold weather before dormancy is broken. C) fleshy fruits contain inhibitors of germination. D) some seeds require fire or bacterial action before germination can occur.
9)
A flower A) may contain male and female reproductive parts. B) serves to attract animal pollinators. C) is the sexual reproductive organ. D) All of the choices characterize flowers. E) is composed of whorls of modified leaves.
10) Which of the following methods is used by plants when they are undergoing asexual reproduction? A) All of the answer choices are methods of asexual reproduction in plants. B) Growth of suckers from the root base of specific types of trees. C) Development ofrhizomes. D) Production ofstolons.
11) Monocots protect their first true leaves by _____, whereas eudicots protect their first leaves by _____.
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A) bending the coleorhiza as the shoot grows through the soil; a surrounding sheath called the coleoptile. B) surrounding them with a sheath called a coleoptile; bending the shoot as it grows through the soil. C) providing a protective layer called sepals; surrounding them with endosperm. D) bending their shoot as it grows through the soil; surrounding them with a protective sheath called the coleorhiza.
12)
Which of the following is NOT a simple fruit? A) peach B) rice C) pea D) pineapple
13)
All of the following statements about cell suspension cultures are true EXCEPT
A) cell suspension cultures produce the same chemicals the entire plant produces. B) digitalis, digitoxin, and quinine are produced by cell suspension culture. C) chemicals are produced and extracted in high concentrations, sometimes from genetically modified cells. D) large numbers of plants are grown and collected from the natural environment to produce chemicals in the laboratory.
14)
A moth-pollinated flower is likely to have
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A) red flowers that open in daytime, a wide landing area, and an odor resembling dead meat. B) white flowers with short tubes, a wide landing area, and no odor. C) blue or yellow flowers, a wide landing area, and no odor. D) lightly colored flowers, no landing area, and strong sweet perfume. E) blue or yellow flowers, a wide landing area, and not very much odor.
15)
The anther and filament are parts of the A) petal. B) receptacle. C) stamen. D) pistil. E) sepal.
16) During which stage of eudicot development does the embryo continue to enlarge and elongate and the cotyledons become obvious? A) heart stage B) zygote stage C) proembryo stage D) globular stage E) torpedo stage
17)
Why and when is asexual reproduction advantageous in plants?
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18)
Angiosperms have two separate gametophytes because
A) these two structures allow fertilization without the need for external water. B) this is normal for all sexually reproducing plants, where sperm are produced by microgametophytes and eggs by megagametophytes. C) one can survive and fertilize without the need for external water. D) the microgametophyte is haploid and the megagametophyte is diploid. E) this is normal for alternation of generations.
19)
Which of these typically occur in both angiosperms and gymnosperms? A) Pollen is carried by animal pollinators. B) Pollen is carried by the wind for pollination. C) Seeds are surrounded by a fruit at maturity. D) Seeds develop within a cone. E) Seeds develop within a flower.
20) Explain how the sexual life cycle of flowering plants is adapted to the terrestrial environment.
21)
Which of the flowering plant structures is used to attract a specific type of pollinator?
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A) carpel B) stamens C) sepals D) petals
22)
Which of the following fruits is a compound fleshy fruit? A) tomato B) peach C) pineapple D) All of these are compound fleshyfruits. E) blackberry
23)
Double fertilization in an angiosperm produces A) a diploid embryo and a triploid zygote. B) a triploid embryo and a diploid endosperm. C) a diploid zygote and a triploid endosperm. D) a diploid zygote and a diploid endosperm. E) a diploid zygote and a haploid polar nucleus.
24)
List the stages, in the correct order, of the development of a eudicot embryo.
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25)
Which of the following statements about fruits is NOT true? A) A fleshy fruit has a fleshy pericarp, as in a peach. B) A blackberry is an example of a simple fruit. C) Most fruits are simple fruits, derived from a single ovary. D) A dry fruit may split at maturity to release its seeds, as in a pea or bean pod. E) A multiple fruit, such as a pineapple, forms from many individual flowers on a stem.
26)
Seeds require _____ for germination to occur. A) oxygen for increased metabolism B) All of the choices are required. C) adequate warmth D) adequate water
27)
Which of the following statements is NOT true about the germinated pollen grain? A) There are two sperm nuclei that move down the pollen tube to the micropyle. B) The pollen tube forms in the style. C) The generative cell produces two sperm. D) The tube cell produces the pollen tube. E) Fertilization occurs when the pollen grain germinates.
28)
As the embryo matures, A) the suspensor transfers nutrients from the endosperm to the embryo. B) it becomes a ball of cells and assumes a torpedo shape. C) the innermost cells become the protective, dermal tissue. D) the embryonic cells near the suspensor become the shoot.
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29)
The microspore develops into a A) megasporocyte. B) zygote. C) microsporocyte. D) male gametophyte. E) female gametophyte.
30)
Seeds contain all of the following EXCEPT A) an embryo sporophyte. B) a seed coat. C) stored food. D) sufficient water for germination.
31)
Which of the following statements is NOT true about the life cycle of flowering plants?
A) The sporophyte may produce microspores or megaspores. B) The sporophyte is diploid. C) The female gametophyte is the seed. D) The male gametophyte is the pollen grain. E) The female gametophyte is retained within the body of the sporophyte parent generation.
32)
The name monocot and eudicot are derived from the differences in the number of
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A) seeds. B) None of the choices are correct. C) roots. D) cotyledons.
33)
The structures in the outermost ring of floral structures that cover and protect the bud are A) carpels. B) petals. C) stamens. D) sepals. E) receptacles.
34)
If you have picked a bouquet of anther-less flowers, you have picked A) microgametophytes retained within the body of megagametophytes. B) sporophytes retained within the body of microgametophytes. C) female gametophytes retained within the body of sporophytes. D) sporophytes retained within the body of megagametophytes. E) male gametophytes retained within the body of sporophytes.
35) Single plant cells can be stimulated to become a callus and then further stimulated to become a new entire plant. ⊚ ⊚
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36)
Identify the labeled structures of this seed.
A. _____ B. _____ C. _____ D. _____ E. _____
37) Which of the following events is not associated with the development of the female gametophyte? A) The nucleus of themegaspore divides mitotically to produce eight nuclei. B) The megasporeundergoes meiosis producing four haploid megaspores. C) The femalegametophyte will contain three antipodal cells. D) All of these are associated with thedevelopment of the female gametophyte. E) A single parenchymacell will enlarge to become a megaspore mother cell.
38)
The function of endosperm is to
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A) provide water to the embryo. B) form the seedling. C) provide nutrients to the embryo. D) develop into the fruit. E) provide a protective coating for the embryo.
39)
Pollen grains are formed in _____ and ova are formed in _____. A) receptacles; peduncles B) petals; corolla C) sepals; calyx D) stamens; carpels E) pistil; stamens
40) Which of the following structures is found in the monocot seed but not in the eudicot seed? A) radicle B) cotyledon C) pericarp D) plumule
41)
Many plants are totipotent, which means
A) each cell of the plant has the genetic capability of developing into an entire plant B) they are metabolically inactive, existing in a state of dormancy. C) they are capable of providing their own nutrition, requiring no external nutritional sources. D) they are incapable of dividing to produce daughter cells.
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42) In a 1977 article in Science, a botanist reported the strange case of the Tambalacoque tree (Calvaria major) from the Mauritius Islands in the Indian Ocean. All of the trees appeared to be hundreds of years old, so theirseedlings date back prior to theextinction of the dodo bird. The seeds of Calvaria are very hard and needed to pass through the digestive tract of the dodo bird before they would germinate. When there were no more dodo birds, no more young Calvaria trees germinated. The relationship between the dodo bird and the Tambalacoque tree is an example of A) vegetative propagation. B) spontaneous dispersal. C) genetic engineering. D) coevolution. E) micropropagation.
43) In mammals, an egg fertilized by one sperm divides repeatedly (1-2-4-8-16-32-64, etc.). At the 64-cell stage, only three cells go on to become the embryo while 61 grow to become the fetal side of the placenta. In plants, fertilization likewise results in the development of an embryo and nourishing endosperm. However, how does this process differ from the mammal embryo and placenta?
44) Which of the following mechanisms is NOT as likely to disperse seeds at a great distance from the parent plant?
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A) Hooks and spines attach the seed to animal fur or human clothing. B) Seeds eaten with fruit by animals are dropped with the animals' feces. C) Seeds are dispersed as projectiles from the parent plant. D) Squirrels bury seeds and nuts for future use. E) Coconuts are carried by ocean currents.
45)
Ovules are contained within the A) ovary. B) anther. C) filament. D) style. E) stigma.
46)
What is the correct sequence for the development of a eudicot embryo?
a. Globular stage b. Heart stage c. Proembryo stage d. Mature embryo e. Zygote forms f. Torpedo stage A) d - e - a - b - f - c B) e - c - a - b - f- d C) d - a - e - b - f - c D) e - b - c - a - f - d
47)
A megasporocyte is found in the
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A) style. B) stigma. C) ovule. D) anther. E) filament.
48)
The function of fruit is to A) attract pollinators. B) protect and help disperse seeds. C) supply nutrients to the embryo. D) protect flower buds.
49)
Which of the following stages occurs immediately after the development of the zygote? A) the development of globular stage B) the development of the proembryo C) the heart stage when the cotyledon develops D) the torpedo stage embryo forms
50)
The transfer of pollen from an anther to the stigma of a carpel is A) coevolution. B) fertilization. C) pollination. D) germination.
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51)
Which component of the flowering plant is considered the female portion of the plant? A) stamen B) style C) corolla D) carpel
52) How are dry fruits different than fleshy fruits? How might these differences affect the way that their seeds are dispersed?
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53)
Identify the labeled parts of the flower:
A. _____ F._____ B. _____ G. _____ C. _____ H. _____ D. _____ I. _____ E. _____ J. _____
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 27_14e_Mader 1) B 2) D 4) C 6) B 7) TRUE 8) A 9) D 10) A 11) B 12) D 13) D 14) D 15) C 16) A 18) B 19) B 21) D 22) E 23) C 25) B 26) B 27) E 28) A 29) D 30) D 31) C Version 1
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32) D 33) D 34) C 35) TRUE 37) D 38) C 39) D 40) C 41) A 42) D 44) C 45) A 46) B 47) C 48) B 49) B 50) C 51) D
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CHAPTER 28 1)
Which body structure describes the freshwater hydra? A) a swimming medusa with the mouth pointing downward B) a free-swimming polyp with the mouth pointing upward C) a swimming medusa with the mouth pointing upward D) a sessile medusa with the mouth pointing upward E) sessile polyp form with the mouth pointing upward
2) Which of the following list of features describes the molluscs and bivalves but not the annelids? A) None of these lists describes themolluscs and bivalves but not the annelids. B) Lack ofcephalization, every member of the group will have a hard outer shell as wellas a complete digestive system. C) Lack of cephalization, contains circular muscles that enable them to move, may possess a hard outer shell, and have a complete digestive system. D) Reduced cephalization, contain a muscular foot and a mantle, may possess a hard outer shell. E) Presence of cephalization, contain a muscular foot and a mantle, may possess a hard outer shell and have a complete digestive system.
3)
Which of the following statements is NOT correct about cnidarians? A) There are two tissue layers, an outer epidermis, and inner gastrodermis. B) The adult body is bilaterally symmetrical. C) Stinging cells contain a threadlike nematocyst released to capture prey. D) A jellylikemesoglea separates the two tissue layers. E) Most are found in shallow coastal marine environments.
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4)
The segments of a tapeworm that contain female and male sex organs are called A) scolexes. B) cercariae. C) proglottids. D) sporocysts. E) glycocalyxes.
5)
Sponges feed differently than comb jellies because a sponge feeds by
A) the beating of collar cells' flagella, which form a current; the current brings food particles which are engulfed and digested by collar cells. B) the beating collar cells form a current from osculum to pores; the food is engulfed by amoebocytes in the central cavity of the sponge. C) squeezing the spongocoel cavity and sucking debris in and out through the osculum. D) acting as a net in a current that sweeps food particles into its central cavity and digests them externally.
6)
The structure that directs food into the body of a rotifer is called the corona. ⊚ ⊚
true false
7) Name one of the smallest, if not the smallest, animals that are sometimes referred to as "wheel animalcules." A) fruit flies B) planaria C) rotifers D) parasitic E) parasitic mites
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8)
Describe the similarities and differences between the comb jellies and cnidarians.
9) Earthworms possess both male and female organs on separate segments. Mating could be described as "parallel parking" in opposite directions, and cross-fertilizing. Given this information, which of the following is (are) true? A) This is an advantage since they can mate with any other earthworm of the same species that they encounter. B) This is primarily to allow them to self-fertilize if no other worm is in their sector of the soil. C) Maintaining any system not clearly male or female is disadvantageous; the earthworm is trapped in an evolutionary dead end. D) This is evidence of a primitive state that is generally less efficient than separate sexes.
10)
Which of these statements is NOT correct about flatworms? A) Flatworms are deuterostomes. B) The embryos of flatworms are triploblastic. C) Flatworms are free-living or parasitic. D) Flatworms are in phylum Platyhelminthes. E) Flatworms have a sac body plan with an incomplete gut.
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11) Which of the following features is not one of the key features that led to the success of the arthropods? A) All are featuresthat made arthropods successful. B) contain a variety of respiratory organs C) exoskeleton D) brain and a ventral nerve cord E) segmented body
12)
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of all animals? A) Animals are heterotrophic by ingestion or absorption. B) Animals are capable of movement at some stage in their life cycle. C) Animals produce gametes by meiosis. D) The adult form is diploid in an alternation of generation life cycle. E) Animals aremulticellular eukaryotes.
13) Which of the following features is common among the roundworms as well as the arthropods? A) Endoskeleton. B) Undergo metamorphosis. C) Radial symmetry. D) Segmentation isreadily apparent. E) Periodically shed their outer covering.
14)
In deuterostomes,
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A) spiral cleavage occurs. B) radial cleavage occurs, and the fate of the cells is indeterminate. C) the fate of cells is fixed and determinate. D) the mouth appears at or near the blastopore.
15)
Which list of traits is characteristic of the ecdysozoans?
A) Periodically shed their outer covering, nonsegmented body plan and pseudocoelom on some, contain an exoskeleton, and undergo metamorphosis. B) None of the theseare correct. C) Periodically shed their outer covering, nonsegmented body plan and contain a layer of jellylike fluid called mesoglea, contain an exoskeleton, and undergo metamorphosis. D) Periodically shed their outer covering, segmented body plan and pseudocoelom on some, contain an endoskeleton, and undergo metamorphosis.
16)
Which phylum contains the greatest diversity of animal species? A) Annelida B) Echinodermata C) Mollusca D) Chordata E) Arthropoda
17)
Which statement concerning body symmetry is NOT correct?
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A) Asymetrical animals have no body symmetry. B) The evolution of bilateral symmetry is accompanied by cephalization. C) Bilaterally symmetric animals are usually sessile. D) Radial symmetry is useful because the animals can reach out in all directions. E) In radial symmetry, two identical halves are obtained regardless of how the animal is sliced longitudinally.
18)
Periodically shedding their outer covering is a feature unique to the A) ecdysozoans. B) bryozoans. C) lophotrochozoans. D) mollusca. E) echinodermata.
19) Flukes are divided into the groupsMonogenea and Digenea. Monogenea have a posterior holdfast with hooks, clamps, and suckers, whileDigenea have suckers but never hooks and clamps. Monogenea have only one host in the life cycle and usually live on gills or skin of fish and amphibians.Digenea have at least two hosts, and are named for having two reproductive states in their life cycle (an adult and intramolluscan phase). Based on this information, the blood fluke Schistosoma would be classified as A) an ectoparasite and Digenean. B) an ectoparasite and Monogenean. C) an endoparasite and Monogenean. D) an endoparasite and Digenean.
20)
The easiest method of preventing sea stars from moving is to
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A) squeeze the tube feet as they are extended from the body. B) cut off two of their arms. C) None of these actions would prevent a sea star from moving. D) plug their madreporite. E) lay them on their arboreal side.
21)
Which of these is a bivalve? A) earthworm B) oyster C) slug D) octopus E) snail
22)
Which method of reproduction is used by members of phylum Echinodermata? A) asexual B) Both sexual and asexual C) budding D) sexual E) fragmentation
23) A unique species of snail has been discovered in the Negev Desert. At night, these snails use a toothlike rasping organ in their head to scrape up porous limestone; they then digest the algae that lived in the rock pores. This scraping organ is the
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A) mantle. B) crop. C) tentacle. D) labial palp. E) radula.
24)
Which of the following features are found within the lophotrochozoa?
A) Radial symmetry at some point in theirlife, three germ layers as embryos, are aquatic, and are classified asprotostomes. B) Bilateral symmetryat some point in their life, three germ layers as embryos, are aquatic, and areclassified as protostomes. C) Bilateral symmetryat some point in their life, three germ layers as embryos, are aquatic, and areclassified as deuterostomes. D) Bilateral symmetryat some point in their life, two germ layers as embryos, are aquatic, and areclassified as protostomes. E) Bilateral symmetryat some point in their life, three germ layers as embryos, are terrestrial, andare classified as protostomes.
25)
Which phyla are classified in the Deuterostomia? A) Mollusca and Chordata B) Arthropoda and Vertebrata C) Chordata and Vertebrata D) Annelida and Mollusca E) Echinodermata and Chordata
26)
Which statement is NOT correct about the roundworms?
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A) There are three layers of tissues in the body. B) There is an internal body cavity called a pseudocoelom. C) Roundworms have a smooth unsegmented outside body wall. D) Roundworms have a tube-within-a-tube body plan. E) Roundworms are all parasitic.
27)
Bilaterally symmetrical animals A) tend to be active and move forward. B) have right and left sides when cut longitudinally. C) tend to exhibit cephalization. D) All of the choices are correct.
28)
Molluscs share a three-part body plan consisting of A) a visceral mass, mantle, and foot. B) a corona, stomach, and intestines. C) a scolex, proglottids, and an anus. D) eyespots, a digestive system, and a nervous system.
29) Sea stars are unique in their ability to regenerate body parts. If part of an arm and part of the central disk become detached from the "parent" sea star, it can grow into a new sea star. This process is called A) fragmentation B) budding C) sexualreproduction D) Allogamy
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30)
Identify the features unique to protostome development.
A) Coelom forms by a splitting of the mesoderm, the blastopore becomes the mouth, and the cleavage is radial. B) Coelom forms by a splitting of the mesoderm, the blastopore becomes the mouth, and the cleavage is spiral. C) Coelom forms by a splitting of the mesoderm, the blastopore becomes the anus, and the cleavage is spiral. D) None of the features listed are unique to the protostomes.
31) Identify which of the following feature(s) are found in the cnidarians but not in the comb jellies. A) They are free-swimming invertebrates. B) These species can be found in the marine environment. C) They produce movement by the beating of cilia. D) Much of the body is composed of a jellylike substance called mesoglea. E) They contain a capsule called a nematocyst.
32)
Roundworms and arthropods are both ecdysozoans. This means they A) No answer choice is correct. B) have a body cavity that is completely lined with mesoderm. C) have the anus arise at or near the blastopore. D) have a trochophore larvae. E) periodically shed their outer covering.
33)
In _____, the mouth develops at or near the blastopore.
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A) deuterostomes B) gastrocoelomates C) triploblastics D) blastocoelomates E) protostomes
34)
Identify the organisms that belong to the phylum that are included in the Deuterostomia. A) polychaetes androundworms B) tapeworms andmollusks C) blood flukes andcrustaceans D) octopuses and sea stars E) sea stars andcrocodiles
35)
Which statement most accurately describes the colonial flagellate hypothesis?
A) Animals are descended from an ancestor that resembles a spherical colony offlagellated cells. B) All animals are descended from a photosynthetic single-celled ancestor that was flagellated. C) Both animals andfungiare descended from an ancestor that resembles a spherical colony offlagellated cells. D) None of these describe the colonial flagellate hypothesis.
36)
Describe the steps required for a sea star to move.
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37)
Animals are classified according to all of the following features EXCEPT A) presence orabsence of segmentation. B) number of germ layers. C) mode of reproduction. D) molecular data. E) type of body symmetry.
38) Metamorphosis is a change in form and physiology that occurs during the development of an insect. ⊚ ⊚
true false
39) Which of the listed organisms do not possess the necessary features to be classified as a member of phylum Mollusca? A) lobsters B) clams C) nautiluses D) squids E) snails
40)
Marine annelids (polychaetes) are different than earthworms in that polychaetes
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A) lack the setae that earthworms have. B) lack a larval form, whereas earthworms have a larvae form. C) marine annelids have a well developed coelom, whereas earthworms do not. D) have paddle-like parapodia that earthworms do not have. E) have segments, whereas marine annelids do not.
41) Unique features of animals include ingesting their food, having a cell wall, and the ability to move at some point in their life cycle. ⊚ ⊚
true false
42) Compare protostome development to that of the deuterostomes during each of the early embryonic stages.
43)
A person working in a rice paddy in Asia becomes infected with the liver fluke by A) eating infectedfish that was undercooked or raw. B) swimming or wading in infected water, where the cercariae enter the skin. C) drinking water contaminated with eggs. D) eating infected snails.
44)
The only animal in which digestion occurs within cells is
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A) flatworms. B) sponges. C) comb jellies. D) cnidarians.
45) A recent study of the marine hawksbill turtles' stomach contents revealed that sponges constitute a major portion of their diet. Sponge beds are generally protected from predators by their calcium and silica crystals, but these were found in the turtles' digestive systems. These protective structures are called A) choanocytes. B) spicules. C) amoebocytes. D) spongin. E) osculum.
46)
Human tapeworm infections occur by A) ingesting eggs in contaminated water. B) being bitten by a mosquito. C) eating freshly peeled fruit. D) eating insufficiently cooked infected pork or beef. E) All of the choices are correct.
47) If you live on a river delta or coastline, you may not be able to eat the local shellfish because of high levels of toxins, even though you may be able to drink the water taken from the same source. Why?
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A) Shellfish seasonally produce toxic substances. B) Most harmless native clams have been replaced by bad species. C) Shellfish regularly consume poisonous red tide organisms. D) Shellfish filter-feed and concentrate the dilute pollutants from the water, thus acting as early warning indicators of severe pollution.
48)
Which of the following are NOT members ofcnidaria? A) Portuguese man-of-war B) sponges C) corals D) hydrozoa E) sea anemones
49)
Sea stars and sea urchins operate their tube feet by A) a water vascular system that regulates water pressure. B) actin and myosin fibers that slide and give muscle actions to the five arms or "rays." C) cilia transporting hemolymph from chamber to chamber. D) sticky threads leading from the mouth and primitive brain.
50)
The major body parts of an insect include: A) head, thorax, and abdomen. B) head, prothorax, and metathorax. C) cephalothorax, midsection, and abdomen. D) head, cephalothorax, and abdomen. E) head, cephalothorax, and genitalia.
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51)
Which statement is NOT true about echinoderms? A) Symmetry is radial in the adult, usually with parts in fives or multiples of five. B) The exoskeleton is made of spiny plates. C) A water vascular system allows the tube feet to produce suction. D) Larvae are free-swimming and bilaterally symmetrical. E) Gas exchange occurs through skin gills and tube feet.
52)
What is the function of the buds formed by hydra? A) They develop intothe nerve net and are used to detect prey. B) They develop intocnidocytes and can be used in defense. C) They aid indigestion. D) They are a form ofasexual reproduction. E) They produce new epidermal tissue to replace the old tissue.
53)
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the sponges?
A) Sponges are filter feeders. B) If the cells of a sponge are mechanically separated, they will spontaneously reassemble into a complete and functioning sponge. C) Sponges have three tissue layers. D) Sponges can reproduce sexually or asexually. E) Sponges have an osculum, an opening in the upper body.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 28_14e_Mader 1) E 2) D 3) B 4) C 5) A 6) TRUE 7) C 9) A 10) A 11) A 12) D 13) E 14) B 15) A 16) E 17) C 18) A 19) D 20) D 21) B 22) B 23) E 24) B 25) E 26) E 27) D Version 1
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28) A 29) A 30) B 31) E 32) E 33) E 34) E 35) A 37) C 38) TRUE 39) A 40) D 41) FALSE 43) B 44) B 45) B 46) D 47) [C, D] 48) B 49) A 50) A 51) B 52) D 53) C
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CHAPTER 29 1)
The amphibians' unique contribution to the evolution of land vertebrates was A) respiration through the skin. B) separation of lung/gill and systemic (body) circulation. C) development of the tail for propulsion. D) the leathery waterproof egg shell. E) respiration by gills.
2)
Most salamanders practice internal fertilization A) externally in water. B) just like frogs. C) internally by copulation. D) using spermatophores.
3)
All of the following are characteristics of vertebrates EXCEPT A) internalorgans. B) exoskeletons. C) skulls. D) postanal tails. E) vertebral columns.
4)
Amphibians were the dominant animal life during the ________ period.
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A) Cambrian B) Jurassic C) Silurian D) Devonian E) Carboniferous
5)
Generally the respiratory system in birds
A) resembles the positive pressure system of a frog. B) is merely accelerated by the flight muscles. C) is identical to the human breathing system. D) is a one-way circulation of air so constant oxygen absorption can meet the high oxygen demand.
6) Which of the following groups are considered chordates but are lacking the vertebral column trait? A) sea squirts & chondrichthyes B) cephalochordates & chondrichthyes C) osteichthyes & urochordata D) urochordata & cephalochordates
7) Several lineages of reptiles evolved from a common ancestral stem reptile, each adapting to different ways of life. ⊚ ⊚
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8) Which of the following features are found in the lobe-finned fish but are not present in the cartilaginous fish? A) paired fins and abony skeleton B) jaws and lungs C) vertebrae andamniotic eggs D) bony skeletons andlungs
9)
Amongstthe chordates, which features are unique to the tunicates? A) sexual reproduction and complete digestive system B) leathery outer covering and an excurrent siphon C) sessile adult stage and aquatic lifestyle D) leathery outer covering and sessile adult stage E) gill slits andbilateral symmetry
10)
The amphibians' common receptacle for the urinary, genital, and digestive canals is the A) glottis. B) tympanum. C) vulva. D) cloaca. E) operculum.
11)
Which of the following features are shared by all of the jawed fish?
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A) ectothermic, smooth nonscaly skin and bony skeleton B) bony exoskeleton, gills and scales C) cartilaginous or bony endoskeleton, gills and scales D) endothermic, gills and scales
12)
During the course of fish evolution, two of the gill arches evolved into ________. A) No answer choice is correct. B) the swimbladder C) the pectoralfins D) gills E) the jaw
13)
All chordates are also vertebrates. ⊚ ⊚
true false
14) It was during the ______ period within the ______ era that chordates made their first appearance. A) Mesozoic,Cretaceous B) Ordovician,Paleozoic C) Paleozoic,Cambrian D) Cambrian,Paleozoic
15)
Which is the correct sequence for the evolution of reptilian features?
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A) notochord, vertebrae, jaws, 4 limbs,bony skeleton, lungs, and an amniotic egg B) notochord, jaws,vertebrae, bony skeleton, lungs, 4 limbs and an amniotic egg C) notochord,vertebrae, jaws, bony skeleton, lungs, 4 limbs and an amniotic egg D) vertebrae, jaws,notochord, bony skeleton, lungs, 4 limbs and an amniotic egg E) notochord,vertebrae, jaws, cartilaginous skeleton, lungs, 4 limbs and an amniotic egg
16)
All of the following statements concerning birds are true EXCEPT A) birds have small, relatively under-developed brains. B) birds have acute vision. C) some birds do not have the ability to fly. D) birds use the sun, stars, and the Earth's magnetic field to guide them.
17)
Which of these characteristics is NOT found in the amphibians? A) eggs with gelatinous covering B) small inefficient lungs C) thin moist skin D) two-chambered heart E) aquatic larvae
18)
______ were the first vertebrates to live on land and they evolved from _____. A) Reptiles; amphibians B) Amphibians; fish C) Amphibians; lancelets D) Mammals; reptiles
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19)
Sharks A) lack bony skeletons. B) have a keen sense of smell. C) have dermal denticles. D) have teeth derived from epidermal scales. E) All of the choices are correct.
20) Name the two groups of organisms that are classified as nonvertebrate chordates and indicate their unique features.
21)
Monotremes A) are egg laying mammals. B) include the echidnas, or spiny anteaters, and the duck-billed platypus. C) All of the answer choices are correct. D) nurse their young.
22) If the only chordate characteristic that adult sea squirts possess are gills, why are they classified as a chordate?
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23) Identify four of the features that terrestrial vertebrates had to evolve in order to adapt to aterrestrial environment?
24)
The mammalian lineages include A) placental mammals. B) No answer choice is correct. C) monotremes. D) All of the answer choices are correct. E) marsupials.
25)
The mammal-like reptiles that gave rise to mammals were the A) archaeopteryx. B) coelacanths. C) lampreys. D) therapsids.
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26)
Characteristics of birds include all of the following EXCEPT A) endotherms. B) a modified skeleton with a fused collarbone and a keel. C) modified reptilian scales as feathers. D) hard-shelled eggs. E) aquatic reproduction.
27) Which of the following reptilian features enabled them to adapt to a terrestrial environment? A) Skin that allowsfor respiration, a septum that divides the ventricle and an amniotic egg B) Two pairs of paired limbs, a septum that divides the ventricle, and welldeveloped kidneys C) A dry skin,ectothermy and external fertilization D) Efficient respiration, ectothermy and external fertilization E) Live birth, efficient excretion and two pairs of limbs
28) Ancestral lobe-finned fishes gave rise to modern-day lobe-finned fishes, the lungfishes, and to the amphibians. ⊚ ⊚
29)
true false
Reptiles evolved from ______ ancestors and were abundant by the ________ period. A) mammals; Carboniferous B) echinoderms; Cambrian C) fish; Devonian D) amphibians; Permian
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30)
Amphibians evolved from A) sturgeon and catfish. B) bass and bluegill. C) darters. D) sharks. E) lobe-finned fishes with lungs.
31)
Explain the four features necessary to classify an organism as a vertebrate.
32)
The jawed fish and all other vertebrates are gnathostomes, which means they have A) jaws. B) amniotic eggs. C) a notochord that develops into a vertebral column. D) exoskeletons E) segmentation.
33)
Which term can be applied to all of the vertebrates except for the jawless fish?
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A) Amniotes B) Endothermic C) Gnathostomes D) Tetrapods
34) The cephalochordates possess an atrium that is used to filter microscopic food particles out of the water. ⊚ ⊚
true false
35) Compare the characteristics of mammals and birds, noting the similarities and differences between the groups. Why don't we consider mammals and birds closely related with a common ancestor, since they are both "warm-blooded"?
36)
The position of mammals in evolution is best described as
A) they arose from mammal-like reptiles in the Jurassic but remained small and insignificant while dinosaurs dominated the land. B) they were among the first animals to live on land and their diversity is greater than all living things known. C) they dominate life in the sea. D) All of the choices are correct. E) mammals gave rise to birds.
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37)
The four defining characteristics of chordates are A) a dorsal hollow nerve cord, a notochord, bilateral symmetry, and mammary glands. B) pharyngeal pouches, a dorsal nerve cord, a notochord, and a postanal tail. C) segmentation, a dorsal hollow nerve cord, pharyngeal pouches, and an amniotic egg. D) a well-developed coelom, pharyngeal pouches, a notochord, and jaws. E) bilateral symmetry, segmentation, a well-developed coelom, and limbs.
38)
The duckbill platypus is different than most mammals because it A) is "cold-blooded." B) doesn't give birth, but lays eggs. C) All of the choices are correct. D) lacks hair. E) doesn't secrete milk.
39)
Which feature is found in the bony fish but not in the cartilaginous fish? A) swim bladder B) endothermy C) scales D) lateral linesystem for detecting prey E) ectothermy
40)
The most successful mammals belong to the marsupials group. ⊚ ⊚
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41)
In some chordates, the _______ is (are) replaced by ________. A) gill arches; pharyngeal pouches B) pharyngeal pouches; gills C) a vertebral column; notochord D) notochord; a dorsal hollow nerve cord E) dorsal hollow nerve cord; a ventral solid nerve cord
42) What is the main reason that mammals underwent adaptive radiation after the demise of the dinosaurs? A) They had an"inner need" to become better suited to their environment. B) No answer choice is correct. C) They had to adapt in order to physically survive the ice age. D) The mammals hadlittle competition so it was easier for them to evolve into the niches thatwere once occupied by the dinosaurs.
43) are
Placental mammals that are predacious meat eaters with large and conical-shaped canines
A) cetaceans. B) carnivores. C) proboscidea. D) chiroptera.
44)
Which of the following features were required for the the evolution of the amphibians?
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A) notochord,vertebrae, jaws, bony skeleton, lungs and amniotic eggs B) notochord,vertebrae, jaws, bony skeleton, lungs and 4 limbs C) notochord,vertebrae, jaws, cartilaginous skeleton, lungs and 4 limbs D) notochord, mammaryglands, jaws, bony skeleton, lungs and 4 limbs
45)
Which of these is NOT one of the characteristics of a vertebrate? A) closed circulation B) coelom C) radial symmetry D) extreme cephalization E) segmentation
46)
Mammals are different from birds in all these characteristics EXCEPT A) mammary glands. B) young born alive. C) hair. D) constant body temperature.
47)
The following are differences between amphibians and reptiles EXCEPT
A) amphibians have smooth non-scaly skin, whereas reptiles are covered with scales and their skin is dry. B) all reptilesrespire by the use of lungs, while amphibians use small lungs supplemented bycutaneous respiration. C) reptiles are ectothermic, while amphibians are endothermic. D) amphibian eggs are laid in water, but reptiles do not require water for reproduction.
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48)
The organ of nutrition used in fetal development in the most successful mammals is the A) egg. B) placenta. C) mammary gland. D) pouch. E) marsupium.
49)
Which of these characteristics first developed in reptiles? A) four-legged body B) amniotic egg C) scales on skin D) skull and vertebral column E) animals living completely on land
50) Based on molecular data and skull features, what reptile(s) has an independent lineage from all other reptiles? A) turtles B) lizards andcrocodiles have independent lineages C) crocodiles D) snakes E) lizards
51)
A notochord is
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A) replaced by the nerve cord during development. B) a strip of cartilage that forms a back and tail in all vertebrates. C) All of the choices are correct. D) a stiff dorsal supporting rod that is replaced by the vertebral column during development. E) a stiff ventral supporting rod.
52) Which feature would have given the jawed fish an evolutionary advantage over the jawless fish when it came time to hunt for food? A) The evolution ofan ectothermic lifestyle so they could regulate their body temperature basedupon the environment. B) The evolution ofjaws from the gill slits that would enable them to bite more efficiently. C) Gills that would increase the efficiency of their breathing. D) Acartilaginousendoskeleton that would provide for more power whileswimming. E) A skin that is nonscaly that also allows for an increased respirationability.
53)
Which of the following statements best describes the jawless fishes? A) Vertebrates thathave scales and are ectothermic. B) Ectotherms thathave a smooth nonscaly skin. C) Endotherms that have a smooth nonscaly skin. D) Ectotherms thathave a bony skeleton.
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54) The circulatory pathways of vertebrates are pictured. Briefly differentiate between the pathways and identify the pathways found in: ● amphibians and reptiles ● fishes ● some reptiles, birds and mammals. Pathway A Pathway B Pathway C
55) Lungless salamanders lack lungs and breathe through their skins after they lose their gills. You would expect lungless salamanders to
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A) be larger than most salamanders. B) be restricted to smaller and/or thinner body plans. C) prefer drier habitats. D) prefer stagnant water.
56)
The vertebrates without jaws include A) eels. B) rays. C) turtles. D) lampreys.
57)
Which of the following groups had made their appearance during the Ordovician period? A) reptiles and mammals B) jawed fish and amphibians C) jawless and jawed fish D) amphibians and reptiles E) All of thesegroups had appeared by the Ordovician period.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 29_14e_Mader 1) B 2) D 3) B 4) E 5) D 6) D 7) TRUE 8) D 9) B 10) D 11) C 12) E 13) FALSE 14) D 15) C 16) A 17) D 18) B 19) E 21) C 24) D 25) D 26) E 27) B 28) TRUE 29) D Version 1
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30) E 32) A 33) C 34) TRUE 36) A 37) B 38) B 39) A 40) FALSE 41) B 42) D 43) B 44) B 45) C 46) D 47) C 48) B 49) B 50) A 51) D 52) B 53) B 55) B 56) D 57) C
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CHAPTER 30 1)
What were the major disadvantages of our early ancestors becoming bipedal? A) Decrease in speed and mobility. B) Decreased protection of the abdominal region. C) Increasedpredation by faster predators. D) Lower backproblems developed.
2)
Which species shows the first solid evidence of bipedalism? A) Sahelanthropustchadensis B) Homohabilis C) Ardipithecusramidus D) Australopithecus afarensis
3) toes.
Apes walk on their feet and knuckles. The apes with opposable thumbs have opposable ⊚ ⊚
true false
4) The early evolution of higher apes and early ancestors of modern humans most closely resembles
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A) a complex bush with many branches and perhaps as many as ten species of hominins 2 million years ago. B) two streams, Australopithecus and Homo, that merge into one lineage leading to humans. C) two main trunks leading to apes or humans, and where each newly advanced species of Homo immediately eliminated any coexisting hominids. D) a straight-line vine with one main trunk and many unsuccessful short branches, with only one or two forms coexisting at any one time. E) a many-branched tree with all modern forms extending back relatively unchanged until reaching the common "missing link" at an origin about 33 million years ago.
5) Which of the following statements best describes the replacement model for the evolution of early humans? A) Modern humansevolved from archaic humans in Africa and then migrated to Asia and Europe. B) Modern humansevolved from archaic humans in Asia and then migrated to Africa and Europe. C) Modern humans evolved from Neanderthals in Europe and then migrated toAsia. D) Modern humans evolved from archaic humans in Africa, Asia and Europesimultaneously. E) Modern humans evolved from apes in Africa and then migrated to Asia andEurope.
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6) The most widely accepted model for the evolution of modern humans is pictured here. What is this model called?
A) Hardy-Weinberg B) Multiregional continuity C) ReplacementModel D) Out-of-Africa andReplacement Model E) Out-of-Africa
7)
The evolutionary trends in primates include all of the following EXCEPT A) stereoscopic vision. B) reduced reproductive rate. C) a rounded, protruding face. D) mobile limbs. E) large, complex brain.
8) Australopithecines were apelike above the waist and humanoid below the waist. This is an example of
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A) mosaic evolution. B) multiregional continuity. C) None of the choices are correct. D) quadripedalism.
9)
Which European species is believed to have evolved from Homo ergaster? A) Homoerectus B) Homosapiens C) Australopithecus africanus D) Homo heidelbergensis E) Homofloresiensis
10) The fossil called Lucy is a member of the species ________ that lived over 3 million years ago. A) Proconsul B) Homo erectus C) Australopithecus africanus D) Australopithecus afarensis E) Homo habilis
11)
Compare the features of Ardi with those of Lucy.
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12) The main features that place Homo habilis in the genus Homo rather than Australopithecus are A) advanced use of language and total carnivorous diet. B) hand grip, extensive use of tools, and house-building. C) brain size,dentition, and tool use. D) human facial appearance and lack of hair. E) care of young andaltruistic behavior.
13) Which of the following homonidspecies demonstrated bipedalism but still spent time living in the trees? A) Dryopithecus B) Australopithecus africanus C) Ardipithecus ramidus D) Homohabilis E) Australopithecus afarensis
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14)
14.1) On the phylogenetic tree of primate evolution, where do you find the first primates to diverge from the common ancestor of the primates?
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A) No. 7 B) No. 6 C) No. 4 D) No. 5 E) No. 1
14.2) Where on this phylogenetic tree of primate evolution do you find the evolution of humans and species very closely related to humans? A) No. 5 B) No. 4 C) No. 2 D) No. 3 E) No. 1
14.3) Where on this phylogenetic tree of primate evolution do you find evolution of the hominines? A) No. 2 B) No. 3 C) No. 4 D) No. 5 E) No. 1
14.4) Where on this phylogenetic tree of primate evolution do you find evolution of the anthropoids?
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A) No. 2 B) No. 4 C) No. 3 D) No. 5 E) No. 6
14.5) Where on this phylogenetic tree of primate evolution do you find evolution of the hominids? A) No. 4 B) No. 2 C) No. 1 D) No. 5 E) No. 3
15) The most likely common ancestor of Homo sapiens, ‘Denisovans,” and Homo neanderthalensis was A) Homo naledi. B) Homo floresiensis. C) Homo erectus. D) Homo heidelbergensis.
16) Sometimes people misunderstand evolution and state that "man comes from monkeys." A more accurate explanation of human evolution would be
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A) humans and monkeys are biologically identical. B) humans and monkeys share a common ancestor. C) evolution leads toward more perfect forms and humans therefore came after modern monkeys. D) monkeys have evolved less than humans.
17)
Prosimians include A) lemurs. B) baboons. C) gibbons. D) No answer choice is correct. E) All of the answer choices are correct.
18)
The stone tools and the dentition of Homo habilis indicate that early humans were A) strictly carnivores. B) strictly herbivores. C) strictly scavengers. D) omnivores that could either scavenge or hunt for meat.
19)
Which species of Homo is most closely related to the Australopithecines? A) ergaster B) sapiens C) erectus D) habilis
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20) It is proposed that Cro-Magnons were responsible for the extinction of many large mammals during the Pleistocene epoch. How could this feat have been accomplished? A) Cro-Magnon man was the first species of hominids to hunt in groups.This would have increased their chance of killing larger animals. B) Cro-Magnon man wasthe first species of hominid to use fire. This would have increased theirsuccess during hunting. C) Cro-Magnon man had an increase in tool technology that enabled them to killanimals from a distance. D) Cro-Magnon man was the most efficient bipedal species. They would havebeen able to run after prey species more efficiently than any of theirpredecessors.
21)
Which two species likely coexisted and interbred with early Homo sapiens? A) Denisovans and Neanderthals B) Homo erectus and Homo heidelbergensis C) Homo floresiensis and Homo erectus D) Denisovans and Homo erectus
22)
Which features enabled Homo erectus to be successful in Asia? A) They were able to control fire. B) All of these made Homo erectus successful. C) Higher degree of intellectual abilities. D) They were able to incorporate meat into their diet.
23) Identify which of the following scenarios is most probable for the evolution of members of genus Homo.
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A) Australopithecus afarensis gave rise to Homo habilis who gaverise to Homo ergaster who gave rise to Homo erectus B) Australopithecus afarensis gave rise to Homo erectus who gaverise to Homo ergaster who gave rise to Homo habilis C) Ardipithecusramidis gave rise to Homo habilis who gave rise to Homoergaster who gave rise to Homo erectus D) Australopithecus afarensis gave rise to Homo habilis who gaverise to Homo sapiens who gave rise to Homo erectus
24)
Old World monkeys have a prehensile tail and a flattened nose. ⊚ ⊚
true false
25) Explain how becoming a more bipedal organism increased the chances of survival among the genus Homo.
26)
Which species is believed to have been the first ones to develop stone tool technology? A) Neanderthal man B) Cro-Magnon man C) Homo erectus D) Homo habilis
27)
The reduced reproductive rate in primate evolution involves
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A) All of the choices are correct. B) lengthy gestation periods with one birth at a time. C) extended life spans. D) a reduction in the number of offspring.
28)
What are the advantages of bipedalism? A) Would allow the individual to spot danger further away. B) Allows the handsto be free for tool use. C) All of these areadvantages of bipedalism. D) Would have allowed males to forage for food more efficiently. E) Enables an adultto carry an offspring easier.
29)
All of the following are characteristics of primates EXCEPT the A) opposablethumb. B) well-developedbrain. C) three-dimensionalbinocular vision. D) rapid postnatal maturation. E) five long dexterousdigits on hands and feet.
30)
Which of the following is NOT an anthropoid? A) lemur B) chimpanzee C) New World monkey D) human
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31)
All early hominids walk upright. ⊚ ⊚
32)
true false
Fossils are considered to belong to the genus Homo if which of the following is true? A) The brain size is 600cc or larger. B) The jaw and teeth are human like. C) Tool use is evident. D) All of the choices are characteristics of this group
33)
Which group of primates has the closest evolutionary relatedness to the lemurs? A) Tarsiers B) Gibbons C) Old WorldMonkeys D) Gorillas E) Chimpanzees
34) A major development in the evolution of primates is stereoscopic vision. This development is associated with A) All of the choices are correct. B) eyes in front of the head. C) a binocular field of vision. D) a decline in the importance of smell.
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35)
The probable transitional link between the early hominids and the monkeys is A) Australopithecus afarensis. B) Australopithecus africanus. C) Proconsul. D) Homo erectus. E) Homo habilis.
36)
The earliest fossils of archaic humans known to have produced tools are A) Proconsul. B) Homo ergaster. C) Homo erectus. D) Australopithecus. E) Homo habilis.
37)
Which two species are believed to have evolved from Homo ergaster? A) Homoerectus & Homo rudolfensis B) Homorudolfensis & Homo floresiensis C) Homoerectus & Homo floresiensis D) Homo habilis & Cro Magnon man
38)
What were the tools of Cro-Magnon man made from?
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A) wood that had been hardened in a fire to increase its strength B) metal C) stone D) wood E) No answer choice is correct.
39)
A shortened snout and a relatively flat face are associated with A) bilateral symmetry and aquatic reproduction. B) a decline in the importance of vision and an increase in reliance on smell. C) a decline in the importance of smell and an increase in reliance on vision. D) a terrestrial life style.
40) In which geographic region does the "Replacement Model" propose that modern humans arose? A) Asia B) Europe C) Africa, Asia andEurope simultaneously D) Africa E) None of thesechoices.
41) All primates have thumbs, but only Old World monkeys, great apes, and humans have truly opposable thumbs. ⊚ ⊚
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42) Explain how mitochondrial DNA studies of Africans and Europeans support the replacement model for the evolution of modern humans.
43)
The evolution of genus Homo began about A) 7 MYA (million years ago). B) 2.0 MYA (million years ago). C) 4.6 BYA (billion years ago). D) 55 MYA (million years ago).
44)
Modern humans are A) hominids. B) anthropoids. C) All of the choices apply to humans. D) primates.
45) The proposed advantages of bipedalism, which characterizes hominin evolution, include making it easier to A) All of these arecorrect. B) travel and move about. C) carry food back to their camp or their young. D) carry their young from place to place. E) collect food from overhead.
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46) In what order did these organisms diverge from the lineage of the common ancestral primate? A) gibbons, lemurs, tarsiers, H. habilis, monkeys, H. neandertalensis, hominins B) prosimians, monkeys, gibbons, orangutans, gorillas and chimpanzees, hominins C) H. neandertalensis, H. ergaster, H. habilis, gorillas and chimpanzees, hominins D) monkeys, gibbons, prosimians, orangutans, H. habilis, H. ergaster, humans
47) Explain the features that would have enabled Homo ergaster to have migrated out of Africa.
48)
Most researchers believed that modern humans evolved from a common ancestor of A) Australopithecus afarensis. B) Proconsul. C) Homo ergaster. D) Australopithecus africanus. E) Homo erectus.
49) People often refer to chimpanzees as monkeys. What characteristic(s) do chimpanzees lack that monkeys have?
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A) binocular vision B) nails C) a tail D) protruding noses
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 30_14e_Mader 1) D 2) C 3) TRUE 4) A 5) A 6) D 7) C 8) A 9) D 10) D 12) C 13) C 14) Section Break 14.1) B 14.2) E 14.3) A 14.4) D 14.5) E 15) D 16) B 17) A 18) D 19) D 20) C 21) A 22) B Version 1
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23) A 24) FALSE 26) D 27) A 28) C 29) D 30) A 31) FALSE 32) D 33) A 34) A 35) C 36) D 37) C 38) C 39) C 40) D 41) TRUE 43) B 44) C 45) A 46) B 48) C 49) C
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CHAPTER 31 1) What tissue type is characterized by being a transport medium for nutrients and also includes blood and adipose tissues? A) epithelial tissue B) nervous tissue C) muscle tissue D) connective tissue
2)
Which of the following features would be found in the epidermis layer of the skin?
A) composed ofcollagen fibers, cells produce keratin, contain melanocytes, offers a layer ofprotection against bacteria B) stratified squamous epithelium, cells produce keratin, contains a large amount of adipose tissue, offers a layer of protection against bacteria C) stratifiedcuboidal epithelium, cells produce keratin, contain melanocytes, offers a layerof protection against bacteria D) stratifiedsquamous epithelium, cells produce keratin, contain melanocytes, offers a layerof protection against bacteria E) stratified squamous epithelium, contains specialized nerve endings, offers alayer of protection against injury
3) Which of the following skin derivatives is incorrectly matched with the organism on which it is found? A) mammals - hair and nails B) amphibians - epidermal scales C) birds - feathers D) fishes - bony scales
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4)
Which is most closely associated with negative feedback? A) As a woman goes into labor, hormones are secreted that stimulate the process. B) As the temperature falls in a house, the heater comes on. C) As you continue to turn a faucet handle, more water flows out of it. D) A child cuts his finger and the blood clotting process begins.
5) Stratified epithelium is composed of multiple layers of flattened cells that can often be found in the lining of blood vessels. ⊚ ⊚
6)
true false
Skeletal muscle
A) is not under voluntary control. B) has bands ofactin and myosin filaments perpendicular to the length of the cell that producecontractions. C) is found in the walls of the intestines and stomach. D) is made of extremely small cells with one nucleus.
7)
An average person has about _____ neurons. A) 2 million B) 1 billion C) 1 trillion D) 100,000
8)
Which of the following is the most complex level of organization?
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A) cardiovascularsystem B) brain C) heart D) lungs E) columnarepithelium
9)
_______ is responsible for receiving, interpreting, and producing a response to stimuli. A) Muscle tissue B) Nervous tissue C) Connective tissue D) Epithelial tissue
10) List the four primary tissue types found in the human body and indicate their main function(s).
11) At one time it was thought to be impossible to operate within the body cavities. Then the Canadian doctor, William Beaumont, operated on a patient with a gunshot wound to the stomach. A few decades later came breakthroughs in heart operations and transplants. The 1990s was called the decade of the brain because of the extensive research being done on how the brain functions. Name the body cavities associated with these breakthroughs in order.
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A) abdominal-dorsal-thoracic. B) dorsal-thoracic-abdominal. C) abdominal-thoracic-dorsal. D) thoracic-abdominal-dorsal. E) thoracic-dorsal-abdominal.
12)
Which statement is NOT true about nervous tissue? A) Nerve fibers are long axons covered by a myelin sheath. B) Neuroglia support and protect neurons. C) Cells in the nervous system that conduct electrical impulses are called neurons. D) Neuroglia provide neurons with nutrients and keep them free of cellular debris. E) The dendrites carry electrical impulses away from the cell body of the neuron.
13)
Homeostasis is ultimately controlled by the nervous system. ⊚ ⊚
true false
14) Which type of tissues would be damaged if someone was in a car accident and they had their kidney ruptured due to the force of the impact? A) squamous epithelium, cuboidal epithelium, fibrocartilage and neuraltissues B) squamousepithelium, cuboidal epithelium, smooth muscleand neural tissues C) squamous epithelium, cuboidal epithelium, skeletal muscleand neuraltissues D) pseudostratified ciliated epithelium, cuboidal epithelium, smoothmuscleand neural tissues
15)
Which organ system does NOT play a role in acquiring materials and energy?
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A) digestive B) skeletal C) muscular D) cardiovascular
16)
________ make(s) up more than half the volume of the brain. A) Neuroglia B) Hyaline cartilage C) Neurons D) Nerves E) Intercalated disks
17)
What type of fiber accounts for the strength of various connective tissues? A) collagen B) actin C) elastic D) reticular
18)
What is the body's response to a rise in temperature above 37.0 degrees C?
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A) Blood vessels in the skin begin to dilate which increases blood flow to the surface of the skin. Environmental variables will help decrease the temperature of the blood. The nervous system will deactivatethe sweat glands to help decrease body temperature. B) Blood vessels in the skin begin to dilate which increases blood flow to the surface of the skin. Environmental variables will help decrease the temperature of the blood. The heart rate decreases in an attempt to slow down blood flow. C) Blood vessels in the skin begin to dilate which decreases blood flow to the surface of the skin. Environmental variables will help decrease the temperature of the blood. The heart rate increases in an attempt to slow down blood flow. D) Blood vessels in the skin begin to constrict which increases blood flow to the surface of the skin. Environmental variables will help decrease the temperature of the blood. The nervous system also activates the sweat glands which help decrease temperature. E) Blood vessels in the skin begin to dilate which increases blood flow to the surface of the skin. Environmental variables will help decrease the temperature of the blood. The nervous system also activates the sweat glands which help decrease temperature.
19) List the major life process that each of the following organ systems carries out: urinary, lymphatic, nervous, and cardiovascular.
20)
What type of tissue lines body cavities and covers body surfaces? A) muscle tissue B) epithelial tissue C) connective tissue D) nervous tissue
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21) A thin layer of protein, within epithelial tissue, that anchors the epithelium to the extracellular matrix is the A) hyaline cartilage. B) plasma membrane. C) neuroglia. D) basement membrane. E) compact bone.
22) The level of carbon dioxide in the blood is monitored by nerve tissue. If you exercise strenuously, the increase in cellular respiration consumes oxygen from the blood and produces surplus carbon dioxide removed in the blood. Since this physical exertion requires faster breathing to replenish oxygen supplies and carry away carbon dioxide, the carbon dioxide sensors result in signals from the brain to increase breathing rate. After you have rested, and carbon dioxide levels are back to normal, your breathing rate decreases too. This is an example of A) a negative feedback loop that stimulates a response similar to the stimulus. B) the dynamic interplay between events that tend to change the internal environment and events that tend to keep it the same. C) a positive feedback loop that stimulates a response opposite to the stimulus. D) a response to a sensory impulse that causes a muscle or gland to react. E) the dynamic interplay between events that tend to change the internal environment and events that tend to increase the changes.
23) If you wash your skin and hair several times a day, you will soon have dry skin that easily cracks and bleeds because the oils you have removed are necessary to keep the skin supple. This oil is
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A) salty sweat secreted by sweat glands. B) sebum secreted by sebaceous glands. C) sebum secreted by sweat glands. D) lymph secreted by lymphatic ducts. E) pili secreted by arrectors.
24)
Which organs are located in the ventral cavity of the body? A) stomach, liver, heart and bladder B) All of the choices are correct. C) stomach, liver,heart and spinal cord D) small intestine,brain, lungs and kidneys E) None of the choices are correct.
25)
All of the following are functions of connective tissue EXCEPT to A) store energy as fat. B) fill spaces. C) produce blood cells. D) bind and support body parts. E) line body cavities and cover surfaces.
26) In lactation, the more a baby suckles his mother's breast to obtain milk, the more milk is produced. This is an example of a
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A) None of these answers is correct. B) negative feedback loop. C) neutral feedback loop. D) positive feedback loop. E) stimulating feedback loop.
27) During fertilization in humans, sperm reach the egg by traveling through the vagina, uterus, and fallopian tubes. In which body cavity does the sperm locate the egg ? A) pleural cavity B) pelvic cavity C) abdominal cavity D) pericardial cavity E) dorsal body cavity (cerebral-spinal)
28)
What type of tissue contracts and accounts for movements of organs or the entire body? A) epithelial tissue B) connective tissue C) muscle tissue D) nervous tissue
29)
The epidermis consists of A) collagen fibers. B) adipose tissue. C) elastic fibers. D) stratified squamous epithelial cells.
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30) Which of the following functions performed by the skin would be lost or seriously compromised if someone suffered a severe burn over most of the body? A) prevention of massive and continuous infection from invasion by external bacteria, viruses, and parasites B) All of these are vital functions of the skin and would be compromised. C) conversion, in the presence of ultraviolet light, of precursor molecules to vitamin D D) prevention of heat and water loss E) production of sweat that evaporates and cools the body when it is overheating
31)
Which of the following statements about epithelial tissue is NOT true?
A) Epithelium lining the respiratory tract contains cilia that move particles along its surface. B) Simple epithelia have only a single layer of cells. C) Columnar epithelium is cube-shaped with the nucleus near the upper surface of the cells. D) Squamous epithelium is composed of flattened cells. E) Pseudostratified epithelium looks like it has multiple layers, but all the cells are attached to the basement membrane.
32)
The correct sequence of increasing organizational complexity is A) cell, organ, organ system, tissue, organism. B) tissue, cell, organ system, organism, organ. C) organ, tissue, cell, organ system, organism. D) organism, tissue, cell, organ system, organ. E) cell, tissue, organ, organ system, organism.
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33)
Which statement about connective tissue is NOT true? A) Fibrous connective tissue includes bone and cartilage. B) Adipose tissue provides insulation and padding in organs such as the skin. C) Loose connective tissue contains fibroblasts, different types of fiber, and a nonliving
matrix. D) Blood is a connective tissue that contains a fluid matrix.
34)
Snakes, frogs, squirrels, and humans are all classified as being homeothermic. ⊚ ⊚
35)
true false
Name the labeled cavities in the diagram at right and indicate an organ found in each.
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36)
Homeostasis is the
A) the acquisition, transformation and use of energy. B) dynamic interplay between events that tend to change the external environment and events that tend to keep it the same. C) maintenance of normal internal conditions by means of self-regulating mechanisms. D) negative feedback loop that stimulates a response similar to the stimulus.
37)
The ________ body cavity will contain the heart, lungs and spleen. A) ventral B) abdominopelvic C) abdominal D) cranial E) dorsal
38) Exocrine glands that secrete products onto the surface of the skin through ducts are classified as _____ tissue. A) nervous B) connective C) muscle D) epithelial
39)
What is most likely to occur when an individual is exposed to UV radiation?
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A) The melanocyteswill produce melanin, the melanin is distributed into epidermal cells, asteroid is converted into vitamin D and stem cells can mutate leading tocancer. B) The melanin will produce melanocytes, the melanocytes are then distributedinto epidermal cells, a steroid is converted into vitamin D and stem cells canmutate leading to cancer. C) The melanocytes will produce melanin, the melanin is distributed into dermalcells, a steroid is converted into vitamin D and stem cells can mutate leadingto cancer. D) The melanocyteswill produce melanin, the melanin is distributed into epidermal cells, vitaminD is converted into a steroidand stem cells can mutate leading tocancer.
40)
What are the main features of melanocytes?
A) Melanocytes are found in the epidermis and they produce melanin when exposed to UV light. The melanin is then distributed to epidermal cells. B) Melanocytes are found in the hypodermis and they produce melanin when exposed to UV light. The melanin is then distributed to epidermal cells. C) Melanocytes are found in the dermis and they produce melanin when exposed to UV light. The melanin is then distributed to epidermal cells. D) Melanocytes are found in the epidermis and they produce melanin when exposed to UV light. The melanin is then distributed to dermal cells.
41)
Which is NOT a structure seen in compact bone? A) cylindrical structural units called osteons (Haversian systems) B) central canals containing blood vessels and nerves C) bony bars and plates with irregular spaces between them D) thin extensions of bone cells within canaliculi E) osteocytes located within lacunae
42) Which of the following systems / organs are incorrectly matched with its role in maintaining homeostasis?
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A) Respiratory system - transports oxygen and carbon dioxide to the cellsthroughout the body. B) Digestive system -provides nutrient molecules to the cells. C) Liver - removes excess glycogen from the blood and stores it as glucose. D) All of the systems / organs listed are correctly matched with their role in maintaining homeostasis. E) Pancreas secretes insulin when the body has an elevated blood glucoselevel.
43) Which of the following statements concerning homeostasis in body temperature is NOT true? The body reacts to A) cold by contracting skeletal muscles in shivering. B) heat by stimulating the sweat glands. C) heat by constricting the blood vessels in the skin. D) All of the statements are not true. E) cold by rerouting blood away from the skin.
44) Which of the following structures begins in the dermis and extends to the surface of the epidermis? A) hair follicles B) free nerve endings C) blood vessels D) nerve fibers
45) Describe the problems that are associated with the loss of the epidermal layer of skin due to a burn.
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46) What type of tissue is striated, contains cells with one nucleus, and is not under voluntary control? A) skeletal muscle B) smooth muscle C) cardiac muscle D) nervous tissue
47)
White blood cells fight infection by A) transporting large amounts of oxygen to the infected area. B) engulfing infectious pathogens and making antibodies. C) producing antibiotics that will kill bacteria and fungi. D) increasing platelet production and forming a plug to seal off the area.
48) The production of red blood cells is regulated by a feedback loop involving erythropoietin. In non-disease states, the production of red blood cells is equal to the destruction of red blood cells, thus maintaining sufficient red blood cells to deliver adequate oxygen to the body's tissues. However, when the number of red blood cells decrease and oxygen levels are low, erythropoietin is produced by the liver and kidneys to increase the production of red blood cells. Is this a positive or negative feedback loop? Explain your answer.
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49)
Which of the following is a function of the skin? A) thermoregulation B) protecting underlying body parts from physical trauma C) All of the answer choices are functions of the skin D) preventing water loss E) monitor touch, pressure, temperature, and pain
50)
What type of tissue is bone and cartilage? A) muscle tissue B) connective tissue C) epithelial tissue D) nervous tissue
51)
Both the neural and endocrine systems play a role in coordinating body activities. ⊚ ⊚
52)
true false
Which statement is NOT true about cartilage?
A) The matrix of cartilage includes calcium salts. B) Adult bodies possess structures that are made up of cartilage such as the nose, ear, and pads between the vertebrae in the backbone. C) The matrix of cartilage is both solid and flexible. D) Cartilage cells are located in small spaces called lacunae. E) The human fetal skeleton is made up of cartilage.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 31_14e_Mader 1) D 2) D 3) B 4) B 5) FALSE 6) B 7) C 8) A 9) B 11) C 12) E 13) TRUE 14) B 15) D 16) A 17) A 18) E 20) B 21) D 22) B 23) B 24) A 25) E 26) D 27) B 28) C Version 1
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29) D 30) B 31) C 32) E 33) A 34) FALSE 36) C 37) A 38) D 39) A 40) A 41) C 42) C 43) C 44) A 46) C 47) B 49) C 50) B 51) TRUE 52) A
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CHAPTER 32 1)
What two forces control the movement of fluid through the capillary wall? A) the oxygen and nitrogen concentration B) blood pressure and osmotic pressure C) the thickness of the capillary wall and the number of cilia D) the number of veins and arteries
2)
Which structure does blood pass through immediately before it enters the left ventricle? A) semilunar valve B) aorta C) vena cava D) atrioventricular valve E) left atrium
3) Briefly discuss the cardiac cycle. Include the time of the phases and what occurs in the atria and the ventricles. Define and use the terms systole and diastole.
4) During capillary exchange, what will occur if the blood pressure at the arterial end were to decrease and become lower than the osmotic pressure?
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A) Water will leave the blood stream allowing oxygen and carbon dioxide todiffuse out of the blood stream. B) Oxygen and carbon dioxide will increase their rate of diffusion into theinterstitial fluid. C) Nothing will occurbecause the blood pressure does not impact the movement of gases. D) Water would not leave the blood stream which could disrupt the movement ofoxygen and carbon dioxide through the membrane.
5)
What is the main difference between blood and hemolymph? A) Hemolymph is always contained within the blood vessels while blood fills thebody
cavity. B) Hemolymph is nevercarried in blood vessels. C) Blood is always contained within the blood vessels while hemolymph fills the body cavity. D) Blood will transport oxygen and nutrients while hemolymph will only transport oxygen.
6) Which of the following features enable organisms like planarian to respire and exchange nutrients? A) closed circulatorysystem B) an open circulatorysystem C) coelomic fluid D) a trilobedgastrovascular cavity
7)
Which of the following has a four-chambered heart like humans?
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A) birds B) crocodiles C) birds and crocodiles D) All of the choices are correct. E) amphibians
8) Why is an Rh factor conflict usually a problem only for the second child and subsequent children born to the Rh negative mother? When it is a problem for the first child?
9) Which organism has hemoglobin located in the fluid portion of the blood, giving it a red appearance? A) bird B) grasshopper C) human D) flatworm E) earthworm
10)
Veins primarily depend upon which of the following forces to return blood to the heart? A) skeletal muscle contraction B) All of the choices apply. C) valves to prevent blood back flow D) force of blood entering from the arteries
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11) Describe what is occurring at tissue and systemlevel as someone is developing atherosclerosis.
12) The leading cause of preventable death in the United States is cardiovascular disease. Which of the following are lifestyle modifications that would lower a person's risk of CVD? A) lower fat intake B) not smoking C) All of the choices are means of lowering risk for CVD. D) lose weight
13) The vessels in our circulatory system that allow molecules to diffuse across their walls to tissues are A) veins. B) venules. C) lymph vessels. D) arteries. E) capillaries.
14)
Identify the correct flow of blood through a one-circuit system.
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A) ventricle - gill capillaries - systemic capillaries - sinus venosus -atrium B) ventricle -systemic capillaries - gill capillaries - sinus venosus - atrium C) ventricle - gillcapillaries - systemic capillaries - atrium - sinus venosus D) ventricle - pulmonary capillaries - atrium - aorta -systemiccapillaries
15) Sphincter muscles regulate the opening and closing of the capillary beds, directing the flow of blood to different areas of the body depending on the body's needs. ⊚ ⊚
16)
true false
Which of these white blood cells are phagocytic? A) lymphocytes B) neutrophils C) both lymphocytes and macrophages D) both neutrophils and macrophages E) macrophages
17) Platelets will release prothrombin activator at the site of an injury to initiate the clotting sequence. ⊚ ⊚
true false
18) Why is a person with type O blood a universal donor? Consider the antibodies in the plasma of a type O person in your discussion.
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19) Use the word bank to identify the labeled structures on this diagram of the heart: apex, pulmonary trunk, aorta, right atrium, inferior vena cava, left pulmonary veins, right ventricle, left atrium, left subclavian artery, right pulmonary veins, left ventricle, right coronary artery, left common carotid artery, left cardiac vein, brachiocephalic artery, right pulmonary artery, vena cana, left pulmonary artery.
a. _______ j. _______ b. _______ k. _______ c. _______ l. _______ d. _______ m. ______ e. _______ n. _______ f. _______ o. _______ g. _______ p. _______ h. _______ q. _______ Version 1
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i. _______ r. _______
20)
Which group of vertebrates will lack a pulmonary circuit? A) birds B) frogs C) mammals D) annelids E) fish
21)
Which type of blood component is involved in the initiation of clotting? A) platelets B) plasma proteins C) white blood cells D) red blood cells
22)
Identify the correct pathway of blood flow through a two-circuit pathway.
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A) ventricle -systemic circuit - right atrium ventricle- pulmonary circuit - left atrium B) right atrium -ventricle - systemic circuit left atrium - ventricle- pulmonary circuit C) ventricle - systemic circuit - leftatrium ventricle- pulmonary circuit - right atrium D) ventricle - gill capillaries - aorta - systemic circuit - atrium E) right atrium - systemic circuit - ventricle left atrium - pulmonary circuit - ventricle
23)
When you step on a cockroach or smash a fly, the blood appears colorless because
A) it does not contain hemoglobin or any other respiratory pigment. B) there are no cells in the hemolymph. C) the blood is actually a colorless hemolymph that carries oxygen on molecules other than reddish hemoglobin. D) the blood is enclosed in a closed circulatory system.
24)
The pacemaker of the cardiac conduction system is the A) Purkinje fibers. B) medulla oblongata. C) sinoatrial node. D) atrioventricular node.
25)
Which kind of white blood cell is involved in the production of antibodies?
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A) eosinophils B) macrophage C) B lymphocytes D) monocytes E) neutrophils
26)
Which would you find in the heart of a fish? A) two atria and a partially divided ventricle B) one atrium and one ventricle C) one atrium and two ventricles D) two atria and two ventricles E) two atria and one ventricle
27) Which of the followingfeatures are found in invertebrates that enable them to exchange nutrients and gases without the use of a circulatory system? A) All of thesefeatures enable invertebrates to exchange gases and nutrients without acirculatory system. B) exposure of thecells to the external or internal environment C) trilobedgastrovascular cavity D) coelomic fluidwithin the body cavity
28) As the heart contracts it forces the blood out with a great deal of force. Damage to which blood vessel will result in a forceful spraying of blood?
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A) vein B) artery C) capillary D) Damage to any ofthe blood vessels will result in a forceful spray of blood. E) arteriole
29)
The hemocoel is an open space in an insect that contains blood outside of the vessels. ⊚ ⊚
true false
30) The circulatory system is the only way by which an animal can supply oxygen and nutrients to its cells, or remove waste materials from the cells. ⊚ ⊚
true false
31) Describe the events that occur in the clotting of blood by choosing the correct sequence of statements that outlines the process. 1. Platelets and injured tissue release prothrombin activator. 2. The activated fragments join end-to-end, forming long threads. 3. Platelets clump at the sight of puncture and partially seal the leak. 4. Fibrin threads wind around the platelet plug in the damaged area and provide a framework for the clot. 5. Thrombin, acting as an enzyme, severs two amino acid chains (activated fragments) from each fibrinogen molecule. 6. Prothrombin activator converts prothrombin to thrombin. 7. Red blood cells are trapped within the fibrin framework forming a clot. Version 1
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A) Sequence: 7, 4, 5, 2, 3, 1, 6 B) Sequence: 1, 2, 6, 7, 4, 3, 5 C) Sequence: 4, 5, 6, 7, 3, 2, 1 D) Sequence: 3, 1, 6, 5, 2, 4, 7
32) Which of the following organisms will contain hemolymph as the fluid of their circulatory system? A) grasshopper B) flatworm C) amphibian D) earthworm
33)
What would you find in the heart of most reptiles? A) two atria and one ventricle B) two atria and a partially divided ventricle C) one atrium and one ventricle D) two atria and two ventricles E) one atrium and two ventricles
34)
The coronary arteries are important because they serve the A) urinary tract. B) intestine and liver. C) brain. D) lungs. E) heart.
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35)
Which statement is NOT true about red blood cells? A) Their normal life span is about 120 days. B) There are about 6 million red blood cells per cubic millimeter of whole blood. C) They are mainly produced in the liver. D) Hemoglobin is a protein that binds oxygen loosely to transport it. E) They are biconcave disks that lack nuclei when mature.
36) Which of the following cardiovascular diseases is caused by a narrowing of the arteries causing the heart to work harder when pumping? A) hypertension B) stroke C) heart attack D) All of the answer choices are caused by a narrowing of the arteries.
37)
A person with B positive blood will have A) B antigens, antibodies to B, and Rh antigens. B) A antigens, antibodies to B, and Rh antigens. C) B antigens, antibodies to A, and no Rh antigens. D) B antigens, antibodies to A, and Rh antigens. E) B antibodies, antibodies to A, and Rh antigens.
38) Open circulatory systems are characterized by the presence of hemolymph as seen in annelids. ⊚ ⊚ Version 1
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39) A heart murmur is a distortion of the heartbeat due to blood flowing back through a valve that should be closed. If the heart sound is lub-dub-ssshhh, the most likely cause is a failure of the A) semilunar valves. B) sinoatrial node to signal contraction. C) AV node to signal contraction. D) mitral (bicuspid) valve. E) atrioventricular valves.
40)
Cnidaria and flatworms exchange gases and remove wastes by way of their A) respiratory and excretory systems. B) gastrovascular cavities. C) moist skin surfaces. D) closed circulatory systems. E) open circulatory systems.
41) Identify the correct sequence of events for the formation of a blood clot. a.Platelets get lodged at the site of vessel injury and partially seal the leak. b.Thrombin forms long threads known as fibrin. c.The fibrin framework will trap red blood cells in the clot to seal the leak. d.Prothrombin activator converts prothrombin into thrombin. e.Plateletsrelease prothrombin activator. f.Fibrin winds around the platelet plug forming a framework for the clot.
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A) e – d – b – f – c- a B) f – c - d - a - e- b C) a – e – d – b – f – c D) a– b – f – c - e -d
42) The structure that absorbs nutrients from the small intestines and delivers the nutrients in the blood to the liver is the A) renal vein. B) hepatic portal vein. C) hepatic portal artery. D) None of the choices are correct.
43) The SA node initiates the heartbeat by automatically sending out impulses causing the atria to contract. ⊚ ⊚
44)
true false
What would you find in the heart of a human? A) two atria and one ventricle B) one atrium and two ventricles C) two atria and a partially divided ventricle D) one atrium and one ventricle E) two atria and two ventricles
45)
What type of organism has a closed circulatory system?
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A) hydra B) sea star C) clam D) annelid
46)
What would you find in the heart of an amphibian? A) two atria and two ventricles B) two atria and a partially divided ventricle C) two atria and one ventricle D) one atrium and one ventricle E) one atrium and two ventricles
47)
After leaving our left ventricle, blood next passes through the A) aorta. B) vena cava. C) semilunar valve. D) atrioventricular valve. E) left atrium.
48)
What would cause you to believe that someone has a heart murmur? A) irregular heart beats B) low blood pressure C) irregular heart sounds instead of sharp lub-dub sounds D) an irregular ECG
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49)
The human heart is composed of A) endocardium. B) cardiac muscle fibers. C) muscle fibers called myocardium. D) an outermembranous sac called the pericardium. E) All of the choices are correct.
50)
Which structure does blood pass through immediately before entering the right atrium? A) atrioventricular valve B) vena cava C) aorta D) semilunar valve E) left atrium
51)
All capillary beds have blood running to them at all times. ⊚ ⊚
true false
52) Describe why there is no Rh factor conflict if the mother is Rh positive and the father is Rh negative.
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53)
Major cardiovascular disorders include all of the following EXCEPT A) stroke. B) hypertension. C) diabetes. D) atherosclerosis.
54)
Which valve is responsible for preventing the backflow of blood into the right ventricle? A) pulmonary semilunar B) aortic valve C) tricuspid D) mitral E) bicuspid
55)
What is the main difference between an open circulatory system and a closed one?
A) An open systemwill have the blood leave the blood vessels and dump into the hemocoel whilethe closed one will retain the blood within the system. B) An open systemwill keep the blood within the blood vessels while the closed one will dump theblood into the hemocoel. C) An open systemwill have the blood leave the blood vessels and dump into the lungs or gillswhile the closed one will retain the blood within the system. D) An open system will have the blood leave the blood vessels and dump into the lungs or gillswhile the closed one will retain the blood within the hemocoel. E) The blood within a closed circulatory system does not containhemoglobin.
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56) "Artery" and "vein" are defined by whether they carry blood to the heart or away from the heart.If they were defined by whether they carried oxygenated or deoxygenated blood, we would have to change the name(s) of A) none, since the aorta and vena cava do not have "artery" and "vein" in their name. B) the hepatic and renal systems; they would have to be switched. C) the hepatic portal vein to a hepatic portal artery. D) the pulmonary artery and vein; they would have to be switched. E) the coronary artery and vein; they would have to be switched.
57)
Which description best fits that of an open circulatory system?
A) The heart pumps blood across gills and then into tissue spaces that areenlarged into saclike sinuses. B) Gases diffuseacross a cutaneous membrane and then move into tissue spaces that are enlargedinto saclike sinuses. C) The heart pumps hemolymph into tissue spaces that route the fluid across thegills for gas exchange. D) The heart pumps hemolymph into tissue spaces that are enlarged into saclikesinuses.
58)
What is the correct order of blood flow through the cardiovascular system? A) Capillaries - arterioles – artery – heart - venules – veins B) Heart – arterioles – artery – capillary – venules – veins C) Heart – artery – arterioles – capillaries – venules – veins D) Heart – artery – arterioles – capillaries – veins – venules E) Capillaries –venules – veins - heart – arterioles – artery
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 32_14e_Mader 1) B 2) D 4) D 5) C 6) D 7) C 9) E 10) A 12) C 13) E 14) A 15) TRUE 16) D 17) TRUE 20) E 21) A 22) A 23) A 24) C 25) C 26) B 27) A 28) B 29) TRUE 30) FALSE 31) D Version 1
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32) A 33) B 34) E 35) C 36) A 37) D 38) FALSE 39) E 40) B 41) C 42) B 43) TRUE 44) E 45) D 46) C 47) C 48) C 49) E 50) B 51) FALSE 53) C 54) A 55) A 56) D 57) D 58) C
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CHAPTER 33 1) Which line of defense would be the most severely impacted if a person was to suffer 3rd degree burns across the majority of their lower body? A) adaptiveimmunity B) production of T& B cells C) the production ofcomplements and interferons D) innateimmunity
2)
Which antibody class is most prevalent in the bloodstream? A) IgE B) IgD C) IgM D) IgG E) IgA
3) Adaptive defenses in the body takes longer to become functional, since cells must be recruited to produce specific responses against the antigens. ⊚ ⊚
4)
true false
Which of the following T cells are mismatched with their functions? A) All of the choices are correctly matched with their functions. B) Memory T cells - mediate apoptosis C) Cytotoxic T cells - destroy non-self proteins D) Helper T cells - secrete cytokines to control immune responses
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5)
What specific part of the antibody determines the class of the antibody? A) constant region B) antigen binding sites C) variable region of the light chain and heavy chain D) None of these are correct. E) All of these are correct.
6)
The first line of defense against invading microorganisms is nonspecific. ⊚ ⊚
true false
7) ________ are of the same type since they are derived from the same B cell and are against a specific antigen. A) Allergen antibodies B) Agglutination factors C) Monoclonal antibodies D) Autoimmune agents E) Immunosuppressant agents
8)
The lymphoid organ in which B lymphocytes are produced is the A) thymus gland. B) spleen. C) All of theseproduce B lymphocytes. D) red bone marrow. E) lymph nodes.
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9)
A failure in the lymphatic valves located in the left subclavian vein may result in A) an increase in theamount of lipoproteins in the bloodstream. B) a decrease offluid in the left arm and left ventral chest wall. C) edema in the leftarm and left ventral chest wall. D) an overproductionof T cells within the thymus.
10)
Which of the following treatments can benefit from the use of monoclonal antibodies? A) Detection andtreatment of various forms of breast cancer. B) Diagnosis ofrespiratory tract infections in young children. C) Determining if awoman is pregnant or not. D) All of thesetreatments can benefit from the use of monoclonal antibodies.
11) Which kind of T cell is most important in the removal of cancer cells or virally infected cells from the body? A) cytotoxic T cells B) memory T cells C) helper T cells D) suppressor T cells
12) Interferon is a protein that binds to the receptors of non-infected cells causing them to produce substances that interfere with viral replication. ⊚ ⊚
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13) Which of the following immunodeficiency disorders could possibly be treated or prevented by gene therapy during the embryological stage? A) AIDS B) None of thesedisorders can be treated by gene therapy during the embryological stage. C) X-linkedagammaglobulinemia (XLA) D) Asthma
14) Rejection of transplanted tissue is treated with immunosuppressive drugs that prevent the activity of B cells. ⊚ ⊚
15)
true false
Antigens are
A) foreign molecules to which white blood cells can bind through specialized receptors, leading to the proliferation of lymphocytes. B) chemicals that enhance all lymphatic organs. C) proteins produced by plasma cells that stimulate the clotting of blood. D) proteins produced by virus-infected cells that stimulate an immune response.
16)
Which of the following substances have NOT been identified as a PAMP?
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A) carbohydrates onthe cell walls of bacteria B) double-strandedRNA C) lipids on the cellwalls of bacteria D) proteins on the cell wall ofbacteria E) double-strandedDNA
17) Which kind of T cells regulate the immune response by producing stimulatory lymphokines? A) helper T cells (T H) B) cytotoxic T cells (T C) C) suppressor T cells (T S) D) memory T cells (T M)
18)
The clonal selection theory states that
A) when a B or T cell is stimulated by encountering the correct antigen, it divides to form a clone of cells that will respond to the same antigen. B) when a B or T cell is stimulated by encountering the correct antibody, it divides to form a clone of cells that will respond to the same antibody. C) all B cells are exact clones of each other. D) all T cells are exact clones of each other.
19)
Which of the following is not a function of the lymphatic system? A) Produce anddistribute lymphocytes. B) Absorb excesstissue fluid and return it to the blood stream. C) Absorb fats andtransport them to the bloodstream. D) All of these arefunctions of the lymphatic system.
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20) As lymph passes through the sinuses of lymph nodes, it is filtered by ______ that engulf debris and pathogens. A) macrophages B) B cells C) neutrophils D) T cells
21)
All of the following are outward signs of inflammation EXCEPT A) swelling. B) pain. C) redness. D) lower temperature.
22) Which of the following autoimmune diseases can potentially be avoided by preventing or completely curing a Streptococcus infection? A) Systemic lupus B) HIV C) Rheumaticfever D) Rheumatoidarthritis
23)
Maturation of B cells occurs in the
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A) Peyer's patches. B) thymus. C) bone marrow. D) lymph nodes. E) spleen.
24) The cell responsible for producing a rapid antibody response against a foreign protein when it is encountered years after the first encounter is a A) memory T cell. B) killer T cell. C) memory B cell. D) plasma cell.
25)
What are the potential symptoms of a person who is suffering from anaphylactic shock?
A) All of the answer choices are potential symptoms of a person who is suffering from anaphylactic shock. B) The smooth muscle of the bronchi may constrict. C) The release of amassive amount of histamine within the blood stream. D) An increaseddilation of the capillaries that can lower the blood pressure.
26) Allergies are hypersensitivities to substances that ordinarily would do no harm to the body. ⊚ ⊚
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27) If a person is bitten by a highly venomous snake and receives a dose of venom sufficient to kill several people, that person does not have the time to build up his immunity over the next week to neutralize the venom. However, hospitals carry "antivenin" made from injecting horses with small-to-larger dosages of snake venom, and then harvesting the antibodies from the horse plasma. This is an example of A) receiving high levels of interferon. B) developing an inflammatory response to increase the IgG production. C) receiving high levels of complement. D) active immunity. E) passive immunity.
28) Which of the following symptoms can help you recognize a person who is undergoing anaphylactic shock? A) A gradual allergicresponse after a person is exposed to the allergen that can produce thefollowing symptoms: drop in blood pressure, increased dilation of thecapillaries, constriction of the bronchi and the inability to breathe. B) None of these are the symptoms of aperson undergoing anaphylactic shock. C) Immediate allergic response after a person is exposed to the allergen that can produce the following symptoms: drop in blood pressure, increased dilation of the capillaries, constriction of the bronchi and the inability to breathe. D) Immediate allergicresponse after a person is exposed to the allergen that can produce thefollowing symptoms: an increase in blood pressure, increased dilation of thecapillaries, constriction of the bronchi and the inability to breathe. E) Immediate allergicresponse after a person is exposed to the allergen that can produce thefollowing symptoms: drop in blood pressure, decreased dilation of thecapillaries, constriction of the bronchi and the inability to breathe.
29)
Which of the following pathogens would our innate immunity help protect us against?
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A) viruses B) fungi C) bacteria D) Innate immunitywould defend us against all of these pathogens.
30)
The activities of macrophages
A) are part of thenonspecific response against disease and stimulate phagocytic neutrophils. B) stimulate lymphocytes to carry on specific immunity. C) do none of thesethings. D) stimulate phagocytic neutrophils. E) are part of the nonspecific response against disease.
31)
Anaphylactic shock A) All of these are true. B) is an immediate allergic reaction. C) is characterized by a sudden and life-threatening drop in blood pressure. D) None of these aretrue. E) occurs when the allergen has entered the bloodstream.
32) Which of the following definitions best describes the role of pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMP's)?
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A) PAMP's are molecules on a pathogen that can be recognized by the host organism's immune system. B) PAMP's are molecules on the host immune system that cause it to attackitself as in autoimmune disorders. C) PAMP's aremolecules on a host cell that can be recognized by the pathogen's attacksystem. D) PAMP's are molecules on a pathogen that can be recognized by other pathogensso they can exchange genetic material with each other.
33)
Complement and interferon are specific kinds of antibodies. ⊚ ⊚
34)
true false
Immediate allergic responses are caused by ______ antibodies. A) IgA B) IgG C) IgE D) IgD E) IgM
35)
Identify the precautions and concerns that are required in order to do a tissue transplant.
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36)
Which is NOT part of a description of an antibody molecule? A) contains a constant and a variable region on each chain B) contains an antigen-binding site on each arm C) contains two light chains and two heavy chains D) forms an X-shaped protein molecule
37)
Most of the lymph fluid is returned to the bloodstream through the thoracic duct to the A) right subclavianvein. B) left subclavianvein. C) right ventricle of the heart. D) right atrium of the heart. E) left atrium of the heart.
38)
Which of the following characterize B cells? A) They function in antibody mediated immunity against bacteria. B) None of thechoices characterize B cells. C) They are manufactured and mature in the bone marrow. D) All of the choices characterize B cells. E) They directly recognize antigens and undergo clonal selection.
39) Innate immunity is more likely to play a role in defending the body against which of the following invaders?
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A) microbial pathogens B) chicken pox C) small pox virus D) measles
40)
The problem with tissue rejection following organ transplants
A) is due to the tissues being recognized as nonself, and therefore being treated as a foreign substance. B) can be reduced if the organ donor is a close relative with very similar tissue proteins. C) can be reduced by administering immunosuppressive drugs. D) All of the choices are correct. E) None oftheseare correct.
41) Which of the following organisms is helping scientists better understand the evolution of the immune system because they have a unique feature during their lifecycle? A) archaea B) B cells C) cellular slimemolds D) viruses E) planaria
42) PhysicianEdward Jenner promoted the use of cowpox, a harmless pathogen related to the dangeroussmallpox, as a vaccination to provide patients immunity from future smallpox epidemics. This is an example of
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A) active immunity. B) developing high levels of interferon although Jenner did not realize these diseases were viral. C) passive immunity. D) an inflammatory response that decreased the IgE production and increased T cells. E) developing high levels of complement.
43) The reason that cellular slime molds are being used to study the evolution of the immune system is because A) cells within thesingle-celled slug will perform specialized function similar to that ofneutrophils and macrophages. B) cells within themulticellular slug will perform specialized function similar to that of redblood cells. C) cells within themulticellular slug will perform specialized function similar to that ofneutrophils and macrophages. D) the slug is capable of preventing pathogens from being able to infectit. E) none of thesereasons are why cellular slime molds are being used for studying the evolutionof theimmune system.
44) Innate immunity is a defense system that becomes fully functional after it has undergone a period of exposure to various pathogens. ⊚ ⊚
45)
true false
Which of these statements is NOT true about complement?
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A) Complement is acomplex of plasma proteins that are activated in the presence of pathogens. B) Complement forms holes in bacterial membranes and allows fluid and salts to enter a bacterial cell. C) Complement is required for formation of antigen-antibody complexes. D) Complement attracts phagocytes to the bacterial cell and increases its likelihood of being engulfed.
46) Compare the primary and secondary antibody titre responses during immunization by drawing a graph of "Plasma Antibody Concentration" vs. "Time." Indicate on the graph the time of first and second exposure. The y-axis may be quantified as low to high and need not report specific number quantities.
47) Which type of immunity is characterized by the production of receptors that will bind to specific antigens? A) adaptive B) neither adaptiveor innate C) both adaptive and innate D) innate
48)
Natural killer (NK) cells that destroy virus-infected cells and cancer cells are
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A) neutrophils. B) large granular lymphocytes. C) eosinophils. D) suppressor T cells (T S).
49)
The presence of antibodies in a newborn baby is most often due to A) exposure of the baby to antigens after birth. B) immunity developed after birth. C) natural immunity developed in the baby before birth. D) antibodies that crossed the placenta from the mother's blood. E) antibodies areinherited from the father.
50)
Cytokines A) inhibit production of T and B cells. B) are soluble proteins that act as signaling molecules to stimulate white blood cells. C) repel neutrophils from the site of infection. D) are secreted by macrophages to stimulate the replication of cancer cells.
51)
Which statement is NOT true of the T cells?
A) T cells require presentation of antigens by macrophages before they are able to recognize the antigen. B) T cells change into plasma cells and produce antibodies when stimulated. C) T cells mature in the thymus. D) T cells carry receptor molecules on their cell surfaces.
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52) Use the word bank to identify the labeled structures of the antibody in the diagram: antigen, antigen-binding site, variable region, constant region, light chain, heavy chain. Briefly describe the structure.
53)
Maturation of T cells occurs in the A) lymph nodes. B) thymus. C) spleen. D) bone marrow. E) Peyer's patches.
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54)
All of the following are functions of the lymphatic system EXCEPT
A) production, maintenance, and distribution of lymphocytes. B) absorbing excess tissue fluids and returning them to the bloodstream. C) defending the body against pathogens. D) transportinggases, nutrients, and metabolic wastes to parts of the body which have exchangeboundaries with the external environment.
55)
Which of the following statements about B cells is true?
A) B cells develop and mature in the bone marrow. B) B cells carry receptor molecules on their cell surfaces. C) B cells change into plasma cells after encountering an antigen and then produce antibodies. D) Some B cells become memory cells. E) All of these are true.
56) Explain the underlying cause and consequences of an individual that develops severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID).
57)
Nonspecific defenses against disease include all of the following EXCEPT
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A) skin and mucous membranes. B) complement. C) inflammatory reaction. D) natural killer cells. E) antibodies.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 33_14e_Mader 1) D 2) D 3) TRUE 4) B 5) A 6) TRUE 7) C 8) D 9) C 10) D 11) A 12) TRUE 13) C 14) FALSE 15) A 16) E 17) A 18) A 19) D 20) A 21) D 22) C 23) C 24) C 25) A 26) TRUE Version 1
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27) E 28) C 29) D 30) A 31) A 32) A 33) FALSE 34) C 36) D 37) B 38) D 39) A 40) D 41) C 42) A 43) C 44) FALSE 45) C 47) A 48) B 49) D 50) B 51) B 53) B 54) D 55) E 57) E
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CHAPTER 34 1)
Microvilli serve to A) produce antibodies. B) absorb nutrients. C) secrete bile. D) synthesize vitamins.
2) When the liver malfunctions and there is an abnormally large amount of bilirubin in the blood it can cause A) gallstones. B) the rolling stones. C) kidney stones. D) jaundice. E) cirrhosis of the liver.
3)
Food mixes with gastric juices in the stomach to form a thick creamy mass called chyme. ⊚ ⊚
4)
true false
Which of the following is the best example of a healthy and balanced meal? A) Bacon, 2 eggs over easy, and white toast B) A bowl of chili, topped with cheese and crackers C) 16 oz. sirloin steak, mashed potatoes and gravy, and corn on the cob with butter D) A turkey sandwich on whole-grain bread, apple, and 6 oz. of skim milk E) All of these meals are equally balanced and healthy.
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5) In the first step of starch digestion, starch is converted to _______, which is then digested to ________ by the enzyme maltase. A) amino acids; proteins B) maltose; glucose C) fat; glycerol and 3 fatty acids D) glucose; maltose
6)
Which animals would be classified as continuous feeders? A) worms, clams, and crayfish B) clams, baleenwhales, and oysters C) oysters, hummingbirds and planarian D) clams, crickets,and dolphins E) None of these groups are all continuous feeders.
7)
Cholesterol is a necessary component of the plasma membrane of all animal cells. ⊚ ⊚
8)
true false
Which of the following is NOT an accessory organ of digestion? A) appendix B) pancreas C) salivary glands D) gall bladder
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9)
Which of the following is NOT an accessory organ of digestion? A) pancreas B) gall bladder C) salivary glands D) appendix
10)
The digestive juices found in the stomach include A) insulin and bile. B) pancreatic and salivary amylase. C) pepsin and hydrochloric acid. D) sodium bicarbonate and hydrochloric acid. E) trypsin and maltase.
11)
Which is NOT true of human salivary glands? A) They produce an enzyme to begin the digestion of starch. B) They can become inflamed and cause tonsillitis. C) There are three pairs that open by ducts into the mouth. D) The production of saliva aids in the mechanical digestion process.
12)
In humans, digestion of starches begins in the
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A) mouth. B) duodenum. C) stomach. D) esophagus. E) large intestine.
13) Carbohydrate digestion begins in the mouth and continues on into the small intestines. Explain the steps of carbohydrate digestion, including in your discussion why salivary amylase is nonfunctional in the stomach?
14) Which represents the proper sequence of human teeth from the front to the back in onehalf of the jaw? A) 2 incisors, 1canine, 2 premolars, 3 molars B) 2 incisors, 2 canines, 2 premolars, 3 molars C) 2 incisors, 1 canine, 3 premolars, 3 molars D) 3 incisors, 1 canine, 2 premolars, 2 molars E) 2 incisors, 1 canine, 3 premolars, 2 molars
15)
Chyme is produced in the
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A) stomach. B) large intestine. C) esophagus. D) small intestine.
16) Which mineral is especially important for women to incorporate into their diet if they are menstruating? A) magnesium B) iron C) aluminum D) sodium
17) Identify the correct sequence of events for the digestion of starch? a. Salivary amylase is produced by the salivary glands b. Starch digestion begins in the mouth c. Starch digestion begins in the stomach d. Starch is converted into maltose e. Starch is converted into glycogen f. Maltose is digested into glucose in the small intestine g. Glucose is absorbed in the small intestine h. Glucose is absorbed in the large intestine A) a - b - e - f - g B) a - b - d -f - g C) a - c - d - f - g D) b - c - a - g - h E) a - c - d - f -h
18)
An example of an animal with an incomplete gut is a(n)
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A) squid. B) grasshopper. C) human. D) earthworm. E) planarian.
19)
Protein digestion occurs in the A) stomach and small intestine. B) mouth and large intestine. C) stomach, esophagus, and small intestine. D) mouth, stomach, and small intestine. E) small intestine, large intestine, and mouth.
20)
Which list of features is associated with the small intestine? A) duodenum, bile and villi B) cecum, bile and lacteals C) lacteals, appendix and villi D) duodenum, chymeand villi
21)
The function of the human stomach is A) absorption of iron to build hemoglobin for red blood cells. B) promotion of bacterial fermentation. C) to produce highly basic fluids to kill most bacteria. D) storage of food and mixing with digestive fluids to continue chemical digestion. E) to begin the absorption of most small food molecules, especially sugars and alcohol.
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22) What possible dietarycomplications could a person develop if they had their pancreas removed? A) They would not produce the pancreatic enzyme trypsin. This would prevent them from breaking down carbohydrates into glucose which could lead to a decrease in the availability of energy in their body. B) They would not produce the pancreatic enzyme trypsin.This would prevent them from breaking down proteins into amino acids which could lead to complications in repairing muscle tissue. C) They would not produce the enzyme pancreatic amylase. This would prevent them from breaking down proteins into amino acids which could lead to complications in repairing muscle tissue. D) There would be an overproduction of the enzyme trypsin. This would cause an increased rate of protein digestion that could result in the muscle cells being destroyed by the individuals own body.
23) List, in order, the organs that food will go through as it starts in the mouth and comes out the anus.
24)
The tubular structure that moves food by peristalsis from the mouth to the stomach is the A) tongue. B) esophagus. C) trachea. D) epiglottis. E) glottis.
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25) Which digestive enzyme is produced in the pancreas and is responsible for the breakdown of protein into peptides? A) peptidase B) pancreaticamylase C) trypsin D) maltase
26)
The structural features of the small intestine that enable the absorption of nutrients are the A) capillary beds. B) rugae. C) appendix. D) microvilli.
27) Which of the following human digestive enzymes is NOT correctly matched to its substrate? A) maltase - maltose B) pepsin - protein C) lipase - fat D) salivary amylase - starch E) trypsin - nucleic acid
28)
Which of the following is considered an accessory gland in the digestive system?
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A) stomach B) esophagus C) pancreas D) cecum E) pharynx
29) An unhealthy diet can lead to obesity in individuals which can result in cardiovascular disease and type 2 diabetes. ⊚ ⊚
30)
true false
Which of the following statements about the tongue is true? A) The tongue mixes food with saliva and assists in swallowing. B) The tongue consists of striated muscle under voluntary control. C) All of the choices are correct. D) The tongue can detect taste, touch, and pressure.
31)
In the body, glucose is stored in the liver as A) fat. B) glycogen. C) starch. D) protein. E) amino acids.
32)
Which of the following statements about the colon is NOT true?
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A) Feces consists of about 25% water and 75% solids that are mainly bacteria from the intestinal tract. B) Insufficient absorption of water can result in diarrhea that may be life-threatening. C) The last section of the colon is the rectum, which terminates in the anus. D) Cells in the walls of the large intestine absorb vitamin K that is produced by bacteria resident in the colon. E) The colon is active in water absorption, removing about 95% of the water that enters it and returning it to the bloodstream.
33)
What are the potential consequences if a person has their gallbladder removed?
A) Their body will not be able to store the excess bile produced by the liver. This means that they will have a decreased ability to emulsify the fats found within the stomach. B) Their body will not be able to store the excess bile produced by the liver. This means that they will have a decreased ability to emulsify the fats found within the small intestine. C) The liver will stop producing bile because it won't have any place to store it. This means that they will have a decreased ability to emulsify the fats found within the small intestine. D) The liver will stop producing bile because it won't have any place to store it. This means that they will have a decreased ability to digest the proteinsfound within the small intestine.
34)
Which of the following groups contains all minerals? A) zinc, iron, calciumand NAD + B) iron, magnesium,riboflavin and calcium C) calcium, magnesium, niacin and iron D) zinc, glucose, ironand magnesium E) iron, calcium, magnesium and zinc
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35) ________ is contained in pancreatic juice to neutralize the acidity of chyme from the stomach. A) Pancreatic amylase B) Sodium bicarbonate C) Bile D) Trypsin
36) A diet high in omega-3 fatty acids obtained from various types of fishis recommended to reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease. ⊚ ⊚
true false
37) If a person has a diet high in saturated fats, ________ molecules can carry cholesterol from the liver to cells and to the arterial walls, whereas ________ transports cholesterol from the cells to the liver, where it is converted to bile salts which can modulate cardiovascular function. A) LDL; insulin B) HDL; LDL C) LDL; HDL D) HDL; trans-fats
38)
The liver functions in digestion by A) converting hemoglobin to bilirubin and biliverdin. B) destroying old red blood cells. C) producing blood proteins. D) producing bile. E) producing urea.
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39)
Food is prevented from entering the trachea by the A) sphincter muscle. B) epiglottis. C) pharynx. D) glottis. E) larynx.
40)
Which of the following statements concerning dietary protein is true?
A) Dietary protein is digested to nucleic acids, which are used to make DNA. B) It is not possible for vegetarians to have a balanced diet with adequate protein intake. C) Growth in children may be delayed or stunted if essential amino acids are not present in their diets. D) Protein should supply the bulk of our dietary calories. E) The average American eats about half the recommended protein.
41)
All of the following statements are true about squid EXCEPT A) the mouth has jaws that bite off pieces of prey with the help of a toothy radula. B) squid are continuous feeders. C) the squid's tentacles seize its prey. D) digestion occurs in the stomach and a cecum. E) squids are molluscs.
42)
A diet that is lacking in certain minerals such as iron can lead to osteoporosis. ⊚ ⊚
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43)
All of the following statements are true about the clam's digestion EXCEPT A) the clam is a continuous feeder. B) small food particles are collected on the gills and moved by cilia to the mouth. C) the clam has a single opening for the entry of food and the exit of digestive wastes. D) the clam is a filter feeder.
44) If an individual was interested in eating a healthy breakfast that would provide them with energy for the entire day the breakfast should include which of the following foods? A) Scrambled eggs and refried beans. B) All of the choiceswould provide energy for the entire day. C) Whole grain cereal with 4 ounces of milk. D) Two pieces of whole grain toast made with refined wheat flour. E) Two slices of bacon and one scrambled egg.
45) _____ acts on proteins to produce peptides which are later broken down into _____ in the small intestine. A) Maltase; glucose B) Pepsin; amino acids C) Salivary amylase; amino acids D) Pepsin; fattyacids
46)
The finger-like projections along the surface of the small intestines are called
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A) microvilli. B) capillaries. C) mucosa. D) appendices. E) lacteals.
47)
Which foods contain the eight essential amino acids? A) pork, fish and corn B) butter, beef and chicken C) fish, cheese and fruits D) potatoes, beansand fish E) chicken, beef andcheese
48)
The dentition of omnivores is specialized for ______ in their diets. A) plants only B) bacteria only C) both plants andmeat D) meat only
49)
The function of canine teeth in humans is A) crushing. B) grinding. C) tearing. D) biting. E) shearing.
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50)
Which features are found in organisms that have an incomplete digestive tract? A) digestive enzymes,esophagusand diffusion of nutrients B) crop, digestiveenzymes and diffusion of nutrients C) gizzard, salivaryamylase and a pharynx D) pharynx, digestiveenzymes and diffusion of nutrients
51) Diabetes mellitus, which is indicated by high levels of blood glucose that have spilled over into the urine, is decreasing among the citizens of the United States. ⊚ ⊚
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52)
Identify the labeled structures of the digestive tract on the human body in the picture.
A: B: C: D: E: F: G:
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H: I: J: K:
53) Briefly describe the differences in the digestive tracts of animals with an incomplete and a complete gut.
54) The hepatic portal vein brings blood to the liver from the ________ and as the blood passes through the liver it is ________. A) the small intestine; detoxified B) the mouth; acidified C) the pancreas; oxygenated D) the lungs; deoxygenated
55) Because of the tooth structure and diet, which of the following would be classified as a carnivore?
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A) rat B) raccoon C) dolphin D) human E) brown bear
56)
Which of the following is NOT a function of bile salts? A) aid the enzyme lipase in the digestion of fat molecules B) act as emulsifiers C) production of vitamin D D) needed for fat digestion
57)
The small intestines receive A) None of these arecorrect. B) bile from the liver and gall bladder. C) pancreatic juices from the pancreas. D) chyme from the stomach. E) All of these are correct.
58)
A ruminant is A) a herbivore with extra stomach separations. B) an omnivore withextra stomach separations. C) a carnivore with extra stomach separations. D) a herbivore with no extra digestive specializations. E) a carnivore with no extra digestive specializations.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 34_14e_Mader 1) B 2) D 3) TRUE 4) D 5) B 6) B 7) TRUE 8) A 9) D 10) C 11) B 12) A 14) A 15) A 16) B 17) B 18) E 19) A 20) A 21) D 22) B 24) B 25) C 26) D 27) E 28) C Version 1
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29) TRUE 30) C 31) B 32) A 33) B 34) E 35) B 36) TRUE 37) C 38) D 39) B 40) C 41) B 42) FALSE 43) C 44) C 45) B 46) A 47) E 48) C 49) C 50) D 51) FALSE 54) A 55) C 56) C 57) E 58) A
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CHAPTER 35 1) Which of the following respiratory disorders might be cured in the future through the use of gene therapy? A) pulmonary fibrosis B) cystic fibrosis C) asthma D) lung cancer E) emphysema
2) As food is swallowed it may come into contact with air in which of the following respiratory organs? A) larynx B) trachea C) pharynx D) bronchi E) nasal cavity
3) Animals must continually acquire oxygen and release carbon dioxide because they do not have a storage area for gases. ⊚ ⊚
4)
true false
Disorders of the upper respiratory tract consist of all of the following except for
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A) asthma. B) strep throat. C) a runny nose. D) the common cold. E) pharyngitis.
5)
The earthworm is a terrestrial animal that uses its ________ in respiration. A) gills B) lungs C) parapodia and body surface D) body surface E) tracheoles
6) If an individual wanted to hold their breath underwater for a long period of time they would breath very rapidly prior to the dive. What does this accomplish? A) They would increase the amount of CO2 intheir bloodstream which would cause them to temporarily stop breathing. B) They would decrease the amount of CO2 intheir bloodstream which would cause them to temporarily stop breathing. C) They woulddecrease the amount of H + in their bloodstream which would causethem to temporarily stop breathing. D) They wouldincrease the amount of H + in their bloodstream which would causethem to temporarily stop breathing.
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7) Gas exchange takes place by the physical process of diffusion. Use the diagram to describe where diffusion is occurring and what gases are diffusing.
Identify and describe what type of respiration involves the lungs (A) and what type involves the tissue fluids (B). A: _____ Respiration B: _____ Respiration Describe what is occurring, in terms of gaseous exchange, at C, D, E and F. C: _____ D: _____ E: _____ F: _____
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8)
Gills are used in respiration by all of the following aquatic animals EXCEPT A) polychaete worms. B) clams. C) crabs. D) fishes.
9) Identify the correct pathway of an oxygen molecule as it goes from the nose to the alveolus. A) nostril, nasalcavity, larynx, glottis, pharynx, trachea, bronchus, bronchiole, alveoli B) nostril, nasalcavity, pharynx, glottis, larynx, trachea, bronchus, bronchiole, alveoli C) nostril, nasalcavity, pharynx, glottis, larynx, trachea, bronchiole, bronchus, alveoli D) nostril, nasalcavity, glottis, larynx, pharynx,trachea, bronchus, bronchiole,alveoli
10)
Ventilation includes A) illumination. B) expiration. C) inspiration. D) All of these are correct. E) Both inspirationand expiration.
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11)
Which of the following disorder is not associated with the lower respiratory tract? A) pneumonia B) asthma C) pulmonary tuberculosis D) sinus infection E) emphysema
12)
Opercula are A) tentacles on a hydra. B) gills on a lobster. C) gill covers on a fish. D) internal spaces in a planarian used in digestion and respiration. E) extensions of the body wall in polychaete worms.
13) In order to maximize diffusion across the surfaces of a gill, oxygen-rich water flows in the opposite direction of oxygen-poor blood. This concept is called A) partial pressure saturation. B) hemoglobin saturation shift. C) countercurrent flow. D) reverse expiration. E) pneumonectomy.
14)
How is most carbon dioxide transported in the blood?
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A) as bicarbonate ions (HCO 3) B) as gas bubbles of CO 2, just as in carbonated soft drinks C) as carbon compounds and oxygen radicals D) as carbon monoxide E) on the free hemoglobins since they have lost their oxygen in the tissues
15)
Why are homes equipped with CO (carbon monoxide) detectors?
16)
The grasshopper is a terrestrial animal that uses its ________ in respiration. A) tracheae B) parapodia C) gills D) body surface E) lungs
17) With negative pressure breathing, the muscles that move the ribs and diaphragm are distant from the absorptive alveolar surfaces. What difficulty(ies) could occur if the muscles were around each alveolus and had to expand each alveolus to suck in air?
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A) All of the choices are correct. B) Interspersed muscle tissue would take up much space and the lung-muscle volume would have to be much larger. C) Muscle tissue would get in the way of absorption of gases across the air-to-capillary border. D) Since muscle cells only contract and relax, it would be difficult for a few cells to cause alveolar expansion. E) Adding a third tissue to the intimate alveolar-capillary complex would increase the problems with disorders and diseases.
18)
Which features are required for efficient external respiration to take place?
A) The gas exchangeregion must be dry, thin and have a large surface area. B) The gases beingexchanged must be present in a low concentration in order for diffusion tooccur. C) Gas exchange can only occur at a temperature lower than the body temperatureof the organism. D) The gas exchange needs to occur in an aquatic environment in order to beefficient. E) The gas exchangeregion must be moist, thin and have a large surface area.
19)
Oxygen-poor blood becomes oxygen-rich blood in the capillary beds of the A) trachea. B) bronchi. C) larynx. D) alveoli. E) bronchioles.
20) How do insects overcome the inefficiency of their hemolymph flow in taking oxygen to their tissues?
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A) Insects have highly vascularized extensions of their body walls, called parapodia. B) A countercurrentmechanism ensures that the maximum amount of oxygen is absorbed from theenvironment. C) Their respiratory system consists of tracheae, which are tiny air tubes that take oxygen directly to the cells. D) Their bodies are tubular, thus increasing the body surface area where gaseous exchange takes place.
21) A pressurized airplane cabin and an oxygen tent over a patient in a hospital both impact the respiration rate of a person. How do these compare? A) The oxygen tent and the airplane increase the air pressure to increase the PCO 2. B) The oxygen tent increases concentration of O 2 while the airplane maintains total air pressure without changing concentrations. C) The oxygen tent and airplane cabin pressure lowers the partial pressures for normal breathing. D) Both use the same mechanism to force hemoglobin to increase affinity for oxygen.
22)
The exchange of gases between the lungs and the blood occurs by A) active transport. B) diffusion. C) filtration. D) osmosis. E) ionic bonding.
23)
As food is swallowed it is prevented from entering the trachea by the
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A) bronchioles. B) saliva. C) epiglottis. D) larynx. E) pharynx.
24) Explain what happens when carbonic acid associates with carbonic anhydrase and how this can impact the blood pH.
25) When nerve impulses pass to the diaphragm, the diaphragm relaxes and exhalation occurs. ⊚ ⊚
true false
26) Which part of the respiratory system is an air tube held open by a series of C-shaped cartilaginous rings? A) larynx B) pharynx C) bronchioles D) trachea
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27) A disease in which the alveoli are distended and their walls damaged so that surface areas for gas exchange is reduced is A) emphysema. B) bronchitis. C) pulmonary tuberculosis. D) pneumonia.
28)
A lung infection caused by bacteria which become encapsulated in the lungs is A) pneumonia. B) tuberculosis. C) emphysema. D) pulmonary fibrosis. E) rheumatic fever.
29) Common colds are upper respiratory tract infections. Why are vaccinations against the common cold not practical? A) Vaccinations do not work in the upper respiratory tract. B) Vaccines would notwork against the common cold because it is caused by a bacterial infection. C) There are so many different strains of viruses that cause colds it would be impossible to develop a vaccine against all of them. D) Vaccines are verycostly to develop. E) Colds are caused by viruses that cannot be prevented by vaccinations.
30) Explain the correct sequence of structures that a molecule of oxygen will pass through or over as it moves from the nostrils to the alveolus.
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31) Which of these organisms is able to use several body surfaces, such as gills, skin, and lungs, for respiration? A) reptiles B) amphibians C) birds D) None of theseare correct. E) humans
32)
Infection of the primary and secondary bronchi is A) acute bronchitis. B) pneumonia. C) pulmonary tuberculosis. D) emphysema.
33)
Trace the path of an inhaled air molecule in a human being. A) nasal cavity-pharynx-glottis-trachea-larynx-bronchi-bronchioles-alveoli B) nasal cavity-pharynx-glottis-larynx-trachea-bronchioles-bronchi-alveoli C) nasal cavity-pharynx-glottis-larynx-trachea-bronchi-bronchioles-alveoli D) nasal cavity-pharynx-larynx-glottis-trachea-bronchi-bronchioles-alveoli E) nasal cavity-glottis-larynx-trachea-pharynx-bronchi-bronchioles-alveoli
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34)
Which statement is NOT true about the human respiratory system?
A) Food and air both enter the pharynx, presenting a potential danger to respiration. B) The glottis is the passageway through the larynx by which air enters the trachea. C) Air reaching the lungs has been warmed to body temperature by passage through the nose and upper respiratory passageways. D) Cilia and hairs in the nose help to filter out foreign materials in the air. E) The glottis is closed by the forward movement of the soft palate during swallowing.
35) Which of the following increases the surface area available for gas exchange among various organisms? A) tubular body shape, as in annelids B) finely dividedinner lung surface in mammals C) All of these choices increase surface area. D) flattened body, as in planarians E) finely dividedgills in fish
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36)
Identify the labeled structures of the respiratory system in the diagram.
A: _____ B: _____ C: _____ D: _____ E: _____ F: _____ G. _____ H: _____ I: _____
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37) The respiratory center is directly sensitive to the levels of H that CO 2 levels control the breathing rate? Explain your answer.
38)
+
. Could one correctly say
There is unidirectional flow of air for greater absorption of oxygen in A) reptiles. B) amphibians. C) birds. D) mammals.
39)
The iron in a hemoglobin molecule is actually what binds the oxygen. ⊚ ⊚
40)
true false
Explain how carbon dioxide is transported through the bloodstream?
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41) Ventilation causes alveoli of the lungs to have _______ the blood in pulmonary capillaries. A) a lower PO 2 and a higher PCO 2 than B) a higher PO 2 and a lower PCO 2 than C) No answer is correct. D) the same PO 2 and PCO 2 as
42) If a person overdosed on depressant-type drugs that slow down breathing, in what direction would the reaction shift? Explain your answer.
43) In small aquatic animals, such as hydra and planarians, the most common structure used for gas exchange is the
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A) lungs. B) gills. C) body surface. D) cardiovascular system.
44)
Oxygen is transported in blood most efficiently A) by chemical conversion to water. B) as a free oxygen ion or radical. C) by being dissolved in the plasma. D) by combining with carbon dioxide to form bicarbonate ions. E) by combining with hemoglobin.
45)
Identify the correct pairing of respiratory disorders and symptoms.
A) Common cold -sneezing, runny nose and a mild fever. B) Pulmonarytuberculosis - lung cells build tissues around the invading bacterium causingthe elasticity of the lungs to decrease. C) All of the pairings of respiratorydisorders and symptoms are correct. D) Asthma - coughing,wheezing and shortness of breath. E) Pneumonia -bronchi are filled with fluid and pus causing coughing and difficultybreathing.
46) When trying to stimulate breathing, it is better to give a mixture of carbon dioxide and oxygen than only oxygen because
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A) oxygen alone could lead to spontaneous human combustion. B) carbon dioxide and oxygen together exert a greater pressure than an equal amount of oxygen. C) pure oxygen causes you to breathe too rapidly. D) oxygen causes lactic acid buildup, and the change in pH prevents breathing. E) carbon dioxide buildup in the blood stimulates the respiratory center in the brain.
47)
Which statement is correct about how carbon dioxide is carried in the bloodstream?
A) Carbon dioxide enters the bloodstream from the atmosphere. It then combines with water to form carbonic acid but most of it is carried in the form of bicarbonate. B) Carbon dioxide enters the bloodstream from the tissues. It then combines with hemoglobin to form carbaminohemoglobin but most of it is carried in the form of bicarbonate. C) Carbon dioxide enters the bloodstream from the tissues.It then combines with hemoglobin to form bicarbonate ion but most of it is carried in the form of carbaminohemoglobin in the bloodstream. D) Carbon dioxide enters the bloodstream from the tissues. It then combines with hydrogen ions to form bicarbonate ion but most of it is carried in the form of carbaminohemoglobin. E) Carbon dioxide enters the bloodstream from the atmosphere. It then combines with hemoglobin to form carbaminohemoglobin but most of it is carried in the form of bicarbonate.
48)
Which of the following events involves the exchange of gases across a cell membrane? A) Internalrespiration only B) Externalrespiration and internal respiration C) Externalrespiration only D) Ventilationonly E) Ventilation andexternal respiration
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49) Pulmonary tuberculosis in an otherwise healthy individual may indicate a compromised immune system or HIV infection. ⊚ ⊚
true false
50) What upper respiratory tract disorder can be cured through the use of antibiotics that are effective against bacterial infections? A) Strep throat B) Cytstic fibrosis C) Asthma D) Emphysema
51)
Which organisms use negative pressure to move air into the lungs? A) ducks B) iguanas C) All of these usenegative pressure to move air into their lungs. D) mice E) humans
52)
Carbonic anhydrase A) is dissolved in plasma. B) speeds up the conversion of carbonic acid to carbon dioxide and water. C) speeds up the conversion of carbon dioxide to oxygen. D) is a digestive enzyme. E) speeds up the conversion of oxyhemoglobin.
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53)
Which association is NOT correct?
A) Pneumonia - is a viral, bacterial or fungal infection that cause the bronchito fill with pus and fluid B) Lung cancer -symptoms include coughing, shortness of breath and blood in the sputum C) Cystic fibrosis - infectious disease that is caused by the bacterium M.tuberculosis D) Pulmonary fibrosis - fibrous connective tissue builds up in the lungspreventing them from inflating properly E) Emphysema -chronic, incurable lung disorder in which the alveoli distend and the surfacefor gas exchange is reduced
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 35_14e_Mader 1) B 2) C 3) TRUE 4) A 5) D 6) B 8) A 9) B 10) E 11) D 12) C 13) C 14) A 16) A 17) A 18) E 19) D 20) C 21) B 22) B 23) C 25) FALSE 26) D 27) A 28) B 29) C Version 1
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31) B 32) A 33) C 34) E 35) C 38) C 39) TRUE 41) B 43) C 44) E 45) C 46) E 47) B 48) B 49) TRUE 50) A 51) C 52) B 53) C
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CHAPTER 36 1)
Which substance is normally found in the glomerular filtrate but not in urine? A) All arecomponents of glomerular filtrate and urine. B) water C) glucose D) uric acid E) salts
2) Although there is no connection between the female urinary and reproductive tracts, there is a connection between these systems in males because A) urine is produced in the kidneys, but passes through the seminal vesicles for further absorption of water. B) urine is voided from the body through the urethra and the urethra carries sperm during ejaculation. C) both urine and sperm pass through the ureters, which then leads to the urethra. D) urine is produced in the nephrons and sperm is produced in the ureters. Both then pass through the urethra to exit the body.
3) Which hormone from the adrenal cortex of the kidneys will cause the distal convoluted tubules to reabsorb more sodium ions? A) ADH B) renin C) aldosterone D) angiotensin II E) angiotensinogen
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4)
Identify these nitrogenous wastes.
A: _____ B: _____ C: _____
5)
The main nitrogenous waste excreted by terrestrial amphibians and mammals is A) urea. B) uracil. C) uric acid. D) amino acid. E) ammonia.
6)
Beyond maintaining water balance in the blood, the kidneys A) All of the choices are kidney functions. B) maintain blood volume. C) help to maintainthe blood pH. D) aid in regulation of blood pressure.
7)
The overall effect of renin release will be to
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A) decrease hydrogen ion excretion and decrease sodium and bicarbonate ion absorption. B) lower blood pressure. C) increase bloodvolume and pressure. D) lower bloodvolume. E) inhibit aldosterone secretion.
8) If the ureter was blocked due to the development of a tumor preventing the normal flow of urine,which region of the kidney would be impacted first? A) collectingduct B) glomerular capsule C) distal convolutedtubule D) proximalconvoluted tubule E) renal cortex
9)
Nutrient molecules are taken back into the blood from the urinary filtrate by means of A) osmosis. B) tubular reabsorption. C) tubular secretion. D) glomerular filtration.
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10) Three types of nitrogenous wastes formed from the breakdown of protein are pictured in the diagram.
a– Explain the relationship of the water needed to excrete the wastes and the energy required to produce the wastes. b– How is the energy needed to produce the waste and the water needed to eliminate the waste related to the nature of each waste product? c– Tell what types of organism produce each type of waste.
11) Which of the following is NOT a nitrogenous waste product produced by the excretory systems of animals?
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A) bile pigments B) urea C) uric acid D) ammonia
12) When ________ and _________ are broken down excess nitrogen is released that must be eliminated by the excretory system. A) nucleic acids; sulfur B) amino acids; nucleic acids C) proteins; salts D) glucose; fatty acids
13)
Which group has the highest concentration of urea in their body fluids? A) cartilaginous fishes B) marine bony fishes C) freshwater bony fishes D) birds E) reptiles
14) Why is the secretion of uric acid beneficial to organisms that live in hot and dry environments?
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A) Uric acid can be readily reabsorbed by the urinary system so it decreasesthe amount of waste produced by the organism. B) Uric acid has poorsolubility in water so it will become concentrated during excretion as well asbeing relatively nontoxic. C) Uric acid has a high degree of solubility in water so it will becomeconcentrated during excretion as well as being relatively nontoxic. D) Uric acid has poorsolubility in water so it will become concentrated during excretion whichallows the organism to use it as a defense mechanism.
15)
Which of the following excretory structures is used by birds? A) flame cells B) urethra C) cloaca D) nephridia
16)
In what way does caffeine affect the urinary system?
A) Caffeine blocks the actions of ADH causing the glomerular capsuleto reabsorb less water which leads to an increased amount of urine formation. B) Caffeine increases the actions of ADH causing the proximal convoluted tubule to reabsorb less water which leads to an increased amount of urine formation. C) Caffeine blocks the actions ofADH causing the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct to reabsorburine formation. D) Caffeine blocks the actions of ADH causing the proximal convoluted tubule to reabsorb more water which leads to a decreased amount of urine formation. E) Caffeine increases the actions of ADH causing the distal convoluted tubule to reabsorb less water which leads to an increased amount of urine formation.
17)
Excretion is a process in which ____ is (are) removed from the body.
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A) feces B) metabolic wastes C) hormones D) water E) salt
18)
Among aquatic animals, only the blood of ____ is nearly isotonic to seawater. A) marine bony fish B) salamanders C) whales D) cartilaginous fish E) freshwater bony fish
19)
Patients with diabetes mellitus have frequent urination and increased thirst because A) more salt is reabsorbed at the proximal convoluted tubule. B) an increase in sodium ions causes more nerve stimulation and triggers urination. C) more water is driven from the glomerulus to the glomerular capsule than normal. D) less water passes from the glomerulus to the glomerular capsule. E) increased glucose in the urine increases its osmolarity and less water is reabsorbed by
blood.
20) Albumin is the large protein molecule found in egg white and blood plasma. Table salt dissociates into sodium and chloride ions. Urea is assembled in the liver. In a healthy person, what is the fate of the majority of these molecules as they pass through a nephron?
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A) Albumin remains in the blood, salt ions move into the filtrate but most are reabsorbed, and the urea moves into the filtrate and is excreted in the urine. B) All three remain in the bloodstream. C) All three move into the glomerular capsule but the salt ions are mostly reabsorbed. D) Albumin remains in the blood and salt ions and urea moved into the glomerular filtrate and excreted in the urine. E) All three move into the glomerular capsule and are excreted in urine.
21) The nitrogenous waste material of an embryo that accumulates inside the eggshell of a bird or reptile is A) ammonia. B) uracil. C) uric acid. D) urea. E) amino acid.
22)
Over 1 million of these microscopic units produce urine in the kidneys. A) glomerulus B) nephron C) glomerular (Bowman's) capsule D) alveoli E) microvilli
23)
Explain the four major functions of the kidneys and how they relate to homeostasis.
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24) In aquatic vertebrates, which kidney function is critical to helping the organism maintaining homeostasis? A) The kidneysproduce a concentrated form of urine that will help decrease the amount ofwater lost by the organism. B) The kidneys will produce white blood cells that will assist the organism indefense of the body. C) The kidneys are relatively small and only require a limited blood supply tomaintain their function. D) The kidneys have an incredible high rate of tubular reabsorption that allowsthem to be extremely efficient. E) The kidneysfunction to maintain the balance between water and several types of salts.
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25) Identify the labeled structures of the urinary system and its associated blood supply in the diagram. Briefly describe the function of each structure.
A: _____ E: _____ B: _____ F: _____ C: _____ G: _____ D: _____ H: _____
26) A very highly soluble nitrogenous waste, excreted into water by bony fishes, aquatic invertebrates, and aquatic amphibians is
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A) urea. B) uracil. C) ammonia. D) uric acid. E) amino acid.
27)
Glucose is found in glomerular filtrate but NOT in the urine because A) the kidney stores glucose as glycogen. B) glucose molecules are too large to pass through the loop of the nephron (loop of
Henle). C) glucose is converted to amino acids in the kidney. D) kidney cells require glucose because energy is needed for active transport. E) glucose is reabsorbed back into the bloodstream.
28)
Which type of animal is most likely to gain water by osmosis from its environment? A) marine bony fishes B) birds C) reptiles D) cartilaginous fishes E) freshwater bony fishes
29)
Normally, concentrations of metabolically important substances, such as glucose, are
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A) excluded from entering the excretory system altogether. B) low in both glomerular filtrate and urine. C) high in glomerular filtrate but only a trace in urine. D) low in glomerular filtrate but high in urine. E) high in glomerular filtrate and urine.
30) of
Deamination of amino acids, in the excretory system, will initially resultin the formation
A) ammonia. B) urea. C) glucose. D) creatinine. E) uric acid.
31) What is the path of an excreted water molecule as it moves from the glomerulus to collecting duct? A) loop of nephron-glomerular capsule-proximal convoluted tubule-distal convoluted tubule-collecting duct B) proximal convoluted tubule-glomerular capsule-loop of nephron-distal convoluted tubule-collecting duct C) glomerular capsule-proximal convoluted tubule-distal convoluted tubule-loop of nephron-collecting duct D) distal convoluted tubule-glomerular capsule-proximal convoluted tubule-loop of nephron--collecting duct E) glomerular capsule-proximal convoluted tubule-loop of nephron-distal convoluted tubule-collecting duct
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32) Penicillin leaves the blood plasma through tubular walls and not through the glomerulus. Therefore, penicillin is removed from the blood by the process of A) glomerular filtration. B) diffusion. C) tubular secretion. D) osmosis. E) tubular reabsorption.
33)
Which of the following organisms is mismatched with their organs of excretion? A) Kidneys - humans B) Malpighian tubules - reptiles C) Earthworms - nephridia D) Planarians - flamecells
34) List, in order, the pathway urine will take starting with the glomeruli and exiting the body from the urethra.
35) The human kidney has an outer cortex, an inner medulla, and a renal pelvis that collects and stores urine before it leaves the kidney. ⊚ ⊚
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36) Why is it advantageous for the embryos of reptiles and birds to produce uric acid instead of ammonia? A) Uric acid willdiffuse out of the shell whereas ammonia would be trapped inside of the shellwith the developing embryo. B) The uric acid can be broken down much easier than the ammonia by theexcretory system of these animals. C) Uric acid isrelatively nontoxic and won't harm the developing embryo as it is stored insideof the egg. Ammonia is far more toxic and could cause developmentalproblems if it was confined to the interior of an egg alongside of theembryo. D) Uric acid can berecycled by the developing embryo and used as an alternative source of energy.Ammonia cannot be used as an alternative source of energy.
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37)
Identify the labeled structures in the diagram of nephron anatomy.
a: _____ b: _____ c: _____ d: _____ e: _____ f: _____ g: _____ h: _____ i: _____ j: _____ k: _____ l: _____
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38) Which of the following is NOT one of the three steps (processes) involved in urine formation? A) tubular reabsorption B) tubular secretion C) countercurrent mechanism D) glomerular filtration
39) Which of the following nitrogenous waste products is secreted by organisms that live in water and have body surfaces in direct contact with water? A) All of the answers are correct. B) uric acid C) No answer is correct. D) urea E) ammonia
40)
Which of the following statements about the glomerulus is INCORRECT? A) It is surrounded by the glomerular (Bowman's) capsule. B) Small molecules move from the glomerular (Bowman's) capsule into the glomerulus. C) It is connected to two arterioles. D) Blood pressure primarily accounts for filtration. E) It is composed of capillaries.
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41) The concentration of protein in the blood is higher in post-glomerular blood than in arterial blood because A) water passes intothe capsule, but protein molecules are too large to move into the capsule andare concentrated in the blood. B) water concentration increases and protein concentrations decrease. C) reabsorption ofprotein occurs. D) the kidney manufactures and then stores protein in the glomerulus. E) protein is digested and then concentrated in glomerular (Bowman's) capsule.
42)
Selective reabsorption of glucose and amino acids occur in the ____ of the nephron. A) proximal convoluted tubule B) distal convoluted tubule C) glomerulus D) collecting duct E) loop of the nephron (loop of Henle)
43)
The urinary bladder is useful because it A) transports urine to the outside of the body. B) stores urine to prevent constant urination. C) is a place where white cells attack bacteria. D) filters wastes and recycles nutrients back into the bloodstream. E) helps with defecation.
44)
The kidneys filter all of the blood within the human body in about 40 minutes.
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⊚ ⊚
45)
true false
Malpighian tubules are the excretory system attached to the gut in A) planarians. B) humans. C) insects. D) earthworms.
46) When people have health issues associated with their kidneys doctors may prescribe diuretic drugs. Why would someone with high blood pressure be prescribed these drugs? A) Diuretic drugs increase urine flow and the loss of nitrogenous wastes helps the heart. B) Diuretic drugs increase urine flow and salt loss and salt was bad for the heart. C) Diuretic drugs decrease urine flow and the more fluid and watery blood is easier to pump. D) Diuretic drugs increase urine flow and decrease the blood volume that must be pumped. E) Diuretic drugs decrease urine flow and the kidney does not have to work as hard.
47)
Nitrogenous wastes are primarily produced by A) breakdown of fats. B) breakdown of carbohydrates. C) production of nucleic acids. D) breakdown of amino acids. E) production of proteins.
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48)
Which of the following would be an indication of kidney failure? A) salts in the urine B) uric acid in the urine C) dilute urine D) large amount of protein in the urine E) urea in the urine
49)
Which is NOT a function of the kidneys? A) hormone secretion to stimulate red blood cell production and regulate sodium ion
levels B) elimination of nitrogenous wastes including urea, uric acid, and creatinine C) regulating blood pressure by regulating salt balance in the blood D) monitoring and maintaining blood pH E) production of water from oxygen and bicarbonate ions (HCO 3)
50) of
Water follows sodium ions out of the renal filtrate in the tubules and into blood by means
A) glomerular filtration. B) tubular secretion. C) tubular reabsorption. D) osmosis.
51)
Nephridia are the paired structures used in excretion in
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A) earthworms. B) planarians. C) humans. D) insects.
52) What are the potential consequences if a person's kidney suddenly stopped secreting the normal hormones? A) There would be anincrease in the amount of water retained in the body, leading to edema. B) All of thechoices are potential consequences. C) The person would have trouble regulating their blood volume and pressure due to the imbalance of salt in the bloodstream. D) There would be a significant increase in the amount of potassium that isexcreted by the kidneys.
53) The kidney was one of the first organs to be successfully transplanted because it is so encapsulated and has limited vessels feeding into or out of it. How many major "connections" must be cut in transplant surgery for one kidney? A) two: the renal artery and vein B) five: the renal artery and vein, two ureters, and one urethra C) four: the renal artery and vein, the ureter, and urethra D) three: the renal artery and vein and the urethra E) three: the renal artery and vein and the ureter
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 36_14e_Mader 1) C 2) B 3) C 5) A 6) A 7) C 8) A 9) B 11) A 12) B 13) A 14) B 15) C 16) C 17) B 18) D 19) E 20) A 21) C 22) B 24) E 26) C 27) E 28) E 29) C 30) A Version 1
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31) E 32) C 33) B 35) TRUE 36) C 38) C 39) E 40) B 41) A 42) A 43) B 44) TRUE 45) C 46) D 47) D 48) D 49) E 50) D 51) A 52) C 53) E
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CHAPTER 37 1)
Which of the following statements about the autonomic nervous system is NOT true?
A) The sympathetic nervous system deals with "fight-or-flight" responses. B) The parasympathetic nervous system promotes actions associated with relaxation. C) The neurotransmitter associated with the parasympathetic system is norepinephrine. D) The autonomic nervous system regulates the activities of cardiac and smooth muscle and glands. E) The functions of the autonomic system are generally involuntary and subconscious.
2) If a person steps on a tack their somatic system will take over and produce a reflex action. A reflex action A) does not require the central nervous system. B) is normally controlled consciously. C) is only found in humans. D) has no protective value. E) is an automatic, involuntary response.
3)
Which of the following statements about the peripheral nervous system is NOT correct?
A) The somatic nervous system sends motor impulses to the skeletal muscles. B) The nerves contain the cell bodies of the neurons. C) Effectors include the muscles that carry out the instructions sent from the central nervous system. D) Cranial and spinalnerves are part of the peripheral nervous system. E) The nerves contain nerve fibers which are bundles of axons.
4)
An animal with a brain and a single ventral solid nerve cord is the
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A) earthworm. B) planarian. C) hydra. D) octopus. E) cat.
5)
What symptoms could result from a stroke to the right side of the frontal lobe?
A) The person couldsuffer the loss ofmotor control of the left side of their body, loss ofmemory, and speech. B) The person couldsuffer the loss ofmotor control of the right side of their body, loss ofmemory, reasoning and speech. C) The person couldsuffer the loss ofmotor control of the right side of their body, loss ofmemory, reasoning and judgment. D) The person could suffer the loss ofmotor control of the left side of their body, loss of memory, reasoning and judgment.
6)
Neurotransmitters are molecules that cross the synaptic cleft and A) always inhibit the postsynaptic neuron. B) None of these. C) either excite or inhibit the postsynaptic neuron. D) integrate the pre-synaptic action potential. E) always excite the postsynaptic neuron.
7)
What portion of the brain provides reasoning to keep us from acting out strong feelings?
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A) brain stem B) reticular activating system C) limbic system D) pineal gland
8) There are two major groups of nervous system drugs. Drugs in one group retard heartbeat, promote digestion, contract the eye pupil, etc. The other drugs have the opposite effect. These drugs are affecting the A) sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems. B) central and peripheral nervous systems. C) cerebrum and cerebellum, respectively. D) neurostimulatory and neuroinhibitory synapses. E) motor and sensory nerves.
9) In humans, the central nervous system consists of the _____, which is housed in the _____ and the ______, which is housed in the _____. A) brain; skull; spinal cord; vertebral column B) spinal cord; vertebral column; sensory neurons; limbs C) peripheral nervous system; limbs; brain; skull D) brain; vertebral column; spinal cord; skull
10)
Which of the following statements about the cerebrum is NOT true?
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A) The two cerebral hemispheres are connected by the corpus callosum. B) The gray matter is outermost. C) It is the largest part of the human brain. D) The cerebrum coordinates the activities of the other parts of the brain. E) The right hemisphere is associated with analytical reasoning and the left hemisphere is associated with artistic and musical ability.
11) What uniquestructural adaptations are found in the mammalian brain that allowed mammals to become adept at higher mental activities? A) An increasednumber of blood vessels that increases the vascularization of the brain. B) A cranium thatwill protect the brain from damage. C) A higher degree of crevasses and folds in the neocortex that increases thesurface area of the brain. D) A more direct connection to the spinal cord for faster conduction ofneural impulses. E) An enlargedpons.
12)
The sodium-potassium pump is primarily responsible for A) the resting potential. B) the actionpotential. C) the excretion of salts. D) maintaining isotonic water balance. E) the contraction of muscle fibers.
13)
The functions of the human nervous system include
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A) detection ofstimuli. B) generation of motor output. C) sensory input. D) All of the choices characterize the human nervous system's functions. E) integration.
14) What happens if an insect is sprayed with a common insecticide that destroys the ability of acetylcholinesterase to recycle acetylcholine? A) The insect loses control of body functions as nerve impulses flow continuously. B) This prevents the synapse from restoring its ability to "reset" itself for the next impulse. C) All of the above are correct. D) The lack of recycled acetylcholine brings cell metabolism to a halt. E) The synapse isprevented from restoring its ability to "reset" itself for the nextimpulse and the insect loses control of body functions as nerve impulses flowcontinuously.
15) Some memories are emotionally charged because the amygdala triggers associations between fear and sensory information. ⊚ ⊚
true false
16) Information gathering from the environment by a vertebrate is aided by which of the following? A) cephalization B) All of the choices are information gathering aids. C) paired eyes, ears, and olfactory structures D) bilateral symmetry with a vast increase in the number of neurons
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17)
List in order the steps associated with a reflex arc of the PNS.
18)
What structure of the spinal cord carries motor impulses from the brain? A) ventral root B) dorsal root ganglion C) dorsal horn D) dorsal root
19)
Which statement is NOT true about the cells of the nervous system?
A) A neuroglial cell supports or protects a neuron. B) A dendrite is the part of the neuron that carries an electrical impulse away from the cell body. C) There may be multiple dendrites on a single neuron. D) A myelin sheath is a white insulating layer that covers many axons. E) A neuron can have only one axon.
20) The connection space between the dendrite of one cell and the axon of another cell is called a(n)
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A) threshold. B) synapse. C) axonic connection. D) neurotransmitter.
21)
The enzyme that breaks down acetylcholine within the synaptic cleft is A) monoamine oxidase. B) GABA. C) lipase. D) acetylcholinesterase. E) maltase.
22)
Examine the picture to answer the following questions and identify the labeled structures.
A: _____ B: _____ C: _____ D: _____ E: Is the neuron pictured a sensory, association or motor neuron? What is its function? F: Is the neuron multipolar or unipolar? Explain your answer.
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23)
The functional units of the nervous system are A) neuromodulators. B) nerve nets. C) neurons. D) neuroglia.
24) The ascending tracts of the spinal cord are responsible sensory and motor functions of the peripheral nervous system that control the skeletal muscles. ⊚ ⊚
25)
true false
Describe the three types of neurons found in the body and indicate their functions.
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26)
Examine the picture to answer the following questions and identify the labeled structures.
A: _____ B: _____ C: _____ D: _____ E: _____ F: _____ G: ____ H: Is the neuron pictured a sensory, association or motor neuron? What is its function? I: Is the neuron multipolar or unipolar? Explain your answer.
27) Starting with the simplest and moving towards more complex, what is the correct evolutionary sequence of animals in regards to the complexity of their nervous systems?
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A) annelids - sponges- hydras - planarians - molluscs - fish B) sponges - hydras -planarians - annelids - molluscs - fish C) hydras - sponges -planarians - annelids - molluscs - fish D) sponges -planarians - hydras - annelids - molluscs - fish E) sponges - hydras - planarians - molluscs - annelids - fish
28)
Which of the following statements about an action potential is NOT true?
A) There is a rapid change in polarity from about -70 mV to about +35 mV during depolarization. B) An action potential takes 2 to 5 seconds. C) Repolarization occurs when potassium leaves the axon. D) Potassium gates open after the sodium gates and allow potassium ions to leave the cell. E) Depolarization occurs when sodium gates open and allow sodium ions to enter the axon.
29)
The peripheral nervous system consists of A) the brain and spinal cord. B) nerves and ganglia that lie outside the CNS. C) ganglia. D) nerves in the entire nervous system. E) the brain, spinal cord, and nerves.
30) Draw a graph of an action potential that illustrates voltage changes over time. Define and indicate where depolarization and repolarization occurs. Include and label the region of resting potential, action potential and the threshold. Also describe what occurs in terms of ion movement across the membrane to initiate an action potential and during the action potential.
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31) Action potentials travel down nonmyelinated axons at _____ action potentials travel down myelinated axons. A) the same speed B) slower speeds than C) faster speeds than D) variable speeds, sometimes faster and sometimes slower than
32)
In dissection, most nerve fibers appear gray to white because A) the neuron is gray to white colored. B) nerve fibers consume large amounts of energy in the form of sugar. C) nerve fibers are covered in a myelin sheath made of lipid or fat molecules. D) nerve fibers rapidly die and dead tissues soon become gray or white. E) sodium ions are part of the salt compound and they flow along the surface.
33) When you are studying with the TV on, which part of the brain filters out unnecessary sensory stimuli so that you can focus on your studies? A) reticularactivating system B) limbic system C) hypothalamus D) cerebellum E) basal nuclei
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34)
Which of the following statements about the brain is NOT correct?
A) The hypothalamus is concerned with homeostasis and regulation of thirst, hunger, and blood pressure. B) The medulla oblongata has reflex centers for vomiting, coughing, sneezing, and swallowing. C) The cerebellum functions in muscle coordination, posture, and balance. D) The pineal gland secretes serotonin, which is involved in mood changes. E) The thalamus relays sensory input from lower brain areas to the cerebrum.
35)
When the dorsal root of a spinal nerve is cut A) death immediately occurs. B) incoming sensory nerve impulses are lost. C) outgoing motor nerve impulses are lost. D) impulses do not cross over to the other side of the body.
36)
What statement is NOT true about the human nervous system?
A) The somatic nervous system is further divided into the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions. B) The central nervous system consists of the brain and spinal cord. C) The autonomic nervous system controls glands and smooth muscles of the viscera. D) The somatic nervous system is part of the peripheral nervous system. E) The somatic nervous system controls skeletal muscles.
37)
At a synapse,
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A) neurotransmitters diffuse across the synaptic cleft. B) neurotransmitters are actively transported across the synaptic cleft. C) synaptic vesiclesfuse with the pre-synaptic membrane. D) synaptic vesicles fuse with the postsynaptic membrane. E) synaptic vesiclesfuse with the pre-synaptic membrane and neurotransmitters diffuse across thesynaptic cleft.
38) The spinal cord allows for reflex actions to be relayed from the stimulus to the brain along the tracts of unmyelinated white matter. ⊚ ⊚
true false
39) The absence of this neurotransmitter would lead to a person having problems regulating body temperature and controlling their emotions. A) endorphins B) acetylcholinesterase C) dopamine D) serotonin
40)
Which part of the brain contains centers for the heartbeat and respiration? A) cerebrum B) hypothalamus C) medulla oblongata D) cerebellum E) pons
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41)
Which of the following statements about axonal membranes is NOT true?
A) There is an electrical potential difference across a neuron's membrane. B) The polarity correlates with a difference in ion distribution across the membrane. C) The sodium-potassium pump establishes a concentration gradient across the membrane. D) At rest, there is a higher concentration of sodium ions inside the axon. E) The resting potential of a typical neuron is -70 mV.
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42) Use the word bank to identify the labeled structures pictured below: sacral nerves, lumbar nerves, brain, common fibular nerve, ulnar nerve, spinal cord, cranial nerves, thoracic nerves, cervical nerves, radial nerve, tibial nerve, median nerve, sciatic nerve
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J: _____ K: _____ L: _____ M: _____
43) How do cholinesterase inhibitors improve the learning and memory of people who are suffering from Alzheimer's Disease? A) Cholinesterase inhibitors will increase the levels of acetylcholine in the brain. This will increase the neural functioning in brain regions associated with learning and memory. B) Cholinesterase inhibitors will decrease the levels of cerebral spinal fluidin the brain. This will decrease neural pressure associated with the brain regions associated with learning and memory. C) Cholinesterase inhibitors will increase the levels of testosterone in the brain. This will increase the neural functioning in brain regions associated with learning and memory. D) Cholinesterase inhibitors will decrease the levels of acetylcholine in the brain. This will increase the neural functioning in brain regions associated with learning and memory.
44) Ion concentration differences produce an action potential creating a signal. The difference between a weak signal and an intense signal is A) the action potential is graduated and a weak signal causes a small change in polarity. B) a strong signal does not allow repolarization but sends a constant flow of ions. C) All of the choices are correct. D) weak stimuli only open sodium gates, strong signal also open potassium gates. E) the frequency at which an axon fires.
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45) When a finger or other appendage is severed in an accident, it is possible to surgically rejoin most tissues (bone, skin, etc.), which will then grow and heal. However, a cut through an appendage nerve is currently very difficult to reconnect. What structures are severed when the nerves in an appendage are severed? A) synapses B) interneurons C) dendrites D) cell bodies E) axons
46)
At rest, the inside of the neuron is A) positively charged. B) neutral, or equal to the exterior charge. C) None of the choices are correct, since neurons are never at rest. D) negatively charged.
47) The part of the brain that integrates sensory input from the eyes, ears, muscles, and joins with motor information from the cerebral cortex is the A) cerebellum. B) diencephalon. C) cerebrum. D) brain stem.
48)
The likely effect on a neuron of two excitatory signals and twenty inhibitory signals is
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A) transmission of a nerve impulse. B) prohibiting the axon from firing. C) transmission of a nerve impulse releasing inhibitory neurotransmitters at the next synapse. D) confused integration.
49) What structure in the mammalian brain is enlarged and is responsible for higher mental processes? A) hindbrain B) midbrain C) forebrain D) cerebrum E) cerebellum
50) Identify what happens when the doctor hits your knee cap with the rubber hammer during your annual physical.
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A) The stimulus travels down the axon of your sensory neuron, through the dorsal root ganglion, is transmitted through the dendrites of the sensory neuron to the interneuron. From here it enters the cell body of the motor neuron and travels down the ventral root axon of the motor neuron to stimulate the effector. B) The stimulus travels down the axon of your motor neuron, through the dorsal root ganglion, is transmitted through the dendrites of the sensory neuron to the interneuron. From here it enters the cell body of the motor neuron and travels down the ventral root axon of the sensory neuron to stimulate the effector. C) The stimulus travels down the dendrite of your sensory neuron, through the dorsal root ganglion, is transmitted through the axons of the sensory neuron to the interneuron. From here it enters the cell body of the motor neuron and travels down the ventral root axon of the motor neuron to stimulate the effector. D) The stimulus travels down the axon of your sensory neuron, through the ventral root ganglion, is transmitted through the dendrites of the sensory neuron to the interneuron. From here it enters the cell body of the motor neuron and travels down the dorsal root axon of the motor neuron to stimulate the effector. E) The stimulus travels down the axon of your sensory neuron, through the dorsal root ganglion, is transmitted through the dendrites of the sensory neuron to the interneuron. From here it enters the cell body of the motor neuron and travels down the ventral root axon of the motor neuron to stimulate the receptor.
51)
An animal with a simple netlike nervous system is the A) hydra. B) planarian. C) cat. D) earthworm. E) octopus.
52)
Which of the following features is NOT associated with Alzheimer's disease?
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A) Plaques accumulate along the axons of the neurons in the brain. B) The most common cause of dementia in older adults. C) All of these arefeatures of Alzheimer's disease. D) A loss ofreasoning and memory. E) Neurofibrillary tangles surround the nucleus of the neural cells.
53)
The primary functions of the spinal cord are
A) to integrate intelligence with primal instinct and to coordinate memory. B) controlling muscle activity and maintaining balance. C) to coordinate speech, taste, smell, vision, and hearing. D) local control and decision-making for local anatomy. E) to serve as a center for reflex actions and to facilitate communication between the brain and spinal nerves.
54)
Which of the following associations between structure and function is NOT correct? A) sensory neuron - take nerve impulses from the CNS to muscles or glands B) cell body - contains nucleus and organelles C) axons - conduct signals away from the cell body D) interneuron - convey nerve impulses between various parts of the CNS E) dendrites -receive signals and transmit them to the cell body
55)
An animal with a ladder-like nervous system is the
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A) planarian. B) hydra. C) cat. D) earthworm. E) octopus.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 37_14e_Mader 1) C 2) E 3) B 4) A 5) D 6) C 7) C 8) A 9) A 10) E 11) C 12) A 13) D 14) E 15) TRUE 16) B 18) A 19) B 20) B 21) D 23) C 24) FALSE 27) B 28) B 29) B 31) B Version 1
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32) C 33) A 34) D 35) B 36) A 37) E 38) FALSE 39) D 40) C 41) D 43) A 44) E 45) E 46) D 47) A 48) B 49) C 50) A 51) A 52) C 53) E 54) A 55) A
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CHAPTER 38 1)
What kind of receptors are involved in hearing? A) mechanoreceptors B) interoceptors C) photoreceptors D) chemoreceptors E) pain receptors
2)
The sense of rotational equilibrium is accomplished by hair cells found in the A) ampullae. B) outer ear. C) organ of Corti. D) cochlear duct. E) middle ear.
3)
Which of the following statements about the rods and cones in the eye is NOT true? A) The rods are involved in black and white vision. B) Rods are activated by bright light and cones are better suited to night vision. C) Rhodopsin is themolecule associated with vision. D) The cones arebetter able to detect shades of color. E) Rods and coneswork together to detect the full image.
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4) Identify the labeled structures that are involved in olfaction. Briefly describe the function of each structure.
A: _____ B: _____ C: _____
5) From what you currently know, in a spacecraft at a point of weightlessness, which effect is most likely? A) Without gravity, there would be no vertigo. B) Gravitational equilibrium would be altered since the otoliths would not be pulled down by gravity. C) All balance systems would work similar to being on Earth with normal gravity. D) Rotational equilibrium would be lacking and you could not detect head movement. E) There would be absolutely no sense of balance signals without gravity.
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6)
The molecules rhodopsin and retinal are involved in the sensory system that detects A) balance. B) hot and cold. C) smell. D) sight. E) hearing.
7)
The photoreceptors of the eye are located in the A) retina. B) choroid layer. C) sclera. D) optic nerve. E) organ of Corti.
8) The _____ of the retina, which is responsible for acute vision, has densely packed cone cells. A) otolith B) fovea centralis C) blind spot D) tectorial membrane E) ampulla
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9) In the abnormal eyeball pictured here, the size of a normal eye is noted with a dotted line. This type of abnormality results in
A) glaucoma. B) cataracts. C) nearsightedness. D) farsightedness. E) astigmatism.
10) Which of the following lists correctly traces the path of a sound vibration as it moves through the ear? A) auditory canal-malleus-incus-stapes-tympanic membrane-oval window-cochleacochlear nerve B) auditory canal-tympanic membrane-malleus-incus-stapes-cochlea-oval windowcochlear nerve C) auditory canal-tympanic membrane-malleus-incus-stapes-oval window-cochleacochlear nerve D) auditory canal-tympanic membrane-oval window-cochlea-malleus-incus-stapescochlear nerve E) auditory canal-malleus-incus-stapes-oval window-tympanic membrane-cochleacochlear nerve
11) The crayfish has a cavity or "statocysts" lined with sensory setae or hairs. A grain in the cavity is pulled downward by gravity; the pressure against the bottom hairs of the cavity gives the crayfish a perception of being upright and, when it changes orientation, the grain touches side hairs that make it realize it is not upright. Thus the crayfish "knows" which way is up in the dark. This sense is most closely related in function to the human sense of Version 1
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A) sight. B) smell. C) hot and cold. D) hearing. E) balance.
12) by
As people age, they often have trouble seeing near objects. This farsightedness is treated
A) an unevenly ground lens to compensate for an uneven cornea. B) radial keratotomy. C) cataract surgery. D) wearing concave lenses to refocus the image on the retina. E) wearing convex lenses to refocus the image on the retina.
13) If light rays are not focused evenly on the retina, a fuzzy image is formed. This condition is called A) nearsightedness. B) cataracts. C) astigmatism. D) conduction deafness. E) farsightedness.
14)
The sclera is continuous with the
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A) iris. B) cornea. C) choroid coat. D) fovea centralis. E) retina.
15) If a fish suffers from a fungal skin infection that causes the cupula to become blocked, what will occur? A) Water will not be able to enter the cupula which would prevent the cilia from maintaining its normal upright position. If the cilia do not stay upright it will not be able to initiate a nerve impulse and they will lose the ability to detect nearby objects. B) Water will not be able to enter the cupula which would prevent the cilia from bending. If the cilia do not bend in response to the water it will over stimulate the nerve impulses and the fish will lose the ability to detect nearby objects. C) Water will not be able to enter the cupula which would prevent the cilia from bending. The fungal infection would then be allowed to enter into the bloodstream through the cupula. D) Water will not be able to enter the cupula which would prevent the cilia from bending. If the cilia do not bend in response to the water it will not initiate a nerve impulse and the fish will lose the ability to detect nearby objects.
16)
Which of the following structures function(s) to bend light rays? A) ciliary body B) choroid C) rods and cones D) iris and vitreous humor E) lens and cornea
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17)
Which of the following best describes sensory transduction? A) The analysis of anerve impulse by the brain. B) The detection of anenvironmental stimulus by a nerve receptor. C) The conversion of astimulus into a nerve impulse by using a receptor. D) The conversion of anerve impulse into a stimulus by using a receptor.
18) If a person were to suffer a second degree burn to their fingers, which group of receptors would suffer the greatest amount of damage? A) Ruffini endings B) Meissner corpuscles C) Paciniancorpuscles D) Merkel disks
19)
Benign positional vertigo is due to
A) the calcificationof the malleus producing a decrease in the conduction of sound. B) the formation of particles in the semicircular canal. These particleswill stimulate the stereocilia producing a sensation of movement when there is actually no movement. C) the formation of particles in the malleus. These particles will stimulate the stereocilia producing a sensation of movement when there is actually no movement. D) the formation of particles in the semicircular canal resulting in an inner ear infection. E) the formation of particles in the cochlea. These particleswill stimulate the stereocilia producing a sensation of movement when there is actually no movement.
20)
What features are common to the eyes of Arthropods?
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A) All of the answers are correct. B) have compound eyes composed of independent units called ommatidia. C) make use of a wider range of the electromagnetic spectrum than humans. D) have camera-type eyes. E) have eyespots that sense the direction and intensity of light.
21) An individual who works in construction and is exposed to years of loud noises, below 75 decibels,will most likely develop a decrease in hearing function. The structures that are damaged are the A) round window. B) tympanic membrane. C) auditory canal. D) stereocilia of the spiral organ. E) organ of Corti.
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22) Identify and briefly describe the function of the labeled structures in the human eye pictured here.
A: B: C: D: E: F: G: H: I: J:
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23)
Which of the following visual association with its related cause is NOT correct? A) cataracts - lens becomes opaque with aging and sun exposure B) eyestrain - muscle fatigue from constant contraction of the ciliary muscle C) nearsighted - unable to see near objects in detail D) color blindness - lack of red or green cones
24)
Explain the steps required for the sense of taste to reach the brain.
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25)
Identify the labeled structures in the picture of the human ear.
A: _____ B: _____ C: _____ D: _____ E: _____ F: _____ G: _____ H: _____ I: _____ J: _____ K: _____ L: _____ M: _____
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26)
Which cutaneous receptors are sensitive to pressure? A) Root hair plexusand Krause end bulbs B) Krause end bulbs and Merkel disks C) Pacinian corpuscles and Ruffini endings D) Pacinian corpusclesand Meissner corpuscles E) Ruffini endings and Merkel disks
27)
All of the following statements about sensory receptors are true EXCEPT A) sensory receptors monitor the internal environment of the body. B) photoreceptors include rod and cone cells. C) sensory receptors for taste are found in the nose and mouth. D) chemoreception is believed to be a primitive sense in animals. E) the retina of the eye contains photoreceptors that are sensitive to light.
28) ear?
Which of the following structures would be impacted by a bacterial infection of the inner
A) semicircular canal, cochlear nerve, vestibular nerve, and cochlea. B) pinna, stapes,vestibule, and cochlear nerve C) auditorycanal,cochlear nerve, malleus, and vestibular nerve D) semicircularcanal, tympanic membrane, ear lobe, and vestibular nerve
29) The structure in the eye that is similar to a camera diaphragm, regulating the size of the opening for light is the
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A) pupil. B) iris. C) ciliary muscle. D) lens. E) retina.
30)
The correct order in which a light ray reaches the retina is: A) lens-cornea-aqueous humor-vitreous humor-retina. B) cornea-vitreous humor-pupil-lens-aqueous humor-retina. C) lens-vitreous humor-cornea-aqueous humor-retina. D) cornea-aqueous humor-pupil-lens-vitreous humor-retina. E) lens-aqueous humor-cornea-vitreous humor-retina.
31)
The ciliary muscle A) is the part of the eye that contains rods, cones, and bipolar cells. B) controls the shape of the lens to maintain a clear image of focus at various distances. C) is the part of the inner ear that recognizes rotational equilibrium. D) is extremely sensitive to light and responsible for night vision. E) is the internal part of the cochlea with hair cells that are stimulated by sound waves.
32)
List the structures sound will pass through as it goes into the human ear.
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33)
What are the semicircular canals? A) the part of the choroid coat of the eye that is attached to the lens and the iris B) the part of the inner ear that recognizes rotational equilibrium and movement C) the point of the eye at which color vision is most acute D) the internal part of the cochlea with hair cells that are stimulated by sound waves E) the part of the eye that contains rods, cones, and bipolar cells
34)
Which statement most accurately describes how we interpret the sensation of taste?
A) None of these describe how we interpret taste. B) The taste budscontain microvilli that project into the taste pore. The molecules bindto receptor proteins located on the microvilli which send a nerve impulse tothe brain for interpretation. C) The tongue moves molecules into the mouth so that the sinuses can detect thevarious scents. This information is then sent to the brain forinterpretation. D) The taste budscontain receptor proteins that are located on the tongue. The moleculesbind to receptor proteins which send a nerve impulse to the brain forinterpretation. E) The taste budscontain microvilli that project into the taste pore. The molecules bindto receptor proteins located on the microvilli which send a nerve impulse tothe spinal cord for interpretation.
35)
Which statement about chemoreceptors is NOT true?
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A) Chemoreceptors are concentrated on the auricles of the head in planaria. B) Chemoreceptors are found on antennae and mouthparts in insects and other arthropods. C) Chemoreceptors are universally found in animals. D) Chemoreceptors are thought to be the most primitive sensory receptor to have developed in animals. E) Chemoreceptors are found all over the body surface in humans.
36) At night, we see primarily black and white and shades of gray, except near lights where some color is still evident. This is outward evidence of what internal anatomy? A) Cones detect the color of an object, and are activated by bright light. B) There are more cones than rods and cones are very sensitive to light. C) The lens filters differentially the many wavelengths of light. D) The vitreous humor filters much light, and daytime intensity is necessary to get colored light through to the retina. E) The retina has a circadian rhythm.
37)
In nearsightedness, light rays are brought into focus A) on the retina. B) on the hair cells of the ampulla. C) unevenly across the retina. D) in back of the retina. E) in front of the retina.
38) Mail-order catalogs often advertise a device for repelling irritating insects. One device has a frequency range from 30,000 to 65,000 cycles per second (Hz). Humans hear from roughly 50 to 15,000 cycles per second. In designing an experiment to determine if this device actually does repel a certain insect, what question(s) should you ask?
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A) Does the insect produce any sounds within this range that would lead to a biological function to perceiving such frequencies? B) Does the insect approach this sound device at a rate higher than random chance? C) All of the choices are correct. D) Does the insect move away from this sound device at a rate higher than random chance? E) Is the target insect able to perceive a sound between these frequencies?
39) the
Glaucoma is caused by an increase in intraocular pressure due to inadequate drainage of
A) cochlear duct. B) aqueous humor. C) ampulla. D) vitreous humor. E) venous blood.
40) Since chemoreceptors are found in arthropods, crustaceans, vertebrates and all other animals it is believed that chemoreception is the most primitive sense. ⊚ ⊚
41)
true false
The sense of smell is unique because it A) has direct connections to the limbic system and associated emotions. B) All of the choicesare correct. C) works in conjunction with the sense of taste to produce a combined smell-taste
effect. D) may be associated with vivid memories.
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42)
Explain how a person detects gravitational equilibrium.
43)
Which statement about smell receptors is NOT true? A) They send information to the brain by way of the olfactory bulb. B) They are chemoreceptors. C) They can detectsome molecules better than others. D) They are capable of responding to pressure as well as chemical changes. E) They are located in the roof of the nasal cavity in humans.
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44) Identify and briefly describe the function of the labeled structures in the human eye pictured here.
A: B: C: D: E: F: G: H: I: J:
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45)
Which of the following statements about the process of hearing is true? A) All parts of the organ of Corti hear all ranges of sound. B) Loud music cannot damage your ears. C) Sound is similar to light insofar as it is transmitted through the vacuum of space. D) Hearing is not dependent on the inner ear. E) Hearing is dependent on mechanical pressure.
46)
Which of the following statements about photoreceptors is NOT true? A) The simplest photoreceptors only recognize the presence and intensity of light. B) Photoreceptorsdiffer in complexity in different kinds of animals. C) Eyespots in planaria allow the direction of light to be determined. D) Image-forming eyes are found only in vertebrates. E) A compound eye as seen in insects has many different visual units, each containing a
lens.
47) The actual physiological mechanism that allows fish to school involves both the cutaneous receptors known as the lateral line as well as their eyesight. Therefore, the stimuli that fish use to school are light and A) molecules for taste. B) temperature. C) pressure waves. D) gravitational pull. E) sound waves.
48) When the cerebral cortex interprets the sense of taste it will also be interpreting the sense of smell.
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⊚ ⊚
true false
49) There are more rods than cones but many rods may synapse with one ganglion cell while only one cone synapses with one ganglion. Therefore, when light intensity drops at night, we can expect a lit city street scene to be A) identical to the image formed of the street in daytime. B) intense in color and very sharp. C) more black-and-white and grainy. D) intense in color but grainy. E) more black-and-white but very sharp.
50)
Which of the following sensations would involve a chemoreceptor? A) smell B) Only smell and taste only are correct. C) taste D) vision E) Only vision and taste only are correct.
51) When you look at an image, it is inverted on the back of the retina and yet appears rightside-up when perceived in the brain. This change has occurred in A) the retina which integrates the visual image. B) the ganglionic cells. C) the visual regions of the brain. D) the lens. E) the rods and cones themselves.
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52)
The organ of Corti contains the A) hair cells and tectorial membrane. B) eardrum, round window, and oval window. C) saccule, utricle, and cochlea. D) hammer, anvil, and stirrup. E) cochlea and auditory nerve.
53)
Why do snakes flick their tongue when they see potential prey?
A) They are trying tobring scent molecules into the mouth so the Jacobson's organs can decipherthem. B) Snakes use tongue flicking as a means of communication. C) They are trying todetect the various scent molecules with their tongue. D) All of the choicesare correct.
54)
Which statement about taste receptors is NOT true? A) Taste receptors recognize sweet, sour, bitter, salty and umami sensations. B) Taste receptors are located within taste buds in humans. C) Taste receptors generate nerve impulses in associated sensory nerve fibers. D) Taste receptors are found only on the tongue in animals. E) Taste receptors are chemoreceptors.
55)
Which of the following eye conditions is NOT treated with corrective lenses?
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A) farsightedness B) nearsightedness C) astigmatism D) cataracts E) Nearsightedness and astigmatism are not treated with corrective lens.
56)
What is the aqueous humor? A) the gel-like material in a cupula of a mechanoreceptor B) the fluid that surrounds the ossicles of the middle ear C) the fluid in the human eye between the cornea and the lens. D) the fluid in the eye between the retina and the lens E) one of the fluids in the inner ear
57)
Which of the following lists of ear structures are all membranous structures? A) tympanic membrane, oval window, stapes B) ossicles, tympanic membrane, oval window, otoliths C) cochlea, ampulla D) malleus, incus, stapes E) tympanic membrane, oval window, round window
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 38_14e_Mader 1) A 2) A 3) B 5) B 6) D 7) A 8) B 9) C 10) C 11) E 12) E 13) C 14) B 15) D 16) E 17) C 18) B 19) B 20) B 21) D 23) C 26) C 27) C 28) A 29) B 30) D Version 1
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31) B 33) B 34) B 35) E 36) A 37) E 38) C 39) B 40) TRUE 41) B 43) D 45) E 46) D 47) C 48) TRUE 49) C 50) B 51) C 52) A 53) A 54) D 55) D 56) C 57) E
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CHAPTER 39
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1)
Identify the labeled structures on the human skeleton in the picture.
A: _____ B: _____ C: _____ D: _____ E: _____ F: _____ G: _____ H: _____ I: _____ J: _____ K: _____ Version 1
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L: _____ M: _____ N: _____ O: _____ P: _____
2)
Which one of the following structures is NOT a part of the appendicular skeleton? A) coxal B) ribs C) fibula D) humerus E) radius
3) The alternation of circular muscle contraction and longitudinal muscle contraction allows the earthworm to move forward. What type of support system aids locomotion in the earthworm? A) a hydrostatic skeleton B) an endoskeleton C) an exoskeleton D) a calcium carbonate shell
4) What is the correct order that a motor nerve impulse travels when triggering a muscle contraction?
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A) motor nerve-synaptic cleft-sarcolemma-sarcoplasmic reticulum-troponin B) motor nerve-sarcolemma-sarcoplasmic reticulum-synaptic cleft-troponin C) motor nerve-sarcoplasmic reticulum-synaptic cleft-sarcolemma-troponin D) motor nerve-sarcolemma-synaptic cleft-sarcoplasmic reticulum-troponin E) motor nerve-synaptic cleft-sarcolemma-troponin-sarcoplasmic reticulum
5)
Which of the following bones is (are) NOT part of the axial skeleton? A) sternum B) scapula C) skull D) ribs E) vertebrae
6)
Which of the following statements about skeletons is NOT true? A) The skeleton of a clam is an exoskeleton. B) All exoskeletons must be shed as the animal grows. C) The skeleton of a vertebrate is an endoskeleton. D) The skeleton of an arthropod is an exoskeleton. E) An earthworm has a fluid-filled cavity that acts as a hydrostatic skeleton.
7) ________ will take calcium from the blood, whereas ________ will deposit calcium into the blood.
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A) Osteocytes; osteoclasts B) Osteoblasts; osteoclasts C) Osteoblasts, osteocytes D) Osteoclasts; osteoblasts E) Osteocytes; osteoblasts
8)
_____ are bone-absorbing cells and _____ are bone-forming cells. A) Menisci; osteoclasts B) Eosinophils; red blood cells C) Osteoclasts; osteoblasts D) Chondrocytes; lymphocytes E) Osteocytes; osteons
9)
Which of the following statements about the vertebrae is NOT true? A) The vertebrae help form 4 curvatures of the spine. B) The vertebrae protect the spinal cord. C) Twenty-six vertebrae make up the vertebral column. D) The vertebrae form a dorsal backbone. E) The vertebrae are separated by intervertebral disks.
10) What are the correct steps of muscle contraction starting with ACh? a. ACh diffuses across the synaptic cleft b. The sarcolemma generates an impulse that moves down the T tubules into the sarcoplasmic reticulum c. ACh binds to receptors in the sarcolemma d. The sarcomere contraction produces a myofibril contraction e. Calcium is released causing the sarcomere contraction
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A) a - b - c -e -d B) c - e - d - a - b C) d - a - b - e - c D) a - c - b - e- d
11)
_____ provides the energy for muscle contraction. A) Lactate B) ATP C) Glycogen D) Creatine phosphate E) ADP
12)
Which of the following statements about the skeleton of a clam is NOT true? A) The skeleton of a clam grows with the organism. B) The skeleton of a clam is used mainly to allow movement of the organism. C) The skeleton of a clam has muscles attached to it from the inside of the body. D) The skeleton of a clam has two separate shells. E) The skeleton of a clam is made of calcium carbonate.
13)
Which of the following associations of term and description is NOT correct? A) actin - thin filament B) myosin - thick filament C) sarcolemma - extensive plasma membrane D) sarcomere - the entire muscle cell or muscle fiber
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14)
Name the neuromuscular transmitter that is released into the synaptic cleft. A) sodium ions B) ATP C) acetylcholine D) calcium ions E) creatine phosphate
15) In muscle innervation motor nerve fibers signal muscle movement from the region called the neuromuscular junction. ⊚ ⊚
16)
true false
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of having an endoskeleton? A) Endoskeletons provide protection for the outermost tissue layer of the organism. B) The skeleton grows with the animal. C) Endoskeletons can support the weight of a large animal. D) Endoskeletons allow for more flexibility. E) Endoskeleton provides protection to the internal organs.
17)
Which of the following statements about the insect exoskeleton is NOT true?
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A) The insect exoskeleton is jointed and movable. B) The insect exoskeleton is made of a complex form of carbohydrate called chitin. C) The insect exoskeleton grows with the organism. D) The exoskeleton protects insects against predators and drying out. E) The insect exoskeleton has muscles attached to it from the inside of the body.
18)
Identify the labeled muscles in the picture.
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19) One of the major functions of the skeletal system is to store long term sources of energy for the body. ⊚ ⊚
true false
20) Which feature of the mammalian skeleton provides an advantage for animals that are land-based predators? A) Long legs andrunning on the tips of elongated phalanges. B) Bipedal locomotion on the soles of the feet. C) Walking on theirtoes. D) Elongatedhindlimbs that propel them forward. E) All of these are advantages for land-based predators.
21)
Damage to the matrix of a bone can result in which of the following complications?
A) There will be adecrease in potassium resulting in a decrease in bone strength. B) There will be adecrease in the production of white blood cells. C) The attachmentpoint for muscles will not be as strong resulting in more injuries. D) None of these are complicationsassociated with damage to the matrix of the bone. E) There will be a decrease in available calcium phosphate which could result in decreased concentrations of calcium and phosphate ions in the blood.
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22)
Which mammalian skeleton provides an advantage in an aquatic environment?
A) A streamlinedtorpedo-shaped skeleton. B) All of the answer choices provide an advantage in an aquatic environment. C) A skeleton thathas elongated legs and large flippers. D) None of the answer choices provide an advantage in an aquatic environment. E) A skeleton thatallows for walking on the tips of their toes across the bottom of theocean.
23) Explain the function of each of the following structures in regards to muscle contraction: actin filaments, Ca + ions, myosin filaments and ATP.
24) Which of the following lists the correct order of vertebral regions from superior to inferior? A) cervical-thoracic-lumbar-sacrum-coccyx B) lumbar-sacrum-cervical-thoracic-coccyx C) sacrum-cervical-thoracic-lumbar-coccyx D) thoracic-lumbar-sacrum-cervical-coccyx E) cervical-lumbar-sacrum-thoracic-coccyx
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25)
Identify the labeled structures on the human skeleton in the picture.
A: _____ B: _____ C: _____ D: _____ E: _____ F: _____ G: _____ H: _____ I: _____ J: _____ K: _____ Version 1
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L: _____ M: _____ N: _____ O: _____ P: _____ Q: _____ R: _____ S: _____
26) When a person straightens her arm, she is flexing the triceps brachii. During this movement, the triceps are referred to as the A) antagonist. B) All of these. C) tendon. D) agonist. E) None of these.
27) Which of these molecules acts as an ATPase, breaking down ATP to perform its function in muscle contraction? A) tropomyosin B) actin C) myosin D) calcium E) troponin
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28)
Which of the following structures attaches muscle to the bone? A) adipose tissue B) tendons C) sarcomere D) joints E) ligaments
29)
Which of the following groups of organisms will all possess hydrostatic skeletons? A) earthworms, crayfish andsea stars B) planaria, hyrdas and earthworms C) planaria, hyrdas,crayfish D) butterflies, cats and clams E) bluegill, lobster and planaria
30)
Calcium ions bind to A) tropomyosin. B) cross bridges. C) myosin. D) actin. E) troponin.
31)
The elbow and knee are examples of ______ joints.
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A) immovable B) fibrous C) synovial D) cartilaginous E) ball-and-socket
32)
Which of the following organisms lack a hydrostatic skeleton? A) hydra B) cicada C) planarian D) roundworms E) earthworms
33)
An oxygen debt occurs when
A) there is no oxygen for aerobic respiration, and the body must use lactic acid fermentation to produce ATP. B) ATP is depleted, and the body starts to use creatine phosphate to supply new ATP. C) None of the choices are correct. D) ATP is depleted, and the body starts breaking down actin and myosin to allow muscle contraction to occur. E) there is too much oxygen in the muscle tissues.
34)
Explain the difference between the functions of the osteoblasts and osteocytes?
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35)
The sarcoplasmic reticulum releases calcium ions when stimulated directly by the A) axon bulb. B) T tubule. C) neuromuscular junction. D) sarcolemma. E) tropomyosin.
36)
Which of the following statements about the muscular system is NOT true? A) Tetanus and tone are features of normal muscle tissue. B) The human muscular system contains three kinds of muscle tissue. C) Muscles are attached to bones by tendons. D) Muscles work in antagonistic pairs across a joint. E) Muscles can move a bone by pushing or pulling it as they contract.
37) The pectoral girdle is adapted for great strength, whereas the pelvic girdle is more adapted for flexibility. ⊚ ⊚
38)
true false
Which muscle list of structures is correctly organized from large to small? A) muscle, muscle fibers, sarcomeres, filaments, myofibrils B) muscle, muscle cell, myofibril, sarcomeres, filaments C) muscle cells, myofibrils, filaments, sarcoplasm D) muscle, sarcolemma, myofibrils, actin filaments, myosin filaments
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39) The type of bone tissue that is found in the middle portion of a long bone and has lacunae arranged in concentric circles around central canals that contain blood vessels and nerves is A) fibrous membrane. B) yellow marrow. C) spongy bone. D) red marrow. E) compact bone.
40)
Which of the following associations of bone structures and functions is NOT correct? A) osteoclasts - cells that break down bone tissue B) red bone marrow - fat-storage tissue C) lacunae - tiny chambers in concentric circles around a central canal D) osteoblasts - cells that build bone tissue E) osteons - tubular units of compact bone
41)
Which of the following statements about the nature of bone is true? A) Bone is active, growing tissue with an extensive blood supply. B) Bone is nonliving calcium deposits and removing bone is a bloodless operation. C) Bone is active and living when formed by osteoblast but dies after it hardens. D) Bone is similar to cartilage, nearly inert, and with little blood supply. E) The outer compact bone is nonliving calcium, but the bone marrow is active living
tissue.
42)
Actin and myosin filaments are both present in the dense region called the
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A) I band. B) Z line. C) M band. D) A band. E) H zone.
43)
According to the sliding filament theory of muscle contraction, A) calcium ions are released from myosin as the filaments slide by. B) the thick and thin filaments do not change length during this process. C) an accordion-like pleat is formed as the myosin and actin interact. D) All of the choices are correct. E) actin binds ATP and breaks it apart as actin pulls against myosin.
44) If calcium is not present in the muscle cell what complications can occur in regards to muscle contraction? A) The power strokewill not be produced preventing the actin filament from moving. B) Tropomyosin willnot be pulled away from the myosin binding sites. C) All of these arecomplications resulting from a lack of calcium. D) Myosin heads willnot bind to the actin filament.
45)
Muscle contraction is triggered
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A) when a surplus of ATP is released by a nerve motor unit. B) when high levels of oxygen and sugar are released by the sarcolemma. C) by the nerve releasing a neurotransmitter, which triggers a flow of calcium that releases ATP and begins the actin filaments sliding across the myosin binding sites. D) by the nerve releasing a neurotransmitter, which triggers a flow of calcium that attaches to actin filaments and exposes the myosin binding sites. E) by release of aneurotransmitter at a synapse that directly causes actin and myosin toslide.
46) In crowded Asian regions such as Hong Kong, there is not enough room for cemeteries. However, the dead can be temporarily buried and their bones can later be exhumed and stored in an ossarium, a wall made of small concrete boxes (about eight inches by eight inches by two feet long) just large enough to contain all the human bones. These dimensions are defined by the __________, which is thelongest bone and the ________, which is thebone with the largest volume in the human body. A) radius; scapula B) vertebrae; pelvis C) clavicle; metatarsals D) femur; skull E) humerus; vertebrae
47)
If Ca
+
is restricted to a musclecell, what are the potential consequences?
A) The myosin filament would not slide past the actin filament causing acontraction. B) All of these arepotential consequences. C) None of these arepotential consequences. D) ATP is not split causing the release of energy. E) The myosin head would not be able to bind to the actin filament.
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48)
Identify and briefly describe the labeled structures of the long bone in this picture.
A: _____ B: _____ C: _____ D: _____ E: _____ F: _____ G: _____
49) true?
Which of the following statements about the development of bone in humans is NOT
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A) Bones may form within a cartilage model or within a membrane matrix. B) Bone breakdown and replacement occur throughout life. C) A cartilaginous disk remains between the primary and secondary ossification centers until old age. D) A primary ossification center forms in the middle of a long bone. E) A secondary ossification center forms at the end of a long bone.
50)
What molecule is used to anaerobically regenerate ATP? A) lactate B) tropomyosin C) glucose D) ADP E) creatine phosphate
51)
The radius is to the ulna as the A) fibula is to the tibia. B) fibula is to the ulna. C) tibia is to the femur. D) humerus is to the femur.
52)
Which of the following functions is NOT a function of the human skeletal system? A) acts as a structure against which muscles can contract B) acts as a storage site for calcium and phosphorus ions C) acts as the site of blood cell production in adults D) protects internal organs E) provides the ATP for muscles to use in contraction
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53)
Which of the following hormones stimulate osteoblasts to form bone? A) Both growth andsex hormones B) parathyroid hormone C) erythropoietin D) growth hormone E) sex hormones
54)
List the five major functions of the skeletal system.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 39_14e_Mader 2) B 3) A 4) A 5) B 6) B 7) B 8) C 9) C 10) D 11) B 12) B 13) D 14) C 15) TRUE 16) A 17) C 19) FALSE 20) C 21) E 22) A 24) A 26) D 27) C 28) B 29) B 30) E Version 1
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31) C 32) B 33) A 35) B 36) E 37) FALSE 38) B 39) E 40) B 41) A 42) D 43) B 44) C 45) D 46) D 47) E 49) C 50) E 51) A 52) E 53) A
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CHAPTER 40 1) Steroid hormones act more slowly and maintain their effects longer than peptide hormones. ⊚ ⊚
2)
true false
The removal of the anterior pituitary gland would result in all of the following except A) production of thesex hormones. B) a decrease in thebody's ability to lower blood calcium levels. C) a decrease in the ability to stimulate the adrenal cortex. D) milk production.
3)
What is the cascade of events that leads to the stress response of the adrenal glands?
A) anterior pituitary produces ACTH - hypothalamus releases ACTH-releasing hormone - adrenal cortex hormones then produced B) adrenal cortex secretes hormones - hypothalamus secretes ACTH-releasing hormone - anterior pituitary releases ACTH C) hypothalamus produces ACTH-releasing hormone - anterior pituitary is stimulated to produce ACTH - adrenal cortex stimulated to produce glucocorticoids (regulate metabolism and sugar level) D) adrenal cortex secretes hormones - anterior pituitary secretes ACTH - hypothalamus secretes ACTH-releasing hormone E) hypothalamus produces ACTH-releasing hormone - anterior pituitary is stimulated to produce ACTH - adrenal cortex secretes epinephrine and norepinephrine (regulate metabolism and sugar level)
4)
The level of sodium in the blood is regulated by the secretion of the mineralocorticoid
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A) aldosterone. B) oxytocin. C) ACTH. D) cortisol. E) insulin.
5)
A woman with a beard most likely has a malfunctioning A) adrenal medulla. B) thyroid. C) pituitary. D) pancreas. E) adrenal cortex.
6)
Which of the following statements about parathyroid hormone (PTH) is NOT correct? A) Parathyroid hormone promotes the release of calcium from bones. B) PTH decreases the activity of osteoclasts. C) When blood calcium levels are low, PTH secretion is stimulated. D) PTH promotes the reabsorption of calcium by the kidneys. E) PTH has the opposite effect of calcitonin.
7)
Which is an example of negative feedback?
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A) Nursing action stimulates the hypothalamus to release oxytocin that triggers mammary gland milk production. B) TRH stimulates the anterior pituitary to release thyroid-stimulating hormone. C) FSH and LH stimulate the gonads to produce sperm or eggs. D) When the blood becomes dilute, ADH is no longer released from the hypothalamus. E) Uterine stretching sends nerve impulses to the hypothalamus that releases oxytocin that stimulates uterine contraction.
8)
Which of the following is NOT a function of the hypothalamus? A) All are functionsof the hypothalamus. B) influences theblood pressure C) controls body temperature D) balances the water balance in the body E) regulatesappetite
9) ________ is considered the first messenger, while ________ is called the second messenger. A) TSH; thyroxin B) Insulin; glucagon C) Peptide hormone; cAMP D) ACTH; cortisol E) Glucose; insulin
10) If a chemical agent acted to make the nuclear envelope pores impermeable to the passage of hormones, what effect would it have?
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A) Neither steroid nor non-steroid hormones would be effective. B) Both steroid and non-steroid hormones would continue to be effective. C) Steroid hormones would continue to be effective but non-steroid hormones would be ineffective. D) Non-steroid hormones would continue to be effective but steroid hormones would be ineffective.
11)
Which of the following statements about non-steroid (peptide) hormones is NOT true?
A) Peptide hormones are derived from peptides, proteins, polypeptides, and derivatives of amino acids. B) Peptide hormones create an enzyme cascade effect. C) Peptide hormones bind to receptors on the cell surface. D) Peptide hormones stimulate the formation cyclic AMP inside the cell. E) Peptide hormones must enter the cell in order to have an effect.
12) The pituitary gland controls the hypothalamus by the production of antidiuretic hormones. ⊚ ⊚
13)
true false
Simple goiter can be prevented by A) administration of ACTH. B) administration of insulin. C) surgery to remove the thyroid gland. D) increasing intake of iodine in the diet. E) removal of the pituitary.
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14)
What is a common function of T
3 and T
4?
A) muscle contraction B) cause an increase in the deposition of calcium in the bones C) stimulate cells to metabolize faster D) cause the blood calcium to increase E) blood phosphate levels decrease
15) A researcher has isolated a chemical released by men that reduces premenstrual nervousness and tension in women. This is an example of (a) A) pheromone. B) prostaglandin. C) cortisol. D) insulin. E) nerve growth factor.
16)
What gland, located in the brain, produces melatonin? A) pituitary B) pancreas C) adrenal gland D) pineal gland E) thyroid gland
17)
Removal of the anterior pituitary would result in a decrease in the following functions:
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A) melatonin levels,stimulation of the thyroid, cell division and production ofglucocorticoids B) production of eggsand sperm, stimulation of the thyroid, cell division and production ofglucocorticoids C) production of eggsand sperm, control of the circadian rhythm, cell division and production ofglucocorticoids D) production of eggsand sperm, stimulation of the thyroid, maturation of T lymphocytesandproduction of glucocorticoids
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18) Identify and briefly describe the functions of the labeled glands of the human endocrine system.
19) Which of the following mineralocorticoid is responsible for regulating blood volume and pressure?
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A) cortisol B) T 3 C) aldosterone D) calcitonin E) T 4
20) Uncommonly large feet, hands, chin, nose, and eyebrow ridges on a normal-sized body are characteristic of the condition ______, that is caused by ______. A) Addison's disease; atrial natriuretic hormone B) pituitary dwarfism; hyposecretion of growth hormone in children C) gigantism; overproduction of growth hormone in children D) Cushing's syndrome; adrenal cortex hormones E) acromegaly; overproduction of growth hormone in adults
21) The birth of a baby and milk production are synchronized. Babies can be born several months prematurely, and milk production is needed immediately after birth. How has the human body evolved to coordinate this delicate timing of events? A) Oxytocin causes both the uterus to contract in labor and the release of milk from mammary glands, which is reinforced by prolactin from the pituitary. B) The ovaries signal the rest of the body tissues by varying the level of estrogen. C) The hypothalamus and pituitary that triggered the female reproductive cycle also schedule milk production on a nine-month clock basis. D) Conscious awareness of the arrival of a baby triggers the mother's hypothalamus to secrete prolactin. E) ADH produced by the baby passes through the placenta and, added to the mother's ADH, builds up her milk production relative to the size of the fetus.
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22) Which of the following hormones is produced by the anterior pituitary gland that regulates the production of cortisol? A) prolactin B) melanocyte-stimulating hormone C) gonadotropic hormones D) adrenocorticotropic hormone E) thyroxine
23)
Which of the following statements about diabetes mellitus is NOT true? A) Type I diabetes occurs as a result of destruction of the insulin-producing cells. B) Symptoms of diabetes include excessive thirst, frequent urination, and glucose in the
urine. C) One method of treating type II diabetes is exercise and a low-fat, low-sugar diet. D) Obesity can cause diabetes because adipose tissue produces a substance that impairs insulin receptor function. E) Type I diabetes is much more common than type II.
24)
The part of the brain that controls the anterior pituitary gland secretions is the A) medulla. B) thalamus. C) cerebral cortex. D) cerebellum. E) hypothalamus.
25)
The effects of hyposecretion and hypersecretion of adrenal cortex hormones result in
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A) exactly opposite symptoms: too much versus too little melanin, thin versus heavy, etc. B) various mild symptoms that are not life threatening. C) exactly the same symptoms due to failure to have correct hormone levels. D) opposite effects on kidney functions and therefore blood pressure, but varying effects on other target tissues. E) masculinization of women and feminization of men.
26)
Hypoparathyroidism leads to a dramatic drop in blood calcium, which causes A) mental retardation. B) tetany (convulsions). C) cretinism. D) lethargy and hair loss. E) sleepiness.
27)
Which is the correct order of hormone secretion in response to inflammation?
A) The hypothalamus stimulates the anterior pituitary to produce ANH whichcauses the adrenal cortex to secrete cortisol. B) The hypothalamusstimulates the anterior pituitary to produce ACTH which causes the adrenalcortex to secrete cortisol. C) The hypothalamus stimulates the anterior pituitary to produce ACTH which causes the adrenal cortex to secrete aldosterone. D) The anteriorpituitary stimulates the hypothalamus to produce ACTH which causes the adrenalcortex to secrete cortisol. E) The hypothalamus stimulates the anterior pituitary to produce ANH whichcauses the adrenal cortex to secrete aldosterone.
28)
Which of the following statements about hormones is correct?
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A) Non-steroid hormones activate an enzyme cascade. B) Steroid hormones all have four carbon rings with different side chains. C) All of the choices are correct. D) Steroid hormones regulate the production of a particular protein. E) Non-steroid hormones are either modifiedamino acids, peptides, proteins, or glycoproteins.
29)
Which of the following is NOT an endocrine gland? A) testes B) hypothalamus C) pituitary D) thymus E) All are endocrine glands.
30) The graph pictured below depicts blood glucose changes after eating a meal. The pink line, drawn with square symbols, represents normal variations in glucose levels after a meal. The black line, drawn with diamond symbols, represents levels seen in diabetes mellitus. Differentiate between the normal and abnormal blood glucose levels after a meal and briefly explain the reason for the abnormality.
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31) Which of the following endocrine glands does NOT produce its own hormones, but stores hormones produced by the hypothalamus? A) adrenal cortex B) adrenal medulla C) anterior pituitary D) thyroid E) posterior pituitary
32) Which of the following hormones is (are) NOT a product of the anterior lobe of the pituitary? A) antidiuretic hormone B) thyroid-stimulating hormone C) growth hormone D) gonadotropic hormones
33)
What hormone stimulates the production of cortisol? A) gonadotropic hormone B) antidiuretic hormone C) growth hormone D) thyroid-stimulating hormone E) adrenocorticotropic hormone
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34)
How are hormone levels regulated?
A) An endocrine gland can respond to the blood level of the hormone it produces. B) A product can trigger hormone production; the hormone can then reduce the amount of product which in turn reduces the level of hormone. C) All of the choices are correct. D) A hormone can trigger a second gland to secrete a hormone that dampens production of the first hormone. E) A second contrary hormone can counteract the effect of the first hormone.
35) The same hormone has considerably different effects in different species. The hormone thyroxine in humans stimulates metabolism, but in frogs it induces metamorphosis from tadpole to adult frog. This indicates that A) the target tissues have evolved different responses. B) the origin of the hormone makes a difference in the effect the hormone has on target tissues. C) the organisms have absolutely no evolutionary relationship. D) metamorphosis is caused by a change in body metabolism. E) the chemical composition of the hormone is actually slightly different.
36)
Explain how ADH works in the body when it is released by the hypothalamus.
37)
________ are hormones that act locally, affecting neighboring cells.
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A) Pheromones B) Prostaglandins C) Oxytocin D) Insulin E) Oxytocin andpheromones are both correct.
38) The target cell concept is illustrated in the picture. Label the cells as either target cells or non-target cells by identifying A and B as such. Explain your answer.
39)
The oversecretion of ________ by the thyroid gland can result in ________.
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A) parathyroid hormone; Graves’ disease B) T 3;hyperthyroidism C) calcitonin; hyperthyroidism D) T 4; hypothyroidism E) T 3; hypothyroidism
40)
What is the mode of action of hormones?
A) Peptide hormonesbind to cell-surface receptors and result in the activation of enzymes. B) Hormones are actually precursors or raw materials that are naturally converted to end products by the correct target cell. C) Peptide hormonesbind to cell-surface receptors and result in the activation of enzymes, whilesteroid hormones enter the cell, usually bind to receptors in the nucleus andresult in the activation of certain genes. D) Steroid hormones enter the cell, usually bind to receptors in the nucleus and result in the activation of certain genes. E) Hormones are chunks of DNA that are sent out to be incorporated into target cells and become activated to produce hormone products.
41) Which of the following is an example of a negative feedback mechanism in regards to hormone regulation? A) ADH is released from the pituitary causing water to be reabsorbed in the kidneys. B) None of these areexamples of a negative feedback mechanism. C) All of these areexamples of a negative feedback mechanism. D) A baby suckles inorder to stimulate milk production. E) The uterinecontractions during labor stimulate oxytocin production.
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42) Which endocrine gland is directly responsible for the secretion of the glucocorticoid cortisol? A) anteriorpituitary B) hypothalamus C) thyroid gland D) adrenalmedulla E) adrenal cortex
43) Both T 3 and T 4 are produced in the thyroid and are responsible for increasing the metabolic rate of specific organs in the body. ⊚ ⊚
true false
44) Identify the hormone that is released by the anterior pituitary but does not control other endocrine glands. A) oxytocin B) gonadotropichormone C) thyroidstimulating hormone D) prolactin E) adrenocorticotropic hormone
45)
Which of the following factors can lead to diabetes insipidus?
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A) Abnormally lowlevel of ADH secretion from the hypothalamus which results in low levels of ADHin the posterior pituitary, preventing the reabsorption of water in thekidneys. B) Abnormally low level of ADH secretionfrom the hypothalamus which results in low levels of ADH in the posteriorpituitary, increasing the reabsorption of water in the kidneys. C) Abnormally highlevel of ADH secretion from the hypothalamus which results in low levels of ADHin the posterior pituitary, preventing the reabsorption of water in thekidneys. D) Abnormally lowlevel of oxytocin secretion from the hypothalamus which results in low levelsof ADH in the posterior pituitary, preventing the reabsorption of water in thekidneys. E) Abnormally lowlevel of ADH secretion from the hypothalamus which results in high levels ofADH in the posterior pituitary, increasing the reabsorption of water in thekidneys.
46)
Which of the following characteristics or actions is associated with a steroid hormone? A) the second messenger B) binding of a protein to a surface receptor on the plasma membrane C) production of new proteins D) cyclic AMP E) activation of proteins present in an inactive form
47) Zoologists extracted the chemical that the Japanese beetle uses to attract a mate, and used it in a trap to reduce the beetle population. Scientists were using a(n) A) enzyme. B) hormone. C) pheromone. D) excretion. E) pesticide.
48)
The posterior pituitary gland secretes all of the following EXCEPT
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A) None of the choices are correct. B) ADH. C) prolactin. D) oxytocin.
49)
Which of the following statements about hormones is NOT true? A) Hormones usually affect a target organ. B) Cells that react to a hormone have specific receptors for that hormone. C) Hormones are secreted into the bloodstream. D) Hormones are released from exocrine glands. E) Hormones may be classified as peptides or steroids.
50)
Which of the following statements about steroid hormones is NOT true? A) The hormone-receptor complex can bind to chromatin. B) Steroid hormones do not bind to cell surface receptors. C) Estrogen is a steroid hormone. D) The hormone-receptor complex can enter the nucleus. E) Steroid hormones act faster than non-steroid (peptide) hormones.
51) An adolescent female who is hyperactive, nervous, irritable and has eyes that are protruding from their sockets is most likely suffering from ________, which is caused by ________.
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A) Graves’ disease; oversecretion of T 3 or T 4 due to antibodies that mimic the effect of calcitonin B) Graves’ disease; oversecretion of T 3 or T 4 due to antibodies that mimic the effect of TSH C) Graves’ disease; undersecretion of T 3 or T 4 due to antibodies that mimic the effect of TSH D) Cushings disease; oversecretion of T 3 or T 4 due to antibodies that mimic the effect of parathyroid hormone E) Cushings disease; oversecretion of T 3 or T 4 due to antibodies that mimic the effect of TSH
52) Explain why a person will develop a simple goiter if he or she has an insufficient amount of salt in the diet.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 40_14e_Mader 1) TRUE 2) B 3) C 4) A 5) E 6) B 7) D 8) A 9) C 10) D 11) E 12) FALSE 13) D 14) C 15) A 16) D 17) B 19) C 20) E 21) A 22) D 23) E 24) E 25) D 26) B 27) B Version 1
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28) C 29) E 31) E 32) A 33) E 34) C 35) A 37) B 39) B 40) C 41) A 42) E 43) FALSE 44) D 45) A 46) C 47) C 48) C 49) D 50) E 51) B
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CHAPTER 41 1)
The lining of the uterus that is discharged during the menstrual phase is the A) endometrium. B) endocardium. C) hymen. D) myocardium. E) oviduct.
2)
The medication known as mifepristone, or RU-486, acts by
A) killing sperm as they enter the female reproductive tract. B) preventing development of a uterine lining. C) blocking the progesterone receptors of cells in the uterine lining and causes the loss of an implanted embryo. D) preventing an egg from maturing and being released—essentially a stronger regular birth control pill. E) destroying the embryo which in turn causes a spontaneous miscarriage.
3)
What is the main sex hormone in male humans? A) testosterone B) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) C) interstitial cell-stimulating hormone (ICSH) D) luteinizing hormone (LH) E) estrogen
4)
Which of the following is not one of the stages of HIV infection?
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A) a greater than 500 CD4 + T cells per microliter of blood B) opportunistic infections C) a CD4 + T cell count below 200 per microliter of blood D) flat or raised lesions on the penis or vulva E) a CD4 + T cell count between 200 and 499 per microliter of blood
5)
All of the following STDs are bacterial infections EXCEPT A) chlamydia. B) AIDS. C) syphilis. D) gonorrhea.
6) Which of the following associations of reproductive strategies and their descriptions are correct? A) oviparous - egg is deposited in external environment B) viviparous - the embryo develops inside the body of the female from which it gains nourishment C) All of the choices are correct. D) ovoviviparous - produce eggs but retain them inside the female body until hatching occurs
7)
In most male animals, the penis or other copulatory organ achieves erection by A) testicular pressure. B) muscle contraction. C) bones or exoskeleton interlocking. D) artery dilation or hemolymph pressure.
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8) In a 28-day cycle, the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle occurs at about ________ and the luteal phase occurs at about ________. A) days 1-13; days 15-28 B) day 14; days 6-15 C) days 6-13; days 1-5 D) days 1-5; days 20-28
9) In intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI), a single sperm is injected into an egg in an attempt to create a zygote. ⊚ ⊚
10)
true false
List the structures involved in the production of semen and indicate their contribution.
11) Which of the following associations of STD etiologic agent and clinical presentation is NOT correct? A) Treponema pallidum - chancre, blindness, insanity B) Herpes viruses - liver infections and inflammation C) Chlamydia - mild burning on urination, mucoid discharge, possible pelvic inflammatory disease D) Candida - vaginal yeast infection
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12) What is the correct order of the passage of sperm, starting at the site of development and exiting the body? A) Initial productionoccurs in the epididymis, sperm mature in the seminiferous tubules, they thenenter the vas deferens, they then pass through the ejaculatory duct and exitthe body through the urethra. B) Initial productionoccurs in the seminiferous tubules, sperm mature in the epididymis, they thenenter the vas deferens, they then pass through the ejaculatory duct and exitthe body through the urethra. C) Initial productionoccurs in the seminiferous tubules, sperm mature in the epididymis, they thenenter the vas deferens, they then pass through the ejaculatory duct and exitthe body through the ureters. D) Initial productionoccurs in the seminiferous tubules, sperm mature in the uterus, they then enterthe vas deferens, they then pass through the ejaculatory duct and exit the bodythrough the urethra. E) Initial productionoccurs in the seminiferous tubules, sperm mature in the epididymis, they thenenter the fallopian tubes, they then pass through the ejaculatory duct and exitthe body through the urethra.
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13)
Identify the labeled structures of the female reproductive system.
14) Identify the five commonly available methods of birth control and indicate which ones provide the most protection against STDs.
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15) In the human male, sperm cells are produced in the ________ and are supported by the ________. A) interstitial tissue; cervix B) urethra; uterus C) seminiferoustubules; Sertoli cells D) vas deferens; endometrium E) seminal vesicles; oviduct
16) Contraception (preventing conception) and birth control (preventing live birth) are not quite the same. To which category do "morning-after" pills and mifepristone (RU-486) belong, and why?
17) Menopause normally occurs around age 60, when women stop menstruating and their ovaries are no longer working. ⊚ ⊚
18) is
true false
A functional advantage of having human testes in the scrotum rather than in the abdomen
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A) lower temperature. B) greater protection to the testes. C) lack of room in the abdomen. D) a shorter sperm duct. E) more direct blood supply.
19)
Which of the following statements describes events during oogenesis? A) The primary spermatocyte divides producing two spermatids. B) The primary oocytedivides producing two haploid cells. C) The primary oocyte divides producing four haploid cells. D) None of these events occur during oogenesis. E) The primary oocytedivides producing four diploid cells.
20)
What structure is produced during meiosis I in the male? A) spermatogonium B) immature sperm C) primary oocyte D) secondary spermatocyte E) late spermatid
21)
During the luteal phase a low level of progesterone and estrogen will bring about
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A) the thickening ofthe endometrial lining in preparation for the implantation of a zygote. B) the disintegrationof the endometrium and the rupturing of the blood vessels. C) a spike of the luteinizing hormone causing the oocyte to be ovulated. D) the development ofa secondary oocyte. E) the enlarging of the breast tissue inorder to prepare for lactation.
22) Identify the correct order of events for a person who has contracted an HIV infection. a. The immune system reduces the virus levels in the blood. b. HIV infected cells proliferate, increasing the number of infected helper T cells. c. Patient experiences mild flu-like symptoms. d. A deficiency in the number of helper T cells causes the patient to develop additional health problems. e. The blood contains a high amount of the virus. f. The virus mutates so it is not recognizable by the immune system. A) d - e - c - a - b - f B) e - a - b - c - f- d C) e - c - b - a - f- d D) d - c - a - b - f- e E) e - c - a - b - f- d
23) The hormone produced by cells around the embryo that maintains the corpus luteum and pregnancy is called A) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH). B) luteinizing hormone (LH). C) human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG). D) estrogen. E) progesterone.
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24)
Inhibin is a hormone that
A) prevents or inhibits erection. B) prevents or inhibits sexual urges. C) is involved in a positive feedback relationship with the hypothalamus to regulate maturation of eggs in the oviduct. D) is involved in a negative feedback relationship with the anterior pituitary and hypothalamus to trigger ovulation in females. E) is involved in a negative feedback relationship with the anterior pituitary and hypothalamus to regulate testosterone levels.
25)
Trace the correct path of the sperm during ejaculation. A) vas deferens, seminiferous tubules, epididymis, urethra B) seminiferous tubules, vas deferens, epididymis, urethra C) urethra, vas deferens, seminal vesicles, testes D) testes, urethra, vas deferens, penis E) seminiferous tubules, epididymis, vas deferens, urethra
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26) Identify and briefly describe the function of the labeled structures on the sperm in the picture.
27)
Identify how the HAART works when used on a patient that has contracted HIV.
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A) Entry inhibitors in HAART will prevent the HIV virus from binding to the CD4 receptors on the cell membranes. AZT will interfere with the conversion of viral RNA into the cellular proteins and the integrase inhibitors prevent HIV from inserting its DNA into the host cell. B) Entry inhibitors in HAART will prevent the HIV virus from fitting through the protein channels of the cell membranes. AZT will interfere with the conversion of viral DNA into RNA and the integrase inhibitors prevent HIV from inserting its DNA into the host cell. C) Entry inhibitors in HAART will prevent the HIV virus from binding to the CD4 receptors on the cell membranes. AZT will interfere with the conversion of viral RNA into DNA and the integrase inhibitors prevent HIV from inserting its DNA into the host cell. D) Entry inhibitors in HAART will prevent the HIV virus from binding to the CD4 receptors on the cell membranes. AZT will interfere with the conversion of viral DNA into RNA and the integrase inhibitors prevent HIV from inserting its DNA into the host cell. E) AZT in HAART will prevent the HIV virus from binding to the CD4 receptors on the cell membranes. Inhibitors will interfere with the conversion of viral RNA into DNA and the integrase inhibitors prevent HIV from inserting its DNA into the host cell.
28)
All of the following animals are likely to undergo parthenogenesis EXCEPT A) lizards. B) humans. C) fish. D) flatworms. E) insects.
29)
In in-vitro fertilization, sperm are placed in the vagina of a woman by a physician. ⊚ ⊚
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30)
Identify the labeled structures in the cross section of a human penis in the picture.
31)
The structure from which an egg is released during ovulation is called a(n) A) ovarian cyst. B) secondary follicle. C) primary follicle. D) corpus luteum. E) vesicular follicle.
32)
Which of the following statements about asexual reproduction is NOT true?
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A) A large number of offspring can be produced in this way in a short time. B) Asexual reproduction is less commonly used by vertebrates. C) Asexual reproduction can occur by budding or by division and regeneration. D) Asexual reproduction produces variation that allows the species to adapt quickly to changing environmental conditions. E) Asexual reproduction occurs with only one parent.
33) Which type of life history produces a larval stage that feeds on a different food source than the adult stage? A) oviparous B) ovoviviparous C) viviparous(x3) D) Both ovoviviparous and viviparous(x3). E) Both viviparous(x3) and oviparous.
34)
The organ that exchanges molecules between fetal and maternal blood is the A) vagina. B) mammary gland. C) placenta. D) oviduct. E) uterus.
35)
The STD ________ causes an inflammation of the liver and is preventable by ________.
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A) syphilis; male condom B) hepatitis B; using a male condom C) hepatitis A; vaccination D) HIV; vaccination E) gonorrhea; vaccination
36)
Which of the following is NOT true after a man has had a vasectomy? A) The interstitial cells can still release hormones. B) The uterine tube will not be affected. C) The vas deferens still transports sperm to the urethra. D) The semen will not contain sperm. E) Bulbourethral glands are not affected by the operation.
37)
Which of these descriptions is associated with the luteal phase of the uterine cycle? A) low FSH, high estrogen, developing follicle, increase in uterine lining B) decrease in LH, increase in progesterone, corpus luteum present, secretory uterine
lining C) increase in LH, increase in progesterone, corpus luteum present, endometrium released D) decrease in LH, decrease in progesterone, corpus luteum present, secretory uterine lining E) high LH, high estrogen, developing follicle, uterine lining breakdown
38)
Why does semen contain alkaline secretions?
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A) Alkaline secretions are less viscous and the sperm can swim better. B) The pH of semen has no significance. C) Sperm are only able to use fructose under alkaline conditions. D) The female vagina is acidic and thus not a favorable environment for sperm.
39)
Fertilization in humans normally occurs in the A) abdominal cavity. B) uterus. C) uterine tube. D) vagina. E) ovarian follicle.
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40)
Identify the labeled structures of the male reproductive system in the picture.
41) In a species of desert lizard, only females are known to exist. When two females court prior to reproduction, it is necessary for one lizard to assume the posture of a male to stimulate the other female to ovulate. This is a case of A) angiogenesis. B) hermaphroditism. C) bisexuality. D) parthenogenesis.
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42)
List the structures of the female reproductive system and indicate their function.
43)
Luteinizing hormone (LH) triggers ovulation in females. What is its role in males?
A) It is exactly the opposite chemical from male hormones, in an antibody-antigen fashion. B) It does not exist since males lack ovaries. C) It exists in rudimentary levels since LH is made by the anterior pituitary. D) It controls production of testosterone.
44) the
When an egg erupts from a follicle, the chamber that remains and secretes hormones is
A) oocyte. B) corpus luteum. C) Graafian follicle. D) stroma. E) primary follicle.
45) Semen is composed of secretions or cells produced in all of the following structures EXCEPT
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A) the prostate gland. B) seminal vesicles. C) vas deferens. D) bulbourethral glands. E) the testes.
46) Which of the following birth control methods can both help prevent the spread of sexually transmitted diseases? A) None of these will prevent the spread of sexually transmitted diseases. B) vaccines and female condoms C) male condom and intrauterine device D) male and female condoms E) female condom and the morning-after pill
47)
What is parthenogenesis?
A) an asexual means of reproduction involving budding B) an asexual means of reproduction by splitting or fission into several new individuals C) a modification of sexual reproduction in which an unfertilized egg develops into a complete individual D) a sexual means of reproduction by which cross-fertilization occurs between hermaphrodites E) a sexual means of internal fertilization
48)
The egg is propelled down the uterine tube by
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A) suction from the uterine contractions. B) simply drifting on the prevailing current of body fluids. C) flagella. D) uterine tube cilia and tubular muscle contractions.
49) A male accessory organ of the reproductive system that often becomes enlarged, infected, or cancerous in older men is the A) epididymis. B) bulbourethral gland. C) prostate gland. D) vas deferens. E) testis.
50)
In the human male, the tube used to carry both sperm and urine is the A) fallopian tube. B) seminiferous tubule. C) urethra. D) ureter. E) vas deferens.
51)
Which of the following STDs are preventable through the use of a vaccine? A) HIV andgonorrhea B) hepatitis A and B C) hepatitis B and chlamydia D) syphilis and vaginal infections E) hepatitis A and HIV
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52) Which of the following reproductive technologies would produce the greatest complications in defining the individuals who are considered the parents of the child? A) gamete intrafallopian transfer B) intracytoplasmic sperm injection C) artificial insemination by donor D) in vitro fertilization E) using a surrogate mother
53)
Which of the following statements about reproduction is NOT true?
A) Hydras may reproduce asexually by budding new individuals from the parent. B) Asexual reproduction is most advantageous when the environment is continually changing. C) A hermaphrodite produces both male and female gametes in different specialized gonads. D) A starfish can be cut into several pieces, and each piece will regenerate all the other parts of the individual. E) Gametes areproduced by meiosis and may be specialized as eggs or sperm.
54) All of the following statements concerning activities in the female reproductive system are true EXCEPT A) a surge of FSH is believed to promote ovulation. B) the corpus luteum produces progesterone. C) the follicles in the ovary produce estrogen. D) the placenta can produce both estrogen and progesterone. E) LH stimulates the formation of the corpus luteum.
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55) Which of the following features is not an advantage of an organism that has a viviparous life history? A) The eggs are retained within the body of the mother until the offspring areable to fend for themselves. B) Offspring can liveindependently shortly after they are born. C) The mother supplies the offspring with nourishment, even after birth. D) The unborn offspring is supplied with a continuous flow of nutrients duringdevelopment. E) Development of theoffspring occurs inside of the female.
56)
Ultimate control of testes development is by the ________ which secretes ________. A) hypothalamus; gonadotropin-releasing hormone B) seminiferous tubules; inhibin C) anterior pituitary; testosterone D) hypothalamus; testosterone E) anterior pituitary; gonadotropin-releasing hormone
57) What is the probable biological and evolutionary function for a species of desert lizards to to utilize female-only reproduction? A) This species is probably going extinct and Parthenogenesis is a last ditch effort at reproduction. B) Parthenogenesis attracts males to the all female population. C) Parthenogenesis allows lizards to save energy by limiting diversity. D) Parthenogenesis results in the crossing-over of chromosomes and does not exhibit any evolutionary benefit.
58)
All of the following structures are part of the male reproductive system EXCEPT
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A) fimbriae. B) testes. C) prostate. D) epididymis. E) penis.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 41_14e_Mader 1) A 2) C 3) A 4) D 5) B 6) C 7) D 8) A 9) TRUE 11) B 12) B 15) C 17) FALSE 18) A 19) B 20) D 21) B 22) E 23) C 24) E 25) E 27) C 28) B 29) FALSE 31) E 32) D Version 1
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33) A 34) C 35) C 36) C 37) B 38) D 39) C 41) D 43) D 44) B 45) C 46) D 47) C 48) D 49) C 50) C 51) B 52) B 53) B 54) A 55) A 56) A 57) C 58) A
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CHAPTER 42 1) Identify the correct order of steps in the development of the central nervous system. a. Neural folds develop on either side of the neural groove b. The neural tube forms c. Thickening of cells on the dorsal surface called the neural plate occurs d. The anterior end of the neural tube develops into the brain A) c - a - d - b B) a - c - b - d C) d - c - b - a D) a - b -c-d E) c - a - b - d
2) What statement about homeotic genes, as it relates to morphogenesis in Drosophila ,is NOT true? A) The homeobox codes for a homeodomain which is the DNA-binding portion of the transcriptional factor. B) Each homeotic gene has a variable region and a sequence called the homeobox. C) All homeotic genes are thought to be derived from an original DNA sequence that has been highly conserved in evolution. D) Homeotic genes code for translational factors that bind to mRNA. E) Homeotic genes are found in many different organisms.
3)
Which stage would show the development of the ectoderm and endoderm germ layers? A) late gastrulation B) neurulation C) blastulation D) early gastrulation
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4) have
A healthy fetus born at twenty-four weeks has a chance of surviving, although it may
A) problems with brain development. B) immature lungs and breathing difficulties. C) kidneys that fail to function. D) an incomplete digestive system. E) an incomplete heart and circulatory system.
5) Identify and briefly describe the labeled stages and structures in this diagram of embryonic development. Specify where cleavage and gastrulation are occurring.
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6)
The phenomenon of apoptosis or cell death
A) is a mechanism present in every cell that occurs when an inhibitory protein is inactivated. B) is not yet understood but probably involves the failure of the homeobox to correctly control development. C) is a disease phenomenon and cell death is always a bad trait. D) occurs when the cellular machinery simply wears out and the cell dies from being unable to continue vital processes. E) occurs when the ability of the cell to repair DNA mutations finally fails.
7)
Morphogenesis is characterized by A) cell division and growth in size. B) All of the choices are correct. C) None of the choices are correct. D) body parts being shaped and patterned into a specific form. E) cells becoming specialized in structure and function.
8)
Which of the following is the organ of exchange between the mother and fetus? A) placenta B) chorion C) amnion D) yolk sac E) allantois
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9) What is the correct series of events during parturition? a. The amnion breaks. b. The cervix dilates. c. ACTH causes the adrenal cortex to release androgens into the bloodstream. d. Prostaglandins and oxytocin are produced. e. The baby is born and the umbilical cord is cut. f. The placenta is delivered. A) a - d - b - c - e -f B) c - d - b - a - e -f C) c - b - f - a - e - d D) c - d - b - f - a -e E) c - d - a -b - e -f
10) List the correct order of steps in the development of the central nervous system of a vertebrate.
11) What is the correct order of steps of morphogenesis in Drosophila melanogaster? a. Gap genes divide the body into broad regions b. Establishment of anterior / posterior axes c. Homeotic genes determine which body parts arise from each region d. Pair-rule genes are activated in order to develop a preliminary segmentation pattern A) a - b - c - d B) a - d - c - b C) a - d - b - c D) b - a - d - c E) b - a - c - d
12)
Which of the following statements about embryonic development is NOT true?
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A) The primitive streak occurs in the morula stage of the embryonic development. B) A primitive gut is also referred to as an archenteron. C) A blastocoel is the fluid-filled cavity of a blastula. D) A blastopore is the opening into the primitive gut formed by gastrulation. E) A zygote undergoes cleavage, which increases the cell number, but not the volume of the egg cytoplasm.
13)
One of the earliest indications of cell differentiation is cellular movement. ⊚ ⊚
14)
true false
The trophoblast will provide nourishment for the embryo and give rise to the placenta. ⊚ ⊚
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15) Identify and briefly describe the labeled structures in the cross section of the vertebrate embryo.
16)
The notochord develops in which stage of embryonic development? A) gastrulation B) blastulation C) cleavage D) neurulation
17) Which of the following variables would support the "damage accumulation theory of aging"?
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A) Harmful metabolites accumulate over our lifetime. B) Poor diet andexposure to the sun lead to cellular damage. C) None of these support the damage accumulation theory of aging. D) Protein fibers become cross-linked as we age. E) All of these support the damage accumulation theory of aging.
18) By the end of the eighth week of development, all organ systems are developed in the embryo. ⊚ ⊚
true false
19) Prevention of polyspermy depends upon changes in the plasma membrane of the egg and in the zona pellucida. ⊚ ⊚
20)
true false
Which body system develops first in a human embryo? A) excretory B) circulatory C) respiratory D) reproductive E) nervous
21) When discussing the morphogenesis of Drosophila melanogaster, a homeotic gene codes for
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A) proteins that determine which genes are turned on. B) proteins that bindto regulatory regions of DNA and proteins that determine which genes are turnedon. C) proteins that bind to regulatory regions of DNA. D) proteins that determine anteroposterior polarity. E) All of the choices are correct.
22)
Which structures located on the oocyte serve to bring the entire sperm into it? A) corona radiata B) zona pellucida C) flagella D) microvilli
23)
If the acrosome cap of the sperm were to fall off, what would happen during fertilization?
A) The zona pellucidawould not be weakened by the enzymes found in the acrosome cap of the sperm. B) The zona pellucidawould depolarize at a faster rate than if the acrosome cap was present. C) The corona radiatawould not be weakened by the fatty acidsfound in the acrosome cap of thesperm. D) None of the answer choices would occur. E) All of the answer choices would occur.
24)
Which association of structure and function is incorrect?
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A) chorion - gas exchange B) allantois - waste storage C) yolk sac - food storage D) amnion - blood vessels
25)
The human embryo becomes a fetus at the end of the second month of gestation. ⊚ ⊚
26)
true false
Which feature is not associated with aging of the musculoskeletal system? A) a two-inch decrease in height by the time we reach age 80 B) All of these are features associated with aging. C) a decrease in the muscle mass starting in the 20s or 30s for men D) compression of the vertebrae E) a reduction in the size and number of muscle fibers
27) What body systems may be impacted if a mother drinks alcohol during pregnancy and causes developmental problems to the endoderm? A) The outer layersof the digestive and respiratory systems may not be as functional as theyshould. B) The epithelial lining of the digestive and respiratory systems may not be as functional as they should be. C) The epidermis andthe epithelial lining of the oral cavity may not be as functional as theyshould. D) The epithelial lining of the digestive and reproductive systems may not be as functional as they should be.
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28) What part of the blastocyst will develop into the human embryo and eventually into a fetus? A) inner cell mass B) blastopore C) trophoblast D) archenteron E) chorion
29)
Differentiation is characterized by A) All of the choices are correct. B) cellular division and growth. C) body parts being shaped and patterned into a specific form. D) None of the choices are correct. E) cells becoming specialized in structure and function.
30)
The amnion surrounds the embryo and bathes it in a protective fluid. ⊚ ⊚
31) the
true false
The neural tube of vertebrates develops during morphogenesis of the nervous system by
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A) folding of ectoderm tissue. B) fusion of ectoderm and mesoderm. C) contraction of the endoderm away from the mesoderm. D) extension of endoderm into a thin spinal column. E) migration of mesoderm cells.
32)
The proper order of embryonic development is A) morula-cleavage-blastula-gastrula. B) cleavage-morula-blastula-gastrula. C) gastrula-cleavage-blastula-morula. D) blastula-cleavage-morula-gastrula.
33) Which of the following practices is believed to help the most with slowing the damage accumulation aging process? A) a diet that has a high level of cholesterol B) None of these will help slow the aging process. C) All of these willhelp slow the aging process. D) a diet that consists of dark green vegetables, nuts, and red wine E) a moderate exercise program
34)
List the correct order of steps of morphogenesis in Drosophila melanogaster.
35)
Development of the neural system is characterized by
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A) All of the choices are correct. B) body parts being shaped and patterned into a specific form. C) None of the choices are correct. D) cells becoming specialized in structure and function. E) cell division and growth in size.
36) The formation of the lens of the vertebrate eye from a skin layer in contact with an outgrowth of the embryonic brain is an example of A) cellular aggregation. B) induction. C) neurulation. D) morphogenesis. E) gastrulation.
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37) Using the word bank below, identify the labeled structures in the picture (embryo, amnion, yolk sac, allantois, chorion, umbilical cord).
38) Which structure is NOT associated with the development of the central nervous system in vertebrates? A) notochord B) neural plate C) neural tube D) ectoderm
39)
The coelomic cavity is derived from the
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A) blastocoel. B) folding of theneural tube. C) elimination of the yolk sac nutrients. D) space left after organs develop. E) splitting of the mesoderm.
40) As humans age, we tend to see a decrease in the function of various body systems. A decrease in which system will lead to problems in regulating body temperature? A) integumentarysystem B) digestive system C) excretorysystem D) respiratorysystem E) cardiovascularsystem
41) A series of events occur during fertilization. Place the following events in the proper order in which they occur. a) The "slowblock" occurs. b) A single nuclear envelope surrounds both sperm and egg pronuclei. c) The acrosomes of sperm release digestive enzymes that allow the sperm to pass through the zona pellucida to the egg plasma membrane. d) Sperm cover the surface of the egg and secrete enzymes that help weaken the corona radiata. e) Pronuclei are formed. f) The "fast block" occurs. g) Microvilli bring the entire sperm into the egg. h) Sperm squeeze through the corona radiata and bind to the zona pellucida. A) d, b, g, a, f, c, e, h B) d, h, c, f, a, g, e, b C) a, e, b, d, f, c,g, h D) e, d, h, c, a, f, b, g E) f, a, d, h, c, g, e, b
42)
In what process does a fertilized egg undergo cell division without further growth?
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A) cleavage B) gastrulation C) morphogenesis D) implantation E) differentiation
43) The process in which neighboring cells influence the development of each other, either by direct contact or by production of chemical signals, is called A) neurulation. B) homeotic pattern formation. C) induction. D) maternal determinants. E) gastrulation.
44)
Generally, only one sperm fertilizes an egg because
A) one small entry hole called the blastopore allows only one sperm to fit through and then seals. B) sperm are so few that two are unlikely to arrive at the same time. C) when the first sperm membrane fuses with the egg membrane, it forms a fertilization membrane, which blocks penetration by other sperm. D) sperm compete against one another before entering, and only the most fit one is accepted. E) many sperm enter but only one set of chromosomes can fuse with the egg nucleus; the other sperm are absorbed.
45) Which of the following stages of embryonic development consists of only two layers of cells?
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A) blastula B) late gastrula C) morula D) early gastrula
46) During the formation of an embryo, the hollow ball of cells having a fluid-filled cavity is called a A) blastocoel. B) gastrula. C) neurula. D) blastula. E) morula.
47)
Development of the human embryo's heart begins in the _____ week. A) 6th B) 16th C) 1st D) 3rd E) 24th
48)
Which of the following serves as the first site of blood formation in the embryo? A) yolk sac B) allantois C) chorion D) amnion E) placenta
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49)
The _____ develops into the fetal portion of the placenta. A) yolk sac B) allantois C) chorion D) archenteron E) amnion
50) A decrease in the function of the cardiovascular system due to aging can cause a decreased ability of the body to metabolize drugs. ⊚ ⊚
true false
51)
Indicate the proper order of events that occur in fertilization.
52)
At _____ weeks, the fetal heartbeat can first be heard through a stethoscope. A) 16 B) 25 C) 12 D) 4 E) 30
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53) Which of the following structures is NOT one of the extraembryonic membranes associated with the human embryo? A) amnion B) chorion C) placenta D) yolk sac E) allantois
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 42_14e_Mader 1) E 2) D 3) D 4) B 6) A 7) D 8) A 9) B 11) D 12) A 13) FALSE 14) FALSE 16) D 17) E 18) TRUE 19) TRUE 20) E 21) B 22) D 23) A 24) D 25) TRUE 26) B 27) B 28) A 29) E Version 1
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30) TRUE 31) A 32) B 33) D 35) A 36) B 38) A 39) E 40) A 41) B 42) A 43) C 44) C 45) D 46) D 47) D 48) A 49) C 50) TRUE 52) A 53) C
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CHAPTER 43 1)
An example of territoriality is
A) a swarm of mosquitoes hovering around a sweaty person. B) barnacles attached to a boat bottom. C) a cloud of moths attracted to a light. D) a red-wingedblackbird singing to ward off other males and attract a female to the nest inhis fencerow. E) All of the choices are correct.
2) Altruism is very rare in societies where the individual's genes have a greater chance of being passed on by other individuals of the society. ⊚ ⊚
3)
true false
Advantages to living in a social group for an animal include all of the following EXCEPT A) spread of illness and parasites. B) help in predator avoidance. C) help raising young. D) group food gathering.
4)
Which description best explains the difference between orientation and navigation?
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A) Orientation by birds can be achieved by using the sun or stars in order to determine the direction they should be flying. Navigation is the ability of the birds to change their direction in response to environmental clues. B) Orientation is the ability of the birds to change their direction in response to environmental clues. Navigation by birds can be achieved by using the sun or stars in order to determine the direction they should be flying. C) Orientation by birds can be achieved by using the Earth's magnetic fieldin order to determine the direction they should be flying. Navigation is the ability of the birds to change their direction in response to environmental clues. D) Orientation by birds can be achieved by using the sun or stars in order to determine the direction they should be flying. Navigation is the ability of the birds to change their direction in response to predator and prey abundance. E) Orientation by birds can be achieved by using the sun or stars in order to determine the speed they should be flying. Navigation is the ability of the birds to change their direction in response to social clues.
5)
If a person is trying to use operant conditioning on their child, they would need to
A) repeatedlyencourage the child to perform a behavior and then reward the good behavior sothe child associates the behavior with the reward. B) repeatedly encouragethe child to perform a behavior and then waitseveral days before rewarding the good behavior so the child associates thebehavior with the reward. C) wait until thechild accidentally performs a behavior that is desirable and then reward thegood behavior so the child associates the behavior with the reward. D) never encourage a specific behavior from a child but randomly give themrewards.
6)
Altruistic behaviors between closely related animals
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A) increase the inclusive fitness of the altruist. B) reduce fighting between species. C) increase the life-time reproductive success of the altruist. D) force individuals to cooperate with one another and thereby increase mating and population growth.
7) Which of the following communication methods would be most effective for a species that lives in the tropical rainforest and is active at night? A) chemical B) auditory C) tactile D) visual
8)
Communication is an action by a sender that may influence the behavior of a receiver. ⊚ ⊚
true false
9) Scientists have discovered gene products, including the hormone ELH, that control all components of egg-laying behavior in Aplysia slugs. This discovery confirms that A) the egg-laying behavior has absolutely no nervous system involvement. B) the egg-laying behavior is innate or hardwired into the slug's brain. C) genes can control endocrine gland secretions that control behavior. D) genes only influence physiology and structure but not behavior. E) this slug could avoid being eaten by garter snakes.
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10) The similarity in the behavior of identical twins, even if separated at birth, is evidence that behavior is due to environmental influences. ⊚ ⊚
11)
true false
Which of the following cases is not an example of classical conditioning?
A) All of the answer choices are examples of classical conditioning. B) Advertisers using an attractive model to sell their line of clothing. C) A baby crying when her diaper is wet and the parent picking her up. D) None of the answer choices are examples of classical conditioning. E) Giving a hunting dog an electric shock when it does not return to the owner's side on command.
12)
Learned behavior that causes a family of baby ducks to follow their mother is called A) insight learning. B) motivation. C) imprinting. D) operant conditioning. E) extinction.
13)
Besides humans, _____ have one of the most complex languages in the animal kingdom. A) klipspringers B) crickets C) bottlenose dolphins D) chimpanzees
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14) Fireflies use pheromones to communicate with each other at night because it increases the chance the receiver will get the message. ⊚ ⊚
true false
15) A newborn chick can accurately peck at food without other chicks around to serve as models. Newborn geese considered Konrad Lorenz to be their mother because he was the first creature they saw and heard after they hatched. Are these the same "type" of inherited behavior? Compare and contrast these two behaviors.
16)
A very rapid kind of communication that works at a distance and in the dark is A) visual communication. B) tactile communication. C) chemical communication. D) auditory communication.
17)
_____ communication occurs within an animal societal unit.
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A) Tactile B) Chemical C) Auditory D) Visual E) All of the choices are correct.
18) A male leopard nuzzles the female's neck to calm her and to stimulate her willingness to mate. This is an example of _____ communication. A) auditory B) tactile C) visual D) chemical
19)
Which of the following is a proximal cause that will stimulate birds to migrate?
A) an increase in the number of males within the population causing an increase in competition for mates B) the bird getting older C) environmental stimuli such as changes in temperature D) All of these are proximal causes that will influence birds to migrate. E) a new predator moving into the environment that poses a threat to the survival of the population
20) During operant conditioning, the stimulus-response connection is weakened by repeated punishment. ⊚ ⊚
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21)
An example of a pheromone in humans is A) the mother's milk that transfers immunity to the infant. B) testosterone. C) a chemical released by males that reduces premenstrual tension in women. D) saliva exchanged during kissing (as a sexual stimulant).
22) Scientific discoveries have provided evidence that the _____ systems are involved in behavior. A) respiratory and digestive B) endocrine and nervous C) digestive and reproductive D) excretory and circulatory
23) Describe the experiment performed by Ivan Pavlov that helped support the idea of classical conditioning.
24) In African tribes, polygamy, the practice of one man having several wives,is practiced. The advantage to the female is
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A) help in child rearing. B) All of the choices are advantages to the female. C) good food source. D) more surviving children.
25)
In order to train an individual through classical conditioning, the researcher must A) present the subjectwith one stimulus at a time. B) use punishment to achieve a specific behavioral outcome. C) use a reward to encourage a specific behavior. D) pair the presentation of two different stimuli together.
26) The endocrine system produces hormones in the body and it can be manipulated to cause an individual to change their behavior. ⊚ ⊚
true false
27) Hippopotamuses perform territorial displays that include mouth opening. This is _____ communication. A) visual B) tactile C) chemical D) auditory
28)
The genetics inherited by an individual will completely control their behavior.
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⊚ ⊚
true false
29) The Jones family has a plan to encourage good behavior in their children. When a child completes daily chores, that child receives a gold star. The earning of fourteen gold stars allows the child to choose between a visit to the movie theatre or the park. This is an example of A) insight learning. B) classical conditioning. C) imprinting. D) polyanthus. E) operant conditioning.
30)
Which body system plays a role in influencing behavior? A) endocrine andurinary B) None of these systems will influence behavior. C) nervous andendocrine D) respiratory andurinary E) muscular andneural
31) Dogs scent-mark by defecating and urinating in an area, while cats scent-mark by rubbing against objects. Both of these increase the animal's level of fitness and are examples of A) altruism. B) sexual selection. C) foraging. D) territoriality.
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32) An increase in fitness due to competition among males and mate choice by females is a result of A) sexual dimorphism. B) courtship. C) social interaction. D) sociobiology. E) sexual selection.
33) The making of a short-term reproductive sacrifice in order to maximize future reproductive potential is called A) territoriality. B) kin selection. C) inclusive fitness. D) reciprocal altruism.
34)
Adaptive behavior has probably been selected by evolutionary processes because it A) allows the animal to live in the widest variety of environments. B) All of the choices are correct. C) makes the animal the smartest. D) allows the animal to produce the largest number of viable offspring. E) allows the animal to live the longest.
35) Which form of communication is used by social insects to modify the behavior of the colony?
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A) auditory communication B) None of the choices are used by social insects. C) chemical communication D) All of the choicesare used by social insects. E) visual communication
36) The "hardwired" or inherited set response patterns that are described for a male cheetah spraying a pheromone to mark its territory, a bee performing a waggle dance, or a cricket singing to sort out mates, are A) languages similar to human languages in variability and learning requirements. B) altruistic adaptations to improve the general environment. C) inherited systems that are evolutionarily adaptive. D) symbol systems. E) the sociobiological roots of our language system.
37)
How will cheetahs use pheromones to increase their foraging success?
A) Cheetahs will scent-mark their territory to warn other cheetahs to stay out. This will decrease their competition for food within their territory. B) Cheetahs will scent-mark their kills so they can find them again. This will increase their availability of food. C) Cheetahs will scent-mark their trails so that other cheetahs can follow them to optimal food sources. D) Cheetahs do not use pheromones to increase their foraging success.
38)
Which of the following statements about behavior is NOT true?
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A) Innate behavior is triggered by a stimulus. B) Fixed action patterns are sometimes subject to modification by learning. C) Innate behavior is usually inherited. D) All behaviors can be explained as fixed action patterns. E) Animals with simple nervous systems tend to respond to a stimulus with an innate behavior.
39) The type of learning that is associated with an organism solving a problem without any prior experiences with the situation is called A) imprinting. B) operant conditioning. C) insight learning. D) associative learning.
40)
The waggle dance of a bee indicates to other bees in the hive the direction of food. ⊚ ⊚
true false
41) Many worker bees give their lives to save a bee hive from an attack by bears or other animals. In such cases, we now know that A) These worker beeswill have a reproductive benefit if the members of the hive survive. B) each female worker is waiting to get her chance to reproduce. C) this is a case of sexual selection. D) this is a case of bees consciously understanding the need to preserve the nest for their individual benefit—they might survive if all work together.
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42)
Which of the following is a disadvantage of maintaining a large territory? A) There will beample room for nesting sites. B) There will be alarge diversity of food types within the territory. C) It will beenergetically expensive to control and defend the territory. D) There will be alarge number of females that reside within the territory. E) All of the choicesare disadvantages of a large territory.
43)
Ants following a trail to the sugar bowl in your kitchen are doing so because of A) operant conditioning. B) a dance done by an ant in the anthill. C) an innate knowledge of where the sugar can be found. D) chance alone. E) a pheromone pathway laid down by previous ants.
44)
Describe the series of steps required for an individual to be operant conditioned.
45) The capacity to learn is inherited and allows the animal to change its behavioral patterns in response to changes in the environment. ⊚ ⊚
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46) Which of the following experiments helped B. F. Skinner develop the idea of operant conditioning? A) A dog was trainedto put its paw on a lever in order to receive a pellet of food as a reward. B) A dog wouldsalivate when presented with a bowl of food so a bell was rung to build theassociation between the bell and food. C) A rat was trainedto run a maze in a short amount of time in order to receive a reward. D) Young geese wereexposed to Skinner shortly after their birth so they would think he was theirmother. E) A rat was trained to pull a lever toreceive a reward of a food pellet.
47) Primate grooming and honeybee waggle-dancing share which of these forms of communication? A) tactile communication B) auditory communication C) visual communication D) chemical communication
48) Auditory communication is the most effective form of communication in every environment inhabited by animals. ⊚ ⊚
49)
true false
Altruism is
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A) actions of an animal that immediately benefit others rather than itself. B) displaced aggressive behavior. C) belligerent behavior that helps an animal compete in its society. D) a means of ranking animals in a dominance hierarchy.
50) Pavlov's well-known experiment of a dog salivating at the sound of a bell ring is an example of A) operant conditioning. B) insight learning. C) imprinting. D) classical conditioning.
51)
A female chooses a mate by A) selecting the more aggressive and vigorous males. B) selecting traits that improve the chances of offspring survival. C) All of the choices apply. D) courtship display rituals.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 43_14e_Mader 1) D 2) FALSE 3) A 4) A 5) A 6) A 7) A 8) TRUE 9) C 10) FALSE 11) A 12) C 13) C 14) FALSE 16) D 17) E 18) B 19) C 20) FALSE 21) C 22) B 24) B 25) D 26) TRUE 27) A 28) FALSE Version 1
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29) E 30) C 31) D 32) E 33) D 34) D 35) C 36) C 37) A 38) D 39) C 40) TRUE 41) A 42) C 43) E 45) TRUE 46) E 47) A 48) FALSE 49) A 50) D 51) C
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CHAPTER 44 1)
Polyculture refers to
A) the use of multiple types of fertilizers, pesticides, and herbicides on a crop. B) the practice of planting crops in circular shaped rows to minimize water runoff. C) the practice of planting one variety of crop in a field at a time. D) the practice of alternating nitrogen fixing crops with nitrogen utilizing crops from year to year. E) the practice of planting several varieties of crops in a field at the same time.
2) All of the following factors will keep a population from growing at its biotic potential EXCEPT A) prevalence of disease or parasites. B) lack of space. C) limited supply of food and water. D) abundance of predators. E) successful reproduction of its members.
3)
Which variable is not a density-dependent factor? A) an early cold spell that causes the plants in a given area to die off earlier than normal B) a red-tailed hawk preying upon a population of field mice C) smallpox outbreaks during the1800s D) competition between two male deer for territory
4) What is the age structure diagram for a population that has a birthrate higher than its death rate and larger population in prereproductive ages than in reproductive and postreproductive ages?
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A) This population can expect to move intoa logistic growth curve in the near future. B) This population canexpect to see a bell-shaped diagram that will cause the population to grow inthe future. C) This population can expect to see a pyramid-shaped diagram that will cause the population to decrease in the future. D) This population canexpect to see a pyramid-shaped diagram that will cause the population to growin the near future. E) This population canexpect to see an urn-shaped diagram that will cause the population to grow inthe future.
5)
Which of the following factor(s) limit(s) exponential growth of a population? A) All of these choices limit exponential growth. B) competition between members C) increases in predator populations D) competition with other species E) limited resource availability
6) Zero population growth will be achieved as soon as couples have only replacement reproduction, with two children per couple. ⊚ ⊚
7)
true false
Opportunistic species
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A) have long life spans. B) are good dispersers and colonizers of new habitats. C) are slow to mature. D) are adapted to stable environments. E) are composed of large individual organisms.
8) Consider that a species of salmon lays 20,000 eggs per pair when it spawns and dies. At the end of five years, an average of one pair of mature salmon from this group of hatched eggs returns again to spawn in the parent stream (19,998 have not survived). What is the growth rate of this population? A) None - because there is exact replacement of the previous generation B) 20,000 -because there were that many eggs produced per parent fish ( r2) C) 10,000 - because there were that many eggs produced per parent fish ( r) D) 2,000 - because there was this much average die-off per year E) 2,000 - because this must be divided by five years
9) Farmers sprayed litchi trees to suppress populations of scale insects. However, the spray also killedpopulations of a predatory lacewing that controlled the scales. Soon the spraying did no good, and the damage to the leechi from the scales was greater than before spraying had occurred. Few predatory lacewings exist in the trees now because A) the scale insect was K-selected and the high number of young included a resistant strain, while the predator was r-selected and will take longer to produce a resistant variety. B) the scale insect was r-selected and the high number of young included a resistant strain; the predator was K-selected and will take longer to produce a resistant variety. C) the predator was r-selected and was therefore more susceptible to the spray. D) they, too, are insects so they are r-selected.
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10)
In a population with low death rates, this age structure diagram indicates that
A) the population is decreasing. B) the biotic potential must be larger than usual. C) the population will continue to grow for some time. D) the population is stable.
11) Survivorship may be defined as the probability of newborn individuals of a cohort surviving to a particular age interval or as the proportion of the population surviving from the previous age interval. ⊚ ⊚
12)
true false
The population growth rate is negative when A) better health care reduces the death rate and increases survivorship of newborns. B) all couples are married but average fewer than two children apiece. C) a country becomes poorer, because it is related to economic growth. D) birthrate is greater than death rate. E) death rate is greater than birthrate.
13) Most species are intermediate between r-strategists and K-strategists, and tend to have a type II survivorship curve.
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⊚ ⊚
true false
14) The maximum rate of natural increase of a population that occurs under ideal conditions is the A) biotic potential. B) population growth. C) density-independent population. D) environmental resistance. E) carrying capacity.
15)
The sequence of decreased death rate followed by a decrease in birthrate is called A) replacement reproduction. B) environmental resistance. C) demographic transition. D) doubling time coefficient. E) a limiting factor.
16) Tell what type of growth model is depicted in the graph and describe the factors that must be met for a population to experience this type of growth. Identify the labeled phases "A," "B," "C," and "D" and briefly explain what occurs during these phases.
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17) Intrinsic factors, such as behavior and physiology, may affect growth rates of a population. ⊚ ⊚
true false
18) If the members of a population are small in size, mature early, and have high parity and fecundity, they are A) neither K-strategists nor r-strategists, but have characteristics of both. B) r-strategists. C) K-strategists.
19) Each species has a typical survivorship curve. Identify the labeled curves and briefly describe the typical survival rates and when death occurs. Give examples of organisms that have this type of survivorship curve.
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20) Since the population of the LDCs is still growing at a significant rate, one would correctly assume that the LDCs consume a much larger proportion of the Earth's resources. ⊚ ⊚
21)
Only the LDCs will be experiencing overpopulation growth in the near future. ⊚ ⊚
22)
true false
true false
When discussing population features, a cohort is described as A) All of the choices are correct. B) all the individuals in a population born at the same time. C) all the different species in a community. D) all the organisms interacting in the ecosystem. E) all individuals living in the same habitat.
23) Bangladesh has 2,596 persons per square mile, while the United States has 780 persons per square mile and Canada has 9 persons per square mile. These statistics compare the _____ of these countries.
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A) limiting factors B) rate of natural increase C) population densities D) population distributions E) carrying capacities
24)
Which of the below resources would be considered renewable?
A) Aluminum metal that has been obtained by recycling previously used aluminum cans B) An installation of photovoltaic (solar) panels to generate electricity for a city C) A previously inaccessible natural gas source that can now be extracted using a new technology D) A piece of land that has been cleared of forest and made available for a housing development
25)
An ecologist may study
A) how populations are restricted by environmental resistance. B) the different types of organisms living near a hydrothermal vent and how they interact. C) All of the choices are correct. D) the effect of a particular pesticide on a food chain. E) the human impact on the Earth's environment.
26) When the number of births plus immigration exceeds the number of deaths plus emigration, a population size will increase. ⊚ ⊚
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27) A type II survivorship curve, drawn by plotting the number of individuals in a given population alive at the beginning of each age interval, is characterized by A) many individuals dying early in life. B) most individuals dying of old age. C) individuals dying at a constant rate throughout time. D) most individuals dying during their reproductive years.
28) Tell what type of growth model is depicted in the graph and describe the factors that must be met for a population to experience this type of growth. Identify the labeled phases, "A" and "B," and briefly explain what occurs during these phases.
29) Which of the followingcircumstances would cause exponential growth to move into a logistic growth phase?
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A) a reduction in the number of females within the population B) a large increase in the population over three generations C) All of these wouldcause exponential growth to move into logistic growth. D) habitat alteration resulting in the conversion of 1,200 acres of forests into agricultural fields and housing developments E) the introduction of a non-native predator into the environment
30)
How is environmental impact measured in a population? A) population size and resource consumption B) number of individuals dying each generation plus birthrates C) population size and resource production D) All of these areused to measure environmental impact. E) None of these areused to measure environmental impact.
31) Which of these diagrams represents an age structure diagram of more-developed countries?
A) Diagram B B) Diagram A
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32)
As the carrying capacity of an environment is approached by a population, A) population growth begins to be exponential. B) the rate of reproduction increases. C) density-dependentenvironmental resistance increases. D) births begin to exceed deaths. E) deaths begin to exceed births.
33) A(n) _____ consists of all the populations of multiple species interacting in a designated region. A) None of the choices are correct. B) ecosystem C) biosphere D) community
34) Calculate the growth rate of a population if the number of births is 100 per year and the number of deaths is 25 per year per 1,000 individuals.
35) Which of the following are problems associated with the damming of rivers to increase the supply of fresh water?
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A) Dams alter the flow of rivers and can cause negative impacts to wildlife living in the river. B) Reservoirs behind dams lose water due to evaporation and seepage into the underlying rock. C) Over time, dams cause sediment to build up in a reservoir reducing its capacity to store water. D) Salt left behind by evaporation of water in the reservoir increases salinity and can make a river’s water unusable farther downstream. E) All of the above are problems associated with damming of rivers.
36) All of the below technologies will help transition a society towards renewable resources EXCEPT A) building more geothermal electricity-generating complexes. B) developing more efficient ways to extract fossil fuels from the earth. C) increasing the use of hybrid and electric automobiles. D) developing technologies to use solar energy to extract hydrogen from water via electrolysis. E) planting drought and salt-tolerant crops to decrease the amount of water needed for irrigation.
37) Researchers have discovered that there is a small remnant population of endangered bluegrass left in a small prairie plot outside of Kansas City. If there are approximately 850 individuals in the cohort, how many individuals can the researchers expect to find alive at the end of the summer, 6 months later? A) None of the individuals will be alive 6months later. B) approximately 1,000 C) approximately 700 D) approximately 330 E) approximately 45
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38) Dandelions and tent caterpillars, which are r-strategists, are examples of opportunistic species that tend to move in high numbers and rapidly occupy new environments. ⊚ ⊚
true false
39)
Identify the distribution patterns of the desert shrubs in each picture.
40)
All of the following are renewable sources of energy EXCEPT
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A) fossil fuels. B) hydropower. C) geothermal energy. D) wind power. E) solar energy.
41) Consider the life of the praying mantis. The large, predatory female lays several hundred eggs in a foam mass in the fall. The young are most vulnerable when they emerge in the spring, but the few that survive spread out over the countryside and, if they find a mate, lay eggs the following fall. Which type of survivorship curve does this represent? A) type III B) type I C) maximal exponential growth and minimal use of carrying capacity D) exponential growth followed by a decline from resource depletion E) type II
42) Density-independent factors which play a role in regulating population size in nature include A) All of the choices are correct. B) geographical barriers. C) natural disasters. D) weather.
43)
Many species are held below the environmental carrying capacity by predation. ⊚ ⊚
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44)
Which of the following studies would lie outside of an ecologist's skill set?
A) Developing amanagement plan for the preservation of an endangered species. B) All of these are part of an ecologist's skill set. C) Studying the progression of an outbreak of HIV in sub-Saharan Africa. D) Management plan toclean up a section of the Mississippi River that has become polluted due tosewage discharge. E) Proposal to develop a solar power field on the edge of a major urbanarea.
45) Which of the following practices would help minimize the impacts of agriculture on the environment? A) Concentrate on planting only one, or a few varieties, of the most productive crops. B) Construct better systems to pump water long distances to irrigate crops on land that is presently too arid for agriculture. C) Increase the use of tractors, airplanes, and other machinery to apply fertilizers, pesticides, and herbicides to crops. D) Plant multiple varieties of crops in the same fields simultaneously to reduce the susceptibility of crops to pests and diseases. E) Develop new pesticides, herbicides, and fertilizers to maximize crop yields.
46) In trying to limit the growth of a pest, you will have more success if you can reduce the carrying capacity of the environment rather than reduce the population size of the pest. ⊚ ⊚
47)
true false
A pond represents a(n) _____, while the minnows represent a(n) _____.
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A) ecosystem; population B) community; population C) population; community D) ecosystem; community E) population; ecosystem
48) The basic level of an ecological study always begins by looking at how populations interact with each other. ⊚ ⊚
true false
49) A population in which death rates are higher than birth rates, and the prereproductive group is smaller than the reproductive group, is best represented by an age structure diagram with a(n) _____-shape. A) pyramid B) J C) S D) urn E) bell
50)
All of the following statements about population distribution are true EXCEPT
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A) a population's distribution is calculated as the number of individuals per unit area. B) environmental conditions, such as climate and altitude, are often limiting factors of distribution. C) population distribution is the pattern of dispersal of individuals across an area of interest. D) behavioral traits,such as territoriality, can affect the distribution pattern of apopulation.
51)
In the near future, the human population is predicted to involve
A) a decrease in growth in most, but not all, more-developed countries and continued growth in most less-developed countries. B) an increase in population growth in all countries in the world. C) a worldwide decrease in population growth due to limited resources. D) a continuation of human population growth at the same pace as in the previous century.
52) In the logistic growth curve formula, when N is very large, ( K-N)/ N is almost equal to 0, which results in A) the population going extinct. B) the population growth slowing to zero. C) You can't tell without knowing the value of r (rate of reproduction). D) the population growing as fast as it can, or r(N). E) the population exceeding carrying capacity; more are dying due to starvation than are born.
53) Which of the following lifestyle changes would have the greatest impact on reducing an individual's environmental impact?
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A) Waiting until later in life to have children and only having one per couple. B) Reducing the number of children in your household to reach a zero populationgrowth rate. C) Downsizing and moving into a smaller house. D) Reducing your meatconsumption to once or twice a week. E) Buying a more fuel-efficient vehicle and only using it when you are taking long trips instead of traveling locally.
54) Parasitism, competition, and predation are density-independent factors that help control population size. ⊚ ⊚
55)
true false
The particular place where an organism lives is its A) ecosystem. B) community. C) life zone. D) habitat. E) niche.
56)
Population size levels off at the _____ of an environment. A) biotic potential B) carrying capacity C) population growth D) environmental resistance
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57) From the perspective of population growth, what three major age groups does a population contain? Draw three age structure diagrams that roughly depict the proportion of these three age groups in an increasing population, a stable population, and a decreasing population.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 44_14e_Mader 1) E 2) E 3) A 4) D 5) A 6) FALSE 7) B 8) A 9) B 10) C 11) TRUE 12) E 13) TRUE 14) A 15) C 17) TRUE 18) B 20) FALSE 21) FALSE 22) B 23) C 24) B 25) C 26) TRUE 27) C 29) C Version 1
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30) A 31) B 32) C 33) D 35) E 36) B 37) C 38) TRUE 40) A 41) A 42) A 43) TRUE 44) B 45) D 46) TRUE 47) A 48) FALSE 49) D 50) A 51) A 52) B 53) A 54) FALSE 55) D 56) B
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CHAPTER 45 1) Consider the consequences of a harmless prey that evolves toward mimicry of a model that has an antipredator defense (Batesian mimicry). What happens to the effectiveness of this defense as more and more prey in the population are harmless mimics? Then consider what happens when a species with bad taste evolves to resemble a model that stings (Mullerian mimicry). A) The number of Mullerian mimics is limited because they dilute the protection afforded by the warning color pattern, but the addition of more Batesian mimics only strengthens the protective mimicry complex. B) The increased number of Batesian mimics dilutes or weakens the protection afforded by the warning color pattern, but the addition of more Mullerian mimics only strengthens the protective mimicry complex. C) The number of both Batesian and Mullerian mimics is limited because both dilute the protection afforded by the warning color pattern. D) The number of both Batesian and Mullerian mimics is unlimited because they both reinforce the protection afforded by the warning color pattern.
2) Hurricanes and other severe precipitation events have started becoming weaker and less intense as a result of climate change. ⊚ ⊚
true false
3) If there are 12,000 kg. in the base of an ecological pyramid, how many kg. will be found in the body tissue of the tertiary consumers? A) 1200 kg. B) 12000 kg. C) 120 kg. D) 6000 kg. E) 12 kg.
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4) Clements proposed the climax-pattern model of succession. Governing factors for this model include A) each successive community preparing the way for the next. B) All of the choices are correct. C) soil conditions. D) climate.
5) There are several species of grain beetles that live on dry meal and do considerable damage to stored grain. In an experiment, a dozen jars of dry meal are set up and fifty individuals of each species, both males and females, are added to each jar. The food supply is not quite sufficient to last for six months and the size of the jar is adequate so that wastes do not become toxic. Most likely, examination of the jars in six months will find A) only one species per jar. B) a totally random variation in numbers of both beetles. C) the same ratio ofbeetles as when you started (about half from each species). D) only dead beetles in all jars due to intense competition for the niche.
6) Is it possible that the carbon atoms in your body may have once made up the living tissues of another person or animal in earlier times? This is A) possible since carbon cycles through the biosphere. B) possible only if you are a cannibal. C) impossible since carbon can't enter a living system more than once. D) highly unlikely since carbon is always tied up in molecules in organisms or minerals.
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7) What is the correct sequence of organisms if a community is going through secondary succession? a. grasses establish themselves in the community b. shrubs establish themselves in the community c. soil formation occurs d. trees establish themselves in the community A) c - a - d - b B) a - b - c - d C) c - a - b - d D) d - c - a - b E) a - c - b - d
8)
Which of the following statements about parasitism is NOT true? A) Ectoparasites are attached to the outside of the host's body by specialized organs. B) The host is generally larger than the parasite. C) Some organisms and all viruses are obligate parasites and must live inside a host. D) Smaller parasites often live as endoparasites within the body of the host. E) An efficient parasite usually kills its host.
9) As animals take in food energy, approximately 10% of it is made available to the next level in the food chain.Which of the following is one of the ways in which the energy is used by the organism and not passed along? A) All of these are ways in which theorganism uses the energy. B) excretion C) cellularrespiration D) death E) defecation
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10) Compared with the numbers of grasshoppers or deer, there are not as many mountain lions. The reason that large top-level carnivores are more rare in an ecosystem is because A) food chains are only 10 to 20% efficient at each step, and top carnivores are therefore limited by the availability of food in their range. B) only a few such animals are permitted by succession in a biome, and there are only a few biomes. C) such animals do not tolerate other members like them. D) through natural selection, most fierce animals have been killed off by others.
11)
Primary succession takes much longer than secondary succession because it involves A) more time for development of a seed bank. B) colonization by more K-selected species. C) redevelopment of the atmospheric gases. D) colonization by organisms that are farther away. E) time for development of the soil.
12)
The relationship between plants and their pollinators is a good example of parasitism. ⊚ ⊚
13)
true false
What is the correct order of events during primary succession?
A) pioneer species enter the region - climax status is reached - small trees begin to grow B) pioneer species enter the region - soil formation occurs - shrubs begin to grow - small trees begin to grow C) Soil formation occurs- pioneer species enter the region - shrubs begin to grow - small trees begin to grow D) pioneer species enter the region - shrubs begin to grow - small trees begin to grow
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14) Excluding humans, which group of organisms is most likely to change the abiotic factors within an ecosystem? A) herbivores B) All of these can change the abiotic factors within an ecosystem. C) producers D) None of these canchange the abiotic factors within an ecosystem. E) detritivores
15)
The first species to begin secondary succession are called pioneer species, or colonizers. ⊚ ⊚
true false
16) Which of the following pairings of organisms and their method of obtaining nutrients is incorrect? A) detritivores - inorganic matter B) autotrophs -chemosynthesis C) herbivores -algae D) carnivores - other animals
17)
The actual conditions under which an organism exists in nature constitute its A) habitat. B) realized niche. C) fundamental niche. D) resource partition.
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18) Consider the following food chain: hawk - rabbit - clover. Each species will contain a different amount of calories in its body (clover: 10 calories, rabbit: 500, and hawk: 1200). Each species has a different daily caloric requirement (clover: sunlight, rabbit: 100 calories, hawk: 300). How many clover plants, per day,does it take to support a family of hawks (Mom, dad, and juvenile. Assume each hawk needs the same number of calories per day.)? A) approximately18,000 clover plants B) None, hawks do not eat cloverplants. C) approximately 600 clover plants D) approximately1800 clover plants E) approximately 100 clover plants
19) MacArthur discovered that five species of warblers coexisted on spruce trees by foraging on the same caterpillar, but in different places of the tree canopy. This is A) confirmation that all warblers were actually variations of the same species because different species couldn't coexist. B) an exception to the competitive exclusion principle. C) an exception based on birds taking longer to eventually compete and eliminate competitors. D) an example of resource partitioning.
20) Approximately what percentage of the energy in one trophic level is incorporated into the next trophic level? A) 1% B) 30% C) 100% D) 60% E) 10%
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21) Consider the following food chain: hawk - rabbit - clover. Each species will contain a different amount of calories in its body (clover: 10 calories, rabbit: 500, and hawk: 1200). Each species has a different daily caloric requirement (clover: sunlight, rabbit: 100 calories, hawk: 300). How many clover plants, per day,does it take to support one hawk? A) approximately 30 clover plants B) approximately 60 clover plants C) approximately 3 clover plants D) approximately 600clover plants E) None, clover plants do not support hawks.
22)
The only heterotrophs required in an ecosystem are A) autotrophs. B) decomposers. C) omnivores. D) carnivores. E) herbivores.
23) In order for a community to reach the status of climax community, succession must always begin with pioneer species. ⊚ ⊚
true false
24) Ecologist Robert MacArthur observed that five species of similar warblers coexisted on spruce trees because they
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A) ate different kinds of insects. B) cooperated in their foraging habits. C) were actually subspecies of the same species. D) foraged in different places of the tree canopy. E) were kept below the carrying capacity by predators.
25) Two communities may have exactly the same number of species, yet one might be measured as having a greater species diversity. What defines species diversity? A) a community and all of the abiotic factors associated with it B) composition or a listing of the various species in a community C) the potential number of species that should exist in a community minus the species that have gone locally extinct D) the native species plus the introduced species E) both the number of species and the evenness or relative abundance of individuals of the different species
26)
Which of the following associations is incorrect? A) omnivore - eats both producers and consumers B) herbivore - eats producers and performs photosynthesis C) carnivore - feeds on other consumers D) detritivore - feeds on decomposing organic matter E) autotroph - performs photosynthesis or chemosynthesis
27)
Which of the following statements about ecological pyramids is true?
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A) Pyramids built upon the biomass of organisms at each level eliminate size as a factor. B) Energy gains between trophic levels occur based upon biomass conversion. C) The limited number of trophic levels in an ecological pyramid is due to increasing complexity and size of organisms at each greater trophic level. D) A pyramid of organism numbers will always have a large base and a small top. E) None of the choices are true.
28) Which of the following statements about the value of the nitrogen cycle to an ecosystem is NOT true? A) Both ammonium and nitrate ions are highly water-soluble B) Nitrification occurs as ammonium is converted to nitrate. C) Denitrification removes nitrogen from the atmosphere and converts it to a form that plants can use. D) Nitrification occurs as nitrogen gas is converted to nitrate. E) Nitrogen fixation can occur in aquatic systems or in soil bacteria.
29)
Which of the following is NOT a greenhouse gas? A) carbon dioxide B) methane C) carbon monoxide D) CFCs E) ozone
30)
Energy flow in an ecosystem begins with
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A) herbivores. B) autotrophs. C) omnivores. D) detritivores. E) carnivores.
31) Chemosynthetic producers obtain energy by the oxidation of ammonia, nitrites, and sulfides, using this energy to make organic compounds. ⊚ ⊚
true false
32) What does the model of island biogeography predict about: A. the relationship between the distance of an island from the mainland and immigration of species? Draw a graph depicting the relationship. B. the relationship between the size of an island and the rate of extinction? Draw a graph depicting the relationship. C. what type of island will have a higher equilibrium species richness than the other types of islands? Combine (and draw) the two previous graphs and indicate the equilibrium species richness of each island.
33) Consider the following food chain: hawk - rabbit - clover. Each species will contain a different amount of calories in its body (clover: 10 calories, rabbit: 500, and hawk: 1200). Each species has a different daily caloric requirement (clover: sunlight, rabbit: 100 calories, hawk: 300). How many clover plants, per day,does it take to support one rabbit?
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A) approximately 50 plants B) approximately 3plants C) approximately 1000plants D) approximately 100plants E) approximately 10plants
34)
All food chains begin with a photosynthetic producer. ⊚ ⊚
true false
35) _____is the interaction between two species as both attempt to use the same environmental resources that are in limited supply. A) An ecosystem B) Predation C) Symbiosis D) Competition E) A community
36)
Organisms in all trophic levels may be consumed by decomposers. ⊚ ⊚
37)
true false
Which type of succession would occur after a volcanic eruption?
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A) There won't be any succession after a volcanic eruption. B) secondary C) tertiary D) primary
38)
The frequent change in HIV surface proteins is a type of A) mutualism. B) parasitism. C) commensalism. D) coevolution.
39)
Energy flow in an ecosystem is NOT cyclic because energy is A) evenly spread out over many organisms. B) converted to many kinds of useful energy. C) converted to heat, which is no longer useful. D) increased as you go up the energy pyramid. E) destroyed as it is used.
40)
Which of the following is (are) correct in a predator-prey cycle? A) A decline in the number of predators causes a decline in the number of prey. B) An increase in the number of predators triggers an increase in the number of prey. C) A decline in the number of prey causes a decline in the number of predators. D) All of these are correct, causing an up-and-down cycle for each animal.
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41)
Which of the following associations between organism and nutrient source is incorrect? A) cows - herbivores B) bacteria - decomposers C) raccoons - omnivores D) humans - carnivores E) earthworms - detritivores
42) All of the abiotic conditions under which a species can survive when adverse biotic conditions are absent is known as its A) fundamental niche. B) resource partition. C) habitat. D) realized niche.
43) Consider the following food chain: hawk - rabbit - clover. Each species will contain a different amount of calories in its body (clover: 10 calories, rabbit: 500, and hawk: 1200). Each species has a different daily caloric requirement (clover: sunlight, rabbit: 100 calories, hawk: 300). How many rabbits, per day,does it take to support the hawk? A) approximately6 B) 2 wholerabbits C) 12 rabbits D) about 1/2 arabbit
44)
Which of the following statement(s) about the water cycle is (are) true?
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A) Once water sinks into the ground, it is safe from human exploitation or pollution until it has rejoined the ocean. B) All water molecules that evaporate from the ocean precipitate on land and move by gravity through groundwater to the ocean again. C) Because this is a true cycle, it is impossible to run out of fresh water for human use. D) Some water evaporates from land and from plants. E) All of the choices are true.
45) All the populations of all the different species interacting with one another in the same environment is called A) a community. B) diversity. C) predation. D) an ecosystem. E) symbiosis.
46)
Which of the following features is not part of the ecological niche of a white-tailed deer? A) the number of acorns it consumes during the fall B) the availability of woods for it to use as cover in order to escape from predators C) the presence of a water source within its habitat D) All of these are part of a white-tailed deer's ecological niche.
47) A small marine amphipod has recently been discovered that carries a bad-tasting organism on its back, which is contrary to its normal behavior. If a fish ingests the pair, it immediately spits them back out. If the amphipod is alone, however, it is readily eaten. There is no apparent benefit or harm in this relationship for the "backpack" organism. This is probably a case of
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A) commensalism. B) mutualism. C) competitive exclusion. D) parasitism.
48)
In a grazing food chain, A) primary consumers eat photosynthetic organisms. B) secondary consumers eat photosynthetic organisms. C) all the consumers are primary consumers. D) secondary consumers eat detritus. E) primary consumers eat detritus.
49) In an Asian rice paddy, carp eat decaying material from around the base of rice plants while a snail scrapes algae from the leaves, stems, and roots of the same plant. They can survive at the same time in the same rice paddy because they occupy A) the same habitat but different niches. B) the same habitat and the same niche. C) different habitats and different niches. D) the same niche but different habitats.
50)
An ecosystem contains A) only the energy flow components of the local environment. B) only the food relationships found in the local environment. C) only the abiotic components of the local environment. D) both the biotic and the abiotic components of the local environment. E) only the biotic components of the local environment.
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51) A community that contains a low species diversity will often have a high species richness. ⊚ ⊚
52)
true false
Chemical cycling may involve all but which of the following? A) a geological component, in which chemicals move through the soil or the air B) a biotic community in which chemicals move through food chains C) All of the choices are correct. D) a reservoir unavailable to producers E) an exchange pool as a source from which organisms can acquire chemicals
53)
_____ occurs when one living organism feeds on another. A) Mimicry B) Commensalism C) Predation D) Symbiosis E) Competition
54)
What occurs when two species with very similar niches live in an overlapping range? A) speciation B) total extinction of one species C) a switch in habitat for one of the organisms D) hypervolume E) competitive exclusion
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55) Over two decades ago in the People's Republic of China, it was noticed that songbirds were eating rice and millet drying on the grain floors. Since there were large numbers of people to feed, and the population was very near to carrying capacity, it was proposed that the songbird population should be reduced in order to preserve more grain. However, the songbirds also ate a larger number of insects that fed on the rice and millet when it was young. Draw a food web including the above items, indicating energy flow in the direction of the arrows, and representing the general proportion of energy consumed by the breadth of each arrow. State briefly why this decision was disastrous.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 45_14e_Mader 1) B 2) FALSE 3) E 4) B 5) A 6) A 7) C 8) E 9) A 10) A 11) E 12) FALSE 13) C 14) B 15) TRUE 16) A 17) B 18) D 19) D 20) E 21) D 22) B 23) FALSE 24) D 25) E 26) B Version 1
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27) A 28) C 29) C 30) B 31) TRUE 33) D 34) FALSE 35) D 36) TRUE 37) D 38) D 39) C 40) C 41) D 42) A 43) A 44) D 45) A 46) D 47) A 48) A 49) A 50) D 51) FALSE 52) C 53) C 54) E
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CHAPTER 46 1) A forest found in a broad belt in northern Eurasia and North America, with conifers and swamps, is called the A) tropical rain forest. B) taiga. C) chaparral. D) temperate deciduous forest. E) tundra.
2)
Which aquatic zone will provide a habitat for invertebrates and many small fish? A) profundal zone B) littoral zone C) epipelagic zone D) limnetic zone
3) Wetlands are generally classified by their vegetation. Wetlands dominated by trees and shrubs are _____ and wetlands dominated by grasses and sedges are _____. A) swamps; marshes B) bogs; swamps C) marshes; pine savannas D) marshes; swamps
4) Which region of the Earth receives the least amount of solar radiation during the December winter solstice?
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A) Northern Hemisphere B) Southern Hemisphere C) All of the Earth's regions receive the same amount of solar radiation during the winter solstice. D) equatorial regions E) between 30° North and 30° South
5) Which biome is characterized by rainfall under 25 cm/year, hot days, cold nights, and quickly blooming plants? A) tundra B) temperate deciduous forest C) temperate deserts D) grasslands E) taiga
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6) What biome has a mean annual precipitation over 250 cm. with relatively little seasonal variation, and warm temperatures over 20°C?
A) tropical dry forest B) taiga C) temperate rain forest D) tropical rain forest E) savanna
7)
The portion of a lake or stream that harbors worms, clams, and other organisms is the A) littoral zone. B) profundal zone. C) benthic zone. D) abyssal zone. E) limnetic zone.
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8) Identify the biomes labeled A, B, and C in the maps. Describe the general locations and climate in each biome.
9)
Explain what is meant by the rain shadow effect.
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10) Which region of the Earth would have the greatest solar exposure during the vernal equinox? A) equatorialregions B) between 30° and 60°South C) between 30° and 60°North D) between 60° south and the south pole E) between 60° north and the north pole
11)
A biome characterized by hot days, cold nights, and cacti is the A) desert. B) tropical rain forest. C) taiga. D) tundra.
12)
Which of the following is NOT strictly a freshwater community? A) ponds B) lakes C) estuaries D) streams E) rivers
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13)
The tropical grassland in Africa is called the A) savanna. B) chaparral. C) prairie. D) taiga. E) tundra.
14) As the Earth moves from the summer solstice towards the vernal equinox, the equatorial regions of the Earth will be in direct alignment with the sun. ⊚ ⊚
true false
15) When a cold ocean current brings rich nutrients to the surface and influences the climate of the region, it is called a(n) A) monsoon. B) guano. C) profundal zone. D) lake effect. E) upwelling.
16)
Climate is affected and/or characterized by all of the following factors EXCEPT
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A) temperature. B) rainfall. C) topography. D) variations in solar radiation distribution. E) soil type.
17)
The largest biome on Earth is the A) taiga. B) tundra. C) ocean (marine aquatic). D) desert. E) temperate deciduous forest.
18)
Ocean currents A) are important in shipping but have little effect on living environments. B) are generated by friction between winds and ocean surfaces. C) All of the choices are correct. D) always move clockwise in an ocean basin. E) are driven by the Earth's core rotating faster than the ocean water.
19) In the water cycle, most of the evaporated equatorial water that rises and does not immediately rain back down proceeds to
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A) about 30° north or south and then cools and condenses, supporting a band of moist vegetation. B) about 60° north or south and then cools and condenses, supporting a band of moist vegetation. C) the poles if it does not encounter mountain ranges, which it usually does. D) the poles where it causes snow.
20)
The sunlit portion of a lake where rooted plants are not found is the A) abyssal zone. B) benthic zone. C) limnetic zone. D) profundal zone. E) littoral zone.
21)
Identify the correct sequence that freshwater will flow through. A) clouds - river -stream - delta - wetlands - ocean B) ocean - clouds -stream - estuary - river C) clouds - streams -river - wetlands - delta - ocean D) ocean - delta - estuary - river -stream - marsh E) cloud - river -stream - delta - marsh - ocean
22)
Coniferous forests are found in all of the following locations EXCEPT A) the Pacific coast of North America. B) northern Africa and the extreme southwestern United States. C) coastal areas ofthe southeastern United States. D) the northern part of North America and Eurasia.
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23) The Humboldt Current runs along the coast of South America, carrying nitrogen-rich cold water northward. ⊚ ⊚
24)
true false
Which association between zone and description is NOT correct? A) bathypelagic - sunlit portion of the ocean B) benthic - stream, lake, or ocean floor C) limnetic - lake zone on surface away from shore D) littoral - lake zone closest to shore
25) Which of the following biomes is characterized by rich soils, insufficient rainfall for trees, and many herbivores? A) tundra B) grasslands C) chaparral D) desert E) taiga
26) Kansas and Pennsylvania are approximately at the same latitude. Yet why are the potential natural communities in Kansas mostly grassland and in Pennsylvania mostly temperate forest?
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A) different levels of moisture B) different vegetation due to different seed banks C) different altitudes D) different temperatures E) different soil texture and pH levels
27) As the average global temperature continues to increase, which type of biome(s) will take over the regions currently inhabited by temperate forests?
A) taiga and woodlands B) tropical seasonal forests C) tropical seasonal forests and deserts D) tundra and savannas E) tropical rain forests and deserts
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28)
List the biome distribution starting at the northern most latitude and moving south.
29) The Earth is actually farther from the sun during the period when the Northern Hemisphere is having summer. How can this be explained? A) There must be some mistake in measuring the Earth's orbit because if the Earth were farther away, we would be cooler. B) The tilt of the Earth presents the Northern Hemisphere in a more perpendicular angle, and this increased sunlight more than offsets the decrease in sunlight due to the added distance. C) The sun grows more powerful on a half-year cycle. D) There is a six-month lag phase between sunlight being absorbed and lost.
30) The early explorers used sailing ships, which were blown by the major winds; therefore, Columbus and other sailors generally traveled from Europe to North America by the mid-latitude westerlies, and returned to Europe by the southern easterlies near the equator. ⊚ ⊚
31)
true false
The temperature is nearly uniform throughout a lake
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A) during summer when the sunlight warms the surface and the wind mixes the layers. B) by the end of the fall and spring overturn. C) at all times due to winds causing constant mixing of the layers. D) during winter when the ice forms an insulating cover. E) never. The lake always has different temperature layers and they are reversed in winter and summer.
32)
All of the following are terrestrial biomes EXCEPT A) savannas. B) lentic systems. C) tundra. D) coniferous forests. E) deserts.
33) Which of the following events will occur as an ocean current moves from an equatorial region towards a polar region?
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A) The current will be warm as it leaves the equatorial region and begins to cool as it moves towards the polar region. This in turn will cause the air currents to become cooler as they move closer to the poles, creating a tundra type of biome. B) The current will be warm as it leaves the equatorial region and begins to cool as it moves towards the polar region. This in turn will cause the air currents to become warmer as they move closer to the poles, creating a desert type of biome. C) The current will be warm as it leaves the equatorial region and become even warmer as it moves towards the polar region. This in turn will cause the air currents to become warmer and drier as they move closer to the poles, creating a tundra type of biome. D) The current will be cool as it leaves the equatorial region and begins to warm as it moves towards the polar region. This in turn will cause the air currents to become cooler as they move closer to the poles, creating a tundra type of biome. E) The current will be warm as it leaves the equatorial region and begins to cool as it moves towards the polar region. This in turn will cause the air currents to become warmer as they move closer to the poles, creating a grassland type of biome.
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34) If the mean annual precipitation of a region, currently characterized by grasslands, was to increase by 50 cm. per year, what type of biome(s) would evolve in that region?
A) savanna B) deserts and tropical rain forests C) temperate forests D) taiga and temperate rain forests E) temperate forests and shrublands
35) In what order do these layers occur in deep lakes in the temperate zone during the summer? A) hypolimnion - epilimnion - thermocline B) epilimnion - thermocline - hypolimnion C) thermocline - epilimnion - hypolimnion D) epilimnion - hypolimnion - thermocline
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36)
Which of the following does NOT characterize tundra? A) caribou B) permafrost C) shrub D) trees
37)
Which of the following correctly pair ocean and lake zones? A) mesopelagic - epipelagic B) littoral - bathypelagic C) mesopelagic - profundal D) epipelagic - limnetic E) epipelagic - benthic
38)
Incoming solar radiation affects A) None of these arecorrect. B) All of these choices are directly or indirectly affected by solar radiation. C) the seasons. D) evaporation or precipitation of moisture. E) the rise and fall of air masses.
39)
Temperate deciduous forests are characterized by
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A) the highest amount of organisms living in the tree canopy. B) dry climates with rainfall averages around 25–75 cm. per year. C) the highest variation in day and night length. D) the richest topsoil horizon. E) a growing season that ranges between 140 and 300 days.
40)
The Gulf Stream
A) is the source of "El Nino" and is a major fishing ground. B) is the major Atlantic Ocean current that warms the eastern coast of South America. C) brings tropical Caribbean water to the east coast of North America and upper Western Europe. D) All of the choices are correct. E) makes local climates uniform so that Great Britain has the same climate as Greenland.
41) What is the main reason that the oceans play a larger role than land masses in determining the temperature of air masses? A) The ocean currentsare constantly moving while land masses are stationary. B) The ocean holds its temperature longer than land masses. C) The ocean currentsmove in a circular pattern while land masses are stationary. D) The ocean is flatwhile land masses have topographical features to break up air patterns.
42)
A biome with complex structure, warm weather, plentiful rainfall, and diverse species is a
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A) tundra. B) savanna. C) taiga. D) tropical rain forest.
43)
What occurs to air currents as they travel from 60° north towards the pole? A) The cool air will rise and warm up, producing a low pressure area with high rainfall. B) The warmed air will rise and cool, producing a low pressure area with low rainfall. C) The warmed air will rise and cool, producing a low pressure area with high rainfall. D) The cool air will rise, producing a high pressure area with low rainfall.
44)
The part of a body of water where light does not penetrate is the A) pelagic division. B) limnetic zone. C) benthic division. D) littoral zone. E) profundal zone.
45)
Which of the following statements about stratified temperate zone lakes is NOT true? A) Populations of plankton and zooplankton depend on both sunlight and nutrient
levels. B) Solar radiation warms the surface layers in summer. C) Wind aids in the circulation of water. D) Temperature gradients change from summer to winter. E) Rich nutrients from the continual production of detritus accumulate near the surface of the lake.
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46) Due to its high productivity and biological diversity, this biome is considered the "nursery" of the sea. A) ocean floor B) sandy beach C) rocky beach D) estuary E) coral reef
47) There are tubeworms and clams that live at the bottom of the ocean near thermal vents that do not have direct access to sunlight so they derive their energy from A) chemosynthetic bacteria. B) the sun, but they are deep in the dark ocean and live off dead detritus that sink to them. C) the sun by way of burning fossil fuels like we do with coal and oil. D) sources not yet known.
48) What is the correct order of biome distribution starting at the lowest elevation and moving to higher elevations? A) tropical forest -grasslands - montane coniferous forest - deciduous forest B) tropical forest -deciduous forest - montane coniferous forest - alpine tundra C) tropical forest -deciduous forest - desert - alpine tundra D) montane coniferous forest - alpinetundra - temperate deciduous forest - savanna E) deciduous forest -montane coniferous forest - tropical forest - alpine tundra
49)
A treeless region with little rainfall in the far north is the
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A) tundra. B) chaparral. C) taiga. D) desert. E) grassland.
50) A rain shadow is the region where heavy condensation precipitates out, as warm, moist air rises and then cools on the windward side of mountain ranges. ⊚ ⊚
true false
51) Which of the following biomes will receive migratory animals, such as caribou,from the tundra? A) coniferousforest B) polar ice C) temperatedeciduous forest D) grasslands E) tropical rain forest
52)
Among the many functions of wetlands is (are) A) absorbing storm and overflow waters. B) providing food and habitats for fish, waterfowl, and wildlife. C) All of the choices are functions performed by wetlands. D) purifying water by filtering it and breaking down toxic wastes and nutrients.
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53) Which of the following biomes is characterized by little rainfall, permafrost, and an average temperature below 0°C? A) temperate deciduous forest B) desert C) taiga D) tundra E) grasslands
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54) Identify the winter solstice, summer solstice, vernal equinox, and autumnal equinox in the picture. Briefly describe the position of the Earth in relation to the sun and the time of year each event occurs.
A. B. C. D.
55)
_____ lakes are nutrient-rich and tend to have large populations of algae.
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A) Eutrophic B) Temperate C) Stratified D) Oligotrophic
56) Major regional groups of interacting terrestrial ecosystems, characterized by climate and geography, are called A) biomes. B) estuaries. C) tundras. D) taigas. E) biospheres.
57) Which ocean current runs along the western coast of South America producing cold offshore winds? A) HumboldtCurrent B) Gulf Stream C) equatorial countercurrent D) east wind drift E) west wind drift current
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 46_14e_Mader 1) B 2) B 3) A 4) A 5) C 6) D 7) C 10) A 11) A 12) C 13) A 14) TRUE 15) E 16) E 17) C 18) B 19) A 20) C 21) C 22) B 23) FALSE 24) A 25) B 26) A 27) B 29) B Version 1
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30) FALSE 31) B 32) B 33) A 34) C 35) B 36) D 37) D 38) B 39) E 40) C 41) B 42) D 43) C 44) E 45) E 46) D 47) A 48) B 49) A 50) FALSE 51) A 52) C 53) D 55) A 56) A 57) A
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CHAPTER 47 1) Rosy periwinkle, the nine-banded armadillo, and some species of fungus and bacteria have _____ value to man. A) no B) indirect C) consumptive use D) agricultural E) medicinal
2) A decrease in the overfishing of herring and perch would have prevented the decimation of the kelp beds along the west coast of the U.S. ⊚ ⊚
3)
true false
Which of the following are causes for extinction? A) exotic species B) habitat loss C) None of these arecauses for extinction. D) All of these arecauses for extinction. E) pollution
4) As humancivilization spread around the world, there were species thatbenefited greatly from new human-made habitats.However, generally with the expansion of human populations and agriculture,
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A) biological diversity has decreased for a short time, rebounding to higher levels relatively quickly. B) there has been an increase in biological diversity. C) biological diversity levels drop dramatically. D) levels of biological diversity have remained the same, with human-associated organisms replacing the few natural species displaced.
5) While the preservation of a landscape is often intended for one particular organism, often times other species will also benefit. ⊚ ⊚
6)
true false
Which of the following statements about extinction is TRUE? A) Without human activity, all species would survive and there would be no extinctions. B) Overexploitation by hunting and fishing is the biggest threat to tropical animals and
plants. C) Commercial hunting and fishing are always careful not to deplete animal reserves. D) Wild species often become extinct due to different combinations of factors. E) Introduction of new exotic species should help increase biodiversity, slowing species extinctions.
7) Which of the following fields of study provide useful information for making decisions about conservation?
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A) agronomy B) physiology C) veterinaryscience D) All of these fieldsprovide useful information for making decisions about conservation. E) genetics
8) Studies show that biodiversity maximizes resource acquisition and retention within an ecosystem. ⊚ ⊚
9)
true false
The identificationand mitigation of factors causinghabitat decline is known as A) a population viability analysis. B) a gapanalysis. C) the edge effect. D) landscape dynamics. E) a habitat restoration plan.
10) Which of the following statements applies to an ecosystem with a high level of biodiversity?
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A) Areas of high biodiversity are economically more valuable than areas withlimited biodiversity. B) The food web willbe more complex and will have a greater number of connections within it. C) The ecosystem will have a higher rate of photosynthesis than a similar ecosystem with a lower biodiversity. D) All of these apply to an ecosystem with high biodiversity. E) Resource partitioning will occur more easily in an ecosystem that has a high level of biodiversity.
11)
What is the primary goal of conservation biology? A) balance the needs of the human population against the rest of the species on Earth B) identify the most endangered and threatened species so efforts can be made to protect
them C) preservation of crucial habitat for the benefit of multiple species D) discovery of new sources of food and medicines E) management of the Earth's biodiversity
12)
Which of the following is NOT an indirect value of biodiversity in an ecosystem? A) biogeochemical cycling B) water purification C) prevention of soil erosion D) All of the choicesare roles played by biodiversity. E) waste recycling
13) Conservation biology is a field that relies on multiple other disciplines, such as taxonomy and genetics, for support.
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⊚ ⊚
14)
true false
Madagascar is considered a biodiversity "hotspot" because A) it has resisted habitat destruction that has caused extinctions elsewhere. B) it originated as a volcanic island. C) it contains an unusually high concentration of species. D) it has lost nearlyall of its native species to extinction. E) All of the choices are correct.
15)
Introduction of alien or exotic species into new ecosystems can occur through A) agricultural and horticultural activities. B) All of the choices are correct. C) accidental transport by ship or plane without anyone's knowledge. D) colonization when new settlers arrive in an area.
16) Sustainable development is a pattern of resource use that attempts to preserve the environment while considering the needs of humans in the present and future. ⊚ ⊚
true false
17) Which of the following statements concerning the indirect values of biodiversity is NOT correct?
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A) All of the choices are correct. B) Forests act like a giant sponge, soaking up excess water and releasing it during drier periods. C) Diverse organisms are critical in breaking down wastes and immobilizing pollutants. D) Trees take up carbon dioxide and release oxygen when they photosynthesize. E) If human impacts on the environment damage or destroybiogeochemical cycles, then technology will have to artificially re-create those cycles.
18) In which of these landscape patches are species most subject to the edge effect? Explain your answer.
19)
What was the root cause of the decline of kelp beds on the west coast of the U.S.? A) Overfishing of the perch and herring in the area. B) A decline in the seal and sea otter population. C) An explosion of the sea urchin population. D) A decline in the sea otter population that would control the sea urchinpopulation. E) An increase in the orca population preying upon the sea otters.
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20)
Why is there great value in preserving biodiversity hotspots? A) Biodiversity hotspots are often a source of new medicines. B) Biodiversity hotspots have a direct value to humans. C) All of these are values of preserving biodiversity hotspots. D) Biodiversity hotspots have an indirect value to humans. E) Biodiversity hotspots have a large diversity of species in them.
21) Identify the 5 main human influenced causes of extinction, starting with the cause with the greatest impact and moving towards the lowest impact.
22) Rabbits were introduced to Australia by pioneer settlers in the mid-1800s for sporting hunters. They have since stressed native marsupial and plant populations. This is an example of the introduction of exotic species through accidental transport. ⊚ ⊚
23) is
true false
The science of collecting, analyzing, and making readily available biological information
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A) a population viability analysis. B) landscape preservation. C) bioinformatics. D) habitat restoration planning.
24)
Which of the following are characteristics of a keystone species? A) They are most often mammals. B) They have a verylarge population. C) Their presence dictates the survival of the entire community. D) They evoke a strong emotional response in people. E) None of these are characteristics of keystone species.
25) The use of wheat, corn, rice and other crops derived from wild ancestors is an example of the _____ value of biodiversity. A) agricultural B) consumptive use C) climatic regulation D) medicinal
26)
Biodiversity is described in terms of genetic, community, and landscape diversity. ⊚ ⊚
27)
true false
Which of the following species is both a keystone species and a flagship species?
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A) grizzly bear B) dolphin C) alligator D) panda E) beaver
28)
_____ is (are) associated with 85% of the cases of threatened and endangered species. A) Disease B) Exotic species C) Overexploitation D) Habitat loss E) Pollution
29) Scientists have predicted minimum, maximum, and probable temperature increases due to global warming by the year 2060 that will lead to further species extinctions.
A. What is the maximum likely increase in temperature by the year 2060? B. What is the minimum likely increase in temperature by the year 2060? C. What is the most probable increase in temperature by the year 2060? Version 1
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30) Which of the following factors would make the strongest contribution to global climate change? A) over-harvesting of wild species for consumptive value B) an increase in soil erosion leading to siltation of rivers and estuaries C) drainage of wetlands producing a disruption of water purification D) disruption of the waste recycling by decomposers E) large-scale deforestation
31) Forests and other ecosystems may decrease the chances of flooding in an area due to their water-holding capacity. ⊚ ⊚
32)
true false
How does ocean fishing affect marine ecosystems today?
A) Bottom-dwelling fish are frequently overfished by trawling, but schools of swimming fish that can easily get away are increasing. B) Only 2 of the 15 major oceanic fishing areas are considered overexploited. C) There has been an increase of bottom-dwelling ocean fish, butschools of swimming fish have declined. D) Because the oceans are so large, they are the one remaining natural ecosystem that is not susceptible to extinction. E) Ocean fishing has resulted in overexploitation in 11 of the 15 major oceanic fishing areas.
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33) All of the following are ways in which biodiversity is directly valuable to humans EXCEPT A) consumptive use. B) All of the answers are correct. C) medicinal. D) agricultural.
34) Researchers have identified several factors that have increased the number of threatened and endangered species. Identify the causes, as defined by the percentage (%) of species affected. Use the followingword bank: pollution, overexploitation, disease, exotic species, habitat loss.
A: B: C: D: E:
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35) _____ is when the number of individuals taken from a wild population is so great that the population becomes severely reduced in number. A) A source population B) Overexploitation C) Eutrophication D) An "edge effect"
36) What is the correct sequence of events that has led to the decimation of the kelp beds along the west coast of the U.S.? a. sea otters decline in numbers b. increase in orca predation on sea otters c. decline in the seals and sea lions d. overfishing of the herring and perch e. increase in the sea urchin population A) a - d - c - b - e B) b - d - c - a - e C) d - c - b - a - e D) d - c - b - e - a E) d - b - c - a - e
37) The use of noncultivated fruit, animal skins, fiber, beeswax, and fish are examples of the _____ value of biodiversity. A) contributions to the biogeochemical cycles B) medicinal use C) agricultural use D) consumptive use
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38)
Which of the following statements about keystone species is NOT true?
A) Examples of keystone species are grizzly bears, bats, beavers and alligators. B) The numbers of individuals in the keystone species in their respective community may or may not be excessively high. C) Keystone species are defined as a population subdivided into several small, isolated populations due to habitat fragmentation. D) The extinction of keystone species can lead to other extinctions and a loss of biodiversity.
39) Scientists estimate that at least 50–60% of all species now living will most likely become extinct in the next 20–50 years unless planned, coordinated action takes place. ⊚ ⊚
true false
40) Approximately what percentage of the known biodiversity on Earth is composed of plants? A) 6–8% B) 12–15% C) 50–55% D) 63–67% E) 16–19%
41)
Species that are revered by humans due to their appearance or emotional ties are
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A) endangered species. B) threatened species. C) flagship species. D) keystone species.
42)
Which of the following causes of extinction has not been attributed to human activity? A) eutrophication B) All of the above. C) increased carbon dioxide in the atmosphere D) habitat loss E) exotic species
43)
Which of the following statements about biological diversity is NOT true? A) Biodiversity refers to the variety of life on Earth. B) Biodiversity is described in terms of genetic, community, and landscape diversity. C) Scientists estimate that 10–50 million species exist. D) Many species that are in danger of extinction have not been identified and studied. E) Biodiversity is evenly distributed throughout the biosphere.
44)
Describe the sequence of problems associated with tropical rainforest destruction.
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45)
What is the main reason that the field of conservation biology has developed?
A) humans looking for new methods of obtaining resources from the natural environment B) the consolidation of multiple fields of science into one in an attempt to be more efficient C) as a means of monitoring the stability of ecosystems D) the current rates of extinction on Earth due to human-related factors
46) Which of the following preservation tactics would have the greatest impact on saving the largest number of species? A) preserve a large tract of land that contains source populations of keystone species B) preserve multiple small tracts of land that each contain source populations of keystone species C) preserve several small tracts of land that contain source populations of keystone species D) preserve a large tract of land that contains source populations of flagship species E) preserve a large tract of land that contains sink populations of keystone species
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 47_14e_Mader 1) E 2) TRUE 3) D 4) C 5) TRUE 6) D 7) D 8) TRUE 9) E 10) D 11) E 12) D 13) TRUE 14) C 15) B 16) TRUE 17) E 19) A 20) C 22) FALSE 23) C 24) C 25) A 26) TRUE 27) A 28) D Version 1
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30) E 31) TRUE 32) E 33) B 35) B 36) C 37) D 38) C 39) FALSE 40) E 41) C 42) B 43) E 45) D 46) A
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