General Awareness, Marketing and Computer Knowledge Data Analysis and Intelligence English Language Reasoning)
Previous year question paper 2014
SBI PO Exam Paper - (General Awareness, Marketing And Computer Knowledge) "held on30-11-2014" (Based on Memory)
1. Rules for exchanging data between compuers are called (1) Programmers (2) Hyperlinks (3) Hyper actions (4) Procedure (5) Protocols
2. As per RBI guidelines, banks are no longer allowed to penalise its customer for (1) None-maintainers of minimum balance in cooperative accounts (2) Non-maintained of minimum balance in current account (3) Non-maintained of minimum balance in savings account
(4) Bouncing of cheques issued for non-availability of terms (5) Premature withdrawal of term deposits
3. How many gigabytes are there in a prototype? (1) 500000 (2) 100000 (3) 1000 (4) 100 (5) 001
4. Subject to compliance of security features the CBS complaint Urban Cooperative Banks can offer the following types of internet banking facility to their customers (1) Non-fund based view only facility (2) Payment of direct/indirect taxes (3) Online-fund transfer from one account to another (4) Online e-commerce facility (5) Remittance of funds through NEFT/RTGS
5. Anoushka Shankar is a famous Indian (1) Famous music director (2) Guitarist (3) Other than those given as options (4) Classical singer (5) Sitarist
6. When a customer likes a product and talks about it, this becomes an example of (1) Distalking (2) Marketing (3) Favouring (4) Soliciting (5) Word of mouth advertising
7. Which of the following is the autobiography of renowned politician K. Natwar Singh?
(1) Not just an accountant (2) One life is not enough (3) My life with Rajiv and Sonia (4) The substance and the Shadow (5) Other than those given as options
8. Basically, the CTS-2010 standards issued by the Reserve Bank of India are (1) Cheque forms specifications (2) Systems specifications (3) Procedures specifications (4) Technology specifications (5) Equipment specification
9. Which of the following instrument is in the hands of the RBI controls liquidity in the banking systems by regulating the money supply in the hands of tanks that they can pump in economy? (1) Cash revenue ratio (2) Credit deposit ratio (3) Other than given as options (4) Capital adequate ratio (5) CASA ratio
160. Which of the following banks is a public sector banks? (1) ICICI Bank (2) IDBI Bank (3) HDFC Bank (4) J & K Bank (5) PNB Bank 161. The RBI has come out with a new concept of bank licensing termed as the ‘Differentiated Bank License’. A differentiated Bank License will allow a bank to
(1) Open branches in only identified geographical areas (2) Deal with only an identified class of customers (3) Offer products only in select
(4) Offer services to specified institutions/customers (5) Operate on principles of universal banking
162. The mission the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority is to protect the interests of the policy holders and to (1) Ensure orderly growth of insurance industry (2) Promote the development of financial infrastructure (3) Specify listing and transfer of securities (4) Regulate business of mutual funds (5) Regulate the money and credit market
163. Which of the following schemes aims at tackling malnutrition and health problems of children below the age of 6 years and their memebers? (1) Kasturba Gandhi Shishu Sangopan Yojana (2) Kishore Vaigyanic Yojana (3) Janani Suraksha Yojana (4) Other than those given as options (5) Integrated Child Development Services
164. Which of the following country(ies) have the word ‘Dinar’ in its/official currency? 1. Algeria 2. Iraq 3. Kuwait (1) 3 and 2 (2) 1 and 2 (3) Only 1 (4) 2 and 3 (5) All of these
165. Shares of a close ended fund is setting at 20% premium over NAV and its NAV is Rs. 10.00 market price of the (1) Rs. 10.00 (2) Other than those given as options
(3) Rs. 11.00 (4) Rs. 12.00 (5) Rs. 8.00
166. Which button inExcel 2007 will automatically add the contents of a group of cells? (1) Calculate (2) Auto add (3) Auto sum (4) Formula (5) Redo
167. In which of the following cases services marketing is resorted to? (1) production houses (2) only MNCs (3) Banks and Insurance companies (4) Public sector undertakings (5) Industrial units
168. The SBI has recently launched a new facility called ‘M-passbook’ for its retail banking users on its ‘State Bank Anywhere’ mobile application. The facility enables users to (1) Perform e-commerce transactions through their smartphone (2) Bend requisition for cheque books through their smartphone (3) Perform internet banking transactions through their smartphone (4) Indicates view their transaction history on their smartphone (5) remit funds under RTGS/NEFT through their smartphone
169. .............. indicates the buying process of customers. (1) Evaluation of alternatives (2) Separating needs and wants (3) Purchase decision (4) Information search (5) Need recognition
170. The process of writing computer instructing in a programming language is known as (1) Instructioning (2) Coding (3) Algorithming (4) File (5) Processing
171. The supply chain that stretches from raw materials to ............ represents a value delivery system. (1) Final products for final buyers (2) Warehouses for storage (3) Production stage (4) Suppliers (5) Factory entrance point
172. Market Segmentation means (1) Making selling arrangement (2) Grouping sales team (3) Grouping the customers as per their needs (4) Grouping bank office staff (5) Grouping the counter staff
173. An investor who wants to dematerialise his shares needs to open a demat account with (1) The securities and Exchange Board of India (2) The concerned company (3) Any registered share broker (4) A recognised stock exchange (5) A depository participant
174. Which of the following is not parts of buying decision process of customer? (1) Seeking discount (2) Problem recognition (3) Purchase design
(4) Information search (5) Evaluation of alternatives
175. Which of the following sets of financial instruments is not derivatives? (1) Floors and collars (2) Future and forwards (3) Swaps and options (4) Caps and credit default swaps (5) Equities and bonds
176. Which of the following pairs of old names and new names of countries names match of correct? 1. Constantnopie : Istambul 2. Mesopotamia : Parestine 3. Rhodesia : Zimbabwe (1) Only 1 (2) 1 and 3 (3) All of these (4) Both 1 and 2 (5) 2 and 3
177. Which of the following is described as being too impersonal of one way communication? (1) Sales promotion by door-to-door campaign (2) Personal selling (3) Direct marketing (4) Public relations (5) Advertising
178. A marketing network consists of the company and its (1) Distributors only (2) Employees only (3) Supporting stock holders (4) Shareholders only (5) Suppliers only
179. Aggressive marketing is the result of
(1) Increased job solution (2) Outsourcing (3) Increased marketing staff (4) Increased competition (5) Increased production
180. The minimum wage ceiling for becoming a subscriber for social security schemes run by Employees Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) has now been raised to (1) Rs. 1000 (2) Rs. 7500 (3) Rs. 15000 (4) Rs. 10000 (5) Rs. 1200
181. A(n) ............. analysis and executes each line of source code in succession, without looking at the entire programme. (1) Compiler (2) Device driver (3) Utility (4) operating system (5) Interpreter
182. Value Added Service means (1) Old products (2) Extra service in addition (3) Highly valuable products (4) Low value products (5) Substituted products
183. Which of the following is not a part of four P’s of marketing mix? (1) Place (2) Price (3) Promotion (4) Product (5) Person
184. The decisions such as which country to enter in, how to enter and how to introduce the products are required in (1) Local markets (2) Global markets (3) Social markets (4) Government markets (5) Service markets
185. ................ indicates working more closely with customers to add value to the operative. (1) Gaobasing (2) Merging (3) Customer partnering (4) Re-engineering (5) Outsourcing
186. Which of the following is a village development project under which each member of Parliament will take the responsibility of development physical and institutional is the infrastructure is the identified village? (1) Swaran Jayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (2) Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (3) Provision of urban (4) National Social Assistance Programme (5) Sansad Adarsh Gram Yojana
187. A device designed to read information encoded into a small plastic card is (1) Card puncher (2) ID puncher (3) Tape puncher (4) Badge reader (5) Magnetic tape
188. The Central government has recently merger of National Spot Exchange Limited (NSEL) with which of the following? (1) Bombay Stock Exchange (2) Financial Technologies of India Limited (FTIL) (3) Other than those given as options (4) National Stock Exchange (5) Tech Mahindra
189. Which of the following type of credit/debit cards are not required to be swiped at the Point of Sale (PoS) terminates instead, they have to be dipped into .............. the device and the cardholder is required to key in a unique PIN to complete the transaction. (1) Magnetic Stripe Base Debit Cards (2) Magnetic Stripe Base Credit Cards (3) Chip Based Credit/Debit Cards (4) Cell Based Credit/Debit Cards (5) Sim Based Credit/Debit Cards
190. The unique mobile money transfer and payment service ‘M-Pesa’ is the trademark of (1) HDFC Bank (2) IDEA Cellular (3) Vodafone (4) ICICI Bank (5) IDBI Bank
191. The United Nations arm UNHRC acronym stands for United Nations (1) Human Rights Council (2) Human Rights Commission (3) Human Resources Commission (4) Other than those given as options (5) Human Religious Committee
192. Quantitative Easing as a term which is generally used to refer to a policy, which is adaptive? (1) Cause money from the markets (2) Put a ceiling on the loanable funds of banks (3) Increase money supply in the economy (4) Absorb excess supply in the economy (5) Sell assets to the financial sector
193. United Nations Organisations (UNO) was set upon which of the following dates? (1) October 30, 1944 (2) October 31, 1945 (3) October 20, 1944 (4) October 24, 1945 (5) Other than those given as options
194. Product and Brand Management is sometimes characterised as (1) Regional systems (2) Segmental organisation (3) Geographical systems (4) Layered organisation (5) Hub and spoke system
195. The ALU and control unit of most of the microcomputer are combined and manufactured in a single silicon chip. What it is called? (1) ALU (2) Touchpad (3) Control Unit (4) Men chip (5) Microprocessor
196. Jeffrey Fournie, an American was freed unexpectedly recently by the government of
(1) North Korea (2) Other than those given as options (3) Syria (4) South Korea (5) Taiwan
197. National Chemical Laboratory is located at (1) New Delhi (2) Chandigarh (3) Hyderabad (4) Pune (5) Other than those given as options
198. Which of the following is used to write webpages? (1) HTML (2) Telnet (3) HTTP (4) URL (5) FTP
199. Which of the following is not a valid version of MSOffice? (1) Office XP (2) Office 2003 (3) Office 2004 (4) Office Vista (5) Office 2003
200. URL stands for (1) Uniform Retail Location (2) Universal Resource List (3) Uniform Research Locator (4) Universal Research List (5) Uniform Resource Locator
SBI PO Exam Paper - (Data Analysis and Intelligence) "held on 30-11-2014" (Based on Memory) Directions (Q. Nos. 101-106) In these questions a number of series is given. After the series a number is given followed by (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e). You have to complete the series starting with the given numbers following the sequence of original series and answer the questions that follows the series.
101. 48 24 36 90 315 1417.5 20 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) What will come in place of (d)? (1) 131.25 (2) 133.75 (3) 136 (4) 140 (5) 142.25
102. 2 11 52 183 430 555 4 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) What will come in place of (b)? (1) 92 (2) 98 (3) 82 (4) 88 (5) 96
103. 7 9 21 69 273 1371 6 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) What will come in place of (b)? (1) 19 (2) 22 (3) 18 (4) 20 (5) 17
104. 9 8 12 27 92 435 7 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) What will come in place of (c)? (1) 19 (2) 12
(3) 13 (4) 15 (5) 16
105. 8 9 21 68 279 1404 5 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) What will come in place of (d)? (1) 184 (2) 207 (3) 212 (4) 196 (5) 228
106. 4 7 19 73 381 2161 8 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) What will come in place of (c)? (1) 106 (2) 169 (3) 156 (4) 184 (5) 174 Directions (Q. Nos. 107-112) Study the following table to answer this questions.
107. Total number of female employees (manager and officers) in procurement department is by what percent more than their male counter part? (1)9% (2)79/7 % (3)45/4% (4)104/11% (5)100/11%
108. What is the difference between total number of male officers in Advertising and Public Relations Departments and the total number of female managers in these two departments? (1) 240 (2) 180 (3) 150 (4) 200 (5) 220
109. What is the respective ratio between total number of female managers from Operations and Finance departments and the total numbers of male officers from these two departments? (1) 4 : 5 (2) 3 : 5 (3) 1 : 2 (4) 3 : 4 (5) 2 : 3
110. Total number of male officers in Advertising and Sale departement is what percent of the total number of officers in the two departments? (1) 52 (2) 54 (3) 56
(4) 58 (5) 54
111. Total number of female managers in Finance department is what percent of the total number of male employees in sales department? (1) 72.5 (2) 76.25 (3) 40 (4) 82.75 (5) 88.5
112. What is the ratio between of total number of managers in Public Relation, Finance and Sales, and Operation departments and the total number of officers in Finance Advertising, Sales and Procurement departments, respectively? (1) 7 : 8 (2) 11 : 13 (3) 6 : 7 (4) 13 : 15 (5) 13 : 16 Directions (Q. Nos. 113-117) These questions consist of a question and two statements I and Ii given below it. You have to decide whether the data providing in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and choose the appropriate option.
113. What is the speed of the train? (in km/h) I. The car takes 2 h more than the train to cover a distance of 264 km. II. The train moves 22 km/h faster than the car. (1) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement Ii alone are sufficient to answer the question (2) If the data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question (3) If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question (4) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II are not sufficient to answer the question (5) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I are not sufficient to answer the question
114. How many students are there in the class? I. The average weights of the class is 52 kg. II. If two students weighing 44 kg and 52 kg leave the class and are replaced by two students weighing 64 kg and 56 kg. The average weight of the class increases by 1.2 kg. (1) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question (2) If the data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question (3) If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question (4) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II are not sufficient to answer the question (5) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I are not sufficient to answer the question
115. In how many days can 14 men complete a piece of wouk? I 18 women can complete that work in 24 days. II. 28 children can complete that work in 56 days. (1) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question (2) If the data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question (3) If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question (4) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II are not sufficient to answer the question (5) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I are not sufficient to answer the question
116. What was the percentage of discount given on the marked price of the table? I. 15% profit was earned by selling the table for Rs. 14490. If there were not discount, percent profit would have been 20%. II. Cost price of table is Rs. 12600. (1) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question (2) If the data in both the statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question (3) If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question (4) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II are not sufficient to answer the question (5) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I are not sufficient to answer the question
117. What is area of the circle? (in sq cm)
I. The diameter of the circle is 90 cm less than its circumference II. The radius of the circle is equal to the length of a rectangle whose perimeter in 77 cm. (1) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question (2) If the data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question (3) If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question (4) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II are not sufficient to anwer the question (5) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I are not sufficient to answer the question Directions (Q. Nos. 118-121) Study the information and answer the given questions. A bag contains four blue shirts five red shirts and six yellow shirts.s
118. Three shirts are drawn randomly. What is the probability that exactly one of them is blue? (1) 36/91 (2) 40/91 (3) 44/91 (4) 48/91 (5) 31/91
119. One shirt is drawn randomly. What is the probability that it is either red or yellow? (1) 4/15 (2) 7/15 (3) 11/15 (4) 8/15 (5) 13/15
120. Two shirts are drawn randomly. What is the probability that both of them are blue? (1) 3/35 (2) 1/35 (3) 2/35 (4) 5/35 (5) 6/35
121. If three shirts are drawn random 14, what is the probability that all the three shirts are of different
colour. (1)24/91 (2)36/91 (3)12/91 (4)42/91 (5)None of these Directions (Q. Nos. 122-126) Study the following information carefully to answer the questions. As a part of renovation of an office flooring, painting and carpenting of a hall is to be undertaken. The hall has length 16 m, breadth 12 m and height 5 m. Cost of flooring is Rs. 2250/m2, cost of painting is Rs. 750/m2 and cost of carpenting is Rs. 850/m2.
122. What will the total cost of flooring the hall and painting the ceiling? (1) Rs. 560000 (2) Rs. 576000 (3) Rs. 524000 (4) Rs. 580000 (5) Rs. 564000
123. What will be the cost of painting the four walls of the hall if it has a door of 1.6 m Ă— 2.5 m and a window of 0.8 m Ă— 1.5 m? (1) Rs. 190900 (2) Rs. 208000 (3) Rs. 196800 (4) Rs. 198600 (5) Rs. 206100
124. What will be the cost of flooring the hall if the contractor offered 12% discount on the total cost? (1) Rs. 380160 (2) Rs. 336440 (3) Rs. 328240 (4) Rs. 342320 (5) Rs. 360350
125. While painting the hall it was noticed that one wall on length side having no door or window required plastering which will cost Rs. 320/m2. What will be the cost of plastering and painting that particular wall? (1) Rs. 85600 (2) Rs. 84400 (3) Rs. 82800 (4) Rs. 86400 (5) Rs. 85200
126. What will be the difference between the cost of painting the wall on length side and the wall on breath side neither of the walls has a door or a window? (1) Rs. 14000 (2) Rs. 15000 (3) Rs. 15600 (4) Rs. 16000 (5) Rs. 14500 Directions (Q. Nos. 127-132) Study the following pie-charts and the information given below them carefully and answer the questions given.
127. The total number of which level employees in both the organsiation together is maximum? (1) A (2) F (3) C (4) E (5) D
128. The difference in the number of employees in the two organisation of which level is the maximum? (1) A (2) D (3) E (4) F (5) C
129. The number of C level employees in organisation I is approximately equal to the number of which level employees in organisation II? (1) B (2) D (3) F (4) C (5) A
130. Number of B level employees in organisation I is less than that in organisation II by what percent approximately? (1) 60 (2) 55 (3) 59 (4) 40 (5) 45
131. What is the total number of F level employees in organisation level I and E level employees in orgainsation II together? (1) 7916 (2) 2652 (3) 7116 (4) 8126 (5) 4464
132. The number of A level employees in organisation II is approximately what percentage of the number of D level employees in organisation I? (1) 30 (2) 62 (3) 57 (4) 48 (5) 43 Directions (Q. Nos. 133-138) Study the table and answer the given questions :
(Consider each of the given companies equally distributed book among the districutors working with it)
133. What was the average number of books published by companies A, C and D together?
(1) 5700 (2) 5900 (3) 5500 (4) 5300 (5) 6100
134. Number of books distributed by company B is what percent of the number of books distributed by company E?
135. Among the total number of books distributed by company D the respective ratio of academic and nonacademic books was 5: 4. What was the number of nonacademic books distributed by company D? (1) 1200 (2) 1800 (3) 1400 (4) 1500 (5) 1600
136. Number of books received by each distributor working with company F was what percent more than the number of books received by each distributor working with company E?
137. What was the respective ratio between total number of books distributed by company A and the total number of books distributed by company C? (1) 53 : 88 (2) 171 : 176 (3) 53 : 92 (4) 49 : 82 (5) 57 : 92
138. What was the difference between number of books received by each distributor working with company B and number of books received by each distributor working with company F? (1) 252 (2) 260 (3) 264 (4) 268 (5) 256
Directions (Q. Nos. 139-144) Study the following graph carefully and answer the questions given :
139. What is the percentage increase in the income of company Y from 2008 to 2010? (1) 103/2 (2) 80/3 (3) 100/3 (4) 119/3 (5) 105/4
140. The total income of all the three companies together was minimum in which of the following years? (1) 2011 (2) 2008 (3) 2009 (4) 2012 (5) 2007
141. In which year was the percentage increase in income of company Z from the previous year the maximum?
(1) 2010 (2) 2008 (3) 2012 (4) 2011 (5) 2009
142. What is the approximate average income of all the three companies together in 2011? (1) Rs. 210 crore (2) Rs. 240 crore (3) Rs. 300 crore (4) Rs. 260 crore (5) Rs. 250 crore
143. What is the ratio between the total income of all three companies in 2007 and 2008, respectively? (1) 5 : 7 (2) 4 : 7 (3) 3 : 4 (4) 4 : 5 (5) 3 : 5
144. The income of company Z in 2010 is what percentage of income of company y in 2011?
Directions (Q. Nos. 145-150) Refer to the graph and answer the given questions.
Note (i) Profit = Income – Expenditure (ii) Percent Profit = (Profit/Expenditure) = 100 (iii) Loss = Expenditure – Income (iv) Percent Loss = (Loss/Expenditure) = 100
145. What is the total profit earned by the businessman in 2005 and 2008? (1) 50 thousand (2) 52 thousand (3) 55 thousand (4) 58 thousand (5) 60 thousand
146. What is average profit earned by the businessman in 2005, 2007 and 2009 together? (in Rs. thousand) (1) 240 (2) 260 (3) 320 (4) 280 (5) 360
147. What is the respective ratio between total profit earned by the businessman in 2004 and 2009 together and total loss incurred by him in 2006 and 2008 together?
(1) 13 : 11 (2) 11 : 7 (3) 11 : 9 (4) 15 : 13 (5) 13 : 9
148. Profit earned by the businessman in 2009 is what percent more than the profit earned by him in 2004? (1) 162/3 (2) 221/3 (3) 122/3 (4) 142/3 (5) 181/3
149. Expenditure of the businessman increased by what percent from 2005 to 2008? (1) 92.5 (2) 85 (3) 95 (4) 87.5 (5) 82
150. What is the percent loss incurred by the businessman in 2006 and 2008 together? (1) 286/13 (2) 3610/13 (3) 321/13 (4) 384/13 (5) 348/13
SBI PO Exam Paper - (English) "held on 30-11-2014" (Based on Memory)
Directions (Q. Nos. 51-55) In the following questions, the sentences have two blank, each blank indicates that something has been confined. Choose the word that best fits in the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
51. .............. Dinosaurs live to be the ancestors of modern birds, the discovery of soft tissue in Dinosaurs fossils containing proteins found only in birds is very ........... (1) Though, unfortunate (2) Recently, common (3) Since, exciting (4) Perhaps, remarkable (5) Moreover, welcome
52. The van Allen belts which are ............ between 13000 to 60000 km above the Earth’s surface were discovered in 1958 and contain electrons which play ............ with electronic systems on satellites. (1) Somewhere, damages (2) located, havoc (3) Position, mayhem (4) Situated, part (5) Vicinity, confusion
53. Rice farmers use ........... methods of farming and old equipment making the cost of price ......... twice as much as it is in other countries. (1) Obsolete, economical (2) Modern, expensive (3) Future, virtuality (4) Antiquated, almost (5) Sustainable, approximate
54. Some experts believe that the best .......... to reduce the number of accidents caused by drivers using their mobile phones to create an “app/ .........
communications when the vehicle in is motion and unblocking them when the vehicle reaches its destination”. (1) Tactic, block (2) Strategy, disabiling (3) Part, facilitating (4) Decision, expediting (5) Method, further
55. Services provided by money transfer companies are ............... for people who don’t use bank account or who are working for from home and are helpful to ........... trade and dispersion wealth. (1) Fundamental, compute (2) Prerequisite, invigorating (3) Vitally, strengthen (4) Essentally, boester (5) inherent, foster Directions (Q. Nos. 56-60) Rearrange the given six sentences A, B, C, D, E and F in a proper sequence so as to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the given questions. A. She follows the foot steps of other renowned female politicians like Chile’s Michelle Bachelet and Germany’s Angela Merkel. B. Women are also rein to the fore front in other parts of the government. C. And this leadership can be seen in the growing number of women who are becoming political leaders and the most recent being Dilma Rouseff who looks over as Brazil’s first women President. D. It is defined as the ability to influence or lead through persuasion or attraction by co-opting people rather than coercing them. E. The leadership of women in politics business and society is becoming evident across the globe. F. These trends represent the growing needs for ‘soft power’ in today’s world.
56. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement? (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) F (5) E
57. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement? (1) C (2) B (3) F (4) D (5) E
58. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after the rearrangement? (1) E (2) D (3) B (4) A (5) F
59. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after the rearrangement? (1) E (2) D (3) B (4) F (5) C
60. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement? (1) A (2) C (3) B (4) F (5) E Directions (Q. Nos. 61-70) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions. Certain words/phrases are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions. Infrastructure projects take a long time to built but then deliver cash flows over an extended period, precision funds have liabilities that’s stretch our several decades. Why not get the letter to finance the former? A new report from the Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development
(OECD) estimates that global pension funds have just point 9% of their portfolios in pure infrastructure in part i.e., due to the OECD’s decision to define infrastructure assets as untrusted debt and equity. But pension funds has significant exposure to tested shares and bonds of power companies and the due from the point of view public policy however, the OECD’s definition is the correct one. The utility shares owned by pension funds are those of power companies that were privatised in the 1980s and 1990s and the infrastructure they operate is a result of government spending in previous decade. Governments would rather not see more infrastructure get built, thought at the moment public financial are very tight. They would rather not bear the whole burden. The difficult bit about infrastructure projects apart from the original decision to commission them is the cost of construction i.e., where governments would like pension funds and the rest of the private sectors to open their wallets. Risk is clearly one important factor. Pension funds want reliable cash flows that can be used to pay retres, not the uncertains that are associated with projects. As the OECD points out there is a lack of objective high quality data on infrastructure investments. These make this difficults for funds to calculate how infrasture would fit in to there portfolio. Another problems is that pension funds may lack the expertise to get involved in such large projects, they have to invest via and infrastructure funds and pay a management fee for the previlege. The biggest infrastructure investors so far have been the joined Australian and Canadian pension funds which can benefits from economics of scale. Britain is trying to achieve the same effect by setting up pension investment platform which will pool infrastructure investment. However, the scheme is slow to get going and not be sufficient fund brattish highest profile projects, a proposed high speed rail line additional problems include the lack of political certainty. Capital spending is often the first item to be cut when governments run into budget difficulties and tough decision and put of to suit electoral cycles. One possible solution is for governments to borrow separate sum to finance infrastructure spending with the stated intension of the selling assets to the likes of pension funds over a number of years such are debt would be recorded separately in the National Accounts. An ultimative option could be a National Investment Bank among the lines of European investment bank. It would borrow from the market and used its capital to guarantee the equity portion of the infrastructure project. They would allow pension funds to buy the more secure debt elements of project findings the needs is clear among the G-7 countries. Only Italy is recorded as having worlds infrastructure. There is no shortage of protection funding-Britains pension assets are equal to 112% of GDP. Clearly to can be put together. The Olympics showed that Britain can built projects on time when the country puts its mind to it.
61. Which of the following is the role of pensions investment platform? (1) To create guidelines regarding infrastructure investment in retain. (2) To provide services only to small pension funds to invest in infrastructure. (3) To monitor prestigious infrastructure projects and public private partnership
(4) To provide guidance to authorities in Europe regarding infrastructure development. (5) To garner funding for infrastructure projects.
62. What is the author’s view of OECD report on infrastructure? (1) He feels that the report unnecessarily focusses on the negative aspects of investing in government projects. (2) He is an agreement with the data and contentions cited in the report. (3) He is in favour of the OECD’s view of governments keeping investment in infrastructure on hold. (4) He opposes the OECD’s restrictions on diverting funds to infrastructure development. (5) He recommends that investments levels prescribed by the report beared opted by Britain Accordingly
63. According to the passage, why is there a need for Britain to invest in infrastructure? (1) Britain’s desire to surpass Italy in infrastructure development (2) Surplus pension funds need to be gainfully diverted to avoid misuse (3) Infrastructure is deficient and in need of an overhaul (4) Britain’s prestige as host of the Olympics is at stake (5) Not clearly mentioned in the passage
64. Which of the following factor(s) impact(s) investment decisions of the pension funds? A. Political uncertainty and financial risk. B. Requisite expertise in infrastructure projects. C. Returns on investment. (1) Only B (2) A and B (3) Only A (4) All of these (5) B and C
65. Which of the following is the main objective of the author in writing the passage? (1) To examine the misappropriation of Britain’s pension funds (2) To estimate how unprofitable it is for the country if pension funds are used to create infrastructure (3) To urge the government to reduce risky exposure of pension funds and bonds an invest in safe
options (4) To analyse the claims made by the OECD report and point out inconsistencies (5) To suggest that pension funds can and should more in infrastructure
66. Choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the word Extended given in bold as used in the passage. (1) Absolute (2) Fleeting (3) Equitable (4) Steady (5) Regular
67. Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning to the word Commission given in bold as used in the passage. (1) Agency (2) Committee (3) Contract (4) Payment (5) Expense
68. Which of the following can be inferred in the content of the passage? (1) Britain is making efforts to reform its infrastructure sector (2) Britain’s GDP is abysmal and prestigious infrastructure projects should be kept on hold till the pension and infrastructure projects are reformed (3) Investments banks are risky as they are governed by political powers (4) Britain’s national accounts data lacks crucial parameters (5) All the given statements can be inferred in the context of the passage
69. What does the author want to convey through the phrase “They would rather not bear the whole burden”? (1) Government would prefer to privatise utilities like power etc (2) Government are vary about the public takeout of pension funds going bust (3) Governments short on capital, are cautious about society financing infrastructure as it is costly
(4) The private-sector is unwilling to continue their monetary support of loss making public facilities (5) Other than those given as options
70. According to the passage, which of the following can be said about infrastructure investment? A. It provides tremendous opportunities to investors as there is a huge need for infrastructure. B. Creative solutions are required to generate the necessary investment. C. It is crucial for governments to invest in infrastructure to win elections. (1) None (2) A and B (3) Only A (4) Only B (5) A and C Directions (Q. Nos. 71-75) Which of the phrase given against the sentence should replace the word/ phrase given in bold in sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is given as it is given and no correction is required, mark ‘No correction required’ as the answer.
71. Getting tax refunds is a problematic not only for the common man but also sensor officials. (1) are problems (2) is a problem (3) are a problem (4) is problem (5) no correction required
72. The World Bank represents a particularly difficult case of organisation cultural changes. (1) Represent (2) Representing (3) Representation (4) Have representing (5) No correction required
73. Big companies are hiking stipends for summer internships by 40%, sending out a strong signal. That they expects the economy to new up. (1) Them expecting (2) They expect (3) These expectation
(4) Expect these (5) No correction required
74. Declining crude prices have raise hopes of interest of rate cuts. (1) Have rise (2) Have rising (3) Have raised (4) Has risen (5) No correction required
75. India continues to be on the top of the global consumer confidence under this year as well. (1) Continue to being (2) Continuing to be (3) Continuing too be (4) Continue to be (5) No correction required Directions (Q. Nos. 76-80) Read this sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical mistakes/ error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the part with the error as your answer. If there is no error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)
76. After the cash-strapped corporation/expressed its inability to provide funds/for various devlop- mental works, the office bearers of the civic body started/lobbying at special financial and from State government. (1) After the cash-strapped corporation (2) Expressed its inability to provide funds (3) For various development works, the office bearers of the civic body started (4) Lobbying for special financial and from State government (5) No error
77. Three things are/essential for a start up to succeed,/a product that is in demand,/a good team and as well as a minimum expenditure.
(1) Three things are (2) Essential for a start up to succeed (3) A product that is in demand (4) A good team as well as a minimum expenditure (5) No error
78. We all have at/some point in our lives/wondered if we are actually/being too nice to someone. (1) We all have at (2) Some point in our lives (3) Wondered if we are actually (4) Being too nice to someone (5) No error
79. Anticipating a foggy winter,/the railway authorities has/decided to/cancel thirty trains. (1) Anticipating a foggy winter (2) The railway authorities have (3) Decided to (4) Cancel thirty trains (5) No error
80. New businesses today/are increasing by focusing on/introducing various perks and motivation programmes/to help retain employees. (1) New businesses today (2) Are increasing focusing on (3) Introducing various perks and motivation programmes (4) To help retain employees (5) No error Directions (Q. Nos. 81-90) Read the following passage carefully and answer the given questions. Certain words are given in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions. In our day and age, technology is omnipresent and integral part of our lives. However, although, the main purpose of technology is to make our lives easier, the reactions on opinions and technology are very diverse. This year, various sessions at the Women’s Forum covered the influence of new technologies in our daily life. It is worthwhile analysing two contrasting perspectives in depth, to
understand how broad this debate is. On the one hand, technology and digital media can be a great help to reach out to other people and spread your message to a very large platform. The session ‘How to be a digital influencer’ was analysing exactly this question, and introduced various platforms and strategies on how too use the digital world to your advantage. Social media removes all distances : Geographic, social and hierarchical. You cna reach, at any time, and communication in real time. Thus, a permanent link for communication has been created. Today; everyone has the ability to transmit knowledge and thus credibility of the creator of knowledge is more important than even before. Technology has taken the universal communication method of storytelling and transformed it, in a way that now more stories can reach more people through social media platforms than ever before. People should find their digital media voice, tell sharable stories and drive engagement. Also, it is very important to be authentic and truly about the message you are trying to convey through the digital media. Another session, the very same day, analysed how exactly the opposite is true and how new technologies actually cause stress and suffering, because of a concept referred to as ‘infobesity’, we have changed the way we consume and generate information. People are trying to live ten lives at once and a lot of stress and anxiety occurs from that. Thus, we are suffering from digital bulimia, meaning that we take in a lot of information at once, without really processing if for ourselves, and in turn create a lot of new information. We are at the same time creators and victims of information overload. Thus, it is obvious that technological advancement has failed at its mission of making everybody’s life easier, as many people are reacting negatively to it.
81. According to the passage, which of the following is not true about the characteristics of ‘infobestiy’? (1) The pace of our lives has increased significantly due to technology (2) With the help of technology, people try to domultiple things at the same time, leading to stress (3) Technology makes our lives sedentary and leads to health problems (4) Due to technology, each individual is bombarded with excess information (5) All the options are true according to the passage
82. Which of the following is most opposite in meaning of the word given as bold as used in the passage? (1) Similar (2) Separate (3) Interwoven (4) Simultaneous (5) Together
83. Which of the following can be said about the invention of the car?
A. More than being a boon, this invention has become an inconvenience to us. B. It has invoked in us the desire to travel to places that we would not have otherwise gone to C. It has enabled us to have more time for ourselves (1) A and C (2) B and C (3) A and B (4) All of these (5) Only B
84. Which of the following can be the most suitable title for the passage? (1) The paradox of technological advance (2) The different types of technology available (3) Technology propagation-the road to nowhere (4) Technology and gainful insight (5) Technological progress across the continents
85. According to the author, which of the following can be said about reaching to people through the medium of technology? A. Today’s digital age has made it essential for an individual to send a message that is genuine in nature. B. The ability to impact many people through a message is solely dependent on the number of times the same message goes out, regardless of its authenticity. C. Technology has made it easier to reach out to masses of people at the same time. (1) Only C (2) All of these (3) A and C (4) A and B (5) Only B
86. Which of the following is true according to the passage? A. It is in our own interest that we keep check on the amount of digital information that we generate. B. The promise on which technology was designed was that it should make our lives simpler. C. It is best that we learn to survive without any technological intervention in our lives. (1) A and B (2) All of these
(3) B and C (4) Only A (5) Only B
87. According to the passage, which of the following is author’s opinion/statement about technology? (1) Beware! Technology can only bring doom if allowed to proliferate. (2) Take responsibility for how you let technology impact your life. (3) Go head and invest in the latest technology, it is worth it. (4) What the future of technology holds for us is unknown, wait and watch (5) Other than those given as options.
88. Which of the following is most nearly the same in meaning to the word given in bold as used in the passage? Engagement (1) Appointment (2) Involvement (3) Meeting (4) Rendezvous (5) Date
89. Which of the following is most nearly the same in meaning to the word given in bold as used in the passage?Credibility (1) Calculated (2) Deliberated (3) Believed (4) Created (5) Patterned
90. Which of the following is the most opposite in meaning to the word given in bold as used in the passage? Spread (1) Collect (2) Take (3) Restrict
(4) Join (5) Multiply Directions (Q. Nos. 91-100) In the given passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. Against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find the appropriate word in each case. Changing an organisation’s culture is one of the most difficult leadership challenges. That’s because an organisation’s culture (91) interlocking set of goals, roles, processes, values communications parctices, attitudes and assumptions. These elements (92) together as a mutually reinforcing system and combine to prevent any (93) to change it. That is why single-fix challenges, such as the introduction of teams. Of lean, or agile, or scrum or knowledge management or some new process, may (94) to make progress for a while, but (95) the interlocking elements of the organisational culture (96) over and the change is inexorably drawn (97) into the existing organisational culture. Changing a culture is large scale undertaking and eventually all of the organisational focus for changing minds will need to be put in play. However, the (98) in which they are deployed has a Critical (99) on the (100) of success.
91. (1) Less (2) Embraces (3) Comprises (4) Makes (5) Composes
92. (1) Amalgamate (2) Conjoin (3) Fill (4) Stand (5) Attach
93. (1) Attempt (2) Energy (3) Ways (4) Power (5) Tries
94.
(1) Look (2) Appear (3) Perform (4) Suspect (5) Seek
95. (1) Especially (2) Presently (3) Likely (4) Eventually (5) Lately
96. (1) Bounce (2) Throw (3) Seize (4) Jump (5) Take
97. (1) Forth (2) Ahead (3) Gain (4) Set (5) Back
98 (1) Order (2) Succession (3) Idea (4) Step (5) Label
99. (1) Affect (2) Impact (3) Control
(4) Jolt (5) Shake
100. (1) Change (2) Odd (3) Risk (4) Likelihood (5) Option
SBI PO Exam Paper - (Reasoning) "held on 30-11-2014" (Based on Memory) Directions (Q. Nos. 1-6) Study the given information and answer the questions. When a word and number arrangement machine is given an input line or words and numbers, its arranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
(All the numbers are two-digit numbers) Input 14 36 methodology 21 of research 59 crucial 98 very 62 is Step I 98 14 38 methodology 21 of research 59 crucial very is 62 Step II 98 very 14 36 methodology 21 of 59 crucial is research 62 Step III 59 98 very 14 methodology 21 of crucial is research 62 36 Step IV 59 98 very of 14 21 crucial is methodology research 62 36 Step V 21 59 98 very of crucial is methodology research 62 36 14 Step VI 21 59 98 very of is crucial methodology research 62 36 14 Step VI is the of the above arrangement as the intended arrangements is obtained. As per the rules followed in the given, steps find out appropriate steps for the given input. Input 65 work in 23 to be 13 89 managed 48 97 load 34 healthy 55 style
1. Which element is exactly between ‘style’ and ‘be’ in second last steps of the given arrangements? (1) Work (2) Healthy (3) 23 (4) Load (5) Be
2. What is the position of 46 from the right end in the third steps? (1) Sixth (2) Seventh (3) Fifth (4) Eight (5) Ninth
3. Which of the following is fifth step of the arrangement based on the given input? (1) 46 65 97 to managed in 23 be 13 load healthy style work 89 55 34 (2) 46 work 65 style 97 in 23 be 13 load healthy 89 managed 55 to 34 (3) 46 65 97 work style in 23 be 13 load healthy managed to 89 55 34 (4) 34 46 55 65 89 97 work syle in 23 be, 13 load healthy managed to (5) 89 55 34 work style in 23 be 13 load healthy managed to 46 65 97
4. In which, step are the elements ‘be 13 healthy in’ found in the same order? (1) Third (2) Sixth (3) Fourth (4) The given order of elements is not found in any stop (5) Fifth
5. How many steps will be required to complete the given arrangement based on the given input? (1) Eight (2) Ten
(3) Seven (4) Nine (5) Six
6. Which elements is eight to left of the elements which is twelfth from the end of the third last step? (1) 97 (2) 23 (3) Work (4) Style (5) To Directions (Q. Nos. 7-11) The following questions consisting of a question and two statements I and II given below. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient to answer the questions. Read both the statements and choose the most appropriate option.
7. All are the five friends F, G, H, I and J, situated in a straight line facing North? I. F sits at one of the extreme ends of the line only two people sit between F and H. J sits to immediate left of H. G and I are immediate neighbours of each other. II. J faces North and sits at one of the extreme ends of the line. Only two peoples sit between J and I. H sits second to the right of I. H sits to immediate left of G. (1) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. Which the data one alone are not sufficient to answer the question. (2) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient, to the answer the question. (3) The data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficent to answer the question. (4) The data is even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question. (5) The data in both statements I and II together unnecessary to answer the question.
8. How ‘never’ will be written in a code language? I. In that code language ‘never ever go there’ is written as ‘an ja ni ho’. II. In that code language ‘go there and come back’ is written as ‘ma ho sa ni da’. (1) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data one alone are not sufficient to answer the question. (2) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to the answer the question. (3) The data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(4) The data is even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question. (5) The data in both statements I and II together unncessary to answer the question.
9. Is C the mother of B? I. P is the father of A and B. R has only the one brother P. C is sister in law of R. R is unmarried F is the mother of R. F has only two childrens. II. H has only two childrens P and R. P is father of A. B is the only brother of A. R is unmarried. H is the father-in-law of C. (1) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data one alone are not sufficient to answer the question. (2) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to the answer the question. (3) The data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. (4) The data is even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question. (5) The data in both statements I and II together unnecessary to answer the question.
10. Five movies P, Q, R, S and T are scheduled to be screened from Monday to Friday of the same week. Which movie will be screened on Friday? I. Movies P will be screened on Tuesday. Only two movies will be screened between movies R and S. R will be screened before S. II. Movie Q will be screened on Wednesday. Only one movie will be screened between movies Q and R. S will be screened immediate before movie T. (1) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data one alone are not sufficient to answer the question. (2) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to the answer the question. (3) The data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. (4) The data is even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question. (5) The data in both statement I and II together unnecessary to answer the question.
11. How far is point R from point P? I. A person starts from point P, walks 15 m to the South takes right turn and walks 4 m. He then takes left turn and walks 7 m. He takes left turn again, walks for 4 m and reaches point Q. If the percent takes left turn and walks 7 m, he will reach point R. II. A person starts from point P, walks 14 m towards the East, takes a left turn and walks 3 m. He than takes a left turn again and walks for 14 m to reach point N. If a takes a right turn from point N and walks 5 m, he will be 27 m away from point R.
(1) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data one alone are not sufficient to answer the question. (2) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to the answer the question. (3) The data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. (4) The data is even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question. (5) The data in both statements I and II together unnecessary to answer the question. Directions (Q. Nos. 12-17) Study the information carefully and answer the questions. M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T are sitting around a circular area of equal distances between each other, but not necessarily in the same order some of the people are facing the center while some face outside. (i.e., in a direction opposite to the centre). Note : Facing the same direction means one faces the centre then the other also faces the centre and vice-versas. Facing opposite direction means if one person faces centre then the other faces outside and vice-versa. S sits second to the right of P. P faces the centre. T sits second the left of S. T is an immediate neighbour of both O and Q. R sits second to the left of Q. M sits seconds to the left of R. T sits second to the left of N. M sits second to the left of O. T faces the same direction as Q. N sits third to the right of M.
12. Who sits exactly between S and T. When counted from the left of S? (1) M (2) Q (3) P (4) O (5) N
13. How many people in the given arrangement face the centre? (1) One (2) Three (3) Five (4) Two (5) Four
14. Who sits second to the right of N? (1) R (2) P
(3) T (4) S (5) O
15. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given sitting arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? (1) R (2) S (3) Q (4) O (5) M
16. Which of the following is true regarding T as per the given sitting arrangements? (1) T faces the centre. (2) Only two people sit between N and T. (3) Only three people sit between T and P. (4) S sits second to the left of T. (5) Only one persons sits between T and R.
17. What is M’s position with respect to T? (1) Second to the left (2) Fifth to the right (3) Third to the right (4) Third to the left (5) Fourth to the right Directions (Q. Nos. 18-23) In these questions two/three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II have been given. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows the statements disregarding commonly known facts.
18. Statements
Some prices are costs. Some costs are amounts. All amounts are expenses. Conclusions I. At least some amounts are prices. II. All amounts being prices is a possibility. (1) Either conclusion I or II is true (2) Both conclusion I and II are true (3) Neither conclusion I nor II is true (4) Only conclusion II is true (5) Only conclusion I is true
19. Statements All invitations are rejections. Some invitations are celebrations. No rejection is an attraction. Conclusions I. Some celebrations are rejections. II. All celebrations are rejections. (1) Either conclusion I or II is true (2) Both conclusion I and II are true (3) Neither conclusion I nor II is true (4) Only conclusion II is true (5) Only conclusion I is true
20. Statements All grades are scales. All scales are categories. Conclusions I. All grades are categories. II. All categories are scales. (1) Either conclusion I or II is true (2) Both conclusion I and II are true (3) Neither conclusion I nor II is true (4) Only conclusion II is true (5) Only conclusion I is true
21. Statements
Some metals are papers. All papers are alloys. No alloy is a wood. Conclusions I. All woods being metals is a possibility II. All metals being woods is a possibility. (1) Either conclusion I or II is true (2) Both conclusion I and II are true (3) Neither conclusion I nor II is true (4) Only conclusion II is true (5) Only conclusion I is true
22. Statements Some metals are papers. All papers are alloys. No alloy is a wood. Conclusions I. No paper is a wood. II. At least some meals are alloys. (1) Either conclusion I or II is true (2) Both conclusion I and II are true (3) Neither conclusion I nor II is true (4) Only conclusion II is true (5) Only conclusion I is true
23. Statements Some prices are costs. Some costs are amounts. All amounts are expenses. Conclusions I. No expense is a cost. II. At least some expenses are prices. (1) Either conclusion I or II is true (2) Both conclusion I and II are true (3) Neither conclusion I nor II is true (4) Only conclusion II is true (5) Only conclusion I is true
24. This question consist of a statements followed by two course of actions numbered I and II given below it. A course of action is an administrative decision to be taken for improvements, follow-up or further action in the regard to the problems, policy etc. You have to assumed everything in the statement to be true and then decide which of the suggested courses of actions logically follows from the given statements. Statements There have been structural shifts from agriculture to industry in country Z. While industries contribute to 67% of the country’s GDP. It is leading to a study and undesirable declined in the participation of labour force in agriculture. I. The government should curtail number of industries borrowing up in the country in order to promote the agricultures. II. Incentives for working in agriculture should be made competitive with that of other sectors. (1) Either conclusion I or II is true (2) Both conclusion I and II are true (3) Neither conclusion I nor II is true (4) Only conclusion II is true (5) Only conclusion I is true Directions (Q. Nos. 25-27) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions. Each of the six people U, V, W, X, Y and Z stayed for a different number of day in India. X stayed for less number of days then only V, Y stayed for more number of days then only two people. U and did not stay less than Y. W did not stay for the minimum number of days. The one who stayed for the second lowest number of days stayed for eight days. U stayed for 17 days in India.
25. Which of the following is possibly the number of days for which it stayed in India? (1) 5 (2) 32 (3) 23 (4) 20 (5) 17
26. Which of the following is true with respect to Z as per the given information? (1) The possible number of days for which Z stayed in India is 14 days (2) Z stayed for the minimum number of days (3) None of the given options is true (4) Only two peoples stayed for more number of days than Z (5) Z definitely stayed for more number of days than Y
27. Which of the following may be the possible number of days for which Y stayed in India? (1) 11 (2) 8 (3) 19 (4) 5 (5) 25 Directions (Q. Nos. 28-32) Study the information carefully and answer the given questions. Ten people are sitting in two parallel rows containing five people each in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons in row- I J, K, L, M and N are seated and all of them are facing North and in row-II P, Q, R, S and T are seated and all facing South (but not necessarily in the same order). Each person also likes different flowers namely Gazania, Plumeria, Tulip, Orchids, Lily, Rose, Daffodil, Daisy Peony and Dahila (but not necessarily in the same order). N sits exactly in the centre of the row and faces the one who likes orchids. Only one person sits between N and the one who likes Lily. S faces one of the immediate neighbour of the one who likes Lily. Only one person sits between P and the one who likes Orchids. P is not an immediate neighbour of S. P faces one of the immediate neighbour of L. M is neither an immediate neighbours of L nor faces S. Q is not an immeidate neighbour of A and faces the one who likes Plumeria. M does not face R. M faces one of the immediate neighbour of the one who likes rose. Only one person sits between the one who likes Rose and the one who likes Gazania. The one who likes Peony and the one who likes Daisy face each other. Only two people sit between the one who likes Daisy and the One who likes Daffodil. J does not like Daffodil. The one who likes Dahlia sits fourth to the right of the one who likes Peony.
28. Who amongst the following is a immediate neighbour of the one who likes Peony? (1) Who likes Rose (2) Who likes Lily (3) Who likes Gazania
(4) K (5) T
29. Which of the following is definitely true as per the given arrangements? (1) Lily (2) Gazania (3) Rose (4) Orchids (5) Daffodil
30. Which of the following flowers does S like? (1) L face R (2) Q is an immediate neighbour of P (3) The one who likes Daisy is an immediate neighbour of P (4) Q likes Daffodil (5) The one who likes Dahlia faces N
31. Which of the following pairs represent the people sitting at the extreme end of the two rows? (1) P, J (2) Q, L (3) R, K (4) S, K (5) S, L
32. Who amongst the following likes Tulip? (1) N (2) P (3) S (4) Q (5) J
33. Read the following information carefully and answer the question which follows :
As per a recent survey 85% of the world force today is either actively looking for a job or open to talking to recruiters and relevant opportunities, the ones who are satisfied with their job. Which of the following may be a reason for the above mentioned results of the survey? (1) As there is the wide array of opportunity today and head hunters are always seeking for professionals, people are not willing to let go of an opportunity to do something new and challenging. (2) As per a recent survey more than 40% people today are dissatisfied with their jobs as there is the wide gap between what they study in the class room as compared to the actual work they do (3) Some people in the country take education loan for completing higher education and are expected to repay the loans themselves after they start working (4) As employees today are of different age group and back grounds it becomes difficult for the HR department to organise employment engagement activities to improve the job satisfaction of employees (5) Only a few people study for high specialised coursed in the country and they are always in demand as there is high scale gap in many organisations Directions (Q. Nos. 34-35) The following questions consist of a statements followed by two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide which of the given statements numbered I and II weakens or strengthens the statement and mark the appropriate answer.
34. Statement The world should move towards using bio-fuels in the future as these are more environment friendly as compared to regular fossil-fuels. I. While bio-fuels cleaner to burn, the processed to produce the fuel, including the necessary machinery leads to very high carbon emission. II. As two-fuels are manufactured from materials such as crop waste, manure and other by products, these, unlike fossil-fuels, are easily renewable. (1) Statement I weakens the information while statements II is a natural statement. (2) Both statement I and II weakens the information. (3) Statement I strengthens the information while statement II weakens the statement. (4) Statement I weakens the information while statement II strengths the statement. (5) Both statements I and II strengthens the information.
35. Statement
Always remain in an air conditioned environment for better health and well-being. I. Filters in the air-conditioners lower exposure to allergy creating pollen and other outdoor allergies. II. Spending two much times in an air-conditioned environment result in gradual intolerance of body towards natural temperatures. (1) Statement I weakens the information while statements II is a natural statement. (2) Both statement I and II weakens the information. (3) Statement I strengthens the information while statement II weakens the statement. (4) Statement I weakens the information while statement II strengths the statement. (5) Both statements I and II strengthens the information. Directions (Q. Nos. 36-14) The following questions have a statement followed by two conclusions (I and II). Assuming the given statements to be true, find which conclusion is definitely true.
36. Statement B£A=N>K³S Conclusions I. A > S II. B £ K (1) Either conclusion I or II is true (2) Both conclusion I and II are true (3) Neither conclusion I nor II is true (4) Only conclusion II is true (5) Only conclusion I is true
37. Statement B£A=N>K³S Conclusions I. B £ N II. S < N (1) Either conclusion I or II is true (2) Both conclusion I and II are true (3) Neither conclusion I nor II is true (4) Only conclusion II is true (5) Only conclusion I is true
38. Statement K³<=M³N=O£P Conclusions I. L > O II. L = O (1) Either conclusion I or II is true (2) Both conclusion I and II are true
(3) Neither conclusion I nor II is true (4) Only conclusion II is true (5) Only conclusion I is true
39. Statement K³L=M³N=O£P Conclusions I. K < P II. M ³ O (1) Either conclusion I or II is true (2) Both conclusion I and II are true (3) Neither conclusion I nor II is true (4) Only conclusion II is true (5) Only conclusion I is true
40. Statement X<Y£Z=W K³J>Z Conclusions I. Z < K II. Y £ W (1) Either conclusion I or II is true (2) Both conclusion I and II are true (3) Neither conclusion I nor II is true (4) Only conclusion II is true (5) Only conclusion I is true
41. Statement X<Y£Z=W K³J>Z Conclusions I. X ³ J II. K > Y (1) Either conclusion I or II is true (2) Both conclusion I and II are true (3) Neither conclusion I nor II is true (4) Only conclusion II is true (5) Only conclusion I is true Directions (Q. Nos. 42-44) Study the following information and answer the given questions. A and Y are brothers of K. Y is the son of P and S. P is the daughter of X. M is the father in law of S. Q is the son of X.
42. If J is brother of X, then how is J related to Q? (1) Uncle (2) Nephew (3) Cannot be determined (4) Brother-in-law (5) Son-in-law
43. How is Y related to M? (1) Nephews (2) Father (3) Brother-in-law (4) Grandson (5) Brother
44. How is K related to Q? (1) Cannot be determined (2) Niece (3) Daughter (4) Nephew (5) Son in law
45. Read the given information carefully and answer the question. Five fisherman from country X were sentenced to imprisonment by the High Court of country Y on charges of smuggling narcotics from country X to country Y. Which of the following supports the legal action taken by country Y? A. Country X had given details of a new fisherman that had no record of involvement in drug related activities. B. The navel authorities of both the country X and Y have found traces of narcotics in the fish boxes that were shipped from country X to country Y by these fisherman. C. All the fish boxes that are shipped between countries undergo a strict process of checking. D. It was found that two of the five fisherman who were sentenced to death penalty were earlier imprisoned for the same reason a few years back.
(1) B and C (2) B and E (3) Only D (4) None of these (5) Only B Directions (Q. Nos. 46-50) Read the given information and answer the given questions. Eight people A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H live on separate floors of an 8-floor building. Ground floor is numbered H, first floor is numbered 2 and so on until the top most floor is numbered 8. C lives on floor number 3. Only one person lives between C and F. Only one person lives between C and G. E lives immediately above B H lives immediately above F. H lives on any of the floors below D. Only one person lives between D and A. D lives above A.
46. Who lives on the floor immediately below D? (1) Other than those given as options (2) H (3) A (4) D (5) C
47. Which of the following is true with respect to the given information? (1) Only one person lives between E and G (2) A lives on an even numbered floor (3) A lives immediately below C (4) F lives on floor number 5 (5) A lives immediately above H
48. How many people live between the floors on which D and C, live? (1) One (2) More than three (3) Three (4) Two (5) No more
49. Who amongst the following lives between B and G?
(1) No one (2) C (3) E (4) H (5) D
50. Who amongst the following lives on floor number 5? (1) A (2) G (3) F (4) D (5) H