54 minute read
Course Questions and Answers
1. What is the first step in using the scientific method in psychology?
a. Observation b. Forming a hypothesis c. Experimentation d. Determining a rule or theorem
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Answer: b. Before any determination can be made in the scientific method, the research psychologist must form a hypothesis that is then tested through observation or experimentation.
2. What field of applied psychology looks at things like intelligence testing and assessing personality?
a. Psychometrics b. Geropsychology c. Comparative psychology d. Biopsychology
Answer: a. Psychometrics refers to psychological testing and looks at ways of assessing a person s intelligence and the different facets of their personality.
3. What field of applied psychology looks at the physical processes of the brain and how these affect cognition, emotion, and behavior?
a. Educational psychology b. Geropsychology c. Comparative psychology d. Biopsychology
Answer: d. The field of biopsychology focuses on the biological facets of the brain and how biology influences one s thinking, emotions, and behaviors.
4. What branch of psychology is concerned with issues of punishment and reward?
a. Cognitive psychology b. Neuropsychology c. Biopsychology d. Behaviorism
Answer: d. Behaviorism or behavioral psychology is involved with the modeling of behavior patterns through the use of punishment and rewards.
5. What branch of psychology is concerned with perception and problemsolving?
a. Cognitive psychology b. Neuropsychology c. Biopsychology d. Behaviorism
Answer: a. Cognitive psychology concerns itself with things like thinking, perception, learning, and problem-solving. It makes use of experimental research used to understand how people process things in their environment.
6. What country is the origin of psychology, dating back to the 1870s?
a. France b. Germany c. England d. United States
Answer: b. The field of modern psychology originated in Germany with the establishment of the first experimental research facilities dedicated to the study of psychological processes.
7. Who first developed an experimental research laboratory in the 1870s that was designed to study psychology?
a. Wilhelm Wundt b. BF Skinner c. Gustav Fechner d. Johann Herbart
Answer: a. Wilhelm Wundt was a German researcher who opened the first research laboratory to study psychological phenomena.
8. What was least studied by Sigmund Freud in his work on psychoanalysis?
a. Dream interpretation b. Cognitive processes c. Hypnosis d. Free association
Answer: b. Sigmund Freud studied hypnosis, free association, and dream interpretation as they relate to uncovering unconscious processes of the mind.
9. What did Freud believe was the main origin of psychological problems?
a. Child abuse b. Intellectual defects c. Sexual development d. Social functioning
Answer: c. Freud believed that a great many psychological problems come from issues related to the child s sexual development.
10. Who was the first American psychologist?
a. Erik Erickson b. BF Skinner c. William James d. Charles Peirce
Answer: c. William James was the first American psychologist. He was interested in Darwinian evolution and in the relationship between mental processes and fitting in with the environment.
11. Which psychologist was not associated with the study of behaviorism?
a. Ivan Pavlov b. Abraham Maslow c. BF Skinner d. James Watson
Answer: b. Abraham Maslow was not a behaviorist; however, the other three researchers focused their work largely on the issues of behaviorism.
12. What is the basest level of Maslow’s hierarchy of human needs?
a. Security b. Love and belonging c. Esteem d. Physiological needs
Answer: d. According to the hierarchy, the most basic of human needs are the physiological needs, which include warmth, food, and shelter.
13. What type of degree is the minimum a psychologist needs to have in order to treat patients?
a. Bachelor of Science b. Master’s Degree c. Doctor of Philosophy degree d. Post-doctoral fellowship
Answer: b. In general, a Master s degree is the minimum degree a person must have in order to treat patients as a psychologist. This is generally a six-year program of study.
14. What degree in psychology is most designed for the individual who wants to specialize in clinical psychology?
a. BS b. MA c. PhD d. PsyD
Answer: d. The PsyD degree is the doctor of psychology degree that is specifically designed for the professional who wants to practice in the field of clinical psychology.
15. What least defines a double-blind experiment?
a. It involves asking an open-ended question. b. It makes use of a placebo. c. The researcher does not know what the participants are receiving. d. The participant does not know what they are receiving.
Answer: a. The double-blind experiment makes use of a placebo and neither the participant nor the researcher knows what the participants are receiving. It avoids certain biases in the experimentation process.
16. What is least likely to be an experiment you should be skeptical of?
a. One that has not been supported by other researchers. b. One that has a small sample size. c. One that involves a wide cross-section of participants. d. One where the researcher has a conflict of interest.
Answer: c. There are many reasons why you should be skeptical of a given experiment or claim. You should look at each of these things but an experiment that has a wide cross-section of participants may actually be one you can trust if none of the other factors listed are the case.
17. What is true of inductive reasoning?
a. It goes from a generalization to something more specific. b. The hypothesis is what is generated first. c. It is the basis of all scientific experiments. d. It starts with a specific observation and then generalizes.
Answer: d. The beginning of inductive reasoning is the observation of something from which a general statement is made.
18. Which type of variable in an experiment will most likely interfere with the interpretation of the data in a psychological experiment?
a. Independent variable b. Confounding variable c. Extraneous variable d. Dependent variable
Answer: b. A confounding variable is one that is extraneous and not taken into account when the experiment is performed. For this reason, it is often something that interferes with the interpretation of the data.
19. What type of study was done by Sigmund Freud when he came up with his scientific theories?
a. Surveys b. Observational studies c. Case studies d. Experimental research study
Answer: c. Freud often looked at case studies in order to generate his scientific theories. It is for this reason that some of his conclusions have been criticized because it did not involve large numbers of subjects.
20.What is the type of research study that involves participants that are basically the same age?
a. Survey study b. Case study c. Longitudinal study d. Cohort study
Answer: d. A cohort study is one in which the study participants are generally the same age. This means that the age variable is a constant and unchanging part of the research project.
21. What type of research study can identify the difference between cause and effect?
a. Observational study b. Cohort study c. Experimental study d. Longitudinal study
Answer: c. An experimental study is the only type of study that can actually determine the cause and effect between two different variables.
22.What is the major downside of an observational study?
a. It sometimes cannot generalize to larger groups of people. b. It cannot gather large amounts of data on a group. c. It does not work when studying rare characteristics of the group being studied. d. There is a great deal of selection bias.
Answer: a. Because an observational study is done on smaller groups of people, some of whom have rare characteristics, the findings are not always generalized to larger groups of people.
23.What type of research study can be done anonymously with a large number of participants?
a. Archival study b. Longitudinal study c. Survey d. Cohort study
Answer: c. Surveys can be done anonymously to improve the validity of the data and they can be done on a large group of people.
24.What type of study looks at differences between individuals who are of different ages at the time of the study?
a. Cross-sectional study b. Cohort study c. Longitudinal study d. Observational study
Answer: a. Cross-sectional studies are so named because they involve looking at differences between people who are of different ages while the study is going on.
25. What type of research study is best for looking at the various risk factors for diseases?
a. Cross-sectional study b. Cohort study c. Longitudinal study d. Observational study
Answer: c. In a longitudinal study, individuals can be assessed over time for the various risk factors for diseases. Sometimes the risk factors lead to disease but it takes time for the disease to manifest itself.
26.What does the concept of parsimony mean to the researcher in experimental psychology?
a. There must always be cause and effect in an experiment. b. The simplest explanation for something is preferred. c. The data must be something that is observable. d. The theories must be testable.
Answer: b. With parsimony in experimental studies, the simplest explanation for what is observed is preferred over a complex explanation.
27. In a research study, data needs to be measured. Which type of measurement uses numbering of things just to label them so that the number itself doesn’t mean anything?
a. Interval measurement b. Ratio measurement c. Ordinal measurement d. Nominal measurement
Answer: d. In nominal measurement, the numbers don t really mean anything but are instead used to label something. Letters or names can be used just as easily.
28.What correlation coefficient in a research study indicates that there is no relationship between two variables?
a. -1 b. 0
c. +1 d. +10
Answer: b. A zero correlation coefficient means that there is no relationship between two variables. The correlation coefficient goes from -1 to +1.
29.What type of relationship is believed to be true but is not supported by actual research studies?
a. Illusory correlation b. Positive correlation c. Negative correlation d. Conformational bias
Answer: a. An illusory correlation is something like believing the full moon causes abnormal behavior. It is a common belief that is not supported by actual data.
30.What is not necessary with regard to the data you collect in an experimental psychology experiment?
a. Observability b. Measurability c. Present in all subjects d. Able to be quantified
Answer: c. Each of these things must be a part of the data you collect as part of your experiment; however, it does not need to be present in all subjects.
31. What is not a true statement about informed consent to do a study?
a. There can be no deception in the consent form b. The participant must know their participation is always voluntary c. The study design must be explained in the form d. The risks of the participation should be explained
Answer: a. Each of these is a true statement except that deception is allowed if complete truthfulness would alter the test results and the deception is not harmful to the participants.
32.What is a chromosome ultimately made of?
a. Ribonucleic acid b. Protein c. Deoxyribonucleic acid d. Glycolipid
Answer: c. The chromosome consists of different genes that are made from deoxyribonucleic acid or DNA, which forms the blueprint for the making of proteins that lead to different traits in a human, plant, or animal.
33. What is the sum total of an individual’s genetic characteristics called?
a. Allele b. Genes c. Genotype d. Phenotype
Answer: d. While the sum total of the individual s genes is called the genotype, the sum total of all of their genetic characteristics that can be seen or determined biochemically is called the phenotype.
34.What term describes an allele that is not seen unless a person has both copies of the same allele?
a. Recessive b. Dominant c. Heterozygous d. Homozygous
Answer: a. A recessive allele is not dominant so it takes the presence of two recessive alleles for the trait to become evident in the individual.
35. What does a Punnett square reveal?
a. The phenotype of the offspring b. The genotype of the offspring c. Both the phenotype and genotype of the offspring d. The presence of a lethal allele
Answer: c. The Punnett square will tell the genotype and will predict the phenotype of the offspring of a certain match between parents with their own sets of genotypes and phenotypes.
36.What is true of fraternal twins?
a. They come from different eggs and different sperm cells b. They come from the same egg but different sperm cells c. They come from different eggs but the same sperm cells d. They come from the same egg and the same sperm cell
Answer: a. Fraternal twins come from different eggs and different sperm cells but are born at the same time. Genetically-speaking, however, they are no more related than two different siblings would be.
37. What type of cell is not considered a glial cell?
a. Oligodendrocyte b. Schwann cell c. Astrocyte d. Neuron
Answer: d. Neurons are their own category of cell in the nervous system. They are separate from glial cells. Oligodendrocytes, Schwann cells, and astrocytes are considered glial cells.
38.What is more true of an axon than a dendrite?
a. They receive the electrical impulse from another neuron. b. They are shorter. c. They are often myelinated. d. They are large in number.
Answer: c. Each of these is more true of a dendrite than an axon, except for being myelinated, which is much more true of an axon.
39.The sum total of the connection between two neurons is called what?
a. Synapse b. Terminal button c. Synaptic cleft d. Postsynaptic receptor
Answer: a. Each of these represents a part of the synapse, which is defined as the sum total of the connection between two neurons or between a neuron and a muscle cell.
40.What is essentially the same thing as an efferent nerve?
a. Motor nerve b. Interneuron c. Sensory nerve d. Parasympathetic nerve
Answer: a. A motor nerve is an efferent nerve because it sends a signal away from the central nervous system to the periphery of the body. This is in opposition to an afferent nerve, which is usually a sensory nerve.
41. What is the largest part of the brain?
a. Cerebellum b. Thalamus c. Cerebrum d. Brainstem
Answer: c. The cerebrum is the largest part of the brain. It is responsible for consciousness, memory, thinking, and problem solving.
42.What part of the brain is most associated with emotions?
a. Hypothalamus b. Limbic system c. Cerebellum d. Pons
Answer: b. The limbic system is most associated with the processing of emotions. There are several related structures that make up the limbic system.
43.What is least likely to be associated with the frontal lobe?
a. Motor control b. Speech production c. Higher-order reasoning d. Sensory input
Answer: d. The frontal lobe deals with each of these things but does not handle sensory input. It also deals with the expression of emotions.
44.What is the major function of the occipital lobe of the brain?
a. Hearing b. Sensation c. Vision d. Motor skills
Answer: c. Vision is the major function of the occipital lobe of the brain, which contains the primary visual cortex.
45. What structure of the brain is most associated with memory and learning?
a. Amygdala b. Pons c. Hypothalamus d. Hippocampus
Answer: d. The hippocampus is the major structure of the forebrain that helps the individual learn and develop new memories.
46.What is a major difference between neurotransmitters and hormones?
a. Hormones are not chemical messengers and neurotransmitters are. b. Hormones act on distant target organs, which is not true of neurotransmitters. c. Neurotransmitters have receptors and hormones do not. d. The action of neurotransmitters is slower than that of hormones.
Answer: b. A major difference between neurotransmitters and hormones is that hormones act on distant target organs, which is not true of chemical messengers.
47. Which endocrine gland is considered the master gland because it controls so many other endocrine glands and endocrine functions?
a. Pituitary gland b. Thyroid gland c. Adrenal gland d. Pineal gland
Answer: a. The pituitary gland is often referred to as the master gland because it makes a great many hormones that control several bodily functions and other endocrine glands.
48.Which neurotransmitter is most associated with muscle cell activation?
a. Dopamine b. Acetylcholine c. Histamine d. GABA
Answer: b. Acetylcholine is the major neurotransmitter involved in the activation of muscle cells. Diseases that affect acetylcholine or the acetylcholine receptors will cause profound muscle weakness.
49.What is the first stage of Freud’s developmental stages?
a. Anal b. Genital c. Latency d. Oral
Answer: d. The first stage of Freud s psychosexual development is that of the oral stage.
50.In which psychosexual stage is there the Oedipus and Electra complex?
a. Anal b. Genital c. Phallic d. Latency
Answer: c. In the phallic stage, the boy can develop an Oedipus complex and the girl can develop an Electra complex.
51. When in Freud’s stages is their more self-pleasure and masturbation?
a. Phallic b. Oral c. Anal d. Genital
Answer: a. In the phallic stage, the focus is on masturbation and on self-pleasure rather than on sexual intercourse and on interactions with other sexual individuals.
52. According to Erickson, when does an individual develop values and a sense of self?
a. Infancy b. Preschool c. School age d. Adolescence
Answer: d. In adolescence, the task is to develop a sense of self and to develop a value system. The adolescent must develop these things before true intimacy can begin.
53. At what stage of development is there the task of integrity versus despair?
a. Adolescence b. Older adulthood c. Middle adulthood d. School age
Answer: b. The older person will reflect on their lives with either a sense of accomplishment and pride or feelings of despair. The person should have accomplished things by this time in their life that they have developed some sort of pride in.
54. What is the main task performed in school age children?
a. Industry versus inferiority b. Intimacy versus isolation c. Trust versus mistrust d. Autonomy versus shame and doubt
Answer: a. In the school age child, there is a focus on industry versus inferiority. The child who is successful takes pride in their daily successes and avoids feeling inferior to others.
55. What theory on development was the main theory espoused by Jean Piaget?
a. Psychosocial theory b. Psychoanalytical theory c. Cognitive theory d. Psychosexual theory
Answer: c. Jean Piaget worked on and studied the cognitive development of children rather than on the sexual or social development of children as they grow and develop.
56. In which of Piaget’s stages do children develop egocentrism?
a. Sensorimotor b. Preoperational c. Formal operational d. Concrete operational
Answer: b. In the preoperational stage, which is the preschool years, children have imaginative play but also have a great deal of egocentrism.
57. Which developmental theorist studied moral development?
a. Freud b. Erickson c. Piaget d. Kohlberg
Answer: d. Kohlberg took Piaget s theories and expanded them to include things like the moral development of a child over time.
58.If a person has reached the highest level of moral reasoning, what is behavior driven by?
a. Social acceptance b. Moral principles c. Avoidance of punishment d. The presence of rewards
Answer: b. At the highest level of moral reasoning, individuals are driven by their own moral values and moral principles rather than on any of the other choices.
59. What happens in utero to end the germinal stage of development?
a. Cells become fully specialized b. Limb buds form c. The zygote implants into the uterus d. Meiosis is completed
Answer: c. The germinal stage of development is when the single-celled zygote increases its cell count through mitosis. The stage ends with the implantation of the zygote into the uterine lining.
60.What environmental factor is least likely to be a teratogen?
a. Folic acid b. Tobacco smoke c. Alcohol d. Heroin
Answer: a. Folic acid is a vitamin that can protect against neural tube defects. It is not a teratogen; however, the other choices are considered to be teratogens.
61. At what age will most infants begin to take steps and walk?
a. Six months b. Twelve months c. Fifteen months d. Eighteen months
Answer: b. The average age at which an infant will walk on his own is about twelve months of age, although it can happen slightly earlier or slightly later than that.
62.When does a child first say words that have some type of meaning?
a. 12 months b. 18 months
c. 2 years d. 3 years
Answer: a. The first words a child says are very simple and not always recognizable as the intended word but they begin to have meaning at around 12 months of age.
63.What type of attachment is seen most in abused children?
a. Secure attachment b. Avoidant attachment c. Resistant attachment d. Disorganized attachment
Answer: d. With abused children, there is disorganized attachment. They are dysregulated when the parent leaves the room but run from the parent when they return to the room.
64.At what age does self-concept begin to develop?
a. 6 months b. 18 months
c. 5 years d. 12 years
Answer: b. At 18 months, the self-concept starts to develop with the child seeing themselves separate from others. This will continue through adolescence.
65. What is generally the first stage in the grieving process?
a. Bargaining b. Acceptance c. Anger d. Denial
Answer: d. Denial is often the first thing that happens with grief. The person feels numb and often feels as though a mistake has been made.
66.How many hours of sleep are necessary at a minimum in order to avoid accruing a sleep debt?
a. 5 hours b. 6 hours c. 7 hours d. 8 hours
Answer: c. Sleep of less than seven hours a night on a chronic basis increases the probability of accrual of a sleep debt.
67. According to Freud, which things related to consciousness will affect a person’s behavior?
a. The conscious only b. The preconscious only c. The conscious and preconscious only d. The conscious, the preconscious, and the subconscious
Answer: d. Even though things in the subconscious are not easily retrievable, they still can affect a person s behavior.
68.What is referred to by the concept of sleep rebound?
a. The tendency to fall asleep faster after sleep deprivation b. The tendency to sleep longer after sleep deprivation c. The tendency to sleep more deeply after sleep deprivation d. The tendency to dream more after sleep deprivation
Answer: a. Sleep rebound is the tendency to fall asleep faster after a period of sleep deprivation.
69.When are memories laid down to the greatest degree?
a. In slow-wave sleep b. In REM sleep c. While resting before sleep d. In the morning after sleeping
Answer: a. Memories are laid down the most during slow-wave sleep so that staying up cramming for a test may actually be counterproductive to the process.
70.During which stage of sleep is a person most easily awakened?
a. REM sleep b. Stage 1 sleep c. Stage 3 sleep d. Stage 4 sleep
Answer: b. Stage 1 sleep is the transition between sleep and wakefulness. The person has an increased ability to be awakened during this phase of sleep.
71. Which stage of sleep is most associated with sleep spindles and K-complexes?
a. REM sleep b. Stage 1 sleep c. Stage 2 sleep d. Stage 4 sleep
Answer: c. The stage 2 sleep is a deeper stage of sleep than stage 1 sleep and is associated with the presence of sleep spindles and K-complexes on the EEG.
72. What problems can occur with lack of REM sleep?
a. Mood disturbances b. Cognitive deficits c. Weight gain d. There are no downsides to lack of REM sleep
Answer: d. There are no downsides to a lack of REM sleep and, in fact, there are some antidepressants that depress REM sleep and improve mood.
73. What is lucid dreaming?
a. Dreaming with a partial awareness of wakefulness b. Dreams that are really realistic c. Dreams where the person feels like they are falling d. The same thing as daydreams
Answer: a. Lucid dreams are dreams that are associated with a partial wakefulness so that the person may have some control over the outcome of the dream.
74. What criterion indicates the presence of insomnia?
a. An inability to sleep five nights a week for six months b. An inability to sleep 2 night a week for three months c. An inability to sleep 3 nights a week for one month d. An inability to sleep 1 night a week for three months
Answer: c. The criterion for insomnia is the inability to sleep for 3 nights a week or more for a minimum of one month.
75. What sleep disorder is almost always seen in young children?
a. Sleep terrors b. Restless leg syndrome c. Somnambulism d. Narcolepsy
Answer: a. Sleep terrors are episodes of fear and panic during sleep that are not remembered by the individual. They almost always occur in young children and are eventually outgrown.
76. What is the biggest physical risk to having sleep apnea?
a. COPD b. Cardiovascular disease c. Diabetes d. Obesity
Answer: b. People who have sleep apnea have a higher risk of developing cardiovascular disease. Obesity is related to having this but it is usually a preexisting condition.
77. What is the most common sleep disorder in humans?
a. Sleep apnea b. Narcolepsy c. Insomnia d. Restless leg syndrome
Answer: c. Up to half of all people will have insomnia at some point in their lives, making it the most common sleep disorder in humans.
78. For what medical purpose is meditation least likely to be helpful?
a. Irritable bowel syndrome b. Cardiovascular disease c. Diabetes d. Insomnia
Answer: c. Meditation is believed to help these diseases but it is not known to be helpful in the treatment of diabetes.
79. What is it called when a person looks at an object as part of hypnosis?
a. Suggestion b. Induction c. Ideomotor response d. Suggestibility
Answer: b. Induction or hypnotic induction” is the fixation on an object or some other thing in order to create a hypnotic trance state.
80.What does the sensation called proprioception detect?
a. Temperature b. Movement c. Body position d. Balance
Answer: c. The sensation known as proprioception will detect body position in space so you can know where your body parts are located without having to look at them.
81. What does vestibular sense detect?
a. Touch b. Movement c. Body position d. Balance
Answer: d. Your vestibular sense is located deep within the ear and helps to detect balance. Without it, you can feel dizzy and might fall over.
82.What is sensory adaptation?
a. The ability to tune out unnecessary things in the environment. b. The ability to focus on things specifically and more clearly over time. c. The ability to focus on more than one thing in the environment. d. The ability to use past experiences to make sense of the sensations experienced.
Answer: a. Sensory adaptation is the ability to tune out unnecessary things in the environment so that not all things that are actually sensed are things that are perceived. In some cases, it happens over a period of time when it is no longer necessary to focus on something.
83.What is the distance from the center of a wave to the top of the wave called?
a. Amplitude b. Frequency c. Trough d. Wavelength
Answer: a. The amplitude is the distance from the center of the wave to the top of the wave. Waves of a higher amplitude are considered more intense than waves of a lower amplitude.
84.What naturally increases as the wavelength of a wave decreases?
a. Crest b. Trough c. Amplitude d. Frequency
Answer: d. The frequency of a wave is inversely proportional to the wavelength so, as the wavelength decreases, the frequency increases.
85.What aspect of a wave is measured in Hertz?
a. Amplitude b. Propagation c. Frequency d. Wavelength
Answer: c. The frequency of a wave is measured in hertz. All waves can be measured this way.
86.What structure of the eye is most responsible for having a clear focus of visual objects?
a. Sclera b. Iris c. Lens d. Pupil
Answer: c. The lens of the eye is most responsible for the ability to have clear focus, although the cornea also plays a smaller role in this.
87. What is the part of the eye that is also known as the “blind spot”?
a. Fovea b. Optic chiasm c. Optic nerve d. Retina
Answer: a. The fovea is also called the blind spot. There are no rods or cones there because the optic nerve exits the eye at this spot in the retina.
88.Which part of the eye is most responsive to the perception of color?
a. Optic nerve b. Cone c. Rod d. Optic chiasm
Answer: b. Cones are photoreceptor cells that are most responsive to the perception of color. They operate best in bright light, which explains why color is best perceived under bright light conditions.
89.What is the connecting membrane between the middle ear and the inner ear called?
a. Semicircular canal b. Oval window c. Tympanic membrane d. Basilar membrane
Answer: b. The oval window is the membrane that the stapes rests on. It represents the dividing point between the middle ear and the inner ear.
90.What is least likely to be a cause of conductive hearing loss?
a. Toxins b. Loud noises c. Infectious diseases d. Brain damage
Answer: d. Each of these can be a cause of conductive hearing loss; however, brain damage or damage to the auditory nerve is a cause of sensorineural hearing loss rather than conductive hearing loss.
91. What taste sense basically detects monosodium glutamate in food?
a. Salty b. Umami c. Bitter d. Sour
Answer: b. The taste sense of umami is the detection of monosodium glutamate in food that is eaten.
92.Where does vestibular sensation come from?
a. The eyes b. The ears c. The spinal cord d. The skin
Answer: b. The inner ear is the source of vestibular sensation, which involves dizziness when the inner ear is infected or otherwise abnormal.
93.What sensation is not associated with the vestibular system?
a. The sense of balance b. Proprioception c. Hearing d. Kinesthetic sense
Answer: c. Each of these is associated with the ear but hearing itself is not associated specifically with the vestibular system, while the others are directly linked to this part of the inner ear.
94.What does Gestalt psychology mainly refer to?
a. Pattern perceptions b. Relational psychodynamics c. Cognitive distortions d. Thought processes
Answer: a. Gestalt psychology is mainly associated with the perception of patterns.
95. What type of learning is involved in the associative learning process also referred to as modeling?
a. Operant conditioning b. Imprinting c. Classical conditioning d. Observational learning
Answer: d. Each of these is a type of associative learning. Observational learning is also called modeling and does not require any form of tangible reinforcement. It is based on social phenomena instead.
96.What is the intended end goal of learning through play?
a. The understanding of certain rules involved in play activities b. The building of physical fitness skills c. Increased socialization d. Play itself has no intended goal, only natural outcomes
Answer: d. Play itself has no intended goal or expectations but there can be many natural outcomes related to learning that come out of the play experience.
97. What is the process called in which a child learns values, language, and rituals gathered from their own culture?
a. Episodic learning b. Acculturation c. Enculturation d. Imprinting
Answer: c. Enculturation involves the learning of language, values, and rituals from one s own culture. Acculturation is related but involves picking up the same things from a new and different culture from one s culture of origin.
98.What is least likely to be a part of the psychomotor learning domain?
a. Riding a bike b. Learning to solve a problem c. Driving a car d. Learning how to perform a dance
Answer: b. Each of these is in the psychomotor learning domain except for problem-solving, which is primarily in the cognitive domain.
99.What type of transfer of learning happens when information is used to solve a problem that exists in a different context than the original one?
a. Positive transfer b. Negative transfer c. Near transfer d. Far transfer
Answer: d. Each of these is a transfer principle; however, far transfer involves the transfer of information in order to solve a problem that is in a different context than the original problem that has been mastered.
100. Sexual behavior is what type of learning?
a. Associative learning b. Modeling c. Reflexive d. Instinctual
Answer: d. Sexual behavior is instinctual in all species and does not necessarily related to an actual learning process.
101. What is not true of second-order conditioning?
a. It generally involves a conditioned stimulus b. There should be a close association between the conditioned stimulus and the conditioned response. c. The stimulus is generally a neutral one. d. Multiple conditioned stimuli can be presented in a row to elicit a response.
Answer: d. Each of these is true of second-order conditioning except that it should be something basically simple and is less likely to work if there are multiple conditioned stimuli involved in eliciting a response.
102. What is it called in classical conditioning when the conditioned response becomes unpaired with the conditioned stimulus?
a. Stimulus discrimination b. Stimulus generalization c. Extinction d. Acquisition
Answer: c. With extinction, the conditioned response is not given along with the unconditioned stimulus for a period of time so that eventually there is a diminishment of the conditioned response when the conditioned stimulus is provided.
103. What is it called in classical conditioning when the subject becomes accustomed to the stimulus and no longer pays attention to it?
a. Habituation b. Extinction c. Acquisition d. Stimulus generalization
Answer: a. With habituation, the stimulus is presented so frequently and without an unconditioned stimulus so that there is no longer attention paid to the stimulus.
104. In operant conditioning, what is something added in order to decrease the likelihood of a behavior?
a. Positive reinforcement b. Negative reinforcement c. Positive punishment d. Negative punishment
Answer: c. A positive punishment in operant conditioning involves adding something after the behavior that is intended to decrease the likelihood of the behavior.
105. In operant conditioning, what is something removed in order to increase the likelihood of the behavior?
a. Positive reinforcement b. Negative reinforcement c. Positive punishment d. Negative punishment
Answer: b. In operant conditioning, a negative reinforcement is something that is taken away in order to increase the likelihood of the behavior.
106. In operant conditioning, what is not a part of shaping?
a. In shaping, only the target behavior is rewarded. b. It is necessary in order to attain complex behaviors. c. Only rewards are given as part of the process. d. It can be done in animals or humans.
Answer: a. Shaping involves giving rewards to humans or animals in order to give rise to more complex behaviors. Rewards are given when approximations of the target behavior have been achieved.
107. Which type of reinforcement schedule yields the highest response rate, such as is seen with gambling?
a. Fixed interval reinforcement b. Variable interval reinforcement c. Fixed ratio reinforcement d. Variable ratio reinforcement
Answer: d. Variable ratio reinforcement is when a reinforcement is given after a variable number of responses. This is what is seen in gambling and is the most difficult type of behavior to extinguish. The highest response rate comes with this type of reinforcement schedule.
108. Which type of reinforcement schedule involves the least response rates and the greatest ability to extinguish the behavior?
a. Fixed interval reinforcement b. Variable interval reinforcement c. Fixed ratio reinforcement d. Variable ratio reinforcement
Answer: a. A fixed interval reinforcement schedule involves the least response rate and becomes the easiest type of response to ultimately extinguish.
109. What is the type of observational learning that involves using a fictional character through reading, television, or the internet?
a. Live modeling b. Verbal modeling c. Symbolic modeling d. Vicarious reinforcement
Answer: c. With symbolic modeling, there is modeling of behaviors that can be seen in fictional characters, television, reading, or the internet.
110. What type of intelligence is associated with fluid intelligence rather than crystalized intelligence?
a. Problem solving b. Learned information c. Memorization d. Memory
Answer: a. Fluid intelligence includes things like problem solving and intuitive thinking that does not have to be learned, while crystallized intelligence involves things that are learned through experience.
111. What is not a part of the triarchic theory of intelligence?
a. Practical intelligence b. Analytical intelligence c. Creative intelligence d. Fluid intelligence
Answer: d. Fluid intelligence is not a part of the triarchic theory of intelligence; however, the others are included as part of this.
112. Which aspect of intelligence is related to computation and academics?
a. Practical intelligence b. Analytical intelligence c. Creative intelligence d. Fluid intelligence
Answer: b. Analytic intelligence is related most to academics and to computational abilities.
113. What is another name for the lexicon in language?
a. Grammatical rules b. Unspoken language c. Vocabulary words d. Parts of a word
Answer: c. The lexicon is the vocabulary or the actual words of a specific language. The meaning of the words gets conveyed through the different grammatical rules.
114. The way that words are formed into sentences is called what?
a. Morpheme b. Syntax c. Phoneme d. Semantics
Answer: b. Syntax is the way that different words are formed into sentences. It depends a lot on the different types of grammar associated with the language.
115. The smallest unit of sound that is considered to have meaning is called what?
a. Morpheme b. Syntax c. Phoneme d. Semantics
Answer: a. Morphemes are generally made from phonemes although a few phonemes are also considered morphemes. A morpheme is the smallest unit of sound that is believed to have meaning. The word I”, is both a morpheme and a phoneme.
116. What is the earliest step involved in problem solving?
a. Deciding on the solution b. Deciding what the problem is c. Defining that there is a problem d. Trial and error
Answer: c. The first step in problem solving is defining first that there is a problem before deciding what the problem is and undergoing trial and error. The last step is deciding on the solution.
117. What best describes using an algorithm in order to solve a problem?
a. Trying different things to see what works. b. Working backwards until the problem is identified. c. Breaking up a big problem into several small problems. d. Using a step-by-step approach.
Answer: d. When one uses an algorithm in order to solve a problem, a step-by-step approach is taken to find a solution to the problem.
118. What best describes using a heuristic approach in order to solve a problem?
a. Trying different things to see what works. b. Working backwards until the problem is identified. c. Using a step-by-step approach. d. Following the instruction book.
Answer: b. A heuristic approach involves working backwards from the problem until the source of the problem is identified.
119. What type of problem-solving pitfall involves basing a solution on a faulty precedent?
a. Representative bias b. Availability bias c. Hindsight bias d. Anchoring bias
Answer: b. The availability bias involves basing a solution on an available but faulty precedent.
120. Which pair of individuals have the most similar intelligence quotients?
a. Identical twins reared apart b. Siblings raised together c. Fraternal twins raised together d. Parent-child pairs living together
Answer: a. Because of the high inheritability of intelligence, identical twins reared apart have the most similar intelligence quotients of all of these pairs.
121. What is the relationship between nature and nurture in shaping a child’s
IQ?
a. Genetics and environment play an equal role b. Only the environment plays a role c. Only the genetics plays a role d. Genetics plays a greater role than the environment
Answer: d. Genetics plays a greater role than the environment but both play a role in shaping the child s IQ.
122. What does the Stanford-Binet test measure in psychology?
a. Personality b. Intelligence c. Spatial coordination d. Emotional conformity
Answer: c. The Stanford-Binet test is the most commonly used intelligence test in the US. It is used to identify people who need extra help in school as well as those who are exceptionally intelligent.
123. What score on intelligence testing is considered the mean?
a. 85 b. 100
c. 120 d. 140
Answer: b. A score of 100 on intelligence testing is considered normal or the mean level. Each 15 points above or below this is 1 standard deviation from the mean.
124. What intelligence quotient indicates mild intellectual delay?
a. 70 b. 90 c. 40 d. 20
Answer: a. Mild intellectual delay means an intelligence quotient of around 70 or slightly below that. There are mild, moderate, severe, and profound levels of intellectual delay.
125. What factor plays the largest role in one’s personality development?
a. Temperament b. Intelligence c. Character d. Environment
Answer: a. Temperament is genetically determined but the exact genes that play into this are unknown. It is believed to play the largest role in determining development of the individual s personality.
126. Which stage of Erickson’s developmental stages is most associated with fantasy behaviors and thinking?
a. Toddler b. Preschool c. School age d. Adolescence
Answer: b. The preschool years are most associated with fantasy and things like play that is based a great deal on fantasy.
127. According to Freud, what part of the personality involves primitive, biological drives?
a. Superego b. Ego c. Consciousness d. Id
Answer: d. The id is subconscious and represents our most primitive and biological drives. It is present in a person from birth.
128. According to Freud, what part of the personality is considered the most rational aspect?
a. Superego b. Ego c. Subconscious d. Id
Answer: b. Ego is the rational part of the brain that balances conflicts between the id and the superego. It is mostly conscious and is the part of the personality that a person shows most to other people.
129. Which defense mechanism involves attributing one’s own beliefs to another and believing that the other person has those beliefs as well?
a. Displacement b. Repression c. Denial d. Projection
Answer: d. Projection involves taking one s beliefs and attributing those same beliefs to another person. Like all defense mechanisms, this is largely an unconscious process.
130. According to Freud, problems in what psychosexual stage of development leads to a perfectionistic and stingy personality?
a. Oral b. Anal c. Phallic d. Genital
Answer: b. Problems with the anal phase can lead to a person who is excessively stingy and who has perfectionistic tendencies.
131. Which researcher first proposed the idea of inferiority complex and the need for superiority guiding a person’s behaviors and thoughts?
a. Adler b. Freud c. Erikson d. Jung
Answer: a. Alfred Adler was a Neo-Freudian who first identified the inferiority complex and believed that one s personality was driven by a need to have superiority rather than inferiority.
132. Which researcher worked with the collective unconscious and brought up the concepts of extroversion and introversion?
a. Adler b. Freud c. Erikson d. Jung
Answer: d. Carl Jung believed there was a collective unconscious that everyone had and that personality was partly formed by whether or not the person was extroverted or introverted.
133. According to trait theorists, what is the major traits defining a person’s entire personality?
a. Cardinal traits b. Primary traits c. Central traits d. Secondary traits
Answer: a. A cardinal trait is one that defines a person s entire personality. There is usually just one or a couple of cardinal traits in one person.
134. What type of test of personality is the Minnesota Multiphasic personality test?
a. A Likert-style self-report test b. An interpersonal interview test c. A projection test d. A true-false self-report test
Answer: d. The MMPI is a true-false self-report test that identifies 10 different scales that together can represent the individual s personality.
135. What type of personality test is the thematic apperception test?
a. A Likert-style self-report test b. An interpersonal interview test c. A projection test d. A true-false self-report test
Answer: c. The thematic apperception test is an example of a projection test that is not based on asking any specific questions of the person.
136. Which personality test is designed specifically for Hispanic youth?
a. Thematic Apperception Test b. TEMAS Test c. Rorschach test d. Rotter Incomplete Sentence Test
Answer: b. The TEMAS test is designed for minorities, particularly Hispanic youth, because it tests for those themes more common in this culture.
137. Which personality disorder is not considered a cluster A personality disorder?
a. Paranoid personality disorder b. Borderline personality disorder c. Schizoid personality disorder d. Schizotypal personality disorder
Answer: b. Each of these is a cluster A personality disorder, except for borderline personality disorder. Cluster A disorders have odd or bizarre personality traits and often will have characteristics of each of these disorders together.
138. Which personality disorder involves a fear of others and a fear of social interactions?
a. Schizotypal personality disorder b. Paranoid personality disorder c. Antisocial personality disorder d. Borderline personality disorder
Answer: a. People with schizotypal personality disorder have a fear of others and generally fear social interactions completely.
139. Which personality disorder is characterized by intense relationships with frequent anger and violent outbursts?
a. Narcissistic personality disorder b. Anankastic personality disorder c. Borderline personality disorder d. Dependent personality disorder
Answer: c. Individuals with borderline personality disorder have short but intense relationships associated with violent outbursts and frequent episodes of anger.
140. Which personality disorder is not a class C personality disorder?
a. Anankastic personality disorder b. Borderline personality disorder c. Dependent personality disorder d. Avoidant personality disorder
Answer: b. Each of these is a class C personality disorder except for borderline personality disorder, which is a class B personality disorder.
141. What type of encoding is associated with specific words and their meaning?
a. Semantic encoding b. Effortful processing c. Visual encoding d. Auditory encoding
Answer: a. With semantic processing, there is encoding of words and their meaning. It is more easily done when images of the word can be retrieved and harder with abstract words.
142. What type of encoding is the easiest to do and results in the best overall recall of the data?
a. Semantic encoding b. Effortful processing c. Visual encoding d. Auditory encoding
Answer: a. Basic words are best remembered through semantic encoding because there is meaning in the words that helps with recall.
143. In which stage of the storage of memory is there rehearsal of the information?
a. Sensory input b. Sensory memory c. Short-term memory d. Long-term memory
Answer: c. During short-term memory, there is rehearsal of the information in order to solidify and retain it to a significant degree.
144. What type of memory is subconscious and is learned through behaviors?
a. Implicit memory b. Explicit memory c. Declarative memory d. Sensory memory
Answer: a. Implicit memory is subconscious and is learned through behaviors. It can also be referred to as non-declarative memory.
145. Which type of memory lasts just a few seconds and is largely discarded?
a. Implicit memory b. Explicit memory c. Declarative memory d. Sensory memory
Answer: d. Sensory memory is picked up by various sensations. Because there is so much of these types of data, this memory lasts just a few seconds and is largely discarded unless it seems to be important enough to hang onto.
146. What type of memory is for things like driving a car and riding a bike?
a. Episodic memory b. Semantic memory c. Procedural memory d. Emotional conditioning
Answer: c. Procedure memory is implicit and unconscious. It involves doing things like tasks that be done without thinking because of past practice of doing them.
147. What type of retrieval involves getting back the knowledge of a language you once learned but haven’t used in many years?
a. Remembering b. Recognition c. Recall d. Relearning
Answer: d. In this type of retrieval, the lapse in time and lack of use of the information leads to the need to relearn the information, which will be easier than learning it for the first time.
148. What part of the brain is least involved in memory functions?
a. Thalamus b. Amygdala c. Hippocampus d. Prefrontal cortex
Answer: a. Each of these brain areas is a part involved in memory. The thalamus, however, is least involved in memory and in remembering things.
149. What part of the brain is most associated with fear memories?
a. Cerebellum b. Amygdala c. Hippocampus d. Prefrontal cortex
Answer: b. The amygdala is associated with the limbic system so it is most responsible for fear and the development of fear memories.
150. Which neurotransmitter is most associated with the formation of strong memories and high emotional states?
a. Acetylcholine b. Dopamine c. Serotonin d. Glutamate
Answer: d. Glutamate is an excitatory neurotransmitter that is triggered by strong emotions and will create a strong memory of something.
151. What type of memory is lost when a person has retrograde amnesia?
a. Procedural memory b. Episodic memory c. Semantic memory d. Emotional conditioning
Answer: b. Episodic memory is lost in retrograde amnesia because the person cannot remember any details of their previous life prior to the injury
152. What part of the brain is most affected with anterograde amnesia?
a. Cerebellum b. Amygdala c. Hippocampus d. Prefrontal cortex
Answer: c. Because this person cannot form new questions, they will have a lack of functioning of the hippocampus. Most of the time, procedural memory skills are intact.
153. When it comes to memory impairment, what memory impairment problem comes from lapses in attention?
a. Blocking b. Absentmindedness c. Misattribution d. Transience
Answer: b. Absentmindedness is when there are momentary lapses in impairment that affect the ability to clearly remember things.
154. What memory enhancing device uses a nonsensical word or phrase that is made from the first letter of a list of things you want to remember in a certain order?
a. Mnemonics b. Elaborative rehearsal c. Chunking d. Self-referencing
Answer: a. Mnemonics involves taking the first letter of a list of things that need to be memorized and making a nonsensical word or phrase to help you remember them.
155. What would the urge to eat be when it comes to motivation?
a. Drive b. Homeostasis c. Habit d. Instinct
Answer: a. Hunger or the urge to eat would be called a drive, which would come into play when a person s homeostasis is out of balance.
156. What would the infant rooting reflex be with regard to motivation?
a. Drive b. Compensation c. Habit d. Instinct
Answer: d. The infant rooting reflex is considered an instinct, which is something all human infants have.
157. Optimization of what factor leads to the best overall performance in an activity, according to drive theory?
a. Compensation b. Arousal c. Instincts d. Extrinsic motivation
Answer: b. Good performance in a task or tasks depends on maximizing the person s arousal. Too much arousal leads to poor performance and too little arousal also leads to poor performance.
158. What need specifically drives a person to do a good job, according to social theorists?
a. Compensation b. Affiliation c. Achievement d. Intimacy
Answer: c. Social theorists define three basic needs. The need for achievement is what drives a person to succeed and to do a good job on a specific task.
159. What hormone is mainly responsible for the sexual drive or libido in women?
a. Estrogen b. Growth hormone c. Prolactin d. Testosterone
Answer: d. Testosterone is responsible for sexual libido or the drive toward sexual behavior in both men and women. Any lesion that affects the testosterone level will decrease libido.
160. Who first studied sexuality on a large scale in research circles?
a. William Masters b. Virginial Johnson c. Alfred Kinsey d. Robert Spitzer
Answer: c. Alfred Kinsey published his first book on human sexuality in the 1940s, which became the first to study human sexual behavior on a large scale.
161. According to Masters and Johnson, which phase of the sexual response cycle most involves female rhythmic contractions?
a. Excitement b. Plateau c. Orgasm d. Resolution
Answer: c. Orgasm in women involves rhythmic contractions of the pelvic structures. This is not seen in men.
162. What phase of sexual responsiveness is much longer in males than it is in females?
a. Refractory period b. Arousal period c. Resolution phase d. Orgasm phase
Answer: a. The refractory period in women is short, while in men, the refractory period is longer and can be as long as a day, depending on the individual and their age.
163. What is not true of conversion therapy from homosexuality to heterosexuality?
a. It is illegal in some parts of the US b. It can be helpful with bisexual individuals c. It can be harmful to the individual d. It is largely ineffective.
Answer: b. Each of these is true of conversion therapy except that it is not effective in bisexual individuals either.
164. What specifically must be present in order to have gender dysphoria?
a. Distress over their condition b. Two years of gender discomfort c. The feeling that they are the opposite of their phenotype d. The need to have surgery to change their genitalia
Answer: a. With gender dysphoria, the person must have some type of distress about their gender identity issues. Without the distress, it is not a disorder.
165. In humans, what is considered to be the satiety hormone?
a. Ghrelin b. Glucagon c. Leptin d. Insulin
Answer: c. The hormone leptin is released when a person is full and sated. This is the satiety hormone that stops the drive to eat.
166. In humans, what is considered to be the hunger hormone or the hormone that triggers eating behaviors?
a. Ghrelin b. Glucagon c. Insulin d. Leptin
Answer: a. Ghrelin is the hunger hormone because it triggers a person to want to eat and increases food-seeking behaviors.
167. What does bariatric surgery do?
a. It increases the metabolic rate b. It decreases the intake of food c. It decreases the absorption of food d. It both decreases intake and absorption of food
Answer: d. Bariatric surgery can both decrease the intake and decrease the absorption of food but it depends on the type of surgery the individual has.
168. Which eating disorder involves a preoccupation with body image and low body weight?
a. Anorexia nervosa b. Bulimia nervosa c. Binge eating disorder d. OSFED
Answer: a. One of the main criteria for anorexia nervosa is low body weight, which can be achieved through tight control over eating, excessive exercise, or possibly purging behaviors.
169. What eating disorder involves eating large volumes of food over a short period of time with feelings of shame and guilt afterward but no purging behaviors?
a. Anorexia nervosa b. Bulimia nervosa c. Binge eating disorder d. OSFED
Answer: c. Binge eating disorder involves eating large volumes of food in a short period of time but without any type of purging behaviors afterward.
170. What eating disorder involves individuals who vomit or take laxatives without eating large volumes of food and who have a normal weight?
a. Anorexia nervosa b. Binge eating disorder c. Atypical anorexia d. Purging disorder
Answer: d. People with purging disorder have purging behaviors but actually have tight control over their eating and are not underweight. If they were underweight, the diagnosis would have to be anorexia nervosa.
171. Which structures are linked specifically to the limbic system?
a. Hippocampus b. Amygdala c. Cerebellum d. Hypothalamus
Answer: c. Each of these is a part of the limbic system except for the cerebellum.
172. A person from which area of the world is most likely to make a fundamental attribution error?
a. Latin America b. East Asia c. Africa d. United States
Answer: d. People who live in individualistic cultures are more likely to make the fundamental attribution error, while people from collectivistic cultures are less likely to make the same error.
173. What is an attribute or focus specifically of an individualistic culture?
a. Situational perspective b. Independence c. Family relationships d. Holistic thinking
Answer: b. Each of these is a focus of a collectivistic culture except for independence, which is a focus seen in individualistic cultures.
174. What attribution aspect will most likely be given to you when you have a success rather than a failure?
a. Uncontrollable situation b. Internal factor c. External factor d. Unstable situation
Answer: b. When there are successes, the attribution is more likely to be controllable, internal, and stable but when there is a failure, the attribution is more likely to be uncontrollable, external, and unstable.
175. Being uncomfortable with one’s thoughts, behaviors, or feelings is called what?
a. Persuasion b. Attitudes c. Cognitive dissonance d. Scripts
Answer: c. Cognitive dissonance is when we have certain thoughts, behaviors, and feelings that differ from one s own self-perception.
176. What is least likely to cause persuasion or a greater change in another’s thinking?
a. Having an attractive persuader b. Having a more positive message c. Having a credible persuader d. Having an audience with low intellect
Answer: b. Each of these will influence or persuade more likely except for having a positive message, which does not necessarily cause a greater impact in changing the audience s opinion.
177. What is a feature of using the central route to persuade an audience or affect opinions?
a. It focuses on positive feelings about something. b. It causes a temporary change in opinion. c. It does not require a motivated audience. d. It is logic-driven.
Answer: d. The central route is logic-driven. It does not focus on positive feelings and requires a motivated audience. It is more likely to cause a permanent or lasting change in opinion.
178. What is the opposite of social facilitation?
a. Social conformity b. Social loafing c. Group polarization d. Groupthink
Answer: b. Social loafing is doing worse on something when in a group situation, when social facilitation involves doing getter on something when in a group situation.
179. Having a negative belief about someone because of the group they belong to is called what?
a. Discrimination b. Overgeneralization c. Prejudice d. Stereotyping
Answer: c. Prejudice often comes from overgeneralization and stereotyping. It involves having a negative opinion or belief about someone based on their belonging to a different group than you do.
180. Having a fixed belief about someone just because they belong to a certain group is called what?
a. Discrimination b. Overgeneralization c. Prejudice d. Stereotyping
Answer: d. Stereotyping often comes from overgeneralization and involves having a fixed belief about someone just because they belong to a certain group.
181. Helping others because it makes you feel good about yourself is called what?
a. Prosocial behavior b. Empathy c. Egoism d. Altruism
Answer: c. Egoism is in play when you help others or do some type of prosocial behavior because it makes you feel good about yourself.
182. What most greatly contributes to having a friendship or relationship with another person?
a. Being opposite of the other person b. Being similar to the other person c. Having reciprocity in the relationship d. Being more frequently in contact with the other person
Answer: d. Frequent contact and close proximity is the greatest factor contributing to having a friendship or relationship with another person or persons.
183. What is least likely to be true of eustress?
a. The greater the stress, the more likely it is to be eustress. b. It leads to a greater sense of wellbeing. c. It can increase one’s maximal performance. d. It is considered to be a form of good stress.
Answer: a. Eustress can be present up to a certain point but, after an increase beyond one s capacity to handle it, eustress turns into distress.
184. What group of individuals will have the lowest levels of stress?
a. Women b. Less educated people c. Retired persons d. Poorer people
Answer: c. Retired persons are those who consistently have the least amount of stress in studies that have been done over the last three decades.
185. Which hormone is not a part of the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal or
HPA axis?
a. Epinephrine b. CRF c. ACTH d. Cortisol
Answer: a. Each of these is a part of the HPA axis except for epinephrine, which is part of the sympathetic nervous system.
186. Statistically, who is least likely to experience a major traumatic event?
a. Men b. Lower socioeconomic status c. Better educated people d. Minorities
Answer: c. Statistically, men, minorities, and people of a lower socioeconomic status have an increased likelihood of having a major traumatic event.
187. What is a major physiological disease that seems to be most highly affected by stressors?
a. Heart disease b. Dementia c. Diabetes d. Arthritis
Answer: a. There is a significant impact of stress on the development of heart disease, although many other diseases can be affected by the presence of stress.
188. People in what field are more likely to experience job burnout?
a. Factory workers b. Managers c. Helping professionals d. Computer analysts
Answer: c. People in the helping professions are more likely to have job burnout, with feelings of not being able to do any more, being depersonalized, and having less job satisfaction.
189. Which disease is least likely to be considered directly related to stress?
a. Kidney failure b. Irritable bowel syndrome c. Asthma d. Hypertension
Answer: a. Each of these diseases has a strong psychological component; however, kidney failure is not necessarily related to chronic stressors or psychological diseases.
190. What aspect of the type A personality is most associated with the development of heart disease?
a. Need to feel rushed b. Need for achievement c. Hostility d. Sense of impatience
Answer: c. While each of these can be seen in a person with type A personality, it is the hostility component most associated with the development of heart disease.
191. Which relaxation technique involves the use of machines to measure autonomic responses?
a. Meditation b. Yoga c. Biofeedback d. Exercise therapy
Answer: c. Biofeedback involves using machines to measure the autonomic response in order to learn strategies to make unconscious responses more conscious.
192. What part of happiness specifically relates to personal contributions toward good?
a. Enriched life b. Good life c. Pleasant life d. Meaningful life
Answer: d. People who have a meaningful life choose to use their skills and attributes to contribute to the overall good of the world and the people in it.
193. Which aspect of life is most associated with being happy?
a. Intelligence b. Being religious c. Being a parent d. Being physically attractive
Answer: b. Being religious will most likely correlate with happiness, while intelligence, being a parent, and being physically attractive are not correlated with being happy.
194. What is not a way to develop a phobia through learning theory?
a. Classical conditioning b. Operant conditioning c. Vicarious learning d. Obtaining information verbally
Answer: b. Each of these represents a way of developing a phobia; however, operant conditioning, such as that learned through rewards and punishment, is not one of them.
195. What is not a major feature of panic disorder?
a. Feeling episodes of chest pain and dizziness. b. Having an increased sensitivity to bodily reactions. c. Feeling depressed about public situations. d. Feeling as if one is going to die.
Answer: c. Each of these is a feature of panic disorder, which involves the regular occurrence of panic attacks, except that there are usually anxiety symptoms and not depressive symptoms.
196. What is believed to be the underlying factor for obsessive-compulsive disorder?
a. The effects of classical conditioning b. Problems with the frontal lobe c. Excessive neglect in childhood d. Parental overprotectiveness
Answer: b. OCD is moderately inherited with defects found in the patient s frontal lobe. Different areas of the frontal lobe are affected, depending on the type of obsessive-compulsive disorder.
197. What must be present to make the diagnosis of PTSD?
a. Flashbacks b. Avoidance c. Prior traumatic experience d. Depersonalization
Answer: c. There are many symptoms that come out of PTSD; however, this is the only DSM-5 diagnosis that specifically lists an underlying cause, which is prior traumatic experience.
198. What is the most common underlying factor behind the development of dissociative identity disorder?
a. High levels of intelligence b. Military combat trauma c. Faulty brain chemistry d. Childhood physical or sexual abuse
Answer: d. The person with DID has a 95 percent chance of having childhood physical or sexual abuse in their past, making it the biggest risk factor for the disorder.
199. How long do symptoms of depression have to be there in order to make the diagnosis of major depressive disorder?
a. Two weeks b. Three months c. Six months d. One year e. Answer: a. While major depressive disorder is recurrent, it only needs to last two weeks at a time to be referred to as having an episode of the disease state.
200. What psychological disorder most predicts suicidality?
a. Schizophrenia b. Obsessive-compulsive disorder c. Major depression d. Bipolar disorder
Answer: d. Mood disorders in general will predict suicidality, with bipolar disorder carrying the greatest risk overall.
