ĐỀ SỐ 1
BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC BỘ GIÁO DỤC Môn: Tiếng Anh Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 1: The wooden fence surrounded the factory is begining to fall down because of the rain A. wooden
B. surrounded
C. o fall down
D. the
Question 2: A turtle differs from other reptiles in that its body is encased in a protecive shell of their own A. from
B. other
C. in that
D. their
Question 3: It is a good idea to be careful in buying or purchasing magazines from salespersons who may come to your door A. It is
B. to be careful
C. buying or purchasing D. who
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 4: No one has seen Linda since the day of the party. A. Linda has not been seen since the day of the party. B. Linda is nowhere to be seen at the party. C. The party is going on without Linda. D. No one has seen Linda for ages. Question 5: He talked about nothing except the weather. A. He talked about everything including weather. B. His sole topic of conversation was the weather. C. He had nothing to say about the weather. D. He said he had no interest in the weather. Question 6: He doesn’t study hard, so he can fail the exam. A. If he studies hard, he won’t fail the exam. B. If ha didn’t study hard, he wouldn’t fail the exam. C. If he studied hard, he wouldn’t fail the exam. D. If he hadn’t studied hard, he wouldn’t have failed the exam. ❖ Read the following pasage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 7 to 11. 1
When you first apply for a job, you (7)_________not succeed in getting it. It’s always a good (8)_________to ask them to explain to you what prevent you from beating the other candidates. Don’t complain about the situation, but ask them to advise you (9)_________whta you can do better next time. Perhaps the interviewer disapproved of or disagree with something you said. Perhaps they just glanced at your application and saw something that made it easy to choose between you and another candidate. Don’t regard it as a failure, but recognize it as a chance to learn more. (10)_________you don’t worry too much about it and continue to believe in yourself, you’ll eventually find the chance you’ve been waiting for. Then, your family and friends will be able to (11)_________you on your success. Question 7:
A. might
B. wouldn’t
C. won’t
D. must
Question 8:
A. means
B. opinion
C. idea
D. method
Question 9:
A. about
B. of
C. over
D. in
Question 10:
A. As far as
B. By far
C. So far
D. As long as
Question 11:
A. encourage
B. congratulate
C. promote
D. depend
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitablr response tocomplete each of the following exchanges. Question 12: Mrs Mai: “ ……………………” -> Mr. Brown: “ Thank you. We are proud of him.” A. Your kid is naughty.
B. Can we ask your child to take a photo?
C. Your child is just adirable.
D. I can give your kid a lift to school.
Question 13: Ken and Laura are saying goodbye to each other after going to LOTTE Center. And they are going to have a date with each other later. Laura: “ Well, it’s getting late. May be we could get together sometime.” Ken: “………………………” A. Nice to see back you.
B. Take it easy.
C. Sounds good. I’ll give you a call.
D. Yes, I’ve enjoyed it.
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning ti the underlined word(s) in each off the following questions. Question 14: The use of lasers in surgery has become relatively commonplace in recent years. A. absolutely
B. relevantly
C. comparatively
D. almost
Question 15: From an airplane, the grasslands of the western prairie appear almost as uniform as a placid sea. 2
A. noisy
B. calm
C. seedy
D. fake
â?– Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning ti the underlined word(s) in each off the following questions. Question 16: The most important thing is to keep yourself occupied. A. busy
B. comfortable
C. free
D. relaxed
Question 17: in most countries, compulsory military service does not apply to women. A. Optional
B. mandatory
C. beneficial
D. constructive
â?– Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 18 to 25. The three phases of human memory are the sensory memory, the short-term memory, and the long- term memory. This devision of the memory into phases is based on the length of time of the memory. Sensory memory is instantaneous memory. It is an image or memory that enters your mind only for a short period of time; it comes and goes in under a second. The memory will not last longer than that unless the information enters the short-term memory. Information can be held in the short-term memory for about twenty seconds or as long as you are actively using it. If you repeat a fact to yourself, that fact will stay in your shortterm memory as long as you keeprepeating it. Once you stop repeating it, either it is forgotten or it moves into long term memory. Long-term memory is the huge memory tank that can hold ideas and images for years and years. Information can be added to your long-term memory when you actively try to put it there through memorization or when an idea or image enters your mind on its own. Question 18: The best title for this pasage would be ______________ A. The difference between sensory and short-term memory. B. How long it takes to memorize. C. The stages of human memory. D. Human phases. Question 19: The three phases of memory discussed in the pasage are differentiated according to ______________ A. The location in the brain B. The period of time it takes to remember something C. How the senses are involved in the memory. D. How long the memory lasts. 3
Question 20: The expression “is based on” in the first paragraph could be best replaced by______________ A. Is on the top of
B. is at the foot of
C. depends on
D. is below
Question 21: According to the passage, which type of memory is the shortest? A. Sensory memory
B. Active memory
C. Short-term memory D. Long-term memory
Question 22: According to the passage, when will information stay in your short-term memory? A. For as long as twenty minutes
B. As long as it is being used.
C. After you have repeated it many times.
D. When it has moved into long-term memory.
Question 23: All of the following are TRUE about long – term memory EXCEPT that______________ A. it has a very large capacity. B. it can hold information. C. it is possible to put information into it through memorization. D. memorization is the only way that information can get there. Question 24: he expression “on its own” in the last sentence can be best replaced by “______________” A. by itself
B. in it own time
C. with its possessions D. in only one way
Question 25: It can be inferred from the passage that if a person remembers a piece of information for two days, this is probably ______________ A. three phases of memeory
B. the sensory memory
C. the short-term memory
D. the long-term memory
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions Question 26: Not only______________the exam but she also got a scholarship. A. dis she pass
B. she passed
C. she has passed
D. has she passed
Question 27: he was the first person______________the room. A. entering Question
28:
B. to enter Unfortunately,
the
C. to be enter company
closed
down
D. having entered because
keep______________with rapidly changing technology. A. speed
B. time
C. fast
D. pace
Question 29: The climate of China is similar in many ways to______________ A. that of the United States
B. which of the United States
C. the United States
D. this of the United States 4
it
couldn’t
Question 30: Western women are more ______________than Asian women. A. depend
B. independent
C. independently
D. dependence
Question 31: The twins look so much alike that no one can_________them___________ A. take/ apart
B. tell/ away
C. tell/ apart
D. take/ on
Question 32: The teacher always______________that the students make an outline before writing a complete essay. A. reports
B. recommends
C. tells
D. says
Question 33: I have no patience with gossips. What I told Bill was a secret. He______________it to you. A. mustn’t read
B. shouldn’t have repeated
C. mustn’t have repeated
D. shouldn’t read
Question 34: ______________he was kidnapped by the Iraqui guerrillas yesterday has been confirmed. A. That
B. What
C. If
D. Unless
Question 35: Air pollution poses a____________to both human health and our environmen. A. jeopardy
B. difficulty
C. problem
D. threat
Question 36: The people who______________the survey said that they had examined over 1,000 accidents. A. gave
B. proceed
C. set
D. conducted
Question 37: The teacher had some exercise…………….at home yesterday so that he can correct them today. A. be done
B. to be done
C. being done
D. done
❖ Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions Telecommuting is some form of computer communication between employees’ homes and offices. For employees whose job involve sitting at a terminal or word processor entering data or typing reports, the location of the computer is of no consequence. If the machine can communicate over telephone lines, when the work is completed, employees can dial the office computer and transmit the material to their employers. A recent survey in USA Today estimates that there are approximately 8,7 million telecommuters. But although the numbers are rising annually, the trend does not appear to be as significant as predicted when Business Week published “The Portable Executive” as its cover story a few years ago. Why hasn’t telecommuting become more popular? 5
Clearly, change simply takes time. But in addition, there has been active resistance on the part of many managers. These executives claim that supervising the telecommuters in a large work force scattered across the country would be too difficult, or, at least, systems for managing them are not yet developed, thereby complicating the manager’s responsibilities. It is also true that employees who are given the option of telecommuting are reluctant to accept the opportunity. Most people feel that they need regular interaction with a group, and many are concerned that they will not have the same consideration for advancement if they are not more visible in the office setting. Some people feel that even when a space in their homes is set aside as a work area, they never really get away from the office. Question 38: With which of the following topics is the passage primarily concerned? A. An overview of telecommuting.
B. The failure of telecommuting.
C. The advantages of telecommuting.
D. A definition of telecommuting.
Question 39: How many Americans are involved in telecommuting? A. More than predicted in Business Week.
B. More than 8 million.
C. Fewer than last year.
D. Fewer than estimated in USA Today.
Question 40: The phrase “of no consequence” means___________ A. of no use
B. irrelevant
C. of no good
D. unimportant
Question 41: The author mentions all of the following as concerns of telecommuting, EXCEPT ___________ A. the opportunities for advancement.
B. the different system of supervision.
C. the lack of interaction with a group.
D. The work place is in the home.
Question 42: The word “them” in the second paragraph refers to A. telecommuters
B. systems
C.executives
D. responsibilities
Question 43: The reason why telecommuting has not become popular is that the employees A. need regular interaction with their families. B. are worried about the promotion if they are not seen at the office. C. feel that a work area in their home is away from the office. D. are ignorant of telecommuting. Question 44: The word “reluctant” in the third paragraph can best be replaced by A. opposite
B. willing
C. hesitant
D. typical
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions Question 45:
A. economics
B. conquerable 6
C. capability
D. optimistic
Question 46:
A. enthusiastic
B. durability
C. civilization
D. humanitarian
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 47: The man wanted to get some fresh air in the room. He opened the window A. The man wanted to get some fresh air in the room because he opened the window B. The man opened the window in order to get some fresh air in the room C. The man got some fresh air in the room, even though he opened the window D. Having opened the window, the room could get some fresh air Question 48: The plan may be ingenious. It will never work in practice. A. Ingenious as it may be, the plan will never work in practice B. Ingenious as may the plan, it will never work in practice C. The plan may be too ingenious to work in practice D. The plan is as impractical as it is ingenious.
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate theword whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 49:
A. thanked
B. belonged
C. cooked
D. laughed
Question 50:
A. chemical
B. approach
C. achieve
D. challenge
Đáp án 1-B
2-D
3-C
4-A
5-B
6-A
7-A
8-C
9-A
10-D
11-B
12-C
13-C
14-C
15-B
16-C
17-A
18-C
19-D
20-C
21-A
22-B
23-D
24-A
25-D
26-A
27-B
28-D
29-A
30-D
31-C
32-B
33-B
34-A
35-D
36-D
37-D
38-A
39-B
40-D
41-B
42-A
43-B
44-C
45-B
46-B
47-B
48-A
49-B
50-A
ĐỀ SỐ 2
BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC BỘ GIÁO DỤC Môn: Tiếng Anh Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. marriage
B. response
C. maintain
D. believe
Question 2: A. obedient
B. decision
C. mischievous
D.
biologist
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions Question 3: The marathon, first staged in 1896, ______ the legendary feat of a Greek soldier who carried news of victory from the battle at Marathon to Athens. A. commemorates
B. commemorated
C. was commemorated
D. commemorating
Question 4: Football is thought ___________ in the world. A. to have played the most popular sport
B. to be the most popular sport
C. to play the most popular sport
D. to have been the most po pular sport
Question 5: The number of unemployed people __________ recently. A. is increasing
B. has increased
C. have increased
D. increase
Question 6: I believe that he was concerned __________ all those matters which his wife mentioned. A. upon
B. over
C. above
D. with
Question 7: I ________ very well with my roommate now. We never have arguments. A. carry on
B. go on
C. put on
D. get on
Question 8: Can you tell me who is responsible _____________ checking passports are? A. to
B. in
C. for
D. about
Question 9: When my father was young, he ______ get up early to do the gardening. A. used to
B. was used to
C. got used to
D. use to
Question 10: The preparation_________ by the time the guest_________ A. have finished- arrived
B. had been finished- arrived
C. had finished-were arriving
D. have been finished- were arrived
Question 11: If she had known how awful this job was going to be, she__________it. A. wouldn't have accepted
B. would have accepted 1
C. would accept
D. wouldn't accept
Question 12: Jack asked his sister ______. A. where would she go the following day
B. where you will go tomorrow
C. where you have gone tomorrow
D. where she would go the following day
Question 13: The mother told her son _______ so impolitely A. didn't behave
B. to behave
C. not behave
D. not to behave
Question 14: Eugenie Clark has a wide _______ about cultures of many countries in the world A. known
B. knowing
C. knowledge
D. know
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in the following questions Question 15: Whenever problems come up, we discuss them frankly and find solutions quickly. A. arrive
B. encounter
C. happen
D. clean
Question 16: It was obvious to everyone that the child had been badly treated. A. significant
B. unclear
C. evident
D. frank
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 17: - Anne: “Make yourself at home”. - John: “ _______” A. That’s very kind of you. Thank you
B. Thanks! The same to you!
C. Not at all. Don’t mention it
D. Yes, can I help you?
Question 18: Kate: “Thank you for the lovely present. ” – Peter: “ ____________ ” A. I’m pleased you like it
B. Not at all
C. Go ahead
D. come on
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 19:
A. carpet
B. school
C. facial
D. contact
Question 20:
A. takes
B. develops
C. volumes
D. laughs
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 21: The basic elements of public-opinion research are interviewers, questionnaires, tabulating equipment, and to sample population. 2
A. basic elements
B. are
C. tabulating
D. and to sample
Question 22: She asked why did Mathew look so embarrassed when he saw Carole. A. why
B. did Mathew look
C. so embarrassed
D. saw
Question 23: Higher education is very importance to national economies and it is also a source of trained and educated personnel for the whole country A. importance
B. economies
C. educated
D. the whole country
� Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. Keeping your distance Personal space is a term that refers (24) __________ the distance we like to keep between ourselves and other people. When (25) __________ we do not know well gets too close we usually begin to feel uncomfortable. If a business colleague comes closer than 1.2 meters, the most common response is to move (26) _________. Some interesting (27) __________have been done in libraries. If strangers come too close, many people get up and leave the building; others use different methods such as turning their back on the intruder. Living in cities has made people develop new skills for dealing with situations where they are very close to strangers. Most people on crowded trains try not to look at strangers; they avoid skin contact, and apologize if hands touch by mistake. People use newspapers (28) __________a barrier between themselves and other people, and if they do not have one, they stare into the distance, making sure they are not looking into anyone’s eyes. Question 24:
A. from
B. about
C. to
D. for
Question 25:
A. people
B. anyone
C. someone
D. nobody
Question 26:
A. up
B. away
C. on
D. in
Question 27:
A. survey
B. questionnaires C. research
D. studies
Question 28:
A. like
B. alike
D. such as
C. as
â?– Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in the following questions Question 29: She decided to remain celibate and devote her life to helping the homeless and orphans. A. divorced
B. separated
C. single
D. married
Question 30: In Western culture, it is polite to maintain eye contact during conversation. A. irresponsible
B. discourteous
C. insecure
3
D. informal
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 31: He was able to finish his book. It was because his wife helped him. A. If only he had been able to finish his book. B. If it weren’t for his wife’s help, he couldn’t have finished his book. C. Without his wife’s help, he couldn’t have finished his book. D. But for his wife’s help, he couldn’t finish his book. Question 32: The basketball team knew they lost the match. They soon started to blame each other. A. Hardly had the basketball team known they lost the match when they started to blame each other. B. Not only did the basketball team lose the match but they blamed each other as well. C. No sooner had the basketball team started to blame each other than they knew they lost the match. D. As soon as they blamed each other, the basketball team knew they lost the match.
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 33: They believe a single gunman carried out the attack. A. The attack’s is believed to have carried out a single gunman B. A single gunman is believed to have carried out the attack C. It is believed to be carried out the attack by a single gunman. D. It is believed that the attack has been carried out by a single gunman. Question 34: "I'm sorry. I didn’t do the homework." said the boy. A. The boy admitted not doing the homework. B. The boy said that he was sorry and he wouldn’t do the homework. C. The boy denied not doing the homework. D. The boy refused to do the homework. Question 35: You can stay in the flat for free as long as you pay the bills. A. Whether you pay the bills or stay in the flat, it is free. B. Without the bills paid, you can stay in the free flat. C. Unless the flat is free of bills, you cannot stay in it. D. Provided you pay the bills, you can stay in the flat for free.
4
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions below. FAMILY LIFE IN THE UNITED STATES Family life in the United States is changing. Fifty or sixty years ago, the wife was called a “housewife”. She cleaned, cooked, and cared for the children. The husband earned the money for the family. He was usually out working all day. He came home tired in the evening, so he did not do much housework. And he did not see the children very much, except on weekends. These days, however, more and more women work outside the home. They cannot stay with the children all day. They, too, come home tired in the evening. They do not want to spend the evening cooking dinner and cleaning up. They do not have time to clean the house and do the laundry. So who is going to do the housework now? Who is going to take care of the children? Many families solve the problem of housework by sharing it. In these families, the husband and wife agree to do different jobs around the house, or they take turns doing each job. For example, the husband always cooks dinner and the wife always does the laundry. Or the wife cooks dinner on some nights and the husband cooks dinner on other nights. Then there is the question of the children. In the past, many families got help with child care from grandparents. Now families usually do not live near their relatives. The grandparents are often too far away to help in a regular way. More often, parents have to pay for child care help. The help may be a babysitter or a day-care center. The problem with t his kind of help is the high cost. It is possible only for couples with jobs that pay well. Parents may get another kind of help form the companies they work for. Many companies now let people with children work part-time. That way, parents can spend mo re time with their children. Some husbands may even stop working for a while to stay with the children. For these men there is a new word: they are called “househusbands”. In the USA more and more men are becoming househusbands every year. These changes in the home mean changes in the family. Fathers can learn to understand their children better, and the children can get to know their fathers better. Husbands and wives may also find changes in their marriage. They, too, may have a better understanding of each other. Question 36: Sixty years ago, most women ____________ A. went out to work
B. had no children 5
C. did not do much housework
D. were housewives
Question 37: Nowadays, there are __________. A. more women going out to work than before B. more and more women staying with the children all day C. more work outside the home than before D. more housewives than before Question 38: The word “laundry” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ___________ A. tidying up
B. cooking and washing up
C. washing and ironing
D. shopping
Question 39: It can be inferred from paragraph 4 that__________. A. couples with low-paid jobs can’t afford the cost of a babysitter or a day-care center B. grandparents can help care the children in a regular way C. all couples with jobs can pay for help from a babysitter or a day-care center D. in the past, grandparents did not help the couples with child care Question 40: The word “they” in paragraph 5 refers to _______________ A. husbands who stop working to stay with the children B. fathers who spend more time with their children C. parents who work part-time D. children who spend more time with fathers than mothers Question 41: The changes in the American home mentioned in this passage may _________ A. help families
B. not happen
C. cause problems for a marriage
D. not change the children at all
Question 42: This article is about ________ A. American men as househusbands
B. housewives in America
C. how more American women are working D. how family life in America is changing
❖ Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions below. Because writing has become so important in our culture, we sometimes think of it as more real than speech. A little thought, however, will show w hy speech is primary and writing secondary to language. Human beings have been writing (as far as we can tell from surviving evidence) for at least 5000 years; but they have been talking for much longer, doubtless ever since there have been human beings.
6
When writing did develop, it was derived from and represented speech, although imperfectly. Even today there are spoken languages that have no written form. Furthermore, we all learn to talk well before we learn to write; any human child who is not severely handicapped physically or mentally will learn to talk: a normal human being cannot be prevented from doing so. On the other hand, it takes a special effort to learn to write. In the past many intelligent and useful members of society did not acquire the skill, and even today many who speak languages with writing systems never learn to read or write, while some who learn the rudiments of those skills do so only imperfectly. To affirm the primacy of speech over writing is not, however, to disparage the latter. One advantage writing has over speech is that it is more permanent and makes possible the records that any civilization must have. Thus, if speaking makes us human, writing makes us civilized. Question 43: We sometimes think of writing as more real than speech because ______. A. writing is secondary to language B. human beings have been writing for at least 5000 years C. it has become very important in our culture D. people have been writing since there have been human beings Question 44: The author of the passage argues that ______. A. speech is more basic to language than writing B. writing has become too important in today’s society C. everyone who learns to speak must learn to write D. all languages should have a written form Question 45: According to the passage, writing ______. A. is represented perfectly by speech
B. represents speech, but not perfectly
C. developed from imperfect speech
D. is imperfect, but less so than speech
Question 46: Normal human beings ______. A. learn to talk after learning to write
B. learn t o write before learning to talk
C. learn to write and to talk at the same time D. learn to talk before learning to write Question 47: Learning to write is ______. A. easy
B. too difficult
C. not easy
D. very easy
Question 48: In order to show that learning to write requires effort, the author gives the example of _________. A. people who learn the rudiments of speech B. severely handicapped children 7
C. intelligent people who couldn’t write
D. people who speak many languages
Question 49: In the author’s judgment, ______. A. writing has more advantages than speech B. writing is more real than speech C. speech conveys ideas less accurately than writing does D. speech is essential but writing has important benefits Question 50: The word “advantage” in the last paragraph most closely means ______. A. “rudiments”
B. “skill”
C. “domination”
D. “benefit”
Đáp án 1-A
2-C
3-A
4-B
5-B
6-D
7-D
8-C
9-A
10-B
11-A
12-D
13-D
14-C
15-C
16-C
17-A
18-A
19-C
20-C
21-D
22-B
23-A
24-C
25-C
26-B
27-D
28-C
29-D
30-B
31-C
32-A
33-B
34-A
35-D
36-D
37-A
38-C
39-A
40-A
41-A
42-D
43-C
44-A
45-B
46-D
47-C
48-C
49-D
50-D
ĐỀ SỐ 3
BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC BỘ GIÁO DỤC Môn: Tiếng Anh Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1:
A. wanted
B. stopped
C. decided
D. hated
Question 2:
A. century
B. culture
C. secure
D. applicant
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3:
A. offer
B. canoe
C. country
D. standard
Question 4:
A. pollution
B. computer
C. currency
D. allowance
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 5: Measles are an infectious disease that causes fever and small red spots. A. Measles
B. are
C. infectious
D. and
Question 6: He passed the exams with high scores, that made his parents happy. A. passed
B. with
C. that
D. happy
Question 7: For such a demanding job, you will need qualifications, soft skills and having full commitment. A. such
B. will need
C. qualifications
D. having
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 8: I haven’t met him again since we ______ school ten years ago. A. have left
B. leave
C. left
D. had left
Question 9: A recent survey has shown that ______ increasing number of men are willing to share the housework with their wives. A. a
B. an
C. the
D. some
Question 10: The more demanding the job is, ______ I like it. A. more
B. most
C. the more
D. the most
Question 11: John wanted to know ______ in my family. A. there were how many people
B. how many people were there
C. were there how many people
D. how many people there were 1
Question 12: Richard, my neighbor, _______ in World War II. A. says to fight
B. says to have fought
C. is said to fight
D. is said to have fought
Question 13: Students are ______ less pressure as a result of changes in testing procedures. A. under
B. above
C. upon
D. out of
Question 14: Tom is getting ever keener on doing research on ______. A. biology
B. biological
C. biologist
D. biologically
Question 15: Many people and organizations have been making every possible effort in order to save ______ species. A. endangered
B. dangerous
C. fearful
D. threatening
Question 16: A number of young teachers nowadays ______ themselves to teaching disadvantaged children. A. offer
B. stick
C. give
D. devote
Question 17: Whistling or clapping hands to get someone’s attention is considered ______ and even rude in some circumstances. A. suitable
B. unnecessary
C. appropriate
D. impolite
Question 18: - Sorry for being late. I was ______ in the traffic for more than an hour. A. carried on
B. held up
C. put off
D. taken after
Question 19: She was tired and couldn’t keep ______ the group. A. up with
B. up against
C. on to
D. out of
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 20: Two friends Diana and Anne are talking about Anne’s new blouse. - Diana: - That blouse suits you perfectly, Anne. - Anne: - _________. A. Never mind.
B. Don’t mention it.
C. Thank you.
D. You’re welcome.
Question 21: Mary is talking to a porter in the hotel lobby. - Porter: - Shall I help you with your suitcase? - Mary: - __________ A. Not a chance.
B. That’s very kind of you.
C. I can’t agree more.
D. What a pity!
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 2
Question 22: Mary is talking to a porter in the hotel lobby. A. question
B. violate
C. disregard
D. follow
Question 23: A number of programs have been initiated to provide food and shelter for the underprivileged in the remote areas of the country. A. rich citizens
B. active members
C. poor inhabitants
D. enthusiastic people
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24: Drivers are advised to get enough petrol because filling stations are few and far between on the highway. A. easy to find
B. difficult to access
C. unlikely to happen
D. impossible to reach
Question 25: We managed to get to school in time despite the heavy rain. A. earlier than a particular moment
B. later than expected
C. early enough to do something
D. as long as expected
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 26: I’m sure Luisa was very disappointed when she failed the exam. A. Luisa must be very disappointed when she failed the exam. B. Luisa must have been very disappointed when she failed the exam. C. Luisa may be very disappointed when she failed the exam. D. Luisa could have been very disappointed when she failed the exam. Question 27: - “You had better see a doctor if the sore throat does not clear up,” she said to me. A. She reminded me of seeing a doctor if the sore throat did not clear up. B. She ordered me to see a doctor if the sore throat did not clear up. C. She insisted that I see a doctor unless the sore throat did not clear up. D. She suggested that I see a doctor if the sore throat did not clear up. Question 28: Without her teacher’s advice, she would never have written such a good essay. A. Her teacher advised him and she didn’t write a good essay. B. Her teacher didn’t advise her and she didn’t write a good essay. C. She wrote a good essay as her teacher gave her some advice. D. If her teacher didn’t advise her, she wouldn’t write such a good essay. ❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. 3
Question 29: She tried very hard to pass the driving test. She could hardly pass it. A. Although she didn’t try hard to pass the driving test, she could pass it. B. Despite being able to pass the driving test, she didn’t pass it. C. No matter how hard she tried, she could hardly pass the driving test. D. She tried very hard, so she passed the driving test satisfactorily. Question 30: We didn’t want to spend a lot of money. We stayed in a cheap hotel. A. Rather than spending a lot of money, we stayed in a cheap hotel. B. In spite of spending a lot of money, we stayed in a cheap hotel. C. We stayed in a cheap hotel, but we had to spend a lot of money. D. We didn’t stay in a cheap hotel as we had a lot of money to spend. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35. WAYS TO IMPROVE YOUR MEMORY A good memory is often seen as something that comes naturally, and a bad memory as something that cannot be changed, but actually (31)_________ is a lot that you can do to improve your memory. We all remember the things we are interested in and forget the ones that bore us. This no doubt explains the reason (32)_________ schoolboys remember football results effortlessly but struggle with dates from their history lessons! Take an active interest in what you want to remember, and focus on it (33)_________ . One way to ‗make’ yourself more interested is to ask questions — the more the better! Physical exercise is also important for your memory, because it increases your heart (34)_________ and sends more oxygen to your brain, and that makes your memory work better. Exercise also reduces stress, which is very bad for the memory. The old saying that ―eating fish makes you brainy‖ may be true after all. Scientists have discovered that the fats (35)_________ in fish like tuna, sardines and salmon — as well as in olive oil — help to improve the memory. Vitamin-rich fruits such as oranges, strawberries and red grapes are all good ‗brain food’, too. Question 31:
A. there
B. it
C. that
D. this
Question 32:
A. why
B. what
C. how
D. which
Question 33:
A. hardly
B. slightly
C. consciously
D. easily
Question 34:
A. degree
B. level
C. rate
D. grade
Question 35:
A. made
B. existed
C. founded
D. found
4
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42. It used to be that people would drink coffee or tea in the morning to pick them up and get them going for the day. Then cola drinks hit the market. With lots of caffeine and sugar, these beverages soon became the pick-me-up of choice for many adults and teenagers. Now drink companies are putting out so-called "energy drinks." These beverages have the specific aim of giving tired consumers more energy. One example of a popular energy drink is Red Bull. The company that puts out this beverage has stated in interviews that Red Bull is not a thirst quencher. Nor is it meant to be a fluid replacement drink for athletes. Instead, the beverage is meant to revitalize a tired consumer’s body and mind. In order to do this, the makers of Red Bull, and other energy drinks, typically add vitamins and certain chemicals to their beverages. The added chemicals are like chemicals that the body naturally produces for energy. The vitamins, chemicals, caffeine, and sugar found in these beverages all seem like a sure bet to give a person energy. Health professionals are not so sure, though. For one thing, there is not enough evidence to show that all of the vitamins added to energy drinks actually raise a person’s energy level. Another problem is that there are so many things in the beverages. Nobody knows for sure how all of the ingredients in energy drinks work together. Dr. Brent Bauer, one of the directors at the Mayo Clinic in the US, cautions people about believing all the claims energy drinks make. He says, - It is plausible if you put all these things together, you will get a good result.” However, Dr. Bauer adds the mix of ingredients could also have a negative impact on the body. - We just don’t know at this point,” he says. (Source: -Reading Challenge 2, Casey Malarcher & Andrea Janzen, Compass Publishing) Question 36: The beverages mentioned in the first paragraph aim to give consumers ______. A. caffeine
B. sugar
C. more energy
D. more choices
Question 37: The word “it” in the second paragraph refers to ______. A. one example
B. the company
C. Red Bull
D. thirst quencher
Question 38: According to the passage, what makes it difficult for researchers to know if an energy drink gives people energy? A. Natural chemicals in a person’s body
B. The average age of the consumer
C. The number of beverage makers
D. The mixture of various ingredients
Question 39: The word -plausible‖ in the passage is closest in meaning to _______. 5
A. impossible
B. reasonable
C. typical
D. unlikely
Question 40: What has Dr. Bauer probably researched? A. Countries where Red Bull is popular
B. Energy drinks for teenage athletes
C. Habits of healthy and unhealthy adults
D. Vitamins and chemicals in the body
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage? A. Bauer does not seem to believe the claims of energy drink makers. B. Colas have been on the market longer than energy drinks. C. It has been scientifically proved that energy drinks work. D. The makers of Red Bull say that it can revitalize a person. Question 42: What is the main idea of this passage? A. Caffeine is bad for people to drink. B. It is uncertain whether energy drinks are healthy. C. Red Bull is the best energy drink. D. Teenagers should not choose energy drinks. ❖ Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50. What is “extreme” weather? Why are people talking about it these days? “Extreme” weather is an unusual weather event such as rainfall, a drought or a heat wave in the wrong place or at the wrong time. In theory, they are very rare. But these days, our TV screens are constantly showing such extreme weather events. Take just three news stories from 2010: 28 centimetres of rain fell on Rio de Janeiro in 24 hours, Nashville, USA, had 33 centimetres of rain in two days and there was record rainfall in Pakistan. The effects of this kind of rainfall are dramatic and lethal. In Rio de Janeiro, landslides followed, burying hundreds of people. In Pakistan, the floods affected 20 million people. Meanwhile, other parts of the world suffer devastating droughts. Australia, Russia and East Africa have been hit in the last ten years. And then there are unexpected heat waves, such as in 2003 in Europe. That summer, 35,000 deaths were said to be heat-related. So, what is happening to our weather? Are these extreme events part of a natural cycle? Or are they caused by human activity and its effects on the Earth’s climate? Peter Miller says it’s probably a mixture of both of these things. On the one hand, the most important influences on weather events are natural cycles in the climate. Two of the most famous weather cycles, El Niño and La Niña, originate in the Pacific Ocean. The heat from the warm ocean rises high into the atmosphere and affects weather all around the world. On the other 6
hand, the temperature of the Earth’s oceans is slowly but steadily going up. And this is a result of human activity. We are producing greenhouse gases that trap heat in the Earth’s atmosphere. This heat warms up the atmosphere, land and oceans. Warmer oceans produce more water vapour – think of heating a pan of water in your kitchen. Turn up the heat, it produces steam more quickly. Satellite data tells us that the water vapour in the atmosphere has gone up by four percent in 25 years. This warm, wet air turns into the rain, storms, hurricanes and typhoons that we are increasingly experiencing. Climate scientist, Michael Oppenheimer, says that we need to face the reality of climate change. And we also need to act now to save lives and money in the future. (Source: © 2015 National Geographic Learning.www.ngllife.com/wildweather) Question 43: It is stated in the passage that extreme weather is ______. A. becoming more common
B. not a natural occurrence
C. difficult for scientists to understand
D. killing more people than ever before
Question 44: The word -lethal‖ in the second paragraph probably means ______. A. far-reaching
B. long-lasting
C. happening soon
D. causing deaths
Question 45: What caused thousands of deaths in 2003? A. a period of hot weather
B. floods after a bad summer
C. a long spell of heavy rain
D. large-scale landslides
Question 46: According to the passage, extreme weather is a problem because ______. A. we can never predict it
B. it only affects crowded places
C. it’s often very destructive
D. its causes are completely unknown
Question 47: The word -that in the third paragraph refers to ______. A. Earth’s oceans
B. human activity
C. greenhouse gases
D. Earth’s atmosphere
Question 48: Extreme weather can be caused by ______. A. satellites above the Earth
B. water vapour in the atmosphere
C. very hot summers
D. water pans in your kitchen
Question 49: Satellites are used to ______. A. change the direction of severe storms B. trap greenhouse gases in the atmosphere C. measure changes in atmospheric water vapour D. prevent climate from changing quickly Question Question 50: Which statement is NOT supported by the information in the passage? A. Extreme weather is substantially influenced by human activity. 7
B. Unusual weather events are part of natural cycles. C. We can limit the bad effects of extreme weather. D. Such extreme weather is hardly the consequence of human activity. ฤ รกp รกn 1-B
2-A
3-A
4-C
5-B
6-C
7-D
8-C
9-B
10-C
11-D
12-D
13-A
14-A
15-A
16-D
17-D
18-B
19-A
20-C
21-B
22-D
23-C
24-A
25-B
26-B
27-D
28-C
29-C
30-A
31-A
32-A
33-C
34-C
35-D
36-C
37-C
38-D
39-B
40-D
41-B
42-B
43-A
44-D
45-A
46-C
47-C
48-B
49-C
50-D
ĐỀ SỐ 4
BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC BỘ GIÁO DỤC Môn: Tiếng Anh Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
❖ Mark the letter A,B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the words whose underlined parts differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions Question 1:
A. tomorrow
B. slowly
C. below
D. allow
Question 2:
A. roofs
B. cloths
C. books
D. clothes
❖ Mark the letter A,B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the words having stress different from the other three in each of the following questions. Question 3:
A. partnership
B. romantic
C. actually
D. attitude
Question 4:
A. certain
B. equal
C. decide
D. couple
❖ Mark the letter A,B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the corect answer to each of the following question Question 5: Where is Jimmy?- He is_______work. He is busy_______his monthly report. A. in/ about
B. to/ through
C. at/with
D. on/ for
Question 6: Most children enjoy_______with their parents and siblings. A. played
B. play
C. to play
D. playing
Question 7: It’s too late; you shouldn’t go. Don’t worry! We can_______for a night. A. put you up
B. put you through
C. put you away
D. put you aside
Question 8: _______nonverbal language is_______important aspect of interpersonal communication. A. - / an
B. The / -
C. A/ the
D. The/ a
Question 9: Tim asked Sarah_______English so far. A. how long was she learning
B. how long she has been learning
C.she had been learning how long
D. how long she had been learning
Question 10: John often says he_______boxing because it _______a cruel sport. A.had not liked/ was
B. not liked/ had been
C. does not like/ is
D. did not like/ were
Question 11: I do not think there is a real_______between men and women at home as well as in our society. A. attitude
B. equality
C. value
1
D. measurement
Question 12: Most of us would agree that physical_______does not play a major part in how we react to the people we meet. A. attractiveness
B. attract
C. attractively
D. attractive
Question 13: You should _______ more attention to what your teacher explanis. A. make
B. get
C. set
D. pay
Question 14: I_______there once a long time ago and_______back since. A. have gone/ was
B. went/ have not been
C. go/ am not
D. was going/ has not been
Question 15: The more_______and positive you look, the better you will feel. A.confident
B. confide
C. confident
D. confidence
Question 16: It’s hard work looking _______ three children all day. A.after
B. to
C. up
D. through
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 17: School uniform is compulsory in most of Vietnmaese schools. A. depended
B. paid
C. required
D. divided
Question 18: Bill, come and give me a hand with cooking. A. attemp
B. prepare
C. be busy
D. help
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 19: We should keep these proposals secret from the chairman for the time being. A. revealed
B. frequented
C. lively
D. accessible
Question 20: I didn’t think his comments were very appropriate at the time. A. unsuitable
B. right
C. exact
D. correct
❖ Mark the letter A,B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges Question 21: “ I like your coat, Helen.” A.Really, I’m not.
-“_______.”
B. Do you?
C. I think so
D. I’m sorry.
Question 22: “ What an attractive hair style you have got, Mary!” -“_______” B. I don’t like your saying
A.You are telling a lie. 2
C. Thank you very much. I’m afraid
D. Thank you for your compliment.
❖ Mark the letter A,B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 23: Had the announcement been made earlier, more people wouls have attended the lecture. A. The lecture was held so late thet a few people attended it. B. More people came late to the lecture because of the late announcement. C. The late announcement helped make the lecture well- attended. D. Few people came to the lecture because the announcement was not made earlier. Question 24: She raised her hand high so that she could attract the teacher’s attention. A. Because her teacher attracted her, she raised her hand again. B. Though she raised her hand high, she couldn’t attract her teacher’s attention. C. To attract her teacher’s attention, she raised her hand high. D. She had such a high raising of hand that she failed to attract her teacher’s attention. Question 25: Anyone who misses more than fifty percent of the classes deserves to fail. A. Those who are absent more than half the time shouls fail. B. Fifty percent of classes have failed the exams. C. More than fifty percent is too much for one class. D. People who fail must make up fifty percent of the classwork.
❖ Make the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentence in the following questions. Question 26: The old man is workign in this factory. I borrowed his bicycle yesterday. A. The old man is workign in this factory which I borrowed his bycicle yesterday. B. The old man whom I borrowed his bicycle yesterday is working in this factory. C. The old man whose bicycle I borrowed yesterday is working in this factory. D. The old man whom is working in this factory I borrowed his bicycle yesterday. Question 27: Mary doesn’t like sports. Her brother doesn’t, either. A. Neither Mary or her brother likes sports. B. either Mary or her brotehr loikes sports. C.Neither Mary nor her brother likes sports. D. both Mary and her brother like sports. 3
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 28: Body language is quiet and secret, but most powerful language of all. A. Body language
B. secret
C. most
D. of all
Question 29: Stayed strong, family members have to be engaged in each other’s lives. A. Stayed
B. strong
C. have
D. be engaged
Question 30: Once you can overcome your difficulty, the problem may well become a source of strengthen to your marriage and your faith. A. Once
B. overcome
C. may well become
D. strengthen
â?– Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase thet best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35. In the western customs (31) _______ hands is the customary form of greeting, but in China a nod of the head or (32) _______ bow is sufficient. Hugging and kissing when greeting are uncommon. Business cards are often (33) _______ and yours should be printed in your own language and in Chinese. Also, it is more respectful to present your card or a gift or any other article using (34) _______ hands. The Chinese are (35) _______ applauders. You may be greeted with group clapping, even by small children. Question 31:
A. taking
B. shaking
C. grasping
D. hugging
Question 32:
A. small
B. bit
C. slight
D. heavy
Question 33:
A. exchanged
B. changed
C. transferred
D. converted
Question 34:
A. pair
B. couple
C. double
D. both
Question 35:
A. enthusiast
B. enthusiastic
C. enthusiasm
D. enthusiastically
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following question from 36 to 43. A number of factors related to the voice reveal the personality of the speaker. The first is the broad area of communication, which includes imparting information by use of language, communicating with a group or an individual and specialized communication through performance. A person conveys thoughts and ideas through choice of words, by a tone of voice that is pleasant or unpleasant, gentle or harsh, by the rhythm that is inherent within the language itself, and by speech rhythms that are flowing and regular or uneven and hesitant, and finally, by the pitch and melody of the utterance. When speaking 4
before a group, a person's tone may indicate uncertainty or fright, confidence or calm. At interpersonal levels, the tone may reflect ideas and feelings over and above the words chosen, or may belie them. Here the participant’s tone can consciously or unconsciously reflect intuitive sympathy or antipathy, lack of concern or interest, fatigue, anxiety, enthusiasm or excitement, all of which are .usually discernible by the acute listener. Public performance is a manner of communication that is highly specialized with its own techniques for obtaining effects by voice and /or gesture. The motivation derived from the text, and in the case of singing, the music, in combination with the performer's skills, personality, and ability to create empathy will determine the success of artistic, political, or pedagogic communication. Second, the voice gives psychological clues to a person's self-image, perception of others, and emotional health. Self-image can be indicated by a tone of voice that is confident, pretentious, shy, aggressive, outgoing, or exuberant, to name only a few personality traits. Also the sound may give a clue to the facade or mask of that person, for example, a shy person hiding behind an overconfident front. How a speaker perceives the listener's receptiveness, interest, or sympathy in any given conversation can drastically alter the tone of presentation, by encouraging or discouraging the speaker. Emotional health is evidenced in the voice by free and melodic sounds of the happy, by constricted and harsh sound of the angry, and by dull and lethargic qualities of the depressed. Question 36: What does the passage mainly discuss? A. The function of the voice in performance B. Communication styles C. The connection between voice and personality D. The production of speech Question 37: What does the author mean by staring that, "At interpersonal levels, tone may reflect ideas and feelings over and above the words chosen" ? A. Feelings are expressed with different words than ideas are. B. The tone of voice can carry information beyond the meaning of words. C. A high tone of voice reflects an emotional communication. D. Feelings are more difficult to express than ideas. Question 38: The word "Here" in line 9 refers to…………… A. At interpersonal levels
B. the tone
C. ideas and feelings
D. words chosen 5
Question 39: Why does the author mention "artistic, political, or pedagogic communication" ? A. As examples of public performance B. As examples of basic styles of communication C. To contrast them to singing D. To introduce the idea of self-image Question 40: According to the passage, an exuberant tone of voice may be an indication of a person's___________ A. general physical health
B. personality
C. registered
D. obtained
Question 41: According to the passage, an overconfident front may hide___________. A. hostility
B. shyness
C. friendliness
D. strength
Question 42: The word "drastically" in line 21 is closest in meaning to___________. A. frequently
B. exactly
C. severely
D. easily
Question 43: According to the passage, what does a constricted and harsh voice indicate? A. Lethargy
B. Depression
C. Boredom
D. Anger
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following question from 44 to 50. The rules of etiquette in American restaurants depend upon a number of factors the physical location of the restaurant, e.g., rural or urban; the type of restaurant, e.g., informal or formal; and certain standards that are more universal. In other words, some standards 5 of etiquette vary significantly while other standards apply almost anywhere. Learning the proper etiquette in a particular type of restaurant in a particular area may sometimes require instruction, but more commonly it simply requires sensitivity and experience. For example, while it is acceptable to read a magazine in a coffee shop, it is 10 inappropriate to do the same in a more luxurious setting. And, if you are eating in a very rustic setting it may be fine to tuck your napkin into your shirt, but if you are in a sophisticated urban restaurant this behavior would demonstrate a lack of manners. It is safe to say, however, that in virtually every restaurant it is unacceptable 15 to indiscriminately throw your food on the floor. The conclusion we can most likely draw from the above is that while the types and locations of restaurants determine etiquette appropriate to them, some rules apply to all restaurants. Question 44: What topic is this passage primarily concerned? A. instruction in proper etiquette
B. rules of etiquette 6
C. variable and universal standards of etiquette
D. the importance of good manners
Question 45: According to the passage,which of the following is a universal rule of etiquette? A. reading a magazine at a coffee shop
B. not throwing food on the floor
C. eating in rustic settings
D. tucking a napkin in your shirt
Question 46: According to the passage,
requires sensitivity and experience?
A. reading a magazine at a coffee shop
B. not throwing food on the floor
C. eating in rustic settings
D. tucking a napkin in your shirt
Question 47: Which of the following words is most similar to the meaning of “rustic” ? A. urban
B. unsophisticated
C. agricultural
D. ancient
Question 48: Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “tuck” in line 11? A. set
B. put
C. fold
D. hold
Question 49: The word “sophisticated” in line 12 could best be replaced by? A. famous
B. cultured
C. expensive
D. exclusive
Question 50: What is the author’s main purpose in this passage? A. to compare sophisticated and rustic restaurants B. to assist people in learning sophisticatedmanners C. to simplify rules of restaurant etiquette D. to describe variations in restaurant manners
Đáp án 1-D
2-D
3-B
4-C
5-C
6-D
7-A
8-A
9-D
10-C
11-B
12-A
13-D
14-B
15-A
16-A
17-C
18-D
19-A
20-B
21-B
22-D
23-D
24-C
25-A
26-C
27-C
28-C
29-A
30-D
31-B
32-C
33-D
34-C
35-A
36-A
37-A
38-A
39-A
40-D
41-B
42-D
43-B
44-C
45-B
46-C
47-B
48-B
49-B
50-D
ĐỀ SỐ 5
BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC BỘ GIÁO DỤC Môn: Tiếng Anh Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 1:
A. compulsory
B. certificate
C. significant
D. category
Question 2:
A. history
B. confide
C. result
D. suggest
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 3: “Leave my house now or I’ll call the police!” shouted the lady to the man. A. The lady said she would call the police if the man didn’t leave her house. B. The lady told the man that she would call the police he didn’t leave her house. C. The lady informed the man that she would call the police if he didn’t leave her house. D. The lady threatened to call the police if the man didn’t leave her house. Question 4: He last has his eyes tested ten months ago. A. He had tested his eyes ten months before. B. He didn’t have any test on his eyes ten months before. C. He had not tested his eyes for ten months then. D. He hasn’t had his eyes tested for ten months. Question 5: He survived the operation thanks to the skillful surgeon. A. He survived because he was a skillful surgeon. B. He wouldn’t have survived the operation without the skillful surgeon. C. There was no skillful surgeon, so he died. D. Though the surgeon was skillful, he couldn’t survive the operation.
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 6: My younger brothers are obedient most of the time, but they are quite mischievous sometimes. A. Naughty
B. hard-working
C. well-behaved
D. disruptive
Question 7: You should not wear casual clothes to the interview. The first impression is very important. 1
A. New
B. informal
C. neat
D. formal
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 8: In daily communication, you should know how to interpret other people’s body language. A. Understand
B. answer
C. respond
D. notice
Question 9: The purpose of this survey is to determine students’ attitudes toward love and marriage. A. Find out
B. develop
C. concern
D. build
❖ Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Who talks more – men or women? Most people believe that women talk more. However, linguist Deborah Tannen, who has the studied the communication style of men and women, says that this is a stereotype. According to Tannen, women are more verbal – talk more – in private situations, where they use conversation as the “glue” to hold relationship together. But, she says, men talk more in public situations, where they use conversation to exchange information and gain status. Tannen points out that we can see these difference even in children. Little girls often play with one ‘best friend’ and their play includes a lot of conversation. Little boys often play games in groups, their play usually involves more doing than talking. In school, girls are often better at verbal skills, while boys are often better at mathematics. A recent study at Emory University helps to shed light on the roots of this difference. Researchers studied conversation between children aged 3-6 and their parents. They found evidence that parents talk very differently to their sons than they do to their daughters. The startling conclusion was that parents use more language with their girls. Specifically, when parents talk with their daughters, they use more descriptive language and more details. There is also far more talk about emotions, especially with daughters than with sons. Question 10: Which sentence best expresses the main idea of the first paragraph? A. Women talk more than men on the whole B. Women’s talking is a stereotype C. Women talk more in private, and men talk more in public 2
D. Little boys and little girls have different ways of playing Question 11: Which word is similar in meaning to the word “glue”? A. Games
B. sticky substance
C. rope
D. means
Question 12: Which of the following phrases best explains the meaning of the word “verbal”? A. Deriving from verbs
B. Connected with use of spoken language
C. Using very loud noise
D. Being very talkative
Question 13: The word “they” refers to ______. A. Situations
B. Men
C. Men and women
D. Women
Question 14: Which of the following can be inferred from the first paragraph? A. Men and women have different styles of talking, which may begin in childhood. B. According to Deborah Tannen, the belief that women talk more is party right but most wrong. C. Women talk more in some situations while men talk in others D. Men are more sociable than women Question 15: Which sentence best expresses the main idea of the second paragraph? A. Researchers have studied the conversations of children and their parents. B. Parents do not much about sadness with their sons. C. Study at Emory University can help to explain the differences between communication styles of boy and girls. D. An Emory University study found than parent talk more with their daughters than with their sons. Question 16: Which word can best replace the word “startling”? A. Beginning
B. annoying
C. surprising
D. interesting
Question 17: Which of the following statement is TRUE about the passage? A. Parents give more love to their daughters than to their sons B. Boys don’t like to be with their parents as much as girls do C. Parents use more language to talk with their daughters D. Boys don’t like showing emotions
❖ Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
3
Face-to-face conversation is a two-way process: You speak to me, I reply to you and so on. Two-way (18)_______ depends on having a coding system that is understood by both sender and (19)_______, and an agreed convention about signaling the beginning and end of the message. In speech, the coding system is the language like English or Spanish; the convention that one person speaks at a time may seem too obvious to mention. In fact, the signals (20)_______ in conversation and meetings are often (21)_______. For example, lowering the pitch of the voice may mean the end of a sentence, a sharp intake of breath may signal the desire to interrupt, catching the chairman’s eye may indicate the desire to speak in a formal setting like a debate, a clenched fist may indicate anger. When (22)_______ visual signals are not possible, more formal signals may be needed. Question 18: A. Exchange
B. Interchange
C. Communication
D. Correspondence
Question 19: A. Announcer
B. Receiver
C. Messenger
D. Transmitter
Question 20: A. That people use
B. Are used
C. Using
D. Being used
Question 21: A. Informal
B. non-verbal
C. verbal
D. formal
Question 22: A. their
B. These
C. This
D. That
â?– Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 23: The state school system is free for all students and _______ by the government. A. Is paid for
B. is paying for
C. pays for
D. is being pay for
Question 24: Jane got married_______ Peter two years ago, but now they have split A. As
B. with
C. for
D. to
Question 25: The H5N1 infected patients have to _______ others to prevent the virus from spreading A. Take care of
B. get away
C. look after
D. stay away from
Question 26: Whenever I have problems, Jane is always very dependable. She never _______. A. Turns up
B. let me down
C. turns me off
D. turns out
Question 27: Students are expected to write their homework slowly and _______. A. Careless
B. carefully
C. carelessly
D. careful
Question 28: During the interview, you should try to _______ a good impression on your interview. A. Create
B. have
C. give
D. try
Question 29: An academic year in Vietnam is divided _______ two terms 4
A. In
B. into
C. within
D. from
Question 30: Global warming is obviously _______ a worrying influence on the climate worldwide A. Having
B. making
C. giving
D. taking
Question 31: He wanted to know whose car I borrowed _______. A. Yesterday
B. evening the last evening
C. last night
D. the previous night
Question 32: The man to _______ we have just talked is the Director General A. Who
B. that
C. whom
D. 0
Question 33: Though built in 1946, computers were sold _______ for the first time in the 1950s A. Commercial
B. commercialise
C. commercially
D. commerce
Question 34: _______ hard, you will get good results in the coming examination. A. Should you work
B. unless you work
C. if you will work
D. if work
â?– Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 41. Stars have been significant features in the design of many United States coins and their number has varied from one to forty-eight stars. Most of the coins issued from about 1799 to the early years of the twentieth century bore thirteen stars representing the thirteen original colonies. Curiously enough, the first American silver coins, issued in 1794, had fifteen stars because by that time Vermont and Kentucky has joined the Union. At that time it was apparently the intention of mint officials to add a star for each new state. Following the admission of Tennessee in 1796, for example, some varieties of half dimes, dimes, and halfdollars were produced with sixteen starts. As more states were admitted to the Union, however, it quickly became apparent that this scheme would not prove practical and the coins from A798 on were issued with only thirteen stars-one for each of the original colonies. Due to an error at the mint, one variety of the A828 half cent was issued with only twelve stars. There is also a variety of the large cent with only A2 stars, but this is the result of a die break and is not a true error. Question 35: What is the main topic of the passage? A. Stars on American coins 5
B. The teaching of astronomy in state universities C. The star as national symbol of the United States D. Colonial stamps and coins Question 36: The word “their” in line 1 refers to _______ A. Coins
B. features
C. colonies
D. stars
Question 37: The word “bore” in line 3 is closest in meaning to ________ A. Carried
B. drilled
C. symbolized
D. cost
Question 38: The expression “Curiously enough” is used because the author finds it strange that _______ A. Silver coins with fifteen stars appeared before coins with thirteen B. Vermont and Kentucky joined the Union in 1794 C. Tennessee was the first state to use half dimes D. No silver coins were issued until 1794 Question 39: Which of the following can be inferred about the order in which Kentucky, Tennessee, and Vermont joined the Union? A. Vermont joined after Tennessee and Kentucky. B. Kentucky joined before Tennessee and Vermont. C. Tennessee joined Vermont and Kentucky. D. Vermont and Kentucky joined at the same time. Question 40: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as the denomination of an American coin? A. Half cent
B. Half-dollar
C. Half dime
D. Half nickel
Question 41: Why was a coin produced in 1828 with only twelve stars? A. There was a change in design policy. B. There were twelve states at the time. C. The mint made a mistake. D. Tennessee had left the Union.
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 42: If you take the train, it would be much more convenient. A. If
B. the train
C. would be
D. much
Question 43: Some of his favourite subjects at school are Maths, English and Geographical. 6
A. Some
B. subjects
C. are
D. Geographical
Question 44: Could you tell me how can I get to the city library, please? A. Could
B. me
C. how can I get
D. the
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pairs of sentences in the following questions. Question 45: They were rich; they didn’t have a happy family, though. A. Although they were rich, but they didn’t have a happy family. B. Rich though they were, they didn’t have a happy family. C. They were rich although they didn’t have a happy family. D. However they were rich, they didn’t have a happy family. Question 46: One student failed because he completely ignored the instruction on the paper. The instructions appeared on the top of every page. A. One student failed because he completely ignored the instructions appearing on the top of every page on the paper. B. Even though one student ignored the instructions printed on the top of every paper, he failed. C. One student failed to ignore the instructions printed on the top of every page of paper. D. No matter how completely one student ignored the instructions printed on the top of every page of the paper, he failed.
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 47: Peter and Bob are talking about the plan for tonight. - Peter: “_________________.” - Bob: “I’d love to. Thank you.” A. Would you like to go to the new coffee shop with me? B. What would you do if you can afford a new car? C. Would you like a cake? D. Why do you spend so much time playing games? Question 48: Two people are talking on the phone. - A: “Could I speak to Alex, please?” - B: “___________________.” 7
A. Can I take the message?
B. I’m sorry. Alex is not in.
C. Just a moment. I’m coming.
D. This is Joe speaking.
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 49:
A. imports
B. groups
C. techniques
D. computers
Question 50:
A. technology
B. chores
C. schooling
D. chemistry
Đáp án 1-D
2-A
3-D
4-D
5-B
6-A
7-A
8-A
9-A
10-C
11-B
12-B
13-B
14-C
15-D
16-D
17-C
18-D
19-B
20-A
21-C
22-B
23-A
24-D
25-D
26-B
27-B
28-A
29-B
30-A
31-D
32-C
33-C
34-A
35-A
36-D
37-B
38-A
39-D
40-D
41-C
42-C
43-D
44-C
45-B
46-A
47-A
48-B
49-C
50-B
ĐỀ SỐ 6
BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC BỘ GIÁO DỤC Môn: Tiếng Anh Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions Question 1: The soccer team knew they lost the match. They soon started to blame each other. A. Not only did the soccer team lose the match but they blamed each other as well B. No sooner had the soccer team started to blame each other than they knew they lost the match. C. As soon as they blamed each other, the soccer team knew they lost the match. D. Hardly had the soccer team known they lost the match when they started to blame each other. Question 2: Lucy always reminds me of my youngest sister. A. My youngest sister’s name is Lucy. B. I always think of Lucy, my youngest sister. C. Whenever I see Lucy, I think of my youngest sister. D. It is Lucy who is my youngest sister. Question 3: They had such a fierce dog that nobody would visit them. A. So fierce was their dog that nobody would visit them. B. Their dog was fierce enough for anybody to visit them. C. If their dog weren’t fierce, somebody would visit them. D. So fierce a dog did they had that nobody would visit them. Question 4: They are my two sisters. They aren’t teachers like me. A. They are my two sisters, that are teachers like me. B. They are my two sisters, neither of whom are teachers like me. C. They are my two sisters, both of those are teachers like me. D. Unlike me, neither of my two sisters aren’t teachers. Question 5: “Why don’t you participate in the volunteer work in summer?" said Sophie. A. Sophie suggested my participating in the volunteer work in summer. B. Sophie made me participate in the volunteer work in summer. C. Sophie asked me why not participate in the volunteer work in summer. D. Sophie suggested me to participate in the volunteer work in summer.
1
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is closest in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions Question 6: The students are advised to concentrate on their studying. A. remember
B. pay attention to
C. be interested in
D. resemble
Question 7: In most countries, compulsory military service does not apply to women. A. mandatory
B. superior
C. beneficial
D. constructive
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 8: Many people will be out of _________ if the factory is closed. A. career
B. job
C. profession
D. work
Question 9: Neither Tom nor his brothers_________ willing to help their mother with the housework. A. is
B. was
C. are
D. has been
Question 10: Do you know the person _________ next to you in the evening class? A. whose sitting
B. whom sits
C. sitting
D. who sit
Question 11: I can’t _________ of a word he is saying. A. make sense
B. grasp
C. comprehend
D. understand
Question 12: Tony Blair is believed _________ for Liverpool last week. A. having left
B. to have left
C. to leave
D. leaving
Question 13: _________ is increasing, which results from economic crisis. A. Employment
B. Unemployed
Question 14: Tom: “_________”
C. Unemployment
D. Employ
Mike: “I won’t say no!”
A. How are things with you, Mike? B. What about playing badminton this afternoon? C. Mike, do you know where the scissors are? D. What’s your favourite, tea or coffee? Question 15: In the US the first stage of compulsory education _________ as elementary education. A. to be generally known
B. s generally known
C. generally known
D. is generally knowing
Question 16: It is vital to create a good impression _________ your interviewer. A. on
B. with
C. at 2
D. for
Question 17: Geometry is the branch of mathematics _________ the properties of time, curves, shapes, and surfaces. A. it is concerned with
B. that concerned with
C. concerned with
D. its concerned are
Question 18: We should make full use _________ the Internet as it is an endless source of information. A. of
B. in
C. with
D. from
Question 19: Cindy: "Your hairstyle is terrific, Mary!" - Mary: - " ______________� A. Never mention it.
B. Thanks, Cindy. I had it done yesterday
C. Thanks, but I'm afraid.
D. Yes, all right.
Question 20: He didn’t know_________ or stay until the end of the festival. A. whether to go
B. if that he should go
C. to go
D. if to go
Question 21: If_________ the Xmas tree would look more impressive. A. done carefully
B. being done carefully
C. it were careful done
D. it were to be carefully done
â?–Read the following andmark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 22 to 29. Harvard University, today recognized as part of the top echelon of the world's universities, came from very inauspicious and humble beginning. This oldest of American universities was founded in 1636, just sixteen years after the Pilgrims landed at Plymouth. Included in the Puritan emigrants to the Massachusetts colony during this period were more than 100 graduates of England's prestigious Oxford and Cambridge universities, and these universities graduates in the New Word were determined that their sons would have the same educational opportunities that they themselves had had. Because of this support in the colony for an institution of higher learning, the General Court of Massachusetts appropriated 400 pounds for a college in October of 1636 and early the following year decided on a parcel of land for the school; this land was in an area called Newetowne, which was later renamed Cambridge after its English cousin and is the site of the present-day university. When a young minister named John Harvard, who came from the neighboring town of Charlestowne, died from tuberculosis in 1638, he willed half of his estate of 1,700 pounds to 3
the fledgling college. In spite of the fact that only half of the bequest was actually paid, the General Court named the college after the minister in appreciation for what he had done. The amount of the bequest may not have been large, particularly by today's standard, but it was more than the General Court had found it necessary to appropriate in order to open the college. Henry Dunster was appointed the first president of Harvard in 1640, and it should be noted that in addition to serving as president, he was also the entire faculty, with an entering freshmen class of four students. Although the staff did expand somewhat, for the first century of its existence the entire teaching staff consisted of the president and three or four tutors. Question 22: The main idea of this passage is that ______________ . A. Harvard University developed under the auspices of the General Court of Massachusetts B. What is today a great university started out small C. John Harvard was key to the development of a great university D. Harvard is one of the world's most prestigious universities. Question 23: The passage indicates that Harvard is ______________. A. one of the oldest universities in the world
B. the oldest university in the world
C. one of the oldest universities in America
D. the oldest university in America
Question 24: It can be inferred from the passage that the Puritans who traveled to the Massachusetts colony were ______________. A. rather rich
B. Rather well educated
C. rather supportive of the English government
D. rather undemocratic
Question 25: The pronoun "they" in the second paragraph refers to ______________. A. son
B. university graduates
C. Oxford and Cambridge universities
D. educational opportunities
Question 26: The "pounds" in the second paragraph are probably ______________. A. units of money
B. college students
C. types of books
D. school campuses
Question 27: Which of the following is NOT mentioned about John Harvard? A. What he died of
B. Where he came from
C. Where he was buried
D. How much he bequeathed to Harvard
Question 28: The passage implies that ______________. A. Someone else really served as president of Harvard before Henry Dunster B. Henry Dunster was an ineffective president C. Henry Dunster spent much of his time as president managing the Harvard faculty 4
D. The position of president of Harvard was not merely an administrative position in the early ears Question 29: The word "somewhat" in the last paragraph could best be replaced by ______________. A. to and pro
B. Back and forth
C. side by side
D. more or less
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions. Question 30:
A. engineering
B. economics
C. recommend
D. curriculum
Question 31:
A. economy
B. certificate
C. graduate
D. semester
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 32: My mother told me to watch the milk and don’t let it boil over. A. told
C. don’t let
B. watch
D. over
Question 33: Fertilizer, which is added to the soil to replace or increase plant nutrients, include animal and green manure, fish and bone meal and compost. A. which is
B. increase
C. include
D. compost
Question 34: Foreign students who are doing a decision about which school to attend may not know exactly where the choices are located. A. are doing
B. about which
C. to attend
D. the choices
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. Question 35: A chronic lack of sleep may make us irritable and reduces our motivation to work A. calm
B. miserable
C. responsive
D. uncomfortable
Question 36: I must have a watch since punctuality is imperative in my new job. A. Being courteous
B. Being cheerful
C. Being efficient
D. Being late
❖ Read the following andmark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 37 to 43. In early civilization, citizens were educated informally, usually within the family unit. Education meant simply learning to live. As civilization became more complex, however, 5
education became more formal, structured, and comprehensive. Initial efforts of the ancient Chinese and Greek societies concentrated solely on the education of males. The postBabylonian Jews and Plato were exceptions to this pattern. Plato was apparently the first significant advocate of the equality of the sexes. Women, in his ideal state, would have the same rights and duties and the same educational opportunities as men. This aspect of Platonic philosophy, however, had little or no effect on education for many centuries, and the concept of a liberal education for men only, which had been espoused by Aristotle, prevailed. In ancient Rome, the availability of an education was radually extended to women, but they were taught separately from men. The early Christians and medieval Europeans continued this trend, and single-sex schools for the privileged through classes prevailed through the Reformation period. Gradually, however, education for women, in a separate but equal basis to that provided for men, was becoming a clear responsibility of society. Martin Luther appealed for civil support of schools for all children. Al the Council of Trent in the 16th century, the Roman Catholic Church encouraged the establishment of free primary schools for children of all classes. The concept of universal primary education, regardless of sex, had been born, but it was still in the realm of the single-sex school. In the late 19th and early 20th centuries, co-education became a more widely applied principle of educational philosophy. In Britain, Germany, and the Soviet Union the education of boys and girls in the same classes became an accepted practice. Since World War II, Japan and the Scandinavian countries have also adopted relatively universal co-educational systems. The greatest negative reaction to co-education has been felt in the teaching systems of the Latin countries, where the sexes have usually been separated at both primary and secondary levels, according to local conditions. A number of studies have indicated that girls seem to perform better overall and in science in particular. In single-sex classes, during the adolescent years, pressure to conform to stereotypical female gender roles may disadvantage girls in traditionally male subjects, making them reluctant to volunteer for experimental work while taking part in lessons. In Britain, academic league tables point to high standards achieved in girls’ schools. Some educationalists, therefore, suggest segregation of the sexes as a good thing, particularly in certain areas, and a number of schools are experimenting with the idea. Question 37: Ancient education generally focused its efforts on __________. A. young people only B. on male learners
C. both sexes
Question 38: Education in early times was mostly aimed at __________. 6
D. female learners
A. teaching skills
B. learning new lifestyles
C. learning to live
D. imparting survival skills
Question 39: The first to support the equality of the sexes was __________. A. the Chinese
B. the Jews
C. Plato
D. the Greek
Question 40: The word “informally” in this context mostly refers to an education occurring __________. A. in a department
B. in classrooms
C. ability
D. outside the school
Question 41: When education first reached women, they were __________. A. separated from men
B. locked up in a place with men
C. deprived of opportunities
D. isolated from a normal life
Question 42: When the concept of universal primary education was introduced, education __________. A. was intended for all the sexes
B. was intended for all the sexes
C. was given free to all
D. focused on imparting skills
Question 43: Co-education was negatively responded to in __________. A. conservative countries
B. Japan
C. South American countries
D. the Scandinavian countries
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 44:
A. interview
B. minute
C. question
D. suitable
Question 45:
A. expand
B. vacancy
C. applicant
D. category
❖ Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks from 46 to 50. Here are tips that help succeed in your job interview: Always arrive early. If you do not know (46) ____________ the organization is located, call for exact directions (47) ____________ advance. Leave some extra time for any traffic, parking, or unexpected events. If you are running late, call right away and let someone know. The best time to arrive is approximately 5 - 10 minutes early. Give yourself the time to read your resume one more time, to catch your breath, and to be ready for the interview. Once you are at the office, treat everyone you encounter with respect. Be (48) ____________ to everyone as soon as you walk in the door. 7
Wear a professional business suit. This point should be emphasized enough. First (49) ____________ are extremely important in the
interview process. Women should
(50)____________ wearing too much jewelry or make up. Men should avoid flashy suits or wearing too much perfume. It is also important that you feel comfortable. While a suit is the standard interview attire in a business environment, if you think it is an informal environment, call before and ask. Regardless, you can never be overdressed if you are wearing a tailored suit. Question 46: A. when
B. why
C. where
D. that
Question 47: A. with
B. in
C. on
D. for
Question 48: A. happy
B. pleasant
C. disappointed
D. excited
Question 49: A. attendances
B. attentions
C. impressions
D. pressures
Question 50: A. avoid
B. suggest
C. enjoy
D. mind
ฤ รกp รกn 1-D
6-B
11-A
16-A
21-D
26-A
31-C
36-D
41-A
46-C
2-C
7-A
12-B
17-C
22-B
27-C
32-C
37-B
42-A
47-B
3-A
8-D
13-C
18-A
23-D
28-D
33-C
38-C
43-C
48-B
4-B
9-C
14-B
19-B
24-B
29-D
34-A
39-C
44-C
49-C
5-A
10-C
15-B
20-A
25-B
30-D
35-A
40-D
45-B
50-A
ĐỀ SỐ 7
BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC BỘ GIÁO DỤC Môn: Tiếng Anh Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1:
A. blamed
B. misused
C. dissolved
D. increased
Question 2:
A. blouses
B. amuses
C. purses
D. pleases
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3:
A. particular
B. circumstances
C. environment
D. advertisement
Question 4:
A. pleasure
B. capture
C. picture
D. ensure
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 5: Ancient people used pot for cooking, storing food, and carrying things from place to place. A. pot
B. cooking
C. carrying
D. from
Question 6: Chemical engineering is based on the principles of physics, chemists, and mathematics. A. on
B. principles
C. chemists
D. mathematics
Question 7: David is particularly fond of cooking, and he often cooks really delicious meals A. particularly
B. cooking
C. often
D. really
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 8: All his plans for starting his own business fell __________. A. in
B. through
C. down
D. away
Question 9: The _____ dressed woman in the advertisement has a pose smile on her face. A. stylistic
B. stylishly
C. stylish
D. stylistical
C. don’t you
D. will you
Question 10: “Never say that again, ................?” A. won’t you
B. do you
Question 11: If he is in trouble, it is his own fault, I personally wouldn’t _____ a finger to help him. 1
A. give
B. turn
C. rise
D. bend
Question 12: ___________ to the national park before, Sue was amazed to see the geyser. A. Being not
B. Not having been
C. Not being
D. Having not been
Question 13: It was very ______ of you to pay for all the drinks last night. A. sensitive
B. thoughtful
C. grateful
D. nice
C. so a good
D. so good a
Question 14: He was ______ speaker! A. how a good
B. what a good
Question 15: By the end of last March, I _____ English for five years. A. will have been studying
B. had been studying
C. had been studied
D. will have studied
Question 16: It was announced that neither the passengers nor the driver ______ in the crash. A. was injured
B. injured
C. were injured
D. had injured
Question 17: I am sorry. I want _____ to you, but I have been busy. A. to write
B. writing
C. to have written
D. to have been writing
Question 18: You ___________ to your teacher like that. It was very rude. A. shouldn't have talked
B. mustn’t talk
C. shouldn’t talk
D. mustn’t have talked
Question 19: ______, he felt so unhappy and lonely. A. In spite of his being wealth
B. Rich as was he
C. Despite his wealthy
D. Rich as he was
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 20: "Wow! What a nice coat you are wearing!" - "______" A. Certainly. Do you like it, too?
B. Thanks. My mother bought it for me.
C. I like you to say that.
D. Yes, of course. It's expensive.
Question 21: "Our team has just won the last football match." - "______" A. Good idea. Thanks for the news.
B. Yes. I guess it's very good.
C. Well, that's very surprising!
D. Yes, it's our pleasure.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22: We spent the entire day looking for a new house A. all long day
B. day after day
C. all day long 2
D. the long day
Question 23: I used to meet him occasionally on Avenue. A. one time
B. sometimes
C. in one occasion
D. none is correct
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24: The bank announced that it was to merge with another of the high street banks. A. associate
B. cooperate
C. assemble
D. separate
Question 25: He had never experienced such rudeness towards the president as it occurred at the annual meeting in May. A. impoliteness
B. encouragement
C. politeness
D. measurement
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 26: Impressed as we were by the new cinema, we found it rather expensive. A. The new cinema was more expensive than we expected. B. The new cinema impressed us because it was rather expensive. C. We were very impressed by the new cinema, but we found it rather expensive. D. We were not impressed by the new cinema at all because it looked rather expensive. Question 27: “You should have finished the report by now,” John told his secretary. A. John reproached his secretary for not having finished the report. B. John said that his secretary had not finished the report. C. John reminded his secretary of finishing the report on time. D. John scolded to his secretary for not having finished the report. Question 28: When I picked up my book I found that the cover had been torn. A. Picking up my book, the cover had been torn. B. On picking up the book, I saw that the cover had been torn. C. Picked up, I saw that the cover of the book was torn. D. The cover had been torn when my book picked up.
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 29: “Make good use of your time. You won’t get such an opportunity again” said he to me. 3
A. He let me make use of my time because I wouldn’t get an opportunity again. B. He advised me to make use of my time as I wouldn’t get an opportunity again. C. He ordered me to make use of my time saying that I wouldn’t get an opportunity again D. He offered me such an opportunity so that I could make good use of my time. Question 30: Her living conditions were difficult. However, she studied very well. A. Although she lived in difficult conditions, but she studied very well. B. She studied very well thanks to the fact that she lived in difficult conditions. C. Difficult as her living conditions, she studied very well. D. She studied very well in spite of her difficult living conditions.
❖ Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. Engineers have been dreaming of an underwater link between Britian and France since 1802. Finally, in 1994the Channel Tunnel( nickname” the Chunnel” by the English) was officially opened.This fifteen million dollar project took seven years to complete .It is 50km long and built 45 metres under the seabed. The trains which go through the Chunnel can travel at up to 300km/h due to the(31)_________ electrical system. The journey from London to Paris via the Chunnel takes just three hours. It is also handy for drivers since they can load their cars onto the trains. They don’t need to book in(32)_________ ,as trains depart every few minutes.However, while on the train, there isn’t much to do and many criticise the Chunnel for this. Unlike the ferries, there is no duty- free shopping , no video game parlour or refreshment stand (33)_________ can you look outside and enjoy the view. As a result, many would find the Chunnel(34)_________ and would take the ferry(35)_________ Question 31:
A. forward
B. advanced
C. progressive
D. improved
Question 32:
A. advance
B. time
C. ahead
D. future
Question 33:
A. Nor
B. Either
C. Neither
D. Not
Question 34:
A. unlikely
B. unwanted
C. unappealing
D. unpopular
Question 35:
A. instead
B. however
C. rather
D. otherwise
❖ Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
4
Animals have an intuitive awareness of quantities. They know without analysis the difference between a number of objects and a smaller number. In his book “ The natural History of Selboure ” (1786 ) , the naturalist Gilbert White tells how he surreptitiously removed one egg a day from a plover’s nest , and how the mother laid another egg each day to make up for the missing one . He noted that other species of birds ignore the absence of a single egg but abandon their nests if more than one egg has been removed. It has also been noted by naturalists that a certain type of wasp always provides five – never four, never six caterpillars for each of their eggs so that their young have something to eat when the eggs hatch . Research has also shown that both mice and pigeons can be taught to distinguish between odd and even numbers of food pieces. These and similar accounts have led some people to infer that creatures other than humans can actually count. They also point to dogs that have been taught to respond to numerical questions with the correct number of barks, or to horses that seem to solve arithmetic problems by stomping their hooves the proper number of times. Animals respond to quantities only when they are connected to survival as a species – as in the case of the eggs – or survival as individuals - as in the case of food. There is no transfer to other situations or from concrete reality to the abstract notion of numbers. Animals can “count” only when the objects are present and only when the numbers involved are small – not more than seven or eight. In lab experiments, animals trained to “count” one kind of object were unable to count any other type. The objects, not the numbers, are what interest them. Animals admittedly remarkable achievements simply do not amount to evidence of counting, nor do they reveal more than innate instincts, refined by the genes of successive generations, or the results of clever, careful conditioning by trainers . Question 36: What is the main idea of this passage? A. Although animals may be aware of quantities, they cannot actually count. B. Of all animals, dogs and horses can count best. C. Careful training is required to teach animals to perform tricks involving numbers D. Animals cannot “count” more than one kind of object. Question 37: Why does the author refer to Gilbert White’s book in line 2? A. To indicate that more research is needed in this field. B. To show how attitudes have changed since1786. C. To provide evidence that some birds are aware of quantities. D. To contradict the idea that animals can count. 5
Question 38: The word “surreptitiously” is closest in meaning to A. quickly
B. occasionally
C. stubbornly
D. secretly
Question 39: The word “odd” refers to which of the following? A. numbers such as 1, 3, 5 and so on
B. lucky numbers
C. numbers such as 2, 4, 6 and so on
D. unusual numbers
Question 40: The author mentions that all of the following are aware of quantities in some ways EXCEPT A. wasps
B. Plovers
C. caterpillars
D. mice
Question 41: The word “accounts” is closest in meaning to A. reasons
B. reports
C. deceptions
D. invoices
Question 42: How would the author probably characterize the people who are mentioned in the first line of the second paragraph A. As foolish
B. As demanding
C. As clever
D. As mistaken
❖ Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Until recently, most American entrepreneurs were men. Discrimination against women in business, the demands of caring for families, and lack of business training had kept the number of women entrepreneurs small. Now, however, businesses owned by women account for more than $40 billion in annual revenues, and this figure is likely to continue rising throughout the 1990s. As Carolyn Doppelt Gray, an official of the Small Business Administration, has noted, "The 1970s was the decade of women entering management, and the 1980s turned out to be the decade of the woman entrepreneur". What are some of the factors behind this trend? For one thing, as more women earn advanced degrees in business and enter the corporate world, they are finding obstacles. Women are still excluded from most executive suites. Charlotte Taylor, a management consultant, had noted, "In the 1970s women believed if they got an MBA and worked hard they could become chairman of the board. Now they've found out that isn't going to happen, so they go out on their own". In the past, most women entrepreneurs worked in "women's" fields: cosmetics and clothing, for example. But this is changing. Consider ASK Computer Systems, a $22-milliona-year computer software business. It was founded in 1973 by Sandra Kurtzig, who was then a housewife with degrees in math and engineering. When Kurtzig founded the business, her first product was software that let weekly newspapers keep tabs on their newspaper carriers6
and her office was a bedroom at home, with a shoebox under the bed to hold the company's cash. After she succeeded with the newspaper software system, she hired several bright computer-science graduates to develop additional programs. When these were marketed and sold, ASK began to grow. It now has 200 employees, and Sandra Kurtzig owns $66.9 million of stock. Of course, many women who start their own businesses fail, just as men often do. They still face hurdles in the business world, especially problems in raising money; the banking and finance world is still dominated by men, and old attitudes die hard. Most businesses owned by women are still quite small. But the situation is changing; there are likely to be many more Sandra Kurtzigs in the years ahead. Question 43: What is the main idea of this passage? A. The computer is especially lucrative for women today. B. Women today are better educated than in the past, making them more attractive to the business world. C. Women are better at small business than men are. D. Women today are opening more business of their own. Question 44: The word “excluded” is closest meaning to ___________ . A. often invited to
B. decorators of
C. not permitted in
D. charged admission to
Question 45: All of the following were mentioned in the passage as detriments to women in the business world EXCEPT ___________. A. Women were required to stay at home with their families. B. Women faced discrimination in business. C. Women lacked ability to work in business. D. Women were not trained in business. Question 46: According to the passage, Charlotte Taylor believes that women in 1970s ___________ A. were unrealistic about their opportunities in business management. B. had fewer obstacles in business than they do today. C. were unable to work hard enough to success in business. D. were still more interested in education than business opportunities Question 47: The author mentions the “ shoesbox under the bed” in order to ___________. A. show the resourcefulness of Sandra Kurtzig 7
B. Show the frugality of women in business C. Point out that initially the financial resources of Sandra Kurtzig’s business were limited D. suggest that the company needed to expand Question 48: The expression “ keep tabs on” is closest meaning to ___________. A. pay the salaries of
B. keep records of
C. provide transportation for
D. recognize the appearance of
Question 49: The word “hurdles” can be best replaced by ___________. A. fences
B. .obstacles
C. questions
D. small groups
Question 50: It can be inferred from the passage that the author believes that business operated by women are small because ___________. A. many women fail at large businesses. B. Women are not able to borrow money easily. C. Women prefer a small intimate setting. D. Women can’t deal with money. Đáp án 1-D
2-C
3-B
4-D
5-A
6-C
7-D
8-B
9-B
10-D
11-A
12-B
13D-
14-D
15-B
16-C
17-C
18-A
19-D
20-B
21-C
22-C
23-B
24-D
25-C
26-B
27-A
28-B
29-B
30-D
31-D
32-A
33-A
34-C
35-A
36-A
37-C
38-D
39-A
40-C
41-B
42-D
43-D
44-C
45-C
46-A
47-C
48-B
49-A
50-B
ĐỀ SỐ 8
BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC BỘ GIÁO DỤC Môn: Tiếng Anh Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the rest. Question 1:
A. recite
B. reconcile
C. refund
D. reproduce
Question 2:
A. pitch
B. watch
C. butcher
D. architect
❖ Mark the word which is stressed differently from the rest. Question 3:
A. photography
B. minority
C. heroic
D. amateur
Question 4:
A. power
B. permission
C. permanent
D. carpe
Question 5:
A. comfortable
B. uncontrollable
C. politician
D. practicalit
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following sentences Question 6: They tell me about the film___________ on TV last week. A. when they watched
B. which they watched it
C. which they watched
D. whom they watched
Question 7: It’s important to know about how developed countries have solved the urbanization problems an ___________some solutions to those in Viet Nam. A. think
B. advise
C. expect
D. propose
Question 8: Each of the guests ___________a bunch of flowers. A. are given
B. is given
C. were given
D. give
Question 9: Let’s go to the beach this weekend, ___________? A. do we
B. shall we
C. will we
D. don’t we
Question 10: John ___________a book when I saw him. A. is reading
B. reading
C. read
D. was reading
Question 11: It is recommended that he ___________this course A. took
B. takes
C. take
D. taking
Question 12: John: “I didn’t pass my driving test.” - Anna: “___________!" A. Better luck next time
B. So poor
C. Congratulations
D. That was nice of them
1
Question 13: Japanese, Korean, Russian, Chinese, French and German will be taught at general schools in Hanoi and HCM City before being ___________on a large scale throughout the country. A. applied
B. provided
C. assessed
D. investigated
Question 14: Remember to take ___________your shoes when you go into the temple. A. up
B. in
C. with
D. off
Question 15: ___________you study harder, you won’t pass the examination. A. Although
B. Despite
C. Unless
D. I
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to the underlined words. Question 16: The conference is governed by its newly elected board. A. watched
B. chosen
C. ruled
D. advised
Question 17: After a long lunch hour, business resumes as usual. A. continues
B. resurfaces
C. delays
D. responds
Question 18: The people interviewed for the survey were randomly selected. A. thoughtfully
B. carefully
C. indiscriminately
D. carelessly
Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined words. Question 19: It was necessary to divide the movie 'Roots' into five parts in order to show it on television. A. adapt
B. merge
C. segment
D. transact
Question 20: With the final examinations coming very soon his anxiety was rising to almost unbearable limits. A. joy
B. confidence
C. studying
D. apprehension
Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best fits the blank space in the following passage: LOOK ON THE BRIGHT SIDE Do you ever wish you were more optimistic, some one who always (21)________ to be successful? Having some one around who always fears the worst isn’t really a lot of (22)________ we all know someone who sees a single cloud on a sunny day and says: “It looks like rain.” But if you catch yourself thinking such things, it’s important to do something (23)________ it. You can change your view of life, (24)________ to psychologists, it only takes a little effort, and you’ll find life more rewarding as a (25)________ Optimism, they 2
say, is partly about self-respect and confidence, but it’s also a more positive way of looking at life and all it has to offer . Optimists are more (26)________ to start new projects and generally more prepared to take risks. Upbringing is obviously very important in forming your (27)________ to the world. Some people are brought up to (28)______too much on others and grow up forever blaming other people when anything goes wrong. Most optimists, on the (29)________ hand, have been brought up not to regard failure as the end of the world-they just (30)________ with their lives Question Question 21: Question 22: Question 23: Question 24: Question 25: Question 26: Question 27: Question 28: Question 29:
A. waited A. fun A. about A. judging A. product A. possible A. position A. depend A. other A. get on
B. counted B. play B. with B. concerning B. purpose B. hopeful B. opinion B. believe B. far B. get out
C. expected C. enjoyment C. over C. according C. reason C. likely C. attitude C. trust C. opposite C. get up
D. felt D. musement D. against D. following D. result D. welcome D. view D. hope D. next D. get over
30: ❖ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following sentences. Question 31: The situation was so embarrassing that she did not know what to do. A. So embarrassing was the situation that she did not know what to do. B. It was such an embarrassing situation; however, she did not know what to do. C. So embarrassing the situation was that she did not know what to do. D. She did not know what to do, though it was not an embarrassing situation. Question 32: It is expected that tax increases will be announced in tomorrow’s budget statement. A. Tax increases are expected to be announced in tomorrow’s budget statement. B. It is expected that people will announce in tomorrow budget tax increases. C. In tomorrow’s budget statement tax increases are expected to announce. D. Hope that they will announce tax increases in tomorrow’s budget statement. Question 33: Fiona has been typing the report for an hour. A. It took Fiona an hour to type the report. B. It is an hour since Fiona started typing the report. C. Fiona finished the report an hour ago. 3
D. Fiona will finish typing the report in an hour. Question 34: I can’t do the test because it is too difficult. A. If the test isn’t too difficult, I can do it. B. If the test weren’t too difficult, I could do it. C. If the test weren’t too difficult, I can do it. D. If the test hadn’t been too difficult, I could do it. Question 35: The children couldn't go swimming because the sea was too rough. A. The sea was too rough for the children to go swimming. B. The sea was rough enough for the children to swim in. C. The sea was too rough to the children's swimming. D. The children were not calm enough to swim in the sea. Choose the option among A, B, C, D which needs correcting to make a complete sentence. Question 36: The exam to become a lawyer is on far the most difficult he has taken. A. become
B. on
C. most
D. has
Question 37: No one in our office wants to drive to work because of there are always traffic jams at rush hour. A. wants
B. because of
C. are
D. at rush hour
Question 38: Mrs. Stevens, along with her cousins from New Mexico, are planning to attend the festivities. A. along with
B. from
C. are
D. to attend
Question 39: The computer-based tests will test your ability to understand spoken English, to read nontechnical language, and writing correctly A. will test
B. spoken
C. writing
D. correctly
Question 40: In 1960 John F. Kennedy became the youngest man ever to elect president of the US. A. In 1960
B.
C. ever
D. elect
❖ Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answers It takes a long time to raise a family of owlets, so the great horned owl begins early in the year. In January and February, or as late as March in the North, the male calls to the female with a resonant hoot. The female is larger than the male. She sometimes reaches a body length of twenty-two to twenty-four inches, with a wingspread up to fifty inches. To 4
impress her, the male does a strange courtship dance. He bobs. He bows. He ruffles his feathers and hops around with an important air. He flutters from limb to limb and makes flying sorties into the air. Sometimes he returns with an offering of food. They share the repast, after which she joins the dance, hopping and bobbing about as though keeping time to the beat of an inner drum. Owls are poor home builders. They prefer to nest in a large hollow in a tree or even to occupy the deserted nest of a hawk or crow. These structures are large and rough, built of sticks and bark and lined with leaves and feathers. Sometimes owls nest on a rocky ledge, or even on the bare ground. even to occupy the deserted nest of a hawk or crow. These structures are large and rough, built of sticks and bark and lined with leaves and feathers. Sometimes owls nest on a rocky ledge, or even on the bare ground. The mother lays two or three round, dull white eggs. Then she stoically settles herself on the nest and spreads her feather skirts about her to protect her precious charges from snow and cold. It is five weeks before the first downy white owlet pecks its way out of the shell. As the young birds feather out, they look like wise old men with their wide eyes and quizzical expressions. They clamor for food and keep the parents busy supplying mice, squirrels, rabbits, crayfish, and beetles. Later in the season baby crows are taken. Migrating songsters, waterfowl, and game birds all fall prey to the hungry family. It is nearly ten weeks before fledglings leave the nest to search for their own food. The parent birds weary of family life by November and drive the young owls away to establish hunting ranges of their own Question 41: What is the topic of this passage? A. Mating rituals of great horned owls
B. Raising a family of great horned owls
C. Habits of young great horned owls
D. Nest building of great horned owls
Question 42: The phrase "a resonant hoot" is closest in meaning to A. a sound
B. an offering of food C. an instrument
D. a movement
Question 43: It can be inferred from the passage that the courtship of great horned owls A. happens in the fall
B. takes place on the ground
C. involves the male alone
D. is an active process
Question 44: According to the passage, great horned owls A. may inhabit a previously used nest
B. are discriminate nest builders
C. need big nests for their numerous eggs
D. build nests on tree limbs
Question 45: According to the passage, which of the following is the mother owl's job? A. To build the nest
B. To initiate the courtship ritual
C. To sit on the nest
D. To feed the young 5
Question 46: The phrase "precious charges" refers to A. the hawks and crows
B. other nesting owls
C. the nest
D. the eggs
Question 47: According to the passage, young owlets eat everything EXCEPT A. insects
B. other small birds
C. small mammals
D. nuts and seeds
C. the prey
D. the young birds
Question 48: The word "they" refers to A. the adult birds
B. the wise old men
Question 49: What can be inferred from the passage about the adult parents of the young great horned owls? A. They are lazy and careless about feeding the small owlets. B. They probably don't see their young after November. C. They don't eat while they are feeding their young. D. They are sorry to see their young leave home. Question 50: The phrase "weary of" is closest in meaning to A. become sad about
B. support
C. are attracted to
D. tire of
ฤ รกp รกn 1. B
2. D
3. D
4. B
5. A
6. C
7. D
8. B
9. B
10. D
11. C
12. A
13. A
14. D
15.C
16. C
17. A
18. C
19. B
20. B
21. C
22. A
23. A
24. C
25. D
26. C
27. C
28. A
29. A
30. A
31. A
32. A
33. B
34. B
35. A
36. B
37. B
38. C
39. C
40. D
41. B
42. A
43. D
44. A
45. C
46. D
47. D
48. D
49. B
50. D
ĐỀ SỐ 9
BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC BỘ GIÁO DỤC Môn: Tiếng Anh Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1:
A. subscribed
B. launched
C. inspired
D. welcomed
Question 2:
A. sour
B. hour
C. pour
D. flour
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3:
A. conserve
B. achieve
C. employ
D. waver
Question 4:
A. perseverance
B. application
C. agriculture
D. dedication
❖ Mark the letter A, B C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 5: It is recommended that people to take regular exercise. A. recommended
B. people
C. to take
D. exercise
Question 6: More than ten students have failed the exam, that surprised the class teacher. A. More than
B. have failed
C. that
D. the
Question 7: The world is becoming more industrialized and the number of animal species that have become extinct have increased. A. industrialized
B. species
C. extinct
D. have
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 8: He is exhausted. He ________ around the whole afternoon trying to clean the house before the guests arrive. A. has been running
B. has run
C. be running
D. was running
Question 9: Barack Obama is ________ President of ________ United States. A. the/ the
B. a/
C. the/
D. the/ an
Question 10: John would like to specialize ________ computer science. A. of
B. to
C. in 1
D. at
Question 11: ________ he arrived at the bus stop when the bus came. A. Hardly had
B. No sooner had
C. No longer has
D. Not until had
Question 12: Many young people in rural areas don’t want to spend their lives on the farm like their ________ parents. So they leave their home villages to find well-paid jobs in the fast-growing industrial zones. A. long-term
B. up-to-date
C. weather-beaten
D. wide-ranging
Question 13: If she had known how awful this job was going to be, she ________ it. A. would accept
B. wouldn't accept
C. wouldn't have accepted
D. would
have accepted Question 14: John asked me ________ that film the night before. A. that I saw
B. had I seen
C. if I had seen
D. if had I seen
Question 15: Remember that things such as language, food and clothing are simply expressions of our cultural ________. A. solidarity
B. identity
C. assimilation
D. celebration
Question 16: Waste paper can be used again after being ________. A. produced
B. recycled
C. wasted
D. preserved
Question 17: - “Your parents must be proud of your results at school”. - “________” A. Sorry to hear that
B. Thanks. It’s certainly encouraging
C. Of course
D. I am glad you like it.
Question 18: The government is aiming ________ 50 % reduction ________ unemployment. A. to/in
B. at/in
C. at/of
D. for/of
C. making fun of
D. to make fun of
Question 19: No one enjoys ________ in public. A. being made fun of B. to be made fun of
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following questions. Question 20: John was in Hanoi and wanted to send a parcel to his parents. He asked a local passer-by the way to the post-office. Choose the most suitable response to fill in the blank in the following exchange. - John: “Can you show me the way to the nearest post office, please?” - Passer-by: “_______” A. Not way, sorry.
B. Just round the corner over there.
C. Look it up in a dictionary!
D. There’s no traffic near here. 2
Question 21: Lora has just bought a new skirt that she likes very much. Choose the most suitable response to fill in the blank in the following exchange. - Jane: “You look great in that red skirt, Lora!” - Lora: “_______” A. No, I don't think so.
B. Oh, you don't like it, do you?
C. Thanks, I bought it at Macy’s.
D. Thanks, my mum bought it.
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22: I’m becoming increasingly absent-minded. Last week, I locked myself out of my house twice. A. being considerate of things
B. remembering to do right things
C. forgetful of one’s past
D. often forgetting things
Question 23: Sports and festivals form an integral part of every human society. A. Informative
B. delighted
C. exciting
D. essential
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24: Although it’s a long day for us, we feel we are contented with what we do. A. interested
B. dissatisfied
C. excited
D. shocked
Question 25: I can’t stand people who treat animals cruelly. A. gently
B. cleverly
C. reasonably
D. brutally
❖ Mark the letter A, B C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 26: However old and worn his clothes were, they look clean and of good quality. A. His clothes looked clean and of good quality but they were old and worn. B. His clothes, though old and worn, looked clean and of good quality. C. He was fond of wearing such old and worn clothes because they were of good quality. D. No matter what good quality his clothes had, they looked old and worn. Question 27: In spite of his poverty, he led a devoted life to the revolutionary cause. A. He could not devote his life to the revolutionary cause because of his poverty. B. If he had not been so poor, he could have devoted his life to the revolutionary cause. 3
C. Poor as he was, he led a devoted life to the revolutionary cause. D. He led a devoted life to the revolutionary cause, but he was so poor. Question 28: I thought I should not stay at home yesterday. A. I regretted staying at home yesterday.
B. I regretted for staying at home yesterday.
C. I regret for staying at home yesterday.
D. I regret to stay at home yesterday.
❖ Mark the letter A, B C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions Question 29: People should not throw rubbish in the park. People should not cut down the trees in the park. A. People should either throw rubbish in the park or cut down the trees in the park. B. People should neither throw rubbish nor cut down the trees in the park. C. People should either throw rubbish nor cut down the trees in the park. D. People should neither throw rubbish or cut down the trees in the park Question 30: Most of the classmates couldn't come. He invited them to the birthday party. A. Most of the classmates he invited to the birthday party couldn't come. B. Most of the classmates he was invited to the birthday party couldn't come. C. Most of the classmates that he invited them to the birthday party couldn't come. D. Most of the classmates which he invited to the birthday party couldn't come.
❖ Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35. In Germany, it's important to be serious in a work situation. They don't mix work and play so you shouldn't make jokes (31) ________ you do in the UK and USA when you first meet people. They work in a very organized way and prefer to do one thing at a time. They don't like· interruptions or (32) ________ changes of schedule. Punctuality is very important so you should arrive on time for appointments. At meeting, it's important to follow the agenda and not interrupt (33) ________ speaker. If you give a presentation, you should focus (34) ________ facts and technical information and the quality of your company's products. You should also prepare well, as they may ask a lot of questions. Colleagues normally use the family names, and title - for example 'Doctor' or 'Professor', so you shouldn't use first names (35) ________ a person asks you to. Question 31:
A. while
B. as if
C. such as 4
D. as
Question 32:
A. sudden
B. suddenly
C. abruptly
D. promptly
Question 33:
A. other
B. others
C. another
D. the other
Question 34:
A. on
B. to
C. at
D. in
Question 35:
A. if only
B. as
C. unless
D. since
❖ Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. For many people who live in cities, parks are an important part of the landscape. They provide a place for people to relax and play sports, as well as a refuge from the often harsh environment of a city. What people often overlook is that parks also provide considerable environmental benefits. One benefit of parks is that plants absorb carbon dioxide—a key pollutant—and emit oxygen, which humans need to breathe. According to one study, an acre of trees can absorb the same amount of carbon dioxide that a typical car emits in 11,000 miles of driving. Parks also make cities cooler. Scientists have long noted what is called the Urban Heat Island Effect: building materials such as metal, concrete, and asphalt absorb much more of the sun’s heat and release it much more quickly than organic surfaces like trees and grass. Because city landscapes contain so much of these building materials, cities are usually warmer than surrounding rural areas. Parks and other green spaces help to mitigate the Urban Heat Island Effect. Unfortunately, many cities cannot easily create more parks because most land is already being used for buildings, roads, parking lots, and other essential parts of the urban environment. However, cities could benefit from many of the positive effects of parks by encouraging citizens to create another type of green space: rooftop gardens. While most people would not think of starting a garden on their roof, human beings have been planting gardens on rooftops for thousands of years. Some rooftop gardens are very complex and require complicated engineering, but others are simple container gardens that anyone can create with the investment of a few hundred dollars and a few hours of work. Rooftop gardens provide many of the same benefits as other urban park and garden spaces, but without taking up the much-needed land. Like parks, rooftop gardens help to replace carbon dioxide in the air with nourishing oxygen. They also help to lessen the Urban Heat Island Effect, which can save people money. In the summer, rooftop gardens prevent buildings from absorbing heat from the sun, which can significantly reduce cooling bills. In 5
the winter, gardens help hold in the heat that materials like brick and concrete radiate so quickly, leading to savings on heating bills. Rooftop vegetable and herb gardens can also provide fresh food for city dwellers, saving them money and making their diets healthier. Rooftop gardens are not only something everyone can enjoy, they are also a smart environmental investment. Question 36: Based on its use in paragraph 2, it can be inferred that mitigate belongs to which of the following word groups? A. exacerbate, aggravate, intensify
B. obliterate, destroy, annihilate
C. allay, alleviate, reduce
D. absorb, intake, consume
Question 37: Using the information in paragraph 2 as a guide, it can be inferred that _______. A. cities with rooftop gardens are cooler than those without rooftop gardens B. some plants are not suitable for growth in rooftop gardens C. most people prefer parks to rooftop gardens D. most people prefer life in the country over life in the city Question 38: Based on the information in paragraph 3, which of the following best describes the main difference between parks and rooftop gardens? A. Parks are expensive to create while rooftop gardens are not. B. Parks are public while rooftop gardens are private. C. Parks absorb heat while rooftop gardens do not. D. Parks require much space while rooftop gardens do not. Question 39: The author claims all of the following to be the benefits of rooftop gardens except _______. A. increased space for private relaxation
B. savings on heating and cooling costs
C. better food for city dwellers
D. improved air quality
Question 40: According to the author, one advantage that rooftop gardens have over parks is that they _______. A. decrease the Urban Heat Island Effect B. replenish the air with nourishing oxygen C. do not require the use of valuable urban land D. are less expensive than traditional park spaces 6
Question 41: The author’s tone in the passage is best described as _______ A. descriptive
B. passionate
C. informative
D. argumentative
Question 42: It can be inferred from the passage that the author would most likely endorse a program that _______. A. permitted the construction of buildings in city park land provided they have rooftop gardens B. extended discounts on plants to customers who use them to create rooftop gardens C. offered free admission to schools willing to take their students on field trips to the city park D. promised vacation getaways to cooler destinations for those trapped in the city at the peak of summer
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. One of the most interesting authors of the twentieth century, J.R.R Tolkien, achieved fame through his highly inventive trilogy, The Lord of the Rings. Born in 1892, Tolkien received his education from Oxford and then served in World War I. After the war, he became a professor of Anglo -Saxon and English language and literature at Oxford University. Although published in 1965, the three books that comprise the Lord of the Rings were written in intervals from 1936 to 1949. This was mainly due to Tolkien's responsibilities as a professor and the outbreak of World War II. By the late 1960s, this fascinating trilogy had become a sociological phenomenon as young people intently studied the mythology and legends created by Tolkien. The trilogy is remarkable not only for its highly developed account of historical fiction but also its success as a modern heroic epic. The main plot describes the struggle between good and evil kingdom as they try to acquire a magic ring that has the power to rule the world. The novels, which are set in a time called Middle Earth, describe a detailed fantasy world. Established before humans populated the Earth, Middle Earth was inhabited by good and evil creatures such as hobbits, elves, monsters, wizards, and some humans. The characters and the setting of Middle Earth were modeled after mythological stories from Greece and Northern Europe. Although readers have scrutinized the texts for inner meaning and have tried to connect the trilogy with Tolkien's real life experiences in England during World War II, he denied the 7
connection. He claims that the story began in his years as an undergraduate student and grew out of his desire to create mythology and legends about elves and their language. Tolkien was a masterful fantasy novelist who used his extensive knowledge of folklore to create a body of work that is still read and enjoyed throughout the world today. Question 43: What can we assume is NOT true about Middle Earth? A. Middle Earth was based on European folktales B. Middle Earth was a fictional world C. The good and evil kingdom fought for the power D. People dominated Middle Earth Question 44: The word "scrutinized" in the fourth paragraph could be replaced by_______. A. examined
B. denied
C. enjoyed
D. criticized
Question 45: What does this paragraph mainly discuss? A. J.R.R Tolkien's work as a professor
B. All of J.R.R Tolkien's fantasy books
C. J.R.R Tolkien and his trilogy
D. The popularity of J.R.R Tolkien
Question 46: According to the passage, when did "the Lord of the Rings" trilogy become popular with young people? A. In the late 1960s
B. After World War II
C. In 1892
D. Between 1936 and 1946
Question 47: When did Tolkien begin to create this trilogy? A. When he was a student
B. During World War I
C. When he was a professor
D. During World War II
Question 48: What does the word "trilogy" in the first paragraph mean? A. A specific type of fantasy novel
B. A long novel
C. A group of three literary books
D. An unrelated group of books
Question 49: What is the setting of Tolkien's trilogy? A. Modern - day Greece
B. England in the 1800's
C. Oxford University
D. Middle Earth
Question 50: The word "fascinating" in the second paragraph could be replaced by _______. A. thrilling
B. extremely interesting C. boring
8
D. terrifying
ฤ รกp รกn 1.B
2.C
3.D
4.C
5.C
6.C
7.D
8.A
9.A
10.C
11.A
12.C
13.C
14.C
15.B
16.B
17.B
18.B
19.A
20.B
21.C
22.D
23.D
24.B
25.A
26.B
27.C
28.A
29.B
30.A
31.D
32.A
33.D
34.A
35.C
36.C
37.A
38.D
39.A
40.C
41.C
42.B
43.D
44.A
45.C
46.A
47.A
48.C
49.D
50.B
ĐỀ SỐ 10
BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC BỘ GIÁO DỤC Môn: Tiếng Anh Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
❖ Choose the option which has the CLOSEST/ OPPOSITE meaning to the underlined. Question 1: Choose the option which has the CLOSEST meaning to the underlined. My wife was so keen on the picture that she paid through her nose for it. A. paid nothing
B. turned a deaf ear
C. was offered
D. paid much more than usual
Question 2: Choose the option which has the OPPOSITE meaning to the underlined. People in Vietnam nod their head to show that they agree with something. A. blink
B. shake
C. wave
D. slump
Question 3: Choose the option which has the CLOSEST meaning to the underlined. My hard-working students expected a good fortune to come in addition to their intelligence. A. thoughtful
B. diligent
C. courteous
D. bright
Question 4: Choose the option which has the OPPOSITE meaning to the underlined. It’s difficult to tell him to give in because he is so big-headed. A. wise
B. modest
C. arrogant
D. generous
❖ Find the underlined words or phrases which is incorrect. Question 5: An increased number of city dwellers has made the obsolete infrastructure worse and required a lot of repairs in these days. A. obsolete infrastructure
B. has made
C. required
D. repairs
Question 6: The elderly are concerning about the city’s hygienic conditions, natural resource, and elite class. A. natural resource
B. about
C. hygienic conditions D. elite
Question 7: In conclusion, plenty of money should, to sum up, be invested to repair the kilometer-long tube in near future. A. plenty of
B. near future
C. kilometer-long
D. to sum up
❖Rewriting the sentences in another way so that they have the same meaning as the given above. Question 8: It is not until the sun is shining brightly that the little girl woke up. 1
A. No sooner is the sun shining brightly than the little girl woke up. B. Not until the little girl woke up is the sun shining brightly. C. Not until the sun is shining brightly did the little girl wake up. D. As soon as the little girl woke up, the sun hasn’t shone brightly yet. Question 9: "What language do you find the most difficult to learn of all?" Nhung asked Ha. A. Nhung asked Ha what language Ha found the most difficult to learn of all. B. Nhung wanted to know what language they founded the most difficult to learn of all. C. Nhung asked Ha what language did you find the most difficult to learn of all. D. Nhung asked Ha what language you found the most difficult to learn of all. Question 10: They reported that the teachers expected more. A. The teachers were reported to have been expected of more. B. The teachers were expected more. C. The teachers were reported to have expected more. D. The teachers were reported to expect more.
❖ Choose the words with the different pronunciation or stress Question 11: Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others. A. designed
B. factor
C. recent
D. distant
Question 12: Choose the word whose underlined letter(s) is/ are pronounced differently from the others. A. performed
B. impaired
C. designed
D. produced
Question 13: Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others. A. injection
B. diminish
C. successful
D. benefit
Question 14: Choose the word whose underlined letter(s) is/ are pronounced differently from the others. A. destroys
B. cells
C. affects
D. stipends
❖ Complete the sentences with the given options. Question 15: John proposed_________Mary on a fine day at the crowded beach in their hometown. A. that they married
B. getting married
C. to have married
D. to marry
Question 16: He said he hadn’t finished his letter yet_________. A. by now
B. until then
C. until now 2
D. so far
Question 17: The judge gave _________ A. him the special prize with good comments B. him to the special prize with good comments C. the special prize with good comments him D. him for the special prize with good comments Question 18: Her mother’s dream _________a family doctor will be fulfilled in six years. A. by
B. with
C. of
D. at
Question 19: They_________their service up to now. A. didn’t do
B. haven’t done
C. don’t do
D. aren’t doing
Question 20: Body language is a potent form of _________communication. A. verbal
B. oral
C. non-verbal
D. tongue
Question 21: _________eighty percent of the students in our school are eager to work with foreign teachers, aren’t they? A. Most
B. Most of
C. Almost
D. Mostly
Question 21: _________we work with her, we get confused because of her fast speaking pace. A. So that
B. Although
C. Whenever
D. Lest
Question 23: The local people insisted that the road_________50 cm more so that, in case of flood, they still can travel on it. A. should be raised
B. should raise
C. could be raised
D. could rise
Question 24: John asked me_________in English. A. what that word means
B. what did this word mean
C. what does this word mean
D. what that word meant
Question 25: According to Do Tan Long, an official of the Steering Center of Urban Flood Control Program in Ho Chi Minh City, the rain could be "the most extreme downpour" since _________ beginning of the rainy season. A. the
B. an
C. ø
D. a
Question 26: Hoa is asking Hai, who is sitting at a corner of the room, seeming too shy. - Hoa: Why aren’t you taking part in our activities? - Hai: Yes. I can. Certainly." A. Could you please show me how to get to the nearest post office? B. Shall I take your hat off? C. Can I help you? D. Can you help me with these decorations 3
Question 27: Children who are isolated and lonely seem to have poor language and _________ A. communication
B. communicate
C. communicative
D. communicator
Question 28: _________the bad weather, their plan still go ahead. A. In terms of
B. Regarded as
C. In spite of
D. Because of
Question 29: What do we call that _________animal? - We call it an elephant. A. long nose
B. long-nosed
C. nose long
D. nose length
Question 30: Long is looking at Linh’s mark 10 in her paper and said to her. Long: - _________
- Linh: - Thank you. That’s a nice compliment."
A. What a mark 10!
B. You are so skilful!
C. If only I had such a good mark
D. No matter how good the mark is!
Read the following passage and choose A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Tyler Perry Perry had a rough childhood. He was physically and sexually abused growing up, got kicked out of high school, and tried to commit suicide (31) _________once as a preteen and again at 22. At 23 he move to Atlanta and took (32) _________ odd jobs as he started working on his stage career. In 1992 he wrote, produced, and starred in his first theater (33) _________, I Know I’ve Been Changed, somewhat informed by his difficult upbringing. Perry put all his savings into the show and it failed miserably; the run lasted just one weekend and only 30 people came to watch. He kept up with the production, working more odd jobs and often slept in his car to get by. Six years later, Perry finally (34) _________ through when, on its seventh run, the show became a success. He’s since gone on to have an extremely successful career (15) _________ a director, writer, and actor. In fact, Perry was named Forbes’ highest paid man in the field. Question 31: Question 32: Question 33: Question 34: Question 35:
A. twice A. up A. producer A. went A. same
B. two B. off B. productivity B. broke B. as
C. second C. in C. production C. got C. like
D. double D. to D. productive D. put D. as soon as
Read the text and answer the questions given by choosing one numbered options. A number of factors related to the voice reveal the personality of the speaker. The first is the broad area of communication, which includes imparting information by use of language, communicating with a group or an individual and specialized communication 4
through performance. A person conveys thoughts and ideas through choice of words, by a tone of voice that is pleasant or unpleasant, gentle or harsh, by the rhythm that is inherent within the language itself, and by speech rhythms that are flowing and regular or uneven and hesitant, and finally, by the pitch and melody of the utterance. When speaking before a group, a person’s tone may indicate uncertainty or fright, confidence or calm. At interpersonal levels, the tone may reflect ideas and feelings over and above the words chosen, or may believe them. Here, the participant’s tone can consciously or unconsciously reflect intuitive sympathy or antipathy, lack of concern or interest, fatigue, anxiety, enthusiasm or excitement, all of which are usually discernible by the acute listener. Public performance is a manner of communication that is highly specialized with its own techniques for obtaining effects by voice and /or gesture. The motivation derived from the text, and in the case of singing, the music, in combination with the performer’s skills, personality, and ability to create empathy will determine the success of artistic, political, or pedagogic communication. Second, the voice gives psychological clues to a person’s self-image, perception of others, and emotional health. Self-image can be indicated by a tone of voice that is confident, pretentious, shy, aggressive, outgoing, or exuberant, to name only a few personality traits. Also the sound may give a clue to the facade or mask of that person, for example, a shy person hiding behind an overconfident front. How a speaker perceives the listener’s receptiveness, interest, or sympathy in any given conversation can drastically alter the tone of presentation, by encouraging or discouraging the speaker. Emotional health is evidenced in the voice by free and melodic sounds of the happy, by constricted and harsh sound of the angry, and by dull and lethargic qualities of the depressed. Question 36: The word "Here" in line 9 refers to ___________. A. interpersonal interaction
B. the tone
C. ideas and feelings
D. words chosen
Question 37: What does the passage mainly discuss? A. The production of speech.
B. The function of the voice in performance.
C. Communication styles.
D. The connection between voice and personality.
Question 38: The word "evidenced" in line 22 is closest in meaning to ___________. A. questioned
B. repeated
C. indicated
D. exaggerated
Question 39: Why does the author mention "artistic, political, or pedagogic communication" in line 14-15? 5
A. To introduce the idea of self-image B. As examples of public performance C. As examples of basic styles of communication D. To contrast them to singing Question 40: The word "derived" in line 13 is closest in meaning to___________. A. prepared
B. registered
C. discussed
D. obtained
Question 41: According to the passage, an overconfident front may hide ___________. A. hostility
B. shyness
C. friendliness
D. strength
Question 42: What does the author mean by staring that, "At interpersonal levels, tone may reflect ideas and feelings over and above the words chosen" in lines 8- 9? A. A high tone of voice reflects an emotional communication. B. Feelings are expressed with different words than ideas are C. The tone of voice can carry information beyond the meaning of words. D. Feelings are more difficult to express than ideas. Question 43: According to the passage, what does a constricted and harsh voice indicate? A. Lethargy
B. Depression
C. Boredom
D. Anger
Question 44: According to the passage, an exuberant tone of voice may be an indication of a person’s ______ A. general physical health
B. personality
C. ability to communicate
D. vocal quality
Question 45: The word "drastically" in line 21 is closest in meaning to ___________. A. severely
B. easily
C. exactly
D. frequently
Read the text and answer the questions given by choosing one numbered options. If you want to give someone the nod in Bulgaria, you have to nod your head to say ‘no’ and shake it to say "yes" – the exact opposite of what we do! In Belgium, pointing with your index finger or snapping your fingers at someone is very rude. In France, you shouldn’t rest your feet on tables or chairs. Speaking to someone with your hands in your pockets will only make matters worse. In the Middle East, you should never show the soles of your feet or shoes to others as it will be seen as a grave insult. When eating, only use your right hand because they use their left hands when going to the bathroom. In Bangladesh, the ‘thumbs-up’ is a rude sign. In Myanmar, people greet each other by clapping, and in India, whistling in public is considered rude. 6
In Japan, you should not blow your nose in public, but you can burp at the end of a meal to show that you have enjoyed it. The ‘OK’ sign (thumb and index finger forming a circle) means "everything is good" in the West, but in China it means nothing or zero. In Japan, it means money, and in the Middle East, it is a rude gesture. Burp: ợ hơi Question 46: In the Middle East, people do not use their left hands for eating because they use their left hands ___________. A. to put in their pockets
B. when going to the bathroom
C. when preparing the meal
D. to clean their tables and chairs
Question 47: It is mentioned in the passage that many gestures ___________. A. are not used to communicate our feeling B. can be used to greet each other in public C. are used in greeting among men and women D. may mean different things in different countries Question 48: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage? A. In Belgium, snapping your fingers at someone is very rude. B. In France, people shouldn’t rest their feet on tables. C. In Myanmar, people greet each other by clapping D. In China, the ‘OK’ sign means money Question 49: The word "others" in paragraph 3 refers to ___________. A. other people
B. other shoes
C. other soles
D. other feet
Question 50: People nod their head to say no in ___________. A. Belgium
B. France
C. Japan
7
D. Bulgaria
ฤ รกp รกn 1.D
2. B
3. B
4. B
5. B
6. A
7. D
8. C
9. A
10. D
11. A
12. D
13. D
14. C
15. D
16. B
17. A
18. C
19. A
20. C
21. C
22. C
23. A
24. D
25. A
26. D
27. A
28. C
29. B
30. C
31. A
32. A
33. C
34. B
35. B
36. A
37. D
38. C
39. C
40. D
41. B
42. C
43. D
44. B
45. A
46. B
47. D
48. D
49. A
50. D
ĐỀ SỐ 11
BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC BỘ GIÁO DỤC Môn: Tiếng Anh Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1:
A. laughed
B. sacrificed
C. cooked
D. explained
Question 2:
A. airports
B. ways
C. questions
D. pictures
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3:
A. verbal
B. signal
C. common
D. attract
Question 4:
A. historian
B. certificate
C. academic
D. curriculum
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 5: Because the highway system was built 40 years ago , most of the roads now need to repair. A. Because
B. was built
C. most of
D. to repair
Question 6: Pointing in someone is usually considered impolite but it is acceptable when a teacher wants to get someone’s attention in class. A. Pointing in
B. impolite
C. when
D. to get
Question 7: If a student takes a course on Computer Science, it will take him four years doing the course. A. If
B. takes a course
C. take
D. doing
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 8: Many applicants find a job interview__________if they are not well-prepared for it. A. impressive
B. stressful
C. threatening
D. time-consuming
Question 9: He managed to win the race__________hurting his foot before the race. A. in spite of
B. despite of
C. although 1
D. because of
Question 10: Hardly__________when the argument began. A. when he arrived Question
11:
B. he had arrived
Housework
is
less
tiring
C. than he arrived
D. had he arrived
and
to
boring thanks
the invention
of__________devices. A. environment-friendly
B. time-consuming
C. labor-saving
D. pollution-free
Question 12: By the end of the 21st century, scientists__________a cure for the common cold. A. will find
B. will have found
C. will be finding
D. will have been finding
Question 13: Last Sunday was __________that we took a drive in the country. A. so beautiful day
B. such a beautiful day
C. so a beautiful day
D. such beautiful day
Question 14: Widespread forest destruction__________in this particular area. A. must have seen
B. ought to see
C. could have seen
D. can be seen
Question 15: The greater the demand, __________the price. A. the highest
B. the high
C. higher
D. the higher
Question 16: After twenty years collecting stamps, Mike__________interested in them. A. is not longer
B. no longer
C. no longer is
D. is no longer
Question 17: He asked me __________. A. since when I’m waiting
B. how long I have been waiting
C. how long I had been waiting
D. since when I waited
Question 18: __________ten minutes earlier, you would have got a better seat. A. Had you arrived
B. If you arrived
C. Were you arrived
D. If you hadn’t arrived
Question 19: He still hasn’t really__________the death of his mother. A. recovered
B. got over
C. cured
D. treated
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 20: - Charles : “ Do you fancy going to a movie this evening ? ” - Lisa: “ ____________” A. I’m sorry. I don’t know that.
B. Not at all. Go ahead. 2
C. Not so bad. And you ?
D. That would be nice.
Question 21: - John : “ What kind of job would you like ? - Tim : “ __________ “ A. All of them are
B. I heard it was very good
C. Anything to do with computers
D. Anytime after next week
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22: He sounded panic-stricken on the phone. A. terrified
B. troubled
C. happy
D. disappointed
Question 23: Few businesses are flourishing in the present economic climate. A. taking off
B. setting up
C. growing well
D. closing down
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24: Although it’s a long day for us, we feel we are contented with what we do. A. interested
B. dissatisfied
C. excited
D. shocked
Question 25: I can’t stand people who treat animals cruelly. A. gently
B. cleverly
C. reasonably
D. brutally
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 26: It is possible that the fire in the ship was started by a bomb. A. They say that a bomb started the fire in the ship. B. The fire in the ship might have been started by a bomb. C. It shall be said the fire in the ship had been started by a bomb. D. The fire in the ship is known to have been started by a bomb. Question 27: Neil always forgets his wife’s birthday. A. At no time Neil remembers his wife’s birthday. B. Neil never remembers his wife’s birthday. C. Neil sometimes remembers his wife’s birthday. D. Neil remembers his wife’s birthday all the time. Question 28: If you practise harder you will have better results. 3
A. The harder you practise, the best results you will have. B. The more hardly you practise, the better results you will have. C. The hardest you practise, the most results you will have. D. The harder you practise, the better results you will have.
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 29: A waitress served us. She was very impolite and impatient. A. A waitress who served us , was very impolite and impatient. B. A waitress which served us., was very impolite and impatient. C. A waitress who served us was very impolite and impatient. D. A waitress whom served us , was very impolite and impatient. Question 30: She wasn’t wearing a seat-belt. She was injured. A. If she hadn’t been wearing a seat-belt, she wouldn’t have been injured. B. If she had been wearing a seat-belt, she would have been injured. C. If she had been wearing a seat-belt, she wouldn’t be injured. D. If she had been wearing a seat-belt, she wouldn’t have been injured.
❖ Read the following pasage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35. Our classes take place for three hours every morning from Monday to Friday. The (31)_________ class size is twelve and the average is ten. We use modern methods (32)_________ teaching and learning, and the school has a language laboratory, a video camera and recorders. You will only be successful in improving your English; however, if you work hard and practise speaking English as much as you can. You will take a short (33)_________ in English as soon as you arrive. In this way, we can put you in a (34)_________ at the most suitable level. The emphasis is on oral communication practice in a wide (35)_________ of situations at the advanced knowledge. You will learn how to use language correctly and appropriately when you talk to native speakers. In addition, you will develop such study skills as reading efficiently, writing articles and reports, and note-taking from books and lectures. Question 31:
A. maximum
B. minimum
C. small
D. large
Question 32:
A. in
B. of
C. on
D. for
4
Question 33:
A. test
B. exam
C. course
D. lesson
Question 34:
A. form
B. class
C. grade
D. course
Question 35:
A. variety
B. amount
C. number
D. lot
â?– Read the following pasage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet ti indicate the correct answer to each of the questions Over the past 600 years, English has grown from a language of few speakers to become the dominant language of international communication. English as we know it today emerged around 1350, after having incorporated many elements of French that were introduced following the Norman invasion off 1066. Until the 1600s, English was, for the most part, spoken only in England and had not expanded even as far as Wales, Scotland, or Ireland. However, during the course of the next two century, English began to spread around the globe as a result of exploration, trade (including slave trade), colonization, and missionary work. Thus, small enclaves of English, speakers became established and grew in various parts of the world. As these communities proliferated, English gradually became the primary language of international business, banking, and diplomacy. Currently, about 80 percent of the information stored on computer systems worldwide is in English. Two thirds of the world's science writing is in English, and English is the main language of technology, advertising, media, international airport, and air traffic controllers. Today there are more than 700 million English users in the world, and over half of these are non-native speakers, constituting the largest number of non-native users than any other language in the world. Question 36: What is the main topic of the passage? A. The number of non-native users of English. B. The French influence on the English language. C. The expansion of English as an international language. D. The use of English for science and technology. Question 37: In the first paragraph, the word "emerged" is closest in meaning to A. appeared
B. hailed
C. frequented
D. engaged
Question 38: In the first paragraph, the word "elements" is closest in meaning to A. declaration Question
39:
B. features Approximately
when
C. curiosities did
England?____________ . 5
English
begin
D. customs to
be
used
beyond
A. In 1066
B. around 1350
C. before 1600
D. after 1600
Question 40: According to the passage, all of the following contributed to the spread of English around the world except ____________ . A. the slave trade
B. the Norman invasion
C. missionaries
D. colonization
Question 41: In the second paragraph, the word "stored" is closest in meaning to____________ . A. bought
B. saved
C. spent
D. valued
Question 42: According to the passage, approximately how many non-native users of English are there in the world today ? ____________ . A. a quarter million
B. half a million
C. 350 million
D. 700 million
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions Rachel Carson was born in 1907 in Springsdale, Pennsylvania. She studied biology at college and zoology at Johns Hopkins University, where she received her master’s degree in 1933. In 1936, she was hired by the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, where she worked most of her life. Carson’s first book, Under the Sea Wind, was published in 1941. It received excellent reviews, but sales were poor until it was reissued in 1952. In that year she published The Sea Around Us, which provided a fascinating look beneath the ocean’s surface, emphasizing human history as well as geology and marine biology. Her imagery and language had a poetic quality. Carson consulted no less than 1,000 printed sources. She had voluminous correspondence and frequent discussions with experts in the field. However, she always realized the limitations of her nontechnical readers. In 1962, Carson published Silent Spring, a book that sparked considerable controversy. It proved how much harm was done by the uncontrolled, reckless use of insecticides. She detailed how they poison the food supply of animals, kill birds and fish, and contaminate human food. At the time, spokesmen for the chemical industry mounted personal attacks against Carson and issued propaganda to indicate that her findings were flawed. However, her work was proved by a 1963 report of the President’s Science Advisory Committee. 6
(Source: TOEFL Reading) Question 43: The passage mainly discusses Rachel Carson’s work ______________. A. as a researcher
B. at college
C. at the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service
D. as a writer
Question 44: According to the passage, what did Carson primarily study at Johns Hopkins University? A. oceanography
B. zoology
C. literature
D. history
Question 45: When she published her first book, Carson was closest to the age of A. 26
B. 29
C. 34
D. 45
Question 46: It can be inferred from the passage that in 1952, Carson’s book Under the Sea Wind ______________. A. was outdated
B. became more popular than her other books
C. was praised by critics
D. sold many copies
Question 47: Which of the following was NOT mentioned in the passage as a source of information for The Sea Around Us? A. printed matter
B. talks with experts
C. a research expedition
D. letters from scientists
Question 48: The word “reckless” in line 11 is closest in meaning to ______________. A. unnecessary
B. limited
C. continuous
D. irresponsible
Question 49: The word “flawed” in line 14 is closest in meaning to ______________. A. faulty
B. deceptive
C. logical
D. offensive
Question 50: Why does the author of the passage mention the report of the President’s Science Advisory Committee (lines 14-15) ? A. To provide an example of government propaganda. B. To support Carson’s ideas. C. To indicate a growing government concern with the environment. D. To validate the chemical industry’s claims.
7
ฤ รกp รกn 1-D
2-A
3-D
4-C
5-D
6-A
7-D
8-B
9-A
10-D
11-C
12-B
13-B
14-D
15-D
16-D
17-B
18-C
19-A
20-D
21-C
22-A
23-C
24-B
25-A
26-B
27-B
28-D
29-C
30-D
31-A
32-B
33-A
34-B
35-A
36-C
37-A
38-B
39-D
40-B
41-B
42-C
43-D
44-B
45-C
46-D
47-C
48-D
49-A
50-B
ĐỀ SỐ 12
BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC BỘ GIÁO DỤC Môn: Tiếng Anh Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 1. My mother as well as my sisters like going shopping. A. mother B. well C. like D. shopping Question 2. The amounts of oxygen and nitrogen in the air almost always remain stable, but the amount of water vapor vary considerably. A. vary B. almost always C. The amount of D. stable Question 3. Quinine, cinnamon, and other useful substances are all derived of the bark of trees. A. are B. bark of trees C. derived of D. other useful substances
❖ Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 4 to 10. During the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries, almost nothing was written about the contributions of women during the colonial period and the early history of the newly formed United States. Lacking the right to vote and absent from the seats of power, women were not considered an important force in history. Anne Bradstreet wrote some significant poetry in the seventeenth century, Mercy Otis Warren produced the best contemporary history of the American Revolution, and Abigail Adams penned important letters showing she exercised great political influence over her husband, John, the second President of the United States. But little or no notice was taken of these contributions. During these centuries, women remained invisible in history books. Throughout the nineteenth century, this lack of visibility continued, despite the efforts of female authors writing about women. These writers, like most of their male counterparts, were amateur historians. Their writings were celebratory in nature, and they were uncritical in their selection and use of sources. During the nineteenth century, however, certain feminists showed a keen sense of history by keeping records of activities in which women were engaged. National, regional, and local women's organizations compiled accounts of their doings. Personal correspondence, newspaper clippings, and souvenirs were saved and stored. These sources from the core of the two greatest collections of women's history in the United States one at the Elizabeth and Arthur Schlesinger Library at Radcliffe College, and the other the Sophia Smith Collection at Smith College. Such sources have provided valuable materials for later Generations of historians. 1
Despite the gathering of more information about ordinary women during the nineteenth Century, most of the writing about women conformed to the "great women" theory of History, just as much of mainstream American history concentrated on "great men." To demonstrate that women were making significant contributions to American life, female authors singled out women leaders and wrote biographies, or else important women produced their autobiographies. Most of these leaders were involved in public life as reformers, activists working for women's right to vote, or authors, and were not representative at all of the great of ordinary woman. The lives of ordinary people continued, generally, to be untold in the American histories being published. Question 4. In the last paragraph, the author mentions all of the following as possible roles of nineteenth- century "great women" EXCEPT ________. A. reformers B. politicians C. activists for women's rights D. authors nd Question 5. The word "they" in the 2 paragraph refers to ________. A. sources B. efforts C. authors D. counterparts Question 6. In the first paragraph, Bradstreet, Warren, and Adams are mentioned to show that ________. A. even the contributions of outstanding women were ignored B. poetry produced by women was more readily accepted than other writing by women C. only three women were able to get their writing published D. a woman's status was changed by marriage Question 7. The word "representative" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to________. A. satisfied B. typical C. distinctive D. supportive Question 8. In the 2nd paragraph, what weakness in nineteenth-century histories does the author point out? A. The sources of the information they were based on were not necessarily accurate. B. They were printed on poor-quality paper. C. They left out discussion of the influence of money on politics. D. They put too much emphasis on daily activities. Question 9. What use was made of the nineteenth-century women's history materials in the Schlesinger Library and the Sophia Smith Collection? A. They provided valuable information for twentieth- century historical researchers. B. They formed the basis of college courses in the nineteenth century. C. They were shared among women's colleges throughout the United States. D. They were combined and published in a multi volume encyclopedia. Question 10. What does the passage mainly discuss? A. The place of American women in written histories 2
B. The "great women" approach to history used by American historians C. The keen sense of history shown by American women D. The role of literature in early American histories
â?– Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 11. I would rather you wore something more formal to work. A. I'd prefer you wearing something more formal to work. B. I'd prefer you to wear something more formal to work. C. I'd prefer you should wear something more formal to work. D. I'd prefer you wear something more formal to work. Question 12. Had we left any later, we would have missed the train. A. We didn't miss the train because it left late. B. We left too late to catch the train. C. Because the train was late, we missed it. D. We almost missed the train. Question 13. "Why can't you do your work more carefully? " said Henry's boss. A. Henry's boss criticized him for doing his job carelessly. B. Henry's boss asked him not to do his job with care. C. Henry's boss suggested doing the job more carefully. D. Henry's boss warned him to do the job carefully.
â?– Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 18: A. lives B. plays C. works D. buys Question 19:
A. picked
B. worked
C. naked
D. booked
â?– Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 16. He felt tired. However, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain. A. Tired as he might feel, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain B. He felt so tired that he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain. C. Feeling very tired, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain. D. As a result of his tiredness, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain. Question 17. The agreement ended six-month negotiation. It was signed yesterday. A. The agreement which ends six-month negotiation was signed yesterday. B. The negotiation which lasted six months was signed yesterday. C. The agreement which was signed yesterday lasted six months. 3
D. The agreement which was signed yesterday ended six-month negotiation.
â?– Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 18: A. cosmetics B. fertility C. experience D. economics Question 19:
A. informality
B. appropriate
C. situation
D. entertainment
� Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 20 to 27. It is commonly believed that school is where people go to get an education. Nevertheless, it has been said that today children interrupt their education to go to school. The difference between schooling and education implied by this remark is important. Education is much more open-ended and all-inclusive than schooling. Education knows no limits. It can take place anywhere, whether in the shower or on the job, whether in the kitchen or on a tractor. It includes both the formal learning that takes place in school and the whole universe of informal learning. The agent (doer) of education can vary from respected grandparents to the people arguing about politics on the radio, from a child to a famous scientist. Whereas schooling has a certain predictability, education quite often produces surprises. A chance conversation with a stranger may lead a person to discover how little is known of other religions. People receive education from infancy on. Education, then, is a very broad, inclusive term; it is a lifelong process, a process that starts long before the start of school, and one that should be a necessary part of one’s entire life. Schooling, on the other hand, is a specific, formalized process, whose general pattern varies little from one setting to the next. Throughout a country, children arrive at school at about the same time, take the assigned seats, are taught by an adult, use similar textbooks, do homework, take exams, and so on. The pieces of reality that are to be learned, whether they are the alphabet or an understanding of the workings of governments, have been limited by the subjects being taught. For example, high school students know that they are not likely to find out in their classes the truth about political problems in their society or what the newest filmmakers are experimenting with. There are clear and undoubted conditions surrounding the formalized process of schooling. Question 20. In the passage, the expression "children interrupt their education to go to school" mostly implies that________. A. schooling prevents people discovering things B. schooling takes place everywhere C. all of life is an education D. education is totally ruined by schooling Question 21. What does the writer mean by saying ''education quite often produces surprises"? 4
A. Educators often produce surprises. B. Informal learning often brings about unexpected results. C. Success of informal learning is predictable. D. It's surprising that we know little about other religions. Question 22. Which of the following would the writer support? A. Without formal education, people won't be able to read and write. B. Going to school is only part of how people become educated. C. Schooling is of no use because students do similar things everyday. D. Our education system needs to be changed as soon as possible. Question 23. According to the passage, the doers of education are ________. A. only respected grandparents B. mostly famous scientists C. mainly politicians D. almost all people Question 24. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage? A. Education and schooling are quite different experience. B. The more years students go to school, the better their educationis. C. Students benefit from schools, which require long hours and homework. D. The best schools teach a variety of subjects. Question 25. The word "they" in the last paragraph refers to ________. A. workings of governments B. newest film makers C. political problems D. high school students Question 26. The word "all-inclusive" in the passage mostly means ________. A. including everything or everyone B. going in many directions C. involving many school subjects D. allowing no exceptions Question 27. This passage is mainly aimed at ________. A. telling the difference between the meanings of two related words "schooling" and "education" B. telling a story about excellent teachers C. listing and discussing several educational problems D. giving examples of different schools Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 28. When I mentioned the party, he was all ears. A. using both ears B. listening neglectfully C. listening attentively D. partially deaf Question 29. John wants to buy a new car, so he starts setting aside a small part of his monthly earnings. A. spending on B. putting out C. using up D. saving up
â?– Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to 5
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 30 to 34. HOW TO AVOID MISCOMMUNICATION IN THE WORKPLACE As a small-business owner, you can avoid many problems simply by improving communication in your office. By clarifying everyone’s expectations and roles, you'll help to (30) ________ greater trust and increased productivity among employees. Here are a few tips for doing so. Practice active listening. The art of active listening includes (31) ________ close attention to what another person is saying, then paraphrasing what you've heard and repeating it back. Concentrate (32) ________ the conversation at hand and avoid unwanted interruptions (cellphone calls, others walking into your office, etc.). Take note of how your own experience and values may color your perception. Pay attention to non-verbal cues. We don't communicate with words alone. Every conversation comes with a host of non-verbal cues - facial expressions, body language, etc. that may (33) ________ contradict what we’re saying. Before addressing a staff member or (34)________ a project conference, think carefully about your tone of voice, how you make eye contact, and what your body is "saying." Be consistent throughout. Be clear and to the point. Don't cloud instructions or requests with irrelevant details, such as problems with past projects or issues with long-departed personnel. State what you need and what you expect. Ask, "Does anyone have any questions?" Demonstrate that you prefer questions up-front as opposed to misinterpretation later on. Question 31: A. set up B. establish C. create D. build Question 32:
A. showing
B. paying
C. using
D. spending
Question 33:
A. for
B. to
C. on
D. in
Question 34:
A. intentional
B. unintentional
C. intentionally
D. unintentionally
Question 35:
A. to lead
B. being led
C. leading
D. lead
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 35. He was offered the job thanks to his ________ performance during his job interview. A. impressive B. impressively C. compression D. impress Question 36. Someone who is ________ is hopeful about the future or the success of something in particular. A. pessimist B. optimistic C. optimist D. pessimistic Question 37. The preparations ________ by the time the guests ________ . A. have finished/arrived B. have been finished /arrived C. had been finished/ arrived D. had finished /arrived Question 38. Asian ________, Mr. Pike is very worried about the increasing of teenager crimes. 6
A. educational B. education C. educator D. educate Question 39. ________ turned out to be true. A. Everything she had told us which B. Everything where she had told us C. Everything she had told us D. That everything she told us Question 40. You'd better get someone ________ your living room. A. redecorated B. to redecorate C. redecorating. D. redecorate Question 41. Can you take ________ of the shop while Mr. Green is away? A. operation B. charge C. management D. running Question 42. They held a party to congratulate their son ________ his success to become an engineer. A. in B. on C. with D. for Question 43. They always kept on good ________ with their next-door neighbors for the children's sake. A. terms B. relations C. will D. relationship Question 44. They had invited over one hundred guests, ________. A. not any of whom I knew B. I did not know any of whom C. I knew none of who D. none of whom I knew Question 45. Please ________ and see us when you have time. You are always welcome. A. come away B. come to C. come in D. come round Question 46. Not only ________ to determine the depth of the ocean floor, but it is also used to locate oil. A. seismology is used B. is seismology used C. using seismology D. to use seismology
â?– Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 47. "What a great haircut, Lucy!"________-"________" A. It's my pleasure. B. Oh, yes. That's right. C. Thanks. It's very kind of you to do this D. Thank you. That's a nice compliment. Question 48. "A motorbike knocked Ted down". -"________" A. How terrific! B. Poor him! C. What is it now? D. What a motorbike! â?– Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 49. A trial must be fair and impartial. A. apprehensive B. hostile C. biased D. unprejudiced Question 50. After her husband's tragic accident, she took up his position at the university. A. incredible B. boring C. mysterious D. comic 7
ฤ รกp รกn 1-C
2-A
3-C
4-B
5-C
6-A
7-B
8-A
9-A
10-A
11-B
12-D
13-A
14-C
15-C
16-A
17-D
18-D
19-B
20-C
21-B
22-B
23-D
24-A
25-D
26-A
27-A
28-C
29-D
30-D
31-B
32-C
33-D
34-C
35-A
36-B
37-C
38-C
39-C
40-B
41-B
42-B
43-A
44-D
45-D
46-B
47-D
48-B
49-C
50-D
ĐỀ SỐ 13
BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC BỘ GIÁO DỤC Môn: Tiếng Anh Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1:
A. motorbikes
B. determines
C. involves
D. cultures
Question 2:
A. contain
B. feature
C. picture
D. culture
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3:
A. overwhelming
B. intellectual
C. incredible
D. optimistic
Question 4:
A. academic
B. inorganic
C. understanding
D. uncertainty
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 5: Buying clothes are often a very time-consuming practice because those clothes that a person likes are rarely the ones that fit him or her. A. are
B. a very time-consuming
C. because those
D. are rarely the ones
Question 6: The British national anthem, calling “ God Save the Queen”, was a traditional song in the 18th century. A. national anthem
B. calling
C. was
D. traditional song
Question 7: Maryland, even though a southern state, remained loyalty to The Union during the Civil War. A. even though
B. remained
C. loyalty
D. during
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 8: Since the flood the number of homeless people ________dramatically. A. are increasing
B. had increased
C. increase
D. has increased
Question 9: While everybody else in our class prefers working in groups, Mina likes working__________. A. on herself
B. on her own
C. of her own 1
D. in herself
Question 10: ________, the young mother appeared visibly very happy after the birth of her child. A. Tired as she was
B. She was tired
C. As tired
D. Despite tired
Question 11: Could you please tell me________? A. where does my uncle's room
B. where is my uncle’s room
C. where my uncle’s room is
D. where my uncle's room
Question 12: Gordon wants to look his best at the wedding so he’s ________ A. make a suit
B. having a suit made
C. to get made a suit
D. having made a suit
Question 13: This book provides students ________ useful tips that help them to pass the coming exam. A. at
B. about
C. for
D. with
Question 14: Most ________ understand that disciplinary actions do not always work with students. A. educate
B. educating
C. education
D. educators
Question 15: She________me a very charming compliment on my painting. A. showed
B. paid
C. made
D. took
Question 16: ________the rise in unemployment, people still seem to be spending more. A. Despite
B. Although
C. Because
D. Because of
Question 17: He did not share his secrets with other people but he ________in her. A. confessed
B. concealed
C. confided
D. consented
Question 18: I can’t ________this noise any longer. I’m going to write a letter of complaint to the local authority about this problem. A. put up with
B. take away from
C. get back to
D. make out of
Question 19: The new manager laid down very strict rules as soon as he had ________the position. A. taken over
B. come over
C. taken up
D. taken off
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 20: - Marie: “ what a lovely house you have !” - Phil : “ A. No problem.
B. Thank you. Hope you will drop in.
C. I think so.
D. Of course not, it’s not costly. 2
Question 21: - Duong : “ My first English test was not as good as I expected.” - Thomas “ __________” A. Good Heavens !
B. That’s brilliant enough !
C. It’s okay, don’t worry
D. Never mind, better job next time !
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22: The air is naturally contaminated by foreign matter such as plant pollens and dust. A. polluted
B. occupied
C. filled
D. concentrated
Question 23: Over a long time, customs can erode. They are gradually replaced by newer customs. A. grow stronger
B. grow weaker
C. develop rapidly
D. disappear completely
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24: “ Please speak up a bit more, Jason. You’re hardly loud enough to be heard from the back”, the teacher said. A. visible
B. edible
C. eligible
D. inaudible
Question 25: The funny story told by the man amused all the children. A. pleased
B. entertained
C. saddened
D. frightened
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 26: The gate was closed to stop the children running into the road. A. The gate was closed so the children can’t run into the road. B. The gate is closed so that the children don’t run into the road. C. The gate was closed so that the children couldn’t run into the road. D. The gate is closed so that the children couldn’t to run into the road. Question 27: If it hadn’t been for the wind, the fire would never have spread so fast A. Even without the wind, the fire would have spread just as fast. B. It was the wind that caused the fire to spread at such a speed. 3
C. Had there been a wind, the wind would have spread even faster. D. The force of the wind affected the way the fire spread. Question 28: “ Don’t forget to hand in the report, Pete !” said Kate. A. Kate reminded Pete of handing in the report. B. Kate said that Pete Had forgotten to hand in the report. C. Kate forgot to hand in the report to Pete. D. Kate reminded Pete to hand in the report.
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 29: Anne jogs every morning. It is very good for her health. A. Anne jogs every morning and is very good for her health. B. Anne jogs every morning, which is very good for her health. C. Anne jogs every morning and then it is very good for her health. D. Anne jogs every morning that it is very good for her health. Question 30: The student was very bright. He could solve all the math problems. A. He was such bright student that he could solve all the math problems. B. The student was very bright that he could solve all the math problems. C. He was so bright a student that he could solve all the math problems. D. Such bright was the student that he could solve all the math problems.
❖ Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35. The warming of the Pacific Ocean has created weather pattern (31)_______ strongly affect the world. When the water is warm, the amount of rainfall in Indonesia and the surrounding regions decreases. Australia could (32)_______ experience a drought in many parts. On the other hand, Chile (which borders the Pacific Ocean) is preparing for severe rainstorms. In Pakistan and northwestern India, the weather pattern makes the rainy season weaker and makes the area much drier. This happening is called El Nino and is used (33)_______ weather forecasters to make long-range weather predictions. They also know that El Nino will bring unusually rain to the southwestern part of the United States and make the central part of the country drier at the same time. 4
According to research, weather forecasters (34)_______ know about the coming weather with certainty. Now everything has become completely different. El Nino itself used to be predictable. It would occur every two to seven years. But now this weather pattern is becoming more frequent. We cannot say when and how often tornadoes or cyclones occur. Scientists are unsure of the reason for this (35)_______ on the global scale either. Question 31:
A. what
B. when
C. that
D. whether
Question 32:
A. even
B. ever
C. nevertheless
D. however
Question 33:
A. on
B. by
C. to
D. at
Question 34:
A. used to
B. get used to
C. are used to
D. used to be
Question 35:
A. change
B. transfer
C. transformation D. shift
â?– Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42. Horace Pippin, as an African-American soldier during World War I, was wounded in his right arm. He discovered, however, that by keeping his right wrist steady with his left hand, he could paint and draw. Pippin was not trained, but his artistic sensitivity and intuitive feel for two-dimensional design and the arrangement of colour and patterns made him one of the finest Primitive artists America has produced. Pippin did a series of paintings on the abolitionist John Brown and one on his war experiences, but he shied away from social issues for the most part and achieved his greatest success with scenes of the people and places of his hometown of West Chester, Pennsylvania. His Domino Players, featuring four women gathered around a wooden table in a simple kitchen setting, is an excellent example of his rural domestic scenes.
Question 36: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true about primitive art? A. It’s two-dimensional
B. Colours and patterns are important
C. Artists do not have to be trained for it
D. It is used mainly for painting portraits
Question 37: Horace Pippin discovered he could paint and draw A. during Word War I B. when he completed his training C. when someone reminded him of his artistic sensitivity D. by holding his right wrist steady with his left hand 5
Question 38: Where in the passage is the name of Pippin’s hometown mentioned? A. Line 6
B. line 10
C. Line 4
D. line 11
Question 39: It may be inferred from the passage that Pippin A. had a simple a simple upbringing B. was obsessed with the subject of abolition C. was destroyed by his war experiences D. wanted nothing to do with his past Question 40: The word “arrangement” in line 5 could best be replaced by which of the following? A. purpose
B. feature
C. mixture
D. production
Question 41: With which of the following statements would the author agree? A. Horace Pippin was a poorly trained ordinary artist B. Primitive art is an excuse for lack of training and latent C. Horace Pippin made an important contribution to American art D. Horace Pippin placed too much emphasis on social issues in his work. Question 42: The passage would most likely be required reading in which course? A. Biology
B. Drama
C. Literature
D. Art History
❖ Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions It is hard to think of a world without gas or electricity. Both are commonly used for lighting and heating today. We now can instantly flick a lighter or strike a match to make a flame. But it was not long ago that there were no such things as matches or lighters. To make fire, it was necessary to strike a piece of iron on flint for sparks to ignite some tinder. If the tinder was damp, or the flint old, you had to borrow some fire from a neighbor. We do not know exactly when or how people first used fire. Perhaps, many ages ago, they found that sticks would burn if they were dropped into some hole where melted lava from a volcano lay boiling. They brought the lighted sticks back to make their fire in a cave. Or, they may have seen trees catch fire through being struck by lightning, and used the trees to start their own fires. Gradually people learned they could start a fire without traveling far to find flames. They rubbed two pieces of wood together. This method was used for thousands of years.
6
When people became used to making fires with which to cook food and stay warm at night, they found that certain resins or gums from trees burnt longer and brighter. They melted resins and dipped branches in the liquid to make torches that lit their homes at night. Iron stands in which torches used to be fixed can still be seen in old buildings of Europe. There was no lighting in city streets until gas lamps, and then electric lamps were installed. Boys ran about London at night carrying torches of burning material. They were called torch boys, or link boys, and earned a living by guiding visitors to friends’ houses at night. For centuries homes were lit by candles until oil was found. Even then, oil lamps were no more effective than a cluster of candles. We read about the splendors and marvels of ancient palaces and castles, but we forget that they must have been gloomy and murky places at night. Question 43: What does “they” refer to? A. people
B. ages
C. sticks
D. trees
Question 44: According to the passage the first fire used by people was probably obtained ______. A. from the sun’s heat through glass
B. by rubbing wood together
C. from heat or fire caused by nature
D. by striking iron against flint
Question 45: It is stated in the passage that torches for lighting were made from ______. A. the wood of gum trees
B. iron bars dipped in melted resins
C. wooden poles dipped in oil
D. tree branches dipped in melted resins
Question 46: It is mentioned in the passage that before the electric lamp was invented A. oil lamps and then candles were used B. candles and oil lamps appeared about the same time C. candles and then oil lamps were used D. people did not use any form of lighting in their houses Question 47: The word “splendors” in the passage could be best replaced by which of the following? A. expensive objects
B. places of scenic beauty
C. achievements
D. the beautiful and impressive features
Question 48: According to the passage, which of the following sentence is NOT true? A. We know exactly when and how people first used fire. B. Before gas lamps and electric lamps appeared, streets were lit by torches. 7
C. We can make a fire by striking a piece of iron on flint to ignite some tinder. D. Matches and lighters were invented not long ago. Question 49: The word “gloomy” in the passage is closest in meaning to A. nearly dark
B. badly decorated
C. containing a lot of white
D. mysterious
Question 50: What form of street lighting was used in London when link boys used to work there? A. Gas lighting
B. No lighting at all.
C. Electric lighting.
D. Oil lighting.
Đáp án 1-A
2-A
3-C
4-D
5-A
6-B
7-C
8-D
9-B
10-A
11-C
12-B
13-D
14-D
15-B
16-A
17-C
18-A
19-A
20-B
21-D
22-A
23-D
24-D
25-C
26-C
27-B
28-D
29-B
30-C
31-C
32-A
33-B
34-A
35-A
36-D
37-D
38-B
39-A
40-C
41-C
42-C
43-C
44-C
45-D
46-C
47-D
48-A
49-A
50-B
ĐỀ SỐ 14
BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC BỘ GIÁO DỤC Môn: Tiếng Anh Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
❖ Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 1 to 7. One of the highest honors for formalists, writers, and musical composers is the Pulitzer Prize. First awarded in 1927, the Pulitzer Prize has been won by Ernest Hemingway, Harper Lee, John F. Kennedy, and Rodgers and Hammerstein, among others. As with many famous awards, this prize was named after its founder, Joseph Pulitzer. Joseph Pulitzer’s story, like that of many immigrants to the United States, is one of hardship, hard work and triumph. Born in Hungary, Joseph Pulitzer moved to United States in 1864. He wanted to be a reporter, but he started his American life by fighting in the American Civil War. After the war, Pulitzer worked for the German - language newspaper, the Westliche Post. His skills as a reporter were wonderful, and he soon became a partial owner of the paper. In 1978, Pulitzer was able to start a newspaper of his own. Right from the first edition, the newspaper took a controversial approach to new. Pulitzer wanted to appeal to the average reader, so he produced exciting stories of scandal and intrigue. Such an approach is commonplace today, but in Pulitzer’s time it was new and different. The approach led to the discovery of many instances of corruption by influential people. Pulitzer ‘paper became very famous and is still produced today. The success of Joseph Pulitzer’s newspaper made him a very wealthy man, so he wanted to give something back to his profession. Throughout his later years, he worked to establish university programs for the teaching of journalism, and he funded numerous scholarships to assist journalism students. Finally, he wanted to leave a legacy that would encourage writers to remember the importance of quality. On his death, he gave two million dollars to Columbia University so they could award prizes to great writers. The Pulitzer Prize recipients are a very select group. For most, winning a Pulitzer Prize is the highlight of their career. If an author, journalist, or composer you know has won a Pulitzer Prize, you can be sure they are at the top of their profession. Question 1: Why does the writer mention "John F. Kennedy" in line 3? A. He was one of the inventors of the famous awards. B. He was one of the winners of the Pulitzer Prize. 1
C. He was one of the people who selected the Pulitzer winners. D. He was in one of the scandals reported on by Joseph Pulitzer. Question 2: According to the reading passage, why did Joseph Pulitzer invent the Pulitzer Prize? A. to encourage people to remember his name and success B. encourage writers to remember the importance of quality C. to encourage journalism students to achieve their goals D. to encourage work of the Pulitzer winners Question 3: The word “partial" in the passage is closest in meaning to_________. A. in part only
B. brand new
C. one and only
D. very important
Question 4: According the passage, who receives the Pulitzer Prize? A. Columbia University graduates
B. journalism students
C. noted writers and composers
D. most newspaper reporters
Question 5: According to the reading passage, how did Joseph Pulitzer appeal to the average reader? A. He wrote about famous writers of journalism and literature B. He wrote stories about the war C. He produced his own newspaper D. He produced exciting stories of scandal and intrigue Question 6: Which sentence about Joseph Pulitzer is true according to the reading passage? A. He received a scholarship when he was a university student. B. He was rich even when he was young C. He was a reporter during the American Civil War D. He immigrated to the United States from Hungary Question 7: Which sentence about Joseph Pulitzer is NOT true according to the reading passage? A. Joseph Pulitzer was the first writer to the win the prize in 1917. B. The prize is aimed at encouraging a writer’s career. C. Joseph Pulitzer left money to award to the prizewinners. D. Receiving the prize is one of the highest honors for writers.
2
Mask the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction on each of the followwing questions Question 8. United Nations iss aimed at develop friendly relations among nations based on respect for the principle of equal rights ans sefl-determination of peoples A. develop
B. based
C. principle
D. peoples
Question 9. All members shall give the United Nations every assistance in any action it does in accordance with the present Charter. A. shall
B. every
C. it does
D. the
Question 10. Cutural diversity is important because most countries, workplaces, and schools increasingly consist of various culture, racial and ethnic group. A. countries
B. increasingly consist C. various culture
D. ethnic group
â?– Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 11:
A. rhinoceros
B. biologist
C. reserve
D. digest
Question 12:
A. form
B. shortcoming
C. chore
D. sector
â?– Mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions Question 13: The atmosphere at the meeting was very___________ and everyone was on first name terms A. formal
B. informal
C. formality
D. informality
Question 14: Mark enjoys having fun by causing trouble. He's very___________boy. A. strong willed
B. mischievous
C. obedient
D. well behaved
Question 15: Many young people nowadays are prepared to___________getting married to pursue their professional careers. A. satisfy
B. sacrifice
C. prefer
D. confide
Question 16: My boss's plane___________at 10:15 tomorrow morning, but I cannot pick him up. A. arrives
B. is arriving
C. will be arriving
D. arrived
Question 17: Jack asked Jil___________interested in any kinds of sports. A. if she were
B. if were she
C. if was she
D. if she was
Question 18: Whenever problems___________we discuss frankly and find solutions quickly. 3
A. make up
B. come up
C. put up
D. turn up
Question 19: Children should be taught that they have to___________everything after they use it. A. put away
B. pick off
C. collect up
D. catch on
Question 20: Vietnamese parents normally do not let their children make a decision ___________ their own future career. A. in
B. of
C. on
D. for
Question 21: The police have just round the man and his car___________were swept away during the heavy storm last week. A. that
B. which C. whose
D. when
Question 22: ___________the more terrible the terrorism will become. A. The more weapons are powerful
B. The more powerful weapons are
C. The weapons more powerful
D. Weapons are the more powerful
Question 23: We are concerned with the problem of energy resources___________we must also think of our environment. A. despite
B. though
C. however
D. but
Question 24: When finding a new house, parents should___________all the conditions for their children’s education and entertainment. A. take into account
B. make all the conditions
C. get a measure of
D. put into effect
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of following exchanges. Question 25: Two friends Diana and Anne are talking about their upcoming exams. - Diana:” Our midterm exams will start next Tuesday, are you ready?” - Anne:” ___________” A. I’m half ready.
B. God save you.
C. Thank you so much
D. Don’t mention it!
Question 26: Mary is talking to her professor in his office. - Mary:” Can you tell me how to find material for my science report, professor?” - Professor:” ___________” A. I like it that you understand. B. Try your best, Mary. 4
C. You can borrow books from the library. D. You mean the podcasts from other students?
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 27:
A. maximum
B. vacancy
C. terrorist
D. investment
Question 28:
A. vertical
B. contractual
C. domestic
D. outstanding
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word (s) in each of the following questions. Question 29: Language teaching in the United State is base on the idea that the goal of language acquisition is communicative complete. A. not good at socializing.
B. unable to understand
C. excellent in orating in front of others
D. incapable of working with words
Question 30: This is new washing machine is not a patch on our old one. These clothes are still dirty. A. to be expensive
B. to be strange
C. to be broken
D. to be better
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word (s) in each of the following questions Question 31: Today, American English is particularly influential, due to the USA’s dominance of cinema, television, popular music, trade and technology (including the Internet) A. complete mastery
B. overwhelming superiority
C. complete control
D. profound effect
Question 32: Students ‘motivation’ for learning a language increase when they see connection between what they do in classroom and what they hope to do with the language in the future. A. the reason for which someone does something B. the action that someone takes to deal with something C. the eagerness that someone has to do something D. the excitement with which one is filled when doing something.
5
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions Question 33: “What are you going to do with such a long list of books, Dane?” asked Sarah A. Sarah was curious why Dane had such a long list of books. B. Sarah asked Dane what he was going to do with such a long list of books. C. Sarah could not understand why Dane was borrowing such a long list of books. D. Sarah warned Dane not to borrow such a long list of books. Question 34: “Are you going to the cinema with us tonight, Susan?” asks her friends. A. Susan’s friend asked her whether she went to the cinema with them that night B. Susan’s friend asked her if she was going to the cinema with them that night C. Susan’s friend would like to invite her to go to the cinema with them that night D. Susan’s friend would rather her went to the cinema with them that night. Question 35: The Internet has enabled most people to get contact in a matter of moment A. Most of people have been able to get in contact by the Internet in a matter of moments. B. Most of people have got in contact as enable in a matter of moments by the Internet C. On the Internet, most of people are able to get in contact a matter of moments. D. On the Internet, most of people can find their contact a matter of moments
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fist each of the numbered blanks from 36 to 40 Tim Samaras is a storm chaser. His job is to find tornadoes and follow them. When he gets close to a tornado, he puts a special tool (36) ___________a turtle probe on the ground. This tool measures things like a twister’s temperatune, humidity, and wind speed. With this information, Samaras can lean what causes tornadoes to develop. If meteorologists understand this, they can warn people (37) ___________twisters sooner and save lives. How does Samaras hunt tornadoes? It’s not easy. First, he has to find one. Tornadoes are too small to see using weather satellites. So Samaras can’t rely on these tools to find a twister. (38) ___________, he waits for tornadoes to develop. Once Samaras sees a tornado, the chase begins. But a tornado is hard to follow. Some tornadoes change (39) ___________several time – for example, moving east and then west and then east again. When Samaras finally gets near a tornado, het puts the turtle probe on the ground. Being this close to twister is (40) ___________. He must get away quickly. Question 31:
A. called
B. know 6
C. made
D. meant
Question 32:
A. with
B. about
C. at
D. for
Question 33:
A. Rather
B. Still
C. Instead
D. Yet
Question 34:
A. progression
B. movement
C. dimension
D. direction
Question 35:
A. terrifly
B. terrifying
C. terrified
D. terrifies
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following question. Question 41: The teacher has done his best to help all students. However, none of them made any effort on their part A. The teacher has done his best to help all student, then, none of them made any effort on their part B. Although the teacher has done his best to help all students, none of them made any effort on their part C. Because the teacher has done his best to help all students, , none of them made any effort on their part D. If the teacher has done his best to help all students, , none of them made any effort on their part Question 42: “ Finish your work. And then you can go home”. A. “ You can’t go home until you finish your work” B. “ You finish your work to go home as early as you can” C. “ When you go home, finish your work then” D. “ Because you have finished your work, you can go home”.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50 Clara Barton became known as “ The Angel of the Battlefield” during the American Civil War. Born in Oxford, Massachusetts in 1821, Clara Barton’s interest in helping soldiers on the battlefield began when she was told army stories from her father. Another event that influenced her decision to help soldiers was an accident her brother had. His injuries were cared for by Barton for 2 year. At the time, she was only 11 years old. Barton began teaching school at the age of 15. She taught for 18 years before she moved to Washington, D.C in 1854.
7
The civil war broke out 6 years later. Immediately, Barton started war service by helping the soldiers with their needs. At the battle of Bull run, Clara Barton received permission from the government to take care of the sick and hurt. Barton did this with great empathy and kindness. She acknowledged each soldier as a person . her endurance and courage on the battlefield were admired by many. When the war ended in 1865 , she used 4 years of her life to assist the government in searching for soldiers who were missing during the war. The search for missing soldiers and years of hard work made her feeble physically. In 1869, her doctors recommended a trip to Europe for a rest. While she was on vacation , she became involved with the International Red Cross, an organization set up by the Geneva Convention in 1864. Clara Barton realized that the Red Cross would be a best help to the United States. After she returned to the United States, she worked very hard to create an American Red Cross. She talked to government leaders and let American people know about the Red Cross. In 1881, the National Society of the Red Cross was finally established with its headquarters in Washington , D.C. Clara Barton managed its activities for 23 years. Barton never let her age stop her from helping people. At the age of 79, she helped food victims in Galveston, Texas. Barton finally resigned from the Red Cross in 1904. She was 92 years old and had truly earned her title “ The Angel of the Battle�. Question 43: According to the paragraph 1, which of the following is true of the young Barton Clara? A. She helped her father when he was a soldier B. She suffered from an accident when she was 11 C. She helped her brother who hurt in an accident D. She made a decision to live with her brother for 2 years Question 44: The phrase broke out in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning ti A. extended
B. broken down
C. closed
D. began
Question 45: The word this in paragraph 2 refers to A. recognized each soldier as a person
B. cooker for soldiers
C. took care of the sick and hurt
D. received permission
Question 46: The word acknowledged in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by A. nursed
B. recognized
C. pleaded
Question 47: What can be inferred about the government? A. It did not always agree with Clara barton B. It did not have the money to help Clara Barton 8
D. believed
C. It showed Clara Barton great empathy and kindness D. It had respect for Clara Barton Question 48: What does the author mention about the American Red Cross? A. It was disapproved again and again by the Geneva Convention B. Barton tried to have it set up in America C. The American people were not interested in the Red Cross D. It was first established in the Unites States Question 49: What is the main idea of the passage? A. Clara Barton helped wounded soldiers and she was the founder of the Red Cross B. Clara Barton was a kind and strong woman who helped people in need C. Clara Barton becam a nurse during the American Civil War D. Clara Barton worked for disaster victims until she was old Question 50: What can be the best title of the reading passage? A. The angel of the Battlefield
B. The American Red Cross
C. The American Civil War
D. The International Red Cross ฤ รกp รกn
1-B
2-B
3-A
4-C
5-D
6-D
7-A
8-A
9-C
10-C
11-C
12-D
13-B
14-B
15-B
16-A
17-D
18-B
19-A
20-C
21-A
22-C
23-D
24-A
25-A
26-C
27-D
28-A
29-A
30-D
31-B
32-A
33-B
34-B
35-A
36-A
37-B
38-C
39-D
40-B
41-B
42-A
43-C
44-D
45-C
46-B
47-D
48-B
49-B
50-A
ĐỀ SỐ 15
BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC BỘ GIÁO DỤC Môn: Tiếng Anh Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1:
A. formed
B. naked
C. recorded
D. trusted
Question 2:
A. busy
B. answer
C. person
D. basic
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose stress differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1:
A. generation
B. situation
C. education
D. examination
Question 2:
A. approach
B. leftovers
C. supportive
D. biologist
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction. Question 5: The shopkeeper warned the boys don't learn their bicycles against his windows. A. The
B. don't
C. their
D. against
Question 6: The people who they hadn't seen the weather forecast were caught unaware by the hurricane. A. The
B. they
C. were
D. unaware
Question 7: No longer satisfied with the emphasis of the Denishawn school, Martha has moved to the staff of the Eastman school in 1925. A. satisfied
B. emphasis
C. has
D. the staff of
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 8: Ann's encouraging words gave me _________ to undertake the demanding task once again. A. a point
B. an incentive
C. a resolution
D. a target
Question 9: I don’t suppose there is anyone there, _________? A. do I
B. isn't there
C. is there
Question 10: He wanted to know whose car I had borrowed _________ A. the last evening
B. last night 1
D. don't I
C. yesterday evening
D. the previous night
Question 11: Are you taking_________ this semester? A. house economics
B. home economic
C. house economic
D. home economics
Question 12: We should participate in the movements_________ the natural environment. A. organizing to conserve
B. organized to conserve
C. organized conserving
D. which organize to conserve
Question 13: He does not_________ his fellow-workers and there are often disagreements between them. A. get on with
B. put up with
C. go on with
D. take to
Question 14: My mother _________ the responsibility for running the household. A. bears
B. runs
C. holds
D. takes
Question 15: Sarah and I _________ reserved the rooms in the same hotel. She was really surprised to see me there. A. intentionally
B. practically
C. coincidentally
D. deliberately
Question 16: Anna waved to us as a_________ that he saw us. A. signal
B. scene
C. signature
D. scenery
Question 17: Not until Kentucky’s Mammoth Cave had been completely explored in 1972_________ A. when was its full extent realized
B. the realization of its full extent
C. was its full extent realized
D. that its full extent was realized
Question 18: Knocking on closed doors before entering can be a great way for children to practice _________ behaviors. A. respecting
B. respectful
C. respected
D. respective
Question 19: My sister and her husband _________ over to my house for dinner tomorrow evening. A. came
B. come
C. going to come
D. are coming
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 20: John: “Do you think that we should use public transportation to protect our environment?” - Laura: “________________.” 2
A. Of course not. You bet.
B. There is no doubt about it.
C. Well, that’s very surprising
D. Yes, it’s an absurd idea
Question 21: - Alice: “How about having a drive to the countryside this weekend?” - Mary: “________________. ” A. That’s a good idea
B. Not at all
C. No, thanks
D. Let’s go
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. Question 22: The sales of drugs is controlled by law in most of countries A. permitted
B. restricted
C. illegal
D. binding
Question 23: Gradually more children were sent to the class as their parents realized that the young teacher was trying her best to help their poor kids. A. Weakly
B. Progressively
C. Slowly
D. Firstly
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. Question 24: I can’t stand people who treat animals cruelly. A. reasonably
B. gently
C. brutally
D. cleverly
Question 25: About 95 percent of all animals are invertebrates which can live anywhere, but most, like the starfish and crabs, live in the ocean. A. with ribs
B. without backbones C. without ribs
D. with backbones
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 26: When the unemployment rate is high, the crime rate is usually also high. A. The higher the unemployment rate is, the higher the crime rate is. B. The unemployment rate is as high as the crime rate. C. The unemployment rate and the crime rate are both higher. D. The high rate of unemployment depends on the high rate of crime. Question 27: "It can't be Mike who leaked the document, it might be Tom." said our manager. A. Our manager blamed Tom for having leaked the document instead of Mike. B. Our manager showed his uncertainty about who leaked the document: Mike or Tom. 3
C. Our manager suspected Tom of having leaked the document, not Mike. D. Our manager made it clear that Tom was the one who leaked the document, not Mike. Question 28: Mr. Smith is very interested in our plan. I spoke to him on the phone last night. A. Mr. Smith is very interested in our plan to whom I spoke on the phone last night. B. Mr. Smith, who is very interested in our plan, I spoke to on the phone last night. C. Mr. Smith, who I spoke on the phone last night, is very interested in our plan. D. Mr. Smith, to whom I spoke on the phone last night, is very interested in our plan.
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines of each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 29: You’d better take the keys. It’s possible I’ll come home late. A. You’d better take the keys as I possibly come home late. B. I’ll probably come home late so that you’d better take the keys. C. If I come home late, you’d better take the keys. D. You’d better take the keys in case I come home late. Question 30: The student next to me kept chewing gum. That bothered me a lot. A. The student next to me kept chewing gum, which bothered me a lot. B. The student next to me kept chewing gum, that bothered me a lot. C. The student next to me kept chewing gum bothering me a lot. D. The student next to me kept chewing gum bothered me a lot.
❖ Read the passage and mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the blanks. In a small village in North Yorkshire, there is a big old farmhouse ______(31) three families live together. Alice and George and their three children, Joe and Pam and their two children, and Sue and her baby daughter. The adults divide up the work between them. George does the cooking, Joe and Sue do almost the housework. Pam looks after the shopping and ______(32) the repairs, and Alice takes care of the garden. Alice, George and Sue go out to work. Joe works at home ______(33) computer systems, and Pam, who is a painter, looks after the baby during the day. Two of the children go to school in the village, but the three oldest ones go by bus to the secondary school in the nearest town, ten miles away.
4
The three families get ______(34) well, and enjoy their way of life. There are a few difficulties, of course. Their biggest worry at the moment is money- one of the cars needs replacing, and the roof needs some expensive repairs. But this isn't too serious- the bank has agreed to a loan, which they expect to be able to pay back in three years. And they all say they would much rather go on living in their old farmhouse ______(35) move to a luxury flat in a big city. Question 31:
A. that
B. where
C. in where
D. which
Question 32:
A. does
B. makes
C. prepares
D. fulfils
Question 33:
A. designs
B. and design
C. designing
D. who designs
Question 34:
A. on
B. off
C. with
D. in
Question 35:
A. then
B. than
C. to
D. therefore
â?– Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. The Hindu cultural celebrates marriage as a pure and pristine rite enabling two individuals start their journey of life together. It puts emphasis on the values of happiness, harmony and growth and could be traced back from the Vedic times. Months before the wedding ceremony, an engagement is held which is called "mangni". The couple is blessed here with gifts, jewelry and clothes. Another important ritual is the "mehendi" which is a paste made from the leaves of henna plant. It is the traditional art of adorning the hands and the feet of the bride with mehendi and the name of the groom is also hidden in the design. On the day of marriage, the couple exchanges garlands as a gesture of acceptance of one another and a pledge to respect one another as partners which is known as "jaimala". This is followed by "kanyadaan", where the father of the bride places her hand in the groom's hand requesting him to accept her as an equal partner. Another ritual is the "havan" in which the couple invokes Agni, the god of Fire, to witness their commitment to each other. Crushed sandalwood, herbs, sugar rice and oil are offered to the ceremonial fire. The "gath bandhan" takes place where scarves of the bride and groom are tied together symbolizing their eternal bonThis signifies their pledge before God to love each other and remain loyal. The couple then takes four "mangal pheras" or walk around the ceremonial fire, representing four goals in life: "Dharma", religious and moral duties; "Artha", prosperity; "Kama" earthly pleasures; "Moksha", spiritual salvation. 5
The couple also takes seven steps together to begin their journey, called the "saptapardi". Then the ritual of "sindoor" takes place where the groom applies a small dot of vermilion, a red powder to the bride's forehead and welcomes her as his partner for life. This signifies the completion of the marriage. The parents of the bride and the groom then give their blessings, "ashirwad" to the newlywed couple as they touch the feet of their parents.
Question 36: What might be the most suitable title for this reading passage? A. The Hindu culture
B. The Hindu religion
C. The Hindu wedding
D. The Hindu tradition
Question 37: What does the word magni stand for? A. the wedding B. the paste made from the leave of one another C. the engagement D. the gesture of acceptance of one another Question 38: What do the Hindu people think about marriage? A. It is entirely a spiritual traditional ritual allowing two individuals to live together. B. It is a belief in the growth of a family newly formed by two individuals. C. It is a wish of happiness and harmony to come to two individuals. D. It is just a living-together announcement of two individuals. Question 39: What can the word adorning be best replaced by? A. decorating
B. painting
C. repairing
D. dying
Question 40: What can the word invokes be best replaced by? A. tells
B. says
C. prays
D. talks
Question 41: Why does the couple exchange garlands? A. to do a ritual B. to show both their acceptance of and the swear to respect the partner. C. to express their acceptance of one another and a wish of happiness. D. to express their vow to respect each other for the whole life. Question 42: When is the wedding ceremony completed? A. When the parents of the bride and the groom give their blessings to the couple. B. When the couple touches their parents' feet. C. When the couple makes seven steps together. D. When the groom applies a small dot of vermillion of the bride's forehead. 6
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. A Japanese construction company plans to create a huge independent city-state, akin to the legendary Atlantis, in the middle of the Pacific Ocean. The city, dubbed “Marinnation”, would have about one million inhabitants, two airports, and possibly even a space port. Marinnation, if built, would be a separate country but could serve as a home for international organisations such as the United Nations and the World Bank. Aside from the many political and social problems that would have to be solved, the engineering task envisaged is monumental. The initial stage requires the building of a circular dam eighteen miles in diameter attached to the sea bed in a relatively shallow place in international waters. Then, several hundred powerful pumps, operating for more than a year, would suck out the sea water from within the dam. When empty and dry, the area would have a city constructed on it. The actual land would be about 300 feet below the sea level. According to designers, the hardest task from an engineering point of view would be to ensure that the dam is leak proof and earthquake proof. If all goes well, it is hoped that Marinnation could be ready for habitation at the end of the second decade of the twenty-first century. Whether anyone would want to live in such an isolated and artificial community, however, will remain an open question until that time. Question 43: According to the text, Marrination, when built, will be a(an)__________ city. A. underwater
B. underground
C. marine
D. legendary
Question 44: The word ‘akin’ in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by __________. A. likely
B. close
C. next
D. similar
Question 45: Which of the following would NOT be a problem for the construction plan? A. social
B. political
C. engineering
D. financial
Question 46: Which of the following is NOT true according to the text? A. Marinnation would have about one million inhabitants. B. Marinnation will be built in a deep place in the Pacific Ocean. C. Marinnation will be located in the middle of the Pacific Ocean. D. Marinnation could be served as home for international organisations. Question 47: The word ‘monumental’ in Paragraph 2 means __________. A. important and difficult
B. like a large monument
C. important and historic
D. serving as a monument 7
Question 48: The phrase ‘suck out’ in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to which of the following? A. draw out
B. dry up
C. take out
D. pull out
Question 49: According to the text, people could come to live in the future city in the year __________. A. 2002
B. 2012
C. 2010
D. 2020
Question 50: What does the author imply in the last sentence of the passage? A. People will ask an open question about living in Marinnation. B. The construction of Marinnation could never be completed in time. C. People might not want to live in an isolated and artificial community. D. People will ask how they can live in such an isolated and artificial city.
Đáp án 1-A
2-A
3-D
4-A
5-B
6-B
7-C
8-B
9-C
10-D
11-D
12-B
13-A
14-D
15-C
16-A
17-C
18-B
19-D
20-B
21-A
22-D
23-B
24-C
25-B
26-A
27-C
28-D
29-D
30-A
31-B
32-B
33-C
34-A
35-B
36-C
37-C
38-A
39-A
40-C
41-B
42-D
43-C
44-D
45-D
46-B
47-A
48-A
49-D
50-C
ĐỀ SỐ 16
BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC BỘ GIÁO DỤC Môn: Tiếng Anh Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions. Question 1:
A. cultural
B. priority
C. advantage
D. occurrence
Question 2:
A. diversity
B. disastrous
C. circulate
D. alternative
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that has underlined part pronounced differently from the rests. Question 3:
A. likes
B. tightens
C. heaps
D. fuss
Question 4:
A. demand
B. deny
C. deter
D. debris
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. Question 5: I’ll take the new job whose salary is fantastic. A. reasonable
B. acceptable
C. pretty high
D. wonderful
Question 6: Ralph Nader was the most prominent leader of the U.S consumer protection movement. A. casual
B. significant
C. promiscuous
D. aggressive
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 7: A chronic lack of sleep may make us irritable and reduces our motivation to work. A. calm
B. responsive
C. uncomfortable
D. miserable
Question 8: Fruit and vegetables grew in abundance on the island. The islanders even exported the surplus. A. large quantity
B. small quantity
C. excess
D. sufficiency
❖ Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks. When you wave to a friend, you are using sign language. When you smile at someone, you mean to be (9) ______. When you put one finger in front of your (10) ______, you mean, 1
"Be quiet." Yet, people in different countries may use different sign languages. Once an Englishman was in Italy he could speak a little Italian. One day while he was walking in the street, he felt (11) ______ and went into a restaurant. When the waiter came, the Englishman opened his mouth, put his fingers into it and took them out again and moved his lips. In this way, he meant to say, "Bring me something to eat." But the waiter brought him a lot of things to (12) ______: first tea, then coffee, then milk, but no food. The Englishman was sorry that he was not able to tell the waiter he was hungry. He was eardy to leave the restaurant. When another man came in and put his hands on his stomach. And this sign was (13) ______ enough for the waiter. In a few minutes, the waiter brought him a large plate of bread and meat. At last, the Englishman had his meal in the same way. Question 9:
A. well
B. friendly
C. fine
D. careful
Question 10:
A. eyes
B. legs
C. mouth
D. head
Question 11:
A. hungry
B. tired
C. cold
D. ill
Question 12:
A. eat
B. watch
C. drink
D. read
â?– Mark the letter A, B , C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to the following situations. Question 14: - Ivan: I have stacks of homework to do. - Kyle: _________________ ! A. Congratulations
B. Poor you
C. Cheers
D. Oh bother
Question 15: - Tom: I'm going on holiday tomorrow. - Jerry: _________ ! A. Congratulations
B. Sorry to here that
C. Have a nice time
D. Watch out
â?– Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction. Question 16: Both bowling and ice-skating was introduced by the Dutch who colonized the New World in the 1600's. A. Both
B. was introduced
C. who
D. colonized
Question 17: There are a large supply of pens and notebooks in the storeroom to the left of the library entrance. A. are
B. of pens
C. in the storeroom
D. to the left of
Question 18: There are many ways to preserve fruit, for example freezing, canning and to dry. 2
A. There are
B. to
C. fruit
D. dry
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the option that best makes the meaningful sentence. Question 19: person’s choice / occupations / probably / most important / have / made. A. A person’s choice of occupation is probably the most important one that has to be made. B. A person’s choice about occupation is probably most important one to have made. C. A person’s choice from occupation is probably the most important one has to be made. D. A person’s choice among occupation is probably most important having made. Question 20: my opinion / unfair / women / more duties / husbands. A. According to my opinion it is unfair when women have more duties than their husbands. B. My opinion is unfair for women to have more duties than their husbands. C. In my opinion it is unfair that women have more duties than their husbands. D. My opinion, which seems to be unfair, is that women should have more duties than their husbands.
❖ Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to the following questions. Algae is a primitive form of life, a single-celled or simple multiple-celled organism that is able to conduct the process of photosynthesis. It is generally found in water but can also be found elsewhere, growing on such surfaces as rocks or trees. The various types of algae are classified according to pigment. Blue-green algae, or Cyanophyta, can grow at very high temperatures and under highintensity light. This type of algae is the oldest form of life with photosynthetic capabilities. Fossilized remains of blue-green algae more than 3.4 billion years old have been found in parts of Africa. Green algae, or Chlorophyta, is generally found in fresh water. It reproduces on the surfaces of enclosed bodies of water such as ponds or lakes and has the appearance of a fuzzy green coating on the surface of the water. Brown algae, or Phaeophyta, grows in shallow, temperate water. This type of algae is the largest in size and is most recognizable as a type of seaweed. Its long stalks can be enmeshed on the ocean floor, or it can float freely on the ocean's surface.
3
Red algae, or Rhodophyta, is a small, delicate organism found in the deep waters of the subtropics. This type of algae has an essential role in the formation of coral reefs: it secretes lime from the seawater to foster the formation of limestone deposits. Question 21: What is the author's main purpose? A. To show what color algae is B. To differentiate the various classifications of algae C. To describe where algae is found D. To clarify the appearance of different types of algae Question 22: Which of the following is NOT true about algae? A. All types have one cell only.
B. It can be found out of water.
C. It can use photosynthesis.
D. It is not a relatively new form of life.
Question 23: The word "pigment" at the end of the first paragraph means________. A. size
B. shape
C. composition
D. color
Question 24: Algae remnants found in Africa are________. A. still flourishing
B. photogenic
C. extremely old
D. red in color
Question 25: Green algae is generally found________. A. on the ocean floor B. on top of the water C. throughout ponds and lakes
D. surrounding enclosed bodies of water
Question 26: Brown algae would most likely be found________. A. on trees
B. near green algae
C. on rocks
D. in the ocean
Question 27: According to the passage, red algae is________. A. sturdy
B. huge
C. fragile
D. found in shallow water
Question 28: It can be inferred from the passage that limestone deposits serve as the basis of________. A. coral reefs
B. red algae
C. subtropical seawater D. secret passages
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following sentences. Question 29: Their chances of success are small. A. It’s very likely that they will succeed B. They will definitely be successful C. It’s not very likely that they will succeed D. They won’t have any chances of being successful 4
Question 30: “Would you like something to drink?” he asked. A. He asked me would like something to drink. B. He wanted to invite me for something to drink. C. He asked me if I wanted something to drink. D. He offered me something to drink. Question 31: Public education is so good in European countries that there is almost no demand for private schools A. Even the excellence of public education in Europe does not stop people from sending their children to private schools. B. Hardly anyone sends their children to private schools in Europe because state schools are excellent. C. People still send their children to private schools in Europe although the public education system is excellent. D. In Europe, there is no reason for parents to send their children to private schools because state schools are so good.
❖ Mark the letter A, B , C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 32: The woman________ last week has been freed by the police. A. arrested
B. was arrested
C. arresting
D. who arrested.
Question 33: Why don't you raise your hand to________ the teacher's attention in stead of shouting like this? A. attract
B. pull
C. draw
D. capture.
Question 34: She has just enrolled on a ________ course in cooking because she is getting married next month. A. speedy
B. quick
C. fast
D. crash.
Question 35: Many workers switch from the day________ to the night one with difficulties. A. light
B. shift
C. hour
D. period
Question 36: The Internet enables users of computers to ________ information in a variety of forms. A. share
B. divide
C. cut
D. tell
Question 37: Women in American have a lot of ________ freedom. A. personal
B. physical
C. human 5
D. technical
Question 38: The survey was to find out the young people’s attitudes________ love and marriage. A. towards
B. above
C. beneath
D. with
Question 39: John ________ the keys. I cannot see it anywhere. A. should have taken
B. could have taken
C. must have taken
D. needn't have
taken. Question 40: I would really like to join you on a skiing trip but I can't do it until I________ my thesis. A. will finish
B. finished
C. have finished
D. will have finished.
Question 41: ________ he studied hard, he didn't pass his final exams. A. Although
B. No matter
C. Because
D. However.
Question 42: To be honest, Harry has________ than you have. A. been more helpful considerably
B. considerably been more helpful.
C. been considerably more helpful
D. been more considerably helpful.
Question 43: My new glasses cost me ________ the pair that I bought last month. A. more than three times
B. three times as much as
C. as much three times as
D. more three times than
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to the following questions. Sound moves form its source to the ear by wavelike fluctuations in air pressure, something like the crests and troughs of ocean waves. Once way to keep from hearing sound is to use ear plugs. Another way is to cancel out the sound with anti-sound. Using a noisemarker controlled by a microprocessor, engineers have produced sound waves that are half a wavelength out of phase with those of the noise to be quieted-each crest is matched to a trough, and vice versa. Once the researchers have recorded the offending sound, a microprocessor calculates the amplitude and wavelength of sound that will cancel out the crests and troughs of noise. It then produces an electric current that is amplified and fed to a loudspeaker, which produces anti-sound and wipes out the noise. If the anti-sound goes out of synchronization, a microphone picks up the leftover sound and sends it back to the microprocessor, which changes the phase of the anti- sound just enough to cause complete silence.
6
The research team has concentrated on eliminating low-frequency noise from ship engines, which causes fatigue that can impair the efficiency and alertness of the crew, and may mask the warning sounds of alarm and fog signals. Question 44. What is the main purpose of the passage? A. To discuss a physical handicap
B. To warn about a growing danger
C. To describe the structure of the ear
D. To report on a new invention
Question 45. The passage compares sound to_________. A. the rising and falling of water in the ocean B. the crests and valleys of mountain ranges C. a flag waving in the air
D. a machine for gauging air pressure
Question 46. The passage discusses a way to deal with an offensive noise by_________. A. diverting people's attention from it
B. masking it with a louder noise
C. canceling it out electronically
D. removing its source
Question 47. The microprocessor described in the passage will probably be used for_________. A. composing music
B. repairing alarm systems
C. eliminating engine noises
D. intensifying for warning sounds
Question 48. The researcher mentioned in the passage are concerned about unwanted noise because it can_________. A. cause deafness
B. create hazardous working conditions
C. influence ocean waves
D. damage loudspeakers and sound equipment
Question 49. According to the passage, what group of people will probably first from the use of the microprocessor? A. Ship's crews
B. Research engineers
C. People with insomnia
D. Engine repair teams
Question 50. A paragraph following the passage would most probably discuss_________. A. the nature of fog
B. a way to improve alarm systems
C. other causes of fatigue
D. other uses for the microprocessor ฤ รกp รกn
1-A
2-C
3-B
4-D
5-C
6-B
7-A
8-B
9-B
10-C
11-A
12-C
13-D
14-B
15-C
16-B
17-A
18-D
19-A
20-C
21-B
22-A
23-D
24-C
25-B
26-D
27-C
28-A
29-C
30-C
31-B
32-A
33-A
34-B
35-B
36-A
37-C
38-A
39-C
40-C
41-A
42-B
43-B
44-D
45-A
46-C
47-C
48-B
49-A
50-D
7
ĐỀ SỐ 17
BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC BỘ GIÁO DỤC Môn: Tiếng Anh Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
❖ Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. Question 1:
A. meat
B. breakfast
C. heat
D. beat
Question 2:
A. picture
B. mature
C. future
D. adventure
❖ Choose the word that has different stress pattern from that of the others. Question 1:
A. improve
B. farmer
C. parents
D. bumper
Question 2:
A. gymnastic
B. adjective
C. difference
D. frequently
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is closest in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions Question 5: He makes money by raising poultry and cattle. A. spends
B. produces
C. earns
D. creates
Question 6: She was born and grown up in a picturesque fishing village in Ha Long Bay. A. dangerous
B. pretty
C. wealthy
D. poor
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is opposite in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions Question 7: A calculating machine can do calculations with lightning speed. A. very quickly
B. incorrectly
C. perfectly
D. very slowly
Question 8: Many people oppose corporal punishment when educating young children though several of them are naughty. A. appreciate
B. agree with
C. are in favor of
D. disapprove of
❖ Choose the word or phrase among A, B, C or D that best fits the blank space in the following passage from 9 to 13 Every child in Great Britain between the age of five and fifteen must (9) ______ school. There (10) ______ three main types of educational institutions: primary (elementary) schools, secondary schools and universities. State schools are free, and attendance is compulsory. Morning school begins at nine o’clock and lasts until half past four. School is open five days a week. 1
(11) ______ Saturdays and Sundays there are no lessons. There are holidays at Christmas, Easter and in summer. In London as in all cities there are two grades of state schools for those (12) ______ will go to work at fifteen: primary schools for boys and girls between the ages of five and eleven, and secondary schools for children from eleven to fifteen years. The lessons are reading, writing, the English language, English literature, English history, geography, (13) ______, nature study, drawing, painting, singing, woodwork and drill. Question 9:
A. attend
B. come
C. arrive
D. go
Question 10:
A. have
B. has
C. are
D. is
Question 11:
A. On
B. At
C. For
D. In
Question 12:
A. when
B. where
C. which
D. who
Question 13:
A. scientist
B. scientifically
C. science
D. scientific
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction Question 14: Helen Killer, who was both blind and deafness, overcame her inabilities with the help of her teacher, Ann Sulivan. A. who
B. blind
C. deafness
D. inabilities
Question 15: Education, whether it happens at school or anywhere else, is a important part in our life. A. Education
B. whether
C. or
D. a important part
Question 16: I can’t go out tonight because I have too many work to do. A. can’t
B. because
C. too many
D. to do
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct one to complete each of the following sentences Question 17: A personal communicator helps you to ________ with other computers and with people around the world. A. demonstrate
B. interact
C. content
D. transmit
Question 18: Peter: “Ann is in hospital.” Mary: “Yes, I know. ________ her tommorrow.” A. I visit
B. I’ll visit
C. I’m going to visit
D. I am visiting
Question 19: The children have every reason to be proud ________ their efforts. A. at
B. to
C. in 2
D. of
Question 20: As a famous person ________ many children admire, it is important for her to act responsibly. A. whose
B. which
C. when
D. whom
Question 21: A number of students ________ for a rise since last year A. ask
B. have asked
C. has asked
D. asked
Question 22: Our flight was delayed, but we finally ________ shortly after midnight. A. took on
B. put off
C. took up
D. took off
Question 23: I remember ________ the letter a few days before going on holiday. A. received
B. to have received
C. to receive
D. receiving
Question 24: Ba and his family had ________ to their home village. A. a two-day trip
B. a two-days trip
C. a two-day trips
D. two-day trips
Question 25: The film ________ by the time we ________ to the cinema. A. had already started/got
B. already started/ had gotten
C. had already started/had gotten
D. has already started/ got
Question 26: The teacher ________ her to improve her drawing. A. persisted
B. insisted
C. encouraged
D. made
Question 27: I have been fascinated by________ since I was at secondary school. A. photographer
B. photography
C. photograph
D. photographic
Question 28: My parents ________ tommorrow to stay with me for a few days. A. came
B. have come
C. come
D. are coming
� Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following sentences Question 29: Jane finds it difficult to drive on the left. A. Jane is used to drive on the left B. Jane is not used to drive on the left C. Jane is not used to driving on the left D. It’s difficult for Jane to driving on the left Question 30: No one has told me about the change of plan. A. I have not been told about the change of plan. B. I have not told about the change of plan. C. The change of plan has been told about D. I have been told about the change of plan. 3
Question 31: We last went to cinema two months ago. A. We have been to the cinema for two months B. We haven’t been to the cinema for two months C. We didn’t want to go to the cinema anymore. D. We didn’t go to the cinema for two months
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions Question 32: Computer is a miraculous device. It is capable of doing almost anything you ask it to. A. Computer can’t do anything you ask it to because it is a miraculous device. B. Computer is unable to do almost anything you ask it to so it is a miraculous device. C. Computer is a miraculous device since it is possible for doing anything you ask it to. D. Computer is a miraculous device because it is impossible for doing almost anything you ask it to. Question 33: The house is very beautiful. Its gate was painted blue. A. The house, which is very beautiful, was painted blue. B. The house, the gate of whom was painted blue, is very beautiful. C. The house, the gate of which was painted blue, is very beautiful. D. The house, the gate of that was painted blue, is very beautiful.
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response complete each of the following exchanges Question 34: Which expression is used to start a conversation? A. Well, it’s been nice meeting you
B. How’s everything at school?
C. Catch you later.
D. Sorry, I’ve got to go. Talk to you later.
Question 35: - Hoa: “Are you going to buy a new computer or just continue using the old one?” - Mary: “___________” A. Neither. I’m going to lease one. B. That’s impossible. I can’t afford a new one C. Yes, I’d like one. Thank you. D. Yes, I am.
4
❖ Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions Most Americans look forward to their vacation. Most American employees receive an annual vacation with pay, and it is traditional to use this time off for travel. Travelling within the United States is very popular because foreign travel generally takes more time and money. Every year about thirteen million people travel abroad. The most popular periods are during the summer and the two-week school break on Christmas and New Year holidays. These periods are also the most crowded and the most expensive time to travel, so people who can adjust their schedules sometimes choose to travel in the autumn. American tourists often travel by car. Most families own a car, and those who do not have a car can rent one. Cars are usually the most economical way to travel, especially for families. It is also fairly fast and convenient. Exellent highway with motels and restaurants nearby connect the nation’s major cities. They enable tourists to travel at a speed of 55 to 66 miles an hour. Tourists that want to travel faster often fly to their destination and then rent a car when they get there. Question 36: According to the writer ________. A. Americans have no vacations B. Americans do not like travel. C. it is impossible to have a day-off in the USA. D. most Americans are fond of travelling Question 37: How many people travel abroad every year? A. 13 million people
B. 66 million people
C. 30 million people
D. 55 million people
Question 38: Which of the following is not mentioned in the text? A. Travelling on Christmas and New Year holidays take much money. B. Most American employees use their vacation to travel every year. C. Most families use cars as an economical way to travel. D. American people always choose to travel in autumn Question 39: There are many people travelling ______. A. in the winter
B. on Women’s Day
C. on Christmas and New Year
D. on Thanksgiving
Question 40: _______ are the most popular means of transport in the USA. A. Buses
B. Cars
C. Ships 5
D. Planes
Question 41: The word “It” in line 8 refers to ______. A. destination
B. restaurant
C. vacation
D. car
Question 42: In the USA, __________. A. the high ways are not in good condition. B. tourists cannot rent a car C. there are not any highways. D. along the highways there are motels and restaurants available for tourists.
❖ Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions For the last few years, my children have been going to a summer camp in northern Greece called Skouras Camp. They always seem to have a good time, so if you’ re wondering what to do with the kids for three weeks this summer, you could do worse than send them to this beautiful camp on the shores of the Aegean Sea. If your children, like mine, are keen on adventure, sports and good company, the Skouras Camp will keep them busy all day doing the things they most enjoy. Skouras is an international camp with children from all over the world. My children have made friends with children of their own age from Poland, China, Demark and the United States. Naturally, they get lots of opportunities to practise their English as this is the only language spoken. The camp is located in one of the most beautiful parts of Chalkidiki. It is huge (120.000 square meters) and is just a stone’s throw away from clear, blue Aegean Sea. It takes the children just five minutes to walk to the golden sandy beach on foot. The programme is packed with exciting activities such as horse riding and table tennis. Other sports in clude baseball, volleyball and athletics. The Camp ends with a sports contest in the last week which all parents are invited to attend. Question 43: All the children come to the Camp have to___________. A. be only keen on adventure
B. be at the same age.
C. speak English
D. practise basketball.
Question 44: How many kinds of sports can be played in the Camp? A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Question 45: All the statements are true except___________. A. The parents can attend their children’sports contest. B. The children will be busy taking part in the Camp’s programmed activities. C. The camp is quite far from the Aegean Sea. 6
D. The children will take more chances of English practise. Question 46: The tond of the passage could best be described as___________. A. supportive
B. negative
C. disbelieving
D. humorous.
Question 47: What shoul be the best title for the passage? A. Chalkidiki’s landscape – The Aegean Sea. B. An international summer camp. C. Children’s summer activities. D. Advice on children caring in summer. Question 48: How long does it take the children to walk to the golden sandy beach on foot? A. 20 minutes
B. an hour
C. 5 minutes
D. a day
Question 49: Where is the camp located? A. in Porland
B. in Greece
C. in the United States D. Denmark
Question 50: The word contest in the last sentence could be replaced by___________. A. competition
B. runner
C. competitor
D. athlete
Đáp án 1-B
2-B
3-A
4-A
5-C
6-B
7-D
8-B
9-A
10-C
11-A
12-D
13-C
14-C
15-A
16-C
17-B
18-B
19-D
20-D
21-B
22-D
23-D
24-A
25-A
26-C
27-B
28-D
29-C
30-A
31-B
32-C
33-C
34-B
35-A
36-D
37-A
38-D
39-C
40-B
41-D
42-D
43-C
44-D
45-C
46-A
47-B
48-C
49-B
50-A
ĐỀ SỐ 18
BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC BỘ GIÁO DỤC Môn: Tiếng Anh Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1:
A. confided
B. touched
C. rejected
D. preceded
Question 2:
A. cooks
B. loves
C. joins
D. spends
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3:
A. investigate
B. determine
C. convenient
D. sacrifice
Question 4:
A. certificate
B. diversity
C. occupation
D. miraculous
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word/phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part. Question 5: The weather is horrible at the moment, isn’t it? I hope it clears up later. A. becomes brighter
B. shines
C. is not cloudy
D. clean
Question 6: There used to be a shop at the end of the street but it went out of business a year ago. A. closed up
B. closed
C. closed down
D. closed into
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 7: Although it’s a long day for us, we feel we are contented with what we do. A. interested
B. dissatisfied
C. excited
D. shocked
Question 8: I can’t stand people who treat animals cruelly. A. gently
B. cleverly
C. reasonably
D. brutally
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction. Question 9: Students advise to read all the questions carefully and find out the answers to them. A. advise
B. all the questions
C. out
D. them
Question 10: My father used to give me a good advice whenever I had a problem. 1
A. give
B. a good advice
C. whenever
D. a problem
Question 11: Not until I was on my way to the airport that I realized I had left my passport at home. A. until
B. on my way
C. that I realized
D. at home
Question 12: Our children allowed to have two days off at weekends. A. Our
B. allowed
C. two days
D. at weekends
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 13: Many applicants find a job interview__________ if they are not well-prepared for it. A. impressive
B. stressful
C. threatening
D. time-consuming
Question 14: The manager__________ him for a minor mistake. A. accused
B. charged
C. complained
D. blamed
Question 15: I __________ hurry. It’s nearly 8.00, and my first class starts at 8.15. A. would prefer
B. can’t help
C. would rather
D. had better
Question 16: He managed to keep his job__________ the manager had threatened to sack him. A. although
B. despite
C. unless
D. therefore
Question 17: Don’t touch that wire or you’ll get an electric__________. A. shock
B. fire
C. charge
D. current
Question 18: The car had a(n) __________ tire, so we had to change the wheel. A. bent
B. flat
C. cracked
D. injured
Question 19: Does television adequately reflect the ethnic and cultural__________ of the country. A. costom
B. diversity
C. alternations
D. article
Question 20: You should make a(n) __________ to overcome this problem. A. trial
B. impression
C. effort
D. apology
Question 21: –“You look beautiful with your new hairstyle!” – “____________”. A. Not at all
B. It’s kind of you to say so
C. Very kind of your part
D. Willingly
Question 22: It was only__________ he told me his surname that I realized that we had been to the same school. A. then
B. until
C. as soon as
D. when
Question 23: The girl __________ design had been chosen stepped to the platform to receive the award. 2
A. whose
B. whom
C. that
D. which
Question 24: My responsibility is to wash dishes and__________ the garbage. A. take care of
B. take out
C. take off
D. take over
â?– Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. The latest addiction to trap thousands of people is Internet, which has been (25)________ for broken relationships, job losses, financial ruin and even one suicide. Psychologists now recognize Internet Addiction Syndrome (IAS) as a new illness that could (26)________ serious problems and ruin many lives. Special help groups have been set up to (27)________ sufferers help and support. IAS is similar to (28)________ problems like gambling, smoking and drinking: addicts have dreams about Internet; they need to use it first thing in the morning; they (29)________ to their partners about how much time they spend online; they (30)_______ they could cut down, but are unable to do so. A recent study found that many users spend up to 40 hours a week on the Internet; (31)______ they felt guilty, they became depressed if they were (32)______ to stop using it. Almost anyone can be at risk. Some of the addicts are teenagers who are already hooked on computer games and who (33)________ it very difficult to resist the games on the Internet. Surprisingly, however, psychologists (34)________ that most victims are middleaged housewives who have never used a computer before. Question 25:
A. accused
B. mistaken
C. blamed
D. faulted
Question 26:
A. take
B. cause
C. affect
D. lead
Question 27:
A. recommend
B. offer
C. suggest
D. advise
Question 28:
A. others
B. another
C. the other
D. other
Question 29:
A. lie
B. cheat
C. deceive
D. betray
Question 30:
A. rather
B. want
C. prefer
D. wish
Question 31:
A. unless
B. without
C. although
D. despite
Question 32:
A. made
B. allowed
C. let
D. had
Question 33:
A. have
B. find
C. feel
D. say
Question 34:
A. say
B. tell
C. object
D. promise
3
❖ Read the following passage adapted and choose the correct answer (corresponding to A, B, C, or D) to each of the questions that follow. It’s often said that we learn things at the wrong time. University students frequently do the minimum of work because they’re crazy about a good social life instead. Children often scream before their piano practice because it’s so boring. They have to be given gold stars and medals to be persuaded to swim, or have to be bribed to take exams. But the story is different when you’re older. Over the years, I’ve done my share of adult learning. At 30, I went to a college and did courses in History and English. It was an amazing experience. For starters, I was paying, so there was no reason to be late – I was the one frowning and drumming my fingers if the tutor was late, not the other way round. Indeed, if I could persuade him to linger for an extra five minutes, it was a bonus, not a nuisance. I wasn’t frightened to ask questions, and homework was a pleasure not a pain. When I passed an exam, I had passed it for me and me alone, not for my parents or my teachers. The satisfaction I got was entirely personal. Some people fear going back to school because they worry that their brains have got rusty. But the joy is that, although some parts have rusted up, your brain has learnt all kinds of other things since you were young. It has learnt to think independently and flexibly and is much better at relating one thing to another. What you lose in the rust department, you gain in the maturity department. In some ways, age is a positive plus. For instance, when you’re older, you get less frustrated. Experience has told you that, if you’re calm and simply do something carefully again and again, eventually you’ll get the hang of it. The confidence you have in other areas – from being able to drive a car, perhaps – means that if you can’t, say, build a chair instantly, you don’t, like a child, want to destroy your first pathetic attempts. Maturity tells you that you will, with application, eventually get there. I hated piano lessons at school, but I was good at music. And coming back to it, with a teacher who could explain why certain exercises were useful and with musical concepts that, at the age of ten, I could never grasp, was magical. Initially, I did feel a bit strange, thumping out a piece that I’d played for my school exams, with just as little comprehension of what the composer intended as I’d had all those years before. But soon, complex emotions that I never knew poured out from my fingers, and suddenly I could understand why practice makes perfect. Question 35: It is implied in paragraph 1 that _________. 4
A. young learners often lack a good motivation for learning B. young learners are usually lazy in their class C. teachers should give young learners less homework D. parents should encourage young learners to study more Question 36: The writer’s main point in paragraph 2 is to show that as people grow up, _________. A. they tend to learn less as they are discouraged B. they cannot learn as well as younger learners C. they get more impatient with their teachers D. they have a more positive attitude towards learning Question 37: The phrase “For starters” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by “______”. A. For beginners
B. At the starting point
C. At the beginning
D. First and foremost
Question 38: While doing some adult learning courses at a college, the writer was surprised ______. A. to have more time to learn
B. to be able to learn more quickly
C. to feel learning more enjoyable
D. to get on better with the tutor
Question 39: In paragraph 3, the word “rusty” means ______. A. not as good as it used to be through lack of practice B. impatient because of having nothing to do C. staying alive and becoming more active D. covered with rust and not as good as it used to be Question 40: The phrase “get there” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to “______”. A. receive a school or college degree B. arrive at an intended place with difficulty C. have the things you have long desired D. achieve your aim with hard work Question 41: All of the following are true about adult learning EXCEPT ______. A. young people usually feel less patient than adults B. experience in doing other things can help one’s learning C. adult learners have fewer advantages than young learners D. adults think more independently and flexibly than young people
5
Question 42: It can be inferred from paragraph 4 that maturity is a positive plus in the learning process because adult learners ______. A. pay more attention to detail than younger learners B. are able to organize themselves better than younger learners C. are less worried about learning than younger learners D. have become more patient than younger learners Question 43: It is implied in the last paragraph that when you learn later in life, you ______. A. are not able to concentrate as well as when you were younger B. find that you can recall a lot of things you learnt when younger C. should expect to take longer to learn than when you were younger D. can sometimes understand more than when you were younger Question 44: What is the writer’s main purpose in the passage? A. To encourage adult learning.
B. To show how fast adult learning is.
C. To explain reasons for learning.
D. To describe adult learning methods.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 45: I have never tasted this kind of food before. A. I have tasted this kind of food. B. I tasted this kind of food long time ago. C. It is the first time I tasted this kind of food. D. It is the first time I have ever tasted this kind of food. Question 46: No sooner had she put the telephone down than her boss rang back. A. Hardly she had hung up, she rang her boss immediately. B. As soon as her boss rang back, she put down the telephone. C. She had hardly put the telephone down without her boss rang back. D. Scarcely had she put the telephone down when her boss rang back Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines the pair of sentences given in each of the following questions. Question 47: John is studying hard. He doesn't want to fail the next exam. A. John is studying hard in order that he not fail the next exam B. John is studying hard in order not to fail the next exam C. John is studying hard in order to not to fail the next exam D. John is studying hard so as to fail the next exam 6
Question 48: He was suspected of having stolen credit cards. The police have investigated him for days. A. Suspected of having stolen credit cards, he has been investigated for days B. Suspecting of having stolen credit cards, he has been investigated for days C. He has been investigated for days, suspecting of having stolen credit cards D. Having suspected of having stolen credit cards, he has been investigated for days Question 49: I strongly disapproved of your behavior. However, I will help you this time. A. Despite of my strong disapproval of your behavior, I will help you this time. B. Despite my strong disapproval of your behavior, I will help you this time. C. Because of your behavior, I will help you this time. D. Although I strongly disapproved of your behavior, but I will help you this time. Question 50: He is very intelligent. He can solve all the problems in no time. A. He is so an intelligent that he can solve all the problems in no time. B. He is so intelligent a boy that he can solve all the problems in no time. C. He is such intelligent that he can solve all the problems in no time. D. He is very intelligent that he can solve all the problems in no time. ฤ รกp รกn 1-B
2-A
3-D
4-C
5-C
6-C
7-B
8-A
9-A
10-B
11-C
12-B
13-B
14-D
15-D
16-A
17-A
18-B
19-B
20-C
21-B
22-D
23-A
24-B
25-C
26-B
27-B
28-D
29-A
30-D
31-C
32-A
33-B
34-A
35-A
36-D
37-D
38-C
39-A
40-D
41-C
42-D
43-D
44-A
45-D
46-D
47-B
48-A
49-B
50-B
ĐỀ SỐ 19
BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC BỘ GIÁO DỤC Môn: Tiếng Anh Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
❖ Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 1 to 5. The warming of the Earth is caused by exhaust gas from automobile engines, fatories and power (1)_________. Carbon dioxide goes up into the atmosphere, and it form a kind of screen that keeps or allows the sunshine in but stop the Earth heart (2) _________getting out. It works like a greenhouse, that’s why we call (3) _________the Green House effect. Because of this effect, the Earth is getting warmer all the time. This (4) _________in temperature will cause big changes to the world’s climate. The sea level will increase as the ice (5) _________the poles will melt. Question 1:
A. companies
B. factories
C. sites
D. stations
Question 2:
A. from
B. up
C. against
D. away
Question 3:
A. is
B. be
C. it
D. them
Question 4:
A. raise
B. rise
C. drop
D. fall
Question 5:
A. covering
B. covers
C. covered
D. cover
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following question. Question 6: It was relatively easy for him to learn baseball because he had been a cricket player. A. approximately
B. comparatively
C. nearly
D. essentially
Question 7: You have to be on your toes if you want to beat her. A. pay all your attention to what you are doing B. upset her in what she is doing C. get involved in what she is doing D. make her comply with your orders
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following question. Question 8:
A. accurate
B. account
C. accept
D. accuse
Question 9:
A. talks
B. takes
C. decides
D. completes
1
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word having different stress from the others in each of the following questions. Question 10:
A. rapidly
B. comfortably
C. fluently
D. necessarily
Question 11:
A. politician
B. genetics
C. artificial
D. controversial
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions Question 12: Foreign students who are doing a decision about which school to attend may not know exactly where the choices are located. A. doing
B. about which
C. to attend
D. the choices
Question 13: It is a good idea to be careful in buying or purchasing magazines from salespersons who may come to your door. A. It is
B. to be
C. or purchasing
D. from salespersons
Question 14: In that age of computers, it is difficult to imagine how tedious work of accountants and clerks must have been in the past. A. that age
B. it is
C. work
D. have been
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 15: Since he failed his exam, he had to_________for it again. A. pass
B. make
C. take
D. sit
C. something
D. one thing
Question 16: Is there_________at all I can help? A. everything
B. anything
Question 17: Don’t worry. He’ll do the job as_________as possible. A. economizing
B. econimic
C. economical
D. economically
Question 18: Only when you grow up, _________the truth. A. you will know
B. you know
C. do you know
D. will you know
Question 19: My brother left his job last week because he did not have any_________to travel. A. position
B. chance
C. ability
D. location
Question 20: John paid $2 for his meal, _________he had thought it would cost. A. not as much
B. not so much as
C. less as
2
D. not so many as
Question 21: It is very important for a film or a company to keep_________the changes in the market. A. pace of
B. track about
C. touch with
D. up with
Question 22: I’m sure you’ll have no_________the exam. A. difficulty passing
B. difficulties to pass C. difficulty to pass
D. difficulties of passing
Question 23: I_________this letter around for days without looking at it. A. carry
B. must carry
C. have been carrying D. am carrying
Question 24: Vietnam’s rice export this year will decrease_________about 10%, compared with that of last year. A. with
B. at
C. by
D. on
Question 25: I won’t change my mind_________what you say. A. whether
B. no matter
C. because
D. although
Question 26: My car isn’t_________. It’s always letting me down. A. believable
B. reliable
C. colorable
D. conceivable
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 27: - “ Has an annoucement been made about the eight o’clock flight to Paris?” - “ ______________.” A. Not yet
C. I don’t think that
B. Yes, it was
D. Sorry, I don’t
Question 28: - “ I can speak English well enough to apply for that post.” - “______________.” A. Me neither
B. Me too
C. Me either
D. Me also
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in the meaning to the underlined word(s) in ecah of the following questions. Question 29: I’m sorry to say that it seems you’ve been shirking your responsibilities. A. going along
B. standing up to
C. taking on
D. refraining from
Question 30: She gave an impeccable reading of the sonata and had the audience on their feet. A. suspicious
B. unqualified
C. negative
D. imperfect
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest inmeaning to each of the following question. 3
Question 31: I got the impression that the boys were not enjoying themselves. A. The boys impressed me that they were not enjoying themselves. B. The boys didn’t seem to be enjoying themselves. C. The boys seemed not to enjoying themselves. D. It seemed to me the boys were enjoying themselves. Question 32: The children ran to the field to see the dragon, but it was no longer there. A. The dragon had gone by the time the children ran to the filed. B. The dragon went by the time the children ran to the filed. C. When the children ran to the filed, the dragon went. D. The dragon had gone after the children ran to the filed. Question 33: The boy became so confused and worried that he left home. A. The boy became too confused and worried to leave home. B. So confued and worried that the boy left home. C. So confused and worried, the boy left home. D. The boy was not confused and worried enough to leave home.
❖ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 34: Sue lives in a house. The house is opposite my house. A. Sue lives in a house where is opposite my house. B. Sue lives in a house which is opposite my house. C. Sue lives in a house who is opposite my house. D. Sue lives in a house and which is opposite my house. Question 35: She turned the radio on at 7.30. She was still listening to it when her mother came home at 9.00. A. She has been listening to the radio at 7.30. B. She had been listening to the radio since 7.30. C. She has been listening to the radio after 7.30. D. She had been listening to the radio by 7.30.
❖ Read the following passage and mark the letters A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions
4
Scientists do not yet thoroughly understand just how the body of an individual becomes sensitive to a substance that is harmless or even wholesome for the average person. Milk, wheat, and egg, for example, rank among the most healthful and widely used foods. Yet these foods can cause persons sensitive to them to suffer greatly. At first, the body of the individual is not harmed by coming into contact with the substance. After a varying interval of time, usually longer than a few weeks, the body becomes sensitive to it, and an allergy has begun to develop. Sometimes it's hard to figure out if you have a food allergy, since it can show up so many different ways. Your symptoms could be caused by many other problems. You may have rashes, hives, joint pains mimicking arthritis, headaches, irritability, or depression. The most common food allergies are to milk, eggs, seafood, wheat, nuts, seeds, chocolate, oranges, and tomatoes. Many of these allergies will not develop if these foods are not fed to an infant until her or his intestines mature at around seven months. Breast milk also tends to be protective. Migraines can be set off by foods containing tyramine, phenathylamine, monosodium glutamate, or sodium nitrate. Common foods which contain these are chocolate, aged cheeses, sour cream, red wine, pickled herring, chicken livers, avocados, ripe bananas, cured meats, many Oriental and prepared foods (read the labels!). Some people have been successful in treating their migraines with supplements of B-vitamins, particularly B6 and niacin. Children who are hyperactive may benefit from eliminating food additives, especially colorings, and foods high in salicylates from their diets. Question 36: The topic of this passage is______________. A. reactions to foods
B. food and nutrition
C. infants and allergies D. a good diet
Question 37: According to the passage, the difficulty in diagnosing allergies to foods is due to ______________. A. the vast number of different foods we eat B. lack of a proper treatment plan C. the similarity of symptoms of the allergy to other problems D. the use of prepared formula to feed babies Question 38: The word "symptoms" is closest in meaning to______________. A. indications
B. diet
C. diagnosis
D. prescriptions
Question 39: The phrase "set off" is closest in meaning to______________. A. relieved
B. identified
C. avoided
Question 40: What can be inferred about babies from this passage? A. They can eat almost anything. 5
D. triggered
B. They should have a carefully restricted diet as infants. C. They gain little benefit from being breast fed. D. They may become hyperactive if fed solid food too early. Question 41: The word "hyperactive" is closest in meaning to______________. A. overly active
B. unusually low activity
C. excited
D. inquisitive
Question 42: The author states that the reason that infants need to avoid certain foods related to allergies has to do with the infant's______________. A. lack of teeth
B. poor metabolism
C. underdeveloped intestinal tract
D. inability to swallow solid foods
â?– Read the following passage and mark the letters A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions The rapid transcontinentat settlement and these new urban industrial circumstances of the last half of the 19th century were accompanied by the development of national literature of great abundance and variety. New themes, new forms, new subjects, new regions, new authors, new audiences all emerged in the literature of this half century. As a result, at the onset of World War I, the spirit and substance of American literature had evolved remarkably, just as its center of production had shifted from Boston to New York in the late 1880s and the sources of its energy to Chicago and the Midwest. No longer was it produced, at least in its popular forms, in the main by solemn, typically moralistic men from New England and the Old South; no longer were polite, well-dressed, grammatically correct, middle-class young people the only central characters in its narratives; no longer were these narratives to be set in exotic places and remote times; no longer, indeed, were fiction, poetry, drama, and formal history the chief acceptable forms of literary expression; no longer, finally, was literature read primarily by young, middle class women. In sum, American literature in these years fulfilled in considerable measure the condition Walt Whitman called for in 1867 in describing Leaves of Grass: it treats, he said of his own major work, each state and region as peers "and expands from them, and includes the world ... connecting an American citizen with the citizens of all nations." Question 43: The main idea of this passage is________. A. that the new American literature was less provincial than the old B. that World War I caused a dramatic change in America 6
C. that centers of culture shifted from East to West D. that most people were wary of the new literature Question 44: It can be inferred from the passage that the previous passage probably discussed________. A. the importance of tradition to writers B. new developments in industrialization and population shifts C. the fashions and values of 19th century America D. the limitations of American literature to this time Question 45: The word “evolved” in paragraph two is closest in meaning to________. A. became famous
B. turned back
C. diminished
D. changed
Question 46: The word “it” in the second paragraph refers to________. A. the population
B. the energy
C. American literature D. the manufacturing
Question 47: The word “exotic" in paragraph two is closest in meaning to________. A. urban
B. unusual
C. well-known
D. old-fashioned
Question 48: The author uses the word “indeed” in the second paragraph for what purpose? A. To emphasize the contrast he is making. B. For variety in a lengthy paragraph. C. To wind down his argument. D. To show a favorable attitude to these forms of literature. Question 49: The phrase “these years” in the third paragraph refers to________. A. 1850-1900
B. the 1900s
C. the early 1800s
D. the present
Question 50: It can be inferred from the passage that Walt Whitman________. A. disliked urban life
B. was disapproving of the new literature
C. wrote Leaves of Grass
D. was an international diplomat Đáp án
1-D
2-A
3-C
4-B
5-A
6-B
7-A
8-A
9-C
10-D
11-B
12-A
13-C
14-A
15-D
16-B
17-D
18-D
19-B
20-B
21-D
22-A
23-C
24-C
25-B
26-B
27-A
28-B
29-A
30-D
31-B
32-A
33-C
34-B
35-B
36-A
37-C
38-A
39-D
40-B
41-A
42-C
43-A
44-B
45-D
46-C
47-B
48-A
49-A
50-C
7