Bộ đề thi thử THPTQG năm 2018 - Môn Tiếng Anh - 17 ĐỀ + ĐÁP ÁN - GV Nguyễn Quỳnh Trang

ĐỀ SỐ 1 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 1: He tries to ________ himself with everyone by paying them compliments.

A. gratify

B. please

C. ingratiate

D. commend

Question 2: As he made no ________ to our quarrel, I assumed he had forgiven me.

A. statement

B. mention

C. reference

D. comment

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Question 3: It was found that he lacked the ________ to pursue a difficult task to the very end.

A. persuasion

B. commitment

C. engagement

D. obligation

Question 4: The newspaper did not mention the ________ of the damage caused by the fire.

A. range

B. extent

C. amount

D. quality

Question 5: Frankly, I'd rather you ________ anything about it for the time being.

A. don't do

B. hadn't done

C. didn't do

D. haven't done

Question 6: Since they aren't answering their telephone, they ________ A. must have left

B. should have left

C. need have left

D. can have left

Question 7: He can not ________ ignorance as his excuse; he should have known what was happening in his own department.

A. insist

B. plead

C. refer

D. defend

Question 8: I was angry when you saw me because I ________ with my sister.

A. have been arguing

B. had been arguing

C. argued

D. would argue

Question 9: Luckily, I ________ a new pair of sunglasses as I found mine at the bottom of a bag

A. needn't have bought

B. needed not to buy

C. didn't need to buy

D. hadn't to buy

Question 10: The book would have been perfect ________ the ending.

A. had it not been for

B. it had not been for

C. it hadn't been for

D. hadn't it been for.

Question 11: I'm ________ my brother is.

A. nowhere like so ambitious

B. nothing near as ambitious as

C. nothing as ambitious than

D. nowhere near as ambitious as

Question 12: ________ I'd like to help you out, I'm afraid I just haven't got any spare money at the moment.

A. Even

B. Despite

C. Much as

D. Try as

Question 13: Hardly ________ of the paintings at the gallery were for sale A. none

B. few

C. some

D. any

Question 14: Mr. Nixon refused to answer the questions on the ________ that the matter was confidential.

A. reasons

B. excuses

C. grounds

D. foundation

Question 15: William is an authority ________ medieval tapestries B. with

C. about

D. in

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A. on

Question 16: They attempted to ________ the painting to its original condition.

A. restore

B. renovate

C. repair

D. refurbish

Question 17: Jane's very modest, always ________ her success.

A. playing down

B. . turning around

C. keeping down

D. pushing back

Question 18: I feel ________ to inform the committee that a number of members are very unhappy with the decision.

A. my duty

B. it my duty

C. this my duty

D. that my duty

Question 19: I'm sure when you've stopped looking for your keys, they'll ________up somewhere.

A. take

B. look

C. turn

D. pull

Question 20: It's very easy to ________ over when the snow is hard.

A. slide

B. skid

C. skate

D. slip

Question 21: All things ________, he is the best president we are likely to get.

A. considered

B. thought

C. taken

D. added

Question 22: Check the bottles carefully to make sure they have not been ________ A. broken into

B. taken out

C. touched up

D. tampered with

Question 23: Harry:" ________"

Kate: "Yes. I'd like to buy a computer."

A. Do you look for something?

B. Good morning. Can I help you?

C. Excuse me. Do you want to buy it?

D. Can you help me buy something?

Question 24: Peter: “I’ve been awarded a scholarship to study in America.”

Kate: “Uh, really? ________!”

A. Take care of yourself

B. Congratulations

C. You are always lucky

D. Lucky as you are

Question 25: Tom:" Would you take this along to the office for me?"

Jerry:" ________"

A. Never mind

B. Yes, with pleasure

C. Yes, that's right

D. Not at all

Question 26: Do you think Ms. Brown will ________ for Parliament in the next election?

A. run

B. walk

C. sit

D. stand

Question 27: Nearly all of the reporters ________ the press conference had questions ________ B. attended / to ask

C. attending / to ask

. would attend / to be asked

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A. attend / asked

Question 28: The general public ________ a large number of computers now, because prices are beginning to decrease.

A. must buy

B. must be buying

C. must have bought

D. must bought

Question 29: I'm worried about ________ on so much work.

A. she taking

B. she takes

C. her to take

D. her taking

Question 30: - Hieroglyphics ________on the walls of caves provide scientists with important details on prehistoric man.

A. painted

B. were painted

C. have been painted

D. that they painted

Question 31: If you ________ Peter, could you tell him to ring me up?

A. come into

B. come over

C. come across

D. come back

Question 32: Where did you buy that ________ handbag?

A. funny leather purple

B. purple funny leather

C. funny purple leather

D. leather funny purple

Question 33: To buy this type of product, you must pay half of the money ________, and pay the rest on the day of delivery.

A. in advance

B. in cheque

C. in cash

D. in charge

Question 34: The boy was sent to the police because of several ________ that he had taken part in.

A. set-to

B. set-toes

C. sets-to

D. set-tos

Question 35: ________, the results couldn’t be better.

A. No matter what he tried hard

B. No matter how hard he tried

C. Although very hard he tried

D. Despite how hard he tried

Question 36: Adam: "It was very kind of you to help me out, Anna?"

Anna: “________” A. I'm glad you like it

B. Thanks a million

C. That was the least I could do

D. You can say that again.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined sound that is pronounced differently from the rest or the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress: Question 37: A. explosion

B. conversion

C. precision

D. expansion

Question 38: A. dangerous

B. conspicuous

C. marvelous

D. numerous

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 39 to 40.

D áş Y da K yk ĂˆM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ć N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

Animation traditionally is done by hand-drawing or painting successive frames of an object,

each slightly different than the preceding frame. In computer animation, although the computer may be the one to draw the different frames, in most cases the artist will draw the beginning and ending frames and the computer will produce the drawings between the first and the last drawing. This is generally referred to as computer-assisted animation, because the computer is more of a helper than an originator.

In full computer animation, complex mathematical formulas are used to produce the final

sequence of pictures. These formulas operate on extensive databases of numbers that define the objects in the pictures as they exist in mathematical space. The database consists of endpoints, and color and intensity information. Highly trained professionals are needed to produce such effects because animation that obtains high degrees of realism involves computer techniques for three-dimensional transformation, shading, and curvatures.

High-tech computer animation for film involves very expensive computer systems along

with special color terminals or frame buffers. The frame buffer is nothing more than a giant image memory for viewing a single frame. It temporarily holds the image for display on the screen.

A camera can be used to film directly from the computer's display screen, but for the highest

quality images possible, expensive film recorders are used. The computer computes the positions and colors for the figures in the picture, and sends this information to the recorder, which captures it on film. Sometimes, however, the images are stored on a large magnetic disk before being sent to the recorder. Once this process is completed, it is repeated for the next frame.

When the entire sequence has been recorded on the film, the film must be developed before the animation can be viewed. If the entire sequence does not seem right, the motions must be corrected, recomputed, redisplayed, and rerecorded. This approach can be very expensive and time consuming. Often, computer-animation companies first do motion tests with simple computer-generated line drawings before selling their computers to the task of calculating the high-resolution, realistic-looking images.

Question 39: What aspect of computer animation does the passage mainly discuss?

A. The production procession

B. The equipment needed

C. The high cost

D. The role of the artist

Question 40: According to the passage, in computer-assisted animation the role of the computer is to draw the ________.

B. middle frames

C. last frame

D. entire sequences of frames

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A. first frame

Question 41: The word "they" in the second paragraph refers to ________ A. formulas

B. objects

C. numbers

D. database

Question 42: According to the passage, the frame buffers mentioned in the third paragraph are used to ________.

A. add color to the images

B. expose several frames at the same time

C. store individual images

D. create new frames

Question 43: According to the passage, the positions and colours of the figures in high-tech animation are determined ________.

A. drawing several versions

B. enlarging one frame at a lime

C. analyzing the sequence from different angles D. using computer calculations

Question 44: The word "captures" in the fourth paragraph is closest in meaning to _______ A. separates

B. registers

C. describes

D. numbers

Question 45: Which of the following statements is supported by the passage?

A. Computers have reduced the costs of animation.

B. In the future, traditional artists will no longer be needed.

C. Artists are unable to produce drawings as high in quality as computer drawings.

D. Animation involves a wide range of technical and artistic skills.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the best option for each of the blanks.

Why do people like to chew gum? Some people say they like the taste. (46) ________say they can think better if they chew gum. Some people chew it when they have some boring work to do.

Others chew gum when they are nervous.

Gum is a mixture of things. For many years gum companies made gum from chicle. Chicle is a natural gum from a tree in Mexico and Central America. Now companies use plastic and rubber made from petroleum (47) ________of chicle.

Gum must be soft so that you can chew it. A softener keeps it soft. The gum company makes the softener from vegetable oil. A sweetener makes the gum sweet. The sweetener is usually sugar. Then the company (48) ________the flavor.

Thomas Adams made the first gum from chicle in 1836. However, chewing gum was not new.

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The Greeks chewed gum from a tree (49) ________2,000 years ago. Mayan Indians in Mexico chewed chicle. Indians in the Northeastern United States taught Europeans to chew gum from a tree there.

People first made bubble gum in 1928. Children like to (50) ________bubble with bubble

gum. Some university students do too.

Question 46: A. The other

B. Others

C. The others

D. Other

Question 47: A. aside

B. apart

C. inside

D. instead

Question 48: A. puts

B. places

C. adds

D. fits

Question 49: A. more

B. over

C. above

D. than

Question 50: A. turn

B. set

C. pass

D. blow

ĐÁP ÁN

1-C

2-C

3-B

4-B

5-C

6-A

7-B

8-B

9-C

10-A

11-D

12-C

13-D

14-C

15-A

16-A

17-A

18-B

19-C

20-D

21-A

22-D

23-B

24-B

25-B

26-A

27-C

28-C

29-D

30-A

31-C

32-C

33-A

34-D

35-B

36-C

37-D

38-B

39-A

40-B

41-B

42-C

43-D

44-B

45-D

46-B

47-D

48-C

49-B

50-D

ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 3 ❖ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 1: They always kept on good ________ with their next-door neighbors for the children’s sake.

A. will

B. interpersonal

C. terms

D. link

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Question 2: They stayed for hours, ________ my mother was very annoyed about.

A. that

B. which

C. this

D. whom

Question 3: Ellen: “________?” – Tom: “He’s tall and thin with blue eyes.”

A. What does John look like

B. Who does John look like

C. How is John doing

D. What does John like

Question 4: Offices, too, will go ________ with the result that paper will almost completely disappear.

A. well

B. wrong

C. electrified

D. electronic

Question 5: In future, cars will still be ________ us, but, instead of petrol, they will run ________ anything from electricity to methane gas.

A. for/ on

B. with/ by

C. for/ by

D. with/ on

Question 6: I wonder if you could ________ me a small favour, Tom? A. bring

B. make

C. give

D. do

Question 7: Can you take of the shop while Mr. Bontall is away?

A. management

B. running

C. charge

D. operation

Question 8: They shifted economic priority from heavy industry to three major economic programmes, ________, production of food, production of consumer goods and production of exports.

A. as a result

B. namely

C. especially

D. accordingly

Question 9: There is a very clear relationship ________ education and academic success.

A. between

B. for

C. in

D. on

Question 10: Being well-dress and punctual can help you create a good on your interviewer.

A. effectiveness

B. pressure

C. employment

D. impression

Question 11: Any child has the right to an education ________ of sex, creed, race or nationality.

A. despite

B. regardless

C. because

D. providing

Question 12: _________ her tears, she waved goodbye to her family from the station platform.

A. Filling out

B. Bringing in

C. Turning over

D. Fighting back

Question 13: A: I had a really good weekend at my uncle’s.

B: “________”.

A. Oh, that’s very nice of you

B. Congratulations

C. It’s pleasure

D. Oh, I’m glad to hear that

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Question 14: It is essential that Alice ________ Tom of the meeting tomorrow.

A. will remind

B. must remind

C. reminds

D. remind

Question 15: If only we ________ more time, we could have seen more of the country.

A. had

B. have had

C. had had

D. would have had

Question 16: He always did well at school ________ having his early education disrupted by illness.

A. in spite of

B. on account of

C. even though

D. in addition to

Question 17: Developments in micro technology-computers and telecommunication are bound to have a huge influence on various ________ of our lives.

A. numbers

B. aspects

C. angles

D. results

❖ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction.

Question 18: The world is becoming more industrialized and the number of animal species that have become extinct have increased.

A. industrialized

B. species

C. extinct

D. have

Question 19: Hardly had he entered the room than all the lights went out.

A. had he entered

B. than

C. the lights

D. went

Question 20: Mrs. Steven, along with her cousins from New Mexico, are planning to attend the festivals.

A. with

B. her cousins

C. are

D. to attend

❖ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined sound that is pronounced differently from the rest or the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress: Question 21: A. drought

B. fought

C. brought

D. bought

Question 22: A. builds.

B. destroys

C. occurs

D. prevents

Question 23: A. situation

B. entertainment

C. informality

D. appropriate

❖ Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the best option for each of the blanks.

Why do people like to chew gum? Some people say they like the taste. ____24____ say they can think better if they chew gum. Some people chew it when they have some boring work to do. Others chew gum when they are nervous.

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

Gum is a ____25____ of things. For many years gum companies made gum from chicle.

Chicle is a natural gum from a tree in Mexico and Central America. Now companies use plastic and rubber made from petroleum instead of chicle.

Gum must be soft ____26____ you can chew it. A softener keeps it soft. The gum company makes the softener from vegetable oil. A sweetener makes the gum sweet. The sweetener is usually sugar. Then the company adds the flavor.

Thomas Adams made the first gum from chicle in 1836. ____27____, chewing gum was not new. The Greeks chewed gum from a tree over 2,000 years ago. Mayan Indians in Mexico chewed chicle. Indians in the Northeastern United States taught Europeans to chew gum from a tree there.

People first made bubble gum in 1928. Children like to ____28____ bubble with bubble

gum. Some university students do too Question 24: A. The other Question 25: A. mixture

B. Others B. roll

C. The others C. fix

D. Other D. connection

Question 26: A. so that

B. then

C. for

D. that

Question 27: A. However

B. More

C. But

D. Though

Question 28: A. turn

B. set

C. pass

D. blow

❖ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSET in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions: Question 29: Whenever problems come up, we discuss them frankly and find solutions quickly.

A. clean

B. encounter

C. arrive

Question 30: When I mentioned the party, he was all ears.

A. partially deaf

B. listening attentively

C. listening neglectfully

D. deaf

D. happen

❖ Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 35: A survey is a study, generally in the form of an interview or a questionnaire, which provides information concerning how people think and act. In the United States, the bestknown surveys are the Gallup poll and the Harris poll. As anyone who watches the news during presidential campaigns knows, these polls have become an important part of political

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life in the United States.

North Americans are familiar with the many "person on the street" interviews on

local television news shows. While such interviews can be highly entertaining, they are not necessarily an accurate indication of public opinion. First, they reflect the opinions of only those people who appear at a certain location. Thus, such samples can be biased in favor of commuters, middle-class shoppers, or factory workers, depending on which area the new people select. Second, television interviews tend to attract outgoing people who are willing to appear on the air, while they frighten away others who may feel intimidated by a camera. A survey must be based on a precise, representative sampling if it is to genuinely reflect a broad range of the population.

In preparing to conduct a survey, sociologists must exercise great care in the wording

of questions. An effective survey question must be simple and clear enough for people to understand it. It must also be specific enough so that there are no problems in interpreting the results. Even questions that are less structured must be carefully phrased in order to elicit the type of information desired. Surveys can be indispensable sources of information, but only if the sampling is done properly and the questions are worded accurately.

There are two main forms of surveys: the interview and the questionnaire. Each of

these forms of survey research has its advantages. An interviewer can obtain a high response rate because people find it more difficult to turn down a personal request for an interview than to throw away a written questionnaire.

In addition, an interviewer can go beyond written questions and probe for a subject's underlying feelings and reasons. However, questionnaires have the advantage of being cheaper and more consistent.

Question 31: According to the passage, one advantage of live interviews over questionnaires is that live interviews _________.

A. minimize the influence of the researcher B. are easier to interpret C. costless

D. can produce more information

Question 32: The word “they” refers to ________.

A. interviews

B. opinions

C. news shows

D. North Americans

Question 33: Which word is given definition in the text?

A. sampling

B. poll

C. survey

D. interview

Question 34: According to paragraph 3, which of the following is most important for an effective survey?

A. A sociologist who is able to interpret the results

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B. Carefully worded questions

C. An interviewer’s ability to measure respondents’ feelings D. A high number of respondents

Question 35: What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. The principles of conducting surveys

B. The importance of polls in American political life C. Problems associated with interpreting surveys D. The history of surveys in North America

❖ Choose the sentence that is similar in meaning to the given one: Question 36: Both of the lifts were out of order.

A. Either of the lifts was not in right order.

B. The order of the two lifts was wrong

C. Neither of the lifts was working.

D. Neither of the lifts was in order.

Question 37: The crowd became increasingly angry at the long delay.

A. The crowd became very angry because the delay was so long.

B. The more increasingly the crowd became, the longer the delay was.

C. The longer the delay was, the angrier the crowd became.

D. The more the crowd became angry at the delay, the longer they feel

Question 38: Madeleine wears high heels to look taller.

A. In order to look taller, Madeleine wears high heels.

B. So that to look taller, Madeleine wears high heels.

C. Madeleine wants high heels to make her taller.

D. Madeleine buys high heels to look taller.

Question 39: That T.V is badly damaged. It cannot be repaired.

A. That T.V is so badly damaged that is cannot be repaired.

B. That T.V is too badly damaged to be repaired.

C. That T.V is so badly damaged that nobody can repair it.

D. All are correct.

Question 40: We cut down many forests. The earth becomes hot.

A. The more we cut forests, the hotter the earth becomes.

B. The more forests we cut down, the hotter the earth becomes.

C. The more we cut forests, the earth becomes hotter.

D. The more forests we cut down, the earth becomes hotter.

Question 41: Mike graduated with a good degree. However, he joined the ranks of the

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unemployed.

A. Mike joined the ranks of the unemployed because he graduated with a good degree.

B. If Mike graduated with a good degree, he would join the ranks of the unemployed.

C. Although Mike graduated with a good degree, he joined the ranks of the unemployed.

D. That Mike graduated with a good degree helped him join the ranks of the unemployed.

Question 42: Put your coat on. You will get cold.

A. You will not get cold unless you put your coat on.

B. Put your coat on, otherwise you will get cold.

C. It is not until you put your coat on that you will get cold.

D. You not only put your coat on but also get cold.

❖ Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50:

Basic to any understanding of Canada in the 20 years after the Second World War is the

country’s impressive population growth. For every three Canadians in 1945, there were over five in 1966. In September 1966 Canada’s population passed the 20 million mark. Most of his surging growth came from natural increase. The depression of the 1930’s and the war had held back marriages, and the catching-up process began after 1945. The baby boom continued through the decade of the 1950s, producing a population increase of nearly fifteen percent in the five years from 1951 to 1956. This rate of increase had been exceeded only once before settle. Undoubtedly, the good economic conditions of the 1950’s supported a growth in the population, but the expansion also derived from a trend toward earlier marriages and an increase in the average size of families. In 1957 the Canadian birth rate stood at 28 per thousand, one of the highest in the world.

After the peak year of 1957, the birth rate in Canada began to decline. It continued falling until in 1966 it stood at the lowest level in 25 years. Partly this decline reflected the low level of births during the depression and the war, but it was also caused by changes in

Canadian society. Young people were staying at school longer; more women were working; young married couples were buying automobiles or houses before starting families; rising living standards were cutting down the size of families. It appeared that Canada was once more falling in step with the trend toward smaller families that had occurred all through the Western world since the time of the Industrial Revolution.

Although the growth in Canada’s population had slowed down by 1966 (the increase in the first half of the 1960’s was only nine percent), another large population wave was

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coming over the horizon. It would be composed of the children who were born during the period of the high birth rate prior to 1957.

Question 43: What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. Educational changes in Canadian society

B. Canada during the Second World War

C. Population trends in postwar Canada

D. Standards of living in Canada.

Question 44: The word “five” in bold refers to A. Canadians

B. years

C. decades

D. marriages

Question 45: The word “surging” in bold is closest in meaning to A. new

B. extra

C. accelerating

D. surprising

Question 46: The author suggests that in Canada during the 1950’s A. the urban population decreased rapidly

B. fewer people married

C. economic conditions were poor

D. the birth rate was very high

Question 47: The word “trend” in bold is closest in meaning to: A. tendency

B. aim

C. growth

D. directive

Question 48: The author mention all of the following as causes of declines in population growth after 1957 EXCEPT

A. people being better educated

B. people getting married earlier

C. better standards of living

D. couples buying houses

Question 49: It can be inferred from the passage that before the Industrial Revolution A. families were larger

B. population statistics were unreliable

C. the population grew steadily

D. economic conditions were bad

Question 50: The word “it” in bold refers to A. horizon

B. population wave

C. nine percent

D. first half

Đáp án 2-B

3-A

4-D

5-D

6-D

7-C

8-B

9-A

10-D

11-B

12-D

13-D

14-D

15-C

16-A

17-B

18-D

19-B

20-C

21-A

22-D

23-D

24-B

25-A

26-A

27-A

28-D

29-D

30-B

31-D

32-A

33-C

34-B

35-A

36-C

37-C

38-A

39-D

40-B

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1-C

41-C

42-B

43-C

44-A

45-C

46-D

47-A

48-B

49-A

50-B

ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 4 ❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 1. Please ________ and see us some time. You’re always welcome.

A. come to

B. come around

C. come about

D. come away

Question 2. The judge ________ the murderer to a lifetime imprisonment.

B. convicted

C. sentenced

D. prosecuted

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A. accused

Question 3. Only in the Civil War ________ killed or wounded.

A. soldiers in America were

B. so many American soldiers were

C. many in America were

D. were so many American soldiers

Question 4. I have to assure myself that I ________ the best possible decision.

A. have leapt

B. have done

C. have made

D. have reached

Question 5. James: “What’s the matter?” - Anne: “________” A. That’s all right

B. Not at all

C. Nothing

D. It’s no trouble

Question 6. If it ________ their encouragement, he could have given it up.

A. had been for

B. hadn’t been for

C. wouldn’t have been for

D. hadn’t been

Question 7. It’s surprising that ex-smokers are less ________ smokers than non-smokers.

A. tolerant of

B. tolerable to

C. intolerant

D. tolerance towards

Question 8. “What a great haircut, Lucy!” - “________” A. Thanks. It’s very kind of you to do this.

B. It’s my pleasure

C. Oh, yes. That’s right

D. You think so? I think it’s a bit too short

Question 9. The criminal was sentenced to death because of ________ of his crime.

A. the severity

B. the complexity

C. a punishment

D. the importance

Question 10. Tony often watches TV after his parents ________ to bed.

A. have gone

B. go

C. had gone

D. went

Question 11. My brother has no ________ in football.

A. interestingly

B. interested

C. interest

D. interesting

Question 12. My father has to work ________ a night shift once a week.

A. at

B. in

C. on

D. under

Question 13. We expected him at eight but he finally ________ at midnight.

A. came off

B. turned out

C. came to

D. turned up

Question 14. The computer’s memory is the place where information ________ and calculations are done.

A. keep

B. is kept

C. kept

D. are kept

Question 15. Mary. ________ mother is a doctor, intends to choose medical career.

A. that

B. whose

C. whom

D. who

Question 16. ________ classical dance for five years, Akiko finally felt ready ________ in public.

B. To study / performed

C. Being studied / having performed

D. Having studied / to perform

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A. Studying / to be performed

Question 17. Last year Matt earned ________ his brother, who had a better position.

A. twice more than

B. twice as many as

C. twice as more as

D. twice as much as

Question 18. Internet ________ has helped bloggers share their experiences and opinions ________ easily and quickly.

A. connector

B. connecting

C. connectivity

D. connection

Question 19. It is raining hard. We had better ________ at home tonight.

A. to stay

B. to be staying

C. staying

D. stay

Question 20. My mother advised me ________ an apple every day to stay healthy.

A. eat

B. ate

C. to eat

D. eating

❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined sound that is pronounced differently from the rest or the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress: Question 21.

A. pioneer

B. engineer

C. reindeer

D. referee

Question 22.

A. establish

B. intimidate

C. inheritance

D. user

Question 23.

A. mate

B. mat

C. cram

D. spectacular

❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction.

Question 24. If they took their language lesson seriously they would be able to communicate with the locals now.

A. took

B. seriously

C. would be

D. with the locals

Question 25. It announced today that an enquiry would be held into the collapse of a highrise apartment block in Kuala Lumpur last week.

A. announced

B. would be held

C. high-rise

D. block

Question 26. I strongly object the idea of students in the final year working part-time jobs.

A. object the idea

B. in the final year

C. working

D. jobs

❖ Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the best answer to each of the following questions.

Shyness may not seem to be a serious complaint, but for some who suffer from it, it can become unbearable. Even talking to a small group of people you know can seem like an ordeal - it can feel as if you’ve been asked to give a speech on a topic you know very little

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about to a number of experts. You start to feel hot and shaky, your heart beats faster, your knees feel weak, you begin to stutter and the whole experience seems to last forever.

The fact of the matter is that shyness is something we often recognize in others: blushing

is one of the more visible signs, for example. Yet we do not judge someone harshly because of this. But shyness does mean you are harder to approach, so you become more isolated. As one shy person put it, “It’s like being in a prison, and it’s very hard to break out.”

Experts on the subject have come up with various possible solutions, and one has been

singled out as being the key to success, namely, finding an interest in common with other people. Spending a lot of time on the sidelines watching other people and envying them because they are much more outgoing doesn’t help; remembering that some of the people you envy most are probably shy themselves. The secret is how you deal with it. And experts have come up with four things you can do today to help. Firstly, you can start by listening to other people. You will find yourself getting interested in what they’re talking about and asking questions, and before you know it, you’ll be having a conversation. Secondly, you could try asking neighbors if you can walk their dog. Like children, pets can be excellent icebreakers for conversations with passers-by. Thirdly, try joining a class to learn something like tapdancing or flamenco, where people are likely to laugh a lot. You’ll feel relaxed, and also you’ll be much too busy concentrating on what you are doing to feel shy. Lastly, try telling yourself that it doesn’t matter if you say or do something silly. Most people make a fool of themselves every so often, and it’s not the end of the world if you do.

Question 27. One of the symptoms of shyness in a stressful situation is ________ A. sweating a lot.

B. an increased heart rate.

C. pain in the knees.

D. excessive talkativeness.

Question 28. Why do shy people become more reserved?

A. Their social unease makes them more difficult to talk to.

B. They see that others are shy too.

C. Other people lack the patience to talk to them.

D. They dread being judged by others.

Question 29. The word “blushing” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ________.

A. going green

B. going red

C. smiling

D. sweating

Question 30. What do experts believe is the most essential measure to be taken?

A. Studying others’ behaviour in social situations.

B. Discovering shared interests with others.

C. Comparing yourself to other people.

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D. Finding out what makes other people shy.

Question 31. How can listening to others prove helpful in combating shyness?

A. You develop useful psychological skills.

B. It’s the first step to getting into conversation.

C. People will see you care about their interests.

D. It’s a visible sign of becoming less shy.

❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that has the same meaning as the original one.

Question 32. Without skillful surgery he would not have survived the operation.

A. Had it been for skillful surgery he would not have survived the operation.

B. He wouldn’t have survived the operation if he hadn’t had skillful surgery.

C. But for skillful surgery he would not have survived the operation.

D. With skillful surgery he would have survived the operation.

Question 33. What Rachael does in her freetime doesn’t concern me.

A. What Rachael does in her freetime is none of my business.

B. What Rachael does in her freetime is not my concern.

C. I don’t know what Rachael does in her free time.

D. What Rachael does in her freetime is not concerned by me.

Question 34. We couldn’t have managed without my father’s money.

A. Hadn’t it been for my father’s money, we couldn’t have managed.

B. We could have managed with my father’s money.

C. If we could managed, my father’s money would be there.

D. If we couldn’t have managed, we would have had my father’s money. ❖ Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

Most traditional human life in deserts is nomadic. It (35) ________ in hot deserts on finding water, and on following infrequent rains to (36) ________ grazing for livestock. In cold deserts, it depends on finding good hunting and fishing grounds, on sheltering from blizzards and winter (37) ________, and on storing enough food for winter. Permanent settlement in both kinds of deserts requires permanent water, food sources and adequate shelter, or the technology and energy sources to (38) ________ it.

Many deserts are flat and featureless, lacking landmarks, or composed of repeating

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landforms such as sand (39) ________ or the jumbled ice-fields of glaciers. Advanced skills or devices are required to navigate through such landscapes and (40) ________ travelers may die when supplies run (41) ________ after becoming lost. In addition, sandstorms or blizzards may cause disorientation in severely-reduced visibility.

The (42) ________ represented by wild animals in deserts has featured in explorers'

accounts but does not cause higher (43) ________ of death than in other environments such as rainforests or savanna woodland, and generally does not affect human distribution.

Defense against polar bears may be advisable in some areas of the Arctic. Precautions against snakes and scorpions in choosing (44) ________ at which to camp in some hot deserts should be taken.

Question 35.

A. locates

B. selects

C. follows

D. depends

Question 36.

A. earn

B. demand

C. obtain

D. require

Question 37.

A. extremes

B. poles

C. tops

D. heights

Question 38.

A. grow

B. supply

C. comfort

D. bring

Question 39.

A. dunes

B. piles

C. valleys

D. stores

Question 40.

A. inconsistent

B. incapable

C. inexperienced

D. independent

Question 41.

A. of

B. out

C. in

D. over

Question 42.

A. danger

B. dangerous

C. endanger

D. endangered

Question 43.

A. level

B. rate

C. scale

D. standard

Question 44.

A. sight

B. lies

C. sites

D. seats

❖ Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Every drop of water in the ocean, even in the deepest parts, responds to the forces that create the tides. No other force that affects the sea is so strong. Compared with the tides, the waves created by the wind are surface movements felt no more than a hundred fathoms below

the surface. The currents also seldom involve more than the upper several hundred fathoms despite their impressive sweep.

The tides are a response of the waters of the ocean to the pull of the Moon and the more distant Sun. In theory, there is a gravitational attraction between the water and even the outermost star of the universe. In reality, however, the pull of remote stars is so slight as to be obliterated by the control of the Moon and, to a lesser extent, the Sun. Just as the Moon rises later each day by fifty minutes, on the average, so, in most places,

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the time of high tide is correspondingly later each day. And as the Moon waxes and wanes in its monthly cycle, so the height of the tide varies. The tidal movements are strongest when the Moon is a sliver in the sky, and when it is full. These are the highest flood tides and the lowest ebb tides of the lunar month and are called the spring tides. At these times the Sun, Moon, and Earth are nearly in line and the pull of the two heavenly bodies is added together to bring the water high on the beaches, to send its surf upward against the sea cliffs, and to draw a high tide into the harbors. Twice each month, at the quarters of the Moon, when the Sun, Moon, and Earth lie at the apexes of a triangular configuration and the pull of the Sun and Moon are opposed, the moderate tidal movements called neap tides occur. Then the difference between high and low water is less than at any other time during the month.

Question 45. What is the main point of the first paragraph?

A. The waves created by ocean currents are very large.

B. Despite the strength of the wind, it only moves surface water.

C. Deep ocean water is seldom affected by forces that move water.

D. The tides are the most powerful force to affect the movement of ocean water.

Question 46. The word “felt” in line 3 is closest in meaning to A. based

B. dropped

C. detected

D. explored

Question 47. The words “In reality” in line 8 are closest in meaning to A. surprisingly

B. actually

C. characteristically

D. similarly

Question 48. It can be inferred from the passage that the most important factor in determining how much gravitational effect one object in space has on the tides is A. size

B. distance

C. temperature

D. density

Question 49. The word “correspondingly” in line 11 is closest in meaning to A. unpredictably

B. interestingly

C. similarly

D. unusually

Question 50. What is the cause of spring tides?

A. Seasonal changes in the weather B. The gravitational pull of the Sun and the Moon when nearly in line with the Earth

C. The Earth's movement around the Sun D. The triangular arrangement of the Earth, Sun, and Moon ĐÁP ÁN 2-C

3-D

4-C

5-C

6-B

7-A

8-D

9-A

10-A

11-C

12-B

13-D

14-B

15-B

16-D

17-D

18-D

19-D

20-C

21-C

22-D

23-A

24-A

25-A

26-A

27-B

28-A

29-B

30-B

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1-B

31-B

32-C

33-A

34-A

35-D

36-C

37-A

38-B

39-A

40-C

41-B

42-A

43-B

44-C

45-D

46-C

47-B

48-B

49-C

50-B

ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 5 ❖ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 1: Not only ________ to determine the depth of the ocean floor, but it is also used to locate oil.

A. to use seismology

B. is seismology used

C. seismology is used

D. using seismology

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Question 2: ________ most student in the class, Terry never does homework before going to school.

A. Unlike

B. Like

C. Similiar

D. Different

Question 3: Having been found guilty of theft, ________ to find work in his chosen field as an accountant.

A. was difficult for David

B. David found is difficult

C. found David difficult D. it was found by David difficult

Question 4: That can’t be a true story. He ________ it up.

A. can have made

B. must have made

C. would have made

D. should have made

Question 5: In his official visit to Vietnam a few months ago, President Obama had the opportunity to try Bun Cha, a traditional ________ hailing from Hanoi.

A. meal

B. cuisine

C. dish

D. course

Question 6: Nowadays, women have gained significant legal ________.

A. wrongs

B. works

C. responsibilities

D. rights

Question 7: In my family, both my parents ________ to give us a nice house and a happy home.

A. deal with

B. get out

C. shake hands

D. join hands

Question 8: Bob: “Thank you very much for a lovely party” – Bill: “______!”

A. Have a good day

B. You are welcome

C. Thanks

D. cheers

Question 9: Hurry up! They’ve only got ________ seats left.

A. a lot of

B. a little

C. a few

D. plenty of

Question 10: I ________ an old friend of mine in the street this morning. We haven’t seen each other for ages.

A. ran into

B. ran out

C. came over

Question 11: There are about 50 ________ for each vacancy.

D. came round

A. competitors

B. attendants

C. applicants

D. interviewers

Question 12: I am always under ________, and it is affecting my health.

A. work

B. pressure

C. study

D. relax

Question 13: John was in Hanoi and wanted to send a parcel to his parents. He asked a local passer-by the way to the post-office. Choose the most suitable response to fill in the blank in the following exchange.

John: “Can you show me the way to the nearest post office, please?”

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Passer-by: “________” A. Not way, sorry

B. Just round the corner over there.

C. Look it up in a dictionary!

D. There’s no traffic near here.

Question 14: Hurry up, or they ________ serving meals by the time we get to the restaurant.

A. stopped

B. will have stopped

C. are stopping

D. would stop

Question 15: Whenever I feel embarrassed, I always go red as a ________.

A. rose

B. lipstick

C. raspberry

D. beetroot

Question 16: The new director of the company seems to be an intelligent and ________ man.

A. well-educated

B. well-educate

C. well-educational

D. well-education

Question 17: Nowadays children prefer history ________ in more practical ways.

A. be taught

B. teach

C. to be taught

D. to be teaching

❖ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction.

Question 18: A new school with more than 50 classrooms have just been built in our local area.

A. more than

B. have

C. built

D. local

Question 19: Some underground water is enough safe to drink, but all the surface water must be treated.

A. some

B. enough safe

C. must be

D. treated

Question 20: The wooden fence surrounded the factory is beginning to fall down because of the rain.

A. wooden

B. surrounded

C. fall down

D. the rain

❖ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined sound that is pronounced differently from rest or the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress: Question 21:

A. examine

B. imagine

C. discipline

D. magazine

Question 22:

A. funny

B. rubbish

C. upper

D. student

Question 23:

A. cosmetics

B. fertility

C. economics

D. experience

❖ Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the best option for each of the blanks.

THE FASTEST DINOSAUR According to computer models that were used to estimate the running speeds of dinosaurs, the Tyrannosaurus Rex would have been able to outrun a footballer. The study

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shows that the dinosaur could reach a top (24) ________ of 8 metres a second, which is fractionally faster than the average professional footballer. There has been a lot of controversy (25) ________ whether the Tyrannosaurus Rex was a predator or a scavenger; some believe that its highly developed sense of smell indicates that it was a scavenger, while others say that its keen eyesight shows that it was a hunter. The (26) ________ group will appreciate the recent study, as a hunter is more likely to require such speed.

The University of Manchester study used a powerful supercomputer to calculate the

running speeds of five meat-eating dinosaurs and used data taken directly from dinosaur fossils, rather than referring to previous work on modern animals. The Tyrannosaurus Rex, however, was not the fastest dinosaur. A small dinosaur (27) ________ Compsognathus, which was about the size of a chicken, could run at 18 metres a second, which is faster than the ostrich, the fastest two-legged animal today. It could run 100 metres in a little over six seconds, which would beat modern Olympic (28) ________ more than a third of the track behind.

Question 24:

A. fast

B. speed

C. swift

D. rate

Question 25:

A. about

B. as

C. at

D. to

Question 26:

A. former

B. later

C. latter

D. first

Question 27:

A. called

B. named as

C. known

D. name

Question 28:

A. athlete

B. athletic

C. athletics

D. athletes

❖ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSET in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 29: When being interviewed, you should concentrate on what the interviewer is saying or asking you.

A. pay all attention to

B. be interested in

C. be related to

D. express interest to

Question 30: John wants to buy a new car, so he starts setting aside a small part of his monthly earnings.

A. putting out

B. saving up

C. spending on

D. using up

❖ Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 35: Centuries ago, man discovered that removing moisture from food helped to preserve it, and that the easiest way to do this was to expose the food to sun and wind. In this way the North American Indians produced pemmican (dried meat ground into powder and made into cakes), the Scandinavians made stock fish and the Arabs dried dates and apricots.

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All foods contain water - cabbage and other leaf vegetables contain as much as 93%

water, potatoes and other root vegetables 80%, lean meat 75% and fish anything from 80% to 60% depending on how fatty it is. If this water is removed, the activity of the bacteria which cause food to go bad is checked.

Fruit is sun-dried in Asia Minor, Greece, Spain and other Mediterranean countries, and

also in California, South Africa and Australia. The methods used vary, but in general the fruit is spread out on trays in drying yards in the hot sun. In order to prevent darkening, pears, peaches and apricots are exposed to the fumes of burning sulphur before drying. Plums for making prunes, and certain varieties of grapes for making raisins and currants, are dipped in an alkaline solution in order to crack the skins of the fruit slightly and remove their wax coating, so increasing the rate of drying.

Nowadays most foods are dried mechanically; the conventional method of such

dehydration is to put food in chambers through which hot air is blown at temperatures of about 110°C at entry to about 45°C at exit. This is the usual method for drying such things as vegetables, minced meat, and fish.

Liquids such as milk, coffee, tea, soups and eggs may be dried by pouring them over a

heated horizontal steel cylinder or by spraying them into a chamber through which a current of hot air passes. In the first case, the dried material is scraped off the roller as a thin film which is then broken up into small, though still relatively coarse flakes. In the second process it falls to the bottom of the chamber as a fine powder. Where recognizable pieces of meat and vegetables are required, as in soup, the ingredients are dried separately and then mixed.

Dried foods take up less room and weigh less than the same food packed in cans or frozen, and they do not need to be stored in special conditions. For these reasons they are invaluable to climbers, explorers and soldiers in battle, who have little storage space. They are also popular with housewives because it takes so little time to cook them.

Question 31: What is the main idea of the passage?

A. Mechanization of drying foods

B. Water, the main component of food

C. Advantages of dried foods

D. Different methods of drying foods.

Question 32: The word “checked” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.

A. put a tick

B. reduced considerably

C. motivated to develop

D. examined carefully

Question 33: In the process of drying certain kinds of fruits, sulphur fumes helps ________.

A. crack the skin

B. kill of bacteria D. maintain the color

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C. remove the wax coating

Question 34: According to the passage, dried foods are most useful for ________.

A. people who are on the move

B. explores who are underweight

C. housewives who have little storage space

D. soldiers who are not in battle.

Question 35: This passage is mainly ________.

A. informative

B. fictional

C. argumentative

Question 36: We prefer going by train because we can enjoy the sight.

A. We would like to go by train, or we will enjoy the sight.

B. We enjoy the sight although we go by train.

C. We prefer going by train to enjoying the sight.

D. We would like to go by train so that we can enjoy the sight.

Question 37: The airport taxes are included in the ticket price.

A. You need to pay for ticket and airport taxes.

B. The ticket is included in the airport taxes.

C. The ticket price includes the airport taxes.

D. The airport taxes and ticket price should be paid separately.

Question 38: The researchers finalized their research methods.

A. The researchers chose the last research methods.

B. The researchers made the final decision on their research methods C. Research methods are decided at the final stage of the study.

D. The researchers saved research methods for the final part.

Question 39: We always find Robert’s stories amusing.

A. Robert’s amusing stories are found.

B. Robert always interested in amusing stories.

C. We are always amused by Robert’s stories.

D. We always find Robert reading amusing stories.

Question 40: The secretary was upset because she was fired.

D. anal ytical

A. The secretary was unhappy as she lost her job.

B. The secretary was so angry that she set fire to the office.

C. The job was upsetting that the secretary gave it up.

D. The fire was so devastating that the secretary was upset. ❖ Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Plants and animals will find it difficult to escape from or adjust to the effect of global

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warming. Scientists have already observed shifts in the lifecycles of many plants and animals, such as flowers blooming earlier and birds hatching earlier in the spring. Many species have begun shifting where they live or their annual migration patterns due to warmer temperatures.

With further warming, animals will tend to migrate toward the poles and up mountainsides toward higher elevations. Plants will also attempt to shift their ranges, seeking new areas as old habitats grow too warm. In many places, however, human development will prevent these shifts. Species that find cities or farmland blocking their way north or south may become extinct. Species living in unique ecosystems, such as those found in polar and mountaintop regions, are especially at risk because migration to new habitats is not possible. For instance, polar bears and marine mammals in the Arctic are already threatened by dwindling sea ice but have nowhere farther to go. Projecting species extinction due to global warming is extremely difficult. Some scientists have estimated that 20 to 50 percent of species could be committed to extinction with 2 to 3 Celsius degrees of further warming. The rate of warming, not just the magnitude, is extremely important for plants and animals. Some species and even entire ecosystems, such as certain types of forest, many not be able to adjust quickly enough and may disappear. Ocean ecosystems, especially fragile ones like coral reefs, will also be affected by global warming. Warmer ocean temperatures can cause coral to “bleach”, a state which if prolonged will lead to the death of the coral. Scientists estimate that even 1 Celsius degree of additional warming could lead to widespread bleaching and death of coral reefs around the world. Also, increasing carbon dioxide in the atmosphere enters the ocean and increases the acidity of ocean waters. This acidification further stresses ocean ecosystems.

From “global warming” by Michael Mastrandrea and Stephen H.Schneider Question 41: Scientists have observed that warmer temperatures in the spring cause flowers to ________.

A. bloom earlier

B. die instantly

C. become lighter

D. lose color

Question 42: According to paragragh 2, when their habitats grow warmer, animals tend to move ________.

A. toward the North Pole and down mountainsides toward lower elevations.

B. toward the poles and up mountainsides toward higher elevations.

C. south-eastwards and up down mountainsides toward lower elevations.

D. north-westwards and up mountainsides toward higher elevations.

Question 43: The pronoun “those” in paragragh 2 refers to ________.

A. areas

B. habitats

C. species

D. ecosystems

Question 44: The phrase “dwindling sea ice” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.

B. the violent Arctic Ocean

C. the melting ice in the Arctic

D. the frozen water in the Arctic

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A. the cold ice in the Arctic

Question 45: It is mentioned in the passage that if the global temperature rose by 2 or 3 Celsius degrees ________.

A. half of the earth’s surface would be flooded B. water supply would decrease by 50 percent C. the sea level would rise by 20 centimeters

D. 20 or 50 percent of species could become extinct.

Question 46: According to the passage, if some species are not able to adjust quickly to warmer temperatures, ________.

A. they will certainly need water

B. they can begin to develop

C. they may be endangered

D. they move to tropical forests.

Question 47: The word “fragile” in paragragh 4 most probably means_______.

A. pretty hard

B. easily damaged

C. rather strong

D. very large

Question 48: The bleaching of coral reefs as mentioned in paragraph 4 indicates ________.

A. the slow death of coral reefs

B. the blooming phase of sea weeds

C. the quick growth of marine mammals

D. the water absorption of coral reefs

Question 49: The level of acidity in the ocean is increased by ________.

A. the loss of acidity in the atmosphere around the earth B. the decrease of acidity of the pole waters C. the extinction of species in coastal areas D. the rising amount of carbon dioxide entering the ocean.

Question 50: What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. Influence of climate changes on human lifestyles.

B. Effects of global warming on animals and plants.

C. Global warming and possible solutions.

D. Global warming and species migration.

ĐÁP ÁN

2-A

3-B

4-B

5-C

6-D

7-D

8-B

9-C

10-A

11-C

12-B

13-B

14-B

15-D

16-A

17-C

18-B

19-B

20-B

21-D

22-D

23-C

24-B

25-A

26-C

27-A

28-D

29-A

30-B

31-D

32-B

33-D

34-A

35-A

36-D

37-C

38-B

39-C

40-A

41-A

42-B

43-C

44-C

45-D

46-C

47-B

48-A

49-D

50-D

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1-B

ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 7 Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is closet in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 1: The helicopter carrier is indispensable in marine operations against sea or enemies.

A. unique

B. novel

C. exotic

D. ital

Question 2: Researchers warns of the impending extinction of many species of plants and

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animals.

A. inevitable

B. imminent

C. formidable

D. absolute

Mark the letter A, B, C orr D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is opposite in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions Question 3: It was a heartfelt confession.

A. loving

B. insincere

C. unhealthy

D. humorous

Question 4: Is he looking for a temporary or a permanent contract?

A. fleeting

B. fieree

C. stable

D. loose

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs form the ret in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.

Question 5:

A. contaminate

B. novel

C. intelligent

D. encouragement

Question 6:

A. contrary

B. graduate

C. document

D. attendance

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction.

Question 7: It is time the management do something to support the unemployed to find some jobs.

A. time

B. do

C. the unemployed

D. some

Question 8: I enjoy reading the editorial that you told me about it yesterday.

A. reading

B. that

C. told

D. it

Question 9: Students suppose to read all the problems carefully and find out the solution to them.

A. suppose

B. all the problems

C. out

D. them

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 10 to 14.

In the world to day, particularly in the two most “industrialized areas, North America and Europe, recyling is big news. People are talking about it, practicing it, and discovering new ways to be sensitive to the environment. Recycling means finding was to use products a second time. The motto of the recycling movement is “Reduce, Reuse, Recycle”.

This first step is to reduce garbage. In stores, a shopper has to buy products in blister packs, boxes and expensive plastic wrappings. A hamburger form a fast food restaurant comes in lots of packaging: usually paper, a box, a bag. All that packaging is wasted resources. People

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should try to buy things that are wrapped simply, and to reuse cups and utensils. Another way to reduce waste is to buy high-quality products. When low quality appliances break, many customers throw them away and buy new ones – a loss of more resources and more energy.

For example, if a customer buys a high-quality appliance that can be easily repaired, the manufacturer receives an important message. In the same way, if a customer chooses a product with less packaging, that customer sends an important message to the manufacturers.

To reduce garbage, the throwaway must stop.

The second step is to reuse. It is better to buy juices and soft drinks in returnable bottles.

After customers empty the bottles, they return them to the store. The manufacturers of the drinks collect the bottles, wash them, and then fill them again. The energy that is necessary to make new bottles is saved. In some parts of the word, returning bottles for money is a common practice. In those places, the garbage dumps have relatively little glass and plastic from throwaway bottles.

The third step is being environmentally sensitive is to recycle. Spent motor oil can be cleaned and used again. Aluminum cans are expensive to make. It takes the same amount of energy to make one aluminum can as it does to run a color TV set for three hours. When people collect and recycle aluminum (for new cans), they help save one of the world’s precious resources.

Question 10: What is the main topic of the passage?

A. How to reduce garbage disposal

B. What people often understand about the term “recycle” C. What is involved in the recycling movement D. How to live sensitively to the environment

Question 11: People can do the following to reduce waste EXCEPT: A. buy high-quality product B. buy simply-wrapped things C. reuse cups D. buy fewer hamburgers

Question 12: Why is it a waste when customers buy low-quality products?

A. Because people will soon throw them away.

B. Because they have to be repaired many times.

C. Because customers change their ideas all the time.

D. Because they produce less energy.

Question 13: What best describes the process of reuse?

A. The bottles are collected, washes, returned and filled again.

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B. The bottles are filled again after being returned, collected and washed.

C. The bottles are washed, returned filled again and collected.

D. The bottles are collected, returned filled again and washed.

Question 14: What are the two things mentioned as example of recycling?

A. Aluminum cans and plastic wrapping.

B. Hamburger wrappings and spent motor oil.

C. Aluminum cans and spent motor oil.

D. TV sets and aluminum cans.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the best option for each of the blank.

Having a car has numerous benefits ________ (15), you can go wherever you want whenever you want. You don’t have to rely on public transport, and ________ (16), you will have a sense of being more independent ________ (17), you are capable to give lifts to your folks, or carry weighty loads of grocery. ________ (18), there can be definite fiscal problems, completely if you live in a city. Running a car can be expensive, as you have to spend quite an amount on things ________ (19) petrol, car services, and repairs. You might also have problem with parking, as everywhere is more and more congested with cars. ________ (20) most folks feel that the advantages of owing a car outweigh the disadvantages.

Question 15:

A. First of all

B. As a result

C. Generally

D. Besides

Question 16:

A. however

B. personally

C. since

D. as a result

Question 17:

A. In contrast

B. In my opinion

C. Besides

D. However

Question 18:

A. On the other hand

B. To sum up

C. Thus

D. For example

Question 19:

A. as

B. such as

C. owning to

D. alike

Question 20:

A. Finally

B. Secondly

C. However

D. As

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 21: A trust worker was discovered to have ________ confidential information to a rival corporation.

A. stolen

B. spread

C. rumored

D. leaked

Question 22: Poor supervision brought the firm to ________ of collapse.

A. the edge

B. the foot

C. the ring

D. the brink

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Question 23: It never ________ his mind that his badly behaved manner would be discovered.

A. crossed

B. came

C. spunk

D. passed

Question 24: The clinicians are examining the dog ________ the child for rabies, which is a hazardous illness ________ immediate treatment.

A. biting/ required

B. bitten/ required

C. bitten/ requiring

D. biting/ requiring

Question 25: Do you have any objections ________ this new plan?

A. at

B. with

C. to

D. for

Question 26: Despite a lot of difficulties, the Star City Project will go ________.

A. backward

B. forward

C. advance

D. ahead

Question 27: Gale-force winds caused destruction ________ the buildings ________ the seashore.

A. to/ along

B. of/ in

C. for/ by

D. with/ on

Question 28: The reason why this game fascinates so many children is that ________ other video games, this one is far more exciting.

A. comparing to

B. in compared with

C. on comparison to

D. in comparison with

Question 29: ________ have made communication faster and easier through the use of email and the Internet is widely recognized.

A. It is that computers B. That computers

C. Computers that

D. That it’s computers

Question 30: A quick look would indicate that in Australia the number of computers, at 10 million, is ________ the number for TV. A. almost as big as

B. almost many as

C. almost the same as D. almost much as

Question 31: Jim paid $40 for his meal, ________ he had thought it would cost.

A. not much as

B. not so much as

C. less as

D. not so many as

Question 32: “Mum! I’ve got 7 on the IELTS test.” “________” A. Good way!

B. You are right

C. Good job!

D. Oh, hard luck!

Question 33: “Would you like me to get a cab?” “________" A. Yes, please, if it’s no bother.

B. Well, let’s see.

C. That would be delightful. Thanks

D. Yes, I see.

Question 34: ________ over long distance is a fact.

A. That electricity transmitting

B. That electricity can be transmitted

C. That electricity

D. That can be transmitted

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Question 35: The discovery was a huge ________ for experts.

A. breakthrough

B. breakdown

C. break-in

D. breakout

Question 36: Jim ________ knowledge from many of his real life experiences in his work.

A. approved

B. accomplished

C. appreciated

D. applied

Question 37: ________, sheep were then used for wool.

A. Having first domesticated for milk production

B. Having been first domesticated for milk production

C. Because they had been first domesticated for milk production D. Although they had first domesticated for milk production

Question 38: Rose is very skinny, ________ her young brother, who is quite heavy.

A. unlike

B. dissimilar to

C. dislike

D. unlikely

Question 39: Flooding in May is an unusual ________ in this area.

A. occurrence

B. occur

C. occurring

D. occurred

Question 40: It is factual that _________ form of energy.

A. electricity being the most useful

B. electricity is the most useful

C. the most useful in electricity

D. electricity the most useful

Question 41: You have a good feeling about yourself and ________ when you volunteer.

A. the others

B. other

C. the other

D. others

Question 42: Prices of modern apartments ________ form a few thousand to millions of dollars

A. change

B. vary

C. differ

D. fluctuate

Question 43: By the end of this year I ________ for this firm for a years.

A. have been working

B. will work

C. will have been working

D. will be working

Question 44: The old man explained to us ________ get to the supermarket.

A. how

B. how could

C. how we could

Question 45: Is this the school ________ you want the kid to be sent?

D. how could we

A. that

B. where

C. to which

D. which

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closet in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46. “Leave my house now or I’ll call the police!” shouted the lady to the man.

A. The lady threatened to call the police if the man didn’t leave her house.

B. The lady said that she would call the police if the man didn’t leaver her house.

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C. The lady told the man that she would call the police if he didn’t leave her house.

D. The lady informed the man that she would call the police if he didn’t leave her house.

Question 47. She last had his eyes tested five months ago.

A. She had tested his eyes five months before.

B. She had not tested his eyes for five months then.

C. She hasn’t had his eyes tested for five months.

D. She didn’t have any test on his eyes in five months.

Question 48. I feel absolutely exhausted when I’ve listened to Rose for hours.

A. It is completely exhausting after-hours I listening to Rose.

B. Hours listening to Rose leaves me feeling completely exhausted.

C. Feeling completed exhausted, I spent hours listening to Rose.

D. When I’ve listened to Rose hours, she feels exhausting completely.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined sound that is pronounced differently from the rest Question 49. A. clown

B. cow

C. plough

D. tough

Question 50. A. see

B. seen

C. sportsman D. sure

1-D

2-B

3-B

4-A

5-B

6-D

7-B

8-D

9-A

10-C

11-D

12-A

13-B

14-C

15-A

16-D

17-C

18-A

19-B

20-A

21-D

22-D

23-A

24-D

25-C

26-D

27-A

28-D

29-B

30-A

31-B

32-C

33-A

34-B

35-A

36-D

37-B

38-A

39-A

40-B

41-D

42-B

43-C

44-C

45-C

46-A

47-C

48-B

49-D

50-D

ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 8 ❖Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is closest in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 1: My original statement has been completely distorted by the media.

A. wrong

B. corrupt

C. deform

D. harm

Question 2: With a wonderful memory for detail, this woman-who my father said never forgets anything - became truly loquacious.

B. thirsty

C. beautiful

D. complicated

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A. talkative

❖Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is opposite in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 3: Her imagination was kindled by the exciting stories her grandmother told her.

A. smother

B. detest

C. enemy

D. discourage

Question 4: It was not for his friend to abate that confidence.

A. free

B. augment

C. provoke

D. wane

❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.

Question 5:

A. tendency

B. difference

C. importance

D. incidence

Question 6:

A. diverse

B. current

C. justice

D. series

❖Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction.

Question 7: It is believed that in the near future robots will be used to doing things such as cooking.

A. It is believed

B. in the near future

C. be used to doing

D. such as

Question 8: John announced that he could not longer tolerate the conditions of the contract under which he was working.

A. announced that

B. not longer toler

C. of

D. under which he

Question 9: After driving for twenty miles, he suddenly realised that he has been driving in the wrong direction A. After driving

B. suddenly realised

C. has been driving

D. in the wrong direction

❖Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 10 to 14.

Telecommuting is some form of computer communication between employees’homes and offices. For employees whose job involve sitting at a terminal or word processor entering data or typing reports, the location of the computer is of no consequence. If the machine can communicate over telephone lines, when the work is completed, employees can dial the

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

office computer and transmit the material to theiremployer. A recent survey in USA Today estimates that there are approximately 8,7 million telecommuters. But although the numbers are rising annually, the trend does not appear to be as significant as predicted when Business Week published “ The Portable Executive” as its cover story a few years ago. Why hasn’t telecommuting become more popular?

Clearly, change simply takes time. But in addition, there has been active resistance on the

part of many managers. These executives claim that supervising the telecommuters in a large work force scattered across the country would be too difficult, or, at least, systems for managing them are not yet developed, thereby complicating the manager’s responsibilities.

It is also true that employees who are given the option of telecommuting are reluctant to

accept the opportunity. Most people feel that they need regular interaction with a group, and many are concerned that they will not have the same consideration for advancement if they are not more visible in the office setting. Some people feel that even when a space in their homes is set aside as a work area, they never really get away from the office.

Question 10: With which of the following topics is the passage primarly concerned?

A. The advantages of telecommuting.

B. A definition of telecommuting.

C. An overview of telecommuting.

D. The failure of telecommuting.

Question 11: The phrase “ of no consequence” means___________.

A. of no use

B. of no good

C. unimportant

D. . irrelevant

Question 12: The author mentions all of the following as concerns of telecommuting, EXCEPT_______.

A. the opportunities for advancement.

B. the different system of supervision.

C. the lack of interaction with a group.

D. The work place is in the home Question 13: The reason why telecommuting has not become popular is that the employees _______.

A. need regular interaction with their families.

B. are worried aboout the promotion if they are not seen at the office.

C. feel that a work area in their home is away from the office.

D. are ignorant of telecommuting.

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Question 14: When Busines Week published “ The Portable Executive”, it implied that_________.

A. systems for managing telecommuters were not effective.

B. there was resistance on the part of many managers about telecommuting.

C. the trend for telecommuting was optimistic.

D. most telecommuters were satisfied with their work.

❖Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the best option for each of the blanks.

Not everybody recognizes the benefits of new develoopments in communications

technology. Indeed, some people fear that text messaging may actually be having a negative (15)_________on young people’s communication and language skills, especially when we hear that primary school chidren may be at (16)___ of becoming addicted to the habit. So widespread has texting become, however, that even pigcons have started doing it. What’s more, in this case, it’s difficult to view the results as anything but positive.

Twenty of the birds are about to (17)_________to the skies with the task of measuring air

pollution, each (18)_______ with sensor equipment and a mobile phone. The (19)__________ made by the secsors will be automatically (20)__________ into text messages and beamed to the Internet – where they will appear on a dedicated ‘pigeon blog’ Question 15:

A. result

B. outcome

C. effect

D. conclusion

Question 16:

A. danger

B. threat

C. risk

D. peril

Question 17:

A. make

B. launch

C. reach

D. take

Question 18:

A. armed

B. loaded

C. granted

D. stocked

Question 19:

A. studies

B. readings

C. reviews

D. inquiries

Question 20:

A. adapted

B. converted

C. revised

D. applied

❖Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 21: In fact the criminals____________ into because the front door was wide open and so they just walked in.

A. needn’t have broken

B. didn’t need break

C. didn’t need to break

D. needn’t to have broken

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Question 22: The city libraries present a gloomy picure of the_______________ who used to flock the libraries every evening.

A. gradual reduction of readers

B. gradual readers reduction

C. gradual readers of reduction

D. reduction gradual readers

Question 23: I have looked through the report, but I must admit, only_______________.

A. superficially

B. thoroughly

Question 24: – “ Sorry, I’m late”

C. carefully

D. seriously

- “______________________”

A. You are welcome

B. No, I don’t mind

C. All right. Well done

D. Not to worry. Better late than never

Question 25: – “ Who wrote this poem?” – “ It’s said ________________ written by one of the Bronte sisters.”

A. to be

B. to have been

C. to being

D. to having been

Question 26: After Jill had realized that the new computer was not what she really wanted, she _______ it for an other one.

A. dropped

B. traded

C. turned down

D. bought

Question 27: The new campus parking rule______________ many sudents.

A. affects

B. effect

C. has an influence

D. effective

Question 28: Human carelessness has been _____________ damaging marine life.

A. accused of

B. prevented

C. said to

D. warned against

Question 29: “ If only I hadn’t lent him all my money!” –“____________________” A. Well, you did, so it’s no use crying over spilt milk.

B. All right. You will be OK. C. Sorry, I have no idea.

D. I’m afraid you will have to do it.

Question 30: Anne was not_______________to think that the test was too difficult.

A. who

B. the one who

C. the only one

D. among the people

Question 31: The teacher always__________ that the students make an outline before writing the complete essay.

A. reports

B. tells

C. says

D. recommends

Question 32: Only if you do what you tell others________________ as they are told.

A. will they do

B. they will do

C. they won’t do

D. won’t they

Question 33: “ Would you like another coffee?” -“___________________________” B. Willingly

C. Very kind of your part

D. It’s a pleasure

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A. I’d love one

Question 34: Do you have a minute, Dr Keith?” -“_______________________” A. Well, I’m not sure when

B. Good, I hope so

C. Sure. What’s the problem?

D. Sorry, I haven’t got it here.

Question 35: He had changed so much since the last time we met that I_______________ him.

A. could recognize

B. could hardly recognize

C. wouldn’t have recognized

D. D. don’t recognize

Question 36: . _________ of transportation has given someone the idea for a new type of toy.

A. Mostly forms.

B. Most every form

C. Almost forms

D. Almost every form

Question 37: Helen is ___________ seafood, so she never tries thesse delicious dishes.

A. allergic to

B. tired of

C. keen on

D. preferable to

Question 38: . __________ one day by a passing car, the dog never walked proper again.

A. Having injured

B. Injuring

C. Injured

D. To be injured

Question 39: _________ you to be offered that job, would you have to move to another city?

A. Should

B. Were

C. Had

D. Provided that

Question 40: If too many species_________ out, it will upset the ecosystem.

A. disappear

B. die

C. go

D. extinct

Question 41: – “ Would you mind lending me your bike?”

- “___________________________.”

A. Yes, Here it is

B. Not at all

C. Great

D. Yes, let’s

Question 42: They would ____________ go by air than travel by train.

A. always

B. always

C. prefer

D. rather

Question 43: Don’t worry. He’ll do the job as__________as possible.

A. economizing

B. economic

C. economic

D. economically

Question 44: _________ entering the hall, he found everyone waitiong for him.

A. With

B. On

C. At

D. During

Question 45: – “ Has an announcement been made about the eight o’clock flight to Paris?”

-“_____________.”

A. Not yet

B. Yes, it was

C. I don’t think that

D. Sorry, I don’t

❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sectence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46: Once the airline announced its ticket sale, the telephone in the main office

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would not stop ringing.

A. People kept calling the airline main office since its announcement of ticket sale.

B. If the airline didn’t announce a ticket sale, its telephone would stop ringing.

C. The airline telephone was ringing because they announced a ticket sale.

D. Nobody callde the airline until it announced its ticket sale.

Question 47: “ I’m sorry for what happende but you will just have to accept the truth”, Laura said to her friend.

A. Laura took the responsibility for what happened.

B. Laura didn’t mean to tell the truth.

C. Laura apologized to her friend for what had happened.

D. Laura consoled her friend.

Question 48: It is widely believed that hard work makes success.

A. People think that success is when you work hard

B. Believers of success think that we should work hard.

C. Many people think that success at work is hard.

D. Many people believe that if you want to succeed, you should work hard.

❖Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined sound that is pronounced differently from the rest.

Question 49:

A. chorus

B. cherish

C. chaos

D. scholarship

Question 50:

A. plumber

B. doubt

C. debt

D. herbage

ĐÁP ÁN 2-A

3-A

4-B

5-C

6-A

7-C

8-B

9-C

10-C

11-C

12-B

13-B

14-C

15-C

16-C

17-D

18-A

19-B

20-B

21-C

22-A

23-A

24-D

25-B

26-B

27-A

28-A

29-A

30-C

31-D

32-A

33-A

34-C

35-B

36-D

37-A

38-C

39-B

40-B

41-B

42-D

43-D

44-B

45-A

46-A

47-D

48-D

49-B

50-D

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

1-C

ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 10

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

A. cat

B. hat

C. sad

D. men

Question 2:

A. care

B. black

C. and

D. sand

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3:

A. sedentary

B. available

C. additional

D. majority

Question 4:

A. prevent

B. receive

C. recent

D. remote

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in the each of following questions.

Question 5: For eras, musics have performed string violins, which (produce sounds from the vibration of the strings.

A. musics

B. which

C. sounds

D. vibration

Question 6: The head teacher emphasized the need for fairness and equality between the teachers of the school.

A. the need

B. for fairness

C. between

D. teachers

Question 7: Rose is not confident enough to enter a beautiful contest.

A. is

B. confident

C. to enter

D. beautiful

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8: In an ________ to diffuse the tension, I suggest that we go to see a movie.

A. attempt

B. improvement

C. determination

D. capability

Question 9: One man ________ outside his own nation is tipped to become the new President.

A. little knowing

B. to know little

C. little known

D. to be little known

Question 10: We are surprised to hear that Rose and Jack have ________. They seemed very happy together when I saw them last in Hanoi.

A. ended up

B. been separating

C. split up

D. finished up

Question 11: The serious issue ________ question made everyone in the meeting overstressed.

A. from

B. at

C. on

D. in

Question 12: We really respect our teacher ________ her good teaching method.

A. by

B. about

C. with

D. for

Question 13: It's too loud here. I would really like to go somewhere ________ so that we can talk.

B. quieter

C. more quieter

D. quite

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A. the quietest

Question 14: The profit has now ________ towards the point where it nearly doubled.

A. arrived

B. approached

C. advanced

D. reached

Question 15: No matter how angry my mother was, she would never ________ to violence.

A. utilize

B. resolve

C. resort

D. resource

Question 16: Whenever the boss does something, he should ________ for the sake of the company.

A. go down well with

B. turn over a new leaf

C. weigh up the pros and cons

D. get through

Question 17: ________ Rose likes to do something that she has never done before.

A. Very so often

B. Every so often

C. Very often so

D. Every often so

Question 18: Look, will you stop ________ in and let me finish my sentence?

A. butting

B. moving

C. pushing

D. plugging

Question 19: Hey, have you watched the extensive ________ of sporting events on Star Channel this afternoon?

A. broadcast

B. network

C. coverage

D. vision

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: "How beautiful you are!" - "________" A. Say it again. I like to hear your words.

B. Many thanks! That's a nice to hear C. I think so. I am proud of myself D. Yes, don't you think?

Question 21: "________." - "Never mind, better luck next time."

A. I've broken your precious vase

B. I have a lot on my mind

C. I couldn't keep my mind off work

D. I didn't get the vacant position

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: At school, please concentrate on what the teacher is saying or asking you.

A. pay all attention to

B. be interested in

C. be related to

D. express interest to

Question 23: We really appreciate your assistance, without which we couldn't have got our

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

job done in time.

A. devalue

B. are proud of

C. feel thankful for

D. have need of

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24: "Don't be such a pessimist. There's always a rainbow after the storm. Cheer up!"

A. activist

B. feminist

C. optimist

D. fighter

Question 25: Rare flowers grew in abundance on the island. The aborigines even exported the surplus.

A. spare

B. small quantity

C. plenty

D. large quantity

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: The request was so great that they had to reprint the manuscript instantly.

A. So great was the request that they had to reprint the manuscript instantly.

B. So great the request was that they had to reprint the manuscript instantly.

C. So great was the request so they had to reprint the manuscript instantly.

D. So great the request was, they had to reprint the manuscript instantly.

Question 27: My workmate said to me, "If I were you, I would tell them the reality.

A. My workmate said me to tell the reality.

B. My workmate advised me to tell the reality.

C. My workmate felt sorry for me and asked me to tell the reality.

D. My workmate advised me not to tell the reality.

Question 28: People believe that 13 is an unlucky digit.

A. People are believed that 13 is an unlucky digit.

B. 13 has been believed to be an unlucky digit.

C. It's believed that 13 is an unlucky digit.

D. It's believed 13 to be an unlucky digit.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29: The gentleman wanted to get some fresh air in the chamber. He opened the window.

A. The gentleman wanted to get some fresh air in the chamber because he opened the

D áş Y da K yk ĂˆM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ć N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

window.

B. The gentleman opened the window in order to get some fresh air in the chamber.

C. The gentleman got some fresh air in the chamber, even though he opened the window.

D. Having opened the window, the chamber could get some fresh air.

Question 30: She turned the TV at 7:30. She was still listening to it when her mama came home at 9:00.

A. She has been listening to the TV at 7:70

B. She has been listening to the TV since 7:30.

C. She has been listening to the TV after 7:30.

D. She has been listening to the TV by 7:30.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

Stories about how people somehow know when they are being watched have been

going around for centuries. However, few (31) ________ have been made to study the phenomenon scientifically. Now, with the accomplishment of the largest ever research of the so-called staring effect, there is striking indication that this is a recognizable and (32) ________ sixth sense. The research elaborates thousands of kids. For the research, they stood with their eyes covered and with their backs to other youngsters, who were told to either stare at them or look away. The outcomes constantly revealed that the kids who could not see were able to (33) ________ when they were being stared at. In total of 14.000 experiments (34) ________ globally, the teenagers (35) ________ sensed when they were being watched almost 81% of the time.

Question 31:

A. efforts

B. attempts

C. exams

D. goals

Question 32:

A. genuine

B. recognized

C. established

D. assured

Question 33:

A. sign

B. discovery

C. expose

D. tell

Question 34:

A. controlled through B. worked over

C. carried on

D. carried out

Question 35:

A. carefully

C. accurately

D. effortlessly

B. correctly

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

The history of clinic nutrition, or the study of the relationship between health and how the body takes in and utilizers food substances, can be divided into four distinct eras: the first

D áş Y da K yk ĂˆM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ć N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

began in the nineteenth century and extended into the early twentieth century when it was recognized for the first time that food contained constituents that were essential agents. Near the end of this era, research studies demonstrated that rapid weight loss was associated with nitrogen imbalance and could only be rectified by providing adequate protein associate with certain foods.

The second era was initiated in the early decades of the twentieth century and might

be called "the vitamin period". Vitamins came to be recognized in foods, en deficiency syndromes were described. As vitamins became recognized as essential food constituents necessary for health, it became tempting to suggest that every disease and condition for which there had been no previous effective treatment might be responsive to vitamin therapy.

At the point in time, medical schools started to become more interested in having their curricula integrate nutritional therapies in medicine. Reckless claims were made for effects of vitamins that went far beyond what could actually be achieved from the use of them.

In the third era of nutritional history in the early 1950's to mid-1960's, vitamin therapy

began to fall into disrepute. Concomitant with this, nutrition education in medical schools also became less popular. It was just a decade before this that many drug companies had found their vitamins sales skyrocketing and were quick to supply practicing physicians with generous samples of vitamins and literature extolling the virtue of supplementation for a variety health-related conditions. Expectations as to the success of vitamins in disease control were exaggerated. As is known in retrospect, vitamin and mineral therapies are much less effective when applied to health-crisis conditions that when applied to long-term problems of nutrition that lead chronic health problem.

Question 36: What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. The effects of vitamins in the human body.

B. The history f food preferences from the 19th century to the present.

C. The stages of development of clinical nutrition as a field of study.

D. Nutritional practices of the 19th century.

Question 37: It can be inferred from the passages that which of the following discoveries was made during the first era in the history of nutrition?

A. Protein was recognized as an essential component of diet.

B. Vitamins were synthesized from foods.

C. Effective technique of weight loss were determined.

D. Certain food were found to be harmful to good health.

Question 38: The word "tempting" is closest meaning to ________.

B. attractive

C. realistic

D. correct

D áş Y da K yk ĂˆM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ć N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

A. necessary

Question 39: The word "reckless" can be best replaced by ________.

A. recorded

B. irresponsible

C. informative

D. urgent

Question 40: The word "them" refers to ________.

A. therapies

B. claims

C. effects

D. vitamins

Question 41: Why did vitamins therapy begin losing favour in the 1950's?

A. The public lost interest in vitamins.

B. Medical schools stopped teaching nutritional concepts C. Nutritional research was of poor quality.

D. Claims for the effectiveness of vitamin therapy were seen to be exaggerated.

Question 42: The word "skyrocketing" is closest meaning to ________.

A. internationally popular

B. acceptable

C. increasing rapidly

D. surprising

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.

Plants and animals will find it difficult to escape from or adjust to the effect of global

warming. Scientists have already observed shifts in the lifecycles of many plants and animals, such as flowers blooming earlier and birds hatching earlier in the spring. Many species have begun shifting where they live or their annual migration patterns due to warmer temperatures.

With further warming, animals will tend to migrate toward the poles and up mountainsides toward higher elevations. Plants will also attempt to shift their rangers, seeking new areas as old habitats grow too warm. In many places, however, human development will prevent these shifts. Species that find cities of farmland blocking their way north or south may become extinct. Species living in unique ecosystems, such as those found in polar and mountaintop regions, are especially at risk because migration to new habitats is

not possible. For instance, polar bears and marine mammals in the Arctic are already threatened by dwindling sea ice but have nowhere father to go.

Projecting species extinction due to global warming is extremely difficult. Some scientists have estimated that 20 to 50 percent of species could be committed to extinction with 2 to 3 Celsius degrees of further warming. The rate of warming, not just the magnitude, is extremely important for plants and animals. Some species and even entire ecosystems, such as certain types of forest, many not be able to adjust quickly enough and may disappear.

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

Ocean ecosystems, especially fragile ones like coral reefs, will also be affected by

global warming. Warmer ocean temperatures can cause coral to "bleach", a state which if prolonged will lead to the death of the coral. Scientists estimate that even 1 Celsius degree of additional warming could lead to widespread bleaching and death of coral reefs around the world. Also, increasing carbon dioxide in the atmosphere enters the ocean and increases the acidity of ocean waters. This acidification further stresses ocean ecosystems.

Question 43: Scientists have observed that warmer temperatures in the spring cause flower to ________.

A. die instantly

B. bloom earlier

C. become lighter

D. lose colour

Question 44: According to paragraph 2, when their habitats grow warmer, animals tend to move ________.

A. south - eastwards and down mountainsides toward lower elevations.

B. north - westward and up mountainsides toward higher elevations.

C. toward the North Pole and down mountainsides toward lower elevations.

D. toward the poles and up mountainsides toward higher elevations.

Question 45: The pronoun "those" in paragraph 2 refers to ________.

A. species

B. ecosystems

C. habitats

D. areas

Question 46: The phrase "dwindling sea ice" in paragraph 2 refers to ________.

A. the frozen water in the Arctic

B. the violent Arctic Ocean

C. the melting ice in the Arctic

D. the cold ice in the Arctic

Question 47: It is mentioned in the passage that if the global temperature rose by 2 or 3 Celsius degrees, ________.

A. half of the earth's surface would be flooded B. the sea level would rise by 2o centimetres C. water supply would decrease by 50 percent D. 20 to 50 percent of species could become extinct

Question 48: According to the passage, if some species are not able to adjust quickly to warmer temperatures, ________.

A. they may be endangered

B. they can begin to develop

C. they will certainly need water

D. they move to tropical forests

Question 49: The word "fragile" in paragraph 4 most probably means ________.

A. very large

B. easily damaged

C. rather strong

D. pretty hard

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

Question 50: The bleaching of coral reefs as mentioned in paragraph 4 indicates ________.

A. the water absorption of coral reefs

B. the quick growth of marine mammals C. the blooming phase of sea weeds D. the slow death of coral reefs

Đáp án 2-A

3-A

4-C

5-A

6-C

7-D

8-A

9-D

10-C

11-D

12-D

13-B

14-C

15-C

16-C

17-B

18-A

19-C

20-B

21-D

22-A

23-C

24-C

25-B

26-A

27-B

28-C

29-B

30-B

31-B

32-A

33-D

34-D

35-B

36-C

37-A

38-B

39-B

40-D

41-D

42-C

43-B

44-D

45-A

46-C

47-D

48-A

49-B

50-D

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

1-D

ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 11 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

A. president

B. physicist

C. inventor

D. property

Question 2:

A. economy

B. unemployment

C. communicate

D. particular

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 3:

A. nature

B. change

C. sandwich

D. basic

Question 4:

A. darkness

B. author

C. market

D. remark

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5: The Best Creative Ideal Prize is one of the three prizes awarded annually by the Literature Foundation for outstanding achievement in the field for Literature.

A. three prizes

B. annually

C. achievement

D. for

Question 6: Ashman was an Italian composer whose concert works joined the sounds of jazz with them of traditional orchestration.

A. whose

B. works joined

C. with

D. them

Question 7: Early physicians in Italy medicines made from plants native to treat colds, pneumonia, and an illness similar to malaria.

A. physicians

B. medicines

C. plants native

D. an

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to in each of the following questions.

Question 8: Some researches believe that the________family is rapidly becoming common in recent years.

A. basic

B. closed

C. immediate

D. nuclear

Question 9: Many people who attended Mr Jack’s performance________him for many years.

A. didn’t see

B. wouldn’t see

C. haven’t seen

D. hadn’t seen

Question 10: ________Jack got top grades at Vaucluse Hight School, he never went to university.

A. nevertheless

B. despite

C. although

D. meanwhile

Question 11: The clinician asked Mr.Jack to keep________fried food for great amount of fat.

A. off

B. at

C. back

D. up

C. in

D. of

Question 12: Rose is an expert________Music.

A. at

B. with

Question 13: “These beers are________!” whispered the grinning tenant to his customers on Sunday morning.

B. on the house

C. on the rocks

D. on the carpet

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

A. on the shelf

Question 14: Jack was looked________by others because he is so poor.

A. out for

B. up to

C. down on

D. into

Question 15: The manager is determined to________bribery.

A. put the stop to

B. put stop to

C. put stops to

D. put a stop to

Question 16: If Jack were here, he would accompany you on the keyboard.

A. Supposing he were here

B. Because he were here

C. Were he here

D. Both A and C

Question 17: As soon as Mary________the zoo, it started to rain.

A. had been leaving

B. had left

C. left

D. was leaving

Question 18: His financial problems________from the difficulties he encountered in the recession.

A. stem

B. flourish

C. root

D. sprout

C. to lose

D. to have lost

Question 19: Rose is said________her memory.

A. to have been lost

B. to be lost

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: “What’s date is your wedding anniversary, Rose?” – “It’s________.”

A. on the thirty-one of June

B. on June the thirty-one

C. on the thirty-first on June

D. in June the thirty-one

Question 21: “Sugar?”

A. No, no me!

B. No, I don’t

C. Thanks, I’d like

D. Yes, please.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: I admired the expertise with which she prepared the lesson.

A. activity of

B. courage of

C. mastery of

D. effort to

Question 23: The CEO would do well to heed this recommendation.

A. trek

B. consider

C. consolidate

D. bound

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24: The book is about his sickness and subsequent resignation from his position as the C.E.O of the company. +6 A. aloof

B. previous

C. following

D. dismissive

Question 25: These companies have remained dormant for several months.

A. clever

B. active

C. energetic

D. invisible

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: Although he was very exhausted, he agreed to help his kid with his assignment.

A. Despite of his exhaustion, he was enthusiastic to help his kid with his assignment.

B. Exhausted as he was, he agree to help his kid with his assignment.

C. Even if feeling very exhausted, he agree to help his kid with his assignment.

D. He would have helped his kid with his assignment if he hadn’t been exhausted.

Question 27: It’s Mark’s job to look after the tender plants in the garden.

A. Mark enjoys looking after the tender plants in the garden.

B. Mark is responsible for looking after the tender plants in the garden.

C. Looking after the tender plants in the garden is liable for Mark.

D. The tender plants in the garden give Mark opportunity to work.

Question 28: My uniform needs to be washed before the meeting but I’m too busy to do that.

A. I must have my uniform washed before the meeting.

B. I must have my uniform to be washed before the meeting.

C. I must have my uniform before the meeting.

D. I must get my mum to wash my uniform before the meeting.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 29 to 35.

Under the Medicare insurance policy, people approaching 65 may enroll during the sevenmonth period that includes three months before the sixty-fifth birthday, the month in which the birthday falls, and three months after the birthday. However, if they wish the insurance coverage to begin when they reach 65, they must enroll three months before their birthday. People who do not enroll within their first enrollment period may enroll later, during the first three months of

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

each year. Those people, however, must pay 10% additional for each twelve-month period that elapsed since they first could have enrolled. The monthly premium is deducted from social security payment, railroad retirement or civil service retirement benefits.

Question 29: The author’s purpose is to________.

A. describe the benefits of Medicare.

B. stimulate enrollment in Medicare.

C. advertise Medicare.

D. tell people when they may enroll in Medicare.

Question 30: People would pay 10% more for their insurance if they________.

A. were under 65

B. enrolled after their sixty-fifth birthday.

C. applied seven months before their sixty-fifth birthday.

D. enrolled in a private plan.

Question 31: To start coverage by Medicare on their sixty-fifth birthday, people must apply________.

A. seven months before their birthday.

B. four months before their birthday.

C. three months before their birthday.

D. the month in which their birthday occurs.

Question 32: To word “deducted” in the passage can be replaced by________.

A. taken away

B. protected

C. subtracted

D. escaped

Question 33: To word “elapsed” in the passage most closely means________.

A. passed

B. finished

C. ended

D. expired

Question 34: The period after the sixty-fifth birthday during which people may apply for Medicare is________.

A. a quarter of a year

B. seven months

C. one month

D. January 1 to March 31 yearly.

Question 35: Medicare subscriber’s premiums________.

A. are due the first of every month

B. are taken out of their salaries

C. are subtracted from their pension

D. come from the government.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 43.

May 7, 1840 was the birthday of one of the most famous Russian composers of the nineteenth

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

century Peter Illich Tchaikovsky. The son of a mining inspector, Tchaikovsky studied music as a child and later studied composition at the St.Pertersburg Conservatory. His greatest period of productivity occurred between 1876 and 1890, during which time he enjoyed the patronage of Madame von Meck, a woman he never met, who gave him a living stipend of about $1,000.00 a year. Madame von Meck later terminated her friendship with Tchaikovsky, as well as his living allowance, when she, herself, was facing financial difficulties. It was during the time of Madame von Meck’s patronage, however, that Tchaikovsky created the music for which he is most famous, including the music for the ballets of Swan Lake and The Sleeping Beauty.

Tchaikovsky’s music, well known for its rich melodic and sometimes melancholy passages,

was one of the first that brought serious dramatic music to dance. Before this, little attention had been given to the music behind the dance. Tchaikovsky died on November 6,1893, ostensibly of cholera, though there are now some scholars who argue that he committed suicide.

Question 36: With what topic is the passage primary concerned?

A. the life and music of Tchaikovsky

B. development of Tchaikovsky’s music for ballets

C. Tchaikovsky’s relationship with Madame Von Meck D. the cause of Tchaikovsky’s death

Question 37: Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “productivity”?

A. fertility

B. affinity

C. creativity

D. maturity

Question 38: The phrase “enjoyed the patronage of” probably means________?

A. liked the company of

B. was mentally attached to

C. solicited the advice of

D. was financially dependent upon

Question 39: Which of the following could best replace the word “terminated”?

A. discontinued

B. resolved

C. exploited

D. hated

Question 40: According to the passage, all of the following describe Madame von Meck EXCEPT________.

A. She had economic troubles.

B. She was generous.

C. She enjoyed Tchaikovsky’s music.

D. She was never introduced to Tchaikovsky.

Question 41: According to the passage, for what is Tchaikovsky’s music most well known?

A. Its repetitive and monotonous tones.

B. The ballet-like quality of the music.

C. Its lively, capricious melodies.

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D. The richness and melodic drama of the music.

Question 42: According to the passage, “Swan Lake” and “The Sleeping Beauty” are________ A. dance

B. songs

C. operas

D. plays

Question 43: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?

A. Tchaikovsky’s influence on ballet music

B. Tchaikovsky’s unhappiness leading to suicide C. the patronage of Madame von Meck

D. Tchaikovsky’s productivity in composing

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 44 to 48.

Colleges in the UK have not always has a large quantity of libraries. As________(44) as 1967

about half of the colleges in the UK had no libraries at all. The________(45) of public college libraries increased dramatically when the federal government passed the Education Act of 1968,________(46) given money for college districts to advance their education programs and facilities, including their libraries. ________(47), many educationalist said that since the legislation was passed federal spending has not increased sufficiently to meet the rising ________(48) of new library technologies such as computer database and Internet access.

Question 44:

A. frequently

B. recently

C. freshly

D. newly

Question 45:

A. digit

B. amount

C. number

D. numeral

Question 46:

A. that

B. who

C. which

D. this

Question 47:

A. Otherwise

B. Nevertheless

C. Therefore

D. Consequently

Question 48:

A. fine

B. fee

C. cost

D. sum

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49: He had completed the report. He submitted it to the manager.

A. Completing the report, it was submitted to the manager.

B. Have completed the report, it was submitted to the manager.

C. Having completed the report, he submitted to the manager.

D. Having completed the report, he submitted it to the manager.

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

Question 50: The proposal may be ingenious. It will never work in practice.

A. Ingenious as it may be, the proposal will never work in practice.

B. Ingenious as may the proposal, it will never work in practice.

C. The proposal may be too ingenious to work in practice.

D. The proposal is as impractical as it is ingenious. ĐÁP ÁN

1-C

2-B

3-C

4-B

5-D

6-D

7-C

8-D

9-D

10-C

11-A

12-C

13-B

14-C

15-D

16-D

17-C

18-A

19-D

20-C

21-D

22-C

23-B

24-B

25-B

26-B

27-B

28-A

29-D

30-B

31-C

32-C

33-A

34-D

35-C

36-A

37-C

38-D

39-A

40-C

41-D

42-D

43-B

44-B

45-C

46-C

47-B

48-C

49-D

50-A

ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 12

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following question.

A. creature

B. decent

C. menace

D. league

Question 2:

A. beard

B. heard

C. word

D. third

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Question 1:

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3:

A. customer

B. stationery

C. furniture

D. deliver

Question 4:

A. ambulance

B. injection

C. minimize

D. handkerchief

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in the each of following questions.

Question 5: Though Jack was absolutely blind in one eye and had only slight (vision in another, he became an globally well-known jazz musician.

A. Though

B. only slight

C. another

D. he became

Question 6: She wondered why did Jack so nervous when he saw Mary.

A. wondered

B. why did Jack

C. nervous

D. saw

Question 7: Supposed that you failed your driving test, would you take its again?

A. Supposed that

B. failed

C. driving test

D. would you take

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8: Rose is always trying ________ him.

A. to avoid to see

B. avoiding seeing

C. to avoid seeing

D. avoiding to see

Question 9: Mr. Jack ________ for this company from 1980 to 1990.

A. had worked

B. has worked

C. had been working

D. worked

Question 10: Would you please ________ him speak about the new plan?

A. let

B. allow

C. ask

D. tell

Question 11: Although he is unfriendly, I can’t help ________ him.

A. like

B. liked

C. to like

D. liking

Question 12: Although Rose looked the same after all those months, he noticed ________ changes which made her look even more beautiful than he remembered.

A. fair

B. sensitive

C. subtle

D. joint

Question 13: After a long time bargaining with the merchant, Jack bought the raincoat for ________ of the original price.

A. fraction

B. piece

C. part

D. spot

Question 14: The football match tomorrow evening will be broadcast ________ on TV and

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radio.

A. simultaneously

B. communally

C. uniformly

D. jointly

Question 15: Please fill in your healthy history, including your ________ diseases as well as any previous ones you mighr have had.

A. private

B. daily

C. constant

D. current

Question 16: Most cinemas in the city ________ Concession at special rates for both old people and students.

A. issue

B. transmit

C. print

D. project

Question 17: My mother often ________ our mistakes, whereas my father is very strict and punishes us for even the slightest one.

A. passes

B. neglects

C. avoids

D. overlooks

Question 18: ________ the lesson well, Adrian couldn’t answer the teacher’s question.

A. Didn’t prepare

B. Having prepared

C. Preparing not

D. Not preparing

Question 19: She hates those who are not ________ for appointment. She doesn’t want to wait.

A. punctually

B. punctual

C. punctuality

D. punctuate

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: “Do you agree that our natural resources will soon end?” – “________”.

A. No, I don’t.

B. Yes, I think so.

C. Yes, we do.

D. Yes, it might.

Question 21: “ Have a nice day.” – “________”.

A. Thank you. Hope you are well

B. Not bad what about you?

C. Thanks. The same to you!

D. Sorry, I’m at home.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: We found enormous hoard of canned food on the floor.

A. stockpile

B. burrow

C. mine

D. dessert

Question 23: It howled through the swaying branches of the trees, and swept our house in fitful gusts.

B. angry

C. tired

D. pronounced

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A. erratic

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meanign to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24: Severe pain in his back made him so uncomfortable.

A. lenient

B. cautious

C. serious

D. minor

Question 25: Jack rarely goes to see movie, which he regarded as extravagant.

A. unknown

B. costly

C. punctual

D. moderate

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: Jim shouldn’t expect to know everything on the test.

A. Jim should have studied every woed that was on the test.

B. Jim shouldn’t take the test because he didn’t study well enough.

C. Jim test will seem easy if he studies more

D. The test will probably ask some question that are difficult for Jim.

Question 27: By the time Jack got the bravery to ask her to get married with him, she was engaged to someone else.

A. At the moment Jack felt brave enough to propose to her, he learnt that she had already

promised to marry another man.

B. Before Jack felt brave enough to propose to her, she had agreed to marry another man.

C. Just when Jack asked her to marry him, she accepted an engagement to another man.

D. Jack offered her a proposal of marriage, but she said she was already engaged to someone

else.

Question 28: When Jack questioned which one I needed, I said I didn’t mind.

A. Jack said I could choose between them, but I said it didn’t matter to me.

B. It was up to me to choose between them, but I really didn’t want to.

C. I would have done the choosing if they had asked me to.

D. Jack wanted me to choose for him and I agreed to do so.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29: Jack was suspected to have stolen credit cards. The police have investigated him for days.

A. Suspected to have stolen credit cards, Jack has been investigated for days.

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B. Suspected to have stolen credit cards, Jack has been investigated for days.

C. Having suspected to have stolen credit cards, Jack has been investigated for days.

D. Jack has investigated for days, suspected to have stolen credit cards.

Question 30: He ate all his food. He even ate some of mine.

A. As soon as he ate some food of mine, he ate all his food.

B. Hardly had he ate some food of mine when he ate all his food.

C. Not only did he ate all his food but also he ate some of mine.

D. Not only did he ate all his food but he ate some of mine as well.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

After years of cooler climate, the days get longer, the buds (31)________ in the trees,

birds sing, and the world (32) ________ a green dress. Springtime passes (33) ________ summer. The whole world knows that summer will not (34) ________ forever. The magic of all the spells in the world cannot keep it for us. The flowers blossom, the lesves turn yellow and then drop to the ground, (35) ________ the world turns into autumn whether people ike it or not.

Question 31:

A. fall off

B. take up

C. put off

D. come out

Question 32:

A. looks after

B. puts on

C. carries on

D. comes round

Question 33:

A. into

B. by

C. from

D. on

Question 34:

A. forego

B. evaluate

C. succumb

D. last

Question 35:

A. since

B. therefore

C. and

D. whereas

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

Carbohydrates, which are sugars, are an essential part of a healthy diet. They provide the main source of energy for the body, and they also function to flavor and sweeten foods.

Carbohydrates range from simple sugars like glucose to complex sugars such as amylose ans amylopectin. Nutritionists estimate that carbohydrates should make up about one-fourth to one-fifth of a person’s diet. This translates to about 75-100 grams of carbohydrates per day.

A diet that is deficient in carbohydrates can have an adverse effect on a person’s health. When the body lacks a sufficient amount of carbohydrates, it must then use its protein

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

supplies for energy, a process called gluconeogenesis. This, however, results in a lack of necessary protein, and further health difficulties may occur. A lack of carbohydrates can also lead to ketosis, a build-up of ketones in the body that causes fatigue, lethargy, and bad breath.

Question 36: What is the main idea of this passage?

A. Carbohydrates are needed for good health

B. Carbohydrates prevent a build-up of proteins.

C. Cacbohydrates can lead to ketosis.

D. Carbohydrates are an expendable part of a good diet.

Question 37: According to the passage, what do most nutritionists suggest?

A. Sufficient carbohydrates will prevent gluconeogenesis.

B. Carbohydrates are simple sugars called glucose.

C. Carbohydrates should make up about a quarter of a person’s daily diet.

D. Carbohydrates should be eaten in very small quantities.

Question 38: Which of the following do carbohydrates NOT do?

A. prevent ketosis

B. cause gluconeogenesis

C. provide energy for the body

D. flavor and sweeten food

Question 39: Which of the following words could best replace”deficient” as used in line 6?

A. outstanding

B. abundant

C. insufficient

D. unequal

Question 40: What does the word “this” refer to in line 8?

A. using protein supplies for energy

B. converting carbohydrates to energy C. having a deficiency in carbohydrates D. having an insufficient amount of protein Question 41: According to the passage, which of the following does NOT describe carbohydrates?

A. a protein supply

B. a necessily

C. a range of sugars

D. an energy source

Question 42: Which of the following best describes the organization of this passage?

A. Cause and result

B. Comparison and contrast

C. Speccific to general

D. Definition and example

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.

Until recently, most American entrepreneurs were men. Discrimination against women

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in business, the demands of caring for families, and lack of business training had kept the number of women entrepreneurs small. Now, however, businesses owned by women account for more than $40 billion in annual revenues, and this figure is likely to continue rising throughout the 1990s. as Carolyn Doppe;t Gray, an offical of the Small Business Administration, has noted, “The 1970s was the decade of women entering management, and the 1980s turned out to be the decade pf the women entrepreneur”. What are some of the factors behind this trend? For one thing, as more women earn advanced degrees in business and enter the corporate world, they are finding obstacles. Women are still excuded from most executive suites. Charlotte Taylor, a management consultant, had noted, “In the 1970s, women believed if they got an MBA anf worked hard, they could become chairman of the board. Now they’ve found out that isn’t going to happen, so they go out on their own.”

In the past, most women entrepreneurs worked in “women’s” fields: cosmetics and

clothing, for example. But this is changing. Consider ASK Computer Systems, a $22-millionayear computar software business. It was founded in 1973 by Sandra Kurtzig, who was then a housewife with degrees in math and engineering. When Kurtzig founded the business, her first product was software that let weekly newspapers keep tabs on their newspaper carrier sand her office was a bedroom at home, with a shoebox under the bed to hold the company’s cash. After she succeeded with the newspaper software system, she hired several bright computer-science graduates to develop additional programs. When these were marketed and sold, ASK began to grow. It niw has 200 employees, and Sandra Kurtzig owns $66.9 million of stock.

Of course, many women who start their own businesses fail, just as men often do. They still face hurdles in the business world, especially problems in raising money; the banking and finance world is still dominated by men, and old attitudes die hard. Most businesses owned by women are still quite small. But the situations is changing; there are likely to be many more Sandra Kurtzigs in the years ahead.

Question 43: What is the main idea of this passage?

A. Women today are better educated than is the past, marking them more attractive to the business world.

B. The computer is especially lucrative for women today.

C. Women are better at small business of their own.

D. Women today are opening more business of their own.

Question 44: All of the following were mentioned in the passage as detriments to women in the business world EXCEPT________

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A. Women were required to stay at home with their families.

B. Women lacked ability to work in business.

C. Women faced discrimination in business.

D. Women were not trained in business.

Question 45: in line 12, “that” refers to________.

A. woman becoming the chairmen of the board B. women working hard

C. women achieving advanced degrees

D. women believing that business is a place for them

Question 46: According to the passage, Charlotte Taylor believes that women in 1970s________.

A. were unrealistic about their opportunities in business management.

B. were still more interested in education than business opportunities.

C. had fewer obstacles in business than they do today.

D. were inable to work hard enough to success in business.

Question 47: The expression “keep tabs on” in line 17 is closest meaning to________.

A. recognize the appearance of

B. keep records of

C. provide transportation for

D. pay the salaries of

Question 48: The word “hurdles” in line 23 can be best replaced by________.

A. fences

B. obstacles

C. question

D. small group

Question 49: It can be inferred from the passage that the author believes that business operated by women are small because________.

A. women prefer a small intimate setting.

B. women can’t deal with money.

C. women are not able to borrow money easily.

D. many women fail at large businesses.

Question 50: The author’s attitude about the future of women in business is________.

A. skeptical

B. optimistic

C. frustrated

D. negative

2-A

3-D

4-B

5-C

6-B

7-A

8-C

9-D

10-A

11-D

12-C

13-A

14-A

15-D

16-A

17-D

18-D

19-B

20-B

21-C

22-A

23-A

24-A

25-D

26-D

27-B

28-A

29-A

30-D

31-D

32-B

33-A

34-D

35-C

36-A

37-C

38-B

39-C

40-A

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1-C

41-A

42-D

43-D

44-B

45-A

46-A

47-B

48-B

49-C

50-B

ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 13 ❖ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

A. niece

B. piece

C. pie

D. pity

Question 2:

A. boat

B. bone

C. postpone

D. lose

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Question 1:

❖ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3:

A. oceanic

B. advantageous

C. compulsory

D. influential

Question 4:

A. curriculum

B. indication

C. information

D. invitation

❖ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in the each of following questions.

Question 5: Rose made a decision to join (A) the (B) military after the final year at university (C) and she was (D) in it ever since.

Question 6: What Jack told her (A) a few weeks ago were (B) actually the same thing that (C) I wanted to tell her as well (D)

Question 7: In 1934, a group of experts (A) in Italy accidentally found that dogs could not precisely (B) see color with its (C) own eyes when they were born (D).

❖ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8: As the child ________, Jack decided to go out silently.

A. sleeps

B. has slept

C. sleep

D. was sleeping

Question 9: I’m scared ________ snakes, they terrify me.

A. in

B. to

C. of

D. for

Question 10: We’ve already bought the house but won’t ________ it until May, when the present occupants have moved out.

A. take possession of

B. catch sight of

C. keep tract of

D. gain recognition of

Question 11: Whenever he had an important decision to make, he ________ a cigar to calm his nerves.

A. would light

B. would be lighting

C. would have lit

D. had lit

Question 12: You can stay here until your visa runs ________.

A. up

B. out

C. off

D. away

Question 13: Is he looking for anything in ________?

B. detail

C. peculiar

D. particular

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A. special

Question 14: ________ more about her, you would never ask her to marry you.

A. If you know

B. If you did know

C. If you knew

D. If did you know

Question 15: I got everyone in the company ________ my boss’s birthday card before I sent it to her.

A. sign

B. to sign

C. signing

D. signed

Question 16: A number of deaths in the last 3 months ________ caused by car accidents.

A. were

B. have been

C. have

D. are

Question 17: Rose shouted as if she ________ a ghost.

A. has seen

B. had seen

C. would see

D. see

Question 18: Be sure not to rely too ________ on your mother tongue when you are learning a foreign language.

A. abundantly

B. severely

C. numerously

D. heavily

Question 19: He never lets anything ________ him and his weekend fishing trip.

A. come among

B. come between

C. come up

D. come on

Question 20: It is important that he ________ a gallon of water with him if he wants to hike to the bottom of the Grand Canyon.

A. taking

B. takes

C. took

D. take

❖ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 21: “I wouldn’t do that if I were you.” – “________” A. Wouldn’t you? Why?

B. It’s out of the question.

C. I’d rather you didn’t.

D. Would you, really?

Question 22: - Assistant: “Is there anything I can do for you, sir?”

- Customer: “________” A. Yes, you are welcome.

B. Not now. Thanks away.

C. Sure. Go ahead, please.

D. Ok! Your time.

❖ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSET in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 23: Unselfishness is the very essence of friendship.

B. difficult part

C. romantic part

D. interesting part

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A. important part

Question 24: Why don’t you vote – how can you be so indifferent!

A. neutral

B. unkind

C. precious

D. mean

❖ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s)

OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 25: Rose clearly remembers talking to Jack in a chance conference last year.

A. unplanned

B. deliberate

C. accidental

D. unintentional

Question 26: In remote societies, it’s essential to replenish stocks before the winter sets in.

A. remake

B. empty

C. refill

D. repeat

❖ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 27: It doesn’t matter to them which movie they go to.

A. Whatever movies are shown, they never see.

B. They don’t mind which movie they go to.

C. They don’t care about the cost of the movies they see.

D. Which movie they go to matters more than the cost.

Question 28: The judge was being escorted from the court by strong police guards.

A. Strong police guards were escorting the judge at the court.

B. Strong police guards were escorting the judge into the court.

C. Strong police guards were escorting the judge from the court.

D. Strong police guards were escorting the judge towards the court.

Question 29: The trainer’s strategies were directly responsible for the team’s defeat.

A. The team lost because the trainer had no direct strategies.

B. The team’s responsibility is to defeat the trainer’s strategies.

C. The trainer directly guided the team, but had no responsibility.

D. The team lost as a direct consequence of the trainer’s strategies. ❖ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

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Question 30: The agreement ended six-month negotiation. It was signed yesterday.

A. The agreement which ends six-month negotiation was signed yesterday.

B. The agreement which was signed yesterday lasted six months.

C. The negotiation which lasted six months was signed yesterday.

D. The agreement which was signed yesterday ended six-month negotiation.

Question 31: Jack wanted to get some fresh air in the apartment. He opened the window.

A. Jack wanted to get some fresh air in the apartment because he opened the window.

B. Having opened the window, the apartment could get some fresh air by Jack.

C. Jack got some fresh air in the apartment, even though he opened the window.

D. Jack opened the window in order to get some fresh air in the apartment.

❖ Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 32 to 36.

Human beings have a strong need to put their experiences and difficulties into

confrontations. That is why everyone (32)________ a ‘friendly ear’ – somebody who eager to listen to their dilemmas and joys. Nevertheless few individuals (33)________ how complicated listening skill is. To be a good listener needs great powers of concentration, which can only be grown through practice.

There are two reasons why listening is often such hard (34)________ . The first is

merely that people much prefer to speak. How often have you missed what someone has said because you were thinking about what you were going to say in response? The second reason is that people speak too slowly. The typical speed is about 125 words per minute, (35)________ is not fast enough for the human brain. It allows too much time for the concentration to fail, as the brain tries to keep itself busy with others, unrelated thoughts.

Next time you are in a listening situation, try to guess what the utterer is going to say. Ask yourself questions about what is being said, and (36)________ if the speaker answers them. Finally, make quick sum-ups in your mind of the main points that have been made.

All of these stuffs will help you focus on and make you a better listener.

B. appeals

C. appreciates

D. claps

Question 33: A. realize

B. narrate

C. trust

D. notice

Question 34: A. job

B. work

C. performance

D. business

Question 35: A. this

B. that

C. which

D. what

Question 36: A. see

B. watch

C. look

D. tell

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Question 32: A. favors

❖ Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 37 to 43.

Anthropologists have pieced together the little they know about the history of left handedness and right - handedness from indirect evidence. Though early men and women did not leave written records, they did leave tools, bones, and pictures. Stone Age hand axes and hatchets were made from stones that were carefully chipped away to form sharp cutting edges. In some, the pattern of chipping shows that these tools and weapons were made by right handed people, designed to fit comfortably into a right hand. Other Stone Age implements were made by or for left-handers Prehistoric pictures, painted on the walls of caves, provide further clues to the handedness of ancient people. A right - hander finds it easier to draw faces of people and animals facing toward the left, whereas a left - hander finds it easier to draw faces facing toward the right. Both kinds of faces have been found in ancient painting. On the whole, the evidence seems to indicate that prehistoric people were either ambidextrous or about equally likely to be left - or right - handed.

But, in the Bronze Age, the picture changed. The tools and weapons found from that period are mostly made for right - handed use. The predominance of right - handedness among humans today had apparently already been established.

Question 37: What is the main topic of the passage?

A. The purpose of ancient implements

B. The significance of prehistoric cave paintings

C. The development of right – handedness and left – handedness D. The similarities between the Stone Age and Bronze Age. Question 38: Which of the following helped lead to conclusions about whether Stone Age people preferred one hand to the other?

A. Petrified forms of vegetation

B. Patterns of stone chipping

C. Fossilized waste material

D. Fossilized footprints

Question 39: In line 6, the word “further” is closest in meaning to which of the following?

A. advanced

B. additional

C. artistic

D. factual

Question 40: According to the passage, a person who is right-handed is more likely to draw people and animals that are facing A. upward

B. downward

C. toward the right

D. toward the left

Question 41: In line 11, the words “the picture” refer to which of the following?

A. Faces of animals and people B. People’s view from inside a cave

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

C. People’s tendency to work with either hand D. The kinds of paint used on cave walls

Question 42: Where is the passage does the author mention a type of evidence that was NOT studied by anthropologists researching the handedness of ancient people?

A. Lines 1-3

B. Lines 7-8

C. Lines 9-10

D. Lines 11-13

Question 43: The author implies that which of the following developments occurred around the time of the Bronze Age

A. The establishment of written records

B. A change in the styles of cave painting

C. An increase in human skill in the handling of tools D. The prevalence of right handedness

❖ Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.

Insects’ lives are very short and they have many enemies, but they must survive long enough to breed and perpetuate their kind. The less insect-like they look, the better their chance of survival. To look "inedible" by resembling or imitating plants is a deception widely practiced by insects. Mammals rarely use this type of camouflage, but many fish and invertebrates do.

The stick caterpillar is well named. It is hardly distinguishable from a brown or green twig. This caterpillar is quite common and can be found almost anywhere in North America.

It is also called "measuring worm" or "inchworm." It walks by arching its body, then stretching out and grasping the branch with its front feet then looping its body again to bring the hind feet forward. When danger threatens, the stick caterpillar stretches its body away from the branch at an angle and remains rigid and still, like a twig, until the danger has passed.

Walking sticks, or stick insects, do not have to assume a rigid, twig-like pose to find protection; they look like inedible twigs in any position. There are many kinds of walking sticks, ranging in size from the few inches of the North American variety to some tropical species that may be over a foot long. When at rest their front legs are stretched out, heightening their camouflage. Some of the tropical species are adorned with spines or ridges, imitating the thorny bushes or trees in which they live.

Leaves also seem to be a favorite object for insects to imitate. Many butterflies can suddenly disappear from view by folding their wings and sitting quietly among the foliage that they resemble.

Question 44: What is the main subject of the passage?

A. Caterpillars that live in trees B. The feeding habits of insects C. How some insects camouflage themselves

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

D. Insects that are threatened with extinction

Question 45: In lines 1, the word “enemies” refers to A. other creatures competing for space

B. extreme weather conditions

C. creatures that eat insects

D. inedible insects

Question 46: According to the passage, how does the stick caterpillar make itself look like a twig?

A. By holding its body stiff and motionless B. By looping itself around a stick

C. By changing the color of its skin

D. By laying its body flat against a branch

Question 47: Which of the following is true of stick insects?

A. They resemble their surroundings all the time.

B. They make themselves look like other insects.

C. They are camouflage only when walking.

D. They change color to make themselves invisible.

Question 48: Which of the following are NOT mentioned in the passage as objects that are imitated as a means of protection?

A. Thorns

B. Flowers

C. Leaves

D. Sticks

Question 49: In which paragraph does the author describe the way in which stick caterpillars move?

A. Paragraph one

B. Paragraph two

C. Paragraph three

D. Paragraph four

Question 50: When in the passage does the author describe the habitat of tropical stick insects?

A. Line 7

B. Lines 10-11

C. Lines 13-14

D. Lines 16-17

ĐÁP ÁN 2-D

3-C

4-A

5-D

6-B

7-C

8-D

9-C

10-A

11-A

12-B

13-D

14-C

15-B

16-B

17-B

18-D

19-B

20-D

21-A

22-B

23-A

24-A

25-B

26-B

27-B

28-C

29-D

30-D

31-D

32-C

33-A

34-B

35-C

36-A

37-C

38-B

39-B

40-D

41-C

42-A

43-B

44-C

45-C

46-A

47-A

48-B

49-B

50-C

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

1-C

ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ14 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

A. justice

B. campus

C. culture

D. brush

Question 2:

A. pressure

B. assure

C. assist

D. possession

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3:

A. reduction

B. popular

C. romantic

D. financial

Question 4:

A. concentrate

B. eventual

C. character

D. transcript

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in the each of following questions.

Question 5: Looking from afar, the village resembles a small green spot dotted with tiny fireballs.

A. Looking

B. resembles

C. green

D. with

Question 6: When the chemicals inside a cell no longer produce ions, the cell stops to function.

A. When

B. inside

C. no longer

D. to function

Question 7: I can’t stand make noise in class. Would you please do something more useful?

A. make

B. Would

C. something

D. useful

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8: The Lake District, _______ was made a national park in 1951, attracts a large number of tourists every year.

A. that

B. where

C. what

D. which

Question 9: The _______ north we go, the less likely we are to meet high temperatures.

A. far

B. further

C. farther

D. farthest

Question 10: _______ the weather forecast, it will rain heavily later this morning.

A. On account of

B. According to

C. Due to

D. Because of

Question 11: I _______ the bell three times when he answered the door.

A. had rung

B. rang

C. would ring

D. was ringing

Question 12: The ______ vegetation in the jungle made it difficult to spot snakes and lizards.

A. heavy

B. elaborate

C. thick

D. lush

Question 13: “Do you like the weather here?” - “I wish it _______.”

A. doesn’t rain

B. didn’t rain

C. won’t rain

D. hadn’t rained

Question 14: She should have been here but she’s _______ flu.

A. gone thought with B. come in for

C. gone down with

D. come against

Question 15: No sooner _______ my car than the alarm went off.

B. had the thief touched

C. touched the thief

D. the thief touched

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

A. the thief had touched

Question 16: The doctor told him to keep _______ sweets and chocolate to lose weight.

A. off

B. up

C. at

D. back

Question 17: You _______ that book last year - it only came out two weeks ago.

A. can’t have read

B. mustn’t have read

C. shouldn’t have red D. needn’t have read

Question 18: Are you having a _______ exam before you sit the actual exam in July?

A. fake

B. false

C. mock

D. counterfeit

Question 19: There should be an international law against _______.

A. reforestation

B. forestry

C. deforestation

D. afforestation

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: Bob: “Our team has just won the last football match.”

Michael: “_______!”

A. Good idea. Thanks for the news

B. Yes. I guess it’s very good

C. Well, that’s very surprising

D. Yes, it’s our pleasure

Question 21: “_______” - “Oh, it’s great!”

A. How is the English competition like?

B. Would you like the English competition?

C. What do you like about the English competition?

D. What do you think of the English competition?

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: The introduction of credit cards radically modified North Americans’ spending habits.

A. reduced

B. altered

C. resolved

D. devoted

Question 23: The bread has become stale and I cannot swallow it.

A. gone away

B. gone down

C. gone up

D. gone off

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24: She came for Christmas laden with gifts for everyone.

A. later

B. provided

C. unloaded

D. lifted

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

Question 25: Population growth rates vary among regions and even among countries within the same region.

A. restrain

B. stay unchanged

C. remain unstable

D. fluctuate

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: While I strongly disapproved of your behavior, I will help you this time.

A. Despite of my strong disapproval of your behavior, I will help you this time.

B. Although I strongly disapproved of your behavior, but I will help you this time.

C. Because of your behavior, I will help you this time.

D. Despite my strong disapproval of your behavior, I will help you this time.

Question 27: Nothing but the whole story would satisfy Jane.

A. Jane wouldn’t be satisfied with anything.

B. Jane insisted on being told the complete story.

C. On the whole, Jane was satisfied with the story.

D. Jane wanted to know just the end of the story.

Question 28: Mary might have phoned while we were out.

A. Possibly Mary phoned while we were out.

B. Unfortunately we were out while Mary phoned.

C. We were sure Mary had phoned while we were out.

D. Mary ought to have phoned while we were out.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29: The student next to me kept chewing gum. That bothered me a lot.

A. The student next to me kept chewing gum, that bothered me a lot.

B. The student next to me kept chewing gum, which bothered me a lot.

C. The student next to me kept chewing gum bothering me a lot.

D. The student next to me kept chewing gum bothered me a lot.

Question 30: The police issued a warning on the radio. A dangerous man had escaped from hospital.

A. A dangerous man had escaped from hospital, so the police issued a warning on the radio.

B. The police issued a warning on the radio about a dangerous man had escaped from hospital.

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

C. The police issued a warning on the radio, namely, a dangerous man had escaped from

hospital.

D. A dangerous man had escaped from hospital where the police issued a warning on the

radio.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

Early writing and Alphabets

When people first began to write, they did not use an alphabet. Instead, they drew

small pictures to (31) _______ the objects they were writing about. This was very slow because there was a different picture for any word.

The Ancient Egyptians had a system of picture writing that was described

hieroglyphics. The meaning of this writing was forgotten for a very long time but in 1799 some scientists (32) _______ a stone near Alexandria, in Egypt. The stone had been there for (33) _______ a thousand years. It had both Greek and hieroglyphics on it and researchers were finally able to understand what the hieroglyphics meant.

An alphabet is quite different from picture writing. It (34) _______ of letters or

symbols that represent a sound and each sound is just part of one word. The Phoenicians, who lived about 3,000 years ago, developed the modern alphabets. It was later improved by the Roman’s and this alphabet is now used (35) _______ throughout the world.

Question 31:

A. notice

B. show

C. appear

D. mark

Question 32:

A. discovered

B. realized

C. delivered

D. invented

Question 33:

A. quite

B. more

C. over

D. already

Question 34:

A. consistsof

B. includes

C. contains

D. involves

Question 35:

A. broadly

B. widely

C. deeply

D. hugely

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

Homing pigeons are placed in a training program from about the time they are twenty-eight days of age. They are taught to enter the loft through a trap and to exercise above and around the loft, and gradually they are taken away for short distances in wicker baskets and released.

They are then expected to find their way home in the shortest possible time.

In their training flights or in actual races, the birds are taken to prearranged distant points and

D áş Y da K yk ĂˆM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ć N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

released to find their way back to their own lofts. Once the birds are liberated, their owners, who are standing by at the home lofts, anxiously watch the sky for the return of their entries.

Since time is of the essence, the speed with which the birds can be induced to enter the loft trap may make the difference between gaining a win or a second place.

The head of a homing pigeon is comparatively small, but its brain is one quarter larger than that of the ordinary pigeon. The homing pigeon is very intelligent and will persevere to the point of stubbornness some have been known to fly a hundred miles off course to avoid a storm.

Some homing pigeon experts claim that this bird is gifted with a form of built-in radar that helps it find its own loft after hours of flight, for hidden under the head feathers are two very sensitive ears, while the sharp, prominent eyes can see great distances in daytime.

Why do homing pigeons fly home? They are not unique in this inherent skill: it is found in most migratory birds, in bees, ants, toads, and even turtles, which have been known to travel hundreds of miles to return to their homes. But in the animal world, the homing pigeon alone can be trusted with its freedom and trained to carry out the missions that people demand.

Question 36: What is the purpose of the passage?

A. To convince the reader to buy a homing pigeon

B. To inform the reader about homing pigeons and their training C. To protect homing pigeons against the threat of extinction

D. To encourage the owners of homing pigeons to set the birds free

Question 37: According to the passage, what happens to homing pigeons when they are about a month old?

A. They are kept in a trap.

B. They enter their first race.

C. They begin a training program.

D. They get their wings clipped and marked.

Question 38: In line 7, when the author states that the owners "anxiously watch the sky" there is the implication that the owners A. want their pigeon to win the race

B. are sending radar signals to their pigeons C. do not know whether the race began on time D. do not trust the rules set down by the judges Question 39: According to the passage, what is the difference between a homing pigeon and an ordinary one?

A. The span of the wings

B. The shape of the eyes

C. The texture of the feathers

D. The size of the brain

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

Question 40: The author mentions all of the following at tributes that enable a homing pigeon to return home EXCEPT A. instinct

B. air sacs

C. sensitive ears

D. good eyes

Question 41: In line 12, the pronoun "it" refers to which of the following?

A. Radar

B. Bird

C. Loft

D. Form

Question 42: Why does the author mention bees, ants, toads, and turtles in the last paragraph?

A. To describe some unusual kinds of pets

B. To measure distances traveled by various animals

C. To compare their home-finding abilities with those of homing pigeons D. To interest the reader in learning about other animals

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.

If the salinity of ocean waters is analyzed, it is found to vary only slightly from place

to place. Nevertheless, some of these small changes are important. There are three basic processes that cause a change in oceanic salinity. One of these is the subtraction of water from the ocean by means of evaporation-conversion of liquid water to water vapor. In this manner, the salinity is increased, since the salts stay behind. If this is carried to the extreme, of course, white crystals of salt would be left behind: this, by the way, is how much of the table salt we use is actually obtained.

The opposite of evaporation is precipitation. such as rain, by which water is added to the ocean. Here the ocean is being diluted so that the salinity is decreased. This may occur in areas of high rainfall or in coastal regions where rivers flow into the ocean. Thus salinity may be increased by the subtraction of water by evaporation, or decreased by the addition of fresh water by precipitation or runoff.

Normally in tropical regions where the Sun is very strong, the ocean salinity is somewhat higher than it is in other parts of the world where there is not as much evaporation.

Similarly, in coastal regions where rivers dilute the sea salinity is somewhat lower than in other oceanic areas.

A third process by which salinity may be altered is associated with the formation and melting of sea ice. When seawater is frozen, the dissolved materials are left behind. In this manner, seawater directly beneath freshly formed sea ice has a higher salinity than it did

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

before the ice appeared. Of course, when this ice melts, it will tend to decrease the salinity of the surrounding water.

In the Weddell Sea, off Antarctica, the densest water in the oceans is formed as a

result of this freezing process, which increases the salinity of cold water. This heavy water sinks and is found in the deeper portions of the oceans of the world.

Question 43: What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. The bodies of water of the world

B. The elements of salt

C. The many forms of ocean life

D. The salinity of ocean water

Question 44: According to the passage, the ocean generally has more salt in A. coastal areas

B. tropical areas

C. rainy areas

D. turbulent areas

Question 45: All of the following are processes that decrease salinity EXCEPT A. evaporation

B. precipitation

C. runoff

D. melting

Question 46: Which of the following statements about the salinity of a body of water can best be inferred from the passage?

A. The temperature of the water is the most important factor.

B. How quickly the water moves is directly related to the amount of alt.

C. Ocean salinity has little effect on sea life.

D. Various factors combine to cause variations in the salt content of water.

Question 47: The word "it" in line 16 refers to which of the following?

A. Sea ice

B. Salinity

C. Seawater

D. Manner

Question 48: Why does the author mention the Weddell Sea? A. To show that this body of water has salinity variations B. To compare Antarctic waters with Arctic waters C. To give an example of cold-water salinity D. To point out the location of deep waters Question 49: Which of the following is NOT a result of the formation of ocean ice?

A. The salt remains in the water

B. The surrounding water sinks

C. Water salinity decreases

D. The water becomes denser

Question 50: What can be inferred about the water near the bottom of oceans?

B. Its salinity is relatively high.

C. It does not move.

D. It is formed by melting sea ice.

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

A. It is relatively warm.

Đáp án 2-C

3-B

4-B

5-A

6-D

7-A

8-D

9-C

10-B

11-A

12-C

13-B

14-C

15-B

16-A

17-A

18-C

19-C

20-C

21-D

22-B

23-D

24-C

25-B

26-D

27-B

28-A

29-B

30-A

31-B

32-A

33-C

34-A

35-B

36-B

37-C

38-A

39-D

40-B

41-B

42-C

43-D

44-B

45-A

46-D

47-C

48-C

49-C

50-B

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

1-B

ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 15 ❖ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. look B. moon C. shoot D. lagoon Question 2:

A. universal

B. uniform

C. ultraviolet

D. unit

❖ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

following questions.

Question 3:

A. secure

B. oblige

C. vacant

D. equip

Question 4:

A. accompany

B. comfortable

C. interview

D. unique

❖ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in the each of following questions.

Question 5: Rose didn’t mean insulting Jack, but he took her comments amiss and now will no longer talk to her.

A. insulting

B. took

C. amiss

D. talk to

Question 6: Soil temperatures in Royal River, Matana, near the Nevada border, have been known to reach 45 of degrees Celsius.

A. Soil

B. near

C. have been known

D. of degrees

Question 7: Tenant taxi driver are those they either rent a car and work it for themselves or work for the owner and receive payment.

A. they

B. it

C. or

D. the owner

❖ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8: Without the accident on the way this morning, Rose _______ late for class.

A. would be

B. would have been

C. hadn’t been

D. wouldn’t have been

Question 9: It is important that every passenger o board _______ before the flight.

A. be checked

B. is checked

C. must be checked

D. were checked

Question 10: Rose is visiting Vietnam tomorrow on her first business trip and she is very excited _______ it.

A. at

B. beside

C. about

D. with

Question 11: Before cooking, Rose should buy all the necessary _______.

A. factors

B. ingredients

C. substances

D. elements

Question 12: Not only _______, it also performs an crucial function in the reproduction of the plant.

A. the flower looks lovely

B. the flower is looking lovely

C. does the flower look lovely

D. the lovely flower

Question 13: The _______ reason why she cannot love him is because he constantly treats her badly A. big

B. great

C. main

D. large

Question 14: While Jack was looking through his old albums the other day, he _______ this photograph of his parents’ wedding.

B. made up

C. turned down

D. came across

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

A. took after

Question 15: My family gave me a surprising party, _______ was so kind of them.

A. which

B. this

C. that

D. what

Question 16: In general, the South of Vietnam is as _______ as the North.

A. flat

B. less flat

C. flatter

D. the flattest

Question 17: The person that you saw last night _______ have been Jack because he was here with me all that time.

A. shan’t

B. can’t

C. wouldn’t

D. oughtn’t

Question 18: No one will fly off the _______ for no reason.

A. rooftop

B. handles

C. needles

D. pate

Question 19: Carbon dioxide _______ as one of the main contributors to the greenhouse effect.

A. had identified

B. has been identified

C. has identified

D. had been identified

❖ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: Sue: “These cakes are so delious! Thank you very much, Bill.”

- Bill: “_______!”

A. Don’t mention it

B. Good job

C. Don’t worry

D. That’s right

Question 21: Thang: “What do you think about the movie?” – Huong: “_______.”

A. Yes, let’s see

B. I can’t agree with you more

C. The best I’ve ever seen

D. I wish I could

❖ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: The Aborigional set off a flare to help guide our rescuers.

A. lamp

B. temper

C. style

D. blaze

Question 23: We were having difficulties finishing the research in such a short period of timed so that we decided to prolong our stay by another week.

A. extend ❖

B. inquire

C. relax

D. stop

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s)

OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24: In the middle of the field stood a colossal wooden house, decorated in ivory and gold.

B. tiny

C. graceful

D. big

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

A. gigantic

Question 25: The novel was abridged for children.

A. shortened

B. extended

C. stressed

D. easy

❖ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: Rose must have been sleeping; otherwise, she would have heard the telephone ring.

A. I’m pretty sure that Rose was asleep at the time, because she didn’t heard the telephone

ring.

B. Rose was sleeping so deeply that she wouldn’t even have heard telephone ring.

C. If she had been sleeping, Rose would have missed the sound of telephone.

D. The telephone rang while Rose was about to fall asleep, but she wasn’t aware of it.

Question 27: It is said that two men were arrested after the robbery.

A. People said two men be arrested after the robbery.

B. Two men are said to be arrested after the robbery.

C. Two men are said to have been arrested after the robbery.

D. Two men were said to be arrested after the robbery.

Question 28: Jack didn’t take his father’s advice. That’s why he is in prison.

A. If Jack had taken his father’s advice, he would not have been in prison.

B. If Jack took his father’s advice, he would not be in prison.

C. If Jack had taken his father’s advice, he would not be in prison.

D. If Jack takes his father’s advice, he will not be in prison.

Question 29: Tourists are advised to take out insurance. Their baggage may go astray.

A. Tourists should take out insurance if their baggage goes astray.

B. Tourists should get insurance, or else their baggage may go astray.

C. Tourists are advised to take out insurance in case their baggage goes astray.

D. Tourists had better buy insurance as a precaution against their luggage go astray.

Question 30: We intended ti visit Rome in the afternoon. We could not afford the fee, however.

A. As intended, we could not afford the visit to Rome in the afternoon because of the fee.

B. We visited Rome in the afternoon though the fee was too high for us.

C. We were going to visit Rome in the afternoon but the fee was too high for us.

D. The fee was, however, high enough for us to plan a visit to Rome in the afternoon. ❖

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

Mobile phones emit microwave radio emissions. Investigators are questioning whether

exposure to these radio waves might (31) ________ to brain cancer. So far, the figures are not final. The precise evidence does not enable us to say in certain that mobile phones are definitely safe. On the other hand, recent research has not yet (32) ________ clear adverse effect associated with the prolonged use of mobile phones.

Many studies are now going (33) ________ in numerous countries. Some of the results

are contradictory but the others have shown an association between mobile phone use and cancer. However, these studies are preliminary and the issue needs further, long – term investigation.

(34) ________ the scientific data is more definite, it is advisable for people to try not to

use mobile phone for long periods of time. Don’t think that hands free phones are any safer either. At the moment, research is in fact showing the opposite and they may be just as hazardous. It is also thought that young people (35) ________ bodies are still growing may be at particular risk.

Question 31:

A. cause

B. bring

C. produce

D. lead

Question 32:

A. created

B. proved

C. demonstrated

D. caused

Question 33:

A. on

B. about

C. through

D. by

Question 34:

A. Provide

B. When

C. Until

D. As

Question 35:

A. whose

B. that

C. with

D. as

❖

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer

sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

Stars have been significant features in the design of many United States coins and their number has varied from one to foty-eight stars. Most of the coins issued from about 1799 to the early years of the twentieth century bore thirteen stars representing the thirteen original colonies.

Curiously enough, the first American silver coins, issued in, 1794, had fifteen stars because by that time Vermont and Kentucky had joined the Union. At that time it was apparently the intention of mint officials to add a star for each new state. Following the admission of Tennessee in 1796, for example, some varieties of half dimes, dimes, and halfdollars were produced with sixteen stars.

As more states were admitted to the Union, however, it quickly became apparent that this scheme would not prove practical and the coins from 1798 on were issued with only

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

thirteen stars-one for each of the original colonies. Due to an error at the mint, one variety of the 1828 half cent was issued with only twelve stars. There is also a variety of the large cent with only 12 stars, but this is the result of a die break and is not a true error.

Question 36: What is the main topic of the passage?

A. The teaching of astronomy in state universities B. Stars on American coins

C. Colonial stamps and coins

D. The star as national symbol of the United States

Question 37: The word “their” in line 1 refers to A. stars

B. features

C. coins

D. colonies

Question 38: The word “bore” in line 3 is closest in meaning to which of the following?

A. Carried

B. Drilled

C. Cost

D. Symbolized

Question 39: The expression “Curiously enough” is used in line 4 because the author finds it strange that

A. silver coins with fifteen stars appeared before coins with thirteen B. Vermont and Kentucky joined the Union in 1794 C. no silver coins were issue until 1794

D. Tennessee was the first state to use half dimes

Question 40: Which of the following can be inferred about the order in which Kentucky, Tennessee, and Vermont joined the Union?

A. Vermont and Kentucky joined at the same time.

B. Kentucky joined before Tennessee and Vermont.

C. Tennessee joined after Vermont and Kentucky.

D. Vermont joined after Tennessee and Kentucky.

Question 41: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as the denomination of an American coin?

A. Half cent

B. Half nickel

C. Half dime

D. Half-dollar

Question 42: Why was a coin produced in 1828 with only twelve stars?

A. There were twelve states at the time.

B. There was a change in design policy.

C. Tennessee had left the Union.

D. The mint made a mistake.

❖ Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.

Icebergs are among nature’s most spectacular creations, and yet most people have never seen one. A vague air of mystery envelops them. They come into being somewhere-in faraway, frigid

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

waters, amid thunderous noise and splashing turbulence, which in most cases no one hears or sees. They exist only a short time and then slowly waste away just a unnoticed.

Objects of sheerest beauty, they have been called. Appearing in an andless variety of shapes

they may be dazzlingly white, or they may be glassy blue, green, or purple, tinted faintly or in darker hues. They are graceful, stately, inspiring-in calm, sunlit seas.

But they are also called frightening and dangerous, and that they are-in the night, in the fog,

and in storms. Even in clear weather one is wise to stay a safe distance away from them. Most of their bulk is hidden below the water, so their underwater parts may extend out far beyond the visible top. Also, they may roll over uexpectedly, churning the waters around them.

Icebergs are parts of glaciers that break off, drift into the water, float about awhile, and finally

melt. Icebergs afloat today are made of snowflakes that have fallen over long ages of time. They embody snows that drifted down hundreds, or many thousands, or in some cases maybe a milliom years ago. The snows fell in polar regions and on cold mountains, where they melted only a little or not at all, and so collected to great depths over the years and centuries.

As each year’s snow accumulation lay on the surface, evaporation and melting caused the

snowflakes slowly to lose their feathery points and become tiny grains of ice. When new snow fell on top of the old, it too turned to icy grains. So blankets of snow and ice grains mounted layer upon layer and were of such great thickness that the weight of the upper layers compressed the lower ones. With time and pressure from above, the many small ice grains joined and changed to larger crystals, and eventually the deeper crystals merged into a solid mass of ice.

Question 43: Which of the following is the best tittle for the passage?

A. The Melting of Icebergs

B. The Nature and Origin of Icebergs

C. The Size and Shape of Icebergs

D. The Dangers of Icebergs

Question 44: The author states that icebergs are rarely seen because they are A. surrounded by fog B. hidden beneath the mountains C. located in remote regions of the wolrd

D. broken by waves soon after they are formed Question 45: The passage mentions all of the following colors for icebergs EXCEPT A. yellow

B. blue

C. green

D. purple

Question 46: According to the passage, icebergs are dangerous because they A. usually melt quickly

B. can turn over very suddenly

C. may create immense snowdrifts

D. can cause unexpected avalanches

Question 47: According to the passage, icebergs originate from a buildup of B. feathers

C. underwater pressure

D. snowflakes

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

A. turbulent water

Question 48: The formation of an iceberg is most clearly analogous to which of the following activities?

A. Walking on fluffy new snow, causing it to become more compact and icy B. Plowing large areas of earth, leaving the land flat and barren C. Skating across a frozen lake and leaving a trail behind D. Blowing snow into one large pile to clear an area

Question 49: In line 20, the expression “from above” refers to A. sunlit seas

B. polar regions

C. weight of mountains

D. layers of ice and snow

Question 50: The attitude of the author toward icebergs is one of A. disappointment

B. humor

C. disinterest

D. wonder

ĐÁP ÁN

1-A

2-C

3-C

4-A

5-A

6-D

7-A

8-D

9-A

10-C

11-B

12-C

13-C

14-D

15-A

16-A

17-B

18-B

19-B

20-A

21-C

22-D

23-A

24-B

25-B

26-A

27-C

28-C

29-C

30-C

31-D

32-B

33-A

34-C

35-A

36-B

37-A

38-A

39-A

40-C

41-B

42-D

43-B

44-C

45-A

46-B

47-D

48-A

49-D

50-D

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPTQG 2017 TRẮC NGHIỆM MÔN TIẾNG ANH ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 16 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

A. entry

B. ready

C. comfy

D. occupy

Question 2:

A. creature

B. equal

C. league

D. menace

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3:

A. conquer

B. award

C. regard

D. control

Question 4:

A. neighbour

B. career

C. colleague

D. classmate

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in the each of following questions.

Question 5: By measuring the color of a star, astronomers can tell how hot is it.

A. measuring the

B. can tell

C. how

D. is it

Question 6: I get quite depressed when I think about the damage we are making to the environment.

A. depressed

B. about

C. damage

D. making to

Question 7: Aloha is a Hawaiian word meaning “love”, that can be used to say hello or goodbye.

A. is a

B. meaning

C. that

D. to say

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8: Water volume in rivers in central Vietnam will decline by 30 to 50 percent, potentially leading to a _______ between April and June.

A. scarcity

B. scarce

C. scarify

D. scarcely

Question 9: The number of working women _______ from 49% in 1980 to nearly 65% in China today.

A. is increasing

B. has increased

C. have increased

D. has been increased

Question 10: The new manager _______ very strict rules as soon as he had taken over the position.

A. settled down

B. put down

C. laid down

D. wrote down

Question 11: Learners of English as a foreign language often fail to_______ between unfamiliar sounds in that language.

A. distinguish

B. differ

C. separate

D. solve

Question 12: “_______ you treat him, he’ll help you. He’s so tolerant.”

A. Even though

B. No matter how

C. As if

D. In addition to

Question 13: William is an authority _______ medieval tapestries.

B. with

C. about

D. in

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A. on

Question 14: “You _____ have cooked so many dishes. There are only three of us for lunch.”

A. couldn’t

B. wouldn’t

C. needn’t

D. oughtn’t

Question 15: Everyone here has been to London, _______?

A. haven’t they

B. hasn’t he

C. hasn’t they

D. has he

Question 16: Books and magazines _______ around made his room very untidy.

A. that lie

B. laying

C. which lied

D. lying

Question 17: He decided to make a claim _______ damages to his car.

A. for

B. in

C. about

D. on

Question 18: Jane really loves the _______ jewelry box that her parents gave her as a birthday present.

A. nice brown wooden

B. brown wooden nice

C. nice wooden brown

D. wooden brown nice

Question 19: The opposition will be elected into government at the next election, without a _______ of a doubt.

A. shade

B. shadow

C. benefit

D. hue

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: “I don’t think I can do this.” – “_______” A. Sure, no way!

B. Yeah. It’s not easy.

C. Oh, come on! Give it a try!

D. No, I hope not.

Question 21: Peter: “Is it important?” - Thomas: “_______” A. Not on your life!

B. It’s matter of life and death!

C. No worry, that’s nothing.

D. It’s ridiculous.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: I love to ramble through the fields and lanes in this part of the country.

A. knot

B. confuse

C. wander

D. wonder

Question 23: They fought fearlessly against the invading armies.

A. powerfully

B. cowardly

C. bravely

D. carefully

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24: The town is built on a tainted swamp.

A. sweet

B. odorous

C. ugly

D. delicious

Question 25: There has been a significant shortage of new homes in the region.

A. lack

B. poverty

C. abundance

D. fall

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: I would rather you wore something more formal to work.

A. I’d prefer you wearing something more formal to work.

B. I’d prefer you should wear something more formal to work.

C. I’d prefer you to wear something more formal to work.

D. I’d prefer you wear something more formal to work.

Question 27: Diana ran into her former teacher on the way to the stadium yesterday.

A. Diana caused an accident to her teacher while she was going to the stadium.

B. Diana’s car ran over her teacher on the way to the stadium.

C. Diana happened to meet her teacher while she was going to the stadium.

D. Diana’s teacher got run over whole she was going to the stadium.

Question 28: "You’re always making terrible mistakes", said the teacher.

A. The teacher asked his students why they always made terrible mistakes.

B. The teacher complained about his student making terrible mistakes.

C. The teacher realized that his students always made terrible mistakes.

D. The teacher made his students not always make terrible mistakes.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29: We chose to find a place for the night. We found the bad weather very inconvenient.

A. Seeing that the bad weather had set in, we decided to find somewhere to spend the night.

B. The bad weather prevented us from driving any further.

C. Bad weather was approaching, so we started to look for a place to stay.

D áş Y da K yk ĂˆM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ć N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

D. Because the climate was so severe, we were worried about what we'd do at night.

Question 30: It isn't just that the level of education of this school is high. It's that it's also been consistent for years.

A. The level of education in this school, which is usually quite high, shows only slight

variations from year to year.

B. The standard of education is not high in this school, but at least all the students are at the

same level.

C. Not only are the standards of education good in this school, but it has also maintained

those standards over the years.

D. It isn't fair to deny that this school is successful, as it has had the same high standards for

many years now.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

Magnets

A solid object that has the power to attract iron and some metals is called a magnet. It

does this through its magnetic field, a region of force surrounding it. The (1) _______ the magnet, the more intense is the field.

Objects that are attracted to the magnet feel a force (2) _______ as magnetism when they are inside the magnetic field. This magnetic force can pass through some materials. Even a weak magnet will attract a pin to the other side of a sheet of paper, for example.

Magnets come in (3) _______ shapes. A familiar one is the curved horseshoes magnet. There are also bar magnets in the form of disc or a stubby cylinder. Every magnet has (4) _______ poles, called north and south, at opposite ends of it: at the two ends of a horseshoes magnet, for example, or on the two sides of a disc.

Powerful magnets can be made by passing an electric current through wire coiled around a piece of iron. The (5) _______ is called and electromagnet. Magnets are used in many household and everyday devices. They are also commonly used in industrial machinery, usually in the form of electromagnets.

A. smaller

B. stronger

C. weaker

D. thinner

Question 32:

A. mentioned

B. called

C. known

D. said

Question 33:

A. separate

B. different

C. unknown

D. identical

Question 34:

A. many

B. several

C. two

D. one

Question 35:

A. ending

B. result

C. conclusion

D. final

D áş Y da K yk ĂˆM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ć N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

Question 31:

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

The invention of the incandescent light bulb by Thomas A. Edison in 1879 created a

demand for a cheap, readily available fuel with which to generate large amounts of electric power. Coal seemed to fit the bill, and it fueled the earliest power stations (which were set up at the end Of the nineteenth century by Edison himself). As more power plants were constructed throughout the country, the reliance on coal increased. Since the First World War, coal-fired power plants have accounted for about half of the electricity produced in the United States each year. In 1986 such plants had a combined generating capacity of 289,000 megawatts and consumed 33 percent of the nearly 900 million tons of coal mined in the country that year. Given the uncertainty in the future growth of nuclear power and in the supply of oil and natural gas, coal-fired power plants could well provide up to 70 percent of the electric power in the United States by the end of the century.

Yet, in spite of the fact that coal has long been a source of electricity and may remain

one for many years (coal represents about 80 percent of United States fossil-fuel reserves), it has actually never been the most desirable fossil fuel for power plants. Coal contains less energy per unit of weight than natural gas or oil; it is difficult to transport, and it is associated with a host of environmental issues, among them acid rain. Since the late 1960's problems of emission control and waste disposal have sharply reduced the appeal of coal-fired power plants. The cost of ameliorating these environmental problems, along with the rising cost of building a facility as large and complex as a coal-fired power plant, has also made such plants less attractive from a purely economic perspective.

Changes in the technological base of coal fired power plants could restore their attractiveness, however. Whereas some of these changes are evolutionary and are intended mainly to increase the productivity of existing plants, completely new technologies for burning coal cleanly are also being developed.

Question 36: What is the main idea of the passage?

A. Coal-fired plants are an important source of electricity in the United States and are likely to remain so.

D áş Y da K yk ĂˆM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ć N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

B. Generating electricity from coal is comparatively recent in the United States.

C. Coal is a more economical fuel than either oil or nuclear power.

D. Coal is a safer and more dependable fossil fuel than oil or gas.

Question 37: Edison's electric light bulb is mentioned in the passage because it _______.

A. replaced gas as a light source

B. increased the need for electrical power

C. was safer than any other method of lighting

D. could work only with electricity generated from coal

Question 38: It can be inferred from the passage that coal became the principal source of electricity in the United States, because it _______.

A. required no complicated machinery

B. was comparatively plentiful and inexpensive C. was easy to transport D. burned efficiently

Question 39: In the author's opinion, the importance of coal-generated electricity could increase in the future for which of the following reasons?

A. The possible substitutes are too dangerous.

B. The cost of changing to other fuels is too great.

C. The future availability of other fuels is uncertain.

D. Other fuels present too many environmental problems.

Question 40: Acid rain is mentioned in the passage for which of the following reasons?

A. It reduces the efficiency of coal-fired plants B. It increases the difficulty of transporting coal C. It is an environmental problem associated with coal use D. It contains less energy per unit of weight than coal does

Question 41: According to the passage, which of the following is one of the goals of the new technology in coal-fired plants?

A. To adapt the plants to other kinds of fuel B. To reduce the cost of building more plants C. To lengthen the lives of plants already in use D. To make the plants already in use more productive Question 42: Where in the passage is there a reference to the establishment of the first

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

electric power stations?

A. Lines 2-3

B. Lines 5-7

C. Lines 9-11

D. Lines 16-18

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.

Born in 1830 in rural Amherst, Massachusetts, Emily Dickinson spent her entire life

in the household of her parents. Between 1858 and 1862, it was later discovered, she wrote like a person possessed, often producing a poem a day. It was also during this period that her life was transformed into the myth of Amherst.

Withdrawing more and more, keeping to her room sometimes even refusing to see visitors who called, she began to dress only in white - a habit that added to her reputation as an eccentric.

In their determination to read Dickinson's life in terms of a traditional romantic plot,

biographers have missed the unique pattern of her life - her struggle to create a female life not yet imagined by the culture in which she lived. Dickinson was not the innocent, lovelorn and emotionally fragile girl sentimentalized by the Dickinson myth and popularized by William Luce’s 1976 play, The BeIle of Amherst. Her decision to shut the door on Amherst society in the 1950's transformed her house into a kind of magical realm in which she was free to engage her poetic genius. Her seclusion was not the result of a failed love affairs but rather a part of a more general pattern of renunciation through which she, in her quest for self – sovereignty, carried on an argument with the Puritan fathers, attacking with wit and irony their cheerless Calvinist doctrine, their stern patriarchal God, and their rigid notions of "true womanhood."

Question 43: What is the author's main purpose in the passage?

A. To interpret Emily Dickinson’s eccentric behavior B. To promote the popular myth of Emily Dickinson

C. To discuss Emily Dickinson's failed love affair D. To describe the religious climate in Emily Dickinson's time Question 44: According to the passage, the period from 1858 to 1862 was for Emily Dickinson a period of great _______.

A. tragedy

B. sociability

C. productivity

D. frivolity

Question 45: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as being one of Emily Dickinson' s eccentricities?

B. Wearing only white

C. Avoiding visitors

D. Staying in her room

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

A. Refusing to eat

Question 46: According to the passage, biographers of Emily Dickinson have traditionally _______.

A. criticized most of her poems

B. ignored her innocence and emotional fragility C. seen her life in romantic terms

D. blamed her parents for restricting her activities

Question 47: Why does the author mention William Luce's play The Belle of Amherst?

A. To give an example of the sentimentalized Emily Dickinson myth B. To show how popular Emily Dickinson's poems have become C. To show that Emily Dickinson was also an actress

D. To illustrate the theatrical quality of Emily Dickinson's poems

Question 48: The author implies that many people attribute Emily Dickinson's seclusion to _______.

A. physical illness

B. a failed love affair C.

religious fervor

D. her dislike of people

Question 49: The author suggests all of the following as reasons for Emily Dickinson's unusual behavior EXCEPT the _______.

A. struggle to create a new female identity

B. desire to develop her genius undisturbed C. search for her own independence D. attempt to draw attention to her poetry

Question 50: It can be inferred from the passage that Emily Dickinson lived in a society that was characterized by _______.

A. strong Puritan beliefs

B. equality of men and women

C. the encouragement of nonconformity

D. the appreciation of poetic creativity

Đáp án 2-D

3-A

4-B

5-D

6-D

7-C

8-A

9-B

10-C

11-A

12-B

13-A

14-C

15-A

16-D

17-C

18-A

19-B

20-C

21-B

22-C

23-C

24-B

25-C

26-C

27-C

28-B

29-A

30-C

31-B

32-C

33-B

34-C

35-B

36-A

37-B

38-B

39-C

40-C

41-D

42-A

43-A

44-C

45-A

46-C

47-A

48-B

49-D

50-A

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

1-D

ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 17 ❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

A. nostril

B. chose

C. soap

D. dose

Question 2:

A. accident

B. jazz

C. stamina

D. aviation

❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3:

A. exclude

B. escape

C. expert

D. expire

Question 4:

A. surprising

B. astonishing

C. amazing

D. interesting

❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in the each of following questions.

Question 5: Since stealing is becoming more seriously, the administration has imposed stricter rules to prevent it.

A. stealing

B. seriously

C. stricter rules

D. it

Question 6: Reminding not to miss the 15:20 train, the manager set out for the station in a hurry.

A. Reminding

B. the 15:20 train

C. for

D. in a hurry

Question 7: Small town newspapers often urge readers to make business with local merchants.

A. newspapers

B. urge

C. make

D. local

❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8: Aerodynamics is the study of the forces ________ on an object as it moves through the atmosphere.

A. acting

B. act

C. are acting

D. acted

Question 9: I’m sure Mary will have no ________ the driving test.

A. difficulties of passing

B. difficulty passing

C. difficulties to pass

D. difficulty to pass

Question 10: We’d better insure the jewelry ________ robbery.

A. in case of

B. but for

C. as a result of

D. in addition to

Question 11: The Z-War ________ in 1979.

A. brought about

B. turned up

C. broke out

D. took out

Question 12: He’d rather ________ a hot beverage during a meal.

A. me not to have

B. me did not have

C. I did not have

D. I do not have

Question 13: At first it was all silence. Then ________ that I was familiar with.

A. came a voice

B. a voice came

C. a voice is coming

D. a voice comes

Question 14: The man ________ car is brown is my boyfriend.

B. whose

C. whom

D. who

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A. which

Question 15: Hurry up. Rose! They’ve only got ________ tickets left.

A. a lot of

B. a little

C. a few

D. plenty of

Question 16: Being well-dress and punctual can help you make a good ________ on your audience.

A. effectiveness

B. pressure

C. employment

D. impression

Question 17: The program “Rush Hours” is a project that uses short films to teach lessons in

traffic safety and ________.

A. protecting

B. protector

C. protective

D. protection

Question 18: Her manager fired her, ________ made her so upset.

A. that

B. this

C. what

D. which

Question 19: One thing seems rather certain. The battle ________ in a proper way.

A. hasn’t run

B. wasn’t run

C. hadn’t run

D. wouldn’t run

❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: -“You look lovely today. I like your new dress.” – “________” A. It’s nice of you to say so.

B. Shall I? Thanks.

C. Oh, well done.

D. I feel interesting to hear that.

Question 21: Where are we going to see him? – “ ________ the lecture room?”

A. How about

B. How is about

C. What is about

D. What about is

❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: The critic believed that the instructor had been negligent in allowing the kids to swim in dangerous water.

A. benevolent

B. morbid

C. careless

D. dark

Question 23: The alteration between the two versions is minor.

A. insignificant

B. arguable

C. careless

D. astonishing

❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24: The director’s mad idea lead the company follow the wrong way.

A. crafty

B. simple

C. sensible

D. propose

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Question 25: He's a great reputation, but he doesn't show off it.

A. regard B. let down C. hide

D. insane

❖ Mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: “We lost the last battle because of the player 11.” Said the team captain.

A. The team captain refused to tell the player 11 about their loss in the last battle.

B. The team captain admitted to the player 11 that they had lost the last battle.

C. The team captain blamed the player 11 for their loss in the last battle.

D. The team captain said that without the player 11, they might have lost the battle.

Question 27: The gentleman wore gloves in order not to leave any fingerprints.

A. In order to leave some fingerprints the man took off his gloves.

B. His fingerprints would not be left unless the gentleman wore gloves.

C. The gentleman wore gloves so that he would not leave any fingerprints.

D. The gentleman wore gloves in order that his fingerprints would be taken.

Question 28: I was surprised that he knew a lot about Vietnamese culture.

A. I was surprised at his poor knowledge of Vietnamese culture.

B. That he knew a lot about Vietnamese culture amazed me.

C. I knew very little about Vietnamese culture, which surprised him.

D. It astonished me that Vietnamese culture was what he liked most.

❖ Mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29: Jack graduated with good marks. However, he joined the ranks of the unemployed.

A. Although Jack graduated with good marks, he joined the ranks of the unemployed.

B. Jack joined the ranks of the unemployed because he graduated with good marks C. Jack graduated with good marks, he would join the ranks of the unemployed.

D. That Jack graduated with a good marks he helped him join the ranks of the unemployed.

Question 30: Put your glove on. You will get cold.

A. Put your glove on, otherwise you will get cold.

B. You will not get cold unless you put your glove on.

C. You not only put your glove on but also get cold.

D. It is not until you put your glove t on that you will get cold. ❖ Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

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One of the most important (31) ________ of a standardized test is time. You’ll only be

allowed a certain number of minutes for each section, so it is very essential that you use your time wisely. The most significant time strategy is pacing yourself. Before you initiate, take just a few seconds to review the test, noting the number of questions and the sections that looks easier than the rest. Then, make a rough time plan based (32) ________ the amount of time available to you. Mark the halfway point on your test and make a memo beside that mark of the time when the testing period is half over.

Once you start the test, continue moving. If you work slowly in an attempt to make

fewer mistakes, your mind will become bored and begin to wander. You’ll end up with far (33) ________ mistakes if you’re not concentrating. If you take too long to answer questions that stump you, you may end up running out of time before you finish. So don’t stop for difficult questions. Skip them and move on. You can come back to them later if you have time. A question that takes you five seconds to answer counts as much as one that takes you several minutes, so pick up the easy points first. (34) ________, answering the easier questions first helps build your confidence and gets you in the testing groove. If you’re a little ahead, you know you’re on track and may even have a little time left to check your work. If you’re a little behind, you have several choices. You can pick up the pace a little, but do this only if you can do it (35) ________.

Question 31:

A. issues

B. information

C. concern

D. factors

Question 32:

A. from

B. on

C. in

D. out

Question 33:

A. more

B. away

C. under

D. from

Question 34:

A. Beside

B. However

C. Besides

D. Therefore

Question 35:

A. comfortable

B.uncomfortable C. comfortably

D. uncomfortably

❖ Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

The first navigational lights in the New World were probably lanterns hung at harbor entrances. The first lighthouse was put up by the Massachusetts Bay Colony In 1766 on Little

Brewster Island at the entrance to Boston Harbor. Paid for and maintained by light dues levied on ships, the original beacon was blown up in 1776. By then there were only a dozen or so true lighthouses in the colonies. Little over a century later, there were 700 lighthouses.

The first eight erected on the West Coast in the 1850’s featured the same basic New England design: a Cape Cod dwelling with the tower rising from the center or standing close by. In New England and elsewhere, though, lighthouses reflected a variety of architectural styles. Since most stations in the Northeast were built on rocky eminences, enormous towers

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were not the rule. Some were made of stone and brick, others of wood or metal. Some stood on pilings or stilts: some were fastened to rock with iron rods. Farther south, from Maryland through the Florida Keys, the coast was low and sandy. It was often necessary to build tall towers there – massive structures like the majestic Cape Hatteras, North Carolina lighthouse, which was lit in 1870. At 190 feet, it is the tallest brick lighthouse in the country.

Not withstanding differences in appearance and construction, most American

lighthouses shared several features: a light, living quarters, and sometimes a bell (or, later, a foghorn). They also had something else in common: a keeper and, usually, the keeper's family. The keeper's essential task was trimming the lantern Nick in order to maintain a steady bright flame. The earliest keepers came from every walk of life-they were seamen.

Farmers, mechanics, rough mill hands-and appointments were often handed out by local customs commissioners as political plums. After the administration of lighthouses was taken over in 1852 by the United States Lighthouse 803rd, an agency of the Treasury Department, the keeper corps gradually became highly professional.

Question 36: What is the best title for the passage?

A. The Lighthouse on Little Brewster Island B. The Life of a Lighthouse Keeper

C. Early Lighthouses in the United States

D. The Modern Profession of Lighthouse Keeping

Question 37: Why does the author mention the Massachusetts Bay Colony?

A. It was the headquarters of the United States Lighthouse Board.

B. Many of the tallest lighthouses were built there.

C. The first lantern wicks were developed there.

D. The first lighthouse in North America was built there.

Question 38: It can be inferred from the passage that lighthouses in the Northeast did not need high towers because ________ .

A. ships there had high masts

B. coastal waters were safe C. the coast was straight and unobstructed D. the lighthouse were built on high places Question 39: According to the passage, where can the tallest brick lighthouse in the United States be found?

A. Little Brewster Island

B. The Florida Keys

C. Cape Hatteras

D. Cape Cod

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Question 40: In line 15, to which of the following does the word "They" refer?

A. Lighthouses

B. Differences

C. Quarters

D. Features

Question 41: It can be inferred from the passage that the Treasury Department, after assuming control of the lighthouses, improved which of the following?

A. The training of the lighthouse keepers

B. The sturdiness of the lighthouses

C. The visibility of the lights

D. The locations of the lighthouses

Question 42: Where in the passage does the author tell how lighthouses in the Northeast were fastened to the surrounding rock?

A. Lines 3-4

B. Line 10

C. Lines 14-15

D. Line 19

❖ Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.

In the past oysters were raised in much the same way as dirt farmers raised tomatoes -

by transplanting them. First, farmers selected the oyster bed, cleared the bottom of old shells and other debris, then scattered clean shells about. Next, they "planted" fertilized oyster eggs, which within two or three weeks hatched into larvae. The larvae drifted until they attached themselves to the clean shells on the bottom. There they remained and in time grew into baby oysters called seed or spat. The spat grew larger by drawing in seawater from which they derived microscopic particles of food. Before long farmers gathered the baby oysters transplanted them in other waters to speed up their growth, then transplanted them once more into another body of water to fatten them up.

Until recently; the supply of wild oysters and those crudely farmed were more than enough to satisfy people's needs. But today the delectable seafood is no longer available in abundance. The problem has become so serious that some oyster beds have vanished entirely.

Fortunately, as far back as the early 1900's marine biologists realized that if new measures were not taken, oysters would become extinct or at best a luxury food. So they set up well equipped hatcheries and went to work. But they did not have the proper equipment or the skill to handle the eggs. They did not know when, what, and how to feed the larvae. And

they knew little about the predators that attack and eat baby oysters by the millions. They failed, but they doggedly kept at it. Finally, in the 1940's a significant breakthrough was made.

The marine biologists discovered that by raising the temperature of the water, they could induce oysters to spawn not only in the summer but also in the fall, winter, and spring.

Later they developed a technique for feeding the larvae and rearing them to spat. Going still further, they succeeded in breeding new strains that were resistant to diseases, grew faster and

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larger, and flourished in water of different salinities and temperatures. In addition, the cultivated oysters tasted better.

Question 43: Which of the following would be the best title for the passage?

A. The Threatened Extinction of Marine Life B. The Cultivation of Oysters

C. The Discoveries Made by Marine Biologists D. The Varieties of Wild Oysters

Question 44: In the first paragraph, the production of oysters is compared to what other industry?

A. Mining

B. Fishing

C. Banking

D. Farming

Question 45: In the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned as a stage of an oyster's life?

A. Debris

B. Egg

C. Larvae

D. Spat

Question 46: When did scientists discover that oysters were in danger?

A. In the early part of the 19th century

B. At the beginning of this century

C. In the 1940's

D. Just recently

Question 47: According to the passage, which of the following words best describes the efforts of the marine biologists working with oysters?

A. Persistent

B. Intermittent

C. Traditional

D. Fruitless

Question 48: In the passage, the author mentions that the new strains of oyster are ________.

A. cheaper

B. shaped differently

C. better textured

D. healthier

Question 49: In what paragraph does the author describe successful methods for increasing the oyster population?

A. First

B. Second

C. Third

D. Fourth

Question 50: Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage?

A. Step by step description of the evolution of marine biology

B. Discussion of chronological events concerning oyster production C. Random presentation of facts about oysters D. Description of oyster production al different geographic locations

2-D

3-C

4-D

5-B

6-A

7-B

8-A

9-B

10-A

11-C

12-C

13-A

14-B

15-C

16-D

17-D

18-D

19-B

20-A

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1-A

21-A

22-C

23-A

24-C

25-C

26-C

27-C

28-B

29-A

30-A

31-D

32-B

33-A

34-C

35-C

36-C

37-D

38-D

39-C

40-A

41-A

42-B

43-B

44-D

45-A

46-B

47-A

48-D

49-D

50-B

ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 18

❖Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

A. crooked

B. wanted

C. intended

D. laughed

Question 2:

A. temptation

B. sacrifice

C. dimension

D. feather

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❖Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3:

A. dinosaur

B. organism

C. dictionary

D. engagement

Question 4:

A. facilities

B. characterize

C. irrational

D. immediately

❖Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in the each of following questions.

Question 5: If it will rain this morning, they will have to delay the outdoor performance.

A. If

B. will rain

C. will

D. delay

Question 6: The Rose’s kids had such difficult time when they began going to kindergarten in their new region that she decided never to move again.

A. such difficult time B. began

C. never

D. to move

Question 7: People who had already bought tickets were instructed to go to gate first straightaway.

A. People

B. had already bought C. first

D. straightaway

❖Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8: A motorbike helmet ________ protection for a driver’s head from accident and other hazards.

A. to provide

B. provides

C. providing

D. that provides

Question 9: ________ a stream on land, an underground current does not flow in a straight line.

A. Alike

B. Likewise

C. Like

D. Likely

Question 10: Would it be possible to make an early ________ to have my car serviced tomorrow?

A. appoint

B. appointing

C. appointed

Question 11: Power tools require careful handling ________ injuries.

D. appointment

A. by avoiding

B. they avoid

C. to avoid

D. that avoid

Question 12: Green fountain is the most famous but ________ the most powerful geyser in National Park.

A. none of

B. no

C. nothing

D. not

Question 13: Your grandmother is completely deaf. You’ll have to ________ allowance for her.

A. bring

B. take

C. make

D. find

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Question 14: ________ that Rose was able to retire at the age of 40.

A. So successful her business was

B. So successful was her business

C. Her business was successful

D. So was her successful business

Question 15: Jack refuses to even listen to anyone else’s advice. He is very ________.

A. open-minded

B. kind-hearted

C. narrow-minded

D. absent-minded

Question 16: ________ it with my own eyes, I would never have believed it.

A. Had I not seen

B. Unless I hah not seen

C. If I had seen

D. Provided I had seen

Question 17: Rose ________ on our conservation to tell us that Jack had just been injured.

A. cut in

B. faced up

C. broke up

D. got ahead

Question 18: Rose has never had the slightest disagreement ________him________anything.

A. with/about

B. with/in

C. on/about

D. on/at

Question 19: Please look through our advertisement brochure________ your pleasure.

A. on

B. in

C. for

D. at

❖Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: “Do you think it will rain?” – “________” A. I hope not.

B. I don’t hope so.

C. I don’t care.

D. I not hope that.

Question 21: “Would you mind helping me carry these bags?” – “________” A. Yes, I would mind.

B. Well, fine.

C. No, not at all.

D. Yes, of course.

❖Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: Numerous problems have immingled together.

A. fixed

B. extinguished

C. combined

D. hold

Question 23: Being a single mother no longer carries the social stigma that it used to.

A. stain

B. trial

C. difficulty

D. holiness

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❖Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24: Her doctor was a little rude to me.

A. cold

B. trivial

C. gracious

D. suspicious

Question 25: The police department have assured the community that the escaped prisoners will not evade recapture for long.

A. alarmed

B. reassured

C. showed

D. investigated

❖Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: He never suspected that she was a theft.

A. Never has he suspected that she was a theft.

B. He used to think she was not a theft.

C. At no time did he suspect that she was a theft.

D. What he thought was she was not a theft.

Question 27: Some experts think that a meteor impact, which occurred around 65 million years ago, may have caused the extinction of the dinosaurs.

A. The extinction of the dinosaurs could only have been caused by a meteor impact that

occurred some 65 million years ago.

B. According to some experts, the extinction of the dinosaurs was caused by a meteor that

struck Earth 65 million or so years ago.

C. Some experts reckon that the impact of a meteor that struck Earth some 65 million years

ago need not haave caused the extinction of the dinosaurs.

D. In the opinion of some experts, the extinction of the dinosaurs could have been the result of the impact of a meteor which occurred roughly 65 million years ago.

Question 28: Rose knows a lot more about science than I do.

A. I don’t know as much about science as Rose does.

B. I don’t know as much about science as Rose did.

C. I didn’t know as much about science as Rose does.

D. I didn’t know as much about science as Rose did.

❖Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29: A flight attendant served us. She was very polite and patient.

A. A flight attendant, who served us, was very polite and patient.

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B. A flight attendant which served us, was very polite and patient.

C. A flight attendant who served us was very polite and patient.

D. A flight attendant whom served us, was very polite and patient.

Question 30: She wasn’t wearing a helmet. She was injured.

A. If she hadn’t been wearing a helmet, she wouldn’t have been injured.

B. If she had been wearing a helmet, she would have been injured.

C. If she had been wearing a helmet, she wouldn’t be injured.

D. If she had been wearing a helmet, she wouldn’t have been injured.

❖Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

THE STX UNIVERSITY

The STX University was generated in 1998 to give people who cannot afford to join

regular courses of education, the opportunity of studying and (31) ________a university diploma or degree. They are home-based learners and their academic performance is assessed by (32) ________of written examinations or project work. Most STX University students join in study while also holding down a job or coping with a busy home life. They study in order to update their job skills or for personal (33) ________.

At the heart of most courses is a (34) ________of specially written and professionally

printed textbooks and workbooks which students receive by post. On many of the courses, students are expected to watch television programmes on the CNN or discovery network, which are usually broadcast in the early hours of the morning. The aim of these programmes is to develop and broaden the study experience, (35) ________students do not have to rely only on the printed material they are sent.

Question 31:

A. obtain

B. to obtain

C. obtained

D. obtaining

Question 32:

A. means

B. technique

C. path

D. scheme

Question 33:

A. satisfying

B. satisfaction

C. satisfactory

D. satisfied

Question 34:

A. club

B. heap

C. set

D. unit

Question 35:

A. though

B. yet

C. even though

D. so that

❖Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

Forces other than damaging winds are also at work inside tornadoes. Sometimes, as the writhing, twisting funnel passes over a house, the walls and ceiling burst apart as if a bomb

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

had gone off inside. This explosion is caused by the low air pressure at the center of a tornado.

The pressure at the center of a tornado is usually 13 pounds per square inch. However,

inside the house, the air pressure is normal, about 15 pounds per square inch. The difference of 2 pounds per square inch between the inside and outside pressure may not seem like much.

But suppose a tornado funnel passes over a small building that measures 20 by 10 by 10 feet.

On each square inch of the building, there is 2 pounds of pressure from the inside that is not balanced by air pressure outside the building. On the ceiling, that adds up to an unbalanced pressure of 57, 600 pounds. The pressure on the four walls adds up to 172,800 pounds.

If windows are open in the building, some of the inside air will rush out through them.

This will balance the pressure inside and outside the building. But if the windows are shut tightly, the enormous inside pressure may cause the building to burst.

Unfortunately, heavy rain and hail often occur in thunderstorms that later produce

tornadoes. So people frequently shut all windows to protect their property. This may cause far worse damage later. For the same reason, tornado cellars must have an air vent. Otherwise, the cellar door might be blown out when a tornado passes over it.

Question 36: Which of the following is the main topic of the passage?

A. How tornadoes can be prevented B. When tornadoes usually occur C. Where tornadoes are formed

D. Why tornadoes cause so much damage

Question 37: In line 2, the word "funnel" refers to which of the following?

A. A bomb

B. A house

C. A tornado

D. An explosion

Question 38: According to the passage, tornadoes can destroy buildings because the ________.

A. force of a tornado increases the air pressure in a building B. air pressure at the center of a tornado is over 172,000 pounds C. weight of a tornado can crush a building's roof when it passes overhead

D. air pressure inside a tornado is less than the air pressure inside a building Question 39: According to the passage, what is the difference per square inch between the air pressure inside a building and the air pressure inside a tornado?

A. 2 pounds

B. 10 pounds

C. 13 pounds

D. 15 pounds

Question 40: According to the passage, the pressure on a building during a tornado can be relieved by ________.

B. opening the windows

C. using a fan for ventilation

D. strengthening the roof and walls

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A. closing the cellar

Question 41: According to the passage, people close their windows to prevent damage caused by ________.

A. tornadoes

B. thunderstorms

C. uprooted trees

D. bursting structures

Question 42: In line 16, the word "it" refers to ________.

A. wind

B. hail

C. cellar door

D. air vent

❖ Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.

Native Americans from the southeastern part of what is now the United States believed

that the universe in which they lived was made up of three separate, but related, worlds, the Upper World, the Lower World, and This World. In the last there lived humans, most animals, and all plants.

This World, a round island resting on the surface of waters, was suspended from the sky

by four cords attached to the island at the four cardinal 'points of the compass. Lines drawn to connect the opposite points of the compass, from north to south and from east to west,

intersected. This World to divide it into four wedge - shaped segments. Thus a symbolic representation of the human world was a cross within a circle, the cross representing the intersecting lines and the circle the shape of This World.

Each segment of This World was identified by its own color. According to Cherokee doctrine, east was associated with the color red because it was the direction of the Sun, the greatest deity of all. Red was also the color of fire, believed to be directly connected with the Sun, with blood, and therefore with life. Finally, red was the color of success. The west was the Moon segment; it provided no warmth and was not life - giving as the Sun was. So its color was black. North was the direction of cold, and so its color was blue sometimes purple,

and it represented trouble and defeat. South was the direction of warmth, its color, white, was associated with peace and happiness.

The southeastern Native Americans' universe was one in which opposites were constantly at war with each other, red against black, blue against white. This World hovered somewhere between the perfect order and predictability of the Upper World and the total disorder and instability of the Lower World. The goal was to find some kind of halfway path, or balance, between those other worlds.

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

Question 43: Which of the following is the best title for the passage?

A. One Civilization's View of the Universe

B. The Changing of the Seasons in the Southeast

C. The Painting of Territorial Maps by Southeastern Native Americans D. The War Between Two Native American Civilizations

Question 44: In line 3, the phrase "the last" refers to ________.

A. all plants

B. This World

C. the universe

D. the Upper World

Question 45: The author implies that This World was located ________.

A. inside the Upper World

B. inside the Lower World C. above the Upper World

D. between the Upper World and Lower World

Question 46: According to the passage, southeastern Native Americans compared This World to ________.

A. waters

B. the sky

C. an animal

D. an island

Question 47: According to the passage, lines divided This World into how many segments?

A. Two

B. Three

C. Four

D. Five

Question 48: According to the passage, southeastern Native Americans associated red with all of the following EXCEPT ________.

A. fire

B. trouble

C. blood

D. success

Question 49: According to the passage, which of the following colors represented the west for southeastern Native Americans?

A. Blue

B. White

C. Black

D. Purple

Question 50: The shape of This World is closest to that of which of the following?

A. A circle

B. A triangle

C. A square

D. A cube

ĐÁP ÁN 2-B

3-D

4-B

5-B

6-A

7-C

8-B

9-C

10-D

11-C

12-D

13-C

14-B

15-C

16-A

17-A

18-A

19-D

20-A

21-C

22-C

23-A

24-C

25-A

26-C

27-D

28-A

29-C

30-D

31-D

32-A

33-B

34-C

35-D

36-D

37-C

38-D

39-A

40-B

41-B

42-C

43-A

44-B

45-D

46-D

47-C

48-B

49-C

50-A

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

1-D

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPTQG 2017 TRẮC NGHIỆM MÔN TIẾNG ANH ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 19 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

A. part

B. superstar

C. harvest

D. particular

Question 2:

A. reliable

B. liquid

C. vital

D. suicidal

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3:

A. future

B. involve

C. prospect

D. guidance

Question 4:

A. laptop

B. mobile

C. engine

D. device

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in the each of following questions.

Question 5: A huge amount (A) of tourists (B) come (C) to this city (D) every year.

Question 6: Of (A) all seashore plants, seaweeds are best (B) able to tolerate long periods out of water, followed by (C) long periods covering (D) by water.

Question 7: Lack of (A) animal protein in (B) the human diet is a serious (C) cause of the (D) malnutrition.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8: A recent survey has shown that supporters of equal partnership in marriage are in the _______.

A. crowd

B. particular

C. obligation

D. majority

Question 9: John asked me _______ in English.

A. what that word means

B. what did this word mean

C. what does this word mean

D. what that word meant

Question 10: “I have gone to the doctor's to have a check up.” – “You _______.You just had your check-up last week!”

A. didn't need to go

B. needn’t have gone C. needn’t go

D. don’t need to go

Question 11: Body language is a potent form of _______ communication.

A. verbal

B. oral

C. non-verbal

D. tongue

Question 12: _______ we work with her, we get confused because of her fast speaking pace.

A. So that

B. Although

C. Whenever

D. Lest

Question 13: _______ umbrella should not be used during _______ thunderstorm.

A. A/ a

B. The/a

C. An/a

D. No article/ a

Question 14: Many people are trying their best to study and work in the hope that they will _______ fame and fortune in the near future.

A. lose

B. achieve

C. collect

D. remove

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Question 15: John proposed _______ Mary on a fine day at the crowded beach in their hometown.

A. that they married

B. getting married

C. to have married

D. to marry

Question 16: The students in class were made _______ very hard.

A. learning

B. learn

C. to learn

D. having learnt

Question 17: I don’t think T-shirts and jeans will ever go ____ of style among young people.

A. away

B. out

C. off

D. down

Question 18: Her mother’s dream _______ a family doctor will be fulfilled in six years.

A. by

B. with

C. of

D. at

Question 19: They _______ their service up to now.

A. didn’t do

B. haven’t done

C. don’t do

D. aren’t doing

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: Mary is talking to a porter in the hotel lobby.

Porter: “Shall I help you with your suitcase?” - Mary: “_______” A. Not a chance.

B. That's very kind of you.

C. I can’t agree more.

D. What a pity!

Question 21: Hoa is asking Hai, who is sitting at a corner of the room, seeming too shy.

Hoa: “Why aren’t you taking part in our activities? _______” - Hai: “Yes. I can. Certainly.”

A. Could you please show me how to get to the nearest post office?

B. Shall I take your hat off?

C. Can I help you?

D. Can you help me with these decorations?

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: My wife was so keen on the picture that she paid through her nose for it.

A. paid nothing

B. turned a deaf ear

C. was offered

D. paid much more than usual

Question 23: In order to better understand English, the students incorporated grammar, vocabulary, and speaking in their studies B. granted

C. scrutinized

D. skipped

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

A. combined

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24: People in Vietnam nod their head to show that they agree with something.

A. blink

B. shake

C. wave

D. slump

Question 25: The distinction between schooling and education implied by this remark is very important.

A. odd

B. implicit

C. obscure

D. explicit

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: It is a pity that I can’t speak English as a native speaker.

A. I wish I could speak English as a native speaker.

B. I wish I couldn’t speak English as a native speaker.

C. I wish I can speak English as a native speaker.

D. I wish I have spoken English as a native speaker.

Question 27: “What language do you find the most difficult to learn of all?” Nhung asked Ha.

A. Nhung asked Ha what language Ha found the most difficult to learn of all.

B. Nhung wanted to know what language they founded the most difficult to learn of all.

C. Nhung asked Ha what language did you find the most difficult to learn of all.

D. Nhung asked Ha what language you found the most difficult to learn of all.

Question 28: The music was so loud that we had to shout to each other.

A. We didn’t say loud enough for us to hear each other.

B. The music was too loud that we had to shout to each other.

C. We didn’t say loud enough to hear each other.

D. Because of loud music, we had to shout to each other.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29: She tried very hard to pass the driving test. She could hardly pass it.

A. Although she didn’t try hard to pass the driving test, she could pass it.

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

B. Despite being able to pass the driving test, she didn’t pass it.

C. Hard as she tried, she could hardly hard pass the driving test.

D. She tried very hard, so she passed the driving test satisfactorily.

Question 30: We didn’t want to spend a lot of money. We stayed in a cheap hotel.

A. In stead of spending a lot of money, we stayed in a cheap hotel.

B. In spite of spending a lot of money, we stayed in a cheap hotel.

C. We stayed in a cheap hotel, but we had to spend a lot of money.

D. We didn’t want to spend a lot of money. We stayed in the cheap hotel.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

In this age of (31) _______ telephone networks and electronic mail, it seems that

fewer and fewer people are taking time to sit down and write letters to friends and relatives.

For hundreds of years, letters were the only way to keep (32) _______ people who were any distance away and letter-writing was seen as an important skill for all learned people to master.

Gradually, (33) _______, the importance of writing letters is decreasing to a point that

majority of us have to make a special effort to turn out something worthwhile when we apply for a job or make a complaint. In business circles the tendency is for routine communications to become shorter. Even though clients may appreciate a detailed letter, an employee who sends out long letters is often regarded as (34) _______. Many people prefer the telephone in all circumstances and its speed is essential in many situations, but (35) _______ have you put the telephone down, dissatisfied with what you have managed to say? I don’t think I’ll throw my pen away ye Question 31:

A. advanced

B. progressive

Question 32:

A. on good terms with

C. highly-developed B. in step with

D. all are correct

C. in contact with

D. in favour of

Question 33:

A. for example

B. therefore

C. however

D. in short

Question 34:

A. impossible

B. unusual

C. inefficient

D. unimportant

Question 35:

A. how about

B. how often

C. how much

D. how long

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

Arid regions in the southwestern United States have become increasingly inviting

playgrounds for the growing number of recreation seekers who own vehicles such as motorcycles or powered trail bikes and indulge in hill-climbing contests or in carving new trails in the desert. But recent scientific studies show that these off-road vehicles can cause damage to desert landscapes that has long-range effects on the area’s water-conserving characteristics and on the entire ecology, both plant and animal. Research by scientists in the western Mojave Desert in California revealed that the compaction of the sandy arid soil resulting from the passage of just one motorcycle markedly reduced the infiltration ability of the soil and created a stream of rain runoff water that eroded the hillside surface. In addition, the researchers discovered that the soil compaction caused by the off-road vehicles often killed native plant species and resulted in the invasion of different plant species within a few years. The native perennial species required many more years before they showed signs of returning. The scientists calculated that roughly a century would be required for the infiltration capacity of the Mojave soil to be restored after being compacted by vehicles.

Question 36: What is the main topic of the passage?

A. Problems caused by recreational vehicles B. Types of off-road vehicles

C. Plants of the southwestern desert

D. The increasing number of recreation seekers

Question 37: According to the passage, what is being damaged?

A. Motorcycles

B. The desert landscape

C. Roads through the desert

D. New plant species

Question 38: According to the passage, the damage to plants is _______.

A. unnoticeable

B. superficial

C. long-lasting

D. irreparable

Question 39: According to the passage, what happens when the soil is compacted?

A. Little water seeps through

B. Better roads are made

C. Water is conserved D. Deserts are expanded Question 40: What is happening to the desert hillsides?

A. The topsoil is being eroded B. The surface is being irrigated C. There are fewer types of plants growing on them D. There are fewer streams running through them Question 41: According to the passage, what is happening to native plants in these areas?

B. They are adapting

C. They are invading other areas

D. They are dying

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

A. They are becoming more compact

Question 42: It can be inferred that which of the following people would probably be most alarmed by the scientists’ findings?

A. Historians

B. Mapmakers

C. Farmer

D. Ecologists

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.

Another critical factor that plays a part in susceptibility to colds is age. A study done

by the University of Michigan School of Public Health revealed particulars that seem to hold true for the general population. Infants are the most cold-ridden group, averaging more than six colds in their first year. Boys have more colds than girls up to age three. After the age of three, girls are more susceptible than boy's , and teenege girls average three colds a year to boy’s two.

The general incidence of continues to decline into maturity. Elderly people who are in

good health have as few as one or two colds annually. One exception is founds among people in the twenties, especially women, who show a rise in cold infections, because people in this age group are most likely to have young children. Adults who delay having children until thirties forties experience the same sudden increase in cold infections.

The study also found that economics play an important role. As income increases, the

frequency at which are reported in the family decreases. Families with the lowest income suffer about a third more colds than families at the lower end. Lower income generally forces people to live in more cramped quarters than those typically occupied by wealthier by wealthier people, and crowding increases the opportunities for the cold virus to travel from person to person. Low income may also adversely influence diet. The degree to which poor

nutrition affects susceptibility to colds is not yet clearly established, but an inadequate diet is suspected of lowering resistance Question 43: Which of the following is closet in meaning to the word “particulars” in line 2?

A. Minor errors

B. specific facts

C. small distinctions

D. individual people

Question 44: What does the author claim about the study discussed in the passage?

A. It contains many inconsistencies B. It specializes in children

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

C. It contradicts the results of earlier studies in the field

D. Its results apparently are relevant for the population as a whole

Question 45: It maybe inferred from the passage that which of the following groups of people is most likely to catch colds?

A. infant boys

B. young girls

C. teenage boys

D. elderly women

Question 46: There is information in the second paragraph of the passage to support which of the following conclusions?

A. Men are more susceptible to cold than women B. Children infect their parents with colds.

C. People who live in a cold climate have more colds than those who live in a warm one.

D. People who don’t have children are more susceptible to colds than those who do.

Question 47: The phrase “in this age group” refers to _______.

A. Infants

B. People in their twenties

C. People in their thirties and forties

D. Elderly people

Question 48: The author’s main purpose in writing the last paragraph of the passage is to _______.

A. Explain how cold viruses are transmitted B. Prove that a poor diet cause colds

C. Discuss the relationship between income and frequency of colds

D. Discuss the distribution of income among the people in the study

Question 49: The word “cramped” is closest in meaning to _______.

A. cheap

B. crowded

C. depressing

D. simple

Question 50: The author’s tone in this passage could best be described as _______.

A. Neutral and objective

B. Humorous

C. Tentative but interested

D. Highly critical

Đáp án 2-B

3-B

4-D

5-A

6-D

7-D

8-D

9-D

10-B

11-C

12-C

13-C

14-B

15-D

16-C

17-B

18-C

19-B

20-B

21-D

22-D

23-A

24-B

25-D

26-A

27-A

28-D

29-C

30-A

31-D

32-C

33-C

34-C

35-B

36-A

37-B

38-C

39-A

40-A

41-D

42-D

43-B

44-D

45-A

46-B

47-B

48-C

49-B

50-A

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

1-D

ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 20 ❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

A. reserve

B. vulnerable

C. commotion

D. initiative

Question 2:

A. photocopy

B. particular

C. enthusiasm

D. economy

❖ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 3:

A. lives

B. palys

C. works

D. buys

Question 4:

A. picked

B. worked

C. naked

D. booked

❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5: Many flowering plants benefit of pollination by adult butterflies and moths.

A. flowering

B. of

C. adult

D. and

Question 6: A number of the American Indian languages spoken at the time of the European arrival in the New World in the late fifteen century have become extinct.

A. A number of

B. spoken

C. time

D. fifteen

Question 7: One of the most beautiful botanical gardens in the UK is the wildly and lovely Mary Gardens near the South.

A. most beautiful

B. gardens

C. wildly

D. near

❖ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8: ____________ I like to do something completely spontaneous.

A. Very so often

B. Every so often

C. Very often so

D. Every often so

Question 9: Taxis don’t follow any schedule; the come and go_______________.

A. chronological

B. punctually

C. in sequence

D. at random

Question 10: The preparations __________ by the time the visitors__________.

A. have finished/ arrived

B. havebeen finished/ arrived

C. had been finished/ arrived

D. had finished/ arrived

Question 11: The effect of the painkiller is____________ and Rose begins to feel the soreness again.

A. turing out

B. doing without

C. fading away

D. wearing off

Question 12: _________ parents of Jack claimed that he was at___________ home at the time of _________ robbery.

A. Ø/Ø/the

B. The/Ø/the

C. The/the/the

D. Ø/Ø/a

Question 13: When you use Internet, you have so much information at your________.

A. hands

B. fingures

C. fingertips

D. thumbs

Question 14: Jack: “Which is more important? Luck or effort?”

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

Rose: “ Luck is_____________ effort.”

A. on the same importance

B. as the same importance as

C. the same importance as

D. of the same importance as

Question 15: Jack would have studied medicine if he_________ to a medical school.

A. was admitted

B. has been admitted

C. had admitte

D. would be able to enter

Question 16: It never________ my head that such a terrible thing would happen.

A. struck

B. dawned

C. occurred

D. entered

Question 17: Rose and I ___________ reserved the rooms in the same hotel. She really surprised to see me there.

A. coincidentally

B. practically

C. intentionally

D. deliberately

Question 18: __________ appear, they are really much larger than the Earth.

A. Small as the stars

B. The stars as small

C. As the small stars

D. Despite of the small stars

Question 19: It’s a good idea to see your doctor regularly for___________.

A. a revision

B. a check - up

C. an investigation

D. a control

❖ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: Jack: “____________” – Rose: “No, thanks.”

A. Would you want another drink?

B. Would you care for another drink?

C. Can you help me with this?

D. Come in, please!

Question 21: “ How well you are playing!” –“______________” A. Say it again. I like to hear your words.

B. Many thanks! That’s a nice compliment.

C. I think so. I am proud of myself!

D. Thank you too much! ❖ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: I think we can safely say now that we have ot our money back, we are home and dry.

A. have been successful

B. have not got well

C. have got no water

D. have got home dry

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

Question 23: A nuclear station may take risk going off due to unexpected incidents.

A. demolishing

B. running

C. developing

D. exploding

❖ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24: Ha had never experienced such discourtesy towards the president as it occurred at the annual meeting in June.

A. politeness

B. rudeness

C. measurement

D. encouragement

Question 25: About 95 percent of all animals are invertebrates which can live anywhere, but most, like the starfish and crabs, live in the ocean A. with backbones

B. with ribs

C. without ribs

D. without backbones

❖ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: Had the announcement been made earlier, more people would have attended the lecture.

A. The lecure was held so late that a few people attended it.

B. More people came late to the lecture because of the late announcement.

C. The late announcement helped make the lecture well – attended

D. Few people came to thie lecture because the announcement was not made earlier.

Question 27: She raised her hand high so that she could attract the teacher’s attention.

A. Because her teacher attracted her, she raised her hand again B. Though she raised her hand high, she couldn’t attract her teacher’s attention.

C. To attract her teacher’s attention, she raised her hand high.

D. She had such a high raising of hand that she failed to attract her teacher’s attention.

Question 28: Anyone who misses more than fifty percent of the classes deserves to fail.

A. Those who are absent more than half the time should fail.

B. Fifty percent of classes have failed the exams.

C. More than fifty percent is too much for one class.

D. People who fail must make up fifty percent of the classwork. ❖ Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 29 to 36.

A number of factors related to the voice reveal the personality of the speaker.The first is the broad area of communication, which includes imparting information by use of language, communicating with a group or an individual and specialized communication

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

through performance. A person conveys thoughts and ideas through choice of words, by a tone of voice that is pleasant or unpleasant, gentle or harsh, by the rhythm that is inherent within the language itself, and by speech rhythms that are flowing and regular or uneven and hesitant, and finally, by the pitch and melody of the utterance. When speaking before a group, a person's tone may indicate uncertainty or fright, confidence or calm. At interpersonal levels, the tone may reflect ideas and feelings over and above the words chosen, or may belie them. Here, the participant’s tone can consciously or unconsciously reflect intuitive sympathy or antipathy, lack of concern or interest, fatigue, anxiety, enthusiasm or excitement, all of which are .usually discernible by the acute listener. Public performance is a manner of communication that is highly specialized with its own techniques for obtaining effects by voice and /or gesture. The motivation derived from the text, and in the case of singing, the music, in combination with the performer's skills, personality, and ability to create empathy will determine the success of artistic, political, or pedagogic communication.

Second, the voice gives psychological clues to a person's self-image, perception of

others, and emotional health. Self-image can be indicated by a tone of voice that is confident, pretentious, shy, aggressive, outgoing, or exuberant, to name only a few personality traits.

Also the sound may give a clue to the facade or mask of that person, for example, a shy person hiding behind an overconfident front.

How a speaker perceives the listener's receptiveness, interest, or sympathy in any

given conversation can drastically alter the tone of presentation, by encouraging or discouraging the speaker. Emotional health is evidenced in the voice by free and melodic sounds of the happy, by constricted and harsh sound of the angry, and by dull and lethargic qualities of the depressed.

Question 29: The word “ Here” in line 9 refers to___________.

A. interpersonal interaction

B. the tone

C. ideas and feelings

D. words chosen

Question 30: What does the passage mainly disuss?

A. The production of speech B. The function of the voice in performance C. Communication styles.

D. The connection between voice and personality.

Question 31: The word “ evidenced” in line 22 is closest in meaning to__________ A. questioned

B. repeated

C. indicated

D. exaggerated

Question 32: Why does the author mention “ artistic, political, or pedagogic communication” in

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line 14-15?

A. To introduce the idea of self – image.

B. As examples of public performance

C. As examples of basic styles of communication D. To contrast them to singing.

Question 33: The word “ derived” in line 13 is closest in meaning to__________ A. prepared

B. registered

C. discussed

D. obtained

Question 34: According to the passage, an overconfident front may hide____________ A. hostility

B. shyness

C. friendliness

D. strength

Question 35: What does the author mean by staring that, “ At interpersonal levels, tone may reflect ideas and feelings over and above the words chosen” in lines 8-9?

A. A high tone of voice reflects an emotional communication.

B. Feelings are expressed with different words than ideas are

C. The tone of voice can carry infomation beyond the meaning of words.

D. Feelings are more difficult to express than ideas.

❖ Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 37 to 44.

It is commonly believed that school is where people go to get an education.

Nevertheless, it has been said that today children interrupt their education to go to school.

The difference between schooling and education implied by this remark is important.

Education is much more open-ended and all-inclusive than schooling. Education knows no limits. It can take place anywhere, whether in the shower or on the job, whether in the kitchen or on a tractor. It includes both the formal learning that takes place in school and the whole universe of informal learning. The agent (doer) of education can vary from respected grandparents to the people arguing about politics on the radio, from a child to a famous scientist. Whereas schooling has a certain predictability, education quite often produces surprises. A chance conversation with a stranger may lead a person to discover how little is known of other religions. People receive education from infancy on. Education, then, is very broad, inclusive term; it is a lifelong process, a process that starts long before the start of school, and one that should be a necessary part of one’s entire life.

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Schooling, on the other hand, is a specific, formalized process, whose general pattern varies little from one setting to the next. Throughout a country, children arrive at school at about the same time, take the assigned seats, are taught by an adult, use similar textbooks, do homework, take exams, and so on. The pieces of reality that are to be learned, whether they are the alphabet or an understanding of the workings of governments, have been limited by the subjects being taught. For example, high school students know that they are not likely to find out in their classes the truth about political problems in their society or what the newest filmmakers are experimenting with. There are clear and undoubted conditions surrounding the formalized process of schooling.

Question 36: In the passage, the expression “ children interrupt their education to go to school” mostly implies that

A. schooling prevents people discovering things B. schooling takes place everywhere C. all of life is an education

D. education is totally ruined by schooling

Question 37: What does the writer mean by saying “ education quite often produces surprises”?

A. Educators often produce surprises.

B. Informal learning often brings about unexpected result C. Success of informal learning is predictable.

D. It’s surprising that we know little about other religions.

Question 38: Which of the following would the writer support?

A. Without formal education, people won’t be able to read and write.

B. Going to school is only part of how people become educated.

C. Schooling is of no use because students do similar things every day.

D. Our education system needs to be changed as soon as possible.

Question 39: According to the passage, the doers of eduction are_______________ A. only respected grandparents

B. mostly famous scientists

C. mainly politicians

D. almost all people

Question 40: Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?

A. Education and schooling are quite different experience B. The more years students go to school, the better their education is.

C. Students benefit from schools, which require long hours and homework.

D. The best schools teach a variety of subjects.

Question 41: The word “ they” in the last paragraph refers to_______________

A. workings of govemments

B. newest filmmakers

C. political problems

D. high school students

Question 42: The word “all – inclusive” in the passage mostly means_____________ A. including everything or everyone

B. going in many directions

C. involving many school subjects

D. allowing no exceptions

Question 43: This passage is mainly aimed at_________________.

A. telling the difference between the meanings of two related words “ schooling” and

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“education”

B. telling a story about excellent teachers

C. listing and discussing several educational problems

D. giving examples of different schools

❖ Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 44 to 48.

Tyler Perry

Perry had a rough childhood. He was physically and sexually abused growing up, got

kicked out of high school, and tried to commit suicide___(44)__—once as a preteen and again at 22. At 23 he moved to Atlanta and took ___(45)___odd jobs as he started working on his stage career.

In 1992 he wrote, produced, and starred in his first theatre ___(46)____, I Know I’ve

Been Changed, somewhat informed by his difficult upbringing. Perry put all his savings into the show and it failed miserably; the run lasted just one weekend and only 30 people came to watch.He kept up with the production, working more odd jobs and often slept in his car to get by. Six years later, Perry finally ___(47)___ through when, on its seventh run, the show became a success.He’s since gone on to have an extremely successful career __(48)___ a director, writer, and actor. In fact, Perry was named Forbes’ highest paid man in the field.

Question 44: A. twice

B. two

C. second

D. double

Question 45: A. up

B. off

C. in

D. to

Question 46: A. producer

B. productivity

C. production

D. productive

Question 47: A. went

B. broke

C. got

D. put

Question 48: A. same

B. as

C. like

D. as soon as

❖ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49: They were rich; they didn’t have a happy family, though.

A. Although they were rich, but they didn’t have a happy family.

B. Rich though they were, they didn’t have a happy family.

C. They were rich although they didn’t have a happy family.

D. However they were rich, they didn’t have a happy family.

Question 50: One student failed because he completely ignored the instruction on the paper.

The instructions appeared on the top of every page.

A. One student failed because he completely ignored the instructions appearing on the top of

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every page on the paper.

B. Even though one student ignored the instructions printed on the top of every paper, he

failed.

C. One student failed to ignore the instructions printed on the top of every page of paper.

D. No matter how completely one student ignored the instructions printed on the top of every

page of the paper, he failed.

1-B

2-A

3-C

4-C

5-B

6-D

7-C

8-B

9-D

10-C

11-D

12-B

13-C

14-D

15-B

16-D

17-A

18-A

19-B

20-A

21-B

22-A

23-D

24-A

25-A

26-D

27-C

28-A

29-A

30-D

31-C

32-C

33-D

34-B

35-C

36-C

37-B

38-B

39-D

40-A

41-D

42-A

43-A

44-A

45-A

46-C

47-B

48-B

49-B

50-A