Tổng hợp đề chính thức và đề xuất kì thi hsg trại hè Hùng Vương môn Tiếng Anh khối 11 năm 2019 by Dạy Kèm Quy Nhơn Official

ĐỀ THI HSG TRẠI HÈ HÙNG VƯƠNG MÔN TIẾNG ANH

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Tổng hợp đề chính thức và đề xuất kì thi hsg trại hè Hùng Vương môn Tiếng Anh khối 11 năm 2019 có đáp án và phần nghe WORD VERSION | 2021 EDITION ORDER NOW / CHUYỂN GIAO QUA EMAIL TAILIEUCHUANTHAMKHAO@GMAIL.COM

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ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI TRẠI HÈ HÙNG VƯƠNG LẦN THỨ XV Năm học 2018 – 2019 MÔN TIẾNG ANH- LỚP 11 Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút

SỞ GD &ĐT BẮC KẠN TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN Đề thi đề xuất

SECTION I: LISTENING (50 points)

Part 1: For questions 1-6, listen to a short report on medical future and decide

whether the statements are True or False. Write your answers in the

corresponding numbered boxes provided.

1. “Neural bypass technology” was invented by Ian Burkhart.

2. There have been a number of patients whose paralyzed hands can move by

using their thoughts.

3. “Bionic eyes” can be applied for people at all ages.

4. Larry was able to see his daughter after 33 years of visually impairment.

5. Eczema is one of the diseases that could be treated by “second skin”.

6. “Second skin” is perfect treatment to wrinkled skin as it also tightens skin.

Your answers: 2.

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Part 2: You will hear part of a radio program about how offices may be

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designed to suit different types of workers in the future. For questions 7-14,

complete the sentences. What’s called the (7)______________________ office is given as an

example of one prediction that hasn’t come true. Francis Duffy, an (8) __________________ by profession, identifies four types of office. Duffy give the

name

“The

Hive”

the

type

office

where

work

(9)___________________nature is carried out.

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“The Cell” is a type of office which suits people whose work requires (10)______________________. Duffy thinks that such as computer scientists and

(11)________________work well in a cell office. The type of office which Duffy calls

“The

Den”

was

designed

make

interaction

such

(12)_______________easier. Duffy sees people involved in professions like

(13)__________________ and the media working well in a den office.

what he calls (14)__________________ work.

Duffy says “The Club” is the type of office which would suit people doing

11.

12.

10.

Your answers

13.

14.

Part 3: You will hear an interview with someone whose work is concerned with

the design and marketing of products. For questions 15-19, choose the correct answer A, B, C, or D which fits best according to what you hear. Write your

answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.

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15. David says that the session he has just conducted A. was longer than most sessions he conducts.

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B. illustrates his own beliefs about focus groups.

C. is an example of a new approach to visual planning. D. concentrated as much on positive as negative attitudes to cleaning.

16. What did David know about cleaning products before the session? A. Some people could not made up their minds which ones to buy. B. manufacturers were concerned about falling sales in them.

C. some of them looked too dull to appear to shoppers. D. People fell that false claims were made about them. 17. One of the comments made during the session referred to

B. cleaning products all looking the same. C. the deliberate misleading of shoppers. D. buying a cleaning product because it is familiar.

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A. regarding the choice of a cleaning product as unimportant.

18. David says that what the women produced when they were split into groups

A. did not focus on what cleaning products actually do. B. presented contrasting images.

C. was not what they had expected to produce.

D. was similar to the presentation of other kinds of product.

19. David says that he has concluded from the session that

A. his firm’s method will need to change slightly.

B. he was right to question a certain assumption.

C. cleaning products do not fit into a general pattern. Your answers

16.

17.

18.

19.

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15.

D. what he had previously thought was not entirely correct.

Part 4: For questions 20- 25, you will hear a –twelve-year-old app developer

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talk about how he wrote his apps. Write NO MORE THAN FIVE WORDS

taken from the recording for each answer in the space provided. 20. His first app’s name is______________________ which displays Earth’s

colors.

21. He describes his most successful app “Bustin Jieber” as a Justin Bieber “_____________________”.

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22. The purpose of his programming in multiple programming languages is to get the _________________.

23. The creating and programming an Iphone app is based on a suite of tools known as __________________________.

24. To put his apps on the App Store, his parents had to spend 99 dollar for

puts

stress

technology

_____________________________.

23.

24.

resource

for

both

22.

21.

25.

20.

Your answers

25.

________________.

SECTION II: LEXICON- GRAMMAR (30 points) Part 1. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the

correct answer to each of the following questions. (15 pts)

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1. He had a ______ escape since the bullet came within inches of his head. A. slender

B. close

C. near

D. narrow

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2. You can buy goods on the Internet with a credit card, but there is a danger of ______ if someone else obtains the number.

A. corruption

B. fraud

C. embezzlement

D. disruption

3. It was mindless of you to _____ Sam in the face. You should never have done it if you expect him to love you. A. slam

B. clap

C. slap

D. clasp

4. At first Tom insisted he was right, but then began to ____. A. back down

B. follow up

C. drop off

D. break up

5. The inconsiderate driver was ____ for parking his vehicle in the wrong place. B. harassed

C. condemned

D. confined

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A. inflicted

6. A lot of people who have had a ___________ deal in life will show surprising cheerfulness. A. bad

B. rough

C. raw

D. clean

7 . The accused man was released on _________ pending the hearing of the case. B. bond

C. deposition

D. bail

A. deposit

8. Strong protests were made .................. with demands for an international

B. added

C. coupled

A. joined

enquiry.

D. included

B. condense

C. boil down

A. analyze

9. What her problems all seemed to ............................. to was lack of money. D. sum up

10. I have to stress that the ______ is on you to bring up your own children. B. charge

D. liability

C. onus

A. duty A. limelight

11. She was just an ordinary person before suddenly thrusting into the ______. B. floodlight

C. headlight

D. flashlight

12. Many people no longer trust their own _____ memories and commit every

it.

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detail of their lives to some digital device or other and are completely lost without

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A. fallible

B. susceptible

C. vulnerable

D. controllable

13. Take care that your love for him doesn't _______ your judgment.

A. cloud

B. darken

C. shadow

D. topple

14. Although the twins look identical, they have widely _______ opinions on almost every topic under the sun. A. distinct

B. dissimilar

C. divergent

D. distinguished

15. The children's interest in playing the game soon _______. A. flagged

B. stumbled

C. tottered

D. thawed

Your answers: 2.

11.

12.

13.

14.

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10. 15.

Part 2: Write the correct FORM of each capitalized word in the bracket (10

pts)

Miserable, overworked, insecure – The British work the longest hours in

Europe and express the least job satisfaction. However much richer they are, they are becoming more (1. content)_______with work every year. What is the point of

economic success if it is matched by growing (2. happy)_______? Like dumb oxen

we work harder than everyone else – a third of men work more than 50 hours a

week – but we’re not smarter. For more than a century factory acts and ever shorter

working hours marked the onward march of (3. industry)_______ progress. Now

social history has (4. appear)_______ gone into reverse. In an annual study Professor Cary Cooper of the Manchester School of

Management revisits 5000 managers, from CEOs down to juniors. He finds them

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(5. increase)_______anxious about their lives. This is hardly (6. surprise)_______ since half of them work most evenings and a third work most weekends. Despite

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falling (7. employ)_______, people feel their own job or status is under threat because they suffer more turmoil at work than they did five years ago.

Restructuring, downsizing and radical changes at work mean a life of constant upheaval, and the current merger epidemic leads to (8. predict)_______ job loss. Most feel that this uncertainty damages their home life and health as well as their company’s (9. produce)_______. These are the people who set the work patterns

for their organization, yet even they are victims of forces beyond their control – such as pressure from investors and (10. compete)_______. What can be done? Your answers: 2.

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10.

Part 3. The passage below contains 5 errors. Identify and correct them. (0) has been done as an example. (5 pts)

The word processor and calculator are without down here to stay, and in

many respect of our lives are much richer for them. But teachers and other

academics are claiming that we are now starting to feel the first significant wave of their effects on a generation for users. It seems nobody under the age of 20 can

spell nor and up any more. Even several professors at leading universities have

commented about the detrimental effect the digital revolution has had at the most

intelligent young minds in the country. The problem, evidently, lies with the

Mistake

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Line

Your answers:

automatically spell-check now widely available on word processing software. Correction

SECTION III: READING (60 points) Part 1. (10 pts) Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer

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sheet to indicate the best answer to each of the following questions.

The sleepy village of Bussier-Badil is (1)______ the place where you’d expected

to find an internationally famous ceramics exhibition attracting fifteen thousand

visitors each year. Yet when a pottery fair was first held there over fifty years ago, it was the only one (2)_______ of France , and it is still one of the most important.

But why here? There is a seam of clay that runs through the area, but it is red clay of the type used to make tiles and bricks as (3)________ pots, so there is no

(4)____________ tradition of art pottery. The idea of the fair started when a

pottery potter by the name of Miguel Calado (5)__________ a studio in the village

at the (6)________of the mayor, himself a local tile-maker, who was

(7)__________ to put the region on the map.

And he had certainly succeeded. Every year, up to 40 potters from all over France

and beyond (8)_______ on the village to display their wares in a huge purpose-

built shed. (9)________on show range from the utilitarian to the decorative, with every nuance in between. And the crowds come to look, to (10)_______ at the

B. seldom

C. improbably

D. unlikely

2.A. in all

B. altogether

C. all

D. of all

3.A. opposed to

B. rather than

C. in stead of

D. apart from

4.A. certain

B. particular

C. exact

D. individual

5.A. turned up

B. took up

C. made up

D. set up

6.A. instigation

B. advice

C. encouragement

D. persuasion

7.A. convinced

B. determined

C. dedicated

D. committed

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1.A. hardly

potters’ art, and to buy.

8.A. gather

B. assemble

C. converge

D. collect

9.A. Issues

B. Items

C. Matters

D. Topics

10.A. astonish

B. fascinate

C. amaze

D. marvel

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Your answers:

10.

Part 2: Read the passage and fill each of the blanks with ONE suitable word.

(10 points)

A DNA fingerprint of every active criminal in Britain will be taken _________ (1)

part of government plans ___________ (2) a wide-ranging overhaul of the criminal justice system, the Prime Minister said yesterday.

In his first public announcement ____________ (3) returning from holiday, Tony

Blair promised to deliver a courts system fit for the 21st century. Addressing police

officers in Kent, in southern England, he accused the courts of being __________

(4) for their own convenience and promised to ensure that victims, witnesses and

police giving evidence would receive more respect. Mr Blair declared the justice system archaic, saying it hindered police efforts to

keep up with organised crime, and announced a 107 million package to expand the

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DNA database. According to a government spokesman, the ____________ (5) should hold more than three million samples _________ (6) to almost the whole

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criminal class of the UK. 'I think we _______ (7) effectively got a 19th century justice system in a 21st

century world,' the Prime Minister said. 'We have totally ____________ (8) to keep up to date with the fact that we have

got major organised crime operating in a completely different way to 50 or 60 years ago,' he said.

Mr Blair stressed that he was ________ (9) favour of so-called zero tolerance and wanted a law-abiding society based on courtesy _________ (10) others. Your answers: 2.

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Part 3. Read the text and choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which you think fits best according to the text. (10pts)

Life originated in the early seas less than a billion years after the Earth was

formed. Yet another three billion years were to pass before the first plants and

animals appeared on the continents. Life's transition from the sea to the land was

perhaps as much of an evolutionary challenge as was the genesis of life.

What forms of life were able to make such a drastic change in lifestyle? The traditional view of the first terrestrial organisms is based on mega fossils-

relatively large specimens of essentially whole plants and animal. Vascular plants,

related to modern seed plants and ferns, left the first comprehensive mega fossil

record. Because of this, it has been commonly assumed that the sequence of

terrestrialization reflected the evolution of modern terrestrial ecosystems. In this

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view, primitive vascular plants first colonized the margins of continental waters, followed by animals that fed on the plants, and lastly by animals that preyed on the plant-eater. Moreover, the mega fossils suggest that terrestrial life appeared and

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diversified explosively near the boundary between the Silurian and the Devonian

periods, a little more than 400 million years ago. Recently, however, paleontologists have been taking a closer look at the

sediments below this Silurian-Devonian geological boundary. It turns out that some fossils can be extracted from these sediments by putting the rocks in an acid

bath. The technique has uncovered new evidence from sediments that were deposited near the shores of the ancient oceans-plant microfossils and microscopic pieces of small animals. In many instances the specimens are less than one-tenth

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of a millimeter in diameter. Although they were entombed in the rocks for hundreds of millions of years, many of the fossils consist of the organic remains of the organism.

These newly discovered fossils have not only revealed the existence of previously unknown organisms, but have also pushed back these dates for the

invasion of land by multi-cellular organisms. Our views about the nature of the

early plant and animal communities are now being revised. And with those

revisions come new speculations about the first terrestrial life-forms.

(B) radial

(A) widespread

1. The word "drastic" in line 5 is closest in meaning to (C) progressive

(D) risky

2. According to the theory that the author calls "the traditional view", what was

the first form of life to appear on land?

(A) Bacteria

(B) Meat-eating animals (D) Vascular plants

3. According to the passage, what happened about 400 million years ago?

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(A) Many terrestrial life-forms died out. (B) New life-forms on land developed at a rapid rate.

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4. The word "extracted" in line 18 is closest in meaning to (A) located

(B) preserved

(D) studied

5. What can be inferred from the passage about the fossils mentioned in lines 1720?

(A) They have not been helpful in understanding the evolution of terrestrial life. (B) They were found in approximately the same numbers as vascular plant fossils.

(D) They consist of modern life forms.

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(B) processes

7. The word "they" in line 22 refers to (A) rocks

(B) shores

(D) reasons

(D) specimens

(A) crushed

8. The word "entombed" in line 22 is closest in meaning to (B) trapped

(D) excavated

9. Which of the following resulted from the discovery of microscopic fossils?

(A) The time estimate for the first appearance of terrestrial life-forms was

revised

(B) Old techniques for analyzing fossils were found to have new uses.

(D) Assumptions about the locations of ancient seas were changed.

10. With which of the following conclusions would the author probably agree? (A) The evolution of terrestrial life was as complicated as the origin of life

itself.

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(B) The discovery of microfossils supports the traditional view of how terrestrial life evolved.

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million years.

(D) The technology used by paleontologists is too primitive to make accurate determinations about ages of fossils.

Your answers: 2.

10.

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Part 4: Read the passage and do the tasks that follow .(10 pts)

Scientists Are Mapping the World's Largest Volcano

(A) After 36 days of battling sharks that kept biting their equipment, scientists

have returned from the remote Pacific Ocean with a new way of looking at the

world’s largest - and possibly most mysterious - volcano, Tamu Massif.

(B) The team has begun making 3-D maps that offer the clearest look yet at the

underwater mountain, which covers an area the size of New Mexico. In the coming months, the maps will be refined and the data analyzed, with the ultimate goal of

figuring out how the mountain was formed.

mountain that formed at a different time, says William Sager, a geologist at the

University of Houston who led the expedition. That would explain some

differences between the western part of the mountain and the main body. (D) The team also found that the massif (as such a massive mountain is known) is

highly pockmarked with craters and cliffs. Magnetic analysis provides some

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insight into the mountain’s genesis, suggesting that part of it formed through steady releases of lava along the intersection of three mid-ocean ridges, while part

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of it is harder to explain. A working theory is that a large plume of hot mantle rock may have contributed additional heat and material, a fairly novel idea.

(E) Tamu Massif lies about 1,000 miles (1,600 kilometers) east of Japan. It is a rounded dome, or shield volcano, measuring 280 by 400 miles (450 by 650 kilometers). Its top lies more than a mile (about 2,000 meters) below the ocean surface and is 50 times larger than the biggest active volcano on Earth, Hawaii’s

Mauna Loa. Sager published a paper in 2013 that said the main rise of Tamu Massif is most likely a single volcano, instead of a complex of multiple volcanoes that smashed together. But he couldn’t explain how something so big formed.

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(F) The team used sonar and magnetometers (which measure magnetic fields) to

map more than a million square kilometers of the ocean floor in great detail. Sager and students teamed up with Masao Nakanishi of Japan’s Chiba University, with

Sager receiving funding support from the National Geographic Society and the Schmidt Ocean Institute.

(G) Since sharks are attracted to magnetic fields, the toothy fish “were all over our magnetometer, and it got pretty chomped up,” says Sager. When the team replaced

the device with a spare, that unit was nearly ripped off by more sharks. The

magnetic field research suggests the mountain formed relatively quickly, sometime

around 145 million years ago. Part of the volcano sports magnetic "stripes," or

bands with different magnetic properties, suggesting that lava flowed out evenly

from the mid-ocean ridges over time and changed in polarity each time Earth's

magnetic field reversed direction. The central part of the peak is more jumbled, so

it may have formed more quickly or through a different process. (H) Sager isn’t sure what caused the magnetic anomalies yet, but suspects more

complex forces were at work than simply eruptions from the ridges. It’s possible a

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deep plume of hot rock from the mantle also contributed to the volcano’s formation, he says. Sager hopes the analysis will also help explain about a dozen

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other similar features on the ocean floor, as well as add to the overall

understanding of plate tectonics. Questions 1-8 What paragraph has the following information? Write the correct letter, A-H, in lines 1-6 on your answer sheet. Two paragraph are not mentioned.

1. Possible explanation of the differences between parts of the mountain ________ 2. Size data ________ 4. Equipment which measures magnetic fields ________ 5. The start of making maps ________ 6. A working theory ________ Questions 7-10

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3. A new way of looking ________

Complete the sentences using NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the

passage.

7. A large plume of _____________ rock may have contributed additional heat

and material.

8.Tamu Massif is a ____________ , or shield volcano.

9. Replacing the device with a ______________ didn't help, as that unit was nearly

ripped off by more sharks.

10. Sager believes that the magnetic anomalies were caused by something more

than ______________ from the ridges.

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Part 5:

Your answers:

You are going to read four different opinions from leading scientists about the

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future of fuel. For questions 1-10, choose from the writers A-D. The writers may be

chosen more than once.

Which writer: 1. believes oil will be available for many more years __________ 2. believes that from now on, less oil is available __________

3. believes that from now on, less oil is available __________ 4. sees a great potential in natural fuels __________

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5. believes the fuel crisis will cause the poor to become poorer __________ 6. sees energy and the economy as intrinsically linked __________

7. believes we should reduce our dependence on oil immediately __________

8. believes that people need to be attracted to working in the energy industry _____

9. believes that it is unlikely that governments will invest a lot of money into

alternative energy ______

10. believes that future oil recovery will lead to more environmental disasters ____

A: Howard Bloom, Author

Even though most people are convinced that peak oil has already passed, to me,

peak oil is just a hypothesis. There is a theory that carbon molecules can be found

in interstellar gas clouds, comets and in space ice, and if this is the case, our planet

could ooze oil for ever. And even if we stay earthbound, those who say we have

raped the planet of all its resources are wrong. There's a huge stock of raw

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materials we haven't yet learned to use. There are bacteria two miles beneath our feet which can turn solid granite into food. If bacteria can do it, surely we creatures with brains can do it better. As far as the near future of energy is concerned, I

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believe the most promising alternative fuels are bio-fuels, such as ethanol. It's an

alcohol made from waste products such as the bark of trees, woodchips, and other 'waste materials'. And that's not the only waste that can create energy. My friend in the biomass industry is perfecting an energy-generation plant which can run on human waste. We produce that in vast quantities, and it's already gathered in

centralized locations. B: Michael Lardelli, Lecturer in Genetics at The University of Adelaide

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mechanism to allow the exchange and allocation of different forms of energy.

Recently, people have been using more energy than ever before. Until 2005 it was

possible to expand our energy use to meet this demand. However, since 2005 oil

supply has been in decline, and at the same time, and as a direct result of this, the

world's economy has been unable to expand, leading to global recession. With the

world's energy and the profitability of energy production in decline at the same

time, the net energy available to support activities other than energy procurement

will decrease. We could increase energy production by diverting a large proportion

of our remaining oil energy into building nuclear power stations and investing in

renewable forms of energy. However, this is very unlikely to happen in democratic

nations, because it would require huge, voluntary reductions in living standards. Consequently, the world economy will continue to contract as oil production

declines. With energy in decline, it will be impossible for everyone in the world to

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become wealthier. One person's increased wealth can only come at the expense of another person's worsened poverty.

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C: Jeroen van der Veer, chief executive of Royal Dutch Shell People are understandably worried about a future of growing energy shortages,

rising prices and international conflict for supplies. These fears are not without foundation. With continued economic growth, the world's energy needs could increase by 50% in the next 25 years. However, I do not believe that the world is running out of energy. Fossil fuels will be able to meet growing demand for a long

time in the future. Taking unconventional resources into account, we are not even close to peak oil. The priority for oil companies is to improve efficiency, by increasing the amount of oil recovered from reservoirs. At present, just over a third

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is recovered. We can also improve the technology to control reservoir processes

and improve oil flow. However, these projects are costly, complex and technically demanding, and they depend on experienced people, so it is essential to encourage young people to take up a technical career in the energy industry. Meanwhile,

alternative forms of energy need to be made economically viable. International

energy companies have the capability, the experience and the commercial drive to

work towards solving the energy problem so they will play a key role. But it is not

as simple as merely making scientific advances and developing new tools; the

challenge is to deliver the technology to people worldwide. Companies will need to

D: Craig Severance, blogger

share knowledge and use their ideas effectively.

What will it take to end our oil addiction? It's time we moved on to something else.

Not only are world oil supplies running out, but what oil is still left is proving very

dirty to obtain. The Deepwater Horizon oil spill occurred precisely because the easy-to-obtain oil is already tapped. If we don't kick oil now, we will see more

disasters as oil companies move to the Arctic offshore and clear more forests. The

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cheap petroleum is gone; from now on, we will pay steadily more and more for our oil — not just in dollars, but in the biological systems that sustain life on this

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planet. The only solution is to get on with what we will have to do anyway - end our dependence on it! There are many instances in which oil need not be used at

all. Heat and electricity can be produced in a multitude of other ways, such as solar power or natural gas. The biggest challenge is the oil that is used in transportation. That doesn't mean the transportation of goods worldwide, it's the day-to-day moving around of people. It means we have to change what we drive. The good

news is that it's possible. There are a wide range of fuel efficient cars on offer, and the number of all-electric plug-in cars is set to increase. For long distance travel and freight, the solution to this is to look to rail. An electrified railway would not

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be reliant upon oil, but could be powered by solar, geothermal, hydro, and wind sources. There is a long way to go, but actions we take now to kick our oil addiction can help us adapt to a world of shrinking oil supplies.

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SECTION IV. WRITING (60 points)

Your answers:

Part 1. Read the newspaper extract and use your own words to summarise it.

Your summary should be about 120 words long.(10p)

If you ask most people what makes a good doctor, they will not say someone

with sound medical knowledge. The first thing that will spring to mind is a good

bedside manner, in other words, good communication skills. But what does a good bedside manner, or communication skills, entail?

From the patient’s point of view, the interaction they have during their

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consultation with a doctor is very personal and hence emotional, while for doctor it is merely a logical and objective process. And so, the chances of the doctor/patient

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communication breaking down are high if the doctor is not sufficiently skilled in handing the patient’s emotional needs. A doctor must be able to deal with the full

range of a patient’s feelings, showing sympathy and empathy especially when handing difficult situations, like breaking bad news, etc. Another aspect of the good bedside manner, which is more often than not overlooked, is having the ability to talk to patients using lay language that they

understand, while, at the same time, avoiding any hint of condescension, or being patronizing. The inability to do this has a number of effects. When doctors use medical jargon, patients feel that they are trying o hide something. Doctors can

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also give the impression that they do not know what they are talking about, or even that they do not know the solution to a problem.

It is also essential that the doctor at all times is able to maintain authority. For

example, doctors need to deal with some patient’s belief that medicine is infallible, i.e. that the doctor has the panacea for every woe! This is certainly no easy task, as

most people’s expectations are raised by the daily diet of wondrous developments in medicine.

Write your answer here

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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Part 2. Table description (20p)

The graph below shows the proportion of the population aged 65 and over between 1940 and 2040 in three different countries.

Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main feature and make

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comparisons where relevant.

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Write your answer here

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

Part 3: Essay writing (30p)

Plastic pollution has become a global crisis. What are the causes leading to this problem, and what can individuals and nations do to reduce plastic pollution?

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Write at least 350 words. Write your answer here

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

THE END

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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI TRẠI HÈ HÙNG VƯƠNG LẦN THỨ XV Năm học 2018 – 2019 MÔN TIẾNG ANH- LỚP 11 Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút

SỞ GD &ĐT BẮC KẠN TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN Đề thi đề xuất

SECTION I: LISTENING Each correct answer: 2 points Part 1: 2.F

3.T

4.F

5.T

6.T

1.F

Part 2 8. Architect

9. Routine

10. concentration

11. lawyers

12.teamwork

13. Advertising

14. Creative

7.paperless

17.D

18.A

19.B

15. C 16.A

Part 3

Part 4

21. Whack-a-mole

22.the basics down

24. The fee

15.teachers and educators

20. Earth Fortune

23.the software development kit

SECTION II: LEXICON – GRAMMAR

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each correct answer: 1 point Part 1:

2.B

3.C

4.A

5.C

6.C

7.D

8.C

9.C

10.C

11.A

12.A

13.A

14.C

15.A

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1.D

Part 2: Complete the passage with the correct form of the given words

7. 6. surprising

unemployment unpredictable

4. apparently

increasingly

10.

productivity

competitors

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1. discontented 2. unhappiness 3. industrial

Part 3. The passage below contains 5 errors. Identify and correct them. (0) has been done as an example. (5 pts) Your answers: Mistake

Correction

for

nor

automatically

Line

automatic

SECTION III: READING

Part 1: each correct answer: 1 point 2.A

1.A

7.B

4.B

5.D

8.C

9.B

10.D

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6.A

3.A

Part 2: each correct answer: 1 point 4. Run 8.failed

9. In

5. database 10. to/towards

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1.As 2. For 3. Since 6. equivalent 7. have

Part 3: each correct answer: 1 point

1.B

2.D

3.B

4.C

5.C

7.D

8.B

9.A

10.A

Part 4: each correct answer: 2 points 2.E

3.A

4.F

5.B

6.D

7.Hot mantle 8.Rounded dome 9.Spare 10.Simply eruptions Part 5: each correct answer: 1 point 2.B

3.A

4.A

6.B

7.D

8.C

9.B

SECTION IV: WRITING

Part 1. Summarizing an extract (10 pts)

1.C

1. Completion: 1pt

- Neither too long nor too short

2. Content: 3pts

- Cover the original as a whole. - Be presented in a neutral fashion.

3. Organization: 2pts

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- The ideas are well-organized

4. Language: 2pts

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- Present the ideas in your own words

- Use a wide range of vocabulary - Good grammar & structures - Easy to understand

Part 2. Describing graph(s) (20 pts) 1. Completion: 2 pts

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1.C

5.B

10.D

- Neither too long nor too short 2. Content: 6 pts

- Make general remarks and effective comparisons. 3. Organisation: 4 pts - The ideas are well organized

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- Cover the main information in the chart yet not go into too many details.

- The description is sensibly divided into paragraphs

- Use a wide range of vocabulary and structure - Good grammar

5. Punctuationandspelling: 2 pts

4. Language: 6 pts

Part 3. Essay writing (30 pts)

1. Completion: 4 pts

2. Content: 8 pts

- Provide relevant and convincing ideas about the topic, supported by

3. Organisation: 8 pts

specific example and/or reasonable justification.

coherence.

- Ideas are well organized and presented with unity, cohesion and

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4. Language: 8 pts

- Demonstrate of a wide range of vocabulary and structures.

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- Good use of grammatical structures. - Present the ideas with clarity.

5. Punctuationsandspelling. 2 pts

TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN CAO BẰNG

ĐỀ THI TRẠI HÈ HÙNG VƯƠNG 2019

ĐỀ GIỚI THIỆU

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 11 Thời gian: 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)

I. LISTENING (50 pts)

Part 1. (10pts)

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(Đề gồm 20 trang)

You will hear a talk about Sick Building Syndrome, which is ill health that is believed to be caused by buildings. For questions 1-10, complete the sentences. You will hear the recording twice.

SICK BUILDING SYNDROME

According to the World Health Organization, Sick Building Syndrome mostly affects people in

1. _________ .

Sufferers often lack 2. _________

It mainly affects people early in the week and when they have been 3. _________ the building for a long

time.

Sufferers often say nothing because they think it is a 4. _________ problem.

The problem is not simply a question of the building being 5. _________ or having too little natural light. Buildings most likely to produce the problem are those which have 6. _________ and a lot of new

materials.

Experts believe that these lead to poor 7. _________ which is the main cause of the problem.

They believe that better 8. _________ and design would improve existing systems and that the use of different 9. _________ would also help to solve the problem.

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In some buildings, better 10. _________ has been shown to reduce the problem.

Your answers: 1.

10.

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Part 2. (10pts)

You will hear part of a radio programme in which journalist Arabella Gordon talks about the phenomenon of technophobia. Answer the following questions with a word or a short phrase (NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS). 1. What did people think of new machines when they first appeared in their places of work?

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………………………………………………………… 2. Who operated the new weaving machines? …………………………………………………………

3. According to the Frame Breaking Act, what was brought in the death penalty? …………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………

4. What makes electronic typewriters attractive to students in the UK?

5. What did Frederick Forsyth do before he was a writer?

………………………………………………………… Part 3. (10pts)

You will hear a radio feature about camping wild. Decide whether the following

statement true (T) or false (F).

1. Some people go camping wild because they wish to commune with nature.

2. Backpackers must ask for permission to camp on someone’s land in Britain. 3. Clive suggests that campers stick to civilized countryside to begin with.

4. Tinned food is a good idea for camping wild because of the lightness and convenience.

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5. According to Clive, camping wild is popular because it allows a sense of solitude that is rarely felt.

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Your answers: 1.

Part 4. (10pts) You will hear an interview with physics teacher Kieran Shaw, who has taken his students to a Science Fair. Choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. 2

1. What does Kieran criticise about the previous Science Fair? A. the number of prizes

B. the standard of judging

C. the quality of the projects

D. the number of projects

2. Which does Kieran believe is a problem among his students?

B. more boys than girls involved in projects C. rich students having more resources for projects

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A. parents giving students too much help

D. too much emphasis on competition rather than cooperation

3. Kieran says the most important factor in choosing a topic is whether it is likely to A. need expensive equipment in order to do experiments.

B. keep the students interested throughout the project.

C. be sufficiently simple for students of that age group.

D. differ significantly from the topics chosen by others.

4. According to Kieran, what mistake do some students make during their presentation?

A. They don’t go into enough detail about their project.

B. They can’t remember the speech they memorised.

C. They tend to speak too slowly to the judges.

D. They use words they don’t fully understand.

5. Kieran predicts that this year’s winner will be the project about

A. the variation in people’s eyesight during the day. B. the relative cleanliness of different objects.

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C. the coolest clothes to wear in summer. D. the best place to store fruit.

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Your answers: 1.

II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (30 pts) Part 1. (15 points) For questions 1 - 20, choose the correct answer (A, B, C, or D) to each of the following questions and write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. 3

1. ___________ is a phrase which describes a situation in which one must take a chance that whatever is available will prove to be good or acceptable.. A. Potshot

B. Pepper pot

C. Pot luck

D. Melting pot

2. What stands out from The Voice Kids is that many young children are ______________ with natural talent for music. B. conferred

C. endowed

D. vouchsafed

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A. bestowed

3. While backpacking in a quiet, traditional region, I came across the seemingly __________ fast food ads typical of my hometown. A. invasive

B. infuriating

C. irritating

D. ubiquitous

4. Her colleagues put her _________ a hopeless case, but she proved to be the most

B. into

C. on to

D. through

A. down as

talented of all politicians.

A. got

5. The mirror __________ broken when I dropped it in the bathroom. B. turned

C. grew

D. felt

B. cramp

C. dram

A. pram

6. To __________ means to study hard in a short period of time, usually before the exam. D. cram

C. clear

D. clean

afternoon A. moisture

The sky is ________ this morning, but the sun is supposed to come out by late

B. clearing

A. shining

7. It looks like the sky is ________ up. It’s going to be a beautiful day.

B. humidity

C. overcast

D. cloud

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9. Dedication, commitment, and knowledge are ___________of a good teacher. A. characters

B. celebrities

C. personalities

D. characteristics

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10. In ____________, with the benefits of hindsight,, it is clear that this was a bad decision.

A. reflection B. retrospect C. status quo

D. a second thought

11. Born into a rich Fmily, he has____________________for nothing all his life. A. needed B. required C. lack D. wanted 12. Managers claim we are in desperate__________________of greater investment in our industries. 4

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A. requirement B. excess C. need D. lack 13. I seem to be________________in energy this morning A. berefit B. short C. lack D. low 14. Recent EClegislation is aimed at removing trade_____________between member states. A. barriers B. walls C. boudaries D. fences 15. The tabloid newspapers,which are engaged in a _______________war, are all trying to print the most sensational stories to improve sales. A. press B. paper C. trading D. circulation Your answers: 3.

11.

12.

13.

14.

10.

15.

Part 2 (10 pts)

For questions 1 - 10, write the correct form of each bracketed in the numbered space

provided in the column on the right. There is an example at the beginning (0). Your answers:

The (0)______ (EXPLODE) growth in the number of closed- 0. explosive

circuit television (CCTV) (1) ______ (SURVEY) system in 1. ……………….

recent years is transforming cities centres in some countries. For

some people, the cameras have a (2)______(PSYCHOLOGY) 2. ……………….

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benefit, taking comfort in the (3)______(BELIEVE) that they 3. ………………. are being watched and protected. In some neighbourhoods, there are even socially (4)_____(INCLUDE) CCTV systems, which 4. ……………….

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allow local (5)_____(RESIDE) to tune in to community TV and 5. ………………. watch what is happening outside their front doors. People know

the cameras can be (6)_____(HELP) in solving crimes, but are 6. ………………. they right to believe that cameras are keeping them safer? According to one university professor of (7)_____(CRIME), 7. ………………. 5

they are not. He conducted a study of 14 CCTV systems and found that, in general, the (8)_____(INSTALL) of cameras has 8. ………………. (9)_____(SURPRISE) little impact on crime. In only one of the 9. ………………. 14 areas could a (10)_____(SIGNIFY) drop in crime levels be 10. ………………

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linked to CCTV. Part 3 (10 pts)

The passage contains 5 errors. For question 1-5, underline the errors and write the corrections in the corresponding numbered boxes. There is an example at the beginning (0).

The global recording industry has launched its largest wave of legal

activityagainst people suspected of stealing music files on the internet. The

latest move by the International Federation of the Phonographic Industry

targeted 2,100 alleged uploaders using peer-to-peer (P2P) networks in 16

nations including the UK, France, Germany and Italy.

Thousands of people have agreed to pay compensation since the campaign

began. In the US, civil lawsuits have been brought active against more than

15,597 people since September 2003 and there have been 3,590 settlements.

'This is a significant escalate of our enforcement actions against people who

are uploading and distributing righted music on p2p networks,' said IFPI chief

John Kennedy. 'Thousands of people - mostly internet-savvy men with their

20s or 30s - have learnt to their cost the legal and financial risks involved in

file-sharing proprietary music in large quantities.' Individual cases are

generally brought by the national associations represented the recording

industry, and in some cases by the labels, as civil complaints. The UK

recording industry has so far brought 97 cases, with a further 65 covered by

the latest action. More than 140,000 in compensation has been paid to the

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Line

British Phonographic Industry by 71 individuals. Those who fail to resolve

cases face civil court action.

Your answers: Mistakes

Corrections

activity

Action

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Line

III. READING (60 pts)

Part 1: (10 pts)

For questions 1 - 10, choose the correct answer to fill each space. Write your answers in

the corresponding boxes provided below the passage.

A Ballooning Challenge For those people who go out in search of adventure, a long-distance flight in a hot-air

balloon is a particularly exciting (1) _______. Indeed, a round-the-world balloon trip is

widely regarded as the (2) _______ challenge. One well-known adventurer, David

Hemplemann-Adams would not agree, however. Recently, he became the first man to (3)

_________ the North Pole in a hot-air balloon, a more significant achievement in his eyes.

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Given that the distance and altitudes (4) _______ are comparatively modest, you might wonder why the trip from Canada to the Pole, should present such a challenge. Part of the appeal was that such a flight had not even been attempted for over a

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century. In those days, such expeditions were huge events, with a nation's pride (5)

_______ on their success, and so resources were committed to them. Although he eventually managed to secure a substantial sponsorship (6) _______ from an insurance company, Hemplemann-Adams had the added challenge of having to (7) _______ sufficient funds for his trip. 7

Then, of course, he had to face major survival concerns, such as predicting the weather (8) _______

and coping with the dangerously low temperatures. But most

challenging of all was the incredibly complex problem of navigation. As the earth's magnetic field gets stronger, only the most (9) _______ of satellite-linked navigation systems can (10) _______ that one has got to the Pole. Without them, the chances of

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getting anywhere near it are extremely slim. Not to mention an even greater problem that weighed on Hemplemann-Adams' mind: getting back! 1. A campaign

B prospect

C motion

D engagement

2. A ultimate

B extreme

C utmost

3. A meet

B reach

C attain

4. A engaged

B regarded

C involved

5. A leaning

B resting

C waiting

6. A bargain

B purchase

C transaction

7. A elevate

B lift

C raise

D build

8. A tendencies

B conditions

C circumstances

D elements

9. A sophisticated

B refined

C cultured

D educated

10. A approve

B confirm

C reinforce

D support

H N

D fulfill

D connected D standing

D deal

10.

Your answers:

D eventual

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Part 2: (10 points)

For questions 1 - 10, fill each of the following numbered blanks with ONE suitable word

áş Y

and write your answers in the corresponding boxes provided below the passage. BICYCLE SAFETY

Having to obey rules and regulations when riding a bike is (0) __one__ of the first

experiences children have of the idea of obeying the law. However, a large number of children are left to learn the rules by trial and (1) ______, instead of being guided by experienced (2) _______. Every year, hundreds of children visit the doctor or the hospital casualty department (3) ______ crashing on their bikes. This could be easily prevented by 8

(4) _______ them the basics of bicycle safety. Ideally, children should be allowed to ride only in safe places, such as parks and cycle tracks. When this is not possible, and they are permitted to go on the (5) ______, it is important to teach them some basic safety principles. First, they ought to learn and obey the rules of the road, which (6) _______ traffic

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signs, signals and road markings. Second, they should always wear a helmet. Studies have shown that wearing bicycle helmets can (7) ______ head injuries by up to 85 per cent. In many places, helmets are required by law, particularly (8) _______ children. Finally,

children should be made to understand (9) _______ importance of riding in areas that are Your answers: 2.

brightly lit and of wearing clothes that make (10) _______ clearly visible on the road.

10.

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Part 3. (10 pts)Read the passage and choose the best answer to the questions The first two decades of this century were dominated by the microbe hunters. These hunters had tracked down one after another of the microbes responsible for the most dreaded scourges of many centuries: tuberculosis, cholera, diphtheria. But there remained some terrible diseases for which no microbe could be incriminated: scurvy, pellagra, rickets, and beriberi. Then it was discovered that these diseases were caused by the lack of vitamins, a trace substance in the diet. The diseases could be prevented or cured by consuming foods that contained the vitamins. And so in the decades of the 1920’s and 1930’s, nutrition became a science and the vitamin hunters replaced the microbe hunters. In the 1940’s and 1950’s, biochemists strived to learn why each of the vitamins was essential for health. They discovered that key enzymes in metabolism depend on one or another of the vitamins as coenzymes to perform the chemistry that provides cells with energy for growth and function. Now, these enzyme hunters occupied center stage. You are aware that the enzyme hunters have been replaced by a new breed of hunters who are tracking genes – the blueprints for each of the enzymes – and are discovering the defective genes that cause inherited diseases – diabetes, cystic fibrosis. These gene hunters, or genetic engineers, use recombinant DNA technology to identify and clone genes and introduce them into bacterial cells and plants to create factories for the massive production of hormones and vaccines for

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medicine and for better crops for agriculture. Biotechnology has become a multibillion-dollar industry. In view of the inexorable progress in science, we can expect that the gene hunters will be replaced in the spotlight. When and by whom? Which kind of hunter will dominate the scene in the last decade of our waning century and in the early decades of the next? I wonder whether the hunters who will occupy the spotlight will be neurobiologists who apply the techniques of the enzyme and gene hunters to the functions of the brain. What to call them? The head hunters. I will return to them later. • microbe: an extremely small living thing which you can only see if you use a microscope 1 What is the main topic of the passage? A. The microbe hunters C. The progress of modern medical research B. The potential of genetic engineering D. The discovery of enzymes 2 The word “incriminated” in the passage is closest in meaning to A. investigated B. blamed C. eliminated D. produced 3 Which of the following can be cured by a change in diet? A. Tuberculosis B. Cholera C. Cystic fibrosis D. Pellagra 4 The word “strived” in the passage is closest in meaning to A. failed B. tried C. experimented D. studied 5 How do vitamins influence health? A. They are necessary for some enzymes to C. They keep food from spoiling function D. They are broken down by cells to produce B. They protect the body from microbes energy 6 In the third paragraph, the author compares cells that have been genetically altered by biotechnicians to A. gardens B. factories C. hunters D. spotlights 7 The phrase “occupy the spotlight” in the passage is closest in meaning to A. receive the most attention C. conquer territory B. go the furthest D. lighten the load 8 The author implies that the most important medical research topic of the future will be A. the functions of the brain C. the operation of vitamins B. inherited diseases D. the structure of genes 9 Which of the following best describes the author’s tone in the last paragraph of the passage? A. Critical B. Speculative C. Appreciative D. Emotional 10 With which of the following statements would the author be most likely to agree? A. The focus of medical research will change in the next two decades B. Medical breakthroughs often depend on luck C. Medical research throughout the twentieth century has been dominated by microbe hunters D. Most diseases are caused by defective genes

Part 4: (10 points) Read the following passage and answer the questions 1-10 Why Are Finland’s Schools Successful? The country's achievements in education have other nations doing their homework.

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A_____ At Kirkkojarvi Comprehensive School in Espoo, a suburb west of Helsinki, Kari

Louhivuori, the school's principal, decided to try something extreme by Finnish standards. One of his sixth-grade students, a recent immigrant, was falling behind, resisting his

teacher's best efforts. So he decided to hold the boy back a year. Standards in the country have vastly improved in reading, math and science literacy over the past decade, in large

part because its teachers are trusted to do whatever it takes to turn young lives around. 'I

took Besart on that year my private student,’ explains Louhivuori. When he was not

studying science, geography and math Besart was seated next to Louhivuori's desk, taking books from a tall stack, slowly reading one, then another, then devouring them by the

dozens. By the end of the year, he had conquered his adopted country's vowel-rich

language and arrived at the realization that he could, in fact, learn.

B_____ This tale of a single rescued child hints at some of the reasons for Finland's

amazing record of education success. The transformation of its education system began

some 40 years ago but teachers had little idea it had been so successful until 2000, In this year, the first results from the Programme for International Student Assessment (PISA), a

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standardized test given to 15-year-olds in more than 40 global venues, revealed Finnish youth to be the best at reading in the world. Three years later, they led in math By 2006,

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Finland was first out of the 57 nations that participate in science. In the latest PISA scores, the nation came second in science, third in reading and sixth in math among nearly half a

million students worldwide. C_____ In the United States, government officials have attempted to improve standards by introducing marketplace competition into public schools. In recent years, a group of Wall 11

Street financiers and philanthropists such as Bill Gates have put money behind privatesector ideas, such as charter schools, which have doubled in number in the past decade. President Obama, too, apparently thought competition was the answer. One policy invited states to compete for federal dollars using tests and other methods to measure teachers, a philosophy that would not be welcome in Finland. 'I think, in fact, teachers would tear off

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their shirts," said Timo Heikkinen, a Helsinki principal with 24 years of teaching experience, 'If you only measure the statistics, you miss the human aspect.'

D_____ There are no compulsory standardized tests in Finland, apart from one exam at the

end of students' senior year in high school. There is no competition between students,

schools or regions. Finland’s schools are publicly funded. The people in the government

agencies running them, from national officials to local authorities, are educators rather than

business people or politicians. Ever school has the same national goals and draws from the same pool of university-trained educators. The result is that a Finnish child has a good

chance of getting the same quality education no matter whether he or she lives in a rural

village or a university town.

E_____ It's almost unheard of for a child to show up hungry to school. Finland provides

three years of maternity leave and subsidized day care to parents, and preschool tor all

five-year-olds, where the emphasis is on socializing. In addition, the state subsidizes parents, paying them around 150 euros per month for every child until he or she turns 17.

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Schools provide food, counseling and taxi service if needed. Health care is even free for students taking degree courses.

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F _____ Finland's schools were not always a wonder. For the first half of the twentieth century,only the privileged got a quality education. But In 1963, the Finnish Parliament

made the bold decision to choose public education as the best means of driving the economy forward and out of recession. Public schools were organized into one system of comprehensive schools for ages 7 through 16. Teachers from all over the nation contributed to a national curriculum that provided guidelines, not prescriptions, for them to 12

refer to. Besides Finnish and Swedish (the country's second official language), children started learning a third language (English is a favorite) usually beginning at age nine. The equal distribution of equipment was next, meaning that all teachers had their fair share of teaching resources to aid learning. As the comprehensive schools improved, so did the upper secondary schools (grades 10 through 12). The second critical decision came in

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1979, when it was required that every teacher gain a fifth-year Master's degree in theory and practice, paid for by the state. From then on, teachers were effectively granted equal

status with doctors and lawyers. Applicants began flooding teaching programs, not because the salaries were so high but because autonomous decision making and respect made the job desirable. And as Louhivuori explains, 'We have our own motivation to succeed

because we love the work.'

For questions 1-5, choose the correct heading for paragraphs A-F from the lists of

headings below. Write the correct numbers (i-ix) in the correct numbered boxes. The

first one (paragraph A) has been done for you as an example. (10 points)

List of headings

A business-model approach to education

The reforms that improved education in Finland

iii

Educational challenges of the future

Ways in which equality is maintained in the Finnish

education system

The benefits of the introduction of testing

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An approach that helped a young learner

vii

Statistical proof of education success

viii

Support for families working and living in Finland

The impact of the education system on Finland’s

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economy

Your answers: 13

1. Paragraph B …….

2. Paragraph C …….

3. Paragraph D …….

4. Paragraph E …….

5. Paragraph F …….

For questions 6-10, complete the notes below.

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0. Paragraph A …vi….

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER from the passage for each answer. Write your answers in numbered spaces 6-10. The school system in Finland PISA tests

*In the most recent tests, Finland’s top subject was 6………………..

History

1963:

*A new school system was needed to improve Finland's economy.

*Schools followed 7……………….. that were created partly by teachers.

*Young pupils had to study an additional 8 ………………….. .

*All teachers were given the same equipment to use.

1979:

*Teachers had to get a 9 ……………….. but they did not have to pay for this.

*Applicants were attracted to the 10 ………………….. that teaching received.

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Part 5: (15 points)

Read the following passage and then choose from the list a-h given below the best phrase to fill each of the spaces. Write the correct letters in the spaces given.

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Every teacher knows that not all students are good examinees. Some are too tense,

become overanxious or too stressed and then perform below expectations (1)

______________ . Teachers try to help by compensating, believing (2) _____________ they will cure his

fear of exams. 14

So, last year, (3) ____________ , I completely rewrote the Business Studies Revision Course at this secondary school. The central idea of the course is to treat the exam as an event, a challenge, a performance, (4) _____________ , a drama production, or perhaps a major music concert, (5) _____________ and very definitely on the public stage. The idea is to show that the exam is not a test, (6) _____________ to show how good the candidate

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is.

The objective is to improve students’ final performance (7) ______________ , control and

ability to cope. The theme of “total preparation for performance” teaches them that (8) _____________ are obviously important, they are only two of the five skills required, the others being coping strategies, mental skills and management skills. These additions give a

new

dimension (9) ______________ , increasing enjoyment and motivation.

They widen a student’s focus and help to convince some of the less confident students that there are many ways in which they can actively contribute towards their (10) a. much like a sports match

c. by increasing self-confidence

b. self-confidence and self-esteem

_______________.

d. relying on my expertise alone e. to a students’ revision

f. that if they boost a student’s academic knowledge

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g. by improving a student’s revision h. but an opportunity

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i. those not mattering so much j. drawing on my teaching experience and sports psychology skills

k. but bigger and more important l. just when it matters most m. but a real desire n. while knowledge and examination techniques 15

o. despite the need for sustained effort Your answers: 1.

10.

Part 1. Summary writing (10 pts)

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IV. WRITING (60 points) Summarize the passage about the effects of food on sleep in about 100 words. How You Sleep is What You Eat

Are You having problems feeling sleepy when you want to be alert and vice-versa?

Perhaps you need to look at your diet, as it may be the culprit. The brain's state of

sleepiness or alertness, calmness or anxiousness is said to be determined by messengers in

the body called neuro-transmitters.

One of these which is called serotonin helps us feel calm and relaxed. Researchers have

found that eating large amounts of carbohydrate foods, such as sweets, potatoes and grain

products increases brain levels of serotonin. High-protein meals or snacks, consisting mostly of meat, on the other hand, tend to cause brain levels of serotonin to remain low.

A French study that varied the amount of carbohydrate fed to subjects found that an intake

of carbohydrate with an equal serving of protein products did not cause drowsiness. But

when very large amounts of carbohydrate were provided without protein, subjects reported

feeling drowsy. This drowsiness occurred even after exercise which normally causes

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people to feel more alert.

We can take advantage of these findings to determine when to stay alert or to get some sleep. A snack that is largely carbohydrate-based may relax us and make it easier for us to

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fall asleep. On the other hand, when you are trying to stay awake, a balanced meal that includes protein (meat, chicken, fish, dairy products or dried beans) as well as modest

portions of grains, vegetables and fruit is more likely to help than loading up on a huge platter of meatless pasta. Some experiments suggest that the effects may vary depending on the particular carbohydrate foods chosen. The ability of carbohydrates to increase brain serotonin 16

involves a rise in insulin levels in the blood when carbohydrate is eaten. Large carbohydrate portions, or those that cause a faster rise in blood sugar such as sweets, potatoes, bread, refined cereals will cause greater increases in serotonin (and sleepiness). Fruit and dried beans contain carbohydrate that raises blood sugar more slowly, and so would not be expected to raise serotonin levels as high.

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But what about good nutrition? Eating to stay alert just means including some protein in our meals. However, do not overeat grain products just because they are fat-free. By

including plenty of high-fiber fruit or vegetables in meals, blood sugar and insulin will rise moderately, and serotonin level in the brain will not jump dramatically.

Nevertheless when it comes to getting a good night's sleep, studies clearly show that it is

more than just what we eat. Some people are very sensitive to caffeine in coffee, tannin in

tea and even to soda pops, even when it is consumed as early as 5.00 p.m. Other people

find that the key to a good night's sleep lies in establishing a routine pattern of pre-bedtime behaviors, keeping a consistent bedtime, getting regular exercise, and learning relaxation

techniques. If you are extremely sleepy throughout the day, check your eating patterns. Do

caffeine; adequate sleep is essential.

not try to compensate for lack of sleep at night by eating protein and scraping by on

Your answers:

...........................................................................................................................................

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...........................................................................................................................................

Part 2: Graphic description (20 pts)

The graph below shows the changes in weekly food consumption per person in Great Britain from 1985 to 2010. Write a report for a university lecturer describing the information shown below. You should write at least 150 words.

Changes in Weekly Food Consumption per person in Great Britain

800

700

600

Sugar Ice Cream

300

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200 100

Fresh Fruit

400

grammes

500

1985

1990

1995

2000

2005

2010

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Your answers: _________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________________

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_________________________________________________________________________

Part 3: Essay writing (30 points)

Some sociologists say that, it is a waste of time for students to pursue secondary education

for 12 years. It is better to shorten it to nine years only, then go to vocational school to

learn a skill applied in their jobs or go to university to get a degree. Towhat extent do you

agree with this? State your views and reasons. You should write between 300 and 350

words.

_________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________________

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_________________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________________

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_________________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________________

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____________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________________

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_________________________________________________________________________

THE END!

Người ra đề: Hoàng Ngọc Linh Số điện thoại: 0961802339

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ GIỚI THIỆU TRẠI HÈ HÙNG VƯƠNG 2019 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 11 (HDC gồm 12 trang)

TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN CAO BẰNG

I. LISTENING (50 pts)

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Part 1. (10pts)

You will hear a talk about Sick Building Syndrome, which is ill health that is

believed to be caused by buildings. For questions 1-10, complete the sentences.

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1. modern buildings 2. energy 3. out of/away from 4. personal 5. too hot 6. air conditioning 7. indoor air quality/quality of indoor air 8. maintenance 9. (building/furnishing) materials 10. (office) cleaning Part 2. (10pts)

You will hear the recording twice.

You will hear part of a radio programme in which journalist Arabella Gordon

talks about the phenomenon of technophobia. Answer the following questions with

a word or a short phrase (NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS). 1. threatening and mysterious

2. women and children

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3. industrial sabotage. 4.the low price

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5.a foreign correspondent Part 3. (10pts)

You will hear a radio feature about camping wild. Decide whether the following statement true (T) or false (F). 1T

Part 4. (10pts) Page | 1

You will hear an interview with physics teacher Kieran Shaw, who has taken his students to a Science Fair. Choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. 2A

II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (30 pts) Part 1. (15 points)(1pt/1 correct answer)

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For questions 1 - 15, choose the correct answer (A, B, C, or D) to each of the following questions and write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. 1. C

2. C

3. D

4. A

5. A

6. D

7. B

8. C

9. D

11. D

12. C

13. D

14. A

15. D

10. B

Part 2 (10 points)(1pt/1 correct answer)

For questions 1 - 10, Write the correct form of eachbracketed in the

numberedspaceprovided in the column on the right. There is an exampleat the

1. surveillance

2. psychological

3. belief

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6. helpful

4. inclusive 5. residents

beginning (0).explosive

7. criminology

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8. installation

9. surprisingly

10. significant Part 3 (5 pts)(1pt/1 correct answer) The passage contains 5 errors. For question 1-5, underline the errors and write the

corrections in the correspondingnumbered boxes. There is an exampleat the beginning (0). Page | 2

Mistakes

Corrections

activity

action

stealing

sharing

Escalate

escalation

Righted

With

represented

representing

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Line

III. READING (60 pts) Part 1: (10 pts) (1pt/1 correct answer)

For questions 1 - 10, choose the correct answer to fill each space. Write your

answers in the corresponding boxes provided below the passage.

3. B

6. D

7. C

8. B

4. C

2. A

9. A

5. B 10. B

1. B

Your answers:

Part 2: (10 pts)(1pt/1 correct answer)

For questions 1 - 10, fill each of the following numbered blanks with ONE suitable

1. error

2. adults/people 3. after

4. teaching

5. road

7. reduce

9. the

10. them

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6. include

passage.

word and write your answers in the corresponding boxes provided below the

8. for

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Part 3: (10 pts)(1pt/1 correct answer) 3. D 4. B

5. A 6. B

7. A 8. A

9. B 10. A

1. C 2. B

Part 4: (20 pts)(2pts/1 correct answer)

Read the following passage and answer the questions 1-10

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0. Paragraph A …vi….

1. Paragraph B …vii…. 2. Paragraph C …i….

3. Paragraph D …iv….

4. Paragraph E …viii….

5. Paragraph F …ii….

For questions 6-10, complete the notes below.

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Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER from the passage for each answer. Write your answers in numbered spaces 6-10. 6. science

7. guidelines

8. language

Master’s 10.

respect/

degree/ Master status

degree

Part 5: (10 points)

Read the following passage and then choose from the list a-h given below the best

3. j

6. h

7. c

8. n

5. k

9. e

10. b

IV. WRITING (60 points)

4. a

2. f

1. l

phrase to fill each of the spaces. Write the correct letters in the spaces given.

Part 1. Summary writing (10 points) Summarize the passage about the effects of food on sleep in about 100 words.

1. Write good summary with enough content and clear, logical information.

2 pt

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2. Present the key points and main ideas in the right form of a paragraph. Make sure that no important points have been omitted or distorted. The summary should include 5 pt + The topic sentence: + Supporting ideas: + Conclusion: 3. Use your own words or paraphrases with a variety use of synonyms, different sentence structures and word class. You can change the order of ideas where 3 pt necessary.

Suggestedanswer: Carbohydrates containserotoninwhichhelpsmake us feelcalm and relaxed. Consuming large amounts of carbohydrates causes drowsiness as theymake us feelrelaxed. Page | 4

However, if wewant to stayalert, weshould consume abalancedmealcontainingprotein and carbohydrates. Researchsuggeststhat carbohydrates increasebrainserotoninleading to a rise in insulinlevels in the blood. Therefore, a correct diethelps in keeping us alert the

bloodsugar,

serotonin

Gettingenoughsleepisalsonecessary

and

and to

insulinlevelsriseonlymoderately.

some

people,

adequateestablished routine beforegoing to bed. ( 99words ) Part 2: Graphic description (20 pts)

itmeanshaving

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1. Completion: 2 pts

2. Content: 5 pts

- Cover the main information in the chart yet not go into too many details. - Make general remarks and effective comparisons.

3. Organisation: 2 pts

- The ideas are well organized

- The description is sensibly divided into paragraphs

4. Language: 5 pts

- Good grammar

- Use a wide range of vocabulary and structure

5. Punctuation and spelling: 1 pt

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Suggested answers 1:

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The graph shows changes in the amount of fresh fruit, sugar and ice-cream eaten per person per week in Britain between 1985 and 2010. People consumed more fresh fruit than either sugar or ice-cream throughout the period. In 1985, the consumption of fresh fruit stood at 500 grams, then increased to 600 grams in 1990. Although it dipped in 1995, it then rose steadily and reached 750 grams in 2010. In contrast, there was a consistent drop in sugar consumption. The amount consumed decreased steadily from almost 400 grams per person to only 100 grams by 2010. The amount of ice-cream consumed weekly started at about 30 grams. However, this gradually increased throughout the period. By 2010 it was at the same level as the consumption of sugar. Page | 5

It is clear that overall, the consumption of fruit rose, while the consumption of sugar fell. In addition, the consumption of ice-cream, while at a relatively low level, rose significantly during this period. (161 words) Suggested answers 2:

Part 3: Essay writing (30 points)

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The graph shows changes in the amount of fresh fruit, sugar and ice cream eaten per person per week in Britain between 1985 and 2010. It is an obvious trend that people consumed more fresh fruit than either sugar or ice-cream throughout the period. In 1985, the consumption of fresh fruit stood at 500 grams, then increased to 600 grams in 1990. After a slight dip in 1995, the figure rose steadily and reached 750 grams in 2010, an increase of 50% compared to the 1985’s figure. In contrast, there was a consistent drop in sugar consumption. The amount consumed decreased steadily from about 400 grams per person to only 105 grams by 2010, being a fourth of the amount in 1985. On the other hand, there was an overall slight increasing trend in the consumption of ice-cream although it remained quite low throughout the period. The figure started at 30 grams in 1985 and rose steadily to be at almost the same level with sugar, at around 100 grams in 2010. It can be seen from the graph that overall, fruit has been eaten more by British people and become the most consumed compared to sugar and ice-cream. (200 words)

Some sociologists say that, it is a waste of time for students to pursue secondary

education for 12 years. It is better to shorten it to nine years only, then go to vocational

school to learn a skill applied in their jobs or go to university to get a degree. Towhat extent do you agree with this? State your views and reasons. You should write between

300 and 350 words.

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1. Completion: (3 pts.) 2. Content: (9 pts)

Provide relevant and convincing ideas about the topic, supported by specific example

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and/or reasonable justification. 3. Organization: (8 pts)

- Ideas are well organized and presented with unity, cohesion and coherence. 4. Language: (8 pts) - Demonstrate of a wide range of vocabulary and structures. - Good use of grammatical structures. Page | 6

- Present the ideas with clarity. 5. Punctuations and spelling. (2 pts)

Ngườirađề: Hoàng Ngọc Linh (0961802339)

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TAPESCRIPT

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Part 2:

Part 1 You will hear a talk about Sick Building Syndrome, which is ill health that is believed to be caused by buildings. For questions 1-10, complete the sentences. Have you ever gone back to work after a break or a holiday and been suddenly hit by a complete lack of energy? And you wonder whether it’s simply because you’re not relaxing any more but you think that perhaps it's something else, something to do with your environment. Well, you could be right. In 1982. the World Health Organization defined Sick Building Syndrome as “a syndrome of complaints covering non-specific feelings of ill health, the onset of which is associated with the occupancy of certain modem buildings". To those suffering from it. it means feelings of lack of energy, headaches, dry skin, even itchy eyes. And while the general view might be that there’s a chance of getting sick if you work in a factory and that you wouldn’t expect to feel unwell when you go to work in offices, this is not true. The office, it seems, is not the safe and healthy environment it is traditionally thought to be. Surveys among office workers have revealed that large numbers of them in the same building can be affected by the symptoms. Some are affected only from time to time, and others all week but a common finding was that sufferers were mainly affected at the beginning of the week and when they’d been out of the building for some time. And the symptoms disappeared quite quickly when they left work. However, the problem is often a hidden one because many people don't associate the problems with their environment, they think it's probably something about them themselves. And they often say nothing about it because if they do so they might be accused of being complainers. It has been suggested that the problems could arise for reasons as simple as that the central heating is too high. But it is a mistake to look for simple explanations of what is a complex matter. It could be just that the heating is up too high but this does not explain the range of symptoms that sufferers in the same building can have or the fact that these occur in buildings with similar.

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Part 3:

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Part 4:

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Int: Good morning from the conference centre,where the Science Fair is taking place. It’s anannual event designed to give young people theopportunity to learn more about the scientificprocess through experimentation, problemsolving, and in-depth learning. With me is KieranShaw, a Physics teacher accompanying hisstudents. Tell me, Kieran, what do you think ofthis fair compared to that of previous years? Kieran: It’s excellent, certainly up to last year’s alreadyhigh standards as far as the projects themselvesare concerned, and with the same numberentered, which I think is about right. I just hopethey manage to avoid (1) last year’s row over thefinal choice of winners, which was controversialto say the least. There’s a different panel thistime and that should make a difference, butthere’s no change in their policy of awardingthree prizes in each category, and I think thatalso makes sense. Int: You say the numbers taking part here have held up, but is that the case in other fairs? Kieran: Not everywhere, no. And I’m a little worried that we might start to see fewer people taking part in them generally. Int: Is that because of the economic situation, with schools having to make cutbacks? Kieran: In most cases it costs schools little or nothing for students to attend, so that’s unlikely to be a factor, and neither is the expense involved in developing and presenting the projects, which most students’ families find reasonablyaffordable. (2) Of more concern is the feeling insome quarters that actually going somewhere to see science in action belongs to the preinternet era, though the majority of the studentsthemselves seem as keen as ever to attend fairs, despite the fact that it usually meansgiving up a Saturday to do so! Int: There are also some issues surrounding the fairs themselves, aren’t there? Kieran: Yes, one of the key ones being the traditional male dominance of science subjects, leading to girls being under-represented in these projects– though happily there’s a good gender balance across my groups. They’re also good at workingin and between groups, so there isn’t the overcompetitive atmosphere that some peoplecomplain about. (3) A more valid point is that someone whose father, say, is a chemist may not be doing all the work Page | 11

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themselves, and I have had to look into one or two cases like that. It’s also sometimes alleged that those from wealthy backgrounds can afford to go for more complexprojects, but I think there’s a good socioeconomic mix in each of my groups, too. Int: So what’s the main criterion when selecting a topic? Its originality? Kieran: Well, that’s certainly a factor to take into account, but (4) first and foremost it must be something capable of holding the participants’attention over the months leading up to the fair. Avoiding areas that might be too complicated for young students to explain clearly in theirpresentation matters, too – as, by the way, does anything that may require spending a lot on apparatus – but not to the same extent. Int: How do students get on doing their presentations? I imagine some are prettynervous. Kieran: Yes, and to overcome their nerves some of them try to learn everything off by heart and then make a speech to the judges, which of courseisn’t how it works. The judges will look at the display and perhaps briefly at their notes, and then ask them some questions. It’s important they don’t rush their answers, but it’s also best to keep them simple, (5) avoiding any jargon they’re unable to explain if asked to by the judges. That happens quite often, and doesn’tgive a good impression. The important thing is knowing what everything in their notes means, and being able to answer questions about it. Int: Finally, Kieran, which project do you think will win in the senior category? Kieran: I’d say there are three clear front runners, and (6)the odds are that the one measuring the amountof bacteria present on various kitchen utensilswill come out on top. Of course, I’d rather theproject on where fresh cherries deteriorate mostslowly won because that’s my group’s entry, butI don’t think it’ll happen for them this time. Asrunner-up, I’d pick the one about whether thequality of our vision is different in the morningand afternoon. Or perhaps the one designed totest the theory that it’s best to wear black in hotweather because it is much more efficient thanwhite at absorbing heat from our body – whichof course is a much closer energy source thanthe sun. Int: You learn something every day! Thank you,Kieran.

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GRADE 11 Part I. LISTENING SKILLS (25 questions x 2 = 50 points) For questions 1-10, you will hear a lecturer discussing how birds are affected by environmental change. Listen to the lecture and complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

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The Effects of Environmental Change on Birds

Mercury (Hg) • Highly toxic • Released into the atmosphere from coal • In water it may be consumed by fish • It has also recently been found to affect birds which feed on (1) ……………………………… Research on effects of mercury on birds • Claire Varian-Ramos is investigating: - the effects on birds’ (2) ………………………………or mental processes, e.g. memory - the effects on bird song (usually learned from a bird’s (3) ………………………………) • Findings: - songs learned by birds exposed to mercury are less (4) ……………………………… - this may have a negative effect on birds’ (5) ……………………………… • Lab-based studies: - allow more (6) ………………………………for the experimenter Implications for humans • Migrating birds such as (7) ………………………………containing mercury may be eaten by humans • Mercury also causes problems in learning (8) ……………………………… • Mercury in a mother’s body from (9) ………………………………may affect the unborn child • New regulations for mercury emissions will affect everyone’s energy (10) ……………………………… (Source: Cambridge English IELTS 12 Academic © Cambridge University Press, Test 7)

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For questions 11-15,you will hear Mika talking about her homestay in London. Listen to her talk and answer the following questions. 11. What date did Mika leave for her homestay? ________________________________________________________________________________ 12. What made her feel at ease when she first met her host family? ________________________________________________________________________________ 13. What was the main reason why she decided to study at Oxford House College? ________________________________________________________________________________ 14. Where did the other homestay student who lived with Mika’s host family come from? ________________________________________________________________________________ 15. How many other Japanese students were in Mika’s classes? ________________________________________________________________________________ 1|Page

(adapted from Select Readings – Pre-intermediate by Linda Lee & Erik Gundersen © Oxford, Chapter 2)

For questions 16-20, you will hear a talk about an experiment on sleep. Listen to the talk carefully and decide whether the statements are true (T), false (F), or not given (NG). Tick the correct box. T

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Statements

16. Randy Gardner was a university student when he did his experiment.

17. During the experiment, Gardner slept for several hours every night. 18. During the experiment, Gardner had no trouble speaking clearly.

19. During the experiment, Gardner saw things that weren’t really there.

20. Gardner stayed awake for eleven days by watching television.

(adapted from Select Readings – Pre-intermediate by Linda Lee & Erik Gundersen © Oxford, Chapter 1)

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For questions 21-25, you will hear a radio discussion about children who invent imaginary friends. Circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer which fits best according to what you hear. 21. In the incident that Liz describes, _____________. A. her daughter asked her to stop the car B. she had to interrupt the journey twice C. she got angry with her daughter D. her daughter wanted to get out of the car 22. What does the presenter say about the latest research into imaginary friends? A. It contradicts other research on the subject. B. It shows that the number of children who have them is increasing. C. It indicates that negative attitudes towards them are wrong. D. It focuseson the effect they have on parents. 23. How did Liz feel when her daughter had an imaginary friend? A. always confident that it was only a temporary situation B. occasionally worried about the friend’s importance to her daughter C. slightly confused as to how she should respond sometimes D. highly impressed by her daughter’s inventiveness 24. Karen says that one reason why children have imaginary friends is that __________. A. they are having serious problems with their real friends B. they can tell imaginary friends what to do C. they want something that they cannot be given D. they want something that other children haven’t got 25. According to Karen, how should parents react to imaginary friends? A. They should pretend that they like the imaginary friend. B. They shouldn’t get involved in the child’s relationship with the friend. C.They should take action if the situation becomes annoying. D. They shouldn’t discuss the imaginary friend with their child. (Source: Cambridge Advanced Practice Tests by Mark Harrison © Oxford, Test 3)

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Part II. LANGUAGE KNOLWEDGE(30 questions x 1 = 30 points) For questions 26-40, read the sentences carefully and circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer. 26.Laura took ____________ on the homeless man and bought him some groceries. A.sorrow B.shame C. grief D.pity 27.The man gave the police a full ____________ of what had happened among the crash survivors on the deserted island. A.explanation B.account C.interpretation D. story 28.Every day we get ____________ calls on the phone from total strangers trying to sell us something. That’s annoying! A.cold B.warm C. hot D. chilling 29.In the end, it all ____________ down to the fact that you don’t really care about me. A.goes B. turns C. comes D.gets 30. She’s ____________ with Jonas Brothers and collects anything and everything connected with them. A.devoted B.addicted C.absorbed D.obsessed 31.How often do you ____________ at the gym? A.work out B.wear out C.catch out D.watch out 32.It had been a terrible day for him and when he learned finally that he had lost his job, he simply blew his top. “Blew his top” means ____________. A.lost his nerve B.lost his courage C.lost his temper D.lost his respect 33.My boss is always talking ____________ to me as if I’m not worth consideration! A.at B. down C.through D.back 34.My English teacher, Mr. Sean Hughes, was a ____________ figure in my education, and the vitalreason why I went on to study English at university. A.key B. prime C.critical D. main 35.He ran and hid behind a tree in order to be ____________. A.out of reach B. out of control C.out of breath D. out of danger 36. Mark seemed very young, but he was ____________ older than all of us. A.in secret B. in reality C.in theory D. in private 37.Even though James has suffered the most damage in life, no one has ever heard him ____________ a groan or a word of complaint. A. yell B.murmur C.shout D. utter 38.We’ve got so much work on that we’ve had to ____________ more staff. A.take on B.take up C. take in D.take apart 39.She has a real ____________for detail, which makes her very good at her job. A.mind B. brain C.head D. eye 40.I can’t imagine Mary dancing on a table - she’s much too prim and ____________. A.perfect B.correct C. right D. proper 3|Page

For questions 41-50, read the text carefully. Use the words in the boxes to the right of the text to form one word that fits in the same numbered space in the text. Write the new word in the correct numbered space below the text. The task begins with an example (0). Example: (0) supportive

How a Break-Up Could Affect Control of The World’s Most Valuable Company SUPPORT

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“When youhave loving and (0) ___________ people in your life, like Mackenzie … you end up being able to take risks.” So declared Jeff Bezos, boss of Amazon, the e-commerce giant, last April. This affirmation by the planet’s richest man of the contribution of his wife of 25 years to the company (she was in the founding team) takes on a new (41) ___________ now that the power couple is preparing to split. When a founder divorces, it can affect firms and shareholders in several ways. Most (42) ___________ changes arein corporate control. In the case of Wynn Resorts, a casino group, for example, its founder, Steve Wynn, was challenged for control by his former wife, Elaine, after a bitter divorce in 2010. She became the largest shareholder in the group and demanded (43) ___________ reforms. Mr. Bezos is not thought to have a prenuptial agreement. In the state of Washington, where the couple mainly lives, Ms. Bezos is (44) ___________ to half of her husband’s $137bn fortune (if the divorce is filed elsewhere, her share may be lower.) Critically, Mr. Bezos owns a smaller proportion of his firm than other tech founders: whereas Mark Zuckerberg, for example, controls 51.3% of Facebook’s voting rights through a dual-class structure, Mr. Bezos controls only about 16% of Amazon and has no special voting rights. The divorce could weaken his hand in two ways. His stake could be cut to 8% (though Ms. Bezos may accept some cash or put her shares in a trust), (45) ___________the balance of power with the largest institutional investors –Vanguard has a 6% stake, for example. And she may demand a board seat. It is (46) ___________ that she might then oppose her ex-husband’s plans at the company. She might push for pay rises for workers, say, that hurt profits (Amazon is already under pressure in this regard). To reassure shareholders,(47) ___________ William Klepper of Columbia Business School, author of “The CEO’s Boss”, Amazon’s board must now hold discussions with Mr. Bezos about how any share transfer will take place and (48) ___________relevant points to shareholders. The board will need to be vigilant on other fronts, too, says David Larcker of Stanford Graduate School of Business. Executives going through a divorce often get (49) ___________, which explains why a company spokesman insisted this week that “Jeff remains focused”. Studies have also shown that a big reduction in wealth through divorce can lead a boss to make more aggressive corporate bets in the hope of clawing backriches. Some boards have

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even awarded CEOS extra pay to tamp down such behavior. Mr. Bezos’ best defensemay not be legal maneuvering, but continuing to do his job well. Amazon has (50) ___________ the S&P 500 index by 33% over the last year, and by over 2,000% over the past decade. A recent survey by Stanfordfound him (and not Tesla’s Elon Musk) to be “the most difficult CEO to replace”. For now, the love affair between Mr. Bezos and investors is still going strong.

(adapted from The Economist January 19th 2019, page 65)

Write your answers here:

46. ________________________

42. ________________________

47. ________________________

43. ________________________

48. ________________________

44. ________________________

49. ________________________

45. ________________________

50. ________________________

41. ________________________

This is the body paragraph from an essay on social networking. There are FIVE mistakes in the text. They are either grammatically incorrect or do not fit in with the sense of the text. For questions 51-55, find and underline the mistakes and write your corrections in the spaces given below the text. The task begins with an example (0). Example: (0) arguing → arguments

Social Networking Sites

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Line 15

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One of the main (0)arguing against social networking sites is that people sometimes reveal information on them that often should be kept private. Recently, another development has provided more support for this argument: College admissions committees are now using social networking sites as part of the application process. According with a survey by Kaplan Test Prep (2010), over 80 percent of college admissions officers use social networking sites to communicate with students. The claiming that many colleges make is that they use these sites to attract new students or to stay in contact with former students. However, some colleges admit that they are also using social networking as part of the admissions process. The main argument for using social media is that it helps colleges evaluate candidates at a time when these colleges are experiencing large numbers of applicants. Many admissions officers believe that colleges need all the information they can get on applicants in order to make decisions because the admissions process has become very competitively. One college interviewer in a recent survey reported that if she has to choose between two students who are equally qualified in terms of grades and test scores, she looks at their online profiles to make the final decision. In addition, applicants also use social networking sites against each other. Another admissions officer revealed that his office often receives anonymous messages with links to sites that have negative information on or pictures of other applicants. Many colleges and universities have not had official policies yet on whether to use social media as part of the application process. Until these policies will become clearer, prospective college students should keep their social

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networking pages private or remove anything that might make them look more attractive to admissions committees. (adapted from Grammar and Beyond 4 by John D. Bunting, Luciana Diniz, &Randi Reppen© Cambridge)

51. _________________________________

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52. _________________________________ 53. _________________________________ 54. _________________________________ 55. _________________________________

The Body Clock

Part III. READING SKILLS (50 questions = 60 points) For questions 56-65,read the text below and then decide which word best fits each space. Circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate your answer for each question. The task begins with an example (0). Example: (0) C. governed

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Scientists used to believe that our 24-hour cycle of sleeping and waking was (0) ________ entirely by external factors. The most notable of these, they thought, were the rising and (56) ________ of the sun. But they have now (57) ________ that there is a daily rhythm to a widerange of biological functions – including temperature, digestion, and mental (58) ________ – which are regulated internally by a special time-keeping mechanism within the brain. The main function of this “body clock” is to anticipate and (59) ________ for external changes so that, for example, our body temperature starts to rise around dawn, gearing us up for the day, and begins to (60) ________ in the early evening, winding us down for sleep. Some people’s body clocks (61) ________ poorer time than others, which can greatly disturb their lives and even threaten their health. Insomnia,depression, fatigue, poor work performance,and even accidents can all be(62) ________ or aggravated by inaccurate body clocks. Equallysevere problems can result from the difficulties of (63) ________ to different time zones and working by night instead of by day. Shift workers are known to run a higher-thanaverage (64) ________ of having a number of health problems and the disruption of normalbody rhythms is one possible (65) ________ for this.

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0. A. conducted 56.A.descending 57.A.established 58.A.operation 59.A.dispose 60.A.fall 61.A.keep 62.A.put 63.A.altering 64.A.risk 65.A.account 6|Page

B. steered B.diving B.fixed B.activity B. scheme B.reduce B. hold B. formed B.adjusting B.danger B.solution

C. governed C.plunging C.settled C.process C. steady C.lessen C. support C.caused C.fitting C.threat C.explanation

D. managed D.setting D.assured D.occupation D. prepare D.subtract D. preserve D.made D.suiting D.hazard D.source

(adapted from CAE Practice Tests by Mark Harrison &Rosalie Kerr © Oxford, Paper 3 – Part 1)

How Do We Make Decisions?

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For questions 66-75, complete the following magazine article by writing each missing word on the space given below the text. Use only ONE word for each space.The task begins with an example (0). Example: (0) which

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In cafés, there’s a wide range of coffees to choose from, from skinny latte to triple caramel frappuccino(that’s coffee blended with caramel, milk, and ice topped with a layer of dark caramel sauce, whipped cream, caramel drizzle and crunchy sugar topping, if you’re wondering).How do you decide (0) ………………. coffee to have? Do you analyze or even know how much caffeine you’d like or need? Do you know or care how many calories are in the drink? Most people think the best option is the most expensive and if they can afford it, will choose it.There have been a number of studies where price tags have been switched and people’s choices switch to the most expensive as a result. (66) ………………. would suggest that decision-making is not at all rational. Have you ever considered whether your decisions are influenced by the power of suggestion? If you were handed a warm drink on a cold winter’s day and then asked your opinion of someone youhadrecently met, the (67) ……………….areyou’d have a favorable opinion of the person.Conversely, if you were given a cold drink, your description of the person would be “colder”. You would have literally been influenced by the warmth or cold of the drink and your judgement would have been clouded. Our decisions are influenced in many different ways. We all know that the answers to questions in surveys depend largely on the wording of the question. A (68) ………………. worded question will probably elicit a positive response. The human brain plays tricks on us too. In many cases, when we ask for advice, we don’t really listen to and consider all of the advice, we just hear the parts that confirm (69) ………………. we wanted to hear. Our decision-making may also largely depend on our personality. An optimistic person may overestimate the positive outcomes of making a decision (70) ………………. a pessimistic person may decide against doing something for fear of a negative result. Even when we believe we are making a rational decision based on previous experience, this may not be the case. If you went on holiday to a particular resort last year and had a great time, it does not necessarily (71) ………………. that you will have a great time this year.The place may have changed, the weather might not be the same and your expectations will have been raised because of your previous positive experience. To help us make balanced and rational decisions, we are advised to make two columns and write down all the reasons (72) ………………. a decision in one column and all the reasons against in the other. But I don’t know about you, but when I tried this, when I saw the “against” column getting longer, I stopped trying to find negatives and found more positives. At least it made me realize that I really (73) ………………. want to do whatever it was but I still couldn’t explain why. It was just a gut feeling and I was willing to manipulate the “system” to (74) ………………. the outcome I wanted. In my view, much of the discussion about how we make decisions is not veryscientific at all. However, (75) ………………. do seem to be ways of explaining why we make certain decisions, if we look below the surface. For example, maybe we want to aspire to make more money, or maybe the power of suggestion plays a huge role, or maybe we always just go with our instincts. What do you think? 7|Page

(adapted fromObjective Advanced © Cambridge University Press,Unit 12, page 75)

71. _________________________

67. _________________________

72. _________________________

68. _________________________

73. _________________________

69. _________________________

74. _________________________

70. _________________________

75. _________________________

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Write your answers here: 66. _________________________

For questions 76-85,read the article carefully and circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer which you think fits best according to the article.

The Museum of Failed Products

Our business editor paid a visit to the graveyard of good ideas

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In an unremarkable business park outside the city of Ann Arbor in Michigan stands a poignant memorial to humanity’s shattered dreams. It doesn’t look like that from the outside, though. Even when you get inside, it takes a few moments for your eyes to get usedto what you’re seeing. It appears to be a vast and haphazardlyorganized supermarket; along every aisle, grey metal shelves are crammed with thousands of packages of food and household products. There is something unusually cacophonous about the displays and soon enough you work out the reason: unlike in a real supermarket, there is only one of each item. The storehouse, operated by a company called GfK Custom Research North America, has acquired a nickname: the Museum of Failed Products. This is consumer capitalism’s graveyard or, to put it less grandly, it’s almost certainly the only place on the planet where you’ll find A Touch of Yogurt shampoo alongside the equally unpopular For Oily HairOnly. The museum is home to discontinued brands of caffeinated beer and self-heating soup cans that had a regrettable tendency to explode in customers’ faces. There is a Japanese term, mono no aware, that translates roughly as “the pathos of things”. It captures a kind of bittersweet melancholy at life’s impermanence –that additionalbeauty imparted to cherry blossoms, for their fleetingnature.It’s only stretching the concept slightly to suggest that this is how the museum’s manager, an understatedly stylish GfK employee named Carol Sherry, feels about the cartons of Morning Banana Juice in her care or about Fortune Snookies, a shortlived line of fortune cookies for dogs. Every failure, the way she sees it, embodies its own sad story on the part of designers, marketers, and salespeople. It is never far from her mind that real people had their mortgages, their car payments, and their family holidays riding on the success of products such as A Touch of Yogurt. The Museum of Failed Products was itself a kind of accident, albeit a happier one. Its creator, a now retired marketing man named Robert McMath, merely intended to accumulate a “reference library” of consumer products, not failure per se. And so, starting in the 1960s, he began purchasing and preserving a sample of every new item he could find. Soon, the collection outgrew his office in upstate New York and he was forced to move into a converted granary to accommodate it. Later, GfK bought him out, moving the whole lot to Michigan. What McMath hadn’t taken into account was the three-word truth that was to prove the making of his career: most products fail. According to some estimates, the failure rate is as high as ninety percent. Simply by 8|Page

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collecting new products indiscriminately, McMath had ensured that his hoard would come to consist overwhelmingly of unsuccessful ones. By far the most striking thing about the museum, though, is that it should exist as a viable, profit-making business in the first place. You might have assumed that any consumer product manufacturer worthy of the name would have its own such collection –a carefully stewarded resourceto help it avoid making errors its rivals had already made. Yet the executives who arrive every week at Sherry’s door are evidence of how rarely this happens. Product developers are so focused on their next hoped-for success, so unwilling to invest time or energy thinking about their industry’s past failures that they only belatedly realize how much they need to access GfK’s collection. Most surprising of all is that many of the designers who have found their way to the museum have come there to examine – or been surprised to discover – products that their own companies had created, then abandoned. It isn’t hard to imagine how one downside of the positive thinking culture, an aversionto confronting failure, might have been responsible for the very existence of many of the products lining its shelves. Each one must have made it through a series of meetings at which nobody realized that the product was doomed. Perhaps nobody wanted to contemplate the prospect of failure; perhaps someone did but didn’t want to bring it up for discussion. By the time the truth became obvious, the original developers would have moved to other products or other firms. Little energy would have been invested in discovering what went wrong. Everyone involved would have conspired, perhaps without realizing what they’re doing, never to speak of it again. Failure is everywhere. It’s just that mostof the time we’d rather avoid confronting that fact.

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76. According to the writer, what is the reason why the storehouse does not resemble a supermarket? A. its appearance on the outside B. the dimly-lit space C. the size of the building D. the range of products on each shelf 77. The word “haphazardly” in paragraph 1is closest in meaning to _____________. A. logically B. randomly C. greedily D. roughly 78. What is the writer’s main purpose in paragraph 2? A. to provide an idea of what the museum contains B. to give reasons why these products were rejected by consumers C.to explain how obvious it was that self-heating cans failed D. to illustrate how the museum is organized and operated 79.What is Carol Sherry’s attitude to the failed products? A. She feels particularly attached to some products. B. She has sympathy for the people inventing them. C. She prefers failed products to successful ones. D. She appreciates the concepts behind the products. 80. The word “fleeting” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _____________. A. intractable B. durable C.selective D.brief 81. According to the writer, Mr. McMath failed to realize that his collection would ______________. A. be better if it were more selective B. grow so quickly C. contain so many failed products D. be so difficult to store 82. The word “indiscriminately” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _____________. 9|Page

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A. in a planned way B. in an expected way C. in an unexpected way D. in an unplanned way 83. According to the writer, what is remarkable about the product developers who visit GfK? A. their ignorance of the existence of the collection B. the lack of attention paid to previous failures C. the way they dismiss their own companies’ failures D. their tendency to repeat past failures 84. What point is the writer making in the last paragraph? A. that failure should have been prevented B. that failure is an acceptable part of life C. that people are afraid to talk about failure D.that thinking negatively often leads to failure 85. The word “aversion” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to _____________. A. dislike B. willingness C.affection D. approval

(adapted from Gold Advanced by Sally Burgess & Amanda Thomas © Pearson, pages 40-41)

For questions 86-95,read the text carefully and do the tasks below it.

What’s the Purpose of Gaining Knowledge?

A. “I would foundan institution where any person can find instruction in any subject.” That was the founder’s motto for Cornell University, and it seems an apt characterization of the different university, also in the USA, where I currently teach philosophy. A student can prepare for a career in resort management, engineering, interior design, accounting, music, law enforcement, you name it. But what would the founders of these two institutions have thought of a course called “Arson for Profit”? I kid you not: we have it on the books. Any undergraduates who have met the academic requirements can sign up for the course in our program in “fire science”.

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B. Naturally, the course is intended for prospective arson investigators, who can learn all the tricks of the trade for detecting whether a fire was deliberately set, discovering who did it, and establishing a chain of evidence for effective prosecution in a court of law. But wouldn’t this also be the perfect course for prospective arsonists to sign up for? My point is not to criticize academic programs in fire science: they are highly welcome as part of the increasing professionalization of this and many other occupations. However, it’s not unknown for a firefighter to torch a building. This example suggests how dishonest and illegal behavior, with the help of higher education, can creep into every aspect of public and business life.

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C. I realized this anew when I was invited to speak before a class in marketing, which is another of our degree programs. The regular instructor is a colleague who appreciates the kind of ethical perspective I can bring as a philosopher. There are endless ways I could have approached this assignment, but I took my cue from the title of the course: “Principles of Marketing”. It made me think to ask the students, “Is marketing principled?” After all, a subject matter can have principles in the sense of being codified, having rules, as with football or chess, without being principled in the sense of being ethical. Many of the students immediately assumed that the answer to my question about marketing principles was obvious: no. Just look at the ways in which everything under the sun has been marketed; obviously it need not be done in a principled (=ethical) fashion. 10 | P a g e

D. Is that obvious? I made the suggestion, which may sound downright crazy in light of the evidence, that perhaps marketing is by definition principled. My inspiration for this judgement is the philosopher Immanuel Kant, who argued that any body of knowledge consists of an end (or purpose) and a means.

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E. Let us apply both the terms “means” and “end” to marketing. The students have signed up for a course in order to learn how to market effectively. But to what end? There seem to be two main attitudes toward that question. One is that the answer is obvious: the purpose of marketing is to sell things and to make money. The other attitude is that the purposeof marketing is irrelevant: Each person comes to the program and course with his or her own plans, and these need not even concern the acquisition of marketing expertise as such. My proposal, which I believe would also be Kant’s, is that neither of these attitudes captures the significance of the end to the means for marketing. A field of knowledge or a professional endeavor is defined by both the means and the end; hence both deserve scrutiny. Students need to study both how to achieve X, and also what X is.

F. It is at this point that “Arson for Profit” becomes supremely relevant. That course is presumably all about meanshow to detect and prosecute criminal activity. It is therefore assumed that the end is good in an ethical sense. When I ask fire science students to articulate the end, or purpose, of their field, they eventually generalize to something like, “The safety and welfare of society,” which seems right. As we have seen, someone could use the very same knowledge of meansto achieve a much less noble end, such as personal profit via destructive, dangerous, reckless activity. But we would not call that firefighting. We have a separate word for it: arson. Similarly, if you employed the “principles of marketing” in an unprincipled way, you would not be doing marketing. We have another term for it: fraud. Kant gives the example of a doctor and a poisoner, who use the identical knowledge to achieve their divergent ends. We would say that one is practicing medicine, the other, murder.

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The text has six sections A-F. For questions 86-90,choose the correct heading for each section from the list of headings below. Write the correct number, i-viii, in spaces 86-90 given next to the sections. The task begins with an example (0). Example: (0) Section A _vi_ List of Headings i Courses that require a high level of commitment ii A course title with two meanings iii The equal importance of two key issues iv Applying a theory in an unexpected context v The financial benefits of studying vi A surprising course title vii Different names for different outcomes viii The possibility of attracting the wrong kind of student 86. Section B 87. Section C 88. Section D 89. Section E 11 | P a g e

_____________ _____________ _____________ _____________

90. Section F

_____________

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For questions 91-95, read the following statements carefully and decide whether they agree with the views of the writer in the text. In spaces given next to the statements, write YES if the statement agrees with the views of the writer NO if the statement contradicts the views of the writer NOT GIVEN ifit is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this

91. ________ It is difficult to attract students onto courses that do not focus on a career. 92. ________ The “Arson for Profit” course would be useful for people intending to set fire to buildings. 93. ________ Fire science courses are too academic to help people to be good at the job of firefighting. 94. ________ The writer’s fire science students provided a detailed definition of the purpose of their studies. 95. ________ The expectation is that the students completing the “Arson for Profit” course will become investigators specializing in arson.

(Source: Cambridge English IELTS 12 Academic © Cambridge University Press, Test 5)

For questions 96-105, read the magazine article about bees carefully. Which of the following actions has been believed to produce the results listed A-J? Some choices my required more than once.The task begins with an example (0). Example: (0) D taking bees across water (0) _______

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turning a beehive round on the owner’s (96) ______ death (97) ______ using swear words close to bees (98) ______ lifting a beehive as a coffin passes (99) ______ a bee coming into the room (100) _____ inviting bees to a funeral (101) _____ arguing a lot in front of bees (102) _____ forcing a bee out of your home (103) _____ keeping a bee in a purse (104) _____ a bee making noise at a window (105) _____ failing to tell bees the names of a couple getting married

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A. bees get angry B.bees recover from illness C. serious misfortune D. bees die E. bees go away F. someone comes to see you G. bees cannot concentrate on their activities H. someone visits you for a long time I. bees continue to be healthy J. wealth

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Paul Prossart looks at some of the superstitions surrounding bees You don’t find many people these days who would keep a bee in their purse. But catching the first bee seen in the spring was once considered the height of good luck, and if you kept it in yourpurse, you were certain never to be short of money. Probably because you would be too afraid to open it! This is just one of the many superstitions surrounding bees. Next time a bee flies in through your window, expect a visitor very shortly. Take a closer look at bee: if it has a red tail, your visitor will be a man, a white tail means a woman. If the bee happens to be buzzing at the living-room window, make sure there’s an ample supply of food – your visitor is probably intending to stay a while. Whatever you do, don’t drive the bee out of the house. That would bring incredibly bad luck. Housekeeping would never be the same again. And were you aware that bees dislike bad behavior? Years ago, bee-keeping was much more common. A hive or two would provide some honey in the summer months and it wasn’t unusual to have a few hives in the back garden. You would never consider owning a hive of bees if your family was quarrelsome. A magazine of the 1850s declared that “if a man and his wife quarrel, the bees will leave them.” Bad language should never be used near beehives as it disturbs the bees, affecting their honey-making. Bees, it seems, are paragons of virtue. And make sure you’ve had a bath if you are going to collect honey from a hive. Bees are fussy about cleanliness. As early as 77AD, Pliny, in his book Natural History, advised his readers: “It is particularly recommended that he person who takes the honey should be well washed and clean.” Bees obviously take a dim view of dirty hands on their pure honey. They also have mixed feelings where water is concerned because tradition has it that if you move a hive of bees, they must never be taken across a stream or river because they will all die. There was much concern for bees in the 17th century. It was believed that if the owner of the hives were to die, all the bees would die too, unless they were moved to another place. From this the superstitious custom developed of turning round the beehives that belonged to the deceased, so that the bees would survive. Once, at the funeral of a rich farmer in the 1790s, someone duly called out to a servant “Turn the bees”, as the body was being placed in the hearse and the horseman was about to pull off in the funeral procession. This servant, having no knowledge of the custom, lifted up the hive and laid it on its side. The bees, naturally, didn’t like this, and instantly attacked and fastened onto the horses and riders. The horses bolted and galloped off, with the bees in hot pursuit, and as a mourner commented later: “A general confusion tool place, with loss of hats and wigs.” By the end of the 19th century, this custom had become a mere lifting of the hives a few inches off the ground as a token gesture whenever a funeral passed the house, as it was still considered necessary for the well-being of the bees. During that century, when a death occurred, it was thought the done thing to send an invitation to the funeral to the bees in their hives, otherwise they would die. Bees obviously still observe this tradition - and literally, at that –for the Shrewsbury Chronicle as recently as 1961 related the story of the death of a beekeeper who was devoted to his bees. At a memorial service in the village, the bees left their hives and settled in a great swarm all over the flowers on the deceased master’s grave. It was the custom at weddings and funerals to give a piece of the wedding cake or funeral biscuit to the bees, telling them the name of the person married or dead. If the bees didn’t know of

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the former they became very annoyed and stung everyone within reach and if they were ignorant of the latter they would become sick and might even die. So next time you are in the queue at the supermarket and a bee flies out of the purse of the woman in front, don’t be surprised – she is just being superstitious. (Source: CAE Practice Tests by Mark Harrison & Rosalie Kerr © Oxford, Test 4 – Part 1)

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Part IV. WRITING SKILLS (3 questions = 60 points) Read the passage below and summarize it using 1-3sentences.Your answerwill be judged on the quality of your writing and on how well your answer presents the key points in the passage.

Despite having started life as a broadsheet in 1964, The Sun has become not only the premier tabloid in the United Kingdom, but also the biggest-selling paper of any kind, with a daily circulation of over three million. Owned by Rupert Murdoch, an Australian who now holds US citizenship, and who does not pay tax in the UK, the paper has traditionally been to the right of the political spectrum. Much of its rise in popularity has been attributed to its introduction of topless models on page three in 1970 and of bingo in the 1980s. Loved and loathed in equal measure, the paper’s staple diet is celebrity gossip and exposés, and it is also renowned for its way with catchy, punning headlines. Over the years, the paper has frequently been sued for libel and has had accusations of sexism, homophobia, jingoism and vicious personal attacks on public figures levelled against it, yet little seems to dent its popularity!

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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The chart below shows the countries which were the top sources of plastic waste clogging up global sea lanes in 2010. Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make comparisons where relevant.

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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Write an essay about the topic below. Your answer will be judged on how well you develop a position, organize your ideas, present supporting details, and control the elements of standard written English. You should write 300-400 words. “Schools should prepare students for university, rather than for work.”How far do you agree with this statement? Support your point of view with reasons and/or examples from your own experience or observations. ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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___The End___

Ngườibiênsoạnđề: NguyễnVũQuỳnh Trang Sốđiệnthoại: 0912431002

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Địachỉthưđiệntử: quynhtrang.nguyenvu1712@gmail.com

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KEY

1. insects

2. behavior

3. father

4. complex/complicated

5. reproduction/breeding

6. control

7. duck(s)

8. language

9. food

10. cost(s)/price(s)/bill(s)

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Part I. LISTENING SKILLS (25 questions x 2 = 50 points) Questions 1-10 (2 points for each question)

Questions 11-15 (2 points for each question) 11. February 11 12. their warm welcome

13. It had reasonable fees and there weren’t many Japanese students there. 14. France

15. at least two in each class

17. FALSE

18. FALSE

19.TRUE

16. FALSE

Questions 16-20 (2 points for each question)

20. NOT GIVEN

Questions 21-25 (2 points for each question) 22. C

23. A

24. C

25. B

21. B

26. D. pity

28. A. cold

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29. C. comes

27. B. account

Part II. LANGUAGE KNOLWEDGE (30 questions x 1 = 30 points) Questions 26-40 (1 point for each question) 34. A. key 35. D. out of danger 36. B. in reality 37. D. utter 38. A. take on

31. A. work out

39. D. eye

32. C. lost his temper

40. D. proper

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30. D. obsessed

33. B. down

Questions 41-50 (1 point for each question) 41. significance

46. conceivable

42. consequential

47. reckons

43. governance

48. communicate

44.entitled

49. distracted

45. changing

50. outperformed

Questions 51-55 (1 point for each question)

52. claiming → claim 54. will become → become

51. with → to 53. competitively → competitive 55. more → less

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56. D. setting

57. A. established

58. B.activity

59. D. prepare

60. A. fall

Part III. READING SKILLS (50 questions = 60 points) Questions 56-65 (1 point for each question)

62. C. caused

63. B. adjusting

65.C. explanation

64. A. risk

61. A. keep

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Questions 66-75 (1 point for each question) 66. This

67. chances

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68. positively 69. what

70. whereas/ while

71. follow 72. for 73. did

74. get/achieve/have 75. there

Questions 76-85 (1 point for each question) 76. D

77. B

78. A

79. B

80. D

81. C

82. D

83. B

84. A

85. A

Questions 86-95 (2 points for each question) 87. ii

88. iv

89. iii

90. vii

91. NOT GIVEN

92. YES

93. NO

94. NO

95. YES

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86. viii

Questions 96-105 (1 point for each question) 96. I

97. G

98. I

99. F

100. I

101. E

102. C

103. J

104. H

105. A

Part IV. WRITING SKILLS (3 questions = 60 points) 1. Summarizing (10 points)

The quality of the writing (word choice, form, accuracy) (maximum 5 points)

•

How well the key points are presented (maximum 5 points)

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2. Describing a bar chart (20 points)

The writing covers all the key features and presents a clear overview of the information

presented. (maximum 4 points)

Information and ideas are logically organized. (maximum 4 points)

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There is a flexible and useful range of cohesive devices. (maximum 4 points)

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Lexical choice shows flexibility and precision, and includes less common items. (maximum

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Grammatical structures are used flexibly and accurately. Most sentences are error-free.

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4 points)

(maximum 4 points)

3. Essay Writing (30 points)

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3 points for each argument included. 1.5 point if part of an argument is included but not developed. 0 points if an argument is not relevant.

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Content (maximum 8 points)

Form (maximum 6 points) 6 points for correct format.

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3 points if only part of format is used.

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0 point if format is not used at all.

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Range (maximum 8 points) •

8 points for using a good range of vocabulary and structures.

•

6 points for using a reasonable range of vocabulary and structures.

•

0 point for using a poor range of vocabulary and structures.

Accuracy (maximum 8 points) •

8 points for accuracy over 80%.

•

6-7 points for accuracy between 60% and 80%.

•

5 points for accuracy below 60%.

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•0 point for accuracy below 20%

TRẠI HÈ HÙNG VƯƠNG LẦN THỨ XV

ĐỀ THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH

TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN TỈNH HÀ GIANG ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT

LỚP 11 (Đề này có 27 trang, gồm 15 câu)

PART I. LISTENING (50 pts)

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Question 1. Listen to the recording and complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS/ NUMBER for each answer. (20 pts)

The use of soil to reduce carbon dioxide (CO2) in the atmosphere Rattan Lai:

• Claims that 13% of CO2 in the atmosphere could be absorbed by agricultural soils

• Erosion is more likely in soil that is (1) ________

• Lai found soil in Africa that was (2) ________

• It was suggested that carbon from soil was entering the atmosphere

Soil and carbon:

• Plants turn CO2 from the air into sugars and other (3) ________

• Some CO2 moves from the (4) _______ of plants to microbes in the soil

• Carbon was lost from the soil when agriculture was invented

Regenerative agriculture:

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• uses established practices to make sure soil remains fertile and (5) ________ • e.g. through year-round planting and increasing the (6) ________ of plants that are

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grown

California study: • taking place on a big (7) ________ farm • uses compost made from waste from agriculture and (8) ________

Australia study: • aims to increase soil carbon by (9) _______ that are always green Future developments may include:

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• reducing the amount of fertilizer used in farming • giving farmers (10) ________ for carbon storage, as well as their produce

(Cambridge IELTS practice test 11) Your answers:

6. …………………………………….

2. …………………………………….

7. …………………………………….

3. …………………………………….

8. …………………………………….

4. …………………………………….

9. …………………………………….

10. …………………………………….

5. …………………………………….

1. …………………………………….

Question 2. You will hear a radio report about British people buying holiday homes

abroad. Listen and answer the questions WITH NO MORE THAN THREE

WORDS/ NUMBER. (10 pts)

1. How many British households now own a second home abroad? ………………………………………………………………………………………………

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2. What is the main reason for more than half of the nearly 2,000 people buying a second home overseas?

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……………………………………………………………………………………………… 3. What did 40% of respondents say about making money when people invested in new-

builds?

……………………………………………………………………………………………… 4. What place remains the second most popular destination for living abroad? ……………………………………………………………………………………………… 2

5. What are expected to expand people’s routes to Bulgaria? ……………………………………………………………………………………………… (Advanced 10 CAE Practice Tests) Question 3. Listen to the recording and decide whether the information in each

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sentence is true (T) or false (F) or not given (NG). (10 pts)

1. Helen Perry was an expert on theatre history in the middle of the nineteenth century. 2. Her friends encouraged her a lot to become an actress.

3. Learning the lines stopped her from becoming an incredibly successful actress. 5. Helen had only a few honorary university degrees.

4. She was one of the first stars to have a perfume named in her honor.

(Certificate in Advanced English 3)

1. ……………

Your answers:

2. ……………

3. ……………

4. ……………

5. ……………

Question 4. You will hear part of an interview with two chefs, Jane and Chris, who

both won prizes in the National Railway Chef of the Year competition. Choose the

best answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. (10 pts)

________.

1. Jane admits that the greatest problem she faced during the competition was having to

A. be original when travelling at speed B. produce a meal with so little money

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C. work in a very small space D. prepare a meal so quickly

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2. What do both Chris and Jane feel is unique about their work?

A. the close contact with the customers B. the need to do everything at the same time C. the opportunity they have to be creative D. the way they have to focus on the job

3. What do Chris and Jane feel about what they cook on board the train? A. They approve of the menus provided for them. B. They are more adventurous than other chefs. C. They would like to have more freedom of choice. D. They are happy to adapt their ideas to suit the job.

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4. What is often Jane’s initial reaction when things spill over?

A. She asks another member of staff to help her clear up. B. She blames the train driver for the accident. C. She tells herself to keep a closer watch next time. D. She says nasty things to the other staff.

5. What does Chris say caused his worst disaster?

B. dropping the main course on the floor

A. leaving things to burn under the grill C. losing his concentration when cooking

D. not keeping an eye on the oven temperature

2. ……………

1. ……………

Your answers:

(Certificate in Advanced English 3)

3. ……………

4. ……………

5. ……………

PART II. LEXICO - GRAMMAR (30 pts) (15 pts)

Question 5. Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to complete each sentence below.

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1. The best travel books of this year fall into three main categories: ______ informational, narrative, and anecdotal.

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A. truly

B. fully

C. literally

D. purely

2. As a matter of ______, we have six security guards on the premises at all times. A. wisdom

B. prudence

C. foresight

D. acumen

3. With just a little preparation and regular feeding and watering, you can guarantee that you have a ______ of colour throughout the summer.

A. disturbance

B. riot

C. demonstration D. rally

4. It was such a sad movie that we were all reduced ______ tears. A. for

B. with

C. into

D. to

5. Serena is still ______ ignorant of the fact that she is about to be made redundant. A. blissfully

B. decorously

C. jubilantly

D. ecstatically

A. actually

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6. At the end of the competition, all the runner were ______ exhausted. B. wholly

C. utterly

D. eventually

7. No decision has been taken about the building of the new airport. The authorities are still ______.

B. comparing apples and oranges

C. sitting on the fence

D. holding all the aces

A. beating about the bush

B. harassed

C. condemned

D. confined

A. inflicted

8. The inconsiderate driver was ______ for parking his vehicle in the wrong place.

9. It’s important to keep your ______ about you when you are walking through the A. wits

B. heads

African bush.

C. brains

D. minds

10. His appearance at the reception with the late Mayor’s widow caused something of a B. rumour

C. wonder

A. confusion

______.

D. stir

11. Derek had no experience of white-water canoeing, so it was extremely______ of him

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to try and shoot the rapids. A. hazardous

B. intrepid

A. practice

B. wield

C. perilous

D. foolhardy

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12. Members of the aristocracy don’t ______ a great deal of power nowadays. C. sway

D. manage

13. Why do you object to him being taken on – he’ll be a(n) ______ to the company? A. property

B. estate

C. asset

D. material

14. A boycott of other countries’ sporting events appears a politically more expedient form of protest than trade ______. A. treaties

B. actions

C. blocks

D. sanctions

15. I heard ______ that Jack has been dropped from the basketball team. B. on the grapevine

C. under your feet

D. on the olive branch

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A. in the woods Your answers:

2. ……………

3. ……………

4. ……………

5. ……………

6. ……………

7. ……………

8. ……………

9. ……………

10. ………..…

11. ……………

12. …………… 13. …………… 14. …………… 15. ……………

1. ……………

Question 6. Give the correct form of the words given in brackets. (10 pts)

A recent government report (1. HIGH) _______ the extent to which credit card debt is

spiraling. Blame is (2. PORTION) _______ solely to the credit card companies, who, the

report claims, will go to any (3. LONG) _______ to attract new customers. (4. ADD)

_______, according to the report, they are responsible for encouraging (5. EXIST) _______ customers to borrow more by raising their monthly limit. Certainly a recent

advertising campaign by a major credit card company – which has since been (6. DRAW) _______– seems to bear these findings out.

However, while the responsibility of the credit card companies is not (7. CONSIDER)

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_______, it is, in my opinion, unfair to lay all the blame on their shoulders. The (8. MAJOR) _______ of credit card users are able to make their (9. PAY) _______ on time

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without difficulty. There will always be a minority of people in our society who are financially (10. RESPONSE) _______. If they run up huge debts, is it really the credit

card company’s fault? Your answers:

1. …………………………………….

6. …………………………………….

7. …………………………………….

3. …………………………………….

8. …………………………………….

4. …………………………………….

9. …………………………………….

5. …………………………………….

10. …………………………………….

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2. …………………………………….

Question 7. Identify 05 errors in the following passage and correct them. Write your

answers in the space provided in the column on the right. There is an example at the beginning. (5 pts) Example 0. include => includes

Whirlwind, any rotating air mass, (0) include the tornado and the large cyclonic and anticyclonic storm. In meteorology, the term whirlwind is more strict applied to the smaller

swirling atmospheric phenomenon commonly known as dust devil or dust whirl, which

occurs mostly over deserts and semiarid plains during hot, calm days. The principal cause

of whirlwinds is intense insulation, or incoming solar radiation receiving by the earth,

which produces an overheated air mass just above the ground. This air masses rises,

usually in the form of a cylindrical column, sucking up loose surface material, such as

dust, sand, and leaves. Whirlwinds vary in height from 30 to 152 m, but exceptionally

vigorous dust devils may exceed 1524 m in height. The vortices of whirlwinds range in size from a little meters to several hundred meters and, depend on their force and size,

dust devils may disappear in seconds or last several hours. Brief whirlwinds are erratic in

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motion, but the longer-lasting ones move slowly with the prevailing winds. Your answers:

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Lines

1. …….…… ……………. 2. …….…… …………….

3. …….…… ……………. 4. …….…… …………….

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5. …….…… …………….

PART III. READING (60 pts)

Question 8: Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D)

best fits each gap. Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (10 pts) (CAE builder)

Gerard Mercator: The Man Who Mapped the Planet

When Gerard Mercator was born in 1512, the geography of the globe still (0)___

remained ______a mystery. It was unclear whether America was part of Asia, if there

was a vast (1) _________of sea at the top of the world or if Australia was connected to

Antarctica.

Mercator’s childhood was spent chiefly in Rupelmonde, a Flemish trading town on

the river, and it was here that his geographical imagination was (2) _________by the ships which passed to and from the rest of the world. Alongside imagination, he

developed two very different skills. The first was the ability to gather, (3) _________and

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co-ordinate the geographical information provided by explorers and sailors who frequented the margins of the known. He also had to be able to imagine himself (4)

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_________from the heavens, to achieve the visionary (5) _________of gods in the skies, (6) _________ down on the world. The main reason why Mercator’s name is familiar to

us is because of the Mercator Projection: the solution he (7)_________to represent the spheroidal surface of the globe on a two-dimensional plane. It is less well known that Mercator was the first man to conceive of mapping the (8) _________surface of the

planet or that he (9) _________the idea of multiple maps being presented in bound books, to which he gave the name ‘Atlas’. It is difficult for us now to be surprised by maps, so many are there, and of such detail and coverage, but we should bear in mind that Mercator lived at a time when such

forever.

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knowledge was far from (10) _________. He was the man who altered our worldview B. continued

C. maintained

D. endured

1. A. territory

B. distance

C. range

D. expanse

2. A. raised

B. reared

C. supplied

D. nourished

3. A. congregate

B. amass

C. assimilate

D. construct

4. A. suspended

B. located

C. situated

D. attached

5. A. inspection

B. observation

C. perspective

D. assessment

6. A. glimpsing

B. scrutinizing

7. A. invented

B. contrived

8. A. sheer

B. full

9. A. pioneered

B. initiated

10. A. typical

B. common

0. A. remained

C. watching C. devised

D. schemed

C. entire

D. utter

C. lead

D. prepared

C. routine

D. normal

2. ……………

3. ……………

4. ……………

5. ……………

6. ……………

7. ……………

8. ……………

9. ……………

10. ………..…

1. ……………

Your answers:

D. gazing

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Question 9: Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only one word in each space. (10 pts).

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There is an example at the beginning (0).

(CPE succeed) Karaoke fever

Karaoke is fast (0)____becoming_____ the nation’s Number One party pastime. Public humiliation has (1)_________ been so fashionable. It’s 1 a.m. at an exclusive

location in the heart of London. A major pop singer has taken the stage but rather than sing her latest hit, she treats the crowd (2)_________ a Michael Jackson song. What was (3) _________ the party habit of teenagers is now favoured by London’s coolest crowd and everyone is having a (4) _________. So why are so many of our young celebrities queueing up to make fools of (5) _________ in clubs and bars across the country? Maybe

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it’s because belting (6) _________ a naff pop song to a public audience shows that even

though you may be a celebrity, you don’t (7) _________ yourself too seriously. And if you are a big movie star, that’s a good message to get across. Nobody gets away without

being laughed (8) _________ on a karaoke evening, no matter how famous they are. (9) _________ all, that’s the whole point of the exercise. But for the musical experts among

you, a word of warning: this isn’t about proving to the world that you know all the lyrics

to a serious song. It’s about expressing your inner performer. Don’t bother (10)

_________ up at a karaoke night if you aren’t prepared to sing; you’ve got to put in the

effort and prove that you are one of the ‘in-crowd’. Break a leg!

2. ……………

6. ……………

7. ……………

3. ……………

1. ……………

Your answers:

8. ……………

4. ……………

5. ……………

9. ……………

10. ………..…

Question 10: Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. (10 Solving Deforestation problems

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pts) ( (TOEFL iBT advanced)

As more and more countries around the globe move towards industrialization in an attempt to compete in the global market, an environmental crisis over deforestation --- the

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cutting down, burning and general damaging of forests --- is looming for mankind. Over

the last several decades, environmental specialists have proposed various strategies aimed at slowing down this process of deforestation in developing countries. Many of these proposals are indeed valuable ideas in that they are realistic attempts to address

some of the causes of deforestation, such as farming, cattle ranching, and commercial logging. All of them rely on government involvement of some kind. There are three broad categories of solutions: state economic policies, internal agreements, and international programs. ■ A) Economic policies generally attempt to

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limit the activity of small farmers through government actions. ■ B) Government actions can include the clear and proper definition and enforcement of property rights, meaning that squatting, or illegally settling on land, would be more difficult. ■ C) Subsidies can

be used to encourage conservation. That is, money may be paid to supplement the income of those farmers who make an effort to reduce the usual amount of damage to the forest that their farms cause. In addition, taxes can act as a deterrent to undesirable land

use. ■ D) For example, certain kinds of agriculture, like the slash-and-burn method, as

well as cattle ranching, may be taxed to discourage these activities.

An internal agreement may be made between governments and indigenous or native

people living in the moist rainforests and open woodlands of the tropics, where the vast

majority of this deforestation is occurring. Such an agreement would allow people to carry on traditional activities adapted for some economic benefit. One example is the

rubber-tappers in Brazil. These native people draw sap from rubber trees in the rainforest,

without damaging or killing the trees. The sap, in turn, is sold to rubber companies,

thereby providing the native people with economic benefits.

Finally, international agreements usually involve the exchange of monetary aid in

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return for government action to protect its forests. One such plan seeks to help play a nation’s debt in exchange for restrictions on certain kinds of activities in rainforests. This is appealing for a poor country such as Brazil, which has an international debt of $160 Instead of selling logging concessions to play down that obligation, the

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billion.

government receives money for banning or restricting logging in its forests. There is also

the proposal of a global fund created in order to grant money to countries that choose to protect their environments. While all of these ideas could possibly work, it remains to be seen whether there will be any real progress in rainforest conservation.

It is clear that something must be done to protect the forests of the world. If the current rate of deforestation continues, the world’s rainforests will vanish within 100 years, causing numerous adverse effects on global climate and eliminating the majority of plant and animal species on the planet. Deforestation significantly increases the amount

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of carbon dioxide (CO2) released into the atmosphere each year, which in turn causes an increase in global temperatures. Also, scientists speculate that the tropical rainforests, though covering only seven percent of the Earth’s dry surface, contain more than half of

the 5 million to 80 million species of plants and animals that comprise the “ biodiversity “ of the planet. The loss of species resulting from radical climate change will have a

drastic effect. The Earth is losing species every day that could potentially prevent cancer

or lead to a cure for AIDS. In addition, other organisms are losing species they depend

upon, and thus face extinction themselves. Unless some form of concrete solution for

deforestation is enacted quickly, the survival of all creatures living on Earth could be in

jeopardy.

1. According to paragraphs 3 and 4, what is the main difference between an internal agreement and an international agreement?

A. International agreements are more effective than internal agreements.

B. An international agreement is between countries; an internal agreement is between a

government and its people.

groups.

C. Internal agreements benefit governments; international agreements benefit indigenous

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D. Internal agreements are more effective than international ones. 2. The word "obligation" in paragraph 4 could best be replaced by ________.

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A. promise

B. relationship

C. guarantee

3. In paragraph 1, what does the word "them" refer to?

A. The causes of deforestation B. Decades C. Proposals

D. debt

D. Developing countries 4. Look at the four squares [■] that indicate where the following sentence could be added to paragraph 2: “Deforestation by a peasant farmer is often done to raise crops for subsistence and is

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driven by the basic human need for food.” Where would the sentence best fit? Choose the square [■] where the sentence should be added to the passage. A. Line 2

B. Line 3

C. Line 5

D. Line 7

5. Why does the author mention rubber-tappers in paragraph 3? A. To provide an example of an internal agreement

C. To provide an example of a state economic policy

B. To provide an example of an international agreement

D. To provide an example of why Brazil is a poor nation

6. According to the passage, what are the major adverse effects of deforestation?

A. An increase in carbon dioxide and decrease in biodiversity

B. Warmer weather and an increase in biodiversity

C. Loss of plant and animal species and an increase in global debt

D. An increase in global debt and human diseases

7. Which of the following sentences best expresses the essential information of the

highlighted sentence?

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A. In coming decades, environmental scientists will suggest several strategies for stopping deforestation in third-world countries.

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B. Environmental scientists, in recent years, have suggested that deforestation slows down the process of development in various countries.

C. In recent decades, several methods for countering deforestation in poor countries have been suggested by experts on the environment.

D. Experts on the environment have been concerned about the impact of deforestation on the Earth's biodiversity in recent decades. 8. From the passage, it can be inferred that ________. A. state economic policies are more effective than international agreements B. indigenous peoples in the tropics depend on forestry to make money D. deforestation is not a very serious problem

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C. the three types of solutions mentioned will save the rainforests

9. The word "deterrent" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______. A. fine

B. penalty

C. incentive

D. discouragement

10. The word "this" in paragraph 4 refers to _________.

A. a poor country

B. a nation's debt

C. an international agreement D. an obligation

2. ……………

6. ……………

7. ……………

3. ……………

1. ……………

Your answers:

5. ……………

9. ……………

10. ………..…

8. ……………

4. ……………

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(IELTS Practice)

Question 11: Read the following passage and do the tasks that follow. (20 pts)

The Hollywood Film Industry

A This chapter examines the ‘Golden Age’ of the Hollywood film studio system and

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explores how a particular kind of filmmaking developed during this period in US film history. It also focuses on the two key elements which influenced the emergence of the

classic Hollywood studio system: the advent of sound and the business ideal of vertical integration. In addition to its historical interest, inspecting the growth of the studio system may offer clues regarding the kinds of struggles that accompany the growth of

any new medium. It might, in fact, be intriguing to examine which changes occurred during the growth of Hollywood studio, and compare those changes to contemporary struggles in which production companies are trying to define and control emerging industries, such as online film and interactive television.

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B The shift of the industry away from ‘silent’ films began during the late 1920s. Warner Bros.’ 1927 film The Jazz Singer was the first to feature synchronized speech, and with it came a period of turmoil for the industry. Studios now had proof that ‘talkie’ films

would make them money, but the financial investment this kind of filmmaking would

require, from new camera equipment to new projection facilities, made the studios

hesitant to invest at first. In the end, the power of cinematic sound to both move

audiences and enhance the story persuaded studios that talkies were worth investing in.

Overall, the use of sound in film was well-received by audiences, but there were still

many technical factors to consider. Although full integration of sound into movies was

complete by 1930, it would take somewhat longer for them to regain their stylistic

elegance and dexterity. The camera now had to be encased in a big, clumsy, unmovable soundproof box. In addition, actors struggled, having to direct their speech to

awkwardly-hidden microphones in huge plants, telephones or even costumes.

C Vertical integration is the other key component in the rise of the Hollywood studio

system. The major studios realized they could increase their profits by handling each

stage of a film’s life: production (making the film), distribution (getting the film out to

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people) and exhibition (owning the theaters in major cities where films were shown first). Five studios, ‘The Big Five’, worked to achieve vertical integration through the late 1940s, owning vast real estate on which to construct elaborate sets. In addition,

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these studios set the exact terms of films’ release dates and patterns. Warner Bros., Paramount, 20th Century Fox, MGM and RKO formed this exclusive club. ‘The Little

Three’ studios - Universal, Columbia and United Artists - also made pictures, but each lacked one of the crucial elements of vertical integration. Together these eight companies operated as a mature oligopoly, essentially running the entire market.

During the Golden Age, the studios were remarkably consistent and stable

enterprises, due in large part to long-term management heads - the infamous ‘movie moguls’ who ruled their kingdoms with iron fists. At MGM, Warner Bros, and Columbia, the same men ran their studios for decades. The rise of the studio system also

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hinges on the treatment of stars, who were constructed and exploited to suit a studio’s image and schedule. Actors were bound up in seven-year contracts to a single studio, and the studio boss generally held all the options. Stars could be loaned out to other

production companies at any time. Studio bosses could also force bad roles on actors, and manipulate every single detail of stars’ images with their mammoth in-house publicity departments. Some have compared the Hollywood studio system to a factory,

and it is useful

to remember that studios were out to make money first and art second.

E On the other hand, studios also had to cultivate flexibility, in addition to consistent

factory output. Studio heads realized that they couldn’t make virtually the same film

over and over again with the same cast of stars and still expect to keep turning a profit. They also had to create product differentiation. Examining how each production

company tried to differentiate itself has led to loose characterizations of individual

studios’ styles. MGM tended to put out a lot of all-star productions while Paramount

excelled in comedy and Warner Bros, developed a reputation for gritty social realism.

20th Century Fox forged the musical and a great deal of prestige biographies, while Universal specialized in classic horror movies.

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F In 1948, struggling independent movie producers and exhibitors finally triumphed in their battle against the big studios’ monopolistic behavior. In the United States versus

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Paramount federal decree of that year, the studios were ordered to give up their theaters in what is commonly referred to as ‘divestiture’ - opening the market to smaller

producers. This, coupled with the advent of television in the 1950s, seriously compromised the studio system’s influence and profits. Hence, 1930 and 1948 are generally considered bookends to Hollywood’s Golden Age.

Task 1: The reading passage has six paragraphs A - F. Choose the correct heading for paragraphs A - F from the list of headings below. List of Headings i.

The power with each studio

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ii. The movie industry adapts to innovation iii. Contrast between cinema and other media of the time

iv. The value of studying Hollywood’s Golden Age v. Distinguishing themselves from the rest of the market

vii. Gaining control of the industry

vi. A double attack on film studios’ power

viii. The top movies of Hollywood’s Golden Age _____iv____

1. Paragraph B

__________

2. Paragraph C

__________

Example: Paragraph A

3. Paragraph D

__________

4. Paragraph E

5. Paragraph F

__________ __________

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Task 2: Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading

if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE

if the statement contradicts the information

NOT GIVEN

if there is no information on this

TRUE

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Passage?

6. After The Jazz Singer came out, other studios immediately began making movies with synchronized sound. 7. There were some drawbacks to recording movie actors’ voices in the early 1930s.

8. There was intense competition between actors for contracts with the leading studios. Task 3: Complete the summary below. Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer. THE HOLLYWOOD STUDIOS

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Throughout its Golden Age, the Hollywood movie Industry was controlled by a handful of studios. Using a system known as (9) ______________, the biggest studios not only made movies, but handled their distribution and then finally showed them in

their own theaters. These studios were often run by autocratic bosses - men known as (10) ______________, who often remained at the head of organisations for decades. However,

the domination of the industry by the leading studios came to an end in 1948, when they were forced to open the market to smaller producers - a process known as divestiture.

Your answers:

2. ……………

3. ……………

4. ……………

5. ……………

6. ……………

7. ……………

8. ……………

9. ……………

10. ………..…

1. ……………

Question 12. You are going to read the transcript of a series of interviews with ordinary

people conducted for the Have your say feature of a daily newspaper. For number 1-10, choose from the people (A-D). The people may be chosen more than once. (10 pts)

(CPE succeed)

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Which person gives each of these opinions about the education system?

1. …………….. The testing of very young people to determine their academic pedigree is

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unethical.

2. …………….. The education system is designed in such a way as to unfairly favour people

who have the money to invest in private education. 3. …………….. Students in countries where extra evening classes have to he attended are more prone to feeling the effects of extreme tiredness.

4. …………….. The policy of giving out higher grades is making a mockery of the entire testing system. 5. …………….. The degree of difficulty of modern examinations is a lot lower than was the case for students sitting the same exams in the past.

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6. …………….. Children are more likely to engage with what they are learning if technology is incorporated into the teaching methods used.

7. …………….. While our third level education system is well funded and very modern, we have neglected the primary level, where more investment is required.

8. …………….. Students should not have to overly exert themselves study-wise in the evenings as they must also have the opportunity to enjoy their youth.

9. …………….. While we are often quick to criticise the education system, most of us

appreciate how fortunate we are in this country to have such a good one.

due to the financial constraints they are under.

10. …………….. Many capable people are prevented from pursuing a third level education

HAVE YOU SAY….. ON EDUCATION Four ordinary people give their views on the country’s educational system.

British

Education

system

The

EDWARD

MICHELLE

is I think our education system still commands

fundamentally flawed in numerous ways. For a lot of respect and I think many other

a start, I believe the 11-Plus exam is morally countries are still envious of the kinds of

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reprehensible. Children develop at different programmes we have in place, but I also speeds, so to promote a situation where we worry that we are not investing enough divide up our young so early based on their money into schools to enable them to keep

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performance in one stupid test seems to me up with the latest classroom innovations. I

ridiculous. Those who pass the 11-Plus are mean, sure, our universities are state-of-theclassed as success stories and they are art, but the formative years are the most expected to go on to do great things important of all, and, as far as education is academically speaking in what essentially concerned, this means that it would be wise

becomes

self-fulfilling

prophecy. to invest more in the facilities and resources

Meanwhile, at such a young age, those who of primary schools where young children don't manage to pass are already being will reap the benefits. Technologically labelled as failures and are told to set their speaking, I would say a lot of our schools are sights low.

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behind the rest of the developed world. In

This, sadly, also becomes a self-fulfilling Japan, for example, every classroom has at

prophecy - of the worst kind if you expect to least one computer, as well as a projector perform poorly and are of a mindset to do so, screen and a number of other technology-

you will effectively underperform - it is as driven interactive tools. It is vital, in this, the good as guaranteed. I see no reason why we information age, that we introduce kids to

have to set children up for a fall like this so technology as early as possible, and that's

early in life and divide them up into a two-tier why I strongly feel that there is now a greater

education system which provides the upper - need than ever to kit out our primary schools

tier with a massive advantage over the lower with the latest gadgets. Besides, the children

one. I mean, our society has enough class- of the information age are becoming so based problems without manufacturing more. accustomed to using technology in the other

And that brings me to my next criticism. I areas of their lives that they will more likely

believe the education system in this country is respond well to technology-based lessons

biased towards the privileged. Let's face it, than the traditional kind, which will see

them

learning

the best education is the one which money ultimately

KĂ&#x2C6;

can buy. Fee-paying schools consistently effectively, engaging more genuinely and outperform schools in the state system, and developing more speedily. only the wealthy can exploit the unfair

ALAN

áş Y

advantage enjoyed by students who attend I have a problem with the testing these exclusive institutions. And if that wasn't mechanisms used today. I mean, if you look

bad enough - as if ordinary working class at the statistics for the exams every year, people didn't face an uphill struggle already, there is one striking pattern; more and more if they do manage to make it through to people are getting As; the nation's results on

university, they are then expected to pay average are getting better and better year-onastronomical fees. In many cases, they are year. So, that means one of two things: either simply priced out of a third-level education or students today are smarter than ever before, are forced to take on a massive burden of debt or their examinations are watered down and

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to finance their studies. Meanwhile, mummy's do not represent a fair test. little Eton boy can have his pick of I personally believe the latter is true and l am universities and cost is no barrier. It is sad incensed that this is being allowed to happen. really just how unfair the whole system is. ELEANOR

In ten or fifteen years' time, it will have

gotten to the stage where an A is meaningless

People often groan about the faults of our if this continues. In order for the education

education system, but I think we just like to system to be taken seriously, it is vital,

how lucky examination system takes place and that we

actually only too aware

complain; my gut feeling is that most people are therefore, that a complete overhaul of the

they are to have such a high quality of formal return to a situation where examinations offer

education open to them for free all the way up to a meaningful challenge and a true test of the end of secondary school. What we take for ability. That way, when a child receives an

granted - free education – is not something A, his or her achievement will feel genuine;

students from other parts of the world nec- it will have been earned and the child

essarily enjoy. The standard of teaching in our concerned will have the right to feel very

schools is also second-to-none. Another thing proud of themselves. The problem is, in this

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which can't be said everywhere. I mean, in country, we have forgotten that there is Greece, for example, state school teachers are absolutely no shame in getting a B, or a C or often so indifferent that students are forced D grade for that matter. Provided we do our

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to attend extra study classes at night - the cost of best, that is always good enough. But, in this which has to be borne by their parents. Not alone politically correct world-gone-mad of ours,

is this a waste of money, it also eats into students' assessors seem to think the only way for free time. The situation is similar in South Korea - ward is to give more and more of US the students have private lessons in the evenings to best grades, devaluing the grading system

help them improve their state school grades, and completely. It is as though they don't think sometimes, between state school classes, private we could take it if we got anything less than lessons and homework, there are literally not an A; as though we should all somehow be enough hours in the day, leading to exhaustion perfect students. The problem with that is

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and burnout in a worst-case scenario, and, even in that it is just not realistic, and, when you set the best one, a significant reduction in the amount unrealistic objectives, the only way to

of leisure time available to pursue healthy achieve them is to ‘play’ with the figures to activities and partake in the kind of fun and games manufacture the right results….. that should characterize youth. In Britain, we go to school from 9 am until 4 p.m.; we have the

evening to enjoy being young and that is how it

should be; to quote a well-known proverb, 'you-re

only young once'.

2. ……………

6. ……………

7. ……………

3. ……………

1. ……………

Your answers:

5. ……………

9. ……………

10. ………..…

8. ……………

4. ……………

PART IV. WRITING (60 pts)

Question 13. Read the following extract and use your own words to summarize it (in

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about 80 words). You MUST NOT copy or rewrite the original: (10 pts) Parents whose children show special interest in a particular sport have a difficult

decision to make about their children's careers. Should they allow their children to train

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to become top sportsmen and women? For many children, it means starting very young and schoolwork, going out with friends and other interests have to take second place. It's

very difficult to explain to a young child why he or she has to train for five hours a day, even at the weekend, when most of his friends are playing.

Another problem is of course money. In many countries, money for training is available from the government for the very best young sportsmen and women. If this help cannot be given, it means that it is the parents who have to find the time and money to support their child's development - and sports clothes, transport to competitions, special

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equipment etc… can all be very expensive. Many parents are understandably worried that it is dangerous to start serious

training in a sport at an early age. Some doctors agree that young muscles may be

damaged by training before they are properly developed. Professional trainers, however, believe that it is only by starting young that you can reach the top as a successful sports person. What is clear is that very few people reach the top and both parents and children

should be prepared for the failure even after many years of training.

………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………

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……………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………

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……………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………

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……………………………………………………………………………………………… Question 14:

The first chart below shows how energy is used in an average Australian household. The second chart shows the greenhouse gas emissions which result from this energy use.

Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make

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comparisons where relevant. You should write about 150 words. (20 pts)

………………………………………………………………………………………………

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……………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………… 24

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………………………………………………………………………………………………

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……………………………………………………………………………………………… Question 15:

As mass communication and transport continue to grow, societies are becoming more and more alike leading to a phenomenon known as globalization. Some people fear that globalization will inevitably lead to the total loss of cultural identity.

To what extent do you agree or disagree with this statement? (30 pts)

You should write at least 350 words.

………………………………………………………………………………………………

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……………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………

THE END

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Người ra đề

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Nguyễn Thị Diệu Thúy Số điện thoại: 0941658383

Lê Thị Thúy Phương Số điện thoại: 0379655516

TRẠI HÈ HÙNG VƯƠNG LẦN THỨ XV

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM

TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN TỈNH HÀ GIANG

MÔN TIẾNG ANH LỚP 11

PART I. LISTENING (50 pts) Question 1. ( 20 pts)

2.0 points for each correct answer.

2. extremely hard

3. carbon-based substances

4. roots

5. moist/ damp/ wet

6. variety

8. gardens/ gardening

9. cultivating grasses

2. A better climate

4. France

5. Low-cost airlines

3. Their prime motivation

2.0 points for each correct answer. 3. F

2. NG

Question 3. (10 pts)

4. T

5. F

2.0 points for each correct answer.

Question 4. (10 pts) 2. A

3. C

4. B

5. C

1. A

10. payment/ payments/ money

2.0 points for each correct answer.

1. Around 800,000

1. F

7. cattle

Question 2. (10 pts)

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1. dry

PART II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (30 pts)

1.0 point for each correct answer.

2. B

3. B

4. D

5. A

6. C

7. C

8. C

9. A

10. D

12. B

13. C

14. D

15. B

1. D

11. A

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Question 6. (10 pts)

1.0 point for each correct answer.

1. highlights/highlighted

6. withdrawn

2. apportioned

7. inconsiderable

ẠY D

Question 5. (15 pts)

3. lengths

8. majority

4. Additionally

9. (re)payments

5. existing

10. irresponsible

Question 7. (5.0 pts)

1.0 point for each correct answer.

1. strict → strictly

2. receiving → received

4. little → few

5. depend → depending

3. masses → mass

Whirlwind, any rotating air mass, (0) include the tornado and the large cyclonic and anti-cyclonic storm. In meteorology, the term whirlwind is more strict applied to the smaller swirling atmospheric phenomenon commonly known as dust devil or dust whirl, which occurs mostly over deserts and semiarid plains during hot, calm days. The principal cause of whirlwinds is intense insulation, or incoming solar

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radiation receiving by the earth, which produces an overheated air mass just above the ground. This air masses rises, usually in the form of a cylindrical column,

sucking up loose surface material, such as dust, sand, and leaves. Whirlwinds vary in height from 30 to 152 m, but exceptionally vigorous dust devils may exceed 1524

m in height. The vortices of whirlwinds range in size from a little meters to several

hundred meters and, depend on their force and size, dust devils may disappear in seconds or last several hours. Brief whirlwinds are erratic in motion, but the longer-

lasting ones move slowly with the prevailing winds.

PART III. READING (60 pts)

6. D

7. C

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2. to

1. never/rarely

8. C

Question 9: (10 pts)

3. C

2. D

5. C

9. A

10. B

1.0 point for each correct answer 6. out 7. take

3. once

8. at

4. go

9. Turning

5. themselves

10. showing

áş Y D

4. A

1. D

1.0 point for each correct answer

Question 8: (10 pts)

Question 10: (10 pts)

1.0 point for each correct answer

1. B

2. D

3. C

4. B

5. A

6. A

7. C

8. B

9. D

10. D

2.0 points for each correct answer

1. ii

2. vii

3. i

6. False

7. True

8. NOT GIVEN

9. vertical integration

4. v

5. vi

10. movie moguls

Question 12. (10 pts)

1.0 point for each correct answer

2. A

3. B

4. D

6. C

7. C

8. B

9. B

1. A

PART IV. WRITING (60 pts)

Question 13: Writing a summary: (10 pts)

- Neither too long nor too short

1. Completion: 1 pts 2. Content: 3 pts

- Cover the original as a whole.

- Be presented in a neutral fashion.

3. Organization: 2 pts

- The ideas are well-organized

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4. Language: 2 pts

- Present the ideas in your own words

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- Use a wide range of vocabulary - Good grammar & structures

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Question 11: (20 pts)

- Easy to understand 5. Punctuation and spelling: 2 pts Question 14: (20 pts) 1. Completion: 4 pts 3

5. D

10. A

2. Content: 5 pts - Cover the main information in the chart yet not go into too many details. - Make general remarks and effective comparisons.

- The ideas are well organized - The description is sensibly divided into paragraphs 4. Language: 4pts

- Use a wide range of vocabulary and structure

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3. Organisation: 4 pts

N -

Providing all main ideas and details as required

Communicating intentions sufficiently and

1. Content: (40%)

Question 15: (35 pts)

5. Punctuation and spelling: 3 pts

- Good grammar

effectively

KÈ ẠY D 3. Organization and Presentation: (20%)

Demonstration of a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English

2. Language: (40%)

language gifted upper-secondary school students -

Good use and control of grammatical structures

Good punctuation and no spelling mistakes

Legible handwriting

Ideas are well organized and presented with coherence, cohesion, and clarity 4

The essay is well-structured

TAPESCRIPTS Question 1

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As we saw in the last lecture, a major cause of climate change is the rapid rise in the level of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere over the last century. If we could reduce the amount of CO2, perhaps the rate of climate change could also be slowed down.

One potential method involves enhancing the role of the soil that plants grow in, with regard to absorbing CO2. Rattan Lai, a soil scientist from Ohio State University, in the

USA, claims that the world’s agricultural soils could potentially absorb 13 per cent of the carbon dioxide in the atmosphere – the equivalent of the amount released in the

last 30 years. And research is going on into how this might be achieved. Lai first came to the idea that soil might be valuable in this way not through an

interest in climate change, but rather out of concern for the land itself and the people

dependent on it. Carbon-rich soil is dark, crumbly and fertile, and retains some water.

But erosion can occur if soil is dry, which is a likely effect if it contains inadequate

amounts of carbon. Erosion is of course bad for people trying to grow crops or breed

animals on that terrain. In the 1970s and ‘80s. Lai was studying soils in Africa so devoid of organic matter that the ground had become extremely hard like cement.

There he met a pioneer in the study of global warming, who suggested that carbon

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from the soil had moved into the atmosphere. This is now looking increasingly likely. Let me explain. For millions of years, carbon dioxide levels in the atmosphere have

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been regulated, in part, by a natural partnership between plants and microbes – tiny organisms in the soil. Plants absorb CO2 from the air and transform it into sugars and

other carbon-based substances. While a proportion of these carbon products remain in

the plant, some transfer from the roots to fungi and soil microbes, which store the carbon in the soil.

The invention of agriculture some 10,000 years ago disrupted these ancient soilbuilding processes and led to the loss of carbon from the soil. When humans started draining the natural topsoil, and ploughing it up for planting, they exposed the buried carbon to oxygen. This created carbon dioxide and released it into the air. And in

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some places, grazing by domesticated animals has removed all vegetation, releasing carbon into the air. Tons of carbon have been stripped from the world’s soils – where it’s needed – and pumped into the atmosphere.

So what can be done? Researchers are now coming up with evidence that even modest changes to farming can significantly help to reduce the amount of carbon in

the atmosphere.

Some growers have already started using an approach known as regenerative

agriculture. This aims to boost the fertility of soil and keep it moist through

established practices. These include keeping fields planted all year round, and

increasing the variety of plants being grown. Strategies like these can significantly

increase the amount of carbon stored in the soil, so agricultural researchers are now

building a case for their use in combating climate change.

One American investigation into the potential for storing CO2 on agricultural lands is

taking place in California. Soil scientist Whendee Silver of the University of California, Berkeley, is conducting a first-of-its-kind study on a large cattle farm in

the state. She and her students are testing the effects on carbon storage of the compost

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that is created from waste – both agricultural, including manure and cornstalks, and waste produced in gardens, such as leaves, branches, and lawn trimmings.

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In Australia, soil ecologist Christine Jones is testing another promising soilenrichment strategy. Jones and 12 farmers are working to build up soil carbon by

cultivating grasses that stay green all year round. Like composting, the approach has already been proved experimentally: Jones now hopes to show that it can be applied on working farms and the resulting carbon capture can be accurately measured. It’s hoped in the future that projects such as these will demonstrate the role that farmers and other land managers can play in reducing the harmful effects of 6

greenhouse gases. For example, in countries like the United States, where most farming operations use large applications of fertilizer, changing such long-standing habits will require a change of system. Rattan Lai argues that farmers should receive payment not just for the corn or beef they produce, but also for the carbon they can

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store in their soil. Another study being carried out … Question 2

Speaker: Attracted by the prospect of their own place in the sun and an easy way of

making money, the number of British people owning a second home abroad is

booming as never before. Around 800,000 British households now own a second

home abroad, up by 15 percent since June 2004, according to research published this

week.

The boom has been fuelled by television programmes about people buying abroad

and assisted by the rise in property values in Britain, low interest rates and the availability of cheap no-thrill flights. A better climate remains the main reason, with

more than half of the nearly 2,000 people questioned giving that as their principal

reason for buying overseas. However, an increasing number are seeking to invest in

new-builds, with 40 percent of respondents saying that making money was their prime motivation, while 38 percent wanted a future retirement property and

somewhere to take their family. A senior financial analyst said that the property

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boom has increased levels of housing equity while the low interest rate environment has allowed other prospective property purchasers to take advantage of relatively

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cheap borrowing.

Overall, Spain remains the most popular destination for living abroad, with 43 percent naming it as their preferred location; next is France, followed by Australia and Italy. Despite the increased interest in eastern European countries, they still remain a target for a minority, with only 7 percent choosing such destinations.

People like Bulgaria, because it is a short flight from London, enjoys a Mediterranean-style climate in summer as well as skiing in the winter. It has safe swimming in the Black Sea and boasts the cheapest property prices in Europe. Additionally, it is about to join the EU and low-cost airlines are expected to expand

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their routes there. However, many of the latest wave of buyers plunged in without considering the

consequences after watching television programmes. Generally, it tends to work better if you want a holiday home rather than an investment, because a lot of people don’t realise that tax and inheritance laws are different abroad. Plus, ownership rights

can also be problematic.

Question 3

Presenter: We have in the studio today Vernon Hall, an expert on theater history, to

tell us all about Helen Perry, one of the greatest actresses of all time.

Vernon: Helen Perry was born in 1847, right in the middle of the nineteenth century, when the theatre was the main form of public entertainment. Her acting career didn’t

actually get off to a very promising start, which was not surprising given that acting

was considered an unsuitable career for a young woman. So she waited until she was

22 before going on stage, to avoid her parents’ disapproval.

Once on the stage, she found that she had other problems. Although her first part was

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very small, she had great trouble learning the lines and, according to her, this was something she found difficult throughout her acting career. However, this did not prevent her from becoming an incredibly successful actress. people who saw her act

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said that the thing that made her so special was her voice – apparently, it had an

almost hypnotic quality. However, it nearly brought her career to an abrupt end when she was in her fifties. Her voice just got lower and huskier and she quite often lost it when she had a cold. Finally she had a very risky throat operation – which paid off, because she went on acting for another 25 years after that.

Helen Perry is now remembered as a great classical actress but she was actually very skilful. She was, for example, a great comedy actress which was what really gave her broad popular appeal. And she was immensely popular. At the height of her fame, people could buy all sorts of mementos like postcards and paperweights with her

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picture on. She was one of the first stars to have a perfume named in her honour, and that brand, simple called “Helen”, remained on sale until quite recently.

It’s always been known that several famous plays were written for her, but what isn’t

so well-known is that she had literary talent herself because we have the letters she exchanged with on writer and they show she had great style and wit.

Some people feel that she should have retired earlier, when she was at her peak, but

personally, I disagree. We have no film of her acting, of course, but from the reviews

of her performances towards the end of her career we can see that although she had

difficulty walking, she is still described as magnetic.

She picked up quite a few honorary degrees from various universities, something

which had never happened to an actress before. She was pleased to get academic

recognition, of course, but what really pleased her was the way that the audiences

loved her, and that was all the recognition she really needed. She’ll certainly never be

Question 4

forgotten.

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Greg: Serving more than 200,000 meals a year would be a challenge for any chef, but step up constraints of time, space and a demand for culinary excellence and you have the life of a railway chef. Chris and Jane, the idea of having to cook in cramped

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surroundings, with limited ingredients and a very tight schedule, as you did in the

recent competition, must have been a terrifying prospect … Chris: Well, hardly – I actually operate under those restrictions every day! Jane: That’s true, of course, we both do – but there’s always the added danger that things can go wrong, and the challenge of preparing a top-quality, three-course meal for four – which costs no more than £50 – and in front of all those judges! 9

Greg: Well, Jane, you were a runner up and Chris came first. I gather you faced some stiff competition from the other finalists. Jane: No doubt about that. All the chefs who entered the competition were brilliant in their own way – but someone has to win! But the real problem is trying to be creative

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as the train hurtles through the countryside at over 100 miles an hour – there’s little room for mistakes – and you have to be able to keep your balance!

Chris: Actually, I’d only been a railway chef for three months. And I can tell you

that life on board is no easy ride. There’s no nipping out to get the extra bunch of parsley, or a lemon.

Greg: But you’re used to working under pressure all the same, aren’t you? How do

you set about being organized?

Chris: You’ve just got to make sure you’re focused on the job. Being able to keep an

eye on a dozen things at once is also an advantage!

Greg: But do you actually enjoy what you’re doing?

Jane: There’s plenty of scope to express yourself as a chef in the job – and the open

kitchen means that customers will often compliment you personally on the food.

That’s one of the biggest highlights of the job.

Chris: I’d certainly go along with that. Very few restaurant chefs have the chance to

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experience that.

Greg: And what about the menus, who decides what to cook?

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Jane: They’re decided in advance for the whole railway network by two extremely

famous chefs, who are actually brothers. I suppose we both find it restricting. Chris: Hmm. I do get a bit frustrated from time to time – think I could be a little more adventurous – but it’s all a question of adaptability – which I suspect Jane is better at than I am! Jane: Not at all – I can be quite inflexible when the mood takes me! 10

Greg: So what would be a typical routine for you both? Chris: You have to start at around 5.30 in the morning – check that all the ingredients have been delivered – then it’s a mad rush to get everything ready. Jane: And precious little time to rest any other time during the day, as you often have

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to set tables on other trains and help other staff. Timing’s particularly tight, you see.

In other restaurants orders come in and go out over two or three hours, but we have to turn round before the passengers reach their stations. It’s all a bit nerve-racking. Greg: So what motivated you to do this in the first place?

Chris: I’ve been on the move ever since I left college. So when I got engaged, I

decided it was time to settle down. So when I saw this job, this seemed a reasonable

compromise between personal commitments and my reluctance to stay in one place.

Jane: For me it was something that just caught my eye – not just ordinary run-of-the-

mill stuff. And, if you get the time, you get a good view out of the windows!

Greg: And how do you stop things from spilling over when the train moves?

Chris: It’s not a problem for me. I was a chef on a liner, so I’ve got plenty of

experience of cookery in motion!

Jane: Yes, but I think it helps if you only half fill saucepans with boiling water –

even so, they often spill over and you start saying nasty things to yourself about the

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driver – and it’s not usually his fault! Chris: Let’s just say that you quickly learn not to put things under the grill without

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keeping an eye on them!

Greg: Has either of you had any major disasters? Chris: [laughs] I’d only been in the job for three days and I had this huge roast in the over. I opened the door, turned around for a moment, distracted, I suppose, and it just flew out. Fortunately it landed in the sink, so it was okay. Greg: And what qualities would you say it was necessary for a railway chef to have? 11

Jane: From my point of view, dedication and determination – you won’t get anywhere without these! Chris: And, let’s admit it! – a sense of humor. There have been times when I would

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have resigned long ago if I hadn’t had that!

Người ra đề

Nguyễn Thị Diệu Thúy

Số điện thoại: 0941658383 Lê Thị Thúy Phương

ẠY

KÈ

Số diện thoại: 0379655516

KÌ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI NĂM 2019

TRẠI HÈ HÙNG VƯƠNG

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH - LỚP 11

HOÀNG VĂN THỤ, HÒA BÌNH

Thời gian: 180 phút

-----------

Đề thi gồm .....trang

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TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN

ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT

I. LISTENING (50/200) Part 1: Listen to a radio programme about Biomimicry, the science of copying nature in order to create new technologies and fill in the missing information. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS taken from the recording for each answer in the spaces provided. (20 pts) Biomimicry imitates nature’s structures, processes and (1) _________ to create new ideas. Velcro was invented in (2) _________. It was developed after its inventor observed the sticking qualities of one particular plant’s (3) _________. Wood has the beneficial feature of being able to (4) ______ The synthetic ‘wood’ created for the post office will not (5) ________ according to surrounding environmental conditions. The Namibian Fog Basking beetle uses its ability to (6)________ in order to live in harsh conditions. A (7) _______ on the beetle’s shell repels water and aids the formation of large droplets. The Sahara Forest project utilised this concept in the design of a (8) ____________. The ‘Able Project’ uses (9) _______from the composting process as an input to the fish farm. The extinction of one species of (10) ________has prevented scientists from finding a cure for excess stomach acid.

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Part 2: Listen to the talk with the new staff who haven’t been involved with the volunteering projects and answer the following questions. USE NO MORE THAN FOUR WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. Write your answer in the spaces provided.(10 pts) 1. How much time for volunteering does the company allow per employee?

................................................................................................................................ 2. What did some staff do to help unemployed people last year? ................................................................................................................................ 3. What will the company do with a local park this year? ................................................................................................................................ 1

4. Where will the Digital Inclusion Day be held? ................................................................................................................................

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5. What should staff do if they want to take part in the Digital Inclusion Day? ................................................................................................................................ Part 3: Listen to a discussion on the history of an English word and decide whether these statements are True (T) or False (F). (10 pts) 1. The topic that the students choose is a little bizarre. 2. The students decided to go for the word ‘nice’ mainly because it’s so wellknown. 3. Listening to interesting lectures inspired the students to research the history of the word. 4. The students agree they need to add computer software to their presentation. 5. With regard to the reading background, Ruby is worried about its overlap with other modules. Part 4. Listen to a conversation on a university campus and choose the correct option. (10 points)

1. What is the woman’s status at the university?

B. She is a junior.

A. She is a senior.

D. She’s a graduate student.

C. She’s a transfer student.

2. What is the man’s status at the university? B. He is a tutor.

C. He’s a transfer student.

D. He’s a graduate student.

A. He is a senior.

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3. What does the man want to learn from the woman? A. How to transfer to a junior college.

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B. How to find his way around campus.

C. The course requirements for a literature major. D. Who won the campus election. 4. How many total courses must a student take for a literature major? A. Three

B. Five

C. Eight

D. Ten

5. The man will probably take his elective courses in which area? 2

A. American literature

B. World literature

C. Literary analysis

D. Surveying

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II. LEXICO – GRAMMAR (30/200) Part 1. Choose the answer ( A, B, C or D) that best fits each of the following questions.(15 pts) 1. Every year on January 8th, thousands of fans travel to Graceland in Memphis, Tennessee to __________ the king of Rock and Roll, Elvis Presley. A. visit upon D. memorize

B. pay homage to

C. pay attention to

B. singled

C. separated

A. selected distinguished

2. Can you ...................... to it that no one uses this entrance A. ensure B. guarantee C. assure D. see 3. I was proud to be ....................... out for special praise for my performance.

A. a matter of course

4. For children in poor countries, access to clean water is _________________.

D. a matter of fact

C. a matter of life and death

B. a different matter

B. labour

C. endeavor

A. effort

5. The idea of manual _____________ doesn’t appeal to me at all. D. exercise

6. When I got struck in the elevator, I was scared out of my ________.

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A. brains

B. head

C. wits

D. nerve

7. He seemed very quiet, but it would be a mistake to ______ his intelligence. B. depreciate

C. underrate

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A. devalue minimize

8. Would you like to pay _______ to all musicians who made this wonderful concert possible? A. praise

B. reward

C. tribute

D. thanks

9. If some experts are correct, the technological revolution is only in its _______________. B. infancy

C. youth

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A. childhood nativity

10. Work hard, try your best and one day you will _____________ all your ambition. A. win

B. get

C. have

D. realize

11. Because of the dominance of retail chain-stores, most shopping centers show the same bland _______ and no imagination. A. similarity B. likeness C. equality D. uniformity 12. She wears the most _______ color combinations you could ever imagine. A. hiding B. hideout C. hidebound D. hideous 13. It would help _______ me, if you could go to the Post Office for me. A. totally B. absolutely C. enormously D. largely 14. The plastic surgery must have cost the ________, but there’s no denying she looks younger. A. world B. planet C. universe D. earth 15. A few of the older campers were sent home after a week as they were ________. A. lenient B. erratic C. unruly D. indulgent Part 2: Write the correct form of each bracketed word in the following passage. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10pts)

BLACK WIDOW SPIDER

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The black widow spider’s (0. NOTORIOUS) is not without foundation. However, an element of exaggeration has led to certain (1. CONCEPT) ________ regarding its evil nature. Firstly, this spider is not as dangerous as is often thought. While it is indeed one of the most (2. VENOM) ________ species of spider, its venom being fifteen times stronger than that of the prairie rattlesnake, its bite injects such as amount of venom by (3. COMPARE) ________ that it is unlikely to kill humans. In fact, (4. FATAL) ________ are rare. Black widows bite only if they are touched or their web is threatened. Furthermore, only the adult female is poisonous. Those most at risk from the female are the spider’s natural pray-insects and male black widow spiders. The latter are vulnerable as the female is (5. SOLITUDE) ________ by nature, and 4

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has been known to kill and eat the male after mating. Such (6. OCCUR) ________ are rare, but they explain how the spider got its name – and its reputation. Nevertheless, the (7. PLEASE) ________ effects of this spider’s bite should not be (8. ESTIMATE) ________ , and if you live in a temperate climate and have a fireplace in your home, it is advisable to take (9. CAUTION) ________ . Black widow spiders often inhabit wood piles, so you should wear gloves when handling firewood. Furthermore, since black widow spiders are (10. RESIST) ________ to many insecticides, you should regularly clean out likely hiding places. Example: 0. NOTORIOUS notoriety Part 3: The passage below contains 5 mistakes. Identify the mistakes and write the corrections in the corresponding numbered boxes. (0.5 pt) Line The truth about shopping on Instagram Instagram has had a democratic effect on fashion: there are plenty of small 1 brands that are built for the platform, or rather, Instagram built them. They can 2 3 swerve all the things you usually need to set up a shop (major finance, 4 infrastructure, bricks and mortar) and focus on a good targeted ad strategy. 5 Some have the authentic tang of artisan fashion. Digital natives can 6 discriminate quite easily among a genuine insurgent brand and my non-brand, 7 non-fashion items, partly by reading reviews, partly because they can read the 8 visual language. Paris Starn, creative director of Paris 99, a reputed Los 9 Angeles-based brand, tells me that “a way for designers to use Instagram 10 thoughtfully is to put the same creativity they have into designing into 11 conceptualising photographs”. Live your values, photograph your stuff in the 12 same spirit as you created it, in other words, and people will want it. Starn 13 explains: “Our SS19 lookbook shoot used friends of the brand to model and 14 photograph the clothing, and took place in a decades-old diner, reference the designer’s love for Americana culture and baking.” You do not have to be a genius to see the difference between those and a super-airbrushed studio shot of some dungarees. III. READING (60/200) Part 1. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 pts) Cheetah: not your average big cat 5

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That the cheetah is the fastest of the big cats is beyond dispute and common 1.________, with it having reportedly been clocked at speeds in excess of 70mph. However, whilst it has impressive acceleration over short distances, it could not 2.________sustain such speeds for any significant length of time. Therefore, when hunting, it relies largely on the 3.________of surprise to use its speed to good advantage. Otherwise, in a prolonged hunt, it will 4.________wanting in the stamina department and generally have to abandon the chase. Still on the 5.________of running, incredibly, a sprinting cheetah is actually completely airborne more than fifty percent of the time. Indeed, at full 6.________, its single stride length is an impressive seven metres. Cheetahs are peculiar amongst big cats, though, because, aside from their breath-taking speed, their performance in other areas actually leaves a lot to be 7.________. For instance, their nocturnal vision is little better than our own. Uncharacteristically for a big cat, too, females are 8.________ to be loners, whilst it is males that are more likely to 9.________, frequently in groups up to five. The 10.________ noun for a group of male cheetahs is a coalition. 1. A. knowledge B. fact C. data D. news 2. A. conceivably B. perceivably C. comprehensivelyD. predictably 3. A. segment B. feature C. portion D. element 4. A. show B. prove C. confirm D. disclose 5. A. course B. field C. subject D. content 6. A. rate B. throttle C. rush D. scurry 7. A. desired B. required C. craved D. fancied 8. A. convinced B. swayed C. prompted D. inclined 9. A. conjoin B. congest C. congregate D. contend 10.A. possessive B. collective C. reciprocal D. indefinite

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Part 2: For questions 1-10, fill each of the following numbered blanks with ONE suitable word and write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (10 pts) THE PSYCHOLOGY OF SELLING The psychology of retailing has come to rely on highly sophisticated techniques. Over and (1) _______ the design of the shops and the packaging of the merchandise, clever positioning of goods also ensures that the natural flow of people takes them to (2) ________ and every section in a shop. Customers are

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led gently, but at the same time with deadly accuracy, towards the merchandise in such a way (3) _______ to maximise sales. Manufacturers compete for the right to have their products displayed at the most effective level. In supermarkets, there is a crucial section in the tiers of vertical shelving somewhere between waist height and eye (4) _______, where we are most likely to take note of a brand. In the old days, when we went into a shop, we (5) _______our way up to the counter, behind (6) _______ would be the shopkeeper and virtually all of the merchandise, and were served with what we wanted. Those days are (7) _______ and truly over. Today, we are used to serving (8) _______ in supermarkets; products are laid before us as enticingly as (9) _______, and impulse purchases are encouraged as a major part of the exercise. As a result of this, we, as shoppers, have to keep our wits (10) ______ us to resist the retailers’ ploys. Part 3: Read the text and choose the best answer A, B, C or D. (10 points) It is often helpful when thinking about biological processes to consider some apparently similar yet better understood non-biological process. In the case of visual perception an obvious choice would be color photography. Since in many respects eyes resemble cameras, and percepts photographs, is it not reasonable to assume that perception is a sort of photographic process whereby samples of the external world become spontaneously and accurately reproduced somewhere inside our heads? Unfortunately, the answer must be no. The best that can be said of the photographic analogy is that it points up what perception is not. Beyond this it is superficial and misleading. Four simple experiments should make the matter plain. In the first a person is asked to match a pair of black and white discs, which are rotating at such a speed as to make them appear uniformly grey. One disc is standing in shadow, the other in bright illumination. By adjusting the ratio of black to white in one of the discs the subject tries to make it look the same as the other. The results show him to be remarkably accurate, for it seems he has made the proportion of black to white in the brightly illuminated disc almost identical with that in the disc which stood in shadow. But there is nothing photographic about his perception, for when the matched discs, still spinning, are photographed, the resulting print shows them to be quite dissimilar in appearance. The disc in shadow is obviously very much darker than the other one. What has happened? Both the camera and the person were accurate, but their criteria differed. One might say that the camera recorded things as they look, and the person things as they are. But the situation is manifestly more 7

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complex than this, for the person also recorded things as they look. He did better than the camera because he made them look as they really are. He was not misled by the differences in illumination. He showed perceptual constancy. By reason of an extremely rapid, wholly unconscious piece of computation he received a more accurate record of the external world than could the camera.

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In the second experiment a person is asked to match with a color card the colors of two pictures in dim illumination. One is of a leaf, the other of a donkey. Both are colored an equal shade of green. In making his match he chooses a much stronger green for the leaf than for the donkey. The leaf evidently looks greener than the donkey. The percipient makes a perceptual world compatible with his own experience. It hardly needs saying that cameras lack this versatility. In the third experiment hungry, thirsty and satiated people are asked to equalize the brightness of pictures depicting food, water and other objects unrelated to hunger or thirst. When the intensities at which they set the pictures are measured it is found that hungry people see pictures relating to food as brighter than the rest (i.e. to equalize the pictures they make the food ones less intense), and thirsty people do likewise with “drink” pictures. For the satiated group no differences are obtained between the different objects. In other words, perception serves to satisfy needs, not to enrich subjective experience. Unlike a photograph the percept is determined by more than just the stimulus. The fourth experiment is of a rather different kind. With ears plugged, their eyes beneath translucent goggles and their bodies either encased in cotton wool, or floating naked in water at body temperature, people are deprived for considerable periods of external stimulation. Contrary to what one might expect, however, such circumstances result not in a lack of perceptual experience but rather a surprising change in what is perceived. The subjects in such an experiment begin to see, feel and hear things which bear no more relationship to the immediate external world than does a dream in someone who is asleep. These people are not asleep yet their hallucinations, or so-called “autistic” perceptions, may be as vivid, if not more so, than any normal percept. 1. In the first paragraph, the author suggests that A. color photography is a biological process. B. vision is rather like color photography. C. vision is a sort of photographic process. D. vision and color photography are very different. 8

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2. What does the word “it”, underlined in the first paragraph, refer to? A. perception B. the photographic process C. the comparison with photography D. the answer 3. In the first experiment, it is proved that a person A. makes mistakes of perception and is less accurate than a camera. B. can see more clearly than a camera. C. is more sensitive to changes in light than a camera. D. sees colors as they are in spite of changes in the light. 4. What does the word “that”, underlined in the second paragraph, refer to? A. the proportion of black to white B. the brightly illuminated disc C. the other disc D. the grey color 5. The second experiment shows that A. people see colors according to their ideas of how things should look. B. colors look different in a dim light. C. cameras work less efficiently in a dim light. D. colors are less intense in larger objects. 6. What does the word “satiated”, underlined in the fourth paragraph, means? A. tired B. bored C. not hungry or thirsty D. nervous 7. What does “to equalize the brightness", underlined in the fourth paragraph, mean? A. to arrange the pictures so that the equally bright ones are together B. to change the lighting so that the pictures look equally bright C. to describe the brightness D. to move the pictures nearer or further away 8. The third experiment proves that A. we see things differently according to our interest in them. B. pictures of food and drink are especially interesting to everybody. C. cameras are not good at equalizing brightness. D. satiated people see less clearly than hungry or thirsty people. 9. The expression “contrary to what one might expect” occurs the fifth paragraph. What might one expect? A. that the subjects would go to sleep. B. that they would feel uncomfortable and disturbed. C. that they would see, hear and feel nothing. D. that they would see, hear and feel strange things. 10. The fourth experiment proves 9

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A. that people deprived of sense stimulation go mad. B. that people deprived of sense stimulation dream. C. that people deprived of sense stimulation experience unreal things. D. that people deprived of sense stimulation lack perceptual experience. Part 4: The reading passage has seven paragraphs, A–G. Choose the correct heading for paragraphs A–G from the list below. List of Headings Unusual way of hatching the chicks i ii Feeding habit of the red-footed booby iii Folding wings for purpose iv Rearing the young Classification of boobies v vi Diving for seafood vii Surviving mechanism during the food shortage period viii Mating and breeding ix Origin of the booby’s name Paragraph C ix 1 Paragraph A 2 Paragraph B 3 Paragraph D 4 Paragraph E 5 Paragraph F 6 Paragraph G

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Blue-footed Boobies 2 A Boobies are a small group of seabirds native to tropical and subtropical oceans throughout the world. Their diet consists mainly of fish. They are specialized fish eaters feeding on small school fish like sardines, anchovies, mackerel, and flying fish. When their prey is in sight, they fold their long wings back around their streamlined bodies and plunge into the water from as high as 80 feet, so streamlined they barely make a splash. They travel in parties of about 12 to areas of water with large schools of small fish. When the lead bird sees a fish shoal in the water, it will signal the rest of the group and they will all dive together. Surprisingly, individuals do not eat with the hunting group, preferring to eat on their own, usually in the early morning or late afternoon.

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B There are three varieties on the Galapagos: the blue-footed, red-footed, and masked boobies. They are all members of the same family, and are not only different in appearance but also in behaviours. The blue-footed and red-footed boobies mate throughout the year, while the masked boobies have an annual mating cycle that differs from island to island. All catch fish in a similar manner, but in different areas: the blue-footed booby does its fishing close to shore, while the masked booby goes slightly farther out, and the red-footed booby fishes at the farthest distances from shore. C Although it is unknown where the name “Booby” emanates from, some conjecture it may come from the Spanish word for clown, “bobo”, meaning “stupid”. Its name was probably inspired by the bird’s clumsiness on land and apparently unwarranted bravery. The blue footed booby is extremely vulnerable to human visitors because it does not appear to fear them. Therefore these birds received such name for their clumsiness on land in which they were easily, captured, killed, and eaten by humans. D The blue-footed booby’s characteristic feet play a significant part in their famous courtship ceremony, the ‘booby dance’. The male walks around the female, raising his bright blue feet straight up in the air, while bringing his ‘shoulders’ towards the ground and crossing the bottom tips of his wings high above the ground. Plus he’ll raise his bill up towards the sky to try to win his mate over. The female may also partake in these activities – lifting her feet, sky pointing, and of course squawking at her mate. After mating, another ritual occurs – the nest-building which ironically is never used because they nest on the bare ground. When the female is ready to lay her eggs, they scrape the existing nest away so she can nest on exposed ground. Sun-baked islands form the booby’s breeding grounds. When ready the female Blue Footed Booby lays one to three eggs. E After mating, two or three eggs are laid in a shallow depression on flat or gently sloping ground. Both male and female take turns incubating the eggs. Unlike most birds, booby doesn’t develop brood patches (areas of bare skin on the breast) to warm the eggs during incubation. Instead, it uses its broad webbed feet, which have large numbers of prominent blood vessels, to transmit heat essential for incubation. The eggs are thick-shelled so they can withstand the full weight of an incubating bird. F After hatching, the male plays a major role in bringing fish home. He can bring back a constant supply of small fish for the chicks, which must be fed continuously. The reason is that the male has a longer tail than the female in 11

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relation to his body size, which makes him able to execute shallower dives and to feed closer to shore. Then the female takes a greater part as time proceeds. Sooner or later, the need to feed the young becomes greater than the need to protect them and both adults must fish to provide enough. G When times are good, the parents may successfully fledge all three chicks, but, in harder times, they may still lay as many eggs yet only obtain enough food to raise one. The problem is usually solved by the somewhat calloussounding system of “opportunistic sibling murder.” The first-born chick is larger and stronger than its nest mate(s) as a result of hatching a few days earlier and also because the parents feed the larger chick. If food is scarce, the first born will get more food than its nest mate(s) and will outcompete them, causing them to starve. The above system optimizes the reproductive capacity of the blue-foot in an unpredictable environment. The system ensures that, if possible, at least one chick will survive a period of shortage rather than all three dying of starvation under a more ‘humane’ system. Questions 7-10 Complete the summary below, using NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the reading passage for each answer. The courtship of the Blue-footed Booby consists of the male flaunting his blue feet and dancing to impress the female. During the dance, the male will spread his wings and stamp his feet on the ground with his bills 7 …………. After mating, the booby’s unusual demeanor continues with ritual 8 ………… that really serves no purpose. When the female Booby lays eggs, the parental boobies incubate the eggs beneath their 9 …....… which contain 10 ………… to transmit the heat, because of the lack of brood patches. Part 5: Answer questions 1-10, by referring to the magazine article in which four successful career women talk about emigrating to New Zealand. A) Nicky Meiring B) Jenny Orr D) Lucy Kramer

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C) Sarah Hodgetts Which woman...

1. mentions a negative point about a job she has had? 2. explains an advantage of choosing to pursue her career in New Zealand? 3. appreciates the approach to achieving goals in New Zealand? 4. expresses a sense of regret about leaving her country? 12

5. appreciates the honesty she feels exists in New Zealand? 6. denies conforming to a certain stereotype? 7. appreciates New Zealand for its sense of calm and normality?

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8. mentions her move to a different area in the same field?

9. states that her original nationality puts her in an advantageous position? 10. recommends that New Zealanders take more pride in their country?

The Brain Gain

With New Zealand becoming renowned as a great place to live, it was the firstchoice destination for a new generation of talented migrants looking for a better life. Sharon Stephenson talks to four of them.

A) Nicky Meiring, Architect

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Listen to Nicky Meiring talk about South Africa and it soon becomes evident that she’s mourning for a country she once called home. ‘The current economic situation has made South Africa quite a hard place to live in,’ she says, ‘but I do miss it.’ Nicky first arrived in Auckland in 1994 and got a job in an architectural practice in Auckland where she soon settled in. She says ‘New Zealand often feels like utopia. I just love the tranquillity and the fact you can lead a safe and ordinary life.’ She lives and works from a renovated factory where her mantelpiece is littered with awards for the design of her summer house on Great Barrier Island. ‘Although the design of buildings is fairly universal, houses here are generally constructed of timber as opposed to brick and when it comes to the engineering of buildings, I have to take great heed of earthquakes which isn’t an issue in South Africa,’ she says. “But the very fact that my training and points of reference are different means I have something to offer. And I’m so glad I have the opportunity to leave my stamp on my new country.”

B) Jenny Orr, Art Director American Jenny Orr’s southern accent seems more at home in the movies than in New Zealand’s capital, Wellington. ‘I’m from Alabama, but no, we didn’t run around barefoot and my father didn’t play the banjo!’ she jokes, in anticipation of my preconceptions. Having worked in corporate design for ten years in the USA, she was after a change and thought of relocating to New 13

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Zealand. It didn’t take long for her to land a job with an Auckland design firm, where she was able to gain experience in an unfamiliar but challenging area of design -packaging -and before long, she was headhunted to a direct marketing agency which recently transferred her to Wellington. While she admits she could have the same salary and level of responsibility at home, ‘it would probably have been harder to break into this kind of field. I’m not saying I couldn’t have done it, but it may have taken longer in the US because of the sheer number of people paying their dues ahead of me.’ Ask Jenny how she’s contributing to this country’s ‘brain gain’ and she laughs. ‘I don’t see myself as being more talented or intelligent but opposing views are what make strategies, concepts and designs better and I hope that’s what I bring.’

C) Sarah Hodgetts, Creative Planner

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What happens when all your dreams come true? Just ask Sarah Hodgetts. Sarah says that she had always dreamed of a career in advertising. ‘But I was from the wrong class and went to the wrong university. In the UK, if you’re working class you grow up not expecting greatness in your life. You resign yourself to working at the local factory and knowing your place.’ New Zealand, on the other hand, allowed her to break free of those shackles. ‘It’s a land of opportunity. I quickly learned that if you want to do something here, you just go for it, which is an attitude I admire beyond belief.’ Within a month of arriving, she’d landed a job in customer servicing with an advertising agency. Then, when an opening in research came up, she jumped at the chance. ‘My job is to conduct research with New Zealanders,’ she explains. ‘So, I get to meet people from across the social spectrum which is incredibly rewarding.’ Being a foreigner certainly works in her favour, says Sarah. ‘Because a lot of my research is quite personal, respondents tend to see me as’ impartial and openminded and are therefore more willing to share their lives with me.’ She certainly sees New Zealand in a good light. ‘I wish New Zealanders could see their country as I do. That’s why it saddens me that they don’t think they’re good enough on the global stage.’

D) Lucy Kramer, School Director Born in Sydney, Australia, Lucy Kramer left for London when she was 23 to further her career as a stockbroker. ‘London certainly lived up to my expectations and I had a very exciting, very hectic lifestyle,’ Lucy explains. But after four years she felt burnt out and was becoming increasingly disillusioned with her job. ‘People at work were far too competitive for my liking,’ she says. 14

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It was at this time she made two life-changing decisions. ‘I signed up for a teacher- training course and shortly after that met my partner, Graeme. He asked me to come back to New Zealand with him and I didn’t hesitate.’ It wasn’t long before she found work in a large Auckland school and, since then, she has rapidly worked her way up to a management position. ‘It’s fair to say I’m not earning what I used to but my New Zealand colleagues are much more easygoing. A good atmosphere more than makes up for the drop-in salary. Another thing that impresses me is that you can leave your stuff on a seat in a cafe and it’ll still be there half an hour later. People are pretty trustworthy here. Sometimes it bothers me that we’re so remote -you can feel a bit cut off from what’s going on in the rest of the world, but on the whole, I’d say it’s one of the best moves I ever made.’ IV. WRITING (60/200)

Part 1: Write a summary of NO MORE THAN 120 WORDS based on the passage given. Credit will be given for use of own words but care must be taken not to change the original meaning. (10 pts)

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The sea turtles, especially the leatherbacks, are undoubtedly one of nature’s most amazing creatures. They roam the warm seas of the world throughout their life and come ashore only to lay eggs. Malaysia with its long sandy shorelines has been destined as one of their breeding grounds. Unfortunately, the number of leatherback turtles landing on the beaches has been declining over the years. According to the WWF estimates, about 2000 leatherbacks arrived on Malaysian beaches in 1970. In 1989, only between 30 and 60 leatherbacks were found. The drastic drop within such a short span is certainly a great cause for concern. Where have they gone to? Are they avoiding the beaches of Malaysia? Whatever it is, the message is disturbingly clear – they may become an extinct species soon, that is, if no concerted effort is taken to check the decline now.

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The belief that the declining landings of turtles in Malaysia is the result of increasing landings in others parts of the world is a fallacy. This is because the scenario is the same in other countries known to have been visited by the turtles. What has caused the species to dwindle at such a rapid rate? There are many reasons but an obvious one is none other than man’s greed. Turtles are killed for their meat. In the days before refrigeration, turtles had been a source of fresh food for the sailing ships. Today, turtle soup is a favorite dish among the Asians. Their shells have become coveted items for decorations and jewelry. Their eggs which are meant to be hatched into young turtles, are instead 15

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harvested and eaten. When deep sea fishing nets inadvertently trap the turtles, fisherman often kill the turtles instead of cutting their nets to release them. Pollution of the sea has also reduced the number of turtles. Many are choked to death by the plastic bags that they mistake for jelly fish. It appears that the turtles are no longer safe in the sea where they spend most of their lives.

Neither are they safe when the females come ashore to lay eggs. In fact this is the time when they are particularly vulnerable as their movements are slow on land. The nesting places for these turtles have also been greatly reduced. As more and more beaches are taken over for tourism with the construction of hotels, chalets and condominiums, the breeding grounds are reduced in the process. The intrusion of tourists into these places makes it difficult for the turtles to lay their eggs. They have to look elsewhere to places that are still quiet and undisturbed to lay their eggs. Unfortunately these ideal places are few to come by now. Too much development has taken place even along the coastline in most countries.

Perhaps all is not lost yet. Sincere efforts are being taken to check the decline. In Malaysia, it is heartening to note that concrete steps have been taken to protect the turtles that come ashore to lay eggs. The indiscriminate collection of turtle eggs on the beaches is no more allowed. Turtle sanctuaries have been set up in RantauAbang in Terengganu. The eggs collected by designated officials are sent to hatcheries in the sanctuaries. In this way, the loss of eggs and the rate of mortality among the baby turtles are reduced. In other words, more baby turtles are now able to return to sea and grow into adulthood.

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In an effort to discourage the public from eating turtle eggs a Turtle Enactment Act has been introduced to prohibit the sale of leatherback eggs. The WWF has also launched the ‘Save the Turtle Campaign’ to create anawareness among the public to help save the endangered species. In this way, the consumption of turtle eggs and perhaps turtle meat will be discouraged, thus putting a stop to the illegal sale of eggs and trapping of turtles.

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Part 2: The charts below show the results of a survey about what people of different age groups say makes them most happy. (20 pts)

What makes people most happy?

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Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make comparisons where relevant. Write at least 150 words.

people under 30

people over 30 17

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Part 3: Essay writing(30 pts)

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Present a written argument to an educated reader with no specialist knowledge of the following topic. When a country develops its technology, the traditional skills and ways of life die out. It is pointless to try and keep them alive. To what extent do you agree or disagree with this opinion? You should write at least 250 words. 18

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the end

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KÌ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI NĂM

TRẠI HÈ HÙNG VƯƠNG

2019

TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH - LỚP 11

HOÀNG VĂN THỤ, HÒA BÌNH

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Thời gian: 180 phút

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Đề thi gồm .....trang

ĐÁP ÁN - ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT I. LISTENING (50/200)

Part 1: Listen to a radio programme about Biomimicry, the science of copying

nature in order to create new technologies and fill in the missing information.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS taken from the recording for each

4. hold nails

7. waxy finish

8. greenhouse

5. change shape

9. worms

10. frog

6. harvest

3. seed heads

2. 1941

1. systems

answer in the spaces provided. (20 pts)

moisture

Part 2: Listen to the talk with the new staff who haven’t been involved with

the volunteering projects and answer the following questions. USE NO MORE THAN FOUR WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. Write

your answer in the spaces provided.(10 pts)

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1. Eight/8 hours per year

new

volunteering project 5. fill in a form

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4. At a college

2. Communication skills

Part 3:

Listen to a discussion on the history of an English word and decide whether these statements are True (T) or False (F). (10 pts) 1. T 2. F 3. F 4. T 5.T

Part 4. Listen to a conversation on a university campus and choose the correct option. (10 points) 2. C

3. C

4. C

5. A

II. LEXICO – GRAMMAR (30/200)

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1. A

Part 1. Choose the answer ( A, B, C or D) that best fits each of the following questions.(15 pts) 1.B

10D

11D 12D 13C 14D 15C

Part 2: Write the correct form of each bracketed word in the following

passage. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10pts)

Example: 0. NOTORIOUS notoriety

Part 4: Write the correct form of each bracketed word in the following

2. venomous

4. fatalities

5. solitary

10. resistant

misconceptions

7. unpleasant

underestimated precautions

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6. occurrences

3. comparison

passage. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10pts)

Part 3: The passage below contains 5 mistakes. Identify the mistakes and

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write the corrections in the corresponding numbered boxes. There is an

example at the beginning. (0.5 pt) Line

Mistake

Correction

democratic

democratising

among

between

reputed

reputable 2

reference

referencing

those

that

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III. READING (60/200) Part 1. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C or D)

best fits each gap. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 pts) 1.A

2.A

3.D

4.B

5.C

6.B

7.A

8.D

9.C

10.B

Part 2: For questions 1-10, fill each of the following numbered blanks with

ONE suitable word and write your answers in the corresponding numbered

2. each

3. as

6. which

7. well

4. level

5. made

1. above

boxes provided. (10 pts)

10. about

9. possible

ourselves

Part 3: Read the text and choose the best answer A, B, C or D. (10 points) 2C

10C

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Part 4: The reading passage has seven paragraphs, A–G. Choose the correct

1. vi

2.v

3. viii

6. vii

8. nest-building 9. webbed feet 10. blood

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heading for paragraphs A–G from the list below. 4. i

skypointing

5. iv

vessels

Part 5: Answer questions 1-10, by referring to the magazine article in which four successful career women talk about emigrating to New Zealand. 1. D

2. B

3. C

4. A

5. D

6. B

7. A

8. B

9. C

10. C

IV. WRITING (60/200) Part 1: Write a summary of NO MORE THAN 120 WORDS based on the

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passage given. Credit will be given for use of own words but care must be taken not to change the original meaning. (10 pts) Suggested Answer: summary

The declining landings of turtles in Malaysia are due to uncontrolled catching for their meat, shells and eggs. Many are inadvertently caught in deep sea

fishing nets. Pollution of the sea has also reduced the number of turtles. Many

die of suffocation by discarded plastic bags. Besides, turtles are most vulnerable

when they come ashore to lay eggs. Their nesting places have also been reduced due to development for tourism along the coasts. Nevertheless, concrete steps

have been taken to arrest the decline. Indiscriminate collection and sale of turtle

eggs are banned. Turtle sanctuaries have been set up, thereby reducing the rate

of mortality among the baby turtles. Lastly, an awareness campaign has been

launched by WWF to discourage the public from eating turtle eggs. (125

words)

Part 2: The charts below show the results of a survey about what people of

different age groups say makes them most happy. (20 pts)

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Part 3: Essay writing(30 pts)

TAPESCRIPT PART 1

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Architecture, chemical processes, material sciences all these faculties are beginning to be touched by ideas which are inspired by nature where in the past men's inventions have been conceded all powerful. Engineers are now turning to nature which of the last 3.8 billion years has developed a wealth of successful innovations. So, over the last decade there has been a new wave of scientific interest in bio mimicry measures which emulates nature's genius and we are not restricted to copying the structures found in nature we can also imitate its processes and its systems. One of the most famous products inspired by nature is the sticky fastening velcro invented in 1941 by the Swiss engineer George de Mastral. He noticed how the seed heads of burrs got tangled in his clothes and his dog’s coat. Meanwhile engineers at the center of biomimetics at reading university have developed to material based on the properties of woods. One of the reasons why wood is so useful to us is its ability to hold nails when they are driven into it. This property is down to the structure of hole sales and pipe which hold the nail in place. The new material using equivalent fibers is made of glass fibers and resin to hold everything in place. The result is a material with the same geometric arrangement is worst which has one of the disadvantages of which is it changes shape according to moisture levels and temperature. The substitute which has been developed for the post office they wanted a container which could contain threatening packages directing the blasts safely and holding any explosive fragments. But the second round of biomimetic is imitating not just the physical form of natural substances but also the processes that take place in nature. A perfect example of this is the Sahara forest project which is utilized a process used by the Namibian Fog Basking Beetle .The beetle is able to live in very harsh does it conditions using its ability to harvest moisture from the air. The beetle comes out into the desert at nights and due to its black shell, it is able to maintain a temperature cooler than those of its surroundings . The moist breeze blows in from the sea and droplets of water condense on the beetle’s shell. At sunrise the Beetle lifts its shell drinks and returns to its hole. What is even more interesting is that the beetle has hydrophilic bumps on its shell which attract water separated by a waxy finish which repels water. Consequently the water gathers in tight spherical droplets so that hardly any water is wasted. 5

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The Sahara forest project uses a process which is in effect identical to the house of the beetle. Sea water evaporates from the front wall of the greenhouse to create ideal cool growing conditions and condenses to form fresh water on the downwind side of the green house. However just mimicry in the structure and processes in nature is not enough if in doing so we create tons of waste human designs ..... we take resources from the Earth , use what we need and the rest goes to waste . But in the natural world, systems are cyclical when one from organism goes on to become nutrients for another. One scheme which is taking advantage of nature's cyclical design is the Able projects based in Wakefield Yorkshire . Here everything is recycled and re integrated into the system. Consequently the project is able to turn ..... into caviar. The ..... is used as animal bedding and disease than composted using Verma culture . The worms are then used to feed fish excrement from the fish is collected and recycled into the system. The age of by a tree is still in its infancy the novel and yet proven ideas which are inspired by nature our attractive to industries but we need to be careful as we lose more animal habitats to development extinction rates on increasing and with this we lose the wisdom and the ideas embodied in the species. Already we've seen the loss of the gastric brooding frog, an animal able to turn off its production of stomach acids had we been able to study this animal before its demise we could have found a way to eliminate the problems experienced by many sufferers of excess stomach acids.

Part 2: Listen to the talk with the new staff who haven’t been involved with

the volunteering projects .

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Thanks for coming everyone. OK, so this meeting is for new staff who haven’t been involved with our volunteering projects yets. So basically, the idea is that we allow staff to give up some of their work time to help on various

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charity projects to benefit the local community. We’ve been doing this for the

last five years and it’s been very successful. Participating doesn’t necessarily involve a huge time commitment. The

company will pay for eight hours of your time. That can be used over one or two days all at once or spread over several months throughout the year. There are some staff who enjoy volunteering so much they also give up their own free 6

time for a couple of hours every week. It’s completely up to you. Obviously, many people will have family commitments and aren’t as available as other members of staff.

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Feedback from staff has been overwhelmingly positive. Because they felt they were doing something really useful, nearly everyone agreed that

volunteering made them feel more motivated at work. They also liked building relationships with the people in the local community and felt valued by them. One or two people also said it was a good thing to have on their CVs.

Once particularly successful project last year was the Get Working Project.

This was aimed at helping unemployed people in the area get back to work. Our

staff were able to help them improve their telephone skills, such as writing

down messages and speaking with confidence to potential customers, which they had found quite difficult. This is something many employers look for in job

applicants – and something we all do without even thinking about, every day at

work.

We’ve got an exciting new project starting this year. Up until now, we’ve

mainly focused on project to do with education and training. And we’ll continue

with our reading project in schools and our work with local charities. But we’ve also agreed to help out on a conservation project in Radferm Park. So if any of

you fancy being outside and getting out hands dirty, this is the project for you.

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I also want to mention the annual Digital Inclusion Day, which is coming up

next month. The aim of this is to help older people keep up with techmology.

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And this year, instead of hosting the event in our training facility, we’ve using thr ICT suite at Hill College, as it can hold far more people.

We’ve invite over 60 people from the Silver Age Community Centre to take

part, so we’ll need a lot of volunteers to help with this event. If you’re interested in taking part, please go to the volunteering section of our webside and complete the relevant form. We won’t be providing any training 7

for this but you’ll be paired with an experienced volunteer if you’ve never done it before. By the way, don’t forget to tell your manager about any volunteering activities you decide to do.

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Part 3

You will hear two History students called Ruby and Tom,discussing with a tutor their planned presentation on the history of an English word. Tom: Dr. Anders?

Tutor: Oh hello Ruby, Tom ... come on In. You're here to talk about your presentation?

Tutor: What have you decided to focus on?

Tom/Ruby: That's right, yeah.

Tom: Well, It's a bit unusual ... we're looking at the history of a particular word. Tutor: Right. Which word are you focusing on?

Ruby: We've chosen 'nice'.

Tutor: Hmm - why did you go for that?

Tom: Well, it's obviously a very common word, which most people will use in

different ways, probably several times a day.

Tutor: Very sensible to consider that. Ruby: Yes, but what decided it for us is the fact that 'nice'

signifies something very different now than it did in the past.

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Tom: We thought it'd make a good subject because of that. Tutor: I don't think we've ever had students choose a history of words for their

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presentation!

Ruby: We thought not! We were actually quite late in deciding on our topic -

long after any of our classmates had got pretty firm plans. Tom: Then I remembered a scene in a book where onecharacter was talking

about the word 'nice' and it struck me what a good topic it would be. We had thought we had to choose something we'd been specifically interested in from

lectures, but Dr. Jones said this idea was a good one. Tutor: Absolutely! So are you well advanced in your planning? Ruby: Yes, we've already got ideas and information from a lot of different

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sources ... Tom: We've interviewed people about how they actually use the word, and we'll get some more primary data later this week.

Tutor: Excellent. But have you looked at any corpus analysis programmes they're now free on the university intranet.

Tom: We've looked at research reports about them in journals .

It'll be challenging but we should certainly try, yep.

Tom:

Ruby: But we ought to mention corpus programmes in our talk. Tutor: Good.

Ruby: Can I ask you one thing which is worrying me, Dr. Anders, about our

for other parts of the course.

background reading for the presentation? It's quite similar to what we've done

Tutor: Don't worry - that does sometimes happen with references you identify

Perhaps Dr. Anders could check our reference list beforewe submit it -

Tom:

for yourself.

to see if it's distinct enough.

Tutor: Sure - if you get it to me before the deadline.

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Ruby: That'd be reassuring - thanks. Part 4: Listen to a conversation on a university campus.

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Man: You seem to know your way around campus. Have you been here long?

Woman: I’m a senior literature major. I’ll be graduating next June. Man: Your major is literature? Mine is, too. But I’m just beginning my work in my major. I just transferred to this university from a junior college. Perhaps you could tell me about the courses you’ve got to take for a literature major.

Woman: Well, for a literature major, you need to take eight courses, and it’ll take two semesters, and it’s required for all literature majors is “Introduction to Literary Analysis.”

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Man: You mean, if you want to specialize in American literature, I still must take two semesters of world literature?

Woman: Yes, because the two semesters are required for all literature majors. Man: But I only want to study American literature.

Woman: At least you can take all of your five elective courses in the area that you want.

Man: That’s what I’ll do then.

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THE END

ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT - TRẠI HÈ HÙNG VƯƠNG 2019 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 11 Người ra đề: Đồng Tiến Giang - Chuyên Lai Châu

A. LISTENING

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Trần Thị Thu Hằng - Chuyên Lai Châu

Part 1. You will hear a talk about Sick Building Syndrome, which is ill health that is believed to be caused by buildings. For questions 1-10, complete the sentences with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS.

SICK BUILDING SYNDROME

According to the World Health Organization, Sick Building Syndrome mostly affects people

in 1. ____________ .

Sufferers often lack 2. _____________

It mainly affects people early in the week and when they have been 3. _________ the

building for a long time.

Sufferers often say nothing because they think it is a 4. ______________ problem. The problem is not simply a question of the building being 5. ____________ or having too

little natural light.

new materials.

Buildings most likely to produce the problem are those which have 6. _________ and a lot of

Experts believe that these lead to poor 7. _________ which is the main cause of the problem. They believe that better 8. _________ and design would improve existing systems and that

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the use of different 9. _________ would also help to solve the problem. In some buildings, better 10. _________ has been shown to reduce the problem.

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Part 2. You will hear a guide speaking to tourists who are visiting some Romans remains. Listen and give short answers to the questions.

1. When did the Romans first come to the Corbridge area? ……………………………………………………………………… 2. Why did the Romans built a series of forts and strongholds? ……………………………………………………………………… 1

3. What did people begin to search for in 1201? ……………………………………………………………………… 4. How often have archaeological digs taken place since 1934? ……………………………………………………………………… 5. What are the two things that visitors should pay attention to?

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………………………………………………………………………

Part 3.You will hear a discussion between two students.For questions 6-10, listen and decide whether the following sentences are true (T), false (F) or not given (NG). 1. Jess wants to start the meeting by reviewing the objectives for the project.

2. Matt and Jess are planning to study old photos. 3. The plots are supposed to be 10 meters apart.

4. The bamboo sticks can be purchased at gardening centres.

Your answers: 1.

5. Matt is excited about throwing the frame.

Part 4. You are going to hear a speech given at a poetry award ceremony. For questions 15, choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. Write your

answer in the space provided.

1. What significant event happened in 2006?

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A. Antonia Watson won the award for the first time. B. The award was presented twice.

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C. The Poetry Award was first instituted. D. The Poetry competition was cancelled.

2. The Antonia Watson Memorial Poetry Award's second prize is £ ...............? A. £1.500

B. £2.250

C. £500

D. £250

3. What is the relationship between Thomas and Antonia Watson? A. He is one of Antonia Watson’s siblings. B. He is her neighbor. 2

C. He is the close friend of Antonia Watson’s flatmate. D. He is her cousin. 4. What was the name of the first poem Antonia Watson published? A. Be Kind

B. Love Barks

C. Triad Children

D. Love Bird

A. Pneumonia

B. Writer’s block

C. Overwork

D. Too much stress

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5. What did Antonia Watson suffer from after her grandfather passed away?

Your answers: 1.

B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (30 pts)

Part 1. Choose the most suitable option (A, B, C, or D) to complete each sentence below.

1. Even though Julia was passed over for a promotion, it’s no skin off her ________. Since

B. skull

C. cheek

A. palm

she’s leaving for another job, she doesn’t really care.

D. nose

B. fatally

C. gravely

D. deadly

A. mortally

2. Take the doctor’s advice into consideration. He’s in ________ earnest about the epidemic.

A. mainstay

3. After the earthquake, the entrance hall was turned into a _____ casualty ward. B. piecework

C. makeshift

D. wayside

B. in her mind

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A. up her sleeve

4. I don’t want to burden my daughter with my problems; she’s got too much _____ C. in effect

D. on her plate

5. This emerald bracelet is ______; it is the only one of its kind in the world.

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A. only

B. original

C. peerless

D. genuine

6. She applied for paid leave but her boss rejected her application ________.

A. out of hand

B. in hand

C. at hand

D. on hand

7. To get his proposal accepted, the Finance Manager had to ________ heavy pressure from colleagues. A. fend off

B. laugh off

C. send off 3

D. push off

8. The school committee paid ______ to their famous former pupil by naming the new gym after her. A. esteem

B. homage

C. honour

D. respect

9. It is far too easy to lay the blame ______ on the shoulders of the management. A. flatly

B. willingly

C. squarely

D. perfectly

A. draw

B. illustrate

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10. The science teacher asked the class to ______ the results of their experiment on a graph. C. plot

D. sketch

11. The police asked him to give a _______ description of the accident that he had witnessed. A. blow by blow B. word for word C. up and down

D. in and out

B. shooting

C. excruciating

D. maddening

A. agonizing

12. I'd been in ______pain with toothache all weekend and was desperate to find a dentist.

A. fracture

13. He will be sued for ______ of contract if he does not do what he promised. B. crack

C. rupture

D. breach

B. cramp

C. dram

A. pram

14. To __________ means to study hard in a short period of time, usually before the exam. D. cram

15. I haven’t seen Jane for nearly ten years, ________ I had got married and had two

A. for that duration

Your answer: 10.

B. at that point D. in that time

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

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C. during which time

children.

Part 2: Complete each space in the text with a word formed from the word in capitals

This famous (0) sailing ship was built in 1869 and originally used for the (1) _____transportation of tea between China and England. 0. SAIL However, the (2) _____of steam ships and the opening of the Suez 1. SPEED 4

Canal, which was (3) _____for such ships as the Cutty Sark, stole

2. CONSTRUCT

some of her initial glory.

3. PASS

She was not a strong (4) _____in the sea races from China to 4. COMPETE England but later, between 1885 and 1895, she was (5) _____for 5. RIVAL speed as she carried wool between Melbourne and New York. 6. OWNER

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After working history and several changes in (6) _____, the ship 7. LOVE

was (7) _____restored in the fifties and a dry dock was built so 8. DONATE that the Cutty Sark could be used as a museum. (8) _____ are once 9. FAR

again being requested as there is urgent need of (9) _____ work on 10. DERIVE the ship.

Strangly, the figurehead represents a beautiful witch in a Scottish

poem who was pursuing a man at great speed on a grey horse. At

the time, she had been wearing only a short shirt or “Cutty Sark”.

Your answers:

Few people know that this is the (10) _____of the name.

10.

Part 3:The passage below contains 5 mistakes. Underline the mistakes and write the

corrections in te corresponding numbered boxes. It is ironic that the very things that are supposed to provide access of the upper

floors of buildings – stairs – often, in fact, make them accessible. For many elder

people and others with limited mobility, getting upstairs can be a daily problem

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be overcome. However, stairlifts have been helping people solve that problem

4 5

since they first appeared in the US in the 1930s. Designs have undergone many

changes over the years and stairlifts have become progressive safer and easier to

use. Mostly consist of a seat which moves along rails that run along the wall. 5

The user controls how rapid the seat moves along the rails as it travels from

the bottom of the stairs to the landing at the top. In today’s models, the movement

is controlled by computers to give a smooth ride and the components are designed to withstand constantly use. Many people have been given a new lease of life by

the stairlift.

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Your answers Mistake

Correction

Line

3. 4.

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III. READING (60 POINTS) Part 1. Fill in the blank with one of four options to complete the passage. (10 points) Getting to the root of Bonsai crime Bonsai trees have always been a source of great fascination to people. They are perfect miniatures, grown in pots small enough to sit on a windowsill. You have to keep reminding yourself that these trees are (1) _____ real and identical to their larger cousins in all respects except their size. Rather like other small and perfectly-formed artifacts, bonsai trees (2) _____ quite a high price in the marketplace and so it doesn’t come as a great surprise to find that they also attract the attention of thieves. It seems that quite a flourishing business has (3) _____, in which they are stolen from the homes of growers and collectors, then repotted and trimmed by unscrupulous dealers, to be sold on, at good prices, to unsuspecting buyers. One of Britain’s top collectors of bonsai trees, Paul Waddington, believes that he has found a solution, however. After losing his life’s work, (4) _____ at £250,000, when burglars broke into his home one night, Paul decided to (5) _____ the possibilities of electronically tagging the trees he bought as a replacement. This (6) _____ injecting a microchip the size of a (7) _____ of rice into the trunk of each tree. Each chip is a laser-etched with information which is (8) _____ in a central 6

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register held by the police. Paul is quite aware that this kind of data-tagging doesn’t prevent thieves from stealing the trees in the first (9) _____, although it may increase the (10) _____ of getting them back. So he’s also installing a security alarm system, complete with infra-red detectors, in his home. 1 A. deeply B. eventually C. actually D. greatly 2 A. obtain B. expect C. command D. charge 3 A. erupted B. evolved C. adapted D. arrived 4 A. prized B. treasured C. valued D. costed B. set about C. try out D. go after 5 A. look into B. includes C. involves D. reflects 6 A. requires 7 A. crumb B. speck C. bean D. grain B. detained C. locked D. piled 8 A. stored B. time C. point D. place 9 A. turn 10 A. counts B. chances C. choices D. claims

Your answer: 2.

10.

Part 2: Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word in each space. Write your answers in the answer box below. (10 points)

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A new online service is now available, which should reassure any parents concerned about their children watching too much TV or those who believe that the Internet represents a (1)_______ to children’s safety. Some TV shows, (2) _______ soap operas, are known to be (3) _______. with young people. Having watched certain of these, the viewers are then (4) _______ to a website (5) _______ they can get information on issues raised on screen such as drugs, eating disorders or unwanted pregnancies. Internet sites (6) _______by TV channels are important because it would be irresponsible for the channel to (7) _______ serious health issues without providing a means of finding further information and advice. Soap operas touch people and make them think, and such sites offer a safe place for teenagers to ask questions without the (8) _______ of being ignorant. Knowing that young people (9) _______ on their peers for advice,rather than their parents or doctors, sites are careful not to be judgmental or to tell people what to do. A site offering quality information and a chance for young people to chat about their problems whenever they feel the need is more likely to attract the (10) _______ of those who need it than more traditional sources of advice.

Your answer: 1.

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Part 3. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. (10 pts) 7

Travel journalist Richard Madden reports on his first trip with a camera crew. It was books that first captured my imagination about faraway places. TV travelogues always seemed the poor relation to the classic written accounts, although of course the pictures were rather better. And then there was the issue of authenticity. All those pretentious theatrical types dying of thirst in the desert, as if we didn't realise there was a camera crew on

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hand to cater for their every need. These days programme-makers know that the audience is more sophisticated and the presence of the camera is acknowledged. But can a journey with filming equipment ever be anything other than a cleverly constructed fiction?

I recently got the chance to find out, when I was asked to present two one-hour programmes for an adventure travel series. The project was the brainchild of the production

company Trans-Atlantic Films, which wanted the series presented by writers and adventurers,

as well as TV professionals. My sole qualification was as a journalist specialising in

'adventure' travel. However, I was thought to have 'on-screen' potential The first programme was filmed in Costa Rica. Within 24 hours of my arrival, I

realised that this was going to be very different from my usual 'one man and his laptop'

expeditions. For a start, there were five of us - director, cameraman, sound recordist, producer

and presenter. And then there was the small matter of £100,000 worth of equipment. I soon

realised that the director, Peter Macpherson, was a vastly experienced adventure film-maker.

In his case, the term 'adventure' meant precisely that 'Made a film with X,' he would say

(normally a famous mountaineer or skier), before describing a death-defying sequence at the top of a glacier in Alaska or hang-gliding off the Angel Falls in Venezuela. Invariably, these

sadly...'

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reminiscences would end with the words: 'Had a great deal of respect for X. Dead now,

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Part of the brief for the series was to put the presenter in unusual situations and see

how he or she coped. One such sequence was the night we spent in the rainforest canopy near

the Rincón de la Vieja National Park in Guanacaste province. I don't have a head for heights and would make a poor rock-climber, so my distress is real enough as the camera catches me dangling on a rope some 30 metres up, well short of the canopy platform.

Ironically, it was the presence of the camera, looking down on me from above, that gave me the impetus for the final push to the top. By this time, I'd learnt how 'sequences' were cut together and realised that one last effort was required. I had to struggle to stay coherent while the camera swooped within a few millimetres of my face for my reaction. In the end, it was a magical experience, heightened all the more by the sounds of the forest - a

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family of howler monkeys in a nearby tree, amplified through the sound recordist's headphones.

Learning how to establish a rapport with the camera is vital and it took me a while to

think of it as a friend rather than a judge and jury. The most intimidating moments were when Peter strolled up to me, saying that the light would only be right for another 10 minutes,

and that he needed a 'link' from one sequence to another. The brief was simple. It needed to

be 30 seconds long, sum up my feelings, be informative, well-structured and, most important

of all, riveting to watch. 'Ready to go in about five minutes?' he would say breezily. I soon discovered that the effect of the camera on what was going on around us was far

less intrusive than I had imagined. After a first flurry of curiosity, people usually lost interest

and let us get on with our job. We were also flexible enough to be spontaneous. Our trip

coincided with an 80 per cent solar eclipse, a rare event anywhere in the world. We were in a

village called Santa Elena and captured the whole event on camera. The carnival atmosphere

was infectious and made a welcome addition to our shooting schedule.

1. One thing the writer used to dislike about travel programmes on TV was A. the repetitive nature of many of them.

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B. the dull images that they frequently contained. C. their lack of respect for the intelligence of the viewers.

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D. their tendency to copy the style of famous written accounts. 2. What reason is given for the writer becoming involved in making TV travel

programmes?

A. Other people's belief that he might be suited to appearing on them. B. His own desire to discover whether it was possible to make good ones. C. His own belief that it was natural for him to move from journalism to TV. 9

D. A shortage of writers and adventurers willing to take part in them. 3. Shortly after arriving in Costa Rica, the writer became aware that A. the director had a reputation that was undeserved. B. he would probably dislike working as part of a team rather than alone. C. he would probably get on well with the director personally.

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D. his role in the filming would be likely to involve real danger.

4. The writer uses the sequence filmed in the National Park as an example of... A. something he had been worried about before any filming started.

B. the sort of challenge that presenters were intended to face in the series. C. something he was expected to be unable to deal with.

D. the technical difficulties involved in making films in certain places.

B. hope

C. disappointment

D. argument

A. stimulus

5. The word “impetus” in the passage is closest in meaning to _______. 6. What does the writer say about the last part of the sequence in the National Park?

A. It taught him a lot about the technical aspects of film-making.

B. He was encouraged to complete it when he looked up at the camera.

C. It changed his whole attitude towards doing dangerous things.

D. He was unable to say anything that made sense at this time.

A. satisfying

7. The word “intimidating” in the passage is closest in meaning to ______. B. thrilling

C. thriving

D. frightening

8.In paragraph 6 the writer says that he found it particularly difficult to

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A. understand what was required of him for a 'link'. B. change things he was going to do at very short notice.

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C. accept certain advice given to him about presenting a film. D. meet certain demands the director made on him.

9. The word “intrusive” in the passage is closest in meaning to ______. A. annoying

B. disappointing

C. hilarious

D. unanimous

10.What does the writer use the experience in Santa Elena as an example of? A. Something they filmed although they had not planned to. 10

B. The friendly way in which they were treated by the local people. C. Something they did purely for their own enjoyment. D. The kind of thing that viewers like to see in travel films. Your answer: 2.

10.

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Part 4: Read the passage and do the tasks that follow. a. Choose the correct headings for each section from the list of headings below.(10 points) List of Headings (i) Dangers of nuclear contamination (ii) Energy from the sun (iii) Uncontrolled and moderated nuclear reations (iv) Energy from food (v) The advantages of nuclear energy (vi) The nuclear fission chain reation (vii) Nuclear fusion (viii) The nuclear energy square Example : Paragraph A: ii 1. Paragraph B 2. Paragraph E 3. Paragraph F 4. Paragraph G 5. Paragraph H

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Energy, Fission and Fusion A . Almost all the energy that living things make use of comes in the beginning from the sun. The chief exception is the gravitational pull of the earth itself, and of the moon upon the waters of the earth. The sun gives out enormous quantities of energy in the form of radiation – rays of light and other forms of energy. B. Green plants have the power, through the process called photosynthesis, to change the energy of sunlight into chemical energy. This is stored in the plant in the form of organic molecules. Some of the plants are eaten and the stored energy used by herbivorous animals – or by human beings. Human beings are omnivorous, that is their food and therefore their energy can come from either plant or animal sources. But that energy originated in the sun. 11

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C .To satisfy human needs, other kinds of energy are needed – mechanical, driving and heating. The energy for heating, or for driving heat engines, usually comes from a fuel and most fuels were once living things. Fuel obtained in this way, with the exception of wood and other fresh organic matter, is called fossil fuel and includes oil, natural gas and coal. All of these are the very ancient buried remains of animal or plant life. They are finite and the processes by which they were made are not repeatable. They are yet another form of solar or sun energy. D .The energy given out by the sun is created by the process known as nuclear fusion. Fusion means ‘joining together’. The opposite process is nuclear fission, meaning ‘splitting apart’ or ‘dividing’. If either fission or fusion takes place quickly, the result is a great and sudden release of energy – an explosion, in fact. Both kinds of nuclear event can be created on earth but so far the only one that can be slowed down and controlled is fission. E. Nuclear fission is the splitting of the nucleus of an atom. Only a few elements are suitable for use in this way, the most important ones being Uranium-235, Uranium-233 and Plutonium-239. When a nucleus of one of these elements is struck by a free neutron it breaks down into two lighter nuclei which fly apart at high speed, colliding with surrounding atoms. Their kinetic energy is converted into heat energy. At the same time, two or three free neutrons are released and one of them enters the nucleus of a neighbouring atom, causing fission to occur again; and so on. The reaction spreads very quickly, with more and more heat energy released. This is called a ‘chain’ reaction because the splitting of each nucleus is linked to another, and another and another. F. If this reaction takes place in an atomic bomb, where nothing is done to slow it down, the result is a violent explosion that can destroy a town in a few seconds. Fission can also, however, take place within a construction called a nuclear reactor, or atomic pile. Here the highly fissile material (U-235, U-233, Pu-239) is surrounded by a substance that is nonfissile, for instance graphite. This material is called a moderator. The neutrons lose some of their energy and speed through colliding with the atoms of the moderator. Energy – heat energy – is still created on an enormous scale, but no expansion takes place. The moderator has another function: by slowing down the speed of the free neutrons, it makes it more likely that one of them will collide with the nucleus of a neighbouring atom to continue the chain reaction. G.The chief advantage of nuclear energy is that it does not depend on any local factors. A nuclear reactor, unlike an oil-well or a coalmine, does not have to be sited on top of a fossilfuel source; unlike a solar energy unit, it does not have to go out of production when the sun is not shining; unlike hydroelectric power, it does not depend on a large flow of water which may be reduced during some seasons of the year. With an atomic power station, the only limiting factor is that of safety. H. In the opposite process, nuclear fusion, two nuclei come together to form a new nucleus of a different kind and this process also releases energy on an enormous scale. Fusion can only 12

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occur under conditions of very great heat -at least 50,000,000 degrees Celsius. (The temperature at the centre of the sun is estimated as 130,000,000 degrees Celsius.) A fusion reaction on earth has already been created – the hydrogen bomb. This is an uncontrolled reaction. It is not yet possible to produce a controlled fusion reaction that can be used for the production of useful energy. I.Nuclear energy can be thought of as a kind of square. Three of the quarters of the square are known and used, but the fourth cannot yet be used. Source: Ielts reading strategies for the Ielts test

b. Decide if each of the following statements is TRUE or FALSE according to the information provided in the passage. Please write(10 points) TRUE if the statement is true; FALSE if the statement is true; NOT GIVEN if the statement is not given in the passage

6. The purpose of the moderator is prevent the escape of dangerous radiation 7. Few elements are suitable for use as atomic fuel 8. Fossile fuel can not last for ever 9. A hydroelectric power station can be built anywwhere. 10. Graphite is a nonfissile material

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Your answer:

Part 5 : You are going to read four different opinions from leading scientists about the

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future of fuel. For questions 1-10, choose from the writers A-D. The writers may be chosen more than once. (10points) AHoward Bloom, Author:

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Even though most people are convinced that peak oil has already passed, to me, peak oil is just a hypothesis. There is a theory that carbon molecules can be found in interstellar gas clouds, comets and in space ice, and if this is the case, our planet could ooze oil for ever. And even if we stay earthbound, those who say we have raped the planet of all its resources are wrong. There's a huge stock of raw materials we haven't yet learned to use. There are bacteria two miles beneath our feet which can turn solid granite into food. If bacteria can do it, surely we creatures with brains can do it better. As far as the near future of energy is concerned, I believe the most promising alternative fuels are biofuels, such as ethanol. It's an alcohol made from waste products such as the bark of trees, woodchips, and other 'waste materials'. And that's not the only waste that can create energy. My friend in the biomass industry is 13

perfecting an energy-generation plant which can run on human waste. We produce that in vast quantities, and it's already gathered in centralised locations. B Michael Lardelli, Lecturer in Genetics at The University of Adelaide

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Nothing exists on this planet without energy. It enables flowers and people to grow and we need it to mine minerals, extract oil or cut wood and then to process these into finished goods. So the most fundamental definition of money is as a mechanism to allow the exchange and allocation of different forms of energy. Recently, people have been using more energy than ever before. Until 2005 it was possible to expand our energy use to meet this demand. However, since 2005 oil supply has been in decline, and at the same time, and as a direct result of this, the world's economy has been unable to expand, leading to global recession. With the world's energy and the profitability of energy production in decline at the same time, the net energy available to support activities other than energy procurement will decrease. We could increase energy production by diverting a large proportion of our remaining oil energy into building nuclear power stations and investing in renewable forms of energy. However, this is very unlikely to happen in democratic nations, because it would require huge, voluntary reductions in living standards. Consequently, the world economy will continue to contract as oil production declines. With energy in decline, it will be impossible for everyone in the world to become wealthier. One person's increased wealth can only come at the expense of another person's worsened poverty.

C Jeroen van der Veer, chief executive of Royal Dutch Shell

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People are understandably worried about a future of growing energy shortages, rising prices and international conflict for supplies. These fears are not without foundation. With continued economic growth, the world's energy needs could increase by 50% in the next 25 years. However, I do not believe that the world is running out of energy. Fossil fuels will be able to meet growing demand for a long time in the future. Taking unconventional resources into account, we are not even close to peak oil. The priority for oil companies is to improve efficiency, by increasing the amount of oil recovered from reservoirs. At present, just over a third is recovered. We can also improve the technology to control reservoir processes and improve oil flow. However, these projects are costly, complex and technically demanding, and they depend on experienced people, so it is essential to encourage young people to take up a technical career in the energy industry. Meanwhile, alternative forms of energy need to be made economically viable. International energy companies have the capability, the experience and the commercial drive to work towards solving the energy problem so they will play a key role. But it is not as simple as merely making scientific advances and developing new tools; the challenge is to deliver the technology to people worldwide. Companies will need to share knowledge and use their ideas effectively. D 14

Craig Severance, blogger

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What will it take to end our oil addiction? It's time we moved on to something else. Not only are world oil supplies running out, but what oil is still left is proving very dirty to obtain. The Deepwater Horizon oil spill occurred precisely because the easy-to-obtain oil is already tapped. If we don't kick oil now, we will see more disasters as oil companies move to the Arctic offshore and clear more forests. The cheap petroleum is gone; from now on, we will pay steadily more and more for our oil — not just in dollars, but in the biological systems that sustain life on this planet. The only solution is to get on with what we will have to do anyway - end our dependence on it! There are many instances in which oil need not be used at all. Heat and electricity can be produced in a multitude of other ways, such as solar power or natural gas. The biggest challenge is the oil that is used in transportation. That doesn't mean the transportation of goods worldwide, it's the day-to-day moving around of people. It means we have to change what we drive. The good news is that it's possible. There are a wide range of fuel efficient cars on offer, and the number of all-electric plug-in cars is set to increase. For long distance travel and freight, the solution to this is to look to rail. An electrified railway would not be reliant upon oil, but could be powered by solar, geothermal, hydro, and wind sources. There is a long way to go, but actions we take now to kick our oil addiction can help us adapt to a world of shrinking oil supplies. Which writer: 1. believes oil will be available for many more years ______________. 2. believes that from now on, less oil is available_________________. 3. believes there are ways to obtain energy that we have not yet discovered____________. 4. sees a great potential in natural fuels____________________. 5. believes the fuel crisis will cause the poor to become poorer_____________. 6. sees energy and the economy as intrinsically linked_____________________. 7. believes we should reduce our dependance on oil immediately_____________. 8. believes that people need to be attracted to working in the energy industry____________. 9. believes that it is unlikely that governments will invest a lot of money into alternative energy______________. 10. believes that future oil recovery will lead to more environmental disasters___________. Source: Advanced English exam (CAE) Your answer: 1.

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PART IV: WRITING ( 60 POINTS)

Part1: Read the passage below and summarize the text. Your summary must be no longer than 130 words. (10 points)

During recent years, graduates have been finding it difficult to seek jobs that match their tertiary qualifications. This has been especially so since 1998. As the recent survey by the 15

Manpower Department indicated, a distressing number of 44,000 local graduates are reported to be unemployed.

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This state of high unemployment is mainly due to the changing nature and demands of global trade, resource flows and competition. The demands of global trade would mean that graduates who want to take up jobs in the current job market have to be equipped with specialized skills and knowledge. However, most of them are found to be lacking in essential skills such as communication and problem-solving skills as well as leadership qualities.

There is no doubt that having a degree broadens the employment opportunities available and enhances an individual's chances of securing employment. However, graduates looking for a job must note that a degree is not a guarantee to a good job. In selecting employees, employers will look at what else graduates have to offer, including their confidence, skills, certifications, work experience and overall potential. Quite simply, a degree is not enough on its own and graduates must realize this.Since 1998, many graduates take an average of a year to get a job after graduation. Reports by the Human Resource Ministry have shown that more than 6,000 registered graduates were competing for about 1,000 jobs available at any time.

It is generally felt that local colleges and universities should improve the quality of knowledge imparted to their students, especially in emerging sciences. In 2005, the Ministry of Education announced that three of the country's oldest universities, UM, UKM and USM, have been made research-intensive universities with emphasis on postgraduate studies. These universities would be awarded bigger research grants to encourage postgraduate studies and research.

Local institutions of higher learning have increased with the advent of industralization and economic development. Today, there are more universities and university colleges nationwide. Currently, there are more than 500 such private colleges. It is estimated that about 150,000 students are attending public universities and 200,000 are studying in private colleges.

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Another measure taken in 2005 was to retrain unemployed graduates. The retraining was carried out by Pembangunan Sumber Manusia Berhad. Since July, more than 30,000 unemployed graduates had attended PSMB retraining courses in areas such as English, information and communications technology, tourism, event management and financial planning. The Government has allocated RM35 million to retrain some 6,000 unemployed graduates at its 200 training centers nationwide.

With the availability of greater opportunities of higher education and retraining schemes by the Government, graduates should be better prepared to take up more demanding positions in the job market. Source: Englishdaily 626.com 16

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Part 2. The chart below show the different levels of post-school qualifications in Australia and the proportion of men and women who held them in 1999. (20 points) Write at least 150 words. ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………. Part 3:Writing an essay (30 points)

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There is increasing evidence that global warming is caused by human actions. Many people want to immediately start reducing pollution from cars and factories. This could be done through taxing polluting industries. To what extent do you agree with this statement? You should write at least 250 words.

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D KÈ M Y

Q N

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THE END

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT - TRẠI HÈ HÙNG VƯƠNG 2019 MÔN : TIẾNG ANH 11 A. LISTENING

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Part 1.You will hear a talk about Sick Building Syndrome, which is ill health that is believed to be caused by buildings. For questions 1-10, complete the sentences with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS. Listen and fill in the gaps (NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS)

1. modern buildings 2. energy 3. out of/away from

4. personal

5. too hot

6. air conditioning

Part 2.You will hear a guide speaking to tourists who are visiting some Romans remains.

Listen and give short answers to the questions.

Key:

2. To establish position

1. 79/ seventy-nine

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3. Treasure

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4. Once a year

5. Loose stones, walls Part 3.You will hear a discussion between two students.For questions 6-10, listen and decide whether the following sentences are true (T), false (F) or not given (NG). KEY:

1. T

2. F

3.T

4.F

5. NG

Part 4. You are going to hear a speech given at a poetry award ceremony. For questions 15, choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. Write your answer in the space provided. KEY: 2. C

3.A

4.B

5. B

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1. C

B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (30 pts)

Part 1. Choose the most suitable option (A, B, C, or D) to complete each sentence below. (15 points) 2. D

3. C

4. D

5. C

6. A

7. A

8. B

9. C

10. C

11. A

12. C

13. D

14. D

15. C

1. D

Part 2: Complete each space in the text with a word formed from the word in capitals (10

points) 2. construction

3. impassable

6. ownership

7. lovingly

8. Donations

4. competitor

5. unrivalled

9. further

10. derivation

1. speedy

Part 3:The passage below contains 5 mistakes. Underline the mistakes and write the

corrections in te corresponding numbered boxes. (5 points)

3. 7

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4. 8

Elder

5. 11

elderly

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2. 2

Correction to

1. 1

Mistake

Line

Mostly

Most

Rapid

rapidly

Constantly

constant

III. READING (60 POINTS) Part 1. Fill in the blank with one of four options to complete the passage. (10 points) 1. C 2. C

3. B 4. C

5. A 6. C

7. D 8. A

9. D 10. B

Part 2: Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word in each space. Write your answers in the answer box below. (10 points)

1. threat 2. including 3. popular 4. referred 5. where 6. run 7. raise 8. risk 9. rely 10. attention Part 3. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. (10 pts)

1. C

2. A

3. D

4. B

5. A

6. B

7. D

8. D

9. A

10. A

1. Paragraph B 2. Paragraph E 3. Paragraph F 4. Paragraph G 5. Paragraph H

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Part 4: Read the passage and do the tasks that follow. a. Choose the correct headings for each section from the list of headings below. (10points)

- iv Energy from food - vi The nuclear fission chain reation -iii Uncontrolled and moderated nuclear reations - v The advantages of nuclear energy - vii Nuclear fusion

b. Decide if each of the following statements is TRUE or FALSE according to the information provided in the passage.(10points)

6. False 7. True 8. True 9. False 10. True

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Part 5: You are going to read four different opinions from leading scientists about the future of fuel. For questions 1-10, choose from the writers A-D. The writers may be chosen more than once. (10points) 1. C - Jeroen van der Veer 2. B -Michael Lardelli 3. A -Howard Bloom 4. A -Howard Bloom 5. B - Michael Lardelli 6. B - Michael Lardelli 7. D - Craig Severance 8. C -Jeroen van der Veer 9. B -Michael Lardelli 10. D - Craig Severance

PART IV: WRITING

Question 1: Read the passage below and summarize the text. Your summary must be no

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longer than 130 words. (10 points)

Graduates are finding difficulty getting jobs to match their tertiary qualifications. Surveys show that a large number local graduates are unemployed. This is because of the demands of global trade, resource flows and competition. Graduates joining the job market must have specialized skills and knowledge. A degree is not a guarantee to a good job. Local colleges and universities should improve the quality of education. They were awarded bigger research grants to encourage postgraduate studies and research. About 150,000 students are attending public universities and 200,000 are studying in private colleges. Retraining of jobless

No.

Criteria for judgment

Task completion

Language use

Content

Punctuation and spelling

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graduates was carried out by Pembangunan Sumber Manusia Berhad. Since July 2005, more than 30,000 unemployed graduates attended retraining courses. That year, the Government allocated RM35 million to retrain some 6,000 unemployed graduates at 200 training centers nationwide. (129 words) Question 2. The chart below show the different levels of post-school qualifications in Australia and the proportion of men and women who held them in 1999. (20 points) Mark 4.0

7.0

1.0

20 points

TOTAL

8.0

Question 3. Writing an essay : 30 POINTS

Criteria for judgment

Task completion

No.

Mark 4.0

- Consist of three parts: topic sentence, supporting sentences and concluding sentence.

Organization

6.0

- Topic sentence is clearly stated. - Present the right form of an essay. - The ideas are well-organized and developed with unity, cohesion and coherence. Language use

8.0

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- Length: only 5 % less or more than the required number of words is acceptable.

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- Use wide range of vocabulary and structures. - Convey precise meanings with appropriate use of vocabulary and grammatical structures. - Use appropriate linking words or connectors.

Content

8.0

- Provide relevant and convincing ideas, supported by specific examples and/or reasonable justification. 5

Punctuation and spelling

4.0 30 points

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TOTAL

THE END TRANSCRIPTS Part 1

Have you ever gone back to work after a break or a holiday and been suddenly hit by a complete lack of energy? And you wonder whether it’s simply because you’re not relaxing any more but you think that perhaps it's something else, something to do with your environment.

Well, you could be right. In 1982.the World Health Organization defined Sick Building Syndrome as “a syndrome of complaints covering non-specific feelings of ill health, the onset of which is associated with the occupancy of certain modem buildings". To those suffering from it.it means feelings of lack of energy, headaches, dry skin, even itchy eyes. And while the general view might be that there’s a chance of getting sick if you work in a factory and that you wouldn’t expect to feel unwell when you go to work in offices, this is not true.

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The office, it seems, is not the safe and healthy environment it is traditionally thought to be. Surveys among office workers have revealed that large numbers of them in the same building can be affected by the symptoms. Some are affected only from time to time, and others all week but a common finding was that sufferers were mainly affected at the beginning of the week and when they’d been out of the building for some time. And the symptoms disappeared quite quickly when they left work. However, the problem is often a hidden one because many people don't associate the problems with their environment, they think it's probably something about them themselves. And they often say nothing about it because if they do so they might be accused of being complainers. It has been suggested that the problems could arise for reasons as simple as that the central heating is too high. But it is a mistake to look for simple explanations of what is a complex matter. It could be just that the heating is up too high but this does not explain the range of symptoms that sufferers in the same building can have or the fact that these occur in buildings with similar characteristics

PART 2 Guide: Good morning and welcome to this morning’s guided tour of the Roman remains in the area. We’ll start our day by visiting the garrison town of Corbridge - then, this afternoon, we’ll be visiting part of the wall which the Romans built to keep their enemies out of the country. The part we’re going to visit is remarkably well-preserved and it’s easy to imagine what it must have been like all those years ago! The Romans actually arrived in this country in the earlier part of the first century AD, but it wasn’t until the year 79 that they came to the Corbridge area. They built a series of forts and strongholds so that they could establish their position in the whole region. What you’re going to see this morning are the results of excavations which’ve taken place fairly recently. The first early archaeological dig was as far back as 1201 and then, believe it or not, they were looking for

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treasure. Unfortunately, (or perhaps fortunately for us!), nothing interesting was found, so they abandoned the site and it wasn’t until the early nineteenth century that another, and much more ambitious, excavation was carried out. The result was a number of exciting discoveries. And in the mid-nineteenth century, they discovered part of a Roman bridge and other structures, including the baths and other dwellings in the town. More recently, in fact every year since 1934, digs have taken place. These have resulted in the discovery of a large collection of sculpture, coins, pottery and small objects; and some of these have become very famous indeed. Most of them are now housed in the site museum, which we’ll be visiting before we visit the site itself. Unfortunately, for security reasons, some have had to be taken to the city museum, which you’ll find is about 15 miles away. As you can see from this map, the site museum’s laid out in a circle. The first half concentrates on the history of the site, and each section deals with er ... well, a separate period of the site’s history. You’ll also find display cases of objects which would’ve been in use at the time. In the second half of the museum, each section’s related to a particular aspect of life in the town, such as trade, domestic life and religious observance. After visiting the museum we’ll be walking round the site, and we would ask you please, to pay particular attention to any loose stones lying around the site. And keep children off the walls, as these can be extremely dangerous. At the end of the tour we’ll be paying a visit to the gift shop and café, which you probably saw as you came in - near the site entrance and the car park. Now, if you’ve left hats and sunglasses in the coach, I’d advise you to go and retrieve them now as the coach’ ll be locked for the next few hours and the sun’s very hot today. PART 3 Hey, Jess, glad you could make it, we've got a lot to discuss. Hi Matt, yes, sorry I'm a bit late, I did bring all my notes with me. Yes, me too. Where shall we start? Well, I think it would be a good idea to clarify our objectives just one more time. Yes, Good idea......OK, here we are....we need to record. Photograph and identify the plant species in ten, one square meter plots. Does it say anything about where these plots should be and how they should be laid out? ah.....here it is. It says that all the plots need to be no more than 10 metres apart...... and how do we choose them? Ah, this is the fun bit. I remember this......here we are "Make a one meter square fame, using bamboo sticks available from the department stores".... Yes,....we've already done that... I know, I'm just reading the whole section. OK ...One person stands roughly in the middle of the chosen are and throws the fame. The other person uses a tap to mark out the square where the fame landed and returns fame to thrower. The thrower then turns a few degrees on the spot and throws again. The thrower must turn slightly after each throw and vary the force of the throw until after the 10t throw they are pointing in almost the same direction as the first." That sounds a bit complicated. That's only because it's all in writing. It's just a simple throw, turn, throw, turn, throw turn until we have 10 squares. And I guess you want to do the throwing...... Well if you don't mind. I'm sure you'll be more accurate at marking the squares. Yes, I'm sure I am and I'm sure you've got a stronger throwing arm! PART 4

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Hello, everyone, and welcome to this year's award ceremony for the Antonia Watson Memorial Poetry Award. As with previous years, the competition has been particularly fierce and we have received numerous excellent entries, so it's an incredible achievement for our three finalists who are sitting here amongst you, and we should congratulate them all. However, as with every competition, there can unfortunately only be one winner, and we will be announcing them shortly. Before we do, though, a few words about the award itself.As most of you know, the Antonia Watson Memorial Poetry Award has been presented annually since 2010, and was presented biannually for two more competitions prior, once in 2008 and once in 2006. It is entirely funded by Antonia Watson's very generous parents, who oﬀer £1,500 to the author of the best poem on a topic announced at each previous award ceremony, as well as £500 to the first runner-up and £250 to the second, bringing the total up to £2,250.

Now, a few words on Antonia Watson herself, without whom none of us would be standing here today. I brieﬂy knew Antonia while at university, where we were ﬂat mates for a year, and I'm afraid that any speech I give will not be able to do her justice, as she was the kindest, sweetest person I've ever met. Thankfully, this part of my speech was written with the assistance of one of her siblings, Thomas Watson, who was not only her brother, but also her best friend.

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Antonia was born in Sleaford, Lincolnshire, in December 1986. From a very young age, she displayed an inquisitive and creative nature, matched in volume only by the gentle kindness of her spirit. She wrote her first poem, named "Love Barks", about the death of her dog, at the age of ten. This was also her first poem to be published at her school's newspaper-just two months after another of her poems, "Be Kind", won the 1996 Triad Children's Writing Competition and was published in the competition's anthology. While her early forays into poetry were crowned with impressive success, Antonia unfortunately ceased to write for a few years following the death of her very dear grandfather, Peter William Watson in 1999.

TRẠI HÈ HÙNG VƯƠNG LẦN THỨ XV

ĐỀ THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH LỚP 11

ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT

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Trường THPT Chuyên Chu Văn An- Lạng Sơn SECTION I: LISTENING COMPREHENSION (50 pts) PART 1. Complete the notes below. Write only ONE word for each answer. (20pts) GEOGRAPHY Studying geography helps us to understand: - the effects of different processes on the (1)__________ of the earth - the dynamic between (2)__________ and population Two main branches of study: - physical features - human lifestyles and their (3)__________ Specific study areas: biophysical, topographic, political, social, economic, historical and (4)__________geography, and also cartography. Key point: georaphy helps us to understand our surrounding and the associated (5)__________ What do geographers do? Find data e.g. conduct censuses, collect information in the form of (6)__________ - using computer and satellite technology. Analyse data - identify (7)__________, e.g. cause and effect. Publish findings in form of a. maps - easy to carry - can show physical features of large and small areas - BUT a two-dimensional map will always have some (8)__________ b. aerial photos - can show vegetation problems, (9)__________density, ocean floor etc. c. Landsat picture sent to receiving stations - used for monitoring (10)__________ conditions etc. PART 2. Write ONLY ONE WORD OR A NUMBER from the dialogue for each answer. (10pts)

11. How many days did the scientists spend under the waves? _______________ 12. What answer did Rob choose? _______________ 13. What's the name of the laboratory? _______________ 1

14. Where's the laboratory situated? _______________

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15. What is the world record, in minutes, for holding breath underwater? _______________

PART 3. You will hear a student called Rob who is in the first year of the theatre studies course talking to another student called Mia-who is in the fourth year of the same course. Listen and decide whether these sentences are True (T) or False (F) according to what you hear. (10pts.) Theatre Studies Course 16. To prepare to play the character of a doctor, Rob imagined his grandfather at work. 17. In the play's first scene, the boredom of village life was suggested by long pauses within conversations 18 .Through working in a group, Rob thinks he is a good leader. 19. To support the production, research material was used which described changing social attitudes. 20. In the final rehearsal the students overcame the problem of the injury of one character Your answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

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PART 4. You will hear part of a radio interview in which a graphic designer called Sandra Cammell is talking about her work as a children's book illustrator. For questions 21-25, choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear.(10pts) 21. What does Sandra find difficult about working as a freelance illustrator? A. being expected to be available all the time B. having to work to a tight schedule C. not knowing when she will next be working D. lacking the opportunity to develop her style 22. What is the advantage for Sandra of working with editors she knows well? A. She can illustrate books for the age group she prefers. B. She can disagree with the editor's decisions C. She has freedom in how she chooses to illustrate books. D. She is allowed to work on illustrations before receiving the story. 23. For Sandra, what aspect of drawing people requires most effort? A. persuading other people to model for her drawings B. keeping the figures realistic rather than cartoonish 2

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C. making the postures of children seems convincing D. forming a mental picture of a book's main character 24. According to Sandra, what effect did her work have on her children? A. They had to learn to play by themselves. B. They thought that all mothers worked at home. C. They developed their own interest in art. D. They became good readers at an early age. 25. What advice does Sandra give to young people hoping to be illustrators? A. send samples of your work to publishers B. be prepared to spend time on self-promotion C. show that you specialize in particular subjects D. avoid being distracted by other kinds of work Your answers 21. 22. 23. 24. 25.

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SECTION II: LEXICO-GRAMMAR (40 points) PART 1. Choose the most suitable word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) to fill in each blank (20 pts) 1. She _________ agreed to go with him to the football match although she had no interest in the game at all. A. apologetically B. grudgingly C. shamefacedly D. discreetly 2. On the way to Cambridge yesterday, the road was blocked by a fallen tree, so we had to make a_________. A. deviation B. digression C. detour D. departure 3. Tom’s normally very efficient but he’s been making a lot of mistakes_________. A. of late B. for now C. in a while D. shortly 4. I know it’s difficult but you’ll just have to_________and bear it. A. laugh B. smile C. grin D. chuckle 5. I didn’t want to make a decision _________, so I said I’d like to think about it. A. in one go B. there and then C. at a stroke D. on and off 6. We are not in a _________hurry so let’s have another coffee. A. dashing B. racing C. rushing D. tearing 7. She’s a bit down in the_________at the moment – her husband has just lost his job. A. world B. dumps C. heart D. bottom 8. “How did you know that he was lying?” – “It was just a_________feeling.” A.faint B. gut C. slight D. vain 9.The new company had been_________with one problem after another and looked as if it were about to go under. A. glorified B. tainted C. fraught D. bewildered 10. Mike decided that election to the local council would provide a_________to a career in national politics. 3

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A. milestone B. springboard C. highway D. turning point 11. As a poet, I think she_________comparison with the greatest this century. A. stands B. makes C. leads D. matches 12. We all have to follow the rules, and none of us is_________the law. A. beyond B. over C. above D. onto 13. When disaster_________, organisations such as Oxfam quickly provide help. A.comes B. approaches C. arrives D. strikes 14. The number of people traveling by air has been growing_________. A.by leaps and bounds B. from time to time C. slow but sure D. by hook and crook 15. Drug-taking is a crime which society simply cannot _________. A. approve B. acknowledge C. consent D. condone 16. I was scared _________when I looked down from the top of the cliff. A. tight B. stiff C. hard D. solid 17. The whereabouts of the exiled president remains a_________ guarded secret. A. highly B. closely C. deeply D. entirely 18. We should all _________when advertisers attempt to use unfair practices. A. make a stand B. make a comeback C. make amends D. make a deal 19. The company cannot accept _________ for injuries resulting from improper use of rental equipment A. validity B. liability C. compensation D. privilege 20. Jack never cheats or tricks anybody when he plays. He always goes by the _________. A. book B. instructions C. principles D. method

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PART 2. Give the correct form of the words in brackets. (10 pts) 1. This place is an _____________ zone, which is restricted to people who work in the Parliamentary House only. (EXCLUDE) 2. He was _____________by the darkness and got lost in the forest. (NIGHT) 3. He was _____________with intelligence but he tried hard to make up for it. (ENDOW) 4. Any _____________gimmicks are forbidden in this competition. (MALICE) 5. Surely all women must have_____________ instinct or the human race would die out. (MOTHER) 6. Putting up with noise coming from the neighbor is probably the most _____________ thing. (TO) 7. The leader was taken into custody, which brought an end to the _____________. (SURGE) 8. The spectacular view of Sa Pa has _____________many visitors. (RAPTURE) 9. Andy has received such_____________ fame after he tried himself in the school’s play. (WONT) 10. The aridity in that area _____________a poor crop. (TOKEN) 4

PART 3. The passage below contains 10 errors. IDENTIFY and CORRECT them. Write your answers in the space provided . (0) has been done as an example. (10 pts)

Corrections

Mistakes

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Your answers: Lines 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

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When constructing eco-friendly homes, builders allocate specific types of energy-efficient resources for specific areas of the home. For instance, it is common to affix single or double panels on the tops of hot water heaters to absorb solar energy and provide a costly-effective, continual, renewable power source. These types of hot water heaters are inexpensive to install and unobtrusive to the eye. In case of wind power, it is neither attractive nor particularly efficient to erect a towering turbine next to a single home; rather it is built in an area where it can power several homes at last. Furthermore, what homebuilders position their homes influences their energy efficiency. A home with south-facing windows will absorb the natural radiation from the sun, thus heat the home without using any energy-producing device. And builders line homes with the best forms of insulation so any energy is used to heat a home, whether it be natural or from electricity transmitted through the grid, will not easily escape from it.

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14

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SECTION III. READING (50 points) PART 1. Choose the best word or phrase among A, B, C or D that best fits the blank space in the following passage. (10 points) Today the police are able to make use of all kinds of scientific and technological aids in their (1)________ against crime. However, this was not always the (2)______. In the early days of the British police force, during the nineteeth century, the police officer’s whistle was his (3)________ way of calling for help if he got into (4)_________. Gradually, in the twentieth century, things (5)_________ to improve. Those police

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officers lucky enough to be (6)_______ a patrol car rather than a bicycle could also take (7) ________ of radio communications. In 1903, a new system for identifying people by their fingerprints was discovered. (8) _________ it soon proved to be one of the most significant developments in crime investigation, a (9) _________ of the national fingerprint collection could (10)_______ days, if not weeks, until computers were introduced in the 1970s. 1. A. charge B. duty C. fight D. match 2. A. instance B. case C. event D. condition 3. A. mere B. whole C. pure D. main 4. A. difficulty B. anxiety C. concern D. complaint 5. A. believed B. belonged C. became D. began 6. A. given B. thought C. throuwn D. caught 7. A. profit B. advantage C. benefit D. service 8. A. Moreover B. Whether C. Despite D. Although 9. A. hunt B. look C. search D. seek 10. A. pass B. stand C. spend D. take

PART 2. Fill each of the following numbered blanks with ONE suitable word and write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (10 points)

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All tournament chess games are olayed with a chess clock- that is, two clocks joined together. When one player makes his move, his presses a button which stops hic block and starts his opponent’s clock. (1)_______ fails to keep to the time limit, no (2)_______ what the position on the board, loses the game. Weekend tournaments with a fast time limit and long sessions of play of (3)________ to twelve hours a day are very strenuous and (4)__________ in fatigue and time troubles. The play is quite sharp. Active, attracking chess is the order of the day and it is difficult to maintain (5)_________ sustained, precise defence against such play. A score sheet, which has to be handed to the tournament officials at the end of each round. A score of the game must be (6)_________ as play goes on.The only thought in everybody’d head is to win. Talent and youth – that’s (7)_______is needed for success at chess, (8)__________ the emphasis on youth. Some approach the board with a slow, purposeful manner (9)________ giving you a second glance – you simply don’t count. They seem to imply that the outcome is a foregone conclusion for them; you only need to accept it with good (10)________. Your answers 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.

10.

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Part 3. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 1 to 5. (10 points) Although noise, commonly defined as unwanted sound, is a widely recognized form of pollution, it is very difficult to measure because the discomfort experienced by different individuals is highly exposed to higher levels may actually cause hearing loss. Particularly in congested urban areas, the noise produced as a byproduct of our advancing technology causes physical and psychological harm but it also detracts from the quality of life for those exposed to it. Unlike the eyes, which can be covered by the eyelids against strong light, the car has no lid, and is, therefore, always open and vulnerable, noise penetrates without protection. Noise causes effects that the hearer cannot control and to which the body never becomes accustomed to. Loud noises instinctively signal danger to any organism with a hearing mechanism, including human beings. In reponse, heartbeat and respiration accelerate, blood vessels constrict, the skin pales, and muscles tense. In fact, there is a general increase in functioning brought about by the flow of adrenaline released in response to fear, and some of these responses persist even longer than the noise, occasionally as long as thirty minutes after the sound has ceased. Because noise is unavoidable in a complex, industrial society, we are constantly responding in the same ways that we would respond to danger. Recently, researchers have concluded that noise and our response may be much more than an annoyance. It may be a serious threat to physical and psychological health and well-being, causing damage not only to the ear and brain but also to the heart and stomach. We have long known that hearing loss is America’s number one nonfatal health problem, but now we are learning that some of us with heart disease and ulcers may be victims of noise. Investigations on human subjects have demonstrated that babies are affected by noise even before they are born. Fetuses exposed to noise tend to be overactive, they cry easily, and they are more sensitive to gastrointestinal problems after birth. In addition, the psychological effect of noise is very important. Nervousness, irritability, tension, and anxiety increase, affecting the quality of rest during sleep, and the efficiency of activities during walking hours, as well as the way that we interact with one another. 1. Which of the following is the author’s main point? A. Hearing loss is America’s number one nonfatal health problem. B. Loud noise signal danger. C. Noise may pose a serioud threat to our physical and psychological health. D. The car is not like the eye. 2. Why is noise difficult to measure? A. All people do not respond to it in the same way. B. It causes hearing loss C. It is unwanted D. People become accustomed to it 3. The word it in paragraph 1 refres to _______. A. the quality of life B. our advancing technology 7

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C. the noise D. physical and psychological harm 4. Look at the verb accelerate in paragraph 3. Which of the folowing is the closest in meaning to it? A. cease B. rise C. swell D. increase 5. According to the passsage, people respond to loud noises in the same way that they respond to _____. A. annoyance B. danger C. damage D. disease PART 4. Read the following passage and do the tasks that follow. (20 points)

Investigating Children’s Language A. For over 200 years, there has been an interest in the way children learn to speak and understand their first language. Scholars carried out several small-scale studies, especially towards the end of the 19th century, using data they recorded in parental diaries. But detailed, systematic investigation did not begin until the middle decades of the 20th century, when the tape recorder came into routine use. This made it possible to keep a permanent record of samples of child speech, so that analysts could listen repeatedly to obscure extracts, and thus produce a detailed and accurate description. Since then, the subject has attracted enormous multi-disciplinary interest, notably from linguists and psychologists, who have used a variety of observational and experimental techniques to study the process of language acquisition in depth.

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B. Central to the success of this rapidly emerging field lies the ability of researchers to devise satisfactory methods for eliciting linguistic data from children. The problems that have to be faced are quite different from those encountered when working with adults. Many of the linguist’s routine techniques of enquiry cannot be used with children. It is not possible to carry out certain kinds of experiments, because aspects of children’s cognitive development – such as their ability to pay attention, or to remember instructions – may not be sufficiently advanced. Nor is it easy to get children to make systematic judgments about language, a task that is virtually impossible below the age of three. And anyone who has tried to obtain even the most basic kind of data – a tape recording of a representative sample of a child’s speech – knows how frustrating this can be. Some children, it seems, are innately programmed to switch off as soon as they notice a tape recorder being switched on.

C. Since the 1960s, however, several sophisticated recording techniques and experimental designs have been devised. Children can be observed and recorded through one-way-vision windows or using radio microphones, so that the effects of having an investigator in the same room as the child can be eliminated. Large-scale sampling programmes have been carried out, with children sometimes being recorded for several years. Particular attention has been paid to devising experimental techniques that fall well within a child’s intellectual 8

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level and social experience. Even pre-linguistic infants have been brought into the research: acoustic techniques are used to analyse their vocalisations, and their ability to perceive the world around them is monitored using special recording equipment. The result has been a growing body of reliable data on the stages of language acquisition from birth until puberty. There is no single way of studying children’s language. Linguistics and psychology have each brought their own approach to the subject, and many variations have been introduced to cope with the variety of activities in which children engage, and the great age range that they present. Two main research paradigms are found.

D. One of these is known as ‘naturalistic sampling’. A sample of a child’s spontaneous use of language is recorded in familiar and comfortable surroundings. One of the best places to make the recording is in the child’s own home, but it is not always easy to maintain good acoustic quality, and the presence of the researcher or the recording equipment can be a distraction (especially if the proceedings are being filmed). Alternatively, the recording can be made in a research centre, where the child is allowed to play freely with toys while talking to parents or other children, and the observers and their equipment are unobtrusive.

E. A good quality, representative, naturalistic sample is generally considered an ideal datum for child language study. However, the method has several limitations. These samples are informative about speech production, but they give little guidance about children’s comprehension of what they hear around them. Moreover, samples cannot contain everything, and they can easily miss some important features of a child’s linguistic ability. They may also not provide enough instances of a developing feature to enable the analyst to make a decision about the way the child is learning. For such reasons, the description of samples of child speech has to be supplemented by other methods.

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F. The other main approach is through experimentation, and the methods of experimental psychology have been widely applied to child language research. The investigator formulates a specific hypothesis about children’s ability to use or understand an aspect of language, and devises a relevant task for a group of subjects to undertake. A statistical analysis is made of the subjects’ behaviour, and the results provide evidence that supports or falsifies the original hypothesis.

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G. Using this approach, as well as other methods of controlled observation, researchers have come up with many detailed findings about the production and comprehension of groups of children. However, it is not easy to generalise the findings of these studies. What may obtain in a carefully controlled setting may not apply in the rush of daily interaction. Different kinds of subjects, experimental situations, and statistical procedures may produce different results or interpretations. Experimental research is therefore a slow, painstaking business; it may take years before researchers are convinced that all variables have been considered and a finding is genuine. 9

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Questions 1-5 The reading passage has seven paragraphs: A – G. Choose the most suitable paragraph headings B – F from the list of headings on the right. NB There are more paragraph headings than paragraphs so you will not use them all. Question 1: Paragraph B: _______ Question 2: Paragraph C: _______ Question 3: Paragraph D: _______ Question 4: Paragraph E: _______ Question 5: Paragraph F: _______ i. Some limitations in the research method of child’s language ii. The differences between analysing children’s and adults’ language iii. Experimental approach to investigate child’s language use iv. The development of some new research methods v. The beneficial effects of investigating children language vi. The record of child’s use of language in familiar and comfortable surroundings

Questions 6-10 Complete the summary below. Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer. One method of carrying out research is to record children’s spontaneous language use. This can be done in their homes, where, however, it may be difficult to ensure that the recording is of acceptable (6)________________Another venue which is often used is a (7)________________ where the researcher can avoid distracting the child. A drawback of this method is that it does not allow children to demonstrate their comprehension. An alternative approach is to use methodology from the field of (8)________________. In this case, a number of children are asked to carry out a (9)________________ and the results are subjected to a (10)________________.

SECTION IV. WRITING (60 points)

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Part 1. Read the following extract and use your own words to summarize it. Your summary should be about 120 words long. You MUST NOT copy the original. (10 points). The means of transportation has changed and improved over many centuries. Long ago, during the times of the kings and knights, animals such as horses, buffaloes and camels were used by man for transportation purposes. These animals no doubt did save man from traveling by foot, they took a long time to complete the journeys, especially when transporting goods. In 1825, George Stephenson's opening of the first railway marked a significant progress in the history of transportation. Railways were in popular demand because they could carry more people and loads. More importantly, they ran faster than animals. Railways improved the communication networks and hence, imports and exports of goods and people traveling 10

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out of their towns or even countries to work were made possible. Unfortunately, since the invention of motor vehicles, the popularity of railways has declined. Motor vehicles were first invented in the eighteenth century. These vehicles were preferred by many people as they do not run on tracks and hence do not have fixed routes. Travelers can then plan their own routes to suit their convenience. This is especially so when the destinations are places like small towns or remote areas. In these places, few or even none of the trains ever reach them; so traveling by the motor vehicle would solve this problem. Over many years of modifications, the motor vehicle is now one of the most commonly used means of transportation. Today, we travel in cars, taxis, buses, lorries or vans almost every day. Another form of transportation is by water. It may be the slowest but definitely the cheapest form of bulk transportation. Though over the centuries of innovations, water transportation has improved from the ancient wind dependent yachts to the modern motor driven ships, journeys by water are still characterized by the dangers and unpredictability of meeting natural disasters like the storms. The evolution of world transportation has reached its pinnacle with the invention of airplanes. Transportation by planes is the easiest and fastest. Planes gliding smoothly in the air, are not obstructed by seas, hills, buildings and so on. Though convenient, this means of transport is the most expensive. Despite the popular demand, the transportation network of the planes is still not a balanced and complete one till today. Developed countries tend to make use of air transportation more frequently than the less developed ones as they do more exporting and importing of goods and also have more people traveling to and fro their countries. Hence, the networks in these developed countries are denser.

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Computer Games

Reading Board Games

Watching TV

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20 10

% 0 England

Scotland

Ireland

Wales

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Part 3: Write an essay of about 350 words to express your opinion on the following topic: The social networks have a tremendous influence in shaping juveniles’ character. To what extent do you agree or disagree with this statement? (30 points).

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___THE END___

TRẠI HÈ HÙNG VƯƠNG LẦN THỨ XV

ĐÁP ÁN TRẠI HÈ HÙNG VƯƠNG LẦN THỨ XV MÔN: TIẾ NG ANH - KHỐI: 11 Thời gian: 180 phút

TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN CHU VĂN AN LẠNG SƠN SECTION 1. LISTENING PART I. (20pts)

1. surface

2. environment

6. images

7. patterns

3. impact(s)/ effect (s) 8. distortion(s)

4. urban

3. Aquarius

4. Florida

False/ F

True/ T

False/ F

25. B

PART 4: (10pts) (CAE TEST BUILDER TEST 2) 21.B 22. C 23. C 24. D

True/ T

5.22

PART 3: (10pts) 1.

10. weather

2. B

5. problems

9. traffic

PART II. (10pts) 1. 31

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ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT

11A

12C

13D

10B

14A

15D

16B

17B

18A

19B

20A

SECTION 2. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (40 points) PART 1. Choose the most suitable word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) to fill in each blank (20 pts)

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PART 2. Give the correct form of the words in brackets. (10 pts) 1. exclusionary 2.benighted 3.unendowed 6. untoward

7.insurgency

8. enraptured.

4. malicious

5. maternal

9. unwonted

10. betokens

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PART 3. The passage below contains 10 errors. IDENTIFY and CORRECT them. Write your answers in the space provided . (0) has been done as an example. (10 pts) Lines Mistakes Corrections 1. 3 on to 4 2. costly-effective cost-effective 5 3. case the case 7 4. rather rather, 7 5. last once 8 6. what how 10 7. heat heating 10 8. device devices 11 9. so so that 11 10. is used used Page 1 of 8

SECTION III. READING (50 points) PART 1. Choose the best word or phrase among A, B, C or D that best fits the blank space in the following passage. (10 points) Write your answers in the space provided. (10 pts) 1. C 2. B 3. D 4. A 5. D 6. A 7. B 8. D 9. C 10. D

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PART 2. (10 points) For questions 1-10, fill each of the following numbered blanks with ONE suitable word and write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. 1. whoever 2. matter 3. up 4 result 5. a/ any 6. kept 7. what 8. with 9. without 10. grace Part 3. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 1 to 5.

1. C 2. A 3. C 4. D 5. B PART 4. Read the following passage and do the tasks that follow. (20 points)

1. Paragraph B: ii 2. Paragraph C: iv 3. Paragraph D: vi 4. Paragraph E: i 5. Paragraph F: iii 6. acoustic quality. 7. research centre/center 8. experimental psychology 9. (relevant) task 10. statistical analysis

2 pt

SECTION IV. WRITING (60 points) PART 1: (10 points). Summarize the following article in no more than 120 words. 1. Write good summary with enough content and clear, logical information.

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In ancient times, man made use of animals like the horses to transport themselves and goods. The journeys usually took a long time. Trains were preferred to animals since its invention, as they carry more people and goods and travel faster. Motor vehicles proved more superior to trains as they do not run on rails. Hence, they are able to reach small towns and remote areas where tracks are not available. Traveling via waters man be slow but it is the cheapest form of bulk transportation. However, journeys by water are often characterized by the danger of meeting a storm. Traveling by plane is the most convenient but expensive way and thus we do not use it for daily purposes. ( 120 words )

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PART 2. (20 points You should write at least 150 words. 1. Completion: 2 pts - Neither too long nor too short 2. Content: 6 pts - Cover the main information in the chart yet not go into too much detail. - Make general remarks and effective comparisons. 3. Organisation: 4 pts - The ideas are well-organized - The description is sensibly divided into paragraphs 4. Language: 6 pts - Use a wide range of vocabulary and structure - Good grammar 5. Punctuation and spelling: 2 pts

PART 3. (30 points) Write an essay of about 250 words about the following topic: 1. Completion: 4 pts - Consist of three parts - Neither too long nor too short 2. Content: 8 pts Provide relevant and convincing ideas about the topic, supported by specific example and/or reasonable justification. 3. Organisation: 6 pts - Present the right form of a paragraph - Ideas are well organized and presented with unity, cohesion and coherence. 4. Language: 8 pts - Demonstrate of a wide range of vocabulary and structures. - Good use of grammatical structures. - Present the ideas with clarity. - Easy to follow. 5. Punctuation and spelling: 4 pts

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PART I. IELTS 8- TEST 1- SECTION 4

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PART 2: Rob: Hello and welcome to 6 Minute English from BBC Learning English. I'm Rob and with me is Finn. Finn: … Rob: Finn? Are you ok? Finn: (breathes out) Ahhh… 49 seconds… I was just… holding my breath! Rob: A new hobby of yours, Finn?

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Finn: Well today… we're talking about people living underwater – so I thought I could do with some practice. Rob: Ok – well you get your breath back. Today, we'll be hearing about scientists who broke the world record for time spent underwater – they spent an incredible 31 days under the waves! And we'll be learning some related vocabulary too. Ready now, Finn? Finn: Yes – I think so. And are you ready for this week's question? Rob: Hit me with it. Finn: This week's question is… what is the longest time a human being has held their breath underwater for? Is it: 12 minutes 18 minutes 22 minutes Rob: I'm going to go for b) 18 minutes. Finn: I'll tell you if you're right or wrong at the end of the programme, but… don't hold your breath! Rob: Haha. Don't hold your breath – a phrase which means 'don't expect that a particular good thing will happen'. Anyway – what about these scientists – did they hold their breath for 31 days?

Finn: Haha – no – but they did live underwater in a laboratory. That's a room or building with scientific equipment for doing tests. Rob: One of the men was Fabien Cousteau, who's an oceanographer – someone who studies the oceans. He's the grandson of Jacques Cousteau – a Frenchman who held the previous record of 30 days underwater. Finn: Fabien said he wanted to break his grandfather's record to raise awareness of ocean conservation – protecting and looking after the ocean. Rob: Well he's raised our awareness at least. Now I'm interested in how they lived underwater. Listen to Fabien talking about the laboratory called Aquarius. Which word does he use to say that the lab is completely underwater?

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Fabien Cousteau (Oceanographer): Aquarius is very unique in that it's the only undersea marine laboratory – it gives us a unique platform from which to live and explore this final frontier on our planet. Finn: He called it an undersea laboratory. ‘Undersea’ is, as you might guess a word similar to underwater. It means under the sea. Rob: And he called this undersea world 'the final frontier'. It's an interesting phrase – it comes from the Star Trek television series, which called space the final frontier – the last place that humans have not yet travelled to, the last place to explore. Finn: And apparently this laboratory was 18 metres under the sea in Florida... and being there allowed them to spend less time diving and more time observing marine life. Rob: Marine life – that means 'of the sea', so marine life means sea life, plants and animals that live in the sea. They were particularly interested in investigating the effects of pollution on coral. Finn: Now, I know they did this to raise awareness of marine conservation. But what I'm really interested in is what life was like for them. What was it like to live underwater for so long? Rob: Surprisingly, perhaps, life there wasn't too bad. They had air conditioning, hot water and internet access! Finn: Though I do know that Fabien struggled with one aspect. Listen to him to find out what: Fabien Cousteau (Oceanographer): Unfortunately for me, as a French person, the food will also be simulated – freezedried, astronaut type of food, canned foods – things like that, so it's a horror show for me. Rob: Poor Fabien. He said the food was pretty awful. Maybe it was English food?! Finn: Probably – as a Frenchman he wasn't impressed by the freeze-dried food – that means food that is quickly frozen and dried – to preserve it. Rob: Yes, he thought it was astronaut style food – the sort of food you would eat as an astronaut – someone who travels into space! Finn: And coming back to dry land they had to spend 16 hours decompressing. Rob: That's very important. Divers have to decompress – to return to their original body pressure – when they come out of the water.

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Finn: Sounds like a long time to wait for a good meal! So Rob – what do you think? Would you like to live underwater for a month? Rob: Absolutely not. I'd get very claustrophobic in those small spaces. Finn: Anyway – let's see if you got this week's question right. I asked you what you thought the world record for holding your breath for underwater was. Rob: I went for 18 minutes. Finn: Actually is was even longer than that. 22 minutes, 0 seconds by Stig Severinsen from Denmark. Stig was allowed to hyperventilate – breathe fast and deeply using oxygen before the attempt. Please don't try this at home! Well, that brings us to the end of today's 6 Minute English. We hope you’ve enjoyed today’s underwater programme. Please join us again soon. Bye. Rob: Bye. PART 3.

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MIA: ROB:

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ROB: MIA: ROB:

MIA: ROB: MIA:

MIA: ROB:

MIA: ROB: MIA: ROB:

You will hear a student called Rob who is in the first year of the theatre studies course talking to another student called Mia-who is in the fourth year of the same course. Listen and decide whether these sentences are True (T) or False (F) according to what you hear. Hi, Rob. How's the course going? Oh, hi, Mia. Yeah, great. I can't believe the first term's nearly over. I saw your group's performance last night at the student theatre. It was good. Really? Yeah but now we have to write a report on the whole thing, an in-depth analysis. I don't know where to start. Like, I have to write about the role I played, the doctor, how I developed the character. Well, what was your starting point? Er ….. my grandfather was a doctor before he retired, and I just based it on him. OK, but how? Did you talk to him about it? He must have all sorts of stories, but he never says much about his work, even now. He has a sort of authority though. So how did you manage to capture that? I'd ….. I'd visualise what he must have been like in the past, when he was sitting in his consulting room listening to his patients. OK, so that's what you explain in your report. Right. Then there's the issue of atmosphere - so in the first scene we needed to know how boring life was in the doctor's village in the 1950s, so when the curtain went up on the first scene in the waiting room, there was that long silence before anyone spoke. And then people kept saying the same thing over and over, like 'Cold, isn't it? Yes, and everyone wore grey and brown, and just sat in a row. Yes, all those details of the production. And I have to analyse how I functioned in the group - what I found out about myself. I know I was so frustrated at times, when we couldn't agree. Yes. So did one person emerge as the leader? Sophia did. That was OK - she helped us work out exactly what to do, for the production. And that made me feel better, I suppose. When you understood what needed doing? Yes. And Sophia did some research, too. That was useful in developing our approach. Like what? Well, she found these articles from the 1950s about how relationships between children and their parents, or between the public and people like bank managers or the police were shifting. Interesting. And did you have any practical problems to overcome? Well, in the final rehearsal everything was going fine until the last scene that's where the doctor's first patient appears on stage on his own. The one in the wheelchair?

MIA: ROB: MIA: ROB: MIA: ROB: MIA:

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ROB:

MIA:

Yes, and he had this really long speech, with the stage all dark except for one spotlight - and then that stuck somehow so it was shining on the wrong side of the stage ... but anyway we got that fixed, thank goodness. Yes, it was fine on the night.

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PART 4: Interviewer: Sandra, I have to tell you that my kids have been reading your books for years. They're the kind of pictures that completely capture a child's imagination. Do you get as much delight out of producing them? Sandra: Thank you Mark. Well, yes, certainly I do. But don't think I'm illustrating all the time. I work freelance and freelance work tends to be really great from the point of view of, erm, if you like a variety in your life about what you do and when, particularly with children's illustration, because you have intensive bursts and then you have periods of time when you haven't got any work coming in. But when it does, meeting the deadline is the hardest part. When a book's being produced, the illustrator is the last person to do their bit and by that stage often the restriction of time means that you resort to a similar style - one you know you can do fast, but you have to accept that. But yes, it's ideal for a mother at home with small children which was my situation when I started. You can work any time of the night or day. Interviewer: I low did you get into illustrating children's books? Did you do a particular course that trains you for it? Sandra: Not really. 1 did a three-year graphic design degree when 1 left secondary school and learned all sorts of things, and while 1 was at college, I also worked for an advertising agency. I've always believed that you try and work in the situation you're heading for while you're training because that's a really good way of networking with people and making contacts, and finding out what the real world's like, so from that perspective it was great. I did lots of ads for the Vogel's bread company and at any one time in my flat I would have all these varieties of bread in my kitchen, and I would be using black charcoal pencil on quite rough paper and it would give a beautiful texture when you did realistic drawings of the bread, but I had to hurry up and draw it before it went mouldy. It was quite time-consuming, what with all the tiny seeds and crusty edges, but the company wanted very realistic pictures. I lost count of how many buns and loaves I had to draw, but, erm, realistic illustration gives me immense satisfaction, so I didn't mind. And then, um, I didn't start doing children's books until I had children and needed to work from home. Interviewer: How does the actual process work? you and the writer ever meet up? Sandra: No. The editor and the writer have worked on the script of the story' together. Then I get a phone call and the editor says 'It's due in this amount of time. Are you interested?' and I always say 'Yes'. Then you receive what we call the 'layout' in the post - that's basically big sheets of white paper with an outline of the book on it, and the actual story positioned on the page where the editor wants to see it. And then they will give you a brief, which is a page-by-page idea of what they want to see from the artist. And I'm lucky in that I've developed a relationship with a few editors in different companies now, so that that brief can be quite flexible when 1 receive it, because they understand that I've been doing this long enough to know the relationship that's got to happen between the picture and the word, particularly in emergent readers, that's little children who are learning to read. They need a very strong picture-word relationship, and consistent pictures. You can't have a drawing of someone on one page wearing a certain sort of clothing and then change it on the next - that just wouldn't work. Interviewer: Yes, I know from my own children that repetition and familiarity are important in books. But, erm, when you know you've got work, what's the next step? Sandra: Well, it usually starts with me reading through the story and I immediately see it in my mind -1 have an immediate idea about the central character and often if it's not an animal or cartoon idea, if it's actually a child or an adult, 1 try to think of someone 1 know and I base the character on that person, [¿specially if it needs to be realistic, I might then go out and take a lot of photos of that person, if they agree, to sort of help me get some idea about facial expression and that sort of thing. I used my neighbour in my last book and she thought it was hilarious. My eldest son James has appeared through his life in many of my books. The poor child has had to pose doing all sorts of things because children are quite tricky to draw and it's really helpful if you actually have their little bodies and hands to see how they work - they tend to hold themselves and stand differently to adults. Interviewer Have you ever used your own children to get some erm, feedback on your work? Sandra: No, not like that. When they were younger they used to look at the pictures a lot - they've always been part of Page 7 of 8

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their lives. Me illustrating at home has always been part of what they know. 1 think the best spin-off has been that they’ve both been exposed to books constantly, and I have a deep belief in reading to children right from the word go. And, um, James and Andrew were barely 6, and they were thoroughly enjoying all sorts of books by that stage, 1 mean, they had a reading ability way beyond some of their friends at the same age. It's all about the contact you have with your child and I think that children are missing out on that more and more, perhaps with everybody being busy, but books are a wonderful way to curl up and get together. Interviewer: And for any young person who would like a career in illustration. How should they go about it? Sandra: Well, you need to build up a portfolio, lots of examples of your work, to show to publishers. It's really good to show a range of ethnic backgrounds, the fact that you can draw people and animals, perhaps that you can cartoon; versatility is the key to getting work. And when I started out, I just went round lots of different children's publishers and met the editor. I suppose you could send in your CV first, but I tended to ring and make an appointment and go and see them because I believe that it’s always best to go and speak to somebody. They get a better idea about the person they're dealing with. And if you really want to get on, you have to market yourself really well. You need to generate your own work and put your face in front of people at overseas conferences, that sort of thing. The great majority of our most successful contemporary artists are trained teachers, and they've worked in that profession while they've consolidated their art career - so it's always handy to have something else up your sleeve. ----- THE END -----

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TRẠI HÈ HÙNG VƯƠNG LẦN THỨ XV

ĐỀ THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH - KHỐI 11

TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN HÙNG VƯƠNG

Năm học 2019 - 2020

ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT

Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút

-------------------

(Đề này có 20trang)

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SECTION I: LISTENING Part 1: Listen to a piece of news about the loss of rainforests and complete the summary below. WRITE NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER. (10pts)

Since the beginning of 20th century rainforests have been under threat of extinction. One major cause of deforestation is repurposing the land for 1. ________ such as growing

rubber or palm oil on its property.

The loss of this dense biodiversity can pose several threats to our modern society. It is

estimated that 2.________ modern medicines would be lost along with thousands of

3._______ derived from plants while underprivileged groups are relying on rainforest plants

for medicines. According to World Health Organization, 4.______ take up to 50% of all

medicines in China. Another major problem is climate change. Known as 5. _________,

rainforests absorb CO2, clearing it from the atmosphere. A rise in carbon dioxide levels and

a fall in rainforest acreage would contribute to 6. _______ and severe droughts. More

globally.

seriously, 7. __________ over resources such as farming land has led to farmers’ deaths

It is not easy to find a feasible approach to stopping deforestation as many people on Earth

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survive by means of natural resource 8. __________. A typical example is palm oil industry which helps to 9. _______ by creating jobs for millions of farmers. Switching to another

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production of 10. ________ like sunflower or soybean would even cause more land destruction.

Your answers: 1.

9. 1

10.

Part 2 You will hear a student called Tina asking Professor VanDiezen for advice on FIVE WORDS for each answer.(5 pts) 1. What is the defining characteristic of a specialised course?

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choosing courses. Listen and answer the following questions, using NO MORE THAN

…………………………………………………………………………………………… 2. For whom the Microbiology courses are available?

…………………………………………………………………………………………… 3. Who are interested in Microbiology courses?

……………………………………………………………………………………………

4. Why will a Medical Science course be opened next year?

……………………………………………………………………………………………

5. Which is the quickest increasing subject in enrolment?

……………………………………………………………………………………………

Part 3

(T) or false (F).(5 pts)

You will hear a radio interview, decide decide whether the following sentences are true

1. The idea for the invention occurred to Ryan while waiting at a Burger King restaurant.

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2. Ryan used the idea when he entered a science contest. 3. Ryan’s invention helps deaf people learn sign language.

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4. Ryan had no previous experience of building electronic devices. 5. Ryan has sold his invention to a deaf community centre.

Your answers: 1.

Part 4:

You are going to hear a radio phone-in programme on the subject of allergies. For questions 1- 5 choose the answer A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes (5pts) 1. Which of these possible explanations for the increase in allergies does the programme

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presenter mention in her introduction? A. People are exposed to more dangerous substances than in the past. B. People's resistance to allergens is lower than in the past.

C. More new allergens are being released into the environment.

D. Higher levels of stress have made people more prone to allergies.

2. Which of the questions does the first caller, Tim, want to know the answer to?

B. Why is he allergic to grass and pollen?

C. Will he ever be free of the allergy?

D. How can he improve his condition? 3. Arabella, the caller from Amsterdam,

A. What is the most likely cause of his allergy?

A. thinks she may have passed on her allergy to her children.

B. asks how she can minimize the risk of her children having allergies.

C. wants to know whether her peanut allergy will continue in the future.

D. asks how probable it is that her children will have allergies.

4. If both a child's parents have a particular allergy, that child

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A. is more than likely to have the same allergy. B. has a less than fifty per cent chance of getting the same allergy. C. will probably develop a different allergy.

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D. is at no greater risk of developing the allergy than any other child.

5. According to Dr Bawaldi, some people believe that the increase in asthma among young children may result from A. living in centrally heated or air-conditioned buildings. B. being in areas with very high levels of exhaust fumes. C. spending too much time in hygienic environments. D. receiving medical treatment for other types of illness. 3

Your answers: 1.

SECTION II: LEXICO- GRAMMAR

answer to each of the following questions. (15 pts)

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Part 1. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct

1. Did you plan to meet up Mary in London, or was it just a_______? A. freak

B. fate

C. coincidence

D. luck

downs ____. B. inexhaustibly

C. profusely

D. superabundant

A. aplenty

2. Little did I imagine The Amazing Race would entail long-winded journey and ups and

A. bothers

3. These men share a tendency toward balladeering that _______ me the wrong way. B. provokes

C. riles

D. rubs

B. ransack

C. root around

D. turn upside down

A. bed out

4. We had to _______ in the back of the car for an hour to find the missing keys.

5. He was arrested for trying to pass______ notes at the bank. B. fake

A. camouflaged

C. counterfeit

D. fraudulent

6. Sterling is a __________________ town not far from Edinburgh C. medium

D. medium-sized

A. medium-large B. middle-sized

7. I felt an _______ with the writer from his descriptions of a world that seemed to have

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a great deal in common with my own. A. affection

B. adherence

C. acknowledgement

D. affinity

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8. I threw some biscuits _________ on the ground and a whole load of pigeons

swooped down and started eating them. A. Grains

B. specks

C. flakes

D. crumbs

9. In _____ with your request, I am happy to enclose our brochure. A. assent

B. obedience

C. accordance

D. concession

10.She’s a bit down in the__________ at the moment – her husband has just lost his job. A. world

B. dumps

C. heart

D. bottom 4

11.“How did you know that he was lying?” – “It was just a ___________ feeling.” A. faint

B. gut

C. slight

D. vain

12.I’m not sure if I’m doing it right, but I’ll try to ___________ahead with it anyway. A. drive

B. bang

C. touch

D. press

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13.When people live in such close __________ to each other, there are bound to be occasional problems A. neighborhood B. vicinity

C. position

D. proximity

14.Could you lend me some money to _____________ me over to the end of the month? A. hand

B. tide

C. get

D. make

15.He will be sued for ______ of contract if he does not do what he promised. B. crack

C. rupture

11.

12.

13.

Your answers:

D. breach

A. fracture

10.

14.

15.

Part 2: Write the correct form of the words given in the brackets. Write your answers in

the spaces provided below. (10 points)

Rice crops fail in drought conditions or where the soil is

too(1)_________ . So work is underway to ‘climate-proof’ rice so

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it can grow in even the most (2) _______ of conditions. Drought

1. SALT 2. FAVOUR

affects 23 million hectares of rice annually, and salt is 3. PROBLEM

consequently(4) _______ the pressures on food supplies. Further

4. INTENSE

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equally(3) ______________ ; it reduces yields by 40% and

reductions in yields are likely due to climate (5)_______. Scientists 5. STABLE are attempting to produce a super rice by mixing genes from drought-tolerant plants with those from another that exploits nitrogen

6. EFFECT

(6) ____________, thus enabling it to grow without fertiliser.

7. PERFORM

Comparing the new rice’s (7) ___ with that of ordinary rice, the super rice produced 17% more than the ordinary variety in

8. COMBINE

individual trials and 42% more when subjected to a (8) _________ of stresses. In addition, researchers are working on improving other 9. RESIST

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crops. For example, one team has developed a potato that is (9)_______ to certain diseases. It is hoped that developments such

10. LESS

as this will (10) _________ the impact of climate change in developing countries.

Your answers:

10.

Part 3: The passage below contains 10mistakes. Underline the mistakes and correct

them.(5 points)

Line

It is very difficult to succeed in the music business; nine out of ten bands

that release a first record fail to produce the second. Surviving in the music

industry requires luck and patience, but most of all it requires an intricate

knowledge of how a record company is functioned. The process begins

when a representative of a company's Artists and Repertoire (A & R) department visits bars and night clubs, scouting for young, talented bands.

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After having identified a promising band, he or she will work to negotiate a

contract with that band. The signature of this recording contract is a slow

process. A company will spend a long time investigating the band itself as

well as current trends for popular music. During this period, it is important

that a band reciprocate with an investigation of its own, learning as much

as possible about the record company and making personnel connections 6

within the different departments that will handle their recordings.

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Your answer: Mistake

Correction

Number Line

SECTION III: READING

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Part 1:Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap. (10 pts)

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Is Prince William an embryonic bard? A research team in Germany claim they have found evedence that he is descended from Shakespeare and may thus have inherited literary

genius.

Frustrated by a lack of first-hand evidence, researchers trying to (1)___________ together details of the Bard’s life have long turned to his sonests as the only words of his that might be autobiographical. For centuries, academics have been trying to solve the (2)_________ riddle of the “Dark Lady”, the mystery person to whom Shakepeare addressed his sonnets. 7

Those involved in the most recent detective (3)__________ have come up with some evidence that the Bard’s bloodline is linked to the youngest generation of the royal family. This bold claim is (4)_______ by clues hidden in paintings of the previously unidentified noblewoman, to be named by a German academic team as Shakespeare’s dark-haired lover.

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They were assisted by forensic experts from the German police.

But who was the Dark Lady? So many (5)________________ theories have been advanced that some scholars have abandoned the search. In fact, the answer may be (6)________ us

in the face. According to one emenent academic, a portrait of the mysterywoman is on show in Hampton Court Palace in London, (7)______________ it is known as The Persian Lady.

She argues that the pregnant woman depicted there is Elizabeth Vernon, a lady-in-waiting

to Queen Elizabeth, who, after an illicit affair with Shakepeare, went on to marry his patron.

(8)____________ this woman, Elizabeth, third countess of Southamton, bore Shakespeare a

daughter, Penelope, who grew up to tie the (9)_______ with William, second Baron

Spencer, and their descendant was the father of Diana, Princess of Wales and grandfather of

Prince William.

So far, Prince William’s talents have shown themselves in the sport field. But, who knows?

His uncle, Earl Spencer, did after all receive world-wide acclaim for his (10) at the funeral

B. mold

C. piece

D. weld

2. A. enticing

B. appalling

C. tantalizing

D. petrifying

3. A. series

B. hunt

C. wave

D. thread

4. A. held up

B. rallied round

C. backed up

D. stuck up for

5. A. rival

B. no-nonsense

C. holistic

D. orthodox

6. A. staring

B. looking

C.glaring

D. ogling

7. A. lest

B. where

C. for

D. while

8. A. Supposedly

B. Strangely

C. Knowingly

D. Seemingly

9. A. loop

B. bond

C. hitch

D. knot

10.A. monologue

B. elocution

C. oratory

D. address

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1. A. part

of his sister.

Your answers: 1.

10.

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Part 2. Read the text below and think of one word which best fits each space. Use only ONE WORD for each space. Write your answer in the space provided.(10 pts) From Royalist to Republican

Erskine Childers was not what you would call your (1) _______ Irish freedom fighter, A

Briton by birth, and a proud (2) _______ at that – for most of the early years of his life, Childers was a decorated soldier of the British Admiralty (3) _______ had demonstrated

unwavering commitment and loyalty to both king and country. And yet, somewhere along

the way, disillusionment (4) _______ in.

While it is difficult to pinpoint the precise moment when doubt started to creep into

Childers' mind (5) _______ to whether his loyalty was misguided, what was essentially a

complete philosophy shift - a total realignment of ideals - did occur. Childers went from (6)

_______ a royalist to a staunch nationalist, obsessed with the cause of Irish freedom.

He befriended the (7) _______ of Eamon DeVelera and Michael Collins, key figures in the

Irish Republican camp, and even went so far as to ship illegal armaments to the leaders of

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the ill-fated Easter Rising of 1916, which was easily put (8) _______ by the British army. Later, he would fight on the side of the Irish rebels in the War of Independence, (9)

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_______ an uneasy truce was agreed between Britain and Ireland. Eventually, a treaty was signed partitioning the country. For Childers, by now totally devoted to the cause of Irish

freedom and the notion of a united Ireland, partition was (10) _______ bitter a pill to swallow. Your answers: 1.

7. 9

10.

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Part 3. Read the passage and choose the best answers (A, B, C or D) to the questions.(10 pts)

Population ecology is the science that measures changes in population size and

composition and identifies the causes of these fluctuations. Population ecology is not

concerned solely with the human population. In ecological terms, a population consists of

the individuals of one species that simultaneously occupy the same general area, rely on the

same resources, and are affected by similar environmental factors. The characteristics of a

population are shaped by its size and by the interactions among individuals and between

individuals and their environment.

Population size is a balance between factors that increase numbers and factors that decrease numbers. Some factors that increase populations are favourable light and

temperature, adequate food supply, suitable habitat, ability to compete for resource, and

ability to adapt to environmental change. Factors that decrease populations are insufficient

or excessive light and temperature, inadequate food supply, unsuitable or destroyed habitat,

too many competitors for resources, and inability to adapt to environmental change.

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Another important characteristic of any population is its density. Population density is the number of individuals per units, such as the number of maple trees per square kilometer in a county. Ecologists can rarely determine population size by actually counting

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all individuals within geographical boundaries. Instead, they often use a variety of sampling

techniques to estimate densities and total population sizes. For example, they might estimate the number of black bears in a national park by counting individuals in a few sample plots representative of the whole park. In some cases, they estimate population size through indirect indicators, such as the number of nests or burrows, or signs such as tracks or droppings.

Another important population characteristic, dispersion, is the pattern of spacious among individuals within the population’s geographical boundaries. Various species are distributed in their habitats in different ways to take better advantage of food supplies and shelter, and to avoid predators or find prey. Within a population’s range, densities may

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vary greatly because not all areas provide equally suitable habitat, and also because individuals space themselves in relation to other members of the population.

Three possible patterns of dispersion are clumped, uniform, and random. A clumped

dispersion pattern means that individuals are gathered in patches throughout their habitat. Clumping often results from the irregular distribution of resources needed for survival and

reproduction. For example, fallen trees keep the forest floor moist, and many forest insects

are clumped under logs where the humidity is to their liking. Clumping may also be

associated with mating, safety, or other social behavior. Crane flies, for example, swarm in

great numbers, a behavior that increases mating chances, and some fish swim in large

schools so they are less likely to be eaten by predators.

A uniform or evenly spaced distribution results from direct interactions among

individuals in the population. For example, regular spacing of plants may result from

shading and competitions for water. In animal populations, uniform distribution is usually

caused by competition for some resource or by social interactions that set up individual territories for feeding, breeding, or testing.

Random spacing occurs in the absence of strong attraction or repulsion among

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individuals in a population. Overall, random pattern are rare in nature, with most populations showing a tendency toward either clumped or uniform distribution.

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Populations change in size, structure, and distribution as they respond to changes in environmental conditions. Four main variables- births, deaths, immigration and

emigration – determine the rate of change in the size of the population over time. A change in the birth rate or death is the major way that most populations respond to changes in resource availability. Members of some animal species can avoid or reduce the effects of another with more favorable environmental conditions, thus altering the population’s dispersion. 11

1.According to the passage, which factor might cause the population of a species to decrease in size? A. A favorable amount of light and water

C. A large number of other species competing for food D. A greater number of births than deaths

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B. An ability to hide from or defend against predators

2. Which of the following is an indirect indicator of a population’s density? A. The distribution of food in a given area

C. The number of births in a given period of time

B. The number of nests in a given area

D. The number of individuals counted in a given area

3. The distribution pattern of individuals within a population’s geographical boundaries is

known as

B. population density

A. population ecology

D. population dispersion

C. population change

B. control

A. territory

4. The word range in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to C. history

D. shelter

5. The word patches in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to

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A. dark places

B. family groups C. warm spots

D. small areas

6. The word their in paragraph 5 refers to B. trees

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A. resources

C. insects

D. logs

7. All of the following are given as reasons for clumping EXCEPT A. uneven resource distribution

B. territorial disputes

C. mating behavior

D. safety from predators

8. The phrase set up in paragraph 6 is closest in meaning to A. forbid

B. establish

C. increase

D. conceal

9. Which of the following situation s would be most likely to result in a uniform dispersion pattern? A. Birds compete for a place to build their nests

C. Whales develop strong bonds among relatives D. Elephants form a circle to protect their young

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B. Fish swim in large schools to avoid predators

10. Why does the author mention immigration and emigration in paragraph 8? A. To identify factors affecting population dispersion B. To give examples of territorial behavior in animals

C. To show that populations balance themselves over time

Your answers: 2.

D. To explain why animal populations are uniformly dispersed

10.

Part 4.The reading passage has seven paragraphs, A–G.Choose the correct heading for

answer sheet.(10 pts)

paragraphs A–G from the list below.Write the correct number, i–ix, in boxes 1-13 on your

List of headings

I. key people that made a difference

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II. An alternative to fingerprinting III. The significance of prints

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IV. How to identify a criminal

V. Patterns in the making VI. An uncertain past VII. Family connections

1. Paragraph A ____________ 13

2. Paragraph B ____________ 3. Paragraph C ____________ 4. Paragraph D ____________

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5. Paragraph E ____________ To detectives, the answers lie at the end of our fingers. Fingerprinting offers an

accurate and infallible means of personal identification. The ability to identify a person

from a mere fingerprint is a powerful tool in the fight against crime. It is the most

commonly used forensic evidence, often outperforming other methods of identification.

These days, older methods of ink fingerprinting, which could take weeks, have given way

to newer, faster techniques like fingerprint laser scanning, but the principles stay the same.

No matter which way you collect fingerprint evidence, every single person’s print is unique.

A good place to start is to understand what fingerprints are and how they are created.

So, what makes our fingerprints different from our neighbors?

A fingerprint is the arrangement of skin ridges and furrows on the tips of the fingers. This

ridged skin develops fully during foetal development, as the skin cells grow in the mother’s

womb. These ridges are arranged into patterns and remain the same throughout the course

of a person’s life. Other visible human characteristics, like weight and height, change over

time whereas fingerprints do not. The reason why ever fingerprint is unique is that when a

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baby’s genes combine with environmental influences, such as temperature, it affects the way the ridges on the skin grow. It makes the ridges develop at different rates, buckling and

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bending into patterns. As a result, no two people end up having the same fingerprints. Even identical twins possess dissimilar fingerprints.

It is not easy to map the journey of how the unique quality of the fingerprint came to

be discovered. The moment in history it happened is not entirely clear. However, the use of fingerprinting can be traced back to some ancient civilizations, such as Babylon and China, where thumbprints were pressed onto clay tablets to confirm business transactions. Whether people at this time actually realized the full extent of how fingerprints were important for 14

identification purposes is another matter altogether. One cannot be sure if the act was seen as a means to confirm identity or a symbolic gesture to blind a contract, where giving your fingerprint was like giving your word. D.

Despite this uncertainty, there are those who made a significant contribution towards

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the analysis of fingerprinting. History tells us that a 14th century Persian doctor made an

early statement that no two fingerprints are alike. Later, in the 17th century, Italian physician

Marcello Malpighi studied the distinguishing shapes of loops and spirals in fingerprints. In

his honor, the medical world later named a layer of skin after him. It was, however, an

employee for the East India Company, William Herschel, who came to see the true potential

of fingerprinting. He took fingerprints from the local people as a form of signature for

contracts, in order to avoid fraud. His fascination with fingerprints propelled him to study

them for the next twenty years. He developed the theory that fingerprints were unique to an

individual and did not change at all over a lifetime. In 1880 Henry Faulds suggested that

fingerprints could be used to identify convicted criminals. He wrote to Charles Darwin for

advice, and the idea was referred on to Darwin’s cousin, Sir Francis Galton. Galton

Although the fact that each person has a totally unique fingerprint pattern had been

eventually published an in-depth study of fingerprint science in 1892.

well documented and accepted for a long time, this knowledge was not exploited for

criminal identification until the early 20th century. In the past, branding, tattooing and

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maiming had been used to mark the criminal for what he was. In some countries, thieves would have their hands cut off. France branded criminals with the fleur-de-lis symbol. The

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Romans tattooed mercenary soldiers to stop them from becoming deserters. F.

For many years, police agencies in the Western world were reluctant to use

fingerprinting, much preferring the popular method of the time, the Bertillon System, where dimensions of certain body parts were recorded to identify a criminal. The turning point was in 1903 when a prisoner by the name of Will West was admitted into Leavenworth Federal Penitentiary. Amazingly, Will had almost the same Bertillon measurements as another prisoner residing at the very same prison, whose name happened to be William 15

West. It was the only their fingerprints that could tell them apart. From that point on, fingerprinting became the standard for criminal identification. G.

Fingerprinting was useful in identifying people with a history of crime and who were

listed on a database. However, in situations where the perpetrator was not on the database

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and a crime had no witnesses, the system fell short. Fingerprint chemistry is a new technology that can work alongside traditional fingerprinting to find clues than ever before.

From organic compounds left behind on a print, a scientist can tell if the person is a child, an adult, a mature person or a smoker, and much more. It seems, after all these years, fingers continue to point the way.

For questions 6-10, decide which statement is true, false and not given. Write T for True,

F for False, and NG for Not Given.

6. Fingerprinting is the only effective method for identifying criminals.

7. The ridges and patterns that make up fingerprints develop before birth.

8. Malpighi conducted his studies in Italy.

9. Roman soldiers were tattooed to prevent them from committing violent crimes.

10.

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Your answers:

10. Fingerprint chemistry can identify if a fingerprint belongs to an elderly person.

Part 5: You are going to read an article about polyglots, people who speak many languages. For questions 1-10, choose from the people (A-D). the people may be chosen more than once. Questions

Answers

1. a lack of cocern about their identity? 16

2. advice about when to fit an important aspect of language acquisition? 3. a reason for concentrating on one language at a time? 4. a means of coping with the most challenging phase of language

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acquisition? 5. a description of the stages in a person’s language learning method? 6. an early appreciation of an advantage of being multilingual? 7. a long-term view of their own language leraning?

8. an emotion brought on by the sound of a language?

9. appreciation for an experience arising from being a polyglot?

10. the prospect of changing their language-learning goal?

Natural born linguists

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What drives multi-language speakers? Martin Williams finds out. Ludmila Orlova Being multilingual is fundamental to who I am because I think in different languages. My mind starts a thought in one language, then finds a particular word in another language that fits exactly what I am thinking. Each language resonates with me in a distinct way. Russian makes me more melancholic because of its minor tone, for example. There's a downside though: when I'm in a monolingual environment for too long, I yearn to switch to a different language. I have to think "will this person understand me if I say something in language X"? I had an early start at learning languages. I moved to the US from the former Soviet Union when I was three and learnt English quickly. For some reason though, my primary teacher didn't think I was bright enough to study languages at secondary school which goes to show you that general academic achievement isn't always a good indicator of one's ability to learn a language. If I had just studied languages the formal way in school, I would never have become a hyperpolyglot. Simon Richards I was always fascinated by languages and accents – I tried to mimic them all the time when I was a child. At school I was always drawn to the kids who had some link to abroad and I wanted to find out more. I got to study languages at school and university eventually, and it grew from there. Today, my daily life is multilingual. I often get mistaken for other nationalities and I honestly no longer

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regard nationality as important. It seems almost odd for me to talk about being just British now. Learning languages is an endless and ongoing process for me, which I intend to continue for as long as my body will allow. When I am really in the learning zone, my focus is narrow and I try to forget about my other languages. If I did, I'd go mad I simply start a new language and don't think about the others, unless I see obvious links to help the learning process and to understand grammar. Anthony Fields

Liam Clarke

I used to spend long summers in Greece and Japan as a child, trying to play with the other kids, but none of them spoke any English . It struck me how nice would it be to be able to talk to anybody in the world, regardless of what language they spoke. Pronunciation is the most important thing for me. So I start off really basic, focus on that. Once I to feel more confident, I move on to music from the language to tune in further. The dead time when you're on a bus or doing any mundane task is deal for squeezing incrucial subconscious language learning, which will all pay off in the long run. Learning new languages never stops: there is always more to learn. But my student days are almost over and the prospect of searching for a career is looming closer – so I am thinking about taking a couple of languages to a much higher level. Speaking other languages at native level is an entirely different task with different rewards to just being a polyglot.

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I did poorly in languages in school. I barely passed German and, until I was 21, I only spoke English. I moved to Spain after graduating; after six months, I still hadn’t leraned any Spainish. I kept telling myself that I didn't have the language gene. Eventually I decided to put my excuses aside and dive in. It took a few weeks, but as soon as I had a basic conversation in Spanish I got hooked. That was 10 years ago, and since then I've travelled the world, learning the many languages. I don't think visiting the country where the language is spoken is really that necessary nowadays, because of the internet. But if you do travel, it opens a lot of interesting doors.I recently had a birthday lunch withfour generations of Italians, for example. No way would that have happened If I’d only spoken English. The initial stage is the hardest, but the only real way to get through this is to grin and bear it. I’ve learned to ignore the fact that I’m making mistakes. That confidence allows me to strive for the next level.

PART IV: WRITING 18

Part 1: Summarizing an extract (10 pts) Read the following text on “win-win negotiation” and use your own words to summarize it. Your summary should be between 120 and 140 words long. You MUST NOT copy the original.

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DIGITAL INTELLIGENCE (DQ) Despite its importance, the concept of digital citizenship has often been overlooked by educators and leaders. Due to the digital generation gap, with young children being the first to grow up in the era of smartphones and social media, neither parents nor teachers know how to adequately equip children with these skills.

Digital transformation is a key part of the national agenda for many countries. The major element of digital transformation is to build a comprehensive set of digital competencies for children worldwide by implementing DQ education across public and private education systems. National leaders need to understand the importance of digital citizenship as the foundation of digital intelligence. Instilling digital competencies in children should start with building civic values and identity formation in the digital world, leading to practical skills for job readiness and positive social communication. National education leaders should make it a priority to implement digital citizenship programs as part of a comprehensive digital education framework.

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It is recommended that nations construct a master plan for building a digital education curriculum that is aligned with global standards such as those outlined in DQ digital citizenship and its set of competencies. Currently, many curriculums tend to focus on practical coding skills or digital literacy. However, it is critically important that national education plans become more holistic and prepare children for the growing impact of digital technologies on daily life. Such developments present a challenge for educators who do not have deep knowledge of the digital competencies needed for DQ skills training. Likewise, heavy teaching schedules limit flexibility to find and use suitable resources and tools.

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Therefore, it is important that digital education practices are not only aligned with the latest technological advances and issues, but also bring tested and proven educational programs to national curriculums and provide the right tools and resources for educators. It is highly recommended that nations should forge private-public-civic collaborations that bring together the latest high-quality educational contents and programs developed by the private and civic sectors. #DQEveryChild is a unique global education movement developed by the DQ Coalition, including the World Economic Forum, governments, leading NGOs, academic researchers, and ICT companies, to empower every child around the world with DQ digital citizenship. 19

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The goal of this movement is to ensure that 1 billion children are connected online by 2030 and receive a high- pg. 10 quality education based on DQ citizenship which improves wellbeing and security as well as provides economic enhancement. The movement helps nations bring tested and proven high-quality educational resources to their public and private primary education systems using a simple ‘plug & play’ DQ World online education program. This approach helps to overcome the usual bottlenecks for nations to start digital citizenship education programs, which include lack of a comprehensive curriculum for digital citizenship, limited topic expertise among teachers, and challenges to implement effective assessment and feedback mechanisms.

Part 2: Graph description.(20 pts)

In order to overcome these issues, the #DQEveryChild movement provides a research-based online education platform, DQ World, which enables 8-12-year-old students to self-learn a comprehensive set of eight DQ digital citizenship competencies while receiving real-time DQ assessment with minimal needed support from teachers and parents. Teachers can serve as facilitators of discussions while utilizing online tools. The DQ World program has been tested and proven through academic research – showing a 14% improvement in DQ scores among children who participated in the program which translates into an ~30% reduction in cyber-risks and enhancement of future ready skills and values such as global citizenship, empathy, and self-efficacy.

The chart below gives information about global population percentages and distribution of wealth by region.

Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make comparisons where relevant.

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Write at least 150 words.

40 35 30 25

15 10 5 0

North America

China

Other Asia Pacific

India

Africa

Global Wealth (%)

Population (%)

Europe

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Part 3: Essay Writing (30 pts)

“The mass media have an adverse effect on moral standards.”

To what extent do you agree with this statement?

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Write an essay of about 350 words to express your opinion on the following issue.

TRẠI HÈ HÙNG VƯƠNG LẦN THỨ XV TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN HÙNG VƯƠNG HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ------------------SECTION I: LISTENING

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ĐỀ THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH - KHỐI 11 Năm học 2019 - 2020

Part 1: Listen to a piece of news about the loss of rainforests and complete the summary below. WRITE NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER. (10pts) 1. commercial use 6. rising sea levels 7. wars/disputes

3. medical compounds

8. exploitation

4. herbal remedies / medicines

9. reduce poverty

5. carbon sinks

10. alternative vegetable oils

Part 3: (5 pts)

Part 2 (5 pts) 1. Compulsory and regular. 2. Full-time and flexible-time students. 3. People from off-campus. 4. No experimental facilities now. 5. Environmental Science.

2. 25% / a quarter of / 1/4

2. T

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1. T

4.F

5. F

3. D

4. A

5. B

4.C 9.C 14.B

5.C 10.B 15.D

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Part 4: (5 pts) 1.B 2. C

3. F

SECTION II: LEXICO- GRAMMAR Part 1. (10 pts) 1. C 2.A 6.D 7.D 11.B 12.D

3.D 8.D 13.D

Part 2: (10 points) 1. salty 2. unfavourable/unfavorable

6. effectively

3. problematic

8. combination

4. intensifies

9. resistant

5. instability

10. lessen

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7. performance

Exercise 2. The passage below contains 10mistakes. Underline the mistakes and correct them.(10 points) 1. Line 2: the second a second 2. Line 4: is functioned functions 3. Line 8: signature signing 4. Line 10: trends for trends in 5. Line 12: personnel personal SECTION III: READING Part 1: (10 pts) 1 pt/correct answer 1.C 2. C 3.D 4.C 5. A 6.A 7.B 8.D 9.D 10. D

Part 2: (10 pts) 1 pt/correct answer 2. one

3. who

4. set

5. as

6. being

7. likes

8. down

9. until

10. Too

2.B

3.D

4.A

5.D

6.C

7.B

8.B

9.A

10.A

Part 4 1. III 6. F

2. V 7. T

3. VI 8. NG

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1. average

Part 3

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1.C

Part 5

4. I 9. F

5. IV 10. T

1.B

2.C

3.B

4.D

5.C

6.C

7.B

8.A

9.D

10.C

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SECTION IV: WRITING Part 1: Summary (10 pts) 1. Completion: 0.5 pt 2. Content: 3 pts

- Cover the main information in the chart yet not go into too many details.

- Make general remarks and effective comparisons.

3. Organisation: 3 pts

- The ideas are well organized

- The description is sensibly divided into paragraphs

4. Language: 3 pts

- Use a wide range of vocabulary and structure

- Good grammar

5. Punctuation and spelling: 0.5 pt

Suggested answers:

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• National implementation of DQ digital citizenship education the disregard of the digital knowledge among generations. the essence of digital transformation National construction for a digital education curriculum the stakeholders involved in the #DQEveryChild movement the paramount mission of the #DQEveryChild movement Approach of the #DQEveryChild movement to educational challenges.

Part 2: Graph description (20 pts) 1. Completion: 1 pt 2. Content: 6 pts

- Cover the main information in the chart yet not go into too many details. - Make general remarks and effective comparisons.

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3. Organisation: 6 pts - The ideas are well organized - The description is sensibly divided into paragraphs 4. Language: 6 pts - Use a wide range of vocabulary and structure

- Good grammar

5. Punctuation and spelling: 1 pt

1. Completion: (2 pts.)

2. Content: (9 pts)

3. Organization: (8 pts)

Provide relevant and convincing ideas about the topic, supported by specific example and/or reasonable justification.

- Ideas are well organized and presented with unity, cohesion and coherence.

4. Language: (9 pts)

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- Demonstrate of a wide range of vocabulary and structures. - Good use of grammatical structures.

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- Present the ideas with clarity.

5. Punctuations and spelling. (2 pts) LISTENING TAPESCRIPT PART 1 Since the start of 20th century, roughly half of the world's rainforests have been wiped out. And by the end of the 21st century, rainforests may go extinct

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KĂ&#x2C6;

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altogether. You may think it's just a few plants and animals that'll suffer, but modern society relies on rainforests more than you might realize. The loss of this dense biodiversity could lead to sickness, poverty, even war. So, what would a post-rainforest look like? Well, first it is important to understand why the rainforest is disappearing. Globally, over the last 40 years, an area possibly the size of Europe has been cleared and repurposed for commercial use. In some cases the land is replanted with trees that produce rubber or palm oil, in other cases it is used as grazing land for cattle, or torn down for urban development. And if nothing is done, we may ultimately see rainforests gone altogether, and along with them, crucial benefits. Without rainforests, some estimate that the basis for up to a quarter of modern medicine would be lost, with thousands of medical compounds derived from plants. For example, the rosy periwinkle, which is naturally endemic only to Madagascar, produces two anti-tumor drugs used to fight leukemia and Hodgkin's Disease. Chemicals synthesized as a result of this plant contribute to an estimated $160 million dollars per year and the rainforest plant-drug market in total has been estimated at roughly $150 billion dollars. Many poor communities rely on rainforest plants life for medicine, as prescription medication and derivatives are completely unaffordable for large portions of the world's population. The World Health Organization estimates that roughly 80% of Africa's population uses traditional, herbal medicine as part of their primary health care, while in China, up to half of all medicine consumed are herbal remedies. Besides a medicinal outlook, the lack of vegetation could mean a rapid rise in climate change. Rainforests are known as "carbon sinks", which means that they consume carbon dioxide, clearing it from the atmosphere. Studies show that roughly 40% of manmade CO2 is absorbed by forests. As carbon dioxide levels rise and rainforest acreage falls, the subsequent change in climate can contribute to severe droughts, as well as rising sea levels. This is a bigger problem than it may seem, as climate change plays a huge role in geopolitics. Wars over resources are devastating, and demand for farming land continues to outstrip its supply. In 2014 in northern Honduras, US-backed security forces were implicated in the murder and intimidation of local farmers involved in disputes over palm oil. More than 100 people have already been killed over the disputes.

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In other parts of the world, entire indigenous tribes are being killed and displaced in favor of commercial logging and razing. But stopping this deforestation may not end up solving the larger problem. Even when ignoring financial gain by businesses which exploit these natural resources, many people in developing countries rely on the exploitation to survive. For example, palm oil employs millions of farmers, and the industry plays an important role in reducing poverty. According to one NGO on Sustainable Palm Oil, as many as 4.5 million people in Indonesia and Malaysia work in its production. And simply switching to another method of production could potentially be even worse for the environment. Alternative vegetable oils, like sunflower, soybean, and rapeseed produce about 4 to 10 times less oil per acre, so to meet demand, even more land would have to be destroyed. We all know rainforests are vital, but their direct impacts in day-to-day health, global stability and the condition of the world's atmosphere are regularly understated. In the end, a world without rainforests is much more devastating than we might realize, and much harder to avoid than we might expect.

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Part 2 STUDENT: Hello ... are you Professor Van Diezen? PROFESSOR: Yes, I am. And who might you be? STUDENT: Oh! Sorry, my name is Tina. I'm a freshman here. They told me I should ask you for advice in choosing courses. PROFESSOR: Well, that's part of what I'm here for. Please come in and sit down. Now, what are your questions? STUDENT: I, I almost don't know! Everything is so confusing! Like what is a "specialised course"? PROFESSOR: Oh, easy. A specialised course is one that is compulsory, meaning it's a requirement for your major and regular, so you can't place out by taking a proficiency exam. STUDENT: That sounds pretty strict. Then what are all these general courses? I seem to have to take so many. PROFESSOR: Nothing to be alarmed over. These are courses open to all students and not directly related to your major. The university offers these general courses to choose so that you can become more well-rounded individuals. For example, I see you're a Microbiology major. So it might be a good idea to take some literature or history courses so that you can know something besides all science.

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STUDENT: You mean these courses are, like, for fun? PROFESSOR: That might be one way to look at it, but don't tell the literature professor such a thing. Think of a general course as the opposite of a specified course. A specified course is one that pertains directly to your major. STUDENT: So can I take any Microbiology course I want? PROFESSOR: Let's see. Oh, those courses used to be open to Microbiology students only. The good thing is, now it's open to students on a flexible schedule, so it's not only for full-time students. So the answer is yes, if you have the instructor's permission. May I ask you why you chose Microbiology? STUDENT: Well, I also like plain old Biology, too. You know, full-sized animals. I might even become a veterinarian. Could I take some Biology classes? PROFESSOR: Well, they are open to full-time students only, which I believe is what you are. I don't know how a freshman would get along with Microbiology, though. I mean, most of the students presently looking into it are from off-campus. STUDENT: Off-campus? PROFESSOR: Yes, you know, people who use it in their work at hospitals, laboratories, even a police detective. Why did you choose Microbiology, if I may ask? I don't think you quite answered that. STUDENT: Well, eventually I want to be a doctor. At least my dad tells me so. PROFESSOR: If I may say so, young lady, you seem a little uncertain. STUDENT: Still, I think that might be a good idea for a career. Of course, if you're thinking about being either a doctor or a vet, you should take some Medical Science classes before you even think of applying to med school. STUDENT: Great! What should I take? PROFESSOR: There is one small problem. The new Medical Sciences building is under construction, so there are no experimental facilities available until next year. I'm afraid you'll have to wait. But don't forget to take those courses at the first opportunity! STUDENT: Oh, bummer. Is there any other course you'd recommend for someone like me? PROFESSOR: Well, since you seem to like animals, have you ever thought about looking into Environmental Science? STUDENT: No, I never really thought about it before. Is it worthwhile? PROFESSOR: Quite! In fact, it's the fastest growing subject on this campus.

Part 3

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Kathie Holmes: Good afternoon, this is Kathie Holmes in our program, “Young and Brainy”. Today I’m going to be speaking to Ryan Patterson, a teenager whose invention may bridge the communication gap between the deaf and those that can hear. Ryan, tell us how it all started.

Ryan Patterson: It was 2 years ago. I was waiting to be served at our local Burger King and I noticed a group of customers using sign language to place an order. They were obviously deaf. They communicated with a speaking interpreter and he relayed their choices to a cashier. I thought it would make things easier if they had an electronic interpreter instead. I remembered the idea later, when I was thinking of a new project for a science competition. I called it Sign language Translator. It consists of a glove which is lined with ten sensors. The sensors detect the hand positions that are used to shape the alphabet of American Sign language. Then a microprocessor transmits that information to a small portable receiver. The receiver has a screen similar to those cell phones, and this screen displays the words, letter by letter. In this way people can read the words, even if they don’t understand sign language, and people who use sign language can communicate without a interpreter.

K: Are you impressed? So were judges at the 2001 Siemens Science and Technology Competition. The project received top honors, along with $100,000 college scholarship for the young inventor. And now Ryan’s project is already patented. Ryan, how long did you experiment with the invention before you finally produced the prototype?

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R: Around nine months. I started with searching how sign language works. Then I had to figure out how to translate all that electronically. I’ve always had an interest in electronics. I’ve liked wiring things together since I was 4 years old. I also had hands-on experience from my part-time job at a robotic-equipment lab.

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K: Did you have problems finding appropriate materials?

R: I’m used to hunting for hardware to build competition robots, but for this project I also had to try on many different gloves. A golf glove turned out to be the best solution. It’s soft and flexible and fits closely. K: According to the National Institute of Deafness, one to two million people in the US are profoundly deaf. And most of them use sign language to communicate. Will your invention make an impact?

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J: There was a demonstration at our local deaf community center and the people were interested. What I have now isn’t ready for production. I’m sure it’ll be very different by the time it’s actually manufactured. But I do hope to see it on the market one day.

Part 4: Presenter: These days we're all too familiar with the word allergy and phrases like 'I'm allergic to pollen or eggs or cats•. There's a general perception too that more people have allergies than in the past. Is this because the subject is getting more exposure in the media, or are we really becoming less resistant to allergens? These are just some of the question s we’ll be tackling In today's phone-in programme. In the studio with me today are Dr Mary Egerton, a family doctor, and allergy specialist Dr Mohamed Bawadi to answer your questions. Our first caller today is Tim from Edinburg h. Tim, what's your question? Tim: Hi, right, well, I suffer from hay fever, you know - I'm very allergic to grass and the pollen from certain trees - especially in the spring. The really peculiar thing is \hat my allergy didn't begin until I was in my mid-thirties. What I want to know is, why did I start so late, and do you think my allergy could disappear again just as suddenly or am I stuck with it now? Presenter: Dr Egerton, would you like to answer Tim first?

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Mary Egerton: Hello, Tim. Your story is a very common one. The fact is that allergies do not discriminate - they're just as likely to affect the old as they are the young. I'm afraid they can develop at any time of life from one day to 60 years and beyond. As to whether you're stuck with your allergy that depends. The best way to treat any allergy is to avoid contact with whatever causes the allergic reaction. Someone who was allergic to eggs would find it fairly easy to avoid eating anything containing eggs, whereas you would find it impossible to avoid all contact with grass and pollen unless you lived in a desert area or high in a mountain range. Mohamed Bawadi: Can I just add to what Mary has said? There is now evidence from research around the world that the most common age to develop an allergy is in your late teens, so you've not done too badly, Tim.

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Presenter: our next caller is Arabella from Amsterdam in the Netherlands. What’s your question, Arabella? Arabella: Hello. I'm allergic to peanuts - so of course I've got to be really careful about foods which contain even small traces peanuts, but what I'd like to know is whether I'm likely to pass these allergies on to any children I may have in the future.

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Presenter: Thank you. Dr Bawadi? Mohamed Bawadi : Hello, Arabella. This is an interesting question. In developed countries all children have a twelve percent risk of developing an allergy. In your case this would rise to a twenty percent risk. However, if the child's father also had an allergy of some kind, this risk would increase to forty percent Arabella: So what about if the father and the mother have the same allergy? Mohamed Bawadi: Then I'm afraid there's a seventy percent chance that the child will develop that Presenter: Thank you, Arabella. I hope that answers your question. Just before we move on to the next caller, can I ask you both whether we are in fact seeing a higher evidence allergies in the population than in the past. Mary Egerton: We most certainly are. Even though we're getting better at diagnosing and treating some allergies, there is a year-on-year increase in the number of patients visiting their doctor with asthma and various food allergies. Recent research has shown that in Britain and the USA, between twenty and thirty percent of the population suffers from some kind of allergy. Presenter: Why is this happening, Dr Bawadi? Mohamed Bawadi: Well, it’s a complex problem. There are many theories about why more people are affected by allergies. Certain aspects of modern living are blamed by some experts. For example, the widespread use of air conditioning and central heating, combined with the fact that more and more people now work in offices, is thought to have led to an increase in allergies reactions to dust and mould. Vehicle exhaust fumes are widely regarded as being responsible for the increase in asthma in young children. You only have to walk through the streets of a large modern city to understand the strength of that argument.

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Some experts blame our modern culture for being obsessed with cleanliness, while others believe that vaccinations to protect our children from certain diseases may actually weaken their immune system and make them less resistant to allergens. Presenter: Thank you, that’s very interesting. Let's move on, we have several people waiting on the phone-in line. Let's speak to .. Part 3: Listen to someone called Kate Charters describing her career complete the sentences Kate:Well, as you know, I’ve been invited to the college today to give you some advice on careers in sales, as you approach the end of your business courses. Most of what I’ve done has involved sales of one sort or another, and I thought I’d start by giving you a brief summary of my own career. My first job was with Business Traveller magazine, where I sold classified advertising over the phone. I did this for a year, coming to it from a business skills course I took. I had graduated with a degree in English, and I decided I’d better have some basic skills before throwing myself on the marketplace. So I did all the things I said I’d never do, like learning to type and do shorthand, and so on. Three years after that, having done various other sales jobs, I became a marketing coordinator with Soundcraft Electronics. We made sound-mixing equipment for recording studios. This was a terrific job. I started as assistant to the chairman, and I basically created my own job, which involved dealing with the advertising and promotional side, too. Then I joined the company I now work for, Visnews. It is a major global television newsgathering organization, based in London, with branches all over the world. I joined as a marketing executive in their film library. We have a huge archive of videotape and newsreel films going back to the very beginning of motion pictures. My job was to increase revenues from the archive through usage fees. After a short while I helped to start a new department which was producing and selling videos for the retail market - what we call ‘sell-through’ programming. These would be documentaries that people would buy, so they would usually have a special-interest theme ... and, of course, they’d make extensive use of our archives. Visnews Video eventually had 11 titles which we sold at retail outlets and through direct marketing techniques. I was headhunted away from this to join Castle Communications, where my job was to sell feature films on video to the rental and sell-through markets. My job was to come up with ways to inspire our salesforce to move the merchandise. I

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was also responsible for developing side deals. One time we worked a deal with a major theme park, where we used the venue for a launch event, and carried a promotion for the park on the front of the video. Meanwhile, the park cross promoted the video on site. I was with Castle for a year, then I rejoined Visnews as a sales coordinator in the Special Locations Department, which is the operation I now head. The job involves some travel. Last week I was in Spain calling on several of our clients and building our relationships. A few months ago, I spent a week in Moscow. And what do I do? Well, I run the department that offers camera crews, editing facilities and satellite technology to broadcasters and video production companies worldwide. I have six sales co-ordinators working with me. I think as you go through your career, it’s very important to have a mentor. I’ve been lucky to have the advice of a man who works in a PR agency I dealt with when I was first at Visnews. Over the years, just having someone to talk to as I contemplated moves or wanted to discuss career activities, has been tremendously helpful. He’s always been interested in what I’ve been doing and very supportive. I’ve valued his advice most highly. OK, before we move on to ...

ĐỀ THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH - LỚP 11 Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) (Đề thi gồm 16 trang)

TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN THÁI NGUYÊN

Đề đề xuất TRẠI HÈ HÙNG VƯƠNG NĂM 2019

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A. LISTENING (50 points) Part 1. (20pts) Question 1-10. Complete the note below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer. Marine renewable energy (ocean energy) (Source: CAMBRIDGE IELTS 14 _TEST 1_Section 4)

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Introduction More energy required because of growth in population and (1) _________ What’s needed: • renewable energy sources • methods that won’t create pollution Wave energy Advantage: waves provide a (2) ______________ source of renewable energy Electricity can be generated using offshore or onshore systems Onshore systems may use a reservoir Problems: • waves can move in any (3) ___________ • movement of sand, etc. on the (4) __________ of the ocean may be affected Tidal energy Tides are more (5) __________ than waves Planned tidal lagoon in Wales: • will be created in a (6) _________ at Swansea • breakwater (dam) containing 16 turbines • rising tide forces water through turbines, generating electricity • stored water is released through (7) ___________, driving the turbines in the reverse direction Advantages: • not dependent on weather • no (8) ___________ is required to make it work • likely to create a number of (9) ____________ Problem: • may harm fish and birds, e.g, by affecting (10) _________ are building up silt Ocean thermal energy conversion Uses a difference in temperature between the surface and lower levels Water brought to the surface in a pipe Your answers: 1.

10.

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Part 2. You will hear part of a talk about best-selling books Use NO MORE THAN FIVE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. (10 pts) (Source: Cambridge Advanced Practice Test ( Mark Harrison)_ Test 2_ Part2)

Your answers: 1. 4.

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1. According to the research, what do most successful autobiographies write about? 2. What do cookery books have that is attractive to readers? 3. What feature do all sports best- sellers share? 4. What do history books contain that make them interesting? 5. Before advising on career promotion, what did self-help books deal with?

2. 5.

Part 3. You will hear a conversation between Carla and Rob on cities built by the sea. Listen carefully and decide the following statements are TRUE, FALSE or NOT GIVEN according to what you hear. (10pts)

(Source: CAMBRIDGE IELTS 14_Test 1_ Section 3)

Your answers: 1.

1. Carla and Rob were surprised to learn that coastal cities conclude most of the world’s largest cities. 2. According to Rob, building coastal cities near to rivers may not bring pollution to the cities may reduce the land available for agriculture. 3. When building water drainage channels in Miami in the 1950s, they used unsuitable materials. 4. Rob and Carla think the authorities in Miami should pay for a new flood prevention system immediately. 5. Greater coordination of activities should be the priority for international actions.

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Part 4. You will hear part of an interview with the astronaut Charles Duke, who is talking about his trip to the moon. Choose the answer (A, B, C or D) that fits best according to what you hear. (10 pts) (Source: CAE 1_Test 1_ Part 3)

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1. How did Charles feel about space travel as a boy? A. He thought it was unlikely to happen. B. He regarded it as more than science fiction C. He was fascinated by the idea of it. D. He showed no particular interest in it. 2. What did Charles consider to be the hardest part of the training? A. feeling trapped in the heavy spacesuit. B. endlessly practicing the lunar surface landing C. constantly being afraid of making a mistake D. being unable to move his arms and hands 3. What was Charles’s reaction when he first found out he was going to the moon? A. He realized he had to be cautious. B. He felt proud to be given the opportunity. C. He tried to control his excitement. D. He reflected on his chances of survival. 4. How did the crew feel when they had landed on the moon? Page 2 of 16

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A. They felt as if they were coming home. B. The realized they had achieved something special. C. They were afraid of what they might find on the surface. D. They were worried about how they would take off again. 5. What feature of the moon made the greatest impact on Charles? A. the brightness of the sun B. the vastness of the sky C. the loneliness of place D. the absence of any stars Your answers: 1. 2. 3. 4.

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B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (30 points) Part 1. Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) which best completes each sentence. (15 pts) 1. It was a hot summer day and ice cream salesmen were doing a ________trade. A. busy B. lucrative C. bustling D. roaring 2. My mother had to take private pupils in order to ___________ her salary as a teacher. A. augment B. expand C. complete D. inflate 3. I found the last scene extremely ……… and particularly well-directed. A. pathetic B. sympathetic C. pitiful D. moving 4. Lauren is often labelled easy-going as she tends to appear mild and relaxed rather than tense and ___________ A. sullen B. likeable C. humorous D. excitable 5. The two boys really …………… it off from the moment they met. A. hit B. struck C. made D. put 6. I picked up these ___________from the travel agents today. They have a great offer on cruises to Turkey for the end of April! A. leaflets B. manifestoes C. brochures D. programmes 7. I had a strong ___________ that a disaster would occur, and it did. A. premonition B. prediction C. forethought D. anticipation 8. Employees of the company are forbidden to _____________ information about the secret formula. A. betray B. divulge C. portray D. unveil 9. Jack _______and can usually let us know what the boss’s mood is. A. turns a blind eye B. plays it by ear C. keeps his ear to the ground D. is all ears 10. “Why was Jane upset?” – “The minute she ________into the party, she saw someone wearing the same dress.” A. had walked B. was walking C. walking D. walked 11. I thought she was being serious, but she was only having me ________ . A. up B. on C. over D. round 12. Carbon dioxide may be absorbed by trees or water bodies, or it may stay in the atmosphere when ________, while it is only in the atmosphere that clorofluorocarbons find the home. A. cars that release emissions B. released from car emissions C. by releasing emissions from cars D. emissions are released by cars 13. This area is absolutely ________ for more investment. A. crying out B. breaking down C. better off D. cutting back 14. He is a clever mimic who can take ________ most of the lecturers in his college.

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A. off B. down C. over D. up 15. It sounds like you let people take advantage of you ________, you need to learn to be more assertive. A. Otherwise B. If only C. What if D. If so

2. 7. 12.

3. 8. 13.

4. 9. 14.

5. 10. 15.

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Your answers 1. 6. 11.

Part 2. Complete the following text with the correct forms of the words given in the brackets. (10 pts) (Source: Ready for CAE – Unit 1_ Review_ Use of language_ Word formation) REWARDING CHILDREN Cash rewards are a common form of (0) motivation used by parents MOTIVATE with high (1) _________ to encourage their children to work hard at EXPECT exam time. Some youngsters receive (2) _________ of as much as $100 PAY for each A grade they obtain at GCSE. But should such ‘brides’ be based on exam (3) _________ or should they, as many parents and PERFORM teachers feel, be offered in (4) _________ of a child’s effort, regardless RECOGNIZE of results? The latter approach would solve the problem of how parents reward children with different levels of (5) _________; imagine, for ABLE example, a family with one child who is (6) _________ gifted and ACADEMIC another who has learning (7) _________. The dangers of result-related DIFFICULT incentive for the second child are clear; with little hope of obtaining the higher grades, the withholding of promised (8) _________ rewards FINANCE would only compound the child’s feeling of (9) _________. However, FAIL some leading educational psychologists believe that parents should rely on their own (10) ________ in such matters. They maintain that if JUDGE parents know that money will motivate their child, then they should not be condemned for operating a system of cash payouts.

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Your answers: 1. 6.

2. 7.

3. 8.

4. 9.

5. 10.

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Part 3. Identify 05 errors in the following passage by underlining them and correct them in the space provided in the second column. (05 pts)

Water scarcity is fast becoming one of the major limiting factors in world crop production. In many areas, poor agricultural practices have led to increasing desertification and the losing of formerly arable lands. Consequently, those plants species that are well adapted with survival in dry climates are being looked at for an answer in development more efficient crops to grow on marginally arable lands. Plants use several mechanisms to ensure their survival in desert Page 4 of 16

Your answer ______________ ______________ ______________ ______________ ______________ ______________ ______________

______________ ______________ ______________ ______________ ______________ ______________ ______________ ______________ ______________

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environments. Some involve purely mechanical and physical adaptations, such as the shape of the plant’s surface, smaller leaf size, and extensive root systems. Some of the adaptations are related to chemistry mechanisms. Many plants, such as cacti, have internal gums and mucilage which give them water-retaining properties. Other chemical mechanism is that of the epicuticular wax layer. This wax layer acts like an impervious cover to protect the plant. It prevents excessive loss of internal moist. It also protects the plant from external aggression, which can come from inorganic agents such as gases, or organic agents which include bacteria and plant pets.

C. READING (60 points) Part 1. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap. (10 pts)

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DIAGNOSING DYSLEXIA Approximately five per cent of the population (0) __ suffer__ from dyslexia. The cause of the disorder is unknown and it is (1) ________ found in people of otherwise normal intectual ability. The condition is (2) ________ by severe reading difficulties, with dyslexics frequently confusing letters or words. They may, for example, read or write letters, words or sentences in the wrong (3) ________. Although the problem can be overcome with intensive instruction, sufferers usually continue to read and write poorly throughout their lives. Traditionally, diagnosis has been made by reading experts, which means that many (4) ________ are not formally (5) ________ until a child is around ten years of age. Now, however, a group of psychologists in the United States believe that they have found a way of identifying in their first days of life children who will develop dyslexia. This is exciting news as early identification and (6) ________ make early instruction possible, perhaps avoiding later problems altogether. The research team has identified (7) ________ differences between the brain (8) ________ patterns of dyslexics and those of better readers. Attaching electrodes to the heads of babies just 36 hours old, they measured the size and speed of their brain responses to selected stimuli. The children were (9) ________ and given IQ and comprehension tests every two years. At eight, reading tests were administered to identify those who were dyslexic. More than 90 percent diagnosed as dyslexic could have been singled out at birth. This research is still in its (10) ________ but may result in a future in which dyslexia no longer causes life long distress. 1. A. naturally 2. A. characterized 3. A. arrangement 4. A. instances 5. A. picked up 6. A. interference 7. A. frank 8. A. pace 9. A. monitored

B. commonly B. distinguished B. series B. cases B. noted down B. intrusion B. evident B. wave B. viewed

C. customarily C. marked C. sequence C. times C. shown up C. intervention C. distinct C. pulse C. followed Page 5 of 16

D. D. D. D. D. D. D. D. D.

Actually Identified Order Occurrences put down Recognition precise Signal Inspected

10. A. beginnings

B. infancy

Your answers: 1. 6.

C. outset

2. 7.

3. 8.

Origins

4. 9.

5. 10.

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Part 2. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only one word in each space. (10pts)

EDUCATING TOMORROW’S LEADERS When it comes to educating tomorrow's leaders, it would be wrong to assume that there is a formula that can be applied to (1) ____ people into great leaders. But it is possible to prepare youngsters for leadership by teaching them some essential skills. We all have the potential to lead, and, (2) ____ importantly, the ability to improve our skills. The first step is to let young people look at the great leaders (3) ____ know about. They will soon realize that leaders have their own, personal ways of leading. But faced with the prospect of comparing themselves (4) ____ famous leaders, youngsters may well fell discouraged. We need to give them examples of leadership (5) ____ can be found all around us. There are countless opportunities to pick up leadership skills at school, in the sport field, and even at home. We should encourage youngsters to take (6) ____ projects which involve leadership. It is also advisable for them to keep a journal (7) ____ they can record their experiences as leaders, even if they seem small and unimportant. They can put (8) ____what they did well and also where they have done (9) ____This is not a waste of time because (10) ____ a journal will be a valuable reference for years. Your answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

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Part 3. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. (10 pts) (Source: "Insight into IELTS extra" by Vanessa and Clare McDowell) A smart irrigation sensor that gives plants only as much to drink as they need can increase tomato yields by more than 40 per cent. The sensor has been developed by Yehoshua Sharon and Ben-Ami Bravdo at the Hebrew University of Jerusalem's faculty of agriculture in Rehovot, Israel. The researchers say that their system not only increases the yield of crops, but it also dramatically reduces water usage - by up to 60 per cent for some crops. At the heart of the system is an electronic sensor that dips onto a plant leaf and measures its thickness to an accuracy of 1 micrometre. 'A leaf's thickness is dependent on the amount of water in a plant/ says Sharon. 'A healthy leaf is 60 per cent water.' A thin leaf is a sure sign that the plant is suffering stress because it is thirsty, and stress is bad for yields. The sensor consists of two plates, one fixed and the other spring-loaded, which together grip the leaf. The moving plate is connected to a small computer that regulates the voltage in an electrical circuit. As the leaf's thickness changes, the plate moves, causing a change in the voltage. This signal is fed to a processor that adjusts the plant's water supply. Unlike conventional irrigation systems, which water crops periodically, the Israeli system waters the plants continuously, but adjusts the flow to the plant's needs. 'The idea is to give the plant the proper amount of water at the correct time, according to what the plant requires,' says Sharon. Page 6 of 16

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Field studies show the system increases the yields of several crops while reducing consumption of water. Yields of grapefruit increased by 15 per cent while needing 40 per cent less water. For peppers, the yield rose by 5 per cent while water usage fell by 60 per cent. Tomato plants yielded 40 per cent more fruit while consuming 35 per cent less water. "It is an interesting idea", says John Sadler, a soil scientist at the US government's Agricultural Research Service in Florence, South Carolina. 'Other researchers have measured stress by measuring a plant's temperature or stem thickness. But I haven't heard of anyone doing irrigation at such a refined level,' he says. But Sadler is a little surprised by the figures for water savings. 'They would depend on the technique you're comparing these results with,' he says. Sharon says the savings are based on comparisons with the Israeli government's recommendations for irrigating crops. He admits that the system has to be very reliable if it is to be effective. "Because the plants are watered continuously they are more susceptible to sudden changes in water supply", he says. "This means our system has to operate very reliably". The researchers have founded a company called Leafsen to sell the new irrigation system, and they hope to start marketing it within the next few months.

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Question 1: Which of the following is true, according to the passage? A. The irrigation sensor can reduce the need for water in some plants. B. A leaf's thickness is dependent on the amount of water in a plant. C. The conventional irrigation systems water the plant continuously. D. Leafsen is the company that sells the new irrigation system. Question 2: According to the passage, the sensor is operated by _________ . A. a computer B. a plate C. a spring D. a voltage Question 3: "the heart" in the second paragraph means _________ . A. the centre B. the smallest part C. the most important part D. the most accurate part Question 4: The word "fixed" in paragraph 3 is similar in meaning to _________ . A. having a leaf B. stuck by glue C. not empty D. not moving Question 5: Which of the following in NOT mentioned in the passage? A. The new system helps reduce the water amount plants require. B. The new system is welcome by US scientists. C. The new system needs more time to become usable. D. In order for the system to be effective, it has to be very reliable. Question 6: The phrase "at the correct time" in paragraph 4 mostly means _________ . A. at the time being B. when the plants require C. when the time is accurate D. when the yields are increased Question 7: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as benefited from the new system? A. Tomatoes B. Peppers C. Grapefruits D. Eggplants Question 8: When a plant is thirsty, _________ . A. its yield is raised B. it is suffering stress C. it has healthy leaves D. it can reduce its water usage Question 9: The word "they" in the second last paragraph refers to _________ . A. plants B. changes C. researches D. crops Question 10: How is John Sadler's attitude to the new system? A. Critical B. Doubtful C. Ironical D. Appreciative Your answers: Page 7 of 16

1. 6.

2. 7.

3. 8.

4. 9.

5. 10.

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Part 4. The following passage has six sections, A-F. (20pts) Choose the correct headings for sections A-F from the list of headings below. Write the correct number, i-x, in boxes 1-6 on your answer sheet. List of Headings i. No give-aways for addictive products ii. Sales of razor blades increase astronomically iii. Monopoly of consumables is vital for success iv. Video gaming a risky business v. A novel method of dual marketing ruled out vi. Freebie marketing restricted to legal goods vii. Buyer ingenuity may lead to bankruptcy viii. A marketing innovation ix. A product innovation x. More money to be made from high quality products 1. Section A ______ 4. Section D______ 2. Section B ______ 5. Section E ______ 3. Section C ______ 6. Section F______

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‘FREEBIE’ MARKETING A In the late 1890s, while travelling as an itinerant salesperson for the Crown, Cork and Seal Company, King C. Gillette observed how his corked bottle caps were discarded immediately after opening. Nevertheless, his company turned a healthy profit and there was immense business value, Gillette soon came to realise. In a product that was used only a few times, Gillette had his own personal breakthrough while struggling with a straight-bladed razor—a slow, fiddly and potentially dangerous instrument that required sharpening on a regular basis. A simple, disposable blade that could be thrown away when it dulled would meet a real need and generate strong profits, he correctly reasoned. After founding the American Safety Razor Company in 1901, his sales leapt from 168 blades in 1903 to 123,648 blades only a year later. B What King C. Gillette pioneered is far more than a convenient and affordable way for men to shave, however, it is the business practice now known as “freebie marketing” that has inspired many more companies over the years. Gillette's approach was contrary to the received wisdom of his era, which held that a single, durable, high-quality and relatively expensive consumer item with a high profit margin was the best foundation for a business. Freebie marketing involves two sets of items: a master product that is purchased once, and a consumable product that is frequently disposed of and repurchased on an ongoing basis. In this instance, the master product is often sold with little to no profit margin and is sometimes even dispensed at a loss. As the consumables are purchased over months and years, however, this can yield a much greater overall profit. C Freebie marketing only works if the producer of the master item is also able to maintain control over the creation and distribution of the consumables. If this does not happen, then cheaper versions of the consumable items may be produced, leaving the original company without a source of profit. The video game company Atari, for example, initially sold its Atari 2600 consoles at cost price while relying on game sales for profit. Several programmers left Atari, however, and began a new company called Activision which produced cheaper games of a similar quality. Suddenly, Atari Page 8 of 16

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was left with no way to make money. Lawsuits to block Activision failed, and Atari survived only by adding licensing measures to its subsequent 5200 and 7800 consoles. D In other instances, consumers sometimes find that uses for a master product circumvent the need to purchase consumables. This phenomenon is well known to have afflicted the producers of CueCat barcode readers. These were given away free through Wired magazine with the intention that they would be used by customers to scan barcodes next to advertisements in the publication and thus generate new revenue flows. Users discovered, however, that the machines could be easily modified and used for other purposes, such as building a personal database of book and CD collections. As no licensing agreement was ever reached between Wired and its magazine subscribers, CueCat were powerless to intervene, and after company liquidation the barcode readers soon became available in quantities over 500,000 for as little as US$0.30 each. E Not all forms of freebie marketing are legal. One notable example of this is the use of freebie marketing to “push” habit-forming goods in areas where there is otherwise no market. For illegal substances this is already restricted on the basis of the products illegality, but the use of freebie marketing to promote legal goods such as tobacco, alcohol and pharmaceuticals is also outlawed because the short-term gain to a small number of commercial outlets is not deemed worth the social cost of widespread substance abuse. F Another practice that is prohibited under antitrust laws is a form of freebie marketing known as “tying”. This is when a seller makes the sale of one good conditional on the acquisition of a second good. In these instances the first good is typically important and highly desirable, while the second is inferior and undesirable. A music distributor who has the rights to an album that is in high demand, for example, might only allow stores to purchase copies of this album if they also buy unpopular stock that does not sell very easily. Because this typically relies on the manipulation of a natural monopoly on the part of the distributor, such practices are widely understood to constitute anti-competitive behaviour.

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Complete the summary below. Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the text for each answer. Freebie marketing is not permitted by law for either illegal or legal 7. ________ products. This type of promotion of goods such as tobacco and alcohol is not considered worth the 8.________ and has consequently been outlawed. “Tying" is also prohibited. This is when the sale of an attractive product is 9. ________ on the purchase of another. It tends to occur when the seller takes advantage of a natural monopoly and is generally considered to be 10. ________

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Your answer 1. 4. 7. 10.

2. 5. 8.

3. 6. 9.

Part 5. For question 1-10, answer by choosing from the four naturalists (A-D). Some of the choices may be required more than once. (10pts) (Source: CAM CAE 6 – Test 2_ Reading)

Which naturalist says that the book contained a wider range of material than other 1. ____________ Page 9 of 16

2. ____________ 3. ____________ 4. ____________ 5. ____________ 6. ____________ 7. ____________ 8. ____________ 9. ____________ 10. ____________

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books he/she owned? says that the human race is often blamed for its destructive relationship with the wildlife? says that the book can make the organization of a particular animal group clear to an observer? raises the author’s desire to make the work accessible to the nonspecialist? explains what motivated him/her to start drawing? describes experiencing a change of mood when reading the book? raises the book for both its use of language and depth of feeling? describes the sensory experiences evoked by the book? attributes the skill of the illustrator to extensive observation? says that no other book has proved to be as good as the one nominated?

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NATURAL BOOKS We invited four leading naturalists to tell us about the wildlife classic that has influenced them most. A. Geoffrey Lean At least it wasn’t hard to choose the author. As an environmental journalist, one advantage of longevity is that I have had the chance to meet some of the giants who pioneered thinking in the field. Of these, none stood, in deed, still stands, taller than a small, frail woman, Barbara Ward. I can’t think of anyone else more at heart of environmental issues in post-war Europe. She has synthesized her experience of various environmental movements into her own compelling philosophy. Unwilling ‘volunteered’ to cover the field, I found, as a young journalist, that she, more than anyone, made it all make sense. Picking the book was much harder. It could have been Only One Earth or Progress for a Small Planet. But despite its title (which sounded old-fashioned), even in 1976), The Home of Man is, to me, Barbara’s most important book. Its focus is on the explosive growth of the world’s cities, but its canvas is the great themes to which she devoted her life. It is as eloquent and as impassioned a plea as exists for what we would now call ‘sustainable human development’. In the hundreds of books I have read since, I have yet to meet its equal. B. Linda Bennett When I open the passages of Signals for Survival by Niko Timbergen, I can hear the long calls for herring gulls, recall the smell of the guano in the hot sun and visualize the general hullabaloo of the colony. This book explains superbly, through words and pictures, the fascinating world of animal communication. Read Signals for Survival and then watch any gull colony, and the frenzy of activity changes from apparent chaos to a highly efficient social structure. You can see which birds are partners, where the boundaries are and, later on in the season, whole families can be recognized. A distinguished behaviourist, Niko Tinbergen came from that rare breed of academics who wish to explain their findings to the layperson. His collaboration in this book with one of this century’s most talented wildlife artists, Eric Ennion, was inspirational and has produced a book of interest to anyone with a love of wildlife. His spontaneous style of painting came from years of watching and understanding birds. With just a minimal amount of line and colour, he brings to life Page 10 of 16

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how one gull is an aggressor, how another shows appeasement. This is the art of a true field naturalist. C. Lee Durrell Most definitely, my Family and Other Animals by Gerald Durrell is the book that has had the greatest influence on my life. Beyond the obvious reason that it ultimately led me to a wonderful husband, and an exciting career in conversation, this extraordinary book once and for all defined my devotion to the natural world. I was doing research work into animal vocalizations in Madagascar when I first read the book. I had been there two years and was discouraged by the number of setbacks I was encountering but when, at the end of the day, I opened My Family and Other Animals to where I had left off the night before, the world became a brighter place. Animals, people, joy and beauty inextricably woven together – a microcosm of a world worth saving. Many people say that our species is the worst because of the terrible things we have done to the others. But I like to think back to Gerald as a boy in My Family and Other Animals, looking at the world’s inhabitants as a whole, a family whose members, be they good, bad or indifferent, are nevertheless so intertwined as to be inseparable. And that is a concept we all need to grasp. D. Bruce Pearson A copy of The Shell Bird Book, by James Fisher, found its way into my school library shortly after it was first published in 1966. I was drawn to it at once, especially to the 48 colour plates of birds by Eric Ennion, pained, as the jacket puts it,… with particular skill and charm. It was those Ennion images which captured my attention. I already had copies of other bird books and had spent several holidays learning to identify birds. They encouraged me to begin sketching what I saw as an aid to identification. But in The Shell Bird Book there was so much more to feast on. As well as the glorious Ennion paintings, there were chapters on migrants and migration, a review of the history of birds in Britain, and, best of all, a chapter on birds in music, literature and art. It was the broad span of ornithological information and the exciting images that steered me towards being more of a generalist in my appreciation of birds and the natural world. The book made it clear that my emotional and creative response to nature was as valid and as possible as a rational and scientific one. And, as art was a stronger subject for me than maths or physics, I began to see a door opening for me.

2. 7.

3. 8.

4. 9.

5. 10.

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Your answers: 1. 6.

D. WRITING (60 pts) Part 1. Summarizing an extract (10 pts). Read the following text What’s Killing Pacific Whales and use your own words to summarize it. Your summary should be between 120 and 140 words long. You MUST NOT copy the original. What’s Killing Pacific Whales? Tourists come here from around the world to watch whales. It’s common to see humpbacks leaping out of the water and fin whales slapping the waves with their flukes. If you’re lucky, you’ll catch a gray whale poking its head out of the water to scope out the surroundings. And if you’re really lucky, you’ll see a blue whale — at up to 165 tons, the largest animal on earth. Page 11 of 16

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But all is not well here this year. Gray whales are dying in large numbers. Since January, at least 167 North Pacific gray whales have washed ashore dead from Mexico to Alaska. That’s probably just a fraction of the number that have actually died. Most will have sunk to the sea floor; scientists call these carcasses “whale falls.” But the number of known deaths is high enough that the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration has declared an “unusual mortality event” — a pronouncement that has sent scientists scrambling to figure out what’s going on. Events like this are often the first warning sign that something may be seriously amiss below the waves. Particularly striking is that many of the whales washed ashore have been emaciated. Despite the toll humans have exacted on them, gray whales, which can reach 49 feet in length and weigh 45 tons, are known for their curiosity about boats and friendliness toward people. Each spring, they migrate roughly 5,000 miles from their birthing grounds in the warm, shallow lagoons of Baja California in Mexico to their feeding grounds in the frigid waters of the Bering Sea off the Alaska coast, where they feast daily on up to 1.3 tons of mostly small crustaceans called amphipods. It’s crucial for these whales to eat enough to survive the grueling 10,000-mile roundtrip migration, among the longest of any mammal. When these whales returned to their Baja breeding grounds in early spring this year, they arrived weeks late and were skinnier than usual. Now, not only do some of the adults seem to be malnourished as they pass by on their return trip to the Arctic, but we are also seeing about onethird fewer calves than we did in last year’s count. Baby whales need 50 gallons of milk a day, with a fat content of 50 percent, which means their mothers need to be well fed. This isn’t the first time a big die-off has occurred in the Northeast Pacific. Twenty years ago, NOAA issued an “unusual mortality event” notice when over 100 gray whales washed up on West Coast beaches. Scientists were never able to identify the cause. Isolating the cause of this year’s mysterious deaths is a tremendous challenge. Interdisciplinary teams of scientists have begun sifting through a profusion of data — for example, sea ice extent, ocean temperature, food availability, entanglement in fishing gear, marine pollution, toxic algae blooms, collisions with large ships and predation by killer whales. In a sense, this is oldfashioned detective work, but the world they are working in is mostly hidden and inaccessible, where everything is moving all the time. Our research on whales is focused on listening. Using an underwater microphone, we can eavesdrop on whales, orcas and dolphins. Because they live in a largely dark world, they use sound to find food, navigate and communicate. We are monitoring changes in their communications over time to learn about their populations and the ecosystem they rely upon. (We’ve created a website with recordings of this ocean soundscape.) Perhaps the gray whale population — now estimated to be about 27,000, a quarter of what it was when commercial whaling peaked in the mid-1800s — simply exceeded the ocean’s capacity to support them this year. (Adapted from https://www.nytimes.com/2019/06/22/opinion) ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… Page 12 of 16

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Part 2. Describing graph(s) (20 pts). The table below shows types of YouTube ads, their average lengths and how long people watch them. Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make comparisons where relevant. You should write at least 150 words.

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………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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Part 3. Essay writing (30 pts).

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Some people think that parents should teach children how to be good members of the society. Others, however, believe that school is the place to learn this. Discuss both views and give your opinion. Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge and experience. Write at least 250 words.

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HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH - LỚP 11 Thời gian làm bài:180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)

TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN THÁI NGUYÊN

Đề đề xuất TRẠI HÈ HÙNG VƯƠNG NĂM 2019

1. industry 6. bay

2. constant 7. gates

3. direction 8. fuel

4. floor 9. jobs

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A. LISTENING (50 points) Part 1. Question 1-10. Complete the note below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer. (10 x 2 points = 20 points) 5. prediction 10. migration

Part 2. You will hear part of a talk about best-selling books Use NO MORE THAN FIVE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. (5 x2 points = 10 points) 1. the celebrity’s struggles 2. an air of sophistication 3. a wealth of anecdotes 4. a human aspect to history 5. personal relationships or happiness

4. TRUE

2. FALSE

5. TRUE

1. TRUE

3. A

4. B

5. C

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2. B

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B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (30 points). Part 1. Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) which best completes each sentence. (15 x 1 points = 15 points)

1. C 11. B

2.A 12. B

3. D 13. A

4. D 14. A

5. A 15. D

6. C

7. A

8. B

9. C

10. D

Part 2. Complete the following text with the correct forms of the words given in the brackets. (10 x 1 points = 10 points)

Page 1 of 4

1. expectations

2. payment(s)

3. performance(s)

4. recognition

5. ability 10.

6. academically

7. difficulties

8. financial

9.failure

judgement/judgment

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Part 3. Identify 05 errors in the following passage by underlining them and correct them in the space provided in the second column. (5 x 1 points = 05 points). Water scarcity is fast becoming one of the major limiting factors in world crop production. In many areas, poor agricultural practices have led to

increasing desertification and the losing of formerly arable lands. Consequently, loss those plants species that are well adapted to survival in dry climates are being looked at for an answer in development more efficient crops to grow on marginally arable lands.

Plants use several mechanisms to ensure their survival in desert

developing

environments. Some involve purely mechanical and physical adaptations, such

as the shape of the plant’s surface, smaller leaf size, and extensive root systems.

Some of the adaptations are related to chemistry mechanisms. Many plants,

chemical

such as cacti, have internal gums and mucilages which give them waterretaining properties. Other chemical mechanism is that of the epicuticular wax

Another

layer. This wax layer acts as an impervious cover to protect the plant. It moisture

prevents excessive loss of internal moist. It also protects the plant from external

aggression, which can come from inorganic agents such as gases, or organic

agents which include bacteria and plant pets.

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C. READING (60 points) Part 1. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap. (10 x 1 points = 10 points) 2. A 7. C

3. D 8. B

4. B 9. A

5. A 10. B

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1. B 6. C

Part 2. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only one word in each space. (10 x 1 points = 10 points) 1. turn 2. more 3. they 4. with 5. that/which 6. on

7. where

8. down/in

9. better

Part 3. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.

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10. such

(10 x 1 points = 10 points) 1. B 6. B

2. A 7. D

3. C 8. B

4. D 9. A

5. C 10. D

Part 4. The following passage has six sections, A-F.

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(10 x 2 points = 20 points) 1. iv

2. viii

3. iii

4. vii

5. i

6.v

7. habit-forming

8. social cost

9. conditional

10. anti-competitive behavior

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D. WRITING (60 pts) Part 1. Summarizing an extract (10 pts) 1. Completion: 1pt - Neither too long nor too short 2. Content: 3pts - Cover the original as a whole. - Be presented in a neutral fashion. 3. Organization: 2pts - The ideas are well-organized 4. Language: 2pts - Present the ideas in your own words - Use a wide range of vocabulary - Good grammar & structures - Easy to understand

Part 5. For question 1-10, answer by choosing from the four naturalists (A-D). Some of the choices may be required more than once. (10 x 1 points = 10 points) 1. A 2. B 3. D 4. D 5. B 6. C 7. B 8. A 9. A 10. C

Part 2. Describing graph(s) (20 pts) 1. Completion: 2 pts - Neither too long nor too short 2. Content: 6 pts - Cover the main information in the chart yet not go into too many details. - Make general remarks and effective comparisons. 3. Organisation: 4 pts

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- The ideas are well organized - The description is sensibly divided into paragraphs 4. Language: 6 pts - Use a wide range of vocabulary and structure - Good grammar 5. Punctuation and spelling: 2 pts Part 3. Essay writing (30 pts) 1. Completion: 4 pts 2. Content: 8 pts - Provide relevant and convincing ideas about the topic, supported by specific example and/or reasonable justification. 3. Organisation: 8 pts - Ideas are well organized and presented with unity, cohesion and coherence. 4. Language: 8 pts - Demonstrate of a wide range of vocabulary and structures. - Good use of grammatical structures. - Present the ideas with clarity. 5. Punctuations and spelling. 2 pts

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TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN TUYÊN QUANG --------------Đề thi gồm: 15 trang

ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT TRẠI HÈ HÙNG VƯƠNG LẦN THỨ XV MÔN: TIẾNG ANH. LỚP 11 Thời gian: 180 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề)

Giám khảo 1

Điểm Bằng chữ

Số phách

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Bằng số

Giám khảo 2

SECTION I: LISTENING COMPREHENSION (50 pts) HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU • Bài nghe gồm 3 phần, mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, mỗi lần cách nhau 15 giây, mở đầu và kết thúc mỗi phần nghe có tín hiệu. • Mở đầu và kết thúc bài nghe có tín hiệu nhạc. Thí sinh có 3 phút để hoàn chỉnh bài trước tín hiệu nhạc kết thúc bài nghe. • Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe.

Part 1. You will hear an extract from a talk about student health, and specifically about the ways to avoid headaches. As you listen to the talk, answer questions 1- 10 by ompleting the summary. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR NUMBER for each. (20p) (15 days’ practice for Ielts Listening)

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The most usual cause of headache is (1)______. Headaches can also come as a result of (2)______. Some people say they get a headache when they (3)______. This is probably because they get very (4)______. It may also be because they are working in poor light which makes them very (5)______. It is helpful if your reading material is on a bookrest at (6)______ to the desk. It is also important to be (7)______in bed. You may even get a headache because you (8) ______. The best advice is to try to eat regular meals, get enough (9)______and (10)_____ places. Your answers 1. …………… 2. …………… 3. …………… 4. …………… 5. …………… 6. …………… 7. …………… 8. …………… 9. …………… 10. ……………

Part 2: For questions 1-5, listen to a conversation between Martin, Amanda and the professor. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. (10pts) (Cambridge Ielts Practice tests) 1. When is the deadline for handing in dissertations? __________________________________________________________________________ 2. What should the word count exclude? __________________________________________________________________________ 3. Who must approve the dissertation topic? 1

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__________________________________________________________________________ 4. How long should the research take? __________________________________________________________________________ 5. What will the students probably spend the second half of April doing? __________________________________________________________________________

Your answers 1. …………… 2.

……………

…………… 5.

……………

Part 3: For questions 1-5, listen to a television talk show about assistance dogs for the disabled. Decide whether each of the following statements is True (T) or False (F). (10p.) 1. Daniel’s parents knew he had a problem when he was born 2. Daniel needs to use a wheelchair 3. Dogs for the Disabled has trained dogs for young people for a long time. 4. Erica’s husband stays at home with her all the time. 5. Before Daniel got Yogi, people used to ignore him more often.

Part 4: You will hear an interview with a psychologist about friendships. Choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. ( Succeed in Cambridge English Advanced CAE)

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1. According to the presenter, ______ A. we have to adjust our friendships as our lives change. B. new books are being written to teach people how to manage friendships. C. it’s almost impossible to keep childhood friends for life. D. the most important friends are childhood friends. 2. Barbara warns that foul-weather friends,______ A. never want you to be happy. B. engineer bad situations so that they can feel superior. C. have their life perfectly organized. D. can spoil the times when you are feeling good about life. 3. The danger of a trophy friend is that,_______ A. he or she will inhibit your social life. B. you may develop unrealistic expectations. C. he or she will push you to be a higher achiever. D. he or she will expect you to become more popular. 4. According to Barbara, a good friend _____ A. probably needs to be someone that you see very often. B. tends to ask for your help slightly more than you would like but you tolerate it. C. doesn’t expend too much of your time or energy. D. never puts you in a serious mood. 5. When making new friends_____ 2

……………

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A. try to be as funny as you can. B. don’t mention serious issues before you have got to know them well. C. be sensitive to their need for escape. D. spend as much time with them as you can. Your answers 1. …………… 2. …………… 3. …………… 4. …………… 5.

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SECTION II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (30 points) Part 1: Choose the best option A, B, C, or D to complete the following sentences and write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (15 points) 1. The cost of a new house in the UK has become _________high over the last few years. A. totally B. astronomically C. blatantly D. utterly 2. Serving on the voluntary management committee, they have been responsible for the overall strategy and for the _________care of our dedicated staff and of the children who have attended the pre-school. A. agricultural B. clerical C. ecclesiastical D. pastoral 3. She made a number of _________ remarks about his painting, which upset him. A. cutting B. stabbing C. chopping D. slashing 4. It was a _________ for residents when a tornado swept through just west of the town. A. long night B. close call C. long bond D. bad call 5. Closure of schools took place _________ falling numbers of pupils. A. in the context of B. with regard to C. with a concern for D. in consideration of 6. Harry was offered a scholarship to study in Spain and he _________ the opportunity with both hands. A. grasped B. grabbed C. held D. passed 7. When the cost was _________ the benefits, the scheme looked good. A. weighed up B. set against C. made up for D. settled up with 8. Many celebrities complain about the media attention but I think many of them thrive on being in the _________. A. torch-light B. headlight C. floodlight D. limelight 9. The winning team were roundly criticized by the local media for the way in which they had _________over the losing team. It was considered very unsporting. A. showed up B. relished C. gloated D. dominated 10. _________ your continued late arrival at work, I have been pleased with your work here. A. nonetheless B. nevertheless C. regardless D. Notwithstanding 11. A lesser know symptom of this condition is that you will suddenly have panic attacks and _________ cold sweats with little or no warning. A. break into B. come across C. give off D. switch on 12. Hubert _________ remembered locking the door and couldn't understand how it was now standing wide open. A. distinctly B. sharply C. totally D. utterly

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13. He is a conman who makes a habit of_________people’s savings. A. getting down to B. getting off to C. running off with D. going through with 14. A businessman must widen his horizons; a _________ attitude will get you nowhere in this age of global communications. A. moderate B. petrified C. parochial D. diversified 15. But is it really a _________ conclusion that all of these young people will turn to crime? A. foregone B. foreseen C. foreboding D. forebear Your answer 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15

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Part 2:The passage below contains 5 mistakes. IDENTIFY and CORRECT them. Write your answers in the space provided. (5p.) Exceptionally talented or just over-confident? According to a study on what lies at the heart of success, it seems that the key is not what might be expected, in other words talent, hard work or a good education, but instead it’s total, adulterated confidence. Confident people tend not to be put out by their own shortcomings and often have larger than life personalities. This means they make themselves more visible in the workplace, pushing themselves forward at every opportunity and so getting promotion over those who may well be more competent but appear on the surface to be less talented. Confident people are often admired and their opinions valued; consequently, they are able to effect decisions made within a group. This could have implications for the recruitment procedures of many companies, as a typical job interview often involves a group task which fair favours the over-confident. Such a display of confidence may carry too much weight with interviewers, and better, quieter candidates may be turned down, led to a less efficient workforce. Your answers Line Mistake Correction 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Part 3: Write the correct form of the words given in the brackets. Write your answers in the spaces provided below. (10 points) An environmental history of mankind would have to be a history of the exploitation of abundant natural resources, the spiraling demand for these resources, and their (1. ESCAPE__________) depletion. As humanity spread across the globe, leaving colonies in its wake, essential resources such as coal, oil, and even fresh water were extracted through industrial mining and manufacturing (2. FIT_________) that had a massive impact on the Earth itself. What were once plethoric has (3. INEXORABILITY ________) declined, and entrepreneurs are now looking beyond the limits of land, sea, and sky; the new target is the stars and, more specifically, asteroids. Spinning around the Sun are tens of thousands of asteroids, and scientists are convinced that these mountain-like formations contain a treasure 4

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trove of minerals and metals. The asteroid 16 Psyche has enough iron–nickel ore to sustain the Earth for several million years. Even a comparatively small asteroid could contain more than 2,000 million metric tons of (4. SERVE ______) mineral-metal reserves. In addition, some asteroids have a high ice content which means that they could no longer be an economically (5. ATTAIN_______) source of fresh water. Large-scale mining of asteroids is possibly the (6. CONDITION_______) for solving many of our escalating environmental problems. Any mining venture contains an element of risk, however. Asteroids have traditionally been considered (7. DIE_______) perils lurking out in the dark depths of space, biding their time before smashing headlong into our insignificant planet. In order to (8. PLANT_______) mining operations from the Earth to the stars, we need to find solutions to extensive safety and (9. LOGISTICS_______) problems. Stabilizing a spinning rock the size of a small city is no mean feat and would need a huge investment of (10. POWER) and equipment. For the moment, the Earth that has catered to our every need and received precious little in return will have to suffer a few more years of interminable exploitation. Your answers 1. …………… 2. …………… 3. …………… 4. …………… 5. …………… 6. …………… 7. …………… 8. …………… 9. …………… 10. ……………

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SECTION III. READING (60p.) Part 1: Read and fill each of the following numbered spaces with ONE suitable word and write your answers in the corresponding boxes provided below the passage. (0) has been done as an example. NEW CAMERA CAN SEE THROUGH WALLS - AND MAY SAVE LIVES A camera that can see through clothes, skin and even walls without X-rays has been developed in what’s (1)_______ called one of the first great technologcal breakthroughs of the 21st century. The “terahertz“ camera, still in prototype form, is under rapid development by scientists In Oxfordshire. It Is likely to have many applications, ranging (2)_______medical scanning to identifying concealed weapons on airline passengers. Unlike wrth X-rays, patients are (3) ______ exposed to potentially harmful radiation. (4) _______ the camera detects a form of energy waves which are naturally emitted by all obiects. The existence of (5) _______ waves has been recognised for a long time, but the technology needed to capture them on camera has so (6) ______been too complex and expensive. Now a team of scientists has succeeded in (7)______ a prototype in just three months. The first image which was captured by the device revealed the outline of a human hand, clearly visible despite being hidden under a thick book. If such a device could be mass produced, there could be one in every doctor's surgery, offering a completely safe now window mto the human body. Disease or tissue damage could be detected at a much (8)_______ stage. increasing the chances of successful treatment. The technology will be controversial. (9)______, as the camera could reveal body shape beneath clothing without the subject's permission, or even knowledge. Civil liberties groups will, therefore, probably object to its (10)______ used on the grounds that it invades the individual's privacy. Your answers ………… 3. …………… 4. …………… 5. ………… 1. …………… 2. ………… 8. …………… 9. …………… 10. ………… 6. …………… 7.

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Part 2: Rread the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. It only (1)_______ the completion of the reconstruction of the human genetic map for a whole host of hereditary diseases to be (2)_______ . Originally, it was forecast that the venture would take until the beginning of the 21st century to be (3) _______. At present, it is clear that the task can be finished much earlier. Hundreds of scholars have gone to (4)_______ to help unravel the mystery of the human genetic structure with an ardent hope for insulating mankind from disorders such as cancer, cystic fibrosis or arthritis. The progress in this incredible undertaking is (5) _______ by an accurate interpretation of the information involved in the chromosomes forming the trillions of the cell in the human body. Locating and characterizing every single gene may (6) _______ an implausible assignment, but very considerable (7)_______ has already been made. What we know by now is that the hereditary code is assembled in DNA, some parts of which may be diseased and conducive to be uncontrollable transmission of the damaged code from parents to their children. Whereas work at the completion of the human genome may last for a few years more, notions like gene therapy or genetic engineering don’t (8)_______ much surprise any longer. Their potential application has already been (9)_______ in the effective struggle against many viruses or in the genetic treatment of blood disorders. The hopes are, then, that hundreds of maladies the humanity is (10)_______ with at present might eventually cease to exist in the not too distant future. 1. A. expects B. anticipates C. requires D. remains 2. A. eradicated B. interfered C. terminated D. disrupted 3. A. dismantled B. discharged C. accomplished D. exterminated 4. A. maximum B. extremes C. supreme D. utmost 5. A. dependent B. reliant C. qualified D. conditioned 6. A. perceive B. hear C. voice D. sound 7. A. headline B. headway C. heading D. headship 8. A. evoke B. institute C. discharge D. encourage 9. A. examined B. inquired C. corroborated D. accounted 10. A. aggravated B. plagued C. persecuted D. teased Your answers 1. …………… 2. …………… 3. …………… 4. …………… 5. …………… 6. …………… 7. …………… 8. …………… 9. …………… 10. …………… Part 3: Read the following passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) according to the text. Write your answers (A, B, C or D) in the corresponding numbered boxes. FORGETFUL BRAINS Humans have always had trouble remembering certain details, One person has the unique experience of recalling in almost exact detail a memory from his childhood, but he cannot remember what he ate for lunch yesterday. Another cannot recall names of people she met five minutes ago, but she remembers the names of people she met from an hour before. Psychologists have searched for answers to the memory phenomenon to better understand how brain functions and what triggers memory or causes forgetfulness. After 6

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extensive research over the past century, they have come up with some basic theories to help explain memory loss. There are times when an individual losses all recollection of an event. [A] This is referred to as the decay theory, which states that if memories are not recalled from time to time, they fade and then gradually drop from a person’s memory. Decay is proven to occur with sensory memories, or short-term memories, if they are not recalled or rehearsed. Decay of long-term memory is harder to explain because these memories last through the passage of time. [B] In fact, some knowledge can be accessed many years after it is first learned. [C] Research on students who took Spanish courses in high school revealed that they still remembered a great deal of Spanish fifty years later, even though they had hardly used the language. While some memories tend to decay, others remain burned into the recesses of the brain, causing psychologists to further ponder the workings of memory. [D] Another explanation made by researchers concerning memory loss is known as interference. Under this theory, an individual forgets a memory when similar information enters the mind and interferes with the original memory in either the storage or retrieval area of the brain. The information is somewhere in the person’s memory, but it gets confused with other details. This occurs in both short-term and long-term memory and is most common when a person tries to recall isolated facts. For instance, a woman goes to a party and meets a man named Joe at the front door. Half an hour later, she is introduced to Jason. When she sees Joe again, she accidentally calls him Jason. This is retroactive interference. The newest Information input replaces the old information, causing the woman to mistakenly call the first man by the wrong name. Additionally, people may suffer from proactive interference. A new student meets his first professor Dr. Mack, in his English class. When he has History, he meets Dr, miller. However, he frequently calls both teachers Dr Mack, since that is the first name he had learned. Remembering the first set of information and not remembering the next is proactive interference. The old information interfered with the students ‘ability to recall the newer information. When a person needs to remember something, he frequently relies on cues, or reminders, to help him retrieve a specific memory. When he lacks the cues to recall the memory, the person suffers from cue-dependent forgetting. This may be the most common type of forgetfulness. Psychologist William Wagenaar did a year-long study during which the recorded events from his life daily. After a year’s time, he could not remember twenty percent of the critical details, and after five years, he had forgotten sixty percent. However, he complied cues from ten witnesses to some events in his past that he believed he had forgotten, and he was able to recall pieces of information about all ten. Thus, when he had cues to help him retrieve his memories, he could remember his experiences, illustrating that he was somewhat cue-dependent. Cognitive psychologists believe that these specific cues help direct a person to the area of the brain where the memory is stored or they match up with information linked to the actual memory the person is seeking. Whether forgetfulness is from years of decay, replacement of old memories, or lack of cues researchers continue working to locate the source of people’s forgetfulness. The answers are becoming cleaner with each additional study. As brain research advances, psychologists are sure to connect many different factors that link people back to their memories. ( Mastering Skills for the TOEFL IBT) 1. The word triggers in the passage is closest in meaning to A. closes B. cues C. review D. erases 7

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2. According to paragraph 2, decay of short-term memories can be avoided by A. remembering associations B. removing immediate distractions C. recollecting information often D. asking time to acquire input 3. What can be inferred about the decay theory from paragraph 2? A. Memories from big events always remain in the mind. B. Memory decay arises from specific circumstances. C. Recalling old memories prevent their decay. D. Most people suffer from some degree of memory decay. 4. Where would the sentence best fit? Look at [A], [B], [C], [D] that indicate where the following sentence could be added to the passage.eer, A. First square B. Second square C. Third square D. Fourth square 5. The word ponder in the passage is closest in meaning to A. consider B. explain C. forget D. understand 6. All of the following are mentioned in paragraph 3 as interference EXCEPT: A. Confusing newly learned facts with other details B. Confusing old memories with current situations C. Remembering the first information but forgetting the second set D. Recalling the last information acquired but losing the first 7. In paragraph 3, the author discusses remembering and forgetting names in order to A. demonstrate memory interference B. refute proactive and retroactive interference C. advocate acquiring new memories D. reveal the workings of forgetfulness 8. The word it in the passage refers to A. retrieval area B. information C. storage area D. memory 9. The word isolated in the closest in meaning to A. complex B. angry C. remote D. ignored 10. According to paragraph 4, cue-dependent forgetting is defined as ______. A. not being able to remember details or events when clues are present B. not being able to remember details or events unless clues are present C. not being able to forget clues about details or events D. not being able to remember details or events without assistance from other people Your answers 1. …………… 2. …………… 3. …………… 4. …………… 5. …………… 6. …………… 7. …………… 8. …………… 9. …………… 10. …………… Part 4. Read the following passage and do the tasks that follows. Write your answer in the space provided. What destroyed the Civilization of Easter Island? A. Easter Island, or Rapu Nui as it is known locally, is home to several hundred ancient human statues - the moai. After this remote Pacific island was settled by the Polynesians, it 8

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remained isolated for centuries. All the energy and resources that went into the moat - some of which are ten metres tall and weigh over 7.000 kilos - came from the island itself. Yet when Dutch explorers landed in 1722. they met a Stone Age culture. The moai were carved with stone tools, then transported for many kilometres, without the use of animals or wheels, to massive stone platforms. The identity of the moai builders was in doubt until well into the twentieth century. Thor Heyerdahl, the Norwegian ethnographer and adventurer, thought the statues had been created by pre-Inca peoples from Peru. Bestselling Swiss author Erich von Daniken believed they were built by stranded extraterrestrials. Modern science - linguistic, archaeological and genetic evidence - has definitively proved the moai builders were Polynesians, but not how they moved their creations. Local folklore maintains that the statues walked, while researchers have tended to assume the ancestors dragged the statues somehow, using ropes and logs. B. When the Europeans arrived, Rapa Nui was grassland, with only a few scrawny trees. In the 1970s and 1980s, though, researchers found pollen preserved in lake sediments, which proved the island had been covered in lush palm forests for thousands of years. Only after the Polynesians arrived did those forests disappear. US scientist, Jared Diamond, believes that the Rapanui people- descendants of Polynesian settlers - wrecked their own environment. They had unfortunately settled on an extremely fragile island – dry, cool, and too remote to be properly fertilized by windblown volcanic ash. When the islanders cleared the forests for firewood and farming, the forests didn't grow back. As trees became scarce and they could no longer construct wooden canoes for fishing, they ate birds. Soil erosion decreased their crop yields. Before Europeans arrived, the Rapanui had descended into civil war and cannibalism, he maintains. The collapse of their isolated civilization, Diamond writes, is a 'worst-case scenario for what may lie ahead of us in our own future'. C. The moai, he thinks, accelerated the self-destruction. Diamond interprets them as power displays by rival chieftains who, trapped on a remote little island, lacked other ways of asserting their dominance. They competed by building ever bigger figures. Diamond thinks they laid the moai on wooden sledges, hauled over log rails, but that required both a lot of wood and a lot of people. To feed the people, even more land had to be cleared. When the wood was gone and civil war began, the islanders began toppling the moai. By the nineteenth century none we re standing. D. Archaeologists Terry Hunt of the University of Hawaii and Carl Lipo of California State University agree that Easter Island lost its lush forests and that it was an 'ecological catastrophe’ - but they believe the islanders themselves weren't to blame. And the moai certainly weren't. Archaeological excavations indicate that the Rapanui went to heroic efforts to protect the resources of their wind-lashed, infertile fields They built thousands of circular stone windbreaks and gardened inside them, and used broken volcanic rocks to keep the soil moist. In short. Hunt and Lipo argue, the prehistoric Rapanui were pioneers of sustainable farming. E. Hunt and Lipo contend that moai-building was an activity that helped keep the peace between islanders. They also believe that moving the moai required few people and no wood, because they were walked upright. On that issue. Hunt and Lipo say, archaeological evidence backs up Rapanui folklore. Recent experiments indicate that as few as 18 people could, with three strong ropes and a bit of practice, easily manoeuvre a 1,000 kg moai replica a few hundred metres. The figures' fat bellies tilted them forward, and a D-shaped base allowed handlers to roll and rock them side to side. F. Moreover, Hunt and Lipo are convinced that the settlers were not wholly responsible for 9

Example Paragraph A __ii__

List of Headings Evidence of innovative environment management practices An undisputed answer to a question about the moai The future of the moai statues A theory which supports a local belief The future of Easter Island Two opposing views about the Rapanuis’ control Destruction outside the inhabitants’ control How the statues made a situation worse Diminishing food resources

Paragraph G ___vi__

i. ii. iii. iv. v. vi. vii. viii. ix.

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the loss of the island's trees. Archaeological finds of nuts from the extinct Easter Island palm show tiny grooves, made by the teeth of Polynesian rats. The rats arrived along with the settlers, and in just a few years. Hunt and Lipo calculate, they would have overrun the island. They would have prevented the reseeding of the slow-growing palm trees and thereby doomed Rapa Nui's forest, even without the settlers' campaign of deforestation. No doubt the rats ate birds' eggs too. Hunt and Lipo also see no evidence that Rapanui civilization collapsed when the palm forest did. They think its population grew rapidly and then remained more or less stable until the arrival of the Europeans, who introduced deadly diseases to which islanders had no immunity. Then in the nineteenth century slave traders decimated the population, which shrivelled to 111 people by 1877. G. Hunt and Lipo's vision, therefore, is one of an island populated by peaceful and ingenious moai builders and careful stewards of the land, rather than by reckless destroyers ruining their own environment and society. ‘Rather than a case of abject failure. Rapu Nui is an unlikely story of success', they claim. Whichever is the case, there are surely some valuable lessons which the world at large can learn from the story of Rapa Nui. Choose the correct heading for paragraphs B-F from the list of headings below. Write the correct number, i-ix, next to Questions 1-5.

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Questions 7-10: Complete the summary below. Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer. Write your answer in the space provided. Jared Diamond’s View Diamond believes that the Polynesian settlers on Rapa Nui destroyed its forests, cutting down its trees for fuel and clearing land for (6)________. Twentieth-century discoveries of pollen prove that Rapu Nui had once been covered in palm forests, which had turned into grassland by the time the Europeans arrived on the island. When the islanders were no longer able to build the (7) _________ they need to go fishing, they began using the island’s (8)______ as a food source, according to Diamond. Diamond also claims that the maoi were built to show the power of the island’s (9)______, and that the methods of transporting the statues needed not only a great number of people, but also a great deal of (10) ________. Your answers 1.Para B: ______ 2. Para C: _____ 3. Para D: _____ 4. Para E: _____ 5. Para F: ____ 6. ____________ 7. ___________ 8. ____________ 9. ___________ 10. __________ 10

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Part 5. Identify which section A–D each of the following is mentioned. Write ONE letter A–D in the corresponding numbered space provided. Each letter may be used more than once. You are going to read four different opinions from leading scientists about the future of fuel. For questions 1-10, choose from the writers A-D. The writers may be chosen more than once. A. Howard Bloom, Author: Even though most people are convinced that peak oil has already passed, to me, peak oil is just a hypothesis. There is a theory that carbon molecules can be found in interstellar gas clouds, comets and in space ice, and if this is the case, our planet could ooze oil for ever. And even if we stay earthbound, those who say we have raped the planet of all its resources are wrong. There's a huge stock of raw materials we haven't yet learned to use. There are bacteria two miles beneath our feet which can turn solid granite into food. If bacteria can do it, surely we creatures with brains can do it better. As far as the near future of energy is concerned, I believe the most promising alternative fuels are biofuels, such as ethanol. It's an alcohol made from waste products such as the bark of trees, woodchips, and other 'waste materials'. And that's not the only waste that can create energy. My friend in the biomass industry is perfecting an energy-generation plant which can run on human waste. We produce that in vast quantities, and it's already gathered in centralised locations.

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B. Michael Lardelli, Lecturer in Genetics at The University of Adelaide Nothing exists on this planet without energy. It enables flowers and people to grow and we need it to mine minerals, extract oil or cut wood and then to process these into finished goods. So the most fundamental definition of money is as a mechanism to allow the exchange and allocation of different forms of energy. Recently, people have been using more energy than ever before. Until 2005 it was possible to expand our energy use to meet this demand. However, since 2005 oil supply has been in decline, and at the same time, and as a direct result of this, the world's economy has been unable to expand, leading to global recession. With the world's energy and the profitability of energy production in decline at the same time, the net energy available to support activities other than energy procurement will decrease. We could increase energy production by diverting a large proportion of our remaining oil energy into building nuclear power stations and investing in renewable forms of energy. However, this is very unlikely to happen in democratic nations, because it would require huge, voluntary reductions in living standards. Consequently, the world economy will continue to contract as oil production declines. With energy in decline, it will be impossible for everyone in the world to become wealthier. One person's increased wealth can only come at the expense of another person's worsened poverty.

C. Jeroen van der Veer, chief executive of Royal Dutch Shell People are understandably worried about a future of growing energy shortages, rising prices and international conflict for supplies. These fears are not without foundation. With continued economic growth, the world's energy needs could increase by 50% in the next 25 years. However, I do not believe that the world is running out of energy. Fossil fuels will be able to meet growing demand for a long time in the future. Taking unconventional resources into account, we are not even close to peak oil. The priority for oil companies is to improve 11

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efficiency, by increasing the amount of oil recovered from reservoirs. At present, just over a third is recovered. We can also improve the technology to control reservoir processes and improve oil flow. However, these projects are costly, complex and technically demanding, and they depend on experienced people, so it is essential to encourage young people to take up a technical career in the energy industry. Meanwhile, alternative forms of energy need to be made economically viable. International energy companies have the capability, the experience and the commercial drive to work towards solving the energy problem so they will play a key role. But it is not as simple as merely making scientific advances and developing new tools; the challenge is to deliver the technology to people worldwide. Companies will need to share knowledge and use their ideas effectively.

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D. Craig Severance, blogger What will it take to end our oil addiction? It's time we moved on to something else. Not only are world oil supplies running out, but what oil is still left is proving very dirty to obtain. The Deepwater Horizon oil spill occurred precisely because the easy-to-obtain oil is already tapped. If we don't kick oil now, we will see more disasters as oil companies move to the Arctic offshore and clear more forests. The cheap petroleum is gone; from now on, we will pay steadily more and more for our oil — not just in dollars, but in the biological systems that sustain life on this planet. The only solution is to get on with what we will have to do anyway - end our dependence on it! There are many instances in which oil need not be used at all. Heat and electricity can be produced in a multitude of other ways, such as solar power or natural gas. The biggest challenge is the oil that is used in transportation. That doesn't mean the transportation of goods worldwide, it's the day-to-day moving around of people. It means we have to change what we drive. The good news is that it's possible. There are a wide range of fuel efficient cars on offer, and the number of all-electric plug-in cars is set to increase. For long distance travel and freight, the solution to this is to look to rail. An electrified railway would not be reliant upon oil, but could be powered by solar, geothermal, hydro, and wind sources. There is a long way to go, but actions we take now to kick our oil addiction can help us adapt to a world of shrinking oil supplies. (From Certificate in Advanced English exam) Which writer: 1. believes oil will be available for many more years 2. believes that from now on, less oil is available 3. believes there are ways to obtain energy that we have not yet discovered 4. sees a great potential in natural fuels 5. believes the fuel crisis will cause the poor to become poorer 6. sees energy and the economy as intrinsically linked 7. believes we should reduce our dependence on oil immediately 8. believes that people need to be attracted to working in the energy industry 9. believes that it is unlikely that governments will invest a lot of money into alternative energy 10. believes that future oil recovery will lead to more environmental disasters Your answers 1. …………… 2. …………… 3. …………… 4. …………… 5. …………… 6. …………… 7. …………… 8. …………… 9. …………… 10. …………… 12

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SECTION IV: WRITING Part 1: Read the following extract and use your own words to summarise it. Your summary should be between 100 and 120 words long. (10p) Most people wish they had better memories. They also worry about forgetting things as they get older. But did you know that we have different kinds of memory? When one or more of these kinds of memories start to fail, there are a few simple things that everyone can do to improve their memories. What most people think of as memory is, in fact, five different categories of memory. Our capability to remember things from the past, that is, years or days ago, depends on two categories of memory. They are remote memory and recent memory respectively. Think back to last year’s birthday. What did you do? If you can’t remember that, you are having a problem with your remote memory. On the other hand, if you can’t remember what you ate for lunch yesterday, that is a problem with your recent memory. Remembering past events is only one way we use memories. When taking a test, we need to draw on our semantic memories. That is the sum of our acquired knowledge. Or maybe we want to remember to do or use something in the future, either minutes or days from now. These cases use our immediate and prospective memories respectively. Have you ever thought to yourself, “I need to remember to turn off the light,” but then promptly forgot it? That would be a faulty immediate memory. On the other hand, maybe you can easily remember to meet your friend for lunch next week. That means that at least your prospective memory is in good working order. Many people think that developing a bad memory is unavoidable as we get older, but this is actually not the case. Of our five kinds of memory, immediate, remote, and prospective (if aided with cues like memos) do not degrade with age. But how can we prevent a diminishing of our semantic and unaided prospective memories? The secret seems to be activity. Studies have shown that a little mental activity, like learning new things or even doing crossword puzzles, goes a long way in positively affecting our memories. Regular physical activity appears to be able to make our memories better as well. This is possibly due to having a better blood supply to the brain. The one thing to avoid at all costs, though, is stress. When we are stressed, our bodies release a hormone called cortisol, which is harmful to our brain cells and thus our memories. Reducing stress through meditation, exercise, or other activities can help to preserve our mental abilities.

Part 2: report writing (20pts)

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The graph shows the stock price of four technology companies between 2011 and 2016.

Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make

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comparisons where relevant.

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Part 3: In the modern world, more and more emphasis is being placed on acquisition of practical skills rather than knowledge from text books of other sources. In about 200- 250 words, write an essay to discuss the advantages and disadvantages of this trend. Use reasons and examples to support your position. (30 points)

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- Hết -

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM MÔN TIẾNG ANH LỚP 11

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SECTION I: LISTENING COMPREHENSION (50 pts) Part 1. You will hear an extract from a talk about student health, and specifically about the ways to avoid headaches. As you listen to the talk, answer questions 1- 10 by completing the summary. 1. hunger 2. excessive noise 3. study 4. tense 5. tired 6. 45 degrees 7. relaxed 8. chew too forcefully 9. exercise 10. avoid smoky

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Part 2: For questions 1-5, listen to a conversation between Martin, Amanda and the professor. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. (10p) 1. 28 May 2. Contents, references, bibliography 3. Your personal tutor 4. 8-10 weeks 5. Extra research Part 3: For questions 1-5, listen to a television talk show about assistance dogs for the disabled. Decide whether each of the following statements is True (T) or False (F). (10p.) 1.F 2. T 3. F 4. F 5. T Part 4: You will hear an interview with a psychologist about friendships. Choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. (10p.) 1.A 2. D 3. B 4. C 5. C SECTION II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (30 points) Part 1: Choose the best option A, B, C, or D to complete the following sentences and write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (15p) 1B 2D 3A 4B 5A 6A 7B 8D 9C 10D 11A 12A 13C 14C 15A Part 2:The passage below contains 5 mistakes. IDENTIFY and CORRECT them. Write your answers in the space provided. (5p.) Line Mistake Correction 2 adulterated unadulterated 1. 3 out off 2. 7 effect affect 3. 9 fair unfairly 4. 11 led leading 5. Part 3: Write the correct form of the words given in the brackets. Write your answers in the spaces provided below. (10p.) 1. inescapable 2. outfits 3. Inexorably 4. Serviceable 5. unattainable 6. precondition 7. deadly 8. transplant 9. logistical 10. manpower SECTION III. READING COMPREHENSION (60p.) Part 1: Read and fill each of the following numbered spaces with ONE suitable word and write your answers in the corresponding boxes provided below the passage. (0) has been done as an example. (10p.) 1. Being/now 2. From 3. Not 4. Instead 5. These 6. Far 7. building 8. earlier 9. However 10. Being Part 2: Read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (10p.)

1. C

2. A

3. C

4. B

5. D

6. D 7. B 8. A 9. C 10. B Part 3: Read the following passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) according to the text. Write your answers (A, B, C or D) in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10p.) 1. B 2. C 3. D 4. B 5. A

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6. B 7. A 8. B 9. C 10. B Part 4. Read the following passage and do the tasks that follows. Write your answer in the space provided. (20p.) 2. viii 3. i 4. iv 5. vii 1. ix 6. farming 7. canoes 8. birds 9. chieftains 10. wood Part 5. Identify which section A–D each of the following is mentioned. Write ONE letter A–D in the corresponding numbered space provided. Each letter may be used more than once. (10p.) 1. (C) Jeroen van der Veer 2. (B) Michael Lardelli 3. (A) Howard Bloom 4. (A) Howard Bloom 5. (B) Michael Lardelli 6. (B) Michael Lardelli 7. (D) Craig Severance 8. (C) Jeroen van der Veer 9. (B) Michael Lardelli 10. (D) Craig Severance

SECTION IV. WRITING (60p.) I. Write a summary of maximum 140 words. (10p.) 1. Completion: 1 pts 2. Content: 3 pts a. Cover the main information in the passage. 3. Organisation: 1 pts b. The ideas are well organized. c. The description is in one paragraph. 4. Language: 4 pts d. Use a wide range of vocabulary and structure e. Good grammar 5. Punctuation and spelling: 1 pt

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Report writing (20p.) Completion: 2 pts Content: 7 pts a. Cover the main information in the table yet not go into too many details. b. Make general remarks and effective comparisons. Organisation: 3 pts c. The ideas are well organized d. The description is sensibly divided into paragraphs Language: 7 pts e. Use a wide range of vocabulary and structure f. Good grammar Punctuation and spelling: 1 pt

II.

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III. Write an essay (30p.) 1. Completion: (3 pts.) 17

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2. Content: (10 pts) 3. Provide relevant and convincing ideas about the topic, supported by specific examples and/or reasonable justification. 4. Organization: (5 pts) a. Ideas are well organized and presented with unity, cohesion and coherence. 5. Language: (10 pts) b. Demonstrate of a wide range of vocabulary and structures. c. Good use of grammatical structures. d. Present the ideas with clarity. 6. Punctuations and spelling. (2 pts)

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TAPESCRIPT Part 1: . You will hear an extract trom a talk about student health, and specifically to avoid headaches. Listen carfeully and fill in each blank with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS. Hello. Welcome to the student orientation programme. Today’s session is on health issues, and this talk is about headaches, and how to avoid them. It may surprise you to hear that headaches are often caused by hunger! In tact, one study suggested that 70% of headache^ are related to hunger, which makes it the principal cause. The advice is simple: eat three meals a | day and try to keep to a fairly regular schedule of meals. People associate noise with headaches, and tor most of us. excessive noise creates the conditions for a headache. Very loud noise is unpleasant, and people usually remove themselves from it. Having said that, younger people tend to tolerate noise better than their elders, so I may be leaving noisy places tar earlier than vou. Just remember that exposure to too much noise may predispose you to a headache. Of course, we all associate headaches with studying! In tact, the headache probably doesn’t come from the studying so much as from being tense. When we study hard, we often hunch over our work. Try raising your shoulders and tensing them - now relax. Can you feel how much more comfortable a relaxed stance is? Another thing - it's very important to check that you are working in good light. It will not actually hurt your eyes to work in bad light, but it will make you tired very quicklv and is very likely to give you a headache. What s more, it you have the book flat on a desk in front of you it will be harder to read, and you will have to hold your head at an odd angle. It is wise to have a bookrest which raises the material you are reading at 45 degrees to the desk. This will help reduce your chance of a headache. Try to relax before bed so that you will be relaxed when you try to sleep - a soak in a hot bath may be helpful. It s also important to reallv sleep when you go to bed; a good mattress is a wise investment lor people who want to avoid headaches. This talk seems to keep coming back to tension. Tension may cause you to chew too forcefully, clench your jaw, or grind your teeth, and this in turn , may lead to headaches. It is very easy to say that you shouldn’t grind your teeth, but very hard to stop, particularly if you grind vour teeth in your sleep. Try to avoid situations which will make vou tense, particularly just before bed. If you do compulsively grind your teeth in your sleep, ask your dentist about a soft mouth guard. In general, try to eat regular meals and avoid tense situations. Be sure you get plenty of exercise. Hopefully, vour headaches will be greatly reduced. One other thing I should point out - avoid smoky rooms and cars. Such places certainly encourage headaches, and the smoke may be doing you quite serious long-term damage. Part 2: Professor: Welcome back to the new term. Marin and Amanda. I hope you've had a good break and that you are looking forward to writing your dissertations. In this tutorial, I’d like to give you the opportunity to ask questions on writing the dissertation, such as requirements, dates, and who to see when you need help. I know that it is all available on the department website, but sometimes students just like to check or confirm information ... or sometimes they need a little more detail. So, is there anything you’d like to ask? 18

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Martin: Is there a fixed hand-in date yet? On the website it said that one hadn’t been decided on yet. Professor: I'm glad you asked that question. I just heard this morning that the deadline has been decided and May. That's a week later than we had originally planned. Amanda: What about the word limit? The website gave a very broad range. What was it, Martin? 10,000 to 20,000 words? Martin:I believe so, Amanda. Professor: Well, I believe that was a typing error. It should be 10-12,000 words, but feel free to write a little more if you need to. However, make sure that your dissertation is at least 10,000 words long, not including the contents, references, and bibliography. Amanda: Right. Thank you. And we can choose any topics we like, can’t we? Professor: Any from year 3. And do remember to get your topic approved by your personal tutor oh, that’s me, isn’t it? - before you start writing. I’d hate to have to tell you your topic was unacceptable after you’d spent a lot of time on it! Amanda: What would you like us to show you initially, apart from the title? Professor: Well, I’d like to see a basic bibliography first, along with an outline of your dissertation. You should get that done by the end of January - this month in other words. Martin:According to the website, theresearch should take -10 weeks, so that takes us from, well, until mid-April, basically. Professor: Yes, you should have the research pretty much done by the time you return from the Easter break. Martin: It seems like a reasonable amount of time, but I bet it disappears fast. Professor: It certainly does. You ‘ll probably find that you need to do some extra research during second half of April. Ideally, you’d be writing then, but very few students get all the information they need and the personal tutors almost always need to make some further suggestions. That’s why it’s really important to get the bulk of your research done by mid-April. Marin : I see. If we get into trouble or can see that we’re going to get into trouble with our research: we should obviously contact you ASAP Professor: Absolutely. Part 3:

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Part 4 Presenter: Walk into any bookshop and there are self-help manuals on every aspect of human behaviour, including how to cope with difficult par ners, awkward bosses, contrary children - but very little on how to manage friendships, 'Managing' friendships sounds cold, but it's essential if you value them and want to keep them, or want to learn when it's time to let them go. Your friendship landscape changes through life. You marry and have less in common with single friends. You move and keeping up with old friends proves hard. Sometmes the changes are more subtle, you experience a life crisis and some friends can’t or wont support you. You become successful and friends feel awkward arourd you. Change o one of you means the fit between you and alters. That's when you find out if the relationship has the capacity to evolve or if it is just come to a natural end. In the studio today we have Barbara Smith, a psychologist, Barbara, welcome to the show Thank you John. Well, there's only one rule of friendship, it must mutually beneficial. Friendships can be put into categories. Firstly, let’s look at the foul-weather friend. On the surface, this is a totally dependable, loyal friend, particularly when you are having a bad time. But the downside with this foul-weather friend is that they'll put a dampener on you when you're up, forever pointing out what can go wrong. They are rarely looking for a more balanced relationship: their self-esteem may be invested in their superior feeling that you are a bit of a disaster area, and they have everything under control. When actually, of course, the opposite is true. Presenter: Now, you've got a category called the trophy friend, haven't you? What do you mean by that exactly? Barbara: Ah yes. That's the friend that you admire because they are so interesting and popular, or successful in a way you want to be. You can bathe in their reflected glory and feel part of a different social sphere but you must remember that this isn't necessarily the world you fit into. If they are nice as well, this relationship can bring out the best in you, as you stretch it to be deserving of the friendship. But beware if being with them makes you behave falsely so that you are not true to yourself or to others. This situation can only lead to a downfall and great disappointment. Presenter: What about the friend since childhood who you grew up with? Barbara: The sisterly friend. She might live next door or have gone to school with you. Over the years you have built up a strong relationship that makes her feel more like a sister than a friend. On the plus side, she can bring a real sense of security and support. You can ring her any time and 20

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confide in her. She can be a powerful ally, but because she'll be there whether you like it or not, she has the power to make you miserable if you don't keep her informed and involved in your life. This friend is like family, you're so close it can become claustrophobic. For example, if you start a new relationship, she'll expect to be as big a part of your life as she's always been. Then you need to define clear boundaries. Presenter: But that sounds like the kind of friend you'd want to hang on to on the whole. So how can you make the decision who a good friend really is and who is no longer a valid person to have in your life? Barbara: Well, good friends should be low maintenance - and that goes for you too. See enough of each other to keep the rapport going: neither demand too much nor avoid so frequently that the relationship becomes unbalanced. If it's always a moan session, or one of you is often looking for looking for favours or support, the goodwill will soon burn out. It's always important to w be open to making new friends too. Most of us want to see people who make us feel good. It doesn't mean you have to be a barrel of laughs all time (which can be off-putting): it's about showing real interest, being light-hearted and not too obviously needy. Don't force the pace. Some people need time to get to know you better. It's best to be pleasant and casual. Don't bombard them with too many invitations. Don't assume that one good heart-to-heart makes you best friends. Respect their time and other commitments and the friendship will blossom naturally in time. --------------