Tổng hợp Tất cả các đề đề xuất Trại hè Hùng Vương môn tiếng anh khối 11 năm 2018 có đáp án by Dạy Kèm Quy Nhơn Official

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Tổng hợp Tất cả các đề đề xuất Trại hè Hùng Vương môn tiếng anh khối 11 năm 2018 có đáp án và phần nghe WORD VERSION | 2021 EDITION ORDER NOW / CHUYỂN GIAO QUA EMAIL TAILIEUCHUANTHAMKHAO@GMAIL.COM

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TRẠI HÈ HÙNG VƯƠNG LẦN THỨ XIV TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN BẮC KẠN ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT

ĐỀ THI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 11 Thời gian: 180 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề) Đề thi gồm: 11 trang

table below using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR

What occurs The falcons 4. ____________________ The falcons are 5. _________________ The falcons 6. ___________________ permanently. More than half of falcons 7. ______________________

Question 3-6 Complete the NUMBER for each answer. Age of falcons 20 days old 28 days old 2 months old 1-12 months old

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I. LISTENING Part 1. Question 1-3 Complete the following sentences using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. 1. The Peregrine falcons found in __________________ are not migratory. 2. There is disagreement about their maximum ______________________. 3. When the female is graduating the nest, the male spends most of his time _________________.

Question 8-10 Complete the following NOTE using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Procedures used for field research on Peregrine falcons chicks

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First: catch chicks. Second: 8. _________________ to legs. Third: 9. ____________________ of chicks. Fourth: take blood sample to assess level of pesticide. Fifth: check the 10. ___________________ of the birds. Part 2. Write a short answer to these questions 1. What does the speaker compare a solar eclipse today to? ___________________________________________________________ 2. According to the speaker, what is the dark spot of an eclipse? ___________________________________________________________ 3. Concerning an eclipse, how were the ancient Chinese? ___________________________________________________________ 4. For the speaker, what is the most impressive aspect of an eclipse? ___________________________________________________________ 5. Which size makes eclipse rarely occur? 1

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___________________________________________________________ Part 3. You will hear a mountaineer called Stella Prime talking about her experience of climbing Mount Everest in the Himalayas. Decide which of the sentences are True (T) or false (F) according to the recording 1. On her first expedition, Stella became aware of feelings of freedom, achievement and connected with mountaineering. 2. Stella had never taken part in several so-called adventure sports. 3. Stella found the mental preparation for climbing Everest particularly reasonable. 4. On her second expedition, Stella was worried about the ice (fall) she would have to climb through. 5. Stella regretted taking perfume with her on her first expedition. Part 4. You will hear part of an interview with a man called Tony Elliott who found a magazine called Time Out. Choose the best answer (A, B, C, D) which fits best according to what you hear. 1. Tony said that Time Out was unlike other publications in 1968 because A. it was written by one person. B. information was more accurate. C. it has a comprehensive list of events. D. it was in the form of a magazine. 2. What experience did Tony have of publishing? A. He had worked for What’s on. B. He had written numerous articles. C. He had transformed an existing magazine. D. He had started a student magazine. 3. Why did Tony leave university? A. He wanted to go to France. B. He didn’t have time to study. C. He had failed his French examinations. D. He had found an alternative career. 4. According to Tony, what led to the magazine becoming a weekly? A. Some market research. B. the quantity of information. C. technical improvements. D. external pressure. 5. Tony says the big publishers were not interested in this type of magazine because A. it was popular with students. B. it was considered too expensive. C. it came out too frequently. D. it threatened their publications. II. LEXICO- GRAMMAR 2

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Part 1. Choose the answer ( A, B, C or D) that best fits each of the following questions. 1. Every year on January 8th, thousand of fan travel to Graceland in Memphis, Tennessee to __________ the king of Rock and Roll, Elvis Presley. A. visit upon B. pay homage to C. pay attention to D. memorize 2. It’s been ________________ at the school this week – we’re exhausted. A. on the go B. going on and on C. all go D. on and off 3. Seeing those pictures on the TV news really ____________ to me how terrible it must be live near a volcano. A. bring it home B. rings a bell C. take it easy D. turn a new leaf 4. For children in poor countries, access to clean water is _________________. A. a matter of course B. a different matter C. a matter of life and death D. a matter of fact 5. The idea of manual _____________ doesn’t appeal to me at all. A. effort B. labour C. endeavor D. exercise 6. When I got struck in the elevator, I was scared out of my ________. A. brains B. head C. wits D. nerve 7. Thousand of fans ______________ on the stadium to watch the match. A. convened B. conversed C. converged D. conjoined 8. Would you like to pay _______ to all musicians who made this wonderful concert possible. A. praise B. reward C. tribute D. thanks 9. If some experts are correct, the technological revolution is only in its _______________. A. childhood B. infancy C. youth D. nativity 10. Work hard, try your best and one day you will _____________ all your ambition. A. win B. get C. have D. realize

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Part 2: Use the words in brackets to form words, which fit in the gaps. 21. Most people who work feel that they are ______________. 2. Have you got some kind of ______________ on you? 3. All the ______________ for the job have been unsuccessful. 4. In some places the weather changes so quickly that it's very ______. 5. The _______ all sat down in the middle of the road. 6. In the past few years this area has become heavily _________. 7. This car is really ______________. 8. Do you know what the ___________ of the river is? 9. He drives so ___________ that he is sure to have an accident. 10. John is still young but he is very ________________.

PAY IDENTIFY APPLY PREDICT DEMONSTRATE INDUSTRY LUXURY DEEP CARE RELY

Part 3: The following passage contains 10 errors. Find and correct them. Leonardo DiCaprio is one of the hotter young film stars Example: hotter => hottest around at the moment. His face has been on the covers of all 3

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the top movies and young magazines over the last few 41…………………………… months and he has been the subject of countless articles, rumours and showbiz gossip. Leonard doesn’t like reading about him because “I read things about me that I’ve never 42…………………………… said in my life and never did". 43…………………………… Leonardo DiCaprio was born in Los Angeles on 11 November, 1974. He’s a Scorpio. His full name is Leonardo Wilhelm DiCaprio. His mother is Germany and his father 44…………………………… Italian-American. They called him Leonardo because when his mother was still pregnant, he started kicking while she was stood in front of a painting by Leonardo De Vinci. His 45………………………….... friends call him Leo. He has a scar from when he was stinging by a Portuguese man-of-war. His parents separated 46…………………………… before he was born, so his mother moved to a poor neighborhood of Hollywood there Leo grew up. At school he 47…………………………… was very good at imitating people, especially Michael Jackson. This made him very popularly. His childhood hero 48…………………………… was Poseidon, the Greek god of the sea. After appearance in TV commercials and episodes of 49…………………………… Roseanne, he played the cast of Roseanne, the TV sitcom starring Kirk Cameron. Leonard played the part of Luke, a homeless boy. Lately, he played the part of Jim Carroll in 50…………………………… The Basketball Diaries. But he has really become famous since he acted in the film Titanic. Part 4. Fill in the gaps in the following sentences with suitable particle or preposition 1. People only make up ____________ him because of his wealth. 2. This car could do ____________ a good polish. 3. The old woman was taken ____________ by his story and conned ____________ paying too much for his worthless painting. 4. He threw stones ____________ his attackers, trying to drive them __________. 5. You should always comply ____________ the school regulations. 6. John was instrumental ____________ helping the plan to succeed. 7. Many Irishmen shouted "Down ____________ the Union Jack!" 8. Hearing a voice, I turned ____________ but saw no one ____________ sight. 9. John was so tired ____________ hard work that he could hardly move. 10. Wait for me. Please don't go ____________ me, John.

III. READING Part 1. Fill in the blank with one of four options to complete the passage. Getting to the root of Bonsai crime Bonsai trees have always been a source of great fascination to people. They are perfect miniatures, grown in pots small enough to sit on a windowsill. You have to keep reminding yourself that these trees are (1) _____ real and identical to their larger cousins in all respects except their 4

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size. Rather like other small and perfectly-formed artifacts, bonsai trees (2) _____ quite a high price in the marketplace and so it doesn’t come as a great surprise to find that they also attract the attention of thieves. It seems that quite a flourishing business has (3) _____, in which they are stolen from the homes of growers and collectors, then repotted and trimmed by unscrupulous dealers, to be sold on, at good prices, to unsuspecting buyers. One of Britain’s top collectors of bonsai trees, Paul Waddington, believes that he has found a solution, however. After losing his life’s work, (4) _____ at £250,000, when burglars broke into his home one night, Paul decided to (5) _____ the possibilities of electronically tagging the trees he bought as a replacement. This (6) _____ injecting a microchip the size of a (7) _____ of rice into the trunk of each tree. Each chip is a laser-etched with information which is (8) _____ in a central register held by the police. Paul is quite aware that this kind of data-tagging doesn’t prevent thieves from stealing the trees in the first (9) _____, although it may increase the (10) _____ of getting them back. So he’s also installing a security alarm system, complete with infra-red detectors, in his home. 1 A. deeply B. eventually C. actually D. greatly 2 A. obtain B. expect C. command D. charge 3 A. erupted B. evolved C. adapted D. arrived 4 A. prized B. treasured C. valued D. costed 5 A. look into B. set about C. try out D. go after 6 A. requires B. includes C. involves D. reflects 7 A. crumb B. speck C. bean D. grain 8 A. stored B. detained C. locked D. piled 9 A. turn B. time C. point D. place 10 A. counts B. chances C. choices D. claims Part 2. Fill in each gap with ONE suitable word Are there thousand books that all of us should read sometime in your lives? Throughout this year, we will be recommending a collection of books that, when taken (1) __________ a whole, will form a library of 1,000 titles that will inspire and satisfy (2) __________ kind of reader imaginable. Book lists appear from time to time, often arousing controversy for being too elitist or too populist. But our list is the result of consultations with book buyers and book sellers, people know and (3) ______________ books. Currently, there are well (4) ___________ a million books in print. Add to these yet (5) ___________100,000 books published each year and the choice for readers becomes bewildering, (6 )__________ certain books, both classics and contemporary works, stand out. While our list doesn't identify classics in the traditional sense, many of the works included considered to be classic books. The list aims to make the reader aware of what is available that is stimulating, rewarding and inspiring. (7) ___________ else does one team about a good read (8) __________ than by enthusiastic recommendation? This month we are highlighting fifty books from the area of business and reference. These fifty titles represent the perfect business and reference library for your needs, whether personal or 5

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professional. Our selection will help you to expand and enhance understanding of today's fastchanging (9) ___________ of business. Look out for the next month’s fifty choices, (10) ________ will take you a step nearer completion of your 1000-book library. Part 3. Read the passage and choose the best answer to the questions The first two decades of this century were dominated by the microbe hunters. These hunters had tracked down one after another of the microbes responsible for the most dreaded scourges of many centuries: tuberculosis, cholera, diphtheria. But there remained some terrible diseases for which no microbe could be incriminated: scurvy, pellagra, rickets, and beriberi. Then it was discovered that these diseases were caused by the lack of vitamins, a trace substance in the diet. The diseases could be prevented or cured by consuming foods that contained the vitamins. And so in the decades of the 1920’s and 1930’s, nutrition became a science and the vitamin hunters replaced the microbe hunters. In the 1940’s and 1950’s, biochemists strived to learn why each of the vitamins was essential for health. They discovered that key enzymes in metabolism depend on one or another of the vitamins as coenzymes to perform the chemistry that provides cells with energy for growth and function. Now, these enzyme hunters occupied center stage. You are aware that the enzyme hunters have been replaced by a new breed of hunters who are tracking genes – the blueprints for each of the enzymes – and are discovering the defective genes that cause inherited diseases – diabetes, cystic fibrosis. These gene hunters, or genetic engineers, use recombinant DNA technology to identify and clone genes and introduce them into bacterial cells and plants to create factories for the massive production of hormones and vaccines for medicine and for better crops for agriculture. Biotechnology has become a multibillion-dollar industry. In view of the inexorable progress in science, we can expect that the gene hunters will be replaced in the spotlight. When and by whom? Which kind of hunter will dominate the scene in the last decade of our waning century and in the early decades of the next? I wonder whether the hunters who will occupy the spotlight will be neurobiologists who apply the techniques of the enzyme and gene hunters to the functions of the brain. What to call them? The head hunters. I will return to them later. • microbe: an extremely small living thing which you can only see if you use a microscope 1 What is the main topic of the passage? A. The microbe hunters C. The progress of modern medical research B. The potential of genetic engineering D. The discovery of enzymes 2 The word “incriminated” in the passage is closest in meaning to A. investigated B. blamed C. eliminated D. produced 3 Which of the following can be cured by a change in diet? A. Tuberculosis B. Cholera C. Cystic fibrosis D. Pellagra 24 The word “strived” in the passage is closest in meaning to 6

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A. failed B. tried C. experimented D. studied 5 How do vitamins influence health? A. They are necessary for some enzymes to C. They keep food from spoiling function D. They are broken down by cells to produce B. They protect the body from microbes energy 6 In the third paragraph, the author compares cells that have been genetically altered by biotechnicians to A. gardens B. factories C. hunters D. spotlights 7 The phrase “occupy the spotlight” in the passage is closest in meaning to A. receive the most attention C. conquer territory B. go the furthest D. lighten the load 8 The author implies that the most important medical research topic of the future will be A. the functions of the brain C. the operation of vitamins B. inherited diseases D. the structure of genes 9 Which of the following best describes the author’s tone in the last paragraph of the passage? A. Critical B. Speculative C. Appreciative D. Emotional 10 With which of the following statements would the author be most likely to agree? A. The focus of medical research will change in the next two decades B. Medical breakthroughs often depend on luck C. Medical research throughout the twentieth century has been dominated by microbe hunters D. Most diseases are caused by defective genes Part 4. Read the passage and answer the questions History of the Steam Engine The first steam-powered machine was built in 1698 by the English military engineer Thomas Savery (c. 1650-1715). His invention, designed to pump water out of coal mines, was known as the Miner's Friend. The machine, which had no moving parts, consisted of a simple boiler - a steam chamber whose valves were located on the surface - and a pipe leading to the water in the mine below. Water was heated in the boiler chamber until its steam filled the chamber, forcing out any remaining water or air. The valves were then closed and cold water was sprayed over the chamber. This chilled and condensed the steam inside to form a vacuum. When the valves were reopened, the vacuum sucked up the water from the mine, and the process could then be repeated. A few years later, an English engineer named Thomas Newcomen (1663-1729) improved the steam pump. He increased efficiency by setting a moving piston inside a cylinder, a technique still in use today. A cylinder - a long, thin, closed chamber separate from the boiler - replaced the large, open boiler chamber. A piston - a sliding piece that fits in the cylinder - was used to create motion instead of a vacuum. Steam filled the cylinder from an open valve. When filled, the cylinder was sprayed with water, causing the steam inside to condense into water and create a partial vacuum. The pressure of the outside air then forced the piston down, producing a power stroke. The piston 7

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was connected to a beam, which was connected to a water pump at the bottom of the mine by a pump-rod. Through these connections, the movement of the piston caused the water pump to suck up the water. The most important improvement in steam engine design was brought about by the Scottish engineer James Watt (1736-1819). He set out to improve the performance of Newcomen's engine and by 1769 had arrived at the conclusion: if the steam were condensed separately from the cylinder, the cylinder could always be kept hot. That year he introduced the design of a steam engine that had a separate condenser and sealed cylinders. Since this kept the heating and cooling processes separate, his machine could work constantly, without any long pause at each cycle to reheat the cylinder. Watt's refined steam engine design used one-third less fuel than a comparable Newcomen engine. Over the next 15 years, Watt continued to improve his engine and made three significant additions. He introduced the centrifugal governor, a device that could control steam output and engine speed. He made the engine double-acting by allowing steam to enter alternately on either side of the piston. This allowed the engine to work rapidly and deliver power on the downward and upward piston stroke. Most important, he attached a flywheel to the engine. Flywheels allow the engine to run more smoothly by creating a more constant load, and they convert the conventional back-and-forth power stroke into a circular (rotary) motion that can be adapted more readily to power machinery. By 1790, Watt's improved steam engine offered a powerful, reliable power source that could be located almost anywhere. It was used to pump bellows for blast furnaces, to power huge hammers for shaping and strengthening forged metals, and to turn machinery at textile mills. More than anything, it was Watt's steam engine that speeded up the Industrial Revolution both in England and the rest of the world. Steam was successfully adapted to powerboats in 1802 and railways in 1829. Later, some of the first automobiles were powered by steam. In the 1880s, the English engineer Charles A. Parsons (1854-1931) produced the first steam turbine, a new steam technology that was more efficient and which enabled the steam engine to evolve into a highly sophisticated and powerful engine that propelled huge ships and ran turbo generators that supplied electricity. Once the dominant power source, steam engines eventually declined in popularity as other power sources became available. Although there were more than 60,000 steam cars made in the United States between 1897 and 1927, the steam engine eventually gave way to the internal combustion engine as a power source for vehicles.

Question 1-5

Match each statement with the correct person A-D. A Thomas Savery 8

B Thomas Newcomen C James Watt D Charles A. Parsons

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Write the correct letter A, B, C or D in boxes 1-5 on your answer sheet. 1) His invention was the first to use moving parts.

3) His invention was the single biggest step in development.

2) His invention allowed steam power to be converted into electric power.

4) His invention was a simple solution to an industrial problem.

5) His invention was the first continuous power source.

Questions 6-10 Complete the flow chart below.

Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.

The Miner's Friend used condensed steam to (6) ...................., which sucked

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water from mines.

Design improved: Newcomen (7) .................... using a piston and cylinder

instead of an open boiler.

1769: separating heating and cooling processes meant 9

no (8) .................... between power strokes.

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Further development: became easier to (9) .................... through the use of the flywheel.

Nineteenth century: steam power (10) .................... for use in various means

of transport.

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I. WRITING. Part 1. Read the following passage and use your own words to summarize it. You MUST NOT copy or rewrite the original. Your summary should be about 100-120 words long As what geographers have estimated, about twenty percent of the earth's surface is occupied by deserts. A majority of us view deserts as one unique kind of landscape -- areas with little or no rainfalls. In actual fact, there are differences between the deserts, though in varying degrees. While it is common for laymen like us to see deserts as rocky or covered with gravel or pebbles, there are some where large sand dunes inhabit. Despite the fact that rainfall is minimal, temperatures do change in deserts, ranging from seasonal ones to daily changes where extreme hotness and coldness are experienced in the day and night. Unfavorable conditions in the deserts, especially the lack of water, have discouraged many living things from inhabiting these landscapes. Nevertheless, there are exceptionally surviving ones which through their superb tactics, have managed to live through and are still going strong. One such kind is the specialist annual plants which overcome seasonal temperature changes with their extremely short, active life cycles. In events of sudden rain, the plant seeds pullulate and grow very quickly to make full use of the rain water. Their flowers bloom and set seeds that ripen quickly in the hot sun too. Once the water runs dry, the mother plant dies, leaving behind the drought-resistant seeds, waiting patiently for the next rainy season to arrive. The Cacti, a native in American deserts, adapts to the dry surroundings by having unique body structures. The plant has swollen stems to help store water that carries it through months. By having sharp pines instead of leaves, water loss through respiration is minimized. Besides, these pointed pines also help the plant ward off grazing animals, thus enhancing its survival period. Besides plants, there are also animals with distinct surviving tactics in deserts too. For instance, Skinks (desert lizards) metabolize stored fats in their bulbous tails, producing water to 10

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supplement their needs, just like what camels do with the stored food in their humps during long journeys through deserts. Antelopes like the addax, have very low water needs and hence are able to tolerate the conditions in deserts, extracting moisture from the food they eat. Finally, there are the sand grouses (desert birds) which do not have special features to overcome the drought-like nature in deserts. Hence, to survive in these hot, dry deserts, they need to spend a large part of their time flying in search of waterholes. Part 2. The chart and graph below give information about sales and share prices for Coca-Cola. Write a report for a university lecturer describing the information shown below.

You should write at least 150 words.

Part 3. Write an essay of about 350 words on the following topic

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Films can tell us a lot about the country where they were made. What have you learnt about a country from watching its movie? Use specific examples and detail to support your respond

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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT TRẠI HÈ HÙNG VƯƠNG 2018 LỚP 11

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LEXICO- GRAMMAR Part 1. 1. B 3. A 2. C 4. C Part 2. 1. underpaid 2. identifications 3. additives 4. unpredictable 5. demonstrators

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3. F

4. T

5. T

3. D

4.D

5. A

2. C

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Part 4. 1. C

2. F

Part 3. 1. T

Part 2.(10 points) 1. popular spectacle 2. easy to explain 3. disturbed 4. chance for scientific study 5. moon

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Part 1.( 20 points) 1. Australia 2. (flight/flying) speed, speed of flight 3. looking/searching for food 4. start/begin to fly/ start/begin flying 5. (full/adult) size/full adult size/ full(y) grown 6. leave (the/their) nest(s) 7. die 8. attach (identification/ID/aluminium) 9. note (the) sex 10. (general) health

5. B 6. C

7. C 8. C

9. B 10. D

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6. industrialized 7. luxurious 8. depth 9. carelessly 10. reliable Part 3 1. young --> youth 2. him --> himself 3. did--> done 4.Germany--> German 5. stood --> standing 6. stinging--> stung 7. there --> where 8. popularly -->popular 9. appearance --> appearing 10. Lately --> Later Part 4. 1. to 6. to 2. with 7. with 3. in / into 8. (a)round 4. at / away 9. from 5. with 10. without III. READING Part 1. 1. C 3. B 2. C 4. C Part 2 1. Not 2. as 3. in/ to 4. who/ what 5. far/ much Part 3. 1. C 3. D 2. B 4. B Part 4. 1. B 2. D 3. C 4. A

5. A 6. C

9. D 10. B

6. Although/ While/ Whereas 7. before 8. having/ likely 9. charge 10. any

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7. D 8. A

5. A 6. B

7. A 8. A

9. B 10. A

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5. C 6. form a vacuum 7. increased efficiency 8. (long) pause 9. power machinery 10. (successfully) adapted WRITING

TAPE SCRIPT Part 1

You will hear a talk by a university lecturer in Australia on a type of bird called a peregine falcon.

I’m Professor Sam Richards, and I’ve come as the third guest lecturer on this course in Australian birds of prey. My job is to keep a watchful scientific eye on the state of Tasmanian peregines, so I’ll start by giving you some background to these magnificent birds of prey before I speak briefly on my own project.

Peregine falcons are found on all continents with the exception of Antarctica. So don’t go looking for them at the South Pole. They are found almost everywhere in Australia and it’s interesting to note that the name, peregine, implies that they are wanderers -that they move from place to place following the seasons-and indeed, in most parts of the world they are migratory birds. But not in Australia, however, where they prefer to stay in one place.

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They are known to be the world’s fastest creature and they have been tracked by radar diving down towards the ground at 180 km an hour.

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However, a number of text books claim that their flight speed can go as high as 350 km an hour, so there is still some dispute about just how fast they can actually fly. Female peregine falcons, like all other Australian falcons, are larger the their male counterparts; in fact the female is almost a third larger than the male in the case of peregrines. While she stays close to the nest to protect the eggs and the young chicks, the male is mostly occupied looking for food. Peregines typically lay two or three eggs per nest and, after the eggs have hatched, when the chicks are about 20 days old, they start to fly. So they fly at a very young

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age. By the time they are just 28 days old, they have already reached full adult size; in another word, they are fully grown. Soon after this, at about 2 months after hatching from the egg, they leave the nest for good. From this point on they are on their own. Unlike their parents, which have learned how to hunt, the young falcons are not good at feeding themselves and so during the first year about 60% of them die. Once the birds have managed to live to breeding age, at two years old, they generally go on to live another six or seven years.

When we come across nests with young chicks, the first thing we do is catch the chicks before they are able to fly. We have to catch them at an early age. We then attach identification rings to their legs. These rings are made of colour-coded aluminium and they allow us to identify the birds through binoculars later in their lives. Thirdly, because we need to know how many males and how many female chicks are being born, we note the sex of the chicks. Noting the sex of the birds is a vital part of our research, as I will discuss later. The next thing to do is to take a blood sample from the chicks. We take the blood sample so that we can check the level of pesticide in their bodies. Peregine falcons can build dangerous quantities of perticides in their blood stream by feeding on smaller mammals which in turn feed on crops, grown on farms where pesticides are used. Finally we check the birds thoroughly, really checking the birds for their general health. This whole process only takes a few minutes; in fact, most of our time in the field is actually spent trying to find the nests, not on the data collection itself.

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Well, that’s all I have for you today. If you’d like to do some further reading… Part 2. Good evening and welcome to this month’s Observatory Club lecture. I’m Donald Mackie and I’m here to talk to you about the solar eclipse in history. A thousand years ago a total eclipse of the sun was a terrifying religious experience, but these days an eclipse is more likely to be viewed as a tourist attraction than as a scientific or spiritual event. People will literally travel miles to be in the right place at the right time to get the best view of their eclipse. Well. What exacdy causes a solar eclipse-when the world goes dark for a few minutes in the middle of the day? Scientifically speaking, the dark spot itself is easy to explain; it is the shadow of the moon streaking across a different and, to all intents and purposes, a seemingly random part of the globe. In the past people often inteipreted an eclipse as a danger signal heralding disaster and in fact, the Chinese were so disturbed by these events that they included among their gods whose job was to prevent eclipses. But whether or not you are superstitious or take a purely scientific view, our earthly eclipses are special in three different ways.

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Firstly, there can be no doubt that they are very beautiful. It’s as if a deep blue curtain has fallen over the daytime sky as the sun becomes a black void surrounded by the glow of its outer atmosphere. But beyond this, total eclipses possess a second more compelling beauty in the eyes of us scientists…for they offer a unique opportunity for research. Only during an eclipse can we study the corona and other dim things that are normally lost in the sun’s glare. And thirdly, they are rare. Even though an eclipse of the sun occurs somewhere on earth, if you sit in your garden and wait, it will take 375 years on average for one to come to you. If the moon were any larger, eclipses would become a monthly bore; if it were smaller, they simply would not be possible. The ancient Babylonian priests, who spent a fair bit of time staring at the sky, had already noted that there was an 18-year pattern in ther recurrence but they didn’t have the mathematics to predict an eclipse accurately. It was Edmund Halley, the English astronomer, who knew his maths well enough to predict the return of the comet which, incidentally bears his name. In 1735, Edmund Halley became the first person to make an accurate prediction of an eclipse. This brought eclipses firmly into the scientific domain and they have since allowed a number of important scientific discoveries to be made. For instance, in the eclipse of 1868, two scientists-Janssen and Lockyer, were observing the sun’s atmosphere and it was these observations that ultimately led to the discovery of a new element. They named the element helium after the Greek god of the sun. This was a major find, because helium turned out to be the most common element in the universe after hydrogen. Another great triumph involved Mercury…I’ll just put that up on the board for you now. See – there’s Mercury – the planet closet to the Sun – then Venus, Earth, etc. For centuries, scientists had been unable to understand why Mercury appeared to rotate faster than it should. Some astronomers suggested that there might be an undiscovered planet causing this unusual orbit and even gave it the name “Vulcan”. During the eclipse of 1878, an American astronomer, James Watson, thought he had spotted this so-called “lost” planet. But alas for him, he was later obliged to admit that he had been wrong about Vulcan and withdrew his claim. Then Albert Einstein came on the scene. Einstein suggest that rather than being wrong about the number of planets, astronomers were actually wrong about gravity. Einstein’s theory of relativity – for which he is so famous – disagreed with Newton’s law of gravity in just the right way to explain Mercury’s odd orbit. He also realized that a definitive test would be possible during the total eclipse of 1919 and this is indeed when the theory was finally proved correct. So there you have several examples of how eclipses have helped to increase our understanding of the universe, and now let’s move on to the social…

Part 3. You’ll hear a mountaineer called Stella Prime talking about her experience of climbing Mount Everest in the Himalayas. For questions 7 to 14, complete the sentences.

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You now have forty-five seconds to look at Part Two. [pause] tone

Hello. I’m Stella Prime and I’m a mountaineer. I’m here to tell you about climbing Mount Everest in the Himalayas – the world’s highest mountain.

I was first bitten by the climbing bug when, as a journalist, I accompanied an expedition on the northeast ridge of Everest some years back. I wanted to write about what made mountaineers tick, and over the couple of months I spent with the expedition, I began to understand the sense of freedom and achievement that mountaineering brings, and I did lots of personal learning and exploration too. I think they were the happiest two months of my life.

Over the next three and a half years, I honed my newly acquired climbing skills on various mountains all over the world. People say: ‘Weren’t your family surprised by this new interest?’ Well, they weren’t, because I’d already done numerous similar activities of the sort people like to call ‘adventure sports’, you know, hang-gliding, scuba diving and so on.

Anyway, eventually I gave up my job, let out my flat and joined the British Everest Expedition. To prepare physically for this, I trained at my local gym – that was the easy part – the bit I found trickier was the mental preparation and I’d learnt that, whilst you have to be physically fit, that is really only half the story.

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And there were lots of things that frightened me about Everest. One of them was the icefall that you have to climb through. A friend asked if there was any way I could prepare myself for it. I thought: ‘What can I do – put myself in a fridge and look at lumps of ice?’ Everest is certainly not a place for cowards, and it’s also certainly not a place for life’s luxuries. You don’t carry anything that isn’t necessary because weight multiplies at high altitudes. The first time I went, as a journalist, I carried my perfume all the way, but it wasn’t necessary. You can forget baths and showers on a mountain as well. On my second trip, I didn’t even take my toothbrush above seven thousand metres. The only source of water is melted snow. To melt snow you need fuel and fuel is heavy, so you don’t melt snow unless you’re going to drink it.

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The question I’m asked most often is: ‘How did you feel when you reached the summit?’ Well, I still get emotional when I think about it. Neither of the two climbers with me had been to the top before either. It was tremendously exciting obviously, but I think the overriding thing we all felt was a great sense of satisfaction. That is the thing that stays with me when I look back. Since then, I’ve gone on to climb a number of other summits and I plan to tackle Mount Fuji later this year. And of course I’ve got my new career in TV – as a presenter on the programme Tomorrow’s World. I’m in demand on the lecturing circuit and my book about my ascent of Everest – Aiming High – is a best-seller. So, that’s my story. Now, does anyone have any questions?

Part 4. You’ll hear part of an interview with a man called Tony Elliott who founded a magazine called ‘Time Out’. For questions 15 to 20, choose the answer (A,B,C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. You now have one minute to look at Part Three.

[pause]

Tone

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Interviewer: …OK, welcome back to the programme. Well, for the hundred thousand or more people in London who buy every issue, Time Out is an invaluable guide to what’s going on in the city. In its lists they can find everthing from films, plays, concerts and nightclubs to exhibitions, sports, opera, dance and special events. And I’m talking now to Tony Elliott, the man who started it all, back in 1968. Tony, what gave you the idea? Tony: Well, back then it was very hard to find out about those things. There were magazines; there was a magazine called What’s On, which was a weekly, which is still around – rather, kind of, conventional in its approach, and you could look in the evening paper or you could look in the music press, um, to get information, but nothing covered everthing all in one place. So I perceived there was a gap and I suppose to some extent I just produced a magazine for myself, and it turned out a lot of other people wanted the same thing. Interviewer: At first, the magazine was just a sheet sold hand to hand in the street, wasn’t it? Tony: Well, I started with a few like-minded people and we did actually put it into newsagents - people do seem to think we started as a bunch of idealistic amateurs, but I have to say that I think we were

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actually pretty professtional from day one. It was coming out every three weeks so I’d spend three or four days actually going round something like three hundred newsagents. The selling in the street was partly to do with getting copies sold so that we actually had some cash, but it also had this kind of in-built market research thing where you’d show people what you were doing and they’d go, ‘Oh really’ – and a lot of people said, ‘Oh, that’s a modern What’s On; that’s what we’ve been looking for.’ Interviewer: So, did you have any publishing experience before this? Tony: Mmm, I did a regular column for a magazine at university which was quite serious. It used to do single themes per issue, like provincial theatre or education or racialism, and then when I took it over I promtly changed it into being a kind of contemporary arts magazine. We did interviewes with artists, rock stars, writers, people like that. Interviewer: Were you still at university when you started Time Out? Tony: Yeah, technically I was actually on holiday for the summer vacation, and as far as the university was concerned, I was supposed to be going to France to teach. I think I’d told them I would do, because, you know, you go away for a term or a year if you’re studying French, and um, then I started doing the magazine. Interviewer: And, er, didn’t go back. Tony: Yes, well, there was a point when I suddenly realised that I was doing what I wanted to do. Interviewer: So it soon took off, didn’t it? I mean, it was monthly first and then it went weekly, didn’t it, in a very short time? Tony: Well, it started monthly and then we went three-weekly – for sime reason that was the hightest frequency we could do. Then we went fortnightly, which is quite a valid frequency for publication, and then inevitably we went weekly – stimulated, I have to say, by the threat of some competition from some people who were starting a similar publication. Interviewer: Oh, yes, I was going to say, someone else must have spotted the gap. I mean you identified it, but there must have been big publishing houses who thought, ‘Hang on, we can have some of this too.’ Tony: I think the truth is nobody really realised what the significance of the magazine was,’cos in a sense it started very tiny, very small, and then built up and built up and a lot of publishers and a lot of advertisers also were very, um, dismissive of our readers. I mean, still, even today, you get occasional accusations like, ‘It’s not a particularly significant readership’ and ‘A lot of students read it, don’t they?’ …things like that. People just didn’t realise that, um, that we were creating a readership that was very significant.

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Interviewer: The readership’s grown up with you as well, hasn’t it? A lot of people, I imagine, who were buying it as students in the sixties are now buying it as parents of teenage children these days. Tony: That would imply our readership’s now older, which isn’t the case. And although the numbers have expanded, well it’s true that there are more people over thirty-five buying it than there were when it started. The readership hasn’t really changed; it’s still basically intelligent young people who do things. Interviewer: OK, well, we’ll take a quick break now and then I’ll be back to talk to Tony some more…

TRẠI HÈ HÙNG VƯƠNG LẦN THỨ XIV

ĐỀ THI MÔN TIENG ANH - KHỐI 11

TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN BẮC GIANG

Năm học 2017 - 2018

ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT

Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút

-------------------

(Đề này có 12 trang)

PART I. LISTENING

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I. Listen to the recording twice. Write NO MORE THAN 3 WORDS for each answer.

You will hear a talk about Sick Building Syndrome, which is ill health that is believed to be caused by buildings. For questions 1-10, complete the sentences. You will hear the recording twice. SICK BUILDING SYNDROME

According to the World Health Organization, Sick Building Syndrome mostly affects people in 1. _________ .

Sufferers often lack 2. _________

It mainly affects people early in the week and when they have been 3. _________ the building for a long time.

Sufferers often say nothing because they think it is a 4. _________ problem.

The problem is not simply a question of the building being 5. _________ or having too little natural light. Buildings most likely to produce the problem are those which have 6. _________ and a lot of new materials.

Experts believe that these lead to poor 7. _________ which is the main cause of the problem.

They believe that better 8. _________ and design would improve existing systems and that the use of different

9. _________ would also help to solve the problem.

In some buildings, better 10. _________ has been shown to reduce the problem.

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II. Listen to the recording TWICE, then write the answers to the following questions. You will hear a guide speaking to tourists who are visiting some Romans remains. Listen and give short answers to the questions. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER taken from

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the recording.

1. When did the Romans first come to the Corbridge area?

……………………………………………………………………… 2. Why did the Romans built a series of forts and strongholds? ……………………………………………………………………… 3. What did people begin to search for in 1201? ………………………………………………………………………

4. How often have archaeological digs taken place since 1934? ……………………………………………………………………… 5. What are the two things that visitors should pay attention to? ……………………………………………………………………… III. You will hear a scene from a radio soap opera called Willowdale Green, in which a couple, Charles

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Miller and Daphne Jameson, are speaking with the barman Bill Dexter in a village pub. For questions 1 – 5, decide whether each statement is true (T) or false (F).

1. The man working at the bar presumes that Charles and Daphne aren’t married. 2. Charles knew Andy Draycott very well. 3. The previous owner of the farm died.

4. Bill says the couple should not have the farm because they are not from Willowdale.

5. According to Bill, people have been saying that the farm will be maintained as a farm going forward.

IV. Listen to the recording twice then select the best response to each question by circling the letter A, B, C or D. You are going to listen to an excerpt from a radio program, ‘The Experts Speak’. You will hear

someone talking about video games.

1.Why are parents unenthusiastic about video games?

B. They lead to bad behavior.

C. They lead to lack of interest.

A. They get kids hooked.

2. What did '90s research about video game junkies prove?

A. Video game junkies were overachievers.

B. Video game junkies focus on achievement.

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3. What causes RSI?

C. Video game junkies are mass consumers.

A. Radiation from computer screens B. Repetitive strain on the fingers.

C. Sitting for too long.

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4. What is the difference between previous video games and the games of today? A. Today’s games are more graphic

B. Today’s games are more implicit. C. Today’s games are more representative. 5. What does the catharsis theory suggest? A. Playing video games releases aggression. B. Playing video games causes aggressive behavior. C. Both of the above, depending on the child’s personality.

PART II. LEXICO- GRAMMAR I. Choose the correct answer that best fits each blank. The science teacher asked the class to ______ the results of their experiment on a graph. A. draw

B. draw B. willingly

C. squarely

B. predilection

D. penchant

The school committee paid ______ to their famous former pupil by naming the new gym after her. C. honour

D. respect

B. homage

After his long illness, the old man appeared so thin and ______ that a gust of wind might have blown him

B. faint

C. withered

D. frail

A. flimsy

You could tell that she wasn't happy about the news by the way she ______ her face in disapproval. B. brought round

A. came on

C. settled for

D. screwed up

Going to the unemployment office and having to wait there for hours is a ______ experience. A. soul-destroying

B. heart-stopping

D. perfectly

C. predisposition

away.

D. make

David has a(n) ______ to fainting at the sight of blood.

A. esteem

C. present

It is far too easy to lay the blame ______ on the shoulders of the management.

A. inclination

D. support

Tom was able to ______ a pretty picture of the situation and impressed his manager.

A. flatly

C. post

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B. pillar

A. paint

D. sketch

She's such a ______ of strength that everyone relies on her in a crisis. A. tower

C. plot

B. illustrate

C. power-sharing

D. thought-provoking

10. ______ a language family is a group of languages with a common origin and similar vocabulary, grammar, and sound systems. B. It is called by linguists

C. What linguists call

D. What do linguists call

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A. Linguists call it

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11. ________, the balcony chairs will be ruined in this weather. B. Having left uncovered

C. Left uncovered

D. Been left uncovered

A. Leaving uncovered

12. The contemporary dialogue for me struck a slightly _______ note. A. disembodied

B. discordant

C. dismissive

D. disconcerting

13. Both of the jobs I’ve been offered are fantastic opportunities – I’m in such _______! A. a constituency

B. a deviation

C. an arrhythmia

D. a quandary

14. Sharon is such a positive person – she _______ her problems, whatever they are. A. goes light on

B. throws light to

C. makes light of

D. sheds light upon

15. The brother and sister were ________ over who would get to inherit the beach house. A. at large

B. at odds

C. at a standstill

D. at a loose end

A. Delighted though we were

B. As we were delighted

C. However delighted were we

D. As we were so delighted

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16. ________ that Kim was getting married, we were sorry she’d be leaving home.

17. Peter’s so ________! I think he’d think things through a little more carefully. A. impulsive

B. repulsive

C. compulsive

D. expulsive

18. I’ve yet ________ a person as Theo.

B. to have met such infuriating

C. been meeting as infuriating

D. been meeting such infuriating

A. to meet as infuriating

A. precision

19. Sniffer dogs are able to locate survivors beneath the rubble with ________ . B. correctness

C. meticulousness

D. exactitude

B. centrally

C. solidly

A. mainly

20. The locks to the doors of the building are controlled ________ .

D. completely

II. Supply the correct form of the word provided in blankets in each sentence.

1.2. Complaining consists of (SOCIAL) _______ moaning and groaning which leads to (TRUST) _______ and

unnecessary arguments within relationships.

3. Thanks to plentiful fish, none of the islanders suffer from (NUTRIENT) _______.

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4. I was at a difficult point of my life when I felt (ILLUSION) _________ by both work and home life 5. I talked to various friends, most of whom soon got tired of my (WHIMSY) _________ rambling and indecisiveness.

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6. It is estimated that between three to five million Britons suffer from such phobias, and the majority of these people do not (GO) _________ form of treatment.

7. Men are less likely to suffer from such fears than women, but attempts by either men or women simply to (REGARD) _______them can exacerbate the problem. 8. Behavioral therapy is decidedly a safe and lasting (ALTERNATE) ________to drug treatment. 9. What contributes to her business success is that she always (WIT)

10. Many streets in Hanoi were flooded and (PASS)

her opponents.

after it had rained for 2 hours on end.

III.

Identify 10 mistakes in the following passage and correct them. For many centuries, the question of how our minds work was left to theologians and philosophers. But at the beginning of the twentieth century, a new science, experimental psychology emerged, which the speculative theories of the past were confirmed or disproved by the scientific method. In the forefront of this research was J B Watson. His area of interest was the origin of human emotions. Do we learn them, or do we have them when

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we were born? In particular, Watson wanted to study the fear, and was prepared to go to whichever lengths to study his theory.

Watson’s subject was a 9 month old infant, Albert. During the experiment, Watson presented the child with things which often considered frightening – a rat, fire, a clown mask. At first, Albert was unafraid of these things. But then Watson tormented the child with loud, expected noises as he was playing with them. To be sure enough, Albert learnt to associate these things with the unpleasant experience. Even if the noises were stopped,

Albert withdrew his body and puckered his face when presenting once more with the rat and mask.

PART IV. READING

I. Read the passage and then decide which word (A, B, C, or D) best fits each space. Face-to-face conversation is a two-way process. You speak to me, I reply to you and so on. Two –way (1)

____ depends on having a coding system that is understood by both (2) ____

the beginning and end of the (4) ____ . In speech, the coding system is the

convention about (3) ____

and receiver, and an agreed

language like English or Spanish; the convention that one person speaks at a time may seem too obvious to (5)

____ . In fact, the (6) ____ that people use in conversations and meetings are often non- verbal. For example,

lowering the pitch of the voice may mean the end of a sentence; a sharp intake of breath may signal the desire to

(7) ____ , catching the chairman’s (8) ____ may indicate the desire to speak in a formal setting like a (9) ____ needed. 1. A. communication

, a clenched fist may indicate anger. When these (10) ____ signals are not possible, more formal signals may be

C. interchange D. correspondence

2. A. transmitter

B. messenger

C. sender

D. announcer

3. A. signaling

B. symbolizing

C. signing

D. showing

4. A. idea

B. theme

C. topic

D. message

5. A. notice

B. mention

C. recognize

D. judge

6. A .signs

B. signals

C. symptoms

D. symbols

7. A. interfere

B. interchange

C. interrupt

D. intercept

8. A. elbow

B. shoulder

C. hand

D. eye

9. A. debate

B. chat

C. lecture

D. broadcast

10. A. auditory

B. visual

C. verbal

D. sensory

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B. exchange

II. Read the text and then choose the best answer to each of the questions. In the world of birds, bill design is a prime example of evolutionary fine-tuning. Shorebirds such as oystercatchers use their bills to pry open the tightly sealed shells of their prey, hummingbirds have stiletto-like bills to probe the deepest nectar-bearing flowers, and kiwis smell out earthworms thanks to nostrils located at the tip of their beaks. But few birds are more intimately tied to their source of sustenance than are crossbills.

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Two species of these finches, named for the way the upper and lower parts of their bills cross, rather than meet in the middle, reside in the evergreen forests of North America and feed on the seeds held within the cones of coniferous trees.

The efficiency of the bill is evident when a crossbill locates a cone. Using a lateral motion of its lower mandible, the bird separates two overlapping scales on the cone and exposes the seed. The crossed mandibles enable the bird to exert a powerful biting force at the bill tips, which is critical for maneuvering them between

the scales and spreading the scales apart. Next, the crossbill snakes its long tongue into the gap and draws out the seed. Using the combined action of the bill and tongue, the bird cracks open and discards the woody seed

covering and swallows the nutritious inner kernel. This whole process takes but a few seconds and is repeated

hundreds of times a day.

The bills of different crossbill species and subspecies vary ― some are stout and deep, others more slender and shallow. As a rule, large-billed crossbills are better at securing seeds from large cones, while small-billed

crossbills are more deft at removing the seeds from small, thin-scaled cones. Moreover, the degree to which

cones are naturally slightly open or tightly closed helps determine which bill design is the best.

One anomaly is the subspecies of red crossbill known as the Newfoundland crossbill. This bird has a large, billed white-wings rely on.

robust bill, yet most of Newfoundland's conifers have small cones, the same kind of cones that the slender-

1: What does the passage mainly discuss?

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A. The importance of conifers in evergreen forests B. The efficiency of the bill of the crossbill

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C. The variety of food available in a forest D. The different techniques birds use to obtain food

2: Which of the following statements best represents the type of "evolutionary fine-tuning" mentioned in line 1? A. Different shapes of bills have evolved depending on the available food supply. B. White-wing crossbills have evolved from red crossbills. C. Newfoundland's conifers have evolved small cones. D. Several subspecies of crossbills have evolved from two species.

3: Why does the author mention oystercatchers, hummingbirds, and kiwis in lines 2-3? A. They are examples of birds that live in the forest. B. Their beaks are similar to the beak of the crossbill. C. They illustrate the relationship between bill design and food supply. D. They are closely related to the crossbill.

A. shorebird

B. hummingbird

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4: Crossbills are a type of _____. C. kiwi

D. finch

5: The word "gap" in line 12 is closest in meaning to _____. A. opening

B. flower

C. mouth

D. tree

A. bills

B. species

C. seeds

7: The word "robust" in line 20 is closest in meaning to _____. B. colorful

C. unusual

B. It uses a different technique to obtain food.

A. It is larger than the other crossbill species.

D. sharp

8: In what way is the Newfoundland crossbill an anomaly?

A. strong

D. cones

6: The word "others" in line 15 refers to _____.

C. The size of its bill does not fit the size of its food source.

D. It does not live in evergreen forests.

9: The final paragraph of the passage will probably continue with a discussion of _____. A. other species of forest birds

B. the fragile ecosystem of Newfoundland

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C. what mammals live in the forests of North America D. how the Newfoundland crossbill survives with a large bill

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10: Where in the passage does the author describe how a crossbill removes a seed from its cone? B. The second paragraph

C. The third paragraph

D. The fourth paragraph

A. The first paragraph

III. Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word. TSUNAMI IN JAPAN Japan's most powerful earthquake since records began has struck the north-east coast, triggering a massive tsunami. Cars, ships and buildings were (1) ______ away by a wall of water after the 8.9 - magnitude

tremor, which struck about 400 kms (250 miles) north-east of Tokyo. A state of emergency has been declared at a nuclear power plant, (2) ______ pressure has exceeded normal levels. Officials say more than 10,000 people are dead and about 7,000 (3) ______, but it is feared the final death toll will be (4) ______ higher. In one ward alone in Sendai, a port city in Miyagi prefecture, 200 to 300 bodies were found.

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“The quake has been the fifth-largest in the world (5) ______ 1900 and nearly 8,000 (6) ______ stronger than the one which devastated Christchurch, New Zealand, last month”, said scientists.

Thousands of people (7) ______ near the Fukushima nuclear power plant have been ordered to evacuate. Japanese nuclear officials said that pressure inside a boiling water reactor at the plant was running much higher than normal after the cooling system failed.

Officials said they might need to deliberately (8) ______ some radioactive steam to relieve pressure, but that there would be no health risk.

US Secretary of State Hillary Clinton had earlier said the US Air Force had flown emergency coolant to

the site. But US officials later said (9) ______ coolant had been handed over because the Japanese had decided

to handle the situation (10) ______.

The UN's nuclear agency said four nuclear power plants had been shut down safely.

IV. Read the passage and do the tasks that follow.

A. One misguided legacy over a hundred years of writing on bilingualism is that children's intelligence

will suffer if they are bilingual. Some of the earliest research into bilingualism examined whether bilingual children were ahead of monolingual children on IQ tests. From the 1920s to the 1960s, the tendency was to find

monolingual children ahead of bilinguals on IQ tests. The conclusion was that bilingual children were mentally

confused. Having two languages in the brain, it was said, disrupted effective thinking. It was argued that having

one well-developed language was superior to having two half-developed languages. B. The idea that the bilinguals may have a lower IQ still exists among many people, particularly

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monolinguals. However, we now know that this early research was misconceived and incorrect. First, such research often gave bilinguals an IQ test in their weaker language – usually English. Had bilinguals tested in

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Welsh or Spanish or Hebrew, a different result may have been found. The testing of bilinguals was thus unfair. Second, like was not compared with like. Bilinguals tend to come from, for example, impoverished New York or rural Welsh backgrounds. The monolinguals tend to come from more middle class, urban families. Working

class bilinguals were often compared with middle class monolinguals. So the results were more likely to be due to social class differences than language differences. The comparison of monolinguals and bilinguals was unfair. C. The most recent research from Canada, the United States and Wales suggests that bilinguals are, at least, equal to monolinguals on IQ tests. When bilinguals have two well-developed languages (in the research literature called balanced bilinguals), bilinguals tend to show a slight superiority in IQ tests compared with

monolinguals. This is the received psychological wisdom of the moment and is good news for raising bilingual children. Take, for example, a child who can operate in either language in the curriculum in the school. That child is likely to be ahead on IQ tests compared with similar monolinguals (same gender, social class, and age). Far from making people mentally confused, bilingualism is now associated with a mild degree of intellectual superiority.

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D. One note of caution needs to be sounded. IQ tests probably do not measure intelligence. IQ tests measure a small sample of the broadest concept of intelligence. IQ tests are simply paper and pencil tests where only "right and wrong" answers are allowed. Is all intelligence included in such right and wrong, pencil and paper tests? Isn't there a wider variety of intelligences that are important in everyday functioning and everyday life.

E. Many questions need answering. Do we only define an intelligent person as somebody who obtains a

high score on an IQ tests. Are the only intelligent people those who belong to high IQ organizations such as MENSA? Is there social intelligence, musical intelligence, military intelligence, marketing intelligence,

motoring intelligence, political intelligence? Are all, or indeed any, of these forms of intelligence measured by a

simple pencil and paper IQ test which demands a single, acceptable, correct solution to each question? Defining what constitutes intelligent behavior requires a personal value judgement as to what type of behavior, and what

kind of person is of more worth.

F. The current state of psychological wisdom about bilingual children is that, where two languages are

relatively well developed, bilinguals have thinking advantages over monolinguals. Take an example. A child is

asked a simple question: How many uses can you think of for a brick? Some children give two or three answers only. They can think of building walls, building a house or perhaps that is all. Another child scribbles away,

pouring out ideas one after the other: blocking up a rabbit hole, breaking a window, using as a bird bath, as a

plumb line, as an abstract sculpture in an art exhibition.

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G. Research across different continents of the world shows that bilinguals tend to be more fluent, flexible, original and elaborate in their answers to this type of open-ended question. The person who can think of a few answers tend to be termed a convergent thinker. They converge onto a few acceptable conventional

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answers. People who think of lots of different uses for unusual items (e.g. a brick, tin can, cardboard box) are call divergers. Divergers like a variety of answers to a question and are imaginative and fluent in their thinking.

H. There are other dimensions in thinking where approximately balanced bilinguals may have temporary

and occasionally permanent advantages over monolinguals: increased sensitivity to communication. A slightly speedier movement through the stages of cognitive development, and being less fixed in the sounds of words

and more centred on the meaning of words. Such ability to move away from the sound of words and fix on the meaning of words tends to be a (temporary) advantage for bilinguals around the ages four to six. This advantage may mean an initial head start in learning to read and learning to think about language.

No single definition of intelligence

Faulty setting, wrong conclusion

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Welsh research supports IQ testing

Beware: inadequate of testing intelligence

International research support bilingualism

Current thought on the advantage bilinguals have

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Early beliefs regarding bilingualism

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Monolinguals ahead of their bilingual peers

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Choose the correct heading for paragraph B-G from the list of headings below.

paragraph B

__________

paragraph C

__________

paragraph D

__________

paragraph E

__________

paragraph F

__________

____vii____

paragraph A

Example

Exemplifying the bilingual advantage

6. Balanced bilinguals have more permanent than temporary advantages over

7. Often bilinguals concentrate more on the way a word sounds than its

__________

monolinguals.

__________

Write T (true), F (false) or NG (not given) for the following statements.

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meaning. __________

8. Monolinguals learn to speak at a younger age than bilinguals.

__________

9. Bilinguals just starting school might pick up certain skills faster than

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monolinguals.

10. What is the most suitable title for the passage?

A. Types of intelligence B. The use of IQ tests C. Bilingualism and intelligence in children D. A new discovery in bilingualism

PART IV. WRITING

I.Read the extract and use your own words to sumarize it (around 100 words). Buying things today is so simple. Just enter a shop, say a book store, choose the desired book and pay for it. Long ago, before the invention of money, how did people trade? The most primitive way of exchange should be the barter trade. In this form of transaction, people used goods to exchange for the things that they had in mind. For instance, if person A wanted a book and he had a spare goat,

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he must look for someone who had the exact opposite, that is, that someone, say person B, must have a spare book of person A's choice and is also in need of a goat. Having found such a person, the problem does not end here. A big goat may worth not only one book, hence person B may have to offer person A something else, say five chickens. However, he runs the risk of person A rejecting the offer as he may not need the chickens. The above example clearly illustrates the inefficiency of barter trading.

Many years later, the cumbersome barter trade finally gave way to the monetary form of exchange when the

idea of money was invented. In the early days, almost anything could qualify as money: beads, shells and even fishing hooks. Then in a region near Turkey, gold coins were used as money. In the beginning, each coin had a

of each coin and even printed his name on the coins.

different denomination. It was only later, in about 700 BC, that Gyges, the king of Lydia, standardized the value

Monetary means of transaction at first beat the traditional barter trade. However, as time went by, the thought of

carrying a ponderous pouch of coins for shopping appeared not only troublesome but thieves attracting. Hence, the Greek and Roman traders who bought goods from people faraway cities, invented checks to solve the

problem. Not only are paper checks easy to carry around, they discouraged robbery as these checks can only be

used by the person whose name is printed on the notes. Following this idea, banks later issued notes in

exchange for gold deposited with them. These bank notes can then be used as cash. Finally, governments of today adopted the idea and began to print paper money, backed by gold for the country's use.

Today, besides enjoying the convenience of using paper notes as the mode of exchange, technology has led man

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to invent other means of transaction too like the credit and cash cards. II. Graph description

The graph below shows the number of students who got prizes in the National Exams for excellent students

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from 2008 to 2011 in three provinces. Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main

features and make relevant comparisons where relevant.

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III. Essay writing

Write a paragraph of about 350 words to state your viewpoint on the following question:

In your opinion, what are the essential qualities and skills that students of the twenty-first century should

have to lead a happy and successful life? Why do you think that those qualities and skills are important in today’s world?

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---The end---

TRẠI HÈ HÙNG VƯƠNG LẦN THỨ XIV

ĐỀ THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH - KHỐI 11

TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN BẮC GIANG

Năm học 2017 - 2018

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ XUẤT

Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút

-------------------

(Đáp án này có 2 trang)

PART I. LISTENING

1. modern buildings

2. Energy

6. air conditioning

3. out of/away from

II.

1. A

III.

IV.

1. 79/ seventy-nine

2. To establish position

4. Once a year

5. Loose stones, walls

2. B

5. A

13D 14C 15B

16A

17A

10C

18A

19A

20B

11C 12B

3. Treasure

4. A

3. C

PART II. LEXICO- GRAMMAR

II. 3. Malnutrition

6.undergo

7. Disregard

1.2: Antisocial/ mistrust

III.

4. disillusioned

5. Whimsical

8. Alternative

9. Outwit

10. impassible

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1. which- in which

2. In the forefront- At the forefront 4. the fear- fear

5. whichever- whatever

6. often considered- are often considered

7. expected- unexpected

8. To be sure-Sure

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3.were- are

9. expected- unexpected

10. Even if- Even when

PART IV. READING

II.

5. too hot

7. indoor air quality/quality of indoor air 8. maintenance

9. (building/furnishing) materials 10. (office) cleaning 2F

4. Personal

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2. C

3. A

4. D

5. B

6. B

7. C

8. D

9. A

10. B

2. A

3. C

4. D

5. A

6. A

7. A

8. C

9. D

10. B

III.

1. swept 6. times

2. where 7. living

3. missing 8. release

4. much/far 5. since 9. no 10. themselves

IV.

1. ii

2. vi

3. iv

4. i

7. F

8. NG 9. T

10. C

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6. F PART IV. WRITING I

5. ix

Contents (10 points): - The summary MUST cover the following points:

+ The topic sentence must cover: the development of trading before the appearance of paper money

the users’ demand>>proved to be ineffective way of trading

+ The earliest type: goods exchanging>> its weakness lies in the inequality of the exchanged things and

became a burden for shopper and appeal thieves

+ The following form : the use of coins>> at first were more convenient than rational exchanging>> later

+ Checks and notes used as cash were invented among the country

+ The technological advancement enables various transacting ways namely credit and cash cards.

- The summary MUST NOT contain personal opinions.

Language use (5 points)

should show attempts to convey the main ideas of the original text by means of paraphrasing (structural

and lexical use),

should demonstrate correct use of grammatical structures, vocabulary, and mechanics (spelling,

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The summary:

punctuations,....), -

should maintain coherence, cohesion, and unity throughout (by means of linkers and transitional

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devices).

Penalties:

A penalty of 1 point to 2 points will be given to personal opinions found in the summary.

A penalty of 1 point to 2 points will be given to any summary with more than 20% of words copied from

the original. -

A penalty of 1 point will be given to any summary longer than 150 words or shorter than 130 words.

II. Chart III. Essay

TAPESCRIPT Part 1

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You will hear a talk about Sick Building Syndrome, which is ill health that is believed to be caused by buildings. For questions 1-10, complete the sentences.

Have you ever gone back to work after a break or a holiday and been suddenly hit by a complete lack of energy? Andyou wonder whether it’s simply because you’re notrelaxing any more but you think that perhaps it'ssomething else, something to do with your environment. Well, you could be right. In 1982. the World HealthOrganization defined Sick Building Syndrome as “a

syndrome of complaints covering non-specific feelings ofill health, the onset of which is associated with the

occupancy of certain modem buildings". To thosesuffering from it. it means feelings of lack of energy,

headaches, dry skin, even itchy eyes. And while thegeneral view might be that there’s a chance of getting sickif you work in a factory and that you wouldn’t expect tofeel unwell when you go to work in offices, this is not true.

The office, it seems, is not the safe and healthyenvironment it is traditionally thought to be.Surveys among office workers have revealed that largenumbers of them in the same building can be affected bythe symptoms. Some are affected only from time to time,and others all week but a common finding was that

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sufferers were mainly affected at the beginning of theweek and when they’d been out of the building for sometime. And the symptoms disappeared quite quickly whenthey left work. However, the problem is often a hidden onebecause many people don't associate the problems withtheir environment, they think it's probably somethingabout them themselves. And they often say nothing aboutit because if they do so they might be accused of beingcomplainers. It has been suggested that the problemscould arise for reasons as simple as that the centralheating is too high. But it is a mistake to look for simpleexplanations of what is a complex matter. It could be justthat the heating is up too high but this does not explain therange of symptoms that sufferers in the same building canhave or the fact that these occur in buildings with similar Part 2

You are going to listen to an excerpt from a radio program, ‘TheExperts Speak'. You will hear someone talking about video games. F:Video games are quite popular nowadays, aren’t they? M:Video games increase in popularity year after year, butparents don’t always respond with enthusiasm when a newgame appears on the market. In fact, many parents believethat such games are

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highly addictive and can lead tocompulsive behavior and a loss of interest in other activities. F:What makes the video game junkie?

M:A decade ago, research showed that video game junkieswere highly intelligent go-getters. They did well at school andat work. But could the more sophisticated games of the 21stcentury be so all-

consuming as to interfere with that kind ofachievement? The video games of the 21st century may insome ways be more psychologically rewarding than the1990s games in that they require more complex skills,improve dexterity, and feature better graphics.

F:But for most kids, video games remain a harmless activity;only a small minority of these players could be termed'addicts’, right?

F:What else are parents up in arms about?

M:A recent study of children in their early teens found thatalmost a third played video games daily, and that – moreworryingly - seven percent played for at least 30 hours aweek.This sedentary activity can result in bad posture, one of thechief causes of repetitive strain injury (RSI). Kids as young asseven are suffering from RSI because of overuse ofcomputers at school and in the home.

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M:Parents also complain that most video games featureexcessive violence, which in turn makes their kids moreaggressive. The controversy has raged for 15 years, but littlesystematic research has been carried out, and the debatebecomes increasingly relevant as new games use moreexplicit representations of extreme and realistic violence.The theory of social learning says that playing aggressivevideo games leads to the stimulation of aggressive behavior.On the other hand, the catharsis theory suggests that playingaggressive video games has a relaxing effect, by channeling and releasing aggression.

Part 3

For questions 16 – 20:

B = Bill

C = Charles

D = Daphne

B: I’m afraid I can’t serve you another pint if you’re driving home tonight, sir. C: I’m not driving, actually. I live just up the road at Draycott farm – you must know it. B: The Farm – I know very well… but you, I don’t.

C: The name’s Charles Miller, and this is my partner Daphne. B: What can I get you then, Mrs. Miller? D: I’ll just have a tonic water – you see we came in my car tonight – oh, and the name’s Jameson, actually. B: Oh, so we’re not married. And I suppose you’re living up at the farm, as well. Old Arnie Draycott

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would’ve liked that. D: Well, yes, we moved in last week. B: I suppose you know what happened there. D: About the suicide you mean? Yes. What a terrible tragedy.

B: Oh yeah… but I don’t suppose that fancy estate agent of yours told you why he did it.

C: He did mention something but that’s not really any of our business. Of course, I did actually meet the poor man once – worked there one summer picking strawberries. Mind you, in those days things must have been going quite well.

B: Well, over the years, I got to know him quite well and what with his money problems and his son getting sick and so many other thinsgs… it all got a bit too much for him.

D: Oh, how ghastly! Poor fellow! What an awful thing to happen.

B: Yea, it is… and he would have wanted the farm to go to someone from Willowdale… which you are not. Pardon me for being so frank – but there it is.

C: So that’s a problem, is it? I suppose you all think that this is just a weekend cottage for us… and that we’ll be disappearing to the city all week and that Draycott farm won’t be a farm any more and…

B: Steady on. That is what people have been saying… and they’re not very happy.

C: Well, if that’s what they’ve been saying, they’re all wrong… And, I suppose that explains the broken window.

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D: Look, we’ve just both decided to move to the country… and we really want to live here. Charles is a technical writer and he’ll be working at home from now on… and we have every intention of using the shops and the local services.

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C: That is, of course, if we are welcome.

D: Charles has a heart condition. He even had an operation last month. So we wanted to get away from the city and make a healthier life. B: Like running a farm you mean. It won’t be very easy with a heart condition. C: Well, that’s where we thought you might be able to help. You see, we were hoping to find somebody who could manage the farm for us,… we’d be willing to pay of course. B: How much were you thinking you might pay this… er… somebody?

C: Well, we haven’t decided exactly but I should think somewhere in the region of fifteen hundred a month. B: Well, that is rather generous. I can think of one or two people who would drop everything to work for that sort of money. If I wasn’t working here, I would consider it. You are serious?

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C: Absolutely!... It’s what we’ve always wanted. Part 4

You will hear a guide speaking to tourists who are visiting some Romans remains. Listen and give short answers to the questions. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER taken from the recording. (10 points)

Guide: Good morning and welcome to this morning’s guided tour of the Romanremains in the area.

We’ll start our day by visiting the garrison town of Corbridge -then, this afternoon, we’ll be visiting

part of the wall which the Romans built tokeep their enemies out of the country. The part we’re going

to visit is remarkablywell-preserved and it’s easy to imagine what it must have been like all thoseyears ago!

The Romans actually arrived in this country in the earlier part of the first centuryAD, but it wasn’t until

the year 79 that they came to the Corbridge area. They builta series of forts and strongholds so that they

could establish their position in thewhole region.

What you’re going to see this morning are the results of excavations which’vetaken place fairly recently. The first early archaeological dig was as far back as1201 and then, believe it or not, they were looking for treasure. Unfortunately, (orperhaps fortunately for us!), nothing interesting was found, so they abandoned thesite and it wasn’t until the early nineteenth century that another, and much moreambitious, excavation was carried out.

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The result was a number of exciting discoveries. And in the mid-nineteenthcentury, they discovered part of a Roman bridge and other structures, includingthe baths and other dwellings in the town. More recently, in fact every year since1934, digs have taken place. These have resulted in the discovery of a largecollection of sculpture, coins, pottery and small objects; and some of these havebecome very famous indeed. Most of them are now housed in the site museum,which we’ll be visiting before we visit the site itself. Unfortunately, for securityreasons, some have had to be taken to the city museum, which you’ll find is about15 miles away. As you can see from this map, the site museum’s laid out in a circle. The firsthalf concentrates on the history of the site, and each section deals with er ... well,a separate period of the site’s history. You’ll also find display cases of objectswhich would’ve been in use at the time. In the second half of the museum, each

section’s related to a particular aspect of life in the town, such as trade, domesticlife and religious observance. After visiting the museum we’ll be walking round the site, and we would ask youplease, to pay particular attention to any loose stones lying around the site. Andkeep children off the walls, as these can be extremely dangerous. At the end ofthe tour we’ll be paying a visit to the gift shop and café, which you probably saw asyou came in - near the site entrance and the car park.

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Now, if you’ve left hats and sunglasses in the coach, I’d advise you to go andretrieve them now as the coach’ ll be locked for the next few hours and the sun’svery hot today.

KỲ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI CÁC TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN KHU VỰC DUYÊN HẢI VÀ ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ

ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT

LẦN THỨ XIV, NĂM HỌC 2017 – 2018

(Đề thi gồm 13 trang)

ĐỀ THI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 11

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TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN CAO BẰNG

Thời gian: 180 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề)

A. LISTENING (50 points):

Question 1: Listen to the recording and complete the table below with ONE WORD AND/OR A

NUMBER for each answer. (10 points)

MOVING COMPANY SERVICE REPORT (1)…………………………………………………………

USA Address :

509 Clark House,

Phone number:

1137 (2)…………………………drive in Seattle

5:00 p.m.

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Clean – up by:

11th (3)………………………………………………………..

Date:

Day:

Monday

Packing day:

(4)……………………………………………………….. Rather expensive

Storage Time:

(5) ……………………………………………………..

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About the Price:

Question 2: Choose the correct letter A, B, C, or D. (10 points) GENERAL COURSE DETAILS 1. What is the defining characteristic of a specialized course? A. Taking a proficiency exam B. Attending the class frequently

C. Attending the class immediately D. Compulsory and regular

2. The Microbiology courses are available for……………….. 1

A. full-time and flexible-time students.

C. Microbiology students only.

B. full-time students only.

D. students on a flexible schedule.

3. The Biology courses are available for……………… A. all students.

C. flexible-time students only.

B. full-time students only.

D. freshmen only.

4. A Medical Science course will be opened next year because………………….. C. there are no computers.

B. the building is damaged.

D. There are no experimental facilities.

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A. the lap equipment is too expensive.

5. Which is the quickest increasing subject in enrolment? A. Medical Science

B. Statistics

C. Environmental Science

D. Economics

Question 3: Listen to a piece of BBC news “Apple-FBI iPhone argument getting bigger” and decide

the statements are True (T) or False (F). Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes

(10pts).

1. The iPhone belonged to someone who killed people last month.

T/F T/F

3. America's Department of Justice (DOJ) is on Apple's side.

T/F

2. Apple said unlocking the iPhone would be a threat to its customers.

T/F

5. The DOJ said Apple was an evil company.

T/F

4. The DOJ said Apple was putting up technological barriers.

Your answer 1.

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Question 4: You will hear a teacher giving her students advice for exams. Listen carefully and complete the passage below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR NUMBERS for each

blank. (20 points) Advice for Exams -

The audience are advised to (1)………….. as she is talking.

Food can give you energy but eat sweets or drinking cola or sugar won’t help you study but (2)……… will, for example apples.

Find a comfortable place, not ‘too’ comfortable, with (3)……….. when studying. 2

Try and keep a positive mind and be relaxed. Have a break If you start (4)……….., like going out for a stroll around the block. Choose the (5)…….., the things that will get you most points in an exam.

Learn the main ideas and don’t worry too much about (6)………..

Make notes of (7)…….. and read them, then cover them up and try to remember all the points.

Use past exam papers in the library to help you understand what kind of questions (8)………...

Take (9)……….. while you are studying. Five-minutes is usually enough.

Drink a glass of water to (10)………...

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(Source: http://learnenglishteens.britishcouncil.org) Your answers

4. ………………………...

5. ………………………...

7. ………………………...

8. ………………………...

3. ………………………...

6. ………………………...

2…………………………

9. ………………………...

1. ………………………...

10. ………………………...

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II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (40pts) Part 1. Choose the option (A, B, C or D) that best completes each blank and write in the box provided (10 points) 1. It seems too good to be true. Are you sure this guy’s on the _________? A. flat B. wagon C. level D. town 2. When I took over the business I got more than I ________. A. asked after B. bargained for C. drew up D. came in for 3. I’m going for a walk in the park. Would you like to ____________ me company. A. follow B. stay C. ward D. keep 4. He let it __________ that the Prime Minister was a close friend of his. A. announce B. talk C. drop D. infer 5. She used the map to discover where she was in ________to her surroundings. A. connection B. affinity C. relation D. reference 6. Phillips almost felt he was ________ something he could neither understand nor control. A. confessing to B. specializing in C. imposing on D. tampering with 7. Let’s _________ the place, it looks so gloomy and unpleasant . A. miss B. abandon C. depart D. disappear 8. For stamps and coins to be of value, they need to be in _________ condition. A. mighty B. flat C. sharp D. mint 9. The delight in treasure finding doesn’t always ________acquiring tremendous amounts of valuables. A. dwell on B. poke around C. lay about D. hinge upon 10. It’s not easy to make Stanley furious, the boy is very gentle by _____________. A. himself B. ppersonality C. reaction D. nature Part 2. Read the text below and give the correct form of the word in CAPITALS. (10 points) Most snap (1 - JUDGE) ____________ about people are formed on the basis of their facial features. The eyes, regarded as clues to one’s true character, are said (2 - POETRY) ___________ to be the windows of the soul: closely positioned, they imply (3- SLY)__________; set wide apart they suggest (4- HONEST) 3

___________ and directness. Thin mouths are equated with meanness and full mouths with (5SENSUAL) ___________. Unconsciously, we make such instant judgments and they are made about us. There is no hiding place for the face. Always exposed and vulnerable, it (6- VOLUNTARY) ___________ expresses happiness, desire and joy, anger, fear, shame and (7- LOATHE) ___________. Precisely for that person, a masked face evokes fear and horror; once someone’s distinguishing (8CHARACTER) _____________ are hidden, we cannot read or recognize the person and fear of the (9KNOW) ___________ immediately arouses (10- SUSPICIOUS)_____________.

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Your answers:

10.

Part 3. There are TEN mistakes in this passage. Write them down & give the correction. Write your answers in the space provided. (10 points)

First come the PC, then the internet and e-mail; now the e-book is upon us, a hand-held device similarly in size and appearance to a video cassette. The user simply rings off the website on their PC, selects the desired books, downloads them onto their e-book machine and sits down to read them. For turning a page, the user simply taps the screen. E-book technology is evolving rapidly, and with some of the newest handholds you will even get internet access. But why would one want an e-book machine with reference to a book? Well, one selling point companies emphasized, when these devices hit the market a few years ago, which is the space they save when going on holiday. E-books enlighten the load, literally. Ten large novels can be put onto a device that weighs less than the average paperback. One can understand why commercial interests seem to want us to change. After all, the whole production process at first plan by author until delivery to the printer had been doing electronically for a while now, so why not save a few million trees and cut out the hard copy?

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1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16.

Mistake

Correction

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Your answer: Line 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 4. Fill in each blank with a suitable preposition or adverbial particle. (10 points) 4

1. Rod sympathized __________ Delia’s situation. 2. This bread tastes __________ garlic. 3. My residence permit is valid _________ one more year. 4. The lifeguard saved the child __________ drowning. 5. She came __________ his request.

III. READING (50 points) Part 1. Fill each of the blanks with ONE suitable word. (10 points)

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6. Robert was set __________ by two masked men and robbed. 7. Let’s run ____________ the details of the arrangements just once more. 8. A shortage of money has forced them to scale __________ the project. 9. I must warn you that if you have anything to say, it will be taken __________ and may be used in evidence against you. 10. Your plan doesn’t allow ___________ changes in the weather.

The dog fence is Australia’s version (1) ________ the Great Wall of China but longer, erected to keep (2) __________ hostile invaders, in this (3) __________ hordes of yellow dogs. The empire it preserves is that of the woolgrowers, sovereigns of the world’s second largest sheep flock, after China’s – some 123 million head-and keepers of a wool export business worth four billion dollars to the national economy. It (4) ___________ to matter little that more and more people – conservationists, politicians, taxpayers and animal lovers – say that the construction of such a fence (5) __________ never be allowed today. With some sections of it almost one hundred years old, built by bushmen travelling with camels, the dog fence has become, as must conservationists ruefully admit, ‘an icon of frontier ingenuity’.

Answers:

To appreciate (6) __________ unusual outback monument and to meet the people (7) __________ livelihoods depend on it, I spent part of an Australian autumn travelling the wire. For most of its prodigious length the fence winds like a river (8) ___________ a landscape that, unless heavy rain has fallen, scarcely has rivers. It marks the traditional dividing line (9) ____________ cattle (outside) and sheep (inside). Inside is where dingoes, legally classified as vermin, (10) ___________ shot, poisoned and trapped.

10.

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Part 2. For each gap, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D which best fits the context. (10 pts) NEVER TOO OLD TO LEARN! Education is a life-long process that not only provides us with basic skills such as literacy and numeracy, but is also essential in (1) our future lives. From the moment we enter kindergartens as small children, and as we progress through primary and secondary education, we (2) the foundations for the life ahead of us. We must discipline ourselves to work hard (3) we can pass exams and gain the qualifications we will need to secure a good job. We must also acquire valuable life skills so that we can fit in and work with those around us. And of course health education helps us to understand (4) we can stay fit and healthy. For most people, this process ends when they are in their mid-to-late teens. For others, however, it is the beginning of a lifetime of learning. After they finish school, many (5) to further education (6) where they will learn more useful skills such as computer literacy or basic business management. will enroll on a program of higher education at a university where, with hard work, they will have the opportunity to graduate after three or four years with a well-earned degree. After that, they may work for a while before opting to study for a higher degree- an MA, for example, or a PhD. Alternatively, they may 5

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day choose to attend an evening class after work or, if they have a sympathetic employer, (7) release so that they can study during the week. And if they live a long way from a college or university, they might follow a (8) course using mail and the Internet. (9) , it is largely due to the proliferation of computers that many people have started to study again and can proudly class themselves as mature students. We live in a fascinating and constantly changing world, and we must continually learn and (10) new knowledge if we are to adapt and keep up with changing events. Our schooldays are just the beginning of this process, and we should make the best of every opportunity to develop ourselves, whether we are eighteen or eighty. You are, indeed, never too old to learn. 1. A. forming B. shaping C. moulding D. leading 2. A. are lying B. are laying C. are replacing D.are building 3. A. in order to B. so as that C. so that D. in case 4. A. how B. what C. when D. where 5. A. progress B. continue C. move D. pursue 6. A. The others B. Another C. The other D. Others 7. A. ask B. obtain C. achieve D. bring 8. A. writing B. correspondence C. mail D.self-study 9. A. As a result B. Particularly C. What's more D. In fact 10. A. enrich B. acquire C. widen D. broaden

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Part 3. Read the following passage and answer the questions (10 points) The reading passage has seven paragraphs (A-G). For questions 1-6, choose the correct heading for paragraphs B-G from the list of heading below List of headings i. Why some early social science methods lost popularity. ii.The cost implications of research iii. Looking ahead to an unbiased assessment of research iv. A range of social issues that have been usefully studied v. An example of a poor decision that was made too quickly vi. What happens when the figures are wrong vii One area of research that is rigorously carried out viii The changing nature of medical trials ix An investigate study that may lead to a new system x Why some scientists’ theories are considered second-rate Example Paragraph A: x 1.Paragraph B ______________ 2.Paragraph C ______________ 3.Paragraph D ______________ 4.Paragraph E ______________ 5.Paragraph F ______________ 6.Paragraph G ______________ TRY IT AND SEE A. In the scientific pecking order, social scientists are usually looked down on by their peers in the natural sciences. Natural scientists do experiments to test their theories or, if they cannot, they to look for natural phenomena that can act in lieu of experiments. Social scientists, it is widely thought, do not subject their own hypotheses to any such rigorous treatment. Worse, they peddle their untested hypotheses to government and try to get them turned into policies. 6

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B. Governments require sellers of new medicines to demonstrate their safety and effectiveness. The accepted gold standard of evidence is a randomized control trial, in which a new drug is compared with their best existing therapy (or with a placebo, if no treatment is available). Patients are assigned to one arm or the other of such a study at random, ensuring that the only difference between the two groups is the new treatment. The best studies also ensure that neither patient nor physician knows which patient is allocated to which therapy. Drug trials must also include enough patients to make it unlikely that chance alone may determine the result. C. But few education programs or social initiatives are evaluated in carefully conducted studies prior to their introduction. A case in point is the “whole-language” approach to reading, which swept much of the English speaking world in the 1970s and 1980s. The whole-language theory holds that children learn to read best by absorbing contextual clues from texts, not by breaking individual words into their component parts and reassembling them (a method known as phonics). Unfortunately, the educational theorists who pushed the whole-language notion so successfully did not wait for evidence from controlled randomized trials before advancing their claims. Had they done so, they might have concluded, as did an analysis of randomized studies carried out by the US National Reading Panel in 2000, that effective reading instruction requires phonics. D. To avoid the widespread adoption of misguided ideas, the sensible thing is to experiment first and make policy later. This is the idea behind a trial of restorative justice which is taking place in the English courts. The experiment will include criminals who plead guilty to robbery. Those who agree to participate will be assigned randomly either to sentencing as normal or to participation in a conference in which the offender comes face to face with his victim and discusses how he may make emotional and material restitution. The purpose of the trial is to assess whether such restorative justice limits reoffending. If it does, it might be adopted more widely. E. The idea of experimental evidence is not quite new to the social science as sneering natural scientists might believe. In fact, randomized trials and systematic reviews of evidence were introduced into the social sciences long before they became common in medicine. An apparent example of random allocation is a study carried out in 1927 of how to persuade people to vote in elections. And randomized trials in social work were begun in the 1930s and 1940s. But enthusiasm later waned. This loss of interest can be attributed, at least in part, to the fact that early experiments produced little evidence of positive outcomes. Others suggest that much of the opposition to experimental evaluation stems from a common philosophical malaise among social scientists, who doubt the validity of the natural sciences, and therefore reject the potential of knowledge derived from controlled experiments. A more pragmatic factor limiting the growth of evidence-based education and social services may be limitations on the funds available for research. F. Nevertheless, some 11,000 experimental studies are known in the social sciences (compared with over 250,000 in the medical literature). Randomized trials have been used to evaluate the effectiveness of driver-education programmes, job-training schemes, classroom size, psychological counseling for post traumatic stress disorder and increased investment in public housing. And where they are carried out, they seems to have a healthy dampening effect on otherwise rosy interpretations of the observations. G. The problem for policymakers is often not too few data, but what to make of multiple and conflicting studies. This is where a body called the Campbell Collaboration comes into its own. This independent non-profit organization is designed to evaluate existing studies, in a process known as a systematic review. This means attempting to identify every relevant trial of a given question (including studies that have never been published), choosing the best ones using clearly defined criteria for quality, and combining the results in a statistically valid way. An equivalent body, the Cochrane Collaboration, has produced more than 1,000 such reviews in medical fields. The hope is that rigorous review standard will allow Campbell, like Cochrane, to become a trusted and authoritative source of information. For questions 7-10, choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.

Fighting Crime Some criminals in England are agreeing to take part in a trial designed to help reduce their chances of (7)_________________. The idea is that while one group of randomly selected criminals undergoes the usual (8)_________________, the other group will discuss the possibility of making some 7

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repayment for the crime by meeting the (9)_________________. It is yet to be seen whether this system, known as (10) _________________, will work. Your answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10 Part 4. Read the passage and choose the best answers (A, B, C or D) to the questions. (10 points) Population ecology is the science that measures changes in population size and composition and identifies the causes of these fluctuations. Population ecology is not concerned solely with the human population. In ecological terms, a population consists of the individuals of one species that simultaneously occupy the same general area, rely on the same resources, and are affected by similar environmental factors. The characteristics of a population are shaped by its size and by the interactions among individuals and between individuals and their environment. Population size is a balance between factors that increase numbers and factors that decrease numbers. Some factors that increase populations are favourable light and temperature, adequate food supply, suitable habitat, ability to compete for resource, and ability to adapt to environmental change. Factors that decrease populations are insufficient or excessive light and temperature, inadequate food supply, unsuitable or destroyed habitat, too many competitors for resources, and inability to adapt to environmental change. Another important characteristic of any population is its density. Population density is the number of individuals per units, such as the number of maple trees per square kilometer in a county. Ecologists can rarely determine population size by actually counting all individuals within geographical boundaries. Instead, they often use a variety of sampling techniques to estimate densities and total population sizes. For example, they might estimate the number of black bears in a national park by counting individuals in a few sample plots representative of the whole park. In some cases, they estimate population size through indirect indicators, such as the number of nests or burrows, or signs such as tracks or droppings. Another important population characteristic, dispersion, is the pattern of spacious among individuals within the population’s geographical boundaries. Various species are distributed in their habitats in different ways to take better advantage of food supplies and shelter, and to avoid predators or find prey. Within a population’s range, densities may vary greatly because not all areas provide equally suitable habitat, and also because individuals space themselves in relation to other members of the population. Three possible patterns of dispersion are clumped, uniform, and random. A clumped dispersion pattern means that individuals are gathered in patches throughout their habitat. Clumping often results from the irregular distribution of resources needed for survival and reproduction. For example, fallen trees keep the forest floor moist, and many forest insects are clumped under logs where the humidity is to their liking. Clumping may also be associated with mating, safety, or other social behavior. Crane flies, for example, swarm in great numbers, a behavior that increases mating chances, and some fish swim in large schools so they are less likely to be eaten by predators. A uniform or evenly spaced distribution results from direct interactions among individuals in the population. For example, regular spacing of plants may result from shading and competitions for water. In animal populations, uniform distribution is usually caused by competition for some resource or by social interactions that set up individual territories for feeding, breeding, or testing. Random spacing occurs in the absence of strong attraction or repulsion among individuals in a population. Overall, random pattern are rare in nature, with most populations showing a tendency toward either clumped or uniform distribution. Populations change in size, structure, and distribution as they respond to changes in environmental conditions. Four main variables- births, deaths, immigration and emigration – determine the rate of change in the size of the population over time. A change in the birth rate or death is the major way that most populations respond to changes in resource availability. Members of some animal species can avoid or reduce the effects of another with more favorable environmental conditions, thus altering the population’s dispersion. 1.According to the passage, which factor might cause the population of a species to decrease in size? 8

A. A favorable amount of light and water B. An ability to hide from or defend against predators C. A large number of other species competing for food D. A greater number of births than deaths

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2. Which of the following is an indirect indicator of a population’s density? A. The distribution of food in a given area B. The number of nests in a given area C. The number of births in a given period of time D. The number of individuals counted in a given area 3. The distribution pattern of individuals within a population’s geographical boundaries is known as A. population ecology B. population density C. population change D. population dispersion 4. The word range in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to A. territory B. control C. history D. shelter 5. The word patches in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to A. dark places B. family groups C. warm spots D. small areas 6. The word their in paragraph 5 refers to A. resources B. trees C. insects D. logs 7. All of the following are given as reasons for clumping EXCEPT A. uneven resource distribution B. territorial disputes C. mating behavior D. safety from predators 8. The phrase set up in paragraph 6 is closest in meaning to A. forbid B. establish C. increase D. conceal 9. Which of the following situation s would be most likely to result in a uniform dispersion pattern? A. Birds compete for a place to build their nests B. Fish swim in large schools to avoid predators C. Whales develop strong bonds among relatives D. Elephants form a circle to protect their young 10. Why does the author mention immigration and emigration in paragraph 8? A. To identify factors affecting population dispersion B. To give examples of territorial behavior in animals C. To show that populations balance themselves over time D. To explain why animal populations are uniformly dispersed (Source: TOEFL reading) Your answers 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10 IV. WRITING (60 points)

Part 1: The chart below shows the main causes of land damage in four different areas in the world. Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make comparisons where relevant. Write at least 150 words. (20 points)

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Milli on hect ares

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Part 2. Read the following passage and use your own words to summarise it. Your summary should be about 100 words long. (10pts)

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The childhood years are supposed to be the best times of one's life; playing and having fun. Yet there are many children who are deprived of this childhood. They are tortured and verbally and physically abused. There is no reason or excuse for child abuse. Abusers claim they do it because of the stress of work. Child-abusing housewives way they feel harassed by a crying child and are unable to curb their own fury, especially if no support is received from anyone. This is not surprising since support is extended to a victim of child abuse more readily than to the perpetrator. Occasionally, parents may vent their frustrations on their child if they fight and quarrel with each other. In cases like there, it is the children who are the victims. In this modern age where both parents are usually holding jobs, children are left with babysitters and nurseries. Abuse by these carers may occur when there are too many children to be minded. The disappearance of the extended family system is partly to be blamed for these incidents. Crowded homes and financial problems can also lead to child abuse. When there are too many mouths to feed, parents feel the pressure and vent their anger on a child. Substance abuse is another factor which increases the incidents of child abuse. Under the influence of alcohol or drugs, a parent many not know what he or she may be doing. Or, rather, knows what he or she is doing but is not bothered at all. A drug addict many experience mood swings and is easily provoked by a crying baby. Thus we see and read horrifying reports of a child being savagely tortured and dumped elsewhere, like garbage. Psychologists believe that child abusers may have been victims of abuse themselves. Thus, in anger and hatred, they repeat the vicious cycle of abuse. Some have no love for the children they abuse. Some have been brought up to believe that children should be beaten in order to maintain control. These are troubled people who need help. A home is supposed to be a haven where a child ought to feel safe and secure. Unfortunately, more often than not, the home is also where a child is abused. Whatever the reasons for the abuse, something must be done to stop the cruelty and help these parents who simply cannot cope with parenting. Parents-to-be should be counseled and inculcated with parenting skills. The Child Protection Act which was passed in Parliament in 1991 does not effectively prevent child abuse. Stricter enforcement is necessary. Thus, it requires a commitment from each individual to help families with victims, and troubled parents, the perpetrators.

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teams, like football, while other people think that taking part in individual sports, like tennis or

swimming, is better. Discuss both views and give your own opinion. (30 points)

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…………HẾT…………… (Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu. Giám thị coi thi không được giải thích gì thêm)

Họ và tên thí sinh:...................................................SBD:...................................... 13

TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN CAO BẰNG

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM KỲ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI CÁC TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN KHU VỰC DUYÊN HẢI VÀ ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ LẦN THỨ XIV, NĂM HỌC 2017 – 2018

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(Hướng dẫn chấm thi gồm 08 trang) A. LISTENING (50 points): Question 1: 1. 94635550

2. University

3. March

4. Thursday

2. A

3. B

4. D

5. C

Question 3: 3.F

2.T

4.T

5.F

1.F

1. D

Question 2:

5. month

Question 4: You will hear a teacher giving her students advice for exams. 2. fruits and cereals

3. plenty of light

5. important things

6. the details

8. come up

9. regular breaks

1. make notes 4. feeling anxious

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7. these key points 10. keep hydrated

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II: LEXICO-GRAMMAR (40 points)

Part 1. Choose the option (A, B, C or D) that best completes each blank and write in the box provided ( 1 x 10 = 10 points) 1. C

2. B

3. D

4. C

5. C

6. D

7. B

8. D

9. D

10. D

Part 2. Read the text below and give the correct form of the word in CAPITALS. ( 1x 10 = 10 points)

1. . judgments

2. poetically

3. slyness

4. honesty

5. sensuality

6. involuntarily

7. loathing

8. characteristics

9. unknown

10. suspicion(s)

Part 3. There are TEN mistakes in this passage. Write them down & give the correction. Write your answers in the space provided. ( 1 x 10 = 10 points) Mistake come similarly rings off For turning newest handholds with reference to which is enlighten at had been doing

Correction came similar calls up To turn latest handholds in preference to is lighten from has been done

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Line 1 2 3 5 7 8 10 11 14 15

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

2. of

3. for

6. upon/on

7. over

8. down/ back

4. from

5. at

9. down

10. for

1. with

Part 4. Fill in each blank with a suitable preposition or adverbial particle. ( 1 x 10 = 10 points)

III: READING (440 points)

Part 1. Fill each of the blanks with ONE suitable word. (1 x 10 = 10 points)

3. case

6. this

7. whose

2. out

8. in/ through

4. seems

5. would

across/ 9. between

10. are

1. of

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Part 2 For each gap, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D which best fits the context. (1 x 10 = 10 points)

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1. B 6. D

2. B 7. B

3. C 8. B

4. A 9. D

5. A 10. B

Part 3. Read the following passage and answer the questions ( 1 x 10 = 20 points) 1.vii 6.iii

2.v 7. re-offending

3.ix 8. sentencing

4.i 9. victim

5.iv 10. restorative justice

Part 4. Read the passage and choose the best answers (A, B, C or D) to the questions. ( 1 x 10 = 20 points) 1.C 6.C

2.B 7.B

3.D 8.B

4.A 9.A

5.D 10.A 15

IV: WRITING (50 points) Part 1. (20 points) 1. Completion: 5 pts 2. Content: 5 pts - Cover the main information in the chart yet not go into too many details.

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- Make general remarks and effective comparisons. 3. Organisation: 4 pts - The ideas are well organized - The description is sensibly divided into paragraphs 4. Language: 3pts - Use a wide range of vocabulary and structure - Good grammar

5. Punctuation and spelling: 3 pt Part 2. (10 points)

1. Completion: 3 pts

2. Content: 2 pts

- Cover the main information in the chart yet not go into too many details. 3. Organisation: 2 pts - The ideas are well organized

- Make general remarks and effective comparisons.

- The description is sensibly divided into paragraphs

4. Language: 2pts

- Use a wide range of vocabulary and structure

- Good grammar

5. Punctuation and spelling: 1 pt

Part 3: (30 points) The mark given to part 3 is based on the following criteria:

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1. Content: (30% of total mark) a) Providing all main ideas and details as required b) Communicating intentions sufficiently and effectively 2. Organization & Presentation: (30% of total mark) a) Ideas are well organized and presented with coherence, cohesion, and clarity b) The essay is well-structured 3. Language: (30% of total mark) a) Demonstration of a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students b) Good use and control of grammatical structures 4. Punctuation, and spelling and handwriting (5% of total mark) a) Good punctuation and no spelling mistakes b) Legible handwriting

TAPESCRIPT QUESTION 1:

CLERK:

Good morning, ma’am, and welcome to “Australia’s Moving Experience”! How can I help you?

CLERK:

Well, I hope you can help me, I’m so up in the air right now…I, I…

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WOMAN:

Just calm down, now. Let me guess: you’re moving and it has you a little confused.

That’s it exactly. You see, I’m relocating to the United States next month and I’m having a hard time getting organized.

WOMAN:

Here, fill out your name and address, and let me ask you a few questions.

My name is Jane, Jane Bond.

CLERK:

questions about things.

OK, Jane, first of all, what’s your work phone number? In case I have any

WOMAN:

Oh, what should I call you?

CLERK:

My work phone is 94635550. But please try not to call me too often

there. My boss hates personal calls. WOMAN:

So does mine, ma’am, so does mine. And what address should we ship

My new company is letting me stay temporarily at 509 Clark House,

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CLERK:

your things to?

that’s C-L-A-R-K, 1137 University Drive in Seattle.

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WOMAN

：

CLERK:

Seattle? Beautiful city, I hear. Mountains right beside the ocean, almost. Cooler than Australia too. OK, and when should we come pack your things? I guess that would be on Monday, March 11th. Do you want any help with an after-packing clean-up? We do that for a small additional charge. Yes, that would be helpful. I promised the landlord I’d give her the keys 17

WOMAN:

back by 5:00 p.m. on Thursday, the 14th. Great, we’ll just schedule the clean-up for that day. That way, the place will smell clean and there’ll be no dust.

CLERK:

Well, you do think of everything! Oh, how much is this going？

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Here is a list of our basic prices.

WOMAN:

Oh dear, this seems rather expensive!

Yes ma’am, but you’re paying for the best. We’re careful and we’re fast.

CLERK:

Like we say, the only thing we break are speed records getting you

WOMAN:

moved.

CLERK:

Well…maybe that’s so…Oh, I nearly forgot to tell you. I don’t want my furniture shipped with me. I won’t be looking for an apartment till after I

CLERK:

arrive in America. Would it be possible to put my furniture in storage

WOMAN:

here for a month, then have it sent along later?

WOMAN:

Of course, we do that all the time. A couple of other things. Here at “A

Moving Experience”, we try to pack your things logically. We don’t just

throw stuff in boxes.

CLERK:

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QUESTION 2: STUDENT:

Hello…Are you Professor Van Diezen

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PROFESSOR: Yes, I am. And who might you be?

STUDENT:

PROFESSOR:

Oh! Sorry, my name is Tina. I’m a freshman here. They told me I should ask you for advice in choosing courses. Well, that’s part of what I’m here for. Please come in and sit down. Now, what are your questions? That sounds pretty strict. Then what are all these general courses? I

STUDENT: 18

seem to have to take so many. PROFESSOR: Nothing to be alarmed over. These are courses open to all students and not directly related to your major. The university offers these general courses to choose so that you can become more well-rounded

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individuals. For example, I see you’re a Microbiology major. So it might be a good idea to take some literature or history courses so that you can know something besides all science. STUDENT: PROFESSOR:

You mean these courses are, like, for fun?

That might be one way to look at it, but don’t tell the literature

professor such a thing. Think of a general course as the opposite of a specified course. A specified course is one that pertains directly to

So can I take any Microbiology course I want?

STUDENT:

your major.

PROFESSOR: Let’s see. Oh, those courses used to be open to Microbiology students

only. The good thing is, now it’s open to students on a flexible

schedule, so it’s not only for full-time students. So the answer is yes, Microbiology?

STUDENT:

if you have the instructor’s permission. May I ask you why you chose

Well, I also like plain old Biology too. You know, full-sized animals.

I might even become a veterinarian. Could I take some Biology classes?

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Well, they are open to full-time students only, which I believe is what

STUDENT: PROFESSOR:

you are. I don’t know how a freshman would get along with Microbiology, though. I mean, most of the students presently looking into it are from off-campus. Off campus? Yes, you know, people who use it in their work at hospitals,laboratories, even a police detective. Why did you choose

STUDENT:

Microbiology, if I may ask? I don’t think you quite answered that.

PROFESSOR: Well eventually I want to be a doctor. At least my dad tells me so. If I may say so, young lady, you seem a little uncertain. Still,I think that might be a good idea for a career. Of course, if you’re thinking

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about being either a doctor or a vet, you should take some Medical Science classes before you even think of applying to med school. STUDENT: PROFESSOR:

Great! What should I take?

There is one small problem. The new Medical Sciences building is under construction, so there are no experimental facilities available

those courses at the first opportunity!

until next year. I’m afraid you’ll have to wait. But don’t forget to take

Well, since you seem to like animals, have you ever thought about

PROFESSOR:

like me?

STUDENT:

Oh, bummer. Is there any other course you’d recommend for someone

looking into Environmental Science?

No, I never really thought about it before. Is it worthwhile?

STUDENT:

QUESTION 3:

PROFESSOR: Quite! In fact it’s the fastest growing subject on this campus.

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BBC NEWS _ Apple-FBI iPhone argument getting bigger There is a big argument in the USA between the technology company Apple and the FBI. The argument is over the iPhone of a killer. In December 2015, 14 people were killed and

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22 were seriously injured in a terrorist attack in San Bernardino, California. The FBI has the iPhone of one of the terrorists Syed Rizwan Farook. Investigators want Apple to

unlock the phone so they can get to information about Farook. They think the information can help them to catch more terrorists. Apple has told the FBI that they will not open the iPhone. Apple's website said that would threaten the security of its customers. Apple also said it would be dangerous because other organizations would want phones opened.

The Department of Justice (DOJ) is also very angry that Apple will not open the iPhone. It said Apple, "deliberately raised technological barriers" to stop a lawful request from the FBI to help in the "terrorist mass murder of 14 Americans". The DOJ added that: "Apple alone can remove those barriers so that the FBI can search the phone." Apple bosses said the DOJ was giving Apple a bad name. They said the DOJ wanted the public to think that

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Apple was an evil company for not opening the iPhone. It said: "It seems like disagreeing with the Department of Justice means you must be evil and anti-American." The DOJ said it wants just one iPhone unlocked and that would not invade anyone's privacy QUESTION 4:

Advice for Exams

Morning! Everyone. Quiet, please. Right, OK! So today, I’m going to give you

some advice to help you prepare for the exams next week. So make notes as I’m talking.

Are you ready?

While you are studying, eat food that gives you energy. Don’t be tempted to eat

sweets or drink cola. Sugar won’t help you study but fruit and cereals will. Apples are especially

good.

Find a comfortable place with plenty of light when you study. But not ‘too’ comfortable or

you’ll fall asleep!

Try and keep a positive mind. It is easier to study when you are positive and

relaxed. If you start feeling anxious, have a break. Go out for a stroll around the block.

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Don’t try to learn everything. There isn’t time. Choose the ‘important’ things, the things that will get you most points in an exam. If you aren’t sure about this, ask me.

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First learn the main ideas and don’t worry too much about the details. If you have

time, you can come back later and read the details. Make notes of these key points and read them, then cover them up and try to

remember all the points. It might be boring, but repetition helps you to remember. Use past exam papers to study. They will help you understand what kind of questions come up. There are plenty of past exam papers in the library. You can photocopy them and take them home. 21

Take regular breaks while you are studying. A five-minute break every half hour is usually enough. Get some fresh air and stretch your arms and legs. Drink a glass of water too.

It’s

important

keep

hydrated.

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And, last but not least, good luck! I’m sure you will all do your best.

GV ra đề: Lưu Thị Thuý Ngà

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ĐỀ THI OLYMPIC MÔN TIẾNG ANH LỚP 11 Ngày thi: ….. tháng …… năm 2018 Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)

TRẠI HÈ HÙNG VƯƠNG LẦN THỨ IX THPT CHUYÊN LÊ QUÝ ĐÔN ĐIỆN BIÊN

(Đề thi có 14 trang)

Tổng điểm bài thi

Giám khảo 1 (kí, ghi rõ họ tên)

Bằng chữ

Giám khảo 2 (kí, ghi rõ họ tên)

Số phách (Do chủ tịch HĐ chấm thi ghi)

Bằng số

Giám khảo

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ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT

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CHÚ Ý: THÍ SINH VIẾT CÂU TRẢ LỜI VÀO BẢNG CHO SẴN TRONG ĐỀ _________________________________________________________________ A. LISTENING (50 points) Part 1. Question 1-10. Complete the note below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer. You will listen TWICE. (20 points) Why is yawning contagious? There are three (1) ___________________________ under research: two (2) _____________________ and one psychological. The first suggests that yawning is triggered by a (3) ___________________________: an initial yawn, and it is called (4) _____________________ pattern. It is similar to a (5) ___________________effect. The second is known as the (6) ___________________________ effect. It states that people imitate each other’s behavior without knowing it. This behavior might be possible due to (7) ___________________________ which are also important for learning. The third one is called the (8) ___________________________ Scientists set up an experiment to prove that (9) ___________________________ would yawn at the sound of yawning and they also discovered that we yawn more frequently at the yawns of (10) ___________________________ rather than strangers. Your answers: 2.

10.

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Part 2. Question 1-10. You will hear part of a lecture about Philosophy and answer the following questions. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. (10 points) 1. What did Scocrates devote his life to trying to find? …………………………………………………………………………… 2. What two things was Scocrates known for moderation in? ……………………………………………………………………………

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3. On account of whar did Scocrates’ enemies mistrust him? …………………………………………………………………………… 4. Who was Scocrates accused of corrupting, at his trial? …………………………………………………………………………… 5. What did Scocrates claim he wanted to provide people with a clearer knowledge of? …………………………………………………………………………… Your answers: 2.

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Part 3. You will hear an interview on a train with two friends, Jane and Chris, chefs who both won

prizes in the National Railway Chef of the Year competition. Choose the answer (A, B, C or D) that fits best according to what you hear. (10 points) 1. What was Chris's attitude to the competition?

A. He was worried about the quality of his dishes. B. He was afraid time might be a bit of a problem. C. He admitted he'd been looking forward to the challenge. D. He said conditions were similar to his normal routine. 2. Jane admitted that the greatest problem she faced during the competition was having to………… A. work in a very small space. B. be original when travelling at speed. C. prepare a meal so quickly. D. create a meal with so little money. 3. What do both Chris and Jane feel is unique about their job? A. the close contact with the customers. B. the necessity to do everything at the same time. C. the opportunity to be creative. D. the need to be focused on the job. 4. What do Chris and Jane feel about what they cook on board the train? A They approve of the menus created for them. B They consider themselves more adventurous than other chefs. C They would like to have more freedom of choice.

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D They are happy to adapt their ideas to suit the job. 5. Chris thought being a railway chef would suit him mainly because it would enable him to………………….. B. use the skills he had been trained for.

C. do something out of the ordinary. Your answers:

D. satisfy his love of travelling

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A. show his ability to work under pressure.

Part 4. You will hear an interview with a woman called Patricia Jones. Listen carefully and decide the following statements are TRUE, FALSE or NOT GIVEN according to what you hear. (10 points) 1. Looking back at her work, Patricia feels proud of the wide influence she’s had. 2. Nowadays, Patricia spends her time persuading people to alter their behaviour. 3. In her books, Patricia hopes to give encouragement to young environmentalists. Page 2 of 14

4. Patricia believes that children should spend time in the nature world because it is a chance to change their view of animals. 5. The organization called In Touch encourages young people to actively work for change. Your answers: 1.

B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (40 points)

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Part 1: Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to complete each sentence below. Write your answers in the answer box. (20 points) 1. The company is famous for making sturdy work clothes that can............hard wears. A. stand up for B. stand up to C. stand in for D. stand up against 2. The ceiling fans were on, but unfortunately they only …………. the hot, humid air. A. stirred up B. poured through C. turned into D. cut back

A. rock

3. He lost his job ................ no fault of his own. A. with B. by C. through D. over 4. When Helen agreed to run the school play, she got more than she ....................... A. came down to B. bargained for C. faced up to D. got round to 5. Can you ...................... to it that no one uses this entrance A. ensure B. guarantee C. assure D. see 6. We had to get a bank loan when the money finally ...................... . A. gave in B. gave off C. gave over D. gave out 7. Giving up smoking is just one of the ways to ..................... heart disease. A. push off B. put off C. ward off D. throw off 8. I was proud to be ....................... out for special praise for my performance. A. selected B. singled C. separated D. distinguished 9. The President accused his critics of being oversensitive and of __________. A. playing it by ear B. cutting to the chase C. making a mountain out of a molehill D. splitting hairs 10. My secretary left me in the _________ last month and I haven’t found a replacement yet. B. lurch

C. face

D. fire

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11. Eric had intended to make his announcement in an article in the Times but the paper ________by advertising the article a week before publishing. A. gave the game away B. covered the tracks C. blew the whistle D. led the garden path

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12. Ann’s encouraging words gave me ____ to undertake the demanding task once again.

A. a point B. an incentive C. a resolution D. a target 13. We are going to build a fence around the field with ____ to breeding sheep and cattle A. a goal B. an outlook C. a reason D. a view 14. Having made his first film earlier this year, he is ____starring in a new musical. A. actually B. currently C. lately D. recently 15. Ever since we quarreled in the office, Janice and I have been _____ enemies. A. assured B. confirmed C. defined D. guaranteed 16. He seemed very quiet, but it would be a mistake to ______ his intelligence. Page 3 of 14

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A. devalue B. depreciate C. underrate D. minimize 17. Paul’s been in Alice’s bad _____ ever since he offended her at the party. A. eyes B. books C. likes D. treats 18. I was sitting in a train looking out of the window when my mind suddenly ____back to that amazing trip we made to India. A. put B. flashed C. stirred D. associated 19. The professor’s ____theory is that singing preceded speech. A. fancied B. fond C. pet D. preferable 20. Social work suits her ____to the ground. A. for B. down C. out D. round Your answer 1.

10.

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Part 2. Complete the following text with the correct forms of the words given in the brackets. (10 points) COPING SKILLS FOR HAPPIER COUPLES Psychologists agree that conflicts are inevitable in almost any long-term (1) __________ (RELATE); however, what matters most is the way in which they are resolved rather than the sources of the (2) ___________ (AGREE) themselves. According to recent studies, the methods that couples use to settle their differences are crucial to the success of the outcome. One of the interesting findings is that although (3)___________(EXCESS) aggressive behavior patterns are obviously (4)___________ (DESIRE), what must be avoided at all costs is the (5)___________(SUPPRESS) of anger, as feelings of resentment can lead a relationship to break down (6)___________(RETRIEVE). It is essential for couples to communicate when things start going wrong, and successful conflict (7)___________ (RESOLVE) involves a three stage process. Firstly, one partner should explain precisely what the problem is and should try and remain as calm and (8)___________ (EMOTION) as possible.

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Secondly, the couple should discuss the specific problem in detail, taking care not to rake up old grievances. Finally, and perhaps most (9)___________ (IMPORTANCE), there should be negotiation until a (10)___________ (SATISFY) agreement is reached. This may not mean that their problem will be solved, but even this is preferable to allowing a problem to rankle. Your answers:

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Part 3. Identify 10 errors in the following passage and correct them. (10 points) Line 1 A recent discovery has led scientists to revise their ideas about the ancestors of early 2 3

humans. It seems they started to make use of stone tools nearly one million years earlier as had previously thought. Archaeologists revised the date after spotting distinctive marks made by stone

tools on animal bones dated back nearly three and a half million years. The remnants, including a Page 4 of 14

Mistakes

Line

Correction

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rib from a cow-like creature and a thigh bone from an animal similar in size of a goat, were recovered from an old river bed which was being excavated in Europe. The use of simple stone tools to remove meat from bones represents a crucial moment in human history. As a result of turning to meat for sustenance, the early human developed larger brains, which in part enabled them to make more sophisticated tools. The bones unearthed in Ethiopia might well represent the very beginning of that procedure. What scientists are still hoping to discover is whether the stone tools were manufactured specifically to meet a need or whether they are natural forces that by chance had the correct shapes and the necessary sharp edges. Any way, it seems that the early humans carried the tools around with them rather than to rely on being able to find suitable one when the need rose. Your answers Line

Mistakes

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Correction

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C. READING (50 points) Part 1. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap. (10 points)

It only (1) _____ the completion of the reconstruction of the human genetic map for a whole host of hereditary diseases to be (2) _____. Originally, it was forecast that the venture would take until the beginning of the 21st century to be accomplished. At present, it is clear that the task can be finished much earlier. Hundreds of scholars have gone to extremes to help (3) _____ the mystery of the human genetic

structure with an ardent hope for (4) _____ mankind from disorders such as cancer, cystic fibrosis or

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arthritis. The progress in this incredible undertaking is (5) _____ by an accurate interpretation of the information involved in the chromosomes forming the trillions of the cells in the human body. Locating and characterizing every single gene may (6) _____ an implausible assignment, but very considerable (7) _____ has already been made. What we know by now is that the hereditary code is assembled in DNA, some parts of which may be diseased and (8) _____ to the uncontrollable transmission of the damaged code from parents to their children.

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Whereas work at the completion of the human genome may last for a few years more, notions like

gene therapy or genetic engineering don't evoke much surprise any longer. Their potential application has already been (9) _____ in the effective struggle against many viruses or in the genetic treatment of blood disorders. The hopes are, then, that hundreds of maladies that humanity is (10) ______ with at present might eventually cease to exist in the not too distant future. 1. A. expects B. anticipates C. requires 2. A. eradicated B. interfered C. terminated

D. remains D. disrupted

A. dissolve

B. interrogate

C. respond

D. unravel

A. liberating

B. insulating

C. surviving

D. averting

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5. 6.

A. dependent A. perceive

B. reliant B. hear

C. qualified C. voice

D. conditioned D. sound

7. 8.

A. headline A. amiable

B. headway B. conceivable

C. heading C. conducive

D. headship D. evocative

B. inquired B. plagued

C. corroborated C. persecuted

D. accounted D. teased

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9. A. examined 10. A. aggravated Your answers:

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Part 2: Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word in

each space. Write your answers in the answer box below. (10 points) A new online service is now available, which should reassure any parents concerned about their children watching too much TV or those who believe that the Internet represents a (1)…………. to

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Your answers:

children’s safety. Some TV shows, (2)…………. soap operas, are known to be (3)…………. with young people. Having watched certain of these, the viewers are then (4)…………. to a website (5)…………. they can get information on issues raised on screen such as drugs, eating disorders or unwanted pregnancies. Internet sites (6)…………. by TV channels are important because it would be irresponsible for the channel to (7)…………. serious health issues without providing a means of finding further information and advice. Soap operas touch people and make them think, and such sites offer a safe place for teenagers to ask questions without the (8)…………. of being ignorant. Knowing that young people (9)…………. on their peers for advice, rather than their parents or doctors, sites are careful not to be judgmental or to tell people what to do. A site offering quality information and a chance for young people to chat about their problems whenever they feel the need is more likely to attract the (10)…………. of those who need it than more traditional sources of advice.

Part 3. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. (10 points) THE SOUND OF MUSIC

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Geoff Brown wonders whether film music can ever be regarded as art. No one can claim such mastery of the fantasy blockbuster sound as British film music composer

John Williams. It's a style of music he did much to define in Star Wars and then for many other films for the director Steven Spielberg. There are distinctive melodies which give the feeling of flying, snatches of music to represent different characters, and intricate illustrative details. In addition, everything follows the symphonic style of a hundred years ago. It's what the film industry in Hollywood wants, it's what John Williams supplies, and what audiences everywhere expect. Can we call it art, or is it simply an interesting artefact, a sort of factory product? For the cinemagoer sitting with a popcorn bag the question doesn't arise. But since film music now spreads to a different Page 6 of 14

audience far outside cinemas, on lavishly promoted soundtrack CDs and serious concert platforms, it may be interesting to answer the question. Composers themselves have expressed very diverse opinions. Interviewed some years ago, Williams himself proudly referred to film music as 'the opera of the 20th century'. On the other hand, Richard Rodney Bennett, the composer of the music for the film Murder on the Orient Express, declared that 'in writing film music one is really using only a sixth of one's musical mind'. Everyone agrees on one point though: the rewards are pleasingly high. There are royalties. And if you hit the right buttons you can

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spin off into the lucrative sideline of a concert career, regularly mounting live performances of film compositions. But if you consider the working conditions that composers put up with, superficially the odds do seem stacked against film music being classed as art. First of all, film music is composed in snippets, timed to the second, and written after the film is shot. Then there are insane deadlines - like having five days to compose 50 minutes of music. Next, the composer has to live with the fact that he/she wields no

artistic control. Finally, the ultimate insult is that what is written struggles to get itself noticed against a background of dialogue, squeals, and every possible visual delight from cartoon character Shrek's green body to actor Tom Cruise's chin. It can't be art, can it? But think of the German composer Bach in the eighteenth century, satisfying his employers by writing one cantata a week. Few composers can write without a commission. And for the true artist, rules and restrictions stimulate. Film scoring can sharpen a composer's technique, encourage experimentation.

The composer Vaughan Williams was never quite the same again after his work on the film Scott of the Antarctic caused him to branch into percussion instruments as a way of capturing a frozen landscape. Film music can be art then, and has been, in fits and starts. The frustrating thing is that many film producers have limited expectations of what film music can be. Once the age of silent movies was over and talkies arrived, music became an integral part of the projected film and anything was possible. Music didn't

have to be poured over the images like mayonnaise; it could argue with them, puncture them with irony, or rudely interrupt. In Europe, various composers such as Shostakovich and Hanns Eisler experimented with

timbre and form, showing Hollywood (at the time still stuck with the sounds of a late nineteenth-century symphony orchestra beavering away) that innovative techniques were possible. But even in Hollywood, art raised its head. All film composers look up to Bernard Herrmann, a giant who colored each score with a different sound and let his music snake through the images in

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unconventional ways. The power of the film Vertigo lies not only in the director's images but in Herrmann's worried woodwind and turbulent strings and the weird harp solos that dog the characters' footsteps. His scores are usually so interwoven with their films that it's a futile task trying to carve the

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music into selections for concert use. Herrmann proves that it's even possible to write film scores in bulk

without hurtling into an artistic decline. So, what's my conclusion? Art or factory product? Both in fact, although there's rather more of the factory product than I would like at times. 1. What point is the writer making about John Williams' music in the first paragraph? A. It is similar to that produced by other composers. В. It is too old-fashioned to remain popular for long. С. It has a better reputation in Hollywood than elsewhere. D. It has certain characteristics that are easy to identify. Page 7 of 14

2. In the second paragraph, what does the writer imply about the attitude of cinema-goers to film music? A. They are only interested in it if they can purchase the CD. В. They perceive it as being mass-produced. С. They are not concerned about whether it has artistic merit. D. They feel music is an important part of the cinema experience. 3. According to the writer, which view of film music do all composers share? A. They consider that it is a worthy outlet for their talents.

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В. They appreciate the financial gains they make from it. С. They need it to supplement their main source of income. D. They can use it as a way into an alternative career. 4. According to the writer, what is the worst aspect of a film composer's working conditions? A. The music has to be composed after the film is completed. В. The deadlines set for the composer cannot be achieved.

С. The music has to compete for attention with other elements of the film. D. The composer has no control over how the music is used. 5. The writer compares modern film composers with Bach to show that A. some composers work better under pressure. В. composers have unreasonable demands imposed on them. С. composers must aim to please their employers.

D. all composers need some sort of sponsorship. 6. What point is made about Hollywood film music when the 'talkies' arrived? A. It used less well-known symphony orchestras than before. В. It did not constitute a major part of the final production. С. It didn't generally make use of new ideas.

D. It was not considered to make an artistic contribution to the film. 7. What does the writer say is special about Bernard Herrmann's music?

A. It is of high quality because he composed very little. В. It has a distinctive style which evokes the animal world. С. It is totally integrated with the visual element of the film. D. It has considerable potential for concert performance.

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8. The word “intricate” is closest in meaning to ________. A. elaborate B. perplexing C. myriad D. diverse 9. What does the writer mean when saying “…superficially the odds do seem stacked against film music

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being classed as art”? A. Film music is not at all to everyone’s taste. B. People who opine that film music is not truly a form of art should have a rethink. C. Film music is condemned for its superficiality. D. On the surface, film music does not seem like a form of art.

10. The word “puncture” is closest in meaning to _______. A. discredit

B. disparage

C. eliminate

D. upgrade

Your answers: 1.

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Part 4: Reading passage 4 has seven paragraphs A-G. For questions 1-5, choose the correct headings for paragraphs A-F from the list of headings below. Write the correct numbers, I-VIII, next to Questions 1-5. (20 points) List of Headings How the problem of land scarcity has been overcome in the past Various predictions about future solutions to a lack of space The effects of population growth on land availability

iv v vi

The importance of the new British Library An expanding population A description of a mega-city

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i ii iii

_________ _________ _________ _________ _________

Paragraph A Paragraph B Paragraph C Paragraph D Paragraph E

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

vii A film belief that human habitation of outer space will occur viii The importance of having an international space station

SPACE

Is humanity running out of space or we will find new frontiers?

As populations grow, people have to look for more innovative ways to provide space.

A The world has changed dramatically since Thomas Malthus’s work An Essay on the Principle of Population, first published in 1798, argued that by the mid1800s the unrestricted expansion of the human population would outgrow the agricultural land available to supply humanity with food. Over 150 years have passed since this theoretical milestone, but mankind, admittedly somewhat more cramped, is still expanding and will continue to do so.

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B The impact of unfettered population growth is clear for all to see. Urbanization is now a more evident worldwide phenomenon than previously as even greater numbers of people drift from rural areas to vast cities all over the world like Tokyo, Mexico City and Mumbai (26.4 million, 18.4 million and 18.1 million inhabitants in 2000 respectively) in their quest for a better life. These mega-cities, i.e.

conurbations with an estimated population of more than 10 million people, are springing up in every continent. Now teeming with humanity, they are hungry for one increasingly valuable resource: land. While developments in agricultural technology ensure humanity may be able, by and large, to feed the people flocking to these great metropolises, the expansion of the human race is fuelling an unprecedented appetite for real estate. Space, whether it be for personal or public use, corporate or national, human or flora/ fauna, is now at a premium as we move into a new century. Not only is more land required for accommodation, but also for a wide range of infrastructure facilities. Transport systems including roads within and between cities need to be constructed or upgraded to create motorways; green fields are turned Page 9 of 14

into airports; virgin forest is stripped to provide food and firework. In poorer regions, this newly exposed land becomes desert, completing the cycle of destruction.

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C Hitherto, the most common practice for the utilization of expensive space for living and working has been to build upwards; hence, the demand for ever higher buildings, both apartment and commercial, in major cities like New York, Shanghai and Singapore all vying with each other for the tallest buildings. There has also been a tradition for building underground, not just for transport systems, but for the storage of waste, depositories for books etc. as in London, where The British Library housing millions of books has been built largely underground. Recent years have seen more novel construction developments around the world. In the past, in many countries, Holland and the UK included, marshes and flood plains have been reclaimed from the sea. Like the city of Venice in Italy, housing complexes and even airports have now been constructed off-shore to amazing effect. In Japan, Kansai International Airport has been built off-shore on a man-made island at

vast expense and in Dubai a very imaginative and expensive housing complex in the shape of a palm tree is being built just off the coast on land created by a construction company. However, these and other developments are at risk from rising sea levels as a consequence of global warming.

D But where will the human race go when planet earth is full? There have been many theories put forward about the human population moving to outer space. Marshall Savage ( 1992, 1994), for example, has projected that the human population will reach five quintillion throughout the solar system by the year 3000, with the majority living in the asteroid belt. Arthur C Clarke, a fervent supporter of Savage, now argues that by the year 2057 there will be humans on the Moon, Mars, Europa, Ganymede, Titan and in orbit around Venus, Neptune and Pluto. Feeman Dyson (1999) favours the Kuiper belt as the future home of humanity, suggesting this could happen within a few centuries.

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E Habitation in outer space in huge station is no longer just a dream, but a reality. A permanent international space station now orbits the earth. The first commercial tourist recently went into outer space with more trips planned for the near future. This is only a beginning, but the development of space hotels is not far-off. There is no knowing where mankind may end up. But the ideas about off-world habitation are not fanciful and I am sure I am not alone in fantasizing about summer holidays spent watching the moons rising in some far-flung planet or on a floating hotel somewhere on the Adromeda

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nebula. Questions 6 - 10 Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 4? Write YES If the statement reflects the claims of the write NO NOT GIVEN

If the statement contradicts the claims of the writer If it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this

6. The destruction of land for food and firewood is linked to desertification. 7. Shortage of space has also led to underground building construction. 8. The building of the airport in Japan cost much more than that of the housing complex in Dubai. 9. Arthur C Clarke was the only person to predict that mankind will inhabit other parts of the solar system. Page 10 of 14

10. The concept of the habitation of outer space by mankind is unimaginable. Your answer 1.

10.

D. WRITING (60 pts)

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Part 1. Summarizing an extract (10 points) Read the following text and summarize it in your own words. Your summary should be at least 130 words long. You MUST NOT copy the original.

Being overweight makes many of us unhappy. There may be many reasons for our weight problem. Weight problems often run in the family. It could be a case of us overeating to make ourselves feel better when we are sad, stressed or lonely. The issue of weight loss is a tricky one. A lot of people are unhappy

with their present weight, but most are not sure how to change it. You may want to look like the models or actors in magazines and on television but those goals might not be healthy or realistic for you. Weight management is about long-term success. People who lose weight quickly by crash dieting or other extreme measures usually gain back all, if not more, of the pounds they lost because they have not permanently changed their habits. Therefore, the best weight management strategies are those that you can maintain for a lifetime. This means that if you want to lose weight and keep it off, you have to change much more than just what you eat. You have to change how and when you eat. Equally important, you have to start exercising or exercise more often. Most people who lose weight and keep it off should do three things. First, they find out why they are overweight. Second, they follow a healthy eating plan. Third, they exercise regularly. A new diet may help you lose weight for a little while. However, the weight often comes back unless you find new ways to deal with the problems that are leading to your weight gain. This may mean learning new ways to handle stress, finding ways to feel less lonely or talking with a counselor about your feelings. You should follow a healthy diet that you like and that you can follow. The diet should be low in fats and sugar but high in fiber. Your doctor or a nutritionist can give you advice on what kinds of food are healthy choices. Remember to watch portion sizes. A healthy portion of meat is the size of a deck of

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cards. A healthy portion of rice or pasta is about the size of your fist. Read the nutrition labels on food before you buy it. If you need help understanding the labels, ask your doctor or a nutritionist to explain them. Most diets are designed to make you lose a great deal of weight in the beginning. This is to

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encourage you. In actual fact, what you lose is mostly water and muscle. The water comes right back when you eat salty or processed food again. Losing weight is an uphill task and also takes time. So try not to get discouraged. Your effort will be worth it. The key is to keep trying to eat the right food. The following are a few suggestions to help you change your diet. Make small, slow changes. Then, it will be easier to make the changes a part of your everyday life. For every few days, write down what you eat and drink that day. Use this record to help you see if you need to eat more from any food group such as fruits, vegetables or low-fat dairy products.

If you have a medical problem that requires a special diet, make sure you ask for help from your family doctor or a nutritionist. It is not advisable to do it on your own. Page 11 of 14

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Part 2. Describing graph(s) (20 points) The graph below gives information about the preferred leisure activities of Australian children. Write a report for a university lecturer describing the information shown. You should write at least 150 words.

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Part 3. Essay writing (30 points) Many people today find it difficult to balance the demands of their work and personal life. What are the causes of this situation, and what can individuals and employers do to reduce the problem? Write at least 250 words. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

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ĐỀ THI OLYMPIC MÔN TIẾNG ANH LỚP 11 Ngày thi: ….. tháng …… năm 2018 Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)

TRẠI HÈ HÙNG VƯƠNG LẦN THỨ IX THPT CHUYÊN LÊ QUÝ ĐÔN ĐIỆN BIÊN

(HDC có 11 trang)

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ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT ANSWER KEY

A. LISTENING (50 points) Part 1. Question 1-10. Complete the note below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer. You will listen TWICE. (20 points) 6. chameleon

2. physiological

7. mirror neurons

3. (specific) stimulus

8. empathy yawn

4. fixed action

9. dogs

5. reflex

10. friends

1. hypotheses

Part 2. Question 1-10. You will hear part of a lecture about Philosophy and answer the following questions. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. (10 points) 2. eating and drinking 5. the truth

3. his unorthodox views

1. goodness and truth 4. the young

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Part 3. You will hear an interview on a train with two friends, Jane and Chris, chefs who both won prizes in the National Railway Chef of the Year competition. Choose the answer (A, B, C or D) that fits best according to what you hear. (10 points) 1. D

2. B

3. A

4. C

5. D

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Part 4. You will hear an interview with a woman called Patricia Jones. Listen carefully and decide the following statements are TRUE, FALSE or NOT GIVEN according to what you hear. (10 points)

1. T

2. T

3. F

4. NG

5. T

B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (40 points) Part 1: Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to complete each sentence below. Write your answers in the answer box. (20 points) 1. B

2. A

3. C

4. B

5. D

6. D

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7. C

8. B

9. C

10. B

11. A

12. B

13. D

14. B

15. B

16. C

17. B

18. B

19. C

20. B

Part 2. Complete the following text with the correct forms of the words given in the brackets. (10 pts) 1. relationship(s) 2. disagreements 3. excessively 4. undesirable 5. suppression 6. irretrievably 7. resolution 8. unemotional 9. importantly 10. satisfactory

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Part 3. Identify 10 errors in the following passage and correct them. (10 pts) Line Mistakes Correction Line Mistakes 2 1. as than 10 6. procedure 4 2. dated dating 12 7. correct 4 3. remnants remains 13 8. Any 5 4. of to 14 9. to rely 9 5. part turn 14 10. rose

Correction process right Either relying arose

2. A

3. D

4. B

5. D

6. D

7. B

8. C

9. C

10. B

1. C

C. READING (50 points) Part 1. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap. (10 pts)

2. including 7. raise

3. popular 8. risk

1. threat 6. run

Part 2: Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word in each space. Write your answers in the answer box below. (10 points) 4. referred 9. rely

5. where 10. attention

Part 3. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. (10 pts) 2. C

3. B

4. C

1. D

5. A

6. C

7. C

8. A

9. D

10. B

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1. v 6. YES

2. iii 7. YES

3. i 8. NOT GIVEN

4. ii 9. NO

5. vii 10. NO

D. WRITING (60 pts) Part 1. Summarizing an extract (10 pts) Read the following text and summarize it in your own words. Your summary should be at least 130 words long. You MUST NOT copy the original. Based on the passage given, write a summary on: • ways of managing weight • healthy diets to follow Your summary must: Page 2 of 8

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• be in continuous writing (not in note form) • not be longer than 130 words, Suggested summary: Losing weight should be about long-term success. Those who lose weight quickly by crash dieting usually gain back all, if not more, of the weight they lost because they have not permanently changed their habits. The best weight management strategies can be maintained for a lifetime. This means changing how and when you eat. You also nneed eed to start exercising. Doing these three things will help find out why you are overweight, follow a healthy eating plan and exercise regularly. Find new ways to deal with weight gain by learning new ways to handle stress and talking with a counselor if you need to. Follow a healthy diet that is low in fat and sugar but high in fiber. Losing weight is not easy but the effort is worth it. (130 words)

Part 2. Describing graph(s) (20 points) The graph below gives information about the preferred leisure activities activities of Australian children. Write a report for a university lecturer describing the information shown. You should write at least 150 words.

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Part 3. Essay writing (30 points) Many people today find it difficult to balance the demands of their work and personal life. What are the causes of this situation, and what can individuals and employers do to reduce the problem? Write at least 250 words TAPE SCRIPTS A. LISTENING (50 points) Part 1. Question 1-10. Complete the note below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer. You will listen TWICE. (20 points) Tape scripts Oh, excuse me! Have you ever yawned because somebody else yawned? You aren’t especially tired, yet suddenly your mouth opens wide and a big yawn comes out. This phenomenal is known as contagious yawning and while scientists still don’t fully understand why it happens, there are many hypothesis currently being researched. Let’s take a look at a few of the most prevalent ones, beginning with two physiological hypotheses before moving to a psychological one.

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Our first physiological hypothesis states that contagious yawning is triggered by a specific stimulus, an initial yawn. This is called fixed action pattern. Think of fixed action pattern like a reflex, your yawn makes me yawn, similar to a domino effect, one person’s yawn triggers a yawn in a person nearby that has observed the act. Once this reflex is triggered it must run its course. Have you ever tried to stop the yawn once it has begun? Basically impossible! Another physiological hypothesis is known as non-conscious mimicry or the chameleon effect. This occurs when you imitate someone’s behavior without knowing it, a subtle and unintentional copycat maneuver. People tend to mimic each other’s postures: if you are seated across from someone that has their legs crossed, you might cross your own legs. This hypothesis suggests that we yawn when we see someone else yawn because we are unconsciously copying his or her behavior. Scientists believe that this chameleon effect is possible because of a special set of neurons known as mirror neurons. Mirror neurons are a type of brain cell that responds equally when we perform an action as when we see someone else perform the same action. These neurons are important for learning and self-awareness. For example, watching someone do something physical like knitting or putting on lipstick can help you do those same action more accurately. Neuro imaging studies using FmRI, functional magnetic resonance imaging, shows that when we see someone yawn or even hear their yawn a specific area of the brain housing these mirror neurons tends to light up which in turn causes us to respond with the same action. A yawn! Our psychological hypothesis also involves the work of these mirror neurons? We will call it the empathy yawn. Empathy is the ability to understand what someone else is feeling and partake in their emotion, a crucial ability for social animals like us. Recently neuroscientists have found that a subset of mirror neurons allows us to empathize with others’ feelings at a deeper level. Scientists discovered that this emphatic response to yawning while testing the first hypothesis we mentioned, fixed action pattern. The study was set up to show that dogs will enact a yawn reflex at the mere sound of a human yawn. While the study showed this was true, they found something else interesting. Dogs yawn more frequently at familiar yawns such as from their owners than at unfamiliar yawns from strangers. Following this research, other studies on humans and primates have also shown that contagious yawning occurs more frequently among friends than strangers. In fact, contagious yawning starts occurring when we are about four or five years old, at the point when children develop their ability to identify others’ emotions properly. Still, while neuroscientific studies aim to prove that contagious yawning is based on this capacity for empathy, more research is needed to shed light on what exactly is going on. It’s possible that the answer lies in another hypothesis all together. The next time you get caught in a yawn, take a second to think about what’s just happened: Were you thinking about a yawn? Did someone near you yawn? Was that personal a stranger or someone close? And are you yawning right know?

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Part 2. Question 1-10. You will hear part of a lecture about Philosophy and answer the following questions. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. (10 points)

Tape scripts Most of you, I hope, will be familiar with the name Socrates; the Ancient Greek philosopher is perhaps one of the most admired people in history. Socrates led a very noble life. He was, I suppose you could say, an optimist, who believed in the good of mankind. According to Socrates, human nature leads people to act correctly and in agreement with knowledge. Socrates believed that evil and wrong actions arise out of ignorance and is famously Page 4 of 8

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quoted as saying “no man knowingly does evil”. True to his personal beliefs, Socrates devoted his own life to seeking goodness and truth. Born in Athens, where he lived all his life, Socrates always dressed simply and was known for moderation in both eating and drinking. He bought his teaching to the masses, speaking regularly in public places such as the busy streets of Athens, especially in the area around its great marketplace. He had little regard for public opinion, and always conducted himself in accordance with his own set of rules. Socrates built up a reasonably large following of Athenians looking to learn from his seemingly endless wisdom, but he also had a good many enemies who mistrusted him on account of his unorthodox views on subjects such as religion. Socrates’ enemies were what you could call the “wrong type” of the enemy, being powerful and influential Athenians. Their efforts to have him ruined saw him brought to trial on charges of corrupting the young and disrespecting religious traditions. In the trial, Socrates defended himself, claiming that he had done nothing more sinister than enlighten people with a clearer knowledge of the truth, which is essential for the correct conduct of life.

Serving more than 200,000 meals a year would be a challenge for any chef, but step up constraints of time, space and a demand for culinary excellence and you have the life of a railway chef. Chris and Jane, the idea of having to cook in cramped surroundings, with limited ingredients and a very tight schedule, as you did in the recent competition, must have been a terrifying prospect ... Well, hardly - I actually operate under those restrictions every day! That's true, of course, we both do - but there's always the added danger that things can go wrong, and the challenge of preparing a top-quality, three course meal for four - which costs no more than £50 - and in front of all those judges! Well, Jane, you were a runner up and Chris came first. I gather you faced some stiff competition from the other finalists. No doubt about that. All the chefs who entered the competition were brilliant in their own way but someone has to win! But the real problem is trying to be creative as the train hurtles through the countryside at over 100 miles an hour - there's little room for mistakes - and you have to be able to keep your balance! Actually, I'd only been a railway chef for three months. And I can tell you that life on board is no easy ride. There's no nipping out to get the extra bunch of parsley, or a lemon. But you're used to working under pressure all the same, aren't you? How do you set about being organized? You've just got to make sure you're focused on the job. Being able to keep an eye on a dozen things at once is also an advantage!

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Chris Greg

Greg

TAPESCRIPT You will hear an interview on a train with two friends, Jane and Chris, chefs who: both won prizes in the National Railway Chef of the Year competition.

Chris

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Jane

Chris Greg Chris

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Chris Greg Jane Chris Jane Greg Chris

Jane

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Chris

Greg Chris

Jane

Greg Chris

Jane

But do you actually enjoy what you're doing? There's plenty of scope to express yourself as a chef in the job - and the open kitchen means that customers will often compliment you personally on the food. That's one of the biggest highlights of the job. I'd certainly go along with that. Very few restaurant chefs have the chance to experience that. And what about the menus, who decides what to cook? They're decided in advance for the whole railway network by two extremely famous chefs, who are actually brothers. I suppose we both find it restricting. Hmm. I do get a bit frustrated from time to time - think I could be a little more adventurous but it's all a question of adaptability - which I suspect Jane is better at than I am! Not at all - I can be quite inflexible when the mood takes me! So what would be a typical routine for you both? You have to start at around 5.30 in the morning - check that all the ingredients have been delivered - then it's a mad rush to get everything ready. And precious little time to rest any other time during the day, as you often have to set tables on other trains and help other staff. Timing's particularly tight, you see. In other restaurants orders come in and go out over two or three hours, but we have to turn round before the passengers reach their stations. It's all a bit nerve-racking. So what motivated you to do this in the first place? I've been on the move ever since I left college. So when I got engaged, I decided it was time to settle down. So when I saw this job, it seemed a reasonable compromise between personal commitments and my reluctance to stay in one place. For me it was something that just caught my eye - not just ordinary run of the mill stuff. And, if you get the time, you get a good view out of the windows! And how do you stop things from spilling over when the train moves? It's not a problem for me. I was a chef on a liner, so I've got plenty of experience of cookery in motion! Yes, but I think it helps if you only half fill saucepans with boiling water – even so, they often spillover and you start saying nasty things to yourself about the driver - and it's not usually his fault! Let's just say that you quickly learn not to put things under the grill without keeping an eye on them! Has either of you had any major disasters? [laughs] I'd only been in the job for three days and I had this huge roast in the oven. I opened the door, turned around for a moment, distracted, I suppose, and it just flew out. Fortunately it landed in the sink, so it was okay. And what qualities would you say it was necessary for a railway chef to have? From my point of view, dedication and determination - you won't get anywhere without these! And, let's admit it - a sense of humor. There have been times when I would have resigned long ago if I hadn't had that! And what of the future? Who knows? - perhaps the first chef on a trip to the Moon? Now, that would be a challenge! But somehow, I doubt I'll be with you on that one. I'm terrified of flying! Page 6 of 8

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Greg Jane

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Greg Chris

Greg Jane Chris Greg Chris Jane

Well, now, if you don't mind, we thought our listeners might be interested in the recipes for your prize-winning meals ...

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Greg

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TRẠI HÈ HÙNG VƯƠNG LẦN THỨ XIV TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN HÀ GIANG TỈNH HÀ GIANG

ĐỀ THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH LỚP 11

ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT

(Đề này có 15 trang, gồm 15 câu)

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PART I – LISTENING Question 1. Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Mass Strandings Of Whales And Dolphins

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Mass strandings: situation where groups of whales, dolphins, etc. swim onto the beach and die Common in areas where the (1)…………………can change quickly Several theories: Parasites e.g. some parasites can affect marine animal’s (2)…………………, which they depend on for navigation Toxins Poison from (3)………………… or ………………… are commonly consumed by whales e.g. Cape Cod (1988) – whales were killed by saxitoxin Accidental Strandings Animals may follow prey ashore, e.g. Thurston (1995) Unlikely because the majority of animals were not (4)………………… when they stranded Human Activity (5)………………… from military tests are linked to some recent strandings The Bahamas (2000) stranding was unusual because the whales • were all (6)………………… • were not in a (7)………………… Group Behavior • More strandings in the most (8)………………… species of whales • 1994 dolphin stranding – only the (9)………………… Further Reading Marine Mamals Ashore (Connor) – gives information about stranding (10)…………………

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Question 2. You are going to listen to an introductory talk about a new agricultural park. Give short answers for the following questions. (10 points) 11. When are the experimental areas opened to the public? ……………………………………………………………………….. 12. According to the talk, what kind of vehicles is not allowed in the park? ……………………………………………………………………….. 13. Why are not cows and horses kept in the park? ………………………………………………………………………. 14. What is the main purpose of having the Rare Breeds Section? ………………………………………………………………………. 15. In which month of the year are fruit trees in their full blossom? ……………………………………………………………………………….. Question 3. You will hear a university tutor and a new student called Paul discussing Paul’s work experience in Latin American Studies course. Listen and decide if the following statements are True (T), False (F) or Not Given (NG). LATIN AMERICAN STUDIES

16. Paul decided to get work experience in South America because he wanted to learn

about Latin American life.

17. Paul originally intended to get involved in construction. 18. Paul changed from one project to another because the work was too physically

demanding.

19. In the village community, he also learnt the importance of family life.

20. Paul’s project manager was very supportive of Paul.

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Your answers:

16.…………… 17.……………

18.…………… 19.…………… 20.……………

Question 4. You are going to hear a radio phone-in programme on the subject of

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allergies. Choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes (10 pts)

21. Which of these possible explanations for the increase in allergies does the programme presenter mention in her introduction? A. People are exposed to more dangerous substances than in the past. B. People's resistance to allergens is lower than in the past. 2

C. More new allergens are being released into the environment. D. Higher levels of stress have made people more prone to allergies. 22. Which of the questions does the first caller, Tim, want to know the answer to? A. What is the most likely cause of his allergy? C. Will he ever be free of the allergy? D. How can he improve his condition? 23. Arabella, the caller from Amsterdam, A. thinks she may have passed on her allergy to her children.

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B. Why is he allergic to grass and pollen?

B. asks how she can minimize the risk of her children having allergies.

C. wants to know whether her peanut allergy will continue in the future. D. asks how probable it is that her children will have allergies.

A. is more than likely to have the same allergy.

24. If both a child's parents have a particular allergy, that child

B. has a less than fifty per cent chance of getting the same allergy. C. will probably develop a different allergy.

D. is at no greater risk of developing the allergy than any other child.

25. According to Dr Bawaldi, some people believe that the increase in asthma among

young children may result from

A. living in centrally heated or air-conditioned buildings. B. being in areas with very high levels of exhaust fumes.

C. spending too much time in hygienic environments.

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D. receiving medical treatment for other types of illness. Your answers:

23.…………… 24.…………… 25.……………

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21.…………… 22.……………

PART II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR. Question 1. Choose the best answers (A, B, C or D) for the following questions. (20 points) 1. Most people feel a slight _______of nostalgia as they think back on their schooldays. A. feeling

B. surge

C. pang

D. chain

2. The cost of a new house in the UK has become _______high over the last few years. A. totally

B. astronomically

C. blatantly

D. utterly 3

3. The entire staff was thrown off _______when the news of the takeover was announced. A. composure

B. disarray

C. stable

D. balance

4. Mr Simkins is the big _______ in the company as he has just been promoted to the position of Managing Director. B. cheese

C. apple

D. meat

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A. bread

5. Of all entries received, his was _______ out for special raise. A. isolated

B. brought

C. opted

D. singled

6. I was in a _______ as to what to do. If I told the truth, he would get into trouble, but if I said nothing I would be more in trouble. B. quandary

C. hitch

D. complexity

A. doubt

7. The matter has been left in _______until the legal ramifications have been explored. B. suspension

C. abeyance

A. recess

D. criticism

8. It was an extremely hostile article which cast _______on the conduct of the entire B. aspersions

C. disapproval

A. criticism

cabinet.

D. abuse

9. He's so lazy! We all have to work harder because he's always _______ his duties. B. shirking

A. evading

C. ducking

D. dodging

______and verse on it.

10. I found the information for the project in the encyclopedia but I couldn't give A. chapter

B. unit

C. poem

D. extract

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to life.

11. The engineer _______the machine with a hammer and, miraculously, it roared back A. slapped

B. smacked

C. whacked

D. punched

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12. The Oscar winning actress simply _______charm and professionalism in her acceptance speech. B. excluded

C. expunged

D. extricated

A. exuded

13. The carrots are ready; could you drain them in the _______and put them in the serving dish? A. casserole

B. colander

C. whisk

D. blender

14. Sue went for a _______when she injured her foot and broke several toenails. 4

A. manicure

B. pediment

C. foot massage

D. pedicure

15. What I find most ________ about it is that he didn’t even have a decency to say that he was sorry. A. galling

B. furious

C. touchy

D. blazing

16. I’m hoping that this work experience will stand me in _______in my future career. C. fine precedent

D. stable footing

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A. good grounding B. good stead

17. A meal in that restaurant costs the _______but still it is always packed. A. world

B. soil

C. earth

D. moon

18. Terry is an old _______of mine. We split up nine years ago but we’ve stayed friends. A. fire

B. spark

C. flame

D. blaze

epidemic. C. gravely

20. What's that horrible noise downstairs?'

B. fatally

D. mortally

A. deadly

19. Take the doctor's advice into consideration. He's in _______ earnest about the

B. black

C. yellow

Your answers:

2.……………

6. …………… 11. …………

D. blue

3.……………

4.……………

5.……………

7. ……………

8. ……………

9. ……………

10. …………

12. …………

13. …………

14. …………

15. …………

1.……………

A. red

'It's only Sam. He always screams _______ murder when we take him to the dentist.'

16.…………… 17.……………

18.…………… 19.…………… 20.……………

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Question 2. Give the correct form of the words in brackets to complete the following sentences. (10 points) 21. The brochures displayed very tempting photographs of the tourist attractions in Sweden. They were so …………… that it was hard for viewers to resist booking that tour immediately. (mouth) 22. What must be avoided at all costs is the suppression of anger, as feelings of resentment can lead a relationship to break down …………… (retrieve) 23. She is so …………… that she won’t let anything to stand in her way of her ambition. (mind) 24. Tourists can see many …………… views of the ocean and mountain. (Panorama) 25. Though they are students, their …………… made a good impression on the local audience. (theater) 26. The islands have been …………… by the growth of tourism. (west) 5

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27. Dolphins, …………… species, sometimes jump above the surface of the water. (mammal) 28. We like Mary. She’s very nice and …………… (lady) 29. Vietnamese people are happy to talk about their past and show an amazing resilience and …………… (forgive) 30. He is a bad manager in that factory and everyone is in an attempt to …………… him. (fame) Your answers:

21.…………… 22.……………

23.…………… 24.…………… 25.……………

26. …………

28. …………

27. ……………

29. …………

30. …………

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Question 3. The passage below contains 10 errors. Underline and correct them. Write your answers in the space provided in the column on the right. (00) has been done as an example. (10 points) Leonardo DiCaprio is one of the hotter young film stars around 00 hottest............ at the moment. His face has been on the covers of all the top movies and young magazines over the last few months and he 31 ………………. has been the subject of countless articles, rumours and showbiz gossip. Leonard doesn’t like reading about him because “I read 32 ………………. things about me that I’ve never said in my life and never did" . 33 ………………. Leonardo DiCaprio was born in Los Angeles on 11 November, 1974. He’s a Scorpio. His full name is Leonardo Wilhelm DiCaprio. His mother is Germany and his father Italian- 34 ………………. American. They called him Leonardo because when his mother was still pregnant, he started kicking while she was stood in 35 ………………. front of a painting by Leonardo Da Vinci. His friends call him Leo. He has a scar from when he was stinging by a Portuguese 36 ………………. man-of-war. His parents separated before he was born, so his mother moved to a poor neighbourhood of Hollywood there 37 ………………. Leo grew up . At school he was very good at imitating people, especially Michael Jackson. This made him very popularly. 38 ………………. His childhood hero was Poseidon, the Greek god of the sea. After appearance in TV commercials and episodes of 39 ………………. Roseanne, he played the cast of Roseanne, the TV sitcom starring Kirk Cameron. Leonard played the part of Luke, a homeless boy. Lately, he played the part of Jim Carroll in The 40 ………………. Basketball Diaries. But he has really become famous since he acted in the film Titanic.

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PART III. READING Question 1. Choose the best option (A, B, C or D) to fill in each blank to complete the passage below. (10 points) Earth is the only place we know of in the universe that can support human life. (1)_______ human activities are making the planet less fit to live on. As the western world (2) _______ on consuming two-thirds of the world's resources while half of the world's population do so (3) _______ to stay alive we are rapidly destroying the (4) _______ resource we have by which all people can survive and prosper. Everywhere fertile soil is (5) _______ built on or washed into the sea. Renewable resources are exploited so much that they will never be able to recover (6) _______ We discharge pollutants into the atmosphere without any thought of the consequences. As a (7) _______ the planet's ability to support people is being (8) _______at the very time when rising human numbers and consumption are (9) _______ increasingly heavy demands on it. The Earth's (10) _______ resources are there for us to use. We need food, water, air, energy, medicines, warmth, shelter and minerals to keep us fed, comfortable, healthy and active. If we are sensible in how we use the resources they will last indefinitely. But if we use them wastefully and excessively they will soon run out and everyone will suffer. 1. A. Although B. Still C. Yet D. Despite 2. A. continues B. repeats C. carries D. follows 3. A. already B. just C. for D. entirely 4. A. alone B. individual C. lone D. only 5. A. sooner B. neither C. either D. rather 6. A. quite B. greatly C. utterly D. completely 7. A. development B. result C. reaction D. product 8. A. stopped B. narrowed C. reduced D. cut 9. A. doing B. having C. taking D. making 10. A. natural B. real C. living D. genuine Question 2. Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word to complete the following passage. (10 points) THE BIRTH OF THE T-SHIRT The T-shirt, or at least the T-shirt as we know it, was born in the theatre. When Tennessee William's play A Streetcar Named Oesire opened in New York in December 1947, a young actor (11) ___________ Marlon Brando went (12) ___________stage wearing a (13) ___________ of blue jeans and a bright, white, capped-sleeve T-shirt. It was the first time the T-shirt had been seen publicly as anything (14) ___________ an item of underwear and it set a fashion trend that was to last through (15) ___________ the end of the century. The idea for the T-shirt came (16) ___________ Brando himself. He had worn one at rehearsals for the play. The director was so impressed by the look that was created that he asked Brando to wear the shirt in the play itself. Brando may 7

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have seen the shirt being advertised by the American company Sears Roebuck. They had decided to market the shirt (17) ___________ a fashionable garment in its (18) ___________ right, rather than just something to be worn (19) ___________ warmth beneath a denim work shirt (20) ___________ an army uniform. It was Brando, however, who popularized it, especially with the release of the film version of Streetcar in 1951. A short leather jacket completed the look that was to be adopted by teenage rebels in many countries for decades afterwards. Question 3. Read the passage and choose the options (A, B, C or D) to best answer the questions. (10 points) According to airline industry statistics, almost 90 percent of airline accidents are survivable or partially survivable. But passengers can increase their chances of survival by learning and following certain tips. Experts say that you should read and listen to safety instructions before take-off and ask questions if you have uncertainties. You should fasten your seat belt low on your hips and as tightly as possible. Of course, you should also know how to release mechanism of your belt operates. During take-offs and landings, you are advised to keep your feet flat on the floor. Before take-off you should locate the nearest exit and an alterative exit and count the rows of seats between you and the exits so that you can find them in the dark if necessary. In the event that you are forewarned of a possible accident, you should put your hands on your ankles and keep your head down until the plane comes to a complete stop. If smoke is present in the cabin, you should keep your head low and cover your face with napkins, towels, or clothing. If possible, wet these for added protection against smoke inhalation. To evacuate as quickly as possible, follow crew commands and do not take personal belongings with you. Do not jump on escape slides before they are inflated, and when you jump, do so with your arms and legs extended in front of you. When you get to the ground, you should move away from them as quickly as possible, and never smoke near the wreckage.

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21. What is the main topic of the passage? A. Airline industry accident statistics. B. Procedures for evacuating aircraft. C. Guidelines for increasing aircraft passenger survival. D. Safety instructions in air travel. 22. Travelers are urged by experts to read and listen to safety instructions A. in an emergency B. before locating the exits C. if smoke is in the cabin D. before take off 23. According to the passage, airline travelers should keep their feet flat the floor A. throughout the flight B. during takeoffs and landings C. especially during landings D. only if an accident is possible 24. According to the passage, which exits should an airline passenger locate before 8

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takeoff. A. The ones that can be found in the dark. B. The two closest to the passenger's seat. C. The nearest one. D. The ones with counted rows of seats between them. 25. It can be inferred from the passage that people are more likely to survive fires in aircrafts if they................ A. keep their heads low B. wear a safety belt C. don't smoke in or near a plane D. read airline safety statistics 26. Airline passengers are advised to do all of the following EXCEPT A. locate the nearest exit B. ask questions about safety C. fasten their seat belts before takeoff D. carry personal belongings in an emergency 27. The word "evacuate" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning A evade B. vacate C. abscond D. forestall 28. The word "inflated" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to A. lifted B. expanded C. extended D. assembled 29. The word "wreckage" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to A. damage B. prosperity C. material D. wreck 30. What does the paragraph following the passage most probably discuss! A. How to recover your luggage B. Where to go to continue your trip C. When to return to the aircraft D. How to proceed once you are away from the aircraft Question 4. Read the passage and do the tasks that follow. a. Choose the correct headings for each section from the list of headings below. List of Headings i The connection between health-care and other human rights ii The development of market-based health systems. iii The role of the state in health-care iv A problem shared by every economically developed country v The impact of recent change vi The views of the medical establishment vii The end of an illusion viii Sustainable economic development 31. Section A …………………………….. 32. Section B ……………………………..

33. Section C …………………………….. 34. Section D …………………………….. 35. Section E ……………………………..

The Problem of Scarce Resources

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Section A The problem of how health-care resources should be allocated or apportioned, so that they are distributed in both the most just and most efficient way, is not a new one. Every health system in an economically developed society is faced with the need to decide (either formally or informally) what proportion of the community’s total resources should be spent on health-care; how resources are to be apportioned; what diseases and disabilities and which forms of treatment are to be given priority; which members of the community are to be given special consideration in respect of their health needs; and which forms of treatment are the most cost-effective.

Section B What is new is that, from the 1950s onwards, there have been certain general changes in outlook about the finitude of resources as a whole and of health-care resources in particular, as well as more specific changes regarding the clientele of health-care resources and the cost to the community of those resources. Thus, in the 1950s and 1960s, there emerged an awareness in Western societies that resources for the provision of fossil fuel energy were finite and exhaustible and that the capacity of nature or the environment to sustain economic development and population was also finite. In other words, we became aware of the obvious fact that there were ‘limits to growth’. The new consciousness that there were also severe limits to health-care resources was part of this general revelation of the obvious. Looking back, it now seems quite incredible that in the national health systems that emerged in many countries in the years immediately after the 1939-45 World War, it was assumed without question that all the basic health needs of any community could be satisfied, at least in principle; the ‘invisible hand’ of economic progress would provide.

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Section C However, at exactly the same time as this new realization of the finite character of healthcare resources was sinking in, an awareness of a contrary kind was developing in Western societies: that people have a basic right to health-care as a necessary condition of a proper human life. Like education, political and legal processes and institutions, public order, communication, transport and money supply, health-care came to be seen as one of the fundamental social facilities necessary for people to exercise their other rights as autonomous human beings. People are not in a position to exercise personal liberty and to be self-determining if they are poverty-stricken, or deprived of basic education, or do not live within a context of law and order. In the same way, basic health-care is a condition of the exercise of autonomy. Section D Although the language of ‘rights’ sometimes leads to confusion, by the late 1970s it was recognized in most societies that people have a right to health-care (though there has 10

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been considerable resistance in the United Sates to the idea that there is a formal right to health-care). It is also accepted that this right generates an obligation or duty for the state to ensure that adequate health-care resources are provided out of the public purse. The state has no obligation to provide a health-care system itself, but to ensure that such a system is provided. Put another way, basic health-care is now recognized as a ‘public good’, rather than a ‘private good’ that one is expected to buy for oneself. As the 1976 declaration of the World Health Organisation put it: ‘The enjoyment of the highest attainable standard of health is one of the fundamental rights of every human being without distinction of race, religion, political belief, economic or social condition’. As has just been remarked, in a liberal society basic health is seen as one of the indispensable conditions for the exercise of personal autonomy.

Section E Just at the time when it became obvious that health-care resources could not possibly meet the demands being made upon them, people were demanding that their fundamental right to health-care be satisfied by the state. The second set of more specific changes that have led to the present concern about the distribution of health-care resources stems from the dramatic rise in health costs in most OECD countries, accompanied by large-scale demographic and social changes which have meant, to take one example, that elderly people are now major (and relatively very expensive) consumers of health-care resources. Thus in OECD countries as a whole, health costs increased from 3.8% of GDP in 1960 to 7% of GDP in 1980, and it has been predicted that the proportion of health costs to GDP will continue to increase. (In the US the current figure is about 12% of GDP, and in Australia about 7.8% of GDP.) As a consequence, during the 1980s a kind of doomsday scenario (analogous to similar doomsday extrapolations about energy needs and fossil fuels or about population increases) was projected by health administrators, economists and politicians. In this scenario, ever-rising health costs were matched against static or declining resources.

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b. Decide if the following statements are True (T), False (F) or Not Given (NG) according to the reading passage. 36. Personal liberty and independence have never been regarded as directly linked to health-care. 37. Health-care came to be seen as a right at about the same time that the limits of healthcare resources became evident. 38. IN OECD countries population changes have had an impact on health-care costs in recent years. 39. OECD governments have consistently underestimated the level of health-care provision needed. 40. In most economically developed countries the elderly will to make special provision for their health-care in the future. Your answer: 36. ………… 37. ………… 38. ………… 39. ………… 40. ………… PART IV. WRITING Question 1. Write a summary of the following extract. 11

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“There are various ways of preparing for cultural shock. It is helpful to learn as much of the language as possible before going to the country, to learn about the new culture, in particular aspects such as time differences, communication, conflict resolution, climate, standard of living, transportation, ethical practices, holidays, superstitions, taboos and technology. However, something that is extremely difficult to prepare for is what is known as ‘ecoshock’, the result of a person’s ‘physiological and psychological reaction to a new, diverse, or changed ecology’, a typical example of this being travel dysrhythmia, or jet lag, when people’s biological clocks have problems synchronizing with the local time. Physiological adjustment to the temperature, humidity, and altitude are also features of eco-shock, though these are generally coped with in the initial stage of cultural shock rather than being prolonged difficulties in the process of adjustment to life in a new country. For those who take frequent short trips abroad, however, ecoshock may be the most difficult part of dealing with cultural shock, since they do not experience its various longer term phases.” (Reference: Martin, J.S. and Chaney, L.H. (2006). Global Business Etiquette Westport, CT, USA: Praeger Publishers) …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………

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Question 2. The chart below show the different levels of post-school qualifications in Australia and the proportion of men and women who held them in 1999. Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features and make comparisons where relevant. Write at least 150 words. 12

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…………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………

Question 3. Some people think that the teenage years are the happiest times of most people’s lives. Others think that adult life brings more happiness, in spite of greater responsibilities.

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Discuss both these views and give your own opinion. Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant example from your own knowledge or experience. Write at least 250 words.

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Người ra đề Giáo viên

Ma Thị Thủy

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____________THE END____________

TRẠI HÈ HÙNG VƯƠNG LẦN THỨ XIV

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM

TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN HÀ GIANG

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH, LỚP 11

TỈNH HÀ GIANG

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ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT

Lưu ý: Các cách giải khác hướng dẫn chấm, nếu đúng cho điểm tối đa theo thang điểm đã định. PART I. LISTENING. Question 1. Mỗi câu trả lời đúng được 01 điểm. 6. healthy

2. hearing/ear/ears

7. group

3. plants, animals/fish/fishes (in either order; both required for 1 mark)

8. social

4. feeding

1. tide(s)

9. leader

10. network(s)

5. noise(s)

11. a short time every year

Question 2. Mỗi câu trả lời đúng được 02 điểm.

12. car(s)

13. because they do not have facilities (for big animals)

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14. to maintain a diversity of breeds 15. (In) May

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Question 3. Mỗi câu trả lời đúng được 02 điểm. 16. T

17. F

18. F

19. NG

20. T

Question 4. Mỗi câu trả lời đúng được 02 điểm. 21.B

22. C

23.D

PART II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR. Question 1. Mỗi câu trả lời đúng được 01 điểm.

24.A

25.B

5.D

6.B

7.C

8.B

9.B

10.A

11.C

12.A

13.B

14.D

15.A

16.B

17.C

18.C

19.A

20.D

Question 2. Mỗi câu trả lời đúng được 01 điểm.

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21. Mouth-watering 26. have been westernized 22. Irretrievably 27. mammalian 23. Single-minded 28. ladylike 24. panoramic 29. forgiveness 25. theatricals 30. defame Question 3. Mỗi câu trả lời đúng được 01 điểm. 36. stinging--> stung

32. him --> himself

37. there --> where

33. did--> done

38. popularly -->popular

34.Germany--> German

39. appearance --> appearing

35. stood standing

40. Lately --> Later

31. young --> youth

PART III. READING. 2. C. carries

6. D. completely

7. B. result

3. B. just

1. C. Yet

Question 1. Mỗi câu trả lời đúng được 01 điểm.

8. C. reduced

4. D. only

5. C. either

9. D. making

10. A. natural

Question 2. Mỗi câu trả lời đúng được 01 điểm. 11. named/ called

12. on 17. as

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16. from

13. pair

14. but / except

15. to / until

18. own

19. for

20. or

Question 3. Mỗi câu trả lời đúng được 01 điểm. 22. D

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21. C

23. B

24. B

25. A

26. D

27. B

Question 4. Mỗi câu trả lời đúng được 01 điểm.

31. IV 36. F

32. VIII

33. I

34. III

35. V

37. T

38. T

39. NG

40. NG

PART III. WRITING Question 1. Writing a summary of an extract

28. B

29. A

30. D

Criteria for judgment

Mark

Task completion

2.0

Language use

3.5

Comprehension and rendition of source text

4.0

Punctuation and spelling

0.5

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No.

TOTAL

10 points

Question 2. Describing graphs Criteria for judgment

Mark

Task completion

Language use

Content

Punctuation and spelling

1.0

TOTAL

20 points

Criteria for judgment

No.

Question 3. Writing an essay

4.0

7.0 8.0

No.

Task completion

Mark 4.0

- Consist of three parts: topic sentence, supporting sentences and concluding sentence.

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- Length: only 5 % less or more than the required number of words is acceptable.

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Organization

6.0

- Topic sentence is clearly stated. - Present the right form of an essay. - The ideas are well-organized and developed with unity, cohesion and coherence. Language use

8.0

- Use wide range of vocabulary and structures. - Convey precise meanings with appropriate use of vocabulary and grammatical structures.

- Use appropriate linking words or connectors. 4

Content

8.0

- Provide relevant and convincing ideas, supported by specific examples and/or reasonable justification. Punctuation and spelling

4.0

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30 points

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TOTAL

TRẠI HÈ HÙNG VƯƠNG LẦN THỨ XIV

ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH – KHỐI 11 Ngày thi: 29 tháng 7 năm 2018 Thời gian làm bài:180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) (Đề thi có 18 trang) THÍ SINH LÀM BÀI TRỰC TIẾP VÀO BẢNG CHO SẴN TRONG TỜ ĐỀ THI

THPT CHUYÊN HẠ LONG

Giám khảo 1

Điểm

Giám khảo 2

Bằng chữ

Số phách

Bằng số

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ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT

SECTION I: LISTENING COMPREHENSION (50 pts)

HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU

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• Bài nghe gồm 4 phần, mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, mỗi lần cách nhau 15 giây, mở đầu và kết thúc mỗi phần nghe có tín hiệu. • Mở đầu và kết thúc bài nghe có tín hiệu nhạc. Thí sinh có 3 phút để hoàn chỉnh bài trước tín hiệu nhạc kết thúc bài nghe. • Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe. ___________________________________________________________________________

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PART 1: (20 POINTS) Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer. 1. Bees that help with pollination benefit flowers and _____________________. 2. Bees produce wax that can be made into candles and _____________________. 3. Dragonflies eat _____________________. 4. Insects in summer can be harmful because they can carry such deadly diseases as malaria, yellow fever, and _____________________. 5. Harmful insects may destroy crops, clothes, furniture, and even the_________________

How to kill bad insects

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• Chemical methods: These solutions to insect problems are often not worthwhile because: a) They are effective on a (6) _____________________. b) They can bring harm to (7) _____________________. c) Insects become (8) _____________________to the chemicals quickly. • Biological methods: These methods are (9) _____________________than chemical methods of eliminating harmful insects. • Breeding control method: In order to control the breeding of insects, one needs to understand the insects’ (10) _____________________.

Your answers

5. 10.

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PART 2: (10 POINTS) Listen to a writer talking about a book she has written on the subject of aspirin and answer the following questions with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS. 11. In which country did doctors treat their patients with a medicine derived from the bark of the willow? _____________________________________ 12. What, according to Edward Stone’s belief, was similar to quinine? _____________________________________ 13. What was Bayer, which made the first commercially available aspirins? _____________________________________ 14. What were published in 1971 showing how aspirin slows down swelling and the coagulation of the blood? _____________________________________ 15. According to some scientists, who would benefit from taking aspirin regularly as preventive measure? _____________________________________ PART 3: (10 POINTS) Listen to a talk about the country Malawi and write: TRUE: if the statement agrees with the information FALSE: if the statement contradicts the information NOT GIVEN: if there is no information on this

16. Malawi ceased to be a British colony in the 1960s. 17. Because there are no harbours, you have to use lifeboats to get from the ship to the shore. 18. Fish are caught on the Northern side of the lake. 19. In the village by the lake, they have no Internet.

Your answers 16.

17.

18.

19.

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20. Many unique species discovered in the lake came to light in 1950s.

20.

PART 4: (10 POINTS) You will hear part of a radio interview in which a graphic designer called Sandra Cammell is talking about her work as a children's book illustrator. For questions 21-25, choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear.

21. What does Sandra find difficult about working as a freelance illustrator? A. being expected to be available all the time B. having to work to a tight schedule C. not knowing when she will next be working D. lacking the opportunity to develop her style

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22. What is the advantage for Sandra of working with editors she knows well? A. She can illustrate books for the age group she prefers. B. She can disagree with the editor's decisions C. She has freedom in how she chooses to illustrate books. D. She is allowed to work on illustrations before receiving the story.

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23. For Sandra, what aspect of drawing people requires most effort? A. persuading other people to model for her drawings B. keeping the figures realistic rather than cartoonish C. making the postures of children seems convincing D. forming a mental picture of a book's main character 24. According to Sandra, what effect did her work have on her children? A. They had to learn to play by themselves. B. They thought that all mothers worked at home. C. They developed their own interest in art. D. They became good readers at an early age.

25. What advice does Sandra give to young people hoping to be illustrators? A. send samples of your work to publishers B. be prepared to spend time on self-promotion C. show that you specialize in particular subjects D. avoid being distracted by other kinds of work Your answers 22.

23.

24.

25.

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21.

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SECTION II: LEXICO-GRAMMAR (40 points) PART 1: Choose the most suitable word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) to fill in each blank (20 points) 1. I am fully prepared for my interview and I am confident that I can answer any questions they may care to ___________ me. A. throw at B. drop on C. slide to D. roll to 2. The planes were delayed and the hotel was awful, but ___________ we still had a good time. A. on the contrary B. for all that C. on top of all that D. by the same token 3. If he tries to ___________ ignorance as his excuse, just tell him we’ve got a copy of the authorization with his signature on it. A. defend B. plead C. pretend D. protest 4. John was ___________ something under his breath, but I didn’t catch what he said. A. whispering B. muttering C. growling D. swallowing 5. Rumors going around, Mr. Long is ___________ Head of the Department. A. in adjacent to B. in view of C. in line for D. in the proximity 6. Who needs more than the _________necessities of life? A. naked B. pure C. bare D. sole 7. The announcement about job losses has _________ consequences for the firm. A. hard-hitting B. far-reaching C. never-ending D. wide-ranging 8. Mr. Green supposes, _________, that he will retire at 60. A. like most people did B. as most of people C. like most people do D. as do most people 9. Jeremy’s friends were fond of him _________ because of his generosity. A. even less B. at least C. not least D. still less 10. I'd opt for a glass of mineral water just to _________ my thirst. A. quit B. quench C. quiver D. quiet 11. Over the ______________of the next few weeks, their relationship changed completely. A. span B. duration C. course D. term 12. Charles was not sure which profession to enter but finally ____________for law. A. chose B. opted C. accepted D. selected 13. I didn’t_____________ to cause a problem, but unfortunately that’s what happened. A. get off B. take on C. set out D. make for 4

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14. It stands to reasons that a touch of humor and optimism can work____________. A. on all cylinders B. spectacles C. wonders D. your fingers to the bone 15. Tom’s normally very efficient but he’s been making a lot of mistakes ___________. A. of late B. for now C. in a while D. shortly 16. __________ they make show that young children are capable of arriving at surprisingly subtle grammatical generalizations. A. The mistake B. The very mistakes C. Some very mistakes D. Very mistakes 17. Although he was a hardened criminal, his one _____________ feature was his love of children. A. saving B. redeeming C. recovering D. acquitting 18. My cousin was nervous about being interviewed on television, but she rose to the ___________ wonderfully. A. event B. performance C. incident D. occasion 19. Despite all the interruptions, he _____________with his work. A. stuck at B. held on C. hung out D. pressed on 20. When I got stuck in the elevator, I was scared out of my _____________. A. brains B. head C. wits D. nerves Your answers 2.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

10.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

PART 2. Give the correct form of the words in brackets. (10 points)

PENGUINS IN PERIL

Penguins, whose torpedo-shaped bodies and self-important waddles we adore, are the latest on

a (0) growing list of species threatened by changing 1. CLIMATE_______ conditions. This 2.

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DISRUPT_______ in climate is being brought about by heatwaves and floods in places as far 3. FIELD_______ as Texas and India.

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Such 4. STABLE_______ in weather patterns has been increasing in 5. FREQUENT_______

although the reasons for this are not yet fully understood. As a result, ocean currents that bring

the nutrients to feed plankton are being disrupted and because plankton feeds the krill which form the basis of the penguin's diet, the penguin is fast becoming a 6. CASUAL_______. The death rate of penguin chicks is soaring and could ultimately prove 7. CATASTROPHE_______ to the entire species. The one positive aspect of this lies in its potential to force people to examine the 8.LOOM_______ threat posed to the fragile Antarctic 5

eco-system. The 9. REALIZE_______ that we could lose one of the most 10. LOVE_______ creature on the planet should be a wake-up call for all of us. Your answers 2.

10.

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PART 3. The passage below contains 10 errors. IDENTIFY and CORRECT them. Write

your answers in the space provided . (0) has been done as an example. (10 pts)

0. include=>includes

is more strict applied to the smaller swirling atmospheric phenomenon

1.......................

commonly known as dust devil or dust whirl, that occurs mostly over

2.......................

receiving by the earth, which produces an overheated air mass just

3.......................

above the ground. This air masses rises, usually in the form of a

4.......................

cylindrical column, sucking up loose surface material, so as dust, sand,

5.......................

and leaves. Whirlwinds vary in high from 30 to 152 m, but exceptionally

6.......................

whirlwinds range in size from a little meters to several hundred

7.......................

meters and, depend on their force and size, dust devils may

8.......................

disappear in seconds and last several hours. Brief whirlwinds are

9.......................

Whirlwind, any rotating air mass, include the tornado and the large

KĂ&#x2C6;

erratic in motion, but the longer-lasting ones move slow with the prevailing winds.

10. ....................

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Your answer

0. include

->includes

1. _________________ _________________ 2. _________________ _________________ 3. _________________ _________________ 4. _________________ _________________ 5. _________________ _________________

6. _________________ _________________ 7. _________________ _________________ 8. _________________ _________________ 9. _________________ _________________ 10. ________________ _________________

SECTION III. READING (50 points) PART 1: Choose the best word or phrase among A, B, C or D that best fits the blank space in the following passage. (10 points) Write your answers in the space provided. (10 pts) Reports that the government is about to _________( 1) the go ahead to plans for the building of a new runway at London’s Gatwick airport have angered local residents and raised

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fears of increased noise and exhaust pollution. The (2) _________ plans also include permission for additional night flights and will (3) _________ the compulsory purchase of farmland, as well as the demolition of a number of private homes. According to sources close to the Ministry of Transport, the government is known to be concerned by the increasing (4) _________ of traffic at London Heathrow, where there are no plans for further runways in the

foreseeable (5) _________ . Gatwick is widely (6) _________ as a better (7) _________ for expansion than London’s third airport, Stansted, which still suffers from poor transport links. A

spokesperson for the Keep Gatwick Quiet association, (8) ________ up of local people,

accused the government of going back on promises made before the General Election. “We

were told then that the airport authority had no (9) _________ of building another runway, and

we believe that the government has a duty to (10) _________ its pledges. “Prominent figures in the government are also believed to be concerned at the news, although the Prime Minister,

interviewed last night, is quoted as saying that reports were “misleading”. However, he would

B. make

C. give

D. approve

2. A. controversial

B. debatable

C. notorious

D. doubtful

3. A. involve

B. concern

C. assume

D. need

4. A. sum

B. size

C. volume

D. length

5. A. years

B. period

C. time

D. future

6. A. regarded

B. believed

C. felt

D. held

7. A. potential

B. outlook

C. prospect

D. likelihood

8. A. made

B. set

C. brought

D. taken

9. A. desire

B. intention

C. wish

D. objective

10. A. bear out

B. count on

C. pull off

D. stand by

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1. A. sign

not give an assurance that plans for building a runway had definitely been rejected.

Your answers 1.

6. 7

10.

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PART 2. (10 points) For questions 1-10, fill each of the following numbered blanks with ONE suitable word and write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. THE PSYCHOLOGY OF SELLING The psychology of retailing has come to rely on highly sophisticated techniques. Over and (1) ____________________ the design of the shops and the packaging of the merchandise, clever positioning of goods also ensures that the natural flow of people takes them to (2) ____________________ and every section in a shop. Customers are led gently, but at the same time with deadly accuracy, towards the merchandise in such a way (3) ____________________ to maximise sales. Manufacturers compete for the right to have their products displayed at the most effective level. In supermarkets, there is a crucial section in the tiers of vertical shelving somewhere between waist height and eye (4)____________________, where we are most likely to take note of a brand. In the old days, when we went into a shop, we (5) ____________________our way up to the counter, behind (6) ____________________ would be the shopkeeper and virtually all of the merchandise, and were served with what we wanted. Those days are (7) ____________________ and truly over. Today, we are used to serving (8) ____________________ in supermarkets; products are laid before us as enticingly as (9) ____________________, and impulse purchases are encouraged as a major part of the exercise. As a result of this, we, as shoppers, have to keep our wits (10) __________________ us to resist the retailers’ ploys.

10.

Your answers 1.

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PART 3. Read the extract taken from Darwin's book The Voyage of the Beagle then choose the best answer A, B, C or D to complete each statement. (10 pts) That large animals require luxuriant vegetation has been a general assumption which has passed from one work to another; but I do not hesitate to say that it is completely false, and that it has vitiated the reasoning of geologists on some points of great interest in the ancient history of the world. The prejudice has probably been derived from India, and the Indian islands, where troops of elephants, noble forests, and impenetrable jungles, are associated together in every one's mind. If, however, we refer to any work of travels through the southern parts of Africa, we shall find allusions in almost every page either to the desert character of the country, or to the numbers of large animals inhabiting it. The same thing is rendered evident by the many engravings which have been published of various parts of the interior. Dr. Andrew Smith, who has lately succeeded in passing the Tropic of Capricorn, informs me that, taking into consideration the whole of the southern part of Africa, there can be no doubt of its being a sterile country. On the southern coasts there are some fine forests, but with these exceptions, the traveller may pass for days together through open plains, covered by a poor and scanty 8

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vegetation. Now, if we look to the animals inhabiting these wide plains, we shall find their numbers extraordinarily great, and their bulk immense. We must enumerate the elephant, three species of rhinoceros, the hippopotamus, the giraffe, the bos caffer, two zebras, two gnus, and several antelopes even larger than these latter animals. It may be supposed that although the species are numerous, the individuals of each kind are few. By the kindness of Dr. Smith, I am enabled to show that the case is very different. He informs me, that in lat. 24', in one day's march with the bullock-wagons, he saw, without wandering to any great distance on either side, between one hundred and one hundred and fifty rhinoceroses - the same day he saw several herds of giraffes, amounting together to nearly a hundred. At the distance of a little more than one hour's march from their place of encampment on the previous night, his party actually killed at one spot eight hippopotamuses, and saw many more. In this same river there were likewise crocodiles. Of course it was a case quite extraordinary, to see so many great animals crowded together, but it evidently proves that they must exist in great numbers. Dr. Smith describes the country passed through that day, as 'being thinly covered with grass, and bushes about four feet high, and still more thinly with mimosa-trees.' Besides these large animals, every one the least acquainted with the natural history of the Cape, has read of the herds of antelopes, which can be compared only with the flocks of migratory birds. The numbers indeed of the lion, panther, and hyena, and the multitude of birds of prey, plainly speak of the abundance of the smaller quadrupeds: one evening seven lions were counted at the same time prowling round Dr. Smith's encampment. As this able naturalist remarked to me, the carnage each day in Southern Africa must indeed be terrific! I confess it is truly surprising how such a number of animals can find support in a country producing so little food. The larger quadrupeds no doubt roam over wide tracts in search of it; and their food chiefly consists of underwood, which probably contains much nutriment in a small bulk. Dr. Smith also informs me that the vegetation has a rapid growth; no sooner is a part consumed, than its place is supplied by a fresh stock. There can be no doubt, however, that our ideas respecting the apparent amount of food necessary for the support of large quadrupeds are much exaggerated. The belief that where large quadrupeds exist, the vegetation must necessarily be luxuriant, is the more remarkable, because the converse is far from true. Mr. Burchell observed to me that when entering Brazil, nothing struck him more forcibly than the splendor of the South American vegetation contrasted with that of South Africa, together with the absence of all large quadrupeds. In his Travels, he has suggested that the comparison of the respective weights (if there were sufficient data) of an equal number of the largest herbivorous quadrupeds of each country would be extremely curious. If we take on the one side, the elephants hippopotamus, giraffe, bos caffer, eland, five species of rhinoceros; and on the American side, two tapirs, the guanaco, three deer, the vicuna, peccary, capybara (after which we must choose from the monkeys to complete the number), and then place these two groups alongside each other it is not easy to conceive ranks more disproportionate in size. After the above facts, we are compelled to conclude, against anterior probability, that among the mammalian there exists no close relation between the bulk of the species, and the quantity of the vegetation, in the countries which they inhabit. Adapted from: Voyage of the Beagle, Charles Darwin 9

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1. The author is primarily concerned with __________. A. discussing the relationship between the size of mammals and the nature of vegetation in their habitats B. contrasting ecological conditions in India and Africa C. proving the large animals do not require much food D. describing the size of animals in various parts of the world 2. According to the author, the ‘prejudice’ has lead to __________ A. errors in the reasoning of biologists B. false ideas about animals in Africa C. doubt in the mind of the author D. incorrect assumptions on the part of geologists 3. The author uses information provided by Dr. Smith to __________. A. supply information on quality and quantity of plant life in South Africa B. indicate the presence of large numbers of animals C. give evidence of numbers of carnivorous animals D. A, B and C are correct 4. The flocks of migratory birds are mentioned to __________. A. describe an aspect of the fauna of South Africa B. indicate the abundance of wildlife C. contrast with the habits of the antelope D. suggest the size of antelope herds 5. The ‘carnage’ refers to the __________. A. number of animals killed by hunters B. number of prey animals killed by predators C. number of people killed by lions D. amount of food eaten by all species 6. To account for the ‘surprising’ number of animals in a ‘country producing so little food’, Darwin suggests all of the following as partial explanations except __________. A. food requirements have been overestimated B. rapid regrowth of plant material C. large area for animals to forage in D. mainly carnivorous animals 7. The author makes his point by reference to all of the following except ___________. A. historical documents B. published illustrations C. private communications D. recorded observations 8. Darwin quotes Burchell’s observations in order to ___________. A. describe a region of great splendor B. counter a popular misconception C. account for a curious situation D. illustrate a well-known phenomenon 9. Darwin apparently regards Dr. Smith as __________. A. reliable and imaginative B. observant and excitable C. intrepid and competent D. foolhardy and tiresome 10

10. Anterior probability refers to ___________. A. what might have been expected C. likelihood based on data from India Your answers 2.

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B. ideas of earlier explorers D. hypotheses of other scientists

i Industry Structures

ii Disease Affects Production

PART 4. Read the following passage and do the tasks that follow. (20 points) Task 1: The reading passage on Deer Farming In Australia has 5 paragraphs (A – E). From the list of headings below choose the most suitable headings for paragraphs A – E. Write the appropriate number (i – viii) next to questions 1 – 4 on your answer sheet. NB There are more headings than paragraphs, so you will not use them all.

iii Trends in Production

iv Government Assistance

v How Deer Came to Australia

vi Research and Development

vii Asian Competition viii Industry Development

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Ex: Paragraph A – v 1. Paragraph B

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2. Paragraph C

3. Paragraph D

4. Paragraph E Deer Farming In Australia Paragraph A Deer are not indigenous to Australia. They were introduced into the country during the nineteenth century under the acclimatization programs governing the introduction of exotic 11

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species of animals and birds into Australia. Six species of deer were released at various locations. The animals dispersed and established wild populations at various locations across Australia, mostly depending upon their points of release into the wild. These animals formed the basis for the deer industry in Australia today. Commercial deer farming in Australia commenced in Victoria in 1971 with the authorized capture of rusa deer from the Royal National Park, NSW. Until 1985, only four species of deer, two from temperate climates (red, fallow) and two tropical species (rusa, chital) were confined for commercial farming. Late in 1985, pressure from industry to increase herd numbers saw the development of import protocols. This resulted in the introduction of large numbers of red deer hybrids from New Zealand and North American elk directly from Canada. The national farmed deer herd is now distributed throughout all states although most are in New South Wales and Victoria. Paragraph B The number of animals processed annually has continued to increase, despite the downward trend in venison prices since 1997. Of concern is the apparent increase in the number of female animals processed and the number of whole herds committed for processing. With more than 40,000 animals processed in 1998/99 and 60,000 in 1999/2000, there is justified concern that future years may see a dramatic drop in production. At least 85% of all venison produced in Australia is exported, principally to Europe. At least 90% of all velvet antler produced is exported in an unprocessed state to Asia. Schemes to promote Australian deer products continue to have a positive effect on sales that in turn have a positive effect on prices paid to growers. The industry appears to be showing limited signs that it is emerging from a state of depression caused by both internal and external factors that include: (i) the Asian currency downturn; (ii) the industry’s lack of competitive advantage in influential markets (particularly in respect to New Zealand competition), and; (iii) within industry processing and marketing competition for limited product volumes of venison. Paragraph C From the formation of the Australian Deer Breeders Federation in 1979, the industry representative body has evolved through the Deer Farmers Federation of Australia to the Deer Industry Association of Australia Ltd (DIAA), which was registered in 1995. The industry has established two product development and marketing companies, the Australian Deer Horn and Co-Products Pty Ltd (ADH) and the Deer Industry Projects and Development Pty Ltd, which trades as the Deer Industry Company (DIC). ADH collects and markets Australian deer horn and co-products on behalf of Australian deer farmers. It promotes the harvest of velvet antler according to the strict quality assurance program promoted by the industry. The company also plans and co-ordinates regular velvet accreditation courses for Australian deer farmers. Paragraph D Estimates suggest that until the early 1990s the rate of the annual increase in the number of farmed deer was up to 25%, but after 1993 this rate of increase fell to probably less than 10%. The main reasons for the decline in the deer herd growth rate at such a critical time for the market were: (i) severe drought conditions up to 1998 affecting eastern Australia during 12

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1993-96 and (ii) the consequent slaughter of large numbers of breeding females, at very low prices. These factors combined to decrease confidence within the industry. Lack of confidence saw a drop in new investment within the industry and a lack of willingness of established farmers to expand their herds. With the development of strong overseas markets for venison and velvet and the prospect of better seasons ahead in 1996, the trends described were seen to have been significantly reversed. However, the relatively small size of the Australian herd was seen to impose undesirable restraints on the rate at which herd numbers could be expanded to meet the demands for products. Supply difficulties were exacerbated when the supply of products, particularly venison, was maintained by the slaughter of young breeding females. The net result was depletion of the industry’s female breeding herds Paragraph E Industry programs are funded by statutory levies on sales of animals for venison, velvet antler sales and the sale of live animals into export markets. The industry has a 1996 - 2000 five year plan including animal nutrition, pasture quality, carcass quality, antler harvesting, promotional material and technical bulletins. All projects have generated a significant volume of information, which compliments similar work undertaken in New Zealand and other deer farming countries. Major projects funded by levy funds include the Venison Market Project from 1992 to 1996. This initiative resulted in a dramatic increase in international demand for Australian venison and an increase in the domestic consumption of venison. In an effort to maintain existing venison markets in the short term and to increase them in the long term, in 1997 the industry’s top priority became the increase in size and production capacity of the national herd. Task 2. Read the passage about Deer Farming in Australia again and look at the statements below. For questions 5 – 7 on your answer sheet write: TRUE if the statement is true FALSE if the statement is false NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in Reading Passage 5. Since 1985 many imported deer have been interbred with the established herds. 6. The drop in deer numbers since 1997 led to an increase in the price of venison. 7. Only a small amount of Australian venison production is consumed domestically. Task 3. Complete each of the following statements (Questions 8 –10) with words taken from Reading Passage. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Write your answers on your answer sheet. 8. A stringent __________ allows the Australian deer industry to maintain their excellence of product. 9. Herd stock expansion was made difficult by the killing of __________ to continue product supply. 10. Foreign and home markets for Australian venison increased due to the __________. 13

SECTION IV. WRITING (60 points) PART 1: (10 points). Summarize the following article in no more than 120 words. PROMISING RESULTS FROM CANCER STUDY A new experiment vaccine has shown promising results in the fight against lung cancer. In a small Texas-based study, a vaccine developed by scientists at Baylor University Medical

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Centre in Dallas, USA cured lung cancer in some patients and slowed the progress of the disease in others. Researchers have reported encouraging findings from this small study. Fortythree patients suffering from lung cancer were involved in these trials. Ten of these patients were in the early stages and thirty-three in the advanced stages of the disease. They were injected with the vaccine every two weeks for three months, and were carefully monitored for three years. In three of the patients in the advanced stages of cancer, disease disappeared and in

the others, it did not spread for five to twenty-four months. However, no great difference was

seen in the patients in the early stages of the illness. This new vaccine uses the patient’s own

immune system. It is made specifically for each patient and is injected into the arm or leg. It stimulates the body’s immune system, which then recognizes that the cancer cells are harmful,

and attacks and destroys them. The vaccine could be effective against other forms of cancer. It

offers great hope for the treatment of cancer in general, although further studies are needed

before such treatment can be widely used.

Source: Dakin, F.P. (2007) Promising results from cancer study. New Medical Journal,

…………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………

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……………………………………………………………………………………………………

PART 2. (20 points) The following graphs give information about book-buying over 30 years in New York. Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make comparisons where relevant. You should write between 150 and 200 words.

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1. Average number of books bought per person per year

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2. Types of books bought per person per year

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……………………………………………………………………………………………………

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PART 3. (30 points) Write an essay of about 250 words about the following topic: As more and more students enter universities, academic qualifications are becoming devalued. To get ahead in many professions, more than one degree is now required and in the future it is likely that people will take a number of degree courses before even starting work. This is an undesirable situation. Do you agree or disagree? ……………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………… GV ra đề : Trương Thị Thu Hường: 0903276505--------- THE END ---------

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TRẠI HÈ HÙNG VƯƠNG LẦN THỨ XIV

ĐÁP ÁN

OLYMPIC TRẠI HÈ HÙNG VƯƠNG LẦN THỨ XIV MÔN: TIẾ NG ANH - KHỐI: 11 Ngày thi: 29 tháng 7 năm 2018 Thời gian: 180 phút

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ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT

KEY SECTION 1. LISTENING PART 1: (20 POINTS) (0.2 point for each) Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer. 1. fruit trees 6. small scale 2. polish 7. humans 3. harmful insects 8. resistant 4. sleeping sickness 9. cheaper 5. whole building 10. life cycle

11. Ancient Egypt 12. willow tree extract 13. Germany company 14. groundbreaking findings 15. anyone/people over 50

PART 2: (10 POINTS) (0.2 point for each) Exam Essential Advanced Test 1 part 2 (edited) Listen to a writer talking about a book she has written on the subject of aspirin and answer the following questions with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS.

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PART 3: (10 POINTS) (0.2 point for each) Listen to a talk about the country Malawi and write: TRUE: if the statement agrees with the information FALSE if the statement contradicts the information NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

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16. T 17. T 18. F 19. NG 20. F PART 4: (10 POINTS) (0.2 point for each) (CAE TEST BUILDER TEST 2) You will hear part of a radio interview in which a graphic designer called Sandra Cammell is talking about her work as a children's book illustrator. For questions 21-25, choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. 21.B

22. C 23. C 24. D 25. B

SECTION II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (40 points)

Page 1 of 8

PART 1. Choose the most suitable word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) to fill in each blank (20 points) 1. A

2. D

3. B

4. B

5. C

6. C

7. B

8. D

9. C

11.C

12.B

13.C

14.C

15.A

16.B

17.B

18.D

19.D

10. B 20.C

PART 2.Give the correct form of the words in brackets. (10 points) 2. disruption

3. afield

4. instability

5. frequency

6. casualty

7. catastrophic

8. looming

9. realization

10. lovable

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1. climatic

PART 3. The passage below contains 10 errors. IDENTIFY and CORRECT them. Write your answers in the space provided . (0) has been done as an example. (10 pts) 1. strict =>strictly 2. that => which 3. receiving=> received 4. masses => mass 5. so => such 6. high => height 7. little => few 8. depend => depending 9. and => or 10. slow => slowly

SECTION III. READING (50 points)

PART 1. Choose the best word or phrase among A, B, C or D that best fits the blank

space in the following passage. (10 points) Write your answers in the space provided.

6. A

7. C

3. A

4. C

5. D

8. A

9. B

10. D

2. A

1.C

(10 pts)

PART 2. (10 points) For questions 1-10, fill each of the following numbered blanks with ONE suitable word and write your answers in the corresponding numbered

2. each

3. as

4. level

5. made

7. well

8. ourselves

9. possible (NOT ever/ before)

10. about

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1. above

boxes provided.

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6.which

PART 3. Read the extract taken from Darwin's book The Voyage of the Beagle then

choose the best answer A, B, C or D to complete each statement. (10 pts) 1. A

2. D

3. D

4. D

5. B

6. D

7. A

8. B

9. C

10. A

PART 4. Read the following passage and do the tasks that follow. (20 points) 1. v 2. viii 5. NOT GIVEN 6. FALSE 8. quality assurance program

3. i

4. iii 7. TRUE

Page 2 of 8

9. breeding females 10. Venison Market Project SECTION IV. WRITING (60 points)

PART 1: (10 points). Summarize the following article in no more than 120 words. 1. Write good summary with enough content and clear, logical information.

2 pt

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2. Present the key points and main ideas in the right form of a paragraph. Make sure that no important points have been omitted or distorted. The summary should include 5 pt + The topic sentence: + Supporting ideas: + Conclusion: 3. Use your own words or paraphrases with a variety use of synonyms, different sentence structures and word class. You can change the order of ideas where 3 pt necessary.

Suggested answer

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III.Essay writing (30points)

Long ago, people bought things through barter trade. However, the difficulty of having to look for the right partner and dividing the goods led people to switch over to monetary transaction. At first, beads, shells and fishing hooks were used as money. Near Turkey, gold coins with irregular denominations were used for trade. Later, King Gyges standardized the individual coin value. People soon found carrying coins around for shopping troublesome and thieves courting. Hence, merchants started to issue checks with names of the users on them to discourage robbery. Following that, banks started to issue cash notes in return for gold deposited with them. Finally, adopting the idea, today, governments printed paper money backed by gold for the country's usage. (119 words ) II. Graph description (20 points)

TRẠI HÈ HÙNG VƯƠNG TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN HƯNG YÊN

ĐỀ THI MÔN: ANH VĂN

ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT

KHỐI 11 NĂM 2018 Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút

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(Đề thi gồm 18 trang)

A. LISTENING (50 points)

Part 1. Complete the passage below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. (20pts)

Studying geography helps us learn a lot about the effects of different processes on the (1)

________ . Aslo, it informs us about the dynamic between (2) ________and population.

Geography has two main branches. One is the study of its physical features and the other is the

study of human lifestyles and their (3) ________. However, there are more specific study areas

ro consider. These inlcude biophysical, topographic, political, social, economic, historical, (4) ________ and also cartography – the art and science of map-making. Briefly, studying

geography is necessary as it helps us to understand our surroundings and all the (5)

________.So, what do geographers do? The first step is finding data such as conducting

censuses, collecting information in the form of images using (6) ________or satellite

technology. The next step is analysing data, identifying (7) ________ - commonly those of

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causes and effects. Then comes the last step, publishing findings to help people get access and informed by it. This can be done in the form of maps which are easy to carry and can show physical features of large and small areas. However, a two-dimensional map will always have

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some (8) ________. Another way is using aerial photos, which can show areas of (9)

________, traffic density or ocean floor. Last but not least, there are Lansat pictures sent to receiving stations used for monitoring (10) ________conditions, for example. Your answers: 1.

4. 1

10.

Part 2. Listen to a talk between Paul and Kira and answer the following questions. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. (10 pts) ………………………………………………………………

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1. How did the students do their practical sessions? 2. In the second semester how often did Kira work in a hospital? ……………………………………………………………… 3. How much full-time work did Kira do during the year? ………………………………………………………………

4. Having completed the year, how does Kira feel?

………………………………………………………………

5. In addition to the language, what do overseas students need to become familiar with?

……………………………………………………………… 2.

Your answers:

Part 3. You will hear a conversation between two friends. Listen carefully and decide the following statements are TRUE, FALSE or NOT GIVEN according to what you hear.

(10pts)

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1. Andy is writing an essay about different ancient civilizations. 2. The land where Aztecs used to live is now part of the USA. 3. It was very important for a boy to know how to fight well.

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4. Wendy thinks it was a shame not all girls went to school.

5. The king didn’t make important decisions all by himself. Your answers: 1.

Part 4. You will hear a psychologist being interviewed about friendship. Choose the answer (A, B, C or D) that fits best according to what you hear. (10 pts) 1. From three to five years old, children ___________________ A. are happy to play alone.

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B. prefer to be with their family. C. have rather selfish relationships. D. have little idea of ownership.

2. From age five to eight or ten, children ___________________ A. change their friends more often. B. decide who they want to be friends with.

C. admire people who don’t keep to rules.

D. learn to be tolerant of their friends.

3. According to Sarah Browne, adolescent ___________________

A. may be closer to their friends than to their parents.

B. develop an interest in friends of the opposite sex.

C. choose friends with similar personalities to themselves.

D. want friends who are dependable.

4. Young married people ___________________

A. tend to focus on their children.

B. often lose touch with their friends.

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C. make close friends less easily. D. need fewer friends than single people. 5. In middle or old age people generally prefer ___________________

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A. to say in touch with old friends. B. to see younger friends more often.

C. to have friends who live nearby. D. to spend more time with their friends. Your answers: 3

B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (40 points) Part 1. Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) which best completes each sentence.(20 pts) A. ejected

B. expelled

C. evicted

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1. The woman was ____________from hospital yesterday only a week after her operation. D. discharged

2. ____________further rioting to occur, the governement would be forced to use its emergency powers. A. Should

B. Did

C. Were

D. Had

3. Unfortunately, our local cinema is on the____________of closing down. B. hint

C. edge

A. verge

D. threat

B. otherwise

C. below

A. further

4. All courses at the college are offered on a full-time basis unless____________indicated. D. differently

B. presupposes

C. concerns

D. presents

A. outlines

5. Your argument ____________that Britain is still a great power, this is no longer the case. 6. The construction of the new road is____________winning the support of local residents. B. reliant on

C. dependent on

A. thanks to

D. responsible to

7. Although he didn’t actually say he wanted a radio for his birthday he did B. suggest

C. mention

D. hint

A. imply

____________pretty strongly.

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8. Because of cutbacks in council spending, plans for the new swimming pool had to be ____________. A. stockpiled

B. overthrown

C. shelved

D. disrupted

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9. Don’t let that old rascal take you____________with his clever talk – none of it is true. B. in

C. about

D. down

A. along

10. People living abroad are not ____________to enter for his competition. A. enabled

B. permission

C. capable

D. eligible

11. When attacked by his opponents, the general ________ with a strong justification for his policy. A. hit back

B. struck up

C. leapt up

D.pushed forward

12. Activities in the department store were _______ by animal rights activists protesting A. disorientated

B. disrupted

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against the sale of fur coats. C. deranged

D. disturbed

13. In terms of protocol, the President takes ________ over all others in the country. A. priority

B. the lead

C. precedence

D. the head

14. I recommend that you ______ out the information for the courses online. You’ll find everything you need there. B. to check

C. check

D. for checking

A. checking

B. eligible

C. appropriate

D. particular

A. entitled

15. You’ll be pleased to know that you are _____ for a scholarship if you wish to apply.

B. racked

C. took

D. put

A. crossed

16. It never _____ my mind that he was lying to me.

17. The children’s diet was _____ in Vitamin C, which has caused a lot of problems. B. faulty

C. deficient

A. absent

D. missing

18. Don’t thank me for helping in the garden. It was _____ pleasure to be working out of doors B. mere

C. simple

A. plain

D. sheer

B. self-centred

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A. self-effacing

19. My sunburnt nose made me feel rather_____ for the first few days of the holiday. C. self- concious

D. self-evident

20. He’s a nice guy, always already to do somebody a good___________. A. present

B. play

C. turn

D. pleasure

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Your answers 1.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

Part 2. Complete the following text with the correct forms of the words given in the brackets. (10 pts) 1. I was surprised by the _____ of the occasion. All the men wore dark suits and ties. (FORMAL)

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2. It is _______to write by hand instead of using a computer. (EFFICIENCY) 3. The unresponsive audience made the lecturer somewhat _______. What a shame! (HEART) 4. The tourists were impressed by the _______of the jewellery in the museum. (SPLENDID) 5. Any opposition to the rules is _______. (TOLERATE)

6. Small children are very _______in their behaviour. They just copy what they see. (IMITATE)

7. There was a sudden _______of clapping and cheering as he rose to receive the Nobel Peace

Prize. (BURST)

8. Crimes of violence were _______rare until a few years ago. (COMPARE)

9. He’s just received _______payments for the contract broken. (COMPENSATE)

10. He works for a(n) _______company for investment. (ADVISE)

10.

Your answers:

Part 3: Identify 10 errors in the following passage and correct them. (10 pts) Simply be bilingual does not qualify anyone to interpreting. Interpreting does not

merely a mechanical process of converting one sentence in language A into a same

sentence in language B. Rather, it is a complex art in that thoughts and idioms which

have no obvious analogues from tongue to tongue or words which have multiple

meanings – must quickly be transformed in many a way that the message is clearly

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and accurately expressing to the listener.

There are two kinds of interpreters, simultaneous and consecutive, each requires

separate talents. The former, sitting in an isolated booth, usually at a large 6

multilingual conference, speaks to listeners wearing headphones, interpreting that a

foreign language speaker says as he says it – actually a sentence afterwards.

Consecutive interpreters are the one most international negotiators use. They are

mainly employed for smaller meetings without sound booths, headphones, and

another high-tech gear.

Your answers: Number Line

Mistake

Correction

1. 2.

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10 C. READING (50 points)

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gap. (10 pts)

Part 1. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each It only requires the completion of the reconstruction of the human genetic map for a

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whole host of hereditary disease to be (1) ………... Originally, it was forecast that the venture would take until the beginning of the 21st century to be accomplished. At present, it is clear

that the task can be finished much earlier. Hundreds of scholars have gone to (2) ………... to help (3) ………... the mystery of the human genetic structure with an ardent hope for (4) ………... mankind from disorders such as cancer, cystic fibrosis or arthritis.

The progress in this incredible undertaking is (5) ………... by an accurate interpretation of the information contained in the chromosomes forming the trillions of the cells in the human body. Locating and characterizing every single gene may (6) ………... an implausible assignment, but very considerable (7) ………... has already been made. What we know by

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now is that the hereditary code is assembled in DNA, some parts of which may be diseased and (8) ………... to the uncontrollable transmission of the damaged code from parents to their children.

Whereas work at the completion of the human genome may last for a few years more, notions like gene therapy or genetic engineering don't (9) ………... much surprise any longer. Their potential application has already been examined in the effective struggle against many

viruses or in the genetic treatment of blood disorders. The hopes are, then, that hundreds of the not too distant future. B. interfered

A. maximum

B. utmost

A. dissolve

D. disrupted

C. supreme

D. extremes

B. interrogate

C. respond

D. unravel

A. liberating

B. surviving

C. insulating

D. averting

A. dependent

B. reliant

C. qualified

D. conditioned

A. sound

B. hear

C. voice

D. perceive

A. headline

B. heading

C. headway

D. headship

A. amiable

B. conceivable

C.evocative

D. conducive

B. institute

C. discharge

D. encourage

B. teased

C. persecuted

D. plagued

C. eradicated

A. terminated

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maladies that humanity is (10) ………... with at the present might eventually cease to exist in

A. evoke

10. A. aggravated 1.

10.

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Your answers:

Part 2: Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only one word in each space. (10pts) BICYCLE SAFETY Having to obey rules and regulations when riding a bike is (0) __one__ of the first

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experiences children have of the idea of obeying the law. However, a large number of children are left to learn the rules by trial and (1) ______, instead of being guided by experienced (2) _______. Every year, hundreds of children visit the doctor or the hospital casualty department (3) ______ crashing on their bikes. This could be easily prevented by (4) _______ them the basics of bicycle safety. Ideally, children should be allowed to ride only in safe places, such as parks and cycle tracks. When this is not possible, and they are permitted to go on the (5)

______, it is important to teach them some basic safety principles.

First, they ought to learn and obey the rules of the road, which (6) _______ traffic signs,

signals and road markings. Second, they should always wear a helmet. Studies have shown

that wearing bicycle helmets can (7) ______ head injuries by up to 85 per cent. In many

places, helmets are required by law, particularly (8) _______ children. Finally, children should be made to understand (9) _______ importance of riding in areas that are brightly lit and of Your answers: 2.

10.

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wearing clothes that make (10) _______ clearly visible on the road.

Part 3. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. (10 pts) Travel journalist Richard Madden reports on his first trip with a camera crew.

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It was books that first captured my imagination about faraway places. TV travelogues

always seemed the poor relation to the classic written accounts, although of course the pictures were rather better. And then there was the issue of authenticity. All those pretentious theatrical types dying of thirst in the desert, as if we didn't realise there was a camera crew on hand to cater for their every need. These days programme-makers know that the audience is more 9

sophisticated and the presence of the camera is acknowledged. But can a journey with filming equipment ever be anything other than a cleverly constructed fiction? I recently got the chance to find out, when I was asked to present two one-hour programmes for an adventure travel series. The project was the brainchild of the production

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company Trans-Atlantic Films, which wanted the series presented by writers and adventurers, as well as TV professionals. My sole qualification was as a journalist specialising in 'adventure' travel. However, I was thought to have 'on-screen' potential

The first programme was filmed in Costa Rica. Within 24 hours of my arrival, I realised that this was going to be very different from my usual 'one man and his laptop' expeditions. For a start, there were five of us - director, cameraman, sound recordist, producer and

presenter. And then there was the small matter of £100,000 worth of equipment. I soon

realised that the director, Peter Macpherson, was a vastly experienced adventure film-maker.

In his case, the term 'adventure' meant precisely that 'Made a film with X,' he would say

(normally a famous mountaineer or skier), before describing a death-defying sequence at the

top of a glacier in Alaska or hang-gliding off the Angel Falls in Venezuela. Invariably, these reminiscences would end with the words: 'Had a great deal of respect for X. Dead now,

sadly...'

Part of the brief for the series was to put the presenter in unusual situations and see how

he or she coped. One such sequence was the night we spent in the rainforest canopy near the

Rincón de la Vieja National Park in Guanacaste province. I don't have a head for heights and

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would make a poor rock-climber, so my distress is real enough as the camera catches me dangling on a rope some 30 metres up, well short of the canopy platform. Ironically, it was the presence of the camera, looking down on me from above, that gave

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me the impetus for the final push to the top. By this time, I'd learnt how 'sequences' were cut together and realised that one last effort was required. I had to struggle to stay coherent while

the camera swooped within a few millimetres of my face for my reaction. In the end, it was a magical experience, heightened all the more by the sounds of the forest - a family of howler monkeys in a nearby tree, amplified through the sound recordist's headphones. 10

Learning how to establish a rapport with the camera is vital and it took me a while to think of it as a friend rather than a judge and jury. The most intimidating moments were when Peter strolled up to me, saying that the light would only be right for another 10 minutes, and that he needed a 'link' from one sequence to another. The brief was simple. It needed to be 30

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seconds long, sum up my feelings, be informative, well-structured and, most important of all, riveting to watch. 'Ready to go in about five minutes?' he would say breezily.

I soon discovered that the effect of the camera on what was going on around us was far less intrusive than I had imagined. After a first flurry of curiosity, people usually lost interest and let us get on with our job. We were also flexible enough to be spontaneous. Our trip coincided with an 80 per cent solar eclipse, a rare event anywhere in the world. We were in a

village called Santa Elena and captured the whole event on camera. The carnival atmosphere

was infectious and made a welcome addition to our shooting schedule.

1. One thing the writer used to dislike about travel programmes on TV was

A. the repetitive nature of many of them.

B. the dull images that they frequently contained.

C. their lack of respect for the intelligence of the viewers.

D. their tendency to copy the style of famous written accounts.

programmes?

2. What reason is given for the writer becoming involved in making TV travel

A. Other people's belief that he might be suited to appearing on them.

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B. His own desire to discover whether it was possible to make good ones. C. His own belief that it was natural for him to move from journalism to TV. D. A shortage of writers and adventurers willing to take part in them.

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3. Shortly after arriving in Costa Rica, the writer became aware that A. the director had a reputation that was undeserved.

B. he would probably dislike working as part of a team rather than alone. C. he would probably get on well with the director personally. D. his role in the filming would be likely to involve real danger. 4. The writer uses the sequence filmed in the National Park as an example of... 11

A. something he had been worried about before any filming started. B. the sort of challenge that presenters were intended to face in the series. C. something he was expected to be unable to deal with. D. the technical difficulties involved in making films in certain places. A. stimulus

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5. The word “impetus” in the passage is closest in meaning to _______. B. hope

C. disappointment

D. argument

6. What does the writer say about the last part of the sequence in the National Park? A. It taught him a lot about the technical aspects of film-making.

B. He was encouraged to complete it when he looked up at the camera. C. It changed his whole attitude towards doing dangerous things.

D. He was unable to say anything that made sense at this time. B. thrilling

C. thriving

A. satisfying

7. The word “intimidating” in the passage is closest in meaning to ______. D. frightening

8.In paragraph 6 the writer says that he found it particularly difficult to

A. understand what was required of him for a 'link'.

B. change things he was going to do at very short notice.

C. accept certain advice given to him about presenting a film.

D. meet certain demands the director made on him. B. disappointing

C. hilarious

D. unanimous

A. annoying

9. The word “intrusive” in the passage is closest in meaning to ______.

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10.What does the writer use the experience in Santa Elena as an example of? A. Something they filmed although they had not planned to. B. The friendly way in which they were treated by the local people.

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C. Something they did purely for their own enjoyment. D. The kind of thing that viewers like to see in travel films.

Your answers: 1.

10.

Part 4. Read the passage below and choose the correct heading for paragraph A-E from the list of headings below. (20 pts) Question 1-5

How Serious Deforestation Is

Why Deforestation Happens

iii

Deforestation and Biodiversity

The Rate of Deforestation

How Deforestation Happens

Deforestation and the Global Carbon Cycle

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List of Headings

1. Paragraph A 2. Paragraph B

vii Industrialisation and Deforestation

3. Paragraph C

4. Paragraph D

viii What Is the Solution to It?

5. Paragraph E

DEFORESTATION OF TROPICAL RAINFORESTS Throughout the tropics, rainforests are being cut down. By different methods for different

reasons, people in tropical regions of the world are cutting down, burning, or otherwise

damaging forests. The process in which a forest it cut down, burned or damaged is called

‘deforestation’. Global alarm had risen because of the destruction of tropical rainforests. Not

only are we losing beautiful areas, but the loss also strikes deeper. Extinction of many species

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and changes in our global climate are effects of deforestation. If the world continues the current rate of deforestation, the world’s rainforests will be gone within 100 years – causing unknown effects to the global climate and the elimination of the majority of plant and animal

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species on the planet. A. Deforestation occurs in many ways. The majority of rainforests cut down are cleared for

agricultural use – grazing of cattle, planting of crops. Poor farmers chop down a small area (typically a few acres) and burn the tree trunks, a process called ‘Slash and Burn’ agriculture. Intensive, or modern, agriculture occurs on a much larger scale, sometimes deforesting several square miles at a time. Large cattle pastures often replace rainforests to grow beef for the 13

world market. Commercial logging is another common form of deforestation, cutting trees for sale as timber or pulp. Logging can occur selectively – where only the economically valuable species are cut – or by clear cutting, where all trees are cut. Commercial logging uses heavy machinery, such as bulldozers, road graders, and log skidders, to remove cut trees and build

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roads. The heavy machinery is as damaging to a forest as the chainsaws are to the trees. There are other ways in which deforestation happens, such as the building of towns and flooding caused by construction of dams. These represent only a very small fraction of total deforestation.

B. The actual rate of deforestation is difficult to determine and has been the focus of NASAfunded scientists for many years. NASA’s projects to study the deforestation of tropical forests

are conducted by analyzing Satellite Imagery (pictures taken by satellites in space) to view

areas of forest that have been cleared. There are both patches of deforestation and a ‘fishbone’

of deforestation along roads. Forest fragments are isolated forest pieces left by deforestation,

where the plants and animals are cut off from the larger forest areas. Regrowth – also called

secondary forest – is abandoned farmland or timber cuts that are growing back to become forest. The majority of the picture is undisturbed or ‘primary’ forest, with a network of rivers

draining it. The most recent figures by the Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO) estimate

tropical deforestation (rainforests and other tropical forests) at 53,000 square miles per year

during the 1980s. Of this, they estimate that 21,000 square miles were deforested annually in

South America, most of this in the Amazon Basin. Based on these estimates, each year an area

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of tropical forest large enough to cover North Carolina is deforested. Each year! The rate of deforestation varies from region to region. Our research showed that in the Brazilian Amazon, the rate of deforestation was around 6,200 square miles per year from 1978–1986, but fell to

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4,800 sq. miles per year from 1986–1993. By 1998, 6% of the Brazilian Amazon has been cut down (90,000 square miles, about the area of New England). However, due to the isolation of

fragments and the increase in forest-clearing boundaries, a total of 16.5% of the forest (230,000 square miles, nearly the size of Texas) was affected by deforestation. NASA-funded scientists are currently analysing rates of deforestation for the current decade, as well as studying how deforestation changes from year to year. The much smaller region of Southeast 14

Asia (Cambodia, Indonesia, Laos, Malaysia, Myanmar, Thailand and Vietnam) lost nearly as much forest per year from the mid-1970s to the mid-1980s, with 4,800square miles per year converted to agriculture or cut for timber. C. The cause of deforestation is a very complex subject. A competitive global economy forces

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the need for money in poorer tropical countries. At the national level, the governments sell logging concessions to raise money for projects, to pay international debt, or to develop industry. Brazil had an international debt of $159billion in 1995, on which it must make payments each year. The logging companies seek to harvest the forest and make profit from the sales of valuable hardwoods (such as mahogany) and pulp. Deforestation by a peasant farmer is often done to raise crops for self-subsistence, and is driven by the basic human need

for food. Most tropical countries are very poor by U.S. standards, and farming is a basic way

of life for a large part of the population. In Brazil, for example, the average annual earnings of

a single person in is US $5400, compared to $26,980 per person in the United States (World

Bank, 1998). In Bolivia, which holds part of the Amazon rainforest, the average earnings per

person is $800. Farmers in these countries do not have the money to buy necessities and must raise crops for food and to sell.

D. Carbon dioxide (CO2) is the major gas involved in the greenhouse effect, which causes

global warming. All the things that produce CO2 (like a car burning gas) and the things that

consume CO2 (growing plants) are involved in the ‘Global Carbon Cycle’. Tropical forests

hold an immense amount of carbon, which joins with oxygen to form CO2. The plants and soil

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of tropical forests hold 460–575 billion metric tons of carbon worldwide (McKane et al. 1995). Each acre of tropical forest stores about 180 metric tons of carbon. Deforestation increases the amount of CO2 and other trace gases in the atmosphere. When a forest is cut and replaced by

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cropland and pastures, the carbon that was stored in the tree trunks (wood is about 50%carbon) joins with oxygen and is released into the atmosphere as CO2. The loss of forests has a great

effect on the global carbon cycle. From 1850 to 1990, deforestation worldwide (including in the United States) released 122 billion metric tons of carbon into the atmosphere, with the current rate being between1.6 billion metric tons per year (Skole et al. 1998). In comparison, all of the fossil fuels (coal, oil, and gas) burnt during a year release about 6 billion tons per 15

year. Releasing CO2 into the atmosphere increases the greenhouse effect, and may raise global temperatures. The role of fossil fuel burning in cars and industry is well known, but tropical deforestation releases about 25% of the amount released by fossil fuel burning. Tropical deforestation, therefore, contributes a significant part of the increasing CO2 in the atmosphere.

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E. Worldwide, there are between 5 to 80 million species of plants and animals, which make up the ‘biodiversity’ of planet Earth (Lawton and May 1995). Most scientists believe the number of species to be between 10 and 30 million. Tropical rainforests – covering only 7% of the total dry surface of the Earth –hold over half of all of these species (Lovejoy 1997). Of the tens of millions of species believed to be on Earth, scientists have only given names to about 1.5 million of them (Stork 1997). Even fewer of the species have been studied in depth. Many

of the rainforest plants and animals can only be found in small areas, because they require a

special habitat to live. This makes them very vulnerable to deforestation. If their habitats are

cut down, they may go extinct. Every day species are disappearing from the tropical

rainforests as they are cut. We do not know the exact rate of extinction, but estimates range

from one to137 species disappearing worldwide per day (Stork 1996, Rainforest Action Network 1998). The loss of species will have a great impact on the planet. For humans, we are

losing organisms that might have us how to prevent cancer or cure AIDS. Other organisms are

losing species they depend upon, and thus face extinction themselves.

Question 6-10: Complete the sentences, using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS taken

from the passage.

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6. The process in which a forest is cut down, burned or damaged is called _______. 7. Extinction of many species and changes in our global climate are _______. 8. The majority of rainforests cut down is cleared for _______.

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9. The _______ has been the focus of NASA-funded scientists. 10. Releasing CO2 into the atmosphere increases the greenhouse effect, and _______ may rise.

Your answers: 1.

10.

D. WRITING (60 pts) Part 1. Summarizing an extract (10 pts) Read the following text on “win-win negotiation” and use your own words to summarize it. Your summary should be between 120 and 140 words long. You MUST NOT copy the

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original. A win-win negotiation is concluded when both parties gain something of value in exchange for making concessions. Although the balance of power may change during the negotiation process, negotiators on both sides must remain open to options that will ultimately allow for a fair exchange. To achieve a resolution that benefits both parties, everyone involved must be willing to listen carefully to each other’s concerns. To arrive at a conclusion that is

good for everyone, negotiators must reveal what they value and what they don’t value. Good

negotiators look for something that their side does not value but to which the other side assigns

a high value. By offering it, they lose nothing, but the other side gains something, thereby

feeling more disposed to concede something that the other side perceives as valuable. In

addition to listening for ways to help the other side, everyone has to be aware of the limitations that both sides may bring to the table. There are some options that cannot be explored because

they are not possible for one of the parties. For example, a price that does not allow a profit

margin for the company that manufactures it is not a point of negotiation, unless the other side

can offer a way to increase profits or productivity. If that isn’t possible, then perhaps a service

that saves the buyer money might be a way to balance the firm pricing structure of the goods.

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A win-win negotiation allows both parties to feel that they made a good deal, but another positive outcome is the way that the people involved feel about each other. In traditional bargaining, people on opposite sides of a negotiation tend to view each other as

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adversaries, a relationship that is often difficult to change after the negotiation has ended and the collaboration is supposed to begin. In a win-win setting, the parties approach the

negotiation as colleagues who want to support each other’s success. When the deal has been made and the collaboration begins, the people involved are already committed to working together for their mutual benefit. 17

Part 2. Describing graph(s) (20 pts) The table below shows the percentage of different-aged cars in four countries. Write a report of about 150 words for a university lecturer describing the information shown below: 5-8 years

9-12 years

13 years or

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New to 3 4-5 years

Japan

USA

Britain

New Zealand

years

Part 3. Essay writing (30 pts)

It is generally believed that some people are born with certain talents, for instance for

sport or music and others are not. However, it is sometimes claimed that any child can be taught to become a good sports person or musician. Which one do you prefer?

Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge

and experience. Write at least 250 words.

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Người ra đề: Nguyễn Thị Thu Hiền - 0986019669

TRẠI HÈ HÙNG VƯƠNG TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN HƯNG YÊN

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ THI MÔN: ANH VĂN KHỐI 11

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NĂM 2018 Thờigianlàmbài: 180 phút

A.LISTENING(50 points) Part 1.(20 pts).2.0 points for each correct answer

1. earth’s surface

2. environment

3. impact

4. urban geography

5. related/associated problems 6. computer-generation

7. patterns

9. diseased trees

8. degree of distortion

10. weather

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Part 2.(10 pts). 2.0 points for each correct answer 1. (in) groups

2. every 2 days

3. 2 weeks

4. confident

5. education system

Part 3.(10 pts).2.0 points for each correct answer 2. F

3. T

4. T

5. T

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1. F

Part 4.(10 pts).2.0 points for each correct answer 1. C

2. B

3. D

B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (40 points) Part 1:(20 pts). 1.0 point for each correct answer

4. C

5. A

1. D

2. C

3.A

4.B

5.D

6.C

7.D

8.C

9.B

10.D

11.A

12.B

13.C

14.C

15.B

16.A

17.C

18.D

19.C

20.C

Part 2.(10 pts). 1.0 point for each correct answer 2. inefficient

3. disheartened

4. splendour

5. intolerable

6. imitative

7. outburst

8. comparatively 9.compensatory

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1. formality

10. advisory

Part 3: (10 pts). One identified error: 0.5 point, one right corrected error: 0.5point Line

Mistake

does

a same

in that

in which

many a

such a

expressing

expressed

N Ơ

Y U

for is the same

requiring

interpreting that

interpreting what

the one

The ones

another

other

requires

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10.

Correction

Number

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C. READING (50 pts) 1. C

2. D

3. D

4. A

5. D

6. A

7. C

8. D

9. A

10. D

Part 1: ( 10pts) 1.0 point for each correct answer

Part 2: ( 10pts) 1.0 point for each correct answer

1. error

2. adults/people 3. after

4. teaching

5. road

6. include

7. reduce

9. the

10. them

8. for

Part 3: ( 10pts) 1.0 point for each correct answer 2. A

3. D

4. B

6. B

7. D

8. D

9. A

Part 4: ( 20pts) 2.0 point for each correct answer 2. iv

6. deforestation 7. effects of

4. vi

8. agricultural

9. rate of

use

deforestation

3. ii

1. v

5. A

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1. C

D. WRITING (60 pts)

Part 1: Summary (10 pts)

1. Completion: 0.5pt

2. Content: 3 pts

- Cover the main information in the chart yet not go into too many details.

- Make general remarks and effective comparisons.

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3. Organisation: 3 pts

- The ideas are well organized

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- The description is sensibly divided into paragraphs

4. Language: 3 pts - Use a wide range of vocabulary and structure - Good grammar 5. Punctuation and spelling: 0.5pt

10. A

5. iii

10. global

temperatures

Part 2: Chart description (20 pts) 1. Completion: 1 pt 2. Content: 6 pts

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- Cover the main information in the chart yet not go into too many details. - Make general remarks and effective comparisons. 3. Organisation: 6 pts - The ideas are well organized

- The description is sensibly divided into paragraphs

4. Language: 6 pts

- Use a wide range of vocabulary and structure

Part 3: Essay writing (30 points)

1. Completion: (2 pts.) 2. Content: (9 pts)

5. Punctuation and spelling: 1 pt

- Good grammar

Provide relevant and convincing ideas about the topic, supported by specific example and/or

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reasonable justification.

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3. Organization: (8 pts)

- Ideas are well organized and presented with unity, cohesion and coherence.

4. Language: (9 pts) - Demonstrate of a wide range of vocabulary and structures. - Good use of grammatical structures. - Present the ideas with clarity.

5. Punctuations and spelling. (2 pts) LISTENING TAPESCRIPT Part 1 So, welcome to your introductory geography lecture. We’ll begin with some basics. Firstly,

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what do we learn by studying geography?

Well, we learn a great deal about all the processes that have affected and that continue to affect the earth’s surface. But we learn far more than that, because studying geography also informs us about the different kinds of relationships that develop between a particular environment and the people that live there.

Ok, we like to think of geography as having two main branches. There’s the study of the nature of our planet-its physical features, what it actually looks like-and then there’s the study of the

ways in which we choose to live and of the impact of those on our planet. Our current use of

carbon fuels is a good example of that.

But there are more specific study areas to consider too, and we’ll be looking at each of these in

turn throughout this semester. These include bio-physical geography, by which I mean the study

of the natural environment and all its living things. Then there’s topography – that looks at the

shape of the land and oceans. There’s the study of political geography and social geography too,

of course, which is the study of communities of people. We have economic geography – in which we examine all kinds of resources and their use – agriculture, for example. Next comes

historical geography – the understanding of how people and their environments and the ways

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they interact have changed over a period of time – and urban geography, an aspect I’m particularly interested in, which takes as its focus the location of cities, the services that those

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cities provide, and migration of people to and from such cities. And lastly, we have cartography. That’s the art and science of map-making. You’ll be doing a lot of that!

So, to summarize before we continue, we now have our key answer…studying this subject is important because without geographical knowledge, we would know very little about our surroundings and we wouldn’t be able to identify all the problems that relate to them. So, by definition, we wouldn’t be in an informed position to work out how to solve any of them.

Okay, now for some practicalities. What do geographers actually do? Well, we collect data to begin with! You’ll be doing a lot of that on your first field trip! How do we do this? There are several means. We might, for example, conduct a census – count a population in a given area perhaps. We also need images of the earth’s surface which we can produce by means of

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computer-generation technology or with the help of satellite relays. We’ve come a very long way from the early exploration of the world by sailing ships when geographers only had pens and paper at their disposal.

After we’ve gathered our information, we must analyse it! We need to look for patterns, most commonly those of causes and consequences. This kind of information helps us to predict and resolve problems that could affect the world we live in.

But we don’t keep all this information confidential. We then need to publish our findings so that

other people can access it and be informed by it. And one way in which this information can be

published is in the form of maps. You’ll all have used one at some stage of your life already.

Let’s consider the benefits of maps from a geographer’s perspective.

Maps can be folded and put in a pocket and can provide a great store of reference when they are collected into an atlas. They can depict the physical features of the entire planet if necessary, or,

just a small part of it in much greater detail. But there is a drawback. You can’t exactly replicate

something that is three-dimensional, like our planet, on a flat piece of paper, because paper has

It can’t be avoided.

only two dimensions, and that means there’ll always be a certain degree of distortion on a map.

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We can also use aerial photographs…pictures taken by cameras at high altitude above the earth. These are great for showing all kinds of geographical features that are not easy to see from the ground. You can easily illustrate areas of diseased trees or how much traffic is on the roads at a

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given time or information about deep sea beds, for example. Then there are Lansats. These are satellites that circle the earth and transmit visual information

to computers at receiving stations. They circle the earth several times a day and can provide a mass of information- you’ll all be familiar with the information they give us about the weather, for example.

So, what we’re going to do now is look at a short presentation in which you’ll see all these tools… Part 2 And how was your timetable? Was it a very busy year?

Kira:

Very, very busy. They make you work very hard. Apart from lectures, we had

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Paul:

practical sessions in a lot of subjects. We did these in small groups. I had to go

and work four hours every week in a community pharmacy. Actually, I enjoyed

this very much – meeting new people all the time. Then in second semester, we had to get experience in hospital dispensaries, so every second day we went to

one of the big hospitals and worked there. And on top of all that we had our

assignments, which took me a lot of time. Oh, I nealy forgot, between first and That does sound a very heavy year. So are you pleased now that you did it? Do

Yeah, I do feel much more confident, which I suppose is the most important

Kira:

you feel some sense of achievement? thing.

And have you got any recommendations for people who are studying from

Paul:

overseas?

Well, I suppose they need very good English. It would be much better if they

Kira:

Paul:

second semesters, we had to work full-time for two weeks in a hospital.

spent more time learning English before they enter the university, because you

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can be in a big trouble if you don’t understand what people are saying and you haven’t got time to translate.

Paul:

Well, as I said before, the biggest problem for me was a lack of familiarity with

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Kira:

Anything else?

the education system here. It sounds as if it was a real challenge. Congratulations, Kira.

Kira:

Thanks, Paul.

Paul:

Part 3 A: What are you studying in your history class this term, Andy?

B: We’re studying ancient civilizations. As a matter of fact, I have to write an essay about the Aztecs. A: Oh, that sounds interesting. They lived in Central America, didn’t they? B: Yes, where Mexico is today … you know, Wendy, they had huge cities with temples, A: I see … I’m sure their craftsmen were really skilled then.

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markets, canals and everything. B: Definitely. They built some amazing building and people have found really beautiful Aztec sculptures and jewellery.

A: So, tell me, when did they live? Was it in the 14th … 15th century? B: That’s right …

A: And what about their everyday life … I mean, for example, did children go to school?

B: Yes …

A: Really … both boys and girls?

B: Well, boys went to school at about the age of 10 to receive general education and of course

to learn the art of war. It was every boy’s dream to become a great warrior. A: What about girls?

B: Only some girls went to school. Most of them learned how to take care of the household, you

course …

know, cook food, make clothes, things like that. They learned everything from their mothers of

A: That was so unfair! I mean, girls deserved an education, too.

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B: Well, things were different then … A: So who was in charge? Did they have a king? B: Of course! They were a big empire! But the priests and soldiers were very close to the king

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and he often asked for their opinion on important matters. A: So what happened to the Aztecs in the end?

B: Well the Spanish arrived in Central America in the early 1500s and they soon conquered most of the Aztec empire. Part 4

Interviewer: And now Sarah Brown is here to talk to us about her latest book. Patterns of Friendship.Sarah, you’ve found that there are quite noticeable patterns in the way that people make friends… Sarah Brown: Mmm, absolutely. For example, friendship becomes important quite early on, in

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children as young as tree. But up to about five, children have what you could call unchosen playmates, based quite practically on what’s available, they can’t exactly go out to look for them…often the children of their parents’ friends, or family relations. And it’s actually quite an egoistic relationship at this stage- there may be frequent quarrels over possessions-toys and so on..

I: Yes, you think they’ll play together happily sharing their toys and the next thing you know,

one’s in floods of tears and you have to sort it out…

SB: Yes, but by the time the child’s about five it starts to change. Once they’re at school,

children begin to choose their own playmates, other children in the same class, or living nearby

maybe in the same street. And they start to co-operate more. But friendship’s still a way of

serving self-interest, and friends are expected to keep to certain rules. I: Yes, I’ve noticed with my own kids that they can get really upset with their friends…

SB: Yes, exactly, and this carries on to eight or ten years old, but gradually they begin to be see

things from other people’s point of view- and this is, er marks the point at which the child is

beginning to acquire knowledge of social relationships.

I: And how do they develop these social skills?

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SB: Well, from 12 onwards, as they enter adolescence, children are beginning to stand on their feet, er, the influence of their parents tends to decline, and they feel the need for a close friend, nearly always with someone of the same sex. They’re looking for friends who are people they

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admire, who they see as similar to the sort of person they’d like to be…and these friendships take on great importance. Friends have got to be trustworthy and friendships are very exclusive,

but at the same time there’s the group thing, they’re developing networks of friends, having fun together… I: So they go to clubs and cafes big groups…

SB: Mmm, yes, and spend a lot of their free time together. And this continues for some years-so young adults from 18 to 25, or when they get married, have close friendships, like adolescents , and may see their friens everyday, and spend hours on the phone… I: I suppose that for most of us this is probably the period when our circle of friends is at its

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widest, isn’t it? But is it affected by marriage? SB: Oh, yes, quite considerably- the couple may move away, they may have children. Friends still see one another, but instead of every day or every week, they might get together once 2 month or just at special times…parties and so on. I: And what about new friends?

SB: They may make some, but they tend to be based more on neighborhood and work contacts,

I: So loss in the way of sharing secrets and confidences.

and they’re often less intimate than the friendships formed earlier on .

SB: Yes, exactly. And in middle age, between 55 and 65 or even older, after retirement, people

take on new friends even less easily. At this time of life they hold on to earlier friendships,

which are often more intimate than the more recent ones, even though they see these older friends less often. Friends now aren’t based so much on neighborhood they can be with people

of any age. And ironically, when they give up work there’s a further decline on contact with

I: Really?

friends.

SB: yes, because of transport difficulties, illness, that sort of thing. They’re more likely to turn

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back to their families at this point full circle, as you might say!

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I: Sarah Brown, thank you..

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO LAI CHÂU

ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT

TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN LQĐ

Trại hè Hùng Vương lần thứ XIV

(Đề thi gồm có …. trang)

Môn: Tiếng Anh 11

A. LISTENING (50 points)

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Người ra đề: Đồng Tiến Giang Số điện thoại: 0919.151.986

Part 1.You will hear a talk on the subject of the urban landscape. Complete the notes below using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. THE URBAN LANDSCAPE

• the effect of vegetation on the urban climate

• ways of planning our (1) ____________ better

Large-scale impact of trees:

• they can make cities more or less (2) ____________

• in summer they can make cities cooler

• they can make inland cities more (3) __________ Local impact of trees:

• they can make local areas

– more (4) _____________ – cooler

Two areas of focus:

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– more humid – less windy

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– less (5) _____________

Comparing trees and buildings Temperature regulation: • trees evaporate water through their (6) __________ 1

• building surfaces may reach high temperatures Wind force: • tall buildings cause more wind at (7) ___________ level

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• trees (8) ___________ the wind force Noise: • trees have a small effect on traffic noise • (9) ________ frequency noise passes through trees Important points to consider:

• trees require a lot of sunlight, water and (10) ______ to grow

Your answers 7. 8.

10.

Part 2. You will hear Tim Cole talking about guidebooks. Listen and give short

answers to the following questions.

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1. Where did Tim end up when he used a guidebook in Australia? ______________________________________________________________

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2. What should be checked when choosing a guidebook? ______________________________________________________________

3. What does Tim particularly dislikes about guidebooks? ______________________________________________________________ 4. What is Tim’s view on digital guidebooks? ______________________________________________________________ 5. How did Tim feel when he experienced Twitter tourism? 2

______________________________________________________________ Part 3. You will hear part of a radio programme in which a psychologist talks about the way in which people behave in crowds and groups. For questions 1 -

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5, indicate which views he expresses by writing YES or NO in the box provided. 1. People usually only laugh if other are doing so. 2. Being in a crowd can make us unhappy.

3. Groups of ants and bees have little in common with groups of human. 4. People often feel restricted when they are members of a group.

5. Most people do not realize that their behavior changes according to who they are with.

Part 4. You will hear an interview with an architect called Lucy Collet who

designs small buildings. For questions 1-5, choose the answer (А, В, C or D)

which fits best according to what you hear.

1. Lucy enjoyed building the tree-house because it ________. A. gave her children somewhere to play

B. presented an interesting design problem

C. demonstrated the type of work she does

D. allowed her to fulfil a childhood ambition 2. What fascinated Lucy about the historical phone boxes?

A. their international character

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B. their luxurious interiors C. their range of styles

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D. the quality of their construction 3. At college, Lucy designed small buildings so that they ________.

A. could be assembled in a shorter time B. would comply better with safety rules C. would have a wider range of uses D. could be built in a simpler style 4. What did Lucy like best about her award-winning design? 3

A. the shape B. the display space C. the decoration 5. The hotel phone booths which Lucy worked on were A. developed with mobile phone users in mind

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D. the building material

B. designed for countries with relatively few mobile phones C. placed at the entrance to the hotel lobby D. intended to be the largest feature of the lobby

B. LEXICO - GRAMMAR (40 points)

Your answers

Part 1. Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to complete each sentence below.

(20 pts)

1. The politician tried to arouse the crowd, but most of them were ________to his

arguments.

B. differ

C. differently

A. indifferent

D. different

2. It’s not fair to make the dog _________in the car on such a hot day. B. wait

A. to wait

C. waiting

D. for waiting

3. There’s no_______between Gary and Mark, even though they are brothers.

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A. resemblance

B. appreance

C. correspondence D. reflection

4. Everyone started to____around the old woman on the floor, but no one offered

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her any help.

A. crowd

B. put

C. spread

D. hang

5. Many women find it hard to_____________both a job and a family. A. catch up with

B. deal with

C. cope with

D. keep up with

6. She should have been here but she’s ____________flu. Therefore, she has to go to see the doctor. 4

A. gone through with

B. gone down with

C. come in for

D. come against

7. Pornography may be legally banned but it is still available _______the counter. A. under

B. over

C. in

D. without

A. beyond

B. over

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8. We all have to follow the rules, and none of us is________the law. C. above

D. onto

9. In most _______developed countries, up to 50% of______population enters higher education at some time in their lives. A. a/a

B. the/the

C. a/the

D. Ø /the

mine! B. whose

C. which

A. who has

10.You’re the first person I’ve met________polictical views are more left-wing than D. whom

11.________in this national park declined from a few thousand to a few hundred in

ten years. A. For a number of tigers

B. The number of tigers D. That the number of tigers

C. A number of tigers

D. Her anger was so

C. She was so anger

B. Such her anger

A. So angry was she

12. ___________that she burst into tears.

13. Larry drove all night to get here for his sister’s wedding. He_________

exhausted by the time he arrived. B. could be

C. ought to be

D. will have been

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A. must have been

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14. ___________________, he would have been able to pass the exam. A. Studying more

B. Had he studied more

C. If he studied more

D. If he were studying more

15. I have a good job with good salary. You _________send me any money, my lovely mother. A. mustn’t

B. had better

C. can’t

D. needn’t 5

16.No matter how much pressure you put on Simon, he won’t budge a(n) _______ . A. inch

B. mile

C. foot

D. meter

17. Staying in a hotel costs _______ renting a room in a dormitory for a week. B. twice as much as

C. twice more than

D. twice as

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A. as much as twice

18.The windows were all left open. _____, the room was a real mess after the windstorm. A. Nevertheless

B. However

C. Consequently D. Otherwise

19. Mike and Joe are talking about transport in the future.

- Mike: “Do you think there will be pilotless planes?” – Joe: “______________”

A. I’m afraid I can’t.

B. What for? There are quite a few around.

C. Why not? There have been cars without drivers.

D. I’m glad you like it.

20.Julie and Ann are talking about their classmate.

11.

12.

Your answers

13.

B. What are you thinking?

D. He is quite good-looking, isn’t he?

C. How did you meet him?

A. Do you see him often?

- Julie: “_______________” - Ann: “Yeah, not bad, I suppose.”

10.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

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Part 2. Fill each gap of the following sentences with the correct form of the word in brackets. Write your answers in the correspondent numbered boxes.

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(10 pts)

1.Astronomers at the ________have announced that they have discovered a new comet.(OBSERVE)

2. I don’t wish to appear _________, but you are at least partly to blame for the situation, you know. (SYMPATHY) 3. The man was later charged with ________a police officer. (PERSON) 6

4. I__________ dialed Bob’s number instead of Ken’s, so was surprised when Bob answered. (INTEND) 5. The school football pitch has been ______________over the summer to conform to new national standards. (LONG)

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6. If you have any complaints about a neighbor, take them to your resident’s

_________, where they should be able to advise you further. (ASSOCIATE)

7. I don’t know who’s responsible because I __________here long. (NOT/WORK)

8. When confronted with a mass of red tape, many people feel a sense of_________. (POWER)

9. There’s so much fighting between rival groups that the country has become

practically ________. (GOVERN)

company continues to make profit. (EMPLOY)

10. It’s my responsibility as an employer of over 500 ____________to ensure this

Your answers 1.

10.

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Part 3. The passage below contains 10 mistakes. Underline the mistakes and correct them in the space provided in the column on right. (0) has been done as

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an example. (10 pts) 0

respect as aslightly bow of the head. In rural areas, elderly people who do not extend their

Vietnamese generally shake hands when getting and parting. Use both hands shows

2 3 4

hand are greeted with bow. Women are more certainly to bow than the head than to shake hands. Vietnamese

names begin with the family game and are chased by a given name.

People address one another

by their given names, but add a title that indicates their 7

received relationship on the other person. These titles are family relate rather than

professional. Among colleagues, for example, the young of the two might combine the

given name with the given name and title is Xin chao (hello). Classifiers for gender and

familiarity are also combined with the greeting. In formal meetings, business cards are

sometime changed on greeting. Vietnamese people have a strong sense of hospitality and

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10 feel embarrassing if they can not show their guests full respect by preparing for their

11 arrival. Therefore, it is appropriate to visit someone without having been invited. Gifts are 12 not required, so are appreciated. Flowers, incense, or teat may be proper gifts for the hosts.

Your answers Mistake

Correction

Mistake

Correction

Line

Hosts also appreciate a small gift for their children or elderly parents.

3 5

C. READING (50 points)

Part 1. Read the following passage and choose the best answer A, B, C or D for

each question. Write your answers in the space provided. (10 pts)

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Reports that the government is about to_________( 1) the go ahead to plans for the building of a new runway at London’s Gatwick airport have angered local residents

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and raised fears of increased noise and exhaust pollution. The (2) _________ plans also include permission for additional night flights and will (3) _________ the

compulsory purchase of farmland, as well as the demolition of a number of private homes. According to sources close to the Ministry of Transport, the government is known to be concerned by the increasing (4) _________ of traffic at London Heathrow, where there are no plans for further runways in the foreseeable (5) _________ . Gatwick is widely (6) _________ as a better (7) _________ for 8

expansion than London’s third airport, Stansted, which still suffers from poor transport links. A spokesperson for the Keep Gatwick Quiet association, (8) ________ up of local people, accused the government of going back on promises made before the General Election. “We were told then that the airport authority had

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no (9) _________ of building another runway, and we believe that the government

has a duty to (10) _________ its pledges. “Prominent figures in the government are also believed to be concerned at the news, although the Prime Minister, interviewed last night, is quoted as saying that reports were “misleading”. However, he would not give an assurance that plans for building a runway had definitely been rejected. 1.

A. sign

B. make

C. give

D. approve

A. controversial

B. debatable

C. notorious

A. involve

B. concern

C. assume

D. need

A. sum

B. size

C. volume

D. length

A. years

B. period

A. regarded

B. believed

A. potential

B. outlook

A. made

B. set

A. desire

10.

A. bear out

D. doubtful

C. time

D. future D. held

C. prospect

D. likelihood

C. brought

D. taken

B. intention

C. wish

D. objective

B. count on

C. pull off

D. stand by

10.

Your answers

C. felt

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Part 2. Read the passage carefully and fill in each gap with a suitable word. (10

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pts)

Some people believe that soon schools will no longer be necessary. These

people say that because of the Internet and other new technology, there is no longer any need for school buildings, formal classes, or (1) ________. Perhaps this will be true one day, but it is hard to imagine a world without (2) ________. In fact, we need to look at how we can use new technology to make schools (3) ________, not to eliminate them. 9

We should invent a new kind of school that is linked to libraries, (4) ________, science centers, laboratories, and even companies. Experts could give (5) ________ on video or over the Internet. TV networks and local stations could develop programming about things students are actually (6) ________ in school. Is this just a

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dream? No. Already there are several towns where this is beginning to (7)

________. Blacksburg, Virginia, is one of them. Here the entire city is linked to the Internet, and learning can take place at home, at school and in the (8) ________. Businesses provide program for the schools and the community. The schools

provide computer labs for people without their own (9) ________ at home. Because everyone can use the Internet, older people participate as much as younger ones, and

Your answers

everyone can visit distant libraries and museums as easily as (10) ________ ones.

10.

Part3. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your

answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. (10 points) GENETICS

In the 1860s, an Austrian botanist and monk named Gregor Mendel began

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studying the characteristics of pea plants. Specifically, he was interested in the way in which pea plants passed on their characteristics to their offspring. Mendel chose

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to work with pea plants because they are not self-pollinating. Unlike some plants, pea plants are distinctly male or female, and require the presence of a pea plant of

the opposite sex for pollination. In this way, they are roughly analogous to humans and all other mammals, and it is for this reason that Mendel chose to study them. In his experiments, Mendel selected seven distinct traits in pea plants: such as plants producing round seeds versus those producing wrinkled seeds, or tall plants versus short plants. Mendel then spent years breeding plants with different 10

combinations of traits and observing the results. What he concluded was that each trait is controlled by a gene which is passed down by parents. For example, there is gene for pea plants with round seeds and one for plants with wrinkled seeds. Mendel also concluded that a new pea plant must inherit a full set of genes from each of its

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parents. In cases, where a plant inherited the gene for round seeds from one parent and the gene for wrinkled seeds from the other, the new plants would have round

seeds. This led Mendel to conclude that some genes are dominant and others are recessive. Characteristics which are controlled by recessive genes, like wrinkle seeds in pea plants, only surface if an organism inherits the recessive gene from both of its parents.

Although it was greatly expanded upon in the 20th century, Mendel’s basis

theory has stood up to more than one hundred years of scientific scrutiny, and a

whole field of scientific study, genetics, has arisen around it. It is now known that

Mendel’s genes are actually long strands of a complex. Molecule called DNA. Each gene carries instructions for the production of a certain protein. , and it is these

proteins which determine the traits of an organism. We also know that genes are

transmitted in structures called chromosomes, long chains of genes. Humans have

46 chromosomes, receiving 23 from their mother and 23 from their father. Actually

each set of 23 is basically a complete genetic package, but since some genes are dominant and some are recessive, the redundancy events out.

Mendel’s observations led him to a simple and elegant theory heredity, but

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while the basis of his theory will stand, reality has not proven to be quite as simple as theory. Any living organism has thousands of genes. For example, fruit flies have

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about 13,000 sets of genes, and humans have somewhere between 20,000 and 30,000 adding to the complexity implied by the sheer numbers of genes is the fact

that many traits are polygenic; that is, they are controlled by a combination of tens or even hundreds of genes, rather than by a single gene as Mendel had envisioned. So while his experiments produced black and white results (a pea plant had either round or wrinkled seeds), the interactions of genes in determining traits are often not so straightforward, and there may be hundreds or thousands of possible outcomes. 11

Genetics has had a huge impact on the first years of the 21st century. While earlier scientists were largely limited to investigating the genes of organisms and classifying which genes controlled which traits, recent advances in chemistry and molecular biology have actually allowed scientists to begin to alter those genes. The

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implications of this development are nearly infinite. While still in its infancy, this new science, called genetic engineering, has allowed scientists to change organisms

in fundamental ways. Scientists can now deactivate harmful genes, promote the function of useful genes, or introduce foreign genes into an organism to produce an entirely new trait. experiments was that

A. they were easier to breed than other types of plants

1. According to paragraph 1, Mendel’s reason for choosing pea plants for his

B. their method of reproduction was similar to that of mammals

C. they passed interesting characteristics to their offspring D. he was interested in studying why some plants are self-pollinating B. seed

C. gene set

A. trait

2. The phrase “the other” in the passage refers to

D. parent

3. According to the information in paragraph 2, what led Mendel to conclude that

some genes were recessive? parents.

A. In some cases, pea plants completely failed to inherit characteristics from their

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B. Some of his pea plants produced seeds that were progressively more and more wrinkled.

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C. Some characteristics only seemed to surface if both parents had that characteristic.

D. In some cases, his pea plants did not seem to inherit a full set of genes from each parent. 4. The word “scrutiny” in the passage is closet in meaning to A. investigation

B. opposition

C. application 12

D. theory

5. All of the following are mentioned in the passage as supplements to Mendel’s original theory EXCEPT A. an explanation of how some genes dominate others C. the counting of genes and gene grouping in organisms D. the manipulation of genes to produce specific traits

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B. the chemical description of genes

6. According to paragraph 3, what is ultimately responsible for the production of specific traits in an organism? A. The replication of chromosomes C. The use of proteins to create DNA in the organism

D. The structural complexity of the DNA molecule

B. The production of proteins within the organism

7. According to paragraph 4, what fact complicates Mendel’s theory?

A. The fact that many traits are controlled by several genes B. The fact that the exact numbers of genes for organism are uncertain

C. The fact that organisms can have very different numbers of genes

D. The fact that Mendel had only thought in black and white terms

8. Based on the information in paragraph 4, what can be inferred about the genetic

make up of organisms?

A. Humans have the highest number of genes that are polygenic.

B. Their traits are actually impossible to predict.

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C. Only organisms that lack polygenetic traits are properly understood. D. More advanced organisms generally have higher numbers of gene sets.

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9. The word “envisioned” in the passage is closest in meaning to A. imagined

B. required

C. represented

D. tested

10. Which of the following is not true? A. According to Mendel, traits were passed down through genes, which could either be recessive or dominant. B. Mendel’s basic theory has proved to be very complicated. C. Humans have 46 long chains of genes. 13

D. Thanks to genetics engineering, scientists can now make fundamental changes to organisms. Your answers: 1.

10.

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Part 4. Read the following passage and do the tasks that follow. (10pts) THE ALEXANDER TECHNIQUE AND DISABILITY A

The Alexander Technique is a method of psychophysical re-education developed by

F. Matthias Alexander more than a century ago, initially as a result of trying to solve

a vocal problem. It is a technique for the elimination of ingrained habits of 'misuse' that interfere with the healthy and harmonious functioning of ourselves as a whole,

often the underlying cause of many conditions, such as back pain, neck and shoulder

tension, fatigue, breathing disorders and other stress-related illnesses.

Our natural reflex mechanisms for balance and posture are largely dependent on the co-ordination of the head, neck and back. The Technique addresses the causes of

'misuse' and lack of poise that may be interfering with this relationship. When these

mechanisms are allowed to work in harmony, 'good use' spontaneously returns,

resulting in easier breathing, freer, lighter movement and a greater ability to control our reactions and our movements. In other words, the Technique enables us to 'use'

ourselves better, and, in that sense, is concerned with helping anybody - the so

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called 'able bodied' as well as disabled people to overcome their disabilities. Hence, the Alexander teacher's approach when working with the disabled is, in essence, the

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same as with any pupil of the Technique. C

For example, if we take a violinist with a 'misuse' problem of the upper limbs causing technical limitations to his or her playing, the Alexander teacher will work on improving the pupil's overall 'use' by encouraging the inhibition of the habitual muscular tension pattern that interferes with the co-ordination of the head/neck/back relationship in order to enable him/her to play with more ease. Similarly, when 14

working with a pupil who has lost mobility in the left arm from a stroke, the teacher will first of all address the head/neck/back relationship, and the inhibition of extraneous tension that prevents maximum use of the affected limb. In this way, it is possible to enable the stroke patient to retrain mobility of the paralysed part of the

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body. D

The approach and what results can be expected vary greatly depending on the

disability. For the stroke patient, especially if lessons are commenced early after the stroke, the Alexander Technique can play an important role in rehabilitation and

mobility retraining. With a blind person, the work is likely to focus instead more

directly on eliminating tension habits that have developed to compensate for the loss

of sight, e.g. insecurity leading to stiff and overcautious walking, balancing

difficulties and poor head poise.

Working with the disabled pupil, the Alexander teacher can offer help with

everyday activities, things that the average person takes for granted, such as the

ability to brush one's teeth, shave, tie one's shoelaces or cut a slice of bread. By

looking at compensatory tension patterns, the teacher can, in many instances, help tasks.

the disabled person find a new means whereby they can perform these everyday

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In this respect, the lessons may extend to include the disabled person's carer, for example the person who regularly has to help someone in and out of a wheelchair.

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Using the Alexander Technique, the carer learns not only to lift and give support in the most efficient way to avoid damaging his/her own back, but, as the two learn

together, they also become better skilled at working out strategies enabling the disabled person to become more independent. G There are, of course, several factors which have to be taken into consideration when working with disabled pupils. They may suffer intense pain and discomfort, loss of 15

Kinaesthetic awareness (sometimes with total loss of sensitivity in parts of the body), severe lack of co-ordination, loss of mobility, memory loss, blindness, deafness, and speech impairment. The effect this has on the person's emotional and psychological state also has to be taken into account. Some disabled pupils may

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need longer lessons, because of the time required to move them from the wheelchair, take off casts, slings and other movement aids, etc. Others may only be able to concentrate for short periods of time and, therefore, require shorter lessons

more frequently. It often requires a certain amount of inventiveness on the part of the Alexander teacher, both as far as practical arrangements and the approach to

teaching are concerned, a challenge that, in most cases, is greatly rewarded by the

positive results.

Questions 1-5

The Reading has seven paragraphs, A-G. Choose the most suitable heading for

each paragraph from the List of Headings below. Paragraphs , E and G have been done for you.

LIST OF HEADINGS

Co-ordination - important for all

Tension and daily routine

iii

Brushing one’s teeth and slicing bread

Fitting the technique to the disability

Challenges for the Alexander teacher

Musical solutions

vii

Potential drawbacks

viii

Helping the disabled through their helpers

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1. Paragraph A:

Pain problems

Better body ‘use’ for all

Retraining limbs

xii

Breaking bad habits

…………… 16

……………

3. Paragraph C:

…… ……

4. Paragraph D:

……………

Paragraph E:

…… ii ……

5. Paragraph F:

……………

Paragraph G:

…… v ……

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2. Paragraph B:

Questions 6-10

Complete the summary below using information from the passage. You may use NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each blank.

Alexander Matthias developed the technique named after him more than a

hundred years ago. With the Alexander Technique, people are

re-educated in a psychophysical way. The Technique works on the body’s

6. ……………… so that they all operate 7. ……………… . As a result,

bad habits are 8. ……………… and the individual is able to live a healthy life. Alexander’s technique can help any of us to use ourselves better. As

regards the disabled person, the expected results and exact method used

vary, according to the 9. ……………… of the individual, e.g. shorter and

more regular sessions in the case of clients who find it difficult to

concentrate. With disabled clients, in fact, a number of factors have to be considered, and for the teacher, who often needs to be very inventive, this

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is 10. ……………… .

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D. WRITING (60 pts) Part 1: Read the following extract and use your own words to summarize it in

about 80 words. YOU MUST NOT copy or rewrite the original. (10 pts) Stems are the structures that support a plant's buds and leaves, carrying nutrients to all parts of the plant. Water and carbohydrates (sugar) are transported through the stem’s interior tissues, which are typically arranged in a concentric ring formation. 17

The outermost ring, called the phloem, is where carbohydrates are transported from the leaves to the roots. This occurs though a process called the pressure-flow mechanism. A movement called translocation transports nutrients from the source, where carbohydrates are made and stored in the plant to the sink, where they are

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needed. Sinks can be roots, flowers, fruits, stems and young leaves. As

carbohydrates enter the phloem from the leaves. Water is transported in by osmosis, which causes pressure to build up, pushing the nutrients downward toward the roots.

Conversely, in the innermost ring of the stem, called the xylem, water moves in an upward direction according to the cohesion-tension theory. Since water molecules

attract each other (a property called cohesion), more water is pulled up from the plant’s root system toward the leaves. This movement causes tension within the

stem’s xylem, creating continuous, thin columns of water that extend through the

stem. As water evaporates within the plant, the tension becomes greater, moving the

water molecules up the plant. Additional water from the soil enters through the roots

to sustain the process and the life of the plant.

________________________________________________________________

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________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________

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________________________________________________________________

Part 2: The graph below shows information about drinking habits of the US population by age. Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features and make comparisons where relevant. Write in about 150

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words. (20 pts)

________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________

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________________________________________________________________

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________________________________________________________________

Part 3. In about 250 words, write a composition of the following topic: A gift (such as a camera, a soccer ball or an animal) can contribute to a child’s development. What gift would you give to help a child develop? Why? Use reasons and specific examples to support your choice. (30 pts)

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________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________

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________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________ ………….THE END………..

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO LAI CHÂU

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT

TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN LQĐ

Trại hè Hùng Vương lần thứ XIV Môn: Tiếng Anh 11

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HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM A. LISTENING (50 points)

Part 1.You will hear a talk on the subject of the urban landscape. Complete the notes below using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. 1.cities / environment

2. windy

3. humid

4. shady / shaded

5. dangerous 6. leaves

7. ground

8. considerably reduce / decrease / filter

9. low

10. space / room

Part 2. You will hear Tim Cole talking about guidebooks. Listen and give short answers to the following questions.

1. a comedy club

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2. the publication date

3. the restaurant suggestions 4. not easy to use

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5. like a real adventure/ adventurous Part 3. You will hear part of a radio programme in which a psychologist talks about the way in which people behave in crowds and groups. For questions 1 5, indicate which views he expresses by writing YES or NO in the box provided.

1. yes

2. no

3. yes

4. no 1

5. no

Part 4. You will hear an interview with an architect called Lucy Collett who designs small buildings. For questions 1-5, choose the answer (А, В, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. 2. C

3. A

4. C

B. LEXICO - GRAMMAR (40 points)

5. B

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1. B

Part 1. Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to complete each sentence below. (20 pts) 2. B

3.A

4. A

5. C

6. B

7. A

11. B

12. B

13. A

14. B

15. D

16. A

17. B

8. C

1. A

10. B

19. C

20. D

18. C

9. D

Part 2. Fill each gap of the following sentences with the correct form of the

word in brackets. Write your answers in the correspondent numbered boxes.

(10 pts)

6.association

4.intentionally

9.ungovernable 10.employees

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5.lengthened

8.powerlessness

3. impersonating

7.haven’t worked

2.unsympathetic

1.observatory

Part 3. The passage below contains 10 mistakes. Underline the mistakes and correct them in the space provided in the column on right. (0) has been done as

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an example. (10 pts)

Line

Mistake

Correction

Line

Mistake

Correction

slightly

slight

young

younger

certainly

likely

changed

exchanged

chased

followed

embarrassing

embarrassed

appropriate

inappropriate

relate

but

C. READING (50 points)

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Part 1. Read the following passage and choose the best answer A, B, C or D for each question. Write your answers in the space provided. (10 pts) 1.C

2. A

3. A

4. C

5. D

6. A

7. C

8. A

9. B

10. D

Part 2. Read the passage carefully and fill in each gap with a suitable word. (10 pts) 2. schools

3. better

5. talks/lecture

6. studying

7. happen

8. offices/workplace

9. computers

4. museums

1. teachers

10. nearby

Part3. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your 3. C

4. A

5. A

6. B

2. D

7. A

8. D

9. A

1. B

answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. (10 points)

2. x

3. xi

4. iv

5. viii

1. xii

Part 4. Read the following passage and do the tasks that follow. (10pts) 6. reflex mechanisms/ reflexes

7. in harmony/ harmoniously

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8. eliminated

9. requirements/ disability 10. a challenge/ challenging

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D. WRITING (60 pts)

Part 1. Summarizing an extract (10points) Requirements: Good summary with enough content and clear, logical information. 1. Completion: (0.2 points) - The writting is complete 3

10. B

- Neither too long nor too short 2. Content: (0.8 points) - Cover the main information in the extract yet not go into too much detail. + Stems are suport structure for a plant’s buds and leaves.

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- The summary should include the following information: + Concentric ring within the stem transport nutrients downward from the source to the plant’s roots through the pressure-flow mechanism.

+ Water evaporates from the leaves, which attracts more water molecules upward from the roots.

+ This process creates tention in the interior of the stem for continuous water

movement. More water enters through the roots from the soil, sustaining the life of

The writing is complete.

The writing is neither too long nor too short.

1. Completion: 2pts

Part 2. Describing the graph (20 points)

the plant.

too much detail.

2. Content: 6 pts

Cover the main information of the table yet not go into

Make general remarks and effective comparisons.

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3. Organization: 5pts

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4. Language: 5pts 5. Handwriting,

punctuation and spelling: 2pts

The ideas are well-organized. The description is sensibly divided into paragraphs. Use a wide range of vocabulary and structures. Good use and control of grammatical structures. Intelligible handwriting. Good punctuation and no spelling mistakes.

Part 3. Essay (30 points) 4

1. Completion: 3pts

The writing is complete. The writing is neither too long nor too short. Provide relevant and convincing ideas about the topic.

2. Content: 9 pts

justifications. Present the right form of an essay. 3. Organization: 8pts

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Supported by specific example and/or reasonable

Ideas are well organized and presented with unity, cohesion and coherence.

The writing is sensibly divided into paragraphs. Use a wide range of vocabulary and structures.

4. Language: 7 pts

Good use and control of grammatical structures.

5. Handwriting,

Intelligible handwriting.

punctuation and

Good punctuation and no spelling mistakes.

spelling: 3pts

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-------------------------Hết-------------------------

TAPESCRIPTS PART 1. Good day, ladies and gentlemen. I have been asked today to talk to you about the urban landscape. There are two major areas that I will focus on in my talk: how vegetation can have a significant effect on urban climate, and how we can better plan our cities using trees to provide a more comfortable environment for us to live in.

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Trees can have a significant impact on our cities. They can make a city, as a whole, a bit less windyor a bit more windy, if that's what you want. They can make it a bit cooler if it's a hot summer day in an Australian city, or they can make it a bit more humid if it's a dry inland city. On the local scale - that is, in particular areas within the city - trees can make the local area more shady, cooler, more humid and much less windy. In fact trees and planting of various kinds can be used to make city streets actually less dangerous in particular areas. How do trees do all that, you ask?

Well, the main difference between a tree and a building is a tree has got an internal mechanism to keep the temperature regulated. It evaporates water through its leaves and that means that the temperature of the leaves is never very far from our own body temperature. The temperature of a building surface on a hot sunny day can easily be twenty degrees more than our temperature. Trees, on the other hand, remain cooler than buildings because they sweat. This means that they can humidify the air and cool it - a property which can be exploited to improve the local climate.

Trees can also help break the force of winds. The reason that high buildings make it windier at ground level is that, as the wind goes higher and higher, it goes faster and faster. When the wind hits the building, it has to go somewhere. Some of it goes over the top and some goes around the sides of the building, forcing those high level winds down to ground level. That doesn't happen when you have trees. Trees filter the wind and considerably reduce it, preventing those very large strong gusts that you so often find around tall buildings.

Another problem in built-up areas is that traffic noise is intensified by tall buildings. By planting a belt of trees at the side of the road, you can make things a little quieter, but much of the vehicle noise still goes through the trees. Trees can also help reduce the amount of noise in the surroundings, although the effect is not as large as people like to think. Low-frequency noise, in particular, just goes through the trees as though they aren't there.

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Although trees can significantly improve the local climate, they do however take up a lot of space. There are root systems to consider and branches blocking windows and so on. It may therefore be difficult to fit trees into the local landscape. There is not a great deal you can do if you have what we call a street canyon - a whole set of high-rises enclosed in a narrow street. Trees need water to grow. They also need some sunlight to grow and you need room to put them. If you have the chance of knocking buildings down and replacing them, then suddenly you can start looking at different ways to design the streets and to introduce ... (fade out) Part 2. Tim: I'm Tim Cole, and as an experienced travel writer, I'm here to tell you not to believe everything you read in guidebooks because following some of the recommendations they give can result in the most bizarre situations. I'll never forget the night I arrived in Sydney, for example. I'd turned up at the address of what I thought was a budget hotel given in the guidebook at 1 a.m., exhausted and looking forward to a few hours' rest, but instead found myself at a comedy club, which at the time I didn't find at all funny. 6

The problem is that too many travellers are too trusting of their guidebooks and don't bother to research even the most basic facts before they set off. Some guidebooks are only updated every couple of years, so it's no wonder many things have moved on by the time you get there. The most important thing when choosing a guidebook is to check the publication date; if it's not within the last twelve months, don't buy it.

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Then the other thing to think about is who the guidebook is aimed at. If you're into the history and culture of a place, don't buy a guidebook full of information on the alternative nightlife scene. But my pet hate, and something I'm always extremely wary of, are the restaurant suggestions. So often I've turned up somewhere and the menu, price and décor bear no relation to the place I've been reading about – if they haven't already gone out of business and shut down, that is.

Other things to look out for in a guidebook are the maps. These need to be detailed but not so small you can't read them. You don't want to have to carry a magnifying glass around with you. Books that include unnecessary information are another thing I find annoying – like photos of famous places, for example. We already know what the Eiffel tower looks like! Why not include more background information instead?

Of course, most guidebooks are also now available in a digital format and many travellers prefer using these because they're obviously not heavy to carry, so you can download as many as you like. But I don't find them easy to use at all because navigation is much harder than flicking through the index at the back of a book. Life's just too short and you can never guarantee you'll have wifi access anyway. Until I can get a digital travel guide which is tailor-made for my individual trip, I'm happy to stick with the traditional form of guidebook.

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However, on my trip to Hawaii last summer I experimented with a new way of getting good travel advice: Twitter tourism. Instead of using a guidebook, I decided to rely on the advice of locals and visitors alike – and let them choose what I should visit, where I should stay and what I should eat. I didn’t mind as long as their advice was based on a recent experience. It actually worked out really well and it felt like a real adventure. Without the Twitter travel tips I'd never have visited the Ukulele Festival or eaten spam sushi. One thing I'd never imagined doing – and I'm so grateful for the advice – was a ten-kilometre kayak expedition along the coast for a night time swim with manta rays in a huge cave. A truly magnificent sight. And my top tip for anyone visiting Hawaii! Part 3. Presenter: …I’m joined on the line now by social psychologist David Macintosh. David, is it natural for our behaviour to change when we’re in a crowd environment? Psychologist: Well…yes… it’s natural in the sense that people typically do that. I mean, one very simple example is that you very rarely laugh by yourself but when you’re in a crowd of people, say at some funny film, play or whatever …um…it’s very common to find yourself laughing out loud. Presenter: So what sorts of behaviour do you find in a crowd environment, then? Psychologist: A number of things. I mean, what generally one can say is that people have needs to be with people for various reasons – family, friends, activities, and thay also, um, get things out of simply being in a large crowd. Sometimes it’s just a sense of being, er, somewhat more anonymous. They sometimes also get an amplification of feelings. I mean, for example at concerts …er…in football crowds, feelings seem to get heightened and sometimes there’s something really nice about getting a strong sense of being part of a large group. Presenter: Why should we become disruptive in some sorts of crowd environments, then, why should there sometimes be that element of aggression? Psychologist: A couple of possibilities. One is the thing that crowds very often seem to amplify feelings and so they can amplify bad as well as good feelings. Um, the other is…what’s often been 7

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suggested is, that we have a number of kind of identities. I mean, one, which is the predominant one, is our everyday one but there are others and what happens in crowds is that we can sometimes shift, if you like, our identity and what a crowd picks up on are other aspects of ourselves, which might sometimes be the less pleasant ones, the more destructive ones. Presenter: Now if we focus on the animal kingdom, does the same thing happen there? Psychologist: Um, you get something like that. What you get with some animals of course, is that you get examples of very coordinated groups, like small fish schooling so that they look like a large fish to possible predators and …um…you get large groups of animals like…um…ants and bees and so on who act in a very hhighly structured wats, which is much less typical of humans except in odd circumstances like armies. But they sometimes also have disruptive tendencies – you get packs of animals scattering in panic, too. Presenter: So this feeling of amplification when we’re in a crowd can lead us to act in an uncharacteristic way then, from what you’re saying? Psychologist: Uncharacteristic in the sense that it’s what we don’t normally do but it’s not, as it were, not ours. The behaviour is there, only it’s usually kept under control. Presenter: Now the group situation, rather than the crowd, that’s very different again, isn’t it? Psychologist: It is rather, I mean, in a group you’re focused in, you’re looking inwards, you’re not worried about people outside. What’s very clear is there’s a very strong sense of being a member of a group of a very defined little set, it’s us versus them. Presenter: And it gives you a sense of security presummably? Psychologist: It does. It’s familiar, it’s comfortable and it also reinforces, if you like, your sense of yourself because you’re very aware of yourself as a member of that group, as being a person among friends. And that also helps you relax in various ways, you’re comfortable about your behaviour, you’re defined as a friend among friends and therefore you don’t have to worry how you apear so much. Presenter: Does your behaviour still change slightly? You’ve talked about a crowd\s effect on an individual, surely still a small group will change you in some way sometimes? Psychologist: Oh tha’s true. As I’ve said, we have a number of identities and our identity varies depending on the kind of group we’re in. In a particular group we have a particular kind of identity with certain behaviour, so that when you’re with a group of friends you relax, laugh, play the fool, but there are other groups you’re members of where you behave differently, groups of workmates for example, um…more formal groups. And so in a sense you have different roles depending on what group you happen to be in at a given time. I think most of us are aware that this happens, that we are different kinds of people in different kinds of situations. Presenter: David Macintosh, thanks very much for talking to us. Part 4. Interviewer: I’m sitting here, rather uncomfortably, with designer Lucy Collett. Lucy, you’re an architect really, but an architect with a difference. Lucy Collet: Yes, I specialise in small buildings. Interviewer: And we’re in one of your buildings now. It’s a tree-house, and we’re perched on child-size seats, two or three metres above the ground. Lucy Collet: In fact, I was commissioned to design this house by my neighbours for their children. I don’t like heights, but I loved the challenge of weaving the house in amongst the branches [15]. You can see there are several storeys with stairways between them. Interviewer: I’d have given anything for a house like this when I was a child. What started you off on this type of design? Lucy Collet: I’ve always had a passion for small buildings. Play houses, of course, when I was a little girl. Then I found a book about historical telephone boxes, which fascinated me. When the telephone was an amazing new invention, money was poured into the designs of public phone boxes. They were all sizes and styles. There were some that looked like rustic cottages, with thatched roofs; others like Chinese pagodas; one like a sort of Greek temple. Some were quite 8

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luxurious, with chairs, and people used to go in there to play cards [16]. But it didn’t last long; they had to be standardised and made more practical. Interviewer: You went to architecture school. Did you know you were going to work on this small scale? Lucy Collet: Yes, my final year project was on small buildings in an industrial context. If you look at major building sites, they’re dotted around with huts and temporary buildings. You think, ‘They put up these tin boxes for the workers to drink their tea and read their newspapers in. What is there to that?’ Well, they’ve all got to conform to safety standards, and why shouldn’t they have some style as well? I designed them to look better, and also to be put up and dismantled more quickly [17]. I worked on durability of materials, comfort and so on. Interviewer: Where did you get your inventiveness from? Lucy Collet: I don’t know. I think I’m more practical than inventive. My parents were market stall holders. They had a really cumbersome stall which took them forever to put up. All the market people started setting up about four o’clock in the morning. It was freezing, back-breaking work, and it drove me mad when I had to help them. I was visiting some clients abroad a few years ago, and saw some brilliant stalls in their local market. They were little metal folding houses, completely waterproof and enclosed, with plenty of display room [18]. At the end of the day you could lock them up with the goods safe inside, or you could fold them flat and cart them off to the next town. I did drawings of them and made one when I got home. But I haven’t sold it. Interviewer: What have you done that you’re most proud of? Lucy Collet: I suppose everything I’ve done is a variation on a theme, so it’s hard to pick anything out. But I did get an award. The Newspaper Sellers’ Association gave me a prize for a design I did for street corner kiosks – you know, those cute little buildings with display windows on three sides. Mine were in strong steel, painted, with domed roofs and lots of decorative detail. I must admit, I was particularly pleased with the fancy work [19], and the newspaper people loved it. Interviewer: Have you ever done any phone box designs, since that was what started you off? Lucy Collet: Funnily enough, that’s what I’ve just been doing. For an international hotel chain. They’d stopped putting public phone booths in their hotel lobbies because of mobile phones, but there were complaints from a few countries where mobiles hadn’t really caught on yet [20]. So the hotel decided to make a big feature of lobby phone boxes. I did these sort of glass bird-cage designs, with brass work and over-the-top telephones. Now the company’s putting them in all their hotels, and people are going into them to make calls on their mobiles. It’s sort of retro-style lobby furniture. Interviewer: And tree-houses? Lucy Collet: No, this is a one-off. I’ve told you, I’m scared of heights. Interviewer: Okay. Shall we let down the ladder and go home? Thank you, Lucy

TRẠI HÈ HÙNG VƯƠNG LẦN THỨ XIV

ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH – KHỐI 11 Đềthicó 13trang

ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT

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THÍ SINH LÀM BÀI TRỰC TIẾP VÀO TỜ ĐỀ THI

PART I. LISTENING (50 points) Section 1. Listen to a lecture on successful language learning. Questions 1-5.Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Factors for Successful Language Learning A. Exposure to target language determines (1) ______________________. B. Motivation (2) _____________________ Integrative motivation motivation Language is a tool for socialising and Language is a tool to achieve practical integrating, for example, goals, for example, getting a job or (4) ______________________ or people (3)_____________________. who are married to speakers of another language. According to research, integrative motivation produces (5) ___________________.

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Questions 6-10.Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer. C. Personality Good language learners are willing to take (6) ________________________ are not afraid of making mistakes and try to (7) ________________________ with the language. D. Learning Systems • Efficient (8) _______________________ • Systems for organising and learning vocabulary • Ability to monitor one’s own speech • Ability to plan learning E. Age Children learn faster than adults Adults learners can be successful if they • are aware of how they learn • are independent of (9) ________________________ • take (10) ________________________ for learning

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Section 2. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each question. 1. What is John researching? _______________________________ 2. Apart from pollution, what would John like to see reduced? _______________________________ 3. According to John’s tutor, what can cars sometimes act as? _______________________________ 4. How much does John’s tutor pay to drive into London? _______________________________ 5. In Singapore, what do car owners use to pay their road tax? _______________________________

Section 3.You will hear an interview with a man called Mike O’Toole, who works as a teacher trainer. For each question, decide whether the following statements are true (T) or false (F). Your answers

1. According to Mike, many teachers are leaving the profession because they don’t feel it is financially rewarding any more. 2. Mike believes that without radical changes UK schools will lose their ability to compete with one another. 3. The main falling of the UK education system is the lack of training for teachers in the use of technology in the classroom. 4. Teachers can only benefit from technology if they cease to see it as a threat. 5. Mike implies that it is impossible to know which choice is correct at present.

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Section 4. You will hear an interview with Dr Peter Ludwig about sugar in our diet. For each question, choose the best answer A, B, C or D. (10 pts) 1. Dr Ludwig is surprised that parents ________. A. buy the sweet food sold at Hershey Park B. use sugary snacks as part of their children’s diet C. see sugary snacks as a special treat D. rely on sugar snacks for nutritions 2. The number of cases of obesity and diabetes is increasing ________. A. by 23% a year B. by 25% a year C. quite slowly D. very quickly 3. Food companies in France and Germany _________. A. have reduced the amount of sugar in their products B. use an unnecessary amount of sugar C. use sugar to make their food crisp and textured D. use sugar as an essential ingredient 4. In 19th century, British factory workers were given sugar _________. A. because their work was long and tiring B. as a quick, cheap form of medicine C. because many of them were very young children 2

D. because it was much more important than fish and chips 5. Dr Ludwig thinks that parents should _________. A. watch their children’s behaviour more carefully B. stop giving their chidren extra sugar for a week or two C. try to find ways to make their children feel better D. give their children foods without sugar to improve their behaviour

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Part II: LEXICO- GRAMMAR: (40 points) Section 1. Choose the best answer A, B, C, or D to complete the following sentences. (20 pts) 1. We may win, we may lose – it’s just the ______ of the draw! A. strike B. odds C. chance D. luck 2. The police accused the bank employee of ______ after financialirregularities were uncovered in his department’s accounts. A. fraud B. hoodwink C. swindle D. cheating 3. Due to the computer malfunction all our data was lost. So unhappily, we had to begin all the calculations from _____. A. onset B. source C. original D. scratch 4. I’ll just______ an eye over these figures before you type them. A. cast B. fling C. toss D. throw 5. Looking down at the coral reef, we saw ______ of tiny, multi-colored fish. A. swarms B. flocks C. teams D. shoals 6. I don't agree with his policies but I'm going to ______ them for now. A. play along with B. play cat and mouse with C. play havoc with D. play down 7. Don’t bother Alice with the problem - she’s in the ______ of moving house. A. anguish B. throes C. agony D. pains 8. In the last century, it was widely ______ that Indian fakirs were capable of superhuman feats. A. held B. grasped C. kept D. shaken 9. Chris was ______ between buying a new house and going on a round-the-world cruise. A. pulled B. torn C. moving D. leaning 10. Don’t quote me. What I am about to say is ______ the record. A. on B. off C. without D. above 11. The teacher obviously didn’t like me because she was always ______ on me. A. setting B. picking C. keeping D. getting 12. It may be raining but I’m ______ enjoying myself. A. thoroughly B. highly C. extremely D. desperately 13. Italy was knocked ______ the World Cup. A. into B. away from C. out of D. forward to 14. She gave a/an ______ reading of the sonata that had the audience on their feet. A. impeccable B. rocketing C. eminent D. heavy-handed 15. The film ends with a sheriff lying in a ______ of blood. A. bath B. puddle C. jet D. pool. 16. The 5% wage increases they propose are ______. A. all for one B. by and large C. top to bottom D. across the board 17. The first amusement park in our city was a ______ success for its owners. Everybody would go there to have a good time. A. cracking B. ringing C. sparking D. roaring 3

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18. I’d opt for a glass of mineral water just to ______ my thirst. A. quit B. quench C. quiver D. quieten 19. Burt knows his chances against the better skilled opponents are slim, but he is too much of a competitor to give up making at least a ______ at it. A. stake B. start C. stab D. stack 20. Wait a minute, there is an answer from the Federal Bureau with ______ to your previous inquiry. A. consideration B. reflection C. attention D. regard

Section 2. Give the correct form of the words in parentheses. (10 pts) 1. It’s undeniable that the (DIAGNOSE) _________________ of the local incompetent healer was responsible for her sudden death. 2. Do you think these children are (NOURISH) _________________? They look very thin. 3. There was a donation of $100,000 made by an anonymous (BENEFIT) _______________. 4. British Prime Minister Margaret Thatcher called the hanging an act of _________________ which is deeply repugnant to all civilized people. (BARBARIC) 5.Students mustn’t be ________________ and illiterate when they leave school. (NUMBER) 6.Scientists are convinced that, because crocodiles have such a long_________________, they must have a natural ability to combat infection. (LIFE) 7. He was standing in the middle, in the _________________ of the picture. (GROUND) 8. Tam usually helps her mother with _________________ chores. (HOUSE) 9. Colorado is known for its spectacular scenery and _______________ views. (BREATH) 10. It takes ages to eliminate racial prejudices deeply ______________ in the mind. (PLANT)

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Section 3: There are 10 errors in the passage. Underline the errors and correct them. (10 pts) Over the last century the world has become increasing smaller. Not geographically, of course, but in the sense that media, technology and the opening of borders has enable the world’s citizens to view, share and gain access to a many wider range of cultures, societies and world views. In this melting pot that the world has become, today’s child is privy to facets of the human experience that his immediately predecessors had no inkling even existed. It stands to reason that so order to absorb, configure and finally form opinions about this informationladen planet, children must be supplied with certain tools. Including in this list of ‘tools’ are: education, social skills, cultural awareness and the acquisition on languages, the most important of these being the latter. Until recently, a child who had the able to speak more thanone language would have been considered a very rare entity. This one-language phenomenon could be attributed to a combination of factors. Firstly, the monolingual environment in which a child was raised took a strong role, as did the limited, biased education of the past. With regard to immigrants, the sad fact was that non-native parents tended to withhold the teach of the mother tongue so that the child would acquire the ‘more prestigious’ language of the adopted country. Write your answers here: 1. 6. 2. 7. 3. 8. 4. 9. 5. 10. 4

Part III: READING: (50 points) Section 1: Fill in each blank with one of four options to complete the passage. (10 pts)

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The latest addiction to trap thousands of people is Internet, which has been (1)_____ for broken relationships, job losses, financial ruin and even one suicide. Psychologists now recognize Internet Addiction Syndrome (IAS) as a new illness that could (2)_____ serious problems and ruin many lives. Special help groups have been set up to (3) _____ sufferers help and support.

IAS is similar to (4) _____ problems like gambling, smoking and drinking: addicts have dreams about Internet; they need to use it first thing in the morning; they (5)_____ to their partners about how much time they spend online; they (6) _____ they could cut down, but are unable to do so . A recent study found that many users spend up to 40 hours a week on the Internet; (7) _____ they felt guilty, they became depressed if they were (8) _____ to stop using it.

C. blamed C. affect C. suggest C. the other C. deceive C. prefer C. although C. let C.feel C.object

B.mistaken B. cause B.offer B. another B. cheat B. want B.without B. allowed B. find B. tell

1. A. accused 2. A. take 3. A. recommend 4. A. others 5. A. lie 6. A. rather 7. A. unless 8. A. made 9. A. have 10. A. say

Almost anyone can be at risk. Some of the addicts are teenagers who are already hooked on computer games and who (9) _____ it very difficult to resist the games on the Internet. Surprisingly, however, psychologists (10) _____that most victims are middle-aged housewives who have never used a computer before. D. faulted D. lead D. advise D. other D. betray D. wish D. despite D. had D. say D. promise

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Section 2: Read the passage and fill in each of the blanks with ONE suitable word. (10 pts) Speech is one of the most important (1) ____________ of communicating. It consists of far more than just making noises. To talk and also to be (2) ____________ by other people, we have to speak a language, that is, we have to use combinations of (3) ____________ that everyone agrees to stand for particular object or idea. Communication would be impossible if everyone made up their own language. (4) ____________ a language properly is very important. The basic (5) ____________ of English is not very large, and only about 2,000 words are needed to (6) ____________ it quite well. But the more words you know, the more ideas you can (7) ____________ and the more precise you can be about their exact meaning. Words are the (8) ____________ things we use in communicating what we want to say. The (9)____________ we say the words is also very important. Our tone of voice can express many emotions and (10) ____________ whether we are pleased or angry, for instance.

Section 3: Read the text below and choose one of four options to answer the questions. (10 pts)

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It is estimated that over 99 percent of all species that ever existed have become extinct. What causes extinction? When a species is no longer adapted to a changed environment, it may perish. The exact causes of a species’ death vary from situation to situation. Rapid ecological change may render an environment hostile to a species. For example, temperatures may change and a species may not be able to adapt. Food Resources may be affected by environmental changes, which will then cause problems for a species requiring these resources. Other species may become better adapted to an environment, resulting in competition and, ultimately, in the death of a species.

The fossil record reveals that extinction has occurred throughout the history of Earth. Recent analyses have also revealed that on some occasions many species became extinct at the same time – a mass extinction. One of the best-known examples of mass extinction occurred 65 million years ago with the demise of dinosaurs and many other forms of life. Perhaps the largest mass extinction was the one that occurred 225 million years ago. When approximately 95 percent of all species died, mass extinctions can be caused by a relatively rapid change in the environment and can be worsened by the close interrelationship of many species. If, for example, something were to happen to destroy much of the plankton in the oceans, then the oxygen content of Earth would drop, affection even organisms not living in the oceans. Such a change would probably lead to a mass extinction.

One interesting, and controversial, finding is that extinctions during the past 250 million years have tended to be more intense every 26 million years. This periodic extinction might be due to intersection of the Earth’s orbit with a cloud of comets, but this theory is purely speculative. Some researchers have also speculated that extinction may often be random. That is, certain species may be eliminated and others may survive for no particular reason. A species’ survival may have nothing to do with its ability or inability to adapt. If so, some of evolutionary history may reflect a sequence of essentially random events.

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1. The word “it” in line 2 refers to A. environment B.species C. extinction D. 99 percent 2. The word “ultimately” in line 6 is closest in meaning to A. exceptionally B.dramatically C. eventually D.unfortunately 3. What does the author say in paragraph 1 regarding most species in Earth’s history? A. They have remained basically unchanged from their original forms. B. They have been able to adapt to ecological changes. C. They have caused rapid change in the environment. D. They are no longer in existence. 4. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 1 as resulting from rapid ecological change? A. Temperature changes B. Availability of food resources C. Introduction of new species D. Competition among species 5. The word “demise” in line 10 is closest in meaning to A. change B. recovery C. help D. death 6. Why is “plankton” mentioned in line 14? A. To demonstrate the interdependence of different species B. To emphasize the importance of food resources in preventing mass extinction. C. To illustrate a comparison between organisms that live on the land and those that live in the ocean 6

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D. To point out that certain species could never become extinct. 7. According to paragraph 2, evidence from fossils suggests that A. extinction of species has occurred from time to time throughout Earth’s history. B. extinctions on Earth have generally been massive C. there has been only one mass extinction in Earth’s history. D. dinosaurs became extinct much earlier than scientists originally believed. 8. The word “finding” in line 16 is closest in meaning to A. published information B. research method C. ongoing experiment D. scientific discovery 9. Which of the following can be inferred from the theory of periodic extinction mentioned in paragraph 3? A. Many scientists could be expected to disagree with it B. Evidence to support the theory has recently been found. C. The theory is no longer seriously considered. D. Most scientists believe the theory to be accurate. 10. In paragraph 3, the author makes which of the following statements about a species’ survival? A. It reflects the interrelationship of many species. B. It may depend on chance events. C. It does not vary greatly from species to species D. It is associated with astronomical conditions.

Section 4: Read the passage and the following exercises (20 pts) Questions 1–5 Choose the correct heading for each paragraph from the list of headings below. Write the correct number, i–x, in boxes 1–7 on your answer sheet.

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List of Headings i. A unique sensory experience ii. Getting back to basics iii. The gift that keeps on giving iv. Variations in alcohol content v. Old methods of transportation vi. Culinary applications vii. Making kefir viii. A fortunate accident ix.Kefir gets an image makeover x. Ways to improve taste

Section A 1. Section B 2. Section C 3. Section D 4. Section E 5. Section F Section G

viii (Example) ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ii(Example)

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The MAGIC of KEFIR A. The shepherds of the North Caucasus region of Europe were only trying to transport milk the best way they knew how – in leather pouches strapped to the side of donkeys – when they made a significant discovery. A fermentation process would sometimes inadvertently occur en route, and when the pouches were opened up on arrival they would no longer contain milk but rather a pungent, effervescent, low alcoholic substance instead. This unexpected development was a blessing in disguise. The new drink – which acquired the name kefir – turned out to be a health tonic, a naturally-preserved dairy product and a tasty addition to our culinary repertoire.

B. Although their exact origin remains a mystery, we do know that yeast-based kefir grains have always been at the root of the kefir phenomenon. These grains are capable of a remarkable feat: in contradistinction to most other items you might find in a grocery store, they actually expand and propagate with use. This is because the grains, which are granular to the touch and bear a slight resemblance to cauliflower rosettes, house active cultures that feed on lactose when added to milk. Consequently, a bigger problem for most kefir drinkers is not where to source new kefir grains, but what to do with the ones they already have!

C. The great thing about kefir is that it does not require a manufacturing line in order to be produced. Grains can be simply thrown in with a batch of milk for ripening to begin. The mixture then requires a cool, dark place to live and grow, with periodic unsettling to prevent clumping (Caucasus inhabitants began storing the concoction in animal-skin satchels on the back of doors – every time someone entered the room the mixture would get lightly shaken). After about 24 hours the yeast cultures in the grains have multiplied and devoured most of the milk sugars, and the final product is then ready for human consumption.

D. Nothing compares to a person’s first encounter with kefir. The smooth, uniform consistency rolls over the tongue in a manner akin to liquefied yogurt. The sharp, tart pungency of unsweetened yogurt is there too, but there is also a slight hint of effervescence, something most users will have previously associated only with mineral waters, soda or beer. Kefir also comes with a subtle aroma of yeast, and depending on the type of milk and ripening conditions, ethanol content can reach up to two or three percent – about on par with a decent lager – although you can expect around 0.8 to one per cent for a typical day-old preparation. This can bring out a tiny edge of alcohol in the kefir’s flavour.

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E. Although it has prevailed largely as a fermented milk drink, over the yearskefir has acquired a number of other uses. Many bakers use it instead of starter yeast in the preparation of sourdough, and the tangy flavour also makes kefir an ideal buttermilk substitute in pancakes. Kefir also accompanies sour cream as one of the main ingredients in cold beetroot soup and can be used in lieu of regular cow’s milk on granola or cereal. As a way to keep their digestive systems fine-tuned, athletes sometimes combine kefir with yoghurt in protein shakes.

F. Associated for centuries with pictures of Slavic babushkas clutching a shawl in one hand and a cup of kefir in the other, the unassuming beverage has become a minor celebrity of the nascent health food movement in the contemporary West. Every day, more studies pour out supporting the benefits of a diet high in probiotics. This trend toward consuming probiotics has engulfed the leisure classes in these countries to the point that it is poised to become, according to some commentators, “the next multivitamin”. These days the word kefir is consequently

more likely to bring to mind glamorous, yoga mat-toting women from Los Angeles than austere visions of blustery Eastern Europe.

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G. Kefir’s rise in popularity has encouraged producers to take short cuts or alter the production process. Some home users have omitted the ripening and culturation process while commercial dealers often add thickeners, stabilisers and sweeteners. But the beauty of kefir is that, at its healthiest and tastiest, it is a remarkably affordable, uncluttered process, as any accidental invention is bound to be. All that is necessary are some grains, milk and a little bit of patience. A return to the unadulterated kefir-making of old is in everyone’s interest. Questions 6 –10 Answer the questions below usingNO MORE THAN TWO WORDSfrom the passage for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 8–11 on your answer sheet.

7. ____________

8. ____________

6. ___________

6. What do kefir grains look like? 7. What needs to happen to kefir while it is ripening? 8. What will the yeast cultures have consumed before kefir is ready to drink? 9. The texture of kefir in the mouth is similar to what? 10. Which product is mentioned as things which kefir can replace besides ordinary cow’s milk and buttermilk? Write your answers here: 9. __________

10. _________

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PART IV. WRITING (6.0 points) Section 1. (1.0 point) Read the following extract and use your own words to summarize it. Your summary should be between 120 and 150 words long. Rings, generally made of precious metal, may be simply a piece of more important jewellery or a symbol of duty or authority. Among some races rings are also worn on the ears or lips, and in both cases the soft flesh is usually pierced. In Western society, the custom of wearing earnings still persists. The lobe of the ear may be pierced, or the ornament can be held in place by the pressure of both ends of an opened ring on the lobe. As a form of ornament rings are of great antiquity. They are well known among the Egyptians, the Greeks and the Romans (where it was the privilege of citizens alone to wear an iron ring). From Egyptian times, onwards the beret (or top surface of the ring) has been decorated with precious stones or engraved with a device which may be used as a seal. The symbolic meaning of rings was taken over by the Medieval Churches. There the ring symbolizes the marriage of the individual to the Church and to Christ, as it does in some orders of nuns. This symbolic overtone gave rise to some of the theoretical arguments in the investiture controversy of the 11th century when the Pope objected to rules who held no spiritual authority investing a bishop with the ring and staff of pastoral office. The ceremony

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suggested that the laity were thus able to confer spiritual functions. As a token of betrothal, the ring has, of course, survived in the West to indicate an engagement or marriage. It was also common practice in the later Middle Ages for the king of England to authenticate less important documents and instructions by using his signet ring. This became a state seal, but of minor importance, and gave rise to the office of “keeper of the signet”. The doges of Venice from early times participated in a ceremony of casting a ring into the Adriatic to symbolize the marriage of the Republic of the Sea. Some of the most fascinating rings are those of the Renaissance in which a hidden or retractable spike, covered in poison, could be used to get rid of an enemy with a mere handshake. …………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………

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Part 2. (2.0 points) The bar chart below shows the number of students in three different courses from 2001 – 2004. Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make comparisons where relevant. Write at least 150 words.

……………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………

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Part 3. (3.0 points) Some people believe that allowing children to make their own choices on everyday matters (such as food, clothes and entertainment) is likely to result in a society of individuals who only think about their own wishes. Other people believe that it is important for children to make decisions about matters that affect them. Write an essay of about 350 words. Discuss both these views and give your own opinion. Give reasons and specific examples to support your answer. …………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………

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……………………………………………………………………………………………………

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………… ___________________ END OF THE TEST ___________________

TRẠI HÈ HÙNG VƯƠNG LẦN THỨ XIV

ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH – KHỐI 11

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT

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(Hướng dẫn chấm gồmcó 4 trang)

PARTI. LISTENING (50 points) Section 1. (20 points) Items Correct answers

Points

Instrumental passing an examination Immigrants (much) better results risks experiment revision techniques (the) teacher responsility

2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2

speed of learning

Section 2. (10 points) Items Correct answers

Points

(urban) transport systems

12 13 14 15

(traffic) congestion (a) status symbol £5/five pounds (a) credit card

2 2 2 2

Points

16 17 18

2 2 2

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Section 3. (10 points) Items Correct answers

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F F T

Points

21 22 23

2 2 2

Section 4. (10 points) Items Correct answers B D A

Items 19 20

Items 24 25

Correct answers

Points

T F

2 2

Correct answers

Points

A B

2 2

Points

Correct answers lifespan foreground

Points 1 1

household breathtaking

1 1

implanted

8 9

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

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1 1

6 7

Items

Points 1 1

Section 2. (10 points) Items Correct answers 1 misdiagnosis 2 mal-nourished/ under-nourished 3 benefactors 4 barbarity/ barbarism 5 innumerate

Correct answers B A C A D C D B C D

PART II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (50 points) Section 1. (20 points) Items Correct answers Points Items 1 D 11 1 2 A 12 1 3 D 13 1 4 A 14 1 5 D 15 1 6 A 16 1 7 B 17 1 8 A 18 1 9 B 19 1 10 B 20 1

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Section 3. (10 points) Over the last century the world has become increasing smaller. Not geographically, of course, but in the sense that media, technology and the opening of borders has enable the world’s citizens to view, share and gain access to a many wider range of cultures, societies and world views. In this melting pot that the world has become, today’s child is privy to facets of the human experience that his immediately predecessors had no inkling even existed. It stands to reason that so order to absorb, configure and finally form opinions about this information-laden planet, children must be supplied with certain tools. Including in this list of ‘tools’ are: education, social skills, cultural awareness and the acquisition on languages, the most important of these being the latter. Until recently, a child who had the able to speak more thanone language would have been considered a very rare entity. This one-language phenomenon could be attributed to a combination of factors. Firstly, the monolingual environment in which a child was raised took a strong role, as did the limited, biased education of the past. With regard to immigrants, the sad fact was that non-native parents tended to withhold the teach of the mother tongue so that the child would acquire the ‘more prestigious’ language of the adopted country. Items Correct answers Points Items Correct answers Points 1 2 3 4

increasing increasingly enable enabled many much immediately immediate

1 1 1

7 8 9

including included on of able ability took played

1 1 1 1 2

so in

teach teaching

Points

Items

Correct answers

Points

1 2 3 4 5

1 1 1 1 1

6 7 8 9 10

D C A B A

1 1 1 1 1

Section 2. (10 pts) Items Correct answers

Points

Items

Correct answers

Points

1 2 3 4 5

1 1 1 1 1

6 7 8 9 10

speak express main way

1 1 1 1 1

Points

1 2

B C

1 1

3 4 5

D C D

1 1 1

Correct answers

Points

6 7

A A

1 1

8 9 10

D A B

1 1 1

iii vii i vi ix

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1 2 3 4 5

Points

Section 4. (20 pts) Items Correct answers

Items

Section 3. (10 pts) Items Correct answers

show

ways/ means understood sounds learning vocabulary

C B B D A

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PARTIII. READING (50 pts) Section 1. (10 pts) Items Correct answers

2 2 2 2 2

Items Correct answers

Points

6 7 8 9 10

2 2 2 2 2

cauliflower rosettes periodic unsettling milk sugars liquefied yoghurt starter yeast

PARTIV. WRITING (60 pts)

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Section 1. Summarizing (10 points)

Requirements: Good summary with enough content and clear, logical information. Section 2. Describing the graph (20 points) 1. Completion: 2pt

- The writing is complete. - The writing is neither too long nor too short.

2. Content: 5 pt

- Cover the main information of the table yet not go into too much 3

detail. - Make general remarks and effective comparisons. 3. Organization: 5pt

- The ideas are well-organized. - The description is sensibly divided into paragraphs.

4. Language: 5pt

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- Use a wide range of vocabulary and structures.

- Good use and control of grammatical structures. - Intelligible handwriting.

- Good punctuation and no spelling mistakes.

Section 3. Essay (30 points) 1. Completion: 4 pt

- The writing is complete.

5. Handwriting, punctuation and spelling: 3pt

- The writing is neither too long nor too short. 2. Content: 8 pt

- Provide relevant and convincing ideas about the topic.

- Supported by specific example and/or reasonable justifications. 3. Organization: 8 pt

- Present the right form of an essay.

- Ideas are well organized and presented with unity, cohesion and coherence.

- Use a wide range of vocabulary and structures.

4. Language: 5 pt

- The writing is sensibly divided into paragraphs.

- Good use and control of grammatical structures. - Intelligible handwriting. - Good punctuation and no spelling mistakes.

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5. Handwriting, punctuation and spelling: 5 pt