Tổng hợp đề đề xuất kì thi duyên hải và đồng bằng bắc bộ năm 2017 môn Tiếng Anh khối 10 by DẠY KÈM QUY NHƠN OLYMPIAD

ĐỀ THI HSG DUYÊN HẢI BẮC BỘ MÔN TIẾNG ANH

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Ths Nguyễn Thanh Tú eBook Collection DẠY KÈM QUY NHƠN OLYMPIAD PHÁT TRIỂN NỘI DUNG

Tổng hợp đề đề xuất kì thi duyên hải và đồng bằng bắc bộ năm 2017 môn Tiếng Anh khối 10 có đáp án và phần nghe WORD VERSION | 2021 EDITION ORDER NOW / CHUYỂN GIAO QUA EMAIL TAILIEUCHUANTHAMKHAO@GMAIL.COM Tài liệu chuẩn tham khảo Phát triển kênh bởi Ths Nguyễn Thanh Tú Đơn vị tài trợ / phát hành / chia sẻ học thuật : Nguyen Thanh Tu Group Hỗ trợ trực tuyến Fb www.facebook.com/DayKemQuyNhon Mobi/Zalo 0905779594

KÌ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI NĂM HỌC 2016- 2017 MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 10 Ngày thi: 15 tháng 4 năm 2017 Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Đề thi gồm 11 trang

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HỘI CÁC TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN VÙNG DUYÊN HẢI & ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN TUYÊN QUANG _____________ ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT

SECTION I. LISTENING (50 points) Part 1: Complete the form below Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND /OR A NUMBER for each answer.

STUDENT UNION REGISTRATION FORM Example: Name: Stefan Unger Your answers Degree programme: 1.________________________ Department: 2. ________________________ Leisure activities 3. ________________________ Type of accommodation: 4. ________________________ Contact number: 5. ________________________

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Part 2: You will hear a psychologist being interviewed about friendship. Choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. 1. From three to five years old , children __________. A. Are happy to play alone B. prefer to be with their family C. have rather selfish relationship D. have little idea of ownership 2. From the age of five to eight to ten, children ________. A. change their friend more often. B. decide who they want to friends with. C. admire people who don’t keep to rules. D. learn to be tolerant of their friends. 3. According to Sarah Browne, adolescents _______. A. may be closer to their friends than to their parents B. develop an interest in friend of the opposite sex C. choose friends with similar personalities to themselves. D. want friends who are dependable. 4. Young married people ______. A. tend to focus on their children B. often lose touch with their friends C. make close friends less easily D. need fewer friends than single people 5. In middle or old age people generally prefer ______. A. to stay in touch with old friends B. to see younger friends more often C. to have friends who live nearby D. to spend more time with their friends Your answers: 1. ________ 2. ________ 3. ________ 4. ________ 5. ________ Part 3: You are going to listen to a report from a local TV news program about the island of Samsø in Denmark and decide whether the following statements are True (T) or False (F)

Your answers T F

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1. The major source of power on Samsø is oil. 2. Samsø produces more electricity than it needs. 3. Americans on average produce more carbon dioxide than Dutch citizens. 4. The furnace is used for both heating and making fertilizer. 5. Farmers on Samsø have lost money by changing to environmentallyfriendly practices.

Part 4: You will hear a woman called Yvonne on a TV programme giving about children being punished at school. For questions 1-10, complete the sentences with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each gap. The strap was a long piece of leather made especially for (1)_________________ children’s palms. Today, children who misbehave at school seldom even get a (2)_________________.. In the fifties, Yvonne was strapped for coming to school in (3)_________________. Yvonne thought the way she was disciplined at school was (4) ______________ and unfair. The members of organization P.O.P.P.I. all had (5)__________________. In 1979, because of P.O.P.P.I…, (6) ______________made the strap illegal. Yvonne describes her children as (7) ______________ and irresponsible. Yvonne does not think her children understand (8) ______________ they are. She is now sorry that the government (9) ______________. She believes that there would be less (10)________________ if the strap was still used. Your answers: 1. ________ 2. ________ 3. ________ 4. ________ 5. ________ 6. ________ 7. ________ 8. ________ 9. ________ 10. ________

SECTION II: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (50 points) Part 1. Choose the word that best completes each sentence. Write your answer (A, B, C, or D) in the box provided. (20 points)

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1. I was really looking forward to going to the game and I could hardly wait until the _____ day came. A. grand B. big C. major D. huge 2. This disagreement is likely to _____ relations between the two countries. A. disaffect B. alienate C. sour D. estrange 3. I don’t want to be too _____ on Alice, but I think I should tell that her work isn’t good enough. A. strict B. firm C. stern D. hard 4. Once the story _____ the headlines , everyone was talking about it. A. crashed B. struck C. smashed D. hit 5. If I’m late for work again .I’ll be_____ a severe warning from my boss. A. up to B. in for C. into D. after 6. Their flat is _____ of a place I used to live in . A. mindful B. reminiscent C. memorable D. retrospective 7. Of all the paintings in the gallery, it was this one that really _____ my eye. A. grasped B. snatched C. caught D. seized 2

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8. Both the favourite and then the second favourite pulled out. Naturally, we thought we were ________ a chance.. A. un with B. in for C. in with D. up for 9. Despite all the interruptions, he _____ with his work A. stuck at B. held on C. hung out D. pressed on 10. Nobody is quite sure what_____ him to such extreme behavior A. shoved B. thrust C. pressed D. drove 11. I can’t understand why you have to make such a _____ about something so unimportant. A. mess B. stir C. fuss D. bother 12. Despite being a very good student , she didn’t fulfill her _____later in life. A. makings B. potential C. capability D. aptitude 13. You’re having problems now but I’m sure things will change _____the better soon. A. on B. to C. by D. for 14. You can’t ______that criticism to all teachers! A. apply B. employ C. associate D. lay 15. It’s not easy to make Stanley furious, the boy is very gentle by ______ . A. himself B. personality C. reaction D. nature 16.This evidence should prove ______ that he was telling the truth . A. once and for all B. now and then C. over and above D. from time to time 17. If you _____any problems when you arrive at the airport, give me a ring. A. come about B. catch on C. run into D. face up 18. The Kenyan runner set off with a _____ in the 5000 metres. A .blistering speed B. dizzy speed C.. blistering pace D. dizzy pace 19. Poor management brought the company to the _____of collapse. A. brink B. rim C. fringe D. make for 20. Josh was terribly nervous before the exam but he managed to pull himself _____and act confidently A. through B. over C. together D. off Your answers: 1.____ 2.____ 3.____ 4.____ 5.____ 6.____ 7.____ 8.____ 9.____ 10.___ 11.___ 12.___ 13.___ 14.___ 15.___ 16.___ 17.___ 18.___ 19.___ 20.___

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Part 2. There are ten mistakes in the following passage. Find and correct them. Write your answers in the space provided below. (10 points)

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line 1 line 2 line 3 line 4 line 5 line 6 line 7 line 8 line 9 line 10 line 11

A study into family health conducting in California comes up with some interesting conclusions, though these might not be accepted to everybody. The main conclusion is that for a family to remain healthy, the relationship between husband and wife plays a major role. The perhaps surprising aspect of this research, however, is that statistically the healthy family is optimistic, church-going, and leading by a traditional male. And perhaps not so surprisingly, what promotes the health of the husband does not necessarily promote the health of the wife, and vice versa. For example, when it comes to express emotions, it is generally assumed that giving an outlet to feelings is healthy. But according to the study, there may be beneficial for one party but not for the other. If the wife talks more than the husband does in these situations and gives him feelings of guilty, then he is likely to become depressed, whereby if the wife lets the husband dominate the arguments, then she in turn will be the one whose mental state will 3

Your answer: Line Mistake 1

conducting

Correction

Line

conducted

9 10

Mistake

Correction

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suffer. The study also found that when men dominate in domestical arguments, they often end up trying to avoid the real issue or become silently and withdraw. This has the effect of making the wife feel anxious and depressed. As a person’s mental state is closely linked to their physically well-being, it is clear that the dynamics of family relationships help to determine health in general.

line 12 line 13 line 14 line 15 line 16

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Part 3: Complete each sentence with one suitable particle or preposition. Write your answer in the box provided. (10 points) 1. Are you really snowed _____ with work at the moment? 2. The students have fallen head ____ heels in love with their teacher. 3. I can easily while the whole afternoon _____ reading a good book. 4. I’m afraid our conference room is _____ use at the moment, but I’ll call you when it is free. 5. The students were all_____ tenterhooks as they awaited the results of the examination 6. We all come to the station to see you ____. 7. When she put on weight, she had to let _____ all her clothes. 8. Tell me the whole story, don’t keep anything _____. 9. We decided to make ____ the nearest beach. 10. If the government puts up incomes tax again I shall leave this country _____good and go and live in Spain or Greece. Your answers:

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1. ________ 2. ________ 3. ________ 4. ________ 5. ________ 6. ________ 7. ________ 8. ________ 9. ________ 10. ________ Part 4: Write the correct form of each bracketed word in the numbered space provided in the colunm on the right. There is an example at the beginning (0). (10 points) Your answers Until (0)_______(COMPARE) recent times science an technology 0. COMPARATIVELY performed different and separate functions , the progress of one so often 1_______________________ completely (1)________(RELATE) to the progress of the other historians have established that ,since the earliest times ,the improvements in our way 2_______________________ of life have resulted from an (2)________(EMPIRICISM) approach , that 3________________________ is a process of trial and error ,by which equipment from and tools are made 4_________________________ to satisfy important needs . It is to this approach that we owe the evolution of technology. Our modern concept of science ,both _______ (3- 5_________________________ PHILOSOPHY) an pragmatic in approach , stems from the seventeenth 6_________________________ 4

Your answers: 1. ________ 6. ________

2. ________ 7. ________

3. ________ 8. ________

7_________________________ 8_________________________ 9_________________________ 10_______________________

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century ,when extensive investigations into the natural laws governing the behavior of matter were_______(4-TAKE). It was this________ (5REVOLUTION) style of thought which led to a science-based technology .Scientific knowledge was not in itself seen as a ______ (6-PLACE) for the earlier system of trial and error , but it did help the technical _______ (7-INNOVATE) to see which path of experimentation might be more _______ (8-FRUIT) .With the industrialization of the nineteenth century, the bond between science and technology _______(9-STRONG) .In our own time ,the mutual _______(10-RELY) of one discipline upon the other has increased still further

4. ________ 9. ________

5. ________ 10. ________

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SECTION III: READING COMPREHENSION (60 points) Part 1: Read the text below and decide which answer A, B, C or D best fits each space. Write your answer (A, B, C or D) in the numbered box. (10 points) One of the hazards that electronic media like the television, radio or computers (1) _____ these days is the decline in book reading. The concern (2) _____ mainly to the younger generations who are strongly tempted by the glamour of the silver screen and, consequently, don’t (3) _____ the importance of acquiring first-hand information from books. To (4) _____ reading for pleasure and to propagate a wide array of publications like encyclopedias reference books manuals or fiction, radical solutions should be applied. Firstly, more (5) _____ ought to be put on the educational factor. Youngsters should be made to feel comfortable while reading either for information or self-satisfaction in public place like airports, buses or on the beach. Secondly, libraries must be subsidized more accurately in order to provide the potential reader with (6) _____ choice of publications and to be come more publically active so as to put books at people’s (7) _____ rather than keep them under lock and key. Fund collecting actions organized by libraries might also raise the public awareness of the advantages of becoming (8) _____ in a good book. Finally, the mass media themselves might contribute substantially by recommending the purchase of valuable best-sellers and inspiring their viewers to (9) _____ their knowledge and erudition, and thus help them to (10) _____ the habit of spontaneous every reading. 1. A. denote B. play C. arise D. pose 2. A. indicates B. affects C. applies D. embodies 3. A. observe B. recognize C. view D. distinguish 4. A. incite B. revert C. instill D. encourage 5. A. emphasis B. persistence C. focus D. relevance 6. A. prolific B. ample C. lavish D. lush 7. A. available B. disposal C. benefit D. usage 8. A. occupied B. inhaled C. engrossed D. incorporated 9. A. enrich B. magnify C. arouse D. elaborate 10. A. grow B. evolve C. proceed D. develop

Your answers: 1. ________ 2. ________ 3. ________ 4. ________ 5. ________ 6. ________ 7. ________ 8. ________ 9. ________ 10. ________ Part 2: Fill in each gap with one suitable word. Write your answer in the box provided. (10 points)

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THE FUTURE AT YOUR FINGERTIPS There is a scene in the film Minority Report in (0) __which__ Tome Cruise stands in front of a vast Perspex-like screen housed in the police department’s Pre-Crime Unit. He gazes (1) ____ earnest at the transparent surface, waving his hands across the tablet to swirl great chunks of text and moving image across the screen to (2) ____ a storyboard of yet-to-be-committed crimes. With a simple twist of his finger or a flick of his wrist, pictures expand and enlarge, word scroll, and whole trains of thought come to tangible fruition (3) ____ there on board. The year is 2054. Yet it seems the era of true touch-screen technology is already here. Indeed, when Apple boss Steve Jobs unveiled the iPhone in San Francisco a few years ago, he grandly declared: “We are reinventing the cell phone.” (4) ____ of the main reasons for Jobs’ bold claim was the iPhone’s futuristic user interface“multi-touch”. As demonstrated on stage by Jobs (5) ____, multi-touch was created to make the most of the iPhone’s large screen. (6)____most existing smart phones, the iPhone has only one conventional button-all the rest of the controls appear on the screen, adapting morphing around your fingertips as you use the device, almost (7)____ the giant tablet in Minority Report. The demonstration iPhone handset certainly looked like re-invention, but multi-touch, while it was new for Apple, is (8) ____ no means a new technology. The concept has been around for years, waiting for the hardware side of the equation to get small enough, smart enough, cheap enough to make it a reality. While it still remains something of a novelty now, there is a good chance that the (9) ____ years will bring many more computers and consumer gadgets that depend wholly or (10)____ on multi-touch concepts. Your answers: 1. ________ 2. ________ 3. ________ 4. ________ 5. ________ 6. ________ 7. ________ 8. ________ 9. ________ 10. ________

Part 3: Read the passage below and choose the best answer to each question. Write your answer (A, B, C or D) in the numbered box. (10 points)

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COMMUNICATING WITH THE FUTURE In the 1980s the United States Department of Energy was looking for suitable sites to bury radioactive waste material generated by its nuclear energy programs. The government was considering burying the dangerous wastes in deep underground chambers in remote desert areas. The problem, however, was that nuclear waste remains highly radioactive for thousands of years. The commission entrusted with tackling the problem of waste disposal was aware that the dangers posed by radioactive emissions must be communicated to our descendants of at least 10,000 years hence. So the task became one of finding a way to tell future societies about the risk posed by these deadly deposits. Of course, human society in the distant future may be well aware of the hazards of radiation. Technological advances may one day provide the solutions to this dilemma. But the belief in constant technological advancement is based on our perceptions of advances made throughout history and prehistory. We cannot be sure that society won’t have slipped backward into an age of barbarism due to any of several catastrophic events, whether the result of nature such as the onset of a new ice age or perhaps mankind’s failure to solve the scourges of war and pollution. In the event of global catastrophe, it is quite possible that humans of the distant future will be on the far side of a broken link of communication and technological understanding. The problem then becomes how to inform our descendants that they must avoid areas of potential radioactive seepage given that they may not understand any currently existing language and may have no historical or cultural memory. So, any message indicated to future reception and decipherment must be as universally understandable as possible. It was soon realized by the specialists assigned the task of devising the communication system that material in which the message was written might not physically endure the great lengths of time demanded. The second law of thermodynamics shows that all material disintegrates over time. Even computers that 6

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might carry the message cannot be expected to endure long enough. Besides, electricity supplies might not be available in 300 generations. Other media storage methods were considered and rejected for similar reasons. The task force under the linguist Thomas Sebeok finally agreed that no foolproof way would be found to send a message across so many generations and have it survive physically and be decipherable by a people with few cultural similarities to us. Given this restriction, Sebeok suggested the only possible solution was the formation of a committee of guardians of knowledge. Its task would be to dedicate itself to maintaining and passing the knowledge of the whereabouts and dangers of the nuclear waste deposits. This so-called atomic priesthood would be entrusted with keeping knowledge of this tradition alive through millennia and developing the tradition into a kind of mythical taboo forbidding people to tamper in a way with the nuclear waste sites. Only the initiated atomic priesthood of experts would have the scientific knowledge to fully understand the danger. Those outside the priesthood would be kept away by a combination of rituals and legends designed to warn off intruders. This proposal has been criticized because of the possibility of a break in continuity of the original message. Furthermore, there is no guarantee that any warning or sanction passed on for millennia would be obeyed, nor that it could survive with its original meaning intact. To counterbalance this possibility, Sebeok’s group proposed a “relay system” in which information is passed on over relatively short periods of time, just three generations ahead. The message then to be renewed and redesigned if necessary for the following three generations and so on over the required time span. In this way information could be relayed into the future and avoid the possibility of physical degradation. A second defect is more difficult to dismiss, however. This is the problem of social exclusiveness brought about through possession of vital knowledge. Critics point out that the atomic priesthood could use its secret knowledge to control those who are scientifically ignorant. The establishment of such an association of insiders holding powerful knowledge not available except in mythic form to non-members would be a dangerous precedent for future social developments.

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1. The word "chambers" in the passage is closest in meaning to A. partitions B. openings C. cavities D. fissures 2. What problem faced the commission assigned to deal with the burial of nuclear waste? A. How to reduce the radioactive life of nuclear waste materials B. How to form a committee that could adequately express various nuclear risks C. How to notify future generations of the risks of nuclear contamination D. How to choose burial sites so as to minimize dangers to people. 3. In paragraph 2, the author explains the possible circumstances of future societies A. to warn about the possible natural catastrophe B. to question the value of advances C. to highlight humankind's inability to resolve problems D. to demonstrate the reason nuclear hazards must be communicated 4. The word "scourges" in the passage is closest in meaning to A. pressures B. afflictions C. worries D. annoyances 5. In paragraph 4, the author mentions the second law of thermodynamics A. to support the view that nuclear waste will disperse with time B. to show that knowledge can be sustained over millennia C. to give the basic scientific reason behind the breakdown of material objects D. to contrast the potential life span of knowledge with that of material objects 6. The word "Its" in the passage refers to A. knowledge B. committee C. solution D. guardians 7. In paragraph 5, why is the proposed committee of guardians referred to as the "atomic priesthood"? 7

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A. Because they would be an exclusive group with knowledge about nuclear waste sites. B. Because they would use rituals and legends to maintain their exclusiveness C. Because they would be an exclusive religious order D. Because they would develop mythical taboos surrounding their traditions 8. According to the author, why did the task force under Sebeok propose a relay system for passing on information? A. To show that Sebeok 's ideas created more problems than they solved B. To support the belief that breaks in communication are inevitable over time C. To contrast Sebeok's ideas with those proposed by his main critics D. To compensate for the fact that meaning will not stable over long periods of time 9. According to paragraph 7, the second defect of the atomic priesthood proposal is that it could lead to A. the nonmembers turning knowledge into dangerous mythical forms B. the possible misuse of exclusive knowledge C. the establishment of a scientifically ignorant society D. the priesthood's criticism of points concerning vital knowledge 10. All of the following are mentioned in the passage as difficulties in devising a communication system with the future EXCEPT A. the failure to maintain communication link B. the loss of knowledge about today's civilization C. the inability of materials to endure over time D. the exclusiveness of priesthood Your answers: 1. ________ 2. ________ 3. ________ 4. ________ 5. ________ 6. ________ 7. ________ 8. ________ 9. ________ 10. ________

Part 4: Read the following passage then do the tasks that follow. (10 pts) List of Headings

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i. Where the harmful particles come from ii. The problem of fire ironed out iii. Carbonex is idea for factories iv. Carbonex works with more than one fossil fuel v. Problems with fossil fuel vi. Alternative energy vii. It is a two-way process viii. Iron is the best ix. Engine power vs. clean emissions x. Greenhouse effect and global warming xi. The side- effect of one solution xii Increase engine efficiency - how it works.

The problem of fire Ironed Out It has been quite a while since man discovered fire. But it is only recently that he has learnt enough chemistry to think of improving it. Take fossil fuels, such as coal and oil, for example. They give off plenty of heat when they burn ; unfortunately, they give off plenty of other things as well, including the particles that make up smog and soot, the carbon dioxide responsible for the greenhouse 8

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effect and the oxides of nitrogen and sculpture that help to made acid rain. A new fuel additive called Carbonex seems drastically to reduce emissions of particles and of nitrogen oxides. It may thus help to solve half the problems. To understand the solution, take a closer look at the problem. Fossil fuels are mostly made of carbon, which reacts with oxygen to produce carbon dioxide (in the case of coal) or carbon dioxide and water (on the case of petrol, diesel fuel and other refined oils). The combustion of fossil fuels is never quite complete. Small, unburnt particles of fuel always escape, often as black smoke. These particles contain cancer- causing chemicals and are ever more unpopular. There is a standard fix for this. To reduce the problem of incomplete burning, combustion chambers are routinely flooded with about 25% more air than they need to burn their fuel. The idea is to give the flame more oxygen and hence, increase the efficiency of burning. But there is a snag. Dry air is 21% oxygen and 78% nitrogen. Nitrogen, like carbon, reacts with oxygen at high temperature— in this case producing the nitrogen oxides (NOX) that help cause aid rain. When extra air is added to a combustion chamber, emissions of soot and smog go down but NOX emissions go up. Carbonex, invented by an academic chemist, Dr. David Farrar. At the university of Toronto, and developed by Velino Ventures of Toronto, tries to alleviate this. The active ingredient is a hydrocarbon molecule to which an iron atom is bound. The molecule acts as a carrier for the iron, letting it dissolve in organic liquids like oil and petrol. When sprayed into a flame at the same time as a carbon-based fuel, Carbonex makes it burn more efficiently. The result is fewer particles and less need for extra air. It seems to work at two points during burning. If Carbonex is sprayed into a steam of fuel entering a flame in a combustion chamber, it coast the fuel and deposits iron atoms on the surface of the fuel particles. As the particles enter the outer part of the flame, which is cooler than the core, the more volatile components in the fuel vaporize. The faster these vapors leave the fuel, the sooner oxygen can get to the surface of the fuel particle and react with the carbon. Carbonex appears to speed up the exodus. Fuel particles that survive the hot core of the flame contain several large and unhealthy molecules that do not burn well without a fuel additive. Carbonex also seems to lower the temperature at which these compounds burn, allowing them to disintegrate even while the fuel particle is cooling. Iron is not the only substance that can manage this trick; any metal should do. Barium, magnesium, manganese, cobalt, nickel and lead have all been tried as fuel additives, but all are toxic and so in disfavour. Iron was picked for Carbonex because it is non-toxic and very effective even in small doses. Over the past two years, Carbonex has been tested by an independent research group at the Battelle Memorial Institute in Columbus, Ohio. The researchers found that it reduced emissions of particles from diesel engines by 43% and increased the yield of energy from combustion by 1.53%.When tested in a light-fuel-oil industrial burner in Geneva, it cut emissions of particles by 67%; added to a coarsely ground bituminous coal it reduced NOX emissions by 25%. In addition to reducing NOX and virtually eliminating black smoke, Carbonex cut the amount of soot left behind in combustion chambers, and so made maintenance cheaper. The fuel additive paid for itself in increased energy efficiency. Although carbonex could be used in petrol for cars, Dr.Farrar thinks petrol is already refined enough to make it unnecessary. The real need for his invention, he thinks, is in plants that burn coal and less refined oils such as furnace and bunker oil. Farewell to those dark satanic mills A. Choose the correct heading for each paragraph from the list of headings below. Write the appropriate numbers (i -vii) in boxes 1-5. Paragraphs C, G and H have been done for you. Your answers: Paragraph 1. Paragraph A 2. Paragraph B Paragraph C 3. Paragraph D

Answer …………………………. …………………………. …………xi………….… ………………………….

4. Paragraph E 5. Paragraph F Paragraph G Paragraph H

…………………………. …………………………. …………iv……….…… …………iii..………….

vehicle inside incomplete

NOX black smoke industrial

after Small input

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B. Using the words or phrases in the box below, complete the summary of the reading Write your answers in boxes 6-10

hydrocarbon acid rain emissions

When fossil fuels burn, they produce elements that pollute the air, worsen the green-house effect, and cause (6) ______________. To alleviate the problem of incomplete combustion which produces particles and NOX, a Canadian scientist invented Carbonex which is blended with the fuel before it burns .The iron atoms, carried by (7) ___________ molecules which are the base of Carbonex, dissolve in the liquid fuel. These atoms help the fuel to burn more thoroughly, promoting the engines’ combustion efficiency and producing cleaner exhaust. The new product has been tested in America And Switzerland. The statistics show that it works better with (8) ____________ burners than with vehicle engines. Not only does Carbonex reduce parcticle and NOX (9) ___________, and increase energy output, it also helps to make the (10) __________ of engines cleaner, leading to cuts of maintenance costs. Your answers:

6. ________ 7. ________ 8. ________ 9. ________ 10. ________ SECTION IV: WRITING (40 points) Part 1: Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the sentence, using the word given. Do not change the word given. You must use between three and eight words, including the word given. (10 points)

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1.There is a strong possibility that this species of rhino will become extinct. DANGER The species of rhino is ……………………………………………….extinct 2. I thought Sue’s original plan was to move to Australia. IMPRESSION I …………………………………….……… was originally planning to move to Australia 3. The team are determined to finish the race however tough it is. MATTER. The team are determined to finish the race ………………………………….. be. 4. Jill wished she had tried to have a better relationship with her father. GET Jill regretted ……………………………………… …… better with her father. 5. I hate it when people lie to me which is why I split up with Simon. STAND I ………………………………….. …. to, which is why I split up with Simon Part 2: Write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence, but using the word given. The word must not be altered in any way. (10 points) 1. Many companies were immediately affected by the new regulations (EFFECT) ………………………………………………………………………………………………. 2. He is unlikely to carry out the plan. (PRACTICE) 10

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………………………………………………………………………………………………. 3. I’m going to have a problem because of the change of plan. (POSE) ………………………………………………………………………………………………. 4. A great many people will congratulate her if she wins (SHOWERED) ………………………………………………………………………………………………. 5. You couldn’t do anything more stupid than to give up your job now. (HEIGHT) ………………………………………………………………………………..………………

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Part 3: Write a paragraph on the following topic: Many young people nowdays graduate from school with a negatice attitude , and they are often unwilling to pursue further studies or seek employment. Why do you think this happen? What can be done to solve or reduce this problem? ..................................................................................................................................................................... ..................................................................................................................................................................... ..................................................................................................................................................................... ..................................................................................................................................................................... ..................................................................................................................................................................... ..................................................................................................................................................................... ..................................................................................................................................................................... ..................................................................................................................................................................... ..................................................................................................................................................................... ..................................................................................................................................................................... ..................................................................................................................................................................... ..................................................................................................................................................................... ..................................................................................................................................................................... ..................................................................................................................................................................... ..................................................................................................................................................................... ..................................................................................................................................................................... ..................................................................................................................................................................... ..................................................................................................................................................................... ..................................................................................................................................................................... ..................................................................................................................................................................... Giáo viên ra đề: Đào Thị Thương - 0914.706.060 The end

ĐÁP ÁN VÀ HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 10 Ngày thi: 15 tháng 4 năm 2017

HỘI CÁC TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN VÙNG DUYÊN HẢI & ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN TUYÊN QUANG __________

1. Postgraduate

2. Engineering

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SECTION I: LISTENING (50 pts) Part 1: Each correct answer is given 2 pts 3. Computer games

4. in Hall

5. 0295069003

3. D

4. C

5. A

3. T

4. T

5. F

Part 2: Each correct answer is given 2 pts 1. C

2. B

1. F

2. T

Part 4: Each correct answer is given 2 pts 5. Young children

2. telling off

6. the government

3. The wrong shoes

7. Lazy

9. changed the law 10. (teenage) crime

4. very cruel

8. how lucky

1. 1.Hitting

Part 3: Each correct answer is given 2 pts

4.D

5.B

6.B

7.C

8.C

9.D

10.D

SECTION II: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (50 pts) Part 1. Choose the word that best completes each sentence. (20pts : 1 pt for each correct answer) 14.A

15.D

16.A

17.C

18.C

19.A

20. C

1.A

2.C

3.D

11.C

12.B

13.D

Part 2. There are ten mistakes in the following passage (10pts : 1 pt for each correct answer) Mistake

Correction

Line

Mistake

Correction

conducting

conducted

beneficial

benefits

accepted

acceptable

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Line

guilty

guilt

whereby

whereas

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leading

led

domestical

domestic

silently

silent

dynamic

dynamics

express

expressing

Part 3: Complete each sentence with one suitable particle or preposition (10pts : 1 pt for each correct answer) 1.under 6. Off

2. Over 7. out

3. Away 8. back

4. In 9. for

5. on 10. for

Part 4: Word formation: (10pts : 1 pt for each correct answer) 1. unrelated

2. empirical

3. philosophical

4. undertaken

5. revolutionary

6. replacement

7. innovators

8. fruitful

9. strengthened

10. reliance

1. D

2. C

3.B

4. D

6. B

7. B

8. C

9. A

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SECTION III: READING COMPREHENSION (60 points) Part 1: Read the text below and decide which answer A, B, C or D best fits each space. (15pts : 1,5 pt for each correct answer). 5. A

10. D

Part 2: Fill in each gap with one suitable word: (15pts : 1,5 pt for each correct answer) 1. in

2. form

3. right

4. One

6. Unlike

7. like

8. by

9. coming

5. himself

10. mainly/partly

Part 3: Read the passage below and choose the best answer to each question(15pts : 1,5 pt for each correct answer) 7A

10D

Part 4: Matching heading (15pts : 1,5 pt for each correct answer) 2. i

3. xii

6. acid rain

7. hydrocarbon

8. industrial

4.vii

5.viii

9. emissions

10. inside

1. v

SECTION IV: WRITING (40 points)

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Part 1: Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the sentence, using the word given. (10pts : 2 pt for each correct answer) 1. The species of rhino is ……. in danger of becoming…….extinct. 2. I ..was under/ had/ got the impression that Sue.. was originally planning to move to Australia. 3. The team are determined to finish the race …no matter how tough it may/might .. be. 4. Jill regretted …not trying to get along /on … better with her father. 5. I …can’t stand being lied …. to, which is why I split up with Simon Part 2: Write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence, but using the word given. (10pts : 2 pt for each correct answer) 1. The new regulations had an immediate effect on many companies. 2. He’s unlikely to put/ it is unlikely that he will put the plan into practice. 3. The change of plan is going to pose a problem to me. 4. She will be showered with congratulations if she wins 5. Giving up your job now is the height of stupididy Part 3: Write a para: (20pts) Content: accounts for 50% of the total mark. To be given the maximum of 50% for the content, the candidates should provide all main ideas and details as appropriate. Language: accounts for 30% of the total mark. To be given the maximum of 30% for language, the candidates should use variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language gifted senior high school students. Presentation: accounts for 20% of the total mark. To be given the maximum of 20% for presentation, the candidates should write with coherence, cohesion and can use appropriate styles and linking devices appropriate to the level of English language gifted senior high school students.

TAPESCRIPT Part 1: You will hear a new student, Stefan , talking to an assistant, Anna at the Student Union about his membership.

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Anna: Hi, can I help you? Stefan: Urn-yeah, I hope so. Erm- this is the first time I’ve been down to the union- I’m a new international student- and I just wondered what to do. Anna: Oh right. Well, normally we ask international students to fill out this form and we put your details on the wall by reception. Then other students can contact you - it’s a way for everybody to get to know each other. It can be a bit lonely otherwise. Stefan: Oh I see. Anna: What’s your name? I’m Anna, by the way. Stefan: It’s Stefan Unger. Anna: Ok- well just write that there – next to name- and then fill in the rest. Stefan: Right. Urn- what does it mean degree programme? Anna: Oh, hust if you are an undergarduate or a post –graduate- or maybe you are just here for a short course. Stefan: I’m a postgraduate. Do I need to say what in? Anna: Not really- it’s too much detail. But you should put your departure so people who have the same interests- or problems- as you can get in touch Stefan: So I’m studying Marine Construction so , for Department, do I put down the Science faculty then? Anna: just your actual Department. That’s must be Engineering, no? Stefan: Oh I see, yes. Anna: Then if you list what you like dong in your frre time- not that we ever get any when we are studying – and maybe you can meet up with someone socially or to join a club or something. Stefan: Well, I like lots of things - shall I just list them? Anna: my advice os to just put one or two like football and films or whethever. Otherwise you will get so many invitations you won’t getany time to wotk. Stefan” Ok- I think I’ll list computer games as that’s my big interest. I haven’t played football for ages. I may start to play once I get settle. Now Let’s see- next thing is languages. Anna: Yes- we find many of the international students get a bit tired of speaking English all the time- sometimes that like to speak to someone in their own language. It’s up to you. Stefan: That’s a good idea. I presume I don’t nees to put English down? Anna: oh no-(laugh)- I put – urn- Italian and Frech. Stefan: Hm- I can only speak German- my mother tongue. Ok, well that’s fine. Just put that. Anna: What does caccommodation mean? Is that my address? Stefan: We are trying to find similarities between people and some people live in Jall, some are in flats, some are bed-sits- so it helps if you say. Anna: I’m in Hall, though I’d like to be a flat. But that won’t happen till the end of the first term. Stefan: Put where you are now. You can always change it later. Then finally just put your phone number. I haven’t really got one- I haven’t sorted out a mobile yet. Anna: Well, it’s going to be difficult for people to contact you then, isn’t it? Why don’t you put the Union one and we’ll take messages for you. Stefan: Ok Anne: It’s 02950659003. Have you got that? Yet.

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Stefan : Ok, then Part 2: MCQ Interviewer: And now Sarah Brown is here to talk to us about her latest book. Patterns of friendship. Sarah, you’ve found that there are quite noticeable patterns in the way that peaple make friends……. Sarah Brown; Mmm, absolutely. For example, friendship becomes important quite early on, in children as young as three. But up to about five, hildren have what you could call unchosen playmates, based quite practically on what’s available, they can’t exactly go out to look for them….. often the chidren of their parents’ friends, or family relations. And it’s actually quite an egoistic relationship at this stage (1C) – there may be frenquent quarrels over possessions - toys and so on….. Interviewer: Yes, you thnk they’ll play together happily sharing their toys and the next thing you know, one’s in flood of tears and you have to sort it out….. Sarah Brown: yes, but by the time the child’s about five it starts to change. Once they’re at school, children begin to choose their own playmates. (2B) – other children in the same class, or living nearby, maybe in the same street. And they start to co-operate more. But friendship’s still a way of serving self-interest, and friend are expected to keep to ceitains rules. Interviewer: Yes, xactly, and this carries on to eight or ten years old, but gradually they begin to be able to see things from other people’s point of view - and this, er marks the point at which the child is beginning to acquire knowledge of socal relationships. Sarah Brown: Well, from 12 onwards, as they enter adolescence, children are beginning to stand on their own feet, er, the influence of their parents tends to deline, and they feel the need for a lose friend, nearly always with someone of the same sex. They’re looking for friends who are people they admire, who they see as similat to the sort of person they’d like to be…… and these friendships take on great importance. Friends have got to be trustworthy. (3D) and friendships are very exclusive, but at the same time there’s the group thing, they’re developing networks friends having fun together… Interviewer: So they go to clubs and cafes big group…. Sarah Brown: Mmm, yes and spend a lot of their free time together. And this continues for some year- so young adults- from 18 to 25, or when they get married, have close friendships, like adolesents, and may see their friends every day, and spend hours on the phone… Interviewer: I suppose that for most of us, this is probanly the period when our circle of friends is at itswidest, isn’t it? But is it affected by marriage? Sarah Brown: Oh, yes, quite considerably – the couple may move away, they may have children. Friend still see one another, but nstead of every day or every week, they might get together once 2 month or just at special times… parties and so on. Interviewer: And what about new friends? Sarah Brown: They may make some, but they tend to be based more on neighbourhood and work contacts, and they’re often less intimate than the friendships formed earlier on (4C) Interviewer: So less in the way of sharing secrets and confidences. Sarah Brown: yes, exactle. And in middle age, between 55 and 65 – or even older, after retirement, people take on new friends even less easily. At this time of life they hold on to earlier friendships. (5A) which are often more intimate than the more recent ones, even though they see these older friends lass often. Friends now aren’t based so much on neighbourhood- they can be with people of any age. And irionically, when they give up work there’s a further decline in contacts with friends. Interviewer: really? Sarah Brown: Yes, because of transport difficulties, illness, that sort of thing. They’re more likely to turn back to their families at this point – full circle, as you might say! Interviewer: Sarah Brown, thank you …

Part 3: True or False

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Reporter: Good evening, and thanks for tuning in. This is News 12 at 6. I’m Christine Bagley. Our top story tonight takes us to a small island off the coast of Denmark. A team of scientists and researchers from the University of Virginia in Charlottesville has been visiting the island of Samsø. Samsø has become famous as the most environmentally-friendly place in the world… Dr. Franklin: I’m standing here on the beautiful island of Samsø, about 12 miles from the Danish mainland in the North Sea. I’m surrounded by wind turbines and some very excited scientists. This is simply amazing! We don’t have any alternative power project on this scale in the United States. This place is years ahead of us. Reporter: That’s Dr. Albert Franklin of the University of Virginia. He’s here along with a group of researchers from the university to learn from Samsø’s success in becoming the “greenest place on earth.” These wind turbines harness the immense power of the weather in this windy, remote island. The wind turns these huge windmills behind me, and the motion generates electricity. In fact, the turbines create so much electricity that they supply not only the 4,200 residents of Samsø, but the mainland of Denmark, too. By selling electricity to Denmark’s power grid, the islanders claim to be carbon negative. Here’s Dr. Franklin again. Dr. Franklin: Carbon dioxide, or CO2, is a natural gas. However, human activity is releasing more and more CO2 into the environment than ever before. Too much CO2 is bad because it’s a greenhouse gas. That means carbon dioxide is responsible for global warming. CO2 is emitted from power stations that burn coal and oil to make electricity, cars, planes, fertilizers, and even some types of food production. It is possible to reduce the amount of CO2 you put into the atmosphere— by planting trees, or using renewable energy, for example. These are called offsets. If a country makes more CO2 than it offsets, it’s called carbon positive. If it offsets more than it produces, it’s called carbon negative. Reporter: And Samsø is the most carbon negative area of its size anywhere on the planet. Here are some numbers. Each American is responsible for about 20 tons of carbon dioxide every year. That’s the highest figure of any nation. Each Dane produces about 13 tons. Samsø is 140 percent carbonnegative, which means that each resident actually takes out carbon from the atmosphere. They calculate this by adding up all the green energy they produce and subtracting the few carbon costs they have from cars and other forms of transportation. Dr. Franklin: Look at this system here. This is the way humans can live in harmony with nature. Reporter: Dr. Franklin has brought me to the central furnace. That’s basically a very large oven which burns straw to heat the homes of Samsø. Dr. Franklin: Straw is just dried plants, and those plants take CO2 out of the atmosphere. So, straw is carbon-neutral. Now, if you burn straw at a very high temperature, it pollutes very little, and it can heat the houses. But it gets better. After the straw is burned, you are left with a gray dust called ash. This ash is a great fertilizer, so farmers spread it on their fields. That way, they don’t need to buy fertilizer—the process of making fertilizer from oil releases CO2, of course. The ash fertilizer helps the plants grow, and the plants make straw and we’re back to the furnace. A fully renewable, carbon-neutral cycle of energy production! Reporter: It’s cold and windy—it’s always windy here, it seems—but everyone’s excited about carbon on this island. Samsø made this remarkable change to renewable energy as a result of a competition. In 1997, the Danish government held a competition to find an island with the best plan to become carbon neutral by 2008. Samsø won the competition, and the rest is history (with a little financial help from the government and the European Union, of course). But environmentalism has also been good business. The Danish government buys Samsø’s wind-generated electricity at such a good price that the farmers who swapped crops for turbines are already making a profit. And that’s not counting the money the islanders save from not buying gasoline, which is 2 to 3 times more expensive than in the U.S. Did we mention biodiesel? Dr. Franklin: Biodiesel! Here’s another case where one environmentally-friendly idea creates a

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whole chain of green consequences. Take canola, for example. That’s a plant that grows easily here, and also in the U.S. If you press the canola seeds, you get canola oil, which you can use as biodiesel—so, no gasoline-based diesel. But after you press the canola seeds, you have a green mash. You can then give this to your cows, which means you don’t have to buy feed—feed is imported, which means transportation carbon costs. Your cows produce organic milk and cheese, so you can live off the land. Reporter: This is what environmentalists call self-sufficiency: Samsø can survive by producing its own energy and food. It doesn’t need a lot of imports, and fewer imports mean less transportation which damages the environment by producing carbon dioxide. This all helps Samsø’s carbon budget, which makes Dr. Franklin and the other Americans here very jealous. On the island on Samsø, Denmark, I’m Christine Bagley for News 12. Part 4: Gap-filling

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Yvonne: Any of you who are of my generation or older will no doubt remember… the strap. But for these youngesters listening, I’d better explain because I’m saying this for your benefit. The trap, as they called it, was a thick piece of leather about an inch wide and half as long as a belt and it was especially designed for hitting small children, on the palms of their hands. Nowadays, if you do something wrong at school, you are unlucky if ou even get a telling off. And even the most serious offences get little more than a concerned phone call from the head teacher to your mum nad dad. Now when I was at St Anne’s School for Girl in Fifties, we didn’t have things quite so easy. It didn’t take much to ge a strapping. I’ll never forget the first time it happened to me. One morning, I came to school in the wrong shoes- brown one instead of black – and that was enough for the principal to call me up in front of the whole class of children and beat my hand unitl it bled. I saw this and many other examples of our school’s decipline system as very cruel and unfair. Now, unlike many people of that time, I didn’t just forget about it when my school days were over. Soon I had children of my own the thought that they would one day get the same treatment, really made my blood boil …. And that’s when I heard about P.O.P.P.I….. er …. Parents Opposed to Physical Punishment Of Infants. All the other members were like me. They had young children and didn’t want some unfeeling teachers filling their lives with misery. So we started writing letters. First, to the school, then to the education department and eventually, to our local politicians, and in 1979, the government put an end to the strap….. and to the cane …. And to the paddle and we thought that we had guarranted our children the chance to grow up into fine young people, And that, I’m afraid, did not happen . my own son and daughter have turned into lazy , irresponsible young adults who really hace no idea how lucky they are. I’m sure you all know people like them….. and they are not the worst by far. But it’s only recently that I have begun to think- to wish – that they had never changed the law. Cruel it may have been, unfair it often was, but it taught us our place in society. And that’s something that few young people today seem to know or want to respect. For example, we wouldn’t have all the teenage crime that goes on nowadays if those teenagers concerned had, when thay had been younger, been given the strap.

TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN BẮC GIANG

KỲ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI CÁC TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN KHU VỰC DUYÊN HẢI VÀ ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ LẦN THỨ X, NĂM HỌC 2016 – 2017

ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT

(Đề thi gồm trang) Điểm

Bằng chữ

Giám khảo 2

Số phách

Bằng số

Giám khảo 1

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ĐỀ THI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 10 Thời gian: 180 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề) Ngày thi: 15/4/2017

A. LISTENING (50 points):

Question 1: Listen to the recording and complete the table below with ONE

WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. (10 points)

MOVING COMPANY SERVICE REPORT

Phone number:

USA Address :

(1)………………………………………………………… 509 Clark House,

1137 (2)…………………………drive in Seattle Monday

Date:

11th

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Packing day:

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(3)………………………………………………………..

Clean – up by:

5:00 p.m.

Day:

(4)……………………………………………………….. About the Price:

Rather expensive 1

Storage Time:

(5)

……………………………………………………..

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• Your answers 4.

Question 2: Choose the correct letter A, B, C, or D. (10 points) GENERAL COURSE DETAILS

1. What is the defining characteristic of a specialized course?

C. Attending the class immediately

B. Attending the class frequently

D. Compulsory and regular

A. Taking a proficiency exam

D. students on a flexible schedule.

B. full-time students only.

C. Microbiology students only.

A. full-time and flexible-time students.

2. The Microbiology courses are available for………………..

3. The Biology courses are available for……………… C. flexible-time students only.

A. all students.

D. freshmen only.

B. full-time students only.

4. A Medical Science course will be opened next year because………………….. C. there are no computers.

B. the building is damaged.

D. There are no experimental facilities.

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A. the lap equipment is too expensive.

5. Which is the quickest increasing subject in enrolment? B. Statistics

C. Environmental Science

D. Economics

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A. Medical Science

Question 3: Listen to a piece of BBC news “Apple-FBI iPhone argument getting bigger” and decide the statements are True (T) or False (F). Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes (10pts). 2

T/F

2. Apple said unlocking the iPhone would be a threat to its customers.

T/F

3. America's Department of Justice (DOJ) is on Apple's side.

T/F

4. The DOJ said Apple was putting up technological barriers.

T/F

5. The DOJ said Apple was an evil company.

T/F

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1. The iPhone belonged to someone who killed people last month.

Your answer 1.

Question 4: You will hear a teacher giving her students advice for exams. Listen carefully and complete the passage below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE

WORDS OR NUMBERS for each blank. (20 points)

Advice for Exams

- The audience are advised to (1)………….. as she is talking.

- Food can give you energy but eat sweets or drinking cola or sugar won’t help you

study but (2)……… will, for example apples.

- Find a comfortable place, not ‘too’ comfortable, with (3)……….. when studying.

- Try and keep a positive mind and be relaxed. Have a break If you start (4)……….., like going out for a stroll around the block.

- Choose the (5)…….., the things that will get you most points in an exam.

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- Learn the main ideas and don’t worry too much about (6)……….. - Make notes of (7)…….. and read them, then cover them up and try to remember

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all the points.

- Use past exam papers in the library to help you understand what kind of questions (8)………...

- Take (9)……….. while you are studying. Five-minutes is usually enough. - Drink a glass of water to (10)………... (Source: http://learnenglishteens.britishcouncil.org) 3

Your answers 2…………………………

3. ………………………...

4. ………………………...

5. ………………………...

6. ………………………...

7. ………………………...

8. ………………………...

9. ………………………...

10. ………………………... B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (50 points)

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1. ………………………...

Part 1. Choose the best option A, B, C, or D to complete the following sentences and

write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (20 points)

1. Environmental pollution has ________ many species to the verge of extinction. B. thrown

C. brought

A. sent

D. driven

B. under

C. with

A. by

2. Luggage may be placed here ____________ the owner’s risk. D. at

is now threatened by satellites.

3. Cable TV revolutionized communications; ______, the very existence of that service B. consequently

C. eventually

D. nevertheless

A. moreover

4. Helen was ________ disappointed when she learnt that she hadn’t won the beauty A. seriously

B. bitterly

C. strongly

contest.

D. heavily

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5. If he tries to…….ignorance as his excuse, just tell him we’ve got a copy of the authorization with his signature on it. B. plead

C. pretend

D. protest

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A. defend

6. John: “Our teacher, Mr. Jones, is not very flexible. He always requires us to submit

his assignments on time.” Jack: “ _________. He should know that we have to learn many subjects.”

A. I can’t disagree with you more

B. I can’t agree with you more

C. That can be true

D. I am not with you here 4

7. It was ______of a surprise to Andrew that he got the job. A. rather

B. something

C. quite

D. much

8. The more expensive carpet is a good choice ______it will last longer. A. by means of

B. due to

C. in that

D. in view of

A. repressive 10.I

left

the

A. choice

B. pohibitive

C. restrictive

company

______,

B. option

not

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9. It was decided that the cost of the project would be ______ and so it was abandoned. D.exclusive because

C. selection

was

forced

to.

D.preference

11. When will it _______ on you that I am right and you're wrong? B. come

C. dawn

D. arise

A. descend

12. Living by the ocean really ___ your ___. Once you’ve lived there, you never want C. get in- blood

B. get in- heart

D. came in- blood

A. came in - heart

to leave.

B. view

C. belief

D.opinion

A. outlook

13.Sam has always taken the ______that there is more to life than money.

14. 7. I wrote to them a fortnight ago but _____I haven’t had a reply A. as yet

B. these days

C. so long

D.just now

15. Wait a minute, there is an answer from the Federal Bureau with _____ to your

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previous inquiry.

A. consideration

B. reflection

C. attention

D. regard

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16. Tamara has set her _______ on becoming a ballet-dancer. A. feet

B. brain

C. head

D. heart

17.“I think we ought to see the rest of the exhibition as quickly as we can, _____ that it closes in half an hour.” A. granted

B. assuming

C. given

D. knowing

18. Several passengers received minor injuries when the train unexpectedly came to a ______. A. delay

B. stand

C. brake

D. halt

19. I’m so ______ under with work at the moment – it’s awful! B. iced

C. rained

D. fogged

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A. snowed

20. A good newspaper story must come right ______ and save the details for later. A. to date

B. to the good

C. to the point

Your answers: 3.

11.

12.

13.

14.

16.

17.

18.

19.

10.

15. 20.

D. to the bone

Part 2. Read the passage below which contains 10 mistakes. Identify the mistakes and

write the corrections in the corresponding numbered boxes.(10 points)

Example: success (Line 1) → succeed

It is very difficult to success in the music business; nine out Line 1 of ten bands that release a first record fail to produce the second. Line 2

Surviving in the music industry requires luck and patience, but Line 3

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most of all it requires and intricate knowledge of how a record Line 4 company is functioned. The process begins when a presenter of a Line 5

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company’s Artist and Repertoire (A&R) department visits bars and Line 6 night clubs, scouting for young, talented bands. After the Line 7

representative identifies a promised band, he or she will work to Line 8 negotiate a contract with that band. The signature of this recording Line 9 contract is a slow process. A company will spend a long time to Line 10 investigate the band itself as well as current trends for popular Line 11 6

music. During this period, it is important that a band reciprocates Line 12 with an investigation of its own, learning as much as possible about Line 13 the record company and making personnel connections within the Line 14 different departments that will handle their recordings.

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Part 3. Complete each sentence with one suitable particle or preposition. Write your answer in the box provided. (10 points)

1. He has fixation _________ becoming the best teacher in this area.

2. The teacher was deaf _________. Nick's explanation of why he hadn't done his homework

3. He lost his job _________ no fault of his own.

4. You must account _________ the manager for the money you used.

5. A lion has escaped and is ________ large in the city.

months of the military service to do.

6. Danny wished his father could stay _______ good, but the man still had a few

7. The workers were rather cynical after the meeting. Most of them were ________ no horn no less than 50 applicants for the scholarship

8. These students are picked

illusion that the management would take their complaints seriously. seems to run in his blood as he was a

9. Ordering other people in the family commander in the army for ten years.

10. Buyers priced _____ New York City are heading for the burbs, driving up demand

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in places with reputations for good schools and lively downtowns.

10.

Part 4. Write the correct form of the words given in the brackets. Write your answers in the spaces provided below. (10 points) 7

The (1. CONCEIVE) ____________ of “rhetoric”, or effective public speaking, dates back thousands of years. The underlying (2. ASSUME) ____________ behind rhetoric is that how you present an argument can greatly influence whether people are persuaded by you or not. There is (3. DOUBT) ____________ plenty of evidence to support this

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idea – it’s practically (4. THINK) ____________, for example, for a successful

politician to be a poor communicator – but it is just a question of style winning over substance? Certainly, it is often said of politicians that they talk complete (5. SENSE) ____________ but what they say with such (6. CONVINCE) ____________ that we

tend to believe them, at least when they’re in opposition. On the other hand, (7. WISE)

____________ and knowledge are of little value if you can not communicate them effectively to your peers or to the next generation. It is the combination of clear (8.

REASON) ____________, sound (9. JUDGE) ____________ and effective

presentation and communication skills that define true rhetoric. A true rhetorician

should always come across as knowledgeable, and never as (10. OPINION)

____________ or ignorant.

10.

Your answers:

C. READING (60 points)

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Part 1. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap. Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (15 points)

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WITHOUT TV

The most radical thing we have ever done is not have a TV in our house. Since

99.1 per cent of American (1)…… cannot make this claim, it may be (2)…… some interest to know why. Certainly, our (3)…… of television has created (4)…… curiosity, puzzlement and anger (5)…… the people we know, and I suspect even more of these (6) …… behind our backs. "If the Wetherellsget (7)……. without a TV, why can't we?" 8

We did have a television during the first days of our marriage. I remember the dizzy way the (8)…… flickered across the screen. A few days later, after I (9)…… my senses, we took the set to our local dump, (10)…… hands in satisfaction ad have been

1. A. household

B. housewives

C. holdalls

2. A. at

B. for

C. of

3. A. shortage

B. lack

C. need

4. A. large

B. big

C. high

5. A. within

B. between

C. among

6. A. belief

B. emotions

C. opinions

7. A. over

B. on

C. by

8. A. images

B. drawings

C. icons

D. movies

9. A. re-established

B. recovered

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without one ever since .

C. overcame

D. got

10. A. waved

B. tightened

C. moved

D. shook

D. in

D. absence D. great

D. inside

D. thoughts D. away

Your answers

D. housework

1. …………… 2. …………… 3. …………… 4. …………… 5. …………… 8. …………… 9. …………… 10. …………

6. …………… 7. …………

Part 2. Read the following text and fill in the blank with ONE suitable word. Write

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your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (15 points) Overland transport in the United States was still extremely primitive in 1790.

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Roads were few and short, usually extending from inland communities to the nearest river town or seaport. (1) _______ all interstate commerce was carried out by sailing

ships that served the bays and harbors of the seaboard. Yet, in 1790 the nation was on the threshold of a new era of road development. (2) _______ to finance road

construction, states (3) _______ for help to private companies, organized by merchants and land speculators who had a personal interest in improved communications (4) 9

_______ the interior. The pioneer in this move was the state of Pennsylvania, which chartered a company in 1792 to construct a turnpike, a road for the use of (5) _______ a toll, or payment, is collected, from Philadelphia to Lancaster. The legislature (6) _______ the company the authority to erect tollgates at (7) _______ along the road

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where payment would be collected, though it carefully regulated the rates. (The states had unquestioned authority to regulate private business in this period.)

The company built a gravel road (8) _______ two years, and the success of the Lancaster Pike encouraged imitation. Northern states generally relied on private companies to (9) _______ their toll roads, but Virginia constructed a network at public

expense. (10) _______ was the road building fever that by 1810 New York alone had some 1,500 miles of turnpikes extending from the Atlantic to Lake Erie. 3.

10.

Your answers:

Part 3. Read the following passage and circle the best answer to each of the following

questions. Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes.

The Alaska pipeline starts at the frozen edge of the Arctic Ocean. It stretches southward across the largest and northernmost state in the United States, ending at a remote ice-

free seaport village nearly 800 miles from where it begins. It is massive in size and

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extremely complicated to operate. The steel pipe crosses windswept plains and endless miles of delicate tundra that tops

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the frozen ground. It weaves through crooked canyons, climbs sheer mountains, plunges over rocky crags, makes its way through thick forests, and passes over or under

hundreds of rivers and streams. The pipe is 4 feet in diameter, and up to 2 million barrels (or 84 million gallons) of crude oil can be pumped through it daily. Resting on H-shaped steel racks called "bents," long sections of the pipeline follow a zigzag course high above the frozen earth. Other long sections drop out of sight beneath 10

spongy or rocky ground and return to the surface later on. The pattern of the pipeline's up-and-down route is determined by the often harsh demands of the arctic and subarctic climate, the tortuous lay of the land, and the varied compositions of soil, rock, or permafrost (permanently frozen ground). A little more than half of the pipeline is

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elevated above the ground. The remainder is buried anywhere from 3 to 12 feet, depending largely upon the type of terrain and the properties of the soil.

One of the largest in the world, the pipeline cost approximately $8 billion and is by far the biggest and most expensive construction project ever undertaken by private industry. In fact, no single business could raise that much money, so eight major oil

companies formed a consortium in order to share the costs. Each company controlled

oil rights to particular shares of land in the oil fields and paid into the pipeline-

construction fund according to the size of its holdings. Today, despite enormous

problems of climate, supply shortages, equipment breakdowns, labor disagreements,

treacherous terrain, a certain amount of mismanagement, and even theft, the Alaska

pipeline has been completed and is operating. B. employees

C. consumers

A. operating cost

1. The passage primarily discusses the pipeline's…

construction

2. The word "it" in line 3 refers to…. B. ocean

A. pipeline

C. state

D. village

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3. According to the passage, 84 million gallons of oil can travel through the pipeline each…

B. week

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A. day

C. month

D. year

4. The phrase "Resting on" in line 10 is closest in meaning to…. A. consisting of

B. supported by

C. passing under

D. protected with

5. The author mentions all of the following as important in determining the pipeline's route EXCEPT the… A. climate

B. lay of the land itself 11

C. local vegetation

D. kind of soil and rock

6. The word "undertaken" in line 19 is closest in meaning to… A. removed

B. selected

C. transported

D. attempted

7. How many companies shared the costs of constructing the pipeline? B. four

C. eight

D. twelve

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A. three

8. The word "particular" in line 22 is closest in meaning to… A. peculiar

B. specific

C. exceptional

D. equal

9. Which of the following determined what percentage of the construction costs each member of the consortium would pay?

A. How much oil field land each company owned

B. How long each company had owned land in the oil fields

C. How many people worked for each company

D. How many oil wells were located on the company's land

10. Where in the passage does the author provide a term for an earth covering that B. Line 10

C. Line 15

D. Line 23

A. Line 2

always remains frozen?

Part 4. Read the following text and do the tasks that follow.

Light Pollution is a threat to Wildlife, Safety and the Starry Sky A After hours of driving south in the pitch-black darkness of the Nevada desert, a dome

of hazy gold suddenly appears on the horizon. Soon, a road sign confirms the obvious:

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Las Vegas 30 miles. Looking skyward, you notice that the Big Dipper is harder to find than it was an hour ago.

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B Light pollution—the artificial light that illuminates more than its intended target area—has become a problem of increasing concern across the country over the past 15

years. In the suburbs, where over-lit shopping mall parking lots are the norm, only 200 of the Milky Way’s 2,500 stars are visible on a clear night. Even fewer can be seen from large cities. In almost every town, big and small, street lights beam just as much light up and out as they do down, illuminating much more than just the street. Almost 12

50 percent of the light emanating from street lamps misses its intended target, and billboards, shopping centres, private homes and skyscrapers are similarly overilluminated. C America has become so bright that in a satellite image of the United States at night,

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the outline of the country is visible from its lights alone. The major cities are all there,

in bright clusters: New York, Boston, Miami, Houston, Los Angeles, Seattle, Chicago,

and, of course, Las Vegas. Mark Adams, superintendent of the McDonald Observatory in west Texas, says that the very fact that city lights are visible from on high is proof of their wastefulness. “When you’re up in an airplane, all that light you see on the ground

from the city is wasted. It’s going up into the night sky. That’s why you can see it.”

D But don’t we need all those lights to ensure our safety? The answer from light

engineers, light pollution control advocates and astronomers is an emphatic “no.”

Elizabeth Alvarez of the International Dark Sky Association (IDA), a non-profit

organization in Tucson, Arizona, says that overly bright security lights can actually force neighbours to close the shutters, which means that if any criminal activity does

occur on the street, no one will see it. And the old assumption that bright lights deter

crime appears to have been a false one: A new Department of Justice report concludes that there is no documented correlation between the level of lighting and the level of

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than at night.

crime in an area. And contrary to popular belief, more crimes occur in broad daylight

E For drivers, light can actually create a safety hazard. Glaring lights can temporarily

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blind drivers, increasing the likelihood of an accident. To help prevent such accidents, some cities and states prohibit the use of lights that impair night-time vision. For

instance, New Hampshire law forbids the use of “any light along a highway so positioned as to blind or dazzle the vision of travellers on the adjacent highway.”

F Badly designed lighting can pose a threat to wildlife as well as people. Newly hatched turtles in Florida move toward beach lights instead of the more muted silver shimmer of the ocean. Migrating birds, confused by lights on skyscrapers, broadcast towers and lighthouses, are injured, sometimes fatally, after colliding with high, lighted structures.

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And light pollution harms air quality as well: Because most of the country’s power plants are still powered by fossil fuels, more light means more air pollution.

G So what can be done? Tucson, Arizona is taking back the night. The city has one of the best lighting ordinances in the country, and, not coincidentally, the highest concentration of observatories in the world. Kitt Peak National Optical Astronomy

Observatory has 24 telescopes aimed skyward around the city’s perimeter, and its cadre

of astronomers needs a dark sky to work with.

H. For a while, that darkness was threatened. “We were totally losing the night sky,”

Jim Singleton of Tucson’s Lighting Committee told Tulsa, Oklahoma’s KOTV last

March. Now, after retrofitting inefficient mercury lighting with low-sodium lights that block light from “trespassing” into unwanted areas like bedroom windows, and by

doing away with some unnecessary lights altogether, the city is softly glowing rather

than brightly beaming. The same thing is happening in a handful of other states, including Texas, which just passed a light pollution bill last summer. “Astronomers can

get what they need at the same time that citizens get what they need: safety, security

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and good visibility at night,” says McDonald Observatory’s Mark Adams, who provided testimony at the hearings for the bill.

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I. And in the long run, everyone benefits from reduced energy costs. Wasted energy from inefficient lighting costs us between $1 and $2 billion a year, according to IDA.

The city of San Diego, which installed new, high-efficiency street lights after passing a light pollution law in 1985, now saves about $3 million a year in energy costs.

J. Legislation isn’t the only answer to light pollution problems. Brian Greer, Central Ohio representative for the Ohio Light Pollution Advisory Council, says that education is just as important, if not more so. “There are some special situations where regulation is the only fix,” he says. “But the vast majority of bad lighting is simply the result of not

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knowing any better.” Simple actions like replacing old bulbs and fixtures with more

efficient and better-designed ones can make a big difference in preserving the night sky. *The Big Dipper: a group of seven bright stars visible in the Northern Hemisphere.

Questions 1-5

The first six paragraphs of Reading Passage are lettered A-F.

Choose the most suitable headings for paragraphs A-F from the list of headings below.

NB There are more headings than paragraphs, so you will not use them all.

i Why lights are needed

List of Headings

ii Lighting discourages law breakers

iii The environmental dangers

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iv People at risk from bright lights v Illuminating space

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vi A problem lights do not solve vii Seen from above

viii More light than is necessary ix Approaching the city Example) Paragraph A ix 15

1. Paragraph B ..........................

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2. Paragraph C .......................... 3. Paragraph D .......................... 4. Paragraph E ..........................

5. Paragraph F.............................

Questions 6-10

Complete each of the following statements with words taken from the passage.

Write ONE or TWO WORDS for each answer.

6. According to a recent study, well-lit streets do not ............... or make neighbourhoods

safer to live in.

7. Inefficient lighting increases .................... because most electricity is produced from

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coal, gas or oil.

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8. Efficient lights .................... from going into areas where it is not needed.

9. In dealing with light pollution .................... is at least as important as passing new laws. 10. In the future, people will .................... reduced energy cost. 16

.......................

....................... ........................

10.

........................

......................

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D. WRITING (40 points) Part 1. Rewrite each sentence using the word in brackets so that the meaning stays the same. You must use between TWO and SIX words, including the word given.

1. The police arrived as the thieves were committing the crime. (RED-HANDED) The police……………………………………………………………………… 2. The Member of Parliament did everything he could to exploit the situation.

(ADVANTAGE)

The Member of Parliament did everything......................................... the situation.

3. George demands that the project should be finished now. INSISTENT

George ……………………………………………………………. the project.

4. I really don't know what you're talking about. (FAINTEST) I don't ……………………………………………….. what you're talking about. (OUT)

5. There is nothing strange about this.

There ………………………………………………………………. about this.

Part 2. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly

the same as the sentence printed before it.

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1. In the end we had to walk to the railway station. We ended..........................................................................................

2. It was not until five years had elapsed that the whole truth about the murder came

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out.

Not for another……………………………………………..............

3. He was really jealous when he saw his brother’s new car. GREEN He was green……………………………………………………………………. 4. My impression of him was that he was a very capable person He struck ………………………………………………………….. 17

5. You’re so lazy, you don’t deserve to pass your exams next month. You are so lazy so it will serve …………………………………… Part 3. Writing a paragraph “Chidren should be required to help with household tasks as soon as they are able

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to do so.” Do you agree with this statement? Write a paragraph of 180-200 words to state your viewpoint.

…………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………

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THE END

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D KÈ M Y

Q N

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TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN BẮC GIANG

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ XUẤT

KỲ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI CÁC TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN KHU VỰC DUYÊN HẢI VÀ ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ LẦN THỨ X, NĂM HỌC 2016 – 2017

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ĐỀ THI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 10 Thời gian: 180 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề) Ngày thi: 15/4/2017

(Đề thi gồm trang)

A. LISTENING (50 points):

1. 94635550

2. University

3. March

4. Thursday

2. A

3. B

4. D

2.T

3.F

Question 1:

5. C

1. D

Question 2:

5. month

Question 3:

4.T

5.F

1.F

3. plenty of light

5. important things

6. the details

2. fruits and cereals

1. make notes

Question 4: You will hear a teacher giving her students advice for exams.

8. come up

9. regular breaks

7. these key points

4. feeling anxious

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10. keep hydrated

B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (50 points) Part 1. 1D 2D 3D 4B 5B 6B

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13B

14A

15D

16D

17C

18D

19A

20C

10A

11C

12C

Part 2.

1. the second (Line 2)→ a second 2. and (intricate) (Line 4)→ an (intricate) 3. is functioned (Line 4)→ functions 4. presenter (Line 5)→ representative

6. signature (Line 8)→ signing 7. to investigate (Line 10)→ investigating 8. for (Line 10)→ in 9. reciprocates (Line 11)→ reciprocate

5. promised (Line 7)→ promising

10. personnel (Line 13)→ personal

Part 3. 2.to

3.through

4.to

5.at

6.for

7.at

8.out

9.around / about

10.out of

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1.on Part 4.

1. CONCEPT

2. ASSUMPTION

3. UNDOUBTEDLY/ DOUBTLESS

4. UNTHINKABLE

5. NON-SENSE

6. CONVICTION

7. WISDOM

8. REASONING

9. JUDGEMENT

10. OPINIONATED

3. B

6. B

7. C

8. A

2. C

4. D

5. C

9. B

10. D

1. A

C. READING (60 points) Part 1.

Part 2.

1. Nearly 2. Unable 3. turned 4. with 5. which

6. gave 7. points 8. within 9. build 10. Such

2. A

3. A

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1. D

Part 3.

Part 4.

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Question 1-5: (10 points) 1. viii 2. vii 3. vi 4. iv 5. iii Question 6-10: (5 points) 6. deter crime 7. (air) pollution 8. block light 9. education 10. benefit from

4. B

5. C

6. D

7. C

8. B

9. A

10. C

D. WRITING (40 points) Part 1. Rewrite each sentence using the word in brackets so that the meaning stays the same. You must use between TWO and SIX words, including the word given.

1. The police caught the thieves red-handed 3. George is insistent on finishing the project.

4. I don't have the faintest idea what you're talking about

5. There is nothing out of the ordinary about this.

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2. The Member of Parliament did everything he could to take advantage of the situation.

Part 2. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it. 1. We ended up having to walk to the railway station. 1. Not for another five years did the whole truth about the murder come out.

3. He struck me as a very capable person

2. He was green with envy to see his brother’s new car.

4. You’re so lazy, it will serve you right if you fail your exams next month.

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Part 3. Writing a paragraph “Chidren should be required to help with household tasks as soon as they are able to do so.” Do you agree with this statement? Write a paragraph of 180-200 words to state your viewpoint.

TAPESCRIPT QUESTION 1: CLERK:

Good morning, ma’am, and welcome to “Australia’s Moving Experience”! How can I help you? Well, I hope you can help me, I’m so up in the air right now…I, I…

CLERK:

Just calm down, now. Let me guess: you’re moving and it has you a little

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WOMAN:

confused. WOMAN:

That’s it exactly. You see, I’m relocating to the United States next month and I’m having a hard time getting organized.

Here, fill out your name and address, and let me ask you a few questions.

CLERK:

Oh, what should I call you? My name is Jane, Jane Bond.

CLERK:

OK, Jane, first of all, what’s your work phone number? In case I have any

My work phone is 94635550. But please try not to call me too often

WOMAN:

questions about things.

WOMAN:

So does mine, ma’am, so does mine. And what address should we ship

CLERK:

there. My boss hates personal calls.

your things to?

My new company is letting me stay temporarily at 509 Clark House,

：

that’s C-L-A-R-K, 1137 University Drive in Seattle.

WOMAN

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Seattle? Beautiful city, I hear. Mountains right beside the ocean, almost.

CLERK:

Cooler than Australia too. OK, and when should we come pack your

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things?

WOMAN: CLERK:

I guess that would be on Monday, March 11th. Do you want any help with an after-packing clean-up? We do that for a small additional charge. Yes, that would be helpful. I promised the landlord I’d give her the keys back by 5:00 p.m. on Thursday, the 14th.

WOMAN:

Great, we’ll just schedule the clean-up for that day. That way, the place

will smell clean and there’ll be no dust. Well, you do think of everything! Oh, how much is this going？

WOMAN:

Here is a list of our basic prices.

CLERK:

Oh dear, this seems rather expensive!

WOMAN:

Yes ma’am, but you’re paying for the best. We’re careful and we’re fast.

CLERK:

Like we say, the only thing we break are speed records getting you

WOMAN:

moved.

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CLERK:

Well…maybe that’s so…Oh, I nearly forgot to tell you. I don’t want my

furniture shipped with me. I won’t be looking for an apartment till after I CLERK:

arrive in America. Would it be possible to put my furniture in storage here for a month, then have it sent along later?

Of course, we do that all the time. A couple of other things. Here at “A

Hello…Are you Professor Van Diezen

STUDENT:

QUESTION 2:

throw stuff in boxes.

Moving Experience”, we try to pack your things logically. We don’t just

Oh! Sorry, my name is Tina. I’m a freshman here. They told me I

STUDENT:

PROFESSOR: Yes, I am. And who might you be? should ask you for advice in choosing courses.

PROFESSOR: Well, that’s part of what I’m here for. Please come in and sit down.

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Now, what are your questions?

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STUDENT:

That sounds pretty strict. Then what are all these general courses? I seem to have to take so many.

PROFESSOR: Nothing to be alarmed over. These are courses open to all students and not directly related to your major. The university offers these general courses to choose so that you can become more well-rounded individuals. For example, I see you’re a Microbiology major. So it might be a good idea to take some literature or history courses so that STUDENT:

you can know something besides all science.

PROFESSOR: You mean these courses are, like, for fun? That might be one way to look at it, but don’t tell the literature professor such a thing. Think of a general course as the opposite of a STUDENT:

specified course. A specified course is one that pertains directly to

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PROFESSOR: your major.

So can I take any Microbiology course I want?

Let’s see. Oh, those courses used to be open to Microbiology students only. The good thing is, now it’s open to students on a flexible

STUDENT:

schedule, so it’s not only for full-time students. So the answer is yes,

if you have the instructor’s permission. May I ask you why you chose PROFESSOR: Microbiology?

Well, I also like plain old Biology too. You know, full-sized animals.

I might even become a veterinarian. Could I take some Biology

classes?

STUDENT:

PROFESSOR: Well, they are open to full-time students only, which I believe is what

you are. I don’t know how a freshman would get along with

Microbiology, though. I mean, most of the students presently looking into it are from off-campus.

STUDENT:

PROFESSOR: Off campus?

Yes, you know, people who use it in their work at

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hospitals,laboratories, even a police detective. Why did you choose Microbiology, if I may ask? I don’t think you quite answered that.

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STUDENT:

Well eventually I want to be a doctor. At least my dad tells me so.

PROFESSOR: If I may say so, young lady, you seem a little uncertain. Still,I think that might be a good idea for a career. Of course, if you’re thinking about being either a doctor or a vet, you should take some Medical Science classes before you even think of applying to med school. STUDENT:

Great! What should I take?

PROFESSOR:

There is one small problem. The new Medical Sciences building is

under construction, so there are no experimental facilities available STUDENT:

until next year. I’m afraid you’ll have to wait. But don’t forget to take

PROFESSOR: those courses at the first opportunity! like me?

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Oh, bummer. Is there any other course you’d recommend for someone Well, since you seem to like animals, have you ever thought about looking into Environmental Science?

No, I never really thought about it before. Is it worthwhile?

Quite! In fact it’s the fastest growing subject on this campus.

QUESTION 3: BBC NEWS _ Apple-FBI iPhone argument getting bigger

There is a big argument in the USA between the technology company Apple and

the FBI. The argument is over the iPhone of a killer. In December 2015, 14 people

were killed and 22 were seriously injured in a terrorist attack in San Bernardino,

California. The FBI has the iPhone of one of the terrorists Syed Rizwan Farook.

Investigators want Apple to unlock the phone so they can get to information about

Farook. They think the information can help them to catch more terrorists. Apple

has told the FBI that they will not open the iPhone. Apple's website said that would threaten the security of its customers. Apple also said it would be dangerous

because other organizations would want phones opened.

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The Department of Justice (DOJ) is also very angry that Apple will not open the iPhone. It said Apple, "deliberately raised technological barriers" to stop a lawful

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request from the FBI to help in the "terrorist mass murder of 14 Americans". The DOJ added that: "Apple alone can remove those barriers so that the FBI can search

the phone." Apple bosses said the DOJ was giving Apple a bad name. They said the DOJ wanted the public to think that Apple was an evil company for not opening the iPhone. It said: "It seems like disagreeing with the Department of Justice means you must be evil and anti-American." The DOJ said it wants just one iPhone unlocked and that would not invade anyone's privacy

QUESTION 4: Advice for Exams Morning! Everyone. Quiet, please. Right, OK! So today, I’m going to give you some advice to help you prepare for the exams next week. So make notes as

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I’m talking. Are you ready?

While you are studying, eat food that gives you energy. Don’t be tempted to

eat sweets or drink cola. Sugar won’t help you study but fruit and cereals will. Apples

are

especially

good.

Find a comfortable place with plenty of light when you study. But not ‘too’

comfortable or you’ll fall asleep!

Try and keep a positive mind. It is easier to study when you are positive and

relaxed. If you start feeling anxious, have a break. Go out for a stroll around the

block.

Don’t try to learn everything. There isn’t time. Choose the ‘important’ things, the

things that will get you most points in an exam. If you aren’t sure about this, ask

me.

First learn the main ideas and don’t worry too much about the details. If you

have time, you can come back later and read the details. Make notes of these key points and read them, then cover them up and try to

remember all the points. It might be boring, but repetition helps you to remember.

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Use past exam papers to study. They will help you understand what kind of

questions come up. There are plenty of past exam papers in the library. You can

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photocopy them and take them home. Take regular breaks while you are studying. A five-minute break every half

hour is usually enough. Get some fresh air and stretch your arms and legs. Drink a glass

water

too.

It’s

important

keep

And, last but not least, good luck! I’m sure you will all do your best.

hydrated.

SỞ GD&ĐT BẮC NINH

ĐỀ THI OLYMPIC KHU VỰC DHBB NĂM HỌC 2016 - 2017 Môn: Tiếng anh – lớp 10

TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN BẮC NINH

(Đề thi đề xuất)

(Thời gian: 180 phút – không kể thời gian giao đề)

A. LISTENING (50 points):

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HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU

• Bài nghe gồm 3 phần, mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, mở đầu và kết thúc mỗi phần nghe có tín hiệu. • Mở đầu và kết thúc phần nghe có tín hiệu nhạc.

• Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe.

Part 1: You will hear a telephone conversation between the owner of a restaurant and a customer who is calling to find out information about food and prices at the restaurant.

answer in the corresponding numbered boxes.

Listen and write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each

Belluci’s Restaurant Sam’s suggestions

Tomato bread with herbs

Would go best with Lasagna:

(2) __________with____________

(1) ______________________

Greek salad

Other side dishes that Sam mentions: CUSTOMER DETAILS

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Booking made on: 5th August Date when customers will be at the restaurant: (3) ______________________

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Time: 7:00 pm

Number of people: (4) ______________________

Email address: (5) ___________@___________.com Customer phone number: 014453336451 Your answers: 1.

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Part 2: You will listen to a talk by the Water Project Manager of a charity called ‘Charity – Water’. For each of the following questions, choose the option which fits best to what you hear. 1. The speaker’s job requires A. a great deal of walking

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B. extensive travel C. clean water 2. Why is this story being told? A. to promote Charity-Water B. for entertainment purposes

C. to encourage Helen

3. When villagers heard of the charity workers’ arrival, they

A. had a party

B. were suspicious 4. Helen is feeling A. ecstatic about her new life

C. took no notice

B. curious about the charity workers

C. nostalgic about her old life

5. What did the speaker notice about Helen?

A. that she had bathed recently

B. the care that she took with her appearance

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C. that she was wearing a green uniform Your answers:

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Part 3: You will hear a piece of CNN news. Listen and decide if the following sentences are True (T) or False (F). Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. 1. A powerful earthquake jolted New Zealand after a midnight. 2. Earthquakes in New Zealand are massive.

Page 2 of 18

3. Christchurch is home to 340,000 people. 4. The highest tsunami waves in New Zealand were eight-feet tall. 5. There are numerous volcanic and earthquake activities in Pacific Ocean's Ring of

Your answers: 1.

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Fire.

Part 4: You will hear a radio interview with an American woman called Kate Jenner, who practices the sport of parkour, or ‘free running’

sentences with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS.

Listen and complete the

The objective of parkour is to get over such obstacles as trees, (1) ____________ and

walls.

Kate says that parkour combines cross- country running with (2) ____________.

In order to join a parkour club, it is necessary to have a good (3) ____________ and to

be fit.

Kate says that (4) ____________ is a problem for her in some situations.

When she is in town, Kate looks at (5) ____________ and courtyards as possible places

to do parkour.

Parkour enthusiasts do not generally (6) ____________ with people when they are told

to stop.

Kate and a professor are studying different techniques of (7) ____________ that are

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used in parkour.

If Kate teaches parkour

in the college, there could be a problem with (8)

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____________.

Kate has been in Los Angeles doing parkour for an advertisement for a (9)

____________. A company that makes (10) ____________ may provide Kate’s club with funding. Your answers: 1.

10.

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B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (50 points) Part 1. Choose the best option A, B, C, or D to complete the following sentences and write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.

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1. According to the _____ of the contract, tenants must give six months’ notice if they intend to live. A. laws

B. rules

C. terms

D. details

2. No one could contemplate fame these days without knowing beforehand of its _____. a. laisez-faire

B. outburst

C. insight

D. downside

B. credit

C. loan

D. return

A. borrowing

3. Books taken from the short _____ section are due to be returned the next day.

4. She was so undisciplined and disobedient that, as the manager, I just had to put my

C. fist

B. shoe

D. foot

A. stamp

_____ down.

5. When Wilson’s company was hit by the recession, he decided to take early _____. B. retirement

C. resignation

D. redeployment

A. redundancy

situation to him.

6. I am sure your husband-to-be will lend you a _____ ear when you explain the

B. compassionate C. pitiful

A. merciful

D. sympathetic

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7. The whereabouts of the exiled president remains a _____ guarded secret. A. highly

B. closely

C. deeply

D. entirely

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8. It’s a shame to fall out so badly with your own _____. B. flesh and blood C. heart and soul D. skin and bone

A. heart to heart

9. Life’s very easy for you. You were born with a _____ spoon in your mouth. A. silver

B. golden

C. bronze

D. diamond

10. There has been a lot of _____ surrounding the government’s proposed scheme. A. controversy

B. consent

C. conformity Page 4 of 18

D. consequence

11. You can’t bury your head _____ and hope that this problem goes away, you know. A. in the mud

B. in the pool

C. in the sand

D. in the water

12. Fiona’s offered to help you. Don’t ask why – never look a gift _____ in the mouth. A. horse

B. cow

C. deer

D. dog

A. grimace

B. smirk

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13. Sandra’s unpleasant _____ suggested that she knew about Amanda’s terrible secret. C. wince

D. snort

14. Few people can do creative work unless they are in the right _____ of mind. A. frame

B. trend

C. attitude

D. tendency

B. fake

C. counterfeit

D. fraudulent

A. camouflaged

15. He was arrested for trying to pass _____ notes at the bank.

B. substance

C. friction

D. texture

A. stroke

16. This fabric has the _____ of silk but it’s very cheap.

down and started eating them. B. specks

C. flakes

D. crumbs

A. grains

17. I threw some biscuit _____ on the ground and a whole load of pigeons swooped

them down.

18. The insects looked and tasted so horrible, I _____ with disgust as I tried to force

B. grinned

C. grimaced

A. gloated

D. chuckled

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19. Going down white-water rapids in a canoe must be extremely _____! Does your heart start beating really fast?

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A. trivial

B. mundane

C. sedentary

D. exhilarating

20. Was it always an _____ of yours to play for France? A. urge

B. adoration

C. anticipation

D. aspiration

Your answers: 1.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

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16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

Part 2. Read the passage below which contains 10 mistakes. Identify the mistakes and write the corrections in the corresponding numbered boxes. Example: Line 1: industrial industry

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Although the music industrial developed over several decades, popular music drew ethnomusicologists’ attention by the 90s because a standardizing effective began to

develop. The corporate nature surrounding popular music streamlined it into a framework that focused on slight deviations from the accepted norm, create what

Adorno calls “pseudo-individualism”; what the public would perceive as unique or

organic would musically comply with standard, established music conventions. Thus, a

duality emerged from this standardization, an industry-driven manipulation of the

public’s tastes to give people what they want while simultaneous guiding them to it. In

the case of rock music, while the genre may have grown out of politicized forces and

other form of meaningful motivation, the corporate influence over popular music

became integral to its identity that directing public taste became increasingly easier. Technological development allowed for easy dispersion of western music,

causing the dominance of western music into rural and urbanized areas across the globe.

However, because popular music assumes so a corporatized role and therefore remains

subject to a large degree of standardized, ambiguity exists whether the music reflects

actual cultural values or those only of the corporate sector seeking economic profit. Because popular music developed such a dependent relationship to media and the

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corporations surrounding it, where record sales and profit indirectly shaped musical decisions, the superstar person became an important element of popular music. From the

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fame and economical success surrounding such superstars, subcultures continued to arise, such as the rock and punk movements, only perpetuated by the corporate machine

that also shaped the musical aspect of popular music. Your answers: Line

Mistakes

Corrections

1. 2. Page 6 of 18

3. 4. 5. 6.

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7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 3. Complete each sentence with one suitable particle or preposition. Write your

answer in the box provided.

1. It’s not fair. You’re always picking _____ me.

2. You look very guilty. What have you been getting _____ _____?

3. My parents are not interrupted in modern music. They are _____ the times.

4. At that time they were poor, and they went _____ a difficult time.

5. He gained ascendancy _____ all his main rivals.

6. We have to go _____ our work right now, or we won’t finish it on time.

7. The two trains came _____ ten metres of collision. 8. The skyscraper stands out _____ the blue sky.

9. I got _____ the Arts Faculty at the University of London to study history.

10. As the detective stories become popular once again, the publishing house decides to

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bring _____ a new edition of Christie’s work. 2.

10.

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Your answers:

Part 4. Write the correct form of the words given in the brackets. Write your answers in the spaces provided below. BECOMING A PARENT Very little in our lives prepares us for _____ (1. parent). Suddenly, your life is

turned upside down and all sorts of _____ (2. familiar) demands are replaced on you. Page 7 of 18

How we ourselves were treated by our parents in our _____ (3. young) can have an _____ (4. appreciate) effect on who we become as parents. Our own _____ (5. observe) of how our parents responded to us creates a model of parenting that is _____ (6. intimate) connected to the kind of parents we become. It’s not uncommon for people to show the same child-rearing _____ (7. character) as their own parents. If

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your father was an _____ (8. sympathy) figure who always seemed too busy to care about how you felt, then there’s a chance you will repeat the same behavior. If your mother was utterly _____ (9. self) in her devotion to her children, there’s a chance that

you too will be equally giving and do all that is _____ (10. human) possible for your offspring. 2.

10.

Your answers:

C. READING (60 points)

Part 1. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap. Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes.

Promoting children’s self-esteem seems to be one of the aims of modern childcare and

education. It goes (1) _______ with a culture in which children are (2) _______ for the

most minor achievements. While this promotion of self-esteem is, rightly, a reaction

against (3) _______ times when children weren’t praised enough, it also seems to be (4)

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_______ a fear of how failure will affect children: a fear that if they don’t succeed at a task, they will somehow be damaged. However, the opposite may well be true. Many scientists spend years experiencing (5)

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_______ failure in the lab until they make a breakthrough. They know that ultimately this process advances scientific knowledge. (6) _______, children need to experience

failure to learn and grow. If children have been praised for everything they’ve done, regardless of how good it is, then failure in adult life will be all the more painful. Life is full of (7) _______ and there is no point in trying to protect children from the disappointments that (8) _______ them. Parents and educators shouldn’t be afraid of picking up on children’s mistakes, as long as they also praise them when they do well. Page 8 of 18

After all, the heroes children try to (9) _______ the pop stars and footballers, have all reached the top (10) _______ruthless competition. Like them, children need to learn how to cope with failure and turn it to their advantage. B. hand in hand

C. to show

D. without saying

2. A. enthusiastically

B. devotedly

C. immensely

D. thoroughly

3. A. grimmer

B. more unrelenting C. more unsparing D. sterner

4. A. consequent upon

B. owing to

C. culminated in

D. resulted from

5. A. concurrent

B. consequent

C. consecutive

D. continual

6. A. All the same

B. By the same token C. In like manner D. In similar fashion

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1. A. cap in hand

B. obstacle courses

C. spanners in the works

D. stumbling blocks

7. A. flies in the ointment B. lie in wait for

C. hold in store for

D. wait up for

9. A. duplicate

B. emulate

C. replicate

D. stimulate

10. A. in the face of

B. in the teeth of

C. irrespective of D. without regard to

10.

Your answer:

8. A. put great store by

Part 2. Read the following text and fill in the blank with ONE suitable word. Write

your answers in corresponding numbered boxes.

The majority of lottery winners change their lives (1) _______ little, and continue on

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their settled way happy ever after. A couple of years ago, a Mr. David won a million. He had been struggling to (2) _______ a success of his dry cleaning shop for the past 12 months. He accepted his cheque in a small ceremony (3) _______ the premises at 2.30,

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and by three o’clock he had reopened for business. The reaction of Mr. Pasquale Consalvo who won $30 million in the New York state lottery was very (4) _______.He

was unhappy not to be able to fulfill his desire to go to work as (5) _______ on the day he won. He also said that if the money made him (6) _______ he would give it back. In fact, the chances of his life being made a misery by his new-found wealth are almost (7) _______ slim though not quite as the sixty million-to-one odds he beat to take a jackpot (8) _______ had remained unclaimed through six previous draws. Gambling small Page 9 of 18

amounts (9) _______ the lottery is a harmless if futile hobby. (10) _______, gambling can become an addition, increasingly so as the activity becomes socially acceptable. Your answers: 2.

10.

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Part 3. Read the following passage and circle the best answer to each of the following questions. Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes.

The first scientific attempt at coaxing moisture from a cloud was in 1946, when

scientist Vincent Schaefer dropped 3 pounds of dry ice from an airplane into a cloud

and, to his delight, produced snow. The success of the experiment was modest, but it that science had finally triumphed over weather.

spawned optimism among farmers and ranchers around the country. It seemed to them

Unfortunately, it didn’t work out that way. Although there were many cloud-

seeding operations, during the late 1940s and the 1950s, no one could say whether they

had any effect on precipitation. Cloud seeding, or weather modification as it came to be called, was dearly more complicated than had been thought. It was not until the early

1970s that enough experiments had been done to understand the processes involved.

What these studies indicated was that only certain types of clouds are amenable to

seeding. One of the most responsive is the winter orographic cloud, formed when air

currents encounter a mountain slope and rise. If the temperature in such a cloud is right,

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seeding can increase snow yield by 10 to 20 percent. There are two major methods of weather modification. In one method, silver iodide

is burned in propane-fired ground generators. The smoke rises into the clouds where the

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tiny silver-iodide particles act as nuclei for the formation of ice crystals. The alternate system uses airplanes to deliver dry-ice pellets. Dry ice does not provide ice-forming

nuclei. Instead, it lowers the temperature near the water droplets in the clouds so that they freeze instantly—a process called spontaneous nucleation. Seeding from aircraft is

more efficient but also more expensive. About 75 percent of all weather modification in the United States takes place in the Western states. With the population of the West growing rapidly, few regions of the Page 10 of 18

world require more water. About 85 percent of the waters in the rivers of the West comes from melted snow. As one expert put it, the water problems of the future may make the energy problems of the 70s seem like child’s play to solve. That’s why the U.S. Bureau of Reclamation, along with state governments, municipal water districts, and private interests such as ski areas and agricultural cooperatives, is putting increased

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effort into cloud-seeding efforts. Without consistent and heavy snowfalls in the Rockies

and Sierras, the West would literally dry up. The most intensive efforts to produce precipitation was during the West’s disastrous snow drought of 1976-77. It is impossible to judge the efficiency of weather modification based on one crash program, 1. What is the main subject of the passage?

A. The scientific contributions of Vincent Schaefer

but most experts think that such hurry-up programs are not very effective.

D. The effects of cloud seeding

C. The process by which snow crystals form

B. Developments in methods of increasing precipitation

2. The word spawned in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _____.

A. intensified

B. reduced

C. preceded

D. created

3. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about the term weather modification?

A. It is not as old as the term cloud seeding.

B. It has been in use since at least 1946.

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C. It refers to only one type of cloud seeding. D. It was first used by Vincent Schaefer.

4. According to the passage, winter orographic clouds are formed _____.

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A. on relatively warm winter days

B. over large bodies of water

C. during intense snow storms D. when air currents rise over mountains

5. To which of the following does the word they in paragraph 3 refer? A. Water droplets

B. Clouds

C. Ice-forming nuclei

D. Airplanes

6. When clouds are seeded from the ground, what actually causes ice crystals to form? Page 11 of 18

A. Propane

B. Silver-iodide smoke

C. Dry-ice pellets

D. Nuclear radiation

7. Clouds would most likely be seeded from airplanes when _____. A. it is important to save money B. the process of spontaneous nucleation cannot be employed

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C. the production of precipitation must be efficient D. temperatures are lower than usual

8. What does the author imply about the energy problems of the 1970s? A. They were caused by a lack of water. B. They took attention away from water problems.

C. They may not be as critical as water problems will be in the future.

D. They were thought to be minor at the time but turned out to be serious.

9. The author mentions agricultural cooperatives (paragraph 4) as an example of _____.

A. state government agencies

B. private interests D. municipal water districts

C. organizations that compete with ski areas for water

10. It can be inferred from, the passage that the weather-modification project of 1976-77

was _____.

B. a complete failure

C. not necessary

D. easy to evaluate

A. put together quickly

10.

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Your answers:

Part 4. Read the following text and do the tasks that follow. A. The modern world is increasingly populated by quasi-intelligent gizmos whose presence we barely notice but whose creeping ubiquity has removed much human drudgery. Our factories hum to the rhythm of robot assembly arms. Our banking is done at automated teller terminals that thank us with rote politeness for the transaction. Our subway trains are controlled by tireless robot-drivers. Our mine shafts are dug by Page 12 of 18

automated moles, and our nuclear accidents-such as those at Three Mile Island and Chernobyl-are cleaned up by robotic muckers fit to withstand radiation. Such is the scope of uses envisioned by Karel Capek, the Czech playwright who coined the term 'robot' in 1920 (the word 'robota' means 'forced labor' in Czech). As progress

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accelerates, the experimental becomes the exploitable at record pace. B. Other innovations promise to extend the abilities of human operators. Thanks to the incessant miniaturization of electronics and micromechanics, there are already robot

systems that can perform some kinds of brain and bone surgery with sub millimeter

accuracy-far greater precision than highly skilled physicians can achieve with their

hands alone. At the same time, techniques of long-distance control will keep people

even farther from hazard. In 1994 a ten- foot-tall NASA robotic explorer called Dante,

with video-camera eyes and with spiderlike legs, scrambled over the menacing rim of an

satellite and controlled Dante's descent.

Alaskan volcano while technicians 2,000 miles away in California watched the scene by

C. But if robots are to reach the next stage of labour-saving utility, they will have to

operate with less human supervision and be able to make at least a few decisions for

themselves-goals that pose a formidable challenge, 'while we know how to tell a robot

to handle a specific error,' says one expert, we can't yet give a robot enough common

sense to reliably interact with a dynamic world.' Indeed the quest for true artificial intelligence (AI) has produced very mixed results. Despite a spasm of initial optimism

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in the 1960s and 1970s, when it appeared that transistor circuits and microprocessors might be able to perform in the same way as the human brain by the 21st century,

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researchers lately have extended their forecasts by decades if not centuries. D. What they found, in attempting to model thought, is that the human brain's roughly

one hundred billion neurons are much more talented-and human perception far more complicated-than previously imagined. They have built robots that can recognize the misalignment of a machine panel by a fraction of a millimeter in a controlled factory environment. But the human mind can glimpse a rapidly changing scene and immediately disregard the 98 per cent that is irrelevant, instantaneously focusing on the Page 13 of 18

woodchuck at the side of a winding forest road or the single suspicious face in a tumultuous crowd. The most advanced computer systems on Earth can't approach that kind of ability, and neuroscientists still don't know quite how we do it. E. Nonetheless, as information theorists, neuroscientists, and computer experts pool

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their talents, they are finding ways to get some lifelike intelligence from robots. One method renounces the linear, logical structure of conventional electronic circuits in

favour of the messy, ad hoc arrangement of a real brain's neurons. These 'neural

networks' do not have to be programmed. They can 'teach' themselves by a system of feedback signals that reinforce electrical pathways that produced correct responses and,

conversely, wipe out connections that produced errors. Eventually the net wires itself

into a system that can pronounce certain words or distinguish certain shapes.

F. In other areas researchers are struggling to fashion a more natural relationship

between people and robots in the expectation that someday machines will take on some tasks now done by humans in, say, nursing homes. This is particularly important in

Japan, where the percentage of elderly citizens is rapidly increasing. So experiments at

the Science University of Tokyo have created a 'face robot' -a life-size, soft plastic

model of a female head with a video camera imbedded in the left eye-as a prototype.

The researchers' goal is to create robots that people feel comfortable around. They are

concentrating on the face because they believe facial expressions are the most important way to transfer emotional messages. We read those messages by interpreting

expressions to decide whether a person is happy, frightened, angry, or nervous. Thus the

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Japanese robot is designed to detect emotions in the person it is 'looking at' by sensing changes in the spatial arrangement of the person's eyes, nose, eyebrows, and mouth. It

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compares those configurations with a database of standard facial expressions and guesses the emotion. The robot then uses an ensemble of tiny pressure pads to adjust its

plastic face into an appropriate emotional response. G. Other labs are taking a different approach, one that doesn’t try to mimic human intelligence or emotions. Just as computer design has moved away from one central mainframe in favour of myriad individual workstations- and single processors have been replaced by arrays of smaller units that break a big problem into parts that are

Page 14 of 18

solved simultaneously- many experts are now investigating whether swarms of semismart robots can generate a collective intelligence that is greater than the sum of its parts. That’s what beehives and ant colonies do, and several teams are betting that legions of mini-critters working together like an ant colony could be sent to explore the

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climate of planets or to inspect pipes in dangerous industrial situations. For questions 1-7, choose the correct heading for paragraphs A- G. There are three extra headings that you do not need to use. Write your answers in the corresponding space provided. List of headings

i. Some success has resulted from observing how the brain functions.

ii. Are we expecting too much from one robot?

iii. Scientists are examining the humanistic possibilities.

iv. There are judgments that robots cannot make.

v. Has the power of robots become too great?

vi. Human skills have been heightened with the help of robotics.

vii. There are some things we prefer the brain to control.

viii. Robots have quietly infiltrated our lives.

ix. Original predictions have been revised.

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x. Another approach meets the same result.

Page 15 of 18

4. Paragraph D: ______

1. Paragraph A: ______

5. Paragraph E: ______

2. Paragraph B: ______

6. Paragraph F: ______

3. Paragraph C: ______

7. Paragraph G: ______

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Your answers

For question 8-10, complete the summary below with words taken from the passage. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

The prototype of the Japanese “face robot” observes humans through a (8) ____________ which is planted in its head. It then refers to a (9) ____________ of

typical “looks” that the human face can have, to decide what emotion the person is

feeling. To respond to this expression, the robot alters its own expression using a

number of (10) ____________.

4. 9.

6. 10.

Your answers:

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D. WRITING (40 points) Part 1. Rewrite each sentence using the word in brackets so that the meaning stays the

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same. You must use between THREE and EIGHT words, including the word given. 1. I don’t know why Fred made such an extraordinary decision. (prompted)

=> I don’t know _________________________________________ a decision. 2. Inefficient treatment of customers creates a bad impression of the company. (reflects)

=> Treating customers with a lack ______________________________________ the company.

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3. The organizers planned everything as carefully as they could possibly have done. (utmost) => Everything was planned _______________________________________ by the organizers.

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4. Coming second didn’t make her feel any better because she only wanted to win. (consolation)

=> Coming second _______________________________________ was all that mattered to her. 5. I promised him that the situation would not be repeated in the future. (word)

=> I ____________________________________ no repetition of the situation in the future.

Part 2. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the

same as the sentence printed before it.

1. The inhabitants were far worse-off twenty years ago than they are now.

=> The inhabitants are nowhere ________________________________.

2. The chairman’s leaving just before you’re due to arrive.

=> By the _________________________________________________

3. It was difficult to understand her colleagues’ open hostility towards her proposal.

=> That her colleagues ________________________________________ 4. They only reimbursed us because we took legal advice.

=> We wouldn’t _____________________________________________

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5. We’ve had lots of arguments with that particular harbor master before.

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=> This isn’t ______________________________________________ Part 3. In many countries, an increase in crime has been blamed on violent images

on television and in computer and video games. To what extent do you agree or disagree with this opinion? Write a paragraph (about 150-180 words) to clarify your ideas. ……………………………………………………………………………………………

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…………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………

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……………………………………………………………………………………………

-------------- HẾT --------------

(Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu. Cán bộ coi thi không giải thích gì thêm)

Người ra đề: 1. Ngô Thùy Dung (0912882728)

ẠY

KÈ

2. Lê Ngọc Hân (0987463619)

Page 18 of 18

SỞ GD&ĐT BẮC NINH

(Đề thi đề xuất)

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HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI OLYMPIC KHU VỰC DHBB NĂM HỌC 2016 - 2017 Môn: Tiếng anh – lớp 10

TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN BẮC NINH

A. LISTENING (50 points): Part 1: You will hear a telephone conversation between the owner of a restaurant and a customer who is calling to find out information about food and prices at the restaurant. Listen and write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer in the corresponding numbered boxes. 4. 15

5. david.hamill(@) worthing

2. Italian cheese- 3. 27th August (with) peppers

1. mixed salad

2. A

3. A

4. A

5. B

Part 2: You will listen to a talk by the Water Project Manager of a charity called ‘Charity –Water’. For each of the following questions, choose the option which fits best to what you hear.

Part 3: You will hear a piece of CNN news. Listen and decide if the following sentences are True (T) or False (F). Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. 1. T 2. F 3. T 4. F 5. T

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Part 4: You will hear a radio interview with an American woman called Kate Jenner, who practices the sport of parkour, or ‘free running’ Listen and complete the sentences with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS. rocks

3. (healthy) diet 4. balance

gymnastics/gym 7.landing

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6. argue/ disagree

roof(-)

tops/roofs 8.

(the) 9.

soft 10. video games

insurance/assura drinks(comm nce

ercial)/ (company)/ (industry)

B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (50 points)

Page 1 of 4

Part 1. Choose the best option A, B, C, or D to complete the following sentences and write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.

2. D

3. C

4. D

5. B

6. D

7. B

8. B

9. A

10. A

11. C

12. A

13. B

14. A

15. C

16. D

17. D

18. C

19. D

20. D

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1. C

Part 2. Read the passage below which contains 10 mistakes. Identify the mistakes and write the corrections in the corresponding numbered boxes.

Mistakes

Corrections

effective

effect

create

music

simultaneous

other

development

developments

such

standardized

standardization

with

10.

Line

creating

musical another

economic

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economical

simultaneously

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Part 3. Complete each sentence with one suitable particle or preposition. Write your answer in the box provided.

1. on

6. about

2. up to

3. behind

4. through

5. over

7. within

8. against

9. into

10. out

Part 4. Write the correct form of the words given in the brackets. Write your answers in the spaces provided below.

Page 2 of 4

2. unfamiliar

3. youth

4. appreciable

parenthood/parenting

5. observation(s)

6. intimately

8. unsympathetic 9. selfless

10. humanly

C. READING (60 points)

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characteristics

Part 1. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap. Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. 2. A

3. D

4. A

6. C

7. D

8. C

9. B

5. D

10. A

1. B

2. make

3. at

6. unhappy

7. as

8. that

4. similar

5. usual

9. on

10. However

1. but

Part 2. Read the following text and fill in the blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes.

Part 3. Read the following passage and circle the best answer to each of the following questions. Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. Your answers: 1. B 2. D 3. A 4. D 5. A 7. C

6.B

8. C

9. B

10. A

Part 4. Read the following text and do the tasks that follow. 3. ix

4. iv

5. i

7. ii

8. video camera

9. database

10.(tiny/ small) pressure pads

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6. iii

2.vi

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1. viii

D. WRITING (40 points) Part 1. Rewrite each sentence using the word in brackets so that the meaning stays the same. You must use between THREE and EIGHT words, including the word given.

1. what prompted Fred to make so extraordinary 2. of efficiency reflects badly on 3. with the utmost care

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4. was (of) no consolation (to her) because winning 5. gave him my word (that) there would be Part 2. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it.

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1. The inhabitants were far worse-off twenty years ago than they are now. => The inhabitants are nowhere ________________________________. 2. By the time you arrive, the chairman will have just left

3. That her colleagues should be/were so openly hostile towards her proposal was difficult to understand.

4. We wouldn’t have been reimbursed if we hadn’t taken legal advice

5. This isn’t the first time we’ve had arguments with that particular harbor master.

Part 3. Writing a paragraph

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(Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu. Cán bộ coi thi không giải thích gì thêm)

Page 4 of 4

ĐỀ THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH LỚP 10 Thời gian làm bài:180 phút (Đề thi gồm có 09 trang)

HỘI CÁC TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN KHU VỰC DUYÊN HÀI VÀ ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN BIÊN HÒA, T. HÀ NAM

Tác giả:

ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT

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Hoàng Phương Thảo Đỗ Hồng Ngọc Diệp Điện thoại: 0982080385 - 0943968993

SECTION I: LISTENING (50/200) Part 1. Listen carefully and complete the form below. Write your answer in the given space. (10 points)

Pinder’s Animal Park Enquiries about temporary work Personal Details: Name: Jane (1) ……………………… Address: 42 West Lane, Exeter Telephone number: 07792430921 Availability: Can start work on (2) ………………………. Work details: Preferred type of work: Asistant cook Relevant skills: Familiar with kitchen (3) ……………………….. Relevant qualifications: A (4) ……………………….. certifcate Training required: A First Aid course Referee: Dr Ruth Price Position: (5) ……………………….. Phone number: 0208685114 Other: Application has a form of color blindness

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Part 2. Listen carefully and choose the correct answer. Write your answer in the numbered boxes. (10 points) 1. EEA stands for ____ A. European Economic Area B. European Ecology Area C. European Economic Association D. European Ecology Association 2. How many maximum hours per week do non-EEA citizens whose course lasts more than 6 months can work during term-time? A. 20 hours B. 12 hours C. 22 hours D. 32 hours 3. What is the prohibition on working applying to non-EEA citizens whose course lasts 6 months or less? A. They can work different part-time job. B. They can begin their placement before getting stamp changed C. They are not allowed to work at all. D. They can get permanent full-time position 4. How can the spouse or child of a non-EEA student can work? A. if they have a stamp that does not mention employment. B. if they are 16 C. if you have passport stamp D. if you begin your placement before getting stamp changed. 5. These special rules apply to ____ A. doctors, dentists B. doctors and nurses C. doctors, dentists and nurses D. dentists and nurses Your answers 1.

5. 1

Your answers 1.

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Part 3. You ae going to hear a conversation between and a man and a researcher. Listen carefully and decide these statements are true or false. Write A for true and B for false in the numbered boxes. (10 points) 1. Mr William Class is the Minitry of Culture. 2. Mr William Class can earn 24 - 36 pounds each month. 3. He is living with her girlfriend in a flat which is over 200 sq.m. 4. His future residence may cost from 50,000 pounds to 200,000 pounds. 5. The government and private company are involved in the Haydon housing project

Part 4.You will hear an archaeologist talking about her job. Complete the sentences with NO MORE THAN 3 WORDS for each space. (20 points) Anna first thought she'd like to be an archaeologist after she saw a (1)…………………….. Anna prefers archaeology to history because it is a (2)…………………… activity. Recently Anna and her colleagues found a (3)…………………… in London. Much of Anna's time is spent dealing with the (4)……………………produced by other archaeologists, One of Anna's responsibilities is to check that the (5)…………… and ……………of the excavation are in the right place. After cleaning the piece she has found, Anna has to (6)…………………… it. Anna finds it interesting to clean an old wall because she may learn (7)………… and……….. it was built Anna particularly dislikes working in (8)…………………… because they are hot and dusty Archaeologists use scientific techniques to find out about the (9)…………………… of people in past centuries. The Archaeology Service is often involved in helping (10)…………………… to understand the law

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SECTION II: LEXICO – GRAMMAR (50/200) Part 1. Choose the best answer to each of the following questions. Write your answer in the numbered boxes. (20 points) 1. I ____ my eyes around the room but could not see her. A. flung B. tossed C. threw D. cast 2. I know we're told to shuck our routines and live spontaneously, but I’m ___ - it’s just easier when you know exactly how each day will pan out. A. a nasty piece of work B. a creature of habit C. a soft touch D. clock-watcher 3. Many modern refrigerators never need to be ___. A. frosting B. frosty C. defrosting D. defrosted 4. Many old people don’t like change. They are very set in their ___. A. lives B. habits C. routine D. ways 5. The river is just ___ in the dry season. A. deep-knee B. knee-depth C. depth knee D. knee-deep 6. Although they hold similar political views, their religious beliefs present a striking contrast. A. minor comparision B. interesting resemblance C. significant difference D. complete coincidence 7. Of the two new teachers, one is experienced and ___. A. the others are not B. another is experienced C. the other is not D. other lacks experience 8. Owen's second goal was ____ because he was off-side. A banned B. disqualified C. disallowed D. outlawed 9. Lennon’s sardonic music with lyrics written in the first person, and McCartey’s songs that created scenarios with off beat individuals, contributed to the character of the music produced by the group. A. sceneries B. situations C. life stories D. love themes 10. My father often does ___ with people from other countries in the region. A. finances B. business C. affair D. economy

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11. There is too much ___ in this world. A. greediness B. greed C. greedy D. greedness 12. Hotel rooms must be ___ by 10 a.m, but luggage may be left with the porter. A. vacated B. evacuated C. abandoned D. left 13. He is one of the founders of the company so he has the rules ____ A. by his fingertips B. at his fingertips C. in his fingertips D. on his fingertips 14. Jane: “Don’t forget to drop me a line when you settle down.” – Jack: “Trust me. ___” A. I will. I’ll keep you in touch. B. I won’t. I’ll keep you posted. C. I don’t. I’ll keep you in touch. D. I drop out a line qhen I settle down. 15. Mauritius was a British colony for almost 200 years, ___ the domains of administration and teaching, the English language was never really spoken on the island. A. barring B. besides C. but saving for D. with the exception of 16. “Can I use your phone?” - “___” A. I’m afraid so B. Might as well C. Be my guest! D. Serves you right. 17. Laos has a land area ___ are members of hill tribes ensconced in the virtually inaccessible mountain valleys of the north. A. about the same as Great Britain but a population of only four million people, many of them B. comparable to that of Great Britain but a population of only four million people, many of whom C. comparable to the size of Great Britain, but only four million in population, and many of them D. of about the same size as Great Britain is, but only four million in population, and many of whom 18. Medical privacy laws ___ of health care provides that they be careful with protected information. A. conceive B. devise C. envisage D. require 19. We must be careful not to put the cart before the ____. A. bull B. horse C. pony D. cabbage 20. Jimmy: “'What did Professor Spencer say when you asked him if the final exam could be postponed? Kate: “He said that it was out of ____ because there's no time to reschedule the test.” A. all proportion B. order C. the question D. reach Your answers 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

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Part 2. Identify and correct 10 erros in the passage. Write your answer in the numbered boxes (10 points) Line 1. Gambling was legalised in Nevada in 1931 to increase venue for the state. Today the 2. casinos are very all-important for the financial growth of Las Vegas. Bugsy Siegel, the 3. gangster and casino owner, is the developer we remember most. A Capone syndicate boss, 4. Siegel came to Las Vegas in the late 1930s and saw a potential gold mine in the book 5. operations that casinos used to get bets on horse races in Florida, New York, and California, 6. Offering his syndicate’s race-reporting Continental Wire Service to the bookbinders at a 7. lower price than any of the existing services, Siegel cornered the market. Then, in 1942, the 8. competition was eliminated, Siegel abruptly raised the prices and demanded a profit share 9. from each book. Without another souce for race results, and frightened by Siegel’s 10. connections to Capone, in which the casinos capitulated. With the profits, Siegel started his own casino. The ambitious Flamigo Hotel was finished 11. 12. in 1946. Situated on a strip of land along the Los Angeles Highway and designed to be an 13. elegant resort rather than a faux Western gambling hall, the Flamingo forever moved the 14. concentration of Las Vegas away from downtown. This helped the town assure of the succes 15. of gambling as its major industry. Freeing from the confinement of their Western heritage, 16. European-style casinos and resorts flourished in the years after 1946. Siegel was shot in a

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17. gangland execution in 1947, but his legacy lives on in the gaudy formalism of casinos like 18. Ceasar’s Palace and The Sands. Your answers Mistake Correction Line Mistake Correction Line 1. 6. 2. 7. 3. 8. 4. 9. 5. 10.

3. 8.

2. 7.

Your answers 1. 6.

Part 3. Fill in the blanks with proper prepositions or adverbial particles. Write your answer in the numbered boxes. (10 points) 1. Roger took painting ____ for a while, but soon lost interest. 2. Josh can while ____ a whole day playing online computer games with his mates. 3. My boss is biased ____ me, which explains why I’ll never get promoted if I stay with his company. 4. Has your toothache passed _____ yet? 5. The two brothers set off in quest ______ gold. 6. The elaborate bridal costumes of the coastal Indians are handed _____ from mother to daughter. 7. You shouldn’t have sent Sebastian that Valentine’s card. I think you’ve scared him _______. 8. Don’t come ____ hard on the new workers. 9. Without any prior preparation, Peter sailed ____ his final exams. 10. He blacked _____ after working non-stop for three entire days.

4. 9.

5. 10.

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Part 4. Fill in each blank with the most suitable form of the word in brackets. Write your answer in the numbered boxes. (10 points) There is little to disagree about in the notion that a good voice, whether in opera or rock music, is one that mvoes its audience and brings a sense of release and fulfilment to the singer. But comtemporary pop and rock music have come about due to (1. sustance) ___________ advances in technology. Here, the impact of the microphone should not be (2. estimate) ___________, as it has (3. able) ___________ the magnification of quiet, intimate sounds. This, in turn, allows, the singer to experiment with the (4. emphatic) ___________ on mood rather than on strict (5. adhere) ___________ to proper breathing and voice control. Donna Soto-Morettin, a rock and jazz vocal trainer, feels that (6. anatomy) ___________ reasons may account for the raspy sound produced by certain rock singers. Her (7. suspect) ___________ is that swollen vocal chords, which do not close properly, may allow singers to produce deeper notes. She does not, however, regard this as detracting (8. notice) ___________ from the value of the sound produced. Singing, she maintains, has an almost (9. seduce) ___________ quality and so our response to it has more (10. signify) ___________ than its technical qualities.

Your answers 1. 6.

2. 7.

3. 8.

4. 9.

5. 10.

SECTION III: READING COMPREHENSION (60/200) Part 1: Read the passage below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap. Write your answer in the numbered boxes. (15 points) From Land’s End, in southwestern England, to John O’Groats in Northeastern Scotland is 903 miles. It’s a long way to walk or cycle, through the famously unpredictable British weather, but it’s the sort of challenge that (1) _____ to people. Steve Watts, for example, joined a team which was cycling from one end of the British Isles to the other as a way of (2) _____ money for charity. All went well on Steve’s trip, which was very well-organized and he managed to complete the distance in eleven days. At least, he nearly 4

did. For when Steve got to within a mile of his (3) _____ destination, he was so overjoyed with his (4) _____, that he invited one of his back-up team, a young female physiotherapist, to join him on the bike for the last few meters. That’s when disaster (5) _____. Somehow the pair (6) _____ their balance and the bike crashed to the ground. The next thing Steve knew was when he woke up in an ambulance on his (7) _____ to hospital. It was then that the awful truth hit him. He not only injured himself quite (8) _____, but he had also failed to complete his journey after all. Fortunately, however, the organizers (9) _____ sorry for Steve and decided to (10) _____ the fact that he hadn’t actually crossing the finishing line!

5. A. shot 6. A. lost 7. A. approach 8. A. badly 9. A. said 10. A. neglect

B. struck B. missed B. path B. heavily B. felt B. escape

2. 7.

D. appeals D. gaining D. final D. conclusion D. broke D. spoilt D. way D. strongly D. got D. reject

3. 8.

4. 9.

5. 10.

Your answers 1. 6.

C. enjoys C. fetching C. terminal C. achievement C. burst C. slipped C. travel C. hardly C. had C. ignore

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B. attracts B. raising B. latest B. fulfillment

A. likes A. doing A. furthest A. realization

1. 2. 3. 4.

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Part 2. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word in each space. (15 points) Many celebrated artists have found it hard to makes ends meet early on in their careers. (1)____________a few well-known exceptions, however, (poor Van Gogh being perhaps the most famous one) most went on to find recognition within their own lifetime. Picasso’s life story is the kind of rags-toriches tale which gives hope to many (2) ____________ unknown artist. In 1904, he was sharing a draughty and primitive studio complex (3)____________thirty other artists. But by his death, he was a multi-millionaire and probably the most celebrated modern artist ever. Nevertheless, (4)____________ every success story, there must be dozens of artists (perhaps some potential ‘greats’) who have endured a lifetime (5) ____________ hardship in obscurity. Whether they were never recognized because their work was out of sympathy with the prevailing fashion, or (6) ____________ they lacked talent, is impossible to say. Most people see art (7) ____________ a vocation rather (8) ____________ a career. There may indeed be some truth in the idea that artists need to (9) ____________ exceptionally dedicated to succeed, and even relatively successful artists sometimes have (10) ____________ supplement their income by working in other areas occasionally.

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Your answers 1. 6.

2. 7.

3. 8.

4. 9.

5. 10.

Part 3. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer A, B, C or D. Write your answer in the space provided. (15 points) Suddenly intern ational trade has become a very controversial issue. When the representatives of about a hundred states met in Uruguay to form the World Trade Organisation the response of the public in general was a big yawn. Most people did not think that complicated agreements on things like import taxes could have very much effect on their lives, and they were just not interested. How different it was at the last meeting of the WTO in Seattle! This time the delegates were met by a rainbow coalition of protesters, from members of trade unions to anarchists and environmentalists. Many of the protests were passive and peaceful, or consisted of demonstrators blocking roads and making it difficult for delegates to get to meetings. However, other

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demonstrations were violent, and by the end of the first day, shop windows had been broken, cars wrecked and police had fired tear gas at the demonstrators. What was all the fuss about? The demonstrators themselves would not have been able to agree. The environmentalists were afraid that looser trade laws would allow big business to work from countries which allowed them to pollute the environment. Trade unions were afraid that cheaper labor in the third world would take their jobs, and the anarchists were, well, just being anarchists. So with all these objections why did anyone want to increase global trade anyway? Well, it is a fact that the opening of the markets of the world, and world prosperity have increased together, and countries that have closed their economies from outside trade, like India, have done much worse than open countries like Thailand and Singapore. So who is right? Perhaps both sides have a point. In any case at some time the two groups will have to talk, so that agreement can be reached so that world trade can become freer while still meeting the concerns of those opposed to it. But the sudden interest of ordinary people in world trade has been caused by one thing - people realize that what is decided at these inter-government meetings can change their lives; and not necessarily for the better.

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1. This article is _______. A. critical of efforts to liberalize world trade B. a discussion of the world economy C. a review of the arguments about world trade D. about world trade and the environment 2. At the Uraguay talks _______. A. the WTO was born B. 100 countries joined the WTO. C. mainly import taxes were discussed D. the environment was not discussed 3. The author suggests that _______. A. world trade has recently become controversial B. that the WTO is part of the United Nations C. that demonstrations in Uruguay were peaceful D. world trade is unfair to many countries 4. The demonstrators were _______. A. worried about the environment B. worried about their jobs C. mainly anarchists D. concerned about different things 5. The advantage of world trade is that _______. A. it gives businesses less environmental laws B. it helps countries to become richer C. people can travel more easily D. it has helped countries like India and Singapore 6. The author thinks that _______. A. the two sides will never agree B. we must choose between free trade and the environment C. the two sides must negotiate D. the WTO should listen to its critics 7. The article concludes that _______. A. now most people think world trade is important B. world trade must become freer. C. trade has been better for Thailand than for India D. inter-government meetings interest ordinary people. 8. Where would you find this sort of article? A. In a work of fiction B. In an economics magazine C. In a political journal D. In an anarchist newsletter 9. Which word can replace the word coalition in paragraph 2? A. coal mining B. coeducation C. combination D. coexistence 10. Anarchists in paragraph 2 are those who _______. A. establish laws in a particular state. B. excite revolts against the established rule, law, or custom. C. believe in the current government. D. promote order where necessary.

Your answers 1. 6.

2. 7.

3. 8.

4. 9.

5. 10.

Part 4. The reading passage below has SIX paragraphs, A-F. Reading the passage and do the tasks below. (15 points) Acquiring the principles of mathematics and science

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A. It has been pointed out that learning mathematics and science is not so much learning facts as learning ways of thinking. It has also been emphasised that in order to learn science people often have to change the way they think in ordinary situations. For example, in order to understand even simple concepts such as heat and temperature, ways of thinking of temperature as a measure of heat must be abandoned and a distinction between ‘temperature’ and ‘heat’ must be learned. These changes in ways of thinking are often referred to as conceptual changes! But now do conceptual changes happen? How do young people change their ways of thinking as they develop and as they learn in school? B. Traditional instruction based on telling students how modem scientists think does not seem to be very successful. Students may learn the definitions, the formulae, the terminology, and yet still maintain their previous conceptions. This difficulty has been illustrated many times, for example, when instructed students are interviewed about heat and temperature. It is often identified by teachers as a difficulty in applying the concepts learned in the classroom; students may be able to repeat a formula but fail to use the concept represented by the formula when they explain observed events. C. The psychologist Piaget suggested an interesting hypothesis relating to the process of cognitive change in children. Cognitive change was expected to result from the pupils’ own intellectual activity. When confronted with a result that challenges their thinking - that is, when faced with conflict — pupils realise that they need to think again about their own ways of solving problems, regardless of whether the problem is one in mathematics or in science. He hypothesised that conflict brings about disequilibrium, and then triggers equilibration processes that ultimately produce cognitive change. For this reason, according to Piaget and his colleagues, in order for pupils to progress in their thinking they need to be actively engaged in solving problems that will challenge their current mode of reasoning. However, Piaget also pointed out that young children do not always discard their ideas in the face of contradictory evidence. They may actually discard the evidence and keep their theory. D. Piaget’s hypothesis about how cognitive change occurs was later translated into an educational approach which is now termed ‘discovery learning’. Discovery learning initially took what is now considered the ‘lone learner’ route. The role of the teacher was to select situations that challenged the pupils’ reasoning; and the pupils’ peers had no real role in this process. However, it was subsequently proposed that interpersonal conflict, especially with peers, might play an important role in promoting cognitive change. This hypothesis, originally advanced by Perret-Clermont (1980) and Doise and Mugny (1984), has been investigated in many recent studies of science teaching and learning. E. Christine Howe and her colleagues, for example, have compared children’s progress in understanding several types of science concepts when they are given the opportunity to observe relevant events. In one study, Howe compared the progress of 8 to 12-year-old children in understanding what influences motion down a slope. In order to ascertain the role of conflict in group work, they created two kinds of groups according to a pre-test: one in which the children had dissimilar views, and a second in which the children had similar views. They found support for the idea that children in the groups with dissimilar views progressed more after their training sessions than those who had been placed in groups with similar views. However, they found no evidence to support the idea that the children worked out their new conceptions during their group discussions because progress was not actually observed in a post-test immediately after the sessions of group work, but rather in a second test given around four weeks after the group work. 7

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F. In another study, Howe set out to investigate whether the progress obtained through pair work could be a function of the exchange of ideas. They investigated the progress made by 12-15-year-old pupils in understanding the path of falling objects, a topic that usually involves conceptual difficulties. In order to create pairs of pupils with varying levels of dissimilarity in their initial conceptions the pupils’ predictions and explanations of the path of falling objects were assessed before they were engaged in pair work. The work sessions involved solving computer-presented problems, again about predicting and explaining the paths of falling objects. A post-test, given to individuals, assessed the progress made by pupils in their conceptions of what influenced the path of falling objects.

For questions 1-6, choose the correct heading for paragraphs A-F from the list of headings below Write the correct number, i-ix.

……. ……. ……. ….… ……. …….

Paragraph A Paragraph B Paragraph C Paragraph D Paragraph E Paragraph F

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.

The problem of superficial understanding. The relationship between scientific understanding and age. The rejection of a widely held theory. The need to develop new concepts in daily life. The claim that a perceived contradiction can assist mental development. Implications for the training of science teachers. Evidence for the delayed benefits of disagreement between pupils. An experiment to assess the benefits of exchanging views with a partner.

i. ii. iii. iv. v. vi. vii. viii. ix.

List of Headings A suggested modification to a theory about learning.

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For questions 7-10, complete the summary below. Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer. How children learn Piaget proposed that learning takes place when children are (7)…………………. ideas that do not correspond to their current beliefs. The application of this theory gave rise to a teaching method known as (8)……………….. At first, this approach only focused on the relationship between individual pupils and their (9)…………………… Later, researchers such as Perret-Clermont became interested in the role that interaction with (10)………………. might also play in a pupil’s development. SECTION IV: WRITING (40/200) Part 1. (20 points) Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it. 1. He worked very hard, but he was unable to earn enough for his living. Hard-working _____________________________________

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2. “Nothing will persuade me to sleep in that haunted house,” she said. She flatly_________________________________________ 3. I was too scared to tell him what I really thought. I lacked___________________________________________ 4. The house shouldn’t be left unlocked for any reason. On no ____________________________________________ 5. Paul hates waiting for the bus. Paul can't _________________________________________

Rewrite the following sentences with the given word. The given words can’t be changed. 6. The students in his class come from many different places, which makes the place very special. WIDE ___________________________________________ 7. When I make my complaint, I hope that you will say you agree with me. BACK ___________________________________________ 8. I forgot his birthday last week and do not know how to make it up to him. AMENDS ___________________________________________ 9. She is likely to be shortlisted for the position. STANDS ___________________________________________ 10. Don’t hesitate to make use of the library’s resources. AVAIL ___________________________________________

Part 2. Writing a paragraph. (20 points) Some say that because many people are living much longer, the age at which people retire from work should be raised considerably. To what extent do you agree or disagree? Write a paragraph (150200 words). Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge and experience.

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Họ và tên thí sinh: ……………………………………………….SBD:………………………. Họ và tên giám thị số 1: ………………………………………………………………………..

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Họ và tên giám thị số 2: ………………………………………………………………………..

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH LỚP 10

HỘI CÁC TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN KHU VỰC DUYÊN HÀI VÀ ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN BIÊN HÒA, T. HÀ NAM

(Đáp án gồm có 03 trang) Tác giả:

ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT

SECTION I: LISTENING (50/200) Part 1. Listen carefully and complete the form below. (10 points) 1. Lamerton 2. 11.06 / 11th June 3. equipment 4. food-handling 5. (college) tutor

Part 2. Listen carefully and choose the correct answer. (10 points) 1. A 2. A 3. C 4. A 5. C

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Hoàng Phương Thảo Đỗ Hồng Ngọc Diệp Điện thoại: 0982080385 - 0943968993

Part 3. You ae going to hear a conversation between and a man and a researcher. Listen carefully and decide these statements are true or false. Write A for true and B for false. (10 points) ’ 1. B 2. B 3. A 4. B 5. A

Part 4.You will hear an archaeologist talking about her job. Complete the sentences with NO MORE THAN 3 WORDS for each space. (20 points) 6. draw 1. film (about it) 7. how – why 2. practical 8. basements 3. very old church 9. diet 4. reports 10. builders 5. plans – photo(graph)s

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SECTION II: LEXICO – GRAMMAR (50/200) Part 1. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. (20 points) 1. D 2. B 3. D 4. D 5. D 6. C 7. C 8. C 9. B 10. B 11. B 12. A 13. B 14. B 15. C 16. C 17. B 18. D 19. B 20. C

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Part 2. Identify and correct 10 erros in the passage. (10 points) 1. Gambling was legalised in Nevada in 1931 to increase venue for the state. Today the 2. casinos are very all-important for the financial growth of Las Vegas. Bugsy Siegel, the 3. gangster and casino owner, is the developer we remember most. A Capone syndicate boss, 4. Siegel came to Las Vegas in the late 1930s and saw a potential gold mine in the book 5. operations that casinos used to get bets on horse races in Florida, New York, and California, 6. Offering his syndicate’s race-reporting Continental Wire Service to the bookbinders at a 7. lower price than any of the existing services, Siegel cornered the market. Then, in 1942, the 8. competition was eliminated, Siegel abruptly raised the prices and demanded a profit share 9. from each book. Without another souce for race results, and frightened by Siegel’s 10. connections to Capone, in which the casinos capitulated. 11. With the profits, Siegel started his own casino. The ambitious Flamigo Hotel was finished 12. in 1946. Situated on a strip of land along the Los Angeles Highway and designed to be an 13. elegant resort rather than a faux Western gambling hall, the Flamingo forever moved the

14. concentration of Las Vegas away from downtown. This helped the town assure of the succes 15. of gambling as its major industry. Freeing from the confinement of their Western heritage, 16. European-style casinos and resorts flourished in the years after 1946. Siegel was shot in a 17. gangland execution in 1947, but his legacy lives on in the gaudy formalism of casinos like 18. Ceasar’s Palace and The Sands. Your answer Mistake Correction Line Mistake Correction Line 1. 1 venue Revenue 10 in which to which 6. 2

very all-important

get

bookbinders

was eliminated

very important / all-important make / place / put / take bookmakers / bookies eliminate

10.

Concentration

focus

assure itself

Assure

Freeing

Freed

confinement

Confines

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Up Away toward/ against off of

6. down 7. off 8. down 9. through 10. out

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Part 3. Fill in the blanks with proper prepositions or adverbial particles. (10 points)

Part 4. Fill in each blank with the most suitable form of the word in brackets. (10 points) 1. substantial / substantive 6. anatomical 2. underestimated 7. suspicion 3. enabled 8. noticeably 4. emphasis / emphases 9. seductive 5. adherance 10. significance

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Part 2. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word in each space. (15 points) 1. With 2. an 3. with 4.for 5. of 6. because 7. as 8. than 9. be 10. to

Part 3. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer A, B, C or D. Write your answer in the space provided. (15 points) 1. C 2. A 3. A 4. D 5. B 6.C 7. A 8. B 9. C 10. B Part 4. The reading passage below has SIX paragraphs, A-F. Reading the passage and do the tasks below. (15 points) 1. v 2. ii 3. vi 4. i 5. viii 2

6. ix 7. confronted with/ faced with 8. Discover learning 9. Teacher 10. peers/ friends

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SECTION IV: WRITING (40/200) Part 1. (20 points) Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it. 1. Hard-working as he was, he was unable to earn enough for his living. 2. She flatly refused to sleep in the/ that haunted house. 3. I lacked the courage to tell him what I really thought. 4. On no account should the house be left unlocked. 5. Paul can't stand waiting for the bus.

Rewrite the following sentences with the given word. The given words can’t be changed. 6. The students in his class come from far and wide, which makes the place very special 7. When I make my complaint, I hope (that) you will back me up 8. I do not know how to make amends for forgetting 9. She stands a good chance of getting / being put through the shortlist for the position 10. You are at liberty to avail yourself / yourselves of the library’s resources.

-------------- THE END ----------------

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Part 2. Writing a paragraph. (20 points) 1. Content: (35% of total mark) a. providing all main ideas and details as required. b. communicating intentions sufficiently and effectively 2. Organization & Presentation (30% total mark) a. Ideas are well- organized and presented with coherence, cohesion, and clarify b. The essay is well- structured 3. Language: (30% of total mark) a. Demonstration of a variety vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language gifted school students b. Good use and control of grammatical structures 4. Punctuation, spelling, and handwriting (5% of total mark) a. Good punctuation and no spelling mistakes b. Legible handwriting

KỲ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI CÁC TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN KHU VỰC DUYÊN HẢI VÀ ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ LẦN THỨ X, NĂM HỌC 2016 – 2017

ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT (Đề thi gồm 14 trang)

Điểm Bằng chữ

Giám khảo 2

Bằng số

Giám khảo 1

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ĐỀ THI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 10 Thời gian: 180 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề) Ngày thi: (Thí sinh viết câu trả lời vào bảng cho sẵn trong đề)

A. LISTENING (50 points)

Part 1. Complete the form below. Write no more than one word or a number for each answer.

( 10 points)

PAN ASIAN AIRWAYS LOST PROPERTY REPORT FORM Answer

First Name

Kristy

Example

Allen (1) ________________________ Windham Road Richmond (2) ________________________ 020 8927 7651 (3) ________________________

Surname Address

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Postcode Home tel. Mobile tel. Flight Number (4) ________________________ (5) ________________________ Seat Number New York From London Heathrow To

Your answers: 1.

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Số phách

Part 2. You will hear part of a tutorial between two students and their tutor. The students are doing a research project on computer use. Listen to the conversation carefully and choose the correct answer A, B or C for each question. (10 points) 1. Sami and Irene decided to do a survey about access to computer facilities because

A. no one had investigated this before. B. their tutor suggested this topic.

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___________

C. this was a problem for many students. 2. Sami and Irene had problems with the reading for their project because ___________ A. the language was too technical.

not much had been written about the topic. C. they could not locate the books in the library. B.

3. How did Sami and Irene get the main data in their survey? A. From face-to-face interviews

From observation of students C. From online questionnaires 4. The tutor suggests that one problem with the survey was limitations in ___________

A. the range of students questioned.

the number of students involved. C. the places where the questions were asked.

5. What proportion of students surveyed thought that a booking system would be the best

solution? A. 45%

Your answers: 2.

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C. 77%

B. 65%

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Part 3. Listen to the extract of a television travel programme, and then decide whether each of the following statements is true or false. (10 points) 1. Bhutan is a republic in the Himalayas. T/F 2. French passport holders must get a visa for Guatemala from their own consulate. T/F 3. A new limit of seven days will be imposed on tourist visas to visit Burma. T/F 4. At the moment, the only place you can obtain a visa to visit Burma is in Bangkok. T/F 5. Not all resorts on the Costa del Sol will be offering reductions for children next year. T/F Your answers: 1.

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Part 4. You will hear a radio report about a new type of air transport. For questions 1-10, complete the sentences. Write no more than three words and/or a number. ( 20 points) 1. It will take 37 hours for the new form of transport to travel from London to (1) _____________ 2. Unlike crowded jets, the Aircruise will allow passengers to travel in (2) ________________

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3. The Aircruise can travel at low altitudes if there is something (3) ________________ 4. Hydrogen fuels the airship and also provides (4) ________________for the people on board. 5. The Hindenburg airship disaster killed (5) ________________people. 6. Scientists are keen to develop transport options which are both (6) ________________ and environmentally friendly. 7. The Aircruise will carry a total of (7) ________________ passengers.

8. The luxury features on board include private apartments, a bar and a (8) ________________ 9. Compared to airports, the Aircruise has the potential to land closer to (9) ________________

10. The concept is getting a lot of attention from a Korean company which makes (10) _________

10.

B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (50 points)

Your answers:

Part 1. Choose the best option A, B, C, or D to complete the following sentences and write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (20 points) 1. The brother and sister were __________over who would get to inherit the beach house. A. at large B. at odds C. at a standstill D. at a loose end

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2. Jack: “I’d rather stay at home.” Tim: “_________” A. Would you? B. Wouldn’t you? C. Had you? D. Hadn’t you? 3. After a six- year relationship, Martha and Billy have decided to _____. A. break the bank B. turn the page C. tie the knot D. make the grade 4. Scientists are predicting that the volcano might erupt so people have been _____ from the area. A. escaped B. emigrated C. exported D. evacuated 5. Jack discovered that his home had been___________ by burglars. A. annihilated B. ransacked C. eliminated D. exterminated 6. The automobile had its windows_________ in the collision yesterday. A. smash B. to be smashed C. smashed D. smashing 7. There was no one downstairs; so he turned off the lights again and decided that she ____________ imagined things. Page 3 of 14

A. must have

B. should have

C. can’t have

D. needn’t have

8. “But so,” I told him, “ you’re my own_________.” A. heart to heart B. body and soul C. flesh and blood D. skin and bone 9. Some people enjoy training; for others it is only a _________ to an end. A. means

B. method

C. way

D. tool

A. incitement

B. attraction

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10. Unfortunately, not all of us obtain our just____________ in this life. A. demands B. deserts C. gains D. wins 11. It was felt that the new bonus for increased production would provide and ________ to work overtime. C. initiative

D. incentive.

12. Remember not to cough or sneeze at the table.________, excuse yourself. A. For necessary B. As necessary C. With all need D. If need be 13. “ Edwards seems like a dog with two tails this morning”. Haven’t you heard the news? His

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wife gave birth to a baby boy early this morning” A. very proud B. exhausted C. extremely pleased D. extremely dazed 14. _________ it were well paid, I would accept this proposal. A. Providing B. If only C. But for D. Unless 15. .Professor Baker was an ______________ on the greenhouse effects. A. author B. authority C. authorized D. authorship 16. Little Deon : “This herb smells horrible!” Mommy:___________, it will do you a power of good. A. Be that as it may B. Come what may C. How much horrible is it D. Whatever it smells 17. _____________, we probably would have arrived at the airport in time. A. Had not we stopped for gas B. If we had stopped for gas C. Had it not been for our stop for gas D. If not for having been stopped for gas 18. _____________ to the unaided eye, ultraviolet light can be detected in a number of ways. A. Although is invisible B. Even though it invisible C. Despite invisible D. Although invisible 19. Householders were told not to use hose-pipes as a(n)____________ against a serious water shortage . A. preparation B. precaution C. attempt D. provision 20. The inflation rate in Greece is five times ___________ my country,” he said. . A. as much as B. as high as that in C. more than D. as many as that in

Your answers: 1.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

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Part 2. Read the passage below which contains 10 mistakes. Identify the mistakes and write the corrections in the corresponding numbered boxes. There is ONE example at the beginning. ( 10 points)

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TAKE CARE IN THE SUN The Sun should be (0) enjoying but overexposure can cause sunburnt, leading to mature skin ageing and increased risk of skin cancer. It is the ultraviolet rays which cause this; even in the UK they can damage your skin, but UV is much more powerful the nearer the equator you go. You must stay out of the sun during the two hours around midday, use shade at other times, the sun hat and tight woven but loose clothing. Protective creams suitable for your skin type can help protect unavoidably exposing parts of the body. A farther related risk is heart stroke, caused by overheating. Avoid strenuous activity during the hot hours and make sure you drink plenty of non-alcohol drinks (best is water which has been boiled or

soft drink from sealed cans or bottles) to replace body fluid.

10.

Your answers: 0.enjoying->enjoyed

Part 3. Complete each sentence with one suitable particle or preposition. Write your answer in the box provided. ( 10 points)

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1. His business has gone ________, and he has lost everything. 2. "Please, don't forget that this is only ________ you and me." 3. His abstinence ________ caffeine lasted only two months. 4. This watch used to belong to my great-great- grandfather. It’s been handed ________from father to son for five generations. 5. I’ve got to drive, so I think I’d better stick ________orange juice, thanks all the same 6. Doctors hold________ little hope of her recovering. 7. We are having our living room done________. 8. Her part-time job brings her________ a hundred dollars a week. 9. In England, single people have much greater ease in moving ________ in search of work than married people. 10. There are plenty of exceptions ________ this view in this country. Your answers:

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10.

Part 4. Write the correct form of the words given in the brackets. Write your answers in the spaces provided below. ( 10 points)

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We are (1. SURE) ______ by the experts that we are, as a species, designed for face-to-face communication. But does that really mean having every meeting in person? Ask the bleary-eyed sales team this question as they struggle (2.LABOUR) ___________ through their weekly teambuilding session and that answer is unlikely to be in the (3. AFFIRM) ___________. Unless you work for a very small business or have an (4. EXCEPT) ___________ high boredom

threshold, you doubtless spend more time sitting in meetings than you want to. Of course, you could always follow business guru Archie Norman’s example. He liked to express (5. SOLID) ___________ with customers queuing at the checkout by holding management meetings standing up. Is email a realistic (6. ALTERNATIVE) ___________? It’s certainly a powerful tool for disseminating information, but as a meeting substitute it’s seriously flawed. Words alone can cause trouble. We’re all full of (7. INTENTION) ___________ that can be (8.SECURE) ____________ triggered by others and people are capable of reading anything they like into an email. There is also a (9.TEND) ___________ for email to be used by people who wish to avoid ‘real’ encounters because they don’t want to be (10.FRONT) ___________ with any awkwardness.

Your answers:

10.

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C. READING (60 points)

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Part 1. For questions 1-15, read the article below and then decide which answer best fits each space. (15 points)

WE REALLY CAN TELL IF WE ARE BEING WATCHED Stories about how people somehow know when they are being watched have been going around for years. However, few (0) ____________ have been made to investigate the phenomenon scientifically. Now, with the completion of the largest ever study of the so-called staring effect, there is impressive evidence that this is a recognizable and (1) __________ sixth sense. The study (2) ___________hundreds of children. For the experiments, they sat with their eyes (3) ____________ so they could not see, and with their backs to other children, who were told to Page 6 of 14

either stare at them or look away. Time and time again the results showed that the children who could not see were able to (4) __________ when they were being stared at. In a (5) ____________ of more than 18,000 trials (6) ____________ worldwide, the children (7) ____________ sensed when they were being watched almost 70% of the time. The experiment was repeated with the (8) __________precaution of putting the children who were being watched outside the room, (9)

B. accepted

C. received

2. A. involved 3. A. shaded 4. A. find

B. contained B. wrapped B. notice

C. comprised C. masked C. tell

5. A. sum 6. A. worked over 7. A. correctly 8. A. attached 9. A. separated 10. A. pretending

B. collection B. worked through B. exactly B. added B. parted B. lying

C. mass C. carried on C. thoroughly C. connected C. split C. cheating

D. enclosed D. covered D. reveal

D. total D. carried out D. perfectly D. increased D. divided D. deceiving

10.

Your answers:

D. sure

1. A. genuine

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____________ from the starers by the windows. This was done just in case there was some (10) _________ going on with the children telling each other whether they were looking or not. 0. A. tries B. tests C. attempts D. aims

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Part 2. Read the article below and think of the word which best fits each gap. Use only ONE word in each gap. (15 points) THE TOUGHEST RUNNERS There are a few runners who have completed every London Marathon since the first race in 1981. They are the toughest runners of all. These athletes, (1) ____________ honour of both their mental and physical strength, have been given a permanent entry in the event for the rest of their lives, provided that they do not miss a year. Other people have run the race faster or under greater handicaps, (2) ____________ these are athletes with a mission. For (3) ____________, the annual event is a way of life, not just a worthy fund-raising exercise or a single challenge. Bill O’Connor is one of these runners. In his case, running is a daily ritual which began in New Zealand (4) ____________ , as a youngster, he pounded along the wet sand on the edge of the Tasman Sea. Now aged fifty, and working as a mathematics teacher at a school in London, he retains his fascination (5) ____________the London Marathon and the activity of running. He says, “When Page 7 of 14

the first London Marathon was held, I thought (6) ____________ myself that here was a challenge. I thought that if there was only going to be one race, I wanted to have run in it.” But the London Marathon went (7) ____________ to become the most impressive success story in British sport and Bill O’Connor has been a constant part of it. (8) ____________ he ever felt that he would fail to finish? “In 1985. It was a beautiful day and I started running much (9) ____________ fast for

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the first mile and got worried. So I slowed down for the next mile. Yet (10) ____________I expected I would take at least four hours , I finished in two hours thirty-four minutes and twenty-nine seconds”. It is his best time so far. Your answers: 2.

10.

Part 3. Read the passage and choose the right answer for each question. (15 points) HERBS AND DRUGS Herbs are different kinds of plants and plant parts that can be used for medicinal purposes. This can include the leaves, stems, roots, or seeds of the plant. Herbs have been important in

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traditional medicine for centuries, in both of the East and the West. In Western medicine, they have largely been replaced by drugs. Herbal treatments are, however, still an integral part of Eastern medicine. In recent years, interest in traditional medicine has increased in the West. Many people are either using modern methods combined with traditional treatments or are turning to these treatments entirely. While traditional medicine can be helpful, they are not without their share of problems. The main difference between herbs and drugs is that, while herbs are simply parts of plants, drugs are specific chemicals in a pure form. Many modern drugs are derived from chemicals found in plants. One example is aspirin, which is made from a chemical extracted from the back of the willow tree. Other drugs are entirely synthetic. Even those drugs that are derived from natural sources are heavily processed in order to purify and concentrate them. This allows drugs to be administered in very precise amounts. Different kinds and degrees of illnesses often require

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dosages that differ only slightly. A little too much or not enough of a certain drug can have negative effects on the patient. Many drugs also produce negative effects even when taken in the recommended dosage. These undesired negative effects are called “side-effects” The possibility of dangerous and unexpected side-effects from drugs has led many people back to traditional medicine. Herbal treatments seem more natural than modern drugs. Many feel that traditional medicine is more concerned with treating the underlying causes of disease instead of just the symptoms, through the truth of this claim is not yet clear. In any case, there is a certain

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comfort in taking natural herbal treatments instead of the processed, synthetic chemicals derived from them. There are, however, disadvantages to herbal treatments, some of them are serious. Few herbal treatments have been scientifically studied. While the active chemicals in the herb may be

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known, it may not be clear what they really do, or if they are really effective at all. Because the active chemicals are not used alone, it is very difficult to determine the proper amount for treatment, since the levels of the chemical are not constant throughout the plant. Therefore, the risk of under- and overdose is higher than with drugs. A more serious problem is that certain herbal treatments may have no real medicinal effect, thus giving the patient a false sense of security. This is particularly harmful when the patient refuses treatment with modern drugs that could be effective. There are even certain herbs that can cause side-effects, just like a drug. (A) One of these is

ma-huang, also called ephedra, which is taken to increase energy. (B) It has been known to cause damage to the heart and nervous system. Garlic and ginger are common elements in food that are also taken as herbal treatments, but they can be dangerous for people with diabetes. (C) In general, herbs are most dangerous when they are taken along with common drugs. This may happen in two ways: a patient decides to supplement his or her regular treatment with herbs, or a dishonest

manufacturer adds modern drugs to an herbal treatment. (D) In both cases, the results can be very serious. The herb St. John’s wort is often used to treat depression, but if it is used along with conventional antidepressants, such as Zoloft, the combination can cause confusion, headaches, allergic reactions, and other problems. Finally, because production of herbal treatments is seldom regulated, harmful substances can be present in herbal preparations. Herbs grown in polluted soil may contain lead, arsenic, or

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mercury. They may also be tainted with pesticides. It is for these reasons that herbs should not be treated as the perfect substitute for drugs. Although herbs appear to be quite distinct from modern drugs, it is important to use them with the same sort of care.

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1. The word “integral” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to A. harmful. B. important. C. famous. D. controversial. 2. Which of the following is closest in meaning to “tained” in paragraph 6?

A. Accompanied. B. Augmented. C. Substituted. 3. The word “this” in paragraph 4 line 8 refers to A. patients taking ineffective herbs instead of drugs. B. patients having a sense of security. C. the risk of under and overdose of an herbal treatment. D. the patient’s belief that modern drugs are bad for you.

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D. Contaminated.

4. Why does the author mention that drugs are heavily processed? A. To show that herbs cannot compete with modern medical techniques. B. Because many mistakes can occur in this processing. C. To illustrate that drugs are not natural.

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D. To point out that many countries cannot afford to produce drugs. 5. What is the main difference between herbs and drugs according to the passage? A. Drugs can cause side-effects, whereas herbs do not. B. Drugs are at least partially synthetic, whereas herbs are natural. C. Herbs are dangerous when taken in large amounts, drugs are safer. D. Herbs can produce a false sense of security, whereas drugs do not. 6. According to the passage, when are herbs most dangerous? A. When not taken under a doctor’s supervision.

B. When the patient refuses modern medicine. C. When the dosage is not administered precisely. D. When taken in combination with drugs. 7. According to the passage, who should not take ginger or garlic as herbal treatments? A. Patients with diabetes.

B. Patients with liver damage. C. Patients taking antidepressants. D. Patients with problems of the heart or nervous system. 8. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage? A. Some herbal treatments are not effective in fighting disease. B. Modern doctors often do not approve of using herbs.

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C. Herbal treatments can also produce side-effects. D. Some manufacturers add drugs to herbs. 9. It can be inferred from the passage that. A. The drug industry is better regulated than the herb industry. B. People who use drugs instead of herbs recover more quickly. C. The popularity of herbal treatments will decrease in the future. D. The side-effects of drugs are more serious than those of herbs.

10. Where the following sentence could be added to paragraph 5: “Certain herbs have also been known to be harmful for people suffering from asthma.” A. (A) B. (B) C. (C) D . (D)

Your answers: 1.

10.

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Part 4. The reading passage below has six paragraphs A-F. Choose the correct heading for each paragraph from the list of headings below. Write the correct number i-ix. (15 points) List of Headings

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i. Indecision about a name ii. Current problems with distribution iii. Uncertainty about financial advantages iv. The contrasts of cinema today v. The history of cinema vi. Integrating other events into cinema vii. The plans for the future of films

viii. An unexpected advantage ix. Too true to life?

THE END OF THE SILVER SCREEN?

Cinema technology has remained much the same for a century, so when will it go digital? Kelvin Hilton views the projections.

A Cinema is full of contradictions. It is high- tech and old- fashioned at the same time. Today’s films are full of digital sound and computer- generated special effects. Yet they are still stored on celluloid film, the basis of which is more than 100 years old. They are also displayed with projectors and screens that seem to belong to our great- grandparents’ generation.

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B Now we are in the second century of cinema, there are moves to bring the medium right up to date. This will involve revolutionizing not just how films are made but also how they are distributed and presented. The aim is not only to produce and prepare films digitally, but to be able to send them to movie theatres by digital, electronic means. High- resolution digital projectors would then show the film. Supporters say this will make considerable savings at all stages of this chain, particularly for distribution. C With such a major technological revolution on the horizon, it seems strange that the industry is still not sure what to call itself. This may appear a minor point, but the choices, ‘digital’ cinema and ‘electronic’ cinema (e- cinema), suggest different approaches to, and aspects of, the business. Digital cinema refers to the physical capture of images; e-cinema covers the whole chain, from

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production through post- production (editing, addition of special effects and construction of soundtrack) to distribution and projection. D What about the effects of the new medium? The main selling point of digital cinema is the high resolution and sharpness of the final image. But those who support the old- fashioned approach to

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film point to the celluloid medium’s quality of warmth. A recurring criticism of video is that it may be too good: uncomfortably real, rather like looking through an open window. In 1989, the director of the first full- length American digital high-definition movie admitted that the picture had a ‘stark, strange reality to it’.

E Even the money–saving aspect of e-cinema is doubted. One expert says that exciting cinema will have to show the new material and not all of them will readily or rapidly furnish themselves

with the right equipment. ‘E-cinema is seen as a way of saving money, because print costs a lot,’ he says. ‘But for that to work, cinemas have to be showing the films because cinemas are the engine that drives the film industry.’

F This view has prompted some pro-digital entrepreneurs to take a slightly different approach. HD Thames is looking at reinventing the existing cinema market, moving towards e-theatre, which would use digital video and projection to present plays, musicals and some sporting events to the public. This is not that different from the large-screen TV system that was set up in New York in 1930 and John Logie Baird’s experiments with TV in the late 1920s and early 30s.

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Complete the summary below using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage There are big changes ahead for cinema if digital production takes place and the industry no longer uses (7) _____ and gets rid of the old-fashioned projectors and screens used to show movies. The main advantage is likely to be that the final image will be clearer. However, some people argue that the digital picture will lack (8) _____ In addition, digital production will only reduce costs if cinemas are willing to buy new (9) _____. As a result, experiments with what is called (10) ‘_____’ may mark a change in the whole entertainment industry.

Your answers: 1.

10.

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D. WRITING (40 points) Part 1. Finish each of the following sentences in such way that it means exactly the same as the sentences printed before it. (10 points) 1. Both of the lifts were out of order. Neither _________________________________________________________________

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2. You should have called the doctor at once. It was _________________________________________________________________ 3. Money is of no value on a desert island.

Money counts ___________________________________________________________ 4. There’s nothing more be done about this matter. Nothing more ___________________________________________________________ 5. Marie distrusts modern technology strongly.

Marie has ______________________________________________________________

Part 2. Rewrite each sentence using the word in brackets so that the meaning stays the same. (10 points) 1. Your attitude will have to change if you want to succeed LEAF __________________________________________________________ 2. I assume you ‘re hungry. GRANTED __________________________________________________________ 3. It was raining cats and dogs. TORRENTS __________________________________________________________ 4. At first the new computer made me feel a bit afraid. AWE __________________________________________________________ 5. The fact that he will never race again is something he cannot accept TERMS __________________________________________________________

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Part 3. Writing a paragraph in about 180 words about the following topic. (20 points) “People attend college or university for many different reasons (for example: new experiences, career preparation, increase knowledge …). Why do you think people attend college or university ?”

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………………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… Page 13 of 14

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……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… -------------- HẾT -------------(Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu. Cán bộ coi thi không giải thích gì thêm)

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KỲ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI CÁC TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN KHU VỰC DUYÊN HẢI VÀ ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ LẦN THỨ IX, NĂM HỌC 2016 – 2017

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HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM MÔN TIẾNG ANH 10

(Đáp án gồm 08 trang) A. LISTENING( 50 points)

Part 1. Complete the form below. Write no more than one word or a number for each answer.( 10 points) 1. 48

2. R16 GH7

3. 07754897432

4. PA 365

5. E6

Part 2.You will hear part of a tutorial between two students and their tutor. The students are doing a

research project on computer use. Listen to the conversation carefully and choose the correct answer 2. B

3. A

4. A

5. C

1. C

A, B or C for each question.( 10 points)

Part 3.Listen to the extract of a television travel programme, and then decide whether each of the 2. F

3. F

4. T

5. T

1. F

following statements is true or false. (10 points)

Part 4. You will hear a radio report about a new type of air transport. For questions 1-10, complete 2. comfort and style

3. interesting to see

4. power and water

5. 35

6. sustainable

7. 100

8. glass floor

9. urban centres

10. electrical goods

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1. New York

the sentences. Write no more than three words and/or a number. ( 20 points)

B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (50 points)

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Part 1. Choose the best option A, B, C, or D to complete the following sentences and write your 2. A

3. C

4. D

5. B

answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (20 points)

1. B

6. C

7. A

8. C

9. A

10. B

11. D

12. D

13. C

14. A

15. B

16. A

17. C

18. A

19. B

20. B

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Part 2. Read the passage below which contains 10 mistakes. Identify the mistakes and write the corrections in the corresponding numbered boxes. There is ONE example at the beginning. ( 10 points) sunburn

6. tight

tightly

2. mature

premature

7. exposing

exposed

3. but

and

8. farther

further

4. must

should

9. hot

hottest

5. the

10. non-alcohol

non-alcoholic

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1. sunburnt

Part 3. Complete each sentence with one suitable particle or preposition. Write your answer in the box provided. (10 points) 2. between

3. from

4. down

6. out

7. up

8. in

9. away

5. to

10. to

1. under

Part 4.Write the correct form of the words given in the brackets. Write your answers in the spaces

provided below. (10 points) 2. laboriously

3. affirmative

4. exceptionally

5. solidarity

6. alternative

7. unintentionally

8. insecurity /

9. tendency

10. confronted

1. assured

insecurities

C. READING (60 points)

Part 1. For questions 1-15, read the article below and then decide which answer best fits each space. (15 points)

6. to

3. them

7. on

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2. but/only/yet

1. in

8. Had/Has 9. too

5. with/for

10. (al)though

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4. where/when

Part 2. Read the article below and think of the word which best fits each gap. Use only ONE word in each gap. (15 points)

1. A

2. A

3. D

4. C

5. D

6. D

7. A

8. B

9. A

10. C

Part 3. Read the passage and choose the right answer for each question. (15 points) 1. B

2. D

3.B

4.C

5.C

6.D Page 2 of 8

7.A

8.B

9.A

10.C

Part 4.The reading passage below has six paragraphs A-F. Choose the correct heading for each paragraph from the list of headings below. Write the correct number i-ix. (15 points) 7. celluloid film

B- vii

8. warmth

C- i

9. equipment

D- ix

10. e-theatre

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A- iv

E- iii F- vi D. WRITING

Part 1. Finish each of the following sentences in such way that it means exactly the same as the

sentences printed before it. (10 points)

3. Money counts for nothing on a desert island.

4. Nothing more can be done about this matter.

2. It was wrong of you not to call the doctor at once.

1. Neither of lifts was working.

5. Marie has a strong distrust of modern technology.

Part 2. Rewrite each sentence using the word in brackets so that the meaning stays the same. (10 points)

1. You will have to turn over a new leaf if you want to succeed.

2. I take it for granted you ‘re hungry.

3. The rain was coming down in torrents. 4. At first I was a bit in awe of the new computer.

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5. He can't come to terms with the fact that he will never race again.

Part 3. Writing a paragraph (20 points) 1. Completion: 3 points.

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2. Content: 6 points.

Provide relevant and convincing ideas about the topic, supported by specific examples and/or

reasonable justification. 3. Organisation: 3 points. - Present the right form of a paragraph: + 3 parts ( topic sentence, supporting sentences, concluding sentence) + topic sentence: consists of topic and controlling idea. + concluding sentence: summarizes the main supporting ideas/ restates the topic sentence and gives Page 3 of 8

personal opinion. - Ideas are well organized and presented with unity, cohesion and coherence. 4. Language use and accuracy: 5 points. - variety of structures, expressions and good use of vocabulary. - present the ideas with clarity.

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- Easy to follow. 5. Punctuations and spelling: 3 points

Tapescript Part 1.

First you have some time to look at questions 1 – 5. (20 second gap)

You will hear a conversation between a man and a woman discussing the loss of a bag on board a plane.

You will see that there is an example. This time only, the conversation relating to this will be played first. Pan Asian Airways. John speaking. Can I help you?

Woman:

Yes please. I left something on one of your planes last night. I got this number from the

Man:

operator. Is this the right number to call?

Yes, madam. This is the right number. I just need you tell me your name to start with so

I can fill out a lost property form.

Kirsty Allen. That’s K-I-R-S-T-Y A-L-L-E-N.

So, Kirsty is the correct answer.

Now we begin. You should answer the questions as you listen, as the recording is not played twice.

Pan Asian Airways. John speaking. Can I help you?

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Man:

Listen carefully to the conversation and answer questions 1 to 5.

Woman:

Yes please. I left something on one of your planes last night. I got this number from the operator. Is this the right number to call?

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Yes, madam. This is the right number. I just need you tell me your name to start with so I can fill out a lost property form. Kirsty Allen. That’s K-I-R-S-T-Y A-L-L-E-N.

Right. I’ve got that. Now what happened last night?

Well, I was on a flight last night from New York to London that landed at 12.30am. We

were delayed a while in New York so that when we eventually landed, I was so tired that I accidentally left my handbag on the plane. M

Did you report this to anyone last night? Page 4 of 8

No, I’m afraid not. I didn’t notice until I got home and then it was really too late to phone.

Very well madam. Let me take a few details for this form and I’ll see what I can do. OK, so the name was Kirsty Allen. And what’s the address please? 48 Windham Road, Richmond.

The postcode?

RI6 GH7.

Good. I’ve got that. Now, your telephone number?

Well, my home number is 020 8927 7651 and my mobile is 07754 897 432.

I’m sorry. I didn’t catch the second one. What was the mobile again?

0 double 7 54 897 432.

Thanks. Now, do you know the flight number of the plane that you were on last night?

Oh yes, hang on a second. I’ve got my boarding pass stub right here. Err; the flight

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number was PA 356. No, I’m sorry, PA365. That’s it: 365. And does the boarding card stub say what seat you had?

Oh yes. It was E6.

And you said that it was New York to London Heathrow. Is that right?

Yes, that’s right.

T = Tutor

= Irene

S = Sami

Part 2.

S: Dr. Barrett?

T: Sami, come in. Is Irene with you?

I: -Yes..

T: Good, sit down. Right, we’re looking at how far you’ve got with your research project since we last

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met. You decided to do a survey about computer facilities at the university, didn’t you? I: That’s right. We decided to investigate the university’s open access to a computer when they need

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one, so we thought it would be a useful area to research. T: Good. It’s not a topic anyone has looked at before, as far as I know, so it’s a good choice. So,

what background reading did you do?

Well, we looked in the catalogues in the library, but we couldn’t find much that was useful

- it’s such a specialised subject,, hardly anything seems to have been published about it...

I: And as well as that, the technology is all changing so quickly. S: But the open access centre has an online questionnaire on computer use that it asks all the students to do at the end of their first year, and the supervisor gave us access to that data, so we used it as a Page 5 of 8

starting point for our research. It wasn’t exactly what we needed, but it gave us an idea of what we wanted to find out in our survey. Then, we designed our own questionnaire. T: And how did you use it? I: We approached students individually and went through our questionnaire with them on a one-toT: So, you actually asked them the questions?

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one basis. I: That’s right. We made notes of the answers as we went along, and actually, we found we got a bit of extra information that way as well - about the underlying attitudes of the people we were interviewing - by observing the body language and things like that. T: How big was your sample?

S:: Well, altogether we interviewed a random sample of 65 students, 55% male and 45% female.

T: And what about the locations and times of the survey?

S: We went to the five open access computer centres at the university, and we got about equal amounts

of data at each one. It took us three weeks. We did it during the week, in the days and in the evenings.

T: Not the weekends?

S:: No.

T: So, presumably your respondents were mostly full-time students?

S:: Yes... oh, you mean we should have collected some data at the weekends, from the part- time

students? We didn’t think of that.

with the analysis of results?

T: OK. It’s just an example of how difficult it is to get a truly random sample, so how far have you got I: Well, everyone agreed there was a problem, but we’re more interested in what they think should

be done about it. The most popular suggestion was for some sort of booking system. About 77% of the students thought that would be best. But there were other suggestions; for example, about

Part 3.

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65% of people thought it would help if the opening hours were longer, like 24 hours a day.

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Hello and welcome to another edition of “Your Holiday”. And in tonight’s programme, we’ll have reports on Sardinia, Austria, the Black Sea coast of Turkey and the little-known kingdom of

Bhutan, way up in the Himalayas. But first, we go over to our news desk and Paul. Wells. Paul... Thanks, Mary. And first of all, some up-to-date news for potential visitors to Guatemala,

as there has been some confusion about who needs a visa and who needs a tourist card. Well, if i you’re travelling on a British or Irish passport, you’ll have to shell out ten dollars for a visa, which i is valid for a stay of up to thirty days, and must be obtained before travelling to Guatemala. Page 6 of 8

Apparently, visa extensions are very difficult to obtain. Most other EEC nationals can obtain a tourist card on arrival at the border for just one dollar, valid for thirty days extendable to ninety, but this extension will cost you a further five dollars. At the moment, it is unclear if this applies to French nationals, who may need a visa. Check at your local consulate before leaving for Guatemala.

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Switching to Asia now, Burma has announced that the tourist visa facility will not be available

for the time being. Regular viewers of this programme will no doubt remember that visas were always restricted to seven days in any case, but apparently you won’t even get your week in now.

The reason given is the recent state of unrest within the country, particularly in and around the capital, Rangoon, where visitors’ safety cannot be guaranteed at present. Now, we have had reports from our correspondent in Thailand that the Burmese Embassy in Bangkok is continuing to issue

seven-day visas despite the official announcement, but it would seem a risky business going there at the moment, even if you can get in.

And finally from me, news of a welcome price reduction for children under the age of five at

most resorts on the Costa del Sol in the south of Spain - there’ll be at least twenty-five per cent off

on that happy note, it’s back to you, Mary.

all year round, and as much as seventy per cent off in the low season, depending on the resorts. And

Part 4.

Interviewer: These days we all know that time is money. People don't want to waste a moment of their

lives travelling when they could be working, or let's face it, relaxing on holiday. So with this in mind,

why is the London-based company Seymour Powell working on a new form of transport which will go from London to New York in 37 hours, when we can already get there in seven? With me here in the

studio is Mark Baker. Mark, why on earth would anyone want to travel so slowly? Mark: Well, the company Seymour Powell have come up with the idea that 'slow is the new

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fast'. It's true that people traditionally want to get to their destination as quickly as possible, but I think everyone would agree that there is nothing pleasant about flying in a small, crowded passenger jet.

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That's why this company has developed the Aircruise concept. It aims to carry people to their destination in comfort and style.

Interviewer: Rather like the old ocean liners. Mark:You could say that. Interviewer: So what is an Aircruise? Is it a type of plane? Mark: No it's not. It is proposed that the Aircruise will be a huge kite-shaped airship. It will fly at 12,000 feet, but it would be able to fly at just a few hundred feet above the ground if there was something interesting to see on the ground. Page 7 of 8

Interviewer: It sounds like a sort of luxurious hot air balloon. Mark: Well the plan is that it will be powered, not by hot air, but another type of air. Hydrogen. Hydrogen is capable of lifting weights of 1.2 kg per cubic metre, and you can also use hydrogen fuel to provide on-board power and drinking water. With hydrogen as the fuel, you'd be able to reach speeds of around ninety miles per hour. It would be pollution free, and what's more, it'd be completely silent!

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Interviewer: It reminds me of those airships they had back in the 1930s. Mark: Zeppelins Interviewer: That's right. Weren't they very dangerous?

Mark: They were rather, and after the famous Hindenburg disaster, in May 1937 which killed 35 of the 97 people on board. But technology has moved on a good deal since then, and scientists are looking at ways that we can create transport options that are more sustainable and kinder to the environment.

Interviewer: So you mentioned that this Aircruise was going to be a luxurious form of transport. Why is that? What sort of luxuries can a passenger expect?

Mark: Well, first of all it won't be full of people. One Aircruise ship will carry just 100 people.

There'll also be plenty of staff to attend to your every need. They're estimating that there'll be one crew

member for every five people! Thirdly, you won't be pinned in your seat for the entire journey. You'll be able to walk around. There's to be a bar, private apartments and even a glass floor so that you can

see the view beneath your feet!

Interviewer: Gosh, I don't know if I fancy that!

Mark: No, me neither!

Interviewer: And would these airships depart from airports? Mark: No, I think that would be very dangerous! No, the plan is that they would build special landing to urban centres.

pads. Compared to airports, these are much smaller, so the airships would be able to land much closer

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Interviewer: So, this Aircruise idea. Is it just an idea, or is it actually going intoproduction? Mark: Well, that's hard to say at this stage, but the company is certainly gaining a lot of attention. One

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of the major Korean electrical goods companies is showing a lot of interest and providing some funding. So there is some talk that this dream could be realised in as little as five years' time.

Interviewer: So in the future we'll all be gliding slowly to our holiday destinations, while drinking beers at the bar then? Mark: You will if you can afford it! I don't expect that these new airships will be cheap! Interviewer: Well, thank you very much, Mark Baker. Now it's time for ...

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HỘI CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN VÙNG DUYÊN HẢI VÀ ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ ĐỀ THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH: KHỐI 10 TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN HOÀNG VĂN THỤ- HÒA BÌNH NĂM 2017

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ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 10 Thời gian 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)

PART 1. LISTENING (50ps) I. You will hear some advice from a British programme adviser. Listen to the first part of the talk to fill in the gaps with relevant words in the notes below. (10pts) When you first arrive in Britain you will be given the name and telephone extension number of the (1) ………………… who will be administering your programme. It will be (2) …………………… if you make a note in your diary of this (3) ………………… and also if you make an appointment (4) …………………… by telephone whenever you want to see your programme officer. If your base is to be outside London, you will be given (5) ………… about reaching your destination. Please follow these carefully and, again, keep a note of them in your diary. Your answers:

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Listen to the second part, indicate whether the following statements are true (T), false ( F) or not given by writing (NG). (10pts) 6. If you bring money to Britain, you’d better carry large sums of cash on your person. 7. Your money will be more secure if you convert it into traveller’s cheques. 8. It’s not safe to deposit your money with hotels or hostels. 9. It’s wise to put your purchses in your shopping bag. 10. All shops provive a receipt for you. Your answers: 10.

II. You will hear a young man talking about his work and how he likes to spend his free time. Listen and choose the best answer. Write your answers in the numbered blanks provided below. (10 pts) 1. What kind of business does he work in? A. a delivery service

B. a bakery Page 1/12

C. a cake shop

2. What did the speaker's mother do in the last years before her husband's death? A. She was a nurse B. She helped to run the business C. She worked for an accountant 3. The speaker prefers to relax by B. playing football

C. walking or fishing

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A. making furniture 4. The speaker lives in A. the country

B. a small village

C. a small town

5. The speaker doesn't watch television very much in the evenings because A. he is too tired

B. he prefers to make furniture C. he is too busy

Your answers:

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III. Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND / OR A NUMBER for each answer. (20 points) Cycling What's the furthest you have ever cycled? Perhaps you cycle to school or to work, or maybe at most a short (1) ___________ with friends? How would you feel about spending months on the road travelling solo from the UK to China, by bike? For British cyclist Pete Jones, camping rough and cycling long distances through (2) ______________ are second nature. Mr. Jones is currently undertaking a mammoth trip across the Eurasian continent from Britain to China. Pete Jones is no stranger to China. But he says many people there are (3) ______________ by his passion for cycling, asking why he would choose to cycle when he can (4) ______________ a car. Indeed, while there are an estimated 400 million bicycles in China, where it has long been the preferred form of transport, rapid economic growth has fuelled an (5) ______________ in car ownership. Edward Genochio, another British cyclist who completed a (6) ____________ trip to China and back, said one of his aims was to "promote cycling as a safe, (7) ______________ and environmentally benign means of getting about". In the UK, the last few years have seen a rise in the number of people (8) _____________ over four, with some estimates saying the number of people cycling to work has (9)____________ in the last five years. Politicians also see cycling as a way to boost their eco-credentials, with people such as London mayor Boris Johnson often (10) ______________ under his own steam. But

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we may have to wait some time before we see him emulating Pete Jones in attempting to cycle all the way to China!

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PART 2. LEXICO & GRAMMAR (50ps) I. Choose the best answer (20ps) 1. He tries to ……… himself with everyone by paying them compliments. a. gratify b. please c. ingratiate d. commend 2. Assembly lines are useful for producing a large ……… of identical products. a. quality b. quantity c. quandary d. qualification 3. Everyone knows about pollution problems, but not many people have ……… any solutions. a. thought over b. come up with c. looked into d. got round to 4. Mr. Nixon refused to answer the questions on the ……… that the matter was confidential. a. reasons b. excuses c. grounds d. foundations 5. The VCTV tries to ……… for all tastes with its 4 national programs. a. cater b. suit c. furnish d. regard 6. When his alarm went off, he shut it off and slept for ……… 15 minutes. a. other b. others c. another d. the others 7. Every woman who has enough criteria can join the beauty contest irrespective of their background. a. regardless of b. on account of c. under guarantee d. in consideration of 8. ………, dolphins have no sense of smell. a. As known as far b. As far as is known c. It is known as far d. Known as far as it is 9. “Another cup of coffee?” – “No, but thanks ………” a. not at all b. for all c. all the same d. you for all 10. ……… I’ve told him not to go out with those people, but he wouldn’t listen. Just let him face the music now. a. Many a time b. Many the time c. Quite a time d. For a time 11. Most crimes that are committed are no more than ……… theft. a. slight b. small c. unimportant d. petty 12. This is ……… the most difficult job I’ve ever had to do. a. by heart b. by chance c. by far d. by myself 13. No matter how angry he was, he would never ……… to violence. a. resolve b. recourse c. exert d. resort 14. He had to retire from the match suffering from a ……… ligament. a. torn b. broken c. slipped d. sprained 15. ………, he felt so unhappy and lonely. a. Despite of his riches b. Rich as was he c. Rich though he was d. Despite of the fact that he was rich 16. ……… as taste is really a composite sense made up of both taste and smell. a. That we refer to b. What we refer to c. To which we refer d. What do we refer to Page 3/12

17. The development company …….... approval from the council for their plans for a new shopping center. A. searched

B. begged

C. pleaded

D. sought

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18. Paul’s been in Alice’s bad ……… ever since he offended her at the party. a. eyes b. books c. likes d. treats 19. The woman who was taken to hospital had been ……….for three hours. a. indifferent b. insensitive c. unconscious d. unfeeling 20 .………. discovered has been a source of disagreement among historians. a. Fermentation was how they b. How was fermentation c. How fermentation that was d. How fermentation was

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II. ERROR IDENTIFICATION (10ps) Identify 10 errors in the following passage by underlining them and correct them in the space provided in the second column Water scarcity is fast becoming one of the major limited ______________ factors in world crop production. In many areas, poor ______________ agricultural practices have led to increasing desertification ______________ and the losing of formerly arable lands. Consequently, those ______________ plants species that are well adapted with survival in dry ______________ climates are being looked at for an answer in development ______________ more efficient crops to grow on marginally arable lands. ______________ Plants use several mechanisms to ensure their survival in ______________ desert environments. Some involve pure mechanical and ______________ physical adaptations, such as the shape of the plant’s ______________ surface, smaller leaf size, and extensive root systems. Some ______________ of the adaptations are related to chemistry mechanisms. ______________ Many plants, such as cacti, have internal gums and ______________ mucilages which give them water-retaining properties. ______________ Other chemical mechanism is that of the epicuticular wax layer. This wax layer acts like an impervious cover to ______________ protect the plant. It prevents excessive loss of internal moist. ______________ It also protects the plant from external aggression, which ______________ can come from inorganic agents such as gases, or organic ______________ agents which include bacterium and plant pets.

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III. Fill in each gap with one suitable preposition or particle (10ps) 1. The couple broke ……… their engagement after they had a huge argument. 2. At school, Luis got into a lot of trouble for something I did, and now he holds it ……… me. 3. Do you have to go already? Can’t you stick ……… for a few minutes? 4. Josh can while ……… a whole day playing online computer games with his mates. 5. The company’s announced it is laying ……… over 1,000 workers. 6. The whole village was wiped ……… in the bombing raids. 7. My plans for starting a restaurant fell ……… Page 4/12

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8. After a week on the run, he gave himself ……… to the police. 9. The students were slow to catch ………, but gradually they began to understand. 10. We made ……… that we had forgotten Jane’s birthday, though it was not true. IV. Complete the following passage with the correct forms of the words given (10ps) As Philadelphia grew from a small town into a city in the first half of the eighteenth century, it became an (1.INCREASE)___________ important marketing center for a vast and growing agricultural hinterland. Market days saw the crowded city even more crowded, as farmers from within a radius of 24 or more kilometers brought their sheep, cows, pigs, vegetables, cider, and other products for direct sale to the (2.TOWN) ______. The High Street Market was continuously (3.LARGE)_________ throughout the period until 1736, when it reached from Front street to Third. By 1745 New Market was opened on Second Street between Pine and Cedar. The next year the Callowhill Market began operation. Along with market days, the institution of twice-yearly fairs persisted in Philadelphia even after similar trading days had been (4.CONTINUE) __________ in other colonial cities. The fairs provided a means of bringing (5.HAND)__________ goods from outlying places to would-be buyers in the city. Linens and stockings from Germantown, for example, were popular items. Auctions were another popular form of occasional trade. Because of the competition, retail merchants opposed these as well as the fairs. Although (6.GOVERNMENT) _____________ attempts to eradicate fairs and auctions were less than successful, the ordinary course of economic development was on the merchants' side, as increasing business specialization became the order of the day. Export merchants became (7. DIFFERENCE)_____ from their importing counterparts, and (8. SPECIAL)_________ shops began to appear in addition to general stores selling a variety of goods. One of the reasons Philadelphia's merchants generally (9.PROSPERITY)_______ was because the surrounding area was (10.GO)________ tremendous economic and demographic growth. They did their business, after all, in the capital city of the province. Not only did they cater to the governor and his circle, but citizens from all over the colony came to the capital for legislative sessions of the assembly and council and meetings of the courts of justice. PART 3. READING COMPREHENSION (60ps) I. CLOZE TEST (15ps) Letter to the editor. The Prime Minister’s comments yesterday on education spending (1)…… the point, as the secondary education system also needs a major overhaul. Firstly, the system only views the weakest learners as having special needs. The brightest and most conscientious students are not encouraged to develop to their full (2)…... Secondly, there’s too much testing and not enough learning. My fifteen-year-old daughter, for example, has just spent the last month or so (3) …… for exams. These aren’t even real, important exams, as her GCSEs will be next year. They’re just (4) …… exams. Is the work she’s been doing really going to make her more knowledgeable about her subjects, or will she forget it all tomorrow? I suspect the (5)…... Thirdly, the standard (6) …… doesn’t give students any tuition in developing practical work-related, (7)…… and social skills, or in skills necessary for higher Page 5/12

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education. How many students entering university have the first idea what the difference is between (8) …… someone else’s work and (9)…… good use of someone else’s ideas? Shouldn’t they have been taught this at school? How many of them are really able to go about (10) ……. – a skill that’s essential at university because there are no teachers to tell you what to do – in an efficient way? Indeed, how many students graduate from university totally unable to spell even simple English words correctly? The system is letting our children down. 1. a. lose b. escape c. miss d. fail 2. a. capacity b. ability c. achievement d. potential 3. a. cramming b. lecturing c. reading d. practising 4. a. false b. mock c. fake d. artificial 5. a. latter b. frontier c. later d. second 6. a. timetable b. lecture c. seminar d. curriculum 7. a. life b. alive c. living d. live 8. a. writing b. going over c. plagiarising d. repeating 9. a. taking b. making c. having d. creating 10.a. reviewing b. revision c. distance learning d. self-study II. Fill in each gap with one suitable word (15ps) The knowledge and eloquence that people gain through travelling is usually perceived (1)…… the best fulfillment in life. It is the inquisitive human nature that impels people to seek thrilling experiences and to set out on an exploration trip. (2) ............... who travel frequently and to diverse places benefit from establishing new relationships and (3)……a better knowledge about other cultures and lifestyles. However, there is a grain of truth in the assumption that people are prone to cherishing clichés and unfounded prejudices about other nations and their characteristics. Sometimes, it is only the first-hand encounter (4)……... can help change the approach towards the socalled 'inferior communities'. This direct (5)……with a different civilization enables travelers to drop their baseless assumptions and get acquainted with the real concept of life in all four (6)……of the globe. Beyond question, travelling facilitates friendship and makes (7)……easier for many individuals to acknowledge the true value of different traditions and customs. Yet, it does not always (8)……enjoyment. It (9)……also involve coming close with the atrocities of real existence as well as becoming aware of the challenges and hardships that other people have to struggle with. Hence, a true voyage is the one with a good (10) .............. of experience to reminisce about, very often combined with exposure to abhorrent sights and incredible ordeals. The learning to be complete, thus, requires an ability to observe and analyze the surroundings, both their glamour and brutality. III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer for each of the questions below. (15ps) The World and Its Global Economy The world as man knows it today is getting smaller and smaller because of technology such as the Internet and high speed modems. In fact, on March 3, 2005, a man flew entirely around the globe without refueling or stopping in a one-person jet. The world is changing the world, and as the 21st century continues, the global economy will play a larger and larger role. As Thomas Friedman so eloquently put it in Lexus Page 6/12

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and the Olive Tree, globalization is “the inexorable integration of markets, nationstates, and technologies to a degree never witnessed before.” [A] With today’s technology it is possible for people to solicit business from the far side of the globe. [B] A company like Dell Computers can order parts from several different countries, take shipment in North Carolina where the new computer will be assembled, and then ship them to all regions of the globe. [C] An American oil firm can do a satellite survey in Siberia for oil deposits and then contract with a Russian oil firm to drill the actual well, while the petroleum engineer, acting as the project supervisor, remains in the US and runs the project by using a computer, a high speed Internet connection, and a cellular telephone for quick questions. [D] A global economy poses some serious problems. If the company doesn’t act fast enough, it can lose, and if the company loses heavily, what will happen to the employees working for the company, and then in turn what will happen to the stores that depend on those employees buying their goods? As can be seen, there is a definite trickle-down effect. How is the child who is about to graduate from high school supposed to decide on what career field to enter? A career field that is here today might gone long before the child can graduate from college, so not only does it become vital that a person gain the needed knowledge to enter a given career field, but the person also needs to learn how to learn. Learning how to learn may prove to be given more necessary than the knowledge needed to enter a given career field. A person who is good at learning how to learn can quickly adapt to changes in the global economy by quickly preparing to enter other career fields if his job is here today, but gone in the morning. If the world turns into a global economy, a person will need to be able to get along and work with people from different cultural backgrounds. However, unless a person has spent time living in different parts of the world, this might be hard to do. While many students from foreign countries, especially the Asian countries, come to the US to earn a graduate degree, how many students from the US spend even a semester abroad studying in another country? The answer to this question is of course a very small percentage. While individuals from some of foreign countries and some individuals from the US and the US economy will adjust to globalization, will the rest of the world? Mass media are more than willing to continue to stir the pot of controversy as they not only have to learn how to report the positive news, but also dole out a continuous stream of negative news. When a person in a developing country sees all the cars on the streets of Bejing, of course that person wants a car so he can show his neighbour how wealthy he is, and all this does is promote unneeded consumption. Why does the person who has nowhere to go and no money to spend for travel want to own a car? The simple answer is because the media paint owning a car as a symbol of wealth and it is human nature to want to become wealthy or at least to appear wealthy. On the positive side, as prices rise due to increased demands on scarce resources, there will be an incentive to find affordable alternatives. For example, as the price of oil rises and along with it the price of a gallon of gasoline, a point will be reached at which people are no longer willing to purchase gasoline so they can drive their cars, and they will demand both alternative transportation methods and cars which use Page 7/12

another source of energy. A current online survey says $ 2.50 per gallon of gasoline is the point at which the people in the US will start making demands on the auto manufacturer, which will open up new career fields in a few countries that have the technology needed to meet the demands; however, people around the globe will work together on it.

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1. The word inexorable in the passage is closest in meaning to a. Upward b. recent c. inevitable d. preposterous 2. The word solicit in the passage is closest meaning to a. lure b. sell c. help d. ask for 3. The word them in the passage refers to a. parts b. the new computers c. all regions d. several different countries 4. According to paragraph 2, what can be inferred about the role of a project supervisor? a. to make sure the project is finished correctly and on time b. to hand-check each of the steps in a project c. to assign each of the items that needs to be done in a project d. to talk to everyone in a daily basis 5. Based on the information in paragraph 3, which of the following best explains the trickle-down effect? a. Water runs downhill. b. What happens at the top eventually affects those at the bottom. c. The people who have things get more and those without anything continue to go without. d. If a person gets yelled at when he is at work, he should go home and kick the furniture since it will make him feel better. 6. According to the passage, people need to learn how to learn, otherwise a. they will not move from the first grade to the second grade in elementary school b. they will not be able to work in the same job throughout college c. they will not be able to switch from one career to another as the global economy changes d. they will not be able to graduate from college and become a member of the global economy 7. In paragraph 3, why does the author mention the phrase “If his job is here today, but gone in the morning”? a. To suggest that he is going to lose his job in the morning Page 8/12

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b. To give an example of losing the job when he has reached the mandatory retirement age. c. To explain that he is a part time worker and only works when the company needs him d. To support the claim that learning how to learn is important to a person. 8. Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the sentence in italics in the passage? a. The mass media are like a witch stirring her cauldron. b. The mass media always report the truth since this keeps the ratings up and brings in the most advertising revenue. c. The mass media will report half-truths if it will keep their ratings up so they can sell advertising. d. The mass media report every angle of a story since reports are apolitical and never present only one viewpoint. 9. In paragraph 5, what can be inferred from the description of the media about owning a car? a. A car needs to be painted certain colors if it is going to show others a person is wealthy. b. The media are so biased that they will provide paint if a person needs to paint his car so as to project the car as a symbol of wealth c. The media slant the stories, so it will appear to viewers that only wealthy people own a car. d. The members of the media don’t own cars, so they are jealous of those wealthy people who do own cars. 10. Look at [A] [B] [C] [D] that indicate where the following sentence could be added to the passage: E-businesses will be the lucrative businesses in the future since they are available to everyone with an Internet connection. Where would the sentence best fit? [A] [B] [C] [D] IV. You are going to read an article about Taekwondo. Choose the most suitable

heading from the list A – H for each part of the article. Here is one extra heading

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which you do not need to use . Write your answers in the numbered blanks

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provided below. ( 7 pts) Taekwondo

A. People take up Taekwondo for a variety of reasons B. You should be careful when you are deciding where to learn it. C. Some people are changing to Taekwondo from another martial art. D. The colour for each grade has its own particular Page 9/12

meaning. E. All students promise never to misuse what they learn. F. It is a safe activity if you take plenty of care. G. We are not certain where the art of self-defence began.

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H. It is a unique and increasingly popular activity. 1

Taekwondo is the Korean name for the ‘ art of foot and hand fighting’. There is no

other martial art style like it and none is so enjoyable in its freedom of expression.

Jumping and spinning in the air and striking out with hands and feet are its special

characteristics. These can be wonderful to perform and great to watch. Today there are

more than twenty million practitioners of Taekwondo and the numbers are growing

quickly.

The history of the martial arts is the subject of much discussion and there are many

theories concerning its origins. China, Japan, Korean and India all have strong claims to the beginnings of unarmed combat, while fighting skills were a natural development

throughout the world for self- protection. Taekwondo itself began in Korean, a country

which has a tradition of martial arts that goes back more than two thousand years.

If you have visited a traditional Karate class and found it too formal or even military in

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its approach, you will recognize that Taekwondo is more modern in the way things are done. None of the politeness or discipline you would expect in a martial arts club is missing, but there is an air of enjoyment. Mna people who previously did Karate are

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now training in Taekwondo as its many ways more progressive, more dynamic, more

exciting and more entertaining. 4

Beginners are often attracted by what is an enjoyable, physical form of recreation with the added benefit of self- defence and increased self- confidence. For some

the

fascination of learning techniques and performing them to exacting standards, Page 10/12

combined with a high level of fitness, speed and strength, may be what appeals. Others enjoy being a part of a disciplined group of people of both sexes, all ages and from many different backgrounds who can work together and help achieve their aims. It is not unusual to find a 12-year-old girl or a 70-year-old man wearing a Black Belt. 5

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To reach that level takes years of hard work. Your first belt is white, which shows the

innocence of the student who has no previous knowledge of Taekwondo. If you pass

your first grading exam, you receive a yellow belt. This represents the Earth, where a plant takes root as the Taekwondo foundation is being laid. The next grade is green, symbolizing the plant’s growth as skills begin to develop. This is followed by blue: the

plant is now maturing arid growing towards heaven as training progresses. Then comes red, meaning danger, cautioning self- control to the student and warning the

opponent to stay away. Finally there is black, meaning maturity and proficiency in

Taekwondo. It also indicates the wearer’s conquest of darkness and fear.

The first thing to learn, though, is that Taekwondo is a martial art to be practiced with control. Careless practice or fooling around can lead to injury. Strict rules of conduct

and close attention to them will help keep injuries to a minimum, particularly when

you are training one-to one with another student. In all combat situations like this you

will have to wear thick gloves and padded boots to avoid damaging either yourself or

your opponent, and – depending on the club you join – you may also need to wear a

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helmet and a chest protector. 7

In a good club there should be a feeling of friendliness. The pace may be fast and the

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training might be tough at times, but nobody should be getting hurt. Sit in on a class,

see if people are enjoying themselves and have a look at who is there. If the club has been going for a few years there should be, apart from the instructor, some other high grades – Blue, Red and Black Belts – practicing, because there is always more to learn. From Black Belt 1st Dan you can go further still, possibly reaching 5th, 6th or even higher Dans after many years’ training. Page 11/12

Your answers: 1.

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Use NO MORE THAN THREE words taken from paragraphs 5,6,7 to fill in the following sentences (3ps) 8. In Taekwondo, the first belt is white, which shows the ___________ of the student who has no previous knowledge of Taekwondo. 9. The two factors which help keep injuries to a minimum are strict _____________ and close attention to them, particularly when you are training one-to-one with another student. 10. The pace may be fast and the training is probably ____________, but nobody should be getting hurt.

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IV. WRITING (40ps) I. SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION (20ps) 61. Bruce said that the situation at work was like a family argument. (LIKENED) ………………………………………………………………………………… 62. Not many people attended the concert. (POORLY) ………………………………………………………………………………… 63. They arrived at their destination alive and kicking. (SOUND) ………………………………………………………………………………… 64. At this moment I only have time to think about my university thesis. (PREOCCUPIED) ………………………………………………………………………………… 65. It’s a waste of time to try and explain anything to Tony. (WORTH) ………………………………………………………………………………… 66. Our boss is absolutely determined not to give us that pay rise. (INTENT) Our boss …………………………………………………………. the pay rise. 67. The value of sterling has fallen considerably in the past week. There …………………………………………………………………………… 68. Suppose we make no changes at all for the time being? What …………………………………………………………………………… 69. It’s rumored that we will have a new manager. Rumor has ……………………………………………………………………... 70. My salary is half what I would be in the job I was offered in January. If……………………………………………………………………………… II. Write a paragraph of about 150 to 200 words expressing your opinion on the following topic: (20ps) Should students do voluteer work?

---THE END--Page 12/12

ĐÁP ÁN MÔN TIẾNG ANH: KHỐI 10 TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN HOÀNG VĂN THỤ- HÒA BÌNH NĂM 2017

II. Listen and choose the best answer (10ps) 1. B

2. B

3. C

4. C

5. A

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PART 1. LISTENING (50ps) I. You will hear some advice from a British programme adviser. Listen to the first part of the talk to fill in the gaps with relevant words in the notes below (10pts) 1. officer 2. helpful 3. information 4. in advance 5. instructions Listen to the second part, indicate whether the following statements are true (T), false ( F) or not given by writing (NG). (10pts) 6. F 7. T 8. NG 9. F 10. F

III. Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND / OR A NUMBER for each answer. (20 points) 1. cycling trip 2. inhospitable terrain 3. puzzled 4. afford 5. explosive expansion 6. 41,000km 7. sustainable 8. choosing two wheels 9. almost doubled 10. riding to work

2. B 6. C 10. A 14. A 18. B

3. B 7. A 11. D 15. C 19. C

4. C 8. B 12.C 16. B 20. D

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1. C 5. A 9.C 13.D 17. D

PART 2. LEXICO & GRAMMAR (50ps) I. Choose the best answer (20ps)

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limiting …………… …………… loss to developing …………… ……………

purely …………… …………… chemical …………… Another …………… as moisture …………… …………… bacteria

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desert environments. Some involve pure mechanical and physical adaptations, such as the shape of the plant’s surface, smaller leaf size, and extensive root systems. Some of the adaptations are related to chemistry mechanisms. Many plants, such as cacti, have internal gums and mucilages which give them water-retaining properties. Other chemical mechanism is that of the epicuticular wax layer. This wax layer acts like an impervious cover to protect the plant. It prevents excessive loss of internal moist. It also protects the plant from external aggression, which can come from inorganic agents such as gases, or organic agents which include bacterium and plant pets.

III. Fill in each gap with one suitable preposition or particle (10ps) 3.around

6.out

7.through

8.up

4.away

5.off

9.on

10. out

2.against

1.up

2. townspeople

3. enlarged

4. discontinued 5. handmade

6. governmental

7. differentiated

8. specialty

9. prospered

10. undergoing

PART 3. READING COMPREHENSION (60ps) I. CLOZE TEST (15ps) 1. c 2. d 3. a

4. b

5. a

6. d

9. b

10. d

II. Fill in each gap with one suitable word (15ps) 1. as 2. Those 3. acquiring

4. that

5. contact

6. corners

9. may

10. deal

7. c

7. it

8. c

8. mean

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1. increasingly

IV. Complete the following passage with the correct forms of the words given (10ps)

III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer for each of the questions below. (15ps) 1. c 2. d 3. b 4. a 5. b Page 14/12

6. c

7. d

8. c

9. c

10. a

IV. You are going to read an article about Taekwondo. Choose the most suitable heading from the list A – H for each part of the article. Here is one extra heading which you do not need to use . Write your answers in the numbered blanks 1- H 2- G

3- C

4- A

8. innocence

9. rules of conduct

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provided below. (10 pts) 5- D

6- F

7- B

10. tough at times

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PART 4. WRITING (40ps) I. SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION (20ps) 1. Bruce likened the situation at work to a family argument. 2. The concert was poorly attended. 3. They arrived at their destination safe and sound. 4. At this moment, I am preoccupied with my university thesis. 5. It is not worth trying to explain anything to Tony. 6. Our boss is intent on not giving (us) the pay rise. 7. There has been a considerable fall in the value of sterling in the past week. 8. What if we make no changes at all for the time being? 9. Rumor has it that we will have a new manager. 10. If I had taken/accepted the job I was offered in January, I would be on twice the salary I am now/I would be earning twice as much as I am now. II. Write a paragraph of about 150 to 200 words to express your opinion on the following topic: (20ps) Should students do voluteer work?

Page 15/12

TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN LÀO CAI TỔ: NGOẠI NGỮ ----------

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ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT KỲ THI DUYÊN HẢI BẮC BỘ NĂM HỌC 2016-2017. Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH KHỐI 10 Ngày tháng 4 năm 2017 Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) (Đề thi gồm có 16 trang)

Lưu ý: Thí sinh làm bài trên tờ giấy thi

I. LISTENING (50pts)

Part 1: You are going to hear a conversation between a hotel receptionist and a customer who has come to make a booking. Complete the table below with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. (10pts) (1) ………………………….

Number of rooms to book:

(2) ………………………….

Price inclusive of:

(3) …………………………..

Full name:

(4) …………………………..

Length of stay:

(5) …………………………

Post code:

273, Stanton Court, London.

Address:

Part 2: You will hear part of an interview with an actress who is talking about her recent work. Choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. (10pts)

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1. What does Jenny say about the last six months of her life? A. She feels she doesn't belong in this showbiz world. B. She's had too much to learn. C. She's been incredibly busy. D. I has been a little in awe

2. Why does Jenny use the football metaphor when talking about the cast of her new movie? A. to give an idea of teamwork. B. to show how hard they have all been working on the film. C. to say something about the plot of the film. D. to say how attractive it is.

3. And how does she view her role in the football team when asked? A. the mother of the group. B. the serious one. Page 1 of 16

C. the goal keeper D. a minor, supporting role.

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4. How did she find working with a famous actor on the film set? A. she was determined not to let it affect her work. B. she felt relaxed around him. C. she didn't find him very professional. D. She felt rather nervous.

Your answers: …………… 4.

…………… 5.

……………

1. …………… 2. …………… 3.

5. Why was Jenny criticized for her comments about Broadway? B. she was only repeating something she had previously stated. A. she was too aggressive in her comments about Broadway. B. she said that there weren’t enough women working on Broadway. C. she was too aggressive in her comments about Broadway. D. she shouldn't have criticized something she profits off herself.

Part 3: You will hear a talk about biofuels and the environment. Listen and decide the following statements are True (T) or False (F. (10pts).

6. A few people are worried about the boom in biofuels. 7. Biofuel producers might not know about the possible problems. 8. Environmentalists believe that increased production of corn and soya will lead to the destruction of rain forests. 9. Biofuels might have little or no impact on food prices. 10. The author of the report says that biofuels should be part of a group of measures to fight global warming. Your answers:

…………… 7.

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…………… 8.

…………… 9.

…………… 10. ……………

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Part 4: You will hear a talk about Australian domestic travel. Listen and complete the following sentences. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS FOR EACH GAP. (20pts).

Industries that benefit from tourism (11) ……………….., (12) ……………… and (13) ……………… 14. The state or territory in which the highest number of overnight trips was made was ..................... 15. The state or territory in which the lowest number of overnight trips was made was ..................... Page 2 of 16

16. People travelling from state to state spent more than those travelling .....................

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The TWO cheapest states or territories to travel to were (17).................... and (18)..................... 19. The category of people who spent the most on travel in Australia in 2002 were ……………. 20. The category who spent the most on souvenirs were ……………………….. Your answers:

11. …………… 12. …………… 13. …………… 14. …………… 15. …………… 16. …………… 17. …………… 18. …………… 19. …………… 20. ……………

PART II: GRAMMAR & VOCABULARY (50pts) I. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each blank in the following sentences. (20pts). A. thinly

B. sparsely

C. mildly

1. The old house was ____________ furnished and we had to buy almost everything new. D. rarely

B. untidy

C. rusty

A. fluent

2. He was given the France post even though his French is decidedly ____________. D. disheveled

B. cook up

C. lead over

D. reason out

A. boil down

3. The company has a lot of problems but they all seem to ____________ to money.

B. pull up

A. pull through

4. Old Mr. Brown’s condition looks very serious and it is doubtful if he will_________. C. pull back

D. pull out

5. This ticket _______ you to a free meal in our new restaurant. B. entitles

A. confers

C. grants

D. credits

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6. Making private calls on the office phone is severely _________ on in our department. A frowned

B criticized

C regarded

D objected

7. The government has made no ___________ in the fight against inflation; indeed, the

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situation has worsened recently. A headway

B effect

C avail

D triumph

8. He was so mean that he couldn’t bear to _________ the smallest sum of money for the charity appeal. A pay off

B part with

C give in

D let out

9. It had been a trying afternoon, __________ at about six o’clock in the television breaking down. Page 3 of 16

A leading

B culminating

C arriving

D finalizing

10. Dr Smith uses student volunteers as _________ for his experiments. A subjects

B models

C cases

D agents

11. Wasn’t it yourself ________the door open? A. to leave

B. to have left

C. who left

D. that should leave

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12. My cousin was nervous about being interviewed on television, but she rose to the ______wonderfully. A. event

B. performance

C. incident

D. occasion

13. The train service has been a ______ since they introduced the new schedules. A. shambles

B. rumpus

C. chaos

D. fracas

A. capable

B. skilled

14. Is an inexperienced civil servant ________to the task of running the company? C. eligible

D. suited

B. jumbled

C. mixed

16. The storm ripped our tent to _______ B. shreds

C. strips

A. slices

D. muddled

A. puzzled

15. John’s got very _______feelings about taking on more responsibility at the moment.

D. specks

17. When he examined the gun the detective’s suspicion turned into ________. B confirmation

C reality

A certainty

D conclusion

B that

A it

18. Few pleasures can equal __________ of a cool drink on a hot day. C such

D this

19. I’ll just __________ an eye over these figures before you type them. B fling

A cast

C toss

D throw

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20. His emotional problems_________ from the attitudes he encountered as child, I think. B flourish

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A stem

C root

D sprout

…………… 2.

…………… 3.

…………… 4.

…………… 5.

Your answers: …………… 7.

…………… 8.

…………… 9.

…………… 10. ……………

……………

11. …………… 12. …………… 13. …………… 14. …………… 15. …………… 16. …………… 17. …………… 18. …………… 19. …………… 20. ……………

Page 4 of 16

II. The passage below contains 10 mistakes. IDENTIFY and CORRECT them. Write your answers in the space provided in the column on the right. (10pts) … had no alternative but to plead guilty over the charges. The Minister was

cautioned and fined $1,000 for disturbing the peace.

And finally, the police, acted on a tip-off, arrested Ben Nutt and Tito

Anderson yesterday in a downtown Miami hotel. The two men has been on

the run for three weeks following Nutt’s dramatic escape from Miami State

Penitentiary. Anderson, on trying for the bank robbery at the time Nutt

broke out of prison, allegedly mastermind his cousin’s escape. Nutt was

convicted of fraud six months ago and sentenced to ten years in prison. He

did a sensation at his trial where, having been found guilty of the charges

brought against him, he vowed that when he was released from prison he

would personally ‘deal with’ those people who had testified against him.

Fortunately, one of the witnesses appeared in the court during Nutt’s trial

was harmed while the two men were at the loose. An inquiry into Nutt’s

escape is to be held on …

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CORRECTION

LINE MISTAKE 7 8

9 10

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3 5

CORRECTION

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Your answers: LINE MISTAKE

III. Fill each blank with a suitable preposition. (10pts) 1. Before the ship could move ……….., the crew had to wait for a late passenger. 2. The doctor was called ……………. urgently while at the party. Page 5 of 16

3. I was so tired last night that I dropped …………… in front of the TV. 4. And he made…………….. with all the money he had been given. 5. To help your heart Mr. Jones, I suggest you keep …………… all fatty foods for a few months. 6. Kathy was two hours late and we had to stand …………… in the cold waiting for her.

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7. There were two pilots on the flight to Australia and they changed ………….. after half the flight was completed.

8. If the children play………….. while we are out Kathy, put them to bed and don't let them watch TV in their rooms, OK?

9. I have a splitting headache and I certainly don't feel ……………… to going to watch a

concert.

10. It seemed unfair that my father would return home from work exhausted and take it

………on us poor children. That's what I remember most from my childhood.

Your answers:

…………… 4.

…………… 5.

6. …………… 7. …………… 8.

…………… 9.

…………… 10. ……………

……………

1. …………… 2. …………… 3.

IV. Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word in the numbered spaces provided. (10pts). What kind of (0) ……educational…. Experience and background should EDUCATION

we be giving our children? In a (1) ……………………..western economy, COMPETE they need to be well-informed and (2)……………… In a complex ever- KNOW

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changing modern world, it is (3) …………….that the task of preparing the ARGUE next generation cannot be carried out within the (4) TRADITION

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……………….classroom framework, because acquiring a proper education in this way is simply (5) …………….. This is where computer-aided POSSIBLE

learning steps in, providing children with the skills that they will need in tomorrow’s world, in a one-to-one learner-centered environment. There are those who claim, however, that (6) ……………exposure to computers

EXCEED

may prove to be harmful rather than (7) ………………..to children and

BENEFIT

that it is more (8) ……………..for education to take place in the

PRODUCE Page 6 of 16

classroom. They say that, although computers seem to hold a(n) (9) RESIST ……………….. appeal for some people, particularly young children, it is (10) …………….for children to have a person, rather than a machine, for a PREFER teacher.

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Your answers: 1. …………… 2. …………… 3.

…………… 4.

…………… 5.

6. …………… 7. …………… 8.

…………… 9.

…………… 10. ……………

……………

PART III: READING (60pts) I. Choose the word that best fits each of the blanks in the following passage. Write your answers in the numbered box. (15pts) Saving Latin

Try telling the Reverend Reginald Foster that Lantin is a dead language. The response

will be an 1. ________ rant from a teacher who has dedicated a large 2.______of his life to

keeping the forerunner of the English and Romance languages alive. A man on a mission, he speaks only in Latin to his students, 3.________the language to life with his dramatic

recitations.

But Reverend Foster is not alone. Latin plays a special part in Italian cultural heritage,

and politicians and academics have 4. ________concerns that enthusiasm for Latin in

schools appears to be on the 5.________because of the popularity of English. Some purists

even feel this is 6.______their national 7. ______. They have a point; in my experience Italians seem obsessed with using English words, and will 8._________an English word into

a sentence even when a perfectly good native word will 9.__________.

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But need we really fear for Latin just yet? Maybe not. Even if it is on its last

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10._______, it has survived for over 2,000 years. B. impassive

C. unenthusiastic

D. apathetic

2. A. volume

B. chapter

C. act

D. scene

3. A. getting

B. putting

C. bringing

D. setting

4. A. conveyed

B. voiced

C. uttered

D. sounded

5. A. wane

B. fall

C. ebb

D. drop

6. A. deteriorating

B. eroding

C. disintegrating

D. eating

1. A. impassioned

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7. A. advancement

B. ontogenesis

C. retrogression

D. identity

8. A. slip

B. push

C. cast

D. post

9. A. answer

B. satisfy

C. suffice

D. content

10. A. laughs

B. leases

C. lengths

D. legs

Your answers: 1. …………… 2.

…………… 3.

…………… 4.

…………… 8.

…………… 9.

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…………… 7.

…………… 5.

……………

…………… 10. ……………

II. Fill each blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answers in the numbered blanks provided below the passage. (15pts)

The early years of MTV

The popular TV music channel MTV was launched in 1981 in the US 0. __with__ the

intention of playing 1.______ but music videos. It was a brilliant marketing concept, as it

came at little cost while 2.____extremely attractive to record companies and advertisers.

The videos were guided by an air-host 3. _______ as a VJ-the term is a conflation of

‘video’ and ‘disc jockey’. The VJs are now a 4.________of the past, but 5._________their heyday, they were MTV, attaining cult status. It was 6._________presenters on the station

that Russell Brand and Alex Zane got their career breaks.

MTV changed the way we experience music: we 7._______ records instead of just

listening to them. Record companies were quick to appreciate this, and acts such as Madona and Boy George, 8._________appeal was as much about their good looks 9._______their

music, went global. Such 10._________the music video’s impact that film directors at the

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height of their careers were attracted to the medium.

…………… 3.

…………… 4.

…………… 5.

…………… 8.

…………… 9.

…………… 10. ……………

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Your answers: 1. …………… 2.

…………… 7.

……………

III. In this part of the test, you are going to read a short text, then answer the questions following each text by choosing the best answer to each question A,B,C or D. (15pts.)

Page 8 of 16

Continents and ocean basins represent the largest identifiable bodies on Earth. On the solid portions of the planet, the second most prominent features are flat plains, elevated plateaus, and large mountain ranges. In geography, the term "continent" refers to the surface of continuous landmasses that together comprise about 29.2% of the planet's surface. On the other hand, another definition is prevalent in the general use of the term that deals with

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extensive mainlands, such as Europe or Asia that actually represent one very large landmass.

Although all continents are bounded by water bodies or high mountain ranges, isolated mainlands, such as Greenland and India-Pakistan areas are called subcontinents. In some

circles, the distinction between continents and large islands lies almost exclusively in the size of a particular landmass.

The analysis of compression and tension in the earth's crust has determined that continental structures are composed of layers that underlie continental shelves. A great deal

of disagreement among geologists surrounds the issue of exactly how many layers underlie

each landmass because of their distinctive mineral and chemical composition. It is also quite

possible that the ocean floor rests on the top of unknown continents that have not yet been

explored. The continental crust is believed to have been formed by means of a chemical reaction when, lighter materials separated from heavier ones, thus settling at various levels

within the crust. Assisted by the measurements of the specifics within crust formations by

means of monitoring earthquakes, geologists can speculate that a chemical split occurred to

form the atmosphere, sea water, and the crust before it solidified many centuries ago. Although each continent has its special features, all consist of various combinations of

components that include shields, mountain belts, intracratonic basins, margins, volcanic

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plateaus, and block vaulted belts. The basic differences among continents lie in the proportion and the composition of these features relative to the continent size. Climatic zones

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have a crucial effect on the weathering and formation of the surface features, soil erosion, soil deposition, land formation, vegetation, and human activities.

Mountain belts are elongated narrow zones that have a characteristic folded sedimentary organization of layers. They are typically produced during substantial crustal movements, which generate faulting and mountain building. When continental margins collide, the rise of a marginal edge leads to the formation of large mountain ranges, as explained by the

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plate tectonic theory. This process also accounts for the occurrence of mountain belts in ocean basins and produces evidence for the ongoing continental plate evolution. 1. What does this passage mainly discuss? A. Continental drift and division

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B. Various' definitions of the term "continent" C. Continental structure and crust D. Scientific analyses of continental crusts

2. According to the passage, how do scientists define continents? A. As masses of land without divisions

B. As extensive bodies of land C. As the largest identifiable features

D. As surficial compositions and ranges

3. In the passage, the word "bounded" is closest in meaning to

A. covered

B. convened C. delimited

D. dominated

4. The author of the passage implies that the disagreement among scientists is based on the

fact that

A. each continent has several planes and shelves

B. continents have various underlying layers of crust

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C. continents undergo compression and experience tension D. continents have different chemical makeup

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5. The word "specifics" in the passage is closest in meaning to A. specialties

B. speculations C. exact details D. precise movements 6. The word "it" in the passage refers to

A. a chemical split Page 10 of 16

B. the crust C. the atmosphere D. sea water 7. The author of the passage implies that B. geologists have neglected the exploration of the ocean floor C. scientists have concentrated on monitoring earthquakes , D. the earth's atmosphere split into water and solids

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A. it is not known exactly how the continental crust was formed

8. According to the passage, what are the differences in the structure of continents? A. The proportional size of continents to one another C. The distinctive features of their elements

D. Climatic zones and their effect' on the surface features

B. Ratios of major components and their comparative size

9. In the passage, the phrase "This process" refers to

A. continental collision

B. mountain ranges D. plate tectonic theory

C. the rise of margins

10. The author of the passage implies that

A. the process of mountain formation has not been accounted for B. mountain ranges on the ocean floor lead to surface mountain building.

C. faulting and continental margins are parts of plate edges

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D. the process of continent formation has not been completed Your answers:

…………… 2.

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1. 6.

…………… 7.

…………… 3.

…………… 4.

…………… 5.

…………… 8.

…………… 9.

…………… 10. ……………

……………

IV. Read the text and do the following tasks. (15 points) For questions 1-6, choose the correct heading for paragraphs A-F from the list of headings below. I. Differences between languages highlight their impressiveness Page 11 of 16

II. The way in which a few sounds are organised to convey a huge range of meaning III. Why the sounds used in different languages are not identical IV. Apparently incompatible characteristics of language VI. Why language is the most important invention of all VII. The universal ability to use language 1. Paragraph A ____________ 2. Paragraph B ____________ 3. Paragraph C ____________

4. Paragraph D ____________

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V. Even silence can be meaningful

5. Paragraph E ____________

6. Paragraph F ____________

THIS MARVELOUS INVENTION

A. Of all mankind’s manifold creations, language must take pride of place. Other

inventions-the wheel, agriculture, sliced bread-may have transformed our material existence, but the advent of language is what made us human. Compared to language, all other

inventions pale in significance, since everything we have ever achieved depends on language

and originates from it. Without language, we could never have embarked on our ascent to

unparalleled power over all other animals, and even over nature itself. B. But language is foremost not just because it came first. In its own right it is a tool of

extraordinary sophistication, yet based on an idea of ingenious simplicity: ‘this marvelous

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invention of composing out of twenty-five or thirty sounds that infinite variety of expressions which, whilst having in themselves no likeness to what is in our mind, allow us to disclose to

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others its whole secret, and to make known to those who cannot penetrate it all that we imagine, and all the various stirrings of our soul’. This was how, in 1660, the renowned

French grammarians of the Port-Royal abbey near Versailles distilled the essence of language, and no one since has celebrated more eloquently the magnitude of its achievement. Even so, there is just one flaw in all these hymns of praise, for the homage to language’s unique accomplishment conceals a simple yet critical incongruity. Language is mankind’s

Page 12 of 16

greatest invention-except, of course, that it was never invented. This apparent paradox is at the core of our fascination with language, and it holds many of its secrets. C. Language often seems so skillfully drafted that one can hardly imagine it as anything other than the perfect handiwork of a master craftsman. How else could this instrument make so much out of barely three dozen measly morsels of sound? In themseves,

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these configurations of mouth-p,f,b,v,t,d,k,g,h,sh,a,e and so on-amount to nothing more thana few haphazard spits and splutters, random noises with no meaning, no ability to express, no power to explain. But run them through the cogs and wheels of the language machine let it arrange them in some very special orders, and there is nothing that these meaningless streams

of air cannot do: from sighing the interminable boredom of existence to unravelling the

fundamental order of the universe.

D. The most extraordinary thing about language, however, is that one doesn’t have to

be a genius to set its wheels in motion. The language machine allows just about everybody-

from pre-modern foragers in the subtropical savannah, to post-modern philosophers in the

suburban sprawl- to tie these meaningless sounds together into an infinite variety of subtle

sense, and all apparently without the slightest exertion. Yet it is precisely this deceptive ease which makes language a victim of its own success, since in everyday life its triumphs are

usually taken for granted. The wheels of language run so smoothly that one rarely bothers to

stop and think about all the resourcefulness and expertise that must have gone into making it

tick. Language conceals art.

E. Often, it is only the estrangement of foreign tongues, with their many exotic and

outlandish features, that brings home the wonder of language’s design. One of the showiest

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stunts that some languages can pull off is an ability to build up words of breath-taking length, and thus express in one word what English takes a whole sentence to say. The Turkish word

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sehirlilistiremediklerimizdensiniz, to take one example, means nothing less than ‘you are one of those whom we can’t turn into a town-dweller’. (In case you were wondering, this

monstrosity really is one word, not merely many different words squashed together-most of its components cannot even stand up on their own.) F. And if that sounds like some one-off freak, then consider Sumerian, the language spoken on the banks of the Euphrates some 5,000 years ago by the people who invented writing and thus enabled the documentation of history. A Sumerian word like munintuma’a Page 13 of 16

(‘when he had made it suitable for her’) might seem rather trim compared to the Turkish colossus above. What is so impressive about it, however, is not its lengthiness but rather the reverse-the thrifty compactness of its construction. The word is made up of different slots, each corresponding to a particular portion of meaning. This sleek design allows single sounds to convey useful information, and in fact even the absence of a sound has been

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enlisted to express something specific. If you were to ask which bit in the Sumerian word

corresponds to the pronoun ‘it’ in the English translation ‘when he had made it suitable for her’, then the answer would have to be nothing. Mind you, a very particular kind of nothing:

the nothing that stands in the empty slot in the middle. The technology is so fine-tuned then that even a non-sound, when carefully placed in a particular position, has been invested with

a specific function. Who could possibly have come up with such a nifty contraption? Questions 7-10: Complete the summary using the list of words, A-G, below. B. complex

C. original

E. material

F. easy

G. fundamental

D. admired

A. difficult

THE IMPORTANCE OF LANGUAGE The wheel is one invention that has had impact on 7.___________aspects of life, but no

impact has been as 8.__________as that of language. Language is very 9.___________, yet

composed of just a small number of sounds. Language appears to be 10._______to use.

…………… 7.

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…………… 3.

…………… 4.

…………… 5.

…………… 8.

…………… 9.

…………… 10. ……………

Your answers: 1. …………… 2.

However, its sophistication is often overlooked. ……………

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PART IV: WRITING (40p.) I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it. (10pts). 1. The director’s bodyguards stood behind him, watching. Watchfully …………………………………………………………………. 2. We must think about ways of improving the transport system. Thought must ………………………………………………………………. 3. I hadn’t realized the full implications of what had happened until some time later. It was ………………………………………………………………………. Page 14 of 16

4. The police only warned Sally because it was her first offence. Sally was let ……………………………………………………………….. 5. It’s nobody’s fault that the match was cancelled. Nobody is to …………………………………………………………………

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II. Rewrite the sentences below in such a way that their meanings stay the same. You must use the words in capital without changing their forms. (10pts) 1. She wants nothing less than to get that job. It would be a dream come true. set She has ………………………………………………… getting that job.

2. Harry plays tennis much better than I do. nearly I am not ……………………………………………… tennis player as Harry is.

3. I presume you are coming to the party Miriam. read Can I …………………………………………. you are coming to the party Miriam?

4. There is no doubt at all that the government will win the election. conclusion It is …………………………………….. that the government will win the election.

5. I wish he would stop criticizing my work. fault I wish he would stop …………………………………………my work.

III. Paragraph writing. (20 pts) Should textbooks be replaced by e-books? In about 180 words, write a paragraph to express your views. Use your experiences and examples to support your ideas. Write your paragraph on your answer sheet.

KÈ

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.................................................................................................................................................

................................................................................................................................................. ................................................................................................................................................. ................................................................................................................................................. ................................................................................................................................................. ................................................................................................................................................. Page 15 of 16

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.................................................................................................................................................

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................................................................................................................................................. - The end – GV ra đề: Nguyễn Thị Minh Thu 01686545999

Page 16 of 16

TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN LÀO CAI TỔ: NGOẠI NGỮ ----------

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HDC -ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT KỲ THI DUYÊN HẢI BẮC BỘ NĂM HỌC 2016-2017. Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH KHỐI 10 (HDC gồm có 03 trang)

I. LISTENING (50pts) Part 1 (10 points): 1. three nights 2. 2

3. tax

4. Michael Furnsby

5. WC2D 5JB / wc2d 5jb

2.A

3.D

4.B

5.D

9.F

10.T

1.C

Part 2 (10 points):

Part 3: True/ False Statements (10 points): 7.T

8.T

6. F

(20 points):

Part 4: Gap filling:

12. catering / restaurants

13. retail

14. New South Wales

15. (the) Northern Territory

16. within one state

11. accommodation / hotels

18. Victoria

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17. South Australia

19. men (travelling/travelling alone)

20. families

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II. GRAMMAR & VOCABULARY (50pts)

I. (20pts): 1B

10A

11C

12D

13A

14D

15C

16B

17A

18B

19A

20A

Page 1 of 3

II. (10pts): LINE MISTAKE

CORRECTION LINE MISTAKE

CORRECTION

over

sentenced

was sentenced

acted

acting

did

caused

has

had

where

when

trying

trial

appeared

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who

appeared/appearing

mastermind

masterminded

at ( the loose)

III. (10pts):

2. away

3. off

4. off

5. off

6. about

7. over

8. up

9. up

10. out

1. off

IV. (10pts):

6. excessive

1. competitive 2. knowledgeable

7. beneficial

3. argued/arguable 4. traditional

9. irresistible 10. preferable

5. impossible

8. productive

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PART III: READING (60pts) I. (15pts):

2. B

3.C

4.B

5.A

6.B

7. D

8.A

9.C

10.D

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II. (15pts): 1.nothing

2. being

3. known

4. thing

5. in

6.as

7. watched/viewed

8. whose

9.as

10.was

Page 2 of 3

III. (15pts): 1.C

2.A

3.C

4. D

5. C

6.B

7.A

8.B

9. A

10. D

1.VI

2.IV

3.II

4.VII

6.V

7.E

8.G

9.B

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IV. (15pts): 5.I

10.F

PART IV: WRITING (40pts) 1. Watchfully standing behind him were his bodyguards.

2. Thought must be given to ways of ……….

I. (10pts):

3. It was not until some time later that I realized the full implications of what had happened.

4. Sally was let off with a warning because it was her first offence.

5. Nobody is to blame for the fact that …/the match cancellation.

II. (10pts):

2. NEARLY AS GOOD A

1. SET HER HEART/(MIND) ON

3. TAKE IT AS READ (THAT)

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4. A FOREGONE CONCLUSION 5. FINDING FAULT IN

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III. Paragraph writing (20 pts)

GV ra đề: Nguyễn Thị Minh Thu 01686545999

Page 3 of 3

ĐỀ THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH KHỐI 10 NĂM 2017 Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút (Đề thi có 10 trang)

HỘI CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN VÙNG DUYÊN HẢI VÀ ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN ĐẠI HỌC SƯ PHẠM HÀ NỘI ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT

Section 1. (10 points)

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PART A. LISTENING (50 points) Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

STUDENT EMPLOYMENT BUREAU STUDENT REGISTRATION FORM Science

Given name:

Example

Charlotte

Faculty:

(1)__________

Address:

(2)__________ Heathfield St.,

Maryland

Home:

Telephone numbers:

Surname:

(3)___________

Mobile:

N/A

Number of

hours preferred: (4)____________per week

Employment

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experience:

(5)______________

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Section 2. (10 points)

You will hear a radio interview with a student called Leanne Wilson, who is talking

about her first weeks at university. For questions 6-10, choose the best answer (A, B or C)

6. What advice does Leanne give about getting to know people in the first weeks at university? A. Join a lot of different sports club. Page 1

B. Avoid judging people on first impressions. C. Make friends with people studying the same subject as you. 7. Leanne chose not to live at home because____________. A. her parents discouraged her B. it was too far to travel every day

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C. she wanted to be independent

8. Leanne was able to manage financially at university by___________. A. cutting down on her social life B. getting an evening job C. finding ways of economizing

9. What is Leanne’s opinion on attending lectures? B. They are useful as an introduction to the subject.

C. You should make detailed notes.

A. It’s not worth going.

10. What did she find difficult about university life?

A. being away from her family

C. getting stressed by work

B. having to cook for herself

Section 3. (10 points)

You will hear part of an interview with Paul Wrightsman, the director of “Scubatours”,

a tour company which specializes in diving holidays. Listen and decide whether the

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following statements are True (T) or False (F). 11. Fish are inevitably threatened with extinction as a result of tourists visiting coral reefs.

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12. Many countries with coral reefs earn most of their income from tourism. 13. Irresponsible tourists might be tempted to damage coral reefs.

14. Tour operators are unable to influence hotels’ environmental policies. 15. Cleaning up the environment in areas with coral reefs is not cost-effective in the long term. Section 4. (20 points)

Page 2

You will hear a man called Jay Carter talking about his time in the Amazon rainforest. For questions 16-25, complete the sentences with a word or short phrase. Experiences in the rainforest The purpose of Jay's trip to the Amazon was to write an article about the (l6)___________________which live in the rainforest.

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Jay was unprepared for the lack of (17)___________________ in the rainforest.

Jay makes a comparison between the huge noisy insects in the rainforest and (18) ___________________ with wings.

Jay uses the word (19) ___________________ to describe his feelings when he first saw a jaguar.

Jay says that the average male jaguar has a territory of (20)___________________in size.

When he met the local forest people Jay remembers being offered a very large

(21)___________________ to eat.

Jay says that the forest people have a feeling of (22)___________________ for the jaguars.

Jay explains that in some areas, (23)___________________ regard jaguars as a threat to their

property.

potential health risk to jaguars.

Jay has heard that being in contact with animals such as (24)___________________is a

The (25)___________________ that Jay is now involved in are intended to raise awareness of the threats to the survival of jaguars.

PART B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (50 points)

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Exercise 1. Choose the correct answer (A, B, C, or D) to complete each of the following sentences. (20 points)

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26. By the time we get to the cinema, we _____ the first ten minutes of the film, so there’s no

point going. A. will miss

B. will be missing C. will have missed

D. will have been missing

27. Your essay _____ in on Monday. Why wasn’t it on my desk? A. should be

B. must have been C. should have been D. could be

28. They had _____ seen him for the last ten years and now here he was on their doorstep with his suitcases. Page 3

A. not quite

B. only just

C. no sooner

D. hardly

29. The man’s choice to run away virtually _____ to an admission of guilt. A. resulted

B. came

C. amounted

D. added

30. James has great _____ and could go far in this job. A. potential

B. possibility

C. opportunity

D. chance

A. prohibited

B. repelled

C. denied

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31. The other people in the group all _____ my ideas, which was very disappointing. D. rejected

32. The global recession has had a major _____ on every economy in the world. A. crash

B. impact

C. consequence

D. impression

33. The three friends decided to _____ up their own company. B. get

C. set

D. put

A. make

34. This is Josh, _____ artistic talents are going to astound the world. B. of whom

C. whoever

A. who

D. whose

35. I recommend that you ______ out the information for the courses online. You’ll find B. to check

C. check

A. checking

everything you need there.

D. for checking

B. offered

C. suggested

D. claimed

A. advised

36. Leona _____ me to take up Pilates and it’s changed my life.

37. He regrets not _____ a year out to travel before he started working. A. to take

B. being taken

C. having taken

D. to taking

B. like if

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A. if

38. It sounds _____ you are having a great time. C. as if

D. as

39. The company _____ its waste by over 90% this year.

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A. diminished

B. reduced

C. dwindled

D. condensed

40. Is there any _____ of our winning the cup this year? A. liking

B. likeness

C. likewise

D. likelihood

41. People _____ to be less tolerant of noise, the older they get. A. bound

B. inclined

C. tend

D. apt

42. The information he gave us was _____ useless. It didn’t help us at all. A. deeply

B. utterly

C. extremely

D. painfully Page 4

43. You’ll be pleased to know that you are _____ for a scholarship if you wish to apply. A. entitled

B. eligible

C. appropriate

D. particular

44. It never _____ my mind that he was lying to me. A. crossed

B. racked

C. took

D. put

45. The children’s diet was _____ in Vitamin C, which has caused a lot of problems. B. faulty

C. deficient

D. missing

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A. absent

Exercise 2. Question 46-55. The passage below contains 10 mistakes. Underline the mistakes and correct them. (10 points) Line 1

It is very difficult to succeed in the music business; nine out of ten bands that

release a first record

fail to produce the second. Surviving in the music industry requires luck and of all it requires and intricate knowledge of how a record company is functioned.

patience, but most

begins when a representer of a company's Artists and Repertoire (A & R)

The process

bars and night clubs, scouting for young, talented bands. After having identified a

promised band,

department visits

he or she will work to negotiate a contract with that band. The signature of this is a slow process. A company will spend a long time to investigate the band itself as

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recording contract well as

current trends for popular music. During this period, it is important that a band

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reciprocates with

an investigation of its own, learning as much as possible about the record company and making

personnel connections within the different departments that will handle their recordings.

Page 5

Exercise 3. Fill in the blanks in the sentences below with the correct preposition. (10 points) 56. The boy froze in horror as the teacher advanced ____________him, brandishing a large stick. ____________any other kind.

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57. A classical education is no longer considered by most people to be superior 58. Mentally, she ran ____________a range of adjectives to describe the sight in front of her. 59. These days, many students are turning their backs ____________traditional subjects such as Latin in favour of more trendy options. 60. The teacher sat down and glared____________ the class.

61. Students of foreign languages shouldn’t become too reliant ____________dictionaries. 62. Hard work usually pays off____________ the long run.

63. The invention of the computer has had a major impact ____________learning.

64. I offered my classmate a gift ____________the spirit of friendship.

65. Intelligence will not guarantee you a place at university____________ any means, you

have to study hard too.

Exercise 4. For questions 66-75, read the text below. Use the word given in capitals in

brackets to form a word that fits in the gap. (10 points)

On the question of corporal punishment We live in civilized times, or so we keep telling ourselves. Yet, the increasing level of

(66.DISCIPLINE)_____________behaviour and violence in schools has led a number of

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teachers to start demanding the reinstatement of an archaic and, to most of us (67.HUMANE) _____________law. They feel that the present laws regarding punishment in schools are

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(68.ADEQUATE) _____________to deal with adolescent students who are constantly (69.OBEY) _____________, leaving teachers feeling exposed and (70.PROTECT)

_____________. As a result, a group of teachers have petitioned the Government to (71.CONSIDER) _____________the question of permitting corporal punishment in schools. Although this has caused some (72. AGREE) _____________and debate among Government officials, the Minister for Education remains (73. FLEXIBLE) _____________on the matter.

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In a moving speech, he started that a return to the age of beatings with the cane would be totally (74.ACCEPT) _____________, going against the UN convention on the rights of the child. The problem of (75.ORDER) _____________behaviour should be dealt with in other ways, since it has been proved that treating violence with violence does not work. PART C. READING (60 points)

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Exercise 1. Choose the option A, B, C, or D that best fits each blank in the following passage. (15 points)

How do you choose the right job?

A few people decide early in life what they want to do then follow a prescribed path of training to reach their goal. More often, a young person takes the best job available, and that

(76)___________to a lifetime in a particular field. Of course, both who you know and what you know are important. Frequently an individual finds a job through a friend, relative or

other helpful person. However, with a university degree the minimum requirement for many

jobs – and advanced training and qualifications a (77)___________in most professional

fields – what you know can be the ticket to a good job.

There is probably no single “right” job for anybody. Out of the (78)

___________20,000 types of occupations available in modern society, there are probably

hundreds that you could perform well and find rewarding. Although circumstances (79)

___________ one’s choices, there are still more possibilities than most people realize. Chance always plays a part in finding a job you like, but vocational counselors believe that a

person can improve the (80) ___________by analyzing his or her ambitions, interests and

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(81)___________. One person may want to earn a lot of money. Others many (82) ___________priority to being active, helping people or having a low (83) ___________of

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becoming unemployed. Personal interests, such as love of the (84) ___________or a fascination with computers, may point the (85) ___________to a job a person enjoys and

respect

76. A. leads

B. directs

C. conducts

D. introduces

77. A. need

B. must

C. want

D. demand

78. A. expected

B. assessed

C. estimated

D. calculated

79. A. shorten

B. press

C. shrink

D. narrow Page 7

80. A. odds

B. difference

C. angles

81. A. faculties

B. aptitudes

C. inclinations

D. tendencies

82. A. make

B. set

C. give

D. place

83. A risk

B. hazard

C. danger

D. uncertainty

84. A. outwards

B. outside

C. outdoors

D. outback

B. way

C. passage

D. progress

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85. A. course

D. favour

Exercise 2. Read the text below and think of the word that best fits each space. Use only one word in each space. (15 points)

Causes of conflict between adolescents and their parents

Some interesting discoveries have been made by psychologists studying conflicts between

adolescents and their parents. One notable feature is that they seldom argue about such major topics (86)________sex, drugs, or politics. This is surprising, given that great differences

often exist between the attitudes of parents and adolescents on such issues. Researchers

suggest the explanation may be that such topics (87)___________not usually relate to day-

to-day family interaction and are (88)________discussed as they are not directly relevant

(89)__________family life. Instead, parents and children tend to (90)___________out over

everyday family matters such as housework.

Despite the changed that have (91)__________place over the past fifty years, adolescents

appear to have the same kinds of arguments with their parents as their parents had (92)___________they themselves were young. It seems to come down to the conflict

between the adolescent’s desire for independence (93)_________the parents’ authority.

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Teenagers spoke of their right to be free of restrictions, while parents were equally sure of their right to exert control, backing this up (94)__________referring to the needs of the

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family as a whole. Interestingly, both groups could see the other’s (95)_________of view even though they disagreed with it.

Exercise 3. Read the text and choose the best answer A, B, C or D. (15 points) Moral Behavior The dictionary defines morality as “being in accord with standards of right or good conduct.” The argument over whether our moral behavior is innate of whether it is developed by our environment and culture has been raging for ages. Many people feel morality is based Page 8

on reason, while others feel it comes from religion or one’s own spirituality. Biologists believe that humans’ tendency to obey the Golden Rule- “Do unto others as you would have them do unto you”- is a product of evolution. ■ A) At first, moral behavior seems to oppose the rules of Charles Darwin’s theory of survival of the fittest and natural selection. ■ B) However, researchers in the field of biology

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feel that as animals evolved to live in groups, the propensity to look only after the group’s success as a whole, every member had to look only after one's own needs had to fade in order for a group mentality to emerge. ■ C) To ensure the group’s success as a whole, every member had to look out for the interests of the majority, a concept known as utilitarianism. ■ D) This is a system of beliefs based on what does the greatest good for the greatest number

of people.

A researcher named Jonathon Haidt at the University of Virginia believes that morality

is driven by two separate mindsets-one ancient and one modern. Dr. Haidt declares that the

human mind is unaware of the distinction between the two. The ancient mental system is

based on the emotion behind moral behaviors, which is a type of intuitive sense of what is

right and wrong that evolved before language developed. These are the “gut reactions”

people experience in tough situations that call for quick action. The more modern system of

thought came with the development of language, as people became able to express verbally

why something was right or wrong. The two work together when we are put in morally compromising situations. When confronted with a moral dilemma, one’s intuition

immediately decides what is right or wrong. Rational thought and judgment about the

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morality of an issue follow the decision that one’s emotional reaction already made. Dr. Haidt identified five areas of moral conduct that are common in most countries and

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systems throughout the world, and he describes these as the foundation for all moral behavior. These moral components conceptualize how people treat others and what is

important in being part of a group. Regardless of their background, religion, socioeconomic status, or educational level, Dr. Haidt found that the majority of people hold to these moral concepts. The first moral concept is the prevention of harm. Generally, people believe that it is wrong to harm another human being or animal for cruel and needless reasons. The second moral concept is fairness, which holds that all people should be treated fairly. For instance, Page 9

people should treat the poor in the same manner as the wealthy, and the weak the same as the strong. The third moral concept is loyalty to one’s group. This entails a strong devotion to the values of the group as a whole. People with strong loyalties believe that adherence to the laws of society is important because it upholds the integrity of that society. The idea of loyalty is closely interwoven with the fourth moral foundation: respect for authority. People

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who value authority believe in the strength of a governing body and a strong hierarchy with established roles and rules. The fifth concept involves upholding high standards of purity. This deals with the way that members of a group view their bodies. The idea of purity comes into play in the standards of cleanliness in society. Daily hygiene routines, eating food that has not been contaminated in some way, and burial rules and rituals fall into this category.

Dr. Haidt's research concludes that these moral concepts are inherent in our physical makeup and are learned behaviors, reinforced by our environments from a very early age.

The five moral foundations are interpreted differently from society to society, and people rate

them differently in order of importance. While morality may take different forms across the

many different cultures of the world, it remains true that the basic task of morality,

restraining selfishness, is a part of all humanity's moral behavior.

96. Why does the author mention the Golden Rule in paragraph 1?

A. To contrast moral behavior with immoral behavior

B. To prove that people generally know right from wrong C. To suggest that evolution shaped morality

D. To define the idea of moral behavior

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97. Look at the four squares (■) that indicate where the following sentence could be added to the passage.

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In other words, evolution appears to favour individuals who have learned how to get what they need in order to survive.

Where would the sentence best fit? A. 1st square

B. 2nd square

C. 3rd square

D. 4th square

98. According to the passage, morality developed because____________. A. people learned to communicate using spoken language B. people had to learn to survive in groups Page 10

C. people were born with the ability to know right and wrong D. people learned moral behavior from their ancestors 99. Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence. Incorrect answer choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential information.

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A. The earlier mindset based morality on an inborn, emotional understanding of what is proper and acceptable.

B. Old-fashioned ways of thinking based goodness on the way a person felt about a situation. C. Theories about ancient attitudes claimed language was not necessary to determine moral behavior.

D. Emotions governed the morality of people in ancient times before they developed a way to communicate.

A. They typically develop in sequential order.

100. Which of the following is NOT correct about the five moral concepts?

B. They serve as the core of all moral behaviors.

C. They vary in importance from country to country.

D. They explain the various ideas that drive moral behavior.

101. Which of the following can be inferred about Dr. Haidt’s five areas of moral conduct?

A. They are disputed in various cultures. B. Aspects of them appear in the laws of many countries.

C. Many leaders would likely disagree with their loyalty principles.

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D. They are based on innate human tendencies. 102. What can be inferred about humanity as a whole based on Dr. Haidt’s moral concepts?

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A. Morality is a universal characteristic that applies to the whole world. B. The natural world plays a major role in the development of morality.

C. Morality is an instinctive characteristic that humans have from birth. D. People from different cultures will not value the same principles. 103. According to the passage, morality _____________. A. conflicts with Darwin’s theory of natural selection B. goes against the dominant authority Page 11

C. seeks to restrict human selfishness D. includes generosity as an important moral 104. The word entails in the passage is closest in meaning to____________. A. follows

B. produces

C. causes

D. involves

105. The word This in paragraph 4 refers to____________. B. the fifth concept

C. a governing body

D. upholding high standards

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A. a strong hierarchy

Exercise 4. Read the text and answer the following questions. (15 points) ROBOTS

Since the dawn of human ingenuity, people have devised ever more cunning tools to cope

with work that is dangerous, boring, onerous, or just plain nasty. That compulsion has

culminated in robotics - the science of conferring various human capabilities on machines.

A. The modern world is increasingly populated by quasi-intelligent gizmos whose presence

we barely notice but whose creeping ubiquity has removed much human drudgery. Our

factories hum to the rhythm of robot assembly arms. Our banking is done at automated teller

terminals that thank us with rote politeness for the transaction. Our subway trains are

controlled by tireless robo- drivers. Our mine shafts are dug by automated moles, and our

nuclear accidents - such as those at Three Mile Island and Chernobyl - are cleaned up by

robotic muckers fit to withstand radiation. Such is the scope of uses envisioned by Karel Capek, the Czech playwright who coined the

term ‘robot’ in 1920 (the word ‘robota’ means ‘forced labor’ in Czech). As progress

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accelerates, the experimental becomes the exploitable at record pace. B. Other innovations promise to extend the abilities of human operators. Thanks to the

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incessant miniaturisation of electronics and micromechanics, there are already robot systems that can perform some kinds of brain and bone surgery with submillimeter accuracy - far

greater precision than highly skilled physicians can achieve with their hands alone. At the same time, techniques of long-distance control will keep people even farther from hazard. In 1994 a ten- foot-tall NASA robotic explorer called Dante, with video-camera eyes and with spiderlike legs, scrambled over the menacing rim of an Alaskan volcano while technicians 2,000 miles away in California watched the scene by satellite and controlled Dante’s descent. Page 12

C. But if robots are to reach the next stage of labour-saving utility, they will have to operate with less human supervision and be able to make at least a few decisions for themselves goals that pose a formidable challenge. ‘While we know how to tell a robot to handle a specific error,’ says one expert, ‘we can’t yet give a robot enough common sense to reliably interact with a dynamic world.’ Indeed the quest for true artificial intelligence (Al) has

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produced very mixed results. Despite a spasm of initial optimism in the 1960s and 1970s, when it appeared that transistor circuits and microprocessors might be able to perform in the same way as the human brain by the 21st century, researchers lately have extended their forecasts by decades if not centuries.

D. What they found, in attempting to model thought, is that the human brain’s roughly one

hundred billion neurons are much more talented - and human perception far more complicated - than previously imagined. They have built robots that can recognise the

misalignment of a machine panel by a fraction of a millimeter in a controlled factory

environment. But the human mind can glimpse a rapidly changing scene and immediately

disregard the 98 per cent that is irrelevant, instantaneously focusing on the woodchuck at the

side of a winding forest road or the single suspicious face in a tumultuous crowd. The most

advanced computer systems on Earth can’t approach that kind of ability, and neuroscientists

still don’t know quite how we do it.

E. Nonetheless, as information theorists, neuroscientists, and computer experts pool their talents, they are finding ways to get some lifelike intelligence from robots. One method

renounces the linear, logical structure of conventional electronic circuits in favour of the

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messy, ad hoc arrangement of a real brain’s neurons. These ‘neural networks’ do not have to be programmed. They can ‘teach’ themselves by a system of feedback signals that reinforce

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electrical pathways that produced correct responses and, conversely, wipe out connections that produced errors. Eventually the net wires itself into a system that can pronounce certain

words or distinguish certain shapes. F. In other areas researchers are struggling to fashion a more natural relationship between people and robots in the expectation that someday machines will take on some tasks now done by humans in, say, nursing homes. This is particularly important in Japan, where the percentage of elderly citizens is rapidly increasing. So experiments at the Science University Page 13

of Tokyo have created a ‘face robot’ - a life-size, soft plastic model of a female head with a video camera imbedded in the left eye - as a prototype. The researchers’ goal is to create robots that people feel comfortable around. They are concentrating on the face because they believe facial expressions are the most important way to transfer emotional messages. We read those messages by interpreting expressions to decide whether a person is happy,

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frightened, angry, or nervous. Thus the Japanese robot is designed to detect emotions in the person it is ‘looking at’ by sensing changes in the spatial arrangement of the person’s eyes, nose, eyebrows, and mouth. It compares those configurations with a database of standard facial expressions and guesses the emotion. The robot then uses an ensemble of tiny pressure pads to adjust its plastic face into an appropriate emotional response.

G. Other labs are taking a different approach, one that doesn’t try to mimic human intelligence or emotions. Just as computer design has moved away from one central

mainframe in favour of myriad individual workstations - and single processors have been

replaced by arrays of smaller units that break a big problem into parts that are solved

simultaneously - many experts are now investigating whether swarms of semi-smart robots

can generate a collective intelligence that is greater than the sum of its parts. That’s what

beehives and ant colonies do, and several teams are betting that legions of mini-critters

working together like an ant colony could be sent to explore the climate of planets or to

inspect pipes in dangerous industrial situations. Questions 106-112. The Reading Passage has seven paragraphs A-G. From the list of

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headings below choose the most suitable heading for each paragraph. i

List of headings

Some success has resulted from observing how the brain

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functions. ii

Are we expecting too much from one robot?

iii

Scientists are examining the humanistic possibilities.

There are judgements that robots cannot make.

Has the power of robots become too great?

Human skills have been heightened with the help of

robotics. Page 14

vii

There are some things we prefer the brain to control.

viii

Robots have quietly infiltrated our lives.

Original predictions have been revised.

Another approach meets the same result.

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106. Paragraph A:_________ 107: Paragraph B:_________ 108. Paragraph C:_________ 109. Paragraph D:_________ 110. Paragraph E:_________

111. Paragraph F:_________ 112. Paragraph G:_________

Questions 113-115. Complete the summary below with words taken from paragraph F. Use

NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

The prototype of the Japanese ‘face robot’ observes humans through a 113.

____________which is planted in its head. It then refers to a 114._____________of typical

‘looks’ that the human face can have, to decide what emotion the person is feeling. To

respond to this expression, the robot alters its own expression using a number of

115._____________.

PART D. WRITING (40 points)

Exercise 1. (20 points)

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A. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it.

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116. Why didn’t they tell us they were going to sell their house. I wish____________________________________________

117. We would not be able to prepare the show without the money from our sponsors. Were it____________________________________________________________

118. It is more than probable that they have had problems with their car. In all___________________________________________________________ 119. Robert warned his wife pretty strongly, yet she refused to listen to his advice. Page 15

No matter_________________________________________________________ 120. The whole truth didn’t come out until after the governor’s death. It wasn’t____________________________________________________________ B. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given. Do not change the words given. Use between three

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and eight words, including the word given.

121. The film script was very different from the novel it was based on. RESEMBLANCE

The film script _____________________________________novel it was based on. 122. I had no choice but to borrow money from the bank to pay my debts. RESORT

I had to ______________________________________________the bank to pay 123. Anne inherited a fortune when her aunt died.

INTO

my debts.

Anne ___________________________________________________of her aunt.

124. Yvonne did everything she could to ensure the trip was successful.

LENGTHS

Yvonne ______________________________-

______________________________of the trip. RESULTED

125. The war has caused emigration to increase. The war ___________________________________in emigration

Exercise 2. (20 points)

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Write a paragraph (150-200 words) on the following topic: In some countries an increasing number of people are suffering from health problems as a

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result of eating too much fast food. It is therefore necessary for governments to impose a higher tax on this kind of food.

To what extent do you agree or disagree with this opinion? You should use your own ideas, knowledge and experience and support your arguments with examples and relevant evidence. THE END

Người ra đề

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ĐỀ THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH KHỐI 10 NĂM 2017 Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút

HỘI CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN VÙNG DUYÊN HẢI VÀ ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN ĐẠI HỌC SƯ PHẠM HÀ NỘI ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT ANSWER KEY

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PART A. LISTENING (50 points) Section 1. (10 points) 1. Johnstone 2. 126 3. 0414 847 749

4. (about) 10 5. (uncle’s) shop (work)

Section 2. (10 points)

6. B

7. C

8. C

9. B

10.C

Section 3. (10 points) 11. F

14. F

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15. F

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13. T

12. T

21. spider

17. (day)light

22. respect

18. motorbikes

23. landowners

19, emotional

24. dogs

20. 170 km

25. lecture tours

Section 4. (20 points)

16. tropical birds

Page 1

PART B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (50 points) Exercise 1. Choose the correct answer (A, B, C, or D) to complete each of the

27. C

37. C

28. D

38. C

29. C

39. B

30. A

40. D

31. D

41. C

32. B

42. B

33. C

43. B

34. D

44. A

35. C

45. C

36. A

26. C

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following sentences. (20 points)

them. (10 points)

46.Line 2: the second a second

Exercise 2. The passage below contains 10 mistakes. Underline the mistakes and correct

47.Line 3: and intricate knowledge an intricate knowledge

48.Line 3: is functioned functions

49.Line 4: presenter representative

50.Line 5: promised band promising band

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51.Line 6: signature signing 52.Line 7: to investigate investigating

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53.Line 8: trends for trends in 54.Line 8: reciprocates reciprocate

55.Line 10: personnel personal

Exercise 3. Fill in the blanks in the sentences below with the correct preposition. (10 points) 56. on / towards

58. through

57. to

59. on Page 2

60. at

63. on

61. on

64. in

62. in

65. by

brackets to form a word that fits in the gap.(10 points)

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Exercise 4. For questions 66-75, read the text below. Use the word given in capitals in 71. reconsider

67. inhumane

72. disagreement

68. inadequate

73. inflexible

69. disobedient

74. unacceptable

70. unprotected

75. disorderly

66. undisciplined

PART C. READING (60 points)

Exercise 1. Choose the option A, B, C, or D that best fits each blank in the following

passage. (15 points)

81. B

76. A

77. B

78.C

79. D

83. A 84. C 85. B

80. A

82. C

Exercise 2. Read the text below and think of the word that best fits each space. Use only

87. do

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88. not

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86. as

one word in each space. (15 points) 91. taken 92. when 93. and 94. by

90. fall

95. point

89. to

Exercise 3. Read the text and choose the best answer A, B, C or D. (15 points) Moral Behavior 96. C

98. B

97. B

99. A Page 3

100. A

103. C

101. B

104. D

102. A

105. B

Exercise 4. Read the text and answer the following questions. (15 points)

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ROBOTS 111. iii

107. vi

112. ii

108. ix

113. video camera

109. iv

114. database

110. i

115. (tiny/small) pressure pads

106. viii

PART D. WRITING (40 points)

Exercise 1. (20 points)

A. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the

same as the sentence printed before it.

116. they had told us they were going to sell their house

117. not for the money from our sponsors, we wouldn’t be able to prepare the show

118. probability, they have had problems with their car

119. how strongly Robert warned his wife, she refused to listen to his advice 120. until after the governor’s death that the whole truth came out

B. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first

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sentence, using the word given. Do not change the words given. Use between three and eight words, including the word given.

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121. bore little resemblance to 122. resort to borrowing money from

123. came into a fortune after the death 124. went to great lengths to ensure the success 125. has resulted in an increase

Exercise 2. (20 points) Paragraph writing Page 4

Marking criteria: 1. Task response The writer clearly states their point of view (agree/disagree) and provides a wellsupported paragraph related to the topic.

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2. Lexical resource

- The writer uses synonyms and paraphrases flexibly. - The writer uses topic-related vocabulary. 3. Coherence and cohesion

- The paragraph has a topic sentence with controlling idea.

- The topic is well-developed with relevant supporting evidence, examples and facts.

- Ideas are well connected with suitable cohesive devices.

- The paragraph shows a certain organization pattern (for example: by order of

importance, etc.)

- The writer uses pronouns consistently and coherently, with third-person

pronouns (They, this, these, one/ones) gaining higher scores.

4. Grammatical range and accuracy complex)

- The writer uses a wide range of sentence structures (simple, compound and

- The writer uses verb tense and forms accurately.

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- The writer shows good control of spelling and punctuation.

LISTENING TRANSCRIPT

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Section 1:

A conversation between two first year university students and an officer from the Student

Union Employment Service A: Hi Bill. This is my friend Charlotte. She’s doing first year Science, too. B: Pleased to meet you Charlotte. Annetta told me you want some part-time work. Now I just have to complete your details on the computer…. Um what’s your surname? C: Johnstone Page 5

B; with an “e”? C: yes… J-O-H-N-S-T-O-N-E B: I know that you live in the Healthfield Street student residence, but I can’t remember the street number there.

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C: It’s 126 B; 1-2-6… good. And the phone number?

C: Well, actually I never give people that number because sometimes nobody answers or they forget to pass on the messages, so I bought a mobile phone yesterday, but I can’t remember the number. I think it’s 0414 847 748, I’ll just check,… no, sorry, not 748, it’s

749. C: Yes, that’s right. I must try and remember it.

B: And what sort of work are you looking for?

B: 0-4-1-4 8-4-7 7-4-9

C: Well, anything really I suppose, though it depends when it is. I’d rather work during the

day if that’s possible.

B: how many hours a week were you thinking of?

C: Oh, I’m not sure, maybe about ten. But I need to keep at least two days a week free for

study.

B: Do you have any work experience?

C: Not much, though, I used to help in my Uncle’s shop when I was at school.

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B: OK. Well, I’ll put it in, but we don’t usually get shop work. What about gardening? C: I’d rather not. Everything I touch dies! What other kinds of work are there?

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B: Well, there’s a lot of demand for house cleaning, fast food preparation, kitchen work, and pizza delivery, if you’ve held a driving license for twelve months.

C: I’m not sure. Can I have a look at the vacancies while you talk to Annetta? Section 2: P: Today we’ve invited into the studio a university student in her final year, Leanne Wilson, to give tips on surviving those first few weeks. Were you nervous about going off to university, Leanne? Page 6

L: In a way. I’d been really looking forward to it but my main worry was that I didn’t know anyone. P: But you made friends fairly quickly? L: Oh, absolutely. Many of my friends initially were on my course but you’ve got to be

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careful you don’t stick with just them all the time – you really miss out if you do. And try and be open-minded. Just because people don’t speak to you doesn’t mean they’re unfriendly. They could just be shy. The main thing is to get involved with anything and everything. Even if you can’t play tennis to save your life, have a go. Join the Scrabble club, drama society, whatever – just so you meet a wide variety of people.

P: Which clubs did you join?

L: Well, that’s the silly thing. I didn’t! And I really wish I’d taken more advantage of the

social life in that first week and enjoyed myself more. I think I was a bit scared of getting left

behind in my work – when, really, that shouldn’t be a priority at first. I didn’t have a lot of

cash to splash around either. But the thing is, you have to remember that it won’t be such a

social whirl for the whole term – things do calm down and you won’t be spending money

like this all the time. The first week you need to get out and enjoy yourself and not worry

about it.

P: While we’re on the subject of money, how did you manage on your student budget? L: Well, some people choose to save on food and accommodation by living at home. I live

quite near York, so that was an option but I felt it was important to stand on my own two

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feet, so I was in a hall of residence for my first year. My parents didn’t put any pressure on me either way but it was tough at first because our family is quite close. It was the right thing

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to do for me to leave, though. P: So did you have to get an evening job in York?

L: The thing is, with my subject, the workload is very high, so a job would mean very little time for a social life. So I just cut costs by sharing books with friends, shopping in charity shops, eating cheaply, that kind of thing. Although I do get a job in the holidays at home, so I can save up. P: And is going to lectures very different from being at school? Page 7

L: It is, really. Where I went wrong at first was trying to write down every word the lecturer was saying and not really listening. In fact, you can normally get the notes online later anyway, so it’s really not worth it – unless it helps you concentrate. Some of my friends don’t bother going much at all, actually, but personally, I think that – even though you only

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get a basic overview in an hour – it makes you aware of the main areas that you need to read around. P: Is it difficult to get used to structuring your day?

L: I found it’s very easy to waste time unless you’re disciplined. It’s not that you aren’t interested in the subject but life has a habit of getting in the way and it’s tempting to stay in P: I can imagine! And the worst aspect of university life?

bed late and have a coffee with friends instead of getting stuck into what you have to do.

L: Mmm ... I thought it would be the cooking and washing and so on but that’s not been too

bad – although I do appreciate my mum more in the holidays! Probably, it’s getting totally

stressed as the work piles up. To be fair, that’s only at certain times of year – exam times –

but terms are short, so it feels as if it happens more.

P: Well, thanks very much Leanne and good luck for your exam.

Section 3:

Paul: Coming back to the point about tourism, the report also notes that in areas where the coral reefs have been well-managed – Australia’s Great Barrier Reef is a prime example here

– they can support both tourist activity and a healthy and varied marine population. Of

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course, Australia’s a wealthy country. You’ve got to remember that the areas where the reefs are most at risk contain relatively poor countries where an enormous proportion of their

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national revenue comes from tourism. They’ve developed tourist resorts rapidly to cash in on the travel boom, usually without appropriate environmental checks or controls, and as a

result they’re destroying the very assets that people go there to see. It’s tragic, but understandable, in a way. Interviewer: So, what can be done? Paul: Well, first of all, the governments of the countries concerned need to introduce far stricter controls on fishing method, and much heavier penalties for poisoning or dynamiting Page 8

fish. Then I think that tour operator, especially the bigger ones, can have some influence. We can educate our clients for a start: in fact at Scubatours we’ve always given the people who travel with us a lecture at the start of their holiday – we tell them there’s to be absolutely no chipping off bits of the coral to take home as sourvenirs and no spear-gun hunting of rarer

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fish species. Interviewer: good idea.

Paul: More importantly, tour operators could use the threat of boycotts to persuade hotels to install proper sewage treatment systems rather than pumping raw sewage into the sea. If enough tour operators stopped using the hotels and resorts which are the worst offenders,

they might clean up their act. Of course, this might force everyone else’s costs up in the short term, but if something isn’t done soon to protect the reefs, we won’t have a business at all in

ten or twenty years’ time.

Section 4:

Thanks, Paul, for the introduction, and hello, everybody. Well, when I first went out to the

Brazilian rainforest, I certainly never intended to stay there for any length of time. It was

magazine I worked for.

meant to be a quick visit to research and write a piece about tropical birds for the nature

While I was there though, I also became fascinated by many of the other inhabitants, such as with the jaguar.

the huge variety of monkeys and snakes. However, the reason I stayed on was my love affair

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I must admit, at the beginning I found the rainforest environment quite hard to deal with. OK, I knew the forest was going to feel a bit claustrophobic. What I hadn’t quite realised was

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how little daylight actually gets through the trees, which means you spend much of your time in semi-darkness – that took some getting used to. The other challenge was the insects. You

get bitten by them all the time! They’re massive noisy creatures – a bit like flying motorbikes! Anyway, the first time I saw a jaguar was very early in the morning, and it was totally unexpected. This awesome animal just emerged from the forest and started walking towards me. Page 9

It must have been about sixty metres away. Time seemed to stand still and I couldn’t breathe. Not because I was terrified but I just felt emotional – she was so beautiful it brought tears to my eyes. She had a drink from a nearby river and disappeared into the forest again, so I didn’t get a photograph that time, but I went on to have five more encounters over the next

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four years.

This may not seem much to you, but remember the jaguar is a threatened species, so it lives mainly in the most remote areas. The Amazon forest extends for thousands of kilometres and the territory of a typical male jaguar is something like 170 kilometres – in exceptional cases as much as 300 or more. It’s rare to see one because they are such solitary, shy creatures and

move incredibly quietly.

To have a better chance of seeing another jaguar, I went inland into a less populated area,

where I met some of the local forest people. By that time, I’d tried all sorts of the local food:

monkey’s brains, alligators – you name it – but it’s the spider I was given as an honoured

guest that stands out in my mind on that first visit. It was the size of a small rat, had eight

eyes and looked and tasted revolting. But it would have been very rude to refuse to eat what

for them is a special food.

The forest people themselves don’t see jaguars very often because until recently, the animals

have tended to avoid places where humans make their homes. They are rarely a danger to human life and it is interesting that forest people tend to respect rather than fear these

powerful animals, regarding them as fellow hunters rather than potential prey.

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Unfortunately, in recent years, more and more of the forest has been destroyed, meaning that cattle are being bred in the open spaces which are left behind. This is seen as a source of food

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for jaguars and as a result, landowners have no hesitation in killing them if they see one near their farms.

Even if they escape being shot, there are many reported cases of jaguars picking up diseases – not so much from sheep or cows but from dogs and other domestic pets. In the interests of survival, therefore, it is much better if jaguars avoid areas of human habitation completely but this is easier said than done these days, if their own habitats are no longer available to them. Page 10

Since being back from Brazil, I have replaced journalism with lecture tours as I think they are a more effective way of educating people about the dangers that these magnificent creatures face unless we act now. Jaguars are an endangered species and if we allow the

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rainforests to disappear completely, we risk losing them altogether.

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Người ra đề

Page 11

HỘI CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN VÙNG DUYÊN HẢI & ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN THÁI BÌNH

ĐỀ THI MÔN: ANH VĂN KHỐI 10

ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT

Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút

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(Đề thi gồm 13 trang)

I. LISTENING (50 points) 1. Section 1: (10 points) Complete the following form using NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER. SHORT STAY ACCOMMODATION Example Answer Family name: Mackinlay First name: (1) …………………… Country of origin: (2) …………………… Date of Arrival: (3) …………………… Number of tenants: (4) …………………… Length of stay: 2 weeks Purpose of visit: (5) ……………………

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Section 2: (10 points) Circle the correct letter A – C 1. According to Nick the first Australian immigrants were: A. The ancestors of aborigines B. Petty criminals C. Sailors 2. What was the name of the first British colony in Australia? A. Victoria B. New South Wales C. New London 3. When was the White Australia Policy started? A. Just after the first colony expanded B. After Australian Federation C. After World War II 4. Why was there bad feeling towards many Chinese immigrants in the 1850s? A. They opened restaurants B. They were searching for gold C. They would work for less money than the local Australians 5. When were Asian students first allowed to study at Australian universities? A. 1950 B. 1957 C. 1973

Section 3: (10 points) You will hear an interview with Pamela Green, a young fashion designer.Decide whether following statements are true (T) or false (F) according to what you hear: 1. Doing research into the fashion industry helped Pamela to decide to become a fashion designer.

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2. When starting your own fashion label, it's not important to have a business plan. 3. Pamela usually finds inspiration for her fashion designs in the clothes she wears.

4. According to Pamela, successful designers need to be able to recognize all past styles. 5. People who want a career in fashion should be aware of the options available. Section 4: (20 points)

You will hear an interview with a man called Daren Howarth, who works as a carbon coach. For questions 1-10, complete the sentences.

THE CARBON COACH

Daren says that a carbon coach works full-time as a (1)____________ with various clients.

Before becoming a carbon coach, Daren trained to be an (2)___________ .

When assessing a family's carbon footprint, Daren looks first at their (3) __________ .

Daren uses what's called a (4) ________ to see how much electricity things use. Daren points out that (5) _______ will help pay for roof insulation.

Daren feels that using (6) __________ of the old type is the worst waste of energy he sees.

Daren helped to reduce a band's carbon footprint at (7) ________ as well as on its CDs. Daren mentions a new type of green home called an (8) ________ .

The new green home uses both the sun and (9) _______ to produce electricity.

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Daren suggests buying a (10) ________ which gives more information about the new green home.

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PART II. LEXICO – GRAMMAR (50 points) Section 1. (20 points) Choose the best answer. 1. His English was roughly ______ with my Greek, so communication was rather difficult! A. levelled B. on a par C. equal D. in tune 2. Well, I’m sorry, that’s all I can offer you. ______ . A. Take it or forget it B. Get it or forget it C. Take it or leave it D. Leave it or take it 3. He promised me an Oxford dictionary and to my great joy, he ______ his word. A. stood by

B. stuck at

C. went back on 2

D. held onto

4. The police are ______ certain who the culprit is. A. in some ways

B. more or less

C. here and there

D. by and by

5. Employees who have a ______ are encouraged to discuss it with the management. B. grievance

C. disadvantage

D. disturbance

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A. hindrance

6. Although the patient received intensive treatment, there was no ______ improvement in her condition. A. decipherable

B. legible

C. discernible

7. The prospect of picking up any survivors are now______ A. thin

B. narrow

C. slim

D. intelligible

D. restricted

A. required

B. glaring

8. His happy–go–lucky attitude means that on the field he exhibits a ______ disregard for the rules. C. permissible

D. flagrant

C. outstanding

D. mediocre

B. reasonable

A. satisfactory

9. He was selected to play despite a string of ______ performances.

10. Even the best medicines are not ______ . B. unfailing

C. fail-proof

D. falsified

A. infallible

11. I’m in a bit of a ______ as to what to wear to the party. B. quandary C. problem

A. loss

D. trouble

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A. track

12. His new play is not only interesting but also unique. It is really off the beaten ______ . B. road

C. path

D. route

13. Without written evidence, we don’t have a ______ on. B. foot to stand

C. leg to lean

D. foot to lean

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A. leg to stand

14. Now’s a ______ time to tell me you’re going out this evening - I’ve spent the whole day preparing supper for you. A. suitable

B. reasonable

C. right

D. fine

15. She hasn’t had an accident yet but she’s had a number of ______ shaves. A. narrow

B. near

C. close

16. As you are the strongest in the group, you can take the ______ . 3

D. tiny

A. lead

B. head

C. part

D. way

17. Although she had never used a word-proceesor before, she soon got the ______ of it. A. feel

B. touch

C. move

D. hang

18. I overslept this morning and caught the last bus to school by the skin of my ______ . B. leg

C. neck

D. teeth

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A. mouth

19. The sky got very dark and soon it began to ______ down. A. roar

B. bath

C. bucket

D. soar

20. If you want a flat in the center of the city, you have to pay through the ______ for it. A. teeth

B. back of your head

C. nose

Section 2: (10 points)

D. arm

A great majority of adults in the industrial world – in fact, about 90 per cent – will be married some time in their lives. Of those who do not, some may choose to remain single, but others will have no choice. An alarming number who marry will divorce, but this is because marriage itself has lost its attraction – instead people give up particular relationships and try back. For example, of four out of ten American marriages that possibly end up divorce, 80 per cent are preludes to further unions. Every society has its own definition of what a perfect marriage it should be. In the Western world, it seems that a husband and wife have a perfect marriage if they love each other, have no other sex partner, display trust, loyalty and intimacy, confide in each other, show mutual respect, are willing to listen to their partner’s concern and agree on their children’s up- bringing. However, from time to time the balance of social expectations shifts. For example, a study carried out in 1986 showed that 74 per cent of American couples rating ‘equality in the relationship’ an important component of marriage. We can be fair sure that their great-grandparents (and particularly their great-grandfathers) did not place the same value in this.

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Line 1

There are 10 errors in the following passage. Find and correct them.

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Line:………………………….. Line:………………………….. Line:………………………….. Line:………………………….. Line:…………………………..

Section 3: (10 points) Fill in each blank with the correct form of one of the verbs, and one of the particles in the box. Some words can be used more than once. 4

try go against down

put over

stick out

carry around

get on

do up

look

hold

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1. At school, Luis got into a lot of trouble for something I did, and now he ______ it ______ me. 2. When I was in New York, I was able to ______ ______ several old friends I hadn’t seen for years. 3. The car’s in quite good condition but you can ______ it ______ before you make any decision to buy. 4. If I could ______ it ______ again, I’d do it differently. 5. The price of gas is expected to ______ ______ to $1 a gallon within a month. 6. Stop worrying about it. Don’t let this failure ______ you ______. 7. If you ______ ______ working so hard, you’ll make yourself ill. 8. The light suddenly ______ ______, and I couldn’t see a thing. 9. Do you have to go already? Can’t you ______ ______ for a few minutes? 10. You’d better ______ ______ your cigarette because smoking isn’t allowed in here.

Section 4: (10 points) Give the correct form of the words in brackets. The advances made by humans have made us the dominant species on our planet. However, several eminent scientists are concerned that we have become too successful, that our way of life is putting an (1. PRECEDE) strain on the Earth's ecosystems and threatening our future as a species. We are confronting environmental problems that are more taxing than ever before, some of them seemingly (2. SOLVE). Many of the Earth's crises are (3. PERSIST) and inexorably linked. Pollution is an obvious example of this affecting our air, water and soil.

The air is polluted by (4. EMIT) produced by cars and industry. Through acid rain and greenhouse gases these same exhaust fumes can have a devastating impact on our climate. Climate change is (5. ARGUE) the greatest environmental challenge facing our planet with increased storms, floods, drought and species losses predicted. This will inevitably have a negative impact on (6. DIVERSIFY) and thus our ecosystem.

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The soil is contaminated by factories and power stations which can leave heavy metals in the soil. Other human activities such as the (7. DEVELOP) of land and the clearing of trees also take their toll on the quality of our soil; deforestation has been shown to cause soil (8. ERODE). Certain farming practices can also pollute the land though the use of chemical pesticides and fertilizers. This contamination in turn affects our rivers and waterways and damages life there. The chemicals enter our food chain, moving from fish to mammals to us. Our crops are also grown on land that is far from (9. SPOIL). Affected species include the polar bear, so not even the Arctic is immune. Reducing waste and clearing up pollution costs money. Yet it is our quest for wealth that generates so much of the refuse. There is an urgent need to find a way of life that is less damaging to the Earth. This is not easy, but it is vital, because pollution is (10. PERVADE) and often life-threatening. 5

PART III. READING (60 points) Section 1: (15 points): Read the text below and decide which answer A, B, C or D best fits each space.

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Earth is the only place we know of in the universe that can support human life. (1)_______ human activities are making the planet less fit to live on. As the western world (2) _______ on consuming two-thirds of the world's resources while half of the world's population do so (3) _______ to stay alive we are rapidly destroying the (4) _______ resource we have by which all people can survive and prosper. Everywhere fertile soil is (5) _______ built on or washed into the sea. Renewable resources are exploited so much that they will never be able to recover (6) _______ We discharge pollutants into the atmosphere without any thought of the consequences. As a (7) _______ the planet's ability to support people is being (8) _______at the very time when rising human numbers and consumption are (9) _______ increasingly heavy demands on it.

The Earth's (10) _______ resources are there for us to use. We need food, water, air, energy, medicines, warmth, shelter and minerals to keep us fed, comfortable, healthy and active. If we are sensible in how we use the resources they will last indefinitely. But if we use them wastefully and excessively they will soon run out and everyone will suffer. B. Still

C. Yet

D. Despite

2. A. continues

B. repeats

3. A. already

B. just

4. A. alone

1. A. Although

D. follows

C. for

D. entirely

B. individual

C. lone

D. only

5. A. sooner

B. neither

C. either

D. rather

6. A. quite

B. greatly

C. utterly

D. completely

B. result

C. reaction

D. product

B. narrowed

C. reduced

D. cut

9. A. doing

B. having

C. taking

D. making

10. A. natural

B. real

C. living

D. genuine

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7. A. development

C. carries

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8. A. stopped

Section 2: (15 points): Energy is one of the (1) _______ that many people are interested in. It is not an unfamiliar word. It is heard, said, discussed day after day. It is close to everyone’s (2) _______ life. You turn on the lamp and it is (3) _______ that gives you light. You turn on a TV and it is energy that gives you pictures and sound. You ride a motorcycle and it is energy that gives you (4) _______. You cook your meals and it is energy that gives you heat to boil rice. The problem is that the (5) _______ for energy is rising and that the price of energy is getting higher and higher. The supply of energy on earth is limited. It cannot provide us 6

all forever. The (6) _______ of energy in the future is inevitable. Therefore, saving energy is a must if we want to (7) _______ to live in a safe and sound world.

Section 3: (15 points): Read the following passage and choose the best answers:

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If we save energy, the environment will be (8) _______ polluted and our health will be better and we will live a more meaningful life and more happily. Perhaps the best solution to the problem of energy is a (9) _______ of clean energy coming from the sun: solar energy. This kind of energy is easily available, free, and inexhaustible. Furthermore, it does not cause (10) _______.

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They are just four, five and six years old right now, but already they are making criminologists nervous. They are growing up, too frequently, in abusive or broken homes, with little adult supervision and few positive role models. Left to themselves, they spend much of their time hanging out on the streets or soaking up violent TV shows. By the year 2005 they will be teenagers–a group that tends to be, in the view of Northeastern University criminologist James Alan Fox, “temporary sociopaths–impulsive and immature.” If they also have easy access to guns and drugs, they can be extremely dangerous. For all the heartening news offered by recent crime statistics, there is an ominous flip side. While the crime rate is dropping for adults, it is soaring for teens. Between 1990 and 1994, the rate at which adults age 25 and older committed homicides declined 22%; yet the rate jumped 16% for youths between 14 and 17, the age group that in the early ’90s supplanted 18- to 24-year-olds as the most crime-prone. And that is precisely the age group that will be booming in the next decade. There are currently 39 million children under 10 in the U.S., more than at any time since the 1950s. “This is the calm before the crime storm,” says Fox. “So long as we fool ourselves in thinking that we’re winning the war against crime, we may be blindsided by this bloodbath of teenage violence that is lurking in the future.” Demographics don’t have to be destiny, but other social trends do little to contradict the dire predictions. Nearly all the factors that contribute to youth crime– single-parent households, child abuse, deteriorating inner-city schools–are getting worse. At the same time, government is becoming less, not more, interested in spending money to help break the cycle of poverty and crime. All of which has led John J. DiIulio Jr., a professor of politics and public affairs at Princeton, to warn about a new generation of “super predators,” youngsters who are coming of age in actual and “moral poverty,” without “the benefit of parents, teachers, coaches and clergy to teach them right or wrong and show them unconditional love.” Predicting a generation’s future crime patterns is, of course, risky; especially when outside factors (Will crack use be up or down? Will gun laws be tightened?) remain unpredictable. Michael Tonry, a professor of law and public policy at the University of Minnesota, argues that the demographic doomsayers are unduly alarmist. “There will be a slightly larger number of people relative to the overall population who are at high risk for doing bad things, so that’s going to have some effect,” he concedes. “But it’s not going to be an apocalyptic effect.” Norval Morris, professor of law and criminology at the University of Chicago, finds DiIulio’s notion of super predators too simplistic: “The 7

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human animal in young males is quite a violent animal all over the world. The people who put forth the theory of moral poverty lack a sense of history and comparative criminology.” Yet other students of the inner city are more pessimistic. “All the basic elements that spawn teenage crime are still in place, and in many cases the indicators are worse,” says Jonathan Kozol, author of Amazing Grace, an examination of poverty in the South Bronx. “There’s a dramatic increase of children in foster care, and that’s a very high-risk group of kids. We’re not creating new jobs, and we’re not improving education to suit poor people for the jobs that exist.” Can anything defuse the demographic time bomb? Fox urges “reinvesting in children”: improving schools, creating after-school programs and providing other alternatives to gangs and drugs. DiIulio, a law-and-order conservative, advocates tougher prosecution and wants to strengthen religious institutions to instill better values. Yet he opposes the Gingrich-led effort to make deep cuts in social programs. “A failure to maintain existing welfare and health commitment for kids,” he says, “is to guarantee that the next wave of juvenile predators will be even worse than we’re dealing with today.” DiIulio urges fellow conservatives to think of Medicaid not as a health-care program but as “an anticrime policy.” (Source: Time Magazine)

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1. Young children are making criminologists nervous because A. they are committing too much crime. B. they are impulsive and immature. C. they may grow up to be criminals. D. they have no role models. 2. The general crime rate in the US is A. increasing B. decreasing C. not changing D. difficult to predict 3. The age group which commits the highest rate of crime is A. 14 – 17. B. 18 – 24. C. 24 +. D. the old 4. James Fox believes that the improvement in crime figures could A. make us complacent in the fight against crime. B. result in an increase in teenage violence. C. make us become fooled and blindsided. D. result in a decrease in teenage violence. 5. According to paragraph 3, the government A. cutting down on the budget. B. is doing everything it can to solve the problem. C. is not interested in solving the problem. D. is not doing enough to solve the problem. 6. In comparison with James Fox, Michael Tonry is A. more pessimistic. B. less pessimistic. C. equally pessimistic. D. indifferent 7. Jonathan Kozol believes that A. there is no solution to the problem. B. employment and education are not the answer. C. employment and education can improve the situation. D. people can solve the problem by improving schools. 8

A. There will be population booming in in the next decade.

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8. Professor DiIulio thinks that spending on social programs A. should continue as it is B. should be decreased. C. is irrelevant to crime rates. D. is a better solution to the problem. 9. The word ‘lurking” in the paragraph 2 can be best replaced by A. happening B. hiding C. impending D. looming 10. The sentence “This is the calm before the crime storm.” means:

B. The age group committing crime most in the next decade is now under 10. C. The age group 14 – 17 will commit the most crimes in the next decade.

D. People will be successful in dealing with the war against crime in the next decade. Section 4: (15 points)

TRY IT AND SEE

In the social sciences, it is often supposed that there can be no such thing as a controlled experiment. Think again.

A In the scientific pecking order, social scientists are usually looked down on by their peers in the natural sciences. Natural scientists do experiments to test their theories or, if they cannot, they try to look for natural phenomena that can act in lieu of experiments. Social scientists, it is widely thought, do not subject their own hypotheses to any such rigorous treatment. Worse, they peddle their untested hypotheses to governments and try to get them turned into policies.

B Governments require sellers of new medicines to demonstrate their safety and effectiveness. The accepted gold standard of evidence is a randomized control trial, in which a new drug is compared with the best existing therapy (or with a placebo, if no treatment is available). Patients are assigned to one arm or the other of such a study at random, ensuring that the only difference between the two groups is the new treatment. The best studies also ensure that neither patient nor physician knows which patient is allocated to which therapy. Drug trials must also include enough patients to make it unlikely that chance alone may determine the result.

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C But few education programs or social initiatives are evaluated in carefully conducted studies prior to their introduction. A case in point is the 'whole-language' approach to reading, which swept much of the English-speaking world in the 1970s and 1980s. The whole-language theory holds that children learn to read best by absorbing contextual clues from texts, not by breaking individual words into their component parts and reassembling them (a method known as phonics). Unfortunately, the educational theorists who pushed the whole-language notion so successfully did not wait for evidence from controlled randomized trials before advancing their claims. Had they done so, they might have concluded, as did an analysis of 52 randomized studies carried out by the US National Reading Panel in 2000, that effective reading instruction requires phonics. D To avoid the widespread adoption of misguided ideas, the sensible thing is to experiment first and make policy later. This is the idea behind a trial of restorative justice which is taking place in the English courts. The experiment will include criminals who 9

plead guilty to robbery. Those who agree to participate will be assigned randomly either to sentencing as normal or to participation in a conference in which the offender comes face-to-face with his victim and discusses how he may make emotional and material restitution. The purpose of the trial is to assess whether such restorative justice limits reoffending. If it does, it might be adopted more widely.

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E The idea of experimental evidence is not quite as new to the social sciences as sneering natural scientists might believe. In fact, randomized trials and systematic reviews of evidence were introduced into the social sciences long before they became common in medicine. An apparent example of random allocation is a study carried out in 1927 of how to persuade people to vote in elections. And randomized trials in social work were begun in the 1930s and 1940s. But enthusiasm later waned. This loss of interest can be attributed, at least in part, to the fact that early experiments produced little evidence of positive outcomes. Others suggest that much of the opposition to experimental evaluation stems from a common philosophical malaise among social scientists, who doubt the validity of the natural sciences, and therefore reject the potential of knowledge derived from controlled experiments. A more pragmatic factor limiting the growth of evidencebased education and social services may be limitations on the funds available for research.

F Nevertheless, some 11,000 experimental studies are known in the social sciences (compared with over 250,000 in the medical literature). Randomized trials have been used to evaluate the effectiveness of driver-education programs, job training schemes, classroom size, psychological counseling for post-traumatic stress disorder and increased investment in public housing. And where they are carried out, they seem to have a healthy dampening effect on otherwise rosy interpretations of the observations.

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G The problem for policymakers is often not too few data, but what to make of multiple and conflicting studies. This is where a body called the Campbell Collaboration comes into its own. This independent non-profit organization is designed to evaluate existing studies, in a process known as a systematic review. This means attempting to identify every relevant trial of a given question (including studies that have never been published), choosing the best ones using clearly defined criteria for quality, and combining the results in a statistically valid way. An equivalent body, the Cochrane Collaboration, has produced more than 1,004 such reviews in medical fields. The hope is that rigorous review standards will allow Campbell, like Cochrane, to become a trusted and authoritative source of information.

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Questions 1-6: The following reading passage has seven paragraphs A-G.

Choose the correct heading for paragraphs B-G from the list of headings below. List of Headings i Why some early social science methods lost popularity ii The cost implications of research iii Looking ahead to an unbiased assessment of research iv A range of social issues that have been usefully studied 10

v An example of a poor decision that was made too quickly vi What happens when the figures are wrong vii One area of research that is rigorously carried out viii The changing nature of medical trials ix An investigative study that may lead to a new system x Why some scientists' theories are considered second-rate Paragraph A

Answer: x

1. Paragraph B 2. Paragraph C 3. Paragraph D 4. Paragraph E 5. Paragraph F 6. Paragraph G

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Example

…………… …………… …………… …………… …………… ……………

Questions 7-10: Complete the summary below. Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.

Fighting Crime Some criminals in England are agreeing to take part in a trial designed to help reduce their chances of (7)....................... . The idea is that while one group of randomly selected criminals undergoes the usual (8)....................... the other group will discuss the possibility of making some repayment for the crime by meeting the (9) ....................... . It is yet to be seen whether this system, known as (10) ....................... will work.

PART IV. WRITING (40 points) Section 1: (20 points):

A. Rewrite the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence. Do Not change the form of the given word.

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1.The minister seems to be excellent at yielding awkward questions (FLAIR) →…………………………………………………………………………………………… 2. There will be no progress until we have fully understood the problem. (FULL)

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→ Not until there is ………………...........................……………………be any progress.

3. We were elated by the birth of our first grandchild (MOON) →…………………………………………………………………………………………… 4. This house is very different from the little flat we used to live in (CRY) →…………………………………………………………………………………………… 5. That wasn’t what I meant at all. You’ve completely misunderstood me as usual (STICK) → That wasn’t what I meant at all. You’ve……………………………………………… 11

B. For each of the sentences below, write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning to the original one, using the word given. 1. Going to and fro with al the cases is what I can’t stand about holidays → It’s all……………………………………………………………………………..….. 2. The village shop is now being managed by a national supermarket chain.

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→ A national supermarket chain has taken.......................................................................... 3. This door is an emergency exit and must never be locked for any reason.

→ On ............................................................... be locked because it is an emergency exit. 4. Yolanda’s family persuaded her to enter the competition.

→ Yolanda was talked......................................................... the competition by her family.

5. Just thinking about entering the university makes him so happy.

→ The very………………………………………………………….makes him so happy.

Section 2: (20 points):

In a bout 150 – 200 words, write a paragraph to discuss following topic:

“School violence is inreasing in schools. What are the possible causes of this problem?”

………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………

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………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………

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………………………………………………………………………………………………

***** The end****

Người ra đề: Nguyễn Thị Hồng Hưng

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DT: 0987929693

ĐÁN ÁN ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN THÁI BÌNH PART I. LISTENING (40 points) 1.

Sylvia

England

26th (of) July/July 26th/ July 26

two/2

(on) holiday

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Section 1: (10 points)

Section 2: (10 points)

1A, 2B, 3B, 4C, 5A

Section 3: (10 points)

1T, 2F, 3F, 4T, 5T

Section 4: (20 points)

2. ecologist

1 consultant

4. carbon meter

5. the government

7. (its/their) concerts

6. light bulbs

3. bills

9. (the) wind (power)

8. Earthship 10. handbook

PART II. LEXICO – GRAMMAR (50 points)

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Section 1. (20 points)

1B, 2C, 3A, 4B, 5B, 6C, 7C, 8D, 9D, 10A,

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11B, 12A, 13A, 14D, 15C, 16A, 17D, 18D, 19C, 20C

Section 2: (10 points) 1. industrial

→ industrialised

2. some time

→ at some time

3. is

→ is not

4. back

→ again

5. four

→ the four

6. divorce

→ in divorce

7. sex

→ sexual

8. rating

→ rate

9. fair

→ fairly

10. in

→ on

Section 3: (10 points) 2. look up 4. do (it) over 6. get (you) down 8. went out 10. put out 2. insoluble

3. persistent

4. emissions

5. arguably

6. biodiversity

7. overdevelopment

8. erosion

9. unspoiled / unspoilt

10. Pervasive

1. unprecedented

PART III. READING (60 points)

1C, 2C, 3B, 4D, 5C, 6D, 7B, 8C, 9D, 10A

Section 2: (15 points): 1. problems/issues

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9. source

2. daily

4. movement

5. demand 7. continue

Section 1: (15 points):

3. energy

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1. holds (it) against 3. try (it) out 5. go down 7. carry on 9. stick around Section 4: (10 points)

6. shortage

8. less 10. Pollution

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Section 3: (15 points):

1C, 2B, 3A, 4A, 5D, 6B, 7C, 8A, 9B. 10B

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Section 4: (15 points):

1. vii 2. v 3. ix 4. i 5. iv 6. iii 7. re-offending 8. sentencing 9. victim 10. restorative justice

PART IV. WRITING (40 points) Section 1: (20 points): A. Rewrite the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence. Do Not change the form of the given word. 1. The new minister seems to have a flair for yielding awkward questions 2

Not until there is a full understanding of the problem will there be any progress.

3. we were over the moon when our first grandchildren was born 4. This house is a far cry from the little flat we used to live in

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5. That wasn’t what I meant at all. You’ve got hold of the wrong end of the stick B. For each of the sentences below, write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning to the original one, using the word given.

1. It’s all toing and froing with all the cases that I can’t stand about holidays. 2. A national supermarket chain has taken charge over the management.

3. On no account must this door ever be locked because it is an emergency exit.

4. Yolanda was talked into entering the competition by her family.

5. The very thought of entering the university makes him so happy. Section 2: (20 points):

1. Task response (5 points)

Criteria:

The writer clearly states their point of view (agree/disagree) and provides a well-

supported paragraph related to the topic.

2. Lexical resource (5points)

- The writer uses synonyms and paraphrases flexibly.

- The writer uses topic-related vocabulary.

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3. Coherence and cohesion (5 points) - The paragraph has a topic sentence with controlling idea.

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- The topic is well-developed with relevant supporting evidence, examples and facts. - Ideas are well connected with suitable cohesive devices. - The paragraph shows a certain organization pattern (for example: by order of importance, etc.) - The writer uses pronouns consistently and coherently, with third-person pronouns (They, this, these, one/ones) gaining higher scores.

4. Grammatical range and accuracy (5 points) 3

- The writer uses a wide range of sentence structures (simple, compound and complex) - The writer uses verb tense and forms accurately.

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- The writer shows good control of spelling and punctuation.

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D KÈ M Y

Q N

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Tapescripts:

Section 2: You will hear 2 students discussing a seminar report. First you have some time to look at questions 21 to 25. Nick: Hi Adrian. What are you reading? Adrian: Oh, hi Nick. It’s just an article on Australian immigration. I’m doing a report on it next week in a seminar for Dr. Ronaldson.

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Nick: On immigration! That sounds exciting stuff!

Adrian: Yes. It’s not really very exciting but there are some interesting bits. Nick: Such as?

Adrian: Well, for example did you know that immigration to Australia first started over 50,000 years ago when the ancestors of Australian Aborigines arrived via Indonesia and

New Guinea.

Nick: I can’t say I did know that the aborigines arrived in that way.

Adrian: Exactly. It’s not as boring as you might think. right now.

Adrian: That would be great. Thanks.

Nick: Well, do you want to run through some of your ideas? I’m not doing anything

Nick: Fire away then.

Adrian: OK. Well, after the aborigines there was obviously a big gap until the next

settlers arrived from London. Europeans began landing in the 1600s and 1700s, and the

country was colonized by Britain in 1788.

Nick : Weren’t the first colonists just criminals transported by Britain? Adrian: Britain certainly used the colony as a place to send their undesirables. The first

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colony was formally proclaimed as New South Waleson February 7 and this European settlement certainly did begin with a troupe of petty criminals, second-rate soldiers and

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a crew of sailors.

Nick: When did other people start arriving? Adrian: Immigration really sped up after the discovery of gold in Australia. The Gold rush era, beginning in 1851, led to an enormous expansion in population all through the reign of Queen Victoria. Nick: And did that continue strongly?

Adrian: Not really. After the excitement of the gold rush died down, immigration slowed down considerably. The popularity of Australia as a place to go and live only really shot up after the Second World War. Nick: Didn’t that cause problems as well? Adrian: Yes. For a country that is well known today for it’s multi-cultural diversity and

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tolerance, Australia has had a checkered past. After the Federation of all the Australian states, the “White Australia Policy” was created to counteract flows of nonwhites to

Australia and this policy became even more popular after the population push following the war. Nick: How did the policy come about?

Adrian: The origin of the policy can be traced back to the 1850s when large numbers of

Chinese immigrated to Australia to look for gold or to set up businesses such as

restaurants. The anglo-australian population resented the Chinese who were

undercutting white labor prices. In response, the newly self-governing colonies

introduced restrictions on Chinese immigration. By 1888 Chinese were excluded from

all the Australian colonies, although those Chinese who were already in Australia were not deported.

Nick: And how long did it go on for?

Adrian: The effective end of the White Australia policy is usually dated to 1973, when

the Whitlam Labour government implemented a series of amendments preventing the

enforcement of racial aspects of the immigration law. It had been fading for some years though. Under the 1950 Colombo Plan, students from Asian countries were admitted to

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study at Australian universities. This trend continued when in 1957 non-whites with 15 years’ residence in Australia were allowed to become citizens.

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Section 3:

Interviewer: Hello, Pamela, welcome to the programme. So many young people want to be fashion designers these days, but don't know how to get started. Pamela Green: Hi. I felt exactly like that myself! You must first discover if this is really what you want to do. I wasn't sure to begin with, so I started off by looking for a store in my neighbourhood that sold its own clothes. The owner invited me into her studio and told me what a typical day was like. She allowed me to ask as many questions as I wanted. Having made up my mind, I then contacted a few colleges to see what courses in fashion were on offer, and I was lucky to find one that seemed ideal. 7

Interviewer: So a degree in fashion is a must?

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Pamela Green: Well, you often meet designers who go to college later in life, after years of working in the industry. The truth is the best students aren't always the best designers, but there's no denying that a degree will show that you've got certain basic skills and get you your first job. Don't be surprised to find colleagues with fewer qualifications on higher pay than yourself though. Making progress from that point will depend entirely on your personal talent. Interviewer: What basic skills do you need?

Pamela Green: When you ask a fashion student what they want to do, they often reply 'have my own line'. Not an easy task, I must say. You need work experience first, ideally in a successful fashion shop, to understand that this industry is led by commerce. Starting your own line requires capital and a clear overview of how it's going to develop. Without it, clothes design can only be a hobby. Of course, if you've got an eye for colour, style and shape and an ability to draw, you shouldn't let go of the dream. Interviewer: Where do you get the inspiration for your designs?

Pamela Green: To be a good designer, you have to be aware of the world you live in, you need to go out and look at people's lives and attitudes, you really have to learn how to observe what's happening around you. And I don't mean going abroad necessarily my social circle is invaluable for me, for example - a constant source of ideas. You have to remember the clothes are not for you, you have to adapt to what other people want. And don't be tempted to imitate the famous designers, however beautiful their collections might look.

Interviewer: Now you're a successful designer, are things easier?

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Pamela Green: It took me a while to learn to cope with criticism, though. You think your design drawings look brilliant, but you mustn't get upset if the garment doesn't look as you'd imagined it. What I've never managed to get used to is the sheer amount of work involved in finishing your collection well in advance of the season. Some designers stop attending fashion shows, for example, which involve lots of timeconsuming travelling, but I'd be unhappy to give that up. Interviewer: Do you have to do a lot of reading to keep up with trends?

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Pamela Green: You have to read fashion magazines and other media that reflect current trends and tastes. It doesn't matter whether you want to use them in your own designs. Nobody knows what styles will be fashionable in, say, two years' time, but the point is you have to know just about everything that's been done before, so that you can spot it when it becomes popular again. Interviewer: This is a very competitive industry. Realistically, what are the chances for somebody starting? Pamela Green: Don't make the mistake of aiming just for designing outfits, which is just one part of a vast industry. You may be perfectly happy as an obscure but competent designer of small pieces for collections - jewellery, hats, shoes - all of which need to be created. And then somebody has to market them, sell them, write about 8

them. Fame and glory is just for the top twenty world designers, and life isn't always wonderful even for them. Interviewer: Pamela, many thanks. Section 4:

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Interviewer: Tonight my guest is Daren Howarth who works as a carbon coach. What exactly does that mean Daren? Daren Howarth: Well, most people know about global warming and would like to do something to reduce the amount of carbon they send out into the atmosphere, but they don't always know the best way of doing this. What I do as a carbon coach is give them advice about how to achieve environmentally friendly living. I'm now a full-time consultant, and my clients include both companies and private individuals. Interviewer: What made you decide to become a carbon coach?

Daren Howarth: Well it all started about fifteen years ago. I'd always been interested in energy-saving and the environment and I trained as an ecologist. At that time, people were talking about very technical things like greenhouse gas emissions, then someone came up with the term 'carbon footprint', which is much easier for people to understand.

Interviewer: And you can tell ordinary families what their carbon footprint is, can't you?

Daren Howarth: That's right. I work out how much carbon dioxide the family's generated over a year; firstly by studying their bills, then finding out how much waste they produce, how much they use the car, and so on. Adding together all these figures, I calculate their total carbon footprint in tonnes of carbon dioxide. Then I take a look around their home and suggest ways of reducing their carbon footprint.

Interviewer: How do you work out how much carbon each machine around the house emits?

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Daren Howarth: By switching off all the things that use electricity, then turning each one on one at a time, you can see the amount of energy each one uses. I use something known as a 'carbon meter' which measures the amount of electricity being used in the house at any one time. It also shows how much carbon dioxide this represents. Interviewer: What's the least energy efficient thing you've seen in homes?

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Daren Howarth: I go into so many places where I look in the roof and there's no insulation, so there's nothing stopping all the heat just going straight out into the outside air. Insulation massively reduces your carbon footprint; it's cheap and the government will help with the cost of it. Interviewer: So is that the worst thing? Daren Howarth: Well, central heating systems can be very inefficient and people use things like electric knives and mixers which are unnecessary, but the thing I really can't stand is when people are still using old-fashioned light bulbs. People can't resist them because they're so cheap, but up to ninety percent of the energy they produce is lost as heat. If you have one, put it in a box and smash it up, so no one else can use it. Interviewer: What other type of clients do you have? 9

Daren Howarth: We work with both individuals and businesses - and even some celebrities, such as the band Supergrass. For one of their albums about three years ago, the band decided to minimise their carbon footprint at their concerts and then also cut the amount of carbon produced when making a CD. The carbon footprint for a disc is just a few grams, but a big band like Supergrass will produce thousands of copies, which means several tonnes of carbon.

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Interviewer: And what are your plans for the future? Daren Howarth: I'm working hard on introducing a really green type of home in this country known as an Earthship. It's a building that creates its own energy, heats and cools itself, collects its own water and deals with its own waste. It's also built from recycled materials. It doesn't need electricity or gas for heating, as it captures and stores energy by using wind power, and solar panels on the roof charge up batteries which provide power. Interviewer: Any disadvantages?

Daren Howarth: You have to change your lifestyle and keep an eye on changes in the weather. There are thousands of examples around the world and there's a handbook on sale that explains everything about it - you'll find the details on my website - and it's something you can do for yourself - you don't have to employ someone to do the work for you.

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Interviewer: Well Daren thanks for telling us about carbon footprints and how we can all ...

HỘI CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN

HỘI THI HỌC SINH GIỎI DUYÊN HẢI BẮC BỘ

KHU VỰC DUYÊN HẢI BẮC BỘ

LẦN THỨ X

TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN VĨNH PHÚC

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ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT MÔN: Tiếng Anh 10 Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút. (không kể thời gian giao đề)

A. LISTENING (50 points)

Part 1. You are going to hear a talk which gives information about the congestion charging

When it applies

WORDS AND/OR a number for each answer.

scheme. While you listen, complete the notes below using NO MORE THAN THREE

Monday-Friday, from 7 a.m until (1) _______ p.m.

How much it costs

standard: £8

payment after 10 p.m.: (2) £ _______ How to pay

after midnight: (3) __________

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by telephone

by (4) _________

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on the Internet

at one of (5) _________ Pay Points in the zone

Your answers: 1.

Part 2: You will hear an interview with Kip Keino, a Kenyan Olympic athlete. For each of the following questions, choose the option which fits best to what you hear. 1. African runners ____________ A. have won all the middle distance competitions recently.

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B. have learned a lot from successful British runners. C. have dominated some running events over the last 25 years. D. beat the British world record holders in Athens. 2. The farm ____________ A. brings in substantial profits. B. acts as an orphanage.

C. is in the town of Eldoret.

B. pessimistic

C. grateful

D. compassionate

A. nervous

3. Kip seems to be __________

D. has stopped him from running for a living.

4. The children ________

A. are encouraged to leave the farm when they finish school.

B. often have a difficult time at the farm.

C. are expected to get a good job.

D. are free to do as they like after high school.

5. The farm is __________

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A. developing a new project. B. going to be transformed into a school. C. going to be totally funded by donors in the future.

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D. funded mainly by the church.

Your answers:

Part 3. You will hear a dialogue between two friends. As you listen, indicate whether the following statements are true or not by writing T for a statement which is true; F for a statement which is false

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? if there is insufficient information ____ 1. Now some people still take a risk when the police officer is away on Newland Street. ____ 2. The police officer there doesn’t get any pay for the work.

____ 3. Officer Springirth is a real man and he is a volunteer there.

____ 4. Officer Springirth helps the police to reduce the crime rate in Chase Village.

Your answers: 3.

____ 5 . The police department will put more mannequins on other roads.

Part 4. You will hear a radio programme about the history of roller skating. For questions 1-

10, complete the sentences using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS. History of roller skating

The country where the first roller skates were probably made was (1) __________

roller skates.

In 1760, John Merlin went to a ball in London playing a (2) _________________ whilst on

Unfortunately, John Merlin injured himself when he broke a (3) ______________ at the ball.

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In Germany, roller skating was used in a ballet called (4) __________________ James Plimpton’s invention helped roller skaters to control the (5) ___________ of their skates. The first team sport to be played on roller skates was (6) _________________

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In Detroit in 1937, the first (7) __________________________ in the sport took place.

The use of plastics meant that both the (8) ______________ and _____________ of roller skates improved. The musical “Starlight Express” was seen by as many as (9) _______________ in London. The speaker says that modern roller skates are now (10) ______ and ______ than ever before. 3

Your answers: 1.

10.

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B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (50 points) Part 1. Choose the best option A, B, C, or D to complete the following sentences and write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. 1. A __________ in a jewel makes it less valuable. A. fragment

B. facet

C. flaw

D. fault

2. You need to __________ experience before you can be considered for promotion. B. earn

C. win C. wearing

B. comfort

3. These shoes are a bit too tight for __________. A. ease

D. gain

A. collect

D. relief

B. stiff

C. still

D. hard

A. frozen

4. Having spotted the burglar behind the curtain, I was scared __________. 5. I think he’s an idiot. __________, he’s not very intelligent. B. Say so

C. That is to say

A. Having my say

D. To say nothing

B. burning

A. blazing

6. Miriam left her husband after a __________ row. C. hot

D. heavy

B. to

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A. about

7. I don’t like the building. Now as __________ the neighborhood, I do have concerns. C. regards

D. well

8. Thanks for having me! I’ve had __________ with you guys. A. so fun

B. such fun

C. good time

D. so good time

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9. I didn’t __________ to see Allen when I was in New York. B. time

C. meet

D. get

A. take

10. Don’t be anxious. Tim will arrive in __________ time. A. right 11. My father

B. proper

C. exact

D. due

__ when he found out that I’d damaged the car. 4

A. hit the roof

B. saw pink elephants

C. made my blood boil

D. brought the house down

12. My grandfather was never __________ apologize to anyone. A. had to

B. known for

C. heard to

D. believed in

A. take it

B. put it

C. say

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13. Your husband was a bit out of control at the party, to __________ mildly. D. tell

14. __________of the financial crisis, all they could do was hold on and hope that things would improve. A. On the top

B. In the end

C. At the bottom D. At the height

15. When I got my case back, it had been damaged __________repair. B. beyond

C. above

D. over

A. further

B. giraffe

C. crocodile

A. hen

16. Last night, Harry had a __________ party with his male friends before getting married. D. stag

17. The country's wealth comes chiefly from its many __________. B. packs of cattle C. crowds of cattle D. schools of cattle

A. herds of cattle

18. We did our best to fix the broken computer, but our efforts bore no __________. B. luck

C. fruit

A. success

D. end

19. He who __________ is a fool for five minutes, but he who does not remains a fool forever. B. prays

A. asks

C. learns

D. hopes

20. There are a lot of computer programmers nowadays, but really good ones are few and far

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___. A. amongst

B. apart

C. away

D. between

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10.

Your answers:

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

Part 2. In most lines of the following text there is an incorrect item. Read the numbered lines 0-10 and then write the correct form of the word in the spaces provided for your answers. Some lines are correct. Indicate these lines with a tick (√). The first one has been done for you. 0. convenient

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The latest, most comfortable credit card is the Europersonal Loan card, with who you can increase your spending power by up to $20,000. This

1. ................

can be lent at low interest rates and with a minimum of complicated

2. ................

red-tape. Major purchases can be done with the freedom this card

3. ................

provides. In addition, the card can be used to act with unexpected

4. ................

emergencies. The bank requires some form of proof that the customer

5. ................

will be able to repay some money borrowed. A previous bank or building 6. ................ 7. ................

within three months, the interest rate will be only 2%. Moreover, in the

8. ................

event of this time limit expiring, the rate will increase at 3,5%. The

9. ................

society statement will serve this reason. Provided the loan is repaid

10. ..............

Europersonal Loan card is a secure, easy way to srtetch your budget. Your answers: 7.

10.

Part 3. Fill in each gap in the following sentences with suitable particle(s).

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1. The deal is more than we have bargained ______. 2. My teacher says that I need to brush ______ my English. 3. We won't rule ______ the possibility of getting help from Shevy.

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4. Margaret and Mary broke ______ after an intense quarrel.

5. He takes ______ his grandfather, with the same broad forehead. 6. I did not hold ______ any details but revealed everything to the principal. 7. Let us lay ______ our differences and solve the problem first.

8. After answering all the questions, you should go ______ them to check for careless

mistakes. 9. One of the most fundamental rules of the game is never take your eye ______ the ball. 10. "It all boils ______ you. Are you willing to give the relationship another shot?" asked Todd.

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Your answers: 5.

10.

Part 4. Write the correct form of the words given in capital. Write your answers in the spaces provided below.

DO STATISTICS TELL THE WHOLE STORY?

Once (1)______ regarded as reflecting the level of crime in CONFIDENCE

society, criminal statistics are now interpreted with caution. Such statistics

are based only on (2) ____offences which have been reported and NOTIFY recorded. But not all of these are reported by the public, so there are (3) ACCURATE

____ in what is actually recorded. It has been suggested that routinely

compiled statistics seriously under-record some types of crime such as (4) VANDAL

_____, petty theft and domestic violence.

The (5)____ of a court case, and whether a conviction is actually COME

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recorded or not, also depends on a complex mix of ingredients. And changes in police (6)_____ or even simple

human (7)_____ can PROCEED

sometimes means no record is made of a crime.

ERR

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Some would argue, therefore, that the criminal statistics we have

are less a picture of the (8)________ of crime than an indication of what INCIDENT the authorities actually find it (9)________ to police, and also a reflection MANAGE of the kinds of offences that tend to end up in court and result in convictions. Nevertheless, after a period of criticism and (10) ________, CERTAIN 7

the use of criminal statistics has been regaining broad acceptance. Your answers: 2.

10.

C. READING (60 points)

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Part 1. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap. Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes.

Many separate fires (1) ______ in the humus of the forest floor. Smoke sometimes (2) ______ the sun, which was often visible only at midday. On September 30, flames came within

three miles of the town of Green Bay, (3) ______ 1,200 cords of wood stored at a charcoal kiln.

The settlements in the area were becoming increasingly (4) ______ from both the outside

world and one another as railroad and telegraph lines burned. The fires seemed to wax and

wane, (5) ______ on the wind and chance. On September 30 the Marinette and Peshtigo Eagle

reported hopefully that “the fires have nearly (6) ______ now in this vincinity”. But the paper was wrong, and the fires were growing. By October 4, the smoke was so

thick on Green Bay that ships had to use their foghorns and (7) ______ by compass. On October

7, the paper, reduced to looking for any scrap of good news, noted that at least the smoke had

greatly reduced the mosquito population and that “a certain establishment down on the bay

shore that has been (8) ______ to the respectable citizens” had burned.

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The paper’s editor, (9) ______ by the burning of the telegraph line, could not know it, but a large, deep low-pressure area was moving in from the west. The winds circling it would turn the smoldering forest of northestern Winconsin into (10) ______ on earth. B. engulfed

C. spread

D. smoldered

2. A. obscured

B. burnt

C. illuminated

D. exposed

3. A. damaging

B. consuming

C. avoiding

D. licking

4. A. frightened

B. lonely

C. isolated

D. inundated

5. A. depending

B. independent

C. waiting

D. from

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1. A. extinguished

B. died out

C. flared

D. diminished

7. A. steer

B. drive

C. guess

D. navigate

8. A. frequented

B. obnoxious

C. open

D. ignorant

9. A. cut-off

B. burnt

C. dismissed

D. chased

10. A. peace

B. heaven

C. hell

D. paradise

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6. A. increased

Your answers: 1.

10.

Part 2. Read the following text and fill in the blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes.

THE TROUBLE WITH SCHOOL

In the first few years at school all appears to (1) _______ very well. There is much

concern, (2) _______ the part of the teachers, with high educational standards, and the children, even (3) _______ who are far from being privileged in other ways, seem eager and happy.

However, by the time the children (4) _______ adolescence, the promise of the early years

frequently remains unfulfilled. Many leave school (5) _______ having mastered those basic

of creative intelligence.

skills which society demands, let (6) _______ having developed the ability to exercise any sort

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There is no denying that, in spite of the enlightened concern of our primary schools with happiness, schooling (7) _______ or other turns into a distinctly unhappy experience for many of our children. Large numbers of them emerge from it well aware that they are ill-equipped life

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in our society. So then they either regard (8) _______ as stupid for failing or else, quite

understandably, they regard the activities at which they have failed as stupid. In any event they want no (9) _______ of them. How can we justify a long (10) _______ of compulsory education which ends like that? Your answers: 9

10.

Part 3. Read the following passage and choose the correct answer to each of the following

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questions. Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. The Alaska pipeline starts at the frozen edge of the Arctic Ocean. It stretches southward across the largest and northernmost state in the United States, ending at a remote ice-free seaport village nearly 800 miles from where it begins. It is massive in size and extremely complicated to operate.

The steel pipe crosses windswept plains and endless miles of delicate tundra that tops the

frozen ground. It weaves through crooked canyons, climbs sheer mountains, plunges over rocky

crags, makes its way through thick forests, and passes over or under hundreds of rivers and

streams. The pipe is 4 feet in diameter, and up to 2 million barrels (or 84 million gallons) of crude

oil can be pumped through it daily.

Resting on H-shaped steel racks called "bents," long sections of the pipeline follow a zigzag course high above the frozen earth. Other long sections drop out of sight beneath spongy

or rocky ground and return to the surface later on. The pattern of the pipeline's up-and-down

route is determined by the often harsh demands of the arctic and subarctic climate, the tortuous

lay of the land, and the varied compositions of soil, rock, or permafrost (permanently frozen

ground). A little more than half of the pipeline is elevated above the ground. The remainder is

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buried anywhere from 3 to 12 feet, depending largely upon the type of terrain and the properties of the soil.

One of the largest in the world, the pipeline cost approximately $8 billion and is by far the

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biggest and most expensive construction project ever undertaken by private industry. In fact, no

single business could raise that much money, so eight major oil companies formed a consortium in order to share the costs. Each company controlled oil rights to particular shares of land in the oil fields and paid into the pipeline-construction fund according to the size of its holdings. Today, despite enormous problems of climate, supply shortages, equipment breakdowns, labor 10

disagreements, treacherous terrain, a certain amount of mismanagement, and even theft, the Alaska pipeline has been completed and is operating. 1. The passage primarily discusses the pipeline's _______. B. employees

C. consumers

D. construction

2. The word "it" in bold refers to _______. A. pipeline

B. ocean

C. state

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A. operating costs

D. village

3. According to the passage, 84 million gallons of oil can travel through the pipeline each ____. A. day

B. week

C. month

D. year

4. The phrase "Resting on" in bold is closest in meaning to _______. B. supported by

C. passing under

D. protected with

A. consisting of

5. The author mentions all of the following as important in determining the pipeline's route B. climate

C. local vegetation

D. kind of

A. lay of the land itself

EXCEPT the________.

soil and rock

6. The word "undertaken" in bold is closest in meaning to _______. B. selected

C. transported

A. removed

D. attempted

B. Four

A. Three

7. How many companies shared the costs of constructing the pipeline? C. Eight

D. Twelve

B. specific

C. exceptional

D. equal

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A. peculiar

8. The word "particular" in bold is closest in meaning to _______. 9. Which of the following determined what percentage of the construction costs each member of the consortium would pay?

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A. How much oil field land each company owned. B. How long each company had owned land in the oil fields.

C. How many people worked for each company. D. How many oil wells were located on the company's land.

10. Which word in the passage does the author provide as a term for an earth covering that always remains frozen? A. plain

B. tundra

C. permafrost

D. terrain

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Your answers: 5.

10.

Part 4. Read the passage and choose the most suitable headings for sections A, B, C and D List of Headings

from the list of headings below. Amazonia as unable to sustain complex societies

ii.

The role of recent technology in ecological research in Amazonia

iii.

The hostility of the indigenous population to North America influences

iv.

Recent evidence

Early research among the Indian Amazons

vi.

The influence of prehistoric inhabitants on Amazonian natural history.

vii.

The great difficulty of changing local attitudes and practices.

1. Section A: _________

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2. Section B__________

3. Section C: _________

Secret of the Forest

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4. Section D: _________

A. In 1942 Allan R Holmberg, a doctoral student in anthropology from Yale University, USA ventured deep into the jungle of Bolivian Amazonia and searched out an isolated band of Sirino Indians. The Siriono, Holmberg later wrote, led a “strikingly backward” 12

existence. Their villages were little more than clusters of thatched huts. Life itself was a perpetual and punishing search for food: some families grew manioc and other starchy crops in small garden plots cleared from the forest, while other members of the tribe scoured the country for small game and promising fish holes. When local resources

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became depleted, the tribe moved on. As for technology, Holmberg noted, the Sirino “may be classified among the most handicapped peoples of the world”. Other than bows, arrowa and crude digging sticks, the only tools the Sirino seemed to possess were “ two machetes worn to the size of pocket knives".

B. Although the lives of the Sirino have changed in the intervening decades, the image of them as Stone Age relics has endured. In deed, in many respects the Sirino epitomize the

popular conception of life in Amazonia. To casual observers, as well as to influential

natural scientists and regional planners, the luxuriant forests of Amazonia seem ageless,

unconquerable, a habitat totally hostile to human civilization. The apparent simplicity of

Indian ways of life has been judged an evolutionary adaptation to forest ecology, living

proof that Amazonia could not- and cannot- sustain a more complex society. Archaeological traces of far more elaborate cultures have been dismissed as the ruins of

invaders from outside the region, abandoned to decay in the uncompromising tropical

environment.

C. The popular conception of Amazonia and its native residents would be enormously

consequential if it were true. But the human history of Amazonia in the past 11,000 years

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betrays that view as myth. Evidence gathered in recent years from anthropology and archeology indicates that the region has supported a series of indigenous cultures for eleven thousand years; an extensive network of complex societies- some with populations

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perhaps as large as 100,000- thrived there for more than 1,000 years before the arrival of Europeans. (Indeed, some contemporary tribes, including the Sirino, still live among the

earthworks of earlier cultures). Far from being evolutionarily retarded, prehistoric Amazonian people developed technologies and cultures that were advanced for their time. If the lives of Indians today seem “primitive”, the appearance is not the result of 13

some environmental adaptation or ecological barrier; rather it is a comparatively recent adaptation to centuries of economic and political pressure. Investigators who argue otherwise have unwittingly projected the present onto the past. D. The evidence for a revised view of Amazonia will take many people by surprise.

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Ecologists have assumed that tropical ecosystems were shaped entirely by natural forces and they have focused their research on habitats they believe have escaped human influences. But as the University of Florida ecologists, Peter Feinsinger, has noted, an approach that leaves people out of the equation is no longer tenable. The archeological evidence shows that the natural history of Amazonia is to a surprising extent tied to the activities of its prehistoric inhabitants.

E. The realization comes none too soon. In June 1992 political and environmental leaders

from across the world met in Rio de Janeiro to discuss how developing countries can

advance their economies without destroying their natural resources. The challenge is

especially difficult in Amazonia. Because the tropical forest has been depicted as

ecologically unfit for large-scale human occupation, some environmentalists have opposed development of any kind. Ironically, some major casualty of that extreme

position has been the environment itself. While policy makers struggle to define and

implement appropriate legislation, development of the most destructive kind has

continued space over vas areas.

F. The other major casualty of the “naturalism” of environmental scientists has been the

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indigenous Amazonians, whose habits of hunting, fishing and slash-and-burn cultivation often have been represented as harmful to the habitat. In the clash between environmentalists and developers, the Indians, whose presence is in fact crucial to the

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survival of the forest, have suffered the most. The new understanding of the pre-history of Amazonia, however, points toward a middle ground. Archeology makes clear that with

judicious management selected parts of the region could support more people than anyone thought before. The long buried past, it seems, offers hope for the future.

Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer in the passage? YES

if the statement agrees with the view of the writer

if the statement contradicts the view of the writer

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NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer think about this. 5. The reason for the simplicity of the Indian way of life is that Amazonia has always been unable to support a more complex society.

6. There is a crucial popular misconception about the human history of Amazonia.

7. There are lessons to be learned from similar ecosystems in other parts of the world.

8. Most ecologists were aware that the areas of Amazonia they were working in had been

shaped by human settlement

9. The indigenous Amazonian Indians are necessary to the well- being of the forest

10. It would be possible for certain parts of Amazonia to support a higher population 2.

10.

D. WRITING (40 points)

Your answers:

Part 1. Rewrite the following sentences without changing their meaning, using the words

given. These words must not be changed in any way.

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1. There is no way you are going to persuade me not to go on holiday with her. (TALK) 2. Because it was late, I had to walk home in the end. ENDED 3. They accused Jimmy of stealing the money. (PUT)

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4. She can’t remember meeting you before. (RECOLLECTION)

5. A notorious mass-murder is on the run from prison. (LARGE)

Part 2. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it. 15

1. It was careless of you to leave without locking the door. You ought ________________________________________________. 2. The organization is supported by the government for most of its income.

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The organization depends ___________________________________. 3. The last political scandal of this kind took place fifty years ago.

There hasn’t ______________________________________________. 4. You’re so lazy, you don’t deserve to pass your exams next month.

You’re so lazy, it will serve ___________________________________.

5. Because of the lack of cooperation, he decided to leave the project unfinished.

He chose to _______________________________________________.

Part 3. Paragraph writing

Do you agree or disagree with the opinion that social media has negative impact on teenagers’

lives?

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END OF THE TEST

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM A. LISTENING (50 points) Part 1. 2. 10 2. B

1. C Part 3. 1.F

3. (automatic) penalty charge

3. D 3F

4. text message 4. D

5.?

Part 4.

5. A

1 Holland

5. 200

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1. 6.30 Part 2.

2 violin

3 (large) mirror

4 Winter Pleasures 5 direction 7 championships 9 eight million/8.000,000 people

10 lighter/safer (in either order)

8 design/performance (in either order)

6(roller) hockey

B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (50 points) Part 1. (20 points) 2. D 7. C 12. C 17. A

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1. C 6. A 11. A 16. D Part 2. (10 points)

1. which 2. borrowed Part 3. (10 points)

3. made 4. deal

1. for 2. up (on) 6. back 7. aside Part 4. (10 points)

3. B 8. B 13. B 18. C 5. √ 6. any 3. out 8. over

4. B 9. D 14. D 19. A 7. purpose 8. However 4. up 9. off

5. C 10. D 15. B 20. D 9. to 10. √ 5. after 10. down to

3. inaccuracies 4. vandalism

5. outcome 6. procedures

7. error 8. incidence

5.A

7.D

C. READING (60 points) Part 1. (15 points) 3.B

6.B

1. go 2. on Part 3. (15 points)

3. those 4. reach

5. without 6. alone

7. somehow 8. themselves

1. D 6. D Part 4. (15 points)

2. A 7. C

3. A 8. B

4. B 9. A

2. i

3. iv

6.YES

7. NOT GIVEN

8. NO

9.A

10.C

9. more 10. period

5. C 10. C

4. vi

5. NO

9. YES

10. YES

1. v

D. WRITING (40 points) Part 1. (10 points)

8.B

1.D 2.A Part 2. (15 points)

4.C

9. manageable 10. uncertainty

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1. confidently 2. notifiable

1. There is no way you are going to talk me out of going on holiday with her.

2. Because it was late, I ended up walking home.

3. They put the blame on Jimmy for stealing the money. 4. She has no recollection of meeting/having met you before.

5. A notorious mass-murder is at large.

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Part 2. (10 points)

1. You ought not to have left without locking the door.

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2. The organization depends the government for most of its income. 3. There hasn’t been a/ any political scandal like this for fifty years.

4. You’re so lazy, it will serve you right if you fail your exams next month. 5. He chose to abandon the project because of the lack of cooperation Part 3. Paragraph writing (20 points) 2

TAPESCRIPTS

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Part 1. (IELTS Masterclass) Presenter: ... For more practical details, I’ll pass you over to Jon Ward, from the London Tourist Agency.

Jon Ward: Thanks. So, that was a brief introduction to the congestion carging scheme, but if yu’re actually going to be driving your car in London on weekdays, there are a few more details you will need to know. Firstly, you don’t need to worry about paying all the time. The charge applies between seven in the morning and half past six in the evening, Monday to Friday. You’ll be pleased to to hear however that, because the scheme is intended to reduce traffic during busy working hours, evenings and weekends are free. If you enter the zone during the charging times, you’ll be eligible to pay the standard charge of eight pounds, which you can pay until ten o’clock on that day. After ten o’clock this charge rises to ten pounds. But be warned, if you fail to pay before midnight, you will have to pay an automatic penalty charge. In other words, thre’s no escape. Let’s move on to paying. The charge, as I’ve said, is eight pounds a day, and the authorities have set up a number of system to make it easy for you to pay, or rather to ensure that nobody has a good excuse for not paying. So, using your credit card, you can pay by phone, by text message, or on the Internet. The other option is o go to one of the 200 Pay Points elsewhere in the country. If you know you’re gong to be driving in and out of London on a regular basis, you can buy weekly, monthly or annual passes, rather like a railway season ticket.

Part 2. (Succeed in CPE, p.17)

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Interviewer: In 1973, the Kenyan runner Kip Keino was in his world-beating prime. Today, he lives modestly on a farm caring for dozens of young or orphans. Kp, over the past quarter of a centurey, runners from the African continent have gradually established a stronghold on middle distance running to the point where the rest of the world has been starved of suceess. (Q1)

ẠY

Kip: I’m not sure that’s entirely true. There have been exceptions. The Bristish world record beaters, Sebastian Coe, Stve Ovett and Dave Poorcroft come to mind. It is true to say, however, that in the World Athetics Championships in Athens, African men won 11 of 15 medals at distances from 800m to 10,000m. Interviewer: Exactly. Imagine if the International Olympic Commitee ever opened the Olympic to all the best athletes instead of restricting each country to three representatives. And now Kip, you won your first Olympic gold medals in Mexico city in 1968, didn’t you?

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Kip: Every penny I ever earned from running, has been invested in this farm, together with the profits from a sports shop I operate in the naerby town of Eldoret. I don’t crave material possessions. The 50-acre farm is home to my immediate family, true, but it also provides shelter for orphans of all ages.(Q2) There were 74 at the last count but we need never turn anyone away. It’s been this way for 30 years. I think it’s important to assist those who need assistance. We share what we have. You see, in the world today there are a lot of people who don’t have any assistance. Mainly we assist those who don’t have any parents. For example, a mother dies in the hospital and nobody comes for the child. The child is not sick! Abandoned kids and others who live on the street, they have nobody to take care of them. They need education. They need to have a father and a mothet so they feel like ant other children in our society. (Q4)

Interviewer: Your own mother died when you were very young, didn’t she? What effect has that had on the way you help the children here?

Kip: I just want to spare others the emotional pain of growing up without a parent. All the children are treated although they are our own. They are fed, clothed and sent to school but more importently, they are loved. They will remain at the orpanage until they have finished high school. Aferwards, their decisions are their own, some stay and some go. (Q4)

I’m very proud of them all. They have all overcome terrible problems and I’m particularly proud of the way they work in order to get a good education. Some have gone on to become teachers, soldiers, doctors. Accountants and are themselves raising families.

Part 4. (FCE)

Interviewer: Donations from Christian ministries and from private donors supplement Keino’s own income, which has allowed a 20-room dorminotory to be built adjascent to the original farmhouse. It has a library and a chapel. There are plan in the works to build a primary school on the farmland, too.(Q5)

In today's programme, I'm going to be talking about roller skating: how the sport started and how it has developed over the years. So who was the first person to come up with the idea of attaching wheels to the feet in order to get about more quickly and easily?

ẠY

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Well, roller skates are not a new invention. In fact, roller skating developed out of the much older activity of ice-skating, which has existed in Scandinavia and other northern countries for centuries. The actual inventor of the first roller skates is not known, but it's generally thought that they originated in Holland in the early 1700s.

Roller skates first arrived in Britain in 1760 when the Belgian clockmaker John Merlin wore some to a formal ball in London. Merlin was known as something of a mad inventor, but he surprised everybody at the ball when he whizzed past them on wheels, playing the violin at the same time. Unfortunately, Merlin did not manage to persuade people that roller skating was a good idea. His skates had no brakes and he ended up crashing into a large mirror. Merlin was quite seriously injured in the accident and, as a result, roller skating did not immediately become popular in Britain.

In Germany, however, roller skates made a better impression. They were used in a ballet with the name Winter Pleasures, which included a scene where the dancers skated on ice. Because they couldn't produce the ice on stage, the organisers decided to use roller skates instead.

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After this, the sport gradually became more popular, but it was only thanks to technical advances that it became safer. In 1863, an American named James Plimpton solved the problem of controlling direction when skating by fitting them with rubber springs. His design is widely regarded as the origin of the modern roller skate, although rubber toe brakes, another important safety feature didn't come in until the 1870s. The late nineteenth century saw the beginnings of events such as speed contests, artistic displays and roller dancing as well as the first team sport on roller skates, roller hockey.

During the first decades of the twentieth century, hundreds of indoor and outdoor roller skating rinks opened, especially in the USA, and the sport became really established as a popular pastime. The first roller skating championships were held in Detroit in 1937.

The real development of the modern roller skate only began in the second half of the twentieth century. From the 1950s onwards, the use of plastics led to improvements in the design and performance of roller skates, and roller disco movies of the 1970s and 1980s increased the popularity of the sport, with roller discos opening in many parts of the world. Meanwhile, the stage musical Starlight Express, which features roller skating, ran for seventeen years and was seen by eight million people.

The sport of roller skating has also been gaining a more serious following, especially in southern Europe and South America. The biggest modern change to roller skates came in 1983 with the introduction of in-line skates, also known as rollerblades. Then during the 1990s, new materials, brakes and boot fastenings all combined to make skates both lighter and safer than they had ever been in the past.

ẠY

KÈ

So why is roller skating so popular? I went to talk to some fans at a rink in Huddersfield ...

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI KHU VỰC THPT LẦN THỨ X, NĂM 2017 Môn thi: Thời gian thi: Ngày thi:

TIẾNG ANH- KHỐI 10 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)

SỐ PHÁCH

Đề thi có 10 trang

• • •

Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu, kể cả từ điển. Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm. _________________________________________________________

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• •

Bài nghe gồm 4 phần; mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, mỗi lần cách nhau 05 giây; mở đầu và kết thúc mỗi phần nghe có tín hiệu. Thí sinh có 20 giây để đọc mỗi phần câu hỏi. Mở đầu và kết thúc bài nghe có tín hiệu nhạc. Thí sinh có 03 phút để hoàn chỉnh bài trước tín hiệu nhạc kết thúc bài nghe. Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe.

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I. LISTENING (50 points) Part 1: Listen to a wildlife lover talking about the problems facing bees. For questions 1–10, use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS and/or A NUMBER to complete each gap. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered space. THE DECLINE OF THE BEE POPULATION Scientists in Europe first realised there was a problem with the bee population around (1a) ____________________. They regard (1b) ____________________ as the year when there began to be widespread anxiety about the disappearance of bees. Since their decline became a global issue, the role bees have in the (2a) ____________________ of food we rely on for our survival has been highlighted, e.g. bee-pollinated plants produce (2b) ____________________ which benefit humans. The seriousness of declining bee numbers can be underlined by a comparison between (3a) ____________________ and other factors, e.g. (3b) ____________________, the ramifications of (4a) ____________________, and (4b) ____________________. Scientists think that innovations in (5a) ____________________ provide the main explanation for the decline of bees. Not only are bees suffering from (5b) ____________________ but there is also less (6a) ____________________ of plant life available for them. Bees are far better at fighting off (6b) ____________________ when they have a rich and varied diet as this enables their (7a) ____________________ to become stronger. Ironically, bees are more likely to enjoy a healthy diet and stand a better chance of survival if they live in (7b) ____________________ instead of (8a) ____________________ and (8b) ____________________. Also, research suggests that pesticides are making them (9a) ____________________ and impacting bees’ ability to remember how to return to (9b) ____________________. A final point is that (10a) ____________________ is also thought to impede a bee’s capacity to locate (10b) ____________________ and scents, which are essential to both their and our survival.

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Part 2: Listen to a TED Talks speech entitled ‘The Danger of Silence’. For questions 11–15, choose the correct answer (A, B or C) for each of the following questions. write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. 11. The speaker refers to Dr Martin Luther King in order to _______. A. condemn ignorance and silence B. elucidate his pedagogies and principles of teaching poetry C. vindicate the Civil Rights Movement by his internalisation 12. The speaker feels that he has spent his life _______. A. compromising the truth to please others B. doing whatever is needed to expose the truth C. making no sacrifices to reveal the truth 13. The speaker looks back, with hindsight, on various instances of injustice with _______. A. dignity of the right thing he did B. remorse for his indifference C. revulsion against the world he lives in 14. The speaker feels we should be focusing more on _______. A. being all ears Page 1 of 10 pages

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B. silence and contemplation rather than nonsense talk C. what is usually taken as read 15. At the end of his speech, the speaker undertakes to be more _______. A. accommodating B. outspoken C. self-sacrificing in the interests of others Your answers 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. Part 3: Listen to part of a National Geographic documentary. For questions 16–20, decide which statements are TRUE or FALSE according to what you hear. Write NOT GIVEN if there is no information about the statement. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. 16. Steve McCurry studied journalism at college. 17. He once wanted to be a travel photographer. 18. He’s retiring after 30 years with National Geographic. 19. He’s looking for 36 shots to take on the roll of film. 20. He’s decided to shoot all the frames at Grand Central Station. Your answers 16. 17. 19. 19. 20.

Part 4: Listen to a conversation. For questions 21–25, complete the chart below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered space.

Plainfield community center

EXAMPLE

CLASS/ ACTIVITIES

Wednesday, Saturday

21____________________

22 _________________

Tennis

Tuesday, Thursday

24 ____________________

Children, teens, adults

Friday

Book club

25 ____________________

II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (50 points)

AGE GROUP Children, teens 23 ____________________

DAYS

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Part 1: For questions 1–20, choose the correct answer (A, B, C or D) to each of the following questions and write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. 1. Marches and demonstrations in Vietnam have become increasingly militant, and, sadly, the government reacted by _______ down harshly on this civil unrest. A. backing B. bearing C. clamping D. drawing 2. If institutions balk, waiting to cross that _______ when you come to it could be disastrous. A. bridge B. fingers C. legs D. path 3. The family were roundly subjected to insults, smutty comments and had a multitude of _______ cast on them about their manhood for the duration of their walk around the town. A. aspersions B. criticisms C. doubts D. vilifications 4. Prescott will begin to reconstruct his relationship with both Gilchrist and the employers in the next few days, unprepared to _______ the amount of cash the government will contribute to the deal. A. account for B. allow for C. bargain on D. contemplate on 5. Why should we have to pay a lifetime of premiums, making some insurance company masses of money, just on the _______ that one day we can make a claim? A. fighting chance B. mischance C. off-chance D. perchance 6. Having _______ to urban illness and death in winter, prevention is directed at around 50000 excess deaths that still occur annually in Britain in cold weather. A. perception B. perspective C. reference D. regard 7. Recession is _______ in the minds of politicians and chief executives as they gossip at the conference. A. paramount B. predominant C. uppermost D. uttermost 8. Being revealed as a drug addict, one who illegally purchased drugs on the black market – many of which are obtained by stealing from people who really need the medication – is _______ justice. A. figurative B. flowery C. metrical D. poetic 9. He has often sought to justify repression on the _______ of threatened coups against his government. Page 2 of 10 pages

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A. guises B. ploys C. pretences D. pretexts 10. The standard Milky Way model comprised a thin disk of bright young stars surrounded by a sparsely _______ halo of old stars. A. colonised B. inhabited C. occupied D. populated 11. In any case, unfortunately, there is a _______ chance of finding alternative employment in this despoiled area, which to an untutored eye looks rich in natural assets. A. big B. fat C. good D. huge 12. From mass production clothing to managing factory lines to understanding the nature of different fabrics, he kept _______ and that has brought him where he is today. A. a millstone around his neck C. his heart of stone B. a sword in the stone D. his nose to the grindstone

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13. It was a dark, starless night and, without a compass, we were left__________around for directions. A. groping B. grabbing C. probing D. prodding 14. Filing may be a__________procedure, bit it is essential for the smooth runnign of the office. A. strenuous B. tedious C. weary D. stuffy 15. The toll makes using the Panama Canal too costly for some__________vessels. A commerce B. profiteering C. business D. merchant 16. The Egyptian coast guard received a(n) __________signal from the ship at 11.34 last night. A. distress B. anxiety C. stress D. disquiet 17. Most armies around the world use satellite technology to __________ orders. A. emit B. impart C. release D. relay 18. It was imperative for the authorities to __________the epidemic. A. succeed B. localise C.spread D.define 19. His efforts, though futile, are still__________. A. refined B. intimidated C.pious D.commendable 20. He was reserved by nature, even__________ . A. cordial B. morose C.amiable D. Approachable Your answers 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. Part 2: For questions 21–30, fill in the gaps in the following sentences with suitable prepositions and/or particles. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered spaces. 21. The police have caught the suspected thief and he's__________ arrest. 22. That restaurant on the corner of High Street is__________ new management. 23. I've decided to go__________ business with John Clarke. We're going to open a small tool hire shop. 24. Visiting Moscow was great but the temperature was 25 degrees__________ zero. 25. Why are you always late, Mark? Can't you ever arrive__________ time? 26. Unemployment has just risen again; this time __________ 0.5%. It's now 5.5%. 27. The lawyers' fees amounted __________ more than $20,000. 28. You must add an extra 1% to allow__________ shrinkage of stock. 29. After months of trying, we finally succeeded __________ persuading them. 30. The machine conforms__________ BS 1649944 - it's perfectly safe. Your answers 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.

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Part 3: For questions 31–40, write the correct form of each bracketed word in the corresponding numbered space in the column in the right. There is an example at the beginning (0). At one time, for the (31) _______ (PONDER) of people needing to make 31.____________________ the journey, the only way to travel from Europe to America was by ship, but the days of a (32) _______ (LEISURE) five-day (33) _______ (ATLANTIC) 32.____________________ crossing in a large liner have long gone. Today, everything is about speed, 33.____________________ and long distance travel has become almost exclusively the business of the airlines. Although air travel is admittedly fast, passengers are still subject to the unexpected (34) _______ (HOLD) which seem to be inherent in any form of 34.____________________ travel, but people’s reactions to such delays seem to be far more (35) _______ (SEE) than in the days of the great liners. Then, passengers 35.____________________ might have shrugged their shoulders (36) _______ (RESIGN) and relaxed 36.____________________ with a book in their cabins, knowing that little could be done about the Page 3 of 10 pages

situation, but today’s traveller is more likely to make his (37) _______ (CONTENT) known forcibly to any official who is unfortunate enough to appear on the horizon. It is easy to see why this might be the case since airport lounges are (38) _______ (STANDARD) clearly inadequately equipped to cope with large numbers of (39) _______ (SHIP) passengers. Small wonder that people’s tempers begin to fray and their nerves are (40) _______ (TAX) when faced with the prospect of a sleepless overnight stay in what is, after all, no more than a vast public hall.

37.____________________

38.____________________ 39.____________________ 40.____________________

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Part 4. For questions 41-50, underline 10 mistakes in the following sentences and correct them and write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. The Sahara Marathon

Corrections

One of the most amazed marathon races in the world is the Marathon of

the Sands. It takes places every April in the Sahara Desert in the south of

Morocco, a part of the world when temperatures can reach fifty degrees

centigrade. The standard length of the marathon is 42.5 kilometers but this

one is 240 kilometers long and spends seven days to complete. It began in

1986 and now attracts about two hundred runners, the majority of their

ages range from seventeen to forty-seven. About half of them come from

France and the rest to all over the world. From Britain, it costs 2,500 pounds

to enter, this includes return air fares. The race is rapidly getting more and

more popular despite, and perhaps because of, the harsh conditions that

runners must endure. They have to carry food and something else they need

for seven days in a rucksack weighing no more than twelve kilograms. In

addition to this, they are given a liter and a half of water every ten

kilometers. Incredibly, near all the runners finish the course. One man,

Ibrahim EI Joual, took part in every race from 1986 to 2004. Runners do

suffer terrible physical hardships. Sometimes they lose toenails and skin

peels on their foot. However, doctors are always on hand to deal with minor

injuries and to make sure that runners do not push themselves too far.

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III. READING (50 POINTS)

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Part 1: For questions 51–60, read the following passages and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap. Write your answers (A, B, C, or D) in corresponding numbered boxes. THE TARAHUMARA DIET Running comes naturally to a Tarahumara. These fascinating people live in a remote region of northwest Mexico, an area totally inaccessible to normal means of transport. Even horses have difficulty (51) _______ parts of the unforgiving rocky terrain. As a result, the Tarahumara resort to running as a way of getting around, sometimes covering distances of up to eighty miles a day. How do they do it? Studies suggest that alongside the physical conditioning, (52) _______ by their lifestyle, diet plays an important role. The Tarahumara diet consists largely of complex carbohydrates, and is almost meat-free. They generally rely on cooperative agriculture to feed the community as a whole. Pinole, a powder made of toasted corn, is the staple food, along with squash, beans and chilli. Fish and all wild plants growing nearby also feature (53) _______ in their diet. Indeed, the fact that the Tarahumara experience a low incidence of blood pressure and heart problems (54) _______ weight to the argument that their diet is perfectly in (55) _______ with their particular lifestyle. 51. A. embarking B. overcoming C. negotiating D. undertaking 52. A. elicited B. evoked C. induced D. inspired Page 4 of 10 pages

53. A. eminently 54. A. delivers 55. A. befitting

C. influentially D. prominently C. lends D. provides C. consensus D. keeping OK? The word ‘OK’ is ubiquitous in modern English but its origins remain (56) _______ in mystery. Over the years, many theories have been put forward regarding its derivation but none of them is (57) _______ convincing. The first recorded written use of OK was in 1839, when it appeared in a newspaper article in Boston, Massachusetts. There was a craze for wacky acronyms at the time, just as today’s text messages use things like ‘LOL’, and ‘OK’ allegedly originated as a misspelling of ‘All Correct’. But whereas many of these acronyms flourished briefly and then gradually (58) _______ out of use, ‘OK’ has proved to be remarkably (59) _______. It first reached England in 1870, where it appeared in the words of a popular song, and today is in constant use across the English-speaking world. As part of a phrase ‘... rules OK’, it has been a (50) _______ of urban graffiti since the 1930s and in 1969 it had the honour of being the first word spoken on the moon. In short, it’s a phenomenally useful word. 56. A. concealed B. enveloped C. shrouded D. smothered 57. A. downright B. exclusively C. outright D. wholly 58. A. crept B. faded C. slipped D. strayed 59. A. resilient B. resolute C. stalwart D. steadfast 60. A. backbone B. centrepiece C. cornerstone D. mainstay Your answers 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60.

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B. illustriously B. gains B. compatibility

Part 2: For questions 61–70, fill each of the following numbered spaces with ONE suitable word and write your answers in the corresponding boxes provided below the passage. Yoga

There can be hardly anyone who has not heard of yoga, and (61)__________ you are 16 or 60, you can reap the benefits of taking (62)__________ in a yoga class. Yoga is a system of (63)_________ the body and the mind. Its goal is to (64)__________ it easier for people to remove all distractions preventing them living a life of the spirit in union with their Maker. Reaching this state is (65)_________ greater a challenge that might be imagined. The main emphasis of the physical training is (66)__________ bringing the body under complete control in such areas as the regulation of breathing and the flexibility of the muscles, (67)__________ if which are instrumental in controlling our overall movements. The mental training, as (68)_________ as the modifications to the behavior of the physical body, make undisturbed concentration (69)___________. So perhaps it’s (70)___________ we all headed for the nearest yoga class and started training right now. Your answers 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. Part 3: Read the following passage and answer questions 71–80.

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WHY GOING BACK HOME CAN BE DANGEROUS An American psychologist discusses the downsides of a family visit after a person has left home to live independently. A. A friend of mine, Julia, recently took her boyfriend along on a visit to her parents’ house. It was the first time he’d met her parents, whom he found to be kind, laid-back people and certainly not critical in any way. Yet several times during the visit, he noticed Julia’s voice take on an uncharacteristically highpitched tone as she defensively reacted to seemingly innocent comments from her parents. When he mentioned this observation on the drive home, Julia was taken aback by how his description of what she had said sounded like her teenage self-arguing with her parents over their strict, controlling style. B. It is not uncommon for people returning to visit their parents to react in this way. Although there are obviously real joys in reconnecting with one’s loved ones, the downside is that it can stir up implicit memories. These are memories that exist deep down and can surface without conscious awareness, automatically triggering feelings we had in the past. Dr Daniel Siegel, author of The Mindful Brain, says that ‘When we retrieve an element of implicit memory into awareness, we just have the emotional response without knowing that these are activations related to something we’ve experienced before. This is distinct from an explicit memory – a concrete experience that exists in our minds, such as learning to ride a bike.’ It is implicit memories that make it possible to experience even a seemingly pleasant visit home while at the same time unconsciously taking on the identities and attitudes we had as children and reacting as we would have done then. Page 5 of 10 pages

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C. If Julia’s boyfriend hadn’t made her aware of her childlike reaction, she would in all likelihood have carried on being defensive or defiant in less appropriate situations. This regression to the past would not seem so significant if it was restricted to interactions with parents but the closer someone gets to another person or the more we let them mean to us, the more likely it is that the strong feelings we have will spark off sub-conscious memories from early relationships. When this happens, negative feelings are re-experienced that are irrelevant to the present. The impact is particularly obvious in romantic relationships but can be observed in many areas of people’s personal and professional lives. When someone has an emotional reaction to something, for example something a boss said, it’s helpful for them to evaluate how they feel. When a feeling is particularly intense, it indicates a connection to childhood occurrences. The more people fail to recognise the way they have grown up and differentiated themselves from their parents, the more likely they are to act out old behavioural patterns in their current life. D. Of course, not all parental influences are negative. Yet it’s an unfortunate fact that children are more likely to be affected by a single destructive outburst from a parent than by a series of positive experiences with them. This is simply because humans are programmed to remember what scares them. Even the most aware of parents have lapses in which they lose their temper or fail to respond sensitively to their children. Sadly, it’s in these moments that children tend to identify with their parents or internalise the message being communicated to them. For example, if a parent accused a child of being lazy whenever the parent was feeling overwhelmed with work, the child would be more likely to identify themselves as lazy and still hear this accusation in their heads as adults. E. Why should this be? If a parent suddenly responds with harsh anger, the size difference alone between an adult and a child causes a difference in the way we perceive things. While the child experiences the adult’s angry outburst or severe annoyance as intensely threatening, to the adult the interaction is just something that irritated them at the time. When children feel frightened by the very person they depend on for survival, they don’t know which way to turn; they want to run both towards and away from the parent. Their only solution is to unconsciously identify with the parent’s point of view, finding it too emotionally threatening, not to mention physically impossible, to fight back. F. By remaining aware of what triggers reactions from the past, people are less likely to re-create past scenarios and relive the emotions they produced. The more people make sense out of implicit memories and construct a cohesive narrative of their lives, the more they can live free from the limitations created by the past.

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For questions 71–76, choose the correct heading for paragraphs A–F. There are TWO extra headings that you do not need to use. Write your answers in the corresponding space provided. List of Headings Your answers i Blame incites defensiveness 71. Paragraph A _______________ ii Moving on to freedom 72. Paragraph B _______________ 73. Paragraph C _______________ iii Witnessing the inner teenager emerge iv We are the same as our parents 74. Paragraph D _______________ v Shaking up old memories 75. Paragraph E _______________ vi The lasting impact of early criticisms 76. Paragraph F _______________ vii Unconscious reactions to parental comments viii Separating the emotions of then and now

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For questions 77–80, choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) according to the text. Write your answers (A, B, C or D) in the corresponding numbered boxes. 77. In the second paragraph, the writer suggests that it’s difficult for people to visit their old family home because _______. A. it can remind them of negative events that happened in the past B. it can make them feel as if they are being treated like children again C. it is necessary for them to re-establish a good relationship with the family D. it can cause them to have unexpectedly strong reactions to the experience 78. In the third paragraph, the writer says that unless people are aware of what can trigger negative emotions, _______. A. it can be harmful for important relationships with loved ones B. it can complicate relationships between parents and children C. it can impede their transition into becoming mature adults D. it can give rise to a rebellious attitude towards authority figures 79. In the fourth paragraph, the writer suggests that when parents become angry, _______. A. the stress they are under is passed on to their children B. their children fail to understand what they have done to upset them C. their children lose sight of the good points of their relationship Page 6 of 10 pages

D. the words they use may make a lasting impression on their children 80. In the fifth paragraph, the writer suggests that a common way for a child to react to parental anger is to _______. A. try and defend themselves physically C. experience a strong sense of insecurity B. want to get revenge in some way D. attempt to escape from what is going on Your answers 77. 78. 79. 80.

A HISTORY OF HUMAN RIGHTS

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Part 4: For questions 81–90, identify which section A–F each of the following is mentioned. Write ONE letter A–F in the corresponding numbered space provided. Each letter may be used more than once.

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A. In 539 BC, the armies of Cyrus the Great, the first King of ancient Persia, conquered the city of Babylon. But it was his next actions that marked a major advance for the human race. He freed the slaves, declared that all people had a right to choose their own religion, and established racial equality. These and other decrees were recorded on a baked-clay cylinder in the Akkadian language with cuneiform script. Known today as the Cyrus Cylinder, this ancient record has now been recognised as the world’s first charter of human rights. It is translated into all six official languages of the United Nations and its provisions parallel the first four Articles of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights. B. The Magna Carta, or ‘Great Charter’, was arguably the most significant early influence on the extensive historical process that led to the rule of constitutional law in the English-speaking world. In 1215, after King John violated a number of ancient laws and customs by which England had been governed, his subjects forced him to sign the Magna Carta, which enumerates what later came to be thought of as human rights. Among them was the right of the church to be free from governmental interference, the rights of all free citizens to own and inherit property and to be protected from excessive taxes. It established the rights of widows who owned property to choose not to remarry, and established principles of due process and equality before the law. It also contained provisions for forbidding bribery and official misconduct. C. On 4 July 1776, the United States Congress approved the Declaration of Independence. Its primary author, Thomas Jefferson, wrote the Declaration as a formal explanation of why Congress had voted on 2 July to declare independence from Great Britain, more than a year after the outbreak of the American Revolutionary War, as a statement announcing that the thirteen American Colonies were no longer a part of the British Empire. Congress issued the Declaration in several forms. It was initially published as a printed broadsheet that was widely distributed and read to the public. Philosophically, it stressed two themes: individual rights and the rights of revolution. These ideas spread internationally as well, influencing in particular the French Revolution. D. In 1789, the people of France brought about the abolition of the absolute monarchy and set the stage for the establishment of the first French Republic. Just six weeks after the storming of the Bastille, and barely three weeks after the abolition of feudalism, the Declaration of the Rights of Man and of the Citizen was adopted by the National Constituent Assembly as the first step towards writing a constitution for the Republic of France. The Declaration proclaims that all citizens are to be guaranteed the rights of liberty and equality. Liberty was defined as ‘being able to do anything that does not harm others’. Equality, on the other hand, was defined as judicial equality, which ‘must be the same for all, whether it protects or punishes. All citizens, being equal in its eyes, shall be equally eligible to all high offices, public positions and employments, according to their ability, and without other distinction than that of their virtues and talents.’ E. In 1864, sixteen European countries and several American states attended a conference in Geneva on the initiative of the Geneva Committee. The diplomatic conference was held for the purpose of adopting a convention for the treatment of wounded soldiers in combat. The main principles laid down and adopted by the later Geneva Conventions provided for the obligation to extend care without discrimination to wounded and sick military personnel and respect for the marking of medical personnel transports and equipment with the distinctive sign of the red cross on a white background. F. World War II had raged from 1939 to 1945, and as the end drew near, cities throughout Europe and Asia lay in smouldering ruins. Millions of people were dead, millions more were homeless or starving. In April 1945, delegates from fifty countries met in San Francisco full of optimism and hope. The goal of the United Nations Conference was to fashion an international body to promote peace and prevent future war. Its ideals were stated in the preamble to the proposed charter: ‘We the peoples of the United Nations are determined to save succeeding generations from the scourge of war, which twice in our lifetime has brought untold sorrow to mankind.’ The Charter of the New United Nations organisation went into effect on 24 October 1945, a date that is celebrated each year as United Nations Day. Page 7 of 10 pages

Your answers 81. _______ 82. _______ 83. _______ 84. _______

85. _______ 86. _______ 87. _______ 88. _______ 89. _______

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the view that a situation which had wreaked widespread havoc could not be repeated a recent consensus that an event had far-reaching global repercussions treating all sides equally during military conflicts the view that a protest against the flagrant injustice of a despotic monarch had farreaching consequences surprise that widespread change came about in a relatively short space of time the suggestion that the unusual actions of a monarch were far ahead of their time an acknowledgement that a leader was prepared to justify his actions an expression of regret for mistakes made in the past the importance of something which officially tried to prevent a certain type of gender discrimination the idea that everyone should have the same opportunities for advancement

90. _______

IV. WRITING (60 points) Part 1. For question 1-5, complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given. Do not change the word given. You must use between three and eight words, including the word given. There is an example at the beginning (0). having

0. ‘Why don’t we have a picnic this weekend?’ said Andy Andy suggested ………having a picnic that……….. weekend.

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1. Explaining what you mean to an audience can be difficult. across It’s sometimes difficult………………………………………………………….. to an audience. 2. If something’s worrying you, you should tell me about it now. chest If you have a problem, why don’t you…………………………………………………..now? 3. I think you should confront your boss right now with how you feel about this. out Why don’t you………………………………………………………your boss right now? 4. Anna had decided Tom was not telling the truth about what happened. teeth Anna was sure Tom ……………………………………………….. about what happened. 5. Perhaps my sister was bad-tempered because she was tired. fact I put my sister’s……………………………………….. she was tired. 6. I think you need to work hard to make a relationship a success. more I think………………………………………………., the better it will be. 7. People do not recover from a crime like this quickly. over This kind of crime is not……………………………………………………… quickly. 8. We aim to stamp out violent crime in this area. put Our aim …………………………………………………………… violent crime in this area. 9. The judge is not going to resign over the matter. intention The judge…………………………………………………………… over the matter. 10. When confronted with his crime the accused was unrepentant. remorse The accused……………………………………………………crime he had committed.

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Part 2: In many parts of the world girls and boys are educated together in co-educational or mixed schools. Some people think that girls and boys benefit from being educated separately in singlesex schools.

To what extent do you agree with this view? Write a paragrph of about 200 words to express your opinion. Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge and experience.

Page 8 of 10 pages

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………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… Page 9 of 10 pages

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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- THE END Page 10 of 10 pages

KEY LOP 10

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I. LISTENING (If you have purchased ‘Cornucopia Preliminary Training’, see the ‘Updates’ packages with authentic tasks for Part 1 on schoology.com.) 1. (a) 1965 (b) 1998 13. B 2. (a) availability and quality (b) vitamins 14. C 3. (a) climate change (b) energy conservation 15. B 4. (a) genetic engineering (b) population 16. F growth 17. T 5. (a) methods of agriculture (b) starvation 18. NG 6. (a) diversity/variety (b) diseases 19. T 7. (a) immune system (b) urban parks 20. F 8. (a) rural fields (b) hedgerows 21. Tutoring 9. (a) disoriented (b) (their) habitats 22. Sunday 10. (a) air pollution (b) flowers 23. Adults, teens 11. A 24. Yoga 12. A 25. adults II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR 12. D 1. C 2. A 13. A 3. A 14. B 4. C 15. D 5. C 16. A 6. D 17. D 7. C 18. B 8. D 19. D 9. D 10. D 20. B 11. B 31. preponderance 21. under 32. leisurely 22. under 33. transatlantic 23. into 34. hold-ups 24. below 35. foreseeable 25. on 36. resignedly 26. by 37. discontent(ment) 27. to 38. substandard 39. shipwrecked 28. for 40. overtaxed 29. in 30. to

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41. Line 2. Places → place 42. 42. Line 3. when→ where 43. Line 5. Spends → takes 44. Line 6. their → whose 45. Line 8. To → from 46. Line 9. This → which 47. Line 10. And → or 48. Line 11. Something → anything 49. Line 14. Near → nearly 50. Line 17. Foot → feet 61. whether 62. part 63. training 64. make/ render

51. C 52. D 53. D 54. C 55. D 56. C 57. D 58. C 59. A 60. D

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65. far 66. on 67. both 68. well 69. possible 70. time 71. iii 72. v 73. viii 74. vi 75. vii 76. ii 77. D 78. A 79. D 80. C 81. F 82. A 83. E 84. B 85. D 86. A 87. C 88. F 89. B 90. D

WRITING

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PART 1 1. to get your message across 2. get it off your chest 3. have it out with 4. was lying through his teeth 5. bad-temper down to the fact that 6. the more you work (hard) at a relationship 7. something (that) people get over 8. is to put an end to 9. has no intention of resigning 10. showed no remorse for the RUBICS FOR PART 2

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Task Achievement

• The essay fully satisfies all the requirements of the task.

9-10 • The essay is generally well-developed.

Coherence and Cohesion

Vocabulary

• The essay is well – • There is a wide organized and range of coherent, through structures and the effective use of vocabulary simple linking related to the devices. theme. • Students attempt to use some complex linking devices, although some are

Grammar

• Errors are minor, due to ambition, and non-impeding.

over/under-use.

• There are some errors, which are generally non-impeding

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• The essay generally • Adequate range satisfies the of vocabulary • There is evidence of requirements of the and structures organization and task. related to the some linking theme. 7-8 • The ideas are not devices, although they are quite sufficiently supported; there may limited in range. be irrelevant details.

NO ATTENDANCE

5-6

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3-4

1-2

• The language is • A number of • The essay responds errors are to the task only in a simplistic / • Students have minimal way. limited/repetitive/ present, but they some attempts at are mostly non inadequate organization, even • The ideas are –impeding. though linking difficult to identify, devices are not and may be repetitive, always maintained. irrelevant or not wellsupported. • The essay barely • There is no • There are responds to the task. evidence of range numerous • The student does of structures and errors, which • The ideas are not organize ideas vocabulary sometimes largely undeveloped or logically. impede irrelevant. communication. The answer is completely unrelated to the task.

TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN TRẦN PHÚ HẢI PHÒNG

KÌ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI DUYÊN HẢI BẮC BỘ NĂM HỌC 2016 - 2017 MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 10

ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT

PART I. LISTENING (50 points)

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(Thời gian làm bài 180 phút không kể thời gian giao đề)

I. For questions 1-5, complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer. (10 points)

Ratner Athletics Centre

(1) ……………………………

• A yearly membership costs

• Features of offered include:

the Emily Pankhurst (2) ……………………………

the Dalton

(3) ……………………………

personal

(4) …………………………… at an extra charge

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Your answers:

on weekends

• Hours: 6 a.m. to (5) …………………………… on weekdays and 6 a.m. to 9 p.m.

II. You will hear an interview with a woman called Emma Stoneham, who works as a manager in the horse racing industry. Choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits

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best according to what you hear. (10 points)

What does Emma say about her qualifications? A. She chose to study certain subjects against her father's wishes. B. She decided to do courses that dealt directly with horse racing. C. She did a postgraduate course that few people knew about.

D. She was fortunate to be accepted on a specialist course. Page 1 of 18

How does Emma feel about what she calls the 'big names' in horse racing? A. She resents having to plan her events to suit them. B. She respects the contribution they make to the sport. C. She believes that they shouldn't receive special treatment.

What does Emma particularly enjoy about race days? A. the range of people she meets B. the enthusiasm of her colleagues C. the challenge of dealing with the unexpected D. the pleasure of seeing people enjoying themselves

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D. She accepts that she needs to put on particular events to attract them.

How did Emma feel after cancelling the midwinter race meeting?

A. worried that inadequate precautions had been taken

B. angry that bad weather hadn't been predicted C. satisfied that she'd made the right decision

D. grateful for the good advice she'd received 5.

As a result of cancelling the meeting, Emma has had to ______.

A. put on additional race meetings

B. make changes to her financial planning

C. sell some land belonging to the racecourse

D. postpone making improvements to facilities Your answers:

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III. You will hear part of a public meeting held to discuss plans for a new town. Indicate

whether you think each statement is True (T) or False (F). (10 points) STATEMENTS

The meeting will decide which team will develop the area.

The first objector suggests the meeting is a waste of time.

Mrs West is against the idea of new towns in general.

TRUE FALSE

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Mrs. Thomas is worried about Metcalf becoming a tourist attraction.

Mr Lester persuades the meeting that the development is a good idea.

Your answers: 2.

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IV. You will hear a student, Hannah Jorden, giving a short talk on the topic of soil. Complete the sentences with a word or short phrase. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each gap. (20 points)

Hannah has found out that people have used soil as a (1) ______ for thousands of years.

Hannah says that the increase in (2) ______ is putting pressure on the way we use soil.

Pollutants from waste in the soil can enter the (3) ______ and can affect both plants and

humans.

Hannah has found evidence showing that waste pollution reduces the number of (4) ______ in

the soil.

The main cause of inorganic pollution is the (5) ______ which takes place in many countries.

Hannah is interested in the fact that organic pollutants can directly affect the (6) ______ in

humans.

Hannah gives the example of (7) ______ as a natural cause of acid rain.

Hannah has found that soil erosion caused by (8) ______ has been of interest to the media.

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Soil has become less fertile owing to the method known as (9) ______. The gradual extension of cultivation is in favour due to (10) ______. Your answers:

10.

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PART II: GRAMMAR & VOCABULARY (50 points) I. Choose the best answer (A, B, C, or D) to each of the following questions and write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (20 points) 1.

On the surface, his decision seems like a mistake, but looking at the big ______, it was the right choice.

D. picture

It's difficult for a teacher to ______ her students' interest for a whole semester. A. sustain

C. routine

B. resist

C. account for

D. recognize

Although I explained the situation he didn't seem to ______ the degree of danger he was A. seize

B. grab

C. catch

D. grasp

in.

In many places in Wales we found that place-names in English had been ______ with

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A. multi-talented B. superstition

A. suppressed

B. disguised

B. glowing

A. glittering

B. without

D. gleaming

C. nevertheless

D. notwithstanding

Look at this plant. Someone has broken the stem. Well I never! A. I can’t believe it!

B. It’s nothing to do with me!

C. I’m sure it will recover!

D. I didn’t do it!

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C. shimmering

The candidate still expects to be re-elected ______ the results of the latest opinion poll. A. apart

D. destroyed

When he turned up in a ______ new sports car, I thought he must have won the football pools!

C. obliterated

green paint - the work of ardent Welsh Nationalists.

Of course you won't become more intelligent if you eat a lot of fish - that's just an old

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______ tale. A. maids'

B. ladies'

C. mothers

D. wives'

Not until Kentucky's Mammoth Cave had been completely explored in 1972 ______. A. when was its full extent realized

B. that its full extent was realized

C. was its full extent realized

D. the realization of its full extent Page 4 of 18

10. We are prepared to overlook the error on this occasion ______ your previous good work. A. with a view to

B. thanks to

C. in the light of

D. with regard to

11. Living by the ocean really ______ your ______. Once you've lived there, you never want to leave. A. came in - heart

B. get in - heart

C. get in - blood

D. came in - blood

A. alternative

B. substitute

C. equivalent

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12. There is no ______ for hard work and perseverance if you want to succeed. D. imitation

13. Does Sheila work full time at the supermarket? - No, only ______ when they need extra staff. A. in and out

B. on and off

C. by and by

D. up and around

B. blue

C. green

D. black

A. white

14. Those campers are really ______. They have no idea how to set up a tent.

15. The investigation was instigated ______ the Prime Minister. B. consequence of

C. subsequent to

D. at the behest of

A. on the part of

B. utterly

A. sorely

16. They were ______ tempted to relieve the shopkeeper of his three juiciest looking apples. C. badly

D. powerfully

17. Because of the baby boom of the 1980s, preschools in the U.S. have proliferated. B. become more expensive

C. become more crowded

D. increased in numbers

A. changed in philosophy

18. Tim: ‘______? You look so concerned.’

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- Terry: ‘My final exam is coming.’ B. How do you feel

C. What’s up

D. Where did it go

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A. What for

19. The word ‘put’ rhymes with ______ A. suit

B. foot

C. cut

D. blood

20. Trade ______ from bad to worse and staff ______ redundant now. A. has gone - are being made

B. have gone - is made

C. went - has made

D. had gone - are made Page 5 of 18

Your answers: 1.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

II. Read the following text which contains 10 mistakes. Underline the mistakes and

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write the corrections in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points) Lines

Electromagnetic fields (EMFs) are produced any time an electric current runs through a

wire or an appliance. Wherever you find electricity, you will find EMFs. In today

electrical environment, EMFs are everywhere. Atlantic Gas & Electric has detected them

near power generations, around radio and transmission stations, under power lines, and

near electrical outlets, lights, office equipment and computer terminals.

The idea that electromagnetic fields could be dangerous to your health is entirely new.

Soviet scientists began reporting on them as early as 1972 when they noticed that

switchyard workers who were regularly exposed high levels of electromagnetic fields near

the Omsk Power Station experienced strange health effects. There were increasing levels

10 of heart disease, nervous disorders, and blood pressure changes, as long as recurring

11 headaches, fatigue, stress and chronic depression.

12 Today, power companies cannot avoid the EMF issue. Medical evidence has taken it to the

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13 fore. Concerned citizens have effectively organized themselves to attract the attention of 14 the medium, their public officials and, in one instance, the management of the Oakville 15 Power Authority. Their goal is to identify the EMF problem clearly, target their objectives

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16 carefully, then make their demands known as the Public Utilities Commission. If enough 17 reports reach the Commission, it will become clear that these are not isolated instances.

18 Citizens must demand that utility companies prove there is a strong need to put through 19 more power lines in residential neighborhoods.

Your answers: Page 6 of 18

Mistake Corrections

No. Lines

10.

II. Fill each blank with a suitable preposition. (10 points)

Mistake Corrections

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No. Lines

If you are an ambitious person, you want to succeed in life and get ___ of other people.

Quick action by the police prevented fighting from breaking ___ between rival groups of

fans after the football match.

The group rounded ___ the concert with their greatest hits. So everyone went home

happy.

Mrs. Harris has died, and six people now lay claim ___ her house.

I really can’t understand why you always find fault with me. Stop making digs ___ me.

The children are ___ a cloud because of their bad behaviour.

Martin needs to get a grip ___ his finances if he’s not to face serious difficulties with the

bank.

I can hold his failure ___ him because he never tried for a passing grade.

We had ___ in St. Louis for two hours, waiting for a plane to Seattle.

10. Can you put that CD on, please. I work better with music ___ the background.

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Your answers: 1.

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10.

IV. Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word in the numbered spaces provided. (10 points)

At the first recess a large boy approached him, hit him hard in the face. They fought and Francis was beaten (1. DISASTER) ______. However small boys are not skilled fighters, Page 7 of 18

and though he was hurt and (2. SHAKE) ______, he suffered no serious damage. But after recess he sat at his desk, (3. WRETCH) ______ and aching, and Miss Mc Gladdery was angry with him because he was (4. (ATTENTION) ______. Miss Mc Gladdery was fiftynine, and she was soldiering through her teaching career until, at sixty-five, she would be able

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to retire and, with God's help, never see any of her former pupils again. A strong Scots (5. GROUND) ______, and thirty years at Carlyle Rural School, had made her an expert (6. DISCIPLINE) ______. A short, fat, (7. PLACE) ______ woman, she ruled her three groups not with a rod of iron, but with a leather strap that was issued by the school board as the ultimate instrument of (8. JUST) ______. She did not use it often; she had only to

take it from a drawer and lay it across her desk to quell any ordinary disobedience. When she did use it, she displayed a strength that even the biggest, most (9. LOUT) ______ boy

dreaded, for not only did she flail his hands until they swelled to red, aching paws, but she

tongue-lashed him with a (10. VIRTUE) ______ that threw her classes into an ecstasy of

silent delight.

10.

Your answers:

PART III. READING (60 points)

I. For questions 1–10, read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or

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D) best fits each gap. Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (15 points)

THAT SWEET SMELL OF SUCCESS

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There is a revolution in the retail world that cannot fail to attract shoppers’ noses. In the latest marketing ploy, smells are created in laboratories to be wafted around stares in order to (1)

______ the unsuspecting into spending more money. Secret (2) ______ of the 'designer' smells are going on in more than a hundred stores across Britain, including bookshops, petrol stations and a chain clothes shops. The tailor-made aromas include coconut oil in travel agents (to (3) ______ exotic holidays), and leather in car showrooms (to suggest lasting quality). Page 8 of 18

Marketing Aromatics, a camp any specializing in this area, believes that odours are underused as a marketing (4) ______. Until now the most frequent application has been in supermarkets where the smell from in-store bakeries has been blown among the (5) ______ to boost sales of fresh food. "We are taking things one stage further," said David Fellowes, the company’s commercial director. "We can build on customer loyalty by making customers (6)

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______ a particular smell with a particular store. It is not intrusive. If it were it would defeat the object.”

The smells are designed to work on three levels: to relax shoppers by using natural smells such as peppermint; to (7) ______ memories using odours such as a whiff of sea breeze; and to encourage customer loyalty by using a corporate perfume 'logo' to express a company's (8)

______. Dr George Dodd, scientific adviser to Marketing Aromatics, believes smells can

affect people's moods. "It is a very exciting time. Smells have enormous (9) ______ to

influence behaviour," he said. Critics say retailers are resorting to subliminal advertising. "Not telling consumers that this is happening is an (10) ______ invasion of their privacy. People

B. trap

A. analyses

A. remember

A. tool

D. deceive

B. investigations

C. operations

D. trials

B. arouse

C. evoke

D. desire

B. advertisement

C. gadget

D. gimmick

A. walkways

B. gangways

C. corridors

D. aisles

A. join

B. associate

C. bond

D. merge

A. take off

B. bring back

C. get through

D. make up

A. picture

B. feature

C. attraction

D. image

A. strength

B. concentration

C. potential

D. ability

10. A. unjustified

B. undeserving

C. unlicensed

D. unofficial

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C. force

A. entice

have the right to know," said Conor Foley of Liberty, the civil liberties association.

Your answers: 1.

10. Page 9 of 18

II. For questions 1–10, read the text below and think of the word which best fits each gap. Use only ONE word in each gap. Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (15 points) Electromagnetic Fields The largest land mammal alive today is the elephant. Today, there are two kinds of elephants -

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the African elephant and the Indian elephant. (1) ______, this has not always been the case. Until about 10,000 years ago, there was another group, the mammoths, which unfortunately are now (2) ______. Mammoths, which lived in the intense cold of northern Russia and North America, looked very similar to modern elephants. A difference, of course, is that adult mammoths had a double layer of long hair (3) ______ their whole bodies.

Some scientists point a (4) ______ at humans as the factor responsible for the extinction of

the mammoths - supposedly (5) ______ mammoth bones have been found in places where

humans lived. However, thanks to recent evidence, many researchers now believe changes in weather is a (6) ______ accurate explanation for the extinction of mammoths. The climate

changed, and with it, the types of plants (7) ______ changed. This in (8) ______ affected the

mammoths, which now had trouble finding food. The changes in climate probably took place

quite suddenly, and in fact, whole mammoths have been found perfectly (9) ______ in the ice.

Because mammoths and modern elephants are somewhat similar, some scientists think it

might be possible to bring (10) ______ the animals by mixing DNA taken from frozen

mammoths with that of an elephant. Your answers:

10.

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III. For questions 1–10, read the text below and choose the correct answer (A, B, C or

D). Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (15 points) Continents and ocean basins represent the largest identifiable bodies on Earth. On the solid portions of the planet, the second most prominent features are flat plains, elevated plateaus, and large mountain ranges. In geography, the term "continent" refers to the Page 10 of 18

surface of continuous landmasses that together comprise about 29.2% of the planet's 5

surface. On the other hand, another definition is prevalent in the general use of the term that deals with extensive mainlands, such as Europe or Asia, that actually represent one very large landmass. Although all continents are bounded by water bodies or high mountain ranges, isolated mainlands, such as Greenland and India-Pakistan areas are

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called subcontinents. In some circles, the distinction between continents and large islands 10 lies almost exclusively in the size of a particular landmass.

The analysis of compression and tension in the earth's crust has determined that continental structures are composed of layers that underlie continental shelves. A great deal of disagreement among geologists surrounds the issue of exactly how many layers underlie

each landmass because of their distinctive mineral and chemical composition. It is also

15 quite possible that the ocean floor rests on the top of unknown continents that have not

yet been explored. The continental crust is believed to have been formed by means of a chemical reaction when, lighter materials separated from heavier ones, thus settling at

various levels within the crust. Assisted by the measurements of the specifics within crust

formations by means of monitoring earthquakes, geologists can speculate that a chemical

20 split occurred to form the atmosphere, sea water, and the crust before it solidified many

centuries ago.

Although each continent has its special features, all consist of various combinations of

components that include shields, mountain belts, intracratonic basins, margins, volcanic plateaus, and blockvaulted belts. The basic differences among continents lie in the

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25 proportion and the composition of these features relative to the continent size. Climatic zones have a crucial effect on the weathering and formation of the surface features, soil

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erosion, soil deposition, land formation, vegetation, and human activities. Mountain belts are elongated narrow zones that have a characteristic folded sedimentary organization of

layers. They are typically produced during substantial crustal movements, which generate faulting and mountain building. When continental margins collide, the rise of a marginal edge leads to the formation of large mountain ranges, as explained by the plate tectonic Page 11 of 18

theory. This process also accounts for the occurrence of mountain belts in ocean basins and produces evidence for the ongoing continental plate evolution. 1.

What does this passage mainly discuss? A. Continental drift and division B. Various definitions of the term "continent"

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C. Continental structure and crust D. Scientific analyses of continental crusts 2.

According to the passage, how do scientists define continents? A. As masses of land without divisions B. As extensive bodies of land

C. As the largest identifiable features

A. covered 4.

In the first paragraph, the word "bounded" is closest in meaning to ______. B. convened

C. delimited

D. dominated

D. As surficial compositions and ranges

The author of the passage implies that the disagreement among scientists is based on

the fact that ______.

A. each continent has several planes and shelves

B. continents have various underlying layers of crust

C. continents undergo compression and experience tension 5.

D. continents have different chemical makeup The word "specifics" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ______.

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A. specialties

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C. exact details

D. precise movements

The word "it" in paragraph 2 refers to ______. A. sea water

B. speculations

B. the atmosphere

C. the crust

D. a chemical split

The author of the passage implies that ______.

A. it is not known exactly how the continental crust was formed B. geologists have neglected the exploration of the ocean floor C. scientists have concentrated on monitoring earthquakes. D. the earth's atmosphere split into water and solids Page 12 of 18

According to the passage, what are the differences in the structure of continents? A. The proportional size of continents to one another B. Ratios of major components and their comparative size C. The distinctive features of their elements D. Climatic zones and their effect on the surface features In the last paragraph, the phrase "This process" refers to ______.

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A. continental collision

B. mountain ranges

C. the rise of margins

D. plate tectonic theory

10. The author of the passage implies that ______.

A. the process of mountain formation has not been accounted for

B. mountain ranges on the ocean floor lead to surface mountain building

C. faulting and continental margins are parts of plate edges

D. the process of continent formation has not been completed 2.

10.

Your answers:

IV. For questions 1–10, read the following passage.

Choose the correct heading for each paragraph from the list of headings below.

Write the correct number, i-ix in corresponding numbered boxes. (15 points)

List of Headings A business-model approach to education

ii.

The reforms that improved education in Finland

iii.

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Educational challenges of the future

Ways in which equality is maintained in the Finnish education system

The benefits of the introduction of testing

vi.

An approach that helped a young learner

vii.

Statistical proof of education success

viii.

Support for families working and living in Finland

ix.

The impact of the education system on Finland's economy

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iv.

Page 13 of 18

Why Are Finland's Schools Successful? The country's achievements in education have other nations doing their homework A. At Kirkkojarvi Comprehensive School in Espoo, a suburb west of Helsinki, Kari Louhivuori, the school's principal, decided to try something extreme by Finnish standards. One of his sixth-grade students, a recent immigrant, was falling behind, resisting his

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teacher's best efforts. So he decided to hold the boy back a year. Standards in the country have vastly improved in reading, math and science literacy over the past decade, in large part because its teachers are trusted to do whatever it takes to turn young lives around. 'I took Besart on that year as my private student,' explains Louhivuori. When he was not studying science, geography and math, Besart was seated next to Louhivuori's desk,

taking books from a tall stack, slowly reading one, then another, then devouring them by

the dozens. By the end of the year, he had conquered his adopted country's vowel-rich

language and arrived at the realization that he could, in fact, learn. B. This tale of a single rescued child hints at some of the reasons for Finland's amazing

record of education success. The transformation of its education system began some 40

years ago but teachers had little idea it had been so successful until 2000. In this year, the

first results from the Programme for International Student Assessment (PISA), a

standardized test given to 15-year-olds in more than 40 global venues, revealed Finnish

youth to be the best at reading in the world. Three years later, they led in math. By 2006,

Finland was first out of the 57 nations that participate in science. In the latest PISA scores, the nation came second in science, third in reading and sixth in math among nearly half a

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million students worldwide. C. In the United States, government officials have attempted to improve standards by

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introducing marketplace competition into public schools. In recent years, a group of Wall Street financiers and philanthropists such as Bill Gates have put money behind private-

sector ideas, such as charter schools, which have doubled in number in the past decade. President Obama, too, apparently thought competition was the answer. One policy invited states to compete for federal dollars using tests and other methods to measure teachers, a philosophy that would not be welcome in Finland. 'I think, in fact, teachers would tear off Page 14 of 18

their shirts,' said Timo Heikkinen, a Helsinki principal with 24 years of teaching experience. 'If you only measure the statistics, you miss the human aspect.' D. There are no compulsory standardized tests in Finland, apart from one exam at the end of students' senior year in high school. There is no competition between students, schools or regions. Finland's schools are publicly funded. The people in the government agencies

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running them, from national officials to local authorities, are educators rather than business people or politicians. Every school has the same national goals and draws from the same pool of university-trained educators. The result is that a Finnish child has a good chance of getting the same quality education no matter whether he or she lives in a rural village or a university town.

E. It's almost unheard of for a child to show up hungry to school. Finland provides three

years of maternity leave and subsidized day care to parents, and preschool for all five-

year-olds, where the emphasis is on socializing. In addition, the state subsidizes parents, paying them around 150 euros per month for every child until he or she turns 17. Schools

provide food, counseling and taxi service if needed. Health care is even free for students

taking degree courses.

F. Finland's schools were not always a wonder. For the first half of the twentieth century,

only the privilege a got a quality education. But In 1963, the Finnish Parliament made the

bold decision to choose public education as the best means of driving the economy

forward and out of recession. Public schools were organized into one system of comprehensive schools for ages 7 through 16. Teachers from all over the nation

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contributed to a national curriculum that provided guidelines, not prescriptions, for them to refer to. Besides Finnish and Swedish (the country's second official language), children

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started learning a third language (English is a favorite) usually beginning at age nine. The equal distribution of equipment was next, meaning that all teachers had their fair share of

teaching resources to aid learning. As the comprehensive schools improved, so did the upper secondary schools (grades 10 through 12). The second critical decision came in 1979, when it was required that every teacher gain a fifth-year Master's degree in theory and practice, paid for by the state. From then on, teachers were effectively granted equal Page 15 of 18

status with doctors and lawyers. Applicants began flooding teaching programs, not because the salaries were so high but because autonomous decision-making and respect made the job desirable. And as Louhivuori explains, 'We have our own motivation to succeed because we love the work.' Your answers: 1. Paragraph B:

3. Paragraph D:

4. Paragraph E:

2. Paragraph C:

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0. Paragraph A: vi. (example)

5. Paragraph F:

Complete the notes below. Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER from the passage for each answer.

The school system in Finland

PISA tests

• In the most recent tests, Finland's top subject was (6) ………………………………… History 1963:

• A new school system was needed to improve Finland's (7) …………………………… • Schools followed (8) …………………………… that were created partly by teachers.

• All teachers were given the same (9) ………………………………… to use. 1979:

• Applicants were attracted to the (10) …………………………… that teaching received.

Your answers:

10.

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PART IV. WRITING (40 points)

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I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the one

printed before it. (10 points)

There is no question of my lending you my mobile phone. On ………………………………………………………………….... Page 16 of 18

I have frequently made stupid mistakes like that. Many's ……………………………………………………………….

Tom reckoned that his success was due to incredible luck.

I was the one charged with breaking the news to him.

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Tom put ……………………………………………………………...

It fell ………………………………………………………………… 5.

People are persuaded by adverts to spend more than they can afford.

Adverts tempt ……………………………………………………….

II. Rewrite the sentences below in such a way that their meanings stay the same. You

Our children are crazy about Korean singers.

HEAD

must use the words in capital without changing their forms. (10 points)

Were you at all worried about telling the truth.

…………………………………………………………………. MISGIVINGS

…………………………………………………………………. He was shouting as loud as he could.

TOP

The company have been reviewing their recruitment policy for the last three months.

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………………………………………………………………….

REVIEW

…………………………………………………………………. The prisoner was recaptured as he rushed towards the gate.

DASH

…………………………………………………………………. Page 17 of 18

III. Write a paragraph about the following topic. (20 points) Do you agree that distance learning is as effective as school education? Write a paragraph of about 150 words - 200 words to present your opinion. ………………………………………………………………………………………………….. …………………………………………………………………………………………………..

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………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ………………………………………………………………………………………………….. …………………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………………..

………………………………………………………………………………………………….. …………………………………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………………..

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………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ………………………………………………………………………………………………….. - THE END Giáo viên ra đề: Phạm Thị Mai Anh

Số điện thoại: 0983641567 Page 18 of 18

TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN TRẦN PHÚ HẢI PHÒNG

KÌ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI DUYÊN HẢI BẮC BỘ NĂM HỌC 2016 - 2017 MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 10 (Thời gian làm bài 180 phút không kể thời gian giao đề)

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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT

PART I. LISTENING (50 points)

I. For questions 1-5, complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer. (10 points) 2. Fitness Centre

3. swimming pool

4. trainers

1. £240

5. midnight/ 24.00

II. You will hear an interview with a woman called Emma Stoneham, who works as a

manager in the horse racing industry. Choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits 2. B

3. C

4. C

1. D

best according to what you hear. (10 points)

5. B

III. You will hear part of a public meeting held to discuss plans for a new town. Indicate 2. T

1. F

whether you think each statement is True (T) or False (F). (10 points) 3. F

4. F

5. F

IV. You will hear a student, Hannah Jorden, giving a short talk on the topic of soil.

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Complete the sentences with a word or short phrase. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each gap. (20 points)

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1. building / construction material

6. hormones 7.

3. food chain

8. wind

4. microbes

9. intensive farming

5. mining

10. increased crop production

2. (world) population

volcanoes / volcanos

PART II: GRAMMAR & VOCABULARY (50 points) Page 1 of 6

I. Choose the best answer (A, B, C, or D) to each of the following questions and write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (20 points) 1. D

2. A

3. D

4. C

5. D

6. D

7. A

8. D

9. C

10. C

11. C

12. B

13. B

14. C

15. D

16. A

17. D

18. C

19. B

20. A

today's

generators

is not

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exposed to

II. Read the following text which contains 10 mistakes. Underline the mistakes and

known to

increased

10.

put up

write the corrections in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points) No. Lines

Mistake Corrections

as well as

brought media

No. Lines

1. ahead

2. out

3. off

4. to

5. at

6. under

7. on

II. Fill each blank with a suitable preposition. (10 points) 9. over

10. in

8. against

IV. Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word in the numbered spaces provided.

(10 points)

2. shaken

3. wretched

4. inattentive

5. background

6. disciplinarian

7. implacable

8. justice

9. loutish

10. virtuosity

1. disastrously

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PART III. READING (60 points) I. For questions 1–10, read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or

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D) best fits each gap. (15 points) 1. A

2. D

3. C

4. A

5. D

6. B

7. B

8. D

9. C

10. A

II. For questions 1–10, read the text below and think of the word which best fits each gap. Use only ONE word in each gap. (15 points)

1. However

2. extinct

3. over

4. finger

5. because

6. more

7. available

8. turn

9. preserved

10. back Page 2 of 6

III. For questions 1–10, read the text below and choose the correct answer (A, B, C or D). Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (15 points) 1. C

2. A

3. C

4. D

5. C

6. C

7. A

8. B

9. A

10. D

IV. For questions 1–10, read the following passage.

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Choose the correct heading for each paragraph from the list of headings below. Write the correct number, i-ix in corresponding numbered boxes. (15 points) 0. Paragraph A: vi. (example)

1. Paragraph B: vii.

3. Paragraph D: iv.

4. Paragraph E: viii.

2. Paragraph C: i.

5. Paragraph F: ii.

Complete the notes below. Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A 7. economy

8. guidelines

9. equipment/resources

10. respect / status

6. science

NUMBER from the passage for each answer.

PART IV. WRITING (40 points)

I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the one

printed before it. (10 points)

On no account will I lend you my mobile phone.

Many's the time that I've made stupid mistakes like that.

Tom put his success down to incredible luck.

It fell to me to break the news to him.

Adverts tempt people into spending more than they can afford.

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II. Rewrite the sentences below in such a way that their meanings stay the same. You

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must use the words in capital without changing their forms. (10 points)

Our children are head over heels in love with Korean singers. Did you have any misgivings about telling the truth?

He was shouting at the top of his voice.

The company’s recruitment policy has been under review for the last three months.

The prisoner was recaptured as he made a dash for the gate.

D 2.

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Tapescripts: I. For questions 1-5, complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer. (10p.) S= Former student, Shannon Fleet E= Employee E: Hello, Ratner Athletics Centre; how can I help you? S: Yes, hi. I’m interested in finding out some information about membership. E: Certainly. Are you a student? S: No. Is that a problem? I was a student here two years ago … E: Alright, that’s no problem. Current students get membership for no charge, but recreational memberships are also available for purchase for university faculty, staff, alumni, and retirees, as well as their spouses and children. S: Ok, good. How much does it cost? E: (1) For an alumnus, that’s two hundred and forty pounds annually, or one hundred pounds for a month. S: Oh, that’s quite expensive. It’s a shame I didn’t take advantage of the athletics facility when I was a student here. I’ll have to think about this. E: Well, we do offer a really excellent facility. For the cost, members have access to the (2) Emily Pankhurst Fitness Centre, which is a beautiful exercise space – open and full of light. The fitness centre includes two weight circuits, free weights, rowing machines, elliptical trainers, recumbent and upright bicycles, step mills, and treadmills (exercise machines) – and many other activities. But the most prominent, and I’d have to say popular, feature of the Ratner Centre is the (3) Dalton swimming pool. It’s 50 metres by 25 metres and includes up to 20 lanes in the 25-metre dimension and nine lanes in the 50-metre dimension, and also has two one-metre diving boards available. What activities, specifically, are you interested in? S: Yes, well, I’m interested in swimming, and also in getting started with some weight training, although I’ve never tried it before in my life. I feel rather intimidated, actually. Is there instruction available? You know, someone to teach me to use the machines and maybe help me figure out a training programme to reach my goals? E: Yes, we have (4) personal trainers available for an additional cost. We also offer fitness evaluation, which by the way I highly recommend for someone just starting out with weight training, and you would be oriented to the machines as part of this. S: Oh, one more thing. What are the operating hours? E: We’re open (5) from six in the morning to midnight on weekdays and from six in the morning to nine p.m. on weekends. S: Oh, that’s good. Alright, well, I guess I’d like to join. II. You will hear an interview with a woman called Emma Stoneham, who works as a manager in the horse racing industry. Choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. (10p.) Interviewer: My guest today is Emma Stoneham, who's Managing Director of the local racecourse, a business with a turnover of over £2 million a year. The surprising thing about Emma is that, at the age of twenty-four, she's the youngest racecourse MD in the country. How do you come to know so much about racing, Emma? Emma Stoneham: The industry's in my blood- it's as simple as that. I get a fantastic buzz out of every aspect of it, and I always have. I went to school not far from a racecourse where my dad worked, so it was a fair bet I'd get hooked on the sport from an early age. I started helping him out in his work at the racecourse from about the age of fourteen. Sometimes I used to go racing with my friends. We'd sneak in for free and watch the horses, it was great fun. Interviewer: But you're well qualified for the job too, aren't you? Emma Stoneham: Oh yes, I mean I did a general business studies degree at university and could've gone into anyone of a number of industries. But even then, the racing bug kept on nibbling away. I eventually realised I really wanted to have a go at it. I didn't want my dad to be accused of nepotism, however, so I decided to make my own way. After graduating, I got a place on a two-week intensive course run by the British Horseracing Board. (1) I was lucky, there aren't many places going and there's no shortage of competition for them. The course focuses on all aspects of racing, so there was lots to learn, but I absolutely loved it. Interviewer: And two jobs down the line, you're an MD. Tell us about race days.

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Emma Stoneham: Race meetings take place every two to three weeks with seventy to a hundred horses at each meeting, and crowds of up to 6,000. (2) We get all the big names - owners and jockeys - and we try to look after them well because their efforts underpin the entire sport. The way it works is that we release the dates of our meetings, and then they decide which ones they want to fit into their schedule; it involves a lot of intricate planning. And there are so many different characters in the racing industry and you have to try to cater for them all. They're great people and there's a real sense of camaraderie - everybody knows everybody. Interviewer: But you enjoy those days? Emma Stoneham: Whenever racing is going on, I get such a buzz from it - there's just so many different reasons you can enjoy it. You can go as a family, take part in a company event, have a great day out with colleagues from work, or get all dressed up and have a picnic - it's for everyone. (3) For me, running the racecourse, it's living on the edge a lot of the time because whatever comes up has to be dealt with but that's what makes it fun. When things get hectic, I just keep thinking, it'll be fine, it'll be fine, and never get bored with it. I also see my job as all about passing on the enthusiasm I have to everyone around me, that's important. Interviewer: But things can go wrong, I imagine? Emma Stoneham: Oh they do, yes. Our two-day midwinter event usually brings in an excellent crowd, it can be the busiest of the year, but the weather can be a problem. We knew several weeks ahead that the day was likely to be hit by frost, and we'd taken all the precautions we could, including laying sheets on the course, such as on the take- off and landing points near the hurdles. On the day, however, the ground was still incredibly hard, and the welfare of the horses and jockeys had to take precedence - (4) we had no choice but to call it off. Of course, if we lose a meeting like this, it still means we have to pay staff, and other costs too, but any other decision would have been irresponsible. Interviewer: So you made big losses? Emma Stoneham: It was a blow. It means we will have to work harder than ever to make this year's meetings a success, but we'll do it. We simply have to put what has happened behind us, concentrate on the months ahead. Fortunately, we'd already drawn up a master plan to update facilities at the racecourse, and we'd sold off some land so that a hotel can be built. It'll improve our events business if we're able to offer accommodation on site. (5) So by making adjustments to the budgets for that, we can absorb any losses - but it's all still going ahead regardless. Interviewer: Emma, best of luck with that and thank you for joining us today. III. You will hear part of a public meeting held to discuss plans for a new town. Indicate whether you think each statement is True (T) or False (F). (10 points) Chairman: Ladies and gentlemen, as you know, this extraordinary meeting of the Metcalf Council has been called to (1) discuss the plans for a new housing development within a mile of our village. The published structure plan provides for a new town of some six to seven thousand habitants, and also for an increase itself. Er. Now, we’ve been joined tonight by Mr Ken Lester, a member of the team which drew up the plan and I’d like to begin by asking him to outline the thinking behind the scheme. Lester: Thank you, Mr Chairman. Ladies and gentlemen, my main aim in coming here tonight is to explain to you the reasons for the planning committee’s decision to locate the new town near Metcalf … Mrs Thomas: Ah, so it’s a decision, is it? You mean (2) there’s no point in our discussing it – you’ve already made up your minds? Chairman: Order please, ladies and gentlemen, we must hear the facts first … Lester: Perhaps I should re-phrase that – the new town is, of course, no more than a project at the moment. Now, the population in the country is growing rapidly as a result of the new industries coming to the area, and this has brought with it a great demand for housing. As you know, the main urban centres in the area. Maple, Mapleford – sorry – and Trentham, are already overcrowded, so we have to find sites outside the town to house these people. Mrs West: Mr Chairman! Chairman: Yes, Mrs West, you have a point to make?

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Why does it have to be on our doorstep? (3) Can’t you see that a development like this would change the whole nature of this locality? I moved here to get some clean air for myself and my family, and now I find that the city is following me. It’s just not on – why can’t you put this new town in the middle of an empty part of the countryside? Lester: Well, if you don’t mind me saying so, you’ve answered your own question, Mrs er … Mrs West: West, Mrs West. Lester: The countryside must indeed be preserved and it’s the sort of area you describe, as yet unspoilt, which most deserves our protection. Metcalf, on the other hand, already has over 2,000 inhabitants, and it could hardly be described as one of the most picturesque villages in the country … Mrs Thomas: No, I certainly won’t! It’s people’s lives we’re discussing here, (4) not a sight-seeing trip for tourists! Now, you tell me what’s going to happen when this so-called ‘new town’ is built, and we’ve got four times as many people here. I’m sure we can look forward to enjoying four times as many facilities, can’t we? There’ll be three new swimming pools, six new schools, three pubs … oh, and three new doctors’ surgeries … Lester: … er, of course, (5) that’s not really my area … I’m merely responsible for housing and the provision of adequate transport facilities. Mrs Thomas: Oh, no, it isn’t your area, is it, mate? It’s our area – and we intend to keep it that way … IV. You will hear a student, Hannah Jorden, giving a short talk on the topic of soil. Complete the sentences with a word or short phrase. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each gap. (20 points) I'm going to be giving a short talk on soil. I've tried to summarise some of the main information I've found on the topic. The advantage for me is that there's a great deal of research on soil. The research often looks at one particular function that soil provides. One Canadian study I looked at focused on the importance of soil as a (1) building material, used ever since humans first settled in communities. All studies emphasise its importance as a key to global well-being. In today's world there's a huge amount of pressure put on how we use our soil and why we're using it. This is due to the very basic fact that the (2) world population is rising rapidly. We need to look after our soil and natural habitats because the very survival of humankind may be at stake otherwise. And wherever we have people, we have waste. A significant amount of waste is put into landfill sites. The consequences have been serious in terms of soil pollution; once pollutants find their way into the (3) food chain, they can damage the land and the health of any vegetation or people in the area. Dispersal of this waste through the soil also changes the composition of the soil and its ability to perform many of the functions that people and plants rely on. For example, I have seen respected data that prove that some forms of soil pollution drastically diminish the total of (4) microbes, and this in turn decreases the biotic capability of the soil. There are both inorganic and organic pollutants. Some of the main toxic substances are inorganic and occur as a result of (5) mining in most continents of the world, notably the Americas, Europe and Asia. Secondary causes are smelting and the spreading of sewage on the land. In the past, it may have been ignorance or a 'couldn't care less' attitude which resulted in so much damage. Organic pollutants often take the form of pesticides. It's now appreciated that some of the early insecticides such as DDT had a considerable impact on the environment. An area I find fascinating is the potential of organic-based pollutants to disrupt our (6) hormones, which can have serious consequences over generations. Many of you will know quite a bit about the effects of acid rain. This phenomenon has been with us ever since countries became industrialised and began burning fossil fuels. Then came the car, emitting its exhaust fumes into the atmosphere. However, not all the causes of acid rain are man-made; (7) volcanoes release significant quantities of harmful gases into the atmosphere too, which then get into the soil through acid rain. In addition to acid rain, I've also looked at soil erosion. There are two main causes of soil erosion, water and (8) wind, and it's the latter which seems to have caught the attention of the press. It's soil erosion caused by water that's more widespread and can have more devastating effects. But soil is not only being eroded by the elements, it's also becoming weaker in terms of organic matter, which means crops aren't grown in rich soil any more. This is a result of the way we farm. As agriculturalists turn to (9) intensive farming, this is a system which results in topsoil becoming weaker. Moreover, in recent years, because of the demand for (10) increased crop production, cultivation has been extended more and more to sloping fields. And when it rains, a small ...

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Mrs West:

Giáo viên ra đề: Phạm Thị Mai Anh

Số điện thoại: 0983641567

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