Tổng hợp tất cả đề chính thức và đề xuất kì thi hsg duyên hải bắc bộ năm 2018 môn Tiếng Anh khối 10 by DẠY KÈM QUY NHƠN OLYMPIAD

ĐỀ THI DUYÊN HẢI BẮC BỘ MÔN TIẾNG ANH

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Ths Nguyễn Thanh Tú eBook Collection DẠY KÈM QUY NHƠN OLYMPIAD PHÁT TRIỂN NỘI DUNG

Tổng hợp tất cả đề chính thức và đề xuất kì thi hsg duyên hải và đồng bằng bắc bộ năm 2018 môn Tiếng Anh khối 10 có đáp án và phần nghe WORD VERSION | 2021 EDITION ORDER NOW / CHUYỂN GIAO QUA EMAIL TAILIEUCHUANTHAMKHAO@GMAIL.COM

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HỘI CÁC TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN VÙNG DUYÊN HẢI VÀ ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN BẮC GIANG ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT

KÌ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI NĂM HỌC 2017-2018 MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 10 Ngày thi: …….. Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) (Đề thi gồm 10 trang)

A. SECTION I: LISTENING (50 points) HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU • Bài nghe gồm 4 phần, mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần. • Mở đầu và kết thúc phần nghe có tín hiệu nhạc. • Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe. Part 1: For questions 1 – 5, listen to part of a discussion about a book on laughter. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER taken from the recording for each answer in the spaces provided. (10 points) 1. Provine’s book proposes that laughter is used to improve human ________________________ . 2. Mark says that today people often only laugh at TV ________________________ . 3. Diana says that women think a good ________________________ is vital in personal male/female relationships. 4. Diana thinks that the fact that there haven’t been many ________________________ in the past reflects a commonly held attitude. 5. Although laughter is important in relationships, there is no evidence to suggest that our ________________________ would benefit. Your answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. False Part 2: Listen to a conversation between two psychologists about modern childhood. For questions 1-5, decide whether the following statements are True (T) or False (F). Write your answers in the numbered boxes below. (10 points) 1. Daniel implies that past images of childhood are entirely fictional. 2. According to Daniel, children are failing to learn adequate social skills. 3. Louise believes that modern life has a negative effect on children. 4. Louise says that the media encourages celebrities to inspire young children. 5. Daniel implies that machines are more of a menace to children than people are. Your answers: 1.

Part 3: For questions 1 - 5, listen to Tim Cole talking about guidebooks and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D), which fits best according to what you hear. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points) 1. Once, when Tim used a guidebook in Australia, _____. A. he found the best budget hotel ever B. it took him ages to find the place he was looking for C. he ended up at an unexpected destination D. he travelled a lot to his favourite places Page 1 of 10

2. Tim believes the problem with guidebooks is that _____. A. some of them are very poorly researched B. many things have changed by the time you read the book C. they are only regularly updated D. some passengers cannot book their hotels 3. The thing Tim particularly dislikes about guidebooks is _____. A. the recommendations about where to eat B. that they have too much information about nightlife C. the limited amount of information about history and culture D. that they are too heavy to carry 4. Other things which should be included in guidebooks are _____. A. clear and detailed maps of the area B. as much information as possible about an area C. good pictures of well-known tourist sites D. as much money as possible 5. What is Tim’s view on digital guidebooks? A. They can be problematic when downloading. B. He can’t find what he wants as easily as he can in a traditional guidebook. C. He likes the fact that they’re tailored to your individual requirements. D. Too many travellers are too trusting of their guidebooks. Your answers: 1.

Part 4: Listen to the news about Reindeer and fill in each blank of the news summary with the missing information. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer in the corresponding numbered boxes. (20 points) Polar bears aren't the only beloved Arctic animal threatened by climate change. Scientists believe reindeer are at risk as a warming world makes their main winter food source disappear. But reindeer on one Alaskan island are (1) ______________. Historically, the reindeer population on St. Paul island ate (2) _________, a small type of plant or fungus that grows on rocks in areas with cold weather. However, climate change has made it harder for lichen to grow on this island, and the reindeer ate the lichen faster than it could grow back. Researchers thought that the reindeer population would starve without access to lichen, but these reindeer have found another way to survive. Reindeer are not (3) ___________ to Alaska, and they were introduced to rural villages around the state in the (4) __________, in order to provide an alternative food source for residents of the villages. In communities like St. Paul, where grocery prices are (5) ___________, residents depend on reindeer to feed their families. And to (6) ____________ winter, the reindeer need something as well. Fortunately, after the reindeer on this island depleted the lichen supply, they went (7) _____________. They began digging and discovered new sources of food: roots and grass shoots. Plants like these grow more quickly than lichen in the warmer, wetter conditions introduced by climate change, and the reindeer’s (8) ___________ to their new diet is a good sign for the survival of the species. However, reindeer researchers are not so (9) ___________. They warn that global reindeer populations are still in danger, as climate change warms and alters their (10) _______________, as are many other animals that depend on colder conditions to survive. (Adapted from “When Their Food Ran Out, These Reindeer Kept Digging”) Your answers: 1.

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B. SECTION TWO: LEXICO-GRAMMAR (50 points) Part 1. For questions 1 – 20, choose the most suitable word to complete each sentence (20 points) 1. I’ve got something of great importance to………to you A. impair B. impart C. compare D. deport 2. He praised his wife for her dignity under the……… of the tabloid press. A. onslaught B. assault C. onset D. offensive 3. The Roundhouse Hotel is……… named for its shape. A. despicably B. eerily C. aptly D. wantonly 4. Commentators should think twice before reviving this ugly stereotype in an attempt to……… police for killing a black teenager. A. apportion B. decriminalize C. exculpate D. discharge 5. She’s still……… over whether to accept the job she’s just been offered. A. tottering B. doddering C. dithering D. faltering 6. Several fans have claimed that they were……… by security guards. A. inundated B. cloaked C. manhandled D. acquiesced 7. You could feel the child's……… rise as we neared the amusement park. A. spectacle B. exuberance C. abundance D. plethora 8. Brain cancer requires treatment such as……… surgery. A. aggressive B. confrontational C. malignant D. rigorous 9. She went on and on about how she admired his work - laid it on a bit………, if you ask me. A. sticky B. sick C. soft D. thick 10. I’m……… my brother is. A. nowhere like ambitious as B. nothing near as ambitious as C. nothing as ambitious like D. nowhere near as ambitious as 11. The police……… off the street where the bomb had gone off. A. battened B. cordoned C. fastened D. shuttered 12. The smell of the burnt cabbage was so ……… that it spread to every zoom. A. pervasive B. effusive C. extensive D. diffuse 13. Why did you ……… and mention the party to Roger? It was supposed to be a surprise. A. have kittens B. put the cat among the pigeons C. let the cat out of the bag D. kill two birds with one stone 14. The judge released him on ……… but he’ll have to appear in court again next week. A. sentence B. bail C. punishment D. fine 15. You will be putting your life on the ……… if you take up skydiving. A. ground B. way C. lane D. line 16. After the concert, everyone had to……… home through the thick snow. A. trudge B. tread C. trace D. trickle 17. When his parents are away, his older brother……… A. knocks it off B. calls the shot C. draws the line D. is in the same boat 18. Unfortunately, not all of us obtain our j.ust……… in life. A. demands B. gains C. deserts D. wins 19. It is public knowledge that new magazines often use free gifts or other………to get people to buy them. Page 3 of 10

A. gimmicks B. snare C. plots D. scams 20. When his manager went on a business trip, Mario stepped into the……… and chaired the meeting. A. hole B. breach C. pool D. crack Part 2. The passage below contains 10 mistakes. For questions 1- 10, find out and correct them. It was the human factor that contributes to the absolute majority of road accidents which involves the tremendous toll of fatalities each year. Other, less decisive, causes are vehicle functions or road shortcomings. Speeding motorists are notorious about failing to give way at junctions, judging the situation on the road or being unable to accurately estimate the distance while overtaking the “snailpacers” ahead. Drinkers who settle behind the wheel after one glass or two may be running the risk of causing a tragedy through their impairing perception, which is not so rare a case, again. Unfortunately, it is much simpler to introduce the necessary alterations in the traffic system that change the behavioural patterns of drivers. There are voices that more severe disciplinary resolutions ought to put into practice if the vehicle users are to benefit from greater security on the road. The idea of producing safe road users through pre-school parental instruction or through incorporating the safety regulations for school curriculum has been widely acclaimed in many communities and are expected to yield the required results as the first step in bettering the qualifications of the future drivers and acquaint them with the potential hazards that may arise en route. 1. ……… 2……… 3……… 4……… 5……… 6……… 7……… 8……… 9……… 10……… Part 3. Fill in each blank with a suitable preposition or particle. (10 points) 1. Thomas is always flying ______________ the handle at the slightest thing. 2. He is an expert ______________ name only; he actually knows very little about the subject. 3. Mr. John, an impatient and aggressive person, is not at all cut ______________ being a teacher. 4. She drew the lecture ______________ to nearly three hours although it was only supposed to last an hour. 5. Gareth Bale is a brilliant young footballer who is ______________ the up and up. 6. Jan's good at keeping secrets, so you'll have to worm it _____________ her! 7. None of us could fathom ___________ why the experiment wasn't working. 8. Jim seems to be___________ the misapprehension that tomorrow’s a holiday. It isn't. 9. Josh can while _____________ a whole day playing online computer games with his mates. 10. That’s enough TV! It’s time to knuckle ___________ and get on ________ your homework now. Part 4: For questions 1 – 10, write the correct form of each given word in corresponding numbered box. (10 points) Every Picture Tells a Story Adapting novels for film almost always involves a process of reduction, (1) ……… and deletion. This can be very frustrating for the writer, but also illuminating. Working on a script, I was struck by how much of the dialogue and narrative description in a (2)……… scene in the novel I could (3) ………with, while still getting across the same point. This does not necessarily mean that the dialogue and description of the origin were (4) ……… It is a matter of the type of attention demanded of the audience by narrative in each medium, and a matter of the type of redundancy each (5) ……… I do not mean “redundancy” in the usual (6)……..sense of material which is unnecessary, but in a technical sense. In a novel, such redundancy would include the repeated (7)……… to certain traits by which characters are identified, as well as speech tags such as “he said”. Strictly speaking a character trait needs to be described only once, but it assists comprehension if we are constantly reminded of it. And usually we can infer who is speaking in a scene of dialogue from the content and layout on the page, but speech tags make Page 4 of 10

1. CONDENSE 2. GIVE 3. DISPENSATION 4. SUPERFLUITY 5. EMPLOYEE 6. COLLOQUY 7. ALLUDE

reading easier. Stage drama, which consists mostly of speech, imitates and (8) ……… the redundancy of real speech with various degrees of 8. PRODUCTION (9) ……… . In some modern dramas, this is taken to an extreme, so that 9. STYLIST the dialogue seems to consist almost entirely of redundant language, whose function is purely phatic (merely establishing contact between the two speakers), leaving us in the dark as to what is being ……(10) . 10. COMMUNICATE C. SECTION III: READING (50 points) Part 1. For questions 1- 10, read the passage and choose the best answer A, B, C or D (10 points) The value of walking New research reveals that walking just 9,5 kilometers (six miles) a week may make your brain sharper as you get older. Research published in the October 13 online issue of Neurology (1) ……… that walking may protect aging brains from growing smaller and, in (2) ………, preserve memory in old age. ‘Brain size shrinks in late adulthood, which can cause memory problems,' study author Kirk Erickson of the University of Pittsburgh said in a news release. ‘Our findings should encourage further welldesigned scientific (3) ……… of physical exercise in older adults as a very (4) ………approach for preventing dementia and Alzheimer's disease.’ For the study, the team asked 299 dementia-free seniors to record the (5) ……… they walked each week. Four years later, the participants were tested to see if they had developed (6) ……… of dementia. Then after nine years had passed, scientists (7) ……… the participants’ brains to measure size. At the four-year test, researchers discovered subjects who walked the most had reduced their risk of developing memory problems by 50 per cent. At the nine-year checkpoint, those who walked at least 9.5 kilometers a week, had brains with a larger (8). ……… than those who didn't walk as much. This is not the first study to (9) ……… the benefits of walking in seniors. For example, last spring, Harvard University found that women who walked regularly at a (10) ……… pace had an almost 40 per cent lower risk of stroke. 1. A. informs B. provides C. suggests D. notifies 2. A. result B. turn C. sequence D. case 3. A. trials B. attempts C. searches D. courses 4. A. indicative B. promising C. fortunate D. ideal 5. A. distance B. length C. duration D. extent 6. A. signals B. factors C. signs D. features 7. A. skimmed B. scanned C. screened D. sounded 8. A. volume B. amount C. dimension D. quantity 9. A. advertise B. promote C. respect D. admire 10. A. brisk B. hard C. crisp D. brief Part 2: For questions 1 - 10, fill each of the following numbered blanks with ONE suitable word. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (15 points) ENGLISH ETYMOLOGY Etymology is the study of word origins. It is a subiect which seems to hold a remarkable fascination for people, as can be seen from the numerous blogs and Internet sites dedicated (1) _____ lengthy discussions and speculations about the origin of a given word. Below are a few examples of words that are of particular etymological interest. According to the lexicographer, Samuel Johnson, the original meaning of this word suggests somewhat cynically that marriage begins with the sweetness and tenderness of honey, but soon wanes (2) _____ the moon. It still retains those connotations today in the expression honeymoon period which refers to the first stage of a new activity - a government's first term in office, for example - when people are prepared temporarily to ignore (3) _____ imperfections. Nowadays, in the context of marriage, the pessimistic implications have faded and the word simply refers to a holiday taken by a newly married couple. This word originated from Latin, where salarium, a derivative of sal- meaning 'salt', referred to 'an allowance given to soldiers to buy salt'. In former times salt was a valued commodity, over which wars were (4) _____. It was not taken for (5) _____ as it is today. Use of the word soon broadened out Page 5 of 10

to the current meaning of 'fixed periodic payment of work done' and passed in this sense via AngloNorman into English. This word describes something stylishly luxurious. In Britain it also means somebody or something typical (6) _____ the upper classes. It first appeared in the early twentieth (7) _____ and was widely (8) _____ to be an acronym for 'Port Out, Starboard Home', referring to the location of the more desirable cabins on passenger ships travelling (9) _____ Britain and India. Those on the port (left) side on the way out, and the starboard (right) on the return trip benefited from the sea breeze and shelter from the sun. (10) _____ it provides a very neat explanation, there isn't a shred of evidence for it. A more plausible solution is that the modern adjective, posh, is the same word as the now obsolete noun posh, meaning 'dandy' (a man who cares a lot about his clothes) a slang term current in the late nineteenth century. Part 3. Read the extract taken from Darwin's book The Voyage of the Beagle then choose the best answer A, B, C or D to complete each statement. (10 pts) That large animals require a luxuriant vegetation, has been a general assumption which has passed from one work to another; but I do not hesitate to say that it is completely false, and that it has vitiated the reasoning of geologists on some points of great interest in the ancient history of the world. The prejudice has probably been derived from India, and the Indian islands, where troops of elephants, noble forests, and impenetrable jungles, are associated together in every one's mind. If, however, we refer to any work of travels through the southern parts of Africa, we shall find allusions in almost every page either to the desert character of the country, or to the numbers of large animals inhabiting it. The same thing is rendered evident by the many engravings which have been published of various parts of the interior. Dr. Andrew Smith, who has lately succeeded in passing the Tropic of Capricorn, informs me that, taking into consideration the whole of the southern part of Africa, there can be no doubt of its being a sterile country. On the southern coasts there are some fine forests, but with these exceptions, the traveller may pass for days together through open plains, covered by a poor and scanty vegetation. Now, if we look to the animals inhabiting these wide plains, we shall find their numbers extraordinarily great, and their bulk immense. We must enumerate the elephant, three species of rhinoceros, the hippopotamus, the giraffe, the bos caffer, two zebras, two gnus, and several antelopes even larger than these latter animals. It may be supposed that although the species are numerous, the individuals of each kind are few. By the kindness of Dr. Smith, I am enabled to show that the case is very different. He informs me, that in lat. 24', in one day's march with the bullockwagons, he saw, without wandering to any great distance on either side, between one hundred and one hundred and fifty rhinoceroses - the same day he saw several herds of giraffes, amounting together to nearly a hundred. At the distance of a little more than one hour's march from their place of encampment on the previous night, his party actually killed at one spot eight hippopotamuses, and saw many more. In this same river there were likewise crocodiles. Of course it was a case quite extraordinary, to see so many great animals crowded together, but it evidently proves that they must exist in great numbers. Dr. Smith describes the country passed through that day, as 'being thinly covered with grass, and bushes about four feet high and still more thinly with mimosa-trees.' Besides these large animals, every one the least acquainted with the natural history of the Cape, has read of the herds of antelopes, which can be compared only with the flocks of migratory birds. The numbers indeed of the lion, panther, and hyena, and the multitude of birds of prey, plainly speak of the abundance of the smaller quadrupeds: one evening seven lions were counted at the same time prowling round Dr. Smith's encampment. As this able naturalist remarked to me, the carnage each day in Southern Africa must indeed be terrific! I confess it is truly surprising how such a number of animals can find support in a country producing so little food. The larger quadrupeds no doubt roam over wide tracts in search of it; and their food chiefly consists of underwood, which probably contains much nutriment in a small bulk. Dr. Smith also informs me that the vegetation has a rapid growth; no sooner is a part consumed, than its place is supplied by a fresh stock. There can be no doubt, however, that our ideas respecting the apparent amount of food necessary for the support of large quadrupeds are much exaggerated. The belief that where large quadrupeds exist, the vegetation must necessarily be luxuriant, is the more remarkable, because the converse is far from true. Mr. Burchell observed to me that when entering Brazil, nothing struck him more forcibly than the splendour of the South American vegetation contrasted with that of South Africa, together with the absence of all large Page 6 of 10

quadrupeds. In his Travels, he has suggested that the comparison of the respective weights (if there were sufficient data) of an equal number of the largest herbivorous quadrupeds of each country would be extremely curious. If we take on the one side, the elephants hippopotamus, giraffe, bos caffer, eland, five species of rhinoceros; and on the American side, two tapirs, the guanaco, three deer, the vicuna, peccary, capybara (after which we must choose from the monkeys to complete the number), and then place these two groups alongside each other it is not easy to conceive ranks more disproportionate in size. After the above facts, we are compelled to conclude, against anterior probability, which among the mammalian there exists no close relation between the bulk of the species, and the quantity of the vegetation, in the countries which they inhabit. Adapted from: Voyage of the Beagle, Charles Darwin 1. The author is primarily concerned with ______. A. discussing the relationship between the size of mammals and the nature of vegetation in their habitats B. contrasting ecological conditions in India and Africa C. proving the large animals do not require much food D. describing the size of animals in various parts of the world 2. According to the author, the ‘prejudice’ has lead to ______. A. errors in the reasoning of biologists B. false ideas about animals in Africa C. doubt in the mind of the author D. incorrect assumptions on the part of geologists 3. The author uses information provided by Dr. Smith to ______. A. supply information on quality and quantity of plant life in South Africa B. indicate the presence of large numbers of animals C. give evidence of numbers of carnivorous animals D. A, B and C are correct 4. The flocks of migratory birds are mentioned to ______. A. describe an aspect of the fauna of South Africa B. indicate the abundance of wildlife C. contrast with the habits of the antelope D. suggest the size of antelope herds 5. The ‘carnage’ refers to the ______. A. number of animals killed by hunters B. number of prey animals killed by predators C. number of people killed by lions D. amount of food eaten by all species 6. To account for the ‘surprising’ number of animals in a ‘country producing so little food’, Darwin suggests all of the following as partial explanations except ______. A. food requirements have been overestimated B. rapid regrowth of plant material C. large area for animals to forage in D. mainly carnivorous animals 7. The author makes his point by reference to all of the following except ___________. A. historical documents B. published illustrations C. private communications D. recorded observations 8. Darwin quotes Burchell’s observations in order to ______. A. describe a region of great splendor B. counter a popular misconception C. account for a curious situation D. illustrate a well-known phenomenon 9. Darwin apparently regards Dr. Smith as ______. A. reliable and imaginative B. observant and excitable C. intrepid and competent D. foolhardy and tiresome 10. Anterior probability refers to ______. A. what might have been expected B. ideas of earlier explorers C. likelihood based on data from India D. hypotheses of other scientists Part 4. The reading passage below has 7 paragraphs A-G. Choose the correct heading for each paragraph from the list of headings below. Choose the most suitable heading from the List of Headings below. Write the appropriate numbers (i - xii) in Boxes. Paragraphs C and G have been done for you. (15 pts) 1. Paragraph A: ________ List of Headings 2. Paragraph B: ________ i. Co-ordination- important for all Paragraph C: ____xi___ ii. Tension and daily routine 3. Paragraph D: ________ iii. Brushing one’s teeth and slicing bread Page 7 of 10

4. Paragraph E: ________ 5. Paragraph F: ________ Paragraph G: ____v___

iv. Fitting the technique to the disability v. Challenges for the Alexander teacher vi. Musical solutions vii. Potential drawbacks viii. Helping the disabled through their helpers ix. Pain problems x. Better body “use” for all xi. Retraining limbs xii. Breaking bad habits

THE ALEXANDER TECHNIQUE AND DISABILITY A. The Alexander Technique is a method of psychophysical re-education developed by F. Matthias Alexander more than a century ago, initially as a result of trying to solve a vocal problem. It is a technique for the elimination of ingrained habits of 'misuse' that interfere with the healthy and harmonious functioning of ourselves as a whole, often the underlying cause of many conditions, such as back pain, neck and shoulder tension, fatigue, breathing disorders and other stress-related illnesses. B. Our natural reflex mechanisms for balance and posture are largely dependent on the coordination of the head, neck and back. The Technique addresses the causes of 'misuse' and lack of poise that may be interfering with this relationship. When these mechanisms are allowed to work in harmony, 'good use' spontaneously returns, resulting in easier breathing, freer, lighter movement and a greater ability to control our reactions and our movements. In other words, the Technique enables us to 'use' ourselves better, and, in that sense, is concerned with helping anybody - the so called 'able bodied' as well as disabled people to overcome their disabilities. Hence, the Alexander teacher's approach when working with the disabled is, in essence, the same as with any pupil of the Technique. C. For example, if we take a violinist with a 'misuse' problem of the upper limbs causing technical limitations to his or her playing, the Alexander teacher will work on improving the pupil's overall 'use' by encouraging the inhibition of the habitual muscular tension pattern that interferes with the co-ordination of the head/neck/back relationship in order to enable him /her to play with more ease. Similarly, when working with a pupil who has lost mobility in the left arm from a stroke, the teacher will first of all address the head/neck/back relationship, and the inhibition of extraneous tension that prevents maximum use of the affected limb. In this way, it is possible to enable the stroke patient to retrain mobility of the paralyzed part of the body. D. The approach and w hat results can be expected vary greatly depending on the disability. For the stroke patient, especially if lessons are commenced early after the stroke, the Alexander Technique can play an important role in rehabilitation and mobility retraining. With a blind person, the work is likely to focus instead more directly on eliminating tension habits that have developed to compensate for the loss of sight, e.g. insecurity leading to stiff and overcautious walking, balancing difficulties and poor head poise. E. Working with the disabled pupil, the Alexander teacher can offer help with everyday activities, things that the average person takes for granted, such as the ability to brush one's teeth, shave, tie one's shoelaces or cut a slice of bread. By looking at compensatory tension patterns, the teacher can, in many instances, help the disabled person find a new means whereby they can perform these everyday tasks. F. In this respect, the lessons may extend to include the disabled person's carer, for example the person who regularly has to help someone in and out of a wheelchair. Using the Alexander Technique, the carer learns not only to lift and give support in the most efficient way to avoid damaging his/her own back, but, as the two learn together, they also become better skilled at working out strategies enabling the disabled person to become more independent. G. There are, of course, several factors which have to be taken into consideration when working with disabled pupils. They may suffer intense pain and discomfort, loss of Kinaesthetic awareness (sometimes with total loss of sensitivity in parts of the body), severe lack of co-ordination, loss of mobility, memory loss, blindness, deafness, and speech impairment. The effect this has on the person's emotional and psychological state also has to be taken into account. Some disabled pupils may need longer lessons, because of the time required to move them from the wheelchair, take o ff casts, slings and other movement aids, etc. Others may only be able to concentrate for short periods of time Page 8 of 10

and, therefore, require shorter lessons more frequently. It often requires a certain amount of inventiveness on the part of the Alexander teacher, both as far as practical arrangements and the approach to teaching are concerned, a challenge that, in most cases, is greatly rewarded by the positive results. Complete the summary below using information from the passage. You may use no more than TWO WORDS from the passage for each blank. Example: Alexander Matthias ____developed ____ the technique named after him more than a hundred years ago. With the Alexander Technique, people are re-educated in a psychophysical way. The technique works on the body’s (6) ________________ so that they all operate harmoniously. As a result, bad habits are eliminated and the individual is able to live a healthy life. Alexander’s technique can help any of us to (7) ________________ ourselves better. As regards (8) ________________ person, the expected results and exact method used vary, according to the requirements of the individual, e.g. shorter and more regular sessions in the case of clients who find it difficult to concentrate. With disabled clients, in fact, a number of (9) ________________ have to be considered, and for the teacher, who often needs to be very inventive, this is (10) ________________. D. SECTION IV: WRITING (50 points) Part 1. For questions 1 to 5, complete the second sentence so that it has it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given. Do not change the word given. You must use between THREE and SIX words, including the word given (10 points) 1. The handling of the matter has been heavily criticised by the press. (scorn) -> The press ……………………………………………… of the matter. 2. The direct aim of the statement is to make the public aware of the present situation. (boils) -> The statement ………………………………… aware of the present situation. 3. Don't think the police are going to drop your case so quickly. (hook) -> Don't think the police are going to …………………………… so quickly. 4.I don't really know why, but I don’t trust him. (finger) -> I can’t …………………………………………………. ,but I don’t trust him 5. If you work without a break, you are more likely to make an error. (prone) -> Working without a break ……………………………………………… error. Part 2. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it has the same meaning as the printed above. (10 points) 1. I expected the book to be far better because it had been written by such a good novelist. The book fell ....................................................................................................... 2. The new deal has introduced many changes in the cooperation Many a ................................................................................................................ 3. I am not certain, but there may be twenty applications for the job. At a ....................................................................................................................... 4. In a nutshell, Joseph’s not up to the job. The long ............................................................................................................... 5. Alternative medicine is a complete mystery to some people. Some people are ...................................................................................................

Part 3: Paragraph writing (30 points) Write a paragraph of about 200-250 words on the importance of IT in modern life ________________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________________ Page 9 of 10

________________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________________ Người ra đề thi: Nguyễn Danh Hào (DD: 0982094866)

Page 10 of 10

KÌ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI NĂM HỌC 2017-2018 MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 10 Ngày thi: …….

HỘI CÁC TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN VÙNG DUYÊN HẢI VÀ ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN BẮC GIANG HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM

(Hướng dẫn chấm gồm 02 trang)

SECTION I: LISTENING (50 points) Part 1: 1. interaction 2. comedy 3. sense of humour

4. female comedians

5. health or longevity longevity or health

Part 2: 1. F

2. T

3. T

4. F

5. T

Part 3: 1. C

2. B

3. A

4. A

5. B

Part 4: 1. surprising researchers 6. make it through

2. lichen

3. native

4. late 1800s

5. astronomical

7. underground

8. ability to adapt

9. optimistic

10. habitat

SECTION TWO: LEXICO-GRAMMAR (50 points) 1. B. affords 3. C. aptly 5. C. dithering 7. B. exuberance 9. D. thick 11. B. cordoned 13. C. let the cat out of the bag 15. D. line 17. B. calls the shot 19. A. gimmicks Part 2. 1. involves-> involve 2. functions-> malfunction 3. about-> for 4. judging-> misjudging 5. impairing-> impaired 6. that-> than 7. to put-> to be put 8. for-> into 9. are-> is 10. acquaint -> acquainting Part 3. 1. off 6. out of

2. in 7. out

3. out for 8. under

2. A. onslaught 4. C. exculpate 6. C.manhandled 8. A. aggressive 10. D. nowhere near as ambitious as 12. A pervasive 14. B. bail 16. A. trudge 18. C. deserts 20. B. breach

4. out 9. away Page 1 of 2

5. on 10. down/with

Part 4: 1. condensation 6. colloquial

2.given 7. allusion

3. dispense 8.reproduces

4. superfluous. 9.stylisation.

5. employs. 10.communicated.

SECTION III: READING (50 points) Part 1. 1. C. suggests 6. C. signs

2. B. turn 7. B. scanned

3. A. trials 8.A. volume

4. B. promising 9. B. promote

5. A. distance 10. A. brisk

Part 2: 1. to 6. of

2. like 7. century

3. any 4. fought 8. assumed / thought / believed 9. between

5. granted 10. Although

Part 3. 1. A 6. D

2. D 7. A

Part 4. 1. xii 2. x 6. reflex mechanisms/ 7. use reflexes

3. D 8. B 3. iv 8. the disabled

4. D 9. C

5. B 10. A

4. ii 9. factors

5. viii 10.challenge/ challenging

SECTION IV: WRITING (50 points) Part 1. 1. The press has poured scorn on the handling of the matter 2. The statement boils down to making the public aware of the present situation. 3. Don’t think the police are going to get/ let you off the hook so quickly 4. I can’t put my finger on the reason but I don’t trust him 5. Working without a break makes you more prone to error Part 2. 1. The book fell short of my expectations even though it had been written by such a good novelist. 2. Many a change has been introduced in the cooperation by the new deal. 3. At a guess, there may be twenty applications for the job. 4. The long and the short of it is that Joseph’s not up to the job. 5. Some people are mystified by alternative medicine. Part 3: Paragraph writing (30 points) Write a paragraph of about 200-250 words on the importance of IT in modern life

Page 2 of 2

SỞ GD&ĐT BẮC NINH TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN BẮC NINH (Đề thi đề xuất)

ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI VÙNG DUYÊN HẢI - ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ NĂM HỌC 2017 - 2018 Môn: Tiếng Anh – Lớp 10 (Thời gian: 180 phút – không kể thời gian giao đề)

A. LISTENING (50 points) Part 1. Complete the notes below. For question 1-5, write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. (10 points) Notes on Island Hotel Type of room required: double room Time • The length of stay: approx 2 weeks • Starting date: 25th April Temperature • Daytime: up to 1. ___________ °C • Erratic weather Transport • Free 2.___________ • Normally transferring to the airport takes about 3.___________en-suite facilities and a 4.___________ • gym and spa facilities • a large outdoor swimming pool • three standard 5.___________ Your answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Part 2. You will hear part of a radio interview with Martin Middleton, who makes wildlife programmes for television. For questions 1-5, choose the best answer (A, B or C). (10 points) 1. When he visited Borneo, Martin A. made a programme about life on the river. B. had no fixed expectations. C. became more interested in filming old buildings. 2. Since the early 1960s, wildlife filming has become A. more organised. B. more relaxed. C. more creative. 3. When he takes a holiday, Martin prefers to A. relax by the sea. B. travel for a particular reason. Page 1

C. stay in comfortable surroundings. 4. Martin thought that the holiday-makers he saw in the Dominican Republic were A. risking their health. B. wasting opportunities. C. lacking entertainment. 5. What is Martin's opinion of tourism? A. It should be discouraged. B. It is well managed. C. It can be a good thing. Your answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Part 3. You will hear part of a radio interview in which a graphic designer called Sandra talking about her work as a children's book illustrator. For questions 1-5, decide whether the statement is TRUE (T) or FALSE (F). (10 points) 1. As a freelance illustrator, Sandra finds it challenging when she has to work to a tight schedule. 2. Sandra is allowed to work on illustrations before receiving the story if she works with editors she knows well. 3. For Sandra, keeping the figures realistic rather than cartoonish requires most effort when it comes to drawing people. 4. Sandra's work made her children good readers at an early stage. 5. Sandra suggests young people who hope to be illustrators showing their specialization in particular subjects. Your answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Part 4. You will hear part of a scientific television programme for young people in which the speaker explains what meteors' are For questions 1-10, complete the notes below which summarise what the speaker says. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. (20 points) 'Meteors' is another name for 1.___________ To help explain meteors, planet Earth is compared to a 2.___________ You can think of meteors as a group of 3.___________ In reality, meteors are very small chunks of 4.___________ The circular path the Earth travels around the Sun is called its 5. ___________ When Earth comes close to a meteor, the meteor is pulled downwards by 6.___________ A meteor travels very fast - a hundred times faster than 7.___________, which is described as similar to striking one end of a 8.___________ Due to the speed it travels through the air, the meteor becomes hotter and hotter. Because of the heat, the meteor becomes less hard, 9.___________. and then burns We are lucky that most meteors burn up and never 10.___________ Your answers: Page 2

1. 6.

2. 7.

3. 8.

4. 9.

5. 10.

SECTION B. LEXICO- GRAMMAR (50 points) Part 1. Choose the best option A, B, C, or D to complete the following sentences and write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (20 points) 1. Without additional funds from the government, the principal cannot ___________ the issue of overcrowding in his school. A. rectify B. banish C. sanction D. maltreat 2. Salt intake may lead to raised blood pressure in ___________ adults. A. susceptible B. dangerous C. futile D. feasible 3. No one appreciated his work during his lifetime, but ___________ it is clear that he is a great artist. A. in the aftermath B. by the time C. in retrospect D. in this eventuality 4. In recent years, many hills have been ___________ to give way to buildings. A. demolished B. levelled C. flattened D. felled 5. The ___________ of thirst is based on the concentration of salt in the blood. A. sensation B. sentiment C. response D. impression 6. The brother and sister were ___________ over who would get to inherit the beach house. A. at large B. at odds C. at a standstill D. at a loose end 7. Don’t trust what you hear on the grapevine. It’s best to hear it straight from the ___________ mouth so you know it’s true. A. dog’s B. horse’s C. camel’s D. cat’s 8. Charles Babbage’s “difference engine” is widely regarded as the ___________ of modern computers. A. precedent B. precursor C. ancestor D. antecedent 9. Because so much wheat has been sold to other countries, local supplies are ___________. A. expanded B. depleted C. apprehended D. preoccupied 10. Parents know that a caring attitude can not only save you a small fortune, but also even make you feel good about being ___________ and offering more care than presents. A. tight-fisted B. pigheaded C. highly strung D. easy-going 11. Ann’s encouraging words gave me ___________ to undertake the demanding task once again. A. a point B. an incentive C. a resolution D. a target 12. The international conference of the Cardiological Association has been ___________ in Cairo to discuss the revolutionary discovery of doctor Gonzales from Mexico. A. deployed B. collected C. mobilized D. summoned 13. We did our best to fix the broken computer but our efforts bore no ___________ A. success B. fruit C. luck D. end 14. It was decide that the cost of the project would be ______ so it was abandoned. A. repressive B. prohibitive C. restrictive D. exclusive Page 3

15. Many children who get into trouble in their early teens go on to become ______ offenders. A. persistent B. insistent C. inverted D. innate 16. Advertisers often claim their campaigns at young people as they have considerable spending _______. A. power B. force C. energy D. ability 17. Before their restoration, parts of the medieval building were in a state of _______. A. debris B. dilapidation C. devastation D. destruction 18. As you are the strongest in the group, you can take the ______ . A. lead B. head C. part D. way 19. His new play is not only interesting but also unique. It is really off the beaten _____ . A. track B. road C. path D. route 20. Even the best medicines are not ______ . A. infallible B. unfailing C. fail-proof D. falsified Your answers: 1. 5. 9. 13. 17. 2. 6. 10. 14. 18. 3. 7. 11. 15. 19. 4. 8. 12. 16. 20. Part 2. Read the passage below which contains 10 mistakes. Identify the mistakes and write the corrections in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points) Earth is the only place we know of in the universe that can support human life. Yet human activities are making the planet less fit to live by. As the western world carries on consuming two-third of the world's resources while half of the world's population do so just to stay alive, we are rapidly destroying the only resource we have by what all people can survive and prosper. Everywhere fertile soil is neither built on or washed into the sea. Renewable resources are exploited so much that they will never be able to recover completely. We discharge pollutant into the atmosphere without any thought of the consequences. As a result the planet's ability to support people is reducing at the very time when rising human numbers and consumption are making increasing heavy demands on it. Earth's natural resources are there for us to use. We need food, water, air, energy, medicines, warmth, shelter and minerals to keep us feed, comfortable, healthy and active. If we are sensitive in how we use the resources they will last indefinitely. But if we use them wastefully and excessively they will soon run out and everyone will suffer. Your answers: 1. 6. 2. 7. 3. 8. 4. 9. 5. 10. Page 4

Part 3. Complete each sentence with one suitable particle or preposition. Write your answers in the box provided. (10 points) 1. You shouldn't pick ________ him just because he's different. 2. Table salt is composed _________ two elements, sodium and chlorine. 3. _________ the whole, I enjoyed the movie. 4. The boss was really hot _____ the collar when you told him you lost the contract. 5. I have to study day and night to keep _____ top. 6. He showed great ingenuity _____ solving the problem. 7. We had to take _____ the deliveries to make sure every piece was in good condition. 8. What chemical is this? It’s giving ________ a horrible smell. 9. The guide rounded _________ the party of tourists and led them to the cathedral. 10. Owing to circumstances ________ our control, the flight to Rome has been cancelled. Your answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. Part 4. Write the correct form of the words given in the brackets. Write your answers in the spaces provided below. (10 points) It is commonly believed that a break from everyday routine can only do you good. Every summer, you can spot (1) __________ PROSPECT holidaymakers at airports and waiting for car ferries. They are (2) __________ MISTAKE - you can tell them a mile away by their sun hats and hopeful expressions. For all their optimism, what often actually happens can be a rude awakening from the blissful holiday dreams of the rest of the year. Sunburn, mosquitoes and (3) ___________ FORESEE expenses can make you think twice about how (4) ____________ BENEFIT getting away from it all really is. The fact is, the (5) __________ LIKELY of something going wrong is maximised when you are abroad and, (6) __________ FORTUNE your ability to deal with crisis and catastrophe is often minimised. This could be because of language problems, (7) _________ FAMILIAR with the culture, or simply a different climate, all of which make everything seem different and unreal. So, what is the answer? (8) ___________ DOUBT an annual escape from normal working life is a very positive thing. However, the (9) ___________ WISE of seeking an exotic location is (10) ___________ QUESTION when you think of all the things that can go wrong. Your answers: 1. 6. 2. 7. 3. 8. 4. 9. 5. 10. C. READING (50 points) Page 5

Part 1. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap. Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points) Very few of us would admit putting much trust in horoscopes and the fact that the movements of astronomical bodies (1) _________ to earthly occurrences affecting peoples’ everyday lives. We all know about the zodiac signs which reflect the position of the sun, the moon and the planets at the moment of a man’s birth and about the peculiar characteristics (2) _________ to them by astrologers. We say we will take these phenomena with a (3) _________ of salt while we keep running our eyes over them in every tabloid we (4) _________ our hands on. Most frequently, we expect horoscopes to predict the future, to restore our optimistic mood with a piece of comforting information or to (5) _________ our ego by confirming the superlative features that we tend to attribute to our zodiacs. However, there’s no scientific evidence to (6) _________ the assumption that human existence is so closely (7) _________ with the parameters of the celestial bodies. Our curiosity in horoscopes may, then, (8) _________ our sheer fascination with the unexplained or the unpredictable as well as in the enticing insight into the future that the horoscopes offer, thus establishing the sense of our (9) _________ an extreme power over our own lives. An addition explanation is that humans tend to have a soft (10) _________ for any form of flattery, which is the fact to which astrologers and the horoscope writers seem to attach the greatest deal of weight. 1. A. rely B. correspond C. match D. compare 2. A. identified B. associated C. incorporated D. ascribed 3. A. speck B. pinch C. grain D. scrap 4. A. settle B. draw C. grab D. lay 5. A. boost B. escalate C. revitalize D. improve 6. A. conclude B. concede C. corroborate D. Confound 7. A. fused B. adhered C. coalesced D. intertwined 8. A. stem B. crop C. rear D. dawn 9. A. disposing B. wielding C. effecting D. committing 10. A. pin B. dot C. spot D. nick Your answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. Part 2. Read the following text and fill in the blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (15 points) The trouble with school In the first few years at school all appears to (1) ____ very well. There is much concern, (2) ____the part of the teachers, with high educational standards, and the children, even those who are (3) ____ from being socially privileged in other ways, seem eager and happy. However, by the time the children reach adolescence, the promise of the early years frequently remains unfulfilled. Many leave school (4) ____ having mastered those basic skills which society demands, let (5) ____ having developed the ability to Page 6

exercise any sort of creative intelligence. There is no denying that, in spite of the enlightened concern of our primary schools with happiness, schooling (6) ____ or other turns into a distinctly unhappy experience for many of our children. Large (7) ____ of them emerge from it well aware that they are illequipped for life in our society. So then they either regard (8) ____ as stupid for failing or else, quite understandably, they regard the activities at (9) ____ they have failed as stupid. In any event they want no (10) ____ of them. How can we justify a long period of compulsory education which ends like that? Your answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. Part 3. Read the following passage and circle the best answer to each of the following questions. Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points) The response of most animals when suddenly faced with a predator is to flee. Natural selection has acted in a variety of ways in different species to enhance the efficacy of the behaviours, known as "flight behaviours" or escape behaviours that are used by prey in fleeing predators. Perhaps the most direct adaptation is enhanced light speed and agility. Adaptations for speed, however, are likely to require sacrifices biter attributes, so we might expect only some species to adopt a simple fast flight strategy. Another way of enhancing the effectiveness of flight is to move in an erratic and unpredictable way. Many species, like ptarmigans, snipes, and various antelopes and gazelles, flee from predators in a characteristic zigzag fashion. Rapid unexpected changes in flight direction make it difficult for a predator to track prey. In some species, like the European hare, erratic zigzagflight might be more effective in the presence of predators that are faster than they are and straight light more effective against predators that are slower. One observation that supports this suggestion is the recorded tendency for slow-flying black-beaded gulls, which are normally able to escape predators by means of direct flight, to show frequent changes in flight direction when they spot a peregrine falcon (peregrinesare adept at capturing flying birds). A quite different way of enhancing escape by flight is to use so-called "flash" behaviour. Here, the alarmed prey flees for a short distance and then "freezes." Some predators are unexcited by immobile prey, and a startling flash of activity followed by immobility may confuse them. "Flash" behaviour is used in particular by frogs and orthopteraninsects, which make conspicuous jumps and then sit immobile. In some species, "flash" behaviour is enhanced by the display of bright body markings. Good examples of insects with colourful markings are the red and yellow underwing moths. At rest, both species are a cryptic brown color. When they fly, however, brightly coloured hind wings are exposed, which render the moths highly conspicuous. Similarly, some frogs and lizards have brightly coloured patches or frills that may serve a 'flash" function when they move quickly. Some species even appear to possess "flash" sounds. The loud buzzing and clicking noises made by some grasshoppers when they jump may serve to emphasize the movement. Page 7

1. The word "enhance" in line 2 is closest in meaning to........... A. encourage B. resist C. increase D. reveal 2. The description of the prey's movement as "zigzag" suggests that the movement is....... A. reliable B. fast C. constant D. unpredictable 3. It can be inferred from the passage that the European hare......... A. is faster than most of its predators B. is capable of two kinds of flight C. is more likely to escape using straight flight D. is preyed upon by gulls and falcons 4. The behaviour of black-beaded gulls is most comparable to that of....... A. gazelles B. European hares C. peregrine falcons D. frogs 5. It can be inferred that black-beaded gulls change direction when they spot a peregrine falcon for which of the following reasons? A. The falcons are faster than the gulls. B. The gulls want to capture the falcons. C. The falcons are unpredictable. D. The gulls depend on the falcons for protection. 6. The word "alarmed" in line 18 is closest in meaning to.......... A. moving B. selected C. frightened D. exhausted 7. All of the followings are mentioned as characteristics of "flash" behaviour EXCEPT........... A. brief conspicuous activity B. immobility C. bright body markings D. aggressive fighting 8. The phrase "in particular" in line 20 is closest in meaning to........... A. especially B. with difficulty C. expertly D. frequently 9. The hind wings of red and yellow underwing moths function in a way that is most similar to........... A. the hind wings of peregrine falcons B. the zigzag flight of European hares C. the colored patches on frogs D. the clicking of grasshoppers 10. Why does the author mention "grasshopper" in the last line? A. To contrast animals that "flash" with animals that "freeze". B. As an example of an animal whose "flash" behaviour is a sound. C. To compare the jumping behaviour of insects and reptiles. D. As an example of a predator that moths escape by using "flash" behavior. Your answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. Part 4. Read the following extract and answer questions 1-10. (15 points) Page 8

For questions 1-10, choose correct heading for paragraphs B-G from the list of headings. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. There is an example at the beginning. List of Headings i. The biological clock ii. Why dying is beneficial iii. The ageing process of men and women iv. Prolonging your life v. Limitations of life span vi. Models of development of different species vii. A stable life span despite improvements viii. Energy consumption ix. Fundamental differences in ageing of objects and organisms x. Repair of genetic material HOW DOES THE BIOLOGICAL CLOCK TICK? A. Our life span is restricted. Everyone accepts this as ‘biologically’ obvious. ‘Nothing lives forever!’ However, in this statement we think of artificially produced, technical objects, products which are subjected to natural wear and tear during use. This leads to the result that at some time or other the object stops working and is unusable (‘death’ in the biological sense). But are the wear and tear and loss of function of technical objects and the death of living organisms really similar or comparable? B. Our ‘dead’ products are ‘static’, closed systems. It is always the basic material which constitutes the object and which, in the natural course of things, is worn down and becomes ‘older’. Ageing in this case must occur according to the laws of physical chemistry and of thermodynamics. Although the same law holds for a living organism, the result of this law is not inexorable in the same way. At least as long as a biological system has the ability to renew itself it could actually become older without ageing; an organism is an open, dynamic system through which new material continuously flows. Destruction of old material and information of new material are thus in permanent dynamic equilibrium. The material of which the organism is formed changed continuously. Thus our bodies continuously exchange old substance for new, just like a spring which more or less maintains its form and movement, but in which the water molecules are always different. C. Thus ageing and death should not be seen as inevitable, particularly as the organism possesses many mechanisms for repair. It is not, in principle, necessary for a biological system to age and die. Nevertheless, a restricted life span, ageing, and then death are basic characteristics of life. The reason for this is easy to recognize: in nature, the existent organisms either adapt or are regularly replaced by new types. Because of changes in the genetic material (mutations) these have new characteristics and in the course of their individual lives they are tested for optimal or better adaptation to the environmental conditions. Immortality would disturb this system- it needs room for new and better life. This is the basic problem of evolution. Page 9

D. Every organism has a life span which is highly characteristic. There are striking differences in life span between different species, but within one species the parameter is relatively constant. For example, the average duration of human life has hardly changed in thousands of years. Although more and more people attain an advanced age as a result of developments in medical care and better nutrition, the characteristic upper limit for most remains 80 years. A further argument against the simple wear and tear theory is the observation that the time within which organisms age lies between a few days (even a few hours for unicellular organisms) and several thousands years, as with mammoth trees. E. If a life span is genetically determined biological characteristic, it is logically necessary to propose the existence of an internal clock, which in some way measures and controls the ageing process and which finally determines death as the last step in a fixed programme. Like the life span, the metabolic rate has for different organisms a fixed mathematical relationship to the body mass. In comparison to the life span this relationship is “inverted”: the larger the organism the lower its metabolic rate. Again this relationship is valid not only for birds, but also, similarly on average within the systematic unit, for all other organisms (plants, animals, unicellular organisms). F. Animals which behave “frugally” with energy become particularly old, for example, crocodiles and tortoises. Parrots and birds of prey are often held chained up. Thus they are not able to “experience life” and so they attain a high life span in captivity. Animals which save energy by hibernation or lethargy (e.g. bats or hedgehogs) live much longer than those which are always active. The metabolic rate of mice can be reduced by a very low consumption of food (hunger diet). They then may live twice as long as their well fed comrades. Women become distinctly (about 10 per cent) older than man. If you examine the metabolic rates of the two sexes you establish that the higher male metabolic rate roughly accounts for the lower male life span. That means that they live life “energetically”- more intensively, but not for as long. G. It follows from the above that sparing use of energy reserves should tend to extend life. Extreme high performance sports may lead to optimal cardiovascular performance, but they quite certainly do not prolong life. Relaxation lowers metabolic rate, as does adequate sleep and in general an equable and balanced personality. Each of us can develop his or her own “energy saving programme” with a little self-observation, critical self-control and, above all, logical consistency. Experience will show that to live in this way not only increase the life span but is also very healthy. This final aspect should not be forgotten. 0. Paragraph A 1. Paragraph B 2. Paragraph C 3. Paragraph D. 4. Paragraph E 5. Paragraph F 6. Paragraph G For questions 7 -10, write in the corresponding numbered boxes: Y if the statement agrees with the information given in the passage N if the statement contradicts the information given in the passage NG if there is no information about this in the passage 7. The wear and tear theory applies to both artificial objects and biological systems. Page 10

8. Through mutations, organisms can adapt better to the environment. 9. In principle, it is possible for a biological system to become older without ageing. 10. Within seven years, about 90 percent of a human body is replaced as new. Your answers: 0. v 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. D. WRITING (50 points) Part 1. Rewrite each sentence using the word in brackets so that the meaning stays the same. You must use between THREE and EIGHT words, including the word given. (10 points) 1. The new theatre is extremely ugly and spoils the view of the village. (blot) => The new theatre is _____________________________________ and spoils the view of the village. 2. Your attitude to life would be greatly improved by regular exercise. (wonders) => Regular exercise_______________________________________ you look at life. 3. It is as yet unclear whether a new sports centre is being planned or not. (seen) => It _______________________________________ are any plans for a new sports centre or not. 4. Mary is far superior to me in terms of technical knowledge. (match) => When it comes ________________________________________________ for Mary. 5. Anthony wasn’t at all discouraged by this bad experience. (put) => This bad experience _______________________________________________ least. Part 2. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it. (10 points) 1. If nothing unfortunate happens, I’ll see you next week. => All _________________________________________________________________. 2. Redundancy has caused a lot of domestic problems. => Many a ________________________________________________________ 3. The film didn’t come up to my expectations. => The film fell ____________________________________________________ 4. Since she couldn’t get through to the police, she ran next door for help. => Not ___________________________________________________. 5 The value of sterling has fallen considerably in the past week. => There has _____________________________________________________. Part 3: “Cooperation rather than competition should be encouraged among highschool students.” In about 200- 250 words, write an essay to express your opinion on the proposal. Use reasons and examples to support your position. (30 points) …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… Page 11

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ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI VÙNG DUYÊN HẢI - ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ

SỞ GD&ĐT BẮC NINH TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN BẮC NINH

NĂM HỌC 2017 - 2018 Môn: Tiếng Anh – Lớp 10

(ĐÁP ÁN)

A. LISTENING (50 points) Part 1. Complete the notes below. For question 1-5, write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. ( IELTS Listening Actual Test 3) (10 points) 1. 19 2. pick-up 3. 40 minutes 4. balcony 5. tennis courts service Part 2. You will hear part of a radio interview with Martin Middleton, who makes wildlife programmes for television. For questions 1-5. choose the best answer (A, B or C). (Cambridge FCE 3) (10 points) 1. B

2. A

3. B

4. B

5. C

Part 3. You will hear part of a radio interview in which a graphic designer called Sandra talking about her work as a children's book illustrator. For questions 1-5, decide whether the statement is TRUE (T) or FALSE (F). (CAE Test Builder) (10 points) 1. T 2. F 3. F 4. T 5. F Part 4. You will hear part of a scientific television programme for young people in which the speaker explains what meteors' are. For questions 1-10, complete the notes below which summarise what the speaker says. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. (Successful FCE Practice Tests) (20 points) 1. shooting 2. car 3. insects 4. iron 5. orbit stars 6. gravity 7. a jet plane 8. match 9. melts 10. reach the ground SECTION B. LEXICO AND GRAMMAR (50 points) Part 1. Choose the best option A, B, C, or D to complete the following sentences and write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (20 points) 1. A 5. A 9. B 13. B 17. B 2. A 6. B 10. A 14. B 18. A 3. C 7. B 11. B 15. A 19. A 4. B 8. B 12. D 16. A 20. A

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Part 2. Read the passage below which contains 10 mistakes. Identify the mistakes and write the corrections in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points) 1. live by => live on 2. two-third => two-thirds 3. by what => by which 4. neither => either 5. pollutant => pollutants

6. reducing => being reduced 7. increasing => increasingly 8. Earth’s => The Earth’s 9. feed => fed 10. sensitive => sensible

Part 3. Complete each sentence with one suitable particle or preposition. Write your answer in the box provided. (10 points) 1. on 6. in

2. of 7. out

3. on 8. off

4. under 9. up

5. on 10. beyond

Part 4. Write the correct form of the words given in the brackets. Write your answers in the spaces provided below. (CPE Revised) (10 points) 1. prospective 2. unmistakeable/unmistakable 3. unforeseeable/unforeseen 4. beneficial 5. likelihood

6. unfortunately 7. unfamiliarity 8. undoubtedly / doubtless 9. wisdom 10. questionable

C. READING (50 points) Part 1. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap. Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points) 1.B 2. D 3. B 4. D 5. A 6. C 7. D 8. A 9. B 10. C Part 2. Read the following text and fill in the blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (15 points) 1. go 2. on 3. far 4. without 5. alone 6. somehow 7. numbers 8. themselves 9. which 10. more Part 3. Read the following passage and circle the best answer to each of the following questions. Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points) 1. C 2. D 3. B 4. B 5. A 6. C 7. D 8. A 9. C 10. B

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Part 4. Read the following extract and answer questions 1-10. (15 points) 0. v 1. ix 2. ii 3. vii 4. i 5. viii 6. iv 7. N 8. Y 9. Y 10. NG D. WRITING (50 points) Part 1. Rewrite each sentence using the word in brackets so that the meaning stays the same. You must use between THREE and EIGHT words, including the word given. (10 points) 1. ……a blot on the landscape…… 2. …… would do wonders for the way …… 3. …… remains to be seen whether there …… 4…… to technical knowledge, I am no match …… 5. ……didn’t put Anthony off in the…… Part 2. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it. (10 points) 1. All being well, I’ll see you next week. 2. Many a domestic problem has been caused by redundancy. 3. The film fell short of my expectations. 4. Not being able to get through to the police, she ran next door for help. 5. There has been a considerable/ sharp / substantial fall / drop/ decrease/ decline in the value of sterling in the past week. Part 3: Essay (30 points) Notes: The mark given to part 3 is based on the following criteria: 1. Content: (35% of total mark) a. Providing all main ideas and details as required b. Communicating intentions sufficiently and effectively 2. Organization & Presentation: (30% of total mark) a. Ideas are well organized and presented with coherence, cohesion, and clarity b. The essay is well-structured 3. Language: (30% of total mark) a. Demonstration of a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students b. Good use and control of grammatical structures 4. Punctuation, spelling, and handwriting (5% of total mark) a. Good punctuation and no spelling mistakes b. Legible handwriting Markers should discuss the suggested answers and the marking scale thoroughly before marking the papers. Thank you for your cooperation. Page 3

– THE END –

TAPESCRIPT PART 1 Reception: Good afternoon, you're through to reception at The Island Hotel in Crete, how may I help you today? Mr. Schifter: Yes. hello there, I’m hoping to book a double room for my wife and myself for about two weeks from the 25th April of this year. Firstly, could you tell me whether it’s particularly hot during this time? Example Reception: Yes. of course Sir, during late April and early May, the daytime temperature shouldn't exceed 19 degrees Celsius, but the weather has been rather erratic and difficult to predict in recent years, so I am unable to say for certain. Mr. Schifter: Okay, that sounds good, my wife doesn’t like going outside when it's very hot! I haven’t booked flights yet. but I must say that I’m unfamiliar with Crete and its transport system. Does the hotel provide an airport shuttle service? Reception: Yes Sir, we provide a complementary airport pick-up service for all our guests. It takes about 40 minutes to get here from the airport, but it’s at least 60 minutes at rush hours and you will be provided with a fully air-conditioned shuttle bus. Mr. Schifter: Okay, excellent. In that case, do you have any rooms available for the dates I gave you? Reception: I shall have a look on the system now for you Sir. bear with me just a moment, [brief pause] Yes Sir. I can see now that we have several rooms available. Would you prefer a garden view or a sea view? Mr. Schifter: Well, ideally I would like a sea-view room with a balcony, but of course that depends on the difference in price. Reception: Not to worry Sir, all of our standard double rooms have en-suite facilities and a balcony. If you would like one of our sea-view rooms, there is a premium of €60 per night. Page 4

Mr. Schiffer: Okay, so could you tell me the total nightly rate tor a standard double room with a sea view? Reception: Yes, of course Sir, for the spring months, our rate is €216 per night. For 14 nights, altogether this will come to €3,024. Mr. Schiffer: Perfect. I also read on your website that the hotel has gym and spa facilities. Are there any other facilities on offer? Reception. Yes, we have a large outdoor infinity pool overlooking the ocean, with luxury sun beds and a poolside bar. We also have 3 full-sized tennis courts, where we run a popular doubles tournament, with the winner receiving 2 all-inclusive spa day vouchers. Mr. Schifler: Goodness, I shall have to brush up on my tennis skills! PART 2. You will hear part of a radio interview with Martin Middleton, who makes wildlife programmes for television. For questions 1-5. choose the best answer (A, B or C). Interviewer: Today's guest needs no introduction. He Is a man who has given us hours of interest and entertainment over the years, with his weekly series of wildlife programmes. He is, of course, Martin Middleton. Martin, you've been to the four corners of the Earth in search of material. Where did this love of adventures come from? Martin: I don’t really know ... I didn’t travel much as a child, but I remember reading about the East and being fascinated by it. Then, when I was about twelve, I met someone who’d been to Singapore - and to me that seemed incredible ... and, of course, when I started in television, back in the early nineteen sixties, you didn’t travel to make a wildlife programme ... you went along and filmed at the local zoo. So, when I said I’d like to go and film in Africa, the Head of Programmes just laughed at me. Interviewer: And did you go to Africa? Martin: On that occasion, no! But I eventually got them to allow me to go to Borneo, in nineteen sixty-two. There was just me and a cameraman. We went off for four months, filming wherever we found something interesting. We bought a canoe, sailed up-river for ten days and ended up in a traditional longhouse. Nowadays, of course, it's all quite different. Interviewer: Different? In what way? Martin: We do months of preparation before we set off, so when we start filming, we know exactly what scenes we want to get. I mean, you don’t get up in the morning and say to your team, ‘What shall we do this morning?' You have to know exactly what each scene is going to show ... to work to a strict plan. Interviewer: Some of your programmes have taken place in some pretty remote areas. It’s hard to imagine other programme-makers wanting to risk the dangers or discomfort that you’ve experienced. Martin: Well, if you want original material, you’ve got to go off the beaten track ... but you can find yourself doing some pretty strange things ... urn ... like, for example, on Page 5

one occasion, jumping out of a helicopter onto an iceberg. There I was ... freezing cold ... then it started to snow ... and the helicopter had gone back to the ship and couldn’t take off again. So I was stuck there, on this iceberg, thinking, 'This is crazy ... I didn’t even want to come here!’ Interviewer: What I wonder is ... where does somebody like yourself, who travels to all these exotic places as part of their work, go on holiday? Martin: (laughs) I'm not very good at lying on a beach, that’s for sure. I wouldn’t go to a place just to sit around. It’s nice to have an objective when you’re travelling ... to have something you want to film ... um ... I’ve just come back from the Dominican Republic, and we were put up for the first night in a big hotel... the place was absolutely full of people, just lying there, sunbathing. They seemed quite happy to spend the whole day stretched out around the pool... they never seemed to want to go and explore the amazing things there were to see outside the hotel. For me, that would be a very boring way to spend a holiday. Interviewer: Your programmes, though, must have inspired a lot of people to take their holidays in remote and little-known places. Martin: You are probably right, but... well... I have mixed feelings about all this. I go back to the places where, years ago, I was the only European, and now there are cruise ships coming three times a day. So you worry that in ten years or so every remote place on the planet will be swallowed up, because everyone will be visiting it. But, on the other hand, I am in favour of tourism that is done in a way that protects the environment. You can see a good example of this in the Galapagos Islands, where the tourism is carefully managed. That’s very successful, and could be a model for the future ... PART 3. You will hear part of a radio interview in which a graphic designer called Sandra talking about her work as a children's book illustrator. For questions 1-5, decide whether the statement is TRUE (T) or FALSE (F). Interviewer: Sandra, 1 have to tell you that my kids have been reading your books for years. They're the kind of pictures that completely capture a child's imagination. Do you get as much delight out of producing them? Sandra: Thank you Mark. Well, yes, certainly I do. But don't think I'm illustrating all the time. I work freelance and freelance work tends to be really great from the point of view of, erm, if you like a variety in your life about what you do and when, particularly with children's illustration, because you have intensive bursts and then you have periods of time when you haven't got any work coming in. But when it does, meeting the deadline is the hardest part. When a book's being produced, the illustrator is the last person to do their bit and by that stage often the restriction of time means that you resort to a similar style - one you know you can do fast, but you have to accept that. But yes, it's ideal for a mother at home with small children which was my situation when I started. You can work any time of the night or day.

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Interviewer: How did you get into illustrating children's books? Did you do a particular course that trains you for it? Sandra: Not really. I did a three-year graphic design degree when I left secondary school and learned all sorts of things, and while I was at college, I also worked for an advertising agency. Interviewer: How does the actual process work? Do you and the writer ever meet up? Sandra: No. The editor and the writer have worked on the script of the story together. Then I get a phone call and the editor says 'It's due in this amount of time. Are you interested?' and I always say 'Yes'. Then you receive what we call the 'layout' in the post - that's basically big sheets of white paper with an outline of the book on it, and the actual story positioned on the page where the editor wants to see it. And then they will give you a brief, which is a page-by-page idea of what they want to see from the artist. And I'm lucky in that I've developed a relationship with a few editors in different companies now, so that that brief can be quite flexible when I receive it, because they understand that I've been doing this long enough to know the relationship that's got to happen between the picture and the word, particularly in emergent readers, that's little children who are learning to read. They need a very strong picture-word relationship, and consistent pictures. You can't have a drawing of someone on one page wearing a certain sort of clothing and then change it on the next - that just wouldn't work. Interviewer: Yes, I know from my own children that repetition and familiarity are important in books. But, erm, when you know you've got work, what's the next step? Sandra: Well, it usually starts with me reading through the story and I immediately see it in my mind - I have an immediate idea about the central character and often if it's not an animal or cartoon idea, if it's actually a child or an adult, I try to think of someone I know and I base the character on that person. Especially if it needs to be realistic, I might then go out and take a lot of photos of that person, if they agree, to sort of help me get some idea about facial expression and that sort of thing. I used my neighbour in my last book and she thought it was hilarious. My eldest son James has appeared through his life in many of my books. The poor child has had to pose doing all sorts of things because children are quite tricky to draw and it's really helpful if you actually have their little bodies and hands to see how they work - they tend to hold themselves and stand differently to adults. Interviewer: Have you ever used your own children to get some erm, feedback on your work? Sandra: No, not like that. When they were younger they used to look at the pictures a lot - they've always been part of their lives. Me illustrating at home has always been part of what they know, i think the best spin-off has been that they've both been exposed to books constantly, and I have a deep belief in reading to children right from the word go. And, um, James and Andrew were barely 6, and they were thoroughly enjoying all sorts of books by that stage, I mean, they had a reading ability way beyond some of their friends at the same age. It's all about the contact you have with your child and I think

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that children are missing out on that more and more, perhaps with everybody being busy, but books are a wonderful way to curl up and get together. Interviewer: And for any young person who would like a career in illustration. How should they go about it? Sandra: Well, you need to build up a portfolio, lots of examples of your work, to show to publishers. It's really good to show a range of ethnic backgrounds, the fact that you can draw people and animals, perhaps that you can cartoon; versatility is the key to getting work. And when I started out, I just went round lots of different children's publishers and met the editor. I suppose you could send in your CV first, but I tended to ring and make an appointment and go and see them because I believe that it's always best to go and speak to somebody- They get a better idea about the person they're dealing with. And if you really want to get on, you have to market yourself really well. You need to generate your own work and put your face in front of people at overseas conferences, that sort of thing. The great majority of our most successful contemporary artists are trained teachers, and they've worked in that profession while they've consolidated their art career - so it's always handy to have something else up your sleeve. PART 4. You will hear part of a scientific television programme for young people in which the speaker explains what 'meteors' are. Complete the sentences with a word or short phrase. Presenter: Even if you have never watched the sky at night, you probably know what you would see if you did. The view is best on a night with no moon. You stare upwards into the inky blackness over which are scattered millions of tiny points of light. These, of course, are the stars. Then just as you're beginning to get bored with this unchanging scene, a tiny white streak of light shoots across the sky. It's going too fast to be a plane. Then two seconds later you see another one. What you are witnessing is the beginning of a shower of meteors or shooting stars. To understand what is happening, it helps us to imagine a car driving fast along the road. In a way, our planet Earth is like that car. As it is racing along, it comes towards a large group of insects all flying together just above the road. Now, not all the insects are hit by the car, but several of them crash into the car's windscreen with an unpleasant noise. In many ways, the meteors are similar to the swarm of insects, although they aren't really animals. In fact, meteors are mostly tiny pieces of iron that look like little stones. In a similar way, the Earth is not really moving along a road. But it does follow the same circular route around the sun once every year. This enormous circular path is called the Earth's ‘orbit'. All the other planets are in orbits like this as well. Now, there are small groups of those stones waiting in certain places along the Earth's route around the sun. Some of them are fixed in one orbit while others are moving around the sun in their own orbits. Once every year, the Earth's circular path around the sun takes us through some of these groups of little rocks. Page 8

Now, when the earth approaches one of these stones, it is pulled downwards towards our planet by a strong force called gravity. And when the meteor starts to rush towards the ground, a shooting star is born. Normally, as shooting stars fall, they are travelling at speeds of 10 kilometres every second. This is about a hundred times faster than a jet plane. However, before the meteor can reach the Earth, it must go through the air around it - the atmosphere. Now, because it is going through the air so fast, the shooting star starts to become hotter and hotter and the air around it gets very hot too. This is a bit like the head of a match rubbing along the side of a matchbox. Now, very soon the outside of this piece of iron gets very hot indeed and, as a result, it gets soft and melts and then starts to burn. So, as this hot little rock rushes through the atmosphere, it leaves a tail of hot burning metal and flames behind it. This is the bright streak we can see from the ground - 100 kilometres below. Yes, you see, fortunately for us, most meteors are so small that they have completely burned up long before they could ever reach the ground - which is just as well because, otherwise, we would need to carry rather stronger umbrellas! Người ra đề: 1. Nguyen Thuy Nhung (0869237558) 2. Nguyen Phuong Ly Ly (0985397666)

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KỲ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI CÁC TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN KHU VỰC DUYÊN HẢI VÀ ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ LẦN THỨ XI, NĂM 2018 ĐỀ THI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 10 (ĐỀ GIỚI THIỆU)

Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút (Đề thi gồm 15 trang)

SECTION I: LISTENING (50/200) Part 1.Complete the information below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.(10 pts) City Library Head Librarian: Mrs. Phillips Hours: (1) __________________________to 4:30 Books Ground floor: (2) ______________________________ Second floor: Adult collection Third floor: (3) ______________________________ Book carts Brown cart: books to re-shelve Black cart: books to (4) _________________________ White cart: books to (5) ________________________ Part 2. You will hear two psychologists talking about modern childhood. Choose the answer (A, B, C or D), which fits best according to what you hear. (10 pts) 1.What does Daniel imply about past images of childhood? A. They are entirely fictional.

B. They all show the misfortunes of childhood.

C. They are diverse.

D. They represent the innocence of childhood.

2. When mentioning the children throwing bags on the bus stop, Louise is A. critical.

B. amused.

C. angry

3. According to Daniel, A. children are failing to learn adequate social skills.

D. sarcastic.

B. children do not eat a balanced diet. C. children are becoming involved in political scandals. D. children are far more social than they used to be. 4. What does Louise say about the media? A. Manipulative actors have a negative effect on children. B. It encourages celebrities to inspire young children. C. Adverts are aimed more at young people than adults. D. It glorifies unrealistic ideals. 5. Daniel implies that A. children would be happier if their parents taught them at home. B. machines are more of a menace to children than people are. C. teachers aren’t helping children to be competitive enough. D. most teenage problems stem from an unbalanced diet. Your answers 1.

Part 3. You will hear an extract from a radio programme and decide whether the statements are true or false. (10 pts) 1.Mrs Kent is worried about the weather in the near future. 2. According to Tom Sheridan, people don’t talk about the weather any more. 3. Paul Spenser does the production of a cookery programme. 4. Jane thinks that students should be given free books. 5. An elderly listener doesn’t think young people should have to pay in the discos. Your answers 1.

Part 4. You will hear part of a scientific television for young people in which the speaker explains what ‘meteors’ are. Complete the sentence with no more than three words for each space. (20 pts) ‘Meteor’ is another name for (1) _____________________. To help explain meteors, planet Earth is compared to a (2) _____________________. You can think of meteors as a group of (3) _____________________. In reality, meteors are very small

chunks of (4) _____________________. The circular path the Earth travels around the Sun is called its (5) _____________________ . When Earth comes close to a meteor, the meteor is pulled (6) _____________________ by gravity. A meteor travels very fast – a hundred times faster than (7) _____________________ . Due to the speed it travels through the air, the meteor becomes (8) _____________________. Because of the heat, the meteor becomes less hard, (9) _____________________ and then burns. We are lucky that most meteors burn up and never (10) _____________________. SECTION II: LEXICO – GRAMMAR (50 points) Part 1. Choose the best answer A, B, C or D to complete each of the following sentences. 1. I’m not a serious investor, but I like to _______ in the stock market. A. splash B. splatter C. paddle D. dabble 2. In all _______ there will never be a Third World War. A. odds B. probability C. certainty D. possibilities 3. He had to retire from the match, suffering from a _______ ligament. A. torn B. broken C. slipped D. sprained 4. You have to be rich to send a child to a private school because the fees are _______. A. astrological B. aeronautical C. astronomical D. atmospherical 5. Archaeology is one of the most interesting scientific _______. A. divisions B. disciplines C. matters D. compartments 6. It is doubtful whether the momentum of the peace movement can be _______. A. sustained B. supplied C. supported D. subverted 7. Conversations you strike up with travelling acquaintances usually tend to be _______. A. trivial B. perverse C. insufficient D. imperative 8. Charles Babbage’s difference engine was widely regarded as the _______ of the computer. A. ancestor B. precursor C. antecedent D. premonition 9. He was in his late fifties, with staring eyes and a _____ hairline. A. straggling B. receding C. bushy D. curly 10. After several hours on the road, they became ____ to the fact that they would never reach the hotel by nightfall. A. dejected B. resigned C. depressed D. disillusioned 11. The professor’s _______ theory is that singing preceded speech. A. preferable B. pet C. fond D. fancied 12. A local charity benefited from the _______ of the annual summer fate. A. earnings B. income C. pay D. proceeds 13. Two months is _______ time to allow for the job to be completed. A. profuse B. protracted C. ample D. extensive

14. After her eye operation she had to wear an eye _______ for protection. A. patch B. veil C. glass D. screen 15. The noise of the machinery _______ the words of the factory manager. A. covered B. suppressed C. drowned D. deadened 16. All that was left for breakfast was some _____ bread and tea. A. stale B. rotten C. sour D. rancid 17. Emma fell down and _____ her knee. A. skimmed B. grazed C. rubbed D. scrubbed 18. The Press thought the football manager would be depressed by his dismissal but he just _____. A. ran it down B. called it off C. turned it down D. laughed it off 19. Lindsay’s excuses for being late are beginning to _____ rather thin. A. get B. turn C. wear D. go 20.The train service has been a _____ since they introduced the new schedules. A. shambles B. rumpus C. chaos D. fracas Your answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. Part 2. Underline and correct the ten mistakes in the following passage. (10 points) ‘Oh, you’re so lucky live in Bath, it’s such a wonderful, lovely, historic place,’ people say enthusiastically, and all you can think about is the awful parking, the crowd of tourists, the expensive shops, the narrow-minded council, and the terrible traffic. Luckily I don’t live in Bath but nearly ten miles away in a village called Limpley Stoke in the Avon Valley. It seems to be normal in the countryside those days for professional people who work in the town to prefer to live in the villages; this makes the housing so expensive that the villagers and agricultural workers have to live in a cheaper accommodation in town, as the result that the farmers commute out to the farm and everyone else commutes in. Certainly, there’s nobody in the village who could be called an old-style villager. The people nearest to me involve a pilot, an accountant, a British Rail manager, a retired teacher … nor a farm worker amongst them. But I don’t think there is anything wrong with that – it’s just that the nature of villages are changing and there is still quite a strong sense of community here. Your answers: 1. 2. 3.

6. 7. 8.

4. 5.

9. 10.

Part 3. Fill in the blank with a suitable preposition or adverb particle.(10 points) 1. I got the job _______ the strength of your recommendation. 2. You must be weak _______ the head if you believe that. 3. The shock put years _______ him. 4. Prospects of success in the talks were put _______ zero. 5. She was weighed _______ _______ parcels. 6. His appearance was the subject _______ some critical comment. 7. She went _______ the roof when I told her I’d crashed her car. 8. If you do that again I’ll have the law _______ you. 9. The government’s decision is a real kick _______ the teeth for the unions. 10. She resembles her brother _______ looks. Your answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. Part 4. Use the correct form of the word in brackets to complete the passage. (10 points) In the deserts, as (1. where), rocks at the earth’s surface are changed by (2. weather), which may be defined as the (3. integrate) of rocks where they lie. Weathering processes are either chemical when (4. alter) of some of the (5. constitute) particles is involved; or (6. mechanize), when there is merely the physical breaking apart and (7. fragment) of rocks. Which process will dominate depends (8. primary) on the (9. mineral) and (10. text) of the rock and the local climate, but several individual processes usually work together to the common end of rock breakdown. Your answers: 1. 6. 2. 7. 3. 8. 4. 9. 5. 10. SECTION III: READING COMPREHENSION (50/200) Part 1. Read the passage below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap. Write your answer in the numbered boxes. (10 pts) HOW TO COMPLAIN IN SHOPS People love to complain. Moaning to friends can be a source of relief from the stresses and strains of work, study or relationships. But when it comes to protesting to a

retailer about (1) ____ goods and services, many of us find we don't have the nerve and chose to suffer in silence. By the time we do (2) _____summon up the courage to make our point, we have generally already allowed the problem to get to us, and we are angry. In this state, we can all too (3) ____ become aggressive, gearing up for battle and turning what should be a rational discussion into a conflict. To complain effectively, you need to be specific about your problem and communicate it clearly using words which are objective and fair. (4) ____ over the top with emotional language and unreasonable claims will get you nowhere. Good negotiators tend to be calm and logical. They start by explaining the situation and stating their requirements clearly, without threat. Most complaints prompt a defensive (5) ____ from the other person, but by being reasonable yourself, you (6) ____ more chance of achieving the positive (7) ____ you want. If you feel angry or upset about what has happened, by all means tell the company, but do so calmly, (8) ____that you understand the situation from all points of (9) ____, but explaining what you will do if your complaint is ignored. Be sure to remember, however, that is unwise to (10) ____ threats unless you are in a position to carry them out. 1. A. faulty

B. inexpert

C. improper

D. scruffy

2. A. essentially

B. especially

C. exceptionally

D. eventually

3. A. easily

B. happily

C. simply

D. casually

4. A. Being

B. Going

C. Getting

D. Feeling

5. A. response

B. respect

C. revenge

D. regard

6. A. spend

B. attract

C. stand

D. establish

7. A. fallout

B. outcome

C. turnout

D. output

8. A. revealing

B. exhibiting

C. displaying

D. demonstrating

9. A. mind

B. opinion

C. view

D. reason

10. A. make

B. bear

C. do

D. carry

Your answers 1.

10.

Part 2. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word in each space. (10 pts) Mammals have brains. So they can feel pain, experience fear and react in disgust. If a wildebeest did not feel pain, it would carry on grazing as lions chewed it hind leg first. If an antelope did not sense fear, it would not (1) _____ into a sprint at the first hint of cheetah. If a canine were not disgusted, it would not vomit; it would not be, as the (2) _____ goes, sick as a dog. Pain, fear and disgust are (3) _____ of the mammalian survival machinery provided by tens of millions of years of (4) _____. Homo sapiens have, however, only been around for about 200,000 years. So all three emotional states (5)_____something to mammal origins. If football hooligans can feel those emotions, then (6) _____ do deer, foxes and dogs. The argument is about how "aware" or "conscious" non-human mammals might be during these emotional events. When an animal knows it is being chased and starts to run, is it obeying some instinct (7) _____ from ancestors that knew when to flee a danger zone or does it actually "know" to be afraid? That might be the wrong question. A human startled by a strange shape in a darkened corridor experiences a pounding heart, and lungs (8) _____ for air, and a body in recoil. This is the well-known flight or fight reaction. A human appreciated the full force of fear and has already started to counter the danger a fraction of a second before the brain has time to absorb and order the information contained in menacing shape. This is because mental calculations are too slow to cope with surprise attack. Pain (9) _____ logic. Touch something hot and you withdraw your hand even before you have time to think about doing so. Once again, the wisdom is (10) _____ the event. Your answers 1.

10.

Part 3. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer A, B, C or D. (15 pts) Image and the city In the city, we are barraged with images of the people we might become. Identity is presented as plastic, a matter of possessions and appearances; and a very large proportion

of the urban landscape is take up by slogans, advertisements, flatly photographed images of folk heroes - the man who turned into a sophisticated dandy overnight by drinking a particular brand of drink, the girl who transformed herself into a femme fatale with a squirt of cheap scent. The tone of the wording of these advertisements is usually pert and facetious, comically drowning in its own hyperbole. But the pictures are brutally exact; they reproduce every detail of a style of life, down to the brand of cigarette - lighter; the stone in the ring and the economic row of books on the shelf. Yet, if one studies a line of ads across from where one is sitting on a tube train, there images radically conflict with each other. Swap the details about between the pictures, and they are instantly made illegible if the characters they represent really are heroes, then they clearly have no individual claim to speak for society as a whole. The clean-cut and the shaggy, rakes, innocents, brutes, home-lovers, adventurers, clowns all compete for our attention and invite emulations. As a gallery, they do provide a glossy mirror of the aspirations of a representative city crowd: but it is exceedingly hard to discern a single dominant style an image of how most people would like to see themselves. Even in the business of the mass - production of images of identity, this shift from the general to the diverse and particular is quite recent. Consider another line of stills: the back-lit, soft-focus portraits of the first and second generations of great movie stars. There is a degree of romantic unparticularity in the face of each one, as if they were communal dream-projections of society at large. Only in the specialized genres of westerns, farces and gangster movies were stars allowed to have odd, knobby cadaverous faces. The hero as loner belonged to history or the underworld: he spoke from the perimeter of society, reminding us of its dangerous edges. The stars of the last decade have looked quite different. Soft-focus photography has gone, to be replaced by a style which searches out warts and bumps, emphasizes the uniqueness not the generality of the face. Voices, too, are strenuously idiosyncratic; whines, stammers and low rumbles are exploited as features of star quality. Instead of romantic heroes and heroines, we have a brutalist, hard-edged style in which isolation and egotism are assumed as natural social conditions. In the movies, as in the city, the sense of stable hierarchy has become increasingly exhausted; we no longer live in a world where we can all share the same values, the same

heroes. (It is doubtful whether this world, so beloved of nostalgia moralists, ever existed; but lip-service was paid to it, the pretence, at least was kept up). The isolate and the eccentric push towards the centre of the stage; their fashions and mannerisms are presented as having as good a claim to the limelight and the future as those of anyone else. In the crowd on the underground platform, one may observe a honeycomb of fullyworked-out words, each private, exclusive, bearing little comparison with its nearest neighbor. What is prized in one is despised in another. There are no clear rules about how one is supposed to manage one’s body, dress, talk, or think. Though there are elaborate protocols and etiquettes among particular cults and groups within the city, they subscribe to no common standard. For the new arrival, this disordered abundance is the city’s most evident and alarming quality. He feels as if he has parachuted into a funfair of contradictory imperatives. There are so many people he might become and a suit of clothes, a make of car, a brand of cigarettes will go some way towards turning him into a personage even before he has discovered who that personage is. Personal identity has always been deeply rooted in property, but hitherto the relationship has been a simple one - a question of buying what you could afford, and leaving your wealth to announce your status. In the modern city, there are so many things to buy, such a quantity of different kinds of status, that the choice and its attendant anxieties have created a new pornography of taste. The leisure pages of the Sunday newspapers, fashion magazines, TV plays, popular novels, cookbooks, window displays all nag at the nerve for our uncertainty and snobbery. Should we like American cars, hard-rock hamburger joints, Bauhaus chairs...? Literature and art are promoted as personal accessories: the paintings of Mondrian or the novels of Samuel Beckett ‘go’ with certain styles like matching handbags. There is in the city a creeping imperialism of taste, in which more and more commodities are made over to being mere expressions of personal identity. Tire piece of furniture, the pair of shoes, the book, the film, are important not so much in themselves but for what they communicate about their owners; and ownership is stretches to include what one likes or believes in as well as what one can buy. 1. What does the word ‘barraged’ mean? A. manipulated

B. bombarded

C. impressed

D. obsessed

2. What does the writer say about advertisements in the first paragraph? A. Certain kinds are considered more effective in cities than others. B. The way in which some of them are worded is cleverer than it might appear C. They often depict people that most other people would not care to be like D. The pictures in them accurately reflect the way that some people really live. 3. The writer says that if you look at a line of advertisements on a tube train, it is clear that. A. city dwellers have very diverse ideas about what image they would like to have. B. some images in advertisements have a general appeal that others lack. C. city dwellers are more influenced by images on advertisements than other people are. D. some images are intended to be representative of everyone’s aspirations. 4. What does the writer imply about portraits of old movie start? A. They tried to disguise the less attractive features of their subjects. B. Most people did not think they were accurate representations of the stars in them C. They made people feel that their own faces were rather unattractive D. They reflected an era in which people felt basically safe. 5. What does the word ‘cadaverous’ mean? A. extremely pale and thin

B. energetic and enthusiastic

C. dangerous

D. skeptical

6. What does the writer suggest about the stars of the last decade? A. Some of them may be uncomfortable about the way they come across. B. They make an effort to speak in a way that may not be pleasant on the ear C. They make people wonder whether they should become more selfish. D. Most people accept that they are not typical of society as a whole 7. What does the word ‘hierarchy’ mean? A. methodology

B. hypothesis

C. ideology

D. system

8. The writer uses the crowd on an underground platform to exemplify his belief that. A. no single attitude to life is more common than another in a city. B. no one in a city has strict attitudes towards the behavior of other. C. views of what society was like in the past are often inaccurate. D. people in cities would like to have more in common with each other

9. The writer implies that new arrivals in a city may A. change the image they wish to have too frequently. B. underestimate the importance of wealth. C. acquire a certain image without understanding what that involves. D. decide that status is of little importance 10. What point does the writer make about city dwellers in the final paragraph? A. They are unsure as to why certain things are popular with others. B. They are aware that judgments are made about them according to what they buy. C. They want to acquire more and more possessions. D. They are keen to be the first to appreciate new styles. Your answers 1.

10.

Part 4. The reading passage below has eight paragraphs, A-H. Reading the passage and do the tasks below. (10 pts) A. The history of human civilization is entwined with the history of the ways we have learned to manipulate water resources. As towns gradually expanded, water was brought from increasingly remote sources, leading to sophisticated engineering efforts such as dams and aqueducts. At the height of the Roman Empire, nine major systems, with an innovative layout of pipes and well-built sewers, supplied the occupants of Rome with as much water per person as is provided in many parts or the industrial world today. B. During the industrial revolution and population explosion of the 19th and 20th centuries, the demand for water rose dramatically. Unprecedented construction of tens of thousands of monumental engineering projects designed to control floods, protect clean water supplies, and provide water for irrigation and hydropower brought great benefits to hundreds of millions of people. Food production has kept pace with soaring populations mainly because of the expansion of artificial irrigation systems that make possible the growth of 40% the world’s food. Nearly

one fifth of all the electricity generated worldwide is produced by turbines spun by the power of falling water. C. Yet there is a dark side to this picture: despite our progress, half of the world’s population still suffers, with water services inferior to those available to the ancient Greeks and Romans. As the United Nations report on access to water reiterated in November 2001, more than one billion people lack access to clean drinking water; some two and a half billion do not have adequate sanitation services. Preventable water - related diseases kill an estimated 10,000 to 20,000 children every day, and the latest evidence suggests that we are falling behind in efforts to solve these problems. D. The consequences of our water policies extend beyond jeopardizing human health. Tens of millions of people have been forced to more from their homes - often with little warning or compensation - to make way for the reservoirs behind dams. More than 20% of all freshwater fish species are now threatened or endangered because dams and water withdrawals have destroyed the free-flowing river ecosystems where they thrive. Certain irrigation practices degrade soil quality and reduce agricultural productivity. Groundwater aquifers are being pumped down faster than they are naturally replenished in parts of India, China, the USA and elsewhere. And disputes over shared water resources have led to violence and continue to raise local, national and even international tensions. E. At the outset of the new millennium, however, the way resource planners think about water is beginning to change. The focus is slowly shifting back to the provision of basic human and environmental needs as top priority - ensuring ‘some for all,’ instead of ‘more for some’. Some water experts are now demanding that existing infrastructure be used in smarter ways rather than building new facilities, which is increasingly considered the option of last, not first resort. This shift in philosophy has not been universally accepted, and it comes with strong opposition from some established water organizations. Nevertheless, it may be the only way to address successfully the pressing problems of providing everyone with clean water to drink, adequate water to grow food and a life free from preventable water-related illness.

F. Fortunately - and unexpectedly - the demand for water is not rising as rapidly as some predicted. As a result, the pressure to build new water infrastructures has diminished over the past two decades. Although population, industrial output and economic productivity have continued to soon in developed nations, the rate at which people withdraw water from aquifers, rivers and lakes has slowed. And in a few parts of the world, demand has actually fallen. G. What explains this remarkable turn of events? Two factors: People have figured out how to use water more efficiently, and communities are rethinking their priorities for water use. Throughout the first three-quarters of the 20th century, the quantity of freshwater consumed pen person doubled on average; in the USA, water withdrawals increased tenfold while the population quadrupled. But since 1980, the amount of water consumed per person has actually decreased, thanks to a range of new technologies that help to conserve water in homes and industry. In 1965, for instance, Japan used approximately 13 million gallons of water to produce $1 million of commercial output; by 1989 this had dropped to 3.5 million gallons (even accounting for inflation) - almost a quadrupling of water productivity. In the USA water withdrawals have fallen by more than 20% from their peak in 1980. H. On the other hand, dams, aqueducts and other kinds of infrastructure will still have to be built, particularly in developing countries where not been met. But such projects must be built to higher specifications and with more accountability to local people and their environment than in the past. And even in regions where projects seem warranted, we must find ways to meet demands with fewer resources, respecting ecological criteria and to a smaller budget. For questions 1-7, choose the correct heading for paragraphs B-H from the list of headings below Write the correct number, i-ix. List of headings i.

Scientists’ call for a revision of policy

ii.

An explanation for reduced water use

iii.

How a global challenge was met

iv.

Irrigation systems fall into disuse

Environmental effects

vi.

The financial cost of recent technological improvements

vii.

The relevance to health

viii. Addressing the concern over increasing populations ix.

A surprising downward trend in demand for water

The need to raise standards

xi.

A description of ancient water supplies

Example: Paragraph A: xi 1. Paragraph B

…….

2. Paragraph C

…….

3. Paragraph D

…….

4. Paragraph E

….…

5. Paragraph F

…….

6. Paragraph G

…….

7. Paragraph H

…….

Do the following statements agree with the information given in the passage. For question 8-10 write down Yes

If the statement agrees with the claims of the writer

If the statement contradicts the claims of the writer

Not given

If it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this

8. Feeding increasing populations is possible due primarily to improved irrigation systems 9. Modern water systems imitate those of the ancient Greeks and Romans 10. Industrial growth is increasing the overall demand for water. Your answers 8.

10.

SECTION IV: WRITING (50 points) Part 1. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed. (10 points) 1. We didn’t see a soul all day. → Not ………………………………………………………………. 2. Gerry has applied for the job of financial director. → Gerry has put ………………………………………………………………. 3. Our teacher used Sophia as an example of a good student.

→ Our teacher held ………………………………………………………………. 4. I’m not much interested in sports. → I don’t really go ………………………………………………………………. 5. Terry was rude but Anne got her revenge on him. → Anne paid ………………………………………………………………. Part 2. Write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence, using the words given in capital letters. These words must not be altered in any way. (10 points) 1. The houses that were very close to the blast were badly damaged. (immediate) …………………………………………………………………………………. 2. They were married last year. (man) …………………………………………………………………………………. 3. He admits he’s not one of the important members of the organization. (cog) …………………………………………………………………………………. 4. You’ve been deceived by them. (ride) …………………………………………………………………………………. 5. It didn’t take us long to finish doing the accounts. (short) …………………………………………………………………………………. Part 3. Essay writing ( 30 points) Some people say that taking online classes is nowadays a new trend while other people prefer going to traditional classes. Which opinion do you agree with? Write an essay of 200 – 250 words to explain your idea. -------------- THE END ----------------

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SECTION I: LISTENING (50/200) Part 1.Complete the information below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. (10 pts) 1.8:30

2.reference books 3. children’s books

4. be repaired/ repair 5. be sold/ sell

Part 2. You will hear two psychologists talking about modern childhood. Choose the answer (A, B, C or D), which fits best according to what you hear. (10 pts) 1.C

2. D

3. A

4.D

5. B

Part 3. You will hear an extract from a radio programme and decide whether the statements are true or false. (10 pts) 1.F

2. T

3. T

4. F

5. F

Part 4. You will hear part of a scientific television for young people in which the speaker explains what ‘meteors’ are. Complete the sentence with no more than three words. (20 pts) 1.shooting stars

2. car

6. downwards

7. a jet plane

3. insects

4. iron

5. orbit

8. hotter and hotter

9. melts

10.reach the ground

SECTION II: LEXICO – GRAMMAR (50/200) Part 1. Each correct answer is given ONE point. 1. D

2. B

3. A

4. C

5. B

6. A

7. A

8. B

9. B

10. B

11. B

12. D

13. C

14. A

15. C

16. A

17. B

18. D

19. C

20. A

Part 2. Each correct answer is given ONE point. ‘Oh, you’re so lucky live in Bath, it’s such a wonderful, lovely, historic place,’ people say enthusiastically, and all you can think about is the awful parking, the crowd of tourists, the expensive shops, the narrow-minded council, and the terrible traffic. Luckily I don’t live in Bath but nearly ten miles way in a village called Limpley Stoke in the Avon Valley. It seems to be normal in the countryside those days for professional

people who work in the town to prefer to live in the villages; this makes the housing so expensive that the villagers and agricultural workers have to live in a cheaper accommodation in town, as the result that the farmers commute out to the farm and everyone else commutes in. Certainly, there’s nobody in the village who could be called an old-style villager. The people nearest to me involve a pilot, an accountant, a British Rail manager, a retired teacher … nor a farm worker amongst them. But I don’t think there is anything wrong with that – it’s just that the nature of villages are changing and there is still quite a strong sense of community here. Your answers: 1. live → to live / living

6. a → the

2. about → of

7. as → with

3. crowd → crowds

8. involve → include

4. way → away

9. nor → not

5. those → these

10. are → is

Part 3. Each correct answer is given ONE point. 1. on

2. in

3. on

4. at

5. down with

6. for

7. through

8. on

9. in

10. in

Part 4. Each correct answer is given ONE point. 1. elsewhere

6. mechanical

2. weathering

7. fragmentation

3. disintegration

8. primarily

4. alteration

9. mineralogy

5. constituent

10. texture

SECTION III: READING COMPREHENSION (50/200) Part 1. Read the passage below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap. Write your answer in the numbered boxes. (10 pts) Your answers 1. A

2. D

3. A

4. B

5. A

6. C

7. B

8. D

9. C

10. A

Part 2. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word in each space. (10 pts) Your answers 1. break

2. saying

3. part

4. evolution

5. owe

6. so

7. inherited

8. gasping

9. precedes

10. after

Part 3. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer A, B, C or D. (15 pts) Your answers 1. B

2.D

3. A

4. D

5. A

6.B

7.D

8.A

9.C

10.B

Part 4. The reading passage below has eight paragraphs, A-H. Reading the passage and do the tasks below. (10 pts) 1. Paragraph B

iii

2. Paragraph C

vii

3. Paragraph D

4. Paragraph E

5. Paragraph F

6. Paragraph G

7. Paragraph H

8. Yes 9. Not given 10. No SECTION IV: WRITING (50/200) Part 1. Each correct answer is given TWO points. 1. Not a soul did we see all day. 2. Gerry has put in for the job of financial director. 3. Our teacher held Sophia up as an example of a good student. 4. I don’t really go in for sports. 5. Anne paid Terry back for being rude to her. Part 2. Each correct answer is given ONE point. 1. The houses in the immediate vicinity of the blast were badly damaged.

2. They became man and wife last year. 3. He admits he is (just) a small cog in a big wheel. 4. You’ve been taken for a ride. 5. We made short work of finishing the accounts, Part 3. Essay writing (30pts) 1. Content: (35% of total mark) a. providing all main ideas and details as required. b. communicating intentions sufficiently and effectively 2. Organization & Presentation (30% total mark) a. Ideas are well- organized and presented with coherence, cohesion, and clarify b. The essay is well- structured 3. Language: (30% of total mark) a. Demonstration of a variety vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language gifted school students b. Good use and control of grammatical structures 4. Punctuation, spelling, and handwriting (5% of total mark) a. Good punctuation and no spelling mistakes b. Legible handwriting

-------------- THE END ----------------

TAPE SCRIPTS Part 1. - Hello. I’m Mrs. Phillips, the head librarian. You’re the new library assistant, aren’t you? - Yes, I’m Robert Haskell, but please call me Bob. All right, Bob. - Let me take a few minutes to explain how the library works and what your duties will be. - First, the library opens at 8:30 in the morning, so, naturally, we expect you to be here and ready to work by then. - Of course.

- And you can go home at 4:30 when the library closes. Now, let me explain where everything’s kept. - It looks like here on the ground floor is where the reference books are. - Yes, that’s right. Up on the second floor is where the Adult Collection is, both fiction and nonfiction. - And the children’s books are there, too, aren’t they? I thought I saw them in the room by the stairway. - No, those are magazines and newspapers for adults. Children’s books are up one more flight on the third floor. We’ll take a look at them later. Let me show you how we organize our work. Do you see that brown book cart over there? - The one by the door? - Yes, that one. Those books have been checked in and need to go back on the shelves. -OK, so the brown book cart has books to re-shelve. What about this black cart by the desk? - Those books have torn pages or damaged covers. They’re all books that need to be repaired. - OK, I know how to do a lot of that. I’m pretty good at mending torn pages and covers. --- That’s great because we really need help with that. - And that white cart in the corner? What are those books for? - Those are old books that we’ve taken off the shelves to make room for new ones. We sell them as used books to raise money for the library. - So they’re all ready to sell? - Yes, that’s right. So, now you know what to do with the books in the carts. Let’s talk about our activities schedule. Part 2. Daniel: I hope this isn’t going to deteriorate into a “What is childhood?” discussion - the one about solemn little miniature adults in old portraits and infants who toiled from dawn to dusk in the fields, and poor unfortunates whipped within an inch of their lives by sadistic schoolteachers. Or, alternatively, a debate about the adventures of Huck Finn and the Famous Five, and apparent carefree innocence. There have been many versions of childhood in fact and fiction, and I dare say there’ll be many more.

Louise: Well, according to a recent newspaper report, childhood is dying. So those cheeky little scamps I saw challenging each other to throw their school bags on top of a bus-stop must have been a figment of my imagination. Or perhaps they were making a political stand against the rigidities of the formal curriculum. Who knows? Apparently a group of adults do. Academics and professionals have put their signatures to a letter, subsequently championed by the Daily Telegraph newspaper and the Tory Party, articulating the fall of childhood innocence. My heart is with the sentiments of this campaign, but I worry that it loses sight of practical wisdom. Daniel: At birth, all children are distractible, impulsive, egocentric creatures, but by the time they reach teenage years we expect them - as a result of their experiences, environment and education - to have acquired a degree of self-control, an ability to see other people’s points of view and the basic skills needed to enjoy their life ahead. It’s the development from babyhood to adolescence that I investigated for my book, Toxic Childhood, and my conclusion was that many children in Britain today are indeed being robbed of the chance of a healthy childhood. Many reach adolescence with poor attention spans and self-control and a distinct lack of empathy for the people around them. Their main basic skill is ticking boxes on tests, and this is scandalous. Louise: As one of the richest, most highly developed nations in the world, we really should be able to provide the sort of childhood that allows the next generation to grow up happy, healthy and civilised. Instead many of our children have developed a taste for unhealthy food, a couch-potato lifestyle and have related problems with sleeping. An unacceptable number suffer from inadequate early emotional bonding, lack of interaction with their parents and a high level of emotional instability. Rather than stimulating, reallife experiences, children have TV and computer games at home and a narrow test-andtarget driven curriculum at school. Moral guidance has suffered as societies have become increasingly confused, while children are constantly exposed to manipulative advertising and the excesses of celebrity culture. In a recent survey of children’s wellbeing among the countries of the European Union, the UK came 21st out of 25. We should be ashamed of ourselves. Daniel: Yes, I believe we are robbing our children of something we could provide: the conditions in which we grow up bright, balanced and well behaved. Somehow in the

turmoil of rapid social, cultural and technological change over the last 20 years or so, our society has lost sight of essential truths about child development and education. As a nation, we need to provide parents with information on children’s developmental needs, including real food, real play, first-hand experience and real-life interaction with the significant adults in their lives. Since parents are terrified by media hysteria about “stranger danger” and the fevered imaginings of the health and safety lobby, they also need information about the real dangers from which children should be protected - for instance, TVs and other technological paraphernalia in their bedrooms. As a profession, teachers should refuse to participate in the drive to accelerate childhood with an everearlier start to formal education and a competitive winners-and-losers approach to primary education. We should boycott the tests, targets and league tables and do what we as professionals know is best for children. It’s time we stopped robbing the next generation of their right to grow up healthy, happy and whole. Part 3. A = Jim Adams

R = Reader

PS = Paul Spenser

JA: Hi, this is “Say it like it is”, the programme in which your comments about what’s been on Radio One for the last week are read. And for today ... Well, we had many listeners writing in about last Tuesday’s science programme which is based on weather this time. John Holmes from Oxford says: R: Your “Climate changes” turned out to be quite an interesting programme. Professor Jones’ theory that we’re slowly going towards another Ice Age was quite astounding. I was taught that the earth was moving nearer the sun! JA: You could be right. But I don’t think that it will happen in our lifetime. Mrs Kent from Brighton talks about weather problems which could affect us in the near future. R: Some experts may tell us what the weather may be like in the next century but I’m more concerned about the present day situation. I think that tax money and scientific studies should try to focus on short-term weather forecasts and try to make them more precise and accurate. JA: Many listeners have the same point of view. On the other hand, Tom Sheridan from Manchester has a different opinion.

R: I hear that experiments are being made to change the weather in Britain. But, who wants it? Nobody would like a set weather pattern. All those conversations about the weather would disappear. JA: We’d find something else to talk about. I’m sure. Food, for example. It seems to be a favourite of our readers judging from the letters we receive ... R: Dear Jim, I’m writing in objection to the Cookery Series on Wednesdays. JA: Tim Saunders, from Coventry writes; R: Most men already know how to do things like making toast so our time shouldn’t be wasted by such programmes. JA: Tim would like more challenging cooking tips. We’ve got the producer of our cookery show here today, Mr. Paul Spenser. What about more difficult cookery on your show? PS: I can relate to what Mr. Saunders is saying. Up to now we’ve been doing basic things to help beginners but we’ll be moving on to more difficult recipes in the next few weeks. I hope that the programme will be more interesting for Mr. Saunders in the future. JA: I hope so! To finish off we have a few letters referring to the rumours that lending libraries won’t be free to the public anymore. Jane from Bournemouth has a few things to say about this. R: For students like me, books are too expensive to buy and we depend on libraries for our books! 20p is too much to pay for every book we take out. JA: Don’t worry Jane. It’s only a rumour so far. And our last letter comes from one of the elderly in our community. R: The elderly have to pay for their needs so why shouldn’t others pay for theirs? They pay in pubs and discos, why not at libraries. JA: Well, that’s all for today. More for you to think about. If there’s something you’d like to comment on write to Jim Adams, “Say It Like It Is” Radio One. Part 4. Presenter: Even if you have never watched the sky at night, you probably know what you would see if you did. The view is best on a night with no moon. You stare upwards into the inky blackness over which are scattered millions of tiny points of light. These, of course, are the stars. Then just as you're beginning to get bored with this unchanging scene, a tiny white streak of light shoots across the sky. It's going too fast to be a plane.

Then two seconds later you see another one. What you are witnessing is the beginning of a shower of meteors or shooting stars. To understand what is happening, it helps us to imagine a car driving fast along the road. In a way, our planet Earth is like that car. As it is racing along, it comes towards a large group of insects all flying together just above the road. Now, not all the insects are hit by the car, but several of them crash into the car's windscreen with an unpleasant noise. In many ways, the meteors are similar to the swarm of insects, although they aren't really animals. In fact, meteors are mostly tiny pieces of iron that look like little stones. In a similar way, the Earth is not really moving along a road. But it does follow the same circular route around the sun once every year. This enormous circular path is called the Earth's ‘orbit’. All the other planets are in orbits like this as well. Now, there are small groups of those stones waiting in certain places along the Earth's route around the sun. Some of them are fixed in one orbit while others are moving around the sun in their own orbits. Once every year, the Earth's circular path around the sun takes us through some of these groups of little rocks. Now, when the earth approaches one of these stones, it is pulled downwards towards our planet by a strong force called gravity. And when the meteor starts to rush towards the ground, a shooting star is born. Normally, as shooting stars fall, they are travelling at speeds of 10 kilometres every second. This is about a hundred times faster than a jet plane. However, before the meteor can reach the Earth, it must go through the air around it - the atmosphere. Now, because it is going through the air so fast, the shooting star starts to become hotter and hotter and the air around it gets very hot too. This is a bit like the head of a match rubbing along the side of a matchbox. Now, very soon the outside of this piece of iron gets very hot indeed and, as a result, it gets soft and melts and then starts to burn. So, as this hot little rock rushes through the atmosphere, it leaves a tail of hot burning metal and flames behind it. This is the bright streak we can see from the ground - 100 kilometres below. Yes, you see, fortunately for us, most meteors are so small that they have completely burned up long before they could ever reach the ground - which is just as well because, otherwise, we would need to carry rather stronger umbrellas!

TRƯỜNG THPT CHU VĂN AN ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT MÔN TIẾNG ANH – KHỐI 10 PART I: LISTENING Section 1. Complete the form below. Write ONE WORD AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer. Rented properties customer’s requirements Name:

Steven Godfrey

Example:

Answer:

No. of bedrooms:

Four

Preferred location:

In the ……………………..(1) area of town

Maximum monthly rent:

£ ……………………..(2)

Length of let required:

……………………….(3)

Starting:

September 1st

Complete the table below. Write ONE WORD AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer. Address

Rooms

Monthly rent

Problem

Oakington Avenue

Living/dining room,

£ 550

No ……………(4)

£ 580

The ……………(5)

separate kitchen Mead Street

Large living room and kitchen,

is too large

bathroom and a cloakroom Section 2. Choose the correct answer LATIN AMERICAN STUDIES 1. Paul decided to get work experience in South America because he wanted A to teach English there

B to improve his Spanish

C to learn about Latin American life

D to improve his English

2. What project work did Paul originally intend to get involved in? A construction

B agriculture

C tourism

D architecture 1

3. Why did Paul change from one project to another? A his first job was not well organized

B he found doing the routine work very boring

C the work was too physically demanding

D his first job was boring

4. In the village community, he learnt how important it was to A respect family life

B develop trust

C use money wisely

D spend time with neighbors

5. What does Paul say about his project manager? A he let Paul do most of the work

B his plans were too ambitious

C he was very supportive of Paul

D he was too ambitious

Section 3. Listen to the conversation between Sasha and Jim, then complete the True/False exercise below.

1. Sasha is currently unemployed. T/F

_______

2. Jim understands now why Sasha had problems in her previous apartment. T/F

_______

3. The problem with the television is that Sasha has sometimes forgotten to turn the TV off. T/F

_______

4. Sasha didn’t know that Jim used the lights in the apartment as an anti-crime measure. T/F

_______

5. Sasha never realized the different cleaner was causing a problem in the shower. T/F

_______

Section 4. You will hear an announcement about an evening’s program on Radio Pearl. Complete the sentences with no more than 3 words. - 7.30pm ‘Art Review’: Student Art Exhibition This evening’s programme is taking place at the …………………………(1) in London. The exhibition is of work by students in the …………………………(2) year of their art course. At the exhibition, you can see things as different as curtains and ……..…………… (3). Some of the works of art have been made using ………………(4) technology. 2

- 8.00pm Play ‘The Vanishing Lady’ In the play, a young couple on a train think they hear the sound of someone using a ………………………… (5). A ………………………… (6) tells the couple about an old lady whom he has seen. After writing this play, the author, Porten, became a writer for ………………………… (7). - 9.30pm ‘Business Scenes’: Interview with Peter Field Peter used to work for a ………………………… (8). Peter says the material he uses for his boats is a particular kind of ………………………… (9). Peter collects ………….…………… (10) as a hobby. PART II – VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR Section 1. Choose the best answer. 1. My friend eventually decided to quit her job, _______ upset me a lot A. that

B. what

C. which

D. who

2. Sales began the year at 30,000 units in January and increased slightly ________ 2,000 units in February. A. by

B. to

C. in

D. at

3. John: “Our teacher, Mr. Jones, is not very flexible. He always requires us to submit his assignments on time.” Jack: “ _________. He should know that we have to learn many subjects.” A. I can’t disagree with you more

B. I can’t agree with you more

C. That can be true

D. I am not with you here

4. _____ Mississippi River flows into _____ Gulf of Mexico in _______ state of Louisiana. A. - / the / the

B. The / the / the C. The / - / -

D. - / - / -

5. You _______ then ; otherwise , the policeman wouldn’t have stopped you . A. could have been speeding

B. must have been speeding

C. might have been speeding

D. ought to have been speeding

6. We cannot judge a person simply on the ______ of his education. A. theory

B. condition

7. The number of learners

C. basis

D. principle

not large; therefore, a number of headphones

available to them in the lab 3

A. are - is

B. is - are

8. He apologized A. to – for

C. are - are me

B. Ø – for

D. is – is

not having come to my birthday party C. to - on

D. with – for

9. When friends insist on ______ expensive gifts, it makes most people uncomfortable. A. them to accept B. they accepting C. their accepting D. they accept 10. By the time Brown’s daughter graduates, __________ retired. A. he

B. he has

C. he’ll being

D. he’ll have

11. The ________ are against her winning a fourth consecutive gold medal. A. chances

B. bets

C. prospects

D. odds

12. References can have a considerable _______ on employment prospects. A. cause

B. decision

C. weight

D. bearing

13. Her performance in the last scene was quite ________. A. describable

B. remarkable

C. notable

D. noticeable

14. You should be _________ ashamed of yourself for what you have done. A. thoroughly

B. hopelessly

C. entirely

D. earnestly

15. Hardship and hard work are very much part and ________ of student life. A. package

B. section

C. province

D. parcel

16. You’ll be glad to know that Yuki’s work is showing a ___________ improvement. A. mediocre

B. minimal

C. prominent

D. pronounced

17. Far be it from me to _________ down the law, but I think we need to pull our socks up. A. put

B. lay

C. write

D. set

18. The prospects of picking up any survivors are now __________. A. thin

B. narrow

C. slim

D. restricted

19. I think that Tolstoy should be ________ reading for anyone interested in literature. A. necessary

B. compelled

C. required

D. legal

20. Hopes are _______ of finding the missing boat. A. darkening

B. going

C. fading

D. draining

Section 2 - Most but not all of the following lines contain one unnecessary word. Underline the word that is not needed. 01. Parents in Britain are required by law to see that their children receive full-time 4

02. education between the ages of 5 and 16. At present, there are about nine million 03. school-children at about 40,000 schools. The number is increasing, mainly because of 04. some increase in the birth rate, and such primary school numbers are very high. 05. Although the birth-rate has now stabilised, each year more of children stay 06. on at school from beyond the minimum leaving age. There is, therefore, a 07. continuing need for more teachers and more school buildings. In England, Wales and 08. Northern Ireland, it is usual for boys and girls to be taught all together in primary schools: 09. that is, up to the age of 11, but about half the secondary schools are for boys and girls only. 10. Although mixed schools are more common in Wales and Scotland, where all but a few city 11. schools take both boys and girls. As to a result of the reorganisation of schools, and the 12. introduction of comprehensive education, much more children are attending co-educational 13. establishments. While in the independent sector, more than half the schools are 14. co-educational; but of those that providing secondary education, the majority are either for 15. boys or girls. These independent schools does receive no grants from public funds, 16. and charge fees. They are of two types: the preparatory schools and the public schools.

Section 3. Complete the sentence with suitable preposition. 1. I'm tired and stressed and the kids have been acting ____________ all day. They don't seem to know how to behave properly. 2. I met Harold in the supermarket. He was asking ______________ you and I said you were fine and really happy about this new job you've got. 3. I'll ask your boss ______________ for dinner tonight if he isn't busy. It will make a good impression, don't you think? 4. If your boss accuses you of missing yesterday's meeting on purpose, I will back you __________ by saying you had to do something for me. 5. I can hardly read this document. Go and blow it ________ so it is at least twice the size. 6. These statistics are too confusing. We need to break them___________ into the four different seasons of the year for a clearer picture. 7. If someone phones me while I am in the meeting, I will have to break ____________ for a few minutes as I am expecting a really important call. 8. After the First World War, the Austro-Hungarian empire was broken __________ into several pieces. 5

9. Sales are up 10% on this period last year. We need to build __________ that if we are to save this company. 10. When I told her about her mother's illness being incurable, she broke _________ tears. Section 4. Word form Use the word given in capitals at the end of some of the lines to form a word that fits in the space in the same line. Photography has many forms and ……………….(1). Of all of them, the

APPLY

practice of taking pictures of earth from the air has had the most value for geographers……………….(2).

WORLD

Photography was still in its……………….(3) when, in 1858, French artist

INFANT

Felix Tournachon took the first aerial photograph from a hot-air balloon. From these crude ……………….(4), aerial photographs have been taken from

BEGIN

…………….(5) higher vantage points and now cameras on satellites can

INCEASE

capture images of earth from space. This would have been…………….(6) in 1858. Today, such images

IMAGINE

provide a wealth of detailed information and ……………….…….(7) they have CONSEQUENCE made an enormous contribution to our understanding of the Earth’s atmosphere and weather patterns. They are also invaluable to ……………(8) and

ARCHAEOLOGY

those monitoring urban……………….(9).

EXPAND

Although aerial photographs and maps both present a bird’s eye view of the Earth’s surface, they are valuable in different ways. In terms of ……………….(10)

ACCURATE

maps will always provide a more reliable representation of the surface of the Earth. However, aerial photography has become the more influential as a means of documenting the world’s changing landscape and ecosystems. PART III. READING COMPREHENSION Section 1. Read the text below and decide which answer A, B, C or D best fits each space. 6

Earth is the only place we know of in the universe that can support human life. (1)_______ human activities are making the planet less fit to live on. As the western world (2) _______ on consuming two-thirds of the world's resources while half of the world's population do so (3) _______ to stay alive we are rapidly destroying the (4) _______ resource we have by which all people can survive and prosper. Everywhere fertile soil is (5) _______ built on or washed into the sea. Renewable resources are exploited so much that they will never be able to recover (6) _______ We discharge pollutants into the atmosphere without any thought of the consequences. As a (7) _______ the planet's ability to support people is being (8) _______at the very time when rising human numbers and consumption are (9) _______ increasingly heavy demands on it. The Earth's (10) _______ resources are there for us to use. We need food, water, air, energy, medicines, warmth, shelter and minerals to keep us fed, comfortable, healthy and active. If we are sensible in how we use the resources they will last indefinitely. But if we use them wastefully and excessively they will soon run out and everyone will suffer. 1. A. Although

B. Still

C. Yet

D. Despite

2. A. continues

B. repeats

C. carries

D. follows

3. A. already

B. just

C. for

D. entirely

4. A. alone

B. individual

C. lone

D. only

5. A. sooner

B. neither

C. either

D. rather

6. A. quite

B. greatly

C. utterly

D. completely

7. A. development

B. result

C. reaction

D. product

8. A. stopped

B. narrowed

C. reduced

D. cut

9. A. doing

B. having

C. taking

D. making

10. A. natural

B. real

C. living

D. genuine

Section 2. Gap filling Fill each blank with a suitable word The Goulburn Valley is situated in the south-east corner of the Australian continent, in the state of Victoria. Because of the introduction (1) __________ irrigation over a century ago, primary industry flourished, resulting in (2)___________multitude of orchards and market gardens. After World War II, migrants flocked to the area in search of work on the farms, and in (3)___________ cases, establishing a property of their own. Unfortunately, 7

the region (4)___________taken a turn for the worse over the past decade. The irrigation water that was (5)___________plentiful has now been rationed, and many farmers have been forced (6)___________the land. The main source of water (7)___________from the Goulburn River, with several reservoirs located along its stretch to the mighty Murray River. Dam capacities have fallen to dangerous levels, resulting in some farmers having an inadequate supply of irrigation water. (8)___________ the recent hardships, some farmers have continued to eke an existence out of the land. Many have become (9)_________ ingenious, devising new ways to utilize water plus finding special niches to service the ever-changing urban needs. Perhaps the Goulburn Valley can return to its prosperous times (10)_________. Section 3. Read the following passage, and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each question. A survey is a study, generally in the form of an interview or a questionnaire, which provides information concerning how people think and act. In the United States, the best-known surveys are the Gallup poll and the Harris poll. As anyone who watches the news during campaigns presidential knows, these polls 5

have become an important part of political life in the United States. North Americans are familiar with the many "person on the street” interviews on local television news shows. While such interviews can be highly entertaining, they are not necessarily an accurate indication of public opinion. First, they reflect the opinions of only those people who appear at a certain

10 location. Thus, such samples can be biased in favor of commuters, middle-class shoppers, or factory workers, depending on which area the news-people select. Second, television interviews tend to attract outgoing people who are willing to appear on the air, while they frighten away others who may feel intimidated by a camera. A survey must be based on a precise, representative sampling if it is 15 to genuinely reflect a broad range of the population. In preparing to conduct a survey, sociologists must exercise great care in the wording of questions. An effective survey question must be simple and clear enough for people to understand it. It must also be specific enough so that there 8

are no problems in interpreting the results. Even questions that are less 20 structured must be carefully phrased in order to elicit the type of information desired. Surveys can be indispensable sources of information, but only if the sampling is done properly and the questions are worded accurately. There are two main forms of surveys: the interview and the questionnaire. Each of these forms of survey research has its advantages. An interviewer can obtain 25 a high response rate because people find it more difficult to turn down a personal request for an interview than to throw away a written questionnaire. In addition, an interviewer can go beyond written questions and probe for a subject's underlying feelings and reasons. However, questionnaires have the advantage of being cheaper and more consistent. 1. What does the passage mainly discuss? A. The history of surveys in North America B. The principles of conducting surveys C Problems associated with interpreting surveys D. The importance of polls in American political life 2. The word "they" in line 9 refers to_______. A. North Americans B. news shows

C. interviews

D. opinions

3. According to the passage, the main disadvantage of person-on-the-street interviews is that they …… A. are not based on a representative sampling B. are used only on television C. are not carefully worded D. reflect political opinions 4. Which of the following terms is defined in the passage? A. Survey

B. Public opinion

C. Representative sampling

D. Response rate

5. According to paragraph 3, which of the following is most important for an effective survey? A. A high number of respondents 9

B. Carefully worded questions C. An interviewer's ability to measure respondents' feelings D. A sociologist who is able to interpret the results 6. The word "exercise" in line 16 is closest in meaning to_______. A. utilize

B. consider

C. design

D. defend

7. The word "elicit" in line 19 is closest in meaning to_______. A. compose

B. rule out

C. predict

D. bring out

8. It can be inferred from the passage that one reason that sociologists may become frustrated with questionnaires is that_______. A. respondents often do not complete and return questionnaires B. questionnaires are often difficult to read C. questionnaires are expensive and difficult to distribute D. respondents are too eager to supplement questions with their own opinions 9. According to the passage, one advantage of live interviews over questionnaires is that live interviews_______. A. cost less

B. can produce more information

C. are easier to interpret

D. minimize the influence of the researcher

10. The word "probe" in line 27 is closest in meaning to_______. A. explore

B. influence

C. analyze

D. apply

Section 4. Read the text carefully and then choose the correct answers. IS TECHNOLOGY HARMING OUR CHILDREN’S HEALTH? Technology is moving at such a breakneck speed that it is enough to make your head spin. It can be difficult to keep up. However, with each new technological marvel come consequences. Much of the research conducted has shown the extent of the damage being done to our health by technology. It is a scary thought, and with teenagers and children being heavy consumers and users of these gadgets, they run the risk of being harmed the most. The digital revolution in music has enabled people to download, store and listen to songs on a tiny, portable device called an MP3 player. The process is quick and afterwards you can have access to a library of thousands of songs that can fit into your palm. But experts say that continuously listening to loud music on these small music players can 10

permanently damage hair cells in the inner ear, resulting in hearing loss. For instance, oldfashioned headphones have been replaced with smaller ones that fit neatly into the ear, instead of over them, which intensifies the sound. In addition to that, digital music does not distort and keeps its crystal clear sound, even on loud settings, which encourages children to crank up the volume. Combine that with the fact that many children will spend hours listening to their iPods, and you have the recipe for hearing loss. Put into further perspective, most MP3 players can reach levels of 120 decibels, which is louder than a chainsaw or lawnmover. When you consider 85 decibels is the maximum safe decibel level set by hearing experts over the course of a working day, and that children will listen to music at higher decibel levels than that for long periods of time, hearing will invariably suffer. Apart from hearing damage, there are other serious health risks. We are living in a wireless age. Calls can be made and received on mobiles from anywhere and the internet can be accessed without the need for cables. The advantages are enormous, bringing ease and convenience to our lives. It is clear that mobiles and wireless technology are here to stay but we are paying the price for the new technology? Studies have shown that the rapid expansion in the use of wireless technology has brought with it a new form of radiation called ‘electropollution’. Compared to two generations ago, we are exposed to 100 million times more radiation. The human body consists of trillions of cells which use faint electromagnetic signals to communicate with each other, so that the necessary biological and physiological changes can happen. It is a delicate, natural balance. But this balance is being upset by the constant exposure to electromagnetic radiation (EMR) that we face in our daily lives and it is playing havoc with our bodies. EMR can disrupt and alter the way in which our cells communicate and this can result in abnormal cell behaviour. Some studies have shown that exposure to wireless technology can affect our enzyme production, immune systems, nervous system and even our moods and behaviour. The most dangerous part of the phone is around the antenna. This area emits extremely potent radiation which has been shown to cause genetic damage and an increase in the risk of cancer. Research shows that teenagers and young adults are the largest group of mobile phone users. According to a recent Eurobarometer survey, 70 percent of Europeans aged 11

12-13 own a mobile phone and the number of children five to nine years old owning mobiles has greatly increased over the years. Children are especially vulnerable because their brain and nervous systems are not as immune to attack as adults. Sir William Stewart, chairman of the National Radiological Protection Board, says there is mounting evidence to prove the harmful effects of wireless technologies and that families should monitor their children’s use of them. Besides the physical and biological, technology can also have serious mental implications for children. It can be the cause of severe, addictive behaviour. In one case, two children had to be admitted into a mental health clinic in Northern Spain because of their addiction to mobile phones. An average of six hours a day would be spent talking, texting and playing games on their phones. The children could not be separated from their phones and showed disturbed behaviour that was making them fail at school. They regularly deceived family members to obtain money to buy phone cards to fund their destructive habit. There have been other cases of phone addiction like this. Technology may also be changing our brain patterns. Professor Greenfield, a top specialist in brain development, says that, thanks to technology, teenage minds are developing differently from those of previous generations. Her main concern is over computer games. She claims that living in a virtual world where actions are rewarded without needing to think about the moral implications makes young people “lose awareness of who they are”. She claims that technology brings a decline in linguistic creativity. As technology keeps moving at a rapid pace and everyone clamours for the new must-have gadget of the moment, we cannot easily perceive the long-term effects on our health. Unfortunately, it is the most vulnerable members of our society that will be affected. Questions 1-5. Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER from the passage for each answer. How MP3 players can threaten health MP3 player features

Harmful results

Effects

Problem new…………………….…………(1) creates intense sound 12

fit inside ears

Problem ……………..…………….……(2) is invites children to increase B

distortion-free with clear quality ……….…………………(3) damage to hair cells

sound Problem capable C

producing

sound

at as loud as a lawnmower or and

…………………….……………(4)

chainsaw

–

recommended

loss

over of hearing safe

…….……………………(5) Questions 6-10. Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in the passage? Write

YES

if the statement agrees with the writer’s views

if the statement contradicts the writer’s views

NOT GIVEN

if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this

6. There are considerable benefits to our wireless world.

___________

7. Wireless technology is a permanent part of our lives.

___________

8. Exposure to EMR can lead to criminal behaviour.

___________

9. It is impossible to become obsessed with technology.

___________

10. Using technology always helps with academic success.

___________

PART IV: WRITING Section 1. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one 1. I took no notice of the man standing at the gate. I_______________________________________________ the man standing at the gate. 2. This hotel is inaccessible in winter. It ________________________________________________this hotel in winter. 3. The only reason the party was a success was that a famous film star attended. Had it not ___________________________________________ a famous film star, the party would not have been a success. 4. Freak weather conditions resulted in the hurricane which devastated the area.

The hurricane which devastated the area _______________________________________ freak weather conditions. 5. He discontinues his studies because he is poor. His________________________________________________ his studies. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one using between 3 and 6 words including the word given. 1. Would you give us your answer as soon as possible.

CONVENIENCE

Please respond ......................................... 2. It's one thing to think there's a demand for your product and another to actually make a sale.

WORLD

There's .......................................................... between thinking there's a demand for your product and actually making a sale. 3. I'm so sorry, I didn't realise it was so late.

TRACK

Sorry, I ............................................................................ time. 4. The anti-smoking advertisement does not stop people from smoking INEFFECTIVE The anti-smoking advertisement is………………………………………..…. people from smoking. 5. There is a possibility that you may be able to get a grant

ELIGIBLE

We are pleased…………………………………………………………. a grant Section 2. Essay writing It has been said, "Not all learning takes place in the classroom." Compare and contrast knowledge gained from personal experience with knowledge gained from classroom instruction. In your opinion, which source is more important? Why? THE END

Người ra đề

Phương Nhân 14

(ĐT: 0936868540)

ANSWER KEY Part I: Listening Section 1.

1.central

2. 600

3. 2 year(s)

4.garage

Section 2.

2.C

3.A

4.B

5.C

Section 3:

5. garden

Section 4. 1.National Museum

2. Final/ last

3. Glass work/ glass

5.Gun

6.Waiter

7.Film(s)/ movies

8.Computer company

9.Metal

10. (old) maps

4.Industrial

Part II: Grammar and Vocabulary Section 1 1. C. which

11. D. odds

2. A. by

12. D. bearing

3. B. I can’t agree

13. B. remarkable

4. B. The / the / the

14. A. thoroughly

5. B. must have been speeding

15. D. parcel

6. C. basis

16. D. pronounced

7. B. is – are

17. B. lay

8. A. to – for

18. C. slim

9. C. their accepting

19. C. required

10. D. he’ll have

20. C. fading

Section 2. Errors recognition 04. such

05. of

06. from

08. all

10. Although

11. to

12. much

13. While

14. that

15. does

Section 3. 1. UP

2. AFTER

3. OVER

4. UP

5. UP

6. DOWN

7. OFF

8. UP

9. ON

10. INTO

Section 4. Word form 1 applications

2 worldwide/ world-wide

3 infancy

4 beginnings

5 increasingly

6 unimaginable

7 consequently

8 archaeologists/ archeologists

9 expansion

10 accuracy 16

PART III. READING COMPREHENSION Section 1 1. C. Yet

2. C. carries

3. B. just

4. D. only

5. C. either

6. D. completely

7. B. result

8. C. reduced

9. D. making

10. A. natural

Section 2. Gap filling 1 of

3 many/ some

4 has

5 once

6 off

7 is/ comes

8 Despite

9 more

10 soon/ again.

Section 3 1. B. The principles of conducting surveys

2. C. interviews

3. A. are not based on a representative sampling

4. A. Survey

5. B. Carefully worded questions

6. A. utilize

7. D. bring out

8. A. respondents often do not complete and return questionnaires

9. B. can produce more information

10. A. explore

Section 4 1. headphones

2. digital music

6. YES

3. the volume

7. YES

4. 120 decibels

8. NOT GIVEN

5. (decibel) level

9. NO

10. NO

PART IV: WRITING Section 1. 1. didn’t pay much attention to

2. isn’t possible to reach/ get to

3. been for the attendance/ presence/ appearance of 4. was the result of

5. poverty prevents him from continuing

Section 2. 1. at your earliest convenience

2. a world of difference

3. lost track of the/ completely lost track of the

4. ineffective at stopping

5. you may be eligible for Section 3. Essay writing 1. Content (points covered) - Selected information of the topic and suggested solutions 2. Organisation and cohesion - essay format - reasonably similar space given to each explanation or idea 17

3. Use of English - language of giving opinions - vocabulary to do with aspects of active learning 4. Grammar and spelling - correct use of grammar and spelling THE END

TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN HẠ LONG

ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI DHBB MÔN: TIẾNG ANH - KHỐI 10

ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT Đề thi gồm: 14 trang A. LISTENING (50 points) Part 1. Listen and complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points) Student is studying 1. .................................... Student is in the 2. .................................. year of the course. Position Available

Where

Problem

Receptionist

In the Sport Centers

3. ..................................

Cleaner

In the 5.

Too early

.................................. 4..................................

In the library

Evening lectures

Part 2. You will hear an interview with a man called O’Toole, who works as a teacher trainer. Listen to the conversation carefully and choose the correct answer A, B, C or D for each question. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points). 1. Why are many teachers leaving the profession, according to Mike? A. They don’t feel it is financially rewarding any more. B. They are not being given the respect they once were. C. They are investing too much in it without getting enough back. D. They find the subject matter they have to teach too difficult. 2. Mike believes that without radical changes _______ A. education in the UK will begin to get worse. B. UK schools will lose their ability to compete with one another. C. the UK will soon no longer be a leader in education. D. the educational system in the UK can be transformed. 3. The main failing of the UK education system is _______ A. the inability of students to use computers. B. the resistance within schools to the introduction of technology. C. the failure of government to invest in hardware for schools. D. the lack of training for teachers in the use of technology in the classroom. 4. Why is teacher training failing teachers, according to Mike? A. It is not helping them to keep pace with developments. B. It does not use technology in its training classrooms. C. It uses hardware and software that are out of date. 1

D. It is suffering from a lack of trainers with specialist knowledge. 5. Teachers can only benefit from technology if _______ A. they cease to see it as a threat. B. they can combine it with traditional methods. C. they are allowed to use it in their own way. D. they are willing to research its possibilities on their own. Your answers 1.

Part 3. You will hear a lecture about the history of April Fools’ Day. Decide whether the statements are true (T) or false (F). Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points) 1. April Fools’ Day is for people who love magic tricks. 2. A TV program in the UK broadcast that spaghetti grew on trees on April 4th, 1957. 3. Hundreds of people fell for the spaghetti-growing-on-trees prank. 4. People know for a fact that April Fools’ Day originated in France. 5. People who continued to celebrate New Year’s Day on April 1st after the change were called “April fools.” Your answers: 1.

Part 4: You will hear a radio report about summer jobs for students. For questions 1-10, complete the sentences with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each gap. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (20 points) The Jersey Farm Company is looking for students aged (1) __________________________ There are two types of work available in (2) __________________________ and administrative jobs. Students working at social functions are needed at least (3) __________________________ The catering staff take responsibility for serving guest, setting and (4) __________________________ tables. The office work involves taking (5) __________________________, doing seating plans and receiving guests. Experience in (6) __________________________ is required to deal with e-mail, faxes and filing. For students who want to do delivery work, a (7) __________________________is required. The rate of payment is (8) __________________________ an hour. Students can expect to work (9) __________________________ hours a week. During the academic year, (10) a __________________________job in the farm restaurant is available. Your answers: 2

10.

B. LEXICO - GRAMMAR (50 points) Part 1. Choose one of the words marked A, B, C, or D which best completes each of the following sentences. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (20 points) 1. I assure you that I _________ no hostile feelings towards you. A. shelter B. harbour C. embrace D. cover 2. The salesman demonstrated how a push of the button would cause the aerial to _________. A. rebound B. retreat C. recoil D. retract 3. He cannot _________ ignorance as his excuse; he should have known what was happening in his own department. A. insist B. plead C. refer D. defend 4. I thought I had made it_________ that I didn’t want to discuss this matter. A. distinct B. plain C. frank D. straight 5. Maria is a very good student. She is, __________, an excellent one. A. in most parts B. for most parts C. for the most part D. in most of the parts 6. _________ is a belief generally held by people who live in colder climates. A. That weather affects a person’s mood B. Weather affects a person’s mood C. A person’s mood is affected by weather D. Although a person’s mood is affected by weather 7. In the director’s opinion, it was high time the actress began to _________ her age. A. be B. reach C. act D. perform 8. As soon as he read the letter, tears _________ in his eyes. A. filled in B. soaked up C. welled up D. weighed down 9. Whenever he watched detective films, his imagination ran _________. A. raging B. riot C. unchecked D. furious 10. He had such a bad stomach that he was _________ with pain. A. bent down B. folded over C. snapped off D. doubled up 11. State pensions are currently at the centre of a(n) _________ debate. A. scorching B. fiery C. exploded D. flamed 12. I didn’t suspect anything at first, but when I noticed her going through the office drawers I began to smell _________. A. a rat B. a pig C. a culprit D. a thief 13. Did you see Jonathan this morning? He looked like _________. It must have been quite a party last night. A. a wet blanket B. a dead duck C. death warmed up D. a bear with a sore head 14. If you have a minor illness, it’s usually better just to let the nature take its _________. A. time B. path C. way D. course 15. The little children watched the performance in _________ amazement. A. wide-eyed B. open-eyed C. eagle-eyed D. hawk-eyed 16. That’s exactly what I mean, Tom. You’ve _________! A. put your foot in it B. killed two birds with one stone C. put two and two together D. hit the nail on the head 17. You are advised not to engage in _________ activity during very hot weather. 3

A. strenuous B. strained C. stringent D. stern 18. Critics agree that Trevor Richmond gave a particular _________performance as King Lear. A. holding B. arresting C. apprehensive D. detaining 19. She found the novel absolutely _________ and impossible to put down. A. riveting B. pinning C. enfastening D. nailing 20. _________, scientists have greatly increased the yield of crops such as corn, rice, and wheat. A. As using the laws of genetics B. Using the laws of genetics C. The laws of genetics D. The laws of genetics are to be used Your answers: 1.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

Part 2. Read the following text which contains 10 mistakes. Identify the mistakes and write the corrections in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points) LINE

RAIN MAKING

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16

When it rains, it doesn't always pour. During a typical storm, a comparative small amount of the locking up moisture in each cloud reaches the ground like rain. So the idea that human intervention a rain dance, perhaps - might encourage the sky to give up a little additional water has been around in prehistoric times. More recently, wouldbe rain-makers have attempted direct intervention, by lobbing various chemicals out of aeroplanes in the effort to wring more rain from the clouds, a practice knowing as 'cloud seeding'. Yet such techniques, which were first developed in the 1940s, are notoriously difficult to evaluate. It is hard to ascertain, for example, how much rain would have fallen anyway. So, though much anecdotal evidence of the advantages of cloud seeding, that has led to its adoption in more than 40 countries around the world, as far as scientists are concerned, results are still inconclusive. That could be about to changing. For the past three years researchers have been carrying out the most extensive and rigorous evaluation to date of a revolutionarily new technique which will substantially boost the volume of rainfall. The preliminary finding of their experiments indicate that solid evidence of the technique's effectiveness is now within the scientists' grasp.

Your answers: Line

Mistakes

Corrections

1. 2. 4

3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 3. Complete each of the following sentences with a suitable preposition or particle. Write your answer in the boxes provided. (10 points) 1. Winter is coming. It's getting darker and the days are really starting to draw ______________. 2. The unforeseen expense on the new house ate ______________ my savings but it was worth it. 3. Gareth Bale is a brilliant young footballer who is ______________ the up and up. 4. We were walking through the woods when we chanced ______________ a trap set by hunters. 5. Running ______________ your workmates certainly doesn’t influence the atmosphere in the office in a positive way, so I expect you to stop doing that from now on. 6. It took Terry a while to cotton ______________ the fact I was joking. 7. There’s no point lashing ______________ at Dr. Baker. She’s not responsible for what’s happened. 8. That chair is not very strong. Do you think it is ______________your weight? 9. I wish you wouldn’t fly ______________me like that every time I make a mistake. 10. I don’t know what happened. I was just sitting at my desk and I suddenly blacked ______________ for a few minutes. Your answers: 1.

10.

Part 4. Give the correct form of the words in brackets. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points) SWANS Swans are graceful long-necked, heavy-bodied, big-footed birds that glide majestically when swimming and fly slowly with (1. HURRY) wingbeats and necks outstretched. They migrate in a diagonal (2.FORM) at great heights. No other waterfowl 5

moves as fast on the water or in the air. Swans are social except in the breeding season. When they mate, it is for life. (3. COURT) involves mutual bill dipping or head-to-head posturing. The female incubates, on average, a half-dozen pale; in some species he takes his turn at brooding. After repulsing an enemy, swans utter a (4. TRIUMPH) note as geese do. The young, although capable of running and swimming a few hours after hatching, are (5. CARE) tended for several months. Juvenile birds may ride about on their mother’s back. These (6. MATURE) birds can be recognized by their mottled grey or brown plumage which they wear for at least two years until reaching (7. ADULT) in their third or fourth year. In (8. CAPTIVE) they can live for 50 years or more. There are approximately 7 to 8 species of Swan in (9. EXIST). The Southern Hemisphere has the only all black variety, whereas South America is home to the black-necked swan, an especially (10. AGREE) but beautiful bird. Your answers: 1.

10.

C. READING (60 points) Part 1. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap. Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (15 pts) Very few of us would admit putting much trust in horoscopes and the fact that the movements of astronomical bodies (1) ___________ to earthly occurrences affecting peoples’ everyday lives. We all know about the zodiac signs which reflect the position of the sun, the moon and the planets at the moment of a man’s birth and about the peculiar characteristics (2)___________ to them by astrologers. We say we will take these phenomena with a (3)___________ of salt while we keep running our eyes over them in every tabloid we (4)___________ our hands on. Most frequently, we expect horoscopes to predict the future, to (5)___________ our optimistic mood with a piece of comforting information or to (6)___________ our ego by confirming the superlative features that we tend to attribute to our zodiacs. However, there’s no scientific evidence to corroborate the assumption that human existence is so closely (7)___________ with the parameters of the celestial bodies. Our curiosity in horoscopes may, then, stem our sheer fascination with the horoscopes offer, thus establishing the sense of our (8)___________ an extreme power over our own lives. An additional explanation is that humans tend to have a soft (9)___________ for any form of flattery, which is the fact to which astrologers and the horoscope writers seem to (10)____________ the greatest deal of weight. 1. A. rely B. correspond C. match D. compare 6

2. A. identified 3. A. speck 4. A. settle 5. A. restore 6. A. boost 7. A. fused 8. A. disposing 9. A. pit 10. A. instill

B. associated B. pinch B. draw B. adjust B. escalate B. adhered B. wielding B. dot B. consign

C. incorporated C. grain C. grab C. upgrade C. revitalize C. coalesced C. effecting C. spot C. fasten

D. ascribed D. scrap D. lay D. reassure D. improve D. intertwined D. committing D. nick D. attach

Your answer: 1.

10.

Part 2. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word in each space. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (15 points) During the last 25 years, Britain's urban sparrow population has declined by as (0) _MUCH _ as two-thirds, and the bird has almost disappeared from many of (1) _________ former haunts. The decline has been blamed on everything from cats to garden pesticides. Moreover, modern buildings have far (2) _________ few nooks and crannies (3) _________ the birds can nest. Factors (4) _________ these may well be involved, but alone they fail to explain the severity of the decline, or the fact that other urban birds have been less affected. Denis Summers-Smith is the world's leading expert on sparrows, so when he (5) _________ up with a theory to explain their decline, it has to be (6) _________ listening to. He suggests that the culprit is a chemical added to unleaded petrol. It would be deeply ironic if a policy that was intended to improve the nation's health was to prove responsible for the decline of (7) _________ of its favourite species. According to Summers-Smith, social species such as the sparrow require a minimum population in a specific area to breed successfully. If, (8) _________ whatever reason, numbers drop (9) _________ this threshold, the stimulus to breed disappears. The most dramatic example is the passenger pigeon, which in the late nineteenth century went from (10) _________ the world's most common bird to total extinction within 50 years. Your answer: 1.

10.

Part 3. Read the passage and choose the best option A, B, C, or D to answer the questions. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (15 points) The Creators of Grammar No student of a foreign language needs to be told that grammar is complex. By 7

changing word sequences and by adding a range of auxiliary verbs and suffixes, we are able to communicate tiny variations in meaning. We can turn a statement into a question, state whether an action has taken place or is soon to take place, and perform many other word tricks to convey subtle differences in meaning. Nor is this complexity inherent to the English language. All languages, even those of so-called 'primitive' tribes have clever grammatical components. The Cherokee pronoun system, for example, can distinguish between 'you and I', 'several other people and I' and 'you, another person and I'. In English, all these meanings are summed up in the one, crude pronoun 'we'. Grammar is universal and plays a part in every language, no matter how widespread it is. So the question which has baffled many linguists is - who created grammar? At first, it would appear that this question is impossible to answer. To find out how grammar is created, someone needs to be present at the time of a language's creation, documenting its emergence. Many historical linguists are able to trace modern complex languages back to earlier languages, but in order to answer the question of how complex languages are actually formed, the researcher needs to observe how languages are started from scratch. Amazingly, however, this is possible. Some of the most recent languages evolved due to the Atlantic slave trade. At that time, slaves from a number of different ethnicities were forced to work together under colonizer's rule. Since they had no opportunity to learn each other's languages, they developed a make-shift language called a pidgin. Pidgins are strings of words copied from the language of the landowner. They have little in the way of grammar, and in many cases it is difficult for a listener to deduce when an event happened, and who did what to whom. [A] Speakers need to use circumlocution in order to make their meaning understood. [B] Interestingly, however, all it takes for a pidgin to become a complex language is for a group of children to be exposed to it at the time when they learn their mother tongue. [C] Slave children did not simply copy the strings of words uttered by their elders, they adapted their words to create a new, expressive language. [D] Complex grammar systems which emerge from pidgins are termed creoles, and they are invented by children. Further evidence of this can be seen in studying sign languages for the deaf. Sign languages are not simply a series of gestures; they utilise the same grammatical machinery that is found in spoken languages. Moreover, there are many different languages used worldwide. The creation of one such language was documented quite recently in Nicaragua. Previously, all deaf people were isolated from each other, but in 1979 a new government introduced schools for the deaf. Although children were taught speech and lip reading in the classroom, in the playgrounds they began to invent their own sign system, using the gestures that they used at home. It was basically a pidgin. Each child used the signs differently, and there was no consistent grammar. However, children who joined the school later, when this inventive sign system was already around, developed a quite different sign language. Although it was based on the signs of the older children, the younger children's language was more fluid and compact, and it utilised a large range of grammatical devices to clarify meaning. What is more, all the children used the signs in the same way. A new creole was born. 8

Some linguists believe that many of the world's most established languages were creoles at first. The English past tense –ed ending may have evolved from the verb 'do'. 'It ended' may once have been 'It end-did'. Therefore it would appear that even the most widespread languages were partly created by children. Children appear to have innate grammatical machinery in their brains, which springs to life when they are first trying to make sense of the world around them. Their minds can serve to create logical, complex structures, even when there is no grammar present for them to copy.

Question 1: In paragraph 1, why does the writer include information about the Cherokee language? A. To show how simple, traditional cultures can have complicated grammar structures B. To show how English grammar differs from Cherokee grammar C. To prove that complex grammar structures were invented by the Cherokees. D. To demonstrate how difficult it is to learn the Cherokee language Question 2: What can be inferred about the slaves' pidgin language? A. It contained complex grammar. B. It was based on many different languages. C. It was difficult to understand, even among slaves. D. It was created by the land-owners. Question 3: All the following sentences about Nicaraguan sign language are true EXCEPT: A. The language has been created since 1979. B. The language is based on speech and lip reading. C. The language incorporates signs which children used at home. D. The language was perfected by younger children. Question 4: In paragraph 3, where can the following sentence be placed? “It included standardised word orders and grammatical markers that existed in neither the pidgin language, nor the language of the colonizers” . A. [A] B. [B] C. [C] D. [D] Question 5: 'From scratch' in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to: A. from the very beginning B. in simple cultures C. by copying something else D. by using written information Question 6: 'Make-shift' in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to: A. complicated and expressive B. simple and temporary C. extensive and diverse D. private and personal 9

Question 7: Which sentence is closest in meaning to the highlighted sentence? Grammar is universal and plays a part in every language, no matter how widespread it is. A. All languages, whether they are spoken by a few people or a lot of people, contain grammar. B. Some languages include a lot of grammar, whereas other languages contain a little. C. Languages which contain a lot of grammar are more common that languages that contain a little. D. The grammar of all languages is the same, no matter where the languages evolved. Question 8: All of the following are features of the new Nicaraguan sign language EXCEPT: A. All children used the same gestures to show meaning. B. The meaning was clearer than the previous sign language. C. The hand movements were smoother and smaller. D. New gestures were created for everyday objects and activities. Question 9: Which idea is presented in the final paragraph? A. English was probably once a creole. B. The English past tense system is inaccurate. C. Linguists have proven that English was created by children. D. Children say English past tenses differently from adults. Question 10: Look at the word 'consistent' in paragraph 4. This word could best be replaced by which of the following? A. natural B. predictable Your answer: 1. 2.

C. imaginable

D. uniform

10.

Part 4. Read the text and do the following tasks. (15 points) TRY IT AND SEE In the social sciences, it is often supposed that there can be no such thing as a controlled experiment. Think again. A. In the scientific pecking order, social scientists are usually looked down on by their peers in the natural sciences. Natural scientists do experiments to test their theories or, if they cannot, they try to look for natural phenomena that can act in lieu of experiments. Social scientists, it is widely thought, do not subject their own hypotheses to any such rigorous treatment. Worse, they peddle their untested hypotheses to governments and try to get them turned into policies. B. Governments require sellers of new medicines to demonstrate their safety and effectiveness. The accepted gold standard of evidence is a randomised control trial, in which a new drug is compared with the best existing therapy (or with a placebo, if no treatment is available). Patients are assigned to one arm or the other of such a study at random, ensuring that the only difference between the two groups is the new treatment. The best studies also ensure that neither patient nor physician knows which patient is allocated to which therapy. 10

Drug trials must also include enough patients to make it unlikely that chance alone may determine the result. C. But few education programmes or social initiatives are evaluated in carefully conducted studies prior to their introduction. A case in point is the ‘whole-language’ approach to reading, which swept much of the English-speaking world in the 1970s and 1980s. The whole-language theory holds that children learn to read best by absorbing contextual clues from texts, not by breaking individual words into their component parts and reassembling them (a method known as phonics). Unfortunately, the educational theorists who pushed the whole-language notion so successfully did not wait for evidence from controlled randomised trials before advancing their claims. Had they done so, they might have concluded, as did an analysis of 52 randomised studies carried out by the US National Reading Panel in 2000, that effective reading instruction requires phonics. D. To avoid the widespread adoption of misguided ideas, the sensible thing is to experiment first and make policy later. This is the idea behind a trial of restorative justice which is taking place in the English courts. The experiment will include criminals who plead guilty to robbery. Those who agree to participate will be assigned randomly either to sentencing as normal or to participation in a conference in which the offender comes face-to-face with his victim and discusses how he may make emotional and material restitution. The purpose of the trial is to assess whether such restorative justice limits re-offending. If it does, it might be adopted more widely. E. The idea of experimental evidence is not quite as new to the social sciences as sneering natural scientists might believe. In fact, randomised trials and systematic reviews of evidence were introduced into the social sciences long before they became common in medicine. An apparent example of random allocation is a study carried out in 1927 of how to persuade people to vote in elections. And randomised trials in social work were begun in the 1930s and 1940s. But enthusiasm later waned. This loss of interest can be attributed, at least in part, to the fact that early experiments produced little evidence of positive outcomes. Others suggest that much of the opposition to experimental evaluation stems from a common philosophical malaise among social scientists, who doubt the validity of the natural sciences, and therefore reject the potential of knowledge derived from controlled experiments. A more pragmatic factor limiting the growth of evidence-based education and social services may be limitations on the funds available for research. F. Nevertheless, some 11,000 experimental studies are known in the social sciences {compared with over 250,000 in the medical literature). Randomised trials have been used to evaluate the effectiveness of driver-education programmes, job- training schemes, classroom size, psychological counselling for post-traumatic stress disorder and increased investment in public housing. And where they are carried out, they seem to have a healthy dampening effect on otherwise rosy interpretations of the observations. G. The problem for policymakers is often not too few data, but what to make of multiple and conflicting studies. This is where a body called the Campbell Collaboration comes into its own. This independent non-profit organisation is designed to evaluate existing studies, in a process known as a systematic review. This means attempting to identify every relevant trial of a given question (including studies that have never been published), choosing the best 11

ones using clearly defined criteria for quality, and combining the results in a statistically valid way. An equivalent body, the Cochrane Collaboration, has produced more than 1,004 such reviews in medical fields. The hope is that rigorous review standards will allow Campbell, like Cochrane, to become a trusted and authoritative source of information. For questions 1-6, choose the correct heading for paragraphs A-F from the list of headings below Write the correct number, i-ix. List of Headings i. Why some early social science methods lost popularity ii. The cost implications of research iii. Looking ahead to an unbiased assessment of research iv. A range of social issues that have been usefully studied v. An example of a poor decision that was made too quickly vi. What happens when the figures are wrong vii. One area of research that is rigorously carried out viii. The changing nature of medical trials ix. An investigative study that may lead to a new system x. Why some scientists’ theories are considered second-rate Example: Paragraph A Answer: X 1. Paragraph B 2. Paragraph C 3. Paragraph D 4. Paragraph E 5. Paragraph F 6. Paragraph G For questions 7-10, complete the summary below. Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer. Fighting Crime Some criminals in England are agreeing to take part in a trial designed to help reduce their chances of 7 …………………... . The idea is that while one group of randomly selected criminals undergoes the usual 8 ………………….. the other group will discuss the possibility of making some repayment for the crime by meeting the 9 ………………….. . It is yet to be seen whether this system, known as 10 ………………….. will work. Your answer: 1.

10.

D. WRITING (40 points) 12

Part 1. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the one printed before it. Write your answers in the space provided. (10 points) 1. The first sign of the disease is blurred vision. The onset __________________________________________________________________. 2. I will only be satisfied if the manager apologizes fully. Nothing

short

_______________________________________________________________. 3. Julia isn’t to blame for the negligence by any means. By no means _______________________________________________________________. 4. It rumored that we will have a new manager. Rumor has _________________________________________________________________. 5. No one stands a chance of beating Mansell in this year’s championship. It’s a foregone ______________________________________________________________. Part 2. Rewrite the sentences below in such a way that their meanings stay the same. You must use the words in capital without changing their forms. Write your answers in the space provided (10 points) 1. I remained neutral during their disagreement because I like both of them. (SIDES) __________________________________________________________________________. 2. A great many people will congratulate her if she wins. (SHOWERED) __________________________________________________________________________. 3. He is a generous person. (NAME) __________________________________________________________________________. 4. Several runners have withdrawn from the race because of health problems. (BACKED) __________________________________________________________________________. 5. Returning from the battle, they had no money left. (RUB) __________________________________________________________________________. Part 3. Essay writing (20 points) Competitiveness is considered a positive quality among people. Do you agree with this statement? Write an essay of 200-250 words to state your viewpoint.

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ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI DHBB MÔN: TIẾNG ANH - KHỐI 10 Đáp án gồm: 05 trang

A. LISTENING (50 points): Part 1. 10 points- Each correct answer is given 2 pts 1. Business 2. third 3. Evening lectures 4. Evening lectures 5. Clerical Assistant Part 2. 10 points- Each correct answer is given 2 pts 1. C 2. C 3. D 4. A

5. A

Part 3: 10 points- Each correct answer is given 2 pts 1. F 2. F 3. T 4. F

5. T

Part 4: 20 points- Each correct answer is given 2 pts 1. 18- 24 5. phone booking 2. catering 6. handling constant inquiries 3. twice a week 7. valid driving license 4. catering 8. 8 pounds

9. 30 10. part time

B. LEXICO - GRAMMAR (50 points) Part 1. 20 points- Each correct answer is given 1 pt 1. B 2. D 3. B 6. A 7. C 8. C 11. B 12. A 13. C 16. D 17. A 18. B

4. B 9. B 14. D 19. A

Part 2. 10 points - Each correct answer is given 1 pt Line Mistakes 1. 1 locking 2. 2 like 3. 3 in 4. 5 the 5. 5 knowing 6. 9 though 7. 9 that 8. 11 changing 9. 13 revolutionarily 10. 15 finding

Corrections locked as since an known despite which change revolutionary findings

Part 3. 10 points - Each correct answer is given 1 pt. 1. in 2. into 3. on 6. on to 7. out 8. up to Part 4. 10 points - Each correct answer is given 1 pt.

4. upon 9. at

5. C 10. D 15. A 20. B

5. down 10. out

1. unhurried

5. carefully

9. existence

2. formation

6. immature

10. disagreeable

3. Courtship

7. adulthood

4. triumphant

8. captivity

C. READING (60 points) Part 1. 15 points - Each correct answer is given 1.5 pts. 1. B 2. D 3. B 4. D 5. A 6. A 7. D

8. B

Part 2. 15 points- Each correct answer is given 1.5 pts. 1. its 2. too 3. where 4. like 6. worth 7. one 8. for 9. below/beneath

9. C

10. D

5. comes 10. being

Part 3. 15 points - Each correct answer is given 1.5 pts. 1. A

2. C

3. B

4. D

5. A

6. B

7. A

8. D

9. A

10. D

Part 4. 15 points - Each correct answer is given 1.5 pts. 1. vii 2. v 3. ix 4. i 5. iv 6. iii 7. re-offending 8. sentencing 9. victim 10. restorative justice D. WRITING (40 points) Part 1. 10 points- Each correct answer is given 2 pts 1. The onset of the disease is signaled / marked / shown by blurred vision. 2. Nothing short of a full apology from the manager will satisfy me. 3. It is a foregone conclusion that Mansell will win this year’s championship. 4. By no means is Julia to blame for the negligence. 5. Rumour has it that we will have a new manager. Part 2. 10 points- Each correct answer is given 2 pts. 1. I didn’t take sides during their disagreement because I like both of them. 2. She will be showered with a great many congratulations if she wins. 3. Generosity is his middle name. 4. Several runners have backed out of the race because of their health problems. 5. Returning from the battle, they didn’t have two pennies/ halfpennies to rub together. Part 3. Essay writing. (20 points) 1. Task achievement: (6 points) a. All requirements of the task are sufficiently addressed. b. Ideas are adequately supported and elaborated with relevant and reliable explanations, examples, evidence, personal experience, etc. 2. Organization: (6 points)

a. Ideas are well organized and presented with coherence, cohesion, and unity. b. The essay is well-structured: • Introduction is presented with clear thesis statement. • Body paragraphs are written with unity, coherence, and cohesion. Each body paragraph must have a topic sentence and supporting details and examples when necessary. • Conclusion summarizes the main points and offers personal opinions (prediction, recommendation, consideration, ) on the issue. 3. Languages use (4 points) a. Demonstration of a variety of topic-related vocabulary b. Excellent use and control of grammatical structures 4. Punctuation, spelling, and handwriting (4 points) a. Correct punctuation and no spelling mistakes b. Legible handwriting Markers should discuss the suggested answers and the marking scale thoroughly before marking the papers.

TRANSCRIPT PART 1: Agent: Good morning Student: Oh, good morning. Is this… er… room number 26? Agent: Yes, that’s right. Student: So is this the Student Job Centre? Agent: It certainly is. How can I help you? Student: Well, actually I’m looking for a job – a part time job. Do you have anything available at the moment? Agent: Ah, yes... Are you a registered student? I’m afraid this service is only available to full-time students. Student: Yes… I am. I’m doing a degree in Business Studies. Here’s my student card. Agent: Which ear are you in? Student: Well… I’ve been at uni for four years but I’m in the third year because I took last year off. Agent: Right … well, let’s just have a look at what positions are available at the moment. There’s a job working at the reception desk at the Sports Centre, for three evenings a week – that’s Wednesdays, Thursdays, and Fridays. Student: That sounds like fun but unfortunately I have evening lectures – so that’s not possible, I’m afraid. Is there anything during the day? Agent: Ok, that’s no good then. Um. What about cleaning? There’s a position for a cleaner at the Child Care Centre. Student: Right… Agent: But you’d need to be there at 6 a.m. does that appeal? Student: Six o’clock in the morning! Oh, that’s far too early for me, I’m afraid. I’d never make it that early in the morning. Agent: Mmm… Well – there was position going in the Computer Lab, for three days a week that might be OK. Ah, here it is! No, it’s in the Library, not the Lab., Clerical Assistant required – I think it mostly involves putting the books back on the shelves. Oh no – hang on. It’s for Wednesdays and Fridays again.

Student: No – I can’t manage that because of the lectures. Agent: Ok, I’m getting the idea. Look, I’ll just get a few details from you anyway, and then we can check through the list and see what comes up. PART 2: Interviewer: Today, I have with me Mike O’Toole, a leading teacher trainer, and he’s going to be talking to us about the challenges – and the rewards – that a graduate considering teaching as a career path can expect, Good morning, Mike, Mike: Good morning, Judy. And let me say that you chose two extremely appropriate words: challenges and rewards I don’t think there’s been a more challenging time to be a teacher, And the truth of the matter is that many are saying, ‘This is no longer worth the energy I have to out into it, and are leaving the in droves. But the ones that persevere, will, I believe, find that teaching In the twenty-first century will have both the prestige and the results of the golden days of education. Interviewer: Teaching is often described as being at a crossroads, though, isn’t it? What makes today a real moment of decision? Mike: I think the fact that it’s a crunch moment for everyone; potential teachers, teacher trainers, schools and the government. If everyone seizes the opportunities offered, we could see a system transformed from the slow decline we saw over the past decades, If not. the UK will no longer be seen around the world as an education destination. But rather as a Quaint anachronism. A piece of living history, interesting only to academics, Interviewer: What makes it crunch time? Why are we at this ominous-sounding place? Mike: One word: technology. Technology is the key. We have a world that has changed beyond recognition due to technology – and one that is continuing to change – and our educational system risks being left behind. Everyone should be able to use a computer, but almost no school has IT as a compulsory subject, Computers and the internet should play a part in every lesson, but they don’t. And one of the main reasons is the inability of the teacher to use technology, to integrate it into the lesson. Interviewer: In teacher training colleges, how much emphasis is placed on classroom technology and e-learning? Mike: You’ve come right to the point, Judy, The answer is, not enough! And not only that: if I become a teacher today, completely up to date with the latest in educational software, hardware, electronic resources and so on, in ten years’ time I’ll need retraining so that what I’ve learned won’t become obsolete in twenty. Teachers today are being asked to do more and more without the support they need. We have a very high rate of teachers quitting the profession in this country, and we’ve got to ask why. Interviewer: So teachers need to go back to school themselves. How do they feel about that? Mike: There’s resistance sometimes. Teachers can be very traditional. But it’s with the new wave of teachers that we can affect the greatest change. If the interactive whiteboard, for example, is seen for what it is – an extraordinary tool in a teacher’s toolbox – then it can be utilized. We can train the teacher where to use it, where not to use it, what new software is available and so on. If there’s mistrust, suspicion, ignorance, then the technology will not be used to its full potential. Quite the contrary. Interviewer: And what are the implications for teachers, schools, education systems, even, that don’t exploit this technology?

Mike: You used the analogy of a crossroads earlier, but I would say, rather, that we are at a fork in the road. We’re in a deep forest at the side of a mountain, and what we don’t realise is that one gath leads down into a dead-end ravine and the other leads up to the too of the mountain and the sunshine of knowledge. And, interestingly enough, what technology is allowing schools in developing countries to do, is to leapfrog right ahead of the developed countries so that, in comparison, we are starting to look primitive. PART 3: If you like to play tricks on people, then April Fools’ Day is for you. On the first of April 1957, a British television program played a big trick on its audience by showing a story about spaghetti trees. It was completely made up, but it didn’t stop hundreds of people from believing that spaghetti grew on trees. April Fools’ Day is believed to have gotten its start in France. Five centuries ago, the first day of the New Year fell on April 1st. Later, in the 1500s, Pope Gregory XIII moved New Year’s Day to January 1st. However, word traveled slowly in those days, so many people didn’t find out about the change. Some people knew but didn’t care and still celebrated the New Year on April 1st. These people were called “April fools,” and other people played tricks on them to make them look silly. They sent these “fools” out to look for things that weren’t there, or they tried to make them believe something that wasn’t true. Nowadays, the holiday is popular all over Europe and the rest of the world. April Fools’ Day is certainly the best time to see people playing all kinds of silly tricks and having fun.

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ĐỀ THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH KHỐI 10

TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN HOÀNG VĂN THỤ

NĂM 2018

TỈNH HÒA BÌNH ĐỀ THI ĐÈ XUẤT

Thời gian làm bài 180 phút (Đề này có 16 trang)

I. LISTENING (50PS) I. You will hear someone talking on the radio about a Language Study Fair. For each question, fill in the missing information in the numbered space. In each space, use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS. You will listen to the CD twice. The Language Study Fair Dates:

17th to 19th of March

Place:

(1)…………….. Education Centre

Fair includes:

- stands with textbooks - talks by educational speakers - exhibition of (2)………………….. - demonstrations of latest computer programs

Opening hours: 9.30 a.m. – (3)……………….Thursday and Friday 9.30 a.m. – 4.00 p.m Saturday Tickets:

(4)………….…… or £3 for (5)…………………………..

Tickets can be booked by ringing the hotline on 984 7711. 1

II. Listen to two passages and choose the correct answer. You will listen to the passages twice. 1. When in Australia have Asian honey bees been found in the past? A. Queensland

B. New South Wales

C. several states

2. A problem with Asian honey bees is that they A. attack bees

B. carry parasites

C. damage crops

3. What point is made about Australian bees? A. Their honey varies in quality B. Their size stops them from pollinating some flowers. C. They are sold to customers abroad. 4. Grant Freeman says that if Asian honey bees got into Australia, A. the country’s economy would be affected B. they could be used in the study of allergies. C. certain areas of agriculture would benefit. 5. In order to set up her research programme, Shona got A. advice from personal friends in other countries. B. help from students in other countries. C. information from her tutor’s contacts in other countries. III. Listen to some of the theories people have had about the cause of his death and decide whether the statements are true or false. You will listen to the CD once. T 1. Napoleon died at the age of 51. 2. No one knows exactly why Napoleon died. 3. Some people think that he had lung cancer 4. It is suggested that he was poisoned by his wife.

5. According to the third theory the poison in the dyes in wallpaper led to his death. IV. Listen and complete the sentences below. Write no more than three words for each answer. 1. Governments have been mistaken to ...................... slums. 2. There is often a lack of .................... concerning housing projects. 3.

Housing policies which are based on principles of ..................... are

particularly effective. 4. Some ......................... should always be provided by governments. 5. Migrants will only ........................ in housing if they feel secure. 6. Governments often underestimate the importance of ...................... to housing projects. 7. The availability of ......................... is the starting point for successful housing development. 8.

Urbanisation can have a positive effect on the ......................... of

individuals. 9. The population size of cities enables a range of ........................... to occur. 10. City living tends to raise the level of .................................... to occur. II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (50PS) I. Complete the following sentences by choosing the correct answer (A, B, C or D). 1. Salt and ice can be used to _______ food. A. contaminate

B. pollute

C. include

D. preserve

2. Ask Tom to give you a hand lifting the suitcase. He is as strong as _______. A. an elephant

B. a buffalo

C. a gorilla

D. a horse

C. on

D. for

3. Have you sold ______ of those shirts yet? A. out

B. off

4. ______I to have known there is such an appropriate curriculum, I would have registered for it at the beginning. A. If

B. Do

C. Were

D. Providing

5. When you do something, you should _______. A. weigh up the pros and cons

B. turn over a new leaf

C. go down well with it

D. get through to it

6. I made no impression on you at school as I was neither an excellent student nor a(n) ______one. A. good

B. disruptive

C. original

D. compulsory

7. By the time I was told about the terrible affair, I _______ in what he often said to me. A. believed

B. was believing

C. would have believed

D. had believed

8. "How is the traffic there?" -"______." A. No matter

B. Absolutely

C. Not too bad

D. Good idea

C. Really

D. Absolutely

9. "Is the course interesting?" -"______." A. Agreed

B. Ready

10. All three TV channels provide extensive ____ of sporting events. A. broadcast

B. network

C. coverage

D. vision

11. They seemed to be ____ to the criticism and just carried on as before. A. disinterested

B. sensitive

C. uncaring

D. indifferent

C. Yes, we go

D. Yes, let’s

12. “Shall we go out tonight?” - “____” A. Yes, I can

B. Yes, we are 4

13. It's no use ___ over ___ milk. A. crying/ spilt

B. to cry/ spilling

C. crying/ spilling

D. crying/ to spill

14. They are fighting to eradicate the _________________ of starvation caused by the civil war. A. leaving B. legacy C. remains D. tradition 15. The tracker stalked the tiger for days but the animal capture. A. missed

B. slipped

C. jumped

16. This book will be a delight to A amateur

readers of science fiction.

B. skilled

17. A considerable

D. eluded

C seasoned

D. loving

of folklore has built up regarding the magical

properties of sites such as Stonehenge. A. pile

B. body

18. Closure of schools took place

C. doctrine

D. culture

falling numbers of pupils.

A. in the context of

B. with regard to

C. with a concern for

D. in consideration of

19. Don't worry - the documents are safe A. under 20

lock and key at my place

B. on

C. in

D. within

for Tom's opposition, we would have agreed to the contract.

A. Be it not

B. Would it not have been

C. Should it not have been

D. Had it not been

II. Each line of the following passage has one mistake related to either grammar or vocabulary usage. Find and correct them. 5

Air pollution is a cause for ill – health in human beings. It a lot of countries, there are laws limited the amount of smoke which factories can produce. Because there isn't enough information on the amount of smoke in the atmosphere, doctors have proved that air pollution makes lung cancer. The gases from the exhausts of cars have also risen air pollution in most cities. The lead in petrol produces a poisoned gas which often collects in busy streets surrounding by high buildings. Children who live in areas where there is a lot of lead in the atmosphere cannot think as quick as other children and they are clumsy where they use their hands. There are long-term effects of pollution. If the gases in the atmosphere continues to increase, the earth's climate will become warmer. A lot of ice near the Poles may water and may cause serious floods. III. Fill in each blank with a suitable PREPOSITION or PARTICLE. 1. The teenager took his father’s credit card and ran ................................ 7,000 dollars’ worth of purchases. 2. Don’t believe her when she says she’s got stomachache. She’s putting it .......................... . She just wants to get out of going to school. 3. I’ve always found his attitude ......................................... me rather puzzling. 4. If you want to have an evening out, the child is sure to be quite safe ......................... the care of a baby sitter. 5. The younger worker can be trusted ............................... the work, he won’t spoil it. 6. Frank was not cut _________ the job of a policeman because of his excitable character. 7.

Have the authorities finished looking ___________ the cause of

explosion yet? 6

the

8. It’s impossible to live on the low unemployment benefit I come_____ from the government. 9. Everybody put Mr. Spark’s success ________ his extraordinary cleverness at persuading people to entrust their money with him. 10. Many a change has been brought ___________ in the climate by global warming. IV. Supply the correct form of the words in brackets. Vitamins, taken in tiny doses, are a major group of organic compounds that regulate the mechanisms by which the body converts food into energy. They should not be confused with minerals, which are (1. organic) ......................in their makeup. Although in general the naming of vitamins followed the (2. alphabet)................................ order of their (3. identify) .............................................the nomenclature of individual substances may appear to be somewhat random and (4. organize) ..................................... . Among the 13 vitamins known today, five are produced in the body. Because the body produces sufficient quantities of some but not all vitamins, they must be supplemented in the daily diet. Although each vitamin has its specific (5. designate) .............................................. and cannot be replaced by another compound, a lack of one vitamin can interfere with the processing of another. When a lack of even one vitamin in a diet is continual, a vitamin deficiency may result. The best way for an individual to (6. sure) ............................ a necessary supply of vitamins is to maintain a balanced diet that includes a (7. vary)............................................... of foods and provides adequate quantities of all the compounds. Some people take vitamin supplements, predominantly in the form of tablets. The vitamins in such supplements are

(8. equal)

............................. to those in food, but an adult who maintains a balanced diet does not need a daily supplement. The ingestion of supplements is

recommended only to correct an existing deficiency due to

(9. balance)

.................................... diet, to provide vitamins known to be lacking in a restricted diet, or to act as a therapeutic measure in medical treatment. (10. specify) .................................., caution must be exercised with fat-soluble substances, such as vitamins A and D, because, taken in gigantic doses, they may present a serious health hazard over a period of time. PART III. READING I. Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or phrase for each space English spelling Why does English spelling have a reputation for being difficult? English was first written down when Christian monks came to England in Anglo-Saxon (1) ______ .They used the 23 letters of Latin to write down the sounds of AngloSaxon speech as they heard it. However, English has a (2) ______ range of basic sounds (over 40) than Latin. The alphabet was too small, and so combinations of letters were needed to (3) ______ the different sounds. Inevitably, there were inconsistencies in the way that letters were combined. With the Norman invasion of England, the English language was put (4) ______ risk. English survived, but the spelling of many English words changed to follow French patterns, and many French words were (5) ______ into the language. The result was more irregularity. When the printing press was (6) ______ in the fifteenth century, many early printers of English texts spoke other first languages. They (7) ______ little effort to respect English spelling. Although one of the short-term effects of printing was to produce a number of variant spellings, in the long term it created fixed spellings. People became used to seeing words spelt in the same way. Rules were (8) ______ and dictionaries were put together which printers and

writers could refer to. However, spoken English was not fixed and continued to change slowly - just as it still does now. Letters that were sounded in the AngloSaxon period, like the 'k' in 'knife', now became (9) ______. Also, the pronunciation of vowels then had (10) _____ in common with how they sound now, but the way they are spelt hasn't changed. 1. A. ages

B. centuries

C. times

D. years

2. A. deeper

B. longer

C. thicker

D. wider

3. A. explain

B. express

C. perform

D. tell

4. A. at

B. in

C. on

D. under

5. A. announced

B. found

C. introduced

D. started

6. A. discovered

B. invented

C. made up

D. taken up

7. A. brought

B. did

C. made

D. put

8. A. drawn up

B. filled in

C. got across

D. handed out

9. A. dump

B. quiet

C. silent

D. speechless

10. A. much

B. many

C. few

D. little

II. Fill in each blank with one suitable word. Write your answers in the spaces bellow. Is Photography Dead? For a long time in the past photography was not regarded as an art. It was simply a skill and it was criticized for being too mechanical and not creative enough. At last, however, photography is now accepted as a unique and very important (1)........of art. The photograph's claim to be an objective record of reality is now seriously challenged, and the important function of photography in modern-day society is consequently (2) ......threat. The threat has suddenly become all the more serious as more and more photographers are (3)....... to the new technology which computers offer.

Moreover, a (n) (4) ........ number of colleges have now begun to offer (5) ....... in computer imaging. All these developments (6)........ a disturbing question. Is photography, as we know (7)......., dead? In spite of its complete transformation by new technological developments, however, photography will continue to play a (8) ........role in our culture. Although it may no longer (9)........ to be realistic, modern photography can continue to provide us with fresh visral (10) .........about ourselves and the world in which we live. III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer Staggering tasks confronted the people of the United States, North and South, when the Civil War ended. About a million and a half soldiers from both sides had to be demobilized, readjusted to civilian life, and reabsorbed by the devastated economy. Civil government also had to be put back on a peace time basis and interference from the military had to be stopped. The desperate plight of the South has eclipsed the fact that reconstruction had to be undertaken also in the North, though less spectacularly. Industries had to adjust to peacetime conditions: factories had to be retooled for civilian needs. Financial problems loomed large in both the North and the South. The national debt had shot up from a modest $65 million in 1861, the year the war started, to nearly $3 billion in 1865, the year the war ended. This was a colossal sum for those days but one that a prudent government could pay. At the same time, war taxes had to be reduced to less burdensome levels. Physical devastation caused by invading armies, chiefly in the South and border states, had to be repaired. This herculean task was ultimately completed, but with discouraging slowness. Other important questions needed answering. What would be the future of the four million Black people who were freed from slavery? On what basis were the Southern states to be brought back into the Union?

What of the Southern leaders, all of whom were liable to charges of treason? One of these leaders, Jefferson Davis, president of the Southern Confederacy, was the subject of an insulting popular Northern song, "Hang Jeff Davis from a Sour Apple Tree", and even children sang it. Davis was temporarily chained in his prison cell during the early days of his two-year imprisonment. But he and the other Southern leaders were finally released, partly because it was unlikely that a jury from Virginia, a Southern Confederate state, would convict them. All the leaders were finally pardoned by President Johnson in 1868 in an effort to help reconstruction efforts precede with as little bitterness as possible. 1. What does the passage mainly discuss? A. Wartime expenditures B. Problems facing the United States after the war C. Methods of repairing the damage caused by the war D. The results of government efforts to revive the economy 2. The word "Staggering" is closest in meaning to A. specialized

B. confusing

C. various

C. complicated

overwhelming 3. The word "devastated" is closest in meaning to A. developing

B. ruined

fragile 4 According to the passage, which of the following statements about the damage in the South is correct? A. It was worse than in the North.

B. The cost was less than

expected. C. It was centred in the border states.

D. It was remedied rather

quickly. 5. The passage refers to all of the following as necessary steps following the Civil War EXCEPT A. helping soldiers readjust

B. restructuring industry 11

C. returning government to normal

D. increasing taxes

6. The word "task" refers to A. raising the tax level

B. sensible financial choices

C. wise decisions about former slaves

reconstruction

damaged areas 7. Why does the author mention a popular song ? A. To give an example of a Northern attitude towards the South B. To illustrate the Northern love of music C. To emphasize the cultural differences between the North and the South D. To compare the Northern and Southern presidents 8. The word "them” refers to A. charges

B. leaders

C. days

D. irons

9. Which of the following can be inferred from the phrase "...it was unlikely that a jury from Virginia, a Southern Confederate state, would convict them"? A. Virginians felt betrayed by Jefferson Davis.

B. A popular song insulted

Virginia. C. Virginians were loyal to their leaders. D. All of the Virginia military leaders had been put in chains. 10. It can be inferred from the passage that President Johnson pardoned the Southern leaders in order to A. raise money for the North

B. repair the physical damage in

the South C. prevent Northern leaders from punishing more Southerners D. help the nation recover from the war IV. Read the text below carefully and then do the following exercises. Testing 1, 2, 3, …

A. These are testing times. In both education and the field of work, the prevailing wisdom apears to be: if it moves, test it and if doesn’t, well, test it anyway. I say wisdom, but it has become rather an absession. In addition to the current obstacles, like GCSEs, A-levels, GNVQs, ONDs, and HNDs, not to mention the interviews and financial hurdles that school-leavers have to overcome in order to access higher education, students are facing the threat of “new tests”, Scholastic Aptitude Tests (SATs) B. SATs are being imported from the United States, where they have been in use for nearly a hundred years. As a supplement to A-levels, the tests purport to give students from poor backgrounds a better chance of entering university. SATs are intended to remove the huge social class bias that exists in British universities. But, in fact, they are, no more than an additional barrier for students. The tests, which masquerade as IQ tests, are probably less diagnostic of student potential than existing examinations, and, more seriously, are far from free of the bias that the supporters pretend. C. First of all, as for any other tests, students will be able to take classes to cram for SATs, which again will advantage the better-off. At a recent conference of the Prefessional Association of Teachers, it was declared that school exams and tests are biased toward middle-class children. Further, the content of the tests in question is not based on sound scientific theory, merely on a pool of Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs), set up by a group of item writers. D. The questions in SATs are tested on a representative sample of children. Those which correlate with the school grades of the children are kept, and the rest discarded. This is highly unsatisfactory. There is also evidence that in MCQs tests women are at a disadvantage, because of the way they think, i.e. they can see a wider picture. And it is worth noting that MCQs are only as good as the people who write them; so, unless the writers are highly trained, those who are being tested are being judged against the narrow limitations of the item writers. 13

E. Globalisation has introduced greater flexibility into the workplace, but the educational system has not been so quick off the mark. But there are signs that times are a changing. Previously, students took exams at the end of academic terms, or at fixed dates periodically throughout the year. Now, language examinations like the TOEFL, IELTs and the Pitman ESOL exams can be taken much more frequently. The IELTs examination, for example, is run a test centre throughout the world subject to demand. Where the demand is high, the test is held more frequently. At present, in London, it is possible for students to sit the exam about four times a week. F. Flexible assessment like the IELTs has been mooted in other areas. It has been suggested that the students may in future be able to walk into a public library or other public building and take assessment test for a range of skills on a computer. The computer will dispense an instant assessment and a certificate. The beauty of this system is the convenience. Questions 1 – 5: This reading passage has 6 paragraphs (A-F). Choose the most suitable heading for each paragraph from the list of headings below. Write the appropriate number (1-10) next to the paragraph. One of the headings has been done for you. Note: There are more headings than paragraphs, so you will not use all of them. YOU MAY USE ANY HEADING MORE THAN ONCE 0. Paragraph A ___9____ Paragraph B _________ Paragraph C _________ Paragraph D_________ Paragraph E _________ Paragraph F _________ List of Headings 1. Assessment in the future 2. The theory behind MCQs 3. Problem with SATs 4. Misuse of testing in School 5. The need for computer assessment 14

6. The benefits of SATs 7. Testing in workplace 8. The sortcoming of MCQs 9. Too much testing 10. Flexibility in language tesing Question 6- 10: Read the passage again and then decide whether the following statements agree with the information in the reading or not. Write: Yes if the statement agrees with the information in the passage. No if the statement contradicts the information in the passage No Information if there is no information about the statement in the passage. Example: 0. SATs is the abbreviation of Scholastic Aptitude Tests . Answer: Yes 6. In the fields of education and work the prevailing wisdom seems to be to test everything. 7. Research in genetics refutes the theory that people are predestined to follow certain careers. 8. Psychometric testing is favoured by headmaster and mistresses in many high schools. 9. The writer of this article is in favour of testing in general. 10. According to the writer, students get benefits from SATs

PART V. WRITING (50PS) I. Rewrite the following sentences in such a way that the second sentence has the same meaning as the first one. 1. Something must be done quickly to solve the problem of homelessness. --> Urgent ................................................................................. 15

2. I simply fail to understand some of my colleague‟s attitudes to work. -->I have some colleagues ................................................... 3. I did not realize how much he was influenced by his brother. -->I did not realize the extent .................................................... 4. Mass tourism has been one of the causes of the environmental problems. -->Mass tourism is .................................................................... 5. It was six months since I stopped subscribing to that magazine. -->I cancelled ................................................................ 6. These books are on loan from the British Council library. -->These books have ................................................................... II. Rewrite the following sentences with the given words in such a way that the second sentence has the same meaning as the first one. Do not change the form of the word in brackets 1. These two makes of computer are practically the same. (hardly) ................................................................................................................................ 2. His smooth manner didn’t deceive us. (taken) ................................................................................................................................ 3. Everyone who spoke to the victim is a suspect. (under) ................................................................................................................................ 4. The northwest of Britain has more rain each year than the southeast. (annual) .......................................................................................... III. Write a composition about 200 – 250 words on the following topic: “Written books are not needed because we can read almost everything on the Internet”. Do you agree or disagree with this statement? THE END

HỘI CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN VÙNG DUYÊN HẢI VÀ ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ

ĐỀ THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH KHỐI 10

TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN HOÀNG VĂN THỤ

NĂM 2018

TỈNH HÒA BÌNH ĐỀ THI ĐÈ XUẤT

Thời gian làm bài 180 phút

ĐÁP ÁN I. LISTENING(50PS) I. You will hear someone talking on the radio about a Language Study Fair. For each question, fill in the missing information in the numbered space. In each space, use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS. You will listen to the CD twice. (1) National

(2) furniture

(3) 5.00 p.m.

(4) £5

(5) full-time student(s)

II. Listen to two passages and choose the correct answer. You will listen to the passages twice. 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. B III. Listen to some of the theories people have had about the cause of his death and decide whether the statements are true or false. You will listen to the CD once. 1. T

2. T

3. F

4. F

5. T

IV. Listen and complete the sentences below. Write no more than three words for each answer. 1. demolish

2. real consultation 1

3. self-help

4. services

5. invest money

6. community values

9. specialist activities

7. employment

8. freedom

10. understanding

TAPESCRIPT I. You will hear someone talking on the radio about a Language Study Fair. For each question, fill in the missing information in the numbered space. Organiser: If you’re studying English, the Language Study Fair that’s being held this month will certainly interest you. The show is taking place between the 17th and 19th of March at the National Education Centre. It aims to answer all your questions about self-study (that’s studying by yourself), whatever your level. The Language Study Fair provides a perfect opportunity for you to see, compare and get advice on everything that’s available to help you improve the way you study. Over 350 leading producers of educational materials will be present. Come along to this, and you won’t waste your money in the future on materials that are out-of-date, or books that you just don’t need. We’ve got lots of different things for you to see and hear. There will be stands showing different types of self-study textbooks and talks by educational speakers on the best ways to study by yourself. You will be able to see the latest furniture available for people using the latest programs, which can make studying English alone so much easier. This is your chance to make good decisions about what you buy. You can attend the fair between nine-thirty and five on Thursday and Friday, and from nine-thirty to four on Saturday.

Tickets cost 5 pounds each, or 3 pounds if you are a full-time student. All tickets can be booked by ringing the ticket hotline. The number is 984 7711. Parking can be really difficult around the National Education Centre. However, an all-day space can be booked for only £2.50 per vehicle. So, we kook forward to seeing you there! II.

III. The cause of Napoleon’s death at the age of 51 on the island of St. Helena is still a mystery. There is no doubt that he was a very sick man at the time of his death. One theory about the cause of his death is that he had stomach cancer. Another theory is that he was deliberately poisoned by a servant. A third theory 4

also suggests that he was poisoned, but not by his servant. This third theory suggests that he was poisoned accidentally by fumes from the wallpaper in the house he lived in. A few years ago, samples of the wallpaper were analyzed and traces of arsenic were found in it. Arsenic is a powerful poison that was used in some of the dyes in wallpaper during the time that Napoleon lived. More than 170 years after his death, people are still speculating about the cause of his death. IV. Lecturer: Now, a key issue in the ability of cities to grow is the question of housing. However, quality is as important as quantity here. But that isn't to say that this is easy to guarantee, and the development, or at least the spread , of many modern cities is marked by the sprawl of slum or shanty town housing. Governments are, of course, keen to address this, but the tendency to demolish them has often proved disastrous, as it doesn't solve the problem, unless satisfactory replacements are ready for the inhabitants. What I'm s a yi n g is th a t su i t ab le h o us in g p ro j e cts h av e to b e li n e d u p t o accommodate these otherwise displaced people. And suitable is the key word here. All too frequently, there isn't real consultation, only token gestures. If the residents aren't fully involved, they are unlikely to find the resulting development appropriate to their needs. People need to feel reasonably independent, and strategies for providing accommodation schemes work much better if an approach rooted in self-help is applied. People value things more when they have been part of bringing them into being. At the same time, residents can't do everything for themselves, or not well enough anyway, and so governments need to accept that a number of services will always have to be laid on. These would include electricity and water and so on. From the 5

other side, residents need to feel able to commit. Migrants are essential to the growth of cities, bringing rapid increases in population, skills and income. But they need to have a sense of security, of long-term commitment to the city if they are to invest money in building or buying houses. Developing this sense of commitment isn't straightforward, and it takes time. It's complex and involves several factors. People need to feel they belong and, unfortunately, too many governments fail to appreciate that community values are a crucial component of that. Sadly, there are too many housing schemes which don't work – people drift away, or the whole place becomes crimeridden. It's easy to be wise after the event, but it is worrying that a lot of housing is put up without analysis having been carried out to examine how much employment is going to be available for people. But I don't want to labour the negatives too hard. Such difficulties as there are challenges, and challenges that can be, and often are, overcome. And cities are, I believe, a good thing. Urbanisation – the process of developing cities and the societies that comprise them – may not be everyone's dream, but is has a huge impact on the economy and also benefits each and every person's freedom. Furthermore, the sheer volume of people means that work can be differently distributed. In villages, people need to be multi-skilled in order to be autonomous, but in cities you can see the evolution of a variety of specialist activities and this means people live in a more sophisticated way. It's not only tangible phenomena – there are all sorts of other, equally important benefits, too. Residing in cities brings us face to face with many different ways of thinking or going about things, and this increases our degree of understanding – something which is hard to measure in scientific terms, but which surely makes better people of us all. Right, well, now I'd like to turn our attention to ... II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (50PS)

I. Complete the following sentences by choosing the correct answer (A, B, C or D). 1. D 2. D 3. A 4. C 5. A 6. B 7. D 8. C 9. D 10. C 11. D 12. D 13. A 14.B 15.D 16.C 17.B 18.A 19.A

20.D

II. Each line of the following passage has one mistake related to either grammar or vocabulary usage. Find and correct them. 1. limited --> limiting

6. surrounding --> surrounded

2. Because --> Although

7. quick --> quickly

3. makes --> causes

8. where--> when

4. risen --> increased

9. continues --> continue

5. poisoned --> poisonous

10. water --> melt

III. Fill in each blank with a suitable PREPOSITION or PARTICLE. 1. up

2. on

3. to

4. in

5.with

6. out for

7. into

8. by

9. down to 10. about

IV. Supply the correct form of the words in brackets. 1. inorganic

2. alphabetical

3. identification

4. disorganized

5. designation

6. ensure

7. variety

8. equivalent

9. unbalanced

10. Specifically

PART III. READING I. Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or phrase for each space 1C 2D 3B 4A 5C 6B 7C 8A 9C 10D II. Fill in each blank with one suitable word. Write your answers in the spaces bellow. 1- form, 2- under, 3- turning, 4- increasing, 5- courses

6- raise, 7- it, 8- key, 9- claim, 10- information III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer 1. B

2. D

3. B

4. A

5. D

6. D

7. A

8. B

9. C

10. D

IV. Read the text below carefully and then do the following exercises. 1. Paragraph B ____3_____ 2. Paragraph C ____3_____ 3. Paragraph D_____8____ 4. Paragraph E ____1_____ 5. Paragraph F ____7_____ 6. Yes 7. Not given 8. Not given 9. No 10. Yes PART V. WRITING (50PS) I. Rewrite the following sentences in such a way that the second sentence has the same meaning as the first one. 1. Urgent action must be taken to solve the problem of homelessness. 2. I have some colleagues whose attitudes to work I simply fail to understand. 3. I did not realize the extent to which he was influenced by his brother. 4. Mass tourism is partly responsible/ to blame for the environmental problems. 5. I cancelled my subscription/subscribing to that newspaper six months ago. 6. These books have been lent by the British Council library. II. Rewrite the following sentences with the given words in such a way that the second sentence has the same meaning as the first one. Do not change the form of the word in brackets 1. There is/are hardly any difference(s) between these two makes of computer.

2. We were not taken in by his smooth manner. 3. Everyone who spoke to the victim is under suspicion. 8

4. The annual rainfall in/for the northeast of Britain is higher than that in/for the southeast. III. Write a composition about 200 – 250 words on the following topic: “Written books are not needed because we can read almost everything on the Internet”. Do you agree or disagree with this statement? THE END

Người ra đề: Tô Thị Thanh Hà - 0915478799

TRƯỜNG THTP CHUYÊN HÙNG VƯƠNG – PHÚ THỌ ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT MÔN TIẾNG ANH KHỐI: 10 SECTION I. LISTENING (50/200) PART 1. A Japanese girl and a housing officer are talking about her homestay family. The housing officer takes some details from the girl. For questions 1-5, complete the following form with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. (10 points) PERSONAL DETAILS FOR HOMESTAY APPLICATION First name

1. ______________________

Family name

Yuichini

Gender

Female

Age

Passport

2. ______________________

number Nationality

Japanese

Course enrolled

3. ______________________

Length of the

4. ______________________

course Homestay time

5. ______________________

PART 2. You will hear an interview with a professional athlete called Ann Brown. For questions 6-10, choose the best answer (A, B or C). (10 points) 6. What does Ann say about her performance in the world championships? A. She was disappointed not to win. B. She wishes she'd been more prepared.

C. She did better than she'd been expecting to. 7. How does Ann feel about the place where she trains? A. She finds it quite boring. B. She enjoys looking at the scenery. C. She pays little attention to where she is. 8. What is Ann's attitude towards the other competitors in races? A. She avoids close social contact with them. B. She's made a few good friends amongst them. C. She finds it easy to talk to them when she has to. 9. How does Ann feel about being recognized in public? A. She's relaxed about it. B. She finds the attention exciting. C. She dislikes signing autographs. 10. When thinking about the future, Ann _______. A. plans around five years in advance. B. admits to worrying about getting injured. C. remains focused on winning important races PART 3. You will hear two neighbors, a woman, Natasha, and a man. Colin, talking about running. For question 11-15, decide if each sentence is correct or incorrect. If it is correct, write T for True. If it is incorrect, write F for False. Write your answer in the space given. (10 points) 11. Natasha has decided to take the day off work to go running. ___________ 12. Colin found running to work was bad for his health. ___________

13. Natasha would like to wear her sports clothes at work. ___________ 14. Natasha will run in the big race because she hopes to win it. ___________ 15. Colin and Natasha will prepare for the big race together. ___________ PART 4. You will hear a singer called Tim Tanner who sings with his twin brother Sam Tanner, talking about their lives and career. For questions 16-25, complete the sentences. (20 points) Singing twins: Tim and Sam Tanner The name of the talent competition which the twins won is (16)______________________. Tim is exactly (17)______________________ older than Sam. The twins were born in the month of (18)______________________. The main physical difference between Tim and Sam is their (19)_____________________. Tim has a less (20)______________________ personality than Sam. At school, both Tim and Sam were good at (21)___________________. Sam started taking (22)_______________ lessons when he was thirteen. The fact that the twins share the same (23)_____________________ sometimes leads to arguments. Tim says a key part of the twins' image is the (24)___________________ they wear. The title of the twins’ next album is (25)______________________.

SECTION II: LEXICO – GRAMMAR (50/200)

PART 1. Choose the best answer to each of the following questions. Write your answer in the numbered boxes. (20 points) 1. The comtemporary dialogue for me struck a slightly _______ note. A. disembodied B. discordant C. dismissive D. disconcerting 2. We decided to celebrate by going out and painting the town ________. A. red B. purple C. gold D. brown 3. The series became so popular that it was moved to the ________ time spot of 8 pm. A. leading B. prime C. main D. major 4. The current economic _______ is very good for small businesses. A. disposition B. whirlwind C. climate D. daze 5. He hit the other boy reluctantly as his friends __________ him on. A. happened B. egged C. ground D. played 6. The actors gave a very ________ performance, and the critics expressed their disapproval in their reports the following day. A. pie-in-the-sky B. run-of-the-mill C. good-for-nothing D. behind-the-scene 7. He was _________ devastaled by the news. A. utterly B. extremely C. deeply D. immensely 8. The Red Cross is ________ an international aid organization. A. intriguingly B. intrusively C. intrinsically D. intrepidly 9. I know it’s got his name on the cover, but he used a ________. A. corrrespondent B. model C. ghost writer D. fellow 10. Our lecturer _________ the importance of taking clear notes. A. responded B. reiterated C. retained D. recruited 11. Suppose she _______ that outrageous story circulating aroundthe office, she’d be furious. A. has heard B. would hear C. were heard D. had heard 12. People can make themselves walkon nails or through fire. It’s a question of mind over ______. A. body B. material C. matter D. facts 13. Our plan to start our own business seem ________to failture. A. doomed B. fated C. compelled D. designed 14. ________ my buying tuna if you detest eating fish. A. Is it any good B. As well as C. It’s not much use D. There is nothing good 15. We welcome the new regulations, which become________ on the first of next month. A. effective B. efficient C. efficacious D. effete

16. The chemicals spilled over the road and left drivers ________ for breath. A. suffocating B. inhaling C. gasping D. wheezing 17. It is impossible to miss the ______ of the Generation X in America. A. manifestation B. advancement C. initiation D. acknowledgement 18. He has been trying to improve his grades but instead, they have remained as ______ as possible. A. static B. on coming C. parasitic D. virtual 19. They go to the seaside _____ they should be disturbed by the noise of the city. A. in order that B. for C. so that D. lest 20. I haven’t got the time to do my own work, ______ help you with yours. B. let alone C. apart D. aback A.leaving aside PART 2. Identify and correct 10 errors in the passage. Write your answer in the numbered boxes (10 points) The first self-service stores open in America in the 1920s but they didn’t catch up in Europe until later, when the French forged ahead with their massive hypermarkets. Britain lagged behind. For the first self-service shop and the first supermarket were opened in the early 1940s, it was thought that British housewives did not particularly want proficiency and speed. Surveys showed that while American shoppers complained most about delays in check-out queues. British ones rejected to being pushed and shoved by other customers. The essence of supermarket shopping is impersonality, with no meditating salesman between seller and goods, only the ‘silent persuaders’ of packaging and display. Besides, there is a current trend towards ‘boutiques’, with personal service, within supermarkets – the butcher, the baker, the fishseller – and small specialist shops and farmers’ markets are doing a comeback in Britain. In france, where every self-respecting provincial town, ringed by supermarkets, retains their specialist food shops and weekly street market, the traditional coexists with the ancient. PART 3. Fill in the blanks with proper prepositions or adverbial particles. Write your answer in the numbered boxes. (10 points) Put the right prepositions into the gaps: 1. We met each other at the meeting ______ coincidence. 2. No one can function properly if he or she is deprived _______ adequate sleep. 3. The concert was given ______ the auspices of the Y.M.C.A. 4. When he suddenly brought ______ the subject of genetic engineering, there was an embarrassed silence. 5. After she ate the chocolates, her face broke ______ in a rash.

6. The situation is very confusing in that country and calls _______ diplomacy. 7. No witness of the accident has come _______ yet. 8. You shouldn’t have sent Peter that Valentine’s card. I think you’ve scared him ______. 9. The police are trying to crack _____ on drunken drivers. 10. He was very upset when the boss pushed him ______ and promoted a new comer to the assistant’s job. PART 4. Fill in each blank with the most suitable form of the word in brackets. Write your answer in the numbered boxes. (10 points) Rafflesia is a rare parasitic plant species found in Southeast Asia. Rafflesia has been 1.(LIKE) to a fungus because it lacks chlorophyll and is incapable of phontosynthesis. Perhaps the only part of Rafflesia that is discernible as distinctly plant-like is the flower, which is said to be the world’S largest. Many 2.(BOTANY) have been keen to discover why the flower is so large, so they recently conducted 3.(MOLECULE) analysis on the plant. This resulted in the 4.(REVEAL) that it has evolved almost 80 times from its origin as a tiny bud to today's seven-kilo mega-bloom. Although this 5.(ORDINARY) transformation took tens of millions of years, such an 6.(EVOLUTION) spurt is still one of the most dramatic size changes ever reported. Such growth rates in humans would be 7.(COMPARE) to us being 146 metres tall today. The plant is also unusual in another way. Its smell is extremely 8.(PLEASE) but this horrible trait attracts such 9.(POLLINATE) as flies. It is thought that Rafflesia’s huge flower helps radiate the smell over long 10.(DISTANT). SECTION III: READING COMPREHENSION (50/200) PART 1: Read the passage below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap. Write your answer in the numbered boxes. (10 points) In Europe, Midsummer Night's Eve, also known as St John's Eve, occurs on June 23rd. It originates from the pagan celebrations of the summer solstice which were held on June 21st. On that night throughout Europe bonfires were lit along hillsides to (1)_____ the shortest night of the year. It must have looked as if some kind of violent insurrection was taking place down the coast of Scotland and England, but these signal fires in fact had a very important purpose. Bones of farm animals (2)_____ the previous autumn were burned and, when the fires had (3)_____, the remaining ash was put to good use: it was spread on the fields to enrich the land and ensure a good harvest. The word 'bonfire' is (4)_____ from 'bone fire'. In Brazil too St John's Eve means bonfires and fireworks. Another quaint tradition involves the (5)_____ of small paper hot-air balloons, although they are prohibited by law in the cities because of the fire (6)_____. Bonfires mark

the beginning of spring rather than the summer in Sweden and are lit on the last night of April. In the Swedish Midsummer's Eve (7)_____, held on June 24th, a large pole, decorated with flowers and leaves, is placed in the ground. Thistles also have a significant role in the celebration of Midsummer's Night in Europe. In the past they were thought to (8)_____ witches. The pretty, prickly plant was nailed over barn doors and used in wreaths, the circular shape being a symbol of the turning of the seasons. Wheels laced with straw and soaked in pitch were lit from the bonfires and then rolled down hills. There is less risk of fire in a (9)_____ tradition to many Slavic countries. Young women and girls float little baskets of flowers and lighted candles down streams. Local boys swim out to (10)_____ a basket, find the girl it belongs to and claim a dance at the town's Midsummer's Eve Party. 1. A. celebrate 2. A. revised 3. A. doused 4. A. derived 5. A. landing 6. A. certainty 7. A. tradition 8. A. deflect 9. A. unique 10. A. salvage

B. honour B. assassinated B. extinguished B. developed B. launching B. peril B. custom B. ward off B. common B. rescue

C. commemorate C. slaughtered C. smothered C. evolved C. propelling C. jeopardy C. ceremony C. attract C. mutual C. set free

D. commiserate D. sacrificed D. gone out D. decayed D. ejecting D. hazard D. practice D. avert D. prevalent D. liberate

PART 2. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word in each space. (15 points) Psychologists are interested in the reasons why some people like taking part in risky sports. (1) ____ they studied people who were learning to jump from a plane with a parachute, they found that parachutists’ bodies (2) ______ large amounts of two hormones, adrenaline and nor adrenaline, just (3)_____they made their jump. These hormones help to prepare us for any sudden activity. Adrenaline increases the (4)______ rate and provides more sugar for the muscles, while nor adrenaline does make us react more quickly. (5)_____, nor adrenaline also stimulates a part of the brain which controls feelings of pleasure. Some psychologists (6)_____ concluded that it is a feeling of pleasure caused by this hormone which makes (7)_____ people want to participate in dangerous sports. Another possible reason is the level of arousal (8)_____ part of the brain. According to some psychologists, the brain tries to maintain a certain level of arousal. They believe that people who normally have a low level of arousal (9)____ for excitement and new experiences in order to stimulate themselves, whereas people who usually have a high level of arousal try to avoid risks and unfamiliar (10)_____ in order not to become overexcited. If the psychologists

are right, people with a low arousal are the ones who enjoy participating in dangerous sports and activities. PART 3. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer A, B, C or D. Write your answer in the space provided. (10 points) There are only a few clues in the rock record about climate in the Proterozoiccon. Much of our information about climate in the more recent periods of geologic history comes from the fossil record, because we have a reasonably good understanding of the types of environment in which many fossil organisms flourished. The scarce fossils of the Proterozoic, mostly singlecelled bacteria, provide little evidence in this regard. However, the rocks themselves do include the earliest evidence for glaciation, probably a global ice age. The inference that some types of sedimentary rocks are the result of glacial activity is based on the principle of uniformitarianism, which posits that natural processes now at work on and within the Earth operated in the same manner in the distant past. The deposits associated with present-day glaciers have been well studied, and some of their characteristics are quite distinctive. In 2.3billion-year-old rocks in Canada near Lake Huron (dating from the early part of the Proterozoic age), there are thin laminae of fine-grained sediments that resemble varves, the annual layers of sediment deposited in glacial lakes. Typically, present-day varves show two-layered annual cycle, one layer corresponding to the rapid ice melting and sediment transport of the summer season,and the other, finer-grained, layer corresponding to slower winter deposition. Although it is not easy to discern such details in the Proterozoic examples,they are almost certainly glacial varves. These fine-grained, layered sediments even contain occasional large pebbles or “dropstones,” a characteristic feature of glacial environments where coarse material is sometimes carried on floating ice and dropped far from its source, into otherwise very fine grained sediment. Glacial sediments of about the same age as those in Canada have been found in other parts of North America and in Africa, India, and Europe. This indicates that the glaciation was global, and that for a period of time in the early Proterozoic the Earth was gripped in an ice age. Following the early Proterozoic glaciation, however, the climate appears to have been fairly benign for a very long time. There is no evidence for glaciation for the next 1.5 billion years or so. Then, suddenly, the rock record indicates a series of glacial episodes between about 850 and 600 million year ago, near the end of the Proterozoiccon.

1. Which of the following does the passage mainly discuss? A. How patterns in rock layers have been used to construct theories about the climate of the Proterozoic age B. What some rare fossils indicate about glacial conditions during the late Proterozoic age C. The varying characteristics of Proterozoic glacial varves in different parts of the world D. The number of glacial episodes that the Earth has experienced since the Proterozoic age 2. According to the passage, the fossil record of the Proterozoic con is_______ A. highly regarded because it preserves the remains of many kinds of organisms B. less informative than the fossil record of more recent periods C. very difficult to interpret due to damage from bacteria D. more useful to researchers than other aspects of the rock record 3. The word “scarce” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to______ A. ancient B. tiny C. available D. rare 4. It can be inferred from the passage that the principle of uniformitarianism indicates that______ A. similar conditions produce similar rock formations B. rock layers in a given region remain undisturbed over time C. different kinds of sedimentary rocks may D. each continent has its own distinctive pattern of sediment layers 5. The word “resemble” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to_______ A. result from B. penetrate C. look like D. replace have similar origins 6. According to the passage, the layers in varves are primarily formed by________ A. fossilized bacteria B. pieces of ancient dropstones C. a combination of ancient and recent sediments D. annual cycles of sediment transport and deposition 7. The phrase “the other” in paragraph 2 refers to another_______ A. annual cycle B. glacial lake

C. layer of sediment D. season 8. According to the passage, the presence of dropstones indicates that______ A. the glacial environment has been unusually server B. the fine-grained sediment has built up very slowly C. there has been a global ice age D. coarse rock material has been carried great distances 9. Why does the author mention Canada, North America, Africa, India, and Europe in bold lines? A. To provide evidence for the theory that there was a global ice age in the early Proterozoic eon B. To demonstrate the global spread of dropstones C. To explain the principles of varve formation D. To illustrate the varied climatic changes of the Proterozoic con in different parts of the globe 10. Which of the following terms is defined in the passage? A. fossil record B. laminae C. varves D. glacial episodes PART 4. The reading passage below has SIX paragraphs, A-F. Reading the passage and do the tasks below. (15 points) Money Transfers by Mobile A. The ping of a text message has never sounded so sweet. In what is being touted as a world first, Kenya’s biggest mobile operator is allowing subscribers to send cash to other phone users by SMS. Known as M-Pesa, or mobile money, the service is expected to revolutionise banking in a country where more than 80% of people are excluded from the formal financial sector. Apart from transferring cash – a service much in demand among urban Kenyans supporting relatives in rural areas – customers of the Safaricom network will be able to keep up to 50,000 shillings (£370) in a “virtual account” on their handsets. B. Developed by Vodafone, which holds a 35% share in Safaricom, M-Pesa was formally launched in Kenya two weeks ago. More than 10,000 people have signed up for the service, with around 8 million shillings transferred so far, mostly in tiny denominations. Safaricom’s executives are confident that growth will be strong in Kenya, and later across Africa.

“We are effectively giving people ATM cards without them ever having to open a real bank account,” said Michael Joseph, chief executive of Safaricom, who called the money transfer concept the “next big thing” in mobile telephony. C. M-Pesa’s is simple. There is no need for a new handset or SIM card. To send money, you hand over the cash to a registerred agent – typically a retailer – who credits your virtual account. You then send between 100 shillings (74p) and 35,000 shillings (£259) via text message to the desired recipient – even someone on a different mobile network – who cashes it at an agent by entering a secret code and showing ID. A commission of up to 170 shillings (£1.25) is paid by the recipient but it compares favourably with fees levied by the major banks, whose services are too expensive for most of the population. D. Mobile phone growth in Kenya, as in most of Africa, has been remarkable, even among the rural poor. In June 1999, Kenya had 15,000 mobile subscribers. Today, it has nearly 8 million out of a population of 35 millions, and the two operators’ networks are as extensive as the access to banks is limited. Safaricom says it is not so much competing with financial services companies as filling a void. In time, M-Pesa will allow people to borrow and repay money, and make purchases. Companies will be able to pay salaries directly into workers’ phones – something that has already attracted the interest of larger employers, such as the tea companies, whose workers often have to be paid in cash as they do not have bank accounts. There are concerns about security, but Safaricom insists that even if someone’s phone is stolen, the PIN system prevents unauthorised withdrawals. Mr. Joseph said the only danger is sending cash to the wrong mobile number and the recipient redeeming it straight away. E. The project is being watched closely by mobile operators around the world as a way of targeting the multibillion pound international cash transfer industry long dominated by companies such as Western Union and Moneygram. Remittances sent from nearly 200 million migrant workers to developing countries totalled £102 billion last year, according to the World Bank. The GSM Association, which represents more than

700 mobile operators worldwide, believes this could quadruple by 2012 if transfers by SMS become the norm. Vodafone has entered a partnership with Citigroup that will soon allow Kenyans in the UK to send money home via text message. The charge for sending £50 is expected to be about £3, less than a third of what some traditional services charge. The text has 5 paragraphs (A – E). Which paragraph contains each of the following pieces of information? 1. A possible security problem 2. The cost of M-Pesa 3. An international service similar to M-Pesa 4. The fact that most Kenyans do not have a bank account Complete the following sentences using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text for each gap 5. Safaricom is the _________________ mobile phone company in Kenya. 6. An M-Pesa account needs to be credited by ______________. 7. Companies like Moneygram and Western Union have ______________ the international money transfer market. Do the statements on the next page agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1? write TRUE if the information in the text agrees with the statement FALSE if the information in the text contradicts the statement NOT if there is no information on this GIVEN 8. Most Kenyans working in urban areas have relatives in rural areas. 9. So far, most of the people using M-Pesa have used it to send small amounts of money. 10. M-Pesa can only be used by people using one phone network. SECTION IV: WRITING (50/200) PART 1. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it. (10 points) 1. If the weather is fine, we may go camping at the weekend. -> Weather ________________________________________________. 2. Brenda doesn’t get on well with her next-door neighbor any more. -> Brenda has ______________________________________________. 3. It would have been possible for Jane to take us in her car. -> Jane ___________________________________________________.

4. Tim had no idea what he was letting himself in for. -> Little __________________________________________________. 5. The plain clothes officer’s boots showed he was a policeman. -> The plain clothes policeman’s real ____________________________. PART 2. Rewrite the following sentences with the given word. The given words can’t be changed. (10 points) 1. These rainy Monday morning make me feel miserable. (GET) _________________________________________________________. 2. You have said exactly the right thing. (NAIL) _________________________________________________________. 3. He maintained his position against his adversary. (GROUND) _________________________________________________________. 4. Since she met that boy, she’s been thinking only about him. (WRAPPED) _________________________________________________________. 5. My husband will be angry when I tell him. (ROOF) _________________________________________________________. PART 3. Writing a paragraph. (30 points) “Teenagers should have part-time jobs in preparation for their future.” Do you agree with this statement? Write a paragraph of 180-200 words to state your viewpoint. ............................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................. THE END Người ra đề: Trần Thị Ánh Nguyệt 0913310100

TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN HÙNG VƯƠNG – PHÚ THỌ ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT MÔN TIẾNG ANH KHỐI: 10 SECTION I: LISTENING (50/200) PART 1: (10 points) 1. KEIKO 2. JO6337 3. Advanced English Studies 4. 20 weeks 5. 4 months PART 2: (10 points) 6. C PART 3: (10 points) 11. F 12. T 13. F 14. F 15. F PART 4: (20 points) 16. funtime 17. 10/ten minutes 18. October 19. voice 20. confident 21. football/sports 22. singing 23. shoes

7. B

8. A

9. C

10. A

24. glasses 25. Time Dance

SECTION II: LEXICO – GRAMMAR (50/200) Part 1. Choose the best answer to each of the following questions. Write your answer in the numbered boxes. (20 points) 1.B 11.D

2.A 12.C

3.B 13.A

4.C 14.C

5.B 15.A

6.B 16.C

7.A 17.A

8.C 18.A

9.C 19.D

10.B 20.A

Part 2. Identify and correct 10 errors in the passage. Write your answer in the numbered boxes (10 points) 0. open → opened 1. line 2: up → on

6. line 10: Besides → However

2. line 3: for → although

7. line 11: fishseller → fishmonger

3. line 5: proficiency → efficiency

8. line 12: doing → making

4. line 7: rejected → objected

9. line 13: their → its

5. line 9: seller → shopper

10. line 15: ancient → new

Part 3. Fill in the blanks with proper prepositions or adverbial particles. Write your answer in the numbered boxes. (10 points) 1.by 2.of 3.under 4.up 5.out 6.for 7.forward 8.off 9.down 10.over Part 4. Fill in each blank with the most suitable form of the word in brackets. Write your answer in the numbered boxes. (10 points) 1. likened

2. botanists

3. molecular

4. revelation

5. extraordinary

6. evolutionary 7. comparable 8. unpleasant 9. pollinators 10. distances SECTION III: READING COMPREHENSION (50/200) Part 1: Read the passage below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap. Write your answer in the numbered boxes. (10 points) 1. A 2. C 3. D 4. A 5. B

6. D 7. C 8. B 9. B 10. B Part 2. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word in each space. (15 points) 1.When 2.produced 3.before 4.heart 5.However 6.have 7.certain 8.in 9.look 10.situations Part 3. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer A, B, C or D. Write your answer in the space provided. (10 points) 1.B 2.B 3.D 4.A 5.C 6.D 7.C 8.D 9.A 10.C Part 4. The reading passage below has SIX paragraphs, A-F. Reading the passage and do the tasks below. (15 points) 1.D 2.C 3.E 4.A 5. biggest 6. An agent/ a registered agent 7. long dominated 8. NG 9. T 10.F SECTION IV: WRITING (50/200) Part 1. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it. (10 points) 1. Weather permitting, we may go camping at the weekend. 2. Brenda has fallen out with her next-door neighbor. 3. Jane could have given us a lift/ taken us in her car. 4. Little did Tim know what he was letting himself in for. 5. The plain clothes policeman’s real identity was given away by his boots. Part 2. Rewrite the following sentences with the given word. The given words can’t be changed. (10 points) 1. These rainy Monday mornings get me down. 2. You have hit the nail on the head. 3. He held / stood his ground against his adversary. 4. Since she met that boy, she’s been wrapped in him. 5. My husband will go through/ hit the roof when I tell him. Part 3. Writing a paragraph. (30 points) “Teenagers should have part-time jobs in preparation for their future.”

Do you agree with this statement? Write a paragraph of 180-200 words to state your viewpoint.

TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN HƯNG YÊN

KÌ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI KHU VỰC MỞ RỘNG

LẦN THỨ XI - NĂM HỌC 2017- 2018

ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT

MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 10 (Thời gian làm bài 180 phút không kể thời gian giao đề) I: LISTENING (50 points) Part 1. You are going to listen to Peter and Jim discuss about the lease for the next year. While you listen, complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.You are going to listen twice.(10 points)

PLAN FOR SHARING ACCOMMODATION The total rent:

Peter £110 & Jim £ 80

Car parking:

In the garage

A place to buy things:

(1)___________, because Jim works there.

The fees they should share :

(2)__________fees

The appliances needed: • The landlord will provide the microwave • The (3) ___________is needed in the kitchen. • Peter will bring some dining room and living room furniture. • Jim will buy a (4)___________at the store. Location of the telephone: in the kitchen Move-in date:

June, 1st

Time of the game to watch together: (5)___________ Your answers:

Part 2. You will hear an interview with a man called Grant Sowerby, who is about to go on a trip into outer space. For questions 6-10, choose the best answer A, B or C which fits best according to what you hear. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.You are going to listen twice. (10 points) 6. What is Grant most looking forward to on his flight? A. taking off from Earth B. seeing the Earth from space C. leaving the Earth’s atmosphere 7. When asked if he is scared, Grant A. denies this strongly. B. insists that he’s overcome his fear. C. suggests that this is a normal thing to feel. 8. What will Grant be responsible for during the flight? A. preparing for unexpected landing B. operating some of the controls C. helping the crew members so as they have more free time 9. Grant feels that the term “space tourism” A. gives people the wrong idea about what he’s doing. B. makes what he’s doing sound attractive to people. C. leads people to doubt whether he’s really going. 10. Grant thinks that in the future, A. many people will be able to afford space flights. B. more companies will be organizing space trips. C. most spaceflights will take paying passengers. Your answers: 6.

10.

Part 3. Listen to a speech about life conditions in the past and decide whether the following statements are TRUE (T) or FALSE (F). Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.You are going to listen twice. (10 points) 11. Pleistocene epoch ended 2.6 million years ago. 12. During this period where the most recent ice ages took place, the global average temperatures were 5 to 10 degrees Celsius. 13. Homo Habilis could be called “handy man”. 14. Whooping cough is believed to be caused by hominids. 15. Since agriculture and human population arose, malaria had been spreading. Your answers: 11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

Part 4. You will hear a tour guide talking to a group of tourist in New York about a visit they will make to the Museum of Immigration on Ellis Island. For questions from 16 to 25, complete the sentences with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.You are going to listen twice.(20 points) Museum of Immigration Ellis Island was busiest between the year (16) __________and __________ The group of tourists will arrive at the museum by (17) __________ The first part of the the museum you go through used to be the (18) __________. In the Registry Room, immigrants had both (19) __________and __________. What’s called a(n) (20) __________ records the names of immigrants who passed through Ellis Island. Immigrants staying overnight on the island slept in the (21) __________. The movie you can see at the museum is called (22) __________. The play in the Theatre 2 features two (23) __________and one __________. Instead of the play, the tourists can visit the (24) __________. The Peopling of America exhibitions is in what used to be a(n) (25) __________. 3

Your answers: 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. II. LEXICO - GRAMMAR (50 points) Part 1: Choose one of the words marked A, B, C, or D which best completes the sentence. (20 points) 1. Many people were killed instantly at Hiroshima and Nagasaki, but thousands more died from________ radiation sickness. A. succeeding

B. following

C. subsequent

D. afterwards

2. Many students find it difficult to make____ meet on their small grants. A. ends

B. points

C. circles

D. edges

3. I am ______ to Mr. Morrison because of the knidness and concern that he showed me when I was at the airport. A. indebted

B. gratified

C. beholden

D. liable

4. He’s not very sensible as far as money________are concerned. A. points

B. aspects

C. objects

D. matters

5. The firm went bankrup and their shares became________ A. priceless

B. unworthy

6. She________$20 out of the bank every Monday. 4

C. invaluable

D. worthless

A. pulls

B. draws

C. extracts

D. takes

7. It’s often better to________safe in the exams than to give an original answer. A. act

B. perform

C. play

D. do

8. She was________for time in the exam and didn’t complete the questions. A. hurried

B. chased

C. hunted

D. rushed

9. The headmaster________the discipline problem in his school with growing concern. A. saw

B. looked

C. viewed

D. reflected

10. The________thought of exams makes her feel ill. A. sole

B. only

C. little

D. mere

11. The student’s hard work was________with success in his degree examination. A. rewarded

B. awarded

C. thanked

D. presented

12. The new experimental system didn’t________expectations. A. reach

B. come up to

C. rise to

D. touch

13. The pass________was fifty five percent of the candidates. A. number

B. amount

C. sum

D. rate

14. A computer is an ________ machine that can store, organize and find information, do calculations and control other machines A. electric

B. electrical

C. electricity

D. electronic

15. The villagers strongly recommend that a new school _____immediately. A. must be built

B. is going to be built C. be built

D. will be built

16. John: “Could you tell me how to get to the nearest post office?” Peter: “___________” A. Sorry for this inconvenience

B. I have no clue

C. Not at all

D. Sorry, I’m a new comer here

17. _________ , he doesn’t study well. A. As clever he is

B. He is as clever

C. Clever as he is

D. As he is clever

18. You look exhausted. You __________ in the garden all day. A. can’t have worked hard

B. couldn’t have worked hard

C. should have worked hard

D. must have worked hard

19. Let’s __________ the grammar one more time before the test. A. go over

B. go down with

C. go off

D. go back

20. ______incidents of Ebola virus outbreaks have been isolated incidents. 5

A. Most of

B. Mostly

C. The most

D. Most

Your answers: 1.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

Part 2: The passage below contains 10 mistakes. Identify the mistakes (IN LINE ORDER) and correct them in the space provided. (10 points) Line One of the most amazing marathon races in the world is marathon of the Sands. It 1 takes places every April in the Sahara Desert in the south of Morocco, a part of 2 the world when temperatures can reach fifty degree centigrade. The standard 3 length of the marathon is 42.5 kilometers but this one is 240 kilometers long and 4 spends seven days to complete. It began in 1986 and now attracts about two 5 hundred runners, the majority of their ages range from seventeen to forty-seven. 6 About half of them come from France and the rest to all over the world. From 7 Britain it costs £2,500 to enter, this includes return air fares. The race is rapid 8 getting more and more popular despite, and perhaps because of the harsh 9 condition that runners must endure. They have to carry food and something else 10 they need for seven days in rucksack weighing no more than twelve kilograms. In 11 addition to this, they are given a litre and a half of water every ten kilometer, 12 Incredibly, near all the runners finish the course. One man, Lbrahim EL Joual, 13 took part in every race from 1984 to 2004. Runners do suffer terrible physical 14 hardships. Sometimes they lose toenails and skin peels on their foot. However, 15 doctors are always on hand to deal with minor injuries and to make sure that 16 runners do not push themselves too far.

Your answers: Lines 6

Mistakes

Corrections

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. Part 3. Fill in each blank with a suitable preposition. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points) 1.The singer performance was so exciting that many of his fans were ____ enthusiasm. A. carried away with

B. moved to

C. taken back with

stirred

with 2. He was very upset when the boss passed him___ and promoted a newcomer to the assistant’s job. A. by

B. up

C. over

D. aside

3. Sorry, I can’t go to the movie with you. I’m________under with work at the moment. A. rained

B. flooded

C. stormed

D. snowed

4. She threatened to do herself _____when her husband ran away with her best friend. A. on

B. in

C. up

D. down

5. My shoulder is playing me_______today! I can’t do anything while it’s so painful. A. on

B. in

C. up

D. against

6. Donald Trump always inveigh _________immigrants in order to get votes. A. up on

B. into

C. against

D. towards

7. He managed to _______ the registration number of the car as it sped away. A. spot up

B. jot down

C. dot off

D. slot up

8. My parents had a lot of children, so sometimes there wasn’t enough food to_______. A. put on 7

B. fall back on

C. give out

D. go round

9. I wish you wouldn’t______ me about neglecting the housework. A. talk down to

B. have it out with

C. play down to

D. keep on at

C. club up on

D. fork up for

10. We need to _____ food before the strike. A. stock up on

B. knock up on

Your answers: 1.

10.

Part 4. Supply the correct form of the words in bracket. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points) When people enjoy whatever they are doing, they report some (0) characteristic (CHARACTER) feelings that distinguish the (1)______ (PLEASURE) moment from the rest of life. The same types of feelings are reported in the context of playing chess, climbing mountains, playing with babies, reading a book or writing a poem. They are the same for young and old, male and female, American or Japanese, rich or poor. In other words, the nature of enjoyment seems to be (2)_______(UNIVERSE). We call this state of (3) _______(COUNSCIOUS) a flow experience, because many people report that when what they are doing is (4)_______(SPECIAL) enjoyable, it feels like being carried away by a current, like being in a flow. At present, (5)__________ (LAMENT) few students would recognize the idea that learning can be like that. But if educators invested a fraction of the energy on (6)__________ (STIMULUS) the students’ enjoyment of learning that they now spend in trying to transmit information, we could achieve much better results. Once students’ (7) __________ (MOTIVATE) is engaged, once they can be (8)_______________(POWER) to take control of their own learning and provided with clear (9) __________(FEED) on their efforts, then they are on their way to a lifetime of self-propelled (10) __________ACQUIRE) of knowledge. Your answers:

10.

III: READING (50 points) Part 1: Read the text below and decide which answer best fits each space. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points) Incentives play an important role in our decisions to learn. As we get older, the outcomes of (1)_______ in learning may not be the same a when we were younger. For example, we are less likely to be (2) ______ as a result of training. The type of work-related training or learning we do also changes as we get older. Worker over 45 years old are more likely to participate in learning (3)______that relate directly to their function So they may choose to (4)_____ those technical skills directly related to their work. By contrast, young workers are more (5)_____to participate in training that is an investment in their future careers. Organizations also want to continually (6)_____ their skills base. Recently, business has (7)____ this largely though a steady inflow of newly- (8)_____ young people onto the labor (9) _____. Traditionally, we have had a mix of those young people who bring new formal skills to the workplace, and a small proportion of older workers who (10)_____ their experience. What we are seeing now is a decreasing proportion of young people entering the workforce and an increase in the proportion of older people. So, unless we change he nature of our education and learning across life, we will see a decline in formal skills in the working population. 1. A. participation

B. contribution

C. attendance

D. activity

2. A. raised

B. promoted

C. advanced

D. upgraded

3. A. actions

B. activities

C. acts

D. modules

4. A. relearn

B. promote

C. restore

D. upgrade

5. A. probable

B. likely

C. possible

D. liable

6. A. restart

B. renovate

C. restore

D. renew

7. A. affected

B. fulfilled

C. achieved

D. succeeded

8. A. educated

B. taught

C. qualified

D. graduated

9. A. workforce

B. employment

C. staff

D. market

10. A. donate

B. supply

C. contribute

D. sell

Your answers: 1. 6.

2. 7.

3. 8.

4. 9.

5. 10.

Part 2: Fill in each blank space with an appropriate word. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (15 points) As time (1)______, the power of newspaper seems to be on the (2)______. This is odd because in the relatively recent past, people were predicting that the influence of the written word would diminish in direct proportion to the rate of increase of the spoken word and moving image through TV and video. As people whole-heartedly embrace the Internet and cable and satellite (3)______, why don’t we see newspapers (4)_______ out? How have these organs survived, let (5)_______ flourished, particularly on a Sunday? Why don’t people (6)_______ have watched a football match live on the small screen press the wisdom of rushing out the next (7) ______ to read a potted version of it in four or five columns? Why would anyone who has seen a film and formed a (8)_______ impression of it the following day read the review of the self-same film in a newspaper? To see if s/he is right? Isn’t that what friends are for? Don’t we have colleagues for just that purpose – to see if our ideas (9)_______ any given song, film or program tally with others? What is this product that (10) ______ of not much more than outrageous headlines, wayward comment, subjective editorials and hyperbolic sports pages still doing in our lives? It seems for the time being to be leading a charmed life. When it finally goes, though, many may come to mourn its passing. Your answers: 1. 6.

2. 7.

3. 8.

4. 9.

5. 10.

Part 3: Read the passage and choose the best answer for each of the following questions. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points) ENERGY FROM THE WAVES 10

The quest for sustainable sources of energy has led humans to study the energy potential of the sun and the wind, as well as the immense power created by dammed rivers. The oceans, too, represent an impressive source of potential energy. For example, it has been estimated that the oceans could provide nearly 3,000 times the energy generated by hydroelectric dams such as the Hoover Dam. Yet. this source remains quite difficult to exploit. But this challenge has not prevented scientists from trying. Within the last few decades, several technologies that can transform the ocean’s immense forces into usable electricity have been invented and introduced. Some focus on capturing the power of the changing tides, while others rely on thermal energy created by oceans in certain tropical regions. However, the most common and easiest-to-develop technologies are those designed to harness the power inherent in the ocean’s waves. There are several methods by which ocean-wave energy can be collected. All of them work because the movement of the water that the waves induce creates storable energy by directly or indirectly driving a power generator. In one such technology, the changing water levels in the ocean that are produced by waves lift a long floating tube comprised of many sections connected by hinges. As the sections move up and down with the water, they pump a special fluid through the tube that can be used to drive a generator. Another technique works on a similar principle, only the floating object rocks back and forth with the motion of the water instead of up and down. A third method of collecting wave energy relies on the rising water from the waves to compress air in a partially submerged chamber. As the waves rush into the chamber, they push the air out through a narrow tunnel. Located inside this tunnel is a turbine connected to a power generator. The movement of the air turns the turbine, which feeds energy into the generator. The drawback to each of these concepts is that they make it necessary to have many pieces of machinery linked together. [B] This presents a problem because the larger the device, the more vulnerable it is to damage from hazardous ocean environments, and the more likely it is to interfere with otherwise unspoiled coastal scenery. [C] Also, these 11

methods demand the construction of site- specific machines that take into consideration average local wave heights and sea conditions. [D] In other words, the ability to get power from waves differs from region to region. Japan, Norway, and the UK have all attempted to generate energy by capturing the power of ocean waves. In northern Scotland, the first power plant to use wave power, OSPREY (Ocean Swell Powered Renewable Energy), began operating in 1995. It followed the principle of the third method described above: waves entering a partially submerged chamber pushed air into turbines ; to generate electricity. The electricity was then transmitted to power collectors on the shore via underwater cables. Unfortunately, the OSPREY plant was destroyed in a large storm, highlighting an unavoidable difficulty associated with this kind of power generation. The potential benefits of wave-based energy are hard to ignore. Once the proper machinery is produced and installed, the energy is free. Maintenance costs are small, and the equipment does not pose any threats of environmental pollution. And best of all, the amounts of energy produced are enormous. However, these theoretical advantages have yet to be fully realized. In many cases, a lack of government funding has inhibited the technologies from advancing. For example, despite the relative abundance of proposed wave-power devices, many have not been adequately tested, and most have been evaluated only in artificial pools where they are not subjected to the harsh marine conditions that exist in actual oceans. Protecting the equipment from the sea’s destructive forces, as well as the fundamental task of determining feasible locations for collecting energy, also present formidable challenges. All in all, while ocean power offers some intriguing possibilities, the difficulties involved in harnessing this energy source are substantial and will require more time to overcome 1. The phrase this source in the passage refers to A. sun

B. wind

C. dammed rivers

D. oceans

2. The word exploit in the passage is closest in meaning to A. utilize

B. declare

C. contain

3. Why does the author mention the Hoover Dam in paragraph 1?

D. determine

A.To give a current example of ocean-based energy technology B.To explain that dams are effective producers of sustainable energy C.To draw a comparison between two sources of renewable energy D.To show that alternative energy sources have not been successful 4. In paragraph 2, the author states that A.waves do not represent the only form of ocean power B.tropical oceans produce the greatest amount of energy C.scientists first attempted to collect power from ocean tides D. most of the electricity created by oceans is not usable 5. The word induce in the passage is closest in meaning to A. cause

B. define

C. order

D. monitor

6. According to paragraph 3, which of the following is true about wave-power technologies? A. Many of them use submerged objects to obtain the waves’ energy. B. Compressed air must be present for them to work properly. C. They undertake three steps in order to collect wave power. D. They rely on the water’s motion to create electricity. 7. According to paragraph 5, what part did the cables play in OSPREY’s design? A. They attached the partially submerged chamber to the sea floor. B. They generated the electricity which was then collected in turbines. C. They conducted the electricity from the generator to the shore. D. They provided stability during powerful ocean storms. 8. The word inhibited in the passage is closest in meaning to A. delivered

B. prevented

C. protected

D. approved

9. What can be inferred from paragraph 7 about governments? A. They do not believe wave-energy devices can withstand ocean forces. B. Their interests often conflict with those of the energy industries. C. They demand much scientific research before they provide funding. D. Their support is often essential to the success of new endeavors. 10. All of these are problems associated with the collection of wave energy EXCEPT A. the difficulty of finding feasible locations

B. the destructive power of the ocean

C. the size of the equipment involved

D. the constant changing of the tides

Your answers: 1.

10.

Part 4: (15 points) Questions 1-6. The text on the following pages has six paragraphs, A-F. Choose the correct heading for each paragraph from the list of headings (i-ix) below. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.

i. Tackling the issue using a different approach ii. A significant improvement on last time iii. How robots can save human lives iv. Examples of robots at work v. Not what it seemed to be vi. Why timescales are impossible to predict vii. The reason why robots rarely move viii. Following the pattern of an earlier development ix. The ethical issues of robotics

1. Paragraph A:_______ 2. Paragraph B: _______ 3. Paragraph C: _______ 4. Paragraph D: _______ 5. Paragraph E: _______ 6. Paragraph F: _______ Your answers: 1.

DAWN OF THE ROBOTS 14

They're already here - driving cars, vacuuming carpets and feeding hospital patients. They may not be walking, talking, human-like sentient beings, but they are clever and ….a little creepy. A.

At first sight it looked like a typical suburban road accident. A Land Rover approached

a Chevy Tahoe estate car that had stopped at a kerb; the Land Rover pulled out and tried to pass the Tahoe just as it started off again. There was a crack of fenders and the sound of paintwork being scraped, the kind of minor mishap that occurs on roads thousands of times every day. Normally drivers get out, gesticulate, exchange insurance details and then drive off. But not on this occasion. No one got out of the cars for the simple reason that they had no humans inside them; the Tahoe and Land Rover were being controlled by computers competing in November’s DARPA (the US Defense Advanced Research Project Agency) Urban Challenge. B.

The idea that machines could perform to such standards is startling. Driving is a

complex task that takes humans a long time to perfect. Yet here, each car had its on-board computer loaded with a digital map and route plans, and was instructed to negotiate busy roads; differentiate between pedestrians and stationary objects; determine whether other vehicles were parked or moving off; and handle various parking maneuvers, which robots turn out to be unexpectedly adept at. Even more striking was the fact that the collision between the robot Land Rover, built by researchers at the Massachusetts Institute of Technology, and the Tahoe, fitted out by Cornell University Artificial Intelligence (AI) experts, was the only scrape in the entire competition. Yet only three years earlier, at DARPA's previous driverless car race, every robot competitor - directed to navigate across a stretch of open desert - either crashed or seized up before getting near the finishing line. C.

It is a remarkable transition that has clear implications for the car of the future. More

importantly, it demonstrates how robotics sciences and Artificial Intelligence have progressed in the past few years - a point stressed by Bill Gates, the Microsoft boss who is a convert to these causes. 'The robotics industry is developing in much the same way the computer business did 30 years ago,' he argues. As he points out, electronics companies make toys that mimic pets and children with increasing sophistication. 'I can envision a future in which robotic devices will become a nearly ubiquitous part of our day-to-day lives,' says Gates. 'We 15

may be on the verge of a new era, when PC will get up off the desktop and allow us to see, hear, touch and manipulate objects in places where we are not physically present.' D. What is the potential for robots and computers in the near future? 'The fact is we still have a way to go before real robots catch up with their science fiction counterparts', Gates says. So what are the stumbling blocks? One key difficulty is getting robots to know their place. This has nothing to do with class or etiquette, but concerns the simple issue of positioning. Humans orient themselves with other objects in a room very easily. Robots find the task almost impossible. 'Even something as simple as telling the difference between an open door and a window can be tricky for a robot,' says Gates. This has, until recently, reduced robots to fairly static and cumbersome roles. E.

For a long time, researchers tried to get round the problem by attempting to re-create

the visual processing that goes on in the human cortex. However, that challenge has proved to be singularly exacting and complex. So scientists have turned to simpler alternatives: 'We have become far more pragmatic in our work,' says Nello Cristianini, Professor of Artificial Intelligence at the University of Bristol in England and associate editor of the Journal of Artificial Intelligence Research. 'We are no longer trying to re-create human functions. Instead, we are looking for simpler solutions with basic electronic sensors, for example. This approach is exemplified by vacuuming robots such as the Electrolux Trilobite. The Trilobite scuttles around homes emitting ultrasound signals to create maps of rooms, which are remembered for future cleaning. Technology like this is now changing the face of robotics, says philosopher Ron Chrisley, director of the Centre for Research in Cognitive Science at the University of Sussex in England. F.

Last year, a new Hong Kong restaurant, Robot Kitchen, opened with a couple of

sensor-laden humanoid machines directing customers to their seats. Each possesses a touchscreen on which orders can be keyed in. The robot then returns with the correct dishes. In Japan, University of Tokyo researchers recently unveiled a kitchen 'android' that could wash dishes, pour tea and make a few limited meals. The ultimate aim is to provide robot home helpers for the sick and the elderly, a key concern in a country like Japan where 22 per cent of the population is 65 or older. Over US$1 billion a year is spent on research into robots that will be able to care for the elderly. Robots first learn basic competence - how to move around a house without bumping into things. Then we can think about teaching them how to interact 16

with humans,' Chrisley said. Machines such as these take researchers into the field of socialized robotics: how to make robots act in a way that does not scare or offend individuals. 'We need to study how robots should approach people, how they should appear. That is going to be a key area for future research,' adds Chrisles. Questions 7-10: Complete the notes below. Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text for each answer. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. Robot features DARPA race cars:

(7)________provides maps and plans for route

In some robots:

(8)_________provide simpler solution for the issue of positioning

Electrolux Trilobite:

builds an image of a room by sending out (9) _______

Robot Kitchen humanoids: have a (10)________to take orders Your answers: 7. 8. 9. 10.

V. WRITING (50 points) Part 1. Rewrite each of the following sentences in such a way that it has the same meaning as the printed above sentence. (10 points) 1. He never thought of telling her. It never_________________________________________________ 2. The students’ riotous behaviour should have been severely punished. The students deserved______________________________________ 3. He suddenly thought that he might have misunderstood her. It crossed_________________________________________________ 4. If we wait long enough, we’ll get what we want. It’s just___________________________________________________ 5. I was not surprised to hear that Harry had failed his driving test. 17

It came___________________________________________________ Part 2. Rewrite the following sentences with the given words in such a way that the second sentence has the same meaning as the first one. Do not change the form of the word in brackets. (10 points) 1.Having to get up so early is so irritating.

(NECK)

____________________________________________________ 2. It’s likely they were delayed in a traffic jam. __________________________________________________

(UP)

3. My dad is not happy with me at all because he heard me swearing. (BOOKS) ____________________________________________________ 4. We can’t possibly imagine how we are going to afford a new car.

(REMOTEST)

____________________________________________________ 5. There don’t seem to be many talented athletes at the moment.

(PAUCITY)

____________________________________________________ Part 3: Write an essay on the following topic “Nowadays the way many people interact with each other has changed because of technology. In what ways has technology affected the types of relationships people make? Has this become a positive or negative development” . Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or experience. You should write about 200 to 250 words. (30 points) ………………………………………………………………………………………………. ………………………………………………………………………………………………. ………………………………………………………………………………………………. ………………………………………………………………………………………………. ………………………………………………………………………………………………. ………………………………………………………………………………………………. ………………………………………………………………………………………………. ………………………………………………………………………………………………. ………………………………………………………………………………………………. ………………………………………………………………………………………………. 18

………………………………………………………………………………………………. ………………………………………………………………………………………………. ………………………………………………………………………………………………. ………………………………………………………………………………………………. ………………………………………………………………………………………………. ………………………………………………………………………………………………. ………………………………………………………………………………………………. ………………………………………………………………………………………………. ………………………………………………………………………………………………. ………………………………………………………………………………………………. ………………………………………………………………………………………………. ………………………………………………………………………………………………. ………………………………………………………………………………………………. ………………………………………………………………………………………………. ………………………………………………………………………………………………. ………………………………………………………………………………………………. ………………………………………………………………………………………………. ………………………………………………………………………………………………. ………………………………………………………………………………………………. ………………………………………………………………………………………………. ………………………………………………………………………………………………. ………………………………………………………………………………………………. ………………………………………………………………………………………………. ………………………………………………………………………………………………. ………………………………………………………………………………………………. ………………………………………………………………………………………………. ………………………………………………………………………………………………. ………………………………………………………………………………………………. THE END Người ra đề 19

Nguyễn Kim Đức 0904304030

HỘI CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN VÙNG

ĐÁP ÁN VÀ HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM MÔN TIẾNG ANH KHỐI 10

DUYÊN HẢI VÀ ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ

LẦN THỨ XI (NĂM HỌC 2017- 2018)

TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN HƯNG YÊN ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT

I: LISTENING (50 Points) Part 1: Question 1-5 (10 points – 2.0 points/correct answer) 1. supermarket

2. petrol

3. space heater

4. toaster

5. Friday night/ evening

Part 2: Question 1-5 (10 points – 2.0 points/correct answer) 6. A

7. C

8. B

9. A

10. B

Part 3: Question 1-5 (10 points – 2.0 points/correct answer) 11. F

12. F

13. T

14. F

15. T

Part 4: Question 1-10 (20 points – 2.0 points/correct answer) 16.1897,1924 17. ferry 18. Baggage Room 19. interviews/medical check-ups 20. Wall of Honor 21. Bunk Room 22. Hope and Fears 23. immigrants, immigration officer 24. Oral History Library 25. ticket office II. LEXICO - GRAMMAR (50 points) Part 1: Question 1-20 (20 points – 1.0 point/correct answer) 1.C 11.A

2.A 12.B

3.A 13.D

4.D 14.D

5.D 15.C

6.B 16.D

7.C 17.C

8.D 18.D

9.C 19.A

10.D 20.D

Part 2: Question 1-10 (10 points – 1.0 point/correct answer) 1. Line 2: Places -> place

6. Line 8: this -> which

2. Line 3: when -> where

7. Line 8: rapid -> rapidly

3. Line 4: spends -> takes

8. Line 10: something -> anything

4. Line 6: their -> whose

9. Line 12: near -> nearly

5. Line 7: to -> from

10. Line 15: foot -> feet

Part 3: Question 1-10 (10 points – 1.0 point/correct answer) 1. A

2. C

3. D

4. B

5. C

6. C

7. B

8. D

9. D

10. A

Part 4: Question 1-10 (10 points – 1.0 point/correct answer) 1.pleasurable

2.universal

3.consciousness

4.especially

5.lamentably

6.stimulating

7.motivation

8.empowered

9.feedback

10.acquisition

III. READING COMPREHENSION (50 points) Part 1: Question 1-10 (10 points – 1 point/correct answer) 1.A

2.B

3.B

4.D

5.B

6.D

7.C

8.C

9.D

10.C

Part 2: Question 1-10 (15 points – 1.5 points/correct answer) 1. passes/

2. increase/

flies

rise

6. who

7. day

3. television

4. dying

5. alone

8. vivid

9. on

10. consists

Part 3: Question 1-10 (10 points – 1 point/correct answer) 1.D

2.A

3.C

4.A

5.A

6.D

7.C

8.B

9.D

10.D

Part 4: Question 1-10 (15 points – 1.5 points/correct answer) 1. V

viii

7. on-board computer 2

vii

8. basic electronic sensors 9. ultrasound signals 10. touch-screen IV: WRITING (50 points) Part 1: Question 1-5 (10 points – 2 points/correct answer) 1. It never occured to him to tell her. 2. The students deserved severe punishment for their riotous behaviour. 3. It crossed his mind that he might have misunderstood her. 4. It’s just a question/matter of waiting long enough to get what we want. 5. It came as no surprise (to me) that Harry had failed his driving test. Part 2: Question 1-5 (10 points – 2 points/correct answer) 1. Having to get up early is a pain in the neck. 2.It’s likely they were held up in a traffic jam./ They might have been held up in a traffic jam. 3. I’m not in my dad’s good books/ I’m in my dad’s bad books. 4.We haven’t/ don’t have the remotest idea how we are going to afford a new car. 5. We seem to be suffering from a paucity of talented athletes at the moment. Part 3: Paragraph writing (30 points) 1. Convincing ideas: 6 points 2. Good organization: 6 points 3. Logical cohesion: 6 points 4. Accurate grammar and spelling: 6 points 5. Wide range of vocabulary and clear expression: 6 points Người ra đáp án Nguyễn Kim Đức 3

0904304030 TRANSCRIPTS OF LISTENING Part 1

Part 3

Part 4

SỞ GD&ĐT LÀO CAI

ĐỀ THI OLYMPIC KHU VỰC DHBB

TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN LÀO CAI

NĂM HỌC 2017 - 2018 Môn: Tiếng anh – lớp 10

(Đề thi đề xuất)

(Thời gian: 180 phút – không kể thời gian giao đề)

A. LISTENING (50 points): HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU • Bài nghe gồm 4 phần, mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, mở đầu và kết thúc mỗi phần nghe có tín hiệu. • Mở đầu và kết thúc phần nghe có tín hiệu nhạc. • Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe. Part 1: You will hear a customer phoning a company representative to complain about her new purchase. For questions 1-5, complete the instruction page. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR NUMBERS for each answer. Instruction Manual for Example: Electric motorcycle Model Number: 1._____________ The motorcycle should travel 2. _____________ km, provided that the battery is charged for 3. _____________ when the gauge falls below 4. _____________ volts. The battery weighs 5. _____________kg, so care is needed when removing it for charging. Your answers: 1.

Part 2: You will hear a radio interview with a woman called Kay Stanley who is talking about a condition called dyslexia. For questions 6 -10, choose the best answer A, B or C. 6. How did Kay’s parents first realize she had dyslexia? A. She didn’t know stories that other children could read. B. Her mother found her memorizing audio books. C. She couldn’t spell words that other children knew. 7. What was Kay told by an expert on dyslexia? A. She has a milder form of the condition. B. She will be able to overcome her problems by reading. C. Spelling will always be a particular problem for her. 8. How does dyslexia affect the way people think? A. It can make people think more creatively. B. It prevents them from solving problems effectively. C. It makes it harder for them to follow logic. 9. What made Kay work hard to improve her reading? A. It was the only way she could study acting. B. She didn’t want people to think she was stupid. C. Her father encouraged her. 10. How does Kay want to publicise the problem of dyslexia? A. by acting in a film about the subject. B. by giving talks to parents of dyslexic children. C. by setting a positive example. 2

Your answers: 6.

10.

Part 3: You will hear part of a radio interview with a law student called Mark Stone, talking about his life at university. For questions 11-15, decide whether the following statements are true (T) or false (F). 11. _______ Mark decided to study at Gramwell University because it offers a very good course in his subject. 12. _______ When Mark arrived at Gramwell, he was surprised by the architecture. 13. _______ Mark got a part-time job because he had to cover the cost of his accommodation. 14. _______ According to Mark, his lecturers like to communicate with students. 15. _______ In terms of social life, Mark worries about wasting time. Your answers: 11.

12.

13.

14.

Part 4: You will hear a man called Tom Bothman giving a talk about newspaper journalism. For questions 16-25, complete sentences with a word or short phrase. Journalism Tom mentions business, news, sport and 16. _____________ as examples of what journalists write about. Many journalists have a degree in journalism, though Tom took his in 17. _____________. Tom says it’s important to gain a certificate in reporting, carrying out 18. _____________ and editing. 3

When applying for a job, Tom says you need to show a selection of 19. _____________ you’ve written. Tom got experience of writing by working as a 20. _____________ on a student magazine. Tom says journalists must have good communication 21. _____________ skills, in addition to personal characteristics such as motivation. Tom was able to demonstrate to employers his experience of 22. _____________. As a junior reporter, Tom was pleased to attend 23. _____________ as well as other local events. In Tom’s present job, he has a range of responsibilities and most enjoys doing 24. _____________. Tom is currently exploring the idea of working as a 25. _____________ on the paper. Your answers: 16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (50 points): Part 1: Part 1: Choose the word/ phrase that best completes each of the following sentences. Write your answer in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 pts) 1. By 2020 this city _____________ in size. A. will have doubled

B. will be doubling

C. will double

D. is going to double

2. Even though she was new to the company her ideas were _____________ into the plan. A. included

B. induced

C. incorporated

D. indebted

3. Some journalists _____________the truth in order to make their story more interesting. 4

A. distend

B. disarray

C. distort

D. dissuade

4. Her _____________ makes her a lot of fun to be with. A. excitement

B. exuberance

C. exasperation

D. enticement

5. Daisy and Tim are talking with each other. -Tim: “Do you mind if I smoke?”

-Daisy: “I’d rather _____________.”

A. you didn’t

C. you wouldn’t

B. you don’t

D. you hadn’t

6.You look _____________ after all that hard work. A. taken out

B. turned out

C. worn out

D. broken out

7. My best friend was offered the job on the _____________ that she was well-qualified. A. grants

B. reasons

C. causes

D. grounds

8. Many young people are forced to _____________ themselves. A. fend for

B. look for

C. feed for

D. rely for

9. Playing squash is a good way to let off_____________. A. smoke

B. temper

C. moisture

D. steam

10. It was imperative that the letter be _____________ by 5 o’clock in order to arrive early the next morning. A. dispatched

B. dispensed

C. dispersed

D. dispelled

11. Of course, you have a chance of getting the scholarship. I think you should _____________. A. go for it

B. go with it

C. go along with it

D. get with it

12.The team was _____________on winning the gold medal. A. determined

B. intent

C. intense

D. resolute

13.He _____________ to help me achieve my goal, for which I was very grateful. 5

A. endeavoured

B. endeared

C. engaged

D. enchanted

14. I really don’t think he’s got the _____________ to complete the marathon; he’s sure to give up before the end. A. flair

B. stamina

C. suppleness

D. speed

15. The rock star’s fans were full of _____________ for him. A. adulation

B. glorification

C. elation

D. worship

16. She wanted to _____________ her interest in microbiology. A. pursue

B. strive for

C. stalk

D. persist in

17. The country around here is so _____________ that you can only get around in a jeep. A. jagged

B. weathered

C. severe

D. rugged

18. His outburst was not _____________ with his normally placid nature. A. consistent

B. constant

C. concise

D. conclusive

19. The prisoner was _____________ to hours of questioning. A. subdued

B. subjected

C. objected

D. submerged

20. Bella and Justin are chatting with each other. -Bella: “I don’t think Eric’s coming over after all.” – Justin: “Well, if I_____________, I think his car has just turned into the driveway.” A. am not mistaken

B. don’t mistake

C. am not mistaking

D. haven’t mistaken

Your answers: 1.

10. 6

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

Part 2. Read the passage below which contains 10 mistakes. Identify the mistakes and write the corrections in the corresponding numbered boxes. Russia election: Vladimir Putin wins by big margin line 1

Vladimir Putin will lead Russia for other six years, after securing an

line 2

expected victory in Sunday's president election.

line 3

Mr Putin, who has ruled the country as neither president or prime minister

line 4

since 1999, got more than 76% of the vote, official results shows. The main

line 5

opposition leader, Alexei Navalny, was barred from the race. Addressed a

line 6

rally in Moscow, Mr Putin said voters had "recognised the achievements of

line 7

the last few years".

line 8

Speaking to reporters after the results announced, he laughed at a question

line 8

about running again in another six years. "What you are saying is a bit

line 10

funny. Do you think that I will stay here until I'm 100 years old? No!" he

line 11

said. The scale of victory - which had been widely predicted - appears to be

line 12

a markedly increase in his share of the vote from 2012, when he won 64%.

line 13

Mr Putin's nearest competitor, millionaire communist Pavel Grudinin,

line 14

received about 12%. The race also included Ksenia Sobchak, a formal

line 15

reality TV host, and veteran nationalist Vladimir Zhirinovsky - they got

line 16

less than 2% and about 6% respectedly. Mr Putin's campaign team said it

line 17

was an "incredible victory". "The percentage that we have just seen speaks

line 18

for itself. It's a mandate which Putin needs for future decisions, and he has

line 19

a lot of them to do," a spokesman told Russia's Interfax. (Adapted from http://www.bbc.com/news/world-europe-43452449) 7

Line Example 1

Mistake other

Correction another

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. Part 3. Complete each sentence with one suitable particle or preposition. Write your answer in the box provided. 1. Inadvertently perhaps, the BiE report lets the cat _______ _______ the bag. 2.

People associate the

old

days

__________

good

times,

and

seem

to forget the hardship they endured. 3. The selection board interviewed him and rejected his application ________ further ado. 4. The government is determined to crack _______ ________ terrorism. 5.

Some

lay eggs among

the stones,

so camouflaged you

would mistake

them

____ the rocks themselves. 6. How did you manage to sleep _________ that thunderstorm? 7. I haven’t got___________ _______unpacking from my holiday yet. 8. Somebody had come in and ripped _________ the TV and stereo. 9. People thought that the use of robots would do________ ________ boring low-paid factory jobs. 10. He bravely went ________ ________ the wedding ceremony even though he was in a lot of pain. Your answers: 8

10.

Part 4. Write the correct form of the words given in the brackets. Write your answers in the spaces provided below. Facebook data - as scandalous as MPs’ expenses? The gathering storm over how millions of Facebook profiles were 0. (APPARENT) _apparently_ exploited for political purposes raises all sorts of questions about how our data is used. For Stephanie Hare, a tech expert who has worked in the data field, the Cambridge Analytica story raises big questions over a lack of 1. (ACCOUNT)__________: "What is really striking here is the absence of any 2. (SIGHT)__________. " Nobody, she points out - not the social network, nor the data company or the academic researcher - seems to have thought that it was their job to ask if data had been 3.(PROPER) __________shared, and if so to ensure it was deleted. Much has been made of the fact that users who sign up to the kind of 4.(PERSONAL) __________quiz used in this case have to explicitly give permission for their data to be accessed. But Stephanie Hare says it is 5. (FAIR) ___________ to put the burden on people with busy lives to read through the fine print. And she feels that Facebook's 6.(SET)__________should be set to maximise 7. (PRIVATE)__________by default. "It's our jobs as 8. (TECHNOLOGY)___________to design systems that are safe," she says. "I don't get on an aeroplane as a passenger and make my own safety checks." I spent this morning giving a talk at a school in South Wales about the power of social media platforms to spread fake news. I took some time to explain just how much power Facebook puts in the hands of 9. (ADVERTISE)__________- and political parties - to target their messages very precisely at, say, 15-25 year olds in Pontypridd who like motor racing. 9

My audience, all keen 10. (USE)__________ of social media, seemed surprised to learn that Facebook owned Instagram and WhatsApp, and Google owned YouTube, meaning that just two giant companies could exert huge influence over the information they received and how they thought. (Adapted from http://www.bbc.com/news/technology-43458110) Your answers: 1.

10.

C. READING (50 points) Part 1. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap. Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. Colour sense ICI colour consultant Jack Widgery painted one police interview room light green, and another strong red. Subsequently, the police found that suspects 1.________statements more quickly when they were in the red room, again enforcing the idea that too much red 2._________a feeling of being pressurized. The soft green was for interviewing victims and their families, and there are many 3._________of light colours being used to 4._________ feelings and encourage relaxation. Some institutions in the USA have special pink areas to cool the 5._______of angry prisoners, service recruits and patients. Soft blues, greens and beiges seem to be 6._________and hospitals, schools and dentists are beginning to take this into 7.________ when choosing colour schemes. An airline which changed from a yellow and brown interior scheme to one of green and blue reported a forty-five percent decrease in airsickness. But the workplace is the biggest challenge: neither too much nor too 8.________ energy will do. The

9._______fashion for grey with a few details in brighter colours may be a good 10._________. 1. A. gave

B. said

C. admitted

D. spoke

2. A. makes

B. leads

C. has

D. creates

3. A. ways

B. occasions

C. examples

D. demonstrations

4. A. play up

B. play down

C. run up

D. run down

5. A. tempers

B. moods

C. personalities

D. senses

6. A. sleepy

B. leisurely

C. tiring

D. restful

7. A. view

B. mind

C. account

D. opinion

8. A. few

B. small

C. little

D. low

9. A. current

B. nowadays

C. actual

D. instant

10. A. result

B. system

C. solution

D. way

Your answers: 1.

10.

Part 2. Read the following text and fill in the blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. The origin of language The truth (0).___is __ nobody really knows how the language first began. Did we all start talking at around the same time 1._______ of the manner in which our brains had begun to develop? Although there is a lack of clear evidence, people have come up with various theories about the origins of language. One recent theory is that human beings have evolved in 2._______ a way that we are programmed for language from the moment of birth. In 3.________ words, language came about as a result of an evolutionary change in our brains at some stage. 11

Language 4._________ well be programmed into the brain but, 5._________ this, people still need stimulus from others around them. From studies, we know that 6. ________ children are isolated 7.________ human contact and have not learnt to construct sentences before they are ten, it is doubtful they will ever do 8._________. This research shows, if 9. __________ else, that language is a social activity, not something invented 10._________isolation. Your answers: 1.

10.

Part 3. Read the following passage and circle the best answer to each of the following questions. Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. The Moon has been worshipped by primitive peoples and has inspired humans to create everything from lunar calendars to love sonnets, but what do we really know about it? The most accepted theory about the origin of the Moon is that it was formed of the debris from a massive collision with the young Earth about 4.6 billion years ago. A huge body, perhaps the size of Mars, struck the Earth, throwing out an immense amount of debris that coalesced and cooled in orbit around the Earth. The development of Earth is inextricably linked to the moon; the Moon’s gravitational influence upon the Earth is the primary cause of ocean tides. In fact, the Moon has more than twice the effect upon the tides than does the Sun. The Moon makes one rotation and completes a revolution around the Earth every 27 days, 7 hours, and 43 minutes. This synchronous rotation is caused by an uneven distribution of mass in the Moon (essentially, it is heavier on one side than the other) and has allowed the Earth’s gravity to keep one side of the Moon permanently facing Earth. It is an average distance from Earth of 384,403 km. 12

The Moon has no atmosphere; without an atmosphere, the Moon has nothing to protect it from meteorite impacts, and thus the surface of the Moon is covered with impact craters, both large and small. The Moon also has no active tectonic or volcanic activity, so the erosive effects of atmospheric weathering, tectonic shifts, and volcanic upheavals that tend to erase and reform the Earth’s surface features are not at work on the Moon. In fact, even tiny surface features such as the footprint left by an astronaut in the lunar soil are likely to last for millions of years, unless obliterated by a chance meteorite strike. The surface gravity of the Moon is about one-sixth that of the Earth’s. Therefore, a man weighing 82 kilograms on Earth would only weigh 14 kilograms on the Moon. The geographical features of the Earth most like that of the Moon are, in fact, places such as the Hawaiian volcanic craters and the huge meteor crater in Arizona. The climate of the Moon is very unlike either Hawaii or Arizona, however; in fact the temperature on the Moon ranges between 123 degrees C. to –233 degrees C. 1.What is the passage primarily about? A. the Moon’s effect upon the Earth B. the origin of the Moon C. what we know about the Moon and its differences to Earth D. a comparison of the Moon and the Earth 2. The word “massive” in the passage is closest in meaning to ________ A. unavoidable

B. dense

C. huge

D. impressive

3. The word “debris” in the passage is closest in meaning to______ A. rubbish

B. satellites

C. moons

D. earth

4. According to the passage, the Moon is______ A. older than the Earth B. protected by a dense atmosphere C. composed of a few active volcanoes D. the primary cause of Earth’s ocean tides 5. The word “uneven“ in the passage is closest in meaning to ______ 13

A. Heavier

B. Equally distributed

C. Orderly

D. Not uniform

6. Why does the author mention “impact craters” in the paragraph 3? A. to show the result of the Moon not having an atmosphere B. to show the result of the Moon not having active tectonic or volcanic activity C. to explain why the Moon has no plant life because of meteorites D. to explain the corrosive effects of atmospheric weathering 7. The word “erase” in the passage is closest in meaning to _________ A. change

B. impact

C. obliterate

D. erupt

8. A person on the Moon would weigh less than on the Earth because_____ A. of the composition of lunar soil B. the surface gravity of the Moon is less C. the Moon has no atmosphere D. the Moon has no active tectonic or volcanic activity 9. All of the following are true about the Moon EXCEPT____ A. it has a wide range of temperatures. B. it is heavier on one side than the other. C. it is unable to protect itself from meteorite attacks. D. it has less effect upon the tides than the Sun. 10. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage? A. the Moon is not able to support human life. B. if the Moon had no gravitational influence, the Earth would not have tides. C. people living in Hawaii and Arizona would feel at home on the Moon. D. Mars could have been formed in a similar way to the Moon. Your answers: 1.

10. 14

Part 4. Read the following text and do the tasks that follow. For questions 1-5, choose the correct heading for each paragraph from the list of headings (I-VIII) below. I. The fascination explained II. Speedsters thwarted by manufacturers III. A policy well conceived IV. Speed limits that are not speed limits V. Recklessness rewarded VI. Safety compromised VII. Safety not only factor driving speed regulators VIII. The longest motorways examined 1. Paragraph A

____________

2. Paragraph B

____________

3. Paragraph C

____________

4. Paragraph D

____________

5. Paragraph E

____________

Uncovering the truth about Germany’s autobahns A._______ Officially the Bundesautobahnen, which, when translated, means federal expressways, we know them more commonly as the autobahns – Germany’s impressive system of motorways. There is nothing extraordinary about them, fine feats of engineering though they may be, so why has the term autobahn become so well-known? The simple answer is that people living outside of Germany have had their curiosity more than a little tickled on account of the fact that Germany’s motorways are, in one specific way, very unique indeed. They are not the longest system in the world, this plaudit going to the Interstate Highway System of America, nor are they even second or third (China and India respectively), and though they come a healthy fourth in the length stakes, this is really 15

neither here nor there. No, indeed, what fascinates us about the autobahns has nothing to do with their technical or design features. It is though, a lot to do with how fast you can go on them. The autobahns, you see, are the only stretch of motorway in the world on which you can drive your car (provided it is not towing a trailer) at, well, any speed you like. Now, that’s a very attractive proposition for many boy-racers out there who would salivate at the prospect of being able to drive as fast as they wanted, and therefore, on that rather scary point, perhaps we should consider asking the, well, obvious question: what on earth were the Germans thinking when they did this? Surely having no speed limit whatsoever is a recipe of disaster. B. _______ To clarify, there is a ‘recommended’ speed limit of 130km/h on all stretches of German motorway, and a hard limit is imposed on some vehicles. Buses carrying standing passengers and motorbikes pulling trailers cannot go faster than 60 km/h. All other buses, as well as passenger cars and trucks with trailers, and all vehicles weighing in excess of 3.5 tonnes are not allowed to exceed 80 km/h. Rare exceptions include buses that have been officially certified to travel at 100 km/h and passenger cars carrying trailers that have received similar certification. Nonetheless, the fact remains that all other cars, trucks and motorbikes, while encouraged to adhere to the ‘recommended’ speed limit, are by no means bound to it and can, in effect, travel as fast as they please. Indeed, many of them do and it is not uncommon to see a car racing past you on the autobahn travelling in excess of 140 km/h. C. _______ In such circumstances, it would not be at all surprising to learn that Germany has an awful record on road safety, except that it doesn’t. Indeed, Germany’s road safety record is comparable, and in some cases superior, to that of all other industrialized European countries. So is this just luck rewarding recklessness? Well, first of all, it’s important to concede that speed limits do apply at junctions and other danger spots, such as sections under repair, and that there are even weather-related speed limits on some stretches of the 16

autobahn (lower speed limits are used in cases of wet lanes). To fail to point this out would be to paint a picture, rather unfairly, of speed-hungry officials putting the travelling public in jeopardy on roads in order to gratify their own thrill-lust. Of course, this is not the case. Indeed, safety considerations aside, the Germans have even imposed speed limits for other purposes, such as to reduce pollution and noise on some stretches of the autobahn, so there is no crazy speed-fuelled agenda here. ‘Mad’ you may say, but the Germans actually seem to think this is safe. D. _______ And the statistics appear to back them up though. After all, the International Traffic Safety Data and Analysis Group’s research indicates that there are 2.2 road-user fatalities per billion vehicle kilometers on German autobahns each year. Using the same statistics, 4.5 fatalities occur on United States motorways each year. In fact, when you look beyond the myth of the motorway without speed limits, where drivers regularly clock up speeds in excess of 200 km/h, and uncover the more sober reality, you realize that the German approach might not be so draft as it first seemed. For a start, only 2% of all traffic regularly travels on the unrestricted stretches of motorway as, despite the vast area they cover, they are strategically located in rural areas with low traffic volume. The other 98% of vehicles on the road do in fact have their speeds very strictly regulated, and these regulations are also heavily enforced. Speed cameras are everywhere and the motorways are patrolled by unmarked police cars ready to pull over speed offenders and reckless drivers. The Germans have also taken into consideration statistics which show that very few road accidents occur on motorways in low-volume traffic each year. In fact, these stretches of motorway offer up some of the safest driving conditions, statistically speaking, of all. The Germans have therefore reasoned that they don’t need to regulate rural motorways a great deal, and it would seem they are right. E. _______ Furthermore, the myth of limitless speed is also quite misleading. In reality, all German car manufacturers (and most international ones) keep to a gentlemen’s agreement 17

whereby they limit the top speed of their cars to around 150 km/h for safety reasons as, unless tyre pressure is optimally maintained and cars are constantly serviced (as would happen, say, in motor racing), travelling at higher speeds than that is, well, extremely risky and can lead to blowouts and other physical and mechanical failures that have the potential to cause death. Therefore, the situation is a little different than we might have assumed because while there is no official speed limit in theory, car manufacturers self-regulate so, in practice, a limit on the maximum speed vehicles can travel at has been put in place. In addition, the few vehicles which are capable of clocking speeds in excess of 150 km/h seldom get the opportunity (the time and space) to build up to these speeds on the German autobahns, and, if they do, well, the way the German government sees it, they might as well be driving that fast there rather than in the suburbs, so let them do it! For questions 6-7, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D. 6. Special motorway speed limits ___________ A. are sometimes imposed on all vehicles in difficult driving conditions. B. never apply to cars, trucks and motorcycles, which can travel at any speed, provided they are not towing a trailer C. like all speed limits in Germany- are only recommended maximum speeds, and are not enforceable in law. D. are only seen at junctions and on stretches of motorway which need work. 7. What do you think is the writer’s view of the German approach to speed regulation? A. It is irresponsible and reckless B. It initially appears baffling, but, on closer inspection, makes a lot of sense C. It is inadequate in cities and leaves a lot to be desired in rural areas D. It is over-reliant on self-regulation by manufacturers and even drivers themselves For questions 8-10, complete the sentences. Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.

8. For cars operating at high speeds, it is necessary to maintain optimal tyre pressure and ensure that the vehicle is serviced regularly in order to combat the heightened risk of _________ failures. 9. In reality, due to the practice whereby _______, few vehicles have the capacity at speeds in excess of 150 km/h. 10. When it comes to vehicles which can and are determined to travel at very high speeds, ________ would rather they attempted to drive excessively fast on the parts of the motorway it deems safe than anywhere else. Your answers: Your answers: 1.

10.

D. WRITING (50 points) Part 1. Rewrite each sentence using the word in brackets so that the meaning stays the same. You must use between THREE and EIGHT words, including the word given. 1. Attendance at the additional evening lectures is not obligatory for students. (under) Students _________________________________ the additional evening lectures. 2. All are eligible for the contest. There is no discrimination of race and sex. (regardless) All are eligible ___________________________________________ race and sex. 3. We were very much surprised to learn that Brian had become a monk. (To) __________________________________________, Brian had become a monk. 4. Some people will do anything to lose weight. (lengths) Some people will __________________________________ to lose weight. 5. He didn’t mention our previous conversation at all. (reference) He made ____________________________ our previous conversation.

Part 2. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it. 1. It was not until five years had elapsed that the whole truth about the murder came out. Not for _______________________________________________________ 2. The only reason why she got promotion is that she’s very competent. Were it _______________________________________________________ 3. Something must be done quickly to solve the problem of homelessness. Urgent _______________________________________________________ 4. It’s such a wonderful opportunity that we mustn’t miss it. It’s too _____________________________________________________________ 5. You’re far more practical than I am. Nowhere ____________________________________________________________ Part 3: In some countries, secondary schools aim to provide a general education across a range of subjects. In others, children focus on a narrow range of subjects related to a particular career. Which of these two systems is more appropriate in today’s world? Write an essay of about 200-250 words to express your opinion. Give reasons and specific examples to support your answer. ___________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________

_THE END_ Người biên soạn: Nguyễn Thị Vân Khánh (0918795856)

SỞ GD&ĐT LÀO CAI

ĐỀ THI OLYMPIC KHU VỰC DHBB

TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN LÀO CAI

NĂM HỌC 2017 - 2018 Môn: Tiếng anh – lớp 10

(HDC)

(Thời gian: 180 phút – không kể thời gian giao đề)

A. LISTENING (50 points): Part 1: 1.R-T-Y-34

2. 30

3. three hours

4. 50

5. 3

7. A

8. A

9. B

10. C

12.F

13.T

14.T

15.F

16.culture

17.economics

18.interviews

19.articles

20.film critic

21.organization

22.web design

23.football

24.research

25.

Part 2: 6.B Part 3: 11. T Part 4:

matches

photographer

B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (50 points): Part 1: 1.A

2.C

3.C

4.B

5.A

6.C

7.D

8.A

9.D

10.A

11.A

12.B

13.A

14.B

15.A

16.A

17. D

18.A

19.B

20.A

Part 2. Line

Mistake

Correction

Example 1

other

another

president

presidential

neither

either

shows

show

Addressed

Addressing

announced

were announced

laughed at

laughed off

markedly

marked

formal

former

respectedly

respectively

10.

make

Part 3. 1. out of

2. with

3. without

4. down on

5. for

6. through

7. round to

8. off

9. away with

10. through with

2. oversight

3. improperly

4. personality

5. unfair

7. privacy

8. technologists

9. advertisers

10. users

3. C

4. B

5. A

Part 4. 1. accountability 6. settings

C. READING (50 points) Part 1. 1. A

2. D

6. D

7. C

8.C

9. A

10. C

2. such

3. other

5. despite

Part 2. 1. because

could/may/might 6.

7. from

8. so

9. nothing/little

10. in

1. C

2. C

3. A

4. D

5. D

6. A

7. C

8.B

9. D

10. A

1. I

2. IV

3. VII

4. III

5. II

6. A

7. B

8. physical and 9.

if/when/whenever

Part 3.

Part 4:

mechanical

(car) 10.

manufacturers

(German)

self-regulate

government

D. WRITING (50 points) Part 1. 1. are under no obligation to attend 2. for taking/to take part in the contest regardless of 3. To our surprise, 4. do great length 5. no reference to Part 2. 1. Not for another five years did the whole truth about the murder come out. 2. Were it not for her competence, she wouldn’t get promotion.

the

3. Urgent action is/measures are necessary/essential to solve the problem/if the problem is to be solved.//Urgent action/steps must be taken/Urgent measures must be adopted to solve the problem. 4. It’s too wonderful an opportunity for us to miss. 5. Nowhere else am I as practical as you are. Part 3: 30pts 1. Task achievement : 10pts -ALL requirements of the task are sufficently addressed -ideas are edaquately supported and elaborated with relevant explantions, examples, evidence, personal experience, etc. 2. Organisation: (10 pts) - Ideas are well organized and presented with unity, cohesion and coherence. -The essay is well-structured 3. Language: (5 pts) - Demonstrate of a wide range of vocabulary and structures. - Good use of grammatical structures. - Present the ideas with clarity. 4. Punctuations and spelling. (5pts)

Tapescript: Part 1: Cust: Hello. Is this the Dynamo Motorcyle company? Rep: Yes, it is. How can I help you? Cust: Well, I have an instruction manual here for your new electric motorcyle, but I’m not satisfied with the purchase at all. Rep: Well, I’m sorry to hear that. But don’t worry; I’m sure we can sort out. Before we do anything, van you tell me the model number? Cust: Ah, at the top of the instruction manual here, it gives the model number R-T-Y-34 (Q1) Rep: rrrr...T-Y-34, Okay. Now, whta’s the nature of your complaint? Cust: It’s many things, actually. The biggesr problem is that you say in your manual that the battery will take the motorcycle 30km. (Q2) Rep: That’s right. Cust: Well, it’s lucky to take me eight! The battery is usually flat by then, often leaving me stuck at the side of the road. Rep: Are you sure you’re charging it correctly? Cust: I’m fairly sure. I follow all the instructions, and plug it in for a long time. Rep: And are you sure you charge it for the required three hours?(Q3) Cust: I charge it until the chraginging light goes off, and that’s two hours, so that should be enough. And, there’s a serious design fault with the motorcycle. When you’re riding it, there’s no meter to show you how much power is left, so you actually don’t know when the machine is going to stop working. Rep: There’s a voltage gauge

Cust: Yes, but that tells you nothing. The needle fluctuates from 55 to 45, so whatever it says is meaningless. Rep: According to the manual, you’r meant to charge the battery if the needle falls under 50 volts. (Q4) Cust: But even when you charge it, it can go below 45! As I said, the needle just waves all over the place. The results is that I’m always worried that the bike will leave me stranded in the middle of nowhere. Rep: well, I’m sorry about that. Cust: Sure, but what are you going to do about it? Rep: Unfortunately, we don’t have a refund policy, but if you take the bike to one of our shoops, our mechanics will look at it. Perhaps ther’s a problam that we can fix-the gauge, for example. Cust: The other problem is the battery. I actually weighed it, and it’s almost six kilograms, yet you say in your manual that it weighs only three. (Q5) I can barely pick the thing up. So it’s not three kilograms at all. Rep: Maybe you purchased the wrong model by mistake. Cust: I doubt that very much. Basically, I think I’ve been defrauded, and I’d like to know what you are going to do about it. Rep: Altight, I’ll put you through to our complaints department. Part 2: Interviewer: Today I'm going to be talking to a successful young American singer, Kay Stanley, about a special aspect of her work - one that's not very well known on this side of the Atlantic. And that's the Stanley Trust. Kay, welcome to the programme. Would you start by explaining what the Stanley Trust is?

Kay Stanley: Sure. It's basically an organisation set up by my father to help kids who have problems reading and writing - kids with dyslexia. I'm dyslexic myself, you see, and after I had been diagnosed, my dad realised there weren't many organisations for dyslexic kids, and he decided to set one up himself a few years later. Interviewer: I believe one of the problems with dyslexia is that it isn't diagnosed in many cases, or not early enough. Was this what happened with you? Kay Stanley: I used to learn stories off by heart by playing the tapes of them over and over again, and then pretend to read them. In fact, I was so good at it that my mum only guessed there was something wrong when she caught me learning the stories like that! Then my parents got me examined by a doctor, and luckily, he knew something about dyslexia, so he sent me to an expert. Interviewer: And what did the expert say about your condition? Kay Stanley: He said I'm pretty fortunate because my condition is less severe, compared to other people with dyslexia. Some people have a great deal of trouble spelling even the most simple, high-frequency words. Other people have difficulty reading very short notices and signs. Of course the experts see all sorts of people so they can build up a picture of the different effects it has. Interviewer: You must know quite a lot about it yourself by now? Kay Stanley: I do, yes, but one of the problems with dyslexia is that even the specialists don't really understand it. They know dyslexics think in a different way from other people. They often have distinctive talents and a creative imagination. But whether dyslexia has other effects on the brain or not, nobody really knows. Some people say you use a different sort of logic if you're dyslexic, and it's easier for you to solve problems, but of course it's hard to test that. Interviewer: And once you were diagnosed, did you start to improve?

Kay Stanley: Not immediately. At first, I was too unhappy about the whole thing, and my parents felt frustrated and confused. I knew at an early age that I wanted to become a singer, and getting school qualifications was not a priority for me. In the end, I did work hard to improve my reading skills just to show my fellow students that I was every bit as clever as they were. Interviewer: Is it better for children with dyslexia to get special treatment? Kay Stanley: It depends what you mean by that. I don't think it's a good idea to isolate them and put them in special schools, because that makes them feel awkward. On the other hand, they do need extra teaching in reading and writing, by teachers who understand the problem. Interviewer: And getting back to the Stanley Trust, how do you feel you can best help the Trust? Will you be giving speeches about dyslexia in public? Kay Stanley: I doubt it. I think the public would get tired of someone like me talking about the subject all the time. It seems to me the best thing I can do is set a good example of how dyslexics can live a normal, happy life. Interviewer: Well, I wish you luck with that. And thank you for talking to us today. Kay Stanley: Thank you. Part 3: Interviewer: Hello, Mark, thank you for agreeing to talk to us about your experience of being a student at Gramwell University. I'm sure many of our listeners will be thinking of applying next year, and they'll be very interested in what you have to say! Mark Stone: Thanks, it's great to be here. Interviewer: First of all, why did you choose Gramwell University? Mark Stone: Well, no one in my family had been to university before, and my parents couldn't really help me decide. My mother hoped I'd live at home while I was a student, but I really wanted to go to a different city, and make new friends. And Gramwell is really

one of the best places in the country for law, so that's why I went for it. Interviewer: Was there anything that particularly surprised you when you arrived at Gramwell? Mark Stone: Yeah, I hadn't actually realised before I came here how different many things would be. It may sound silly, I know, but I hadn't actually spent more than a few hours here - when I came on an open day - before arriving at Gramwell as a student. Of course the buildings are all very modern, but I knew that. I just wasn't prepared for how different everything would feel, you know - most people are my age, so it's all quite exciting. It rains as much as it always did at home, though! Interviewer: And what's it like, studying law? Mark Stone: People told me before I started that I'd find it very stressful. It hasn't been too bad, though - I've really enjoyed the challenge. Don't get me wrong, there's a lot of work involved, especially just before a deadline! But the more you put in. the better you do. and as long as you're well organised, which I am - I think I get that from my mother then it's OK. Interviewer: Do you have a part-time job? Mark Stone: Yes, I share a flat with three other students, and I need to pay the rent! It's OK though, it makes a change from the library and the people I work with are cool. It is quite tiring though, especially when I've been studying all day - I'm a waiter in a busy restaurant, so it certainly keeps me fit! Interviewer: I'm sure it does! And what are your lecturers like? Are they helpful? Mark Stone: I must admit I was a bit scared of them when I first arrived. You know, I thought 'Why on earth would they want to talk to someone like me?'. In fact most of them are very interested in how their students are getting on. The problem is that students usually don't take advantage of the opportunities they have to talk to them. They have times every week when you can go and see them. Even outside of those hours, it's usually quite easy to find them and they won't mind at all. Interviewer: Do you mainly mix with other law students?

Mark Stone: I have some very good friends here in the law faculty, but because I lived in a big student residence in my first year, I met people doing all sorts of courses. It was nice not to talk about law for a change! One of my best friends is reading history, and I'm sharing a flat with him, as well as a biologist and a drama student! Interviewer: Sounds fun! And what's the social life like at Gramwell? Mark Stone: There are lots of societies, and good sports facilities - there's even a skateboarding club! I've made friends that way too - I'm in the basketball team - and as long as you don't let it take up too much of your time, it's a really good way of unwinding and forgetting about work for a while. And then when I get back to my desk, I'm definitely more focused. I know some people think we just spend all our time at parties, but that's not actually the case. Interviewer: Well, thanks, Mark, it's been great talking to you. Good luck with your studies! Mark Stone: Thank you! Part 4: Hello, my name's Tom Botham. Thanks for coming to this talk about newspaper journalism. I'll tell you a bit about how I got into it and there'll be some time at the end to ask any questions. As you know, newspaper journalists report on local and national events - everything from news and business, to culture and sport. The usual way to become a journalist is by first gaining a qualification in journalism or writing, though these days many newspaper editors welcome people with degrees in other subjects such as economics - which is the route I took - or science. So, if you're already studying another subject like music, all is not lost. Specialising in an unrelated subject can put you in a strong position should you want to work for a specialist publication, for example. It's difficult to get ahead in the field without having a recognised journalism certificate in

addition to your university studies. In preparation for this qualification you can do a course where you'll learn the basics of news reporting and - my personal favourite - how to conduct interviews. You also need editing skills - you know, preparing copy for print. When you're applying for a journalism role, you have to prove you can actually put pen to paper - or fingers to keyboard - and create a compelling piece that grabs the reader's attention. Potential employers will want to see vour portfolio - a collection of articles you've had published. This doesn't have to be in national publications - anything you've had printed in a local magazine or paper will prove your writing ability. There are lots of ways to get writing experience. Like me, lots of budding journalists contribute to their student magazine doing things like music reviews. My own involvement was as a film critic and my best friend wrote features on student issues. It's great fun and you make loads of good friends - and if you're lucky - some useful contacts in the industry. Employers aren't only interested in how well you can write, though. Journalists have to be able to demonstrate evidence of other key skills such as organisation, oral communication, and an ability to work under pressure to meet deadlines. On a more personal level, you'll need to have a flexible approach, as well as persistence and motivation. You also need to think about what else you can offer employers, especially as newspapers are now available in many formats, including online. My brother runs his own web design company and I'd been involved in that as a weekend job while I was studying. Other things, like video skills and understanding social media definitely come in useful for online publishing. My own background certainly helped me progress in my career. I got my first job as a junior reporter on a local newspaper, which is the usual route. I won't pretend it was the most glamorous job, but it did provide me with invaluable experience and it had its perks - I regularly got to go and watch football matches, which was a real bonus. I also had to go to things like school talent shows and amateur theatre performances, which weren't quite as fascinating!

Audio scripts 197

I currently work on a regional paper, which is a step up from the local one. Working on a smaller paper suits me because I have more responsibility than I would on a national paper. I get involved in all aspects of the job, from deciding what will go where, to what content to include in our daily e-newsletter. I specialise in research - my preferred aspect of the role - and also make sure our advertising copy is consistent. There are great opportunities for career progression as a journalist. I'm definitely planning on staying in the field, though I wouldn't mind investigating other avenues. Many journalists will tell you that they want to progress to a subeditor role and eventually land the top job as editor, something I used to want myself. In fact, I fancy trying something totally different and I'm looking into the possibilities of becoming a photographer here. But enough about me. Are there any questions?

TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN LƯƠNG VĂN TỤY ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT

KỲ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI CÁC TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN KHU VỰC DUYÊN HẢI VÀ ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ NĂM HỌC 2017 – 2018 ĐỀ THI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 10

(Đề thi gồm 12 trang)

Thời gian: 180 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề)

Điểm Bằng số

Giám khảo 1

Bằng chữ

Giám khảo 2

Số phách

PART ONE. LISTENING (50 points): Question 1: Listen to the recording and complete the table below with ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. (10 points) PLANNING NOTES - THIS YEAR'S FETE Date of the fete: 1 .............. Expected weather: 22 degrees and 2 .............. Fundraising purpose: In aid of the roof of the 3 .............. Fundraising goal: £4000 Last year's tickets: 400 adult tickets at £5 each, plus 4 .............. discounted tickets at £2.50 each Total from ticket sales 5 .............. last year: Amount needed from food and drink sales £1250 (assuming total from ticket sales is to reach overall target: the same as last year) Your answers: 1.

Question 2: Listen to a talk about the program named Focus on the Arts and decide whether these statements are true (T) or false (F).

6. The National Arts Center is a well-known place for music performances of different types. 7. The National Arts Center provides a variety of entertainment choices. 8. The Center has been situated in the heart of the city since 1940. 9. The City Council, the National Sympony Orchestra and National Theatre Company are based in the Center. 10. There are 2-3 days a year when visitors cannot go to the Center. Your answers: 6.

10.

Question 3: Listen to Matt and Jess talking about their assignment. Choose the correct answer A, B or C. 11. What are Matt and Jess planning to study? A different species of insects B different species of plants C old photos 12. How far apart are the plots supposed to be? A 12 feet apart B 10 meters apart C 10 miles apart 13. One person throws the frame and the other person A turns on the spot B smiles and waves C marks out the squares 14. The instructions sound complicated because A they are in writing B there is so much turning around C there are so many squares 15. Jess thinks Matt should do the throwing because A he has more experience B he has a stronger arm C he is more accurate Your answers: 11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

Question 4: You will hear part of a presentation by a woman called Linda Brown, who is the director of Woodley community college. For questions 16-25, complete the sentences with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS/NUMBERS. Summer school classes start on (16) ………………. People expressed interest in the college after several (17) were broadcast on the radio. The (18) ……………….will declare the college open. Other figures at the opening ceremony, include a famous (19) ………………. who will make a speech. Local (20) ……………….will teach courses at the college. The emphasis will be on (21) ……………….subjects. The college will be (22) ……………….about who it allows to enrol for courses. Students may not have the (23) ……………….required by traditional colleges. It is hoped that an (24) ……………….office in the city centre will generate interest in the college. People interested in courses should first refer to its (25) ……………….for more information Your answers: 16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

PART TWO: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (50ps) I. Choose the best answer. 1. The red cross is……….an international aid organization a. intriguingly b. intrusively c. intrinsically d. intrepidly 2. The quality papers are a different ……………of fish from the gutter press a. pan b. basket c. box d. kettle 3. Politicians interviewed on TV seldom see eye………..eye with their interviewers a. for b. to c. at d. by 4. The invasion of the small country was an……………..act which violated the peace treaty a. assertive b. aggressive c. affirmative d. abrasive 5. a new………programmers on wildlife will be shown on Channel 4 in the autumn A. episode b. series c. serial d. sequel 6. The in-depth new bulleting are aimed…….a middle aged, professional audience a. for b. to c. in d. at 7. I have no idea whether the restaurant will be open- we will just have to take pot………. a. choice b. chance c. luck d. fortune 8. As I boarded the train, I was suddenly………..by the arm and ushered towards a first – class carriage

a. clutched b. grabbed c. caught d. plucked 9. As a result of………….the price of new cars has risen dramatically over the last few months a. inflation b. escalation c. distension d. extension 10. Although she has three children of her own, this 32 year old mum has …….four others for the local authority a. upheld b. supported c. fostered d. sustained 11. Conservationist are worried that many potentially valuable …….of plant and animals are threatened with extinction a. examples b. variations c. species d. brands 12. My dog is being very difficult at the moment, I don’t know what the trouble is but he just ……..not eat a. shall b. will c. may d. has 13. The evidence that carbon dioxide levels are rising is…….. a. inevitable b. unavoidable c. indelible d. undeniable 14. The pollution problem is in the town have been….by mass tourism in the summer months a. exacerbated b. developed c. augmented d. contributed 15. During the height of the reason tourists arrive in………….to see Shakespeare’s birthplace a. loads b. flocks c. shoals d. droves 16. You really shouldn’t buy that car, I know the engine is fine but most of the bodywork has been…….away by rust a. eaten b. dissolved c. erased d. crumbled 17. The pyramids are perhaps the most famous of the seven……of the ancient world a. structures b. spectacles c. wonders d. constructions 18. I have given up trying to make my sister see the sense, and now I am….to the fact that she is going to marry Jason a. Adapted b. resigned c. adjusted d. accepted 19. They spilt up on very bad terms and went through a bitter and…….divorce a. acrid b. Aggravated c. aggrieved d. acrimonious 20. I am rather suspicious of your brother‘s sudden concern for your welfare and fear that he may have………motives a. underlying b. concealed c. secondary d. ulterior II. Identify the mistakes and correct them in the following passage. Tony had always wanted to explore the foothills of Himalayas. So when he was offered an early retirement package by his firm, he decided to take up advantage of the opportunity. First he needed to get really fit, so he spent a month to train in the Lake

District. When he could run up Buttermere Fell without stopping, he considered he was ready. He booked a trip with a well known trekking company and flew out to Katmandu, the capital of Nepal. His group were planning to trek in the Annapurna region, but unfortunately the Nepalese was beginning to get worried about the amount of damage being made to their ancient mountains by the constant pummeling of climbers feet. So they temporarily suspended permission for foreigners to climb or use the footpaths in the area. The group leader was very apologetic, but he laid on rafting on River Trisuli and sightseeing in the capital. After a few days, the authorities lifted their ban, and Tony was able to trek through some of the world’s most beautiful sceneries, with breathtaken views of the Mount Everest and Kanhenjunga. At night, the group accommodated in simple village rooms and ate with the Nepalese. Most of the group were experience trekkers than Tony and several of them had visited this region before. All in all, Tony reckoned it was the most exciting experience he had ever had, and vowed to return to Nepal at the very first opportunity. No

Mistakes

Correction

No Mistakes

Correction

III. Fill in the blanks with suitable prepositions 1. The customs knew all about the drug smugglers because they had been tipped……in advance by a member of the gang. 2. When people demand something for example, a change in the law, we say that they call …a change. 3. “Please don’t hang ……until I have had a chance to tell you how sorry I am. 4. During the second War World, most messages were sent …….code. 5. He is not lying. Every thing he has told us so far is…….the level 6. The goods were not sold openly but were available ….the counter. 7. I am sorry but Dr. Salmon sees patients……appointments only. 8. It is mush easier to take a clock……..than to put it together. 9. with prices so high I will have to do……a new suit this year 10. He kept bothering her and finally she told him to cut it…..

IV.

Fill in the blanks with the correct forms of the words Music and the mind Making music appears to be one of the fundamental activities of mankind: as (character)…………………….human as drawing and painting. The survival of Paleolithic cave-paintings bears witness to the (antique)………………….of this form of art, and some of these paintings (depiction)……………..people dancing. Flutes made of bone found in these caves suggest that they danced to some form of music. But, because music itself only survive when the invention of a system of notation has made a written record possible, or else when a living member of a culture recreates the sounds and rhythm which have been handed down to him by his forbears, we have no information about ………..(history) music . we are therefore accustomed to regarding drawing and painting as (integrate)…………….parts of the life of early man, but less inclined to think of music in the same way. When biologists consider complex human activities such as the arts, they tend to assume that their (compulsory)………….qualities are derivation of basic drives. If any given activity can be seen to aid survival or facilitate (adapt) ……..to the environment or to be derived from behavior which does so, it “makes sense” in (biology)…………terms. Bt what use is music? Music can certainly be regarded as a form of communication; but what it communicate is not obvious. Music is not usually (represent)…………………..; it does not sharpen our (perceive)…………….of the external world or generally imitate it. Nor is music proposition , it doesn’t put forward theories about the world or convey information PART THREE: READING (50ps) I. Fill in the blanks with a suitable word Today, more and more women are actively participating in (1)______activities both in urban and rural areas. Specifically, they have shined brightly in even many fields commonly (2)_____as the man's areas such as business, scientific research and social management. In some areas, women (3)____show more overwhelming power than men. The image of contemporary Vietnamese women with creativeness, dynamism, success has become popular in Vietnam's society. The fact reveals that the gender (4)____has been remarkably narrowed and women enjoy many more opportunities to (5)____their social careers and obtain success, contributing to national socio-economic development. According to Ms, Le Thi Quy, Director of the Gender/and Development Research Centre under the University of Social Sciences and Humanities, Hanoi National University, gender equity in Vietnam has (6)_____a high level over the past decade. The (7)____of Vietnamese women becoming National Assembly (8)____from the 9th term to the 11th term increased 8.7%, bringing the proportion of Vietnamese women in authority to 27.3%,

the highest rate in Southeast Asia. There is no big gap in the level of literacy and schooling between men and women. Women (9)____for about 37% of university and college graduates, 19.9% of doctoral degree holders and 6.7% of professors and (10)___professors. II. Choose the word or phrase that best fits the blank Harry Potter is a heptalogy of (1)_____ novels written by English author J. K. Rowling. The books (2)____the adventures of the eponymous adolescent wizard Harry Potter, together with his best friends Ron Weasley and Hermione Granger. The story is set at Hogwarts School of Witchcraft and Wizardry, an academy for young wizards and witches. The central story arc concerns Harry's conflict (3___)the evil wizard Lord Voldemort, who killed Harry's parents in his quest to conquer the wizarding world, after which he (4)_______to subjugate the Muggle world to his rule. Since the release of the first novel Harry Potter and the Philosopher's Stone in 1997, which was (5)_____Harry Potter and the Sorcerer's Stone in the United States, the books have gained (6)_____popularity, critical (7)_____and commercial success worldwide. The series has spawned films, video games and Potter-themed merchandise. As of April 2007, the first six books in the seven book series have sold more than 325 million copies and have been (8)____into more than 64 languages. The seventh and last book in the series, Harry Potter and the Deathly Hallows, was released on 21 July 2007. Publishers announced a (9)_____12 million copies for the first print run in the U.S.(10)_____. 1. 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

A. detective A. revise A. against A. aspires A. released A. huge A acclaim A. trammistted A. Record-break A. only

B . fantasy B. illustrate B. over B. inquires B. retitled B. great B. applause B. translated B. record-broken B. lonely

C. satirical C. chronicle C. between C. searches C. renamed C. immense C. comment C. transfered C. record-breaking C. apart

D. historical D. engross D. with D. seeks D. recreated D. much D. approval D. transported. D. record-breaker D. alone

III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer The most familiar speleothems (from the Greek word spelaion for cave and thema for deposit), the decorative dripstone features found in caves, are stalactites and stalagmites.Stalactites hang downward from the ceiling of the cave and are formed as drop after drop of water slowly trickles through cracks in the cave roof. Stalagmites grow upward from the floor of the cave, generally as a result of water dripping from an

overhead stalactite. A column forms when a stalactite and a stalagmite grow until they join. A "curtain" or "drapery" begins to form on an inclined ceiling when drops of water trickle along a slope. Natural openings on the surface that lead to caves are called sinkholes, or swallow holes. Streams sometimes disappear down these holes and flow through the cavern. Rivers may flow from one mountain to another through a series of caves. Some caverns have sinkholes in their floors. Water often builds up a rim of dripstone around the edge of the hole. Dripping water often contains dissolved minerals as well as acid. These minerals too will be deposited; and they may give rich coloring to the deposits. If minerals in the water change, layers of different colors may be formed. 1. Stalagmites are formed by………. A. drops of water which enter through cracks in the ceiling. B. underground rivers which flow through the cave. C. water dripping from an overhead stalactite. D. water which trickles down a slope. 2. Sinkholes are….. A. the decorative dripstone features found in caves. B. natural openings on the surface that lead to caves. C. colorful layers of mineral deposits. D. None of the above 3. Which speleothem grows upward from the floor ? A. Stalagmites B. Stalactites C. Sinkholes D. Curtains 4. An "inclined ceiling" is one which…… A. is straight. B. is crooked. C. is slanted. D. is wet. 5. Which of the following are NOT caused by dripping water ? A. Stalagmites B. Stalactites C. Slopes D. Curtains 16. The information in the passage is most relevant to which field of study ? A. Geography B. Archaeology C. Physics D. Geology 7. "Curtains" can also be called…… A. columns. B. draperies. C. stalagmites. D. rims. 8. The word “speleothem” comes from which language? A. Latin B. French C. Greek D. English 9. Stalactites are formed by……. A. drops of water which enter the cave through cracks in the ceiling. B. underground rivers which flow through the cave. C. water which seeps through the cave floor. D. water which trickles down a slope. 10. Which speleothem hangs from the ceiling of a cave? A. Stalagmites B. Stalactites C. Columns D. Rimstones

IV. The reading passage has seven paragraphs: A – G. Choose the most suitable paragraph headings B – G from the list of headings on the right. Write the appropriate numbers (i –ix) in the text boxes below the headings. Yoruba Town A. The Yoruba people of Nigeria classify their towns in two ways. Permanent towns with their own governments are called “ilu”, whereas temporary settlements, set up to support work in the country are “aba”. Although ilu tend to be larger than aba, the distinction is not one of size, some aba are large, while declining ilu can be small, but of purpose. There is no “typical” Yoruba town, but some features are common to most towns. B. In the 19th century most towns were heavily fortified and the foundations of these walls are sometimes visible. Collecting tolls to enter and exit through the walls was a major source of revenue for the old town rulers, as were market fees. The markets were generally located centrally and in small towns, while in large towns there were permanent stands made of corrugated iron or concrete. The market was usually next to the local ruler’s palace. C. The palaces were often very large. In the 1930’s, the area of Oyo’s palace covered 17 acres, and consisted of a series of courtyards surrounded by private and public rooms. After colonisation, many of the palaces were completely or partially demolished. Often the rulers built two storey houses for themselves using some of the palace grounds for government buildings. D. The town is divided into different sections. In some towns these are regular, extending out from the center of the town like spokes on a wheel, while in others, where space is limited, they are more random. The different areas are further divided into compounds called “ile”. These vary in size considerably from single dwellings to up to thirty houses. They tend to be larger in the North. Large areas are devoted to government administrative buildings. Newer developments such as industrial or commercial areas or apartment housing for civil servants tends to be build on the edge of the town. E. Houses are rectangular and either have a courtyard in the center or the rooms come off a central corridor. Most social life occurs in the courtyard. They are usually built of hardened mud and have roofs of corrugated iron or, in the countryside, thatch. Buildings of this material are easy to alter, either by knocking down rooms or adding new ones. And can be improved by coating the walls with cement. Richer people often build their houses of concrete blocks and, if they can afford to, build two storey houses. Within compounds there can be quite a mixture of building types. Younger well-educated people may have well furnished houses while their older relatives live in mud walled buildings and sleep on mats on the floor.

F. The builder or the most senior man gets a room either near the entrance or, in a two storied house, next to the balcony. He usually has more than one room. Junior men get a room each and there are separate rooms for teenage boys and girls to sleep in. Younger children sleep with their mothers. Any empty room are used as storage, let out or, if they face the street, used as shops. G. Amenities vary. In some towns most of the population uses communal water taps and only the rich have piped water, in others piped water is more normal. Some areas have toilets, but bucket toilets are common with waste being collected by a “night soil man”. Access to water and electricity are key political issues. List of paragraph headings i. Town facilities ii. Colonisation iii. Urban divisions iv. Architectural home styles v. Types of settlements vi. Historical foundations vii. Domestic arrangements viii. City defenses ix. The residences of the rulers x. Government buildings Answers Example: Paragraph A__Answer: v 1. Paragraph B__ 2. Paragraph C__ 3. Paragraph D__ 4. Paragraph E__ 5. Paragraph F__ 6. Paragraph G__ Use the word in the passage to fill in the blanks below. (no more than two words for each blank) The arrangement of the town sections is either 7__________or 8____________, depending the space of the town. the building for 9___________seem to be located in the large areas, while the building for residents or economic purpose are usually situated on10________ the. PART FOUR: WRITING I. SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION (20 points)

For questions 1-10, complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given. Do not change the word given. You MUST use between THREE OR SIX WORDS, including the word given. There is an example at the beginning (0). Example: 0 What are the chances of the film winning an Oscar? LIKELY How likely will the film win an Oscar? 1. Fewer people live in extended family units in this country nowadays. COMMON It is ……………………………………………………… to live in extended family units in this country nowadays. 2. I don't mind where we decide to go for our family holiday this year. DIFFERENCE It doesn't……………………………………………………… where we decide to go for our family holiday this year. 3. Gaynor's friends persuaded her not to get married in spring. TALKED It was Gaynor’s friends………………………………………………………getting married in spring. 4. The pianist performed beautifully and received a standing ovation. GAVE The pianist………………………………………………………and received a standing ovation. 5. The group’s popularity increased thanks to word-of- mouth recommendations. LED Word-of-mouth recommendations ……………………………………………………… popularity of the group. 6. Damian is sure to finish the race in first place. CROSS Damian is sure to be the first person to …………………………………………………… in the race. 7. It is quite usual for boys to begin playing football at the age of five. MEANS It is by ………………………………………………………for boys to begin playing football at the age of five. 8. Had he spent more time at home, he wouldn't have made so many friends. GONE If he ………………………………………………………often, he wouldn't have made so many friends 9. My brother Sam was very surprised to be offered the job. CAME The job offer……………………………………………………… 10. Unfortunately, I didn't have enough money to go to the theatre regularly. ABLE If I'd had more money, ………………………………………………………to go to the theatre more regularly. II. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it.

11. 12. 13.

14. 15. 16.

17. 18. 19. 20.

The minister gave no precise figures about casualities. The minister didn’t go …………………………………………………………. The only reason the party was a success was that a famous film star attended it. Had it ……………………………………………………………………………. Government guidelines really do emphasize the importance of starting education early. A lot of emphasis ……………………………………………………………….. The trip was so amazing that we will never forget it It's too …………………………………………………………………………… Your silly questions distracted me. You drove………………………………………………………………………... She was so disgusted at the way her friend her friend behaved that she refused to speak to him Such……………………………………………………………………………… I didn’t want to buy it, but because he insisted, I bought it. He pushed ……………………………………………………………………… He was suspended for two matches for awearing at the referee. Swearing at the referee earned him …………………………………………….. She’s just about to cut the birthday cake. She’s on ………………………………………………………………………… Mr. Foster asked me to write this letter to you. It’s at …………………………………………………………………………….

B. PARAGRAPH WRITING: (30 points) Write a paragraph about 150-200 words, giving your opinions on the following topic: “Should are subjects made optional at high school?” ……………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………

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……………………………………………………………………………………………… ---------THE END--------

TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN LƯƠNG VĂN TỤY

KỲ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI CÁC TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN

(Đáp án gồm 06 trang)

NĂM HỌC 2017 – 2018

KHU VỰC DUYÊN HẢI VÀ ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM MÔN TIẾNG ANH 10

PART ONE. LISTENING (50 points): Question 1: Listen to the recording and complete the table below with ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. (10 points) 1. 19th/nineteenth 2. [plenty of] sunshine 3. village hall 4. 300/three hundred 5. £2750 Question 2: Listen to a talk about the program named Focus on the Arts and decide whether these statements are true (T) or false (F). 6. F 7. T 8. F 9. T 10. T Question 3: Listen to Matt and Jess talking about their assignment. Choose the correct answer A, B or C. 11. B 12. B 13. C 14. A 15. B Question 4: You will hear part of a presentation by a woman called Linda Brown, who is the director of Woodley community college. For questions 16-25, complete the sentences with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS/NUMBERS. 16. June 15th 21. practical 17. ads / adverts / advertisements 22. flexible 18. mayor 23. qualifications 19. footballer 24. applications 20. experts 25. website PART TWO: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (50ps) I. Choose the best answer. 1.c 2.d 3.b 4. b 5.b 6.d 7.c 11.c 12.b 13.d 14.a 15.d 16.a 17.c 1

8.b 18.b

9.a 19.d

10.c 20.d

II. Identify the mistakes and correct them in the following passage. Tony had always wanted to explore the foothills of the Himalayas. So when he was offered an early retirement package by his firm, he decided to take up advantage of the opportunity. First he needed to get really fit, so he spent a month training in the Lake District. When he could run up Buttermere Fell without stopping, he considered he was ready. He booked a trip with a well known trekking company and flew out to Katmandu, the capital of Nepal. His group were planning to trek in the Annapurna region, but unfortunately the Nepalese were beginning to get worried about the amount of damage being done to their ancient mountains by the constant pummeling of climber’s feet. So they temporarily the suspended permission for foreigners to climb or use the footpaths in the area. The group leader was very apologetic, but he laid on rafting on River Trisuli and sightseeing in the capital. After a few days, the authorities lifted their ban, and Tony was able to trek through some of the world’s most beautiful scenery, with breathtaking views of Mount Everest and Kanhenjunga. At night, the group was accommodated in simple village rooms and ate with the Nepalese. Most of the group were experienced trekkers than Tony and several of them had visited this region before. All in all, Tony reckoned it was the most exciting experience he had ever had, and vowed to return to Nepal at the very first opportunity. II. Fill in the blanks with suitable prepositions 1. off 2. for 3. up 4. up 6. under 7. by 8. apart 9. without III.

5. on 10. out

Fill in the blanks with the correct forms of the words 1. characteristically 2. antiquity 3. depict 4. prehistoric 5. integral 6. compelling 7. adaptation 8. biological 9. presentational 10. Perception

PART THREE: READING (50ps) I. Fill in the blanks with a suitable word 1. social 2. regarded 3. even 6. reached 7. rate 8. members

4. gap 9. account

5. pursue 10. associate

II. Choose the word or phrase that best fits the blank 1. B

2. C

3. A

4. D

5. B

6. C 2

7. A

8. B

9. C

10. D

III.

Read the following passage and choose the best answer 1. C 2. B 3. A 4. C 5. C 6. D 7. B 8. C 9. A 10. B IV. The reading passage has seven paragraphs: A – G. Choose the most suitable paragraph headings B – G from the list of headings on the right. Write the appropriate numbers (i –ix) in the text boxes below the headings. 1. VI 2. IX 3. III 4. IV 5. VII 6. I 7. Regular 8. random 9. government 10. town edge administration PART FOUR: WRITING I. SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION (20 points) For questions 1-10, complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given. Do not change the word given. You MUST use between THREE OR SIX WORDS, including the word given. There is an example at the beginning (0). 1. not so/as common 2. make any/much difference to me 3. who talked her out of 4. gave a beautiful performance 5. led to an/the increase in/led to the increasing 6. cross the finishing line 7. no means unusual 8. had not gone out so 9. came as a (great/big) surprise to 10. I would have been able II. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it. 1. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

The minister didn’t go into detail about causalities. Had it not been for the attendance of a famous film star, the party wouldn't have been a success. A lot of emphasis on the importance of staring education early is put by the government guidelines. It's too amazing a trip for us to forget. You drove me to distraction with your silly question Such was her disgust at the way her friend behaved that she refused to speak to him. He pushed me into buying it. 3

16. 17. 18. 19.

Swearing at the referee earned him two match suspension/ a two-match suspension/a suspension for two matches. She’s just about to cut the birthday cake. She’s on the point of cutting the birthday cake. It’s at Mr. Foster’s request that I’m writing this letter to you.

LISTENING TRANSCRIPT Question 1: Listen to the recording and complete the table below with ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. (10 points) Thanks, everyone, for coming out tonight, despite it being so bright and pleasant out. And thank you for offering to help with running our village fete! We're only three days away from this year's fete, and hopefully the weather on the big day Saturday the nineteenth will be just as good as today. Currently, the forecast is calling for twenty-two degrees and plenty of sunshine - let's hope that holds true! This year's village fete is in aid of repairing the roof in the village hall. We need to raise a total of four thousand pounds to pay for the roof repairs. That's our overall target. Last year, we sold four hundred tickets for adults at £5 each, plus 300 discounted tickets - for children, students and pensioners - at £2.50 each. That comes to a total of two thousand, seven hundred and fifty pounds from ticket sales alone. Assuming similar figures this year, we'll need to bring in a minimum of one thousand, two hundred fifty pounds from the games and food sales to hit our overall target. Question 2: Listen to a talk about the program named Focus on the Arts and decide whether these statements are true (T) or false (F). Hello, and welcome to Focus on the Arts. I’m your host - Dave Green - and this is your very own local radio programme. Every Friday evening we put the spotlight on different arts and culture facilities, and look at the shows and events that are on offer in the coming week. And today the focus is on The National Arts Centre. Now, if you don’t already know it yourself, I'm sure you’ve all heard of it. It’s famous throughout the world as one of the major venues for classical music. But did you know that it is actually much more than just a place to hear concerts? The Centre itself is a huge complex that caters for a great range of arts. Under a single roof it houses concert rooms, theatres, cinemas, art galleries and a wonderful public library, as well as service facilities including three restaurants and a bookshop. So at any one time, the choice of entertainment there is simply enormous. So, how did they manage to build such a big arts complex right in the heart of the city? Well, the area was completely destroyed by bombs during the war in 1940. So the opportunity was taken to create a cultural centre that would be, what they called: ‘the City’s gift to the Nation’. Of course it took a while for such a big project to get started, but 4

it was planned in the 60s, built in the 70s and eventually opened to the public in 1983. Ever since then it has proved to be a great success. It is not privately owned, like many arts centres, but is still in public hands - it's run by the City Council. Both our National Symphony Orchestra and National Theatre Company were involved in the planning of the project, and they are now based there - giving regular performances every week - and as the Centre is open 363 days of the year, there are plenty of performances to choose from. Question 3: Listen to Matt and Jess talking about their assignment. Choose the correct answer A, B or C. Matt: Hey, Jess, glad you could make it, we've got a lot to discuss. Jess: Hi Matt, yes, sorry I'm a bit late, I did bring all my notes with me. Matt: Yes, me too. Where shall we start? Jess: Well, I think it would be a good idea to clarify our objectives just one more time. Matt: Yes, Good idea......OK, here we are....we need to record, photograph and identify the plant species in ten, one square meter plots. Jess: Does it say anything about where these plots should be and how they should be laid out? Matt: ah.....here it is. It says that all the plots need to be no more than 10 metres apart...... and how do we choose them? Matt: Ah, this is the fun bit. I remember this......here we are "Make a one meter square frame, using bamboo sticks available from the department stores".... Yes,....we've already done that... I know, I'm just reading the whole section. OK ...One person stands roughly in the middle of the chosen are and throws the frame. The other person uses a tape to mark out the square where the frame landed and returns frame to thrower. The thrower then turns a few degrees on the spot and throws again. The thrower must turn slightly after each throw and vary the force of the throw until after the 10th throw they are pointing in almost the same direction as the first." That sounds a bit complicated. That's only because it's all in writing. It's just a simple throw, turn, throw, turn, throw turn until we have 10 squares. And I guess you want to do the throwing...... Well if you don't mind. I'm sure you'll be more accurate at marking the squares. Yes, I'm sure I am and I'm sure you've got a stronger throwing arm! Ok, good, we've got that sorted, now we need to decide where to go. Yes, I've been thinking about that, and I've brought the map.

Question 4: You will hear part of a presentation by a woman called Linda Brown, who is the director of Woodley community college. For questions 16-25, complete the sentences with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS/NUMBERS. Thank you everyone for attending this presentation about the new college. My name's Linda Brown and I'm the director of the college. I'd like to start with some basic information. We're planning on holding the opening ceremony on April 21st with a view to starting summer classes on June 15th. That gives us enough time in between to make any last-minute improvements and adds a bit of extra time to the schedule, just in case. It's hard to say at this moment exactly how many students are likely to enroll for the summer school, but there's certainly been a lot of interest, especially after the series of adverts we did on the radio. We were confident those would be more effective than TV promotions as people tend to change channels in the breaks between programmes - less likely on the radio, we thought. So, I would hope we'll have plenty of people signing up for courses through that. We're hoping to attract some useful publicity at the opening ceremony, and our marketing director has been working very hard on this. We thought it was important to request the services of someone who works within the community to declare the college officially open, and who could be better than the mayor? We're pretty pleased he's agreed as he's proving to be very popular in the town. We've also invited a number of other local figures to get involved. We're thrilled to announce that the footballer Harry Watson, who comes from the area, has agreed to stand uo and give a short talk - we're hoping he’ll be a popular draw! We've also asked along a number of business investors and other VIPS from the area. The aim of the opening is to get local people signing up for courses - we plan to do that by involving them in all sorts of ways. For instance, as far as possible, we're going to have local experts giving classes here instead of academics who have little connection with the area. We'll have the chief accountant from a local business teaching accountancy classes that kind of thing. We've decided to place importance on practical subjects at this college, to attract students who may not be interested in a more theoretical kind of course. Basically, we're hoping to get students who are keen on developing their skills - perhaps people who are already working. We've taken a very flexible approach about the students we're going to accept. Many people who don't come out of school with the best grades may well have ended up in jobs they don't really enjoy. These people have a great deal of potential and many of them would relish the opportunity to study - we want them to enjoy the benefits of studying at a higher level, and we're prepared to give them the chance to do so. Our admissions policy will be to accept students who didn't have the Qualifications required for entry into more established colleges. We're pretty sure a lot of young people will be tempted to enroll. We want to attract people who wouldn't normally think about 6

enrolling for higher education. Something else we believe will boost numbers is our newly- opened applications office right in the middle of the town to create interest. We think it's a great idea to provide visibility for the college, rather than people having to go out of their way to reach the registrations office here at the college itself. In addition, should members of the public require further for a brochure with all the details supplied online to be sent directly to your home, I'll give you more information about that.