A. too B. but C. because D. so

don’t give (68)……………… candy, the children will (69)……………… a trick on them. But this hardly happens. Almost people (70)……………… them candy or fruit. DẠY KÈM QUY NHƠN OFFICIAL -> Your answers: 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. III. Read the text then make questions and answer them: (5 × 0.2 = 1.0 pt) Tom and Jane want to know their friends’ favorite free time activities, so they are asking their friends about what they like to do in their free time. Many of their friends say that usually eat and drink as well as chat with their friends. They like to talk about many things around them: their teachers, their friends, their families as well as their favorite musicians, singers, soccer players and movie stars. There are some popular activities after lessons at their school such as: skipping rope, reading books and playing sports. At home, many of their friends say they like to watch TV, listen to music or play computer games. They rarely go to the movies. Some of the girls like to go shopping. Very few of their friends like to do English exercises on the Internet. Many of their friends don’t take part in art, music club. 71. What/ many of/ Tom and Jane's friends/ usually do/ their free time? -> ………………………………..…………………………………………….……..…… …………………………………………………………………………….……..…… 72. What/ their friends/ like/ talk about? -> …………………..………………………………………………………….……..…… …………………………………………………………………………….……..…… 73. many of their friends/ like to watch TV, listen to music/ or play computer games/ home? -> …………………………………………………………………………….……..…… …………………………………………………………………………….……..…… 74. very few/ or many/ their friends/ like to do English exercises/ the Internet? -> …………………………………………………………………………….……..…… ..………………………………………………………………………….……..…… 75. What/ passage/ talk about? (Free time activities/ Tom and Jane's friends/.) -> ……………………….…………………………………………………….……..…… …………………………………………………………………………….……..…… PART FIVE: WRITING: (5.0 pts) I. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning. Use the words in brackets: (5 × 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 76. How much are these notebooks, Hoa? -> .........................................................................................................................? (cost)

77. My bike is cheaper than Ha's bike. ->.................................................................................................................... DẠY KÈM QUY NHƠN OFFICIAL (expensive) 78. No one in our village is as handsome as Peter. ->........................................................................................................................... (most) 79. How tall is your younger brother, Joko? ->..........................................................................................................................? (age) 80. Does your brother enjoy playing Chinese chess? ->.................................................................................................................? (interested) II. Use the following words and phrases to write complete and meaningful sentences. Make all the necessary changes and additions if necessary. (5 × 0.2=1.0 pt) 81. your friends/ going/ have / picnic/ near/Red River? >............................................................................................................................................... 82. We would/ some oranges/and two/ glass/ milk/ please. >............................................................................................................................................... 83. How much/ rice/ many eggs/ these farmers/ produce/ every year? >............................................................................................................................................... 84. Anh / often/ play/sports/ his free time, but/ sometimes/ go/ camping/ his classmates. >............................................................................................................................................... 85. Phuong's brother/ play/ soccer/ moment./ He/ play/ it/ every afternoon/ after school. >............................................................................................................................................... III. Write an essay (120 words) about your family: (3.0 pts) (The essay must have the title and three parts: Opening – Body and Conclusion. Don’t show your proper names/ school/ village…) ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………….. HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 6 NĂM HỌC: 2017 - 2018 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH PART ONE: LISTENING (3.0 pts) Listen and fill in the gaps: (15 × 0.2 = 3.0 pts) 1. something 2. hour 3. go 4. aren't 5. different

11. running 12. these 13. wear 14. but 15. how DẠY KÈM QUY NHƠN OFFICIAL PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts) I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently: (5 × 0.2=1.0 pt) 16. C. orange 17. A. plane 18. C. eraser 19. B. students 20. C. sometimes II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others. (5 × 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 21. C. pagoda 22. D. lemonade 23. A. canteen 24. D. routine 25. A. engineer

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.0 pts)

I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (10 × 0.2 = 2.0 pts) 26. D. anything 27. D. Why don’t we 28. A. is talking 29. A. loaves 30. C. for

31. D. B & C are correct 32. D. the highest 33. B. an old 34. D. Both A & C are correct 35. D. a little

II. Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences. (10 × 0.2 = 2.0 pts) 36. dangerous 37. leaves 38. policewoman 39. women 40. longest 41. carefully 42. bookshelves 43. height 44. thirtieth 45. weight

III. Supply the correct forms of the verbs in brackets: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 46. Does…do 47. are sleeping 48. does…go 49. are going to visit 50. eat

PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.0 pts)

I. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each gap of the passage: (10 × 0.2 = 2.0 pts) -> Your answers: 51. A. a 52. D. second 53. C. his house 54. D. leaves 55. A. It 56. B. at 57. B. gets up 58. A. has 59. B. with 60. C. doesn’t stay II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. (10 × 0.2 =2.0 pts) 61. people 62. o’clock 63. and 64. time 65. home 66. or 67. to 68. them 69. play 70. give III. Read the text then make questions and answer them: (5 × 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 71. What do many of Tom and Jane's friends usually do in their free time?

-> They usually eat, drink and chat with their friends. 72. What do their friends like to talk about? DẠY KÈM QUY NHƠN OFFICIAL -> They like to talk about many things around them. 37. Do many of their friends like to watch TV, listen to music or play computer games at home? -> Yes, they do. 74. Do very few or many of their friends like to do English exercises on the Internet? -> Very few of their friends like to do English exercises on the Internet. 75. What does the passage talk about? -> The passage talks about free time activities of Tom and Jane's friends. PART FIVE: WRITING: (5.0 pts) I. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning. Use the words in brackets: (5 × 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 76. How much do these notebooks cost, Hoa? 77. Ha's bike is more expensive than my bike/ my one/ mine. 78. Peter is the most handsome in our village. 79. What is your younger brother's age, Joko? 80. Is your brother interested in playing Chinese chess? II. Use the following words and phrases to write complete and meaningful sentences. Make all the necessary changes and additions if necessary. (5 × 0.2=1.0 pt) 81. Are your friends going to have a picnic near the Red River? 82. We would like some oranges and two glasses of milk, please. 83. How much rice and how many eggs do these farmers produce every year? 84. Anh often plays sports in his free time, but he sometimes goes camping with his classmates. 85. Phuong's brother is playing soccer at the moment. He/ plays it every afternoon after school. III. Write an essay (120 words) about your family: (3.0 pts) (The essay must have the title and three parts: Opening – Body and Conclusion. Don’t show your proper names/ school/ village…) - The opening: The essay must write something relating to the topic “How the family is, the number of members…”. (0.5pt) - The body: Write about at least three reasons explaining about what they do in general and in details…, the sentences must contain connectors and link words... (2,0 pts) - The conclusion: Write about the writers' ideas. (0.5 pt) * Note: The essay that has 3.0 points must have: - Long enough (At least 200 words or maybe more). - Correct vocabulary and structures. - Don't tell the proper names (The school, the student's/ teacher’s name/ ...).

DẠY KÈM QUY NHƠN OFFICIAL

UBND HUYỆN YÊN LẠC PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO DẠY KÈM QUY NHƠN OFFICIAL

ĐỀ THI GIAO LƯU HSG CẤP HUYỆN MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 6 NĂM HỌC 2017-2018 Thời gian làm bài 120 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề

PART A: LISTENING Part I: Listen to a woman talking to a policeman and choose the best option A, B or C to answer each of the following questions. You will hear the conversation twice. 1. How much money was in the bag? A. £ 20 B. £ 40 C. £ 30 2. What else was in the bag? A. credit card B. driving licence C. gloves 3. The bag was ________ . A. old B. expensive C. big 4. What time did the woman lose the bag? A. 9.30 B. 10.00 C. 10.30 5. The policeman will telephone her in the _______. A. morning B. afternoon C. evening Part II: You will hear a man speaking on the telephone. He wants to speak to Miss Dixon, but she is not there. Listen and complete questions 6-10. You will hear the conversation twice. Message TO: FROM: Meeting about: On: Time: In: Please take: Miss Dixon 6. Mr. __________________ 7. new __________________ Wednesday 8. _________ 9. room _______ 10. _________ PART B: PHONETICS Question I. Pick out the word (A, B, C or D) whose underlined part is pronounced differently from those of the other words 1. A. soul B. about C. account D. sound 2. A. weather B. than C. throat D. feather 3. A. dear B. wear C. nearby D. appear 4. A. changes B. causes C. noises D. articles 5. A. travelled B. produced C. played D. confused PART C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR Question I: Choose the best option (A, B, C, or D) to complete the sentence. 1. – “ ________ do they visit their hometown?” - “ Once every two or three months.” A. How long B. How far C. How often D. How much

DẠY KÈM QUY NHƠN OFFICIAL

2. The new instructor at the Sports Club is excellent. She is very ________ with us. A. confident B. patient C. positive D. careful 3. They spent too much time ________ computer games when they were students. A. to play B. play C. played D. playing 4. We sometimes __________ experiments in physics class. A. make B. work C. do D. get 5. My father is fond of sports. He goes to the Sports Club to watch_________ every Saturday. A. racing horses B. race horse C. horse races D. horsing race 6. I’m meeting Tom tonight; It will be the first time I ________ him since Christmas. A. saw B. had seen C. have seen D. see 7. When you are going climbing, you _____ check the weather forecast first. A. could B. should C. may D. can 8. We must be quick. There’s ________ time left. A. few B. little C. much D. more 9. The antique table is very beautiful, but it doesn’t fit in with the rest of the furniture, which is ________. A. old B. expensive C. modern D. recent 10. Lan is wearing a _______. A. short nice nylon skirt B. nice short nylon skirt C. nylon short nice skirt D. nylon nice short skirt

Question II: Each sentence has one mistake. Find and correct it. 0. It is a five – minutes walk from my house to the market. Example: five – minutes five – minute 1. If you don’t practice speaking English regularly, you wouldn’t feel confident when talking to a foreigner. 2. Many people say that Da Nang is one of the most beautiful city in the Southeast Asia. 3. They prefer watching TV at home to take part in outdoor activities in their free time. 4. John doesn’t work so hardly as Peter, but he is much more careful than Peter. 5. Tuan is very sporty; he is fond of play badminton with his father after school. 6. Mr. Long and his wife have worked for this company for ten years ago. 7. Although Hoa doesn’t live far from school, but she is always late for school. 8. There are many bookshelf with a lot of different kinds of book in my school’s library. 9. The air in the country is more clean than the air in the city. 10. Mr. Tuan together with his family go to Ha Long Bay every summer holiday. Question III: Complete the following sentences, using the correct form of the words given in parentheses. 1. Tu is very ________. He’s always on the phone, chatting to friends TALK 2. We can trust Huy. He is very _____________. RELY 3. Please listen to the ___________ carefully. INSTRUCT 4. The football fans cheered __________ for their side. LOUD 5. My lives in a small village and its __________ are very beautiful. SURROUND 6. Wearing a tight pair of shoes is very ___________. COMFORT 7. Hoa is one of the __________ students in her class. SHY 8. ___________ in the rain makes me feel pleasant. WALK 9. There are fifty __________ in this music contest. MUSIC 10. My children like joining __________ activities after school. DOOR PART D: READING Question I: Choose the word or phrase that best fits the blank space in the following passage. My Television . My television is an important (1) _____of furniture to me. I can’t get (2) ____ very often, but my TV brings the whole (3) ______to me. From the evening news and the “all-news” channels. I learn about events(4) ______ the outside world: politics, the environment, recent changes in technology and

medicine, and (5) ______on. I like game shows and travel programs, (6) ______. And I love comedies: I think it’s important to be (7) _____to laugh. I can even watch shows (8) _____other languages and DẠY KÈM QUY NHƠN OFFICIAL “go shopping” by TV. With the major national networks, I have a (9) ______of fifty different programs (10) ___the same time! 1. A. bit B. piece C. slice D. pair 2. A. out B. in C. out of D. in to 3. A. world B. places C. towns D. cities 4. A. on B. in C. out D. over 5. A. such B. this C. that D. so 6. A. too B. so C. either D. neither 7. A. ability B. enable C. able D. inability 8. A. of B. in C. at D. by 9. A. choose B. chose C. choice D. choosing 10.A. in B. at C. on D. of Question II: Read the following passage and choose the correct answer (A, B, C or D) for each question. Peter usually wakes up at half past six in the morning, but he does not get up until a quarter to seven. He takes a shower and gets dressed. He has breakfast at half past seven. He does not have a big breakfast. He usually has bread, coffee and orange juice. After breakfast, he cleans his teeth. He leaves his house at eight o’clock. He never drives a car to work. He often catches the train to his office in Manchester. On the train, he reads the newspaper or does the crossword. For lunch, he usually has a salad or soup and sandwich at 1.30. He comes home at about half past six in the evening. He has dinner at half past seven. It is a big meal of the day and he has meat or fish with vegetables and potatoes or rice. After dinner, he washes up. Then he usually reads a book. Sometimes he plays chess with his friends. He never watches television because he does not like it. He goes to bed at about 11.30. 1. Every morning, Peter gets up at ________. A. 6.30 B. 6.00 C. 7.15 D. 6.45 2. He usually has ________ in the morning. A. breakfast with meat B. a slight breakfast C. a big breakfast D. breakfast with eggs 3. What does he usually have for lunch? A. sandwich and salad B. soup and fish C. salad and soup D. sandwich and fish 4. What does he usually do after dinner? A. He usually washes up and watches TV. B. He usually reads a book and watches TV. C. He usually washes up, watches TV, reads a book and plays chess. D. He usually washes up, reads a book and plays chess. 5. Which sentence is NOT true in the passage above? A. Sometimes he drives his car to work. B. He often reads the newspaper on the way to his office. Question III: Insert ONE suitable word in each of the blanks to complete the following passage. Along with jogging and swimming, cycling is (1)______ all-round form of exercise. It can help to (2)_________ your strength and energy, giving you (3)________ efficient muscle and a stronger heart. But increasing your strength is (4)___________ the only advantage of cycling. Because you are not carrying the weight of your (5)________ on your feet, it’s a good form of (6)___________ for people with painful feet or backs. However, (7)_______ all forms of exercise, it’s important to start slowly and build up gently. Doing (8)________ much, too quickly can damage muscles that aren’t used to working. If you have (9) _________ doubt about taking up cycling for health reason, talk to your doctor and ask (10)_________ his advice.

PART E: WRITING Question I: Rewrite the sentences with the given words (do not change the given word) or DẠY KÈM QUY NHƠN OFFICIAL beginning in such a way that their meanings remain unchanged 1. The book has two hundred pages book. ->There…………………………………………… 2. How much does this cassette player cost? -> What…………………………………………..? 3. Mai dances marvelously. ->Mai is…………………………………………… 4. They can’t come on Saturday. ->It is……………………………………………… 5. I am not as good at Literature as my sister. ->My sister is……………………………………… 6. I haven’t written to her for two months. ->The last time…………………………………….. 7. The trip to Chicago was cheaper than we expected. ->The trip to …………………………………………. 8. We took a train to Liverpool last Saturday. ->We got………………………………………………… 9. He has more books than me. -> I have……………………………………………….. 10. It’s very important to learn new words. -> Learning…………………………………………… Question II Write a paragraph of about 100-150 words to describe a person that you like most. ________ THE END OF THE TEST ________

DẠY KÈM QUY NHƠN OFFICIAL

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM THI GIAO LƯU HỌC SINH GIỎI NĂM HỌC 2017- 2018 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 6

PART A: LISTENING: 1 points (0.1 p/ 1 correct answer) Part I: 1. A 2. C 3. A 4. B 5. A Part II: 6. HYDE 7. Factory 8. 11.30/half past eleven 9. 21/ twentyone 10. Photo(s) /photograph(s) PART B: PHONETICS: 0.5 points (0.1 p/ 1 correct answer) 1. A 2. C 3. B 4. D 5. B PART C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMARL: 3.0 points (0.1 p/ 1 correct answer) Question I: 1. C 6. C 2. B 7. B 3. D 8. B 4. C 9. C 5. C 10. B Question II: 1. wouldn’t => won’t 6. for => since 2. city => cities 7. but => ᴓ 3. take => taking 8. bookshelf => bookshelves 4. hardly => hard 9. more clean => cleaner 5. play => playing 10. go => goes Question III: 1. talkative 2. reliable 3. instruction 4. loudly 5. surroundings 6. uncomfortable 7. shiest 8. walking 9. musicians 10. outdoor PART D: READING: 2.5 points (0.1 p/ 1 correct answer) Question I: 1. B 2.A 3.A 4.B 5. D 6.A 7. C 8. B 9. C 10. B Question II: 1D 2B 3A 4D 5A Question III: 1. an 2. increase 3. more 4. not 5. body 6. exercise 7. with 8. too 9. any 10. for PART E: READING: 3.0 points Question I: 1 point (0.1 p/ 1 correct answer) 1. There are 200 pages in this book. 2. What is the price of this cassette player? 3. Mai is a marvelous dancer. 4. It is impossible for them to come on Saturday. 5. My sister is better at Literature than me. 6. The last time I wrote to her was two / 2 months ago. 7. The trip to Chicago wasn’t as expensive as we expected. 8. We got to Liverpool by train last Saturday. 9. He has fewer books than him / he does. 10. Learning new words is very important. .

Question II: 2.0 điểm Học sinh viết đúng yêu cầu đề bài, đúng cấu trúc của đoạn văn có “topic sentence” rõ ràng, DẠY KÈM QUY NHƠN OFFICIAL “supporting ideas” hợp lí, liên kết chặt chẽ: 1 điểm Học sinh biết cách sử dụng từ, cấu trúc đa dạng: 0.5 điểm Học sinh không có lỗi sai chính tả, ngữ pháp: 0.5 điểm

PHÒNG GD&ĐT TAM DƯƠNG DẠY KÈM QUY NHƠN OFFICIAL Đề thi này gồm 04 trang

ĐỀ THI GIAO LƯU HSG CẤP HUYỆN ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC NĂM HỌC 2018 - 2019 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH – LỚP 6 Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) PART A – LISTENING. I. * Listen and write. New Street school library 0. Full name: Sarah Tanner 1. Age : _________________________ 2. Teacher’s name : _________________________ 3. Favourite books: _________________________ 4. Hobbies: _________________________ 5. How many books: _________________________ * Listen and write the answer to correct heading. What did Ben do last week? 0. Monday 0. B A. He bought a book in the village shop and sat on the sand and read it 1. Wednesday 1. …….… B. He went to kind of museum and saw lots of different fish 2. Saturday 2. …….… C. He went to the beach and climbed up to the top of a big rock 3. Tuesday 3. …….… D. He went for a walk in the village, ice creams 4. Friday 4. …….… E. He went fishing in boat 5. Sunday 5. …….… F. He saw a film about a woman climber PART B – PHONETICS. II. Choose one word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others. 1. A. traveled B. surprised C. worked D. climbed 2. A. too B. food C. cook D. pool 3. A. listen B. take C. light D. understand * Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others. 4. A. comment B. symbol C. dirty D. enjoy 5. A. behave B. decorate C. expect D. describe PART C – LEXICO AND GRAMMAR. III. Choose the best answer A,B,C or D to complete each of the following sentences. 1. There are flights daily to Ho Chi Minh City……….…Monday. A. besides B. after C. except D. on 2. It’s expensive ……….…to Nha Trang by plane. Would you mind ……….…by train? A. travel / to go B. to travel / going C. to travel / to go D. travel / going 3. Susan has worked for that company……….…4 years. A. since B. during C. for D. over 4. How……….…rice does he want? A. many B. much C. any D. about 5. Superstitions still……….…an important part of life for many people in Vietnam. A. play B. take C. do D. give 6. Educated women are likely to get ……….…jobs and become more important at home. A. well-trained B. well-paid C. well-prepared D. well-educated 7. What about ……….…a cup of coffee? A. having B. have C. you have D. do you have 8. You ……….…pick those flowers. Don’t you see the sign? A. can’t B. don’t need to C. mustn’t D. needn’t 9. How ……….…going by bike to the pagoda? A. there B. sport C. about D. time 10. Sorry, I take the wrong book ……….…mistake. A. by B. of C. with D. in

11. This ceremony is known under different names. A. clever B. fortunate C. traditional D. numerous DẠY KÈM QUY NHƠN OFFICIAL 12. I don’t have……….…apples but I have……….…oranges. A. any / some B. some / any C. some / some D. any / any 13. Don’t throw trash into the river. It……….…water. A. plows B. saves C. damages D. pollutes 14. You should pay more……….…to the lessons in class. A. part B. care C. attention D. notice 15. ……….…she was tired, she watched a film last night. A. Although B. Although of C. Despite D. In spite of IV. Each of the following sentences has a mistake. Find and correct it. Sentences Mistake Correction 1. Ba gets up at 6 o’clock and gets dressing. 2. In the morning, Hoa washes her face, brushes her tooth and then has breakfast. 3. How often does Mr. John go to Ha Noi? – Seldom, one a year. 4. In spite of having a lot of money, but he lives unhappily. 5. If you don’t study harder, you would fail the exams. 6. The film I watched yesterday was very interested. 7. The three Rs stand of Reduce – Reuse – Recycle. V. Provide the correct form of the words in CAPITAL LETTERS. 1. Very few people can catch the……….…cheese because it can travel up to 112 km an hour. (ROLL) 2. If more people cycle, there will be……….…air pollution. Right? (LITTLE) 3. There was no ……….…for his absence from class yesterday. (EXPLAIN) 4. Meat is not a(n)……….…food if we know how much to eat. (HEALTH) 5. Walking in the rain gives me……….… (PLEASE) 6. Paris is ……….…for the Eiffel Tower. (FAME) 7. Tomorrow we’re cycling around to……….…the city. (DISCOVERY) 8. During his career he became ……….…around the world as “The King of Football”. (KNOW) 9. Life today is……….…from life 50 years ago. (DIFFER) 10. This is the biggest ……….…in the city. (BUILD) VI. Rearrange the order of the sentences to have a complete conversation. A. By train. B. How long are you going to stay there? C. I’m fine. Where are you going to visit this summer? D. Fine, thanks. And you, Nam? E. How are you going to travel? F. For a week. G. Hello Ba. How are you? H. I’m going to visit my uncle in Nha Trang. PART D – READING VII. Which notice (A-H) says this (1-5)? For questions 1-5, mark the correct letter A-H on the answer sheet.

DẠY KÈM QUY NHƠN OFFICIAL VIII. Read the passage and choose the best answer to each question. Nha Trang is one of the most important tourist hubs of Vietnam, thanks to its beautiful beaches with fine and clean sand and the clear ocean water with mild temperature all year round. There are several resorts such as Vinpearl, Diamond Bay and Ana Mandra, amusement and water parks both in the city and on islands off the coast. The possibly most beautiful street of Nha Trang is Tran Phu Street along the seaside, sometimes referred to as the Pacific Coast Highway of Vietnam. Lying off Nha Trang is the Hon Tre Island (Bamboo Island), with a major resort operated by the Vinpearl Group. The Vinpearl Cable Car, a gondola lift system, links the main land to the five-star resort and theme park on Hon Tre Island. 1. Nha Trang is considered as one of the most beautiful tourist hubs in Vietnam because ………… A. it has several resorts such as Vinpearl, Diamond Bay and Ana Mandra. B. it has beautiful coastal villages with mild temperature all year round. C. it has beautiful beaches and clear ocean water with mild temperature all year round. D. the Vinpearl Cable Car links the main land to the five-star resort on Hon Tre Island. 2. According to the text, Diamond Bay is the name of a/an ………… A. resort B. cable car C. beach D. island 3. The Pacific Coast Highway of Vietnam referred to …………in Nha Trang. A. the city B. the islands C. Tran Phu Street D. Vinpearl Group 4. The word “major” in line 6 is closest in meaning to ………… A. modern B. beautiful C. expensive D. main 5. According to the text, which of the following statements is NOT true? A. The Hon Tre Island (Bamboo Island) is not on the main land of Nha Trang. B. Hon Tre Island is one of the most important tourist hubs of Vietnam. C. Tourists can go to Hon Tre Island from the mainland of Nha Trang by cable car. D. Tran Phu Street is possibly the most beautiful street of Nha Trang.

IX. Read the passage and choose the correct answer (A or B, C, D) to fill in the gap. Kate has three (1)…………a day: breakfast, lunch and dinner. She usually (2)…………breakfast DẠY KÈM QUY NHƠN OFFICIAL at home. She has bread, eggs and milk (3)…………breakfast. (4)…………school, Kate and her friends always (5)…………lunch at one o’clock. They often have fish or meat, vegetables for lunch. Kate has dinner (6)…………her parents at home at 7 o’clock. They often have meat or fish, bread, chicken (7)…………vegetables for dinner. After dinner, they eat (8)…………fruits or cakes. Kate (9)………… dinner because it is a big and happy meal of the day. Her family goes out for dinner (10)…………a month. 1. A. breakfast B. lunch C. meals D. cooking 2. A. have B. has C. do D. does 3. A. on B. in C. to D. for 4. A. At B. In C. On D. For 5. A. has B. have C. having D. to have 6. A. to B. for C. with D. and 7. A. and B. or C. to D. in 8. A. a B. an C. any D. some 9. A. like B. likes C. to like D. not like 10. A. one B. one time C. once D. once time X. Fill in each blank with one suitable word to complete the passage. BENEFITS OF PLAYING SPORTS Firstly, playing sports can give you a healthy life and a fit body to you. You will be more active and healthier (1)…………playing sports. To illustrate, you can have a lower chance of getting a serious illness such as (2)…………attack or high blood pressure. In other words, it increases your resistance to illness. In leisure time, you can play sports (3)………… your friends or your relatives, this not only helps you but (4)…………motivates everyone around you to take part in sports and have good (5)………… Furthermore, there are some (6)…………which you can play easily such as table tennis, tennis or football and after that, you feel completely relaxed or (7)…………free from your stress. Moreover, you also need to allow (8)…………encourage children to play sports, especially some outside activities such as football, basketball or volleyball to decrease the time that your children (9)…………sitting in front of computers or watching television. These sports can help them have endurance, quickness and even teach them how to improve team spirit and work in groups. These sports also teach them how to communicate with their teammates, and show them (10)…………. active and creative they are. PART E – WRITING. XI. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence. 1. We visited Quy Nhon last summer.  We paid ………………………………………………………………………………………………….. 2. What was your weight last year?  How ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… 3. Stop talking or you won’t understand the lesson.  If …………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 4. He hasn’t eaten in that restaurant since he left the city.  The last time ………………………………………….………………………………………………….. 5. I spent 2 hours doing my homework last night.  It …………………………………………………………………………………………………………. XII. How should you do to help your school greener? Write a paragraph of about 100- 120 words to express your ideas.--------------------------------------------- ----------HẾT--------- (Giám thị coi thi không giải thích gì thêm) Họ tên thí sinh......................................................................SBD:.................phòng thi.............

PHÒNG GD&ĐT TAM DƯƠNG ĐÁP ÁN + HDC THI GIAO LƯU HSG CẤP HUYỆN NĂM HỌC 2018 - 2019 DẠY KÈM QUY NHƠN OFFICIAL MÔN: TIẾNG ANH – LỚP 6 HDC này gồm 02 trang Tổng điểm: 20 điểm PART A – LISTENING. (3,5 điểm): I. Listen and write: Mỗi câu đúng HS được 0,4 = 2 điểm 1. 1. 8/ eight 2. (Mrs.) Drummond 3. Animal stories 4. Riding (horses) 5. 5/five * Listen and write the answer to correct heading. What did Ben do last week? Mỗi câu đúng HS được 0,3 = 1,5 điểm 1. C 2. D 3. E 4. F 5. A PART B – PHONETICS. (5 x 0,1 = 0,5 điểm) II. 1. C 2. C 3. A 4. D 5. B PART C – LEXICO AND GRAMMAR. (40 x 0,2 = 8 điểm) III. Choose the best answer for each sentence. 1. C 2. B 3. C 4. B 5. A 6. B 7. A 8. C 9. C 10. A 11. D 12. A 13. D 14. C 15. A IV. Each of the following sentences has a mistake. Find and correct it. Sentences Mistake Correction 1. Ba gets up at 6 o’clock and gets dressing. dressing dressed 2. In the morning, Hoa washes her face, brushes her tooth and then has breakfast. tooth teeth 3. How often does Mr. John go to Ha Noi? – Seldom, one a year. one once 4. In spite of having a lot of money, but he lives unhappily but ø 5. If you don’t study harder, you would fail the exams. would will 6. The film I watched yesterday was very interested interested interesting 7. The three Rs stand of Reduce – Reuse – Recycle. of for V. Provide the correct form of the words in CAPITAL LETTERS. 1. ROLLING 6. FAMOUS 2. LESS 7. DISCOVER 3. EXPLANATION 8. WELL- KNOWN 4. UNHEALTHY 9. DIFFERENT 5. PLEASURE 10. BUILDING VI. Rearrange the order of the sentences to have a complete conversation. 1G 2D 3C 4H 5B 6F 7E 8A OR 5E 6A 7B 8F PART D – READING (4 điểm) VII. Which notice (A-H) says this (1-5)? For questions 1-5, mark the correct letter A-H on the answer sheet. (5 x 0,2 = 1 điểm) 1. F 2. A 3. G 4. C 5. D

VIII. Read the passage and choose the best answer to each question. (5 x 0,2 = 1 điểm) DẠY KÈM QUY NHƠN OFFICIAL 1. C 2. A 3. C 4. D 5. B IX. Read the passage and choose the correct answer (A or B, C, D) to fill in the gap. (10 x 0,1 = 1 điểm) 1. C 2. B 3. D 4. A 5. B 6. C 7. A 8. D 9. B 10. C X. Fill in each blank with one suitable word to complete the passage. (10 x 0,1 = 1 điểm) 1. by 2. heart 3. with 4. also 5. health 6. sports 7. even 8. and /or 9. spend 10. How PART E – WRITING. (4 ĐIỂM) XI. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence. (5 x 0,2=1 điểm) 1. We paid a visit to Quy Nhon last summer. 2. How heavy were you last year? 3. If you don’t stop talking, you won’t understand the lesson. If you stop talking, you will understand the lesson. 4. The last time he ate in that restaurant was when he left the city. 5. It took me 2 hours to do my homework last night. XII. How should you do to help your school greener? (3 điểm) Write a paragraph of about 100 - 120 words to express your ideas.-- 1. Content (1,6 points): a provision of all main ideas and details as appropriate. 2. Language (0,8 points): a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language gifted lower-secondary school students. 3. Presentation (0,6 points): coherence, cohesion, and style appropriate to the level of English language gifted lower-secondary school students. ---------THE END---------

aif ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 6 NĂM HỌC: 2018 -2019 DẠY KÈM QUY NHƠN OFFICIAL MÔN: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian: 120 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Chú ý: - Bộ đề thi này gồm có 06 trang, từ trang 01 đến trang 06. - Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào bộ đề thi này. Điểm Họ tên, chữ ký của người chấm thi số 1: Số phách - Bằng số:…………….. ………………………………………...

PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO HUYỆN THANH OAI ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC (Do Chủ tịch hội đồng chấm thi ghi)

- Bằng chữ:…………… Họ tên, chữ ký của người chấm thi số 2: …………………..

………………………... ………………………………………...

PART ONE: LISTENING (3.0 pts)

Listen and fill in the gaps: (15 × 0.2 = 3.0 pts) Subjects

There are many subjects that you can (1) ..................................... at school.

My favorite subject is music. I like to (2) ..................................... and to play the clarinet.

I also like art. I am quite good at drawing and (3) ......................................

History is a good subject. I like (4) ..................................... about the past.

Geography is very interesting. We look at many (5) ..................................... in geography.

We learn where there are (6) ..................................... and mountains.

I know the (7) ..................................... of all the continents and all the oceans.

Mathematics is my (8) ..................................... favorite subject.

I am not very good with numbers. I am good at (9) ..................................... and subtraction, but I am not good at division and multiplication.

In my school we learn to speak (10) ......................................

We learn French (11) ..................................... Canada has French and English-speaking citizens. English literature is a good (12) ......................................

I enjoy reading books. I also like to (13) ..................................... compositions and poetry.

Science is my brother's favorite subject. He is interested in (14) ....................................., and he likes to do experiments. We also take drama at my school.

I (15) ..................................... to act. I got the lead role in the school play. -> Your answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts) I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently: (5 × 0.2 = 1.0 DẠY KÈM QUY NHƠN OFFICIAL pt) 16. A. energy B. pagoda C. programme D. goggles 17. A. charity B. exchange C. character D. peach blossom 18. A. design B. serious C. president D. overseas 19. A. languages B. dresses C. watches D. becomes 20. A. symbol B. robot C. popular D. remote -> Your answers: 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others. (5 × 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 21. A. about B. common C. weather D. building 22. A. landmark B. creature C. channel D. arround 23. A. terrible B. equipment C. remember D. exhausted 24. A. newsreader B. furniture C. continent D. marathon 25. A. waterfall B. educate C. appearance D. beautiful -> Your answers: 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.0 pts) I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (10 × 0.2 = 2.0 pts) 26. We ............................ the cartoon “Tom and Jerry” many times. A. see B. saw C. are seeing D. have seen 27. My brother likes going to the cinema............................ I like watching TV at home. A. but B. and C. or D. because 28. My sister, Thuy Linh, is the ............................ girl in her school. A. as beautiful B. more beautiful C. beautifullest D. most beautiful 29. What............................ you ............................ yesterday evening? – I stayed at home. A. do - do B. will - do C. did - do D. can - do 30. I like this programme because it is both entertaining ............................ educational. A. or B. and C. so D. but 31. My younger sister ............................ home for school yet. A. didn’t leave B. don’t leave C. hasn’t left D. isn’t leaving 32. ............................ people go to the movies now than ten years ago. A. Few B. Fewer C. Less D. Lesser 33. Which animals are............................, dogs or dolphins? A. intelligence B. intelligent C. more intelligent D. most intelligent 34. People in many countries often wear their............................. clothes on the New Year day. A. ordinary B. summer C. tradition D. traditional 35. The father told her children: “............................ swim in this river. It’s a dangerous place.” A. Do B. Don’t C. Not D. Can’t

-> Your answers: 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. DẠY KÈM QUY NHƠN OFFICIAL 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. II. Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences. (10 × 0.2 = 2.0 pts) 36. Nobody in our class is...................................at Math than my cousin, Bao. GOOD 37. We held the Mid-Autumn festivals in the ...................................house. CULTURE 38. Ba had an accident last week because he drove ................................... CARE 39. Living in a city is ...................................than living in the countryside. INTERESTING 40. Nam is very................................... He always has a lot of new ideas. CREATE 41. When you open a newspaper, you’ll find.................................about games. INFORM 42. Many cars in the future will run on................................... ELECTRIC 43. I did many sports last week and was................................... EXSHAUST 44. What is the correct..................................of this word, Lan? - I don’t know. PRONOUCE 0. 45. ...................................is a very big problem in many countries. POLLUTE -> Your answers: 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. III. Supply the correct forms of the verbs in brackets: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 46. Your father (buy) ..........................a ticket for the soccer match last week? 47. My future house will be on the ocean, it’ll (surround).......................... by blue sea. 48. It is not raining now. The sun (shine) ..........................and the sky is blue. 49. There are lots of gray clouds in the sky. It (rain) .......................... 50. If I lend you some money, when you (repay) ..........................me? -> Your answers: 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.0 pts) I. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each gap of the passage: (10 × 0.2 = 2.0 pts) These days it is important (51).......................... a newspaper without reading about the damage we are doing to the environment. Our earth is being threatened (52).......................... our future looks bad. (53).......................... can each of us do?