TUYỂN CHỌN VÀ ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ GIAO LƯU HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP HUYỆN MÔN TIẾNG ANH LỚP 7 (CÓ PHẦN NGHE) by DẠY KÈM QUY NHƠN OLYMPIC

ĐỀ GIAO LƯU HỌC SINH GIỎI MÔN TIẾNG ANH

vectorstock.com/7952556

Ths Nguyễn Thanh Tú eBook Collection

TUYỂN CHỌN VÀ ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ GIAO LƯU HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP HUYỆN MÔN TIẾNG ANH LỚP 7 (CÓ PHẦN NGHE) prod. by Dạy Kèm Quy Nhơn WORD VERSION | 2021 EDITION ORDER NOW / CHUYỂN GIAO QUA EMAIL TAILIEUCHUANTHAMKHAO@GMAIL.COM

Tài liệu chuẩn tham khảo Phát triển kênh bởi Ths Nguyễn Thanh Tú Đơn vị tài trợ / phát hành / chia sẻ học thuật : Nguyen Thanh Tu Group Hỗ trợ trực tuyến Fb www.facebook.com/DayKemQuyNhon Mobi/Zalo 0905779594

PHÒNG GD&ĐT KRÔNG ANA ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

KỲ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP HUYỆN KHOÁ NGÀY 01/02/2013 Đề thi môn: Tiếng Anh 7 Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút (Đề thi này có 05 trang- Thí sinh làm bài vào đề thi)

Họ và tên thí sinh : ....................................

Chữ ký GT 1

Chữ ký GT 2

Chữ ký GK 1

Chữ ký GK 2

Số phách

Học sinh trường : ...................................... Số báo danh : .....................

 Điểm Bằng số

Số phách

Bằng chữ

I. LISTENING: (2 pts) Listen to the conversation and fill in each blank with one word you hear Donald: Hello, John! Where were you last 1/………………? John: Oh, I was on holiday. Donald: Oh, really? 2/ ……………. you were on holiday in January. John: Yes, I was in Switzerland in January. Donald: Where were you last month? John: I was in Florida. Donald: Florida! What was it like? John: Fantastic! The 3/……………. was beautiful. The sea was warm. Donald: What was the 4/……………….. like? John: Excellent! There was a swimming-pool and 5/ ……………..beach. There were 6/………….. restaurants and two bars. Donald: What were the people like? John: They were very 7/…………………. Donald: Was your 8/ …………………. with you? John: No, she wasn't. She never 9/………………. with me on holiday. Donald: What about the children? Were they with you? John: No, they weren't. They were with their 10/ ………………………./. II. PHONETICS: (2 pts) A. Circle the letter preceeding the word whose underlined part is differently pronounced from the rest. (1 pt) 1. A. practiced B. raised C. watched D. stopped 2. A. worried B. swap C. answer D. swim 3. A. bikes B. shows C. stoves D. seas 1

THÍ SINH KHÔNG VIẾT VÀO KHUNG NÀY

  4. A. send B. sure C. sew D. scale 5. A. bus B. comb C. terrible D. celebration B. Choose the word whose main stress syllable is different from each other. (1 pt) 1. A. arrive B. invite C. except D. moment 2. A. novel B. character C. correct D. borrow 3. A. menu B. section C. volunteer D. neglect 4. A. affect B. absent C. agree D. amount 5. A. cartoon B. equation C. present D. indoors III. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (8 pts) Choose the best answer by circling the letter preceeding the word or phrase (5 pts) Ex: We ……………. at home yesterday. A. was B. are C. were D. did 1. Would you like……………..fruit juice ? A. any B. a few C. some D. an 2. We would like two …………….. to drink. A. glasses of beer B. beer glasses C. glass of beer D. glasses beer 3. That man has ………… days off than my father. A. less B. little C. few D. fewer 4. We don’t need…………….. money to buy that book. A. many B. lots of C. a lot D. much 5. Be quiet. Dad ……….. in the room. A. working B. be working C. is working D. works 6. Nobody ……….. a cure for the common cold. A. know B. knowing C. to know D. knows 7. Yesterday, Mrs. Lan went to the market ……… she bought nothing. A. and B. but C. so D. because 8. We love pop music and Tom does, ………. A. either B. neither C. too D. so 2

9. She has a bad toothache, so she is going to see a ……………….. A. dentist B. doctor C. nurse D. hairdresser 10. …………….. a beautiful house ! A. How B. Where C. What D. Which 11. Where are the…………….. ? - On the table. A. childrens books B. children’s books C. childrens’ books D. children their books 12. His father asked him to go and…………….. a bath. A. wash B. make C. have D. do 13. We enjoy ……………. in the park in the morning. A. walking B. to walk C. walk D. walked 14. Mr. Robert speaks Vietnamese very …………… A. good B. well C. bad D. skillful 15. They ……………. the room an hour ago. A. were leave B. leaved C. left D. leave 16. What is the boy’s…………… ? – He is 1m65. A. weight B. high C. tall D. height 17. When I was a child, I always ………………………………… a bike to school. A. A. drove B. rode C. ran D. took 18. Her sister prefers this book…………… that one. A. than B. more C. to D. into 19. There are two stadiums in our town and …………… of them are large. A. one B. both C. every D. some 20. Listen! ……………… is singing in the next room. A. someone B. anyone C. no one D. anything 21. Hurry up or you will be late ……….school. A. at B. for C. to D. in 22. Lien is …………… student in her class. A. the best B. the good C. the better D. best 23. Where is my book? - ………………. A. It is B. Here is it C. Here you are D. This is 24. They are much interested …………. Maths. A. on B. at C. in D. to 25. How was your trip? A. Not bad. B. It was easy. C. It was tired. D. We were in Hue. B. Give the correct form of verbs in the brackets: (2 pts) 1. Ba (be) ……………………….a famous artist one day. 2. Look at those black clouds. It (rain)…………………………………………………… 3. We (watch)…………………………….. our favorite TV programmes at the moment. 4. I (phone)……………………… you when I have freetime. 5. It’s nine in the morning. Everyone (run) around the stadium? 3

……………………………………………………………………………………………. 6. Sam ought (try)……………………….. harder to pass his exam. 7. A long time ago, people (think)…………… that the moon was a big ball in the sky. 8. How about (travel)…………………………. to school by bus? – It’s a good idea. 9. Nam is good at (fix)………………………… things. 10. Yessterday, the doctor gave me some medicine (make) ………………me feel better. C. Give the correct form of the words given to make complete sentences: (1 pt) 1. If you want to borrow the book, ask the ……………………. (LIBRARY) 2. ………………….in eating is very necessary. (MODERATE) 3. Who is …………………. , Nam or Ba? (TALL) 4. I have a large ……………… of stamps. (COLLECT) 5. Which is the most ..………….. flat for your family among these? (SUIT) IV. READING: Read the text then answer the below comprehensive questions (2 pts) British parents are always complaining that their children spend too much time watching TV and not enough time doing other activities like sports and reading. A recent survey of people’s free time activities shows that young people spend about 23 hours a week in front of the television set, that means over 3 hours a day. It is surprising that the average adult watches even more: 28 hours a week. Every household in the country has a TV set and over half have two or more. According to the survey, people do not only watch sitting in their living room but they watch it in the kitchen and in bed as well. We cannot deny that television also has some negative effects especially on children, because many films shown on TV contain violence, crime and other bad things. Excessive watching of TV by children has lowered their results in studying at school. • Questions: 1. Do many children in Britain spend too much time watching TV? ........................................................................................................................................ 2. How many hours do young people spend on watching TV a week? ........................................................................................................................................ 3. Where do people often watch TV? ........................................................................................................................................ 4. Does watching TV too much improve children’ studying at school ? ........................................................................................................................................ V. WRITING: (6 pts) A. Underline the mistakes and correct them. (2 pts) 1. I live with my parents on 10 Le Duan street. 2. There is some new furnitures in this room. 3. We can’t speak Chinese and she cannot, too. 4. He is a doctor. He takes care at sick people. 4

1. __________ 2. __________ 3. __________ 4. __________

5. __________ 5. One of the world’s largest libraries are in Washington D.C. 6. __________ 6. Do you know what time will Ba have lunch? 7. __________ 7. When I saw her yesterday, I thought she looked happily. 8. Every students in these classes must bring their own books to school. 8. __________ 9. __________ 9. Your book is different with mine. 10. _________ 10. They have more time to I do. B. Rewrite these sentences, using the cues given so that the meanings stay the same (4 pts) 1. Why isn’t this TV working ? → What is ……………………………………………………………………………..? 2. Binh can swim worse than Nam. → Nam can….…………………………………………………………………………… 3. How old is the woman? → What …………………………………………………………………………………? 4. Tom is the tallest student in this class. → Nobody ………………………………………………………………………………. 5. We will have a tour in Hue that lasts for five days. →We will have …………………………………………………………………………. 6. There were a lot of trees on this street two years ago. → This street …………………………………………………………………………… 7. I don’t like pork. Nam doesn’t like pork. → Neither ………………………………………………………………………………. 8. They travelled to Ha Noi capital for two hours. → It took………………………………………………………………………………... 9. They like Literature much. → They are….. …………………………………….…………………………………… 10. What subject do you like ? → What is your………………………………………………………………………….? ------------ The End -----------Good luck to you!

PHÒNG GD&ĐT HUYỆN KRÔNG ANA

KỲ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP HUYỆN KHOÁ NGÀY 01/02/2013 Môn: Tiếng Anh 7

ĐÁP ÁN I. LISTENING: 2 pts (0,2 pt for each correct answer) Listen to the conversation and fill in each blank with one word you hear 1. month 2. but 3. weather 4. hotel 5. private

6. three 7. friendly 8. wife 9. comes 10. grandparents

II. PHONETICS: 2 pts (0,2 pt for each correct answer) A. Circle the letter preceeding the word whose underlined part is differently pronounced from the rest. 1. B 2. C 3. A 4. B 5. B B. Choose the word whose main stress syllable is different from each other. 1. D 2. C 3. D 4. B 5. C III. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (7 pts) A. Choose the best answer by circling the letter preceeding the word or phrase 5 pts (0,2 pt for each correct answer) 1. C 2. A 3. D 4. D 5. C 6. D 7. B 6

8. C 9. A 10. C 11. B 12. C 13. A 14. B 15. C 16. D 17. B 18. C 19. B 20. A 21. B 22. A 23. C 24. C 25. A B. Give the correct form of verbs in the brackets: 2pts (0,2 pt for each correct answer) 1. will be 2. is going to rain 3. are watching 4. will phone 5. Is … running 6. to try 7. thought/ used to think 8. travelling/traveling 9. fixing 10. to make C. Give the correct form of the words given to make complete sentences: 1pt (0,2 pt for each correct answer) 1. librarian 2. moderation 3. taller 4. collection 5. suitable IV.

READING: Read the text then answer the below comprehensive questions Answers: 2 pts (0,5 pt for each correct answer) 1. Yes, they do. 7

2. They spend about 23 hours (on watching TV a week). 3. They do not only watch sitting in their living room but they watch it in the kitchen and in bed as well. - They do not only watch sitting in their living room but also in the kitchen and in bed. 4. No, it does not. V. WRITING: A. Underline the mistakes and correct them. 2 pts ( 0,2 pt for each correct answer) 1. at 1. I live with my parents on 10 Le Duan street. 2. furniture 2. There is some new furnitures in this room. 3. either 3. We can’t speak Chinese and she cannot, too. 4. of 4. He is a doctor. He takes care at sick people. 5. is 5. One of the world’s largest libraries are in Washington D.C. 6. Ba will 6. Do you know what time will Ba have lunch? 7. happy 7. When I saw her yesterday, I thought she looked happily. 8. Every students in these classes must bring their own books to school. 8. student 9. from 9. Your book is different with mine. 10. than 10. They have more time to I do. B. Rewrite these sentences, using the cues given so that the meanings stay the same 4 pts ( 0,4 pt for each correct answer) 1. What is the matter with this TV?/ What is wrong with this TV? 2. Nam can swim better than Binh 3. What is the woman’s age?/ What is the age of the woman? 4. Nobody in Tom’s class is as tall as he is / is taller than he is 5. We will have a five - day tour in Hue. 6. This street had/ used to have a lot of trees two years ago. 7. Neither Nam nor I like pork. 8. It took them two hours to travel to Ha Noi capital. 9. They are much interested in Literature. 10. What is your favorite subject? * Note: All other correct and suitable answers are also acceptable. ------------ The End ------------

PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO HUYỆN THANH OAI

ĐỀ THI OLYMPIC LỚP 7 Năm học: 2014 - 2015 Môn: Tiếng Anh Thời gian: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)

Chú ý: - Bộ đề thi này gồm có 04 trang, từ trang 01 đến trang 04. - Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào bộ đề thi này. Điểm

Họ tên, chữ ký của người chấm thi số 1:

- Bằng số:…………….. ………………………………………... - Bằng chữ:…………… Họ tên, chữ ký của người chấm thi số 2: ………………………... ………………………………………...

Số phách (Do Chủ tịch hội đồng chấm thi ghi) …………………..

PART ONE: LISTENING: Listen to the tape and fill in the gaps with the words you hear: (15 x 0.2 = 3.0 pts) Listen to the passage and complete the missing information. Yesterday, Hoa got up and took a shower. She put on (1) .............……… clothes. She polished her (2) .............……… and put them on. She had her breakfast and then she brushed her (3) .............………. She put a (4) .............……… in her lunch (5) .............……… and a bottle of (6) .............……… in her bag. She went to school. At recess, she (7) .............……… her sandwich. Then she drank some water and (8).............……… with her (9) .............……… At home, she changed into (10) .............……… pants and a shirt , and put on her sandals. After (11) .............………, she washed and (12) .............……… her clothes. Then she did (13) .............……… homework. She brushed her (14) .............……… and had a bath. Then she went to bed at (15) .............……… o’clock. PART TWO: PHONETICS: (10 x 0.2 = 2.0 pts) I. Choose one word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others by circling A, B, C, or D. (5 × 0,2=1,0 pt) 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

A. teenager A.chicken A. physics A. concert A. liked

B. together B.coach B. useful B. contestant B. intended

C.guess C.orchestra C. disease C. compliment C.stayed

D. regular D. change D. rehearse D. comic D. learned

Write your answers here: 1…………….. 2........................ 3........................... 4........................... 5.................. 1

II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others by circling A, B, C or D (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 21. A. awful B. amazing C. lovely D. beautiful 22. A. middle B. around C. friendly D. country 23. A. contest B. cartoon C. dislike D. audience 24. A. destination B. anniversary C. direction D. education 25. A. skinful B. discovery C. problem D. popular PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (25 x 0.2 = 5.0 pts) I. Circle best option A, B, C or D to complete the following sentences. (10 x 0.2= 2.0 pts) 26. Some people are used to..... in crowed buses, and don't mind it at all A . riding B . ride C . rode D . rides 27. It’s no use …………him to stop smoking. A . to advise B . advising C . advise D . advises 28. It is fun to camp in the forest, but It is very important to know how to ........nature clean before we leave. A . give B . get C . keep D . take 29. ……………. this invention , we can learn more about the undersea world. A . Because of B . Thank for C . thanks to D . beside 30. My parents like fish, but .............. A .so do I B . neither do I C . I do too D . I don't 31. My sister has a.............summer vacation. A . five - weeks B . five - week's C . five - weeks' D . five - week 32. Marry and I are looking forward ……………..you. A . of seeing B . for seeing C . to seeing D . to see 33. Where can we cross the road ? – Use the …………………. A . crossing pavement B . zebre crossing C . passenger way D . foot bath 34. My funny story made the whole class............. A . smile B . laughing C . laugh D . crying 35. She needed……......these postcards to her friends A . to send B . sending C . sent D . send 26. 31.

27. 32.

28. 33.

29. 34.

30. 35.

II. Use the words given in brackets to form a word that fits in the space. (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 36.The most popular............................ at recess is talking. 37.Hoa is having a ............................. check-up. 38. The nurse wanted to know Nga’s height and ................. 39. Edison’s most famous............................was thethe electronic bulb. 40. This dictionary is very .................... for you to learn English.

ACT MEDICINE WEIGH INVENT USE

III. Complete the following sentences with the correct form of the verb in the brackets. (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 2

41. You (1)(see)……………….. the film on television last night? 42. Our class (2)( start)……………….. at 7.15 and (3)( finish) …………….at 11.45 every morning. 43. She gets fat because she is always tasting things while she (4)( cook)…………… 44. Bill decided (5)( buy) ………………..a new car rather than a used one. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. IV. Fill each gap of the following sentences with a suitable preposition. (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 46. Gangnam Style, by a 34-year-old South Korean Singer, Psy, first appeared ______ You Tube in July. 47 bought some souvenirs ______ my friends when I was in Nha Trang. 48. Fiona is getting better and better ______ writing compositions. 49. Our country is rich ______ oil and rubber. 50. The school cafeteria only opens ______ lunchtime. PART FOUR: READING (25 x 0.2 = 5.0 pts) I. Circle best option A, B, C or D to complete the following passage. (10 x 0.2 = 2.0 pts) I’m writing to invite you to a party we........................ (51) at the flat next Friday, December 14th. As you know, ...........................(52) Lan’s 13th birthday next week and my birthday is in next month, .......................... (53) we thought we’d celebrate together and have a joint party. I can’t remember if you know my address or not, but anyway, if you .............................. (54) the direction below, you shouldn’t get lost. Take the Number 15 bus from the station and ........................... (55) at the Star Hotel. Walk down Long Viet Road, past the Dan Chu Cinema, and then ............... ……(56) the first turning on the right. That’s Le Loi Road. Turn left ..................... (57) the first junction, then go straight past the church as far as the next crossroads. ......................(58) and our block of flats is the second on the right. Do try and come. Of course you’re ........................... (59) to bring someone with you if you want to. Look forward .............................. (60) you then! 51. A. have B. are having 52. A. it’s B. its 53. A. too B. but 54. A. to follow B. follow 55. A. get up B. get by 56. A. have B. get 57. A. in B. at 58. A. Right turn B. To right 59. A. welcomed B. welcome 60. A. to see B. for seeing Answers: 51. 52. 56. 57.

C. going to have C. they’re C. because C. following C. get on C. take C. of C. To turn C. welcoming C. of seeing 53. 58.

54. 59.

D. will has D. she’s D. so D. follows D. get off D. bring D. on D. Turn right D. to welcome D. to seeing 55. 60.

II. Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word to complete the passage. (10 x 0.2 = 2.0 pts) 3

Americans like sport very much. One of the (61)............. popular kinds of sports in Autumn is football. All the high schools (62)........... universities have their own teams. In winter the most popular kind of sports (63)........... basketball. There is usually a match every evening in one school gymnasium or another. In some parts of the United States there is a lot of (64).............. and ice. Many people like skiing and skating. In the other two (65).............., millions of Americans enjoy baseball. The schools have their games in (66)..............., but the most important professional games are played during summer. Many people listen to the games (67) .......... the radio, watch them on television or read about them (68) .............. the newspapers. Some also play tennis or golf and others (69) ......... fishing. They like to stay outdoors (70)........it is warm during the months of June, July and August. 61..................... 6 2....................

63....................

64....................

65.....................

66.................... 67.................... 68.................... 69.................... 70.................... III. Read the passage and decide the sentences are True or False (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt): At school we study many things. In Literature, we learn about books and write essays. In History, we study past and present event in Viet Nam and around the world. In Geography, we study different countries and their people. In Physics, we learn about how things work. In the Language class, we study English. We study many other things as well, such as Music, Sports and Art. We enjoy all of our classes. 71. In Literature, we learn about books and write essays. 72. In History, we don’t study past and present event in Viet Nam and around the world. 73. In Geography, we study different countries and their people. 74. In Physics, we learn about how things work. 75. We hate all of our classes. PART FIVE: WRITING (5.0 pts) I. Circle the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting and then correct it. (5 x 0.2 =1.0 pt) 76. From at nine in the morning until four afternoon Mr.Tuan works in the fields with his A B C D father. 77. There is fewer work in the evening than there is in the morning A B C D 78. Hoa’s new skirt was blue with small white flowers at it. A B C D 79. Mr Ba soon got used to travel to work by bicycle A B C D 80. The doctor says you should spend a little time to play video game. A B C D II. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one, using the word given in brackets. Do not change the words given in any way. (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 4

81. What a luxurious car! How………………………………………………………………! 82. It takes me an hour to do my homework every evening. I spend …………………………………………………………… 83. No one can run faster than me. I am ………………………………………………………….. 84. Is there a library at your school? Does……………………………………………………….? 85. How old are you? What …………………………………………………………? III. In about 150 words write about the person you like most : (3,0pts)

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI OLYMPIC LỚP 7 NĂM HỌC: 2014 – 2015 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH PART ONE: LISTENING: Listen to the tape and fill in the gaps with the words you hear: (15 x 0.2 = 3.0 pts) Listen to the passage and complete the missing information. Yesterday, Hoa got up and took a shower. She put on (1) clean clothes. She polished her (2)shoes and put them on. She had her breakfast and then she brushed her (3) teeth. She put a (4) sandwich in her lunch (5) box and a bottle of (6) water in her bag. She went to school. At recess, she (7) ate her sandwich. Then she drank some water and (8) talked with her (9)friends. At home, she changed into (10) red pants and a shirt , and put on her sandals. After (11) dinner, she washed and (12) ironed her clothes. Then she did (13) her homework. She brushed her (14) teeth and had a bath. Then she went to bed at (15) 11 o’clock. PART TWO: PHONETICS: (10 x 0.2 = 2.0 pts) I. Choose the word whose underlined part pronounced differently from that of the others by circling A, B, C or D (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 16. A 17. 18. 19. 20.

C C B B

II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others by circling A, B, C or D (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 21. B. amazing 22. B. around 23. D. audience 24. C. direction 25. B. discovery PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (25 x 0.2 = 5.0 pts) I. Circle best option A, B, C or D to complete the following sentences. (10 x 0.2= 2.0 pts) 26. A. riding 31. D. five - week

27. B. advising 32. C. to seeing

28. C. keep 29.C. Thanks to 33. B zebre crossing 34. C. laugh

30. D. I don’t 35. A. to send 6

II. Use the words given in brackets to form a word that fits in the space. (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 36. Activity 37. medical 38. weight 39. invention 40. useful III. Complete the following sentences with the correct form of the verb in the brackets. (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 41. Did you see 42. starts 43. finishes 44. is cooking 45. to buy IV. Fill each gap of the following sentences with a suitable preposition. (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 46. on 47. for 48. at 49. In 50. at PART FOUR: READING (25 x 0.2 = 5.0 pts) I. Circle best option A, B, C or D to complete the following passage. (10 x 0.2 = 2.0 pts) 51. B 52.A 53.D 54.B 55.D 56.C 57.B 58.D 59.B 60.D II. Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word to complete the passage. (10 x 0.2 = 2.0 pts) 61. most 66. spring

62. and 67. on

63. is 68. in/on

64. snow 69. go

65. seasons 70. because

III. Read the passage and decide the sentences are True or False (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt): 71-T 72-T 73- T 4-T 5-F PART FIVE: WRITING (5.0 pts) I. Circle the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting and then correct it. (5 x 0.2 =1.0 pt) 76. A. bỏ at 77. B. fewer -> less 78. D. at -> on 79.B. travel -> traveling 80. D. to play -> playing II. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one, using the word given in brackets. Do not change the words given in any way. (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 81. How luxurious the car is! 82. I spend an hour doing my homework everyday. 83. I am the fastest runner. 84. Does your school have a library? 85. What is your age? III. In about 150 words write about the person you like most (3.0 pts) The essay must have at least three ideas below. 1. Mở bài: Nêu được chủ đề của bài viết.(được 0,5 điểm) 2. Thân bài: Miêu tả được ngoại hình và tính cách của người được miêu tả (được 2,0 điểm) 3. Kết luận: Tóm tắt, nói lên tình cảm của bản thân với người đó.

PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO HUYỆN THANH OAI

ĐỀ THI OLYMPIC LỚP 7 Năm học: 2015 - 2016 Môn: Tiếng Anh Thời gian: 120 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)

Chú ý: - Bộ đề thi này gồm có 06 trang, từ trang 01 đến trang 06. - Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào bộ đề thi này. Điểm

Họ tên, chữ ký của người chấm thi số 1:

Số phách (Do Chủ tịch hội đồng chấm thi ghi) …………………..

PART ONE: LISTENING: Listen to the tape and fill in the gaps with the words you hear: (15 x 0.2 = 3.0 pts) MY MOTHER My mother does so many things. She has a job at a (1)…………………. store; she cooks our meals; she cleans the house; she feeds the pets, and she still finds time to (2)…………………. with us. My mother is always busy, but she says that her (3)…………………. time is time that she spends with us. My mother works from Monday to Friday. When she comes home from work, she makes (4)…………………. for supper. We usually do the dishes, so that she won't have to do them. After supper she helps us with our (5)…………………., or she sits down to watch television. Some (6)…………………. she goes shopping, and she takes whoever wants to go with her. Mothers are a little bit of everything. My mother is like a (7)…………………. when she helps us with our homework. She is like a nurse when she looks after us when we're (8)………………….. She is like a cook when she makes meals for us. She says that (9)…………………. the house is her least favorite thing. She says that the house gets dirty again right (10)…………………. you clean it. She gets my father, my brothers, sister and me to help her with the cleaning. My mother (11)…………………. all our clothes, and sometimes she irons them if they need it. My mother says that there are not enough hours in a day. We try to help my mother as (12)…………………. as we can. There is a lot of work involved in keeping a home neat and organized. (13)…………………. of my friends' mothers work. Mothers are the people who you go to when you need to be comforted. Mothers are the people who can (14)…………………. you feel better. I'm glad that I have the mother that I have. My mother is caring and funny. She is fun to be (15)………………….. -> Keys: 2...................... 3...................... 4...................... 5...................... 1...................... 7...................... 8...................... 9...................... 10.................... 1 6......................

12..................... 13..................... 14..................... 15.................... 11..................... PART TWO: PHONETICS: (10 x 0.2 = 2.0 pts) I. Choose the word whose underlined part pronounced differently from that of the others: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 16 A. public B. cucumber C. uniform D. during 17 A. apartment B. toothache C. headache D. stomachache 18 A. celebration B. education C. question D. collection 19 A. returned B. decided C. remembered D. played 20 A. chemistry B. machine C. mechanic D. character -> Keys: 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 21. A. anniversary B. education C. direction D. destination 22. A. delicious B. altogether C. decorate D. grandmother 23. A. audience B. dislike C. contest D. cartoon 24. A. lifestyle B. banana C. product D. document 25 A. beautiful B. amazing C. different D. lovely -> Keys: 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (25 x 0.2 = 5.0 pts) I. Circle best option A, B, C or D to complete the following sentences. (10 x 0.2= 2.0 pts) 26. The visitors prefer colorful dances in Thailand ………………….……shadow pupppet shows in Indonesia. A. to B. as C. for D. than 27. Some scientists have to spend most of their lives………………….……at rocks. A. look B. to look C. looked D. looking 28. Every girl ought to learn ………………….……to cook meals. A. how B. when C. what D. which 29. How long does it ………………….……you to get to your school by motorbike? A. want B. take C. want D. get 30. Now, my new friend is used ………………….……the busy roads on her street. A. to cross B. to crossing C. for crossing D. crossing 31. You should know that Fluoride toothpaste helps ………………….……tooth decay. A. prevent B. preventing C. for preventing D. with prevent 32. We can’t cross the street outside the ………………….…… A. sidewalk B. roadsign C. pavement D. zebra crossing 33. I don’t like durians, and ……………….……do my close classmates, Hung and Cuong. A. either B. neither C. so D. too 34. There are two churches in the town and ...............of them are extremely old. A. each B. all C. both D. most 35. All the members in my family ………………….……healthy after the summer vacation. A. looked B. were seeming C. were looking D. were appearing 2 -> Keys:

26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. II. Use the words given in brackets to form a word that fits in the space. (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 36. Nowadays, Television is one of the cheapest forms of …………….…… ENTERTAIN not only in our country but also in all over the world. 37. For me, I think the most ………………….……idea is to go to Ha Long SENSE Bay by train. 38. As you can see, words in a dictionary are always in ………………….… order.

ALPHABET

39. Oh! It’s so ………………….……today! It’s too wet and cold. I hate this PLEASURE kind of weather so much. 40. Two days ago, I received an ………………….……to have dinner in a very big restaurant in Hanoi from my friend, Nam. -> Keys: 36.

37.

38.

39.

INVITE 40.

III. Complete the following sentences with the correct form of the verb in the brackets. (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 41. If we have enough money, we (travel) ………………….……around the world. 42. Why you (leave) ………………….……the party early last night? 43. Ba: Would you like me (turn) ………………….……off the fan, Huy? Huy: No, thanks. I can do it myself. 44. My form teacher always advises us (brush) ………………….……our teeth at least twice a day, after having and after dinner. 45. What about (go) …………………..to Ao Vua in Ba Vi this wekend? - Good idea! -> Keys: 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. IV. Fill in each gap of the following sentences with a suitable preposition. (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 46. In my village, so many people – the old and the young take part ………………….…… jogging every morning and early in the evening. 47. My father says that we can’t eat and watch TV ………………….……the same time. It’s not good for our stomachache. 48. Who is better………………….……speaking English, Hoa or Lan? 49. Last week, we bought a lot of souvenirs ………………….……our friends and relatives when we were in Da Lat for a week. 50. The blue cap looked very beautiful. My little brother tried it………………….…… but it didn’t fit him at all. 3

-> Keys: 46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

PART FOUR: READING (25 x 0.2 = 5.0 pts) I. Circle best option A, B, C or D to complete the following passage. (10 x 0.2 = 2.0 pts) English is spoken as a mother tongue in many countries. In the United States of America, the national language is (51) ………………….…… English. Four hundred years ago, some English people sailed to North America to live and they brought the (52)………………….…… language to this new country. Now in the USA, people speak (53) ………………….…… English. Most of the words are the (54) ………………….…… in American English and in British English, but American people say some English words not as people (55) ………………….…… in England. Canada is (56) ………………….…… the North of the United States of America. It is the larger (57) ………………….…… the United States. In Canada, many people (58)………………….…… English because they also came from England many years (59)………………….…… But in some parts of Canada, people speak (60)………………….…… because the people living in these parts came from France. 51. A. as B. like C. also D. not 52. A. French B. English C. Chinese D. Canadian 53. A. British B. Chinese C. Russian D. American 54. A. various B. same C. similar D. like 55. A. do B. say C. talk D. speak 56. A. to B. from C. on D. in 57. A. than B. as C. more D. less 58. A. say B. tell C. talk D. speak 59. A. there B. later C. ago D. here 60. A. France B. French C. Russian D. Italian -> Keys: 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. II. Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word to complete the passage. (10 x 0.2 = 2.0 pts) Mark Twain is a famous American writer. His (61)………………….…was Samuel Longhorn Clemens and “Mark Twain” was (62)………………….…pen-name. Samuel Clemens was born in a small town (63)………………….…the Mississippi river in the USA. The boy (64)………………….…many friends at school and when he became a writer, he described them in his stories. (65)………………….…Samuel was twelve, his father died and the boy began to work and learned the (66)………………….…of a printer. Samuel always (67)………………….… to be a sailor and when he was twenty, he found work on a river boat. After some time he (68)………………….… the boat and went to live in California. Here he 4

began to write short (69)………………….… under the name of Mark Twain. He sent (70)………………….… to newspapers. The readers liked his stories very much. -> Keys: 61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

66. 67. 68. 69. 70. III. Read the passage and decide the sentences are True or False (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt): CAMPFIRE SAFETY Sitting around a buring campfire is a fun way to relax after a day of hiking. Unluckily, many campers don’t know how to keep their campfires safe. Forests are easy to catch fire but it is extremely difficult to stop a forest fire. Each year, forest fires burn plants, kill animals, destroy the environment and put the lives of people in danger. It is important that when you have a fire, you should make it a safe fire. These are some guidelines to remember: 1. Choose a safe place for your fire. Move all things easy to catch fire at least one meter away from your campfire. 2. When the campfire is burning, someone of your group should watch it to make sure the fire does not spread. 3. Have a shovel or a fire-extinguisher ready in case you need to put the fire out. 4. When you don’t want to used the fire anymore, pour water on the fire until it is completely off. Statements 71. Some campers do not know how to keep their campfires safe. 72. When a forest burn, It will burn plants, kill animals, destroy the environment and put people in danger. 73. When the campfire is burning, someone should take care of it to stop the fire to spread in time. 74. When do not want to use the fire any more, we should cover it with green leaves. 75. We should know how to keep our campfires safe because Forests are easy to catch fire.

-> Keys: 71.

72.

73.

74.

75.

PART FIVE: WRITING (5.0 pts) I. Circle the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting and then correct it. (5 x 0.2 =1.0 pt) Statements Your corrections 76. My teacher, Mr. Smith, is a more slower and more careful driver 76. ……………… than we are. ………………….. 77. We have so many modern machines today and I think in the future, 77. ……………… ………………….. 5 we will have fewer work to do but more money to spend.

78. It is not easy for all of us, especially for the old men and women, to 78. ……………… ………………….. learning how to use a computer. 79. Three years ago, my best friend, Tony, couldn’t speak Chinese and 79. ……………… Tan couldn’t, neither. ………………….. 80. Mom! There is not nothing in the refrigerator. Let’s go to the 80. ……………… market and buy some now. ………………….. II. Complete the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first one, beginning with the words given: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 81. The Japanese bicycle is too expensive for my father to buy. -> The Japanese bicycle is not..……….…………………………….…………….………….. 82. Hung’s grandfather couldn’t enjoy the meal because of the stomachache. -> The stomachache prevented ……………………………………………………………… 83. Remember to turn off all the lights and fans before going to school! -> Don’t…………………………………………………….………………….……………. 84. My eldest brother didn’t go to school this morning because of his sickness. -> Because my eldest brother………………………………………………………………… 85. For us - Playing video games is more interesting than watching television. -> We prefer…………………………………………………………………….……………. III. Write a passage (at least 150 words) about your favourite subject: (3,0pts) (Don’t show your proper name,your teacher’s name, your address or your school)

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI OLYMPIC LỚP 7 NĂM HỌC: 2015 – 2016 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH PART ONE: LISTENING: Listen to the tape and fill in the gaps with the words you hear: (15 x 0.2 = 3.0 pts) 2. spend 3. favorite 4. something 5. homework 1. dress 7. teacher 8. ill 9. cleaning 10. after 6. nights 12. much 13. Most 14. make 15. around 11. washes PART TWO: PHONETICS: (10 x 0.2 = 2.0 pts) I. Choose the word whose underlined part pronounced differently from that of the others by circling A, B, C or D (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 16. A. public 17. A. apartment 18. C. question 19. B. decided 20. B. machine II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others by circling A, B, C or D (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 21. C. direction 22. A. delicious 23. A. audience 24. B. banana 25. B. amazing PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (25 x 0.2 = 5.0 pts) I. Circle best option A, B, C or D to complete the following sentences. (10 x 0.2= 2.0 pts) 26. A. to 27. D. looking 28. A. how 29. B. take 30. B. to crossing 31. A. prevent 32. D. 33. B. neither 34. C. both 35. A. looked zebra crossing II. Use the words given in brackets to form a word that fits in the space. (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 36. entertainment 37. sensible 38. alphabetical 39. unpleasant 40. invitation III. Complete the following sentences with the correct form of the verb in the brackets. 41. will travel

42. did…leave

(5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 43. to turn

44. to brush

45. going

IV. Fill each gap of the following sentences with a suitable preposition. (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 46. in 47. at 48. at 49. for 50. on PART FOUR: READING (25 x 0.2 = 5.0 pts)

I. Circle the best option A, B, C or D to complete the following passage. (10 x 0.2= 2.0 pts) 51. C. also 52. B. English 53. D. American 54. B. same 55. B. say 56. A. to 57. A. than 58. D. speak 59. C. ago 60. B. French II. Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word to complete the passage. (10 x 0.2 = 2.0 pts) 61. name 62. his 63. on 64. had 65. When 66. job/career/ 67. wanted/ 68. left 69. stories 70. them profession wished III. Read the passage and decide the sentences are True or False (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt): 71. F 72. T 73. T 74. F 75. T PART FIVE: WRITING (5.0 pts) I. Circle the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting and then correct it. (5 x 0.2 =1.0 pt) 76. more slower 77. fewer 78. to learning 79. neither 80. not nothing -> slower -> less -> to learn -> either -> not anything -> nothing II. Complete the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first one, beginning with the words given: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 81. The Japanese bicycle is not cheap enough for my father to buy. 82. The stomachache prevented Hung’s grandfather from enjoying the meal. 83. Don’t forget to turn off all the lights and fans before going to school! 84. Because my eldest brother was sick, he didn’t go to school this morning. 85. We prefer playing games to watching television. III. Write a passage (at least 150 words) about your favourite subject: (3,0pts) (Don’t show your proper name, your address or your school) Bài viết phải bao gồm những ý sau: 1. Tiêu đề + Mở bài: Bài viết phải có tiêu đề bài và phần mở bài, học sinh nêu được ý chung về môn học mà em yêu thích nhất là gì. (được 0,5 điểm) 2. Thân bài: Nêu và trình bày lý do hay điều gì dẫn tới việc yêu thích môn học đó, những cố gắng, việc làm, hạn chế hay thành công gì từ môn học vv... (được 2,0 điểm) 3. Kết luận: Tóm tắt, khẳng định lại tất cả lý do đã trình bày ở hai phần trước. (được 0,5 điểm)

Chú ý: Bài viết không được nêu tên riêng của học sinh, tên giáo viên dạy, tên nơi ở, tên trường học. Nếu có thì bài sẽ không được tính điểm.

aif GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO PHÒNG HUYỆN THANH OAI ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 7 NĂM HỌC: 2016 - 2017 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian: 120 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)

Chú ý: - Bộ đề thi này gồm có 09 trang, từ trang 01 đến trang 06. - Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào bộ đề thi này. Điểm

Họ tên, chữ ký của người chấm thi số 1:

- Bằng số:…………….. ………………………………………... - Bằng chữ:…………… Họ tên, chữ ký của người chấm thi số 2: ………………………... ………………………………………... PART ONE: LISTENING

Số phách (Do Chủ tịch hội đồng chấm thi ghi) …………………..

Listen and fill in the gaps: (15 × 0.2 = 3.0 pts) Vacation My family and I went on vacation to Lake Huron - The water is beautiful and (1)…………….. there, and the sand is nice and white. The week that we were there was very hot, the sun was hot, but the water was still very cold. I went swimming and (2)……….…….. to catch little fish in my hands, I was careful not to get sunburned. We stayed at a (3)……….…….. that had a pool and a game room, I played pinball and video games sometimes. I liked to swim in the hotel (4)…….……….., but I liked the beach better. I would lie on a big (5)………….….. towel and get warm; then I would jump in the water and cool off. Sometimes I would just lie on the sand and watch the waves roll up on the (6)….…………... I found some seashells, and I saw a (7)……….…….. walking on the sand. At first I was a bit lonely because I didn't know anyone there. It wasn't long before I met some other (8)……….…….. at my age. We built sandcastles together and swam in the lake. The other kids were from different (9)……….…….., so we told each other stories about our schools and friends. We found that we had a lot in (10)…….……….. even though we were from different places. Our families got together and went to (11)…….……….. together. We played volleyball on the beach, and we sat around a campfire at night and sang songs. At the (12)………….….. we would roast marshmallows on a stick. I always (13)………….….. my marshmallows. That is okay. I like them that way. Mostly we just swam in the lake until we were very tired. I was (14)…….……….. when our vacation was over. I had a good time at Lake Huron, I met some very good friends there. We still write to each other. (15)……….…….. we'll see each other next summer. -> Your answers: 1

1..................................

2..................................

3..................................

4..................................

5..................................

6..................................

7..................................

8..................................

9..................................

10..................................

11..................................

12..................................

13..................................

14..................................

15..................................

PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts) I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently: (5 × 0.2=1.0 pt) 16. A. returned B. divided C. mentioned D. improved 17. A. young B. enough C. souvenir D. encourage 18. A. gather B. healthy C. those D. southern 19. A. school B. chapter C. character D. orchestra 20. A. seashore D. bookstore C. sew D. opposite -> Your answers: 16..................................

17..................................

18..................................

19..................................

20..................................

II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others: (5 × 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 21. A. disease B. awful C. receive D. decide 22. A. symptom B. surgery C. horrible D. material 23. A. stomachache B. direction C. compliment D. moderate 24. A. calendar B. expensive C. vacation D. appointment 25. A. delicious B. suitable C. beautiful D. horrible -> Your answers: 21..................................

22..................................

23..................................

24..................................

25..................................

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.0 pts) I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (10 × 0.2 = 2.0 pts) 26. The word “cook” in the sentence “My mother is a good cook” is …………….…… A. a verb B. an adverb C. an adjective D. a noun 27. Linda answered these questions …………….……than her friend, Sarah. A. intelligent B. more intelligently C. most intelligent D. more intelligent 28. We…………….…playing soccer interesting because we can play them with our friends. A. think B. find C. tell D. say 29. Of the two students over there, my younger brother is …………….…… A. tall B. taller C. the taller D. the tallest 30. We are free now. Shall we go to our club’s party? - …………….…… 2

A. Yes, I shall B. Yes, we should C. Yes, we go D. Yes, let’s 31. My brother and I usually spends about two hours ……………………in the evening. A. do our homework B. to do our homework C. doing our homework D. to doing our homework 32. The boys hurt …………….……when they climbed down the tree. A. one another B. each other C. himself D. themselves 33. When I saw your mother this morning, I thought she looked …………….…… A. happy B. happily C. to be happy D. very happily 34. The books here are …………….……more expensive than those at the shop on the corner. A. very B. quite C. much D. many 35. Who ……………………you to come and see me, Linh? - My father did. A. spoke B. told C. said D. tells -> Your answers: 26..................................

27..................................

28..................................

29..................................

30..................................

31..................................

32..................................

33..................................

34..................................

35..................................

II. Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences: (10 × 0.2 =2.0 pts) 36. Catching the common cold is very ……………..……to everybody. PLEASE 37. Basketball is a/an ...............................after school activity in Viet Nam. Not many people play this sport. POPULARITY 38. Trung’s uncle is a .............................. His job is to cut, wash and shape hair. HAIR 39. The teacher says, “Huy, you will be a ...............................artist one day”.

FAME

40. Ha says my cold will last for a few days and it will...............................

APPEAR

41. All of us must remember to eat ………………...

SENSE

42. There are over 200 ………….in my uncle’s company.

EMPLOY

43. Nowadays, walking is a fun, easy and ..............................activity for us.

EXPENSIVE

44. My uncle, Mr. Long, can speak English ...............................

FLUENCY

45. Lan’s brother is a ................................ and he plays it very well.

PIANO

-> Your answers: 36 ..................................

37 ..................................

38 ..................................

39 ..................................

40 ..................................

41 ..................................

42 ..................................

43 ..................................

44 ..................................

45 ..................................

III. Supply the correct forms of the verbs in brackets: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) A few weeks ago, Mandy Poole (46. write) .................................... to Sunshine television. She wanted to be on their breakfast time quize show, (47. call) .................................... “Lucky Break”. Mandy loves the show and she (48. watch) .................................... the show every day. She is watching the show at the moment, while she (49. have) .................................... her breakfast. She (50. be) .................................... very surprised soon, because the show’s presenter, Russell Dean, has chosen her name and he is going to call her up. -> Your answers: 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.0 pts) I. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each gap of the passage: (10 × 0.2 = 2.0 pts) British parents are always (51) ...………….….that their children spend too much time (52) .....………….TV and not enough time doing other activities like sports and reading. A (53) .....…….….survey of people’s free time activities (54) ....……….….that young people spend about 23 hours a week in (55) .....…….….of the television set, that means over 3 hours (56) .....…….….. (57) .....…….…., the average adult watches even more: 28 hours a week. Every household in the country has a TV set and over half have two or more. (58)....…………….to the survey, people do not only sit in their living room watching TV but also watch it in the kitchen and in bed as well. We can not deny that television also (59)....………….….some negative effects especially children, because many films shown on TV contain violence, crime and other bad things. Excessive watching of TV by children has lowered (60).....……….….results in studying at school. 51. A. complain B. complaining C. complains D. complained 52. A. to watch B. watch C. watching D. watched 53. A. recent B. recently C. late D. lately 54. A. show B. to show C. showing D. shows 55. A. back B. front C. side D. behind 56. A. a day B. a week C. a month D. a year 57. A. Surprise B. Surprised C. Surprisingly D. To surprise 58. A. Because B. Addition C. Besides D. According 59. A. have B. having C. has D. had 60. A. its B. their C. his D. her -> Your answers: 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 4

56. 57. 58. 59. 60. II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space: (10 × 0.2 =2.0pts) Do want to be fitter and healthier? Would you like to look younger? Do you want to feel (61).....………….….relaxed? Then try a few days at a health farm. Health farms are becoming (62).....………….….of the most popular places (63).....………….….a short break. I went to Henley Manor for a weekend. It’s (64).....………….….largest health farm in the country (65).....………….….it isn’t the most expensive. After two days of exercise I (66).....………….….ten times better. But the best thing for me was the food. It was all very healthy, of (67).....………….….but it was excellent, too! If you’re looking for something a (68).....………….….cheaper, try a winter break. Winter is the darkest and the coldest (69).....………….….of the year, and it can also be the worst time for your body. We all eat too (70).....………….….and we don’t take enough exercise. A lot of health farm offer lower prices Monday to Friday from November to March. -> Your answers: 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. III. Read the text then make questions and answer them: (5 × 0.2 = 1.0 pt) We are students and we are sure that you are interested in sports. Many of you certainly play such games as volleyball or football, basketball or tennis. People who play a game are players. Players forms teams and play matches against each other teams – their opponents. Two people playing with each other are partners. Each team can lose or win. In a football match, players try to score as many goals as they can. There are so many kinds of sports such as cycling, boxing, swimming, gymnastics, rowing and many more. You can take an active part in all of them or you can just be a devoted fan. Eveybody may choose the sport he is fond of or interested in. 71. What games/ many/ us/ play? -> …………………………………………………………………………….……..…… …………………………………………………………………………….……..…… 72. Who/ be called/ partners? -> …………………………………………………………………………….……..…… …………………………………………………………………………….……..…… 73. What/ players/ try/ do/ football match? -> …………………………………………………………………………….……..…… …………………………………………………………………………….……..…… 74. We/ take part/ all kinds/ sports? -> …………………………………………………………………………….……..…… …………………………………………………………………………….……..…… 5

* 75. you/ be interested/ sports? What/ sports/ you/ be fond of? -> …………………………………………………………………………….……..…… …………………………………………………………………………….……..…… PART FIVE: WRITING: (5.0 pts) I. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning: (5 × 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 76. Whenever Thuy Linh went to Da Lat, she bought a lot of flowers. -> Thuy Linh never went ………………………………….………………………. 77. Both of the chairs are uncomfortable. -> Neither of……………………………………………………………………….. 78. It takes my teacher of Literature about fifteen minutes to walk to school to every day. -> My teacher of Literature spends………………………………….……………… 79. Mr. John walked very slowly because his leg was injured. -> Because of………………………………….……………….…………………… 80. My cousin, Nam, plays soccer skillfully. -> My cousin, Nam is …………………………………………………………………… II. Write complete sentences using the suggested words: (5 × 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 81. Bill Gates was born/ 1955/ Washington State . He/ grow up/ rich family. By 1997, he/ the richest/ man/ United States. ……………………………………………………………………………………………… … ……………………………………………………………………………………………… … 82. Traveling/ train/ much/ slower/ but/ interesting/ than/ traveling/ plane. ……………………………………………………………………………………………… … 83. My dad/ have/ lot/ beautiful/ carved eggs/ but/ never/ sell/ any/ them. ……………………………………………………………………………………………… … 84. You/ can take/ university courses/ home/ with/ help/ video cassette recorders. ……………………………………………………………………………………………… … 85. Learn/ English/ well/ very important/ all of us/ get/ good job/ future. ……………………………………………………………………………………………… … III. Write an essay (about 150 words) about your last vacation: (3.0 pts) 6

(The essay must have a title and three parts: Opening – Body and Conclusion. Don’t show your proper names/ school/ village…) ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………..

ĐÁP ÁN HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 7 NĂM HỌC: 2016 - 2017 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH PART ONE: LISTENING Listen and fill in the gaps: (15 × 0.2 = 3.0 pts) 1. blue

2. tried

3. hotel

4. pool

5. beach

6. shore

7. crab

8. kids

9. towns

10. common

11. restaurants

12. campfire

13. burn

14. sorry

15. Maybe

PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts) I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently: (5 × 0.2=1.0 pt) 16 - B. divided

17- C. souvenir

18- B. healthy

19- B. chapter

20- D. opposite

II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others. (5 × 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 21. B. awful

22. D. material

23. B. direction

24. A. calendar

25. A. delicious

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.0 pts) I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (10 × 0.2 = 2.0 pts) 26. D. a noun 31. C. doing our homework

27. B. more intelligently 32. D. themselves

28. B. find 33. A. happy

29. C. the taller 34. C. much

30. D. Yes, let’s 35. B. told

II. Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences: (10 × 0.2 = 2.0 pts) 36. unpleasant

37. unpopular

38. hairdresser

39. famous

40. disappear

41. sensibly

42. employees

43. inexpensive

44. fluently

45. pianist

III. Supply the correct forms of the verbs in brackets: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 46. wrote 47. called 48. watches 49. is having 50. is going to be PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.0 pts) 7

I. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each gap of the passage: (10 × 0.2 = 2.0 pts) 51. B. 52. C. 53. A. 54. D. 55. B. complaining watching recent shows front 56. A. 57. C. 58. D. 59. C. 60. B. a day Surprisingly According has their II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space: (10 × 0.2 =2.0 pts) 61. more 62. one 63. for 64. the 65. but 66. felt 67. course 68. bit/ little 69. time/season 70. much III. Read the text then make questions and answer them: (5 × 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 71. What games do many of us play? Many of us play such games as volleyball or football, basketball or tennis. 72. Who are called partners? Two people playing with each other are partners. 73. What do players try to do in a football match? They try to score as many goals as they can. 74. Can we take part in all kinds of sports? Yes, we can (take part in all kinds of sports). 75. Are you interested in sports? What sports are you fond of? (Yes, I am. I’m fond of …./ No, I’m not). PART FIVE: WRITING: (5.0 pts) I. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning: (5 × 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 76. Thuy Linh never went went to Da Lat without buying a lot of flowers. 77. Neither of the chairs are comfortable. 78. My teacher of Literature spends about fifteen minutes walking to school every day. 79. Because of Mr. John’s injured leg, he walked very slowly . 80. My cousin, Nam, is a skillful soccer player. II. Write complete sentences using the suggested words: (5 × 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 81. Bill Gates was born in 1955 in Washington State. He grew up in a rich family. By 1997, he was the richest man in the United States. 82. Traveling by train is much slower but it's more interesting than traveling by plane. 83. My dad has a lot of beautiful carved eggs, but he never sells any of them. 84. You can take university courses at home with the help of video cassette recorders. 85. Learning English well is very important for all of us to get a good job in the future. III. Write an essay (about 150 words) about your last vacation: (3.0 pts) (The essay must have a title and three parts: Opening – Body and Conclusion. 8

Don’t show your proper names/ school/ village…) - The opening: The essay must write something relating to the topic “Where he/she went…”. (0.5pt) - The body: Write about: Where he/she went to; Who to go with; the activities; the sentences must have connectors and link words... (2,0 pts) - The conclusion: Write about the writers' ideas or what they thought about the vacation (s). (0.5 pt) * Note: The essay that has 3.0 points must have: - Long enough (At least 150 words or maybe more). - Correct vocabulary and structures. - Don't tell the proper names (The school, the student's/ teacher’s name/ ...).

UBND HUYỆN YÊN LẠC PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC

ĐỀ THI GIAO LƯU HSG LỚP 7 CẤP HUYỆN NĂM HỌC 2016 -2017 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH ( Thời gian làm bài 120 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề)

(Đề thi gồm có 05 trang – Thí sinh làm bài ra tờ giấy thi) PART A – LISTENING. I. Listen and do the tasks below Part 1: You will hear a conversation twice. For questions 1-5, choose the correct answer by circling A, B or C. 1. In addition to paper books, what did the little girl make with paper at school? A. an animal B. a person C. a building 2. What thing did she NOT talk about when making the object in Question 1? A. paper B. glue C. scissors 3. What did the girl do after school? A. She rode her bicycle. B. She watched television.

C. She went to the store.

4. Who did she meet and play with at the junior high school? A. her teacher B. her cousins C. her father 5. Where does this conversation most probably take place? A. at a house B. at school C. at a park Part 2: You will hear a tour guide talking about a day trip. Listen and complete questions 6 -10. You will hear the information twice. TRIP TO CHESTER Coach leaves: 9.15 a.m Arrives Chester: Morning visit: Price of family ticket:

(6) (7) (8) £

Lunch in: Afternoon visit:

(9) (10)

Part 3: Listen to Patrick talking to his mother about a photo of his old school friends. What is each person wearing? For questions 11-15, write a letter A-H next to each person. You will hear the conversation twice. Example: 0 Peter ___D___ People Their clothes 11. Martin ______ A. coat 12. Joanna ______ B. dress 13. Amy ______ C. hat 14. James ______ D. jacket 15. Robert ______ E. jeans F. shirt G. sweater H. trousers

PART B – PHONETICS, LEXICO AND GRAMMAR. II. Choose one word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others. 1. A. chopstick B. touch C. catch D. stomach 2. A. laughed B. washed C. wicked D. stopped 3. A. early B. beat C. realize D. reader 4. A. cure B. tutor C. sure D. pure 5. A. lives B. states C. stays D. studies III. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others by circling A, B, C or D. 1. A. distance B. unhappy C. different D. family 2. A. restaurant B. diswasher C. comfortable D. amazing 3. A. energy B. appliance C. household D. different 4. A. different B. biology C. Thanksgiving D. sometimes 5. A. material B. ocean C. dolphin D. yesterday IV. Choose the best answer for each sentence. 1. Let’s collect and _________ warm clothes to homeless children in our city. A. give away B. give back C. take off D. put on 2 After filling my tooth, ______________________________. A. and the dentist gave me some pills to take. B. I was given some pills to take by the dentist. C. the dentist gave me some pills to take. D. then the dentist gave me some pills to take. 3. Fortunately,_____________ are harmless and not serious. A. most headaches B. most of headaches C. most the headaches D. most of the headaches 4. Ervin “Magic” Johnson is the best basketball player. He played basketball _________. A. with skillfulness B. with great skill C. with skills D. by skill 5. _____________ are the tickets? – I think they’re 20,000 dong each. A. How much B. What costs C. What prices D. How many 6. When we entered the theater, an usherette took our tickets and showed us to our ________. A. positions B. chairs C. seats D. locations 7. The soup that your mother has just cooked tastes very____________. A. delicious B. best C. well D. deliciously 8. The relationship between regular sport practice and our health____ very close indeed. A. are B. is C. to be D. were 9. What do you say if you want to speak to Joanna? (on the phone). A. Who is this? B. Can I speak to Joanna, please? C. Are you Joanna? D. Speaking to Joanna, please. 10. Rob eats a lot of fast food and he _______________ on a lot of weight. A. takes B. spends C. puts D. bring 11. My friend, Peter never goes to school late and___________ A. So do I. B. Neither don’t I. C. I don’t, either. D. I don’t, too. 12. When you are in the swimming pool, play _______and listen to the pool lifeguard_______. A. safe / careful B. safely / careful C. safe/ carefully D. safely / carefully 13. Do you go out_________________? A. in the afternoon on Fridays B. on Friday afternoons. C. on Friday’s afternoons. D. on Fridays in the afternoon

14. Neighbors don’t spend ___________together as they did in the past. A. as much time B. less time C. not much time D. a little time 15. Yes, please. Can I have a__________? I am thirsty A. water glass B. tea cup C. lemonade glass D. glass of lemonade V. Read the text below and look carefully at each line. Some of the lines are correct, and some have a word which should not be there. If a line is correct, put a tick ( ) by the number. If a line has a word which should NOT be there, write the word on the left. There are two examples at the beginning (0 and 00). LETTER TO A PEN FRIEND 0. ………. ………. I can't wait until next Thursday. We're going to have such a 00. ……..up………. fantastic time! I'll meet up you at the station and we'll get the 1. …………………. bus to my house. It's not far, so that it won't take long. After you 2. ………………… have met my parents, we'll go down to the beach. All my friends 3. ………………… are going to be there. I think so you'll really like them. Dave, my 4. ………………… best of friend, is organising a barbecue so we'll eat burgers and 5. ………………… things by the sea. You mustn't forget to bring in your swimming 6. ………………… costume because we'll definitely be going for swimming. I think 7. ………………… Angela's also going to be bringing her CD player, so it'll be a 8. ………………… really good beach party. Does that sound a fun? I thought that 9. ………………… the next day we could go into town and to do some shopping. 10. ……………….. You said you wanted to get on some sourvenirs, didn't you? I'll call you on Wednesday evening to find out for sure what time your train gets in on Thursday. VI. Put the interchanges in the box in order to have a meaningful conversation. One example has been done for you. A. What about the kitchen? B. It’s convenient and it saves you time. C. What have you got for the living room? D. How many bedrooms have you got? E. Mostly. But I need to buy another TV for my bedroom Gray: Red: Gray: Red: Gray: Red: Gray: Red: Gray: Red: Gray: Red: Gray:

Congratulations on the new house! (0) Thanks. It’s a lovely house really but I need more things for the house. (1) _________________________________________________________. Well, for the living room, I’ve got an armchair, a TV and a sofa. Great! That’s fairly enough. (2) __________________________________. The kitchen? Saucepan, steamer, rice cooker. You need to buy a micro-wave. (3) _______________________________. That’s right. And I think a kettle would be useful, too. (4) _________________________________________________________. Three. Have you got all for the bedrooms? (5) _________________________________________________________. You’re right. It’s convenient to have a TV set in the bedroom.

VII. Complete the following sentences, using the correct form of the words given in parentheses. 1. It’s a (PLEASE) working with you. You are very intelligent and hardworking. 2. Great works of art like the Mona Lisa are (PRICE). 3. We need the manager’s (APPROVE) before we can go ahead. 4. It is (RESPONSE) of motorists to drink and drive. 5. If you are hoping to make a good impression, you should pay more attention to your (APPEAR). 6. They were caught in an (EXPECT) shower of rain. 7. Rice cooked in clay pots is the (SPECIAL) in this restaurant. 8. It’s a nice shop and the assistants are all polite and very (HELP) 9. I am looking forward to (SEE) you. 10. Mrs. Brown lives alone in (POOR). PART C – READING VIII. Fill in each numbered blank with ONE suitable word to complete the passage. MY FIRST DAY AT SCHOOL. My first day at school is a day I will never forget. I went to school for the first time when I was only seven years old but I can recollect all the .........(1).......... on that day. The day before my school opened, my father asked me to keep my books ready. The next morning, I woke up very early. Then I ......(2)...... and dressed myself neatly. Then my father took me to school. In the school I saw a number of new boys and girls .......(3)...... in the corridor. They were all like me in the school for the first time. I was then taken to a classroom. For sometime, I found .....(4)...... helpless, but it did not take much time for me to be friendly with other students. ......(5)...... two periods, they began to tease me, I was much annoyed. During the recess time, all my classmates gathered around me. One pulled my shirt while another .....(6)...... my ear. A third boy challenged for a fight. I was ......(7)....... and began to cry. My teacher seeing me crying came to me and asked me .....(8)...... I was crying. When I told him my “story”, the teacher punished the boys, and from that time onwards they stopped bullying me. We had no ....(9).... on the first day. But lessons started from the second day. I was really happy to be in school on the ....(10).... day. It was indeed a memorable day. IX. Fill in the blank of the following passage with the words given A, B, C or D. THE IMPORTANCE OF COMPUTERS. Many of the things we do, depend on receiving information from other people. Catching a train, making a phone call or going to the cinema all involve information (1)_______ is stored, processed and communicated. In the past, this information used to (2)_______kept on paper in (3)_______form of, for example, books, newspapers and timetables. Now more and more information is put on computers. Computers play a (4)_______in our everyday lives. Consider the use (5)_______ computers in both shops and offices. Big shops, especially chain stores with branches all (6)_______ the country, have to deal with very large amounts of information. They have to make sure (7)_______ are enough good on the shelves for customers to buy. They need to be able to re-order before stocks (8)_______ out, to decide which things are selling well and (9)_______ on. All these processes are performed quickly and efficiently (10)_______computers. 1. A. which B. that C. who D. both A and B 2. A. being B. be C. been D. have been 3. A. this B. that C. the D. a 4. A. position B. role C. field D. both A and B 5. A. in B. of C. with D. one 6. A. upon B. on C. over D. in 7. A. there B. they C. which D. where 8. A. go B. run C. get D. work 9. A. so B. such C. go D. get 10. A. with B. on C. by D. through

X. Read the passage and choose the best answer A, B, C, D. The year was 1976. The people cheered. Two American spaceships had landed on Mars. The ships would help them learn about Mars. But most people just wanted to know one thing. Is there life on Mars? The ships took pictures. These pictures were sent to Earth in the form of signals. On Earth, the signals were changed back into pictures. People looked at them closely. They saw a pink sky. They saw red rocks. They saw red soil. But they saw no animals or plants. The ships scraped up soil. It was tested. There might be plants in it. They might be too small to see. The ships sent their tests back to Earth. People were puzzled. Some of the tests seemed to show life. Some did not. People decided that the tests showed nothing for sure. Is there life on Mars? We still don’t know. We might know someday. But, someday we could be the life on Mars! 1. This story is mostly about________________. A. spaceships testing rocks and soil. B. pictures of Mars C. people learning new things about Mars D. American spaceships. 2. People learn about the rocks on Mars _____________. A. by touching the rock. B. by receiving signals from the rocks. C. by taking the rock to Earth D. by looking at pictures. 3. People were puzzled because _______________. A. all of the tests showed no life on Mars. B. some of the tests show no life on Mars. C. the plants were too small to see. D. no animals were found on the soil. 4. Mars and Earth are different because______________. A. only Earth has blue sky. B. only Mars has red rocks. C. plants on Earth are big enough to see. D. the soil on Mars is red. 5. The NEXT THING that most likely will happen is that_______________. A. People will learn more about Mars B. People will plant trees on Mars. C. People will send more spaceships to Mars. D. People will go to live on Mars. PART D – WRITING. XI. Use the suggested words and phrases to write complete sentences. Dear Nam, 1. I/ be/ pleased/ hear/ that/ you/ your family/ well. ………………………………………………………………………………................. 2. Here/ photo/ my family/ and/ let/ me/ tell/ you/ us. ………………………………………………………………………………................. 3. Father/ mechanic/. He/ work/ factory/ suburb. ………………………………………………………………………………................. 4. He/ work/ five/ days/ a week/ Monday/ Friday. ………………………………………………………………………………................. 5. He usually/go/ work/ motorbike/ morning/ so he/ not free/ every morning. …………………………………………………………................................................. 6. In free time/ father/ often / play/ badminton/ friends. ………………………………………………………………………………………… 7. mother/ teacher/. She/ teach/ Math/ school/ near/ house. ………………………………………………………………………………………… 8. brother/ 17 years/ and /he/ grade 12. …………………………………………………………………………………………. 9. He/ love/ collect /stamps/. He / have/ hundreds/ stamps/ collection. …………………………………………………………………………………………. 10. Please write/ me soon/ and tell/ your/ family. …………………………………………………………………………………………. XII. Write a paragraph (120-140 words) on the topic: What benefits does internet bring about to students?

---------------The end---------------

PHÒNG GD & ĐT YÊN LẠC

ĐỀ THI GIAO LƯU HSG NĂM HỌC 2016 - 2017 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH – LỚP 7

ĐÁP ÁN + HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM Tổng điểm: 100 – Sau đó quy ra thang điểm 10. PART A – LISTENING. 15 points I. Listen and do the tasks below (1 pt each correct answer) Part 1: 1. A. 2. C. 3. A.. 4. B. 5. A. Part 2: 6. 10.45/ quarter to eleven 7. (the) castle(s) 8. 8(.00) 9.(the) park 10. (around the old) market(s) Part 3: 11. E 12. G 13. B 14. C 15. H PART B – PHONETICS, LEXICO AND GRAMMAR. 35 points. II. 2,5 pts 1. D 2. C 3. A 4. C 5. B III. 2,5 pts 1. B 2. D 3. B 4. B 5. A IV. 15 pts 1. A 2. C 3. A 4. B 5. A 6. C 7. A 8. B 9. B 10. C 11. C 12. D 13. B 14. A 15. D V. 5pts 1. that 2. 3. so 4. of 5. in 6. for 7. 8. a 9. to 10. on VI. 5pts 1. C 2. A 3. B 4. D 5. E VII. 5 pts 1. pleasure 2 .priceless 3.approval 4.irresponsible 5.appearance 6.unexpected 7.specialty/speciality. 8.helpful 9. seeing. 10.poverty PART C – READING 25 points VIII. 10 pts 1. happenings 2. bathed 3. waiting 4. myself 5. After 6. pulled 7. frightened 8. why 9. lessons 10. first IX. 10 pts 1. D 2. B 3. C 4. B 5. B 6. D 7. A 8. B 9. A 10. B X. 5 pts 1. C 2. D 3. B 4. A 5. D PART D – WRITING. (25pts) XI. 10 pts 1.I am pleased to hear that you and your family are well. 2. Here is the photo of my family and let me tell you about us. 3. My father is a mechanic. He works in/for a factory in the suburb. 4. He works five days a week from Monday to Friday.

5. He usually goes to work by motorbike in the morning so he is not free every morning. 6. In free time my father often plays badminton with his friends. 7. My mother is a teacher. She teaches math at/in a school near my house. 8. My brother is 17 years old and he is in grade 12. 9.He loves collecting stamps. He has hundreds of stamps in his collection. 10.Please write to me soon and tell (me) about your family. XII . 15 pts 1. Content (8 pts): A provision of all main ideas and details as appropriate. 2. Language (4 pts): A variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language gifted lowersecondary school students. 3. Presentation (3 pts): Coherence, cohesion, and style appropriate to the level of English language gifted lower-secondary school students.

---------THE END---------

PHÒNG GD&ĐT TAM DƯƠNG ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

ĐỀ GIAO LƯU HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP HUYỆN NĂM HỌC 2017-2018 ĐỀ THI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 7. Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Đề thi này gồm 05 trang

PART A: LISTENING I. Question 1-6: Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. EASTSIDELIBRARY APPLICATION FORM for VISITOR’S MEMBERSHIP Example: Purpose of visit: Exchange Family name: Sunderland First name: 1: ...................................... Nationality: 2: ...................................... Address: 3: ..........................Road, Winton Proof of address: Bank statement Telephone number: 4: ..................................... Date of proposed departure: 5: ..................................... Passport number: 6: ..................................... II. Question 7-10: Answer the questions below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. 7. How many items may a visitor member borrow at one time? .............................................................................................................. 8. How long is the loan period for a “hot book”? .............................................................................................................. 9. How much is the deposit to borrow a laptop to use in the library? ............................................................................................................... 10. Name ONE method of renewing items on loan? ............................................................................................................... PART B: PHONETICS I. Choose one word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others. 1. A. athletics B. month C. gather D. both 2. A. raised B. coughed C. practiced D. talked 3. A. gloves B. improve C. coverals D. stomach 4. A. weight B. height C. neighbor D. eight 5. A. boot B. shoot C. good D. food II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others. 1. A. disease B. service C. project D. traffic 2. A. avoid B. provide C. happen D. donate 3. A. depression B. computer C. collection D. volunteer 4. A. exact B. healthy C. obese D. unique 5. A. confident B. creative C. allergic D. exciting Page 1 of 7

PART C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR I. Choose the best opition A, B, C or D to complete the sentences. 1. My parents are happy now because my sister as well as I ___________ the final exams. A. have passed B. has passed C. pass D. passing 2. Tim wants to hear about___________. A. how students in Vietnam live B. how students in Vietnam live? C. how do students in Vietnam live? D. how do students in Vietnam live 3. This food tastes ___________. A. careful B. carefully C. delicious D. deliciously 4. The London Eye is one of London’s ___________ sights. Since its opening in 1999, millions of people have enjoyed a ride on the wheel. A. most famous B. the most famous C. more famous D. best famous 5. David: “Did you enjoy the trip to the nursing home?” Micheal: “___________” A. Yes, that’s a good idea. B. No, my home is not far away. C. Yes, it was interesting. D. No, I wasn’t ready. 6. My brother ___________ pork and neither do I. A. likes B. liked C. doesn’t like D. wouldn’t like 7. ___________. A. Our school is having the celebration anniversary on 5 September B. Our school is having the celebration of anniversary on 5 September C. Our school is having the anniversary celebration on 5 September D. Our school is having the celebration’s anniversary on 5 September 8. I can’t find my notebook. Somebody_________it! A. has moved B. have moved C. is moving D. moves 9. ___________ we reduce, reuse and recycle wastes, the Earth will be in danger. A. If B. Unless C. As long as D. Provided 10. ___________ the time you reached the station, they were playing games. A. On B. At C. In D. By II. Complete each sentence with the correct form of the word in capitals. 1. I want to finish this___________(PAINT). It’s a picture of my uncle’s house. 2. I think going to university is a good __________(PREPARE) for your future career. 3. My friend’s uncle is a ___________(SUCCESS) musician and singer. 4. Many programmes today are full of ___________(VIOLENT). 5. Put all the ingredients in the saucepan, and stir the __________(MIX) with a wooden spoon. 6. Our teacher always________(COURAGE) the students to study harder. III. There are 10 mistakes in the following paragraph. Underline the mistake then correct it. Number (0) is done for you. Do you have (0) some close friends? I think everybody have at least one close friend in his life. And so do I. I have two close friends: Linh and Chi. We are in the same class at the primary school and secondary school. We are also neighbors so we spend most of their time studying and playing together. Chi is a beauty girl with big black eyes and an oval rosy face. She is an intelligent student and always studies the better in my class. She also likes reading. Linh isn’t as beautiful as Chi and she has a lovely smile and looks very healthily. Linh is very sporty. She spends most of her free time playing sports. Linh is a volleyball star on our school Page 2 of 7

team. She is very sociable and has a good sense of humorous. Her jokes always make us to laugh. I love both of my friends and I always hope our friendly will never die. IV. Number the following sentences to make a conversation. Err.....yes OK 7 Do you eat meat and/or fish every day?. 1 Hi, excuse me. I’m doing a survey on eating habits. Can I ask you some questions? How often do you have a meal at a restaurant? Mmm. Yes I do. I eat an apple every day. Thanks. First question: Do you have three meals a day? 14 Well....I eat at home on Friday, but the other days I eat at work. So four times a week. We have dinner together every night No, I don’t. My wife is a vegetarian. I eat once a week, maybe. Do you mean like breakfast, lunch and dinner? Yes, I do. How often do you have lunch at work or school? Three, maybe four times a year. OK. Question 2: Do you eat fruit and/or vegetables every day? How often do you eat with your family? PART D: READING COMPREHENSION I. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits space .Use only one word in each space. The University of Cambridge (informally Cambridge University) is a collegiate public research university in Cambridge, England. ____(1)____ in 1209 and granted a royal charter by King Henry III in 1231, Cambridge is the second-oldest ___(2)____ in the Englishspeaking world. Cambridge is formed ____(3)____ a variety of institutions which include 31 constituent colleges and over 100 academic departments organised into six schools. Cambridge University Press, a department of the university, is the world's oldest publishing ____(4)____and the second-largest university press in the world. The university ___(5)_____operates eight cultural and scientific museums, ____(6)____ the Fitzwilliam Museum, as well as a botanic garden. Cambridge's libraries hold a ___(7)_____of around 15 million books, eight __(8)____ of which are in Cambridge University Library, a legal deposit library. II. Read the passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) Paper is named for papyrus, a reed like plant used by ancient Egyptians as writing material more than 5000 years ago. The Chinese invented the paper that we use 2000 years ago. A piece of paper is really made up of tiny fibers, unlike a piece of material. The fibers used in paper, however, are plant fibers, and there are millions of them in one sheet. In addition to the plant fiber, dyes and additives such as resin may be used. Dyes can make the paper different colors; resin may add weight and texture. Where do these fibers come from ? The majority of paper is made from the plant fiber that comes from trees. Millions are cut down, but new trees are planted in their place. Paper may be also made from things like old rags or pieces of cloth. Wastepaper, paper that has been made and used, can be turned into recycled paper. This recycling process saves forest, energy and reduces air and water pollution. 1. According to the passage, the paper that we use was first invented by A. the Chinese B. the Egyptians C. ancient cultures D. foresters Page 3 of 7

2. What is the main ingredient in most paper ? A. resin B. cardboard C. plant fiber D. papyrus 3. According to the passage, the primary source of the plant fiber used in paper is A. rags B. trees C. fabric D. wastepaper 4. According to the passage, recycling paper is A. bad for the environment B. wasteful C. good for the environment D. economical 5. According to the passage, recycling paper does all of the following EXCEPT_______. A. reduce the need for ink B. save forests C. save energy D. reduce air pollution III. Read the passage below and then choose the correct answer A, B, C or D. Have you ever been to Britain? I’ve dreamed of going there (1) ______ I was a little girl and finally, (2) ______ the spring of 2012, it happened. I was there three weeks and (3) ______ much of that time soaking up the culture, history, and scenery of this incredible island. I visited several districts in England, Wales and Scotland and even (4) ______ a site trip to Ireland. Every place I went to seemed to be more interesting and more beautiful (5) ______ the last. The tour I was with began in London. Of all the sights I saw there, the Tower of London was the most (6) ______. The Tower is a building complex of incredibly rich history. Also on the Thames are the Houses of Parliament and, of course, the clock tower housing “Big Ben”. I saw so many landmarks I can hardly remember them all. Although it was just a glimpse of London I did, (7) ______, get a chance to see all the (8)______ famous places. After (9) ______ of days in London we traveled to the south of England stopping to visit Stonehenge. If you don’t know about Stonehenge there are a couple of links on my links page that will (10) ______ you to sites that can fill you in. 1. A. for B. while C. since D. because 2. A. on B. in C. at D. to 3. A. spent B. took C. did D. used 4. A. did B. got C. spent D. made 5. A. then B. as C. with D. than 6. A. interesting B. interested C. interest D. interestingly 7. A. at first B. at all C. at least D. at that 8. A. more B. much C. most D. many 9. A. few B. some C. a couple D. little 10. A. reach B. take C. make D. send PART E: WRITING I. Use the suggested words and phrases to make complete sentence. 1. Hoa/ not speak/ English/ fluent/ as/ sister. ...................................................................................................................................................... 2. Last month/ she/ learn/ make/ dress/ by/ herself. ...................................................................................................................................................... 3. It/ won’t/ too/ difficult/ keep/ touch. ...................................................................................................................................................... 4. What about/ dinner/ together/ 6 p.m? ...................................................................................................................................................... 5. My grandparents/ not/ like/ city/ because /it/ noisy/ and/ roads/ busy. ...................................................................................................................................................... Page 4 of 7

II. Use the given words to write the second sentence in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence. Do not change the form of the given words. 1. Jane always wear jeans (time) ...................................................................................................................................................... 2. I’ll be busy working while you are on holiday. (during) ...................................................................................................................................................... 3. They all joined in singing the Christmas carols (part) ...................................................................................................................................................... 4. Both my brother and I like scuba-diving (so) ...................................................................................................................................................... 5. I’ll see you at the airport, I expect (hope) ...................................................................................................................................................... III. Write a composition about 100 words about what you usually do in your free time: (Don’t show your name, your school or your village) -------------HẾT-----------Cán bộ coi thi không giải thích gì thêm. Họ tên thí sinh......................................................................SBD:.................phòng thi.............

Page 5 of 7

PHÒNG GD&ĐT TAM DƯƠNG

ĐÁP ÁN VÀ HDC ĐỀ THI GIAO LƯU CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 7 NĂM HỌC 2017-2018 TIẾNG ANH LỚP 7.

TỔNG ĐIỂM 100, SAU ĐÓ QUY ĐỔI VỀ THANG ĐIỂM 20 PART A: LISTENING. Mỗi câu đúng HS được 1 điểm 1. Sophia 2. Italian 3. 521 Ashdown 4. 0405492451 5. 30(th) December/December 30(th) 6. DJG120459 7. 15/fifteen 8. one week/1 week 9. $45/$45.00/45 dollars 10. Any one of the following: online; automated telephone; in person; self-service checkout PART B: PHONETICS. Mỗi câu đúng HS được 1 điểm I. Choose one word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others. 1. C 2. A 3. B 4. B 5. C II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from. 1. A 2. C 3. D 4. B 5. A PART C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR I. Choose the best opition A, B, C or D to complete the sentences. Mỗi câu đúng HS được 0,5 điểm 1. B 2. A 3. C 4. A 5. C 6. C 7. C 8. A 9. B 10. D II. Complete each sentence with the correct form of the word in capitals. Mỗi câu đúng HS được 1 điểm 1. painting 2. preparation 3. successful 4. violence 5. mixture 6. encourages III. There are 10 mistakes in the following paragraph. Underline the mistake then correct it. Write your answer in the table below. Number (0) is done for you. Mỗi câu đúng (tìm được lỗi và sửa đúng) HS được 1 điểm, tìm được lỗi nhưng sửa sai hoặc không sửa HS được 0,5 điểm. Mistakes Line Correction Mistakes Line Correction 1. have 1 has 2. their 3 our 3. beauty 4 beautiful 4. better 5 best Page 6 of 7

5. and 6 but 6. healthily 7. on 7 in 8. humorous 9. to laugh 8 laugh 10. friendly IV. Number the following sentences to make a conversation. Mỗi câu đúng HS được 1 điểm 2 7 1 9 6 3 14 12 8 4

6 8 9

healthy humor friendship

PART D: READING COMPREHENSION I. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits space .Use only one word in each space. Mỗi câu đúng HS được 1 điểm 1. Founded 2. university 3. from 4. house 5. also 6. including 7. total 8. million II. Read the passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) Mỗi câu đúng HS được 1 điểm 1. A 2. C 3. B 4. C 5. A III. Read the passage below and then circle the correct answer A, B, C or D. Mỗi câu đúng HS được 1 điểm 1. C 2. B 3. A 4. D 5. D 6. A 7. C 8. C 9. C 10. B PART E: WRITING. I. Use the suggested words and phrases to make complete sentence. Mỗi câu đúng HS được 1 điểm 1. He doesn’t speak English as/so fluently as her sister (does) 2. Last month, she learnt/learned (how) to make a dress by herself. 3. It won’t be too difficult to keep in touch. 4. What about having/eating dinner together at 6 p.m? 5. My grandparents don’t like the city because it is (so, very) noisy and the roads are busy. II. Use the given words to write the second sentence in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence. Do not change the form of the given words. Mỗi câu đúng HS được 1 điểm 1. Jane wears jeans all the time. 2. During your holiday, I’ll be busy working. (I’ll be busy working during your holiday) 3. They all took part in singing the Christmas carols. 4. My brother likes scuba-diving, (and) so do I. 5. I hope to see you at the airport. III. Write a composition about 100 words about what you usually do in your free time: (don’t show your name, your school or your village) (10 điểm) 1. Mở bài: Nêu được chủ đề của bài viết.(được 2 điểm) 2. Thân bài: Nêu và trình bày được một số hoạt động mà người viết thường làm khi rảnh rỗi (như tham gia vào các hoạt động vui chơi, giải trí, thể thao, văn hóa, văn nghệ, vv…) (được 10 điểm) 3. Kết luận: Tóm tắt, khẳng định lại tất cả lý do đã trình bày ở hai phần trước. (được 3 điểm) Page 7 of 7

TRƯỜNG THCS TAM DƯƠNG

ĐỀ THI KHẢO SÁT HỌC SINH GIỎI KHỐI 7 LẦN 1 NĂM HỌC 2017-2018 Môn: Tiếng Anh Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút

PART A. LISTENING Listen twice and write down the missing information. GALA CINEMA Week beginning (1) Studio One (2) Programs at (3) and (4) Seat prices: $ 3- (5) $1.50- children, students, and (6) Studio Two THE MARVELOUS (7) Special offer this week only- all seats are (8) Studio Three MASTER DRAGON One performance daily at (9) Contact at (10)

22 TO JUPITER citizens

PART B. PHONETICS I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others in each group. 1. A. checked B. looked C. naked D. cooked 2. A. theatre B. bathing C. breathe D. southern 3. A. devise B. promise C. surprise D. advise 4. A. cholera B. character C. mechanic D. charity 5. A. emigrate B. success C. detail D. invent II. Pick out the word whose stress is placed differently from the others in each group. 1. A. expectation B. introduction C. volunteer D. foundation 2. A. extensive B. exciting C. excellent D. existent 3. A. successful B. wonderful C. beautiful D. plentiful 4. A. mechanic B. official C. preference D. convenience 5. A. attract B. service C. appeal D. revolve PART C. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR I. Choose from the four options given (marked A, B, C and D) to complete the following sentences. 1. I don’t like my next door neighbor, who often _________ill of everyone behind his back. A. says B. speaks C. tells D. whispers 2. There was nothing they could do _________leave the car at the roadside where it had broken down. A. unless B. than C. but D. in stead of Page of 1/4

3. I have to get my picture _________for my website. A. take B. taken C. taking D. took 4. The staff are working at weekend _________delay the project any further. A. so that not to B. so not to C. so as not to D. for not 5. We were so disappointed that most of the guests _________when we arrived at the party. A. leave B. left C. have left D. had left 6. Because his argument was so confusing _________people understood it. A. a few B. much C. few D. many 7. There are a lot of letters _________right now. A. to be written B. to have written C. to be writing D. to write 8. Many people like the slow _________of life in the countryside. A. step B. pace C. speed D. space 9. I am tired of my neighbors _________noise every night. A. to make B. make C. having made D. making 10. Doctors advise us _________too many hours watching television. A. not to spend B. not being spend C. not spend D. not spending 11. There are chances that Manchester United _________the last match against Juventus. A. will win B. won C. has won D. would win 12. I like detective stories where I can’t _________who committed the murder! A. work up B. work for C. work out D. work on 13. I am leaving the keys under the pot in the garden _________you should be home earlier than usual. A. because B. in case C. so that D. though 14. I was made _________hard when I was at high school. A. studying B. studied C. to study D. study 15. I regret _________you the story. I really didn’t know it would make you disappointed. A. tell B. telling C. to tell D. told II. Find and correct one mistake in each sentence below. 1. Our teacher told that the sun always rises in the east. A B C D 2. She had the gardener to plant some trees. A B C D 3. Come up to my place and we will discuss it. A B C D 4. He has repeated urged the government to do something about this. A B C D 5. I have to fetch the kids at school at 4 o’clock. A B C D III. Fill in each blank in these sentences with the suitable form of the words in CAPITAL. 1. The university has _________the use of dictionaries during language examinations. AUTHOR 2. It is very difficult to find Mrs. Burton's shop, for it was _________from all others in the street. DISTINGUISH 3. He is very generous. Everyone admires his _________. SELFISH 4. _________skill is the one skill that can grant you the opportunity to get a good job. LEAD Page of 2/4

5. _________are alarmed by the rate at which tropical rainforests are being destroyed. CONSERVE PART D. READING I. Read the following passage then choose the best answer from the four options (marked A, B, C and D) to complete the numbered blanks in the passage. UNICEF means the United Nations Children's Fund. It serves children in (1)_______all over the world. It helps children of (2)_______races, nationalities, religions and political systems in more than 140 worldwide countries. The (3)_______of UNICEF is to help provide a better life for children and their mothers. UNICEF (4)_______both long-term assistance and emergency. UNICEF was (5)_______in 1946 to help bring food and medicine to children who suffered during World War two in Europe. It began (6)_______a temporary agency, but became a permanent part of the United Nations in 1953 (7)_______the need for its services around the world. UNICEF's primary concern is to help governments of developing countries improve the (8)_______of life for almost one billion children. UNICEF's main office is in the United Nations, New York City, (9)_______it also has more than 40 offices and 100 programs worldwide. In 1965, UNICEF won the Nobel Peace Prize (10)_______its work helping children and building brighter future. 1. A. communities B. organizations C. groups D. society 2. A. every B. all C. some D. few 3. A. view B. purpose C. opinion D. intention 4. A. receives B. gets C. takes D. gives 5. A. found B. produced C. created D. built up 6. A. like B. with C. for D. as 7. A. due to B. in spite of C. since D. for 8. A. cost B. level C. character D. quality 9. A. and B. besides C. but D. moreover 10. A. as B. with C. for D. in II. Read the following passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question. One of the most important discoveries of the nineteenth century was a method of using natural gas for cooking and heating. Large amounts of natural gas are found in the United States, usually several feet below the surface of the earth. Natural gas is most often found in places where petroleum, the oil from which gasoline is made, is found. Often the natural gas must be removed before the oil itself can be reached. For many years after natural gas was first discovered, it was thought to have no value. Finally, however, people began to understand its use and to find ways of storing it and moving it from place to place. Today natural gas is stored in large tanks and used for lighting, cooking and heating. It has also been used for electric generators and hybrid cars recently. In many ways natural gas is one of our finest fuels. It can be used for cooking without making the room hot. It is cheap and can be moved easily from one place to another through long pipelines, some of which are hundreds of miles in length. 1. It can be inferred from the passage that ________. A. natural gas is useless B. people once wasted natural gas C. natural gas is moved in trucks D. natural gas is found where there is no petroleum 2. This passage as a whole is about ________. A. discovering natural gas B. finding petroleum C. using natural gas and petroleum D. natural gas and its use 3. Which of the following is NOT true about natural gas? A. It is not used for heating. B. It moves through pipes. C. It is cheap. D. It can be stored. 4. According to the passage, the easiest way to move natural gas from one place to another is ________. A. to store it in large tanks to move B. to liquidize it and move it by trucks Page of 3/4

C. through pipelines D. to liquidize it and move it through pipelines 5. How many uses of natural gas are mentioned? A. two B. three C. four D. five III. Fill in each numbered blank of the following passage with ONE suitable word. If you live in a city, you probably see many people, hear the (1)_______of traffic, and smell the pollution (2)_______cars and factories. We are entering a new time in (3)_______history of the world. Before this, most (4)_______ were farmers. They lived in the country. Now many people are (5)_______the farms and moving into the cities. They are looking for better jobs. The cities are growing very quickly. Most cities are very crowded. People are driving more cars, burning more fuel, (6)_______more water, eating more food, making more garbage, and producing more things in factories than (7)_______before. Life is becoming difficult. Some governments are trying to plan for the future. They are building new roads, putting (8)_______new houses, looking for more water, and limiting growth in certain areas. Still, city planners are getting worried. People are crowding into the cities (9)_______than cities can take them. The cities are running out (10)_______room. What is the answer to this problem?

PART E. WRITING I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it. 1. He said he was not guilty of stealing the car.  He denied 2. Is this the only way to reach the city centre?  Isn’t there 3. He never suspected that the money had been stolen.  At no time 4. It’s my opinion that you should take more exercise.  If I 5. I was going to leave, but because of what he said, I didn’t.  She persuaded II. Use the given words to make complete sentences. 1. As/ Little Pea/ run/ festival,/ she/ drop/ one/ her shoes and/ lose/ it/.  2. Last year/ I used/ get up/ late/. Now/ I /get/ up early/ do/ morning exercises/.  3. Let/ me/ get/ application form/ we can/ fill/ it/.  4. Statue/ Liberty/ present/ United States/ by/ France/ 1876.  5. residents/ store owners/ concern/ new mall/ few months.  III. Write a passage of about 150 words to justify your answer on the topic: “Physical education should be omitted from the curriculum so that students can concentrate on academic subjects”. Do you agree or disagree with this statement?

=== THE END === Cán bộ coi thi không giải thích gì thêm! Page of 4/4

Thí sinh không được sử dụng từ điển! Họ tên học sinh: …………………………………… SBD: ………… Phòng thi số: ………….

TRƯỜNG THCS TAM DƯƠNG

ĐỀ THI KHẢO SÁT HỌC SINH GIỎI KHỐI 7 LẦN 1 NĂM HỌC 2017-2018 Môn: Tiếng Anh Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút

ĐÁP ÁN + HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM PART A (10 điểm- 1 điểm/câu) 1. October 2. voyage 6. senior 7. Mountain

3. 2. 30 8. reduced

4. 8.45 9. 7.30

5. adults 10. 03425791

PART B (10 điểm- 1 điểm/câu) I.(5) 1C 2A II.(5) 1D 2C

3B 3A

4D 4C

5C 5B

PART C (25 điểm- 1 điểm/câu) I.(15) 1B 2C 3B 6C 7A 8B 11A 12C 13B II.(5) 1. A-said 2. C-plant 3. A-over III.(5) 1. authorized 2. indistinguishable 4. leadership 5. Conservationists

4C 5D 9D 10A 14C 15B 4. A-repeatedly 5.C-from 3. selflessness/ unselfishness

PART D (30 điểm- Phần I, III cho 1 điểm/câu. Phần II cho 2 điểm/câu) I.(10) 1A 2B 3B 4D 5C 6D 7A 8D 9C 10C II.(5x2) 1B 2D 3A 4C 5D III.(10) 1. noise 2. from 3. the 4. people 5. leaving 6. using 7. ever 8. up 9. faster 10. of PART E (25 điểm- Phần I, II cho 1 điểm/câu. Phần III cho tối đa 15 điểm) I.(5) 1. He denied for stealing (having stolen) the car/ that he had stolen the car. 2. Isn’t there (another way/ some other way/ any other way)(to/ to reach/ reaching) the city centre. 3. At no time did he suspect (that) the money had been stolen/ someone had stolen the money. 4. If I were you, I’d take more exercise. 5. She persuaded me not to leave. II.(5) 1. As Little Pea ran to the festival, she dropped one of her shoes and lost it. 2. Last year I used to get up late. Now, I get up earlyand do morning exercises. 3. Let me get an application form and we can fill it out. 4. The Statue of Liberty was presented to the United States by France in 1876. 5. The residents and store owners have been concerned about the new mall for a few months. III.(15) Marking scheme Page of 5/4

1. Content (8 points): a provision of all main ideas and details as appropriate. 2. Language (4 points): a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language gifted lower-secondary school students. 3. Presentation (3 points): coherence, cohesion, and style appropriate to the level of English language gifted lower-secondary school students. Tổng điểm: 100 điểm – Sau đó quy ra thang điểm 10. ---------THE END---------

Page of 6/4

aif GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO PHÒNG HUYỆN THANH OAI ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 7 NĂM HỌC: 2017 - 2018 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian: 120 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)

Chú ý: - Bộ đề thi này gồm có 06 trang, từ trang 01 đến trang 06. - Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào bộ đề thi này. Điểm

Họ tên, chữ ký của người chấm thi số 1:

- Bằng số:…………….. ………………………………………...

Số phách (Do Chủ tịch hội đồng chấm thi ghi)

- Bằng chữ:…………… Họ tên, chữ ký của người chấm thi số 2: ………………………... ………………………………………... PART ONE: LISTENING

Listen and fill in the gaps: (15 × 0.2 = 3.0 pts)

Schools

There are different (1)............................................... of schools. There is an elementary school. The children at the elementary school are young. There is a (2)............................................... for them to play in. The classrooms are bright and airy. There are blackboards in the classrooms. The children sit in desks to do their work. There is a (3)............................................... lot for the teachers to park in. There is a (4)............................................... for the students to get food. The principal has an office. Nobody wants to go to the principal's (5)................................................ It usually means that you are in trouble if you have to go to the principal's office. When you (6)............................................... elementary school, you go to high school. Most of the students in high school are (7)................................................ There is a parking lot outside the high school. There is also a football field outside. The students go to classes in different classrooms. They move from classroom to classroom for (8)............................................... subject. There is a cafeteria where they can get their (9)............................................... or eat the lunches that they have brought from home. There is a gymnasium (10)............................................... students have physical education. Dances are also held in the gymnasium. Some students go on to university (11)............................................... high school. Students at the university are older. Some of the students are even senior citizens. People come from all over the (12)............................................... to attend the university. There are lots of different things at the university. There is a (13)............................................... where plays and concerts are held, there is a bookstore where students can buy their textbooks, there is a physical education (14)............................................... that has a swimming pool in it. The parking lot at the university is very big. They call the (15)............................................... that the university is on a campus. Some of the students live on campus in residences. -> Your answers: 1

1..................................

2..................................

3..................................

4..................................

5..................................

6..................................

7..................................

8..................................

9..................................

10..................................

11..................................

12..................................

13..................................

14..................................

15..................................

PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts) I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently: (5 × 0.2=1.0 pt) 16. A. tables B. brushes C. watches D. glasses 17. A. coach B. armchair C. Christmas D. children 18. A. arrived B. laughed C. looked D. watched 19. A. nervous B. scout C. household D. mouse 20. A. together B. teenager C. grow D. regular -> Your answers: 16.................................. 17.................................. 18.................................. 19.................................. 20.................................. II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others: (5 × 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 21. A. receive B. number C. disease D. decide 22. A. vacation B. tomato C. material D. surgery 23. A. writer B. soccer C. prefer D. chopstick 24. A. restaurant B. general C. satellite D. arrival 25. A. delicious B. journalist C. favorite D. chemistry -> Your answers: 21.................................. 22.................................. 23.................................. 24.................................. 25.................................. PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.0 pts) I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (10 × 0.2 = 2.0 pts) 26 . When my brother was a boy, he ............................................ games to lessons. A. prefer B. preferring C. prefers D. preferred 27. Mrs. Hanh prefers clothes made ............................................ silk ............................................ those of cotton. A. of/ to B. from/ than C. in/ to D. from/ more 28. Does it take Mr. Hoang 20 minutes............................................ to his office by motorbike? A. go B. to go C. going D. went 29. We don't have anything to do now. Shall we go to our club? - ............................................ A. Yes, let’s B. Yes, we should C. Yes, we go D. Yes, I shall 30. You looked very ............................................ this morning. What was the problem? A. unhappy B. unhappily C. to be unhappy D. being unhappy 31. Don't let your brother play video games so often because it can make him............................................. A. addictive B. wonderful C. interesting D. beautiful 32. My mother told me that: "Being a girl, you ought to learn .......................................... to cook meals." A. how B. when C. what D. where 2

33. Ba: "I didn't go to school late this morning." Hoan: " ............................................ " A. So did I B. I didn't, too C. Neither did ID. Either didn't I - “Every afternoon.” 34. – "............................................... do you play badminton?” A. Why B. When C. How long D. How often 35. My father is very.......................................... in watching news on TV. A. interest B. interested C. interesting D. to interest -> Your answers: 26..................................

27..................................

28..................................

29..................................

30..................................

31.................................. 32.................................. 33.................................. 34.................................. 35.................................. II. Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences: (10 × 0.2 =2.0 pts) 36. John is riding his motorbike so .......................... that he is sure to have an accident. CARE 37. Hoang 's parents sometimes punished him for his ..........................

LAZY

38. Ha's mother is a teacher of physical .......................... in my school.

EDUCATE

39. Miss Lien sings the most.......................... in our town.

BEAUTY

40. My Linh is a very pleasant girl, but her friend is a little ..........................

FRIEND

41. The twins aren't the same. They always do things..........................

DIFFER

42. It is......................... to advise Mr. Thinh. He never takes anyone’s advice. USE 43. My teacher of Maths has a .......................... computer.

PORT

44. Miss Anh is a .......................... She sells so many flowers in Ha Noi.

FLOWER

45. One of the most popular.......................... at recess in the USA is talking. ACT -> Your answers: 36 ..................................

37 ..................................

38 ..................................

39 ..................................

40 ..................................

41 ..................................

42 ..................................

43 ..................................

44 ..................................

45 ..................................

III. Supply the correct forms of the verbs in brackets: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 46. You can’t make an omelette without (break) .................................... eggs. 47. Daddy, could you tell me how (use) ....................................this laptop? 48. (Take) .................................... these pills and you will feel better then! 49. Your father (be) …………..angry if I use his bicycle? 50. You shouldn't spend all of your time (play) ……………..video games. -> Your answers: 46.

47.

48.

49. 3

50.

PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.0 pts) I. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each gap of the passage: (10 × 0.2 = 2.0 pts) One of the first novels in the history of literature (51)…………written in England in 1719. It was Robinson Crusoe by Daniel Defoe. Daniel Defoe was born in London in the family (52)………… a rich man. When Daniel was a schoolboy, he began to write stories. After (53)…………school, he worked in his father’s shop and (54)…………articles for newspapers. Defoe visited many countries and met many people. That helped him (55)…………in his writings. In 1719, when Defoe was sixty years old, he wrote the novel Robinson Crusoe which (56)…………him famous. Defoe used in his book a true story about a sailor who (57)…………on an island for four years. Robinson Crusoe in Defoe’s novel lived on an island for twenty- eight years. People liked (58)…………novel in England and in many other countries, Daniel Defoe wrote other books. (59)…………; his novel Robinson Crusoe was the (60)…………famous. Defoe was not a rich man when he died in 1731. 51. A. was 52. A. on 53. A. coming 54. A. wrote 55. A. some 56. A. brought 57. A. lived 58. A. a 59. A. And 60. A. very -> Your answers: 51. 52. 56.

57.

B. were B. at B. leaving B. sold B. many B. took B. came B. an B. However B. much

C. has C. of C. staying C. bought C. plenty C. made C. went C. the C. So C. best

D. have D. to D. getting D. read D. much D. let D. visited D. Ø D. Because D. most

53.

54.

55.

58.

59.

60.

II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space: (10 × 0.2 =2.0pts) My Favorite Hobby

My (61).....………….…. is Susan. My favorite hobby is reading. I enjoy reading books when I (62).....………….…. free time. I started to do it when I was five years old. The first time I read a book, I felt interested (63).....………….…. that book immediately. So I kept reading. My teachers and my parents usually taught me (64).....………….…. read the difficult words. 4

I was very happy when I read a story with a happy ending but I was thrilled when I read a detective story. I enjoy (65).....………….…. books because I like to explore the imaginative world of my favorite author, J.K. Rowling (66).....………….…. writes “ Harry Potter” . There are a lot of advantages (67).....………….…. reading. Reading can make me feel relaxed and calm. I can also learn new vocabulary items. Then I can further improve my English. Moreover, it can give me an unlimited imagination, so I can write books in (68).....………….…. future. I can learn the different cultures and customs of other (69).....………….…. in the world, too. I read at least one hour every day. I read books by myself. I usually read it at home. I wish I could read different kinds (70).....………….…. books because it might be very challenging. -> Your answers: 61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

68.

69.

70.

III. Read the text then make questions and answer them: (5 × 0.2 = 1.0 pt) Thank you for calling the North London Arts Cinema. It opens 7 days a week, showing a variety of British and foreign films. Next week, we still show an Italian film called “Midnight Meeting”. It is set in Milan in the 1950s. You can see that film from Monday to Thursday. It will be on twice a day in the evenings. That’s at 6.45 and 9.15. The film lasts two hours and fifteen minutes. Tickets are ₤4, but there is a special student ticket at ₤2.80 for all our midweek films. Please bring your student card if you want the cheaper ticket. The nearest car park to the cinema is in Victory Street. It’s just five-minute walk from the cinema. Thank you for calling the North London Arts Cinema. If you require further information, phone during office hours – 9am to 4.30 pm, Monday to Friday. 71. How many days/ week/ the North London Arts Cinema/ open? ……………………………………………………………………………………………? ……………………………………………………………………………………………. 72. What/ title/ film next week? ……………………………………………………………………………………………? ……………………………………………………………………………………………. 73. How long/ film/ last? ……………………………………………………………………………………………? ……………………………………………………………………………………………. 74. What/ a student/ have to do/ if/ he wants/ the cheaper ticket? …………………………………………………………………………………………….? ……………………………………………………………………………………………. 5

75. How far/ it/ from/ nearest car park/ the cinema? …………………………………………………………………………………………….? ……………………………………………………………………………………………. PART FIVE: WRITING: (5.0 pts) I. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning: (5 × 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 76. Did your father spent the whole morning repairing his car? -> Did it take..............................................................................................................? 77. You shouldn't stay up too late. It's not good for your health. -> You had........................................................................................................................... 78. Our newcomers didn’t come to our club last weekend. -> Our newcomer were...……………………………………………….…..….…………… 79. The driving test this morning was easier than my brother thought. -> The driving test was not……………….......…………………………………………….. 80. Learning Chinese is very difficlult for me. -> It ……………….......……...................................……………………………………….. II. Use the following words and phrases to write complete and meaningful sentences. Make all the necessary changes and additions if necessary. (5 × 0.2=1.0 pt) 81. The monitor / always goes / class/ on time to be / good example /for the class. -> ……………………………………………………………………………………………. 82. Lan/ go/ the doctor/ yesterday because/ she/ have/ an awful stomachache. -> ……………………………………………………………………………………………. 83. Now, my parents / are / pleased / with/ improvement in my work. -> ……………………………………………………………………………………………. 84. Minh / was / absent / school / last Monday / because / he / ill. -> ……………………………………………………………………………………………. 85. It/ take/ Hoa/ twenty minutes/ walk to school/ yesterday? -> ……………………………………………………………………………………………. III. Write an essay (about 180 words) about the person you love most of all: (3.0 pts) (The essay must have a title and three parts: Opening – Body and Conclusion. Don’t show your proper names/ school/ village…) ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………..

ĐÁP ÁN HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 7 NĂM HỌC: 2017 - 2018 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 6

PART ONE: LISTENING

Listen and fill in the gaps: (15 × 0.2 = 3.0 pts)

1. types

2. playground

3. parking

4. cafeteria

5. office

6. finish

7. teenagers

8. each

9. lunches

10. where

11. from

12. world

13. theater

14. building

15. land

PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts) I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently: (5 × 0.2=1.0 pt) 16. A. tables

17. C. Christmas

18. A. arrived

19. A. nervous

20. B. teenager

II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others: (5 × 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 21. B. number

22. D. surgery

23. C. prefer

24. D. arrival

25. A. delicious

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.0 pts) I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (10 × 0.2 = 2.0 pts) 26. D. preferred 27. A. of/ to 28. B. to go

29. A. Yes, let’s

31. A. addictive 32. A. how

34. C. How often 35. B. interested

33. C. Neither did I

30. A. unhappy

II. Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences: (10 × 0.2 =2.0 pts) 36. carelessly 41. differently

37. laziness 42. unuseful/ useless

38. education

39. beautifully

40. unfriendly

43. portable

44. florist

45. activities

III. Supply the correct forms of the verbs in brackets: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 46. breaking

47. to use

48. Take

49. Will ….be

50. playing

PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.0 pts) I. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each gap of the passage: (10 × 0.2 = 2.0 pts) 51. A. was 52. C. of 53. B. leaving 54. A. wrote 55. D. much 56. C. made

57. A. lived

58. C. the

59. B. However

60. D. most

II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space: (10 × 0.2 =2.0pts) 61. name 62. have 63. in 64. to 65. reading 7

66. who

67. of

68. the

69. countries

70. of

III. Read the text then make questions and answer them: (5 × 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 71. How many days a week does the North London Arts Cinema open? -> It opens 7 days a week. 72. What is the title of film next week? -> It is “Midnight Meeting” 73. How long does the film last? -> It lasts two hours and fifteen minutes. 74. What does a student have to do if he wants the cheaper ticket? -> He has to bring his student card. 75. How far is it from the nearest car park to the cinema? -> It is just five – minute walk. PART FIVE: WRITING: (5.0 pts) I. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning: (5 × 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 76. Did it take your father the whole morning to repair his car? 77. You had better not stay up too late. It's not good for your health. 78. Our newcomer were absent from our club last weekend. 79. The driving test was not so/ as difficult as my brother thought. 80. It is very difficult for me to learn Chinese. II. Use the following words and phrases to write complete and meaningful sentences. Make all the necessary changes and additions if necessary. (5 × 0.2=1.0 pt) 81. The monitor always goes to class on time to be a good example for the class. 82. Lan went to the doctor yesterday because she had an awful stomachache. 83. Now, my parents are pleased with the improvement in my work. 84. Minh was absent from school last Monday because he was ill. 85. Did it take Hoa twenty minutes to walk to school yesterday? III. Write an essay (about 180 words) about the person you love most of all: (3.0 pts) (The essay must have a title and three parts: Opening – Body and Conclusion. Don’t show your proper names/ school/ village…) - The opening: The essay must write something relating to the topic “Who he/she love most; …”. (0.5pt) - The body: Write that person's relation; his/her appearance/ characteristics/ good points/ the sentences must have connectors and link words... (2,0 pts) - The conclusion: Write about the writers' ideas, feeling or thoughts about the person he/she loves (s). (0.5 pt) 8

* Note: The essay that has 3.0 points must have: - Long enough (At least 150 words or maybe more). - Correct vocabulary and structures. - Don't tell the proper names (The school, the student's/ teacher’s name/ ...).

UBND HUYỆN YÊN LẠC PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

ĐỀ THI GIAO LƯU HSG CẤP HUYỆN MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 7 NĂM HỌC 2017 -2018 ( Thời gian làm bài 120 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề)

(Đề thi gồm 04 trang – học sinh làm bài ra tờ giấy thi) SECTION A: LISTENING I. Listen to the conversation twice then write complete the form below. Write ONE WORD AND / OR A MUMBER for each anwser. Questions 1-5 TAUBER INSURANCE Co. Insurance type: Vehicle Policy: 1. …………………. Make & Model: Masda Marvel Engine size: 2. …………………….. Name Lisa Marie Heathcote Date of birth: 3. ……………….. 1995 Password: 4. ……………….. Change valuation? Yes Reduce value to: 5. $………………………… I. Listen to the conversation twice, then choose the best answer to complete these sentences. Questions 6-10 6. Ismael is……………… A. OK, but a bit ill B. OK, but has a lot of homework 7. ‘Light and dark’ is…….. A. a science fiction film B. a romantic comedy 8. The comedy film is about ………… A. a family B. shop 9. Jack hates ……………… A. horror films B. romantic films 10. They decide to meet at ….. A. half past seven B. 7 o’clock

C. OK, but a bit bored C. a horror film C. school C. science fiction films C. 8 o’clock

SECTION B: PHONETICS I. Choose the word that has the underlined parts pronounced differently from the others in each group: talked 1. A. B. laughted C. washed D. raised chicken change 2. A. B. coach C. orchestra D. water walk 4. A. B. call C. car D. I I. Choose the word that has a different stress pattern from the others in each group: costume season 4. A. B. canoe C. highlight D. pavement dinner 5. A. B. review C. concert D. Page 1 of 6

SECTION C: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY. I. Choose the best answer by circling its corresponding letter A, B, C or D. 1. A…………. is a film that shows real life or even A. action B. documentary C. thriller D. comedy 2. - Carol: "Thank you very much for helping me." - Cook: "___________." A. Alright B. You’re right C. You’re welcome D. No problem 3. They have to make_______ then children do not play with matches. A. ensure B. sure C. sured D. ensuring 4. My friend________ the answer to the question now. A. is known B. know C. is knowing D. knows 5. Dinner will be ready soon. Can you please________ the table? A. lay B. put C. make D. take 6. There are some one following us. I think we________ in this area. A. are following B. are followed C. follow D. are being followed 7. Our teacher made us________ harder. A. working B. to work C. work D. works 8. She went to market without ____________ anything. A. buy B. to buy C. bought D. buying 9. Of my parents, my father is _________________ A. the stricter B. the strictest C. strict D. stricter 10. I usually go to work by bus, but ________ and then I use my motorbike A. again B. once C. now D. ever 11. They reached the village before sunset_______ the flooded road . A. although B. whether C. as if D. despite 12. The character of Mickey Mouse_____________ long time ago. A. was created B. is created C. creates D. created 13. - Carol: "Let's have a pizza." - Cook: "___________." A. Not again B. It doesn't matter C. It’s a good idea D. Not really 14. Mike: “A motorbike knocked Ted down.” Jane: “_________________.” A. What is it now? B. Poor Ted! C. How terrific! D. What a motorbike! 15. The indecisive man was readily persuaded to change his mind again. A. easily B. hardly C. willingly D. difficult II. Complete the following sentences with an appropriate form of the given word. 1. Good (educate)…………………………. can help people get rid of taking risk. 2. Are there any youth (organize)………………………. in your country? 3. These plants can grow (nature)………………………. in poor soils. 4. The teacher asked the students to choose an (act)……………….. partner for the next 5. “When is the (enroll)……………….. in this school?” “It’s the first week of August”. 6. “Who is your favorite (act)…………………………., Lan?” “I think it’s Tom Hank”. 7. If you want to be a member of the club, please fill out this (apply) ……………………..form. 8. What is the (deep)……………………… of the river? 9. There is some (similar)……………………….. in the way the two groups work. 10. He can’t get higher education because of his (poor)…………………………………. Page 2 of 6

III. Fill in each blank with a suitable preposition. 1. She went out the room ________________ saying a word.

2. Hold____________ a minute while I get my breath back. 3. My parents are tired____________ living in the city. 4. She’s still looking____________ a job. 5. The increase in population has led________ overcrowding in many cities.

IV. Find out one mistake in each sentence and correct it. Example : 0. What would you like to watch? 0.watch --> watching 1. After living in London for two months, my brother got used to drive on the left. 2. I suggested that you writing to them to accept their offer. 3. They asked me where was I going to spend my vocation that summer. 4. Although being ill, Phong still went to school last Monday. 5. My brother enjoys to read detective stories in his free time. 6. I’d rather typing this letter than write it because it’s faster. 7. There are a little activities that we can do after the meeting. 8. The novel writing by Mark Twain attracts a lot of children. 9. We took part in a six-hours journey to the eastern coast. 10. I think I prefer country life than city life.

…………… …………… ………….. …………… …………… …………… …………… …………… …………...

SECTION D: READING COMPREHENSION. I. Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word to complete the passage. The country and the city have (1)______ and disadvantages. People in the country live in more beautiful (2)______. They enjoy peace and quiet, and can do their work at their own pace because no one is in a (3)______. They live in larger, more comfortable houses, and their (4)______ are more friendly, and ready to help them when they need it. Their life can be monotonous and they can be (5)______, a long way from the nearest town, which is a serious problem if they are ill or have to (6)________ children to school. The city has all the (7)______ the country lacks, but it also has a lot of disadvantages. Cities are often ugly and (8)______; they not only have bad air but are also noisy. Everyone is always in a haste and this (9)______ that people have no time to get to know each other and make (10)______. II. Choose options given (marked A, B, C, and D) to complete each of the questions below. Can you imagine a world without words? The main way that we communicate with each other is by using words. We can communicate either by speaking and listening or by writing and reading. With words, we can give and receive information, ideas, orders and instructions. People have used writing to communicate for about 7000 years. At first, they used to draw simple pictures to represent objects, such as people and animals. Then people started to put pictures together to represent something more difficult, like a sentence. The next step in the development of writing was to use symbols, or signs. These symbols represented the sounds of words and not their meanings. Finally, the alphabet from which modern English comes was invented in about 1500 BC. The people who invented the alphabet used a set of symbols to represent the sound “o”. This symbol is still used to the same sound today. Many languages are written with letters of an alphabet, including Vietnamese. 1. What is the most suitable title for this article? A. listening and speaking B. writing and reading C. words and writing D. alphabets 2. People communicate with each other using_______. Page 3 of 6

A. books B. words C. instructions D. information 3. The first kind of writing used simple_______. A. objects B. people C. pictures D. animals 4. A later form of writing used symbols to represent_______. A. words B. sounds C. pictures D. meanings 5. An alphabet is a set of letters that represent the different sounds of a_______. A. letter B. symbol C. word D. language III. Read the text then choose A, B, C or D to complete the text. I live in a small village (1)____ Henfield - there are about 500 people here. I love it because it is (2) ____ and life is slow and easy. You never (3) ____ queue in shops or banks. The village is clean - people (4) ____ it and don’t throw their rubbish in the streets. The air is also (5) ____ because there’s not much heavy traffic. People are much (6) ____ here than in a city . Everyone knows everyone and (7) ____ someone has problem, there are always people who can help. There aren’t (8) ____ things I don’t like about Henfield. One thing is that there’s not much (9) ____ in the evening - we haven’t got any cinemas or theaters. Another problem is that people always talk about (10) ____ and everyone knows what everyone else is doing. But I still prefer village life to life in a big city. 1. A. was 2. A. quietly 3. A. had 4. A. look after 5. A .dirty 6. A . friendly 7. A .if 8. A. much 9. A. doing 10. A. another

B. is B. quiet B. should B. find B. not clean B. unfriendly B. and B. a little B. to do B. every one

C. called C. noisy C. wait C. think C. clean C. friendlier C. so C. a few C. jobs C. each other

D. name D. noisily D. have to D. look for D. dizzy D. unfriendlier D. but D. many D. things D. any one

SECTION E: WRITING I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the original one. 11. My mother likes romantic films. → My mother is ________________________________________________________. 12. As I get older, I want to travel less. → The older_________________________________________________. 13. We couldn’t find George anywhere. → George could _______________________________________________. 14. It was a bit difficult to get into work this morning. → Getting____________________________________________________. 15. I last saw him in 1998. → I haven't___________________________________________________.

II. “ What sources of energy have bad influences on the environment? Why? And give your ideas to solve this problem” Write a paragraph about this problem (100 – 120 words).

Page 4 of 6

___THE END___

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI HSG NĂM HỌC 2017- 2018 MÔN: Tiếng Anh 7

Mỗi câu đúng học sinh được 0,1 điểm. Tổng số: 8,5 Bài viết luận học sinh được tối đa 1,5 điểm.

Tổng điểm toàn bài: 10 SECTION A: LISTENING 1. ZQW5009 2. 2500CC

3. 22nd of August/

4. Jack 1897

5. 15,000/

August 22nd /

Fifteen /15

22 August/

thousand

August 22 6. B

7. C

8. C

9. B

10. A

SECTION B: PHONETICS 1. D

2. C

3. C

SECTION C: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY. I. 1.B 2.C 3.B 4.D

4. B

5. B

5. A

6.D 11. D

7.C 12. A

8. D 13. C

9.A 14. B

10. C 15. C

II. 1. education 6.actor

2. organizations 7.application

3. naturally 8. depth

4. active 9. similarity

5. enrollment 10.poverty

III. 1.without 2. on 3. of 4. for 5. to IV.- nếu chọn đúng lỗi mà không sửa được lỗi thì chỉ được ½ số điểm của câu 1. drive-> 2. writing -> 3. was I -> I was 4. although -> 5.to read -> driving write/ should despite/ in spite reading write of Page 5 of 6

6.typing -> type

7. a little -> a few

8. writing -> written

9. six- hours -> Six- hour

10.than -> to

SECTION D: READING COMPREHENSION. I. 1.advantages

2. environment

3. hurry

4.neightbors

5.isolated

6.take

7. services

8. polluted

9. means

10.friends

II. 1. C

2. B

3. A

4. B

5. D

1. C

2. B

3. D

4. A

5. C

6. C

7. A

8. D

9. B

10. C

III.

SECTION E: WRITING I. 1. My mother is interested in romantic films. 2. The older I get, the less I want to travel. 3. George could not be found anywhere. 4. Getting into work this morning was a bit difficult. 5. I haven’t seen him since 1998. II. Write a short paragraph about the benefits of reading books (100 – 120 words). Tiêu chí Mô tả chi tiết Nội dung Viết đúng chủ đề (chỉ cần viết đúng câu chủ đề); Viết logic, hợp lí Ngôn ngữ Đúng cấu trúc ngữ pháp; Sử dụng từ vựng phù hợp phong phú Trình bày Viết đủ số từ theo qui định; Mạch lạc, rõ ràng, có ý sáng tạo Tổng

-------------THE END --------------

Page 6 of 6

Điểm 0,2; 0,2 0,4; 0,4 0,1; 0,2 1,5 điểm

PHÒNG GD&ĐT TAM DƯƠNG ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Đề thi này gồm 04 trang

ĐỀ THI GIAO LƯU HSG CẤP HUYỆN NĂM HỌC 2018 - 2019 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH – LỚP 7 Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)

PART A – LISTENING. I. SECTION 1: Questions 1-10. Questions 1-6. Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS or A NUMBER for each answer. There’s an example at the beginning (0). Item TIME/ Value Gavin moved to his apartment (0) ___two____ weeks ago. The monthly rent for Gavin’s apartment (1) $ __________________ (2) __________________ $ 450 (3) __________________ $ 1,150 (4) __________________ $ 2,000 CDs and (5) __________________ $ 400 Total annual cost of insurance (6) $__________________ Questions 7-10. Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD or A NUMBER for each answer. Insurance application form Name: Mr. Gavin (7)________________________ Address (8)_________Biggins Street, (9)___________Hills Date of birth: 12th November 1980 Telephone: Home: (10)__________________________ Nationality: English/British II. SECTION 2: Questions 11-15: Listen to the recording and choose the best answer by circling A, B, or C. There’s an example at the beginning (0). Example: 0. The library is closed until______ A. Tuesday B. Wednesday C. Thursday 11. What must Carlos take to the part? A. a student card. B. a teacher’s letter. C. a passport. 12. How much will it cost Carlos to join? A. 10 euros. B. 15 euros. C. 20 euros. 13. Carlos will get______. A. 2 library tickets. B. 3 library tickets. C. 4 library tickets. 14. On Saturday, the library opens at______. A. 10.30 am . B. 11.00 am C. 2.30 pm. 15. The library is in______. A. Murdoch street B. Murdosh street C. Murdock street PART B – PHONETICS, LEXICO AND GRAMMAR. III. Choose one word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others. 1. A. viewed B. acted C. filmed D. starred 2. A. treasure B. sewage C. save D. campus 3. A. food B. school C. tool D. book 4. A. laugh B. weigh C. neighbor D. eight 5. A. gloves B. coveralls C. improve D. stomach IV. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others. 1. A. capital B. tradition C. different D. opera 2. A. disease B. humour C. cancer D. treatment 3. A. borrow B. agree C. await D. prepare 4. A. person B. purpose C. possess D. pirate 5. A. geography B. chemistry C. history D. different V. Choose the best answer A,B,C or D to complete each of the following sentences. 1. Why don’t you get your homework............with so you can enjoy the rest of the evening? A. around B. over C. by D. away Trang 1/5

2. If you don’t understand any words, you can............them up in the dictionary. A. keep B. to keep C. look D. to look 3. Do you know the boy............to Mrs. Nga? A. is talking B. talked C. talking D. left 4. We have solar panels on our roof at home to ............the sun’s energy. A. get B. take C. earn D. catch 5. Have you managed to talk your dad............lending you the money to buy a car yet? A. into B. round C. out of D. about 6. Mrs. Smith, together with her sons ............away for holiday. A. is B. are C. be D. Both A&B are correct 7. ............Christmas Eve, people often have parties late at night. A. On B. In C. At D. For 8. My parents like fish, but............ A. so do I B. neither do I C. I do, too D. I don’t 9. After ............an aspirin, her headache disappeared. A. eating B. drinking C. taking D. chewing 10. Last week, she ............to the zoo to see the elephants. A. takes B. took C. was take D. was taken 11. Plastic bags are difficult to be dissolved, so the amount of garbage will............ A. reduce B. increase C. develop D. decrease 12. Mary: Is 11 o’clock alright? - Tom: ............ A. Yes, that’s fine B. No, I don’t want to go C. Wait a minute D. Sounds interesting 13. ............to the national park before, Sue was amazed to see the geyser. A. Being not B. Not having been C. Have not been D. Having not been 14. The United States has a ............of around 250 million. A. population B. people C. countries D. cities 15. She advised me............an apple every day to stay healthy. A. eating B. to eat C. I should eat D. Please eat VI. If a line is correct, put a tick ( ). If there is an extra word in a line, write the word. Every day, thousands and thousands of trees are cut down in the Amazonian 1......................... rainforest. This does enormous damage to the local environment, and also possibly affects the world’s climate. But how can we save up the rainforest 2......................... from destruction? First of all, we have to make the local people aware that of 3......................... 4......................... the damage they are doing. Secondly, there need to be more police in the area preventing people from cutting down trees. A lot of people who cut 5......................... them down do it illegally. If they were more afraid for of getting caught, they 6......................... might stop. It’s very serious about problem, and there’s no easy solution, 7......................... but we’re short of time. It won’t be long before the rainforest disappears 8......................... completely. VII. Provide the correct form of the words in CAPITAL LETTERS. 1. We must limit population ......(GROW)........ because our resources are limited. 2. Children get a great deal of .....(EXCITE)....... when Tet comes. 3. The English language training is good ........(PREPARE)....... for any career. 4. There is a ......(SHORT)..... of food in flooded areas. 5. The United Nations is an international....... (ORGANIZE)...... . 6. Do you know how to cook ........(TRADITION)........ foods. 7. My house is on the ........(NINE) ......... floor of that tall building. PART C – READING VIII. Fill in each numbered blank with ONE suitable word to complete the passage. Americans like sport very much. One of the (1)............popular kinds of sports in autumn is football. All the high schools (2)............universities have their own teams.

Trang 2/5

In winter the most popular kind of sports (3)............basketball. There is usually a match every evening in one school gymnasium or another. In some parts of the United States there is a lot of (4)............and ice. Many people like skiing and skating. In the other two (5)............, millions of Americans enjoy baseball. The schools have their game in (6)............, but the most important professional games are played during summer. Many people listen to the games (7)............the radio, watch them on TV or read about them (8)............the newspaper. Some also play tennis or golf and others (9)............fishing. They like to stay outdoors (10)............it is warm during the months of June, July and August. IX. Fill in the blank of the following passage with the words given A, B, C or D. Over the next 20 to 50 years, it will become harder to tell the (1).................between the human and the machine. All, body (2)...............will be replaceable. Computers will function like the human (3)...............with the ability to recognize feelings and respond in a feeling way. They will then produce fake people. We will then be able to create a machine duplicate of ourselves (4)............ we will appear to be alive long after we are dead. Maybe a few decades later, a way will be found to transfer our spirit, including our (5)............ and thoughts, to the new body. Then we can choose to live for as (6).............as we want. It might be expensive. When it becomes possible to do a spirit transfer, they will figure out (7).............to do them automatically. So we will be able to reside within whichever duplicate we want, whenever we want. Miniature robots will be built to travel through your blood (8) ............ and repair damage. Also, larger robots will be used when you are sick. When you have an upset stomach, you will (9)............. a very small cherry tasting robot which will travel through your stomach taking video of the mess. It will be set up like a video game, so you can control the exploring and the selection of images. Then you can replay the video to help a doctor (10)............your illness, or to prove to your employer that you really, were sick. 1. A. variety B. change C. difference D. appearance 2. A. region B. place C. role D. parts 3. A. brain B. limb C. skull D. liver 4. A. such B. as C. so D. but 5. A. experience B. memories C. actions D. health 6. A. long B. far C. much D. soon 7. A. what B. when C. why D. how 8. A. line B. creek C. stream D. river 9. A. swallow B. chew C. vomit D. drink 10. A. notice B. diagnose C. watch D. observe X. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. COLORS AND EMOTIONS Colors are one of the most exciting experiences in life. I love them, and they are just as important to me as emotions are. Have you ever wondered how the two are so intimately related? Color directly affects your emotions. Color both reflects the current state of your emotions, and is something that you can use to improve or change your emotions. The color that you choose to wear either reflects your current state of being, or reflects the color or emotion that you need. The colors that you wear affect you much more than they affect the people around you. Of course they also affect anyone who comes in contact with you, but you are the one saturated with the color all day! I even choose items around me based on their color. In the morning, I choose my clothes based on the color or emotion I need for the day. So you can consciously use color to control the emotions that you are exposed to, which can help you to feel better. Color, sound and emotions are all vibrations. Emotions are literally energy in motion; they are meant to move and flow. This is the reason that real feelings are the fastest way to get your energy in motion. Also, flowing energy is exactly what creates healthy cells in your body. So, the fastest way to be healthy is to be open to your real feelings. Alternately, the fastest way to create disease is to inhibit your emotions. 1. What is the main idea of the passage? A. Emotions and colors are closely related to each other. B. Colorful clothes can change your mood. C. Colors can help you become more influenced. D. Colors are one of the most exciting experiences in life. Trang 3/5

2. Which of the following can be most affected by color? A. Your friend’s feelings B. Your mood C. Your need for thrills D. Your appetite 3. According to this passage, what do color, sound and emotions all have in common? A. They are all related to health B. They are all forms of motions C. They are all vibrations D. They all affect the cells of the body 4. According to this passage, what creates disease? A. Ignoring your emotions B. Wearing the color black C. Exposing yourself to bright color D. Being open to your emotions 5. The term “intimately” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to________. A. clearly B. obviously C. simply D. closely 6. The term “they” in paragraph 3 refers to________. A. people B. colors C. emotions D. none of the above 7. The phrase “saturated with” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to________. A. bored with B. in need of C. lacking in D. covered with 8. Who is more influenced by colors you wear? A. Anyone B. The people around you are more influenced C. Your family D. You are more influenced 9. What is the purpose of the passage? A. to give an objective account of how colors affect emotions. B. to persuade the reader that colors can influence emotions and give a person more energy. C. to show that colors are important for a healthy life. D. to prove the relationship between color and emotion. 10. Why does the author mention that color and emotion are both vibrations? A. Because vibrations make you healthy. B. Because they both affect how we feel. C. To prove the relationship between emotions and color. D. To show how color can affect energy levels in the body. PART D – WRITING. XI. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given. DO NOT CHANGE THE WORD GIVEN. You must use between TWO and FIVE words, including the words given. 1. We last went to Spain three years ago. (years)  It...............................................................we last went to Spain. 2. There were more students in school in 2011 than in 2010. (as)  There were..................................................in school in 2010 as in 2011. 3. I advise you to think carefully before accepting William’s offer. (better)  You........................................................carefully before accepting William’s offer. 4. Although she performed well, she didn’t get good marks from the teacher. (spite) ....................................................performance, she didn’t get good mark from the teacher. 5. How far is it from your house to the nearest station? (What) ................................................................between your house and the nearest station? XII. Write a passage of about 100- 120 words on the following topic “How does internet change the people’s life?” -------------------------------------------------------HẾT--------Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu. Cán bộ coi thi không giải thích gì thêm.

Trang 4/5

PHÒNG GD&ĐT TAM DƯƠNG

ĐA+HDC THI GIAO LƯU HSG CẤP HUYỆN NĂM HỌC 2018 - 2019 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH – LỚP 7 ĐA+HDC này gồm 01 trang

Tổng điểm: 20 điểm PART A – LISTENING. Mỗi câu đúng HS được 0,2 điểm = Tổng điểm 3 I&II. 1. 615 6. 184 11. B 2. Fridge/ Refrigerator 7. Murray 12. A 3. Stereo/ System 8. 16.C 13. C 4. Watches 9. South 14. A 5. Books 10. 98724855 15. A PART B – PHONETICS, LEXICO AND GRAMMAR. Tổng điểm 7 III. Mỗi câu đúng HS được 0,1 điểm. = 0,5 1. B 2. A 3. D 4. A 5. C IV. Mỗi câu đúng HS được 0,1 điểm. = 0,5 1. B 2. A 3. A 4. C 5. A V. Mỗi câu đúng HS được 0,2 điểm. = 3 điểm 1B 2C 3C 4D 5A 6A 7A 8D 9C 10D 11B 12A 13B 14A 15B VI. Mỗi câu đúng HS được 0,2 điểm. = 1,6 1.  2. up 3. that 4.to. 5.  6. For 7. about. 8.  VII. Mỗi câu đúng HS được 0,2 điểm. = 1,4 1. growth 2. excitement 3. preparation 4. shortage 5. organization 6. traditional 7. ninth PART C – READING; Mỗi câu đúng HS được 0,2 điểm = 6 VIII. 1. most 2. and 3. is 4. snow 5. seasons 6. spring 7. on 8. on/in 9. go 10. because IX. 1. C 2. D 3. A 4. C 5. B 6. A 7. D 8. C 9. A 10. B X. 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. D 6. B 7. D 8. D 9. B 10. D PART D – WRITING. Tổng điểm 4 XI. Mỗi câu đúng HS được 0,2 điểm=1 1. It is three years since we last went to Spain. 2. There were not as many students in school in 2010 as in 2011. 3. You had better think carefully before accepting William’s offer. 4. In spite of her good performance, she didn’t get good mark from the teacher. 5. What is the distance between your house and the nearest station? XII. Write a passage of about 120- 150 words on the following topic “How does internet change the people’s life?” 3 điểm 1. Content (1,6 points): a provision of all main ideas and details as appropriate. 2. Language (0,8 points): a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language gifted lower-secondary school students. 3. Presentation (0,6 points): coherence, cohesion, and style appropriate to the level of English language gifted lower-secondary school students. ---------THE END--------Trang 5/5

aif GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO PHÒNG HUYỆN THANH OAI

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 7 NĂM HỌC: 2018 - 2019 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian: 120 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)

Chú ý: - Bộ đề thi này gồm có 06 trang, từ trang 01 đến trang 06. - Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào bộ đề thi này. Điểm

Họ tên, chữ ký của người chấm thi số 1:

- Bằng số:…………….. ………………………………………...

Số phách (Do Chủ tịch hội đồng chấm thi ghi)

- Bằng chữ:…………… Họ tên, chữ ký của người chấm thi số 2: ………………………... ………………………………………... PART ONE: LISTENING

Listen and fill in the gaps: (15 × 0.2 = 3.0 pts) The Birthday Gift It is going to be my father's birthday. What can I give him? I don't have much money. I have looked all through the (1)..............................................., and I have not found anything that I think he would like, or that I can afford. I have thought very (2)............................................... about what to buy for him. I thought that he might like some (3)..............................................., but my father really doesn't eat many sweets. I thought that he might like a new shirt, but he has lots of (4)................................................ I can't afford a new car or computer for him. I was (5)............................................... him on the weekend. He cut the grass, washed the car, took out the garbage, weeded the garden and (6)............................................... the plants. I got an idea. I went to my room and took out some paper, I cut (7)............................................... pieces of paper, and I wrote on them. I wrote on one piece of paper that I would wash the car every weekend for the summer. I wrote on another piece that I would (8)............................................... out the garbage every week for the summer. I (9)............................................... wrote that I would cut the grass, weed the garden and water the plants every week for the summer. I made a birthday (10)............................................... for my dad, and I put the pieces of paper inside it. I went (11)............................................... and gave my gift to my dad. My dad thought that the (12)............................................... was very thoughtful. He said that it was a gift from the heart. I did all those things for my dad all summer. He said that he had a lot of free time because I (13)............................................... him so much. My dad and I are good friends. I don't mind doing things for him because I know that he is always there to help me out. A good gift doesn't have to be something that (14)............................................... a lot. My dad says that the best gifts are the ones that (15)............................................... how much you care for the other person. I'm glad my dad liked his gift. -> Your answers: 1

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts) I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently: (5 × 0.2=1.0 pt) 16. A. durian B. hurry C. duty D. computer 17. A. character B. chemistry C. scheme D. chapter 18. A. wanted B. returned C. worried D. preferred 19. A. height B. weight C. eight D. freight 20. A. serious B. sunbathe C. sugar D. symptom -> Your answers: 16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others: (5 × 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 21. A. harvest B. contain C. flower D. awful 22. A. explore B. cartoon C. dislike D. absence 23. A. comfortable B. anniversary C. education D. information 24. A. decorate B. equation C. history D. satellite 25. A. interview B. regular C. restaurant D. selection -> Your answers: 21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.0 pts) I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (10 × 0.2 = 2.0 pts) 26 . ……………..do your father play chess at the Chess Club, Lan? - Twice a week. A. How much B. How long C. How often D. How many 27. My little brother is used to ……………..late in the morning. A. stay B. to stay C. staying D. stayed 28. My cousin, Ly Hung, is ……………..student in our school. A. more intelligent B. the most intelligent C. intelligenter D. intelligentest 29. The …………..always comes early, so my father gets his letters before he goes to work. A. engineer B. mailman C. porter D. chemist 30. My friends agreed to come to the festival ……………..from Thomas. A. except B. only C. apart D. accept 31. Don't forget ……………..your teeth before going to bed, little boys and girls! A. to brush B. brushing C. about brushing D. not to brush 32. I didn’t see the end of the movies last night because I ……………..asleep. A. felt B. fell C. went D. felled 33. We are rehearsing a play for our school anniversary …………….. 2

A. celebrate B. celebrated C. celebrating D. celebrations 34. I never play video games in my free time and.................................. A. so does Ha. B. Ha doesn’t, too C. Ha doesn’t, either D. Neither doesn’t Ha 35. The letter is ………………..French but I can’t speak a word of French. Can you help me? A. in B. with C. by D. on -> Your answers: 26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31. 32. 33. 34. 35. II. Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences: (10 × 0.2 =2.0 pts) 36. I like this kind of tree because it has a lot of green ............................. (LEAF) 37. Now, the students in my class are having a ............................. check-up. (MEDICINE) 38. Give me something to drink please! I’m dying of............................. (THIRSTY) 39. You shouldn’t eat ............................ food because it’s not good for your health. (HEALTH) 40. All of the us must remember to eat ............................. (SENSE) 41. Please help me with this sentence: “............................. is better than cure.” (PREVENT) 42. All the words in a dictionary are in ............................. order. (ALPHABET) 43. People of all............................. can join the walking activity. (ABLE) 44. The noise in the city kept Hoa ............................. at night last week. (WAKE) 45. Last Sunday, we went to the ............................. center. (AMUSE) -> Your answers: 36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

III. Supply the correct forms of the verbs in brackets: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 46. I’m very hungry, Mom. I think we should stop (have) ………………dinner. 47. I (phone) ………………my parents when I arrive in Da Lat this afternoon. 48. My father decided (not/ buy) ………………that new car. 49. The worker (break) ………………his leg yesterday? 50. Mommy! Could you tell me how (make) ………………a conical hat? -> Your answers: 46. 47.

48.

49.

50.

PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.0 pts) I. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each gap of the passage: (10 × 0.2 = 2.0 pts) British parents are always complaining that (51)……….…… children spend too much time (52)………………TV and not enough time doing other activities like sports and reading. A (53)……….……survey of people’s free time activities (54)………………that young people spend about 23 hours a week in (55)……….……of the television set, that means over 3 hours a day It is (56) ………………that the average adult watches even more: 28 hours a week. Every household in the county has a TV set and over half have two or more. According (57)……………… the survey people do not only watch TV in their living room, they watch it in the kitchen and in bed as (58) ………………. We cannot deny that television also has some negative effects (59) ……….…… children, because many films shown on TV contain violence, crime and other bad things. Excessive watching of TV by children has lowered their results in (60) ……….……at school. 51. A. he B. they C. their D. theirs 52. A. to watch B. watch C. watching D. watched 53. A. late B. lately C. recent D. recently 54. A. show B. shows C. showing D. to show 55. A. between B. behind C. opposite D. front 56. A. surprise B. surprises C. surprising D. to surprise 57. A. to B. in C. from D. at 58. A. well B. good C. happy D. also 59. A. special B. specialise C. especial D. especially 60. A. learn B. learned C. learning D. to learn -> Your answers: 51.

52.

53.

54.

55.

56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space: (10 × 0.2 = 2.0pts) Mark Twain is a famous American writer. His (61) .....………….…. was Samuel Longhorn Clemens and “Mark Twain” was (62) .....………….…. pen-name. Samuel Clemens was born in a small town (63) .....………….…. the Mississippi river in the USA. The boy (64) .....………….…. many friends at school and when he became a writer, he described them in his stories. (65).....………….….Samuel was twelve, his father died and the boy began to work and learned the (66).....………….…. of a painter. Samuel always (67).....………….…. to be a sailor and when he was twenty he found work on the river boat. After some time he (68).....………….…. the boat and went to live in California. Here he began to write short (69).....………….…. under the name of Mark Twain. He sent (70) .....………….….to newspapers. The readers liked his stories very much. -> Your answers: 61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

68.

69.

70.

III. Read the text then make questions and answer them: (5 × 0.2 = 1.0 pt) I get a lot of letters at this time of year from people complaining that they have a cold which won’t go away. There are so many different stories about how to prevent or cure a cold, it’s often difficult to know what to do. Although colds are rarely dangerous, except for people who are already weak, such as the elderly or young babies, they are always uncomfortable and usually most unpleasant. Of course, when you have a cold, you often buy lots of medicines which help to make your cold less unpleasant, but you must remember that nothing can actually cure a cold or make it go away faster. Another thing is that any medicine which is strong enough to make you feel better could be dangerous if you are already taking drugs for some other illness so always check with your chemist or doctor to see whether they are all right for you. And remember they might make you sleepy – please don’t try to drive if they do! Lastly, as far as avoiding colds is concerned, whatever you may be told about magic foods or drinks, the best answer is to keep strong and healthy – you’ll have less chance of catching a cold, and if you do, it shouldn’t be so bad! 71. What should/ you/ do before/ buying/ medicine/ cold/ if/ already taking/ drugs/ ?/ ……………………………………………………………………………………………? ……………………………………………………………………………………………. 72. In/ what/ case/ colds/ dangerous/ ?/ ……………………………………………………………………………………………? ……………………………………………………………………………………………. 73. What/ people/ often/ do/ when/ have/ cold/ ?/ 5

……………………………………………………………………………………………? ……………………………………………………………………………………………. 74. What/ writer’s/ advice/ avoid/ colds?/ …………………………………………………………………………………………….? ……………………………………………………………………………………………. 75. What/ this passage/ from/ ?/ …………………………………………………………………………………………….? ……………………………………………………………………………………………. PART FIVE: WRITING: (5.0 pts) I. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning. Use the given words: (5 × 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 76. For me - Going fishing is more interesting than reading books at home. ->

prefer

………..…………………………………………………………………………….. 77. My uncle is a slower and more careful driver than I am. -> My uncle drives………………….………………………….……………………………… 78. We didn’t enjoy the trip because of the heavy rain. -> The heavy rain prevented…….……………………………………………………………… 79. Life in the past is not as comfortable as life nowadays. -> Life nowadays………………………………….…………………………………………. 80. It took us about two hours to plant those trees yesterday. -> We spent.............................................................................................................................. II. Use the following words and phrases to write complete and meaningful sentences. Make all the necessary changes and additions if necessary. (5 × 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 81. We/ going/ have/ two- week/ summer vacation/ Da Nang/ next month/ ./ -> ……………………………………………………………………………………………. 82. You/ should/ eat/ variety/ food/ without/ eat/ too much/ anything/ ./ -> ……………………………………………………………………………………………. 83. My mother/ worried/ about/ let/ me/ go/ zoo/ alone yesterday/ ./ -> ……………………………………………………………………………………………. 84. Visitor/ spoke/ too quickly/ me/ understand/ what/ said/ ./ -> ……………………………………………………………………………………………. 85. Miss Lan/ not/ go/ schoo/l last Monday/ because/ sickness/ ./ 6

-> ……………………………………………………………………………………………. III. Write an essay (about 180 words) about the your last holiday: (3.0 pts) (The essay must have a title and three parts: Opening – Body and Conclusion. Don’t show your proper names/ school/ village…) …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..........…………….………………… …..

ĐÁP ÁN HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 7 NĂM HỌC: 2018 - 2019 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH PART ONE: LISTENING 1. stores 2. hard

Listen and fill in the gaps: (15 × 0.2 = 3.0 pts) 3. candy 4. clothes 5. watching

6. watered

7. out

8. take

9. also

10. card

11. downstairs

12. gift

13. helped

14. costs

15. show

PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts) I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently: (5 × 0.2= 1.0 pt) 16. B. hurry 17. D. chapter 18. A. wanted 19. A. height 20. C. sugar II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others: (5 × 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 21. B. contain 22. D. absence 23. A.comfortable 24. B. equation 25. D. selection PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.0 pts) I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (10 × 0.2 = 2.0 pts) 26. C. How often

27. C. staying

28. B. the most intelligent

29. B. mailman

30. C. apart

31. A. to brush

32. B. fell

33. D. celebrations

34. C. Ha doesn’t, either

35. A. in

II. Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences: (10 × 0.2 =2.0 pts) 36. leaves 37. medical 38. thirst 39. unhealthy 40. sensibly 41. prevention

42. alphabetical

43. abilities

44. awake

III. Supply the correct forms of the verbs in brackets: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 7

45. amusement

46. to have

47. will phone

48. not to buy

49. Did...break

50. to make

PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.0 pts) I. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each gap of the passage: (10 × 0.2 = 2.0 pts) 51 - C. their

52- C. watching 53 - C. recent 54 - B. shows

56 - C. surpsising

57 - A. to

58 - A. well

55 - D. front

59 - D. especially 60 - C. learning

II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space: (10 × 0.2 =2.0pts) 61. name

62. his

66. job/ career/ proffession 67. wanted/ wished

63. on

64. had

65. when

68. left

69. stories

70. them

III. Read the text then make questions and answer them: (5 × 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 71. What should you do before buying medicine for a cold if you are already taking drugs? -> I/ We should talk to the chemist or doctor. 72. In what case are colds dangerous? -> When the patients are weak, such as the elderly or young babies. 73. What do people often do when they have a cold? -> They often buy lots of medicines which will help to make their cold less unpleasant. 74. What is the writer’s advice to avoid colds? -> Keep strong and healthy. 75. What is this passage from? -> It’s from a newspaper or a magazine. PART FIVE: WRITING: (5.0 pts) I. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning. Use the given words: (5 × 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 76. I prefer going fishing to reading books at home. 77. My uncle drives slowlier and more carefully than I do. 78. The heavy rain prevented us from enjoying the trip. 79. Life nowadays is more comfortable than life in the past. 80. We spent two hours planting those trees yesterday. II. Use the following words and phrases to write complete and meaningful sentences. Make all the necessary changes and additions if necessary. (5 × 0.2=1.0 pt) 81. We are going to have a two- week summer vacation in Da Nang next month. 82. You should eat a variety of foods without eating too much of anything. 8

83. My mother was worried about letting me go to the zoo alone yesterday . 84. The visitor spoke too quickly for me to understand what he/she said. 85. Miss Lan didn’t go to school last Monday because of her sickness. III. Write an essay (about 180 words) about the your last holiday: (3.0 pts) (The essay must have a title and three parts: Opening – Body and Conclusion. Don’t show your proper names/ school/ village…) - The opening: The essay must write something relating to the topic. (0.5pt) - The body: Write details about the holiday/ the sentences must have connectors and link words... (2,0 pts) - The conclusion: Write about the writers' ideas, feeling or thoughts about the holiday.(0.5 pt) * Note: The essay that has 3.0 points must have: - Long enough (At least 150 words or maybe more). - Correct vocabulary and structures. - Don't tell the proper names (The school, the student's/ teacher’s name/ ...).

PHÒNG GD&ĐT YÊN LẠC ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

ĐỀ THI GIAO LƯU HSG LỚP 7 CẤP HUYỆN MÔN: TIẾNG ANH NĂM HỌC 2018 -2019 (Thời gian làm bài 120 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề)

(Đề thi gồm 05 trang, học sinh làm bài ra tờ giấy thi) A: LISTENING I. Listen to the conversation twice then write complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORD AND / OR A MUMBER for each answer. Questions 1-10 SHORT STAY ACCOMMODATION Type of accommodation (6)…………………

Family name

Mackinlay

First name

(1)……………….. Number of bedroom

One or two

Country of origin

(2)……………….. Car parking

Off-street and (7)………

Date of arrival

(3)……………….

General area

Near the beach

Number of tenants (4)………………

Other requirements

(8). …………

Length of stay

Name of town

`(9). …………

Price range

(10)…………………

Purpose of visit

two weeks (5)……………….

II. Listen to the announcement twice then choose the correct answer 11. The Railway Princess is on television from……………….. A. 9:00 to 10:00 B. 9:00 to 10:30 C. 9:00 TO 11:00 12. There is a music programme for teenagers……………… A. early in the morning B. before lunch C. at lunch time 13. You can see a football match between…….……………. A. Ireland and Spain B. Brazil and Ireland C. Spain and Italy 14. If the weather is bad, there will be no……………. A. cycling B. skiing C. tennis 15. In the quiz programme, teams have to guess………………. A. the year B. the person C. the place B: PHONETICS I. Choose the word that has the underlined parts pronounced differently from the others in each group: B. groom C. balloon D. 1. A. flood moon 2. A. scholar B. aching C. chemistry D. approach 3. A. despite B. economize C. enterprise D. promise 4 A. house B. hour C. honest D. honor 5 A. hydroelectric B. environment C. solar D. biogas 1

I I. Choose the word that has a different stress pattern from the others in each group: 6. A. attention B. pollution C. holiday D. effective C. abundant D. convenient 7. A. expensive B. different 8 A. petroleum B. advantage C. enormous D. tendency 9 A. paddle B. invent C. display D. cartoon 10 A. atmosphere B. plentiful C. effective D. natural C: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY. I. Choose the best answer by circling its corresponding letter A, B, C or D. 1. Neither Lan nor her parents ____________ the film. A. like B. likes C. is like D. are like 2. None of the money robbed from the banks last year ____________ yet. A. has been found B. have been found C. has found D. have found 3. Would you like me to get you something to drink? ~ _________. A. Thatwouldbenice B. No, I’m sorry C. That’s too bad D. My pleasure 4. “I think computers are useful.” ~ “ _________.” A. I’m not agree B. So do I C. I disagree too D. So are they 5. Bob hasn’t _________up his mind yet. A. made B. gone C. used to D. found 6. She was _________ tired that she went to bed early. A. such B. too C. as D.so 7. Please don’t ................................................. so much noise. A. go B. make C. do D. take 8. This orange tastes ........................ A. sweetly B. sweety C. sweet D. sweets 9. Is there a good TV programme...................... tonight? A. on B. in C. near D. at 10. We always need more players. Why don’t you come ………………? A. on B. along C. with D. after 11. Some young people are working ……………hospital volunteers. A. to be B. such as C. like D. as 12. My joke made the whole class ……………… A. smile B. laughing C. laugh D. crying 13. You should pay more …………….in class. A. time B. money C. advantage D. attention 14. Millionsof Christmas cards………………..every year. A.were sent B.are sent C.send D.is sending 15.the flowers in the garden need……………… 2

A.watering

B.to water

C.be watered

D.be watering

II. Complete the following sentences with an appropriate form of the given word. 1.She smile so............., doesn’t she? 2.The teacher stressed the need for regular................. 3. His long ............... made us bored and sleepy 4. He is a ................ boy. He is always asking questions. 5. The ball was followed with great .................... 6. Inspite of his...................., he tries his best to enter the most reputational university. 7. He gave no .................... for his absence from class this morning. 8.The ............................of the wind turbines will be the completed by next Friday. 9.Diamond can be found in only some places of the earth. It come from the ................. inside the ground. 10. One of the most serious........................ of playing online games is spiritual health problem

1. attract 2. attend 3. speak 4. curiosity 5. excite 6. poor 7. explain 8. install 9. deep 10.advantage

III. Find out one mistake in each sentence and correct it. 1.The doctor advised him to cover the burn area with a thick sterile dressing. 2.Everybody I know like to eat chocolates and ice-cream. 3.Smoking cigarettes are not allowed in this hospital. 4.These bags are too expensive for we to buy at this time . 5.The film is too interesting that I’ve seen it twice. 6.The old man opened the door by his keys. 7. She got up early in order to not be late for school. 8.The boys hurt himself when they jumped down from the tree. 9.A new high school builds in our town next year. 10. All the students stopped to talk when their teacher come in. There was silent. D: READING I. Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word to complete the passage. It is a computer drawing of the (1)……………… of the future. British engineers and scientists have published plans for a new hypersonic plane (2)……………… the A2. It will be very fast. At the moment, a flight from London in the UK to Sydney in Australia (3)…………………. about twentyone hours but with the A2 the same flight will take about four hours. The fight will (4) …………… at 4,5000 kilometers per hour and will fly at and altitude of over 10,000 metres. It will carry 300 passengers but itwon’t have any windows because scientists haven’t found glass that is strong enough. It will be better for the environment (5)…………….. on other plane because the engines won’t produce gases that cause pollution. II.Choose options given (marked A, B, C, and D) to complete each of the questions below.

Greyhound racing is the sixth most popular spectator sport in the United States. Over the last decade, a growing number of racers have been adopted to spend their retirement as household pets, once their racing careers are over. Many people hesitate to adopt a retired racing greyhound because they think only very old dogs are available. Actually, even champion racers only work until they are about three- and – a half years old. Because greyhounds usually live to be 12 to 15 years old, their retirement is much longer than their racing careers. People worry that a greyhound will be more nervous and active than other breeds and will need a large space to run. These are false impressions. Greyhounds have naturally sweet, mild dispositions, and while they love to run. They are sprinters rather than distance runners and are sufficiently exercised with a few daily laps around a fenced –in backyard. Greyhounds do not make good watchdogs, but they are very good with children, get along well with other dogs (and usually cats as well), and are affectionate and loyal. They are intelligent, wellbehaved dogs, usually housebroken in only a few days. A retired racing greyhound is a wonderful pet for almost anyone 1. A. B. C. D. 2. A. B. C. D. 3. A. B. C. D. 4. A. B. C. D. 5.

Base on the tone of the passage the author’s main purpose is to …………… teach prospective owners how to transform their racing greyhound into a good pet. show how the greyhound’s nature makes it equally good as racer and pet. encourage people to adopt retired racing greyhounds. Objectively present the pros and cons of adopting a racing greyhound. according to the passage, adopting a greyhound is a good idea for people who…… do not have children. live in an apartment. do not usually like dogs. already have another dog or a cat. Which of the following is implied by the passage? The public is more aware of the greyhounds than they used to be. Greyhound are more competitive than other dogs. Greyhound racing should not be allowed. People who own pet rabbits should not adopt greyhounds One drawback of adopting aa greyhound is that……… grey hounds are not good with children. grey hounds are old when they retire from racing. the greyhound’s sensitivity makes it temperamental. greyhound are not good watch dogs. This passage is most like an advertisement because it………… 4

A. B. C. D.

uses statistics to prove its point. does not present information to substantiate its claims. says nothing negative about greyhounds. encourages people to do something.

III. Read the text then choose A, B, C or D to complete the text. Air pollution is caused of ill health in human beings. In a lot of countries, there are ________(1) limiting the amount of smoke factories can produce although there is not enough _______(2) on the effects of smoke on the atmosphere. Doctors have proved that air pollution causes ________ (3) diseases. The gases from the exhausts of cars have also increased air pollution in most cities. The ________ (4) of petrol produces a poisonous gas, which is often collected in busy streets circled by high buildings. Children living in areas where there is a lot of lead in the atmosphere can not think as ________(8) as other children, and are clumsy when they use their hands. 1. A. laws B. ideas C. problems D. regulations 2. A. news B. article C. information D. newspaper 3. A. lung B. heart C. liver D. stomach 4. A. water B. lead C. gas D. exhaust 5. A. quick B. slowly C. quickly D. slow E: WRITING I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the original one. 1. I didn’t spend as much money as my friend did. My friend……………………………………………………………..……………………. 2. He couldn’t afford to buy a car. -The car……………………………………………………………………………………. 3. Your birthday party was the last time I really enjoyed myself. -I……………………………………………………………………………………………. 4. It was so late that nothing could be done. -It was too…………………………………………………………………………………… 5. I 've never met such a famous person before. -It is the first time ……………………………………………………………………………

II. Write a paragraphon how means of transport affect badly on the environment and show how we can solve this problem (120 – 150 words)