ĐỀ GIAO LƯU HỌC SINH GIỎI MÔN TIẾNG ANH
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PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO NINH GIANG ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC
KÌ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI HUYỆN LỚP 9 THCS NĂM HỌC 2013 – 2014 MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Ngày thi: 07/11/2013 ( Đề thi gồm có 01 trang )
Học sinh làm bài vào tờ giấy thi, không làm bài vào đề thi này. Phần trắc nghiệm: Chỉ cần viết phương án chọn A hoặc B, C, D... Phần tự luận : Viết đầy đủ theo yêu cầu của đề bài. (Thí sinh không được sử dụng bất cứ tài liệu gì) ___________________________________________________
A. LISTENING (10 points) 1. Listen and decide the sentences are true (T) or false (F): 1. Nick's school is very new._______ 2. His school has eight hundred students. _______ 3. His school has 110 teachers. _______ 4. His school is only for girls. _______ 5. All the boys wear uniforms at school. _______ 2. Listen and complete the sentences: 1. Nick's school is in the middle of .................... 2. His school is ......... years olds. 3. He lives in the .............. during the term. 4. The uniform is dark ...........jacket. 5. They work very ................... B. PHONETICS (5 points) Choose the word that has a different stress pattern from the others in the group. 11. A. information B. calculation C. machinery D. introduction 12. A. documentary B. advantage C. occupation D. popularity 13. A. priority B. identify C. terrify D. compulsory 14. A. slavery B. earthquake C. evidence D. disappear 15. A. develop B. demanding C. language D. tradition C. GRAMMAR – VOCABULARY – LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS I. Choose the option A, B, C or D which best completes or responds to each sentence. (10 points)
16. The nurse was on ________ in the hospital all night. A. work B. alarm C. duty D. service 17. ________ playing professional basketball, she also enjoys tennis. A. Besides B. Moreover C. Apart D. Together 18. The visit of the president will increase the ________ between the two countries. A. peace B. quiet C. understanding D. knowledge 19. The newspaper report contained ________ important information. A. many B. an C. a lot of D. another 20. The ________ cars haven't been found yet. A. steal B. to steal C. stealing D. stolen 21. We got _______ the plane at 10.30 and the plane took ________ on time. A. on- off B. on- up C. in- out D. in- off 22. It’s difficult to pay one’s bill when prices keep ________ .
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A. growing B. gaining C. raising D. rising 23. She prefers ________. A. going for a swim to study B. going for a swim to studying C. go for a swim to studying D. go for a swim to study 24. Would you mind if I smoked here? - _________. A. Yes, I'd love to B. No, I wouldn't C. I'd rather you didn't D. I'm sorry 25. Could I just do it right now? - _________. A. Yes, you could B. Not for me C. Yes, let's D. Why not? Go ahead II. Provide the correct form of the words in capital letters to complete the sentences. (10 points)
26. Great works of art like the Mona Lisa are _______ . PRICE 27. I’m afraid you’ve _______ me because that’s not what I mean. UNDERSTAND 28. My father can repair electrical _______ very well. APPLY 29. Librarians spend a lot of their time _______ books. CLASS 30. My uncle is a keen amateur _________. NATURE 31. A letter should always end with the _______ of the writer. SIGN 32. She became more and more _______ as time went by. ANXIETY 33. He looked at me in _______ when I told him the terrible news. BELIEVE 34. The accident happens because of driving _______ CARE 35. He is extremely _______ about art. KNOWLEDGE III. Choose the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting. (5 points) 36. Many bridges in England were covered with wooden roofs to protect it from snow. A B C D 37. Hanoi, along with Ha Long and Hue, are among the most popular tourist destinations in Vietnam. A B C D 38. The whale died because the rescuers didn’t have proper equipment to support its weigh. A B C D 39. Salt was once too scarce and precious that it was used as money. A B C D 40. Dreams are commonly made up of either visual and verbal image. A B C D IV. Match each sentence in column A with its suitable response in column B. Use each response once only. (5 points)
A 41. Would you mind if I borrowed a chair? 42. Why don’t we go sightseeing? 43. Thank you for inviting me to your party. 44. Do you need any help? 45. Could you do me a favor?
B A. B. C. D. E. F. G. H.
Yes, I do. No, I wouldn’t. No, thank you. I’m fine. Please go ahead. That’s a good idea. That’s very kind of you to say so. How can I help you? It’s my pleasure.
D. READING I. Read the following passage and decide which option A, B, C, D best fits each space. (10 points)
For many young people sport is a popular part of school life and (46) ..........._ in one of the school teams and playing in matches is very important. (47) _................_ someone is in a team it means a lot of extra practice and often spending a Saturday or Sunday away (48)_..............home, as many matches are played then. It (49)_............._also involve traveling
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to other towns to play against other school teams and then (50)_........... on after the match for a meal or a drink. Some parents, friends, other students will travel with the team to support (51) ............ own side. When a school team win a match, the whole feel proud, (52)_............... only the players. It can also mean a school (53)_......... well-known for being good at certain sports and pupils from that school may end up playing (54)_....... national and international teams so that the school has some really (55) ......... names associated with it. 46. A. having B. being C. taking D. putting 47. A. If B. As C. Then D. So 48. A. at B. on C. for D. from 49. A. ought B. is C. can D. has 50. A. being B. staying C. leaving D. spending 51. A. their B. its C. our D. his 52. A. but B. however C. and D. not 53. A. turns B. makes C. comes D. becomes 54. A. up B. to C. for D. besides 55. A. old B. new C. common D. famous II. Read the following passage and fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word. (10 points)
Bill Gates is a very important person in the (56) ........ industry. He (57) ........ been chief executive officer of Microsoft Corporation for several years. He is (58) ............. one of the richest people in the world. How did he do it? He learned a lot (59)_.............. his parents. While Bill was going to school, his father went to college, got a degree, and (60) .............. a successful lawyer. From this, Bill learned that you have to work hard (61)_.............. you want something. His mother was a very busy teacher, but she enjoyed (62)_............. to the parties. From this, he learned something else: (63) .............. you want to work hard and play hard, you have to (64) ............... a schedule. When Bill was young, he spent a lot of time alone. (65)__............. most of his friends were playing, Bill read all of the World Book Encyclopedia and finished it when he was eight years old. III. Read the following passage and choose the best answers for these questions (10 points). Over the past 600 years, English has grown from a language of few speakers to become the dominant language of international communication. English as we know it today emerged around 1350, after having incorporated many elements of French that was introduced following the Norman invasion of 1066. Until the 1600s, English was, for the most part, spoken only in England and has not extended even as far as Wales, Scotland or Ireland. However, during the course of the next two centuries, English began to spread around the globe as a result of exploration, trade (including slave trade), colonization, and missionary work. Thus, small enclaves of English speakers became established and grew in various parts of the world. As these communities proliferated, English gradually became the primary language of international business, banking and diplomacy. Currently, about 80% of the information stored on computer systems worldwide is in English. Two-thirds of the world’s science writing is in English, and English is the main language of technology, advertising, media, international airports, and air traffic controllers. Today there are more than 700 million English users in the world, and over half of these are non-native speakers, constituting the largest number of non-native users than any language in the world. 66. What is the main topic of this passage? A. The number of non-native users of English. B. The French influence on the English language. C. The expansion of English as an international language. D. The use English for science and technology. 67. The word “emerged” in paragraph 1 mean …………….
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A. appeared B. hailed C. frequented D. engaged 68. Approximately, when did English begin to be used beyond England? A. in 1066 B. around 1350 C. before 1600 D. after 1600 69. Which of following is closest in meaning to the word “stored” in paragraph 2? A. bought B. saved C. spent D. valued 70. According to the passage, approximately how many non-native users of English are there in the world today? A. a quarter million B. half million C. 350 million D. 700 million E. WRITING I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it. (5 points)
71. Alcohol is bad for you and so are cigarettes. --> Neither ____________________________________________. 72. "Don't forget to do your assignment, Jack.” said Jack’s mother. --> Jack’s mother reminded _______________________________. 73. Although I can't speak Chinese, I decide to settle in Shanghai.
--> In spite _________________________________________.
74. She couldn't sleep because the traffic was noisy. --> The noise ___________________________________________ . 75. It was difficult to persuade Rick to buy the book. --> I had ______________________________________________ . II. Use the suggested words and phrases to write a letter to your pen pal. (10 points) Dear Mary, 76 . I / have / great time / here / England. 77. I / be / here / three months / my university term / start / two months ago. 78. I / live / dormitory / some foreign students. 79. They / come / different parts / the world. 80. They / be / very friendly and helpful, / and / their English / much better / mine. 81. I / practice / speak / English / them / every day. 82. Now / I / make / good progress. 83. My pronunciation / much better / and / I / understand / almost everything. 84. I / hope / my English / considerably / improve / the end / course. 85. Write / me / soon. Your truly, Lan III. Write a passage (100 - 120 words) to show your opinion about how to protect the environment at your school. (10 points) You can use the cues and the words/phrases that state an opinion and list points below: - Not throw rubbish inside and outside classrooms. - Put wastes in dustbins. - Not write or draw on desks or walls. - Water trees and plants in the school regularly and plant more trees. - Clean classrooms every day. ========== The end ==========
Họ và tên thí sinh: ...................................................... Số báo danh ................ Họ tên, chữ ký giám thị 1: ................................................................................ Họ tên, chữ ký giám thị 2: ................................................................................ 4
HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI HUYỆN VÒNG I NĂM HỌC: 2013-2014 MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH - LỚP 9 A. LISTENING Tổng 10 điểm, mỗi tõ đúng cho 1 điểm
1. Listen and decide the sentences are true (T) or false (F): 1. Nick's school is very new.____F___ 2. His school has eight hundred students. ___T____ 3. His school has 110 teachers. ____F___ 4. His school is only for girls. ____F___ 5. All the boys wear uniforms at school. ____T___ 2. Listen and complete the sentences: 6. Nick's school is in the middle of England. 7. His school is 700 years olds. 8. He lives in the school during the term. 9. The uniform is dark blue jacket. 10. They work very hard. B. PHONETICS Choose the word that has a different stress pattern from the others in the group. (5 points)
Tổng 5 điểm, mỗi câu đúng cho 1 điểm 11
12
13
14
15
C
B
C
D
C
C. GRAMMAR – VOCABULARY – LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS I. Choose the option A, B, C or D which best completes or responds to each sentence. (10 points)
Tổng 10 điểm, mỗi câu đúng cho 1 điểm 16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
C
A
C
C
D
A
D
B
C
D
II. Give the correct form of the words in brackets to complete the sentences (10points).
Tổng 10 điểm, mỗi câu đúng cho 1 điểm 26 priceless 27 misunderstood 28 appliances 29 classifying 30 naturalist
31 32 33 34 35
signature anxious disbelief carelessness knowledgeable
III. Choose the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correction. (5 points)
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Tổng 5 điểm, mỗi câu đúng cho 1 điểm 36
37
38
39
40
C
B
D
A
D
IV. Match each sentence in column A with its suitable response in column B. (5 points)
Tổng 5 điểm, mỗi câu đúng cho 1 điểm 41
42
43
44
45
D
E
H
C
G
D. READING I. Read the following passage and decide which option A, B, C, D best fits each space. (10 points)
Tổng 10 điểm, mỗi câu đúng cho 1 điểm 46
47
48
49
50
51
52
53
54
55
B
A
D
C
B
A
D
D
C
D
II. Read the following passage and fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word. (10 points)
Tổng 10 điểm, mỗi câu đúng cho 1 điểm 56
computer
61
if
57
has
62
going
58
also
63
If
59
from
64
make
60
became
65
while
III. Read the following passage and choose the best answers for these quesions (10 points).
Tổng 10 điểm, mỗi câu đúng cho 2 điểm 66
67
68
69
70
C
A
D
B
C
E. WRITING I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it. (5 points)
Tổng 5 điểm, mỗi câu đúng cho 1 điểm Possible answers: 71. Neither alcohol nor cigarettes are good for you. 72. Jack’s mother reminded him to do his assignment. 73. In spite of not being able to speak Chinese, I decide to settle in Shanghai. 74. The noise of the traffic prevented her from sleeping. OR: The noise of the traffic made her unable to sleep. 75. I had / found difficulty in persuading Rick to buy the book. II. Make all changes and addition necessary to produce from following sets of words or phrases to make a complete letter. (10 points)
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Tổng 10 điểm, mỗi câu đúng cho 1 điểm Dear Mary, 76. I am having a great time here in England. 77. I have been here for three months and my university term started two months ago. 78. I live / I’m living in the dormitory with some foreign students. 79. They come from different parts of the world. 80. They are very friendly and helpful, and their English is much better than mine. 81. I practice speaking English with them every day. 82. Now I am making / I have made good progress. 83. My pronunciation is much better and I can understand almost everything. 84. I hope my English will considerably improve at the end of the course. 85. Write to me soon. III. Write a passage (100 - 120 words) to show your opinion about how to protect your environment of your school. (10 points)
1. Form: (1,0 pt) - A passage of giving opinions 2. Content: (5,0 pts) - Not throw rubbish inside and outside classrooms. - Put wastes in dustbins. - Not write or draw on desks or walls. - Water trees and plants in the school regularly and plant more trees. - Clean classrooms every day. 3. Language: (4,0 pts) + Appropriate vocabulary (1,0 pt) + Correct grammar (2,0 pts) + Punctuating/ Spelling (1,0 pt) Chú ý: Tổng số điểm là 100, sau đó qui về thang điểm 10 và làm tròn đến số thập phân thứ nhất.
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PHÒNG GD&ĐT VĨNH TƯỜNG
ĐỀ KHẢO SÁT HSG NĂM HỌC 2013-2014 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH - LỚP 9 Thời gian làm bài:150 phút
PART A – LISTENING Questions 1-5: You will hear a conversation between a secretary and a student. The secretary is asking the student for information in order to complete an application form. As you listen, fill in the appropriate information on the form below. You will be listened to the recording twice. Surname: (in capital letter) 1. …………………………………… First name: Country: Age:
2. …………………………………… 3. …………………………………… 4. ……………………………………
Address: 9 Crew Street RC4 Telephone No.: 5. …………………………………… PART B – PHONETIC I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others. Answer by writing down the corresponding letter A, B, C OR D on your answer sheet. 1 A. book B. food C. tooth D. tool 2 A. wandered B. traveled C. exchanged D. reduced 3. A. headache B. champagne C. stomach D. chemistry 4. A. disaster B. design C. prison D. despite 5. A. whether B. although C. healthy D. without II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others. Answer by writing down the corresponding letter A, B, C OR D on your answer sheet. 1. A. advance B. campus C. equal D. symbol 2. A. depend B. impress C. process D. comprise 3. A. primary B. separate C. tropical D. encourage 4. A. national B. embroider C. logical D. rivalry 5. A. minority B. economic C. reputation D. intermediate PART C – LEXICAL AND GRAMMAR I. Choose the best answer to complete each of the following sentences. Answer by writing down the corresponding letter A, B, C OR D on your answer sheet. 1. Would you mind if I __________ your car to work? A. drive B. drove C. am driving D. have driven 2. Minh loves playing chess __________ his sister enjoys skipping in their free time. A. when B. because C. while D. during 3. Thanks __________ Alexander Graham Bell’s invention, I can communicate with each other easily. A. for B. from C. on D. to 4. Hurry up! It’s high time we __________ for home right now. A. are leaving B. leave C. are leaving D. left 5. Nam and Manh have played badminton for two hours, but __________ of them is tired. A. neither B. both C. none D. all 6. Look! There are some children __________ in the river. A. swimming B. swam C. are swimming D. swim
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Mary, along with her manager and some friends, __________ going to a party tonight. A. are B. was C. were D. is 8. 4. After running up the stairs, I was __________ breath. A. without B. out of C. no D. away from 9. I tried to ______ them from going, but they wouldn't take any notice. A. warn B. refuse C. prevent D. forbid 10. One way of cutting down waste is to __________ such things as glass and paper. A. recycle A. repeat B. renew D. redirect 11. 12. We think that Mother’s Day should be celebrated __________ . A. nationwide B. national C. nation D. native 12. “You are a great dancer, Doris!” “Thanks, Rita. __________ . ” A. Well done! B. I’m an awful C. Let’s have a D. That’s very nice dancer celebration of you to say so 13. Your sister never work in a foreign company, __________ she? A. isn’t B. does C. wasn’t D. doesn’t 14. She asked me if I __________ a laptop computer the following day. A. buy B. bought C. would buy D. will buy 15. She wants to __________ the police, but she is too young. A. go into B. participate C. join D. apply 16. My mother wonders whether __________ go camping the next weekend. A. we will B. we would C. will we D. would we 17. My parents’ room is __________ mine. A. double as large B. semi-larger than D. as two-time as C. twice as large as large 18. New York City is America’s largest city, __________ it is not the capital of New York State. A. therefore B. but C. so D. however 19. This young music composer is very famous __________ the most influential composer. A. for B. to C. as D. with 20. 47. __________ where to find the key, the thief could not open the safe. A. Not knowing B. Haven’t known D. Didn’t know C. Knowing not II. Put each verb in brackets in appropriate tense or form. Write down the answers on your answer sheet. I (write) (1) _______ to express my dissatisfaction of my stay at the Lord Hotel in London last weekend. I (book) (2) _______ the hotel in Sweden and also (receive) (3) _______ information about the hotel. I (promise) (4) _______ a luxury weekend. However, I (not be) (5) _______ satisfied. The room was comfortable, but the traffic from the road opposite the hotel (make) (6) _______ it impossible to "(sleep) (7) _______ . I (ask) (8) _______ for another room, but no single rooms (be) (9) _______ available. I required room-service one night and I (have) (10) _______ to wait for almost one hour before someone came. III. Complete these sentences with the correct form of the words in bold in brackets. Write down the answers on your answer sheet. 1. The secret to (success) __________ in life is hard working. 2. With so many choices, it is hard to __________ (decision) what to buy. 3. A lot of modern (technical) __________ is used in various fields. 4. She is so busy with (society) __________ activities that she has no time for entertainment. 5. His result was __________ (amaze) excellent. 6. Uncle Ho is a man of __________ (simple). 7. This gold lamp is the most __________ (value) object in the house
8. Do you like the language center (advertise) __________ in the Women’s Magazine?. 9. When Jack left home, he began to enjoy his (independent) __________. 10. I’m sorry, but I (agreement) __________ with you completely. PART D – READING I. Choose the best answer from the four options (marked A, B, C, or D) to complete each of the numbered blanks in the following passage by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet. Although some groups of people have always lived outdoor in tents, camping as we know it today only began to be (1) _________ about 50 years ago. The increase in the use of cars and improvement in camping equipment have (2) __________ more people to travel longer (3) __________ into the countryside and to stay there in greater comfort. Many campers like to be (4) __________ themselves in quiet areas, so they (5)__________ their tent and food, and walk or cycle into the forests or the mountains. Others, preferring to be near people, drive to a public or privately-owned campsite (6) __________ has up-to-date facilities (7)__________ hot showers and swimming pools. Whether campers are (8) ________ in the mountains or on a busy site, they should remember to (9)________ the area clean and tidy. In the forests, they must put out any fires and keep food hidden to avoid attracting (10) _________ animals. 1. A. fame B. popular C. favorite D. current 2. A. asked B. let C. made D. allowed 3. A. parts B. directions C. voyages D. distances 4. A. on B. by C. at D. of 5. A. take B. make C. pick D. do 6. A. where B. who C. which D. when 7. A. such B. like C. as D. just 8. A. lonely B. single C. separate D. alone 8. A. remain B. stay C. keep D. let 10. A. wild B. natural C. loose D. free II. Read the following passage carefully and choose the best answer marked A, B, C, or to each question. Answer by writing down the corresponding letter A, B, C OR D on your answer sheet. Meeting can waste a great deal of time. But you can make your meeting run more smoothly by following a few simple rules. First, have an agenda. This will help keep you focused on what is important. Next, decide who needs to be involved. More people means less efficient discussion. Finally, keep the discussion moving. Thank each speaker as he or she finishes and move on to the next speaker. This encourages people to make their remarks short. And don’t forget: what happens after a meeting is more important than what happens during the meeting. The skills used then are more professional and less procedural. So no matter how well you run a meeting, it is the work that gets done after the meeting that is important. 1. What is one way to run a meeting well? A. Watch how your manager run meetings. B. Minimize the number of participants. C. Let the group make decisions. D. Let everyone speak. 2. What is the purpose of a meeting agenda? A. To keep the speakers organized. B. To allow free discussion C. To send to others in advance D. To keep focused on important items 3. How should you receive other people’s comments at a meeting? A. Try to keep others from talking. B. Thank them and move on. C. Give them as much time as they want. D. Respond in detail to all comments.
4. How should people state their ideas? A. Succinctly B. Quietly C. Wordily D. Encouragingly 5. The author states that A. meetings should be held more frequently. B. all meetings should be in the morning. C. no one should receive credit for their work. D. the real work is accomplished after the meeting. PART E – WRITING I. Rewrite each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the one printed before it. 1. “Keep silent and concentrate on your lessons, please” said the teacher to his students. The teacher …………………………………………………………………………….. . 2. The government gave her a scholarship to the university. A scholarship …………………………………………………………………………… . 3. My father seldom drinks coffee in the evening. Seldom …………………………………………………………………………………. . 4. It’s raining, so we can’t get to the birthday party in time. If ……………………………………………………………………………………….. . 5. They gave me a place to stay and let me use their car. Not only ………………………………………………………………………………. .. II. Write a letter of more than 100 words to a foreign pen pal of yours, telling him or her about your last interesting trip to a beautiful place in your country. THE END
Cán bộ coi khảo sát không giải thích gì thêm Họ và tên học sinh dự thi:………………………………………;SBD:……………
PHÒNG GD&ĐT VĨNH TƯỜNG
HD CHẤM KHẢO SÁT HSG NĂM HỌC 2013-2014 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 9 Thời gian làm bài:150 phút
PART A – LISTENING: 1 điểm. Mỗi đáp án đúng cho 0,2 điểm. 1. WILLIAMS 2. Peter 3. Canada 4. 25 PART B – PHONETIC Câu I: 0,5 điểm, mỗi đáp án đúng cho 0,1 điểm. 1. A 2. D 3. B Câu II: 0,5 điểm, mỗi đáp án đúng cho 0,1 điểm. 1. A 2. C 3. D PART C – LEXICAL AND GRAMMAR Câu I: 2 điểm, mỗi đáp án đúng cho 0,1 điểm. 1. B 2. C 3. D 6. A 7. D 8. B 11. A 12. D 13. B 16. A 17. C 18. B Câu II: 1 điểm. Mỗi đáp án đúng cho 0,1 điểm. 1. am writing 2. booked 3.received 6. made 7. sleep 8. asked Câu III: 1 điểm. Mỗi đáp án đúng cho 0,1 điểm. 1. succeed 2. decide 3. technology 6. simplification 7. valuable 8. advertised
5. 2342965
4. D
5. C
4. B
5. A
4. D 9. C 14. C 19. C
5. A 10. A 15. C 20. A
4. was promised 9. were
5. haven't been 10. had
4. social 9. independence
5. amazingly 10. disagree
PART D – READING Câu I: 1 điểm. Mỗi đáp án đúng cho 0,1 điểm. 1. B 2. D 3. D 6. C 7. B 8. A Câu II: 1 điểm. Mỗi đáp án đúng cho 0,2 điểm. 1. B 2. D 3. B
4. B 9. C
5. C 10. A
4. A
5. D
PART E – WRITING Câu I: 0,5 điểm. Mỗi đáp án đúng cho 0,1 điểm. 1. The teacher asked/told his students to keep silent and concentrate on their the lessons. 2. A scholarship to the university was given to her by the government. 3. Seldom does my father drink coffee in the evening. 4. If it weren’t raining, we could get to the birthday party in time. 5. Not only did they give me a place to stay but also let me use their car. Câu II: 1,5 điểm. - 0,5 điểm: Đúng yêu cầu về cấu trúc viết thư thông thường (informal letter). - 1 điểm: Nội dung bài viết phong phú, lời văn rõ ràng, logic. - 0,5 điểm: Không có lỗi ngữ pháp và chính tả.
PHÒNG GD&ĐT KRÔNG ANA ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
KỲ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP HUYỆN KHOÁ NGÀY 09/02/2015 Đề thi môn: Tiếng Anh 9 Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút (Đề thi này có 08 trang- Thí sinh làm bài vào đề thi)
Họ và tên thí sinh : .................................... Học sinh trường : ...................................... Số báo danh : .....................
Điểm Bằng số
Chữ ký GT 1
Chữ ký GT 2
Chữ ký GK 1
Chữ ký GK 2
Số phách
Số phách
Bằng chữ
I. LISTENING (4 pts) A. Listen to the conversation between a man and a woman and then answer the questions (2 pts) 1. What does the woman usually have for breakfast? …………………………………………………………………………………………. 2. Does she often have a big breakfast each day? …………………………………………………………………………………………. 3. According to the man, is it easy to make a quick breakfast? …………………………………………………………………………………………. 4. What does he usually make for a quick breakfast? …………………………………………………………………………………………. 5. Does the man make some oatmeal and turkey for the woman? …………………………………………………………………………………………. B. Listen to the passage about the environment and fill in the blanks below (2 pts) Nowadays, most of us know that our (1) ………………. is in trouble and that humans are the reason why. Many of us are worried about the future of our planet and (2) ………… we can find a way of solving the problems we have made then the environment will (3) …………………. Each one of us, whatever (4) ………………. we are, can do something to help slow down and reserve some of the (5) ………….. We cannot leave the problem-solving entirely (6) …………. the experts – we all have a responsibility (7)………………….. our environment. We must learn to live in a sustainable way i.e. learn to use our natural resources which include (8) …………, fresh water, forests, wildlife, farmland and seas (9) …………………. damaging them. As populations expand and lifestyles change, we must keep the world balanced so that the future generations will have the (10)………….. natural resources that we have.
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---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------II. PHONETICS (2 pts) A. Circle the letter preceding the word whose underlined part differently pronounced from those in each group: (1 pt) 1. A. respect B. festival C. mess D. access 2. A. blow B. comb C. club D. break 3. A. promised B. blessed C. relaxed D. furnished 4. A. faded B. baggy C. added D. match 5. A. wealthy B. meat C. peace D. release 6. A. pardon B. hard C. parent D. postcard 7. A. cough B. though C. rough D. tough 8. A. tidal B. sight C. describe D. mineral 9. A. hour B. heir C. hold D. honor 10. A. champagne B. church C. choice D. change B. Circle the letter preceding the word whose main stress pronounced differently from those of the rest (1 pt) 1. A. efficiency B. government C. opinion D. conclusive 2. A. observant B. challenge C. conference D. special 3. A. invitation B. fascination C. calculation D. intelligent 4. A. talkative B. uniform C. vacuum D. possession 5. A. willing B. swallow C. behave D. tidy 6. A. advice B. practice C. journal D. carry 7. A. beautiful B. company C. collection D. comfortable 8. A. participate B. environment C. activation D. intelligent 9. A. excellent B. relation C. addition D. formation 10. A. surprise B. pleasant C. allow D. discuss III. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (6,0 pts) A. Circle the letter preceding the word or phrase to complete each sentence below (3,0 pts) 1. We are looking forward to …………… you soon. A. see B. seeing C. saw D. seen 2. My mother used to ………. research in this library when she was a student. 2
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-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------A. do B. make C. making D. doing 3. Let’s go to the beach this weekend, ………… ? A. will you B. shall we C. do we D. don’t we 4. Remember ............. the door before going to bed. A. locking B. locked C. to lock D. not locking 5. Nancy talks as if she ............... everything. A. knows B. had known C. knew D. not knew 6. “Would you mind turning down the volume?” - “...............” A. Of course. B. I’d be glad to. C. Not at all. D. Yes, sure 7. Next we’ll have the ............... news. A. latest B. newest C. later D. newer 8. I suggested that he……………. the chores himself. A. doing B. did C. done D. do 9. “I’m taking my first exam next week”. – “...............”. A. Thank you B. Cheers C. Well done D. Good luck 10. I’m not accustomed ............... up so early. A. to get B. getting C. be getting D. got 11. I wish I …………….. a millionaire. A. were B. be C. been D. am 12. These things are used ……….. the presents to customers. A. to wrap B. to wrapping C. wrapping D. to be wrapped 13. Tom and his friend were badly injured in the last match, so ………. can play today. A. both of them B. either of them C. neither D. not any of them 14. There are a lot of people at my friend’s wedding party, only a few of………. I had met before. A. who B. whose C. whom D. which 15.You should have known that Mai could not keep a secret. Never again ………. her anything. A. will tell B. will I tell C. I tell D. I will tell 16. Would you like some more oranges? – Just ………………, please. A. a little B. a few C. a lot D. many 17. She is too late. They are tired …………waiting for her
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---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------A. on B. at C. of D. to 18. ……….. I been there with you yesterday, I would have been so happy. A. Did B. Was C. Should D. Had 19. When I saw her last night, she …………. talking with her friends in a cafeteria. A. talked B. was talk C. talk D. was talking 20. You hair is long. It needs …………, Jack. A. cuts B. to cut C. to be cut D. cut 21. Oh, no. The girl is fainted, you should bring her……….., Tim. A. over B. on C. round D. up 22. Don’t do it at once. You should do it ……………. and you will see. A. little by little B. much and many C. little with little D. little and little 23. They have been talking for hours, which I am very …………. A. annoy B. annoying C. annoyed about D. annoyed 24. The result was, however, …………….. What a shame! A. satisfactory B. dissatisfaction C. satisfy D. unsatisfactory 25. I am happy ………….. my son can take part in this contest. A. what B. that C. because of D. to be 26. He has just had his house …………… today. A. repaint B. repainted C. to repaint D. to be repaint 27. …………….. the bad traffic, he still got to the meeting on time. A. Although B. Despite of C. Even though D. In spite of 28. ………………is a film or a play that is intended to be funny, usually with a happy ending. A. Documentary B. Drama C. Cartoon D. Comedy 29. The New Year is coming so most of the clothing stores are crowded ………people. A. with B. of C. about D. for 30. I always ask my parents for …………… before going out. A. preparation B. permission C. complaint D. occasion B. Circle the letter placed under the word or phrase which is not correct (1,0 pt) 1. They studied very hard, so they passed the exam easy. A B C D 4
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2. My aunt has just bought some expensive furnitures for her new house. A B C D 3. People respected him because he was a honest man. A B C D 4. Today the number of people whom enjoy winter sports is almost double that of twenty A B C D years ago. 5. Have you ever read any books write about UFOs? A B C D C. Fill each gap in each sentence with the correct form of the word in capital letters (2 pts) 1. Nowadays, viewers can watch a……………. of local and international programs on different channels (VARIOUS) 2. I think most writers are very ………………… (IMAGINE) 3. We are trying to look for another………… (EXPLAIN) 4. I think that we should ………. the rainforests. (PRESERVATION) 5. Jean cloth was made …………….. from cotton. (COMPLETE) 6. Red sometimes ……………… danger. (SYMBOL) 7. You should use electrical bikes to reduce ……………. (POLUTE) 8. Watching TV has become one of the most popular forms of ………………………. (ENTERTAIN) 9. ………………….. ! You have won the first prize, Lan. (CONGRATULATE) 10. Some ………………..are on the beach now. (ENVIRONMENT) IV. READING (4 pts) A. Read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each space. Circle your choice (2 pts) Global warming Few people now question the reality of global warming and its effects on the world’s climate. Many scientists (1) ...................... the blame for recent natural disasters on the 5
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---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------increase in the world's temperatures and are convinced that, more than (2)...................... before, the earth is at (3)...................... from the forces of the wind, rain and sun. (4) ...................... to them, global warming is making extreme weather events, such as hurricanes and droughts, even more (5) ...................... and causing sea levels all around the world to (6) ...................... . Environmental groups are putting (7) ...................... on governments to take action to reduce the amount of carbon dioxide which is given (8) ...................... by factories and power plants, thus attacking the problem at its source. They are in (9) ...................... of more money being spent on research into solar, wind and wave energy devices, which could then replace existing power (10) ...................... . Some scientists, however, believe that even if we stopped releasing carbon dioxide and other gases into the atmosphere tomorrow, we would have to wait several hundred years to notice the results. Global warming, it seems, is here to stay. 1. A. give B. put C. take D. have 2. A. yet B. never C. once D. ever 3. A. threat B. danger C. risk D. harm 4. A. Concerning B. Regarding C. Depending D. According 5. A. strict B. severe C. strong D. heavy 6. A. raise B. arise C. rise D. lift 7. A. force B. pressure C. persuasion D. encouragement 8. A. off B. away C. up D. over 9. A. belief B. request C. favour D. suggestion 10. A. factories B. generations C. houses D. stations B. Read the passage carefully and fill in each blank with one suitable word (2 pts) For many people the language 1/ …………… the internet is English. “World, Wide, Web: Three English Words” was the name of an article by Michael Specter in the New York Times a few years 2/…………….. The article went on to say: “If you want to take full advantages of the Internet, there is 3/………….. one real way to do it: learn English.”
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----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------In general, it is not difficult to learn to 4/……………… Internet services. But although Internet services are rather easy to use, you will have considerable difficulties if you are not familiar 5/………………. English. In fact, knowledge of English is one of the 6/ ………….. important aspects that helps you use the Internet. Learning to use a new Internet service may 7/……………. a few hours, a few days, or some weeks, but it takes years to learn a language so that you can use it fluently and confidently. 8/……………… course, when you know some English, you can learn more just 9/………….. using it on the Internet. But at least your English should be good enough to understand commonly used words and to know 10/………….. to do on the Internet. V. WRITING (4,0 pts) A. Complete the second sentence in such a way that it is almost the same as the first (3,0 pts) 1. He speaks too much, people feel bored. The ………………………………………………………………………………….. 2. My parents were always telling me what to do when I was small. I was.......…………………………………………………………………………… 3. I can’t describe people as well as you can. You …………………………………………………………….…………………… 4. If he doesn’t leave now, he may miss the train. Unless….…………………………………………………………………………… 5. The children do not get good grades this semester. We wish ……………………………………………………………………………. 6. The story was too boring for us to listen to. So…………………………………………………………………………………… 7. He sings well. Moreover, he also plays musical instruments perfectly. Not only ……………………………………………………………………………. 8. The book is 20.000 dong. The comic is 20.000 dong. The book and the comic …………………………………………………………… 9. “If I were you, I would not wear that dress, Mary” said Susan. Susan advised ……………………………………………………………………… 7
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10. Tim is the best student in his class. No one……………………………………………………………………………… B. Use the following set of words and phrases to complete the following sentences. You can put additional words and make any changes necessary (1 pt) 1. I/ write/ you/ short stop/ your trucks/ around my house/ their way/ north. ……………………………………………………………………………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………….. 2. Angkor Wat/ should really/ know/ wonder because it/ be/ largest temple/ world. ……………………………………………………………………………………….. 3. Last night,/when/boy/return/home/everyone/go/bed. ……………………………………………………………………………………….. 4. I think it/ be better if we/ use/ banana leaves/ instead/ paper or plastic bags/ wrap/ food. ……………………………………………………………………………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………….. 5. Nga/ hope/ she/ can/ talk/ people/ over/ world, and/ understand/ her favorite English songs. ……………………………………………………………………………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………….. ----------------- THE END ------------------
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PHÒNG GD&ĐT KRÔNG ANA ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
KỲ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP HUYỆN KHOÁ NGÀY 09/02/2015 Môn: Tiếng Anh 9 Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút (Đề thi này có 04 trang- Thí sinh làm bài vào đề thi)
ĐÁP ÁN VÀ HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM I. LISTENING (4 pts) A. Listen to the conversation and then answer (2 pts) 1. She usually has some cereals. 2. No, she does not. 3. Yes, it is. 4. He usually makes some oatmeal, toast and orange juice (for a quick breakfast). 5. No, he does not. B. Listen to the passage about the environment and fill in the blanks (2 pts) 1. planet 2. unless 3. suffer 4. age 5. damage 6. to 7. toward 8. air 9. without 10. Same II. PHONETICS (2 pts) A. Circle the letter preceding the word whose underlined part differently pronounced from those in each group: (1 pt) 1. A 2. B 3. B 4. A 5. A 6. C 7. B 8. D 9. C 10. A B. Circle the letter preceding the word main stress pronounced from those of the rest (1 pt) 1. B 2. A 3. D 4. D 5. C 6. A 7. C 8. C 9. A 10. B III. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (6 pts) A. Circle the letter preceding the word or phrase to complete each sentence below (3 pts) 1. B 2. A 3. B 4. C 5. C 6. C 7. A 8. D 9. D 10. A 11. A 12. A 13. C 14.C 15. B 16. B 17. C 18. D 19. D 20. C 21. C 22. A 23. C 24. D 25. B 26. B 27. D 28. D 29. A 30. B B. Circle the letter placed under the word or phrase which is not correct. (0,5 pt) 1. D 2. C 3. C 4. B 5. D C. Fill each gap in each sentence with the correct form of the word in capital letters. (2 pts) 1. VARIETY 2. IMAGINATIVE 3. EXPLANATION 4. PRESERVE 5. COMPLETELY 6. SYMBOLIZES 7. POLLUTION 8. ENTERTAINMENT 9. CONGRATULATION 10. ENVIRONMENTALISTS 9
IV. READING (4 pts) A. Read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each space. Circle your choice. (2 pts) 1. B 2. D 3. C 4. D 5. B 6. C 7. B 8. A 9. C 10. D B. Read the passage carefully and fill in each blank with one suitable word. (2 pts) 1. of
2. ago
3. only
4. use
5. with
6. with
7. take
8. Of
9. by
10. what
V. WRITING (4 pts) A. Complete the second sentence in such a way that it is almost the same as the first. (3 pts) 1. The more he speaks, the more bored people feel. 2. I was always being told what to do when I was small by my parents. 3. I can’t describe people as well as you can. You can describe people better than me. 4. Unless he leaves now, he may miss the train. 5. We wish the children got good grades this semester. 6. So boring was the story that we could not listen to it. 7. Not only does he sing well but he also plays musical instruments perfectly. 8. The book and the comic are at the same price. 9. Susan advised Mary not to wear that dress. 10. Tim is the best student in his class. No one in Tim’s class is better than him/ No one in Tim’s class is as good as him. B. Use the following set of words and phrases to complete the following sentences. You can put additional words and make any changes necessary (1 pt) 1. I am writing to you about the short stop of your trucks around my house on their way to the north. 2. Angkor Wat should be really known as a wonder because it is the largest temple in the world. 3. Last night, when the boy returned home, everyone had gone to bed. 4. I think it would be better if we use banana leaves instead of paper or plastic bags to wrap food. 5. Nga hopes she can talk to/with people all over the world and understand her favorite English songs. * Các giám khảo chú ý: Đáp án trên đây chỉ là một trong số các cách giải, nếu học sinh làm cách khác mà đúng thì giám khảo vẫn cho điểm tối đa./.
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PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC & ĐÀO TẠO HUYỆN VĨNH THUẬN _________ ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC (Đề thi có 06 trang)
KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI VÒNG HUYỆN LỚP 9 THCS NĂM HỌC 2014-2015 ____________ Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Ngày thi: 20-01-2015 (Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp trên đề thi này)
Giám thị 1 Họ và tên thí sinh: ……………………...….….. Mã phách Họ và tên:………………………..……… Số báo danh: ……………………………..……. Chữ ký: ………………………….……… Ngày sinh: ………………….……...….………. Giám thị 2 Nơi sinh: ……………………...……..………… Họ và tên:……………………..………… Phòng thi: …………………..............…………. Chữ ký: …………………….…………… Trường: ………………………...………. …………………………………………………..……………………………………………………… Điểm bằng số Giám khảo 1 Mã Họ và tên: …………………………………….. phách Chữ ký : ………………………………………. Giám khảo 2 Điểm bằng chữ Họ và tên: …………………………………….. Chữ ký : ……………………………………….
A/LISTEN ( 2,5 pts)
PART I:
Listen and write. There is an example.
1
PART II: Listen and tick ( ) the box.There is one example.
B. GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (17,5 pts)
I.Circle the word that has a different sound from the others of each group. (2pts) 1. A.tool 2. A.population 3. A.happened 4. A.proud 5. A.hour 6. A.meeting 7. A.fear 8. A.think
B.moon B.hope B.crossed B.about B.honor B.seen B.tear B.though
C.soon C.compose C.followed C.around C.host C.cheer C.bear C.thing
D.cook D.control D.fluttered D.would D.honest D.been D.hear D.thumb
II.Choose and circle the correct answer for each sentence. (2pts) 1. Mathematics and Literature are _____ subjects in high school. A.adding B. compulsory C.optional 2. I wish they ____ here tomorrow. A.will come B. would come C.come 3. The national dress of Indian women is _____. A.kimono B. ao dai C.sari 4. Marie Curie _____ the Nobel Prize for physics in 1903. A.award B. awarded C.has awarded 5. There is a small bamboo _____ at the entrance to the village. A. forest B. forestation C. forest ranger 6. She said that she _____ learning English with you. A. like B. liking C. liked 7. They asked me how many children _____. A.I had B. had I C.I have 8. My father _____ teaching in a small village 10 years ago. A.start B. starts C.has started
D. religious D. came D. jeans D. was awarded D. forestry D. likes D. have I D. started
III.Complete the following sentences with an appropriate form of the word in brackets. (2pts) 1. Some young people today have a very strange _____________________. (appear) 2. He always wears a ____________________ shirt. (stripe) 3. They have just _____________________ a new style of jeans in the USA. (introduction) 4. He is a famous stamp ____________________. (collect) 5. It was an _____________________ day. (enjoy) 6. They __________________ me to join their family to Hue last year. (invitation) 7. There is a _____________________ lot near my house. (park) 8. I am fond of ___________________ to the movie on Sundays. (go)
IV. Rewrite the following sentences without changing the meaning. (1.5pts) 1. How long is it since you saw Tom? → When ____________________________________________________ ? 2. No one could help him. → He ________________________________________________________ 3. They have worked in that factory since 2001. →They started ________________________________________________ 4. He is too young to go to school alone. → He _______________________________________________________
5. Peter said to me “Can I borrow you some money? I want to buy this hat.” → Peter asked me _____________________________________________ 6. He can’t pass the exam. → He wishes _________________________________________________
V. Do as directed in parentheses. (1.5pts) 1. This house was built in 1995. (Change into active voice) → ________________________________________________________________ 2. “Where were you last night?” the police asked him. (Change into reported speech) → ________________________________________________________________ 3. I am learning English for four years. (Correct the mistake in the sentence and rewrite the sentence) → ________________________________________________________________ 4. Ba and his friends often go away ______ the weekend. (Complete the sentences with an appropriate preposition) 5. The hotel was very noisy. They couldn’t sleep. (Combine into one sentence using so … that) → ________________________________________________________________ 6. Jim _____________ correct verb form)
(not meet) me when he came to Viet Nam last summer. (Supply the
VI. There is a mistake in the four underlined parts of each sentence. Identify your answer by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C, or D. (2.5pts) 1. Jason’s professor had him to write his thesis many times before allowing him to present it A B C to the committee. D 2. I think Helen is accustomed to work eight hours a day. A B C D 3. The more frequent you exercise, the greater physical endurance you will have. A B C D
4. Only when you have had a chance to know various occupations you will decide on your career. A B C D 5. I tried to do everything to contact John two weeks ago but so far I don’t receive his reply. A B C D 6. Most students were able of finding good jobs three to six months after graduation. A B C D 7. The letter was sent by special delivery must be important. A B C D 8. Because the torrential rains that had devastated the area, the governor sent the National Guard to A B C assist in the clean-up operation. D 9. My brother attends an university in the Midwest which specializes in astrology. A B C D 10. Although Mark has been cooking for many years, he still doesn’t know to prepare French foods A B C D in the traditional manner.
VII. Read the passage below and complete the summary with the missing words. (2.5pts) During the last Christmas holidays, a group of my classmates decided to have an excursion to Johore Bahru. I was elected as the leader and did the burden of making arrangement for the trip fell on my shoulders. We left early in the morning by the first Singapore – Johore express bus and reached the customs cheeks-points half an hour later. From the customs we went by a chartered van to the Johore Bahru seaside. As it was clear sunny day we had decided to have a dip in the water. For nearly an hour we enjoyed the bath much to our satisfaction. By the time our sea-bath was over. It was about 9 a.m and we had an appetizing breakfast, with sandwiches, cakes and coffee which we carried along with us. Then we relaxed under a shady tree for a while. Later we visited the zoo we had some fun there with the monkeys in cages. Then went round the tour for sightseeing. By the time, our sightseeing was over, it was about 1 p.m. We had a sumptuous lunch of chicken rice and returned home by bus. * Complete the summary with the missing words. During the last Christmas holidays, the writer and ________________ (1) had an interesting excursion in _______________ (2). She was elected ________________ (3) so she was responsible for making arrangement _______________ (4). First they took the first ____________________ (5) to the customs cheek-points then went by a _____________ (6) to the Johore Bahru sea-side. They had a _______________ (7) there. Next they visited ________________ (8) and enjoyed themselves there too. After that they made _______________ (9) around the city for sightseeing and then returned home _________________ (10). They had really lovely holidays.
VIII.Read the following passage and then put a circle round the letter of the correct words to complete each sentence which follows. (1.5pts) Keeping our teeth healthy It’s very important to have healthy teeth. Good teeth help us to chew our food. They also help us to look nice. How does a tooth go bad? The decay begins in a little crack in the enamel covering of the tooth. This happens after germs and bits of food have collected there. Then the decay slowly spreads inside the tooth. Eventually, poison goes into the blood, and we may feel quite ill. How can we keep our teeth healthy? First, we ought to visit our dentist twice a year. He can fill the small holes in our teeth before they destroy the teeth. He can examine our teeth to check that they are growing in the right way. Unfortunately, many people wait until they have toothache before they see a dentist. Secondly, we should brush our teeth with a toothbrush and fluoride toothpaste at least twice a day once after breakfast and once before we go to bed. We can also use wooden toothpicks to clean between our teeth after a meal. Thirdly, we should eat food that is good for or teeth and our body: milk, cheese, fish, brown bread, potatoes, red rice, raw vegetables and fresh fruit. Chocolate, sweets, biscuits and cakes are bad, especially when we eat them between meals. They are harmful because they stick to our teeth and cause decay. 1.Good teeth help us _______. A. be nice B. have good eyesight C.chew our food D. be important 2.When food and germs collect in a small crack, our teeth _________. A. become hard B. begin to decay C.send poison into the blood D. make us feel quite ill 3. A lot of people visit a dentist only when __________.
A. their teeth grow properly B. they have holes in their teeth C.they have toothache D. they have brushed their teeth 4.We ought to try to clean our teeth __________. A. once a day B. at least twice a day C.between meals D. before breakfast 5. We shouldn’t eat a lot of _________. A. red rice B. fresh fruit C. fish D. chocolate 6.Sweets are harmful because they make our teeth ___________. A. black B. ache C.bad D. cracked
IX. Look at the following sets of words and phrases. Make all the changes and additions necessary to produce sentences which together make a complete letter of complaint from Jane to Mr. Pike Smith. (2pts) Dear Mr. Smith, 1.
I write / complain / dirt / smoke / come / your factory / chimneys.
2.
Two days ago / I / decide / do / my washing.
3.
I wash / sheets / put them out to dry / it / be / nice sunny day/ there / be / breeze.
4.
When I take / washing in / I / be / horrified / discover / it / covered / in dirty marks.
5.
I / assume / breeze I mention / carry / dirt / your chimneys.
6.
Until this accident / I think / your chimneys / be safe and clean.
7.
I / suggest / your factory / fit / new filters to its chimneys / as the dirt and smoke / dangerous.
8.
I look / receive your reply. Yours sincerely, Mrs. Jane Hunter
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ...................………………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ...................………………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………...................……… _____THE
END_____
ĐÁP ÁN VÀ HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM MÔN TIẾNG ANH 9 KỲ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI VÒNG HUYỆN, NĂM HỌC 2014 – 2015 A. NGHE ( 2,5 ĐIỂM): Mỗi câu đúng 0,25 đ
PART I: PART II: 1B
2A
Listen and write. 1.Clarke; 2. Sunday 3. 25 ( twenty-five); ) the box. Listen and tick ( 3B
4C
4. burger;
5. lemonade
5B
B. KIẾN THỨC NGÔN NGỮ-ĐỌC-VIẾT
I) Mỗi câu đúng đúng 0,25đ 1-D 2-A 3-B
4-D
5-C
6-C
7-C
8-B
II) Mỗi câu đúng 0,25đ 1-B 2-B
4-D
5-A
6-C
7-A
8-D
3-C
III) Mỗi câu đúng 0,25đ 1-appearance 2-striped 5-enjoyable 6-invited
3-introduced 7-parking
4-collector 8-going
IV) Mỗi câu đúng 0,25đ 1) When did you see Tom? 2) He couldn’t be helped. 3) They started to work ( working) in that factory in 2001 4) - He is so young that he can’t go to school alone. (- He is very young, so he can’t go to school alone.) 5) Peter asked me if he could borrow me some money, he wanted to buy that hat. 6) He wishes he could pass the exam. V) Mỗi câu đúng 0,25đ 1) They (people) built this house in 1995. 2) The police asked him where he had been the night before. 3) I have learnt English for four years. 4) on 5) The hotel was so noisy that they couldn’t sleep. 6) didn’t meet VI) Mỗi câu đúng 0,25đ 1. A 6. C
2. C 7. A
3. A 8. A
4. D 9. A
5. D 10. D
VII) Mỗi câu đúng 0,25đ 1-her classmates 4-for the trip 7-very good time
2-Johore Bahru 5-Singapore – Johore express bus 8-the zoo 9-a sight-seeing
3-as the leader 6-charted van 10-by bus
1-C
VIII) Mỗi câu đúng 0,25đ. 2-B 3-C
4-B
5-D
6-C
IX) Mỗi câu đúng 0,25đ. Dear Mr. Smith, 1. I am writing to complain about the dirt and smoke which come from your factory chimneys / coming from your factory chimneys. 2. Two days ago, I decided to do my washing. 3. I washed the sheets and put them out to dry because it was a nice sunny day and there was a breeze. 4. When I took the washing in, I was horrified to discover that it was covered in dirty marks. 5. I assume that the breeze I mentioned the carried dirt from your chimneys. 6. Until this accident, I thought your chimneys were safe and clean. 7. I would suggest that your factory should fit new filters to its chimneys as the dirt and smoke are really dangerous. 8. I look forward to receiving your reply. Yours sincerely, Mrs. Jane Hunter
THE END
MA TRẬN ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI VÒNG HUYỆN NĂM HỌC 2014-2015 I/ Objectives: Choose the best English students in grade 9 for Vinh Thuan District.
II/ Test types:Written test - know : 0 - Comprehension:15 % - Low appropriation:55 % - High appropriation:22,5 %
III. Language contents: 1. Vocabulary: Those from grade 6 to grade 9 2. Grammar: - Tenses, forms of verbs, passive forms, reported speech… IV. Matrix:
Q. levels Hi App Low App
No. of items: 10 Mark allocated: 2,5
Com
Listening Part I: Q. 1 Q. 2 Q. 3 Q. 4 Q. 5 Part II: Q. 1 Q. 2 Q. 3 Q. 4 Q. 5
Kno
Part/ Section/ Q. no.
Text types/ Materials/ Situations -Listen and write. Topic “ New start sports centre party time”
√ √ √ √ √
- Listen and tick the box.
√ √ √ √ √
Language subskills
1.Clarke 2.Sunday 3.twenty five 4.burger 5.lemonade 1.B 2.A 3.B 4.C 5.B
Question Types
-Gap filling
MCQ
10 2,5
I. Phonetic
Q. 1 Q. 2 Q. 3 Q. 4 Q. 5 Q. 6 Q. 7 Q. 8
√ √ √ √ √ √ √ √
No. of items: 8 Mark allocated: 2
8 2
Circle the word that has a different sound from the others of each group.
1.cook 2.population 3.crossed 4.would 5.host 6.cheer 7.bear 8.though
MCQ
II.Vocabulary & grammar
Q. 1 Q. 2 Q. 3 Q. 4 Q. 5 Q. 6
√ √ √
-Adjective
- wish - Noun
compusolry would come sari
√ √ √
- passive voice - Noun - Reported speech
was awarded forest liked
MCQ
Q. 7 Q. 8
√ √
No. of items: 8 Mark allocated: 2
8 2,5
- Reported speech - Past simple tense
I had started
III.Vocabulary & grammar
Q. 1 Q. 2 Q. 3 Q. 4 Q. 5 Q. 6 Q. 7 Q. 8
√ √ √ √ √ √ √ √
No. of items: 8 Mark allocated: 2
8 2
IV.Writing Q. 1 Q. 2 Q. 3 Q. 4 Q. 5 Q. 6 No. of items: 6 Mark allocated: 1,5
V.Writing Q. 1 Q. 2 Q. 3 Q. 4 Q. 5 Q. 6 No. of items: 6 Mark allocated: 1,5 VI.Vocabulary & grammar
Q. 1 Q. 2 Q. 3 Q. 4 Q. 5 Q. 6 Q. 7 Q. 8
Complete the following sentences with an appropriate form of the word.
Rewrite the following sentences without changing meaning.
√ √ √ √ √ √
- appearance - striped - introduced - collector - enjoyable - invited - parking - going
Word building
- past simple - passive voice - past simple - so…that / so - reported speech - wish
Making sentences
- active voice - reported speech - present perfect - preposition “ on” - so…that - past simple
Making sentences
6 1,5 √ √ √ √ √ √
Do as directed in parentheses.
6 1,5 √ √ √ √ √ √ √ √
Circle the mistake.
1.A 2.C 3.A 4.D 5.D 6.C 7.A 8.A
MCQ
Q. 9 Q. 10
9.A 10.D
√ √
No. of items: 10 Mark allocated: 2,5
10 2,5
VII.Reading comprehension Q. 1 Q. 2 Q. 3 Q. 4 Q. 5 Q. 6 Q. 7 Q. 8 Q. 9 Q. 10
√ √ √ √ √ √ √ √ √ √
No. of items: 10 Mark allocated: 2,5
Read and complete the summary.
1.her classmates 2. Johore Bahru 3.as the leader 4.for the trip 5.Singapore 6.a charted van 7.very good time 8.the zoo 9.a sight-seeing 10.by bus
-Gap filling
10 2,5
VIII.Reading comprehension Q. 1 Q. 2 Q. 3 Q. 4 Q. 5 Q. 6
√ √ √ √ √ √
Read and circle the correct answer.
1.C 2.B 3.C 4.B 5.D 6.C
MCQ
6 1,5
No. of items: 6 Mark allocated: 1,5
IX.Writing Q. 1 Q. 2 Q. 3 Q. 4 Q. 5 Q. 6 Q. 7 Q. 8
√ √ √ √ √ √ √ √ 8 2
No. of items: 8 Mark allocated: 2
Total items: 80
18
44
18
Total marks: 20
4.5
11
4.5
Complete the complaint letter.
Present simple and past simple. Making sentences
PHÒNG GD&ĐT LẬP THẠCH ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
ĐỀ KHẢO SÁT ĐT HSG LỚP 9 NĂM HỌC 2015-2016 Môn: Tiếng Anh Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề (Đề thi gồm 04 trang)
PART A: LISTENING Questions 1-5: You will hear conversation between a woman and a police officer. Listen and choose the correct answer to each question. 1. What does the briefcase look like?
2. Which picture show the distinguishing features?
3. What did she have inside her briefcase? A. wallet, pens and novel B. papers and wallet C. pens and novel D. papers, pen and novel 4. Where was she standing when she lost her briefcase?
5. What time was it when she lost her briefcase? A. 5:20 B. 5:25 C. 5:30 D. 5:55 Question 6-10: Complete the form. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Name:
PERSONAL DETAILS FORM Mary (6)______________________
Address:
Flat 2 (7)_________________ (8)________________ Road Canterbury
Telephone:
(9)_________________________
Estimated value of the lost item: (10) £:__________________ PART B: PHONETICS
I. Choose the word whose underlined part pronounced differently from the others. Answer by writing down the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet. 1. A. leisure B. pressure C. treasure D. pleasure 2. A. laugh B. plough C. enough D. cough 3. A. explanation B. explore C. exercise D. exclamation 4. A. exchange B. reach C. chance D. champagne 5. A. breathe B. meat C. death D. feature II. Choose the word whose has stress pattern is not the same as that of the others. Answer by writing down the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet. 1. A. scientific B. ability C. experience D. material 2. A. complain B. luggage C. improve D. forgive 3. A. delicious B. development C. community D. dangerous 4. A. environmental B. informative C. acceptable D. computer 5. A. chocolate B. disappointment C. internet D. furniture PART C: LEXICO – GRAMMAR I. Choose the best answer to complete each of the following sentences. Answer by writing down the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet. 1. I think he will join us, _________? A. don’t I B. won’t he C. will he C. do I 2. Ninety _________the maximum length of time allowed for entrance exams to this school. A. minutes is B. minutes are C. minute is D. minute are 3. The local authorities are conducting _________campaign to help _________disabled. A. X/ X B. the/ X C. a/ the D. X/ the 4. _________before me, please pick up the mail. A. Should arrive B. Should you arrive C. You should arrive D. You should have arrived 5. A number of political prisoners _________since Independent Day. A. has been released B. have released C. was released D. have been released 6. She ……………. her husband’s job for his ill health. A. accused B. blamed C. caused D. claimed 7. As …………….as I know, we have not received a bill for the new computer. A. much B. far C. soon D. long 8. Please ____________ your cigarette before entering the room. A. put up B. put down C. put out D. put aside 9. To become an artist, you need to be ____________ A. imagine B. imaginative C. imagination D. imaginarily 10. Staying in the hotel costs _________ renting a room in the dormitory for a week. A. twice as much as B. as much twice as C. twice more than D. as much as twice 11. Tom _____ care of himself. He left home when he was 16 and has been on his own since then. A. used to take B. is used to take C. is used to taking D. is used to be taken 12. He has just taken an examination__________________ chemistry. A. on B. about C. for D. in 13. It __________ a disaster, but fortunately he ___________ fast at the time. A. might be – didn’t drive B. must be – won’t be driving C. was supposed to be – hadn’t driven D. could have been – wasn’t driving 14. She is one of the few people ________. A. to whom I look up B. I look up C. who look up to D. to who I look up 15. They can’t have had the car properly __________, because when I saw them yesterday, they seemed __________ a lot of trouble with it. A. repaired – to be having B. to be repaired – to have
C. repair – having had D. to repair – to have had II. Complete the following sentences with the correct form of the words in brackets. 1. Although she arrived __________, we made her welcome just the same. (expect) 2. The earth is being _________ by pollution. (threat) 3. I’m sorry I haven’t phoned. I’ve been _________ busy this week. (credible) 4. I’m afraid you’ll have to see Mr. Baker. All matters concerning finance are his__________ (response) 5. Many people have been killed by Islamic State (IS), a dangerous group of ____________. (terror) 6. In the future cars can run on anything from __________ to methane gas. (electric) 7. Ants and bees are described as _____________ insects. (industry) 8. Morphine is often used to ____________ the pain of serious injuries. (die) 9. The show was so ___________ that nobody knew who was coming on next. (organise) 10. __________, there were five countries founding the Association of Southeast Asian Nations. (origin) III. Put the verb in brackets in appropriate tense or form. Write down the answers on your answer sheet. 1. He will always remember (award)_______________ the gold medal for his victory. 2. Mrs. Jones, I regret (inform) _____________ you that your credit limit has been exceeded. 3. If you (listen)______________ to me, you (not be) _________in difficult situations now 5. The danger of forest fires (be)_________________ not to be taken lightly. IV. Fill in one suitable preposition to complete the following sentences 1. This tree has been struck _____________ lightening many times. 2. Mrs. Darby always prides _____________ her cooking. 3. Mary regretted not bringing a lot of clothes _____________her. It was very cold. 4. __________ the 1980s, it was popular to wear tapered pants and neon colours. 5. Would you mind if I had a look _____________ your luggage? PART D: READING I. Fill each of the numbered blanks in the following passage. Use only ONE word in each space. Write down the answers on your answer sheet. DRIVING BLIND The idea that a blind person could drive a car sounds crazy. And the concept of someone who can’t see driving a car at almost 150 miles per hour sounds even crazier. Miranda Naylor, a blind accountant from Southport, has done exactly that in an attempt to (1)__________ money for charity. Mrs Naylor drove a sport car (2)__________ two miles in a straight line along the runway of a disused airfield. She was (3)__________ radio contact with her husband, Peter Naylor, who was able to give (4)__________ directions and advice in this way. Her amazing achievement (5)__________ expected to raise about £50,000, which will be donated to a company that trains dogs for (6)__________ blind. Mrs Naylor has been (7)__________ since she was six years old, and she still has some visual memories of the world around her. She admits that not having her sight makes life awkward (8)__________ times. She believes that if you are disable in any way, you shouldn’t waste time feeling sorry for (9)__________ . “it makes a lot (10)__________ sense to keep busy”, she says. ‘Achieving something can be a great source of self-confidence.’ Miranda is now looking for a new challenge and would like to try motorbike riding. II. Read the text and choose the correct word for each space. Write down the answers on your answer sheet. In Britain, the average young person now spends more money on games each year than on going to the cinema or renting videos. But is this (1)_______a bad thing? For years, newspaper reports have been (2)_______that children who spend too much time playing computer games become unsociable, bad-
tempered, even violent as a (3)_______. But new research, (4)_______out in both Europe and the USA, suggests that the opposite may be true. Indeed, playing some of the more complicated games may help people of all ages to improve certain skills. Researchers claim that this is because the games (5)_______the brain work harder in certain ways, like (6)_______sounds and movements quickly and identifying what they are. The fact that people play the games repeatedly (7)_______that they get a lot of practice in these skills which are therefore likely to become highly developed. Social skills may benefit, too. Researchers in Chicago think that fans of first- person shooter games (8)_______“Counterstrike” are better than non-players when it comes to building trust and co-operation, and that this (9)_______them to make good friendships and become strong members of their communities. So rather than (10)_______up computer games, perhaps young people need to spend more time on them? 1. A. nearly B. fully C. necessarily D. certainly 2. A. saying B. speaking C. telling D. informing 3. A. conclusion B. reason C. result D. product 4. A. carried B. turned C. worked D. thought 5. A. keep B. force C. push D. make 6. A. imagining B. solving C. realizing D. noticing 7. A. causes B. brings C. means D. asks 8. A. such as B. in order to C. as well as D. due to 9. A. helps B. supports C. shows D. serves 10. A. giving B. ending C. stopping D. taking III. Read the following text then choose from the list A-F the best sentence to fill each of the spaces. There is one extra sentence which you do not need. A. But now I realize that he’s so hooked on them, he’ll even steal from his own mother in order to pay for the habit. B. Even if he wanted to, he couldn’t - and he doesn’t. C. I often leave it there so that I won’t forget it when I go out. D. He had taken some money out of it and was just about to put it in his pocket. E. But that isn’t all. Last Sunday, I got up earlier than usual. F. But now his work has become so bad that his teachers say he is just wasting his time there. I have recently become very worried about my 15-year-old son, Nick. Although he was never brilliant at school, he used to get reasonable good marks. (1) ______. He used to be such a good swimmer that he won several prizes. But now he has given up training. And instead of neat clothes he used to wear, all he ever puts on is the same pair of shabby of old jeans and a dirty sweatshirt. (2) ______. Nick was in the kitchen. The radio was so loud that he didn’t hear me come behind him. My handbag was on the table. (3) ______. We had a terrible row. Finally, he broke down and confessed everything. He has been going every day to a big amusement arcade near his school and playing electronics games with nick names like Space Warrior and Alien Invaders. I had always thought they were harmless. (4) ______. He has promised he won’t go there again, but I think he’s too addicted to stop. (5) ______. What can I do to help him? PART E: WRITING I. Rewrite the following sentences using the given words so that they have the same meaning as the given sentences. Do not change the words given in any way. 1. All the student passed the exam except Jenny. (who) Jenny was the________________________________________________________. 2. The doctor told her to reduce the amount of sugar in her diet. (cut)
The doctor told __________________________________________________________. 3. Each month he goes to the local hairdresser’s for a haircut. (gets) Each month _____________________________________________________________ 4. I’m sure he hasn’t forgotten about the meetings (have) He____________________________________________________________________. 5. There is no way I will change my plans just to fit in with his. (intention) I have ______________________________________________________. II. Write an essay of around 250 word on the following topic: Studying the English in an English – speaking country is the best but not the best way to learn the language. Do you agree or disagree with this statement? Use specific reasons and details to support your ideas. THE END
PHÒNG GD&ĐT LẬP THẠCH
HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ KHẢO SÁT HSG LỚP 9 NĂM HỌC 2015-2016 Môn: Tiếng Anh Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề (Đề thi gồm 04 trang) PART A: LISTENING: 2 pts (0.2pt/ correct item) Questions 1-5: You will hear conversation between a woman and a police officer. Listen and choose the correct answer to each question. 1.A 2. C 3. D 4. D 5. C Question 6-10: Complete the form. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. 6. Prescott (must be correcting spelling with capital ‘P’) 7. 41 8. Fountain (must be correcting spelling with capital ‘F’) 9. 752239 10. £65 PART B: PHONETICS: 0.5pts I. Choose the word whose underlined part pronounced differently from the others. 0.05/ correct item 1. B 2. B 3. B 4. D 5. C II. Choose the word whose has stress pattern is not the same as that of the others. 0.05/ correct item 1. A 2. B 3. D 4. A 5. A PART C: LEXICO – GRAMMAR: 3 pts I. Choose the best answer to complete each of the following sentences. 1.5 pts (0.1pt/ correct item) 1. B 2. A 3. C 4. B 5. D 6. B 7. B 8. C 9. B 10. A 11. C 12. A 13. D 14. A 15. A II. Complete the following sentences with the correct form of the words in brackets.
1 pt (0.1pt/ correct item) 1. unexpectedly 6. electricity 2. threatened 7. industrious 3. incredibly 8. deaden 4. responsibility 9. disorganised 5. terrorists 10. Originally III. Put the verb in brackets in appropriate tense or form 0.25pts (0.05pt/ correct item) 1. being awarded 2. to inform 3. had listen – wouldn’t be 5. is IV. Fill in one suitable preposition to complete the following sentences 0.25 pts (0.05pt/ correct item) 1. by 2. in 3. with 4. During 5. At PART D: READING: 2.5 pts
I. Fill each of the numbered blanks in the following passage. 1 pt (0.1pt/ correct item) 1. raise / collect 6. the 2. for 7. blind 3. in 8. at 4. her 9. yourself 5. is 10. more/ of II. Read the text and choose the correct word for each space. 1 pt (0.1pt/ correct item) 1. C 2. A 3. C 4. A 5. D 6. D 7. C 8. A 9. A 10. A III. Read the following text then choose from the list A-F the best sentence to fill each of the spaces. 0.5 pts (0.1pt/ correct item)
1. F
2. E
3. D
4. A
5. B
PART E: WRITING: 2 Pts I. Rewrite the following sentences using the given words so that they have the same meaning as the given sentences. 0.5 pts (0.1pt / correct item) 1. Jenny was the only student/ one who did not pass the exam 2. The doctor told her to cut down on the amount of sugar in her diet. 3. Each month he gets his hair cut at the local hairdresser’s. 4. He can’t have been forgotten about the meetings 5. I have no intention of changing my plans just to fit in with his. II. Write an essay of around 250 word on the following topic: 1.5 pts The scoring is based on the following scheme:
1. Content (50% (0.5pts): Adequately supported (main ideas and details) 2. Language: 30% (0.5pts): Varied lexical items and structures 3. Presentation: 20% (0.5pts): Style, cohesion, coherence
TAPESCRIPTS
TAPESCRIPT:
ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9 Môn: Tiếng Anh Năm học: 2015 – 2016 Thời gian: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Chú ý: - Bộ đề thi này gồm có 06 trang, từ trang 01 đến trang 06. - Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào bộ đề thi này. Điểm
Họ tên, chữ ký của người chấm thi số 1:
- Bằng số:…………….. ………………………………………...
Số phách (Do Chủ tịch hội đồng chấm thi ghi)
- Bằng chữ:…………… Họ tên, chữ ký của người chấm thi số 2: ………………………... ………………………………………... PART ONE: LISTENING (3.0 pts) Listen to the tape and fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word: (0.2 × 15=3.0pts) DIFERENCES Are you tall or short? Are you big or small? People come in many different (1)……………………… and sizes. (2)……………………… people wear size small (3)………………………, other people wear size (4)……………………… clothes. There are people who wear large size clothes, some people (5)……………………… wear extra large clothes. Some people are (6)………………………, some people are fat, some people are in (7)………………………. There are people (8)……………………… short hair, other people have long hair, some people have no hair at all. No two people are exactly (9)………………………. Some people have long legs - I have short legs. I don't walk as fast as a (10)……………………… with long (11)………………………, I am not a tall person. In fact, I am quite short. My feet are a size (12)………………………, my mother has size five (13)………………………, my father has size twelve feet. We are all (14)……………………… sizes but is not a bad thing. It is a good thing that we are all (15)………………………. PART TWO: PHONETICS (2.0 pts) I. Choose the word whose underlined part pronounced differently from that of the others by circling A, B, C or D (0,2 x 5 = 1.0 pt) 1. A. nature B. natural C. volcano D. waste 2. A. conserve B. preserve C. reserve D. exhaust 3. A. honour B. hero C. held D. happy 4. A. champion B. character C. match D. cheerful 1
5. A. spread
B. disease
C. health
D. pleasure
II. Choose the word in each group which has the main stress on a different syllable from the others (0,2 x 5 = 1.0 pt) 1/ 2/ 3/ 4/ 5/
A. accident A. despite A. chemistry A. injury A. spontaneous
B. indicator B. dislike B. physics B. intend B. secondary
C. magnificent C. despair C. geography C. income C. honesty
D. longitude D. distance D. literature D. interest D. monarchy
PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (6.5 pts) I. Circle best option A, B, C or D to complete the following sentences. (0.1 x 15 = 1,5 pts) 1. His parents died when he was very young so he was ………….…………..by an aunt. A. grown up B. taken care C. taken after D. brought up 2. It was very………….…………..of you to lend us your car for the whole week. A. generous B. ambitious C. modest D. thoughtless 3. I’m going to take a couple of days………….…..…..next month to help my sister move house. A. over
B. off
C. out
D. up
4. I’m surprising the performance went so well after only three………….………….. A. auditions
B. applauses
C. rehearsals
D. directions
5. If he ………….…………..more slowly, he would have been able to stop. A. had been driving B. has driven C. drove D. didn’t drive 6. ………….…………..I’m eating less than usual, I still seem to be gaining weight. A. Because
B. If
C. Unless
D. Although
7. Susan………….…………..as a nurse for three years before her marriage. A. worked B. is working C. has worked D. has been working 8. The police questioned me at some length and I didn’t enjoy………….………….. A. to question
B. questioning
C. being questioned
D. to be questioned
9. You need to talk to a person……………………..you can trust. You will feel better if you do. A. whose
B. which
C. whom
D. Ø
10. We shall have to………….…………..the meeting until next weekend, I’m afraid. A. reorganize B. forward C. replace D. postpone 11. The air is not as pure as it …………………… A. used to be B. is used to be C. is used to being D. was used to be 12. The politician ……………………to admit that he had done anything wrong. A. accepted B. denied C. explained D. refused 2
13. I wanted some tea but there was……………………left in the pot. A. none B. nothing C. any D. no 14. Why don’t you buy bananas when they are much……………………apples? A. expensive than B. not expensive than C. less expensive than D. lesser expensive than 15. He has arrived, but he talks as if he……………………all about that. A. know B. knows C. known D. knew II. Fill each gap of the following sentences with a suitable preposition. (0.1 x 10 = 1.0 pt) 1. My younger brhother’s birthday is ………………….. January 24. 2. My closed friend, Linh, rented a house next door ………………….. mine. 3. Last night I spoke to my parents ………………….. my hobby. 4. Lan’s school is preparing ………………….. the coming May Day. 5. The teacher has divided their class ………………….. four small groups. 6. Environmentalists are concerned ………………….. the use of dynamite to catch fish. 7. Every body was surprised ………………….. the news 8. These pictures remind me ………………….. my childhood. 9. That old man doesn’t take much exercise apart ………………….. walking. 10. Some designers have modernized the Ao dai ………………….. printing lines of poetry on it. III. Use the words given in brackets to form a word that fits in the space. (0.2x10 = 2.0 pts) 1. We remain close friends, despite having had many………….………….. (ARGUE) 2. This is a lovely place all year round because of the great ………….………….. of flowers and trees which grow in the city center. (VARY) 3. The accident was tragic because of its suddenness causing the………….………….. of many passengers who would otherwise have been saved. (DEAD) 4. Contrary to popular………….………….. Walt Disney’s first theme park was not Disneyland. It was a garden in Bel Air, California. (BELIEVE) 5. The weather made their progress imppossible. As it had been raining ………….………….. all night, they had to be very careful as they walked through the thick jungle. (HEAVY) 6. Most ………….………….. who visit Britain are surprised to find that its inhabitants are more informal than they had imagined. (FOREIGN) 7. Gold has several qualities that have made it a commodity of ………….………….. value throughout history. (EXCEPTION) 8. All the pupils must have their parents’………….………….. to go for the picnic. (PERMIT) 9. Tim is one of the ………….………….. on a boat trip on Lake Michigan. (PARTICIPATE) 10. I received a letter of………….………….. from the airport. (CONFIRM) IV. Complete the following sentences with the correct form of the phrasal verbs given in the brackets. (0.2 x 10 = 2.0 pts) 3
1. When the liner (1. hit) ………….…………..the ice berg, most of the passengers (2. have) ………….…………..dinner. 2. The identity of Jack the Ripper, a murder responsible for a number of horrendous killings in the nineteenth century, never (3. establish) ………….………….. 3. Foreign currency can (4. convert) ………….…………..into sterling at a number of points in the city, but the best rate and lowest commission charges (5. provide) ………….………….. at banks. 4. My brother spent hours (6. repair) ………….………….. his motorbike yesterday. 5. Don’t forget to bring my dictionary when you (7. come………….…………..) back tomorrow. 6. We can’t find our motorbike. You (8. see) ………….………….. it? 7. The ao dai (9. mention) ………….………….. in poems and songs for centuries, and nowadays they are worn by many Vietnamese women at work. 8. Would you mind (10. show) ………….………….. me how to send an e-mail? PART FOUR: READING (4.0 pts) I. Circle best option A, B, C or D to complete the following passage. (0.1 x 10 = 1.0 pt) Today, in China, (1)………….…………..large scale destruction of forests has occurred, the government has required that every citizen (2)………….…………..the age of 11 and 60 plant three to five trees (3)………….…………..year or do the equivalent amount of work in other forest (4)………….………….. The government claims that at (5)………….…………..1000 million trees have been planted in China every year (6)………….…………..1982. In western countries, increasing consumer demand for wood products that have been produced cause forest landowners and forest industries to become (7)………….…………..accoutable for their forest management and timber harvesting practices. The Arbor Day Foundation’s Rain Forest Rescue program is a charity that helps to (8)………….…………..deforestation. The charity uses money to buy up (9)………….…………..preserve rainforest land before the lumber companies can buy it. The Arbor Day Foundation then (10)………….…………..the land from deferestation. 1. A. whom B. which C. that D. where 2. A. on B. between C. of D. in 3.
A. the
B. for
C. per
D. many
4.
A. services
B. destructions
C. extinction
D. damage
5.
A. least
B. the least
C. last
D. the last
6. 7.
A. in A. increase
B. since B. increasing
C. for C. increasingly
D. ago D. increased
8.
A. pollute
B. motivate
C. encourage
D. prevent
9.
A. and
B. nor
C. or
D. but
10.
A. protects
B. supplies
C. provides
D. destroy
4
II. Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word to complete the passage. (0.2 x 10 = 2.0 pts) People are destroying the Earth. The seas and rivers are too dirty (1)………….……..…. swim in. There is (2)………….……..…. much smoke in the air that it is unhealthy to (3)………….……..…. in many of the world’s cities. On one well known city, for examples, poisonous gases from cars (4)………….……..…. the air so much that policemen have to wear oxygen masks. We (5)…………….…..…. cut down so many trees that there are now vast areas of wasteland all over the world. As a (6)………….……..…., so many farmers in parts of Africa can not (7)………….……..…. enough to eat. In some countries in Asia (8)………….……..…., is so little rice. Moreover, we do not take enough care of the countryside wild animals are quickly (9)………….……..….. For instance, tigers are rare in India now because we have killed too many for them to survive. However, it isn’t so simple to talk about the (10)………….…..….. We must act now before it is too late to do anything about it. Join us now! III. Circle best option A, B, C or D to answer following questions: (0.2 x 5 = 1.0 pt) Dear Grandma and Grandpa, Thank you both for the wonderful wedding present. Both Jill and I have always wanted to go to France and visit the many museums. We were so shocked when we first saw the airplane tickets that we almost fainted! It was more than we could have hoped to receive airplane tickets to France as a wedding present! Paris is wonderful! The only trouble is trying to decide where to go. I want to go to the museums, but Jill wants to see more of the beautiful traditional churches. In the end, we decided to see the churches in the morning (when the weather is cool), and the museums in the afternoon (because they’re air-conditioned). This allows us to get the most sight-seeing done during our two-week stay. There are many coffee shops, too. Jill likes sitting outsite and watching people, but I like sitting inside where I can enjoy the smell of the coffee. French coffees are so much more aromantic and stronger than the coffee we are used to back home. Thanks again for the lovely trip! We sent you a postcard, but I think we will arrive back home before you get it. It is a picture of the Eiffel Tower. Love, Freddy and Jill 1. What did Freddy’s grandparents give him and Jill for a wedding present? A. Tickets to a museum B. A cake C. Some coffee D. A trip to France 2. Based on this letter, which of the following could be inferred? A. Freddy and Jill hate to travel. B. Freddy is an indoor person, and Jill is an outdoor person. C. Freddy is an outdoor person, and Jill is an indoor person. D. Both Freddy and Jill are indoor people. 3. Why did they decided to visit the museum in the afternoon? A. The art is better in the afternoon. B. They could get a discounted price in the afternoon. C. The museums are closed in the mornings. D. The weather is hot and the museums have air conditioning. 5
4. How long was their trip? A. The reading does not say B. One week C. Two weeks D. One month 5. Freddy likes sitting inside the coffee shops…………………………. A. because he enjoys the smell of French coffee. B. because it often rains outside. C. because it’s too cold to sit outside. D. because he likes to enjoy the music PART FIVE: WRITING (4.5) I. Finish the second sentence in such a way that is similar to the original one. (0.2x5=1.0pt) 1. I can not go on a picnic with you because I’m not free today. -> If I ……………... ………………………………………………………………………. 2. They said that he was the best student in his group. -> He.……………... ………………………………………………………………………. 3. Mr. Maile was sorry he hadn’t said goodbye to his wife at the airport. -> Mr. Maile regretted .……………………………………………………………………. 4. Weather conditions influence most people’s lives. -> Most people’s lives …….…………... ………………………………………………….. 5. Lan was always ontime until she started going out with Nam. -> Lan never used .....………………………………………………………………………. II. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one, using the word given in brackets. Do not change the words in any way. (0.2 x 5 =1.0 pt) 1. He left the letter on the table. He wanted me to be sure seeing it when I came in.(so that) -> ………………... ………………………………………………………………………. 2. The book consists of four parts. One of them has been translated into English. (which). -> ………………... ………………………………………………………………………. 3. “You shouldn’t get up until you feel better”, the doctor said (advised) -> ………………... ………………………………………………………………………. 4. John hasn’t been back to his native village for nearly thirty years now. (since) -> ………………... ………………………………………………………………………. 5. Williamson, the policeman, lived next door. (whose) -> The policeman…………………………………….………………….……next door. III. In about 200 words write about your mother - the one you love most of all: (2.5 pts) …..……...……………………………………………………………….………………………... …..……...……………………………………………………………….………………………... …..……...……………………………………………………………….………………………... …..……...……………………………………………………………….………………………... …..……...……………………………………………………………….………………………... …..……...……………………………………………………………….………………………... …..……...……………………………………………………………….………………………... …..……...……………………………………………………………….………………………... …..……...……………………………………………………………….………………………... …..……...……………………………………………………………….………………………... 6
…..……...……………………………………………………………….………………………... …..……...……………………………………………………………….………………………... …..……...……………………………………………………………….………………………... …..……...……………………………………………………………….………………………... …..……...……………………………………………………………….………………………... …..……...……………………………………………………………….………………………... …..……...……………………………………………………………….………………………...
HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9 Môn: Tiếng Anh - Năm học: 2015 – 2016 PART ONE: LISTENING (3.0 pts) Listen to the tape and fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word: (0.2 × 15=3.0pts) 1. shapes 2. Some 3. clothes 4. medium 5. even 6. thin 7. between 8. with 9. alike 10. person 11. legs 12. seven 13. feet 14. different 15. unique PART TWO: PHONETICS (2.0 pts) I. Choose the word in each group which has the underlined part pronounced differently from that of the others (0,2 x 5 = 1.0 pt) 1. B. natural 2. A. conserve 3. A. honour 4. B. character 5. B. disease II. Choose the word in each group which has the main stress on a different syllable from the others (0.2 × 5=1.0 pt): 1/ 2/ 3/ 4/ 5/ C. magnificent D. distance C. geography B. intend A. spontaneous PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (6.5 pts) I. Circle best option A, B, C or D to complete the following sentences. (0.1 × 15 = 1.5 pts) (15 × 0.1 = 1.5 pts) 1-D 2-A 3-C 4-D 5-A 11 - A 12 - D 13 - B 14 - C 15 - D II. Fill each gap of the following sentences with a suitable preposition. (0.1 x 10 = 1.0 pt) 1. on 2. to 3. about 4. for 5. into 6. about 7. at / by 8. of 9. from 10. by III. Use the words given in brackets to form a word that fits in the space. (0.2x10 = 2.0 pts) 1. arguments 2. variety 3. dealth 4. belief 5. heavily 7
6. foreigners
7. exceptional
8. permission
9. participants 10. confirmation
IV. Complete the following sentences with the correct form of the phrasal verbs given in the brackets. (0.2 x 10 = 2.0 pts) 1. 1. hit 2. were having 3. has never been 4. be converted 5. are provided established 6. repairing 7. come 8. Have…seen 9. has been mentioned 10. showing PART FOUR: READING (4.0 pts) I. Circle best option A, B, C or D to complete the following passage. (0.1 x 10 = 1.0 pt) 1. D. where 6. B. since
2. B. between 3. C. per 7. C. increasingly 8. D. prevent
4. A. services 9. A. and
5. A. least 10. A. protects
II. Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word to complete the passage. (0.2 x 10 = 2.0 pts) 1. to 2. so 3. live 4. pollute 5. have 6. result 7. grow 8. there 9. disappearing 10. problem III. Circle best option A, B, C or D to answer following questions: (0.2 x 5 = 1.0 pt) 1. D. A trip to France 2. B. Freddy is an indoor person, and Jill is an outdoor person. 3. D. The weather is hot and the museums have air conditioning. 4. C. Two weeks 5. A. because he enjoys the smell of French coffee. PART FIVE: WRITING (4.5) I. Finish the second sentence in such a way that is similar to the original one. (0.2 x 5 =1.0 pt) 1. If I were free today, I could go on a picnic with you. 2. He was said to be the best student in his group. 3. Mr. Maile regretted not having said goodbye to his wife at the airport. 4. Most people’s lives are influenced by weather conditions. 5. Lan never used to be late until she started going out with Nam. 6. You can’t have locked the door. Here’s the key. II. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one, using the word given in brackets. Do not change the words in any way. (0.2 x 5 =1.0 pt) 1. He left the letter on the table so that I was sure seeing it when I came in. 2. The book consists of four parts, one of which has been translated into English. 3. The doctor advised me not to get up until I felt better. 4. It is nearly thirty years since John last went back to his native village. 5. The policeman whose name was Williamson, lived next door. 8
III. In about 200 words write about your mother - the one you love most of all: (2.5 pts) The essay must have at least three ideas below. 1. Her appearance, age… 2. Her personality, job(s)… 3. The reasons why you love or admire her. Notes: Don’t use proper names, address(s) or office’s name of the people you are describing.
9
SỞ GD&ĐT VĨNH PHÚC ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
KÌ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9 NĂM HỌC 2015 – 2016 ĐỀ THI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề (Đề thi gồm: 06 trang)
PART 1: LISTENING
Section 1: You will listen to a telephone conversation between a man named Carl and his friend Bella. Listen and choose the correct option to complete the statements from 1 to 5. You will hear the recording TWICE 1. When she first moved to Canada, Bella had_________. A. a great time B. an OK time C. a hard time 2. At first, Bella found it difficult to understand Canadians because_________. A. they use some different words B. they pronounce words differently C. they pronounce words differently and use different words 3. Bella thinks she is_________. C. clever A. shy B. confident 4. Bella joined a mountaineering group because_________. A. she loves climbing B. she wanted to make friends 5. Bella went C. she wanted to see Canada climbing in the Rocky Mountains_________. C. last year A. last week B. last month
Section 2: You will hear five people talking about friendship. For questions from 1-5, choose from the list (A-H) what each speaker says is the most important to them in a friendship. Use each letter only once. There are three extra letters which you do not need to use. You will hear the recording TWICE A. frequent contact B. mutual trust C. shared interest D. good manners E. emotional support F. similar personalities G. a sense of humor H. some experience of school
1. Speaker 1: ________ 2. Speaker 2:_________ 3. Speaker 3:_________ 4. Speaker 4:_________ 5. Speaker 5:_________
Section 3: Listen to a talk about citizen journalism. Complete the notes below with one word in each gap. You will hear the recording TWICE Citizen journalism = ordinary people involved in collecting, (1.) ________, reporting and disseminating news and (2.) ________. (3.) _______ people are using modern technology to create media. For instance, taking a photo and putting it (4.) _________ in seconds. (5.) _______ journalism is not being pushed aside. People still want news from (6.) _________ sources. Professional news (7.) ________ collect public (8.) _________ which are often a valuable and insightful (9.) _________ to standard news coverage. Page1|9
Most examples of citizen journalism are read on a professional news website, already (10.) _________, proofread and checked by professional journalists. PART 2: LEXICO-GRAMMAR
Section 1: Choose the correct option (A, B, C or D) to complete each of the following sentences 1. She went in search of a new agent, without _______ help she would never have made it. B. whose C. that D. which A. whom 2. _______ returned home that I realised just how much I missed seeing my brother. A. It wasn’t until I B. It was only by C. The reason why I D. It’s only by Mary: “________” 3. Tom: “Sorry, I forgot to phone you last night.” A. Never say never! B. Never mind! C. Oops I did it! D. You’re welcome! 4. All successful applicants are required _______ a week-long training programme before commencing their new role. A. to attend B. attending C. to be attending D. attend 5. Come on! We must hurry. We have ________time! A. a few B. a little C. little D. few 6. We must carry _______ a thorough investigation into the causes of the riot. D. up A. on B. out C. off 7. Jane: “Do you still play golf every weekend?” Jack: “No, I’m far too busy these days. I can only play _______.” A. from time to when B. from when to time C. now and then D. then and now 8. His name is Archibald, but everyone calls him Archie _______. D. in short A. for short B. in brief C. for brief 9. Either player could have won the match. It was _______. A. stick or carrot B. touch and go C. odds and ends D. here or there 10. Please _______ in mind that our price includes unlimited technical assistance and a three-year guarantee. A. carry B. have C. bear D. get 11. Nobody wants to be the first to make a sacrifice, _______? B. does anybody C. do we D. do they A. does she or he 12. I had once met Penelope Cruz. She had _______ hair. A. long black beautiful B. black long beautiful C. beautiful black long D. beautiful long black 13. Jack: “Do you think my English is improving?” Jill: “Yes, it’s getting _______.” A. each time better B. always better C. better and better D. all the time better 14. Yvonne has gone away. She’ll be back _______ a week. A. inside of B. in C. by D. until 15. I would like to _______ your attention to paragraph 3.2 of the chairman’s report. A. attract B. drag C. pull D. call 16. I took two big books with me on holiday, Moby Dick and War and Peace, but I didn’t read _______. A. neither of them B. either of them C. either one or other D. neither one or other 17. What’s that bird holding in its _______? D. fins A. beak B. paw C. scales 18. They often give out free _______, which you can try before you buy the item. A. samples B. bargains C. brands D. examples 19. I’m afraid the price is too _______ and no one will want to buy the product. Page2|9
A. enormous B. tall 20. The man _______ to talk to wasn’t there. A. who wanted B. that wanted
C. big C. I wanted
D. high D. which I wanted
Section 2: Use the word given in capitals at the end of each line to form a word that fits in the space at the same line CASABLANCA Casablanca is most known as the title of a classic film from 1942 (1.) ______________ 1. STAR Humphrey Bogart and Ingrid Bergman. But what about the city where this romance was set? Casablanca (Spanish for white house), or Casa as it is known by those who live there, is the largest city in Morocco with a (2.) _______________ of approximately 5 2. POPULATE million and is the country’s (3.) _______________ capital. Rabat is the political capital. 3. ECONOMY Casablanca is situated in the west of Morocco on the Atlantic coast and boasts one of the world’s largest artificial ports, a port which was very (4.) _______________ during the 4. STRATEGY Second World War. At that time there was also a large American airbase (5.) ___________ 5. SITUATE in Casablanca and in 1943 it was in Casablanca that a significant conference took place where world (6.) _______________ met to discuss the progress of the war. 6. LEAD Casablanca was (7.) _______________ under the control of the French from 7. FORMAL 1910 until 1956 when Morocco gained (8.) _______________. French influence on 8. DEPEND the city is (9.) _______________ in the city layout and architecture. French is also the 9. EVIDENCE second language after Arabic. The city now has a growing (10.) _______________ industry, 10. TOUR although it is not as popular as other Moroccan cities like Marrakesh and Fez.
Section 3: The passage below contains five mistakes in five different lines. Write down the mistakes and the line numbers in which they appear and correct them Many religious and philosophy traditions have spoken of the benefits of living in the present moment but, until recently, there has not been much scientific evidences to support this advice. Now, a study by psychologists in the USA have shown that if we learn to live in the now we can be happier. Apparently, the problem is what we spend nearly half of our time thinking about something others than what we are doing.
Lines 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
PART 3: READING
Section 1: You are going to read a magazine article from which five sentences have been removed. Choose the most suitable sentences from the list A-G for each part (1-5) of the article. There are two extra sentences which you do not need to use. FIGHTING THE TREND 1. __________ Computer games range from the highly educational and creative, to games of skill, to ones with violentsounding titles such as World of Warcraft, artfully designed to lure teenagers and alarm parents. It always amazes me to hear the parents of a nine or ten-year-old saying “He’s up playing computer games”. And when you ask which games he likes, they do not know. Would these people, if asked who was babysitting, say “Oh, some guy from the park”? 2. __________ Page3|9
Walk past, discuss what the game is about while you get on with making dinner. Encourage sharing with other children. Any game using two controllers is better than a lonely one. Enforce screen breaks for the sake of the eyes and nerves. Give warning- let a level be finished-but enforce it. 3. __________ If you have a teenager who spends a lot of time online, you probably need software that records every site visited, and time spent; you may want one of the filter programmes that cut out dodgy sites. 4.__________ This, during teenage years, can be a problem but it is always worth persevering. If a parent or relative is around for long enough, slow to leap to judgement or hysteria, and willing to listen (leaning on the kitchen worktop while one of you has a late-night-pizza, in the car, wherever) then important issues will eventually come up. 5.__________ So is an alternative, sociable, physical pastime. We all know that a healthy, small child gets more fun out of a sociable kitchen than out of a toy, and relishes a rough-and-tumble game with dad more than a television programme. We need to extend that common sense into older ages, too. SENTENCES
A. Probably the best guarantee against damage or confusion is the normal communication you have with your child. B. Enforce screen breaks for the sake of the eyes and nerves. C. When children get to the age for games consoles, try to know what they are playing. D. Indeed, personal happiness and reasonable self-esteem are the best weapons against any kind of computer brain invasion. E. As a parent, ensure that your children only use the computer for educational purposes. F. As with television, keep the computer gaming area in one of the shared parts of the house. G. It’s self-evident that parental responsibility has to be applied to the Internet, just as it must be for every other kind of encounter.
Section 2: Read the text below and decide which word (A, B, C or D) best fits each space MUSIC ON YOUR MIND You know the feeling-you’re listening to music and suddenly your whole (1.) __________ changes from sad to happy. This mind-altering power of music is amazing, and Internet music sites are using sophisticated ways of (2.)__________us in touch with new artists. They search our downloaded sites or online listening habits (3.) __________patterns, and the results are often surprising-would you believe that AC/DC fans may well enjoy Beethoven? Musicians have been (4.) __________unforgettable music for centuries, using accepted ideas about the emotional appeal of certain combinations of musical sounds. It’s (5.) __________knowledge that major chords sound upbeat (6.) __________minor chords sound mournful-in tests, even children as young as three connect music in major keys to happy faces. Scientists investigating the subject have been (7.) __________various experiments such as scanning the brains of people while they listen to music. One thing they (8.) __________across is that music triggers activity in the motor region of the brain, which could explain why we often need to (9.)__________our feet to music. The (10.) __________for medicine and business are exciting. 1. A. mood B. atmosphere C. temper D. idea 2. A. placing B. putting C. making D. doing 3. A. looking out B. looking for C. looking up D. looking after 4. A. constructing B. forming C. inventing D. composing 5. A. great C. common D. wide B. usual Page4|9
6. A. while 7. A. taking 8. A. came 9. A. tap 10. A. likelihood
B. during B. making B. went B. bang B. possibilities
C. since C. doing C. brought C. hit C. probabilities
D. so D. having D. took D. strike D. chance
Section 3: Read the following extract and choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which best answers/completes the questions As many as one thousand years ago in the Southwest, the Hopi and Zuni Indians of North America were building with adobe – sunbaked brick plastered with mud. Their homes looked remarkably like modern apartment houses. Some were four stories high and contained quarters for perhaps a thousand people, along with storerooms for grain and other goods. These buildings were usually put up against cliffs, both to make construction easier and for defense against enemies. They were really villages in themselves, as later Spanish explorers must have realized since they called them “pueblos”, which is Spanish for towns. The people of the pueblos raised what are called “the three sisters”- corn, beans, and squash. They made excellent pottery and wove marvelous baskets, some so fine that they could hold water. The Southwest has always been a dry country, where water is scarce. The Hopi and Zuni brought water from streams to their fields and gardens through irrigation ditches. Water was so important that it played a major role in their religion. They developed elaborate ceremonies and religious rituals to bring rain. The way of life of less–settled groups was simpler and more strongly influenced by nature. Small tribes such as the Shoshone and Ute wandered the dry and mountainous lands between the Rocky Mountains and the Pacific Ocean. They gathered seeds and hunted small animals such as rabbits and snakes. In the Far North the ancestors of today’s Inuit hunted seals, walruses, and the great whales. They lived right on the frozen seas in shelters called igloos built of blocks of packed snow. When summer came, they fished for salmon and hunted the lordly caribou. The Cheyenne, Pawnee and Sioux tribes, known as the Plains Indians, lived on the grasslands between the Rocky Mountains and the Mississippi River. They hunted bison, commonly called the buffalo. Its meat was the chief food of these tribes, and its hide was used to make their clothing and the covering of their tents and tips. 1. What does the passage mainly discuss? A. The architecture of early America Indian buildings B. The movement of American Indians across North America C. Ceremonies and rituals of American Indians D. The way of life of American Indian tribes in early North America 2. According to the passage, the Hopi and Zuni typically built their homes _________. B. next to streams C. on open plains D. against cliffs A. in valleys 3. The word “They” refers to _________. A. Goods B. Buildings C. Cliffs D. Enemies 4. It can be inferred from the passage that the dwellings of the Hopi and Zuni were _________. A. very small B. highly advanced C. difficult to defend D. quickly constructed 5. The author uses the phrase “the three sisters” to refer to_________. A. Hopi women B. family members C. important crops D. rain ceremonies 6. Which of the following is true of the Shoshone and Ute? A. They were not as settled as the Hopi and Zuni. B. They hunted caribou. C. They built their homes with adobe. D. They did not have many religious ceremonies. Page5|9
7. According to the passage, which of the following tribes lived in the grasslands? A. The Shoshone and Ute B. The Cheyenne C. The Hopi and Zuni D. The Pawnee and Inuit 8. Which of the following animals was the most important to the Plains Indians? A. The salmon B. The caribou C. The seal D. The buffalo 9. The author gives an explanation for all of the following words EXCEPT_________. A. adobe B. pueblos C. caribou D. bison 10. The author groups North American Indians according to their _________. A. tribes and geographical regions B. arts and crafts C. rituals and ceremonies D. date of appearance on the continent
Section 4: Read the following extract and think of a word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word for each space I fell into my first job by chance. I’d graduated (1.) _________ a reasonable degree, but I was at a loss to know what to do next. I had no money, but (2.) _________ this, I had unrealistic dreams of being able to travel the world. In the end what happened was a happy coincidence. An uncle of (3.) _________ had set up a language school in the Caribbean, and needed someone to help him run the office. I jumped at the chance, although at the time I had no idea that it would turn (4.) __________to be a real challenge. There were so many problems to deal with that I couldn’t cope, and there were times when I felt overwhelmed. The advantages included good money and fantastic weather, but finally the pressure became too great so I had to quit. However, working in a school helped me to realize (5.) __________ was what I really wanted to do, and now I am a teacher.
PART 4: WRITING
Section 1: Complete each of the sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the one printed before it 1. Uncle Timber fell down the stairs a few years ago and hasn’t felt right since. Ever since___________________________________________________________. 2. It is not my fault that the glass broke. You can’t blame me_________________________________________________. 3. Immediately after his arrival, things went wrong. No sooner___________________________________________________________. 4. People say that the exam this year is much easier than it was last year. The exam this year_________________________________________________. 5. She’s always had a good relationship with her neighbours. She’s always been on_______________________________________________.
Section 2: Write an essay of around 250 words on the following topic Fashion designers in Vietnam have recently made various attempts to modernize the traditional ao dai. Its original shape has been constantly altered and new patterns such as suns, stars and stripes have been added. Some are positive about those changes, claiming that they have made the ao dai more fashionable. Others, however, consider the alterations made to this unique dress a blatant disregard of tradition. What is your opinion? Give reasons for your answer and include relevant examples from your own knowledge and experience. END OF THE TEST Page6|9
SỞ GD&ĐT VĨNH PHÚC --------------------------
KÌ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9 NĂM HỌC 2015-2016 HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
(Hướng dẫn chấm có 02 trang)
PART 1. LISTENING (2 POINTS) Section 1: You will listen to a telephone conversation between Carl and Bella. Listen and choose the correct option to complete the statements from 1 to 5. You will hear the recording TWICE (0.5 pt; 0.1pt/item) 1. C 2. C 3. A 4. B 5. A Section 2: You will hear five people talking about friendship. For questions from 1-5, choose from the list (A-H) what each speaker says is the most important to them in a friendship. Use each letter only once. There are three extra letters which you do not need to use. You will hear the recording TWICE. (0.5 pt; 0.1 pt/item) 1. C
2. G
3. E
4. A
5. F
Section 3: Listen to a talk about citizen journalism. Complete the notes below with one word in each gap. You will hear the recording TWICE (1 pt; 0.1 pt/item) 1. 3. 5. 7. 9.
analyzing/ analysing Ordinary Serious providers complement
2. information 4. online 6. trusted 8. contributions 10. edited
PART 2. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (2.5 POINTS)
Section 1: Choose the correct option (A, B, C or D) to complete each of the following sentences (1 pt; 0.05 pt/item) 1. B 2. A 3. B 4. A 5. C 6. B 7. C 8. A 9. B 10. C 11. D
12. D
13. C
14. B
15. D
16. B
17. A
18. A
19. D
20. C
Section 2: Use the word given in capitals at the end of each line to form a word that fits in the space at the same line. (1 pt; 0.1 pt/item) 1. STARRING
2. POPULATION
3. ECONOMIC
4. STRATEGIC
5. SITUATED Page7|9
6. LEADERS
7. FORMALLY
8. INDEPENDENCE
9. EVIDENT
10. TOURIST
Section 3: The passage below contains five mistakes in five different lines. Identify and correct them (0.5 pt; 0.1/ item identified AND corrected) Lines Mistakes Corrections 1 philosophy philosophical 2 evidences evidence 3 have has 4 what that 5 others other PART 3: READING (3 POINTS) Section 1: You are going to read a magazine article from which five sentences have been removed. Choose the most suitable sentences from the list A-G for each part (1-5) of the article. There are two extra sentences which you do not need to use. (0.5 pt; 0.1 pt/item) 1. C 2. F 3. G 4. A 5. D Section 2: Read the text below and decide which word (A, B, C or D) best fits each space (1 pt; 0.1 pt/item) 1. A. mood
2. B. putting
3. B. looking for
4. D. composing
5. C. common
6. A. while
7. C. doing
8. A. came
9. A. tap
10. B. possibilities
Section 3: Read the following extract and choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which best answers/completes the questions (1 pt; 0.1 pt/item) 1. D 2. D 3. B 4. B 5. C 6. A 7. B 8. D 9. C 10. A Section 4: Read the following extract and think of a word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word for each space (0.5 pt; 0.1 pt/item) 1. with
2. despite
3. mine
4. out
5. that/this
PART 4: WRITING (2.5 POINTS)
Section 1: Rewrite each of the following sentences so that it has a similar meaning to the original one. (0.5 pt; 0.1 pt/item) 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
Ever since uncle Timber fell down the stairs a few years ago, he hasn’t felt right. You can’t blame me for having broken the glass/ breaking the glass. No sooner had he arrived than things went wrong. The exam this year is said to be much easier than it was last year. She’s always been on good terms with her neighbours.
Section 2: Essay writing (2 pts) Page8|9
Candidates’ essays are evaluated based on the following criteria:
Content: 40 %: Arguments are adequately supported (with main ideas, supporting ideas and relevant examples etc.). Language: 30 %: Demonstrate a diverse range of lexical items and grammatical structures. Presentation: 30%: Write with suitable style, cohesion, coherence. Appropriate word count.
* Note for Part 3, Section 4 and Part 4, Section 1:
The marking scheme above serves as a set of guidelines for the examiners. Due to the unpredictable nature of the candidates’ answers, there might exist other acceptable alternatives to those suggested in the guidelines. During the marking of the candidates’ papers, should any potentially correct answers arise, examiners are advised to discuss thoroughly and agree on the validity of those answers.
---------------THE END----------------
Page9|9
ĐỀ THI CHỌN HSG LỚP 9 CẤP HUYỆN
UBND HUYỆN YÊN LẠC PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC
NĂM HỌC 2015 -2016 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
( Thời gian làm bài 150 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề )
( Đề thi gồm có 5 trang. Học sinh làm bài trên tờ giấy thi ) LISTEN. Part 1: ( questions 1 -5 ) You will listen only once You will hear a dialogue between a receptionist and a customer talking on the phone. Listen and fill in the missing information with one or MORE THAN TWO WORDS • Customer’s name:
Mr. Collins
• When to book :
( 1)……………………………………..
• Type of room :
( 2)……………………………………...
• Room number :
405
• Floor :
(3) …………………………………….
• Day to come :
(4) …………………………………….
• Day to leave :
Friday
• Requirement:
( 5)……………………………………….
Part 2: You will listen twice You are going to hear a travel agent discussing a holiday booking with two customers. Listen to the conversation and answer the questions 6 to 10. 6. Which month would the customers like to book the holiday for? …………………. 7. Do they know exactly where they want to go for their holiday? …………………. 8. When will both customers be free to travel? A. The first week of July B. The whole month except for the last five day C. From the first to the twenty – third of July D. From the seventh to the twenty – third of July 9. Which country did the two customers visit last year? A. Italy
B. Sweden
C. France 1
D. Portugal
10. How long do the customers want for their holiday? A. a week
B. ten days
C. two weeks
D. four weeks
PHONETICS I/ Choose and write in your answer sheet the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest of the group. 11.A. describe
B. excite
C. timber
D. dive
12. A. devotion
B. congestion
C. suggestion
D. question
II/ Choose and write in your answer sheet the word whose stress pattern is different from the rest of the group. 13. A. glorious
B. bargain
C. passenger
D. important
14. A. migrate
B. inhabit
C. character
D. diversity
15. A. advance
B. ancient
C. cancer
D. annual
LEXICAL AND GRAMMAR
I. Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. 16 After Joe’s mother died, he was…………….. up by his grandmother. A. brought
B. taken
C. grown
D. drawn
17. If you keep trying you might …………………. to do it. A. succeed
B. discover
C. understand
D. manage
18. My employer’s …………………. of my work does not matter to me at all. A. meaning
B. belief
C. opinion
D. expression
19. I don’t think that the red dress …………….. her. A. suits
B. matches
C. cheers
D. agrees
20. She’d prefer to go out …………….home. A. than to stay
B. than staying
C. rather than staying
D. rather than stay
21. They received …………….advice from their parents that they became successful. A. so good
B. such a good
C. so good an
D. such good
C. of you
D. of your
22. Have you got a car ……………. ? A. of your own
B. of yourself
23. There is a fault at our radio station. Please do not ……………. your radio set. A. change
B. adjust
C. repair
D. switch
24. If you want to attend the course, you must pass the ................... examination. 2
A. write
B. written
C. wrote
D. writing
25. Either Peter or his brother ……………. the keys to the car. A. has been taken
B. has taken
C. have taken
D. have been taken
26. We can tell you that we often have a friendly ……………. in our class. A. atmosphere
B. air
C. matter
D. impression
27. These clothes are fashionable and …………….. Do you agree with me? A. only
B. merely
C. unique
D. uniquely
28. He ……………. to have a very big fortune and a beautiful wife. A. rumors
B. rumored
C. has rumored
D. was rumored
29. Did you use to do a …………….when you were at the university? A. full-time job
B. part-time
C. full-time
D. part-time job
30. My house is just _……………. . I live in the nearby neighborhood. A. near here
B. near to
C. near by
D. near from
II. Read the passage below and find out 10 words or phrases that are not correct in Standard English and correct them Many Americans enjoys saving time. One way they’re found doing this is by shopping from home – by phone or e-mail. Home – shopping is a big business these days, and it’s getting biger. In most cities, you can watch TV channels that advertise 24 hours a day. The products they advertise can be order by calling a toll- free “800” telephone number and use a credit card. The products are then sent directly to the customer home. What could be easier ? Using mail- order catalogs makes to buy gifts from home easy. From apples to appliances, books to bathing suits, compact discs to camping equipment, there’s almost nothing that can’t be orders by mail. Last year more than five billions catalogs are mailed to Americans, and over forty billion dollar’s worth of products were bought from them. It’s expected that by the year 2020 more than one-three of all merchandise sold in the U.S. will be sold by mail. 31…..
32…
33…..
34…..
35…..
36…… 37…… 38…… 39…… 40……
III. Read the text below. Use the word given in capitals at the end of each line to form the word that fits in the space in the same line. Number 0 is an example. 3
SNOW WHITE AND SEVEN DWARFS
Public ( 0 ) …reaction….to the Disney film Snow White and Seven Dwarfs
Ex 0. REACT
when it was first showed in 1937 was (41 )……………… . It was received
41. ORDINARY
with great
42. EXCITE
(42 ) ……………… and immediately became enormously
popular (43) ……………… the world . Good advertising was not the only
43. THROUGH
reason for this (44) ……………… popularity; the film and its characters
44. WORLD
captured the
45. IMAGINE
(45) ……………… of people all over the world like no
film before it. In Britain, there was (46) ……………… newspaper articles about the
46. DAY
film and how it was made. Snow White toys and books were on (47)
47. SELL
…………… everywhere. Some people thought that it might be (48)
48. UPSET
……………… for children but most people saw it as (49) ………………
49. HARM
Entertainment.
50. ENJOY
Since 1937, it has been re-issued every few years, giving (50)………….. to many generations of children. READING I. Supply the most suitable word for each blank.
We have seen photographs of the whole earth taken from great distances in outer space. This is the first time, the (51)………………..first time, in man’s long history that such pictures have been possible. (52) ……………..many years most people have believed that the earth was ball – shaped. A few thought it was round and (53)……………., like a coin. Now we know, beyond doubt, that those few were (54) …………….. . The photographs show a ball –shaped (55)……………., bright and beautiful. In color photographs of the earth, the sky is as (56)…………. as coal. The (57) …………… looks much bluer than it usual does to us. All our gray (58)…………….are perfect white in color; because, of course, the (59)……………..is forever shining on them. We are (60)………… to live on the beautiful earth II. Read the passage below then pick out ONE best option (A, B, C or D. to complete each of the following sentences: Britain is now a highly industrialized country and there are only 238,000 farms in the UK. More and more farmers leave the land because they can not earn enough money to survive. Only large farms are economic and because of this most British farm are big. They usually grow cereals in the east of England and raise sheep and cows in the north of England and Scotland. The small family farms often have to earn more money by offering bed and breakfast accommodation to tourists.
4
Farming methods in Britain have also changed. Fields used to be quite small, divided by hedges which were sometimes a thousand years old and full of wild flowers and birds. Many hedges were pulled up to allow farmers to use modern machinery. Now most fields in England are large by European standards. 61. British farmers give up working on their farms because________ . A. they are tired of the farm work B. they can’t earn their own living by farming C. they want to continue to live D. they are forced to leave the land 62. Most British farms are big because_________ . A. there are plenty of abandoned land B. farming is now industrialized C. small farms are uneconomic D. most British farmers are rich 63.The small family farms often offer bed and breakfast accommodation to tourists ______. A. to show their friendship B. because they want to have more tourists to their farms C. in order to improve their earnings D. so that the tourists will return in their farm the next time 64. Fields on British farms were __________ . A. separated from each other by hedges B. full of wild flowers and birds C. a thousand years old D. all are correct 65. Which of the following sentences is not true? A. Industries are developed in Britain B. Breeding farms are usually in the north of England C. Many hedges are pulled down for farmers to expand their farms D. Most fields in England are now larger than they used to be WRITING I. Make meaningful sentences using these following cue words and phrases. Make all the changes and additions if necessary. 66. Three – quarters /surface / earth / cover / water. ………………………………………………………………………………………………… … 67. Rest / be / dry land / because / it / rise / above / water. ………………………………………………………………………………………………… … 68.Seas / lands / not be / always / their / present / positions. ………………………………………………………………………………………………… … 69. Some lands / be / once / under / sea / but now / be / above it. ………………………………………………………………………………………………… …
5
70. Movements / changes / earth / take place /continuous / but / slow. ………………………………………………………………………………………………… … II. Topic: Nowadays, many people say that the internet has provided students a better condition of their studying than ever. Do you agree or disagree with this idea? What is your opinion? Write an essay ( at least 180 words ) to give reasons to support your idea and include examples from your own knowledge or experience.
------The end-------
UBND HUYỆN YÊN LẠC PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
HDC ĐỀ THI CHỌN HSG LỚP 9 CẤP HUYỆN NĂM HỌC 2015-2016 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Điểm tổng bài 100 điểm quy về thang điểm 10 Listen: 20 điểm 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
Three days ago single fourth/ 4th Monday Wake him up at 7:10 in the morning
6. July 7. No 8. D. From the seventh to the twenty –
third of July 9. C. France 10. C. two weeks
Từ câu 15 đến câu 70 mỗi câu 1 điểm ( 60 điểm) PHONETICS I. Choose and write in your answer sheet the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest of the group 11. C. timber
22. A. devotion
II. Choose and write in your answer sheet the word whose stress pattern is different from the rest of the group. 13. D. important
14. C. character
15. A. advance
LEXICAL AND GRAMMAR I. Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence.
6
16. A. brought
24. B. written
17. D. manage
25. B. has taken
18. C. opinion
26. A. atmosphere
19. A . suits
27. C. unique
20. D. rather than stay
28. D. was rumored
21. D. such good
29. D. part-time job
22. A. of your own
30. A. near here
23. B. adjust
7
II. Read the passage below and find out 10 words or phrases that are not correct in Standard English and correct them Many Americans enjoys saving time. One way they’re found doing this is by shopping from home – by phone or e-mail. Home – shopping is a big business these days, and it’s getting biger. In most cities, you can watch TV channels that advertise 24 hours a day. The products they advertise can be order by calling a toll- free “800” telephone number and use a credit card. The products are then sent directly to the customer home. What could be easier? Using mail- order catalogs makes to buy gifts from home easy. From apples to appliances, books to bathing suits, compact discs to camping equipment, there’s almost nothing that can’t be orders by mail. Last year more than five billions catalogs are mailed to Americans, and over forty billion dollar’s worth of products were bought from them. It’s expected that by the year 2020 more than one-three of all merchandise sold in the U.S. will be sold by mail. 31. enjoys ẹnjoy
36. customer home customer’s home
32. found doing finding to do
37. makes to buy make buying
33. biger bigger
38. billions catalogs billion catalogs
34. can be order
39. are mailed were mailed
can be ordered
35. use using
40. one-three one – third
III. Read the text below. Use the word given in capitals at the end of each line to form the word that fits in the space in the same line. Number 0 is an example.
41. extraordinary
46. daily
42. excitement
47. sale
43. throughout
48. upsetting
44. worldwide
49. harmless
45. imagination
50. enjoyment
READING I. Supply the most suitable word for each blank 51. very
56.black
52. For
57.sea
53.flat
58.clouds
54.wrong / mistaken
59.sun
55.earth / planet
60.lucky/ fortunate 8
II. Read the passage below then pick out ONE best option (A, B, C or D. to complete each of
the following sentences:
61.C 62. C 63. C 64. D 65. B WRITING I. Make meaningful sentences using these following cue words and phrases. Make all the changes and additions if necessary.
66. Three – quarters of the surface of the earth is cover with water. 67. The rest is dry land because it rises above the water. 68. Seas and lands have not always been in their present positions. 69. Some lands were once under the sea, but now are above it. 70. Movements and changes on/ of the earth are taking place continuously but slowly. II: Viết đoạn văn - 20 điểm Marking scheme impression mark is based on the following scheme: 1. Content : a provision of all main ideas and details and be logical as appropriate 2. Language : a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language gifted secondary school students. 3. Presentation : coherence, cohesion, and style appropriate to the level of English language gifted secondary school students. 4.wrong spellings and errors on grammar are counted on to minus points but don’t take it too serious.
9
aif GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO PHÒNG HUYỆN THANH OAI ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9 NĂM HỌC: 2016 - 2017 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH (VÒNG 2) Thời gian: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
Chú ý: - Bộ đề thi này gồm có 09 trang, từ trang 01 đến trang 09. - Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào bộ đề thi này. Họ tên, chữ ký của người chấm thi số 1:
Điểm
- Bằng số:…………….. ………………………………………... - Bằng chữ:…………… Họ tên, chữ ký của người chấm thi số 2: ………………………... ………………………………………...
Số phách (Do Chủ tịch hội đồng chấm thi ghi) …………………..
PART ONE: LISTENING (3.0 pts) LISTEN AND FILL IN THE GAPS: (20 × 0.15 = 3.0 pt) The population density of the UK is about (1)……………….. inhabitants per square kilometre, which is well above the European Community average of (2)……………….. per square kilometre. England is the most densely populated member of EC with (3)……………….. people per square kilometre (with Greater London having a density according to the lastest fingures of (4)………………….. people per square kilometre) and Scotland the least densely populated with 56 people per square kilometre, while Wales and Northern Ireland have (5)……………….. and 112 people per square kilometre respectively. Now let’s to the figures for some of the Britain’s largest urban areas. Greater London, the first city in the list, has an area of 1,580 square kilometres. It also has a large population of (6)……………….. thousand in 1988. Birmingham in the English Midlands is (7)……………….. square kilometres in area with a population of (8)……………….. thousand. Leeds, the largest city in the north of England, is (9)……………….. square kilometres with a population of (10)……………….. thousand. The Industrial Scottish town of Glasgow, with an area of (11)……………….. square kilometres, has a surprisingly high populationof (12)……………….. thousand. Edinburgh, Scotland’s capital, with an area of (13)……………….. square kilometres, has a population of (14)…………………. thousand. Manchester is (15)……………….. square kilometres with a population of (16)……………….. thousand. Bristol on the southwest of England is (17)……………….. square kilometres with a population of (18)……………….. thousand. In the Midlands, Coventry is the smallest city in this list. It’s (19)……………….. square kilometres with a population of only (20)…………………. thousand. -> Your answers: 1..................................
2..................................
3..................................
4..................................
5..................................
6..................................
7..................................
8..................................
9..................................
10..................................
11..................................
12..................................
13..................................
14..................................
15.................................. 1
16..................................
17..................................
18..................................
19..................................
20..................................
PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts) I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently: (5 × 0.2=1.0 pt) 21. A. ocean B. special C. musician D. certify 22. A. informative B. journalism C. disadvantage D. disagree 23. A. complain B. conserve C. cover D. environment 24. A. technology B. different C. mental D. dentist 25. A. persuade B. prevent C. impressive D. secondary -> Your answers: 21..................................
22..................................
23..................................
24..................................
25..................................
II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others. (5 × 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 21. A. competitor B. partitipant C. volunteer D. announcer 22. A. professional B. international C. ambassador D. retirement 23. A.championship B. tournament C. commitee D. continent 24. A. disaster B. voyage C. luxury D. character 25. A. adventure B. detective C. disgusting D. violent -> Your answers: 21..................................
22..................................
23..................................
24..................................
25..................................
PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.0 pts) I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (15 × 0.1 = 1.5 pts) 26. If there were only one village on earth and it had exactly 100 people, who...................... of? A. will it consist B. would it consist C. was it consist D. does it consist 27. “I had a hard time taking notes on the lecture.” “I did, too. The professor speaks ..............................” A. exceeding fast B. exceedingly fastly C. exceedingly fast D. with exceedingly fastness 28. Hardly ..............................the captain of the team when he had to face problems. A. had he been appointed B. did he appoint C. was he being appointed D. was he appointing 29. As soon as you hear the alarm, you all have to leave the building .............................. A. on the verge B. under law C. at no time D. without delay 30. So funnily.............................. that all his friends laughed wildly. A. he had sung B. had he sung C. he sang D. did he sing 31. We got ............................. the plane at 10.30 and the plane took.............................on time. A. in/ off B. on/ up C. in/ out D. on/ off 32. I didn’t like the noise in the city at first. But now.............................. here. 2
A. I got used to living B. I’m used to living C. I used to live D. I used to living 33. It’s surprising the performance went so well after only three .............................. A. rehearsals B. auditions C. applauses D. directions 34. My brother found it difficult to learn write because he is .............................. A. left-handed B. right-handed C. single-handed D. two-handed 35. You’ll be .............................. your money if you buy that hat: you will never wear it. A. giving away B. wasting C. saving D. losing 36. You .............................. given that man our phone number. I didn’t trust him at all. A. must not have B. might not have C. should not have D. could not have 37. Scientists are working to find a cure for .............................. like AIDS. A. ills B. infirmities C. diseases D. complaints 38. She is hard-working and efficient. …............................., she has had several years’ experience of this kind of work. A. As well as B. Not only C. However D. Furthermore 39. Half way up the mountain there was a ..........................where climbers could stay over night A. hut B. tent C. caravan D. bungalow 40. Have you seen the exhibition at that new .............................. in the high street? A. stadium B. theatre C. cathedral D. gallery -> Your answers: 26..................................
27..................................
28..................................
29..................................
30..................................
31..................................
32..................................
33..................................
34..................................
35..................................
36..................................
37..................................
38..................................
39..................................
40..................................
II. Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences. (10 × 0.2 = 2.0 pts) PRECIOUS METAL Gold has several qualities that have made it a commodity of (0) EXCEPTION exceptional value throughout history. It is attractive in colour, durable to the point of virtual (41) ................................and usually found in nature in DESTROY a (42)................................. pure form. The history of gold is COMPARE (43)................................. by that of any other metal because of its value in EQUAL the minds of men from earliest times. Because it is visually pleasing it was one of the first metals to attract human (44)............................ Examples of elaborate gold workmanship, ATTEND many in nearly perfect condition, survise from ancient Egyptian, Minoan, Assyrian, and Etruscan artisans, and gold has continued to be a highly (45).............................material out of which jewellery and other FAVOUR (46)............................ objects are crafted. DECOR The era of gold production that followed the Spanish discovery of the 3
Americas in the 1490s was probably the greatest the world had witnessed to that time. The (47).............................of mines by slave labour and the EXPLOIT looting of Indian palaces, temples, and graves in Central and South America sesulted in a(n) (48) ..............................influx of gold that literally PRECEDENT unbalanced the (49) .............................. structure of Europe. Until today ECONOMY the world remains (50) ............................. by the allure of gold. CAPTIVE -> Your answers: 41) ..................................
42) ..................................
43) ..................................
44) .................................. 45) ..................................
46) ..................................
47) ..................................
48) ..................................
49) .................................. 50) ..................................
III. Fill in the missing preposition or adverb. (15 x 0.1 = 1.5 pt) turn away = refuse admittance to sb turn down = (1) reject an offer, (2) reduce heat etc… turn in = go to bed turn sb in = report to the authorities turn into = convert, change turn off = switch off turn on = swicth on turn out = (1) assemble as a crowd, (2) produce, (3) prove to be turn over = fall on one side turn sth over (in one’s mind) = think carefully about sth turn to = go to sb for help turn up = arrive 51. I’d better turn .........................early. I didn’t sleep well last night. 52. The woman turned the escaped prisoner .........................to the police. 53. They want to turn that basement room ......................... a play room. 54. Hundreds of people turned......................... to welcome the Royal Family back to London. 55. After being offered the post Simon turned it ......................... in his mind carefully before accepting. 56. When her business failed, she turned......................... her parents for financial help. 57. Although Mark said he’d be there at 8.00, he didn’t turn ......................... until 10.30. 58. Could you turn......................... the light? I can’t see well enough to read my book. 59. I offered to help him but he turned me......................... . 60. We were turned......................... at the door of the club for being improperly dressed. 61. You ought to turn......................... the heat before the sauce burns. 62. That factory turns......................... hundreds of small appliances every day. 63. The lorry turned............................ in the middle of the road, causing an enormous pile-up. 64. He turned ......................... to be a liar and a cheat. 65. I have a feeling I forgot to turn......................... the cooker before we left. 4
-> Your answers: 51) 52) 53) 54) 55) 56) 57) 58) 59) 60) 61) 62) 63) 64) 65) PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.5 pts) I. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each gap of the passage: (15 × 0.1 = 1.5 pts) BELIEVE THE EYES How do you know then someone is lying? Scientists studying the human face with sensitive cameras may have discovered the answer, almost by accident. When someone in the laboratory dropped a book, (66)…..………a loud noise, the camera they were using to study someone’s face showed an unexpected (67)…..………. The sudden fear had caused the (68)…..……… of the person’s face around the eyes to change. This led the researchers to (69)…..……… with the idea that if a super-sensitive camera could spot fear, it would be quite (70)…..………of showing when people were (71)…..………a lie. The researchers then (72)…..……… up an experiment to test out their theory. Some volunteers were told a secret which they were forbidden to (73)…..……… with another set of vulunteers, who were told to (74)…..………what it was. The results were (75)…..………, with the camera correcting identifying which of the volunteers was lying. Some people believe that these tests could lead to the (76)…..……… of a camera which would (77)…..……… airport security staff who, at the moment, have to (78)…..……… on their own judgement when asking passengers about the contents of their luggage. However, although the camera could be more (79)…..……… than traditional ways of discovering whether people are lying, some scientists believe that more (80)…..……… tests are needed before it goes into widespread use. 66. A. getting 67. A. reaction 68. A. example 69. A. get away 70. A. talented 71. A. telling 72. A. held 73. A. argue 74. A. catch up 75. A. famous 76. A. innovation 77. A. assist 78. A. support 79. A. right 80. A. convincing
B. having B. ralation B. description B. come up B. clever B. speaking B. put B. spill B. find out B. amazed B. development B. appeal B. rely B. correct B. persuade
C. making C. reply C. variety C. look forward C. skillful C. saying C. set C. inform C. ask after C. wondering C. growth C. attract C. lean C. accurate C. proving
D. doing D. remark D. appearance D. stand up D. capable D. talking D. gave D. share D. call for D. impressive D. increase D. accept D. rest D. honest D. agreeing 5
-> Your answers: 66. 67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. (14 × 0.2 =2.8 pt) TIME TO RELAX? HOW? One of the greatest problems with holidays, (81)………….……….. from the usual travel complications and accommodation difficulties, (82)………….……….. the expectations people have of (83)………….……….. When we go on holiday, we expect to leave all the stresses and strains of our daily lives (84)………….……….. us. We imagine we will be able to escape to (85)………….………..a degree that we even tent to believe, consciously or not, that we can change our own personalities and become completely different people. The average business-person, tense, preoccupied, short-tempered, (86)………….……….. to relax, envisages herself/himself (87)………….……….., from the moment of locking the office door, a radically different (88)………….……….. of person: carefree, good-humoured, ready to relax and enjoy whatever adventures present (89)………….………… In practice, we take ourselves with us (90)………….……….. we go, and the personality that is shaped (91)………….……….. years of stress and tension is almost impossible to shake off (92)………….……….. a moment’s notice. It is no wonder so many holidays are a disappointment, no (93)………….……….. how smoothly they go or how lovely the weather is. In fact, the frequent problems that crop (94)………….……….. during the average holiday are probably a welcome distraction from the nagging feeling that we are not enjoying ourselves as much as we should. -> Your answers: 81 . 82. 86 . 87. 91. 92.
83. 88. 93.
84. 89. 94.
85. 90.
III. Read an article about electronic games. Choose the most suitable heading from the list A-H for each part (95-100) of the article. There is one extra heading which you do not need to use. There is an example at the beginning (0): (6 × 0.2 = 1.2 pts) YOU HAVE TO PAY TO PLAY Money doesn’t go far these days, especially in the world of high tech. Ian Kelly investigates. A. An unusual working environment B. Paying for the marketing C. The consumer’s viewpoint D. Some surprising reseach E. An interesting experiment F. The designer’s defence G. What should happen 6
H. A bewildering choice 0. H Walk into any high street electrical store and the range of products available is dazzing. From MP3 players to DVDs, from hand-held computers to home cinemas, today’s consumer is confronted by displays of the latest gadgets everywhere they turn. Recently, though, people have begun to wonder whether they are actually getting value for money when they splash out on the next piece of electronic wizardry. The theory is that competition in the market forces pieces down and we all benefit from cheaper and better goods. But does it work? 95. I spoke to Vivian Parris of the consumer group Buywatch about one area of concern: video games. Buywatch carried out an extentive survey over the last six months into popular games consoles and the games that run on them. The results might shock anyone without any previous experience of this sector of the market. “Basically, teenagers and other game players are being ripped off,” says Vivian. “The prices of the consoles themselves are coining down, but the games are becoming more and more expensive, and there doesn’t seem to be any clear reason for it.” 96. Vivian explains that in computing there is something called Moore’s law. Gordon Moore was a computer engineer in the 60s and 70s and he noticed that computer chips double in power roughly every eighteen months. That should mean that faster and more powerful computers become easier and cheaper to make. Over the last thirty years of the computer industry that has happened, and a shopper today can afford technology undreamt of even ten years ago. Yet the prices of games keep creeping, or sometimes leaping, up. 97. To find out why out why that might be, I visited Softplay, the games software manufacturer responsible for such hits as Unknown Lands and Earthstalker. On arrival, I was led into their laboratory by Matt Koenig, games developer. Although they call it the laboratory, the room of people testing games, shouting their high scores to each other across pizza boxes and drinks cans couldn’t be further from the image of scientists in white coats. “This is where it all happens,” comments Matt. “One of the reasons for our success is that we are all just ordinary gamers at heart.” 98. We moved into Matt’s office where I grilled him about the prices of games. “Look,” he said. “A huge amount of reseach and development goes into today’s games. You can’t just create a character and expect people to be happy collecting keys or whatever. You have to give them stunning graphics, stereo surround sound, the whole works. And that costs.” I’m not completely convinced. We look at a few recent titles and compare the prices. “To be honest, we don’t set the prices. That’s up to the individual shop at the end of the day. All these games are very popular, and if you want something badly enough, you’ll save up your allowance and go out and buy it. It’s as simple as that.” 7
99. Obviously I wasn’t going to get far here. I decided to hit the streets and speak to the people who matter: the buyers. At a large game store in central London, I ran into a group of teenagers. “Sometimes you can find a bargain,” says Jade Mitchell. 14. “Mostly, though, it means putting money by each week until you can afford the one you want. Either that or start hassling your parents to get it.” The others laugh. “The console is nothing, and everyone’s got one,” she continues. “That’s the trick. They get you playing, and then charge you a fortune for the games.” 100. So what have I learned from my brief trip into the world of video and computer games? First of all, nobody even tries to deny that games are probably the most costly bits of plastic in the shops. There’s also no doubt that adolescents, who make up the majority of the game-buying public, want these games and are prepared to save to get them. What left me feeling uneasy was the fact that these products have huge advertising budgets, spent on persuading young people how badly they need them, and that money has to come ultimately from teenagers, or often their parents. -> Your answers: 95 96 -
97 -
98 -
99 -
100 -
PART FIVE: WRITING: (4.5 pts) I. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning. Use the words in brackets: (5 × 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 101. “That’s the way the radiator should be installed,” the shopkeeper said to us. -> The shopkeeper explained ………………………………… …….……..…… (how) 102. Mr. Hoang decided to have an early night because he was exhausted. -> ……………………………………..……….…… because he was exhausted. (go) 103. Couldn’t the newspaper have printed a better headline? -> Was that…………………………………………………………….…….….? (could) 104. In spite of his old age, my granfather runs seven miles before breakfast. -> .......………………………………………………………... before breakfast. (Although) 105. If I had been you, I would have punished your naughty son. -> If ………………………………………………………………….…………. (shoes) II. Write complete sentences using the suggested words. (5 × 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 106. Quoc Tu Giam/ first university/ Vietnam/ establish/ grounds/ Van Mieu. -> ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………….. 107. If/ Linh/ come/ national park/ us/ last week/ she/ enjoyed/ it. -> ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………….. 108. So/ expensive/ Picasso painting/ nobody/ could/ buy. 8
-> ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………….. 109. World Cup/ which/ international football tournament/ hold/ every four years. -> ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………….. 110. Since/Tom’s friends/arrived/they/spend/ nearly every day/ beach/ which/ near their hotel -> ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………..
III. Many students in the countryside think that “Listening” is the most difficult skill of learning English. Do you agree? Why/ Why not? (2.5 pts) (The essay must have three parts: Opening – Body and Conclusion. Don’t show your proper names/ school/ village…) ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………..
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HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9 NĂM HỌC: 2016 - 2017 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH (VÒNG 2) PART ONE: LISTENING (3.0 pts) LISTEN AND FILL IN THE GAPS: (20 × 0.15=3.0pts) 1) 234
2) 143
3) 364
4) 4.263
5) 138
6) 6.735.4
7) 264
8) 993.7
9) 562
10) 709.6
11) 198
12) 703.2
13) 261
14) 433.5
15) 116
16) 445.9
17) 110
18) 377.7
19) 97
20) 306.2
PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts) I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently: (5 × 0.2=1.0 pt) 21. D. certify
22. A. informative
23. C. cover
24. B. different
25. A. persuade
II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the... (5 × 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 21. C. volunteer 22. B. international 23. C. commitee
24. A. disaster
25. D. violent
PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.0 pts) I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (15 × 0.1 = 1.5 pts) 26. B. 27. C. would it consist exceedingly fast 31. D. 32. B. on/ off I’m used to living 36. C.should not 37. C. have given diseases
28. A. had he been appointed 33. A. rehearsals 38. D. Furthermore
29. D. without delay 34. A. left-handed 39. A. hut
30. D. did he sing 35. B. wasting 40. D. gallery
II. Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences. (10 × 0.2 = 2.0 pts) 10
41) indestructibility 46) decorative
42)comparatively 43) unequalled 47) exploitation
44) attention
45) favoured
48) unprecedented 49) economic
50) captivated
III. Fill in the missing preposition or adverb. (15 x 0.1 = 1.5 pt) 51) in
52) in
53) into
54) out
55) over
56) to
57) up
58) on
59) down
60) away
61) down
62) out
63) over
64) out
65) off
PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.5 pts) I. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each gap of the passage: (15 × 0.1 = 1.5 pts) 66. C. making 67. A. reaction 68.D.appearance 69. B. come up 70. D. capable 71. A. telling 72. C. set 73. D. share 74. B. find out 75. D. impressive 76. B. development 77. A. assist 78. B. rely 79. C. accurate 80. A. convincing II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. (14 × 0.2 =2.8 pts) 81. apart 82. is 83. them 84. behind 85. such 86. unable 87. as 88. kind 89. themselves 90. wherever 91. over/ by 92. at 93. matter 94. up III. Read an article about electronic games. Choose the most suitable heading from the list A-H for each part (95-100) of the article. There is one extra heading which you do not need to use. There is an example at the beginning (0): (6 × 0.2 = 1.2 pts) 95.D 96.G 97. A 98. F 99. C 100. B PART FIVE: WRITING: (4.5 pts) I. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning. Use the words in brackets: (5 × 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 101. … to us how to install the radiator. 102. Mr. Hoang decided to go to bed early … 103. … the best headline the newspaper could print? 104. Although my granfather is old, he runs seven miles ... 105. … I had been in your shoes, I would have punished your naughty son. II. Write complete sentences using the suggested words. (5 × 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 106. Quoc Tu Giam, (which was) the first university in Vietnam, was established on the grounds of Van Mieu. 107. If Linh had come to the national park with us last week, she would have enjoyed it. 108. So expensive was the Picasso painting that nobody could buy it. 109. The World Cup, which is an international football tournament, is held every four years. 110. Since Tom’s friends arrived, they have spent nearly every day on the beach, which is near their hotel. 11
III. Many students in the countryside think that “Listening” is the most difficult skill of learning English. Do you agree? Why/ Why not? (2.5 pts) - The opening: The essay must write something relating to the topic “Agreement or Disagreement with the topic…”. (0.5pt) - The body: Write about at least three reasons explaining why having (dis)agreement or disagreement with the topic, the sentences must contain connectors and link words... (1,5) - The conclusion: Write about the writers' ideas. (0.5 pt) * Note: The essay that has 3.0 points must have: - Long enough (At least 200 words or maybe more). - Correct vocabulary and structures. - Don't tell the proper names (The school, the student's/ teacher’s name/ ...).
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PHÒNG GD&ĐT CAM LỘ ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
KÌ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP HUYỆN Năm học 2017 – 2018 Khóa ngày 27/10/2017 Môn thi: Tiếng Anh lớp 9 Thời gian 120 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
Họ và tên thí sinh:.………………………….…….
Họ tên, chữ ký giám thị 1
Ngày sinh:……………………..……………………
………………………
Học sinh trường: …………………………………..
Họ tên, chữ ký giám thị 2
Số phách (Do CT Hội đồng chấm thi ghi)
Số báo danh: …………………..…………………... ……………………… Lưu ý:
1. Kiểm tra số tờ giấy thi trước khi tính giờ làm bài. 2. Điền đầy đủ thông tin vào trang số 1. 3. Thí sinh có 5 phút đọc đề nghe, mỗi phần nghe sẽ được nghe 2 lần 4. Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào đề thi, ghi câu trả lời vào các ô cho sẵn ở cuối các phần.(Mục Answer), phần viết câu ghi đáp án sau mỗi câu hỏi, phần trắc nghiệm thí sinh chỉ ghi đáp án A, B, C hoặc D vào ô cho sẵn. Trên tờ giấy thi chỉ ghi đáp án, không được sử dung bất cứ ký hiệu nào khác. 5. Thí sinh không sử dụng bất cứ tài liệu nào, kể cả từ điển. 6. Nếu vi phạm bài thi sẽ bị loại
1
(Thí sinh và giám thị không ghi vào những ô này) Điểm của toàn bài thi Giám khảo Số phách (Bằng số) (Bằng chữ) (Ký và ghi rõ họ tên) (Do CT Hội đồng chấm thi ghi) Giám khảo 1:
Giám khảo 2:
A. LISTENING (20pts) Part 1: (5pts) Listen to Eric talking to Mary about the weekend. Their friend, Carlos, is coming to visit them. Listen and choose the right answer by circling A, B or C. You will hear the conversation twice. 1. When is the football match? A. Saturday morning B. Saturday afternoon C. Sunday afternoon 2. Where are they going to eat on Saturday evening? A. at home B. in an Italian restaurant C. in an Chinese restaurant 3. What are they going to do on Sunday morning? A. go for a drive in the countryside B. get up late C. go to the cinema 4. Where are they going to have lunch on Sunday? A. in a café B. in a pub C. at home 5. They can’t go to the cinema on Sunday afternoon because A. Carlos doesn’t like films. B. Eric doesn’t like films C. they don’t have time.
2
Part 2: (5pts) You will hear a telephone conversation. A girl wants to speak to Martin, but he is not there. Listen and complete question 1-5. You hear the conversation twice.
Phone Message Martin
To:
From:
1)
Party at:
2)
Time:
3)
Please bring:
4)
Her phone number:
5)
Part 3: (10pts) You are given a piece of audio, some text with spaces and a list of words. Use the information from the audio to decide which words correspond to which spaces and you will hear the audio twice.
What did each person buy? People Mark: (1) Megan: (2) Sue: (3)
What they bought A) Jewellery B) Shoes C) Jacket D) Scarves E) Ties
Rob: (4)
F) Jeans
Andy: (5)
G) Blouses H) Trainers 3
B. LANGUAGE IN USE (40 pts) Part 1: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others by circling A, B, C or D. (5 pts) 1. A. describe B. excite C. timber D. dive 2. A. soon B. flood C. moon D. food 3. A. honesty B. hair C. honor D. hour 4. A. border B. torch C. morning D. forget B. pollute C. accept D. receipt 5. A. species Part 2: Choose one word whose stress pattern is different from the others by circling A, B, C or D. (5 pts) 1. A. lemonade D. atmosphere B. introduce C. correspond 2. A. access B. advance C. unique D. amount 3. A. priority B. traditional C. considerate D. temperature 4. A. recycle B. potato C. dangerous D. collection 5. A. happen B. study C. appear D. wonder Part 3: Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D to fill in the gaps.(10 pts) 1. We __________ for her for ten minutes. A. wait B. waited C. are waiting D. have been waiting 2. Take this cake and cut it into eight .......................pieces. A. same B. like C. alike D. equal 3. My friend __________ me that he was going to take a driving test A. spoke B. told C. said D. talk 4. I saw a thief take Peter's wallet so I ran ................... him, but I didn't catch him. A. into B. after C. over D. near 5. She’d prefer to go out ________ home. A. rather than stay B. than staying C. rather than staying D. than to stay 6. There is a fault at our television station. Please do not________ your television set. A. change B. repair C. adjust D. switch 7. If you want to attend the course, you must pass the ________ examination. A. write B. written C. wrote D. writing 8.My father used to ________ research in this library when he was a student. A. make B. do C. study D. carry 9. The roof was damaged and water ________ from the ceiling in wet weather. A. dripped B. spilled C. drained D. dropped 10. We have just built ________ . A. three public excellent tennis courts B. three excellent public tennis courts C. three tennis courts excellent public D. three tennis public excellent courts Part 4: Give the correct verb form ( 5pts) 1. Just as I (get) …………………….to an interesting part of the story, the doorbell rang. 2. Yesterday I was walking along the street when I realized that a man with a black beard, whom I (see) ………………..already, (follow)………………… me. 3. She wishes she (not give )……………….. them her phone number last week. 4
4. Neither John nor his friend (come)…………………… yet Part 5: Complete the following sentences with an appropriate form of the word in the brackets ( 5pts) 1. ………………………is a very serious problem in many countries nowadays. (EMPLOY) 2. This road is very narrow. It needs ……………………. (WIDE) 3. He is an …………………..worker because he is so young. (EXPERIENCE) 4. Our school has a lot of ……………………..teacher. (QUALIFY) 5. People say that he is a ……………… child in his family. ( TROUBLE) Part 6: (10pts). Read the text below and look carefully at each line. Some of the lines are correct, and some have a word which should not be there. If a line is correct, put a tick (√) by the number. If a line has a word which should not be there, write it in ‘Your answers’ part. Number 0 and 00 have been done for you. WHY AM I LEARNING ENGLISH? 0 English is the most widely spoken language in the world today. …… ..√…… 00 It is a quite amazing how the use of English language has become so ………a…... 1 widespread. The English is not as easy as Esperanto, which was especially …………….. 2 written to be as easy as possible for people to learn, and not yet Esperanto is …………….. 3 spoken by very few people around the world. For many people English is ……….......... 4 not as more beautiful a language as French but it seems too late for French ………… 5 to catch up with English such as an international language. German is quite …………… 6 a useful language if you are in business in Europe but it is not half as easy to …………… 7 learn so as English, and people say it doesn't sound as pleasant as English. ………….. 8 English has been become so important that it is becoming more and more …….. 9 essential to get if you want to get a good job. It is too early to say whether 10 English will remain as influential as it is today but it looks like as it will be ……….. an international language for a long time . Your answers: 1. 2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
8.
9.
10.
7.
C. READING (20 pts) Part 1: Fill in each blank with one suitable word to complete this passage (10 pts) Freddy liked to go to the countryside to draw animals and plants. One day, while (1).............. across the field, looking for rabbits to draw, he was so lost in thought that he did not (2).................... a bull running towards him. About a hundred meters (3)............... was a tree under which he usually sat to draw. Suddenly he heard a (4) ..................... noise behind him. It was the bull! He knew that a bull could run much (5)................... than a man, but he also knew that a bull could not see very (6)................. and noticed only shape and movement. To distract the bull, he threw his bag away (7)...................... him. The bull saw the sudden movement and headed for the bag. Freddy quickly climbed (8)...................... the tree and watched the bull attack his bag. 5
(9).................. the bull was satisfied and had gone away, he got down from the tree and ran (10)..............fast as he could. Everything in the bag was completely ruined. Part 2: Read the following passage and choose the best answer to each question. (10 pts) WITCH DOCTORING Many early ideas about the causes and cures of illness seem ridiculous to us today. Yet in some respects the medicine man of uncivilized tribes used the method for curing sick persons which are known to have had real value. In early time when people became ill, they turned for help to the medicine man of the tribe. It was generally believed that sickness was caused by evil spirits, and it was the medicine man’s task to drive these bad spirits out of the sick man. To do this, he would try to frighten them away by making loud noise and wearing frightening masks. Usually he would chant magic words, sing special songs, and performed special dances. Nearly always he used a particular kind of plant which was supposed to be a remedy for a particular sickness. Some of these cures used by the medicine men did help. The plants which these early doctors used were frequently drugs now understood to be medicinal or pain- relieving. The respect and confidence which the people had in their medicine man gave sick persons hope and helped them feel better. 1. Which not directly stated, it can be reasoned from the article that ________ A. witch doctors have always failed. B. witch doctors have never failed. C. witch doctors might have cured some people. D. witch doctors were really ridiculous people. 2. The article as a whole is about________ A. medicinal plants B. uncivilized doctoring C. magic chants. D. sick tribe people 3. Which of the following sentences is TRUE? A. Medicine men always worked in silence. B. Medicine men sang to invite back the Spirit of Health. C. Medicine men wore masks to frighten the sick persons. D. The life of tribal people in early time was very hard. 4. Which of the following sentences is NOT TRUE? A. Savage tribes believe that illness was caused by evil spirits. B. Medicine men often used special plants in making their cures. C. Everything that medicine men did is now known to be dangerous. D. Medicine men sometimes performed dances. 5. The word “them” in the second paragraph refers to A. evil spirits B. sick persons C. other medicine men D. magic words D. WRITING (20pts) Part 1: Use the given words ( in CAPITAL) to complete the second sentences so that it has a similar meaning to the first one. (5 pts) 6
1. Unfortunately, I couldn't see you because I didn't have time. IF -> .................................................. more time, I would have been able to see you 2. It is often difficult to find an answer to a problem. SOLUTION -> Finding ………………………………………………….……………….…… 3. The school I studied at last year was better than this one. GOOD -> This school ............................................................................................ 4. Although the weather was terrible, we had a good time. SPITE -> We had ………………………………………………........................ 5. If I were you, I’d try to get some sleep. ADVISE -> I ................................................ to try to get some sleep. Part 2: Complete the second sentence so that its meaning stays the same as the original one. (5 pts) 1. The open-door policy has brought about a lot of radical changes. -> Thanks to…………………………………………………………………………….. 2. Although he took a taxi, Bill still arrived late for the concert. -> Despite ……………………………………………..…………………………… 3. "How often do you want the rent?" Nam asked. -> Nam asked her ……………………………………………..…………………… 4. He regrets treating her so badly yesterday. -> He wishes……………………………………………………………………….. 5. It was my breakfast time when Susan rang. ->I was ……………………………………………………………………………… Part 3: Write a paragraph (about 100- 150 words) about your last picnic with your classmates, using the cues below. (10pts) • What was the weather like on that day? • Who did you go with? • When did you leave your house? • What did you visit? • What did you do there? • How did you feel after the trip? …………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………… 7
…………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………
PHÒNG GD&ĐT CAM LỘ -------------
HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM THI HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP HUYỆN Môn thi: Tiếng Anh Năm học 2017 – 2018
A. LISTENING (20pts) Part 1: (5pts) Listen to Eric talking to Mary about the weekend. Their friend, Carlos, is coming to visit them. 1. B 2. C 3. A 4. B 5. C Part 2: (5pts) You will hear a telephone conversation. A girl wants to speak to Martin, but he is not there. Listen and complete question 6-10. 1. Elaine 2. (the) Grand 3. 8.30 p.m /( 4. friend 5. 724 5936 Hotel 20.30) /(half past eight) Part 3: (10pts) You are given a piece of audio, some text with spaces and a list of words. Use the information from the audio to decide which words correspond to which spaces. Mark: (1) Megan: (2)
Correct answer: C,JACKET Correct answer: G,BLOUSES
Sue: (3)
Correct answer: D,SCARVES
Rob: (4)
Correct answer: F,JEANS
Andy: (5)
Correct answer: H,TRAINERS
B. LANGUAGE IN USE (40 pts) Part 1: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others by circling A, B, C or D. (5 pts) 1. C 2. D 3. B 4. D 5. C Part 2: Choose one word whose stress pattern is different from the others by circling A, B, C or D. (5 pts) 1. D 2. A 3. D 4. C 5. C Part 3: : Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D to fill in the gaps.(10 pts) 1. D 2. D 3. B 4. B 5. A 6. C 7. B 8. B 9. A Part 4: Give the correct verb form ( 5pts) 1. was getting 2. had seen/ was following
10. B
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3. had not given 4. has come Part 5: Complete the following sentences with an appropriate form of the word in the brackets ( 5pts) 1. UNEMPLOYMENT 2. WIDENING 3. INEXPERIENCED 4. QUALIFIED 5. TROUBLSOME Part 6: (10pts). Read the text below and look carefully at each line. Some of the lines are correct, and some have a word which should not be there. If a line is correct, put a tick (√) by the number. 1. The 2. not 3. √ 4. more 5. such 6. √
7. so
8. been
9. √
10. as
C. READING (20pts) Part 1: Fill in each blank with one suitable word to complete this passage. (10pts) 1. walking 2. see 3. away 4. loud/ strange 5. faster 6. well/ clearly
7. from
8. up
9. when
10. as
Part 2. Read the following passage and choose the best answer to each question. (10 pts) 1. C 2. B 3. D 4. C 5. A D. WRITING (20pts) Part 1: Use the given words ( in CAPITAL) to complete the second sentences so that it has a similar meaning to the first one. (5 pts) 1. If I had had more time, I would have been able to see you 2. Finding a solution to a problem is often difficult. 3. This school is not as good as the school I studied at last year. 4. We had a good time in spite of the terrible weather. 5. I advise you to try to get some sleep. Part 2: Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence. (5 pts) 1. Thanks to the open- door policy, a lot of changes have been brought about. 2. Despite taking a taxi, Bill still arrived late for the concert. 3. Nam asked her how often she wanted the rent. 4. He wishes he had not / hadn’t treated her so badly yesterday. 5. I was having breakfast when Susan rang Part 3. Write an essay (about 100- 150 words) about your last picnic with your classmates, using the cues below. (10pts) - Content (5pts): +The weather +The men he/she went with +The time he/she left +The places he/she visited +The things he/she did +His/her feelings - well-organized (2pts) 9
- Language (3pts) + accurate grammar + appropriate vocabulary
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PHÒNG GD&ĐT QUẢNG TRẠCH PHÁCH ĐÍNH KÈM ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC
SỐ BÁO DANH :
KỲ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP HUYỆN NĂM HỌC 2017-2018 Khóa ngày: 25/10/2017 Môn: Tiếng Anh - Lớp 9 Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
HỌ VÀ TÊN THÍ SINH
Ngày sinh: ....................................; Học sinh trường : ..................................................... HỌ, TÊN VÀ CHỮ KÝ
SỐ PHÁCH (do Chủ tịch HĐ Chấm thi ghi)
Giám thị 1 : Giám thị 2 : Chú ý :
Thí sinh phải ghi đủ các mục ở phần trên theo sự hướng dẫn của giám thị; Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào đề thi đính kèm theo phách này; Bài thi phải được viết bằng một loại bút, một thứ mực; không viết bằng mực đỏ, bút chì ; không được đánh dấu hay làm ký hiệu riêng; phần viết hỏng phải dùng thước gạch chéo, không được tẩy, xóa bằng bất kỳ cách gì (kể cả bút/giấy xóa).
PHÒNG GD&ĐT QUẢNG TRẠCH ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
KỲ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP HUYỆN NĂM HỌC 2017-2018 Khóa ngày: 25/10/2017 Môn: Tiếng Anh - Lớp 9 Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
Chú ý : * Đề thi gồm 06 trang; Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào đề thi này. ĐIỂM CỦA TOÀN BÀI THI
Bằng số
Bằng chữ
Các giám khảo (Họ, tên và chữ ký)
SỐ PHÁCH (do CT.HĐ Chấm thi ghi)
Giám khảo 1: Giám khảo 1:
SECTION ONE: LISTENING • Bài nghe gồm 02 phần, mỗi phần được ghi âm 2 lần. Giữa 2 lần ghi âm của mỗi phần và giữa các phần có một khoảng thời gian chờ. Part 1: Listen to Rebecca and Adam planning a night together. Choose the correct answer A, B or C (5pts) 1. Rebecca and Alan decide to meet on A. Wednesday B. Thursday C. Friday 2. They decide to A. go out for dinner B. Go out for a drink C. Stay in and watch a DVD 3. The Orange Tree is on A. Church Road B. Love lane C. Potter Street 4. They will meet at A. ten past seven B. Twenty to seven C. Seven twenty 5. Rebecca met Charlie A. at a party B. On a skiing holiday C. At the sports centre. Part 2: You will hear some information about a summer course for teens. Fill the missing information in the spaces. Write no more than three words and/or a number (10pts) Summer Course On this course, teens will learn how to (6) Tutors: Mike Jones and Mel Wilson from the company (7) 1
Accommodation will be in (8) Number of places on the course: (9) Where you can see what students did on the course last year and book your place: (10) SECTION TWO: PHONETICS Part 1. Choose the word A, B, C or D whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others (3pts) 11. A. suppose B. purpose C. dispose D. propose 12. A. coughed B. rubbed C. charged D.loved 13. A. lives B. delights C. business D. roles 14. A. southern B. northern C. mouths D. months 15. A. morning B. angry C. song D. among 16. A. main B. complain C. entertain D. curtain Part 2. Choose the word A, B, C or D whose main stress is placed differently from the others in each group (2pts) 17. A. determine B. complain C. encounter D. demonstrate 18. A. participate B. competition C. retirement D. technology 19. A. activity B. adventure C. appliance D. average 20. A. community B. atmosphere C. damage D. television SECTION THREE: LEXICO-GRAMMAR Part1. Choose the word or phrase ( A, B, C or D) which best completes each sentence (10pts) 21. You should have put ............ to that ridiculous relationship. A. an effort B. an advantage C. a favour D. an end 22. He thought the talk was fascinating. His friends, ........., fell asleep halfway through it. A. although B. nevertheless C. so as D. in spite of 23. The completion of the tunnel has been held ............owing to a strike. A. on B. off C. over D. up 24. The bus conductor told him to get off because he couldn’t pay the .................. A. bill B. travel C. fare D. price 25. We should participate in the movements ……...the natural environment. A. organizing to conserve B. organized conserving C. organized to conserve D. which organize to conserve 26. I wanted to build a bookcase, but I couldn't make................. of the instructions. A. sense B. reality C. sight D. understanding 27. Unfortunately, our school had to.................the music department because of lack of funds. A. give up B. do away with C. get away D. take back 28. I’d rather Jane ..... my brother so much money. I know for sure that I’ll have to pay his debt. 2
A. not lend B. did not lend C. had not lent D. would not lend 29. The students put their name down for the course ........admiration ...............Professor Thomas. A. in/ of B. with/ of C. at/ for D. with/ for 30. Language is not ........ the private property of those who use it. A. properly B. considerably C. acceptably D. necessarily Part 2. Fill in each of the blanks with appropriate form of the word in capitals (10pts) My ideal job One thing I know is that I wouldn't like to have an (31) .........................that has anything to do with physics, (32) .................................or maths; I am not the (33) ....................................type at all. In fact at school, I was a complete (34)........................................in these subjects. Neither am I very good at dealing with people, nor am I (35)............................................, so jobs in business, administration and (36)................................don't really interest me either. Moreover I find it (37)....................................to be surrounded by a lot of people; I would much rather have a job involving creative work or (38).................................skills of some sort. I'd like to have the chance to work outdoors (39)......................................and perhaps do a bit of travelling too. I am not particularly concerned about becoming rich but I would like to have a (40)..............................income – enough to live comfortably.
OCCUPY CHEMIST SCIENCE FAIL AMBITION MANAGE IRRITATE ART OCCASION REASON
Part 3. Put each verb given in brackets into an appropriate tense or form (5pts) 41. Thousands of people ………....……… this exhibition by the end of the month. (see) 42. I don't think he ……………………. in the thirty years I have known him. (change) 43. If either of them …...……… a vacation now, we will not be able to finish the work. (take) 44. I'm taking my daughter out tonight. She ………..……fun for a long time. (not have) 45. She wishes she ……….......…… them her phone number last week. (not give) Part 4. There i s one mistake in each of the following sentences. FIND and CORRECT it (10pts) 0. She is too young to driving a car. 0. driving drive 46. He seldom goes to the market, doesn’t he? 47. One of the girls worked in that company was badly injured in the fire. 48. They are doing plans for their picnic in the countryside. 49. It was so good weather that we decided to go to the beach. 50. Thomas asked that Mary should go to see the doctor. 51. Nobody watched, so the boy took the packet of sweets from the shelf and putting it in pocket. 52. One of the reasons why he was late for the meeting was because the bad weather. 53. My brother is falling in love on the girl he met at university. 54. He drove enough slowly to stop just in front of the accident on the way home. 55. What did you have for lunch? A few rice and some oranges. 46) ………………....… 47)………………….
48)…………………. 3
49)…………....……
50)…………………..... 51)…………………
52)………………….
53)………………….
54)………………........ 55)………………… SECTION FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION Part 1. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each gap. Use only ONE word in each gap (10pts) Nowadays people are more aware that wildlife all over the world is in (56) ..................... Many species of animals are threatened, and could easily become extinct if we do not (57) ...................... an effort to protect them. There are many reasons for this. In some cases, animals are hunted for their fur or for other (58) ........................ parts of their bodies. Some birds, such as parrots, are caught alive, and sold (59) ..................... pets. For many animals and birds, the problem is that their (60) ...................... - the place where they live is disappearing. More land is (61) ............ for farms, houses or industry, and there are fewer open spaces (62) ................... there once were. Farmers use powerful chemicals to help them grow better crops, (63)................... these chemicals pollute the environment and harm wildlife. The most successful animals on earth- human (64)................. - will soon be the only ones left, unless we can (65) .................... this problem. Part 2. Choose A, B, C or D that best fits each gap of the passage (10pts) Modern cinema audiences expect to see plenty of thrilling scenes in action film. These scenes, which are (66)____ as stunts, are usually given by stuntmen who are specially trained to do dangerous things safely. (67) ____ can crash a car, but if you’re shooting a film, you have to extremely (68) ____ sometimes stopping right in front of the camera and the film crew. At an early (69) ____ in the production, an expert stuntman is (70)____ in to work out the action scenes and form a team. He is the only person who can go against the wishes of the director, (71) ___he will usually only do this in the regards of safety. Many famous actor like to do the dangerous part by themselves, which produces better shots, since stuntmen don’t have to (72) ___in for the actors. Actors like to become (73) ___in all the important aspects of the character they are playing, but without the recent process in safety equipment, insurance companies would never (74)___ them take the risk. To do their own stunts, actors need to be good athletes, but they must also be sensible and know their (75) ___ . If they were to be hurt, the film would come to a sudden halt. 66. A. remarked B. known C. referred D. named 67. A. Everyone B. Someone C. Anyone D. No-one 68. A. detailed B. plain C. straight D. precise 69. A. period B. minute C. part D. stage 70. A. led B. taken C. drawn D. called 71. A. despite B. so C. although D. otherwise 72. A. work B. get C. put D. stand 73. A. connected B. arranged C. involved D. affected 74. A. allow B. let C. permit D. admit 75. A. limits B. ends C. frontiers D. borders Part 3. Read the passage below and choose the best answer by circling the corresponding letter A,B,C or D (5pts) 4
An English man living near Sheffield recently had a most unlucky day’s fishing.He was standing on a low bridge when he had the misfortune to knock his tin of bait into the river. Leaning over the side of the bridge, he tried to hook the tin and pull it out of the river. As he did so,his car keys fell out of his pocket and disappeared in the water. Feeling thoroughly annoyed with himself and his luck ,the fisherman leant over the bridge to try to see where his keys had gone.As he did so, the bridge collapsed and he fell into the river. This was the last straw .The fisherman crawled out of the river and went back to his car. There he discovered that he had locked the doors and could not get in. His anti-thief had immobilized his car.There was nothing left for him to do but walk sadly home. 76.How did the tin of bait get into the river? A.The passage does not say. B.The fisherman knocked it in accidentally. C.It was probably blown in by the wind D.It fell in when the fisherman fell in. 77.When did the fisherman first lean over the bridge? A.When it broke. B.When his keys fell in. C.When the tin of bait fell in. D.A few minutes after he first started fishing. 78.What was the last straw, according to the passage? A.Having to walk home B.Being unable to get into his car. C.The loss of his car keys . D.The collapse of the bridge. 79.What is the meaning of “misfortune”? A. bad luck B. good luck C. accidentally D. a clumsy act 80.What is the meaning of “thoroughly”? A. slightly B.at last C.through D.extremely SECTION FIVE: WRITING Part 1. Finish each of the folowing sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it (5 pts) 81. “I like your coat , I’m looking for one like that myself” she said to me. → She told me .......................................................................................................... 82. I won't be able to go on holiday if my parents don't give me the money. → Unless.................................................................................................................. 83. Let’s invite the Browns to the party on Sunday → He suggested ....................................................................................................... 84. Without this treatment, the patient have died → If the patient hadn’t ........................................………......…………………. 85. Although Bob didn’t speak Dutch, he decided to settle in Amsterdam → In spite of ..........………………………………………………………………
5
Part 2. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence using the word given. DO NOT CHANGE THE WORD GIVEN. You must use between three and five words, including the word given (5pts) 86. The man suddenly realised that the neighbor was watching him. (WATCHED) → The man suddenly realised that he ............................... the neighbor. 87. I could never have passed that exam without your help. (YOU) → I could never have passed that exam if ........................ helped me. 88. It isn’t necessary to book tickets for the show in advance. (NEED) →You..................................... tickets for the show in advance. 89. She found the photographs when she was cleaning her room. (CAME) →She....................................... when she was cleaning her room. 90. The taxi may be expensive so take plenty of money. (CASE) → Take plenty of money .............................. expensive. Part 3. Essay writing (10pts) In an essay of about 200 words, talking about “The benefits of learning English in modern life”. ............................................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................................... 6
............................................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................................... ...........................................................................................................................................................
-----The end-----
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PHÒNG GD&ĐT TAM DƯƠNG ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
KÌ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9 NĂM HỌC 2017-2018 ĐỀ THI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Đề thi này gồm 06 trang
PART A : LISTENING • There is a piece of music at the beginning and at the end of the listening part. • You have 30 seconds to read each question before listening. • Each recording is played twice with an interval of 10 seconds. Question I: Listen to a telephone conversation and complete the notes below. a. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. TRANSPORT FROM AIRPORT TO MILTON Distance: 147 miles Options: • Car hire: don't want to hire • (1)…………..…: expensive • Greyhound bus: direct to the (2)………….……, long (3)………..…………… • Airport Shuttle: (4)……………….…..service. Need to (5). …………..……… b. Write ONE WORD OR A NUMBER for each answer: AIRPORT SHUTTLE BOOKING FORM To: Milton Date: (6).……………………. Number of passenger: One Bus Time: (7)…………………….. Type of ticket: Single Name: Janet (8)……………. Flight No: (9)…………………….. From: London Heathrow Address: Vacation Motel, 24, Kitchener Street Fare: $ 35 Credit Card No: (Visa) (10)………………………………………. Question II: Listen and fill in the gaps. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. John Frank Kennedy and Abraham Lincoln lived in different times. Kennedy was born in (1)_____________, whereas Lincoln was born more than 100 years earlier. As for their family backgrounds, Kennedy came from a rich family. He was able to attend expensive private schools. He graduated from (2)____________ University. Lincoln only had one year of formal schooling. In spite of his lack of (3)_____________, he became a well-known lawyer. He was a (4) ___________ man. In spite of these differences in their backgrounds, some interesting (5) ____________ between the two men are evident. For example, take their political careers. Both of them began their political careers as a (6) _____________. They went to the Congress just (7) _______________ apart. Another interesting coincidence is that each man was elected President of the United States in a year ending with the number 60. Furthermore, both men were presidents during the years of civil (8) _______________ in the Trang 1 | 6
country. Both of them were (9)_______________ while in office. They were shot while they were sitting next to (10) ______________. PART B: LEXICO - GRAMMAR Question I: Choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence by choosing the letter A, B, C or D next to the correct word or phrase. 1. I'm afraid a rise in the salary is out of ________ just now. A. sight B. control C. date D. question 2. Mr. Black supposes, ________, that he will retire at the age of 60. A. like most people do B. like most people did C. as do most people D. as did most people 3. Please come ________ to us sometimes. You are always welcome. A. to B. about C. round D. away 4. He set the alarm clock at 5 a.m so as to ________ he did not oversleep. A. assure B. ensure C. insure D. reassure 5. The Sun and the Moon are often ________ in poetry. A. personified B. personalized C. personal D. privatized 6. I finished my homework 3 days ahead ________ the deadline. A. of B. to C. by D. at 7. The government is expected to ________ steps against the unemployment. A. use B. take C. make D. apply 8. ________ he loved her, he didn't forgive what she had done. A. Much as B. Because C. However D. No matter 9. He spent his entire life ________ round the world, never settling down anywhere. A. roaming B. scattering C. scrambling D. transporting 10. She tries to set ________ 15 minutes everyday to do some aerobics. A. about B. aside C. down D. in 11. ________ the time you get to the theatre, the play will have finished. A. Until B. In C. By D. On 12. He refused to give up work , ________ he had won a million pounds. A. despite B. however C. even though D. as though 13. The new system didn’t ________ expectations. A. catch up with B. bring about C. come across D. come up to 14. She had no ________ of selling the clock. It had belonged to her grandmother. A. intention B. meaning C. interest D. opinion 15. Yuri Gagarin was the first person . ________ into space. A. flew B. to fly C. flown D. fly 16. ________ saying was so important that I asked everyone to stop talking and listen. A. What the woman was B. The woman was C. That the woman was D. What was the woman 17. We were so late that we ________ had time to catch the train. A. nearly B. almost C. hardly D. simply 18. Only when you grow up ________ the truth. A. you will know B. you know C. do you know D. will you know Trang 2 | 6
19. ________ earlier, I would have done it for you. A. Had I known B. If I knew C. Should I know D. Were I to know 20. We delayed our departure ________ the weather condition. A. in spite of B. on account of C. instead of D. on behalf of Question II: The following passage contains 10 unnecessary words. Find and write the word(s) on your answer sheet. line 1 As you will see from my curriculum vitae, I have attended university, where I studied English and Law. After finishing my course, I took a job in a travel agency in Paris and now I organise few hours for people who wanting to go to Australia and the United States. Although I enjoy this very much, I feel I need to get more experience 5 and it would seems to me that working as a specialised tour guide in England would help me for do that. I would rather work in an English-speaking country, as I need to practise my English. I spend one year at London University, which it was most useful. I did much conversation classes and at first I thought that I would find them difficult. However, they turned out to be very enjoyable. I will have no any difficulty in coming 10 to England for an interview if you will let me know in plenty of the time. I enclose 11 details of my present employer who will be too pleased to send you a reference. Question III : Fill in each blank with the correct form of the words. THE SKY AT NIGHT For anyone with a fascination for the study of the night sky, Hawaii is one of the best places in the world to get a clear view of the stars and planets. This is because of the island’s geographical setting. Because it is a (1) mountain…………..…… area, situated in the middle of a large expanse of ocean, Hawaii is much less affected by light (2) pollute…………………… than most others parts of the world. If you are (3) fortune……………..….. enough to go to the top of the dormant volcano known as Mauna Kea, the view is even more (4) impress…………….. The volcano, which rises to a (5) high…………. of 4205 meters is one of the best places in the world to get (6) interrupt …………….. views of the night sky and therefore is the location for more than a dozen of the world’s finest telescopes. Of special significance is the WM Keck Observatory where there are a pair of extremely large and (7) power…………….……. telescopes have been responsible for the (8) discover………….. of around forty new planets beyond our solar system. By proving the (9) exist…………….. of these planets, astronomers have increased the (10) probable ………….……… that one day another inhabited planet like our own will be found. PART C: READING Question I: Choose a suitable word to fill in each blank. Nobody knows for certain what the origin of music was. Music is certainly older than poetry and painting but as early man had no way of (1) _______ it, we can only guess what it sounded like. Watching a child (2) _______ on a drum with his hands or a piece of wood, it is Trang 3 | 6
easy to see that this is the simplest of instruments. It does not (3) ________ much effort to produce a rhythm on it. Wall paintings show what some of the instruments looked like. Early civilizations had already discovered three basic (4) ______ of producing music, blowing into a tube, striking an object and scraping a string. We know that western music comes from the (5) _______ Greeks. The musical scale we now use is (6) _____ on a certain sequence of notes which the Greeks used to create a particular (7) _____. Until the sixteenth century, most players of instruments were single performers, but as music became more (8) ______, orchestras and musical groups began to (9) ________. This (10) _______ about the writing of music to be played by several musicians at a time. This can certainly be called the birth of modern music. 1. A. recording B. playing C. producing D. performing 2. A. hitting B. knocking C. crashing D. banging 3. A. make B. call C. take D. do 4. A. forms B. manners C. systems D. ways 5. A. ancient B. old C. aged D. antique 6. A. raised B. based C. established D. supported 7. A. spirit B. temper C. mood D. humour 8. A. widespread B. enlarged C. expanded D. extended 9. A. turn B. appear C. spring D. be 10. A. produced B. affected C. caused D. brought Question II: Read the passage carefully and use a suitable word to fill in each blank. In the 1960s women tennis players received little or no prize money at all. In the 1990s, (1) _______, the top players could earn twice as much in a fortnight as a successful company director did in a whole year. And (2) ______ most young people of their age were still studying for exams, players like Monica Seles and Jenifer Capriatia (3) _____ earning thousands of pounds a week. When she was only sixteen, Seles was rich (4) _______ to buy any cars she wanted. Nowadays, most of a leading tennis player’s income comes from sponsorship contracts with fashion or sportswear companies rather (5) _______ from major championships. Players (6) _______paid huge sums of money to wear anything from tennis shoes (7) ______ a wristwatch. Official prize money, in fact, only accounts for fractions of total earnings. But with so (8) _________ money in the bank, and the world of their feet, it will be surprising if these young stars are not affected by success. (9) _________ Seles and Capriati are coached by their fathers, (10) _________ do their best to protect their daughters from the pressure fame which has brought. Only time will tell whether this is enough. Question III: Read the following passage and choose the correct answer by writing the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet. Before the mid-nineteenth century, people in the United States ate most foods only in season. Drying, smoking, and salting could preserve meat for a short time, but the availability of fresh meat, like that of fresh milk, was very limited; there was no way to prevent spoilage. But in 1810, a French inventor named Nicolas Appert developed the cooking-and-sealing process of canning. And in the 1850s, an American named Gail Borden developed a means of condensing and preserving milk. Canned goods and condensed milk became more common Trang 4 | 6
during the 1860s, but supplies remained low because cans had to be made by hand. By 1880, however, inventors had fashioned stamping and soldering machines that mass-produced cans from tinplate. Suddenly all kinds of food could be preserved and bought at all times of the year. Other trends and inventions had also helped make it possible for Americans to vary their daily diets. Growing urban populations created demand that encouraged fruit and vegetable farmers to raise more productivity. Railroad refrigerator cars enabled growers and meat packers to ship perishables great distances and to preserve them for longer periods. Thus, by the 1890s, northern city dwellers could enjoy southern and western strawberries, grapes, and tomatoes, previously available for a month at most, for up to six months of the year. In addition, increased use of iceboxes enabled families to store perishables. An easy means of producing ice commercially had been invented in the 1870s, and by 1900, the nation had more than two thousand commercial ice plants, most of which made home deliveries. The icebox became a fixture in most homes and remained so until the mechanized refrigerator replaced it in the 1920s and 1930s. Almost everyone now has a more diversified diet. Some people continue to eat mainly foods that are heavy in starches or carbohydrates, and not everyone can afford meat. Nevertheless, many families can take advantage of previously unavailable fruits, vegetables, and dairy products to achieve more varied fare. 1. What does the passage mainly discuss? A. Causes of food spoilage. B. Commercial production of ice. C. Inventions that led to changes in the American diet. D. Population movements in the nineteenth century. 2. The phrase in season refers to______. A. a kind of weather B. a particular time of year C. an official schedule D. a method of flavoring food 3. The word prevent is closest in meaning to_______. A. estimate B. avoid C. correct D. confine 4. During the 1860s, canned food products were ______. A. unavailable in rural areas B. shipped in refrigerator cars C. available in limited quantities D. a staple part of the American diet 5. The word them refers to_______. A. refrigerator cars B. perishables C. growers D. distances 6. The word fixture is closest in meaning to______. A. luxury item B. substance C. commonplace object D. mechanical device 7. The author implies that in the 1920s and 1930s home deliveries of ice_______. A. decreased in number B. were on an irregular schedule C. increased in cost D. occurred only in the summer 8. The word Nevertheless is closest in meaning to_______. A. Therefore B. Because C. Occasionally D. However 9. Which of the following types of food preservation was NOT mentioned in the passage? A. Drying B. Canning C. Cold storage D. Chemical additives Trang 5 | 6
10. Which of the following statements is supported by the passage? A. Tin cans and iceboxes helped to make many foods more widely available. B. Commercial ice factories were developed by railroad owners. C. Most farmers in the United States raised only fruits and vegetables. D. People who lived in cities demanded home delivery of foods. PART D: WRITING Question I: Rewrite the sentences so that the new one has a similar meaning as the given one. 1. We have never seen more people turn to the traditional herbal remedies than now. It's _____________________________________________________________ 2. The only thing that prevented the passing of the bill was the death of the Prime Minister. Had it not ________________________________________________________ 3. They have reported that the number of people using acupuncture is increasing. The number of ____________________________________________________ 4. "Let's go out for a change," said Andrew. Andrew suggested _________________________________________________ 5. Their dog was so fierce that nobody would visit them. They had ________________________________________________________ Question II: Write an essay (200-250 words) on the following topic: It is a fact that many species of animals are in danger of extinction. What do you think are the causes of the problem and what measures could be taken to solve it? -------------HẾT-----------Cán bộ coi thi không giải thích gì thêm. Họ tên thí sinh......................................................................SBD:.................phòng thi.............
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PHÒNG GD&ĐT TAM DƯƠNG
KÌ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9 NĂM HỌC 2017- 2018 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
ĐÁP ÁN+ HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM Tổng điểm 20 điểm. (Gồm 02 trang) PART A: LISTENING (4 points) Question I: (2 points) a. 1. cab/ taxi 2. city center 3. wait 4. door-to-door 5. reserve a seat b. 6. 17th October 7. 12.30 8. Thomson 9. AC 936 10. 3303 8450 2045 6837 Question II: (2 points) 1. 1917 2. Harvard 3. formal schooling 4. self-educated 5. similarities 6. congressman 7. 100 years 8. unrest 9. assassinated 10. their wives PART B: LEXICO - GRAMMAR (6 points) Question I: (2 points) 1.D 6. A 11. C 16.A 2.C 7.B 12.C 17. C 3.C 8.A 13. D 18. D 4.B 9.A 14. A 19.A 5.A 10.B 15. B 20.B Question II: (2 points). LINE WORD LINE WORD 3 few 8 much 3 who 9 any 5 would 10 will 6 for 10 the 7 it 11 too Question III: (2 points). 1. mountainous 2. pollution 3. fortunate 4. impressive 5. height 6. uninterrupted 7. powerful 8.discovery 9.existence 10. probability PART C: READING (6 points) Question I: (2 points) 1. A 2. D 3. C 4. D 5. A 6. B 7. C 8. A 9. B 10. D Question II (2 points) 1. however 2. when 3. were 4. enough 5. than 6. are 7. to 8. much 9. Both 10. who Question III (2 points) 1. C 2. B 3. B 4. C 5. B 6. C 7. A 8. D 9. D 10. A Trang 7 | 6
PART D: WRITING (4 points) Question I: (1 point) 1. It's the first time we have ever seen more people turn to the traditional herbal remedies. 2. Had it not been for the death of the Prime Minister, the bill would have been passed/ they would have passed the bill. 3. The number of people using acupuncture has been reported to be increasing. 4. Andrew suggested going out for a change/ that we (should) go out for a change. 5. They had such a fierce dog that nobody would visit them. They had so fierce a dog that nobody would visit them. Question II Essay Writing (3 points) Correct form of - Contents: a provision of all main reasons and appropriate supporting essay writing ideas and relevant examples (1,5 pts) (3 points) - Language: a variety of vocabulary and appropriate structures (0,8 pts) - Presentation: coherence, cohesion, and appropriate style (0,7 pts)
THE END
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PHÒNG GD&ĐT BÌNH XUYÊN TRƯỜNG THCS THANH LÃNG ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
ĐỀ KHẢO SÁT CHẤT LƯỢNG HSG_LẦN 1 NĂM HỌC 2017-2018 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 9 Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút không kể thời gian giao đề
PART 1: LISTENING (1 pt) 1. Listen to the passage twice, then write T (True) or F (False) for the following sentences: (0.5pt) 1. ..........Tet is the most important celebration in Vietnam. 2............ Passover Is celebrated in America 3............... .Passover is also an ancient spring festival. 4............. Easter is a joyful festival which is celebrated in many countries 5............On Easter Day (Easter Sunday), young children receive chocolate or sugar eggs 2. Listen to the passage twice, then fill in each blank with one suitable word(0.5pt) Although there (1).....many celebrations throughout the year, Tet or the Lunar New Year holiday is the (2)......important celebration for Vietnamese people. (3)......is a festival which occurs in late January or early February. It is a time for families to (4)..... and decorate their homes, and enjoy special food such as sticky rice cakes. Family members (5).......live apart try to be together at Tet. PART 2: (1 pt) A. Phonology: I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from those of the other. (0.5 pt) 1. A. hobby B. honest C. humor D. hole 2. A. flood B. typhoon C. groom D. balloon 3. A. fly B. hobby C. energy D. ordinary 4. A. garbage B. garage C. sewage D. carriage 5. A. exchange B. champagne C. teacher D. children II. Choose the word that has a different stress pattern from the others. (0.5 pt) 1. A. appliance B. activity C. adventure D. average 2. A. favorite B. government C. influence D. identify 3. A. economic B. volcanic C.disappointed D. scientific 4. A. reputation B. description C. suggestion D. pollution 5. A. magazine B. pictures C. documentary D. entertain B- Grammar and vocabulary. (1 pt) I. Choose the word or phrase which best complete each sentence. 1. Hung……………….go fishing with his uncle when he lived in the countryside. A. used to B. is used to C has used to D. who used to 2. If I ……………..you, I'd take some rest before the game tomorrow A. am B. could be C. were D. would be 3. You have never been to Ha Long Bay,…………..? A. have you B. haven't you C. you have D. you haven't 4. If only I……………… play the guitar as well as you. A. would B. shall C. could D. might 5. There's no need to be nervous. You're quite capable……………. your final exam. A. of passing B. passing C. to pass D. pass 6. As she arrived at the theatre, she remembered that she………to meet a friend somewhere else A. promised B. had promised C. has promised D. promised
7. " Does Jack know about your project". "Yes, I told him…………….to do" A. what was I planning B. what I have planned C. what did I plan D. what I was planning 8. If you have finished the test, you……………the room A. would B. may leave C. may be leaving D. could leave 9. I wish you……………… me how to do this exercise A. can help B. will help C. could help D. should help 10. The children…………………..to the zoo. A. were enjoyed taken B. enjoyed being taken C. were enjoyed taking D. enjoyed taking II. Choose the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting. (1 pt) 1. They asked me what did happen lastnight, but I was unable to tell them. A B C D 2. Air pollution, together with littering, are causing many problems in our large, industrial cities today. A B C D 3. These televisions are quite popular in Europe, but those ones are not. A B C D 4. Nora hardly never misses an opportunity to play in the tennis tournaments. A B C D 5. Many people believe that New York is the most great city in America. A B C D 6. Each year people around the world spending billions of dollars buying goods on the Internet A B C D 7. Children enjoy telling and listening to ghosts stories, especially on Hallowen night. A B C D 8. One of the most urgent problem facing us now is the need to control population growth. A B C D 9. I'd lost my front door key and I had to smash a window by a brick to get in. A B C D 10. Despite of the heavy snow, she went out. A B C D III. Give the correct form of the words in brackets. (1 pt) 1. He is interested in the …………… of old building ( Preserve) . 2. Don't depend on him; he's a very ………………….. person. (rely) . 3. Rob was dismissed after being told by his………that he must leave in a month's time.( employ) 4. He's quite an……… person. He plays lots of sport and goes running everyday (energy) 5. English is a……………easy language for Swedes to learn. (compare) 6. I think it's very………of him to expect us to work over time every night this week. (reason ) 7. His boss told him off because he had behaved ………….. (responsible) 8. She left school with good …………. (qualify) 9. She has one of the biggest ………… in Britain (collect) 10. Sorry about the mistakes, I …………. the instructions you gave me . (understand) C. READING: I. Read the following passage and the decide which option A,B,C or D best fits each space. (1 pt) Have you ever stopped (1)……… why people give each (2)……….. eggs at Easter ? - The Christian festival of Easter celebrates the return of Christ from the dead, but the festival is actually name (3)……….. the goddess of the sun, Eostre, whose name is taken from the East where she (4)……….. In very ancient times, Easter was a celebration that winter was (5)……… and that a new life was about to begin . The rabbit , (6)……….. to the number of young it produces, it the symbol of life. In some parts of the world, the rabbit leaves large (7) …….. of eggs (another symbol of new life ) in the garden and children have to find as many as they can . This is very
(8)…………. Christmas when Santa Claus leave presents for individual children. At Easter children have to be independent and (9)……… after themselves . In this (10)……….. the hunt for Easter eggs presents the need for young people to go out in to the world and make their own fortune . 1A. to wonder B. wondering C. wonder D. wander 2A.else B. person C. others D.other 3A.for B. about C. after D. with 4A. goes B. sets C . rises D. raises 5A. finish B.conclusion C. up D. over 6A. as B.since C. due D. because 7A. numbers B. sums C. fingures D. totals 8A. like B.unlike C.different D.similar 9A.take B.get C.look D. carry 10A day B. way C.habit D.time II. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to the questions below ; (0.5 pt) During the teenage years, many young people can at times be difficult to talk to . They often seem to dislike being questioned. They may seem unwilling to talk about their work in school. This is a normal development at this age , though it can be very hard for parents to understand. It is part of becoming independent of teenagers trying to be adult while they are still growing up . Young people are usually more willing to talk if they believe that questions are asked out of real interest and not because people are trying to check up on them . Parents should do their best to talk to their sons and daughters about school work and future plant but should not push them to talk if they don't want to . Parents should also watch for the danger signs: some young people in trying to be adult may experiment with sex, drugs, alcohol, or smoking. Parents need to watch for any signs of unusual behaviour which may be connected with these and get help if necessarry. 1..This passage is taken from a A. handbook for parents B. school timetable C. teenage magazine. C. book for children 2. Why do adults sometimes find teenagers difficult to talk to. A. because most teenagers are quiet B. because teenagers don't want to talk to other people. C. because teenagers think adults are not honest D. because most teenagers hate adults. 3. When can you expect young people to be more talkative than usual. A. When people talk to them because they are really interested and not just checking on them. B. When adults give them a lot money to spend. C. When adults talk to them about something other than their work in school. D. When adults talk to them about sex, alcohol and drugs. 4. Some teenagers experiment with drinking bad smoking because A. cigarettes and alcohol are available everywhere. B. cigarettes and alcohol are cheap C. women like smoking and drinking men D. they regard them as a mark of eduthood 5. The word BEHAVIOUR in the passage most nearly means A. feeling B. manners C.activities D. reaction. III. Fill in the blanks in the following passage with ONE suitable word. (1 pt) Watching Television and going for a walk are the most popular leisure (1)................. in Britain. But although longer holidays and shorter working hours have given people more free (2) ............,
women generally have less free time (3)............ men, because they spend time (4)................. domestic work, shopping and childcare .. Surveys showed that more men (5).................. newspapers than women, and (6).............. slightly higher proportion of adult read Sunday newspapers than read (7).................... morning national newspaper. More people are taking holidays abroad (8)............... 1971 only 36 percent of (9).............. in Britain had been abroad on holiday; but by 1983 this proportion had (10)................. to 62 percent, nearly fifteen million people. D. WRITING: I. Rewrite each sentence, beginning as shown, so that the meaning stays the same. (1 pt) 1. When you phoned me, it was my lunchtime. When you phoned me, I ................................... 2. Nobody knows anything about Pam’s past life. Nothing ............................................................. 3. This house was specially built for my uncle. My uncle ........................................................... 4. William never makes mistakes because he is a careful reader. William is so ............................................................................ 5. We expected Larry to accept the job, but he didn’t. Even though Larry .................................................. 6. This is the best essay I have ever written. Never ............................. 7. There was no need for you to have gone to all that trouble. You ............................................................... 8. There aren't many people who have read this novel to the end but John is one of them. John is one of....................... 9. The food in France is famous. France is........................ 10. She didn't say a word as she left the room. She left the room ... II. Under each of following sentences, there are 4 sentences marked A, B, C or D . Choose sentences has the same meaning as the original one 1. "Where does your father work" - He asked me. A. He asked me to find where my father works; B. He asked me to find where my father worked. C. He asked me where my father works; D. He asked me where my father worked. 2. Although he is trong , he can't lift the box. A. As he is strong, he can lift the box B. Eventhough he is not strong, he can lift the box C.In spite of his strength, he can't lift the box D. He can't lift that box because is not strong 3. How old do you think this house is? A. Do you know when the house is built? B. When do you think the house was built? C. When do you think the house is built? D. When is the house built ? 4. The cakes were too stale to eat. A. The cakes were so stale in order to eat; B. The cakes were very stale to be eaten; C. The cakes weren't fresh enough to eat; D. The cakes weren't enough fresh to eat. 5. They left early because they didn't want to get caught in the traffic. A.They left early so that not to get caught in the traffic B.They left early so to avoid getting caught in the traffic C.They left early so as not to get caught in the traffic D.They left early in order to not get caught in the traffic.
6.They last visited me five year ago. A.They haven't visited me for a long time; B. I haven't been visited me for a long time; C.They haven't visited me for five years; D.They have known me for five years. 7. As soon as he arrived at the airport, he called home. A. No sooner had he arrived at the airport than he called home. B.He arrived at the airport sooner than he had expected. C.Calling home , he said that he had arrived at the airport. D. He arrived at the airport and called me to take him home . 8. Your refusal to attend the party made everyone feel sad. A.Every one felt sad when you refused to attend the party. B.Your attendance at the party made everyone feel sad. C. Everyone felt sad attending the party. D. You made everyone sad about your refusal to throw the party. 9. "Let's invite Tom to the party this sunday"- Mark said A. Mark suggested us to invite Tom to the party on sunday. B. Mark suggested inviting Tom to the party on sunday. C. Mark said that we should invite Tom to the party on sunday. D. Mark told us to invite Tom to the party on sunday. 10. Anne worked too hard at the office, and this led to her illness. A.Anne's illness was the result of his working hard at the office. B If Anne didn't work too hard at the office, she wouldn't be ill. C. Every time Anne works hard at the office, he is ill D. Anne's illness prevented her from working hard at the office. III. Make all changes and addition necessary to produce from following sets of words or phrases to make a complete letter. (1 pt) Dear Jack, 1. Thank you/ letter/ I receive / when/ get home/ last night. 2. I/ be/ please/ hear you/ after such/ long time. 3. I/ love/ go/ ballet/ with you/ but/ I/ not be free / until 6.30 p.m/ 4. How about come/ my flat/ and have/ something/ eat/ before/ go ? 5. I/ not want/ take my car/ because/ it be / difficult/ find / somewhere/ park. 6. Why/ we/not go/ taxi ? 7. Let's hope/ dancing/ be / good as/ reviews say/ 8. I/ look forward / see you/ tomorrow night. 9. love/ Anne.//
--------------------- Hết ---------------------Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu. Cán bộ coi thi không giải thích gì thêm.
PHÒNG GD&ĐT BÌNH XUYÊN TRƯỜNG THCS THANH LÃNG
HDC KHẢO SÁT CHẤT LƯỢNG HSG_LẦN 1 NĂM HỌC 2017-2018 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 9
PART 1: LISTENING (1 pt) 1. Listen to the passage twice, then write T (True) or F (False) for the following sentences: (0.5pt) 1. T 2. F 3. T 4. T 5. T 2. Listen to the passage twice, then fill in each blank with one suitable word(0.5pt) 1. Are 2. most 3. Tet 4. clean 5. who PART 2: A. Phonology: I. 0.5 points ( 0.1 point for each correct answer ) 1. B 2. A 3. A 4. B 5.B. II. 0.5 point ( 0.1 point for each correct answer ) 1. D 2. D 3. B 4. A 5.B. B. Grammar and vocabulary. I. 1 point ( 0.1 point for each correct answer ) 1. A 2.C 3.A 4.C 5.A 6.B; 7.D 8.B 9.C II. 10 points ( one point for each correct answer ) 1. A 2.B 3.C 4.A 5.C 6.B 7.B 8.B 9.C III. 1 points (0.1 point for each correct answer ) 1. preservation 4. energetic 7. irresponsibly 2. un reliable 5. comparatively 8. qualifications 3. employer 6. unreasonable 9. collections 10. misunderstood. C. Reading: I. 1 point (o.1 point for each correct answer) 1. A 2.D 3.C 4.C 5.D 6.C 7.A 8.A 9.C II. 0.5 point (0.1 point for each correct answer) 1.A 2. 3.A 4.D 5.B III. 1point (one point for each correct answer) .1.activities 2. time 3. than 4. on 5. read 6. a 7. daily 8. in 9. adults 10. risen D. Writing: I. Rewrite each sentence, beginning as shown, so that the meaning stays the same. (1 pt) 1. When you phoned me, I was having lunch. 2. Nothing is known about Pam’s past life. 3. My uncle had this house specially built. 4. William is so careful that he never makes mistakes when he reads. (William is so careful a reader that he never makes mistakes.) 5. Even though Larry was expected to accept the job, he didn’t. 6. Never have I written such a good essay before. 7. You didn't need to go to all trouble. 8. John is one of people who has read this novel to the end. 9. France is famous for (its) food. 10. She left the room without saying a word ( any words) II. 0.5 point (0.05 point for each correct answer) 1. D 2.C 3.B 4.C 5.C 6.C 7.A 8.A 9.B III. 1 point: 1. Thank you for the letter that I received when I got home last night. 2. I was very pleased to hear from you after such a long time. 3. I'd love to go to the ballet with you but I won't be free until 6.30 p.m 4. How about coming to my flat and have something to eat before we go?
10.B 10.A
10.B
10.B
5. I don't want to take my car because it will be difficult to find somewhere to park. 6. Why don't we go by taxi? 7. Let's hope the dancing will be good as the reviews say. 8. I'm looking forward to seeing you tomorrow night. 9. love Anne
PHÒNG GD&ĐT BÌNH XUYÊN TRƯỜNG THCS THANH LÃNG ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
ĐỀ KHẢO SÁT CHẤT LƯỢNG HSG_LẦN 2 NĂM HỌC 2017-2018 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 9 Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút không kể thời gian giao đề
Part A: listening: (3.0 pts) I. Listen to the dialogue and decide which statement is True or False. (0.2 x 5 = 1.0 pt) Statements
True
False
1. Sam caught a cold. 2. Alice advised Sam to drink a lot of water. 3. Sam still felt like death warmed over. 4. Alice brought Sam some medicines. 5. The medicines made Sam awake. II. Listen to the following passage and fill in each blank with a missing word you have heard. (0.2 x 10 = 2.0 pts) Digital cameras have changed the way that we look at pictures. Now there’s a device that changes the way we focus them. This is the LytroIllum, a digital (1) ___________ that lets you refocus your photographs after you’ve taken them. The camera uses something called light-field (2) ___________, which helps it catch millions of light rays with each image. Once you snap your photo, you use the camera’s software to (3) ___________what you want to focus on. You can also use it to shift perspective, create 3D images, and even animate still photos; creating what Lytro calls ‘living pictures.’ The Illum is designed to look like a DSLR camera. It comes equipped with a (4) ___________and powerful zoom lens and LCD touch-screen monitor… but all of this doesn’t come cheap. The Illum goes for 1600 dollars. So, is this the future of (5) ___________? That’s still up for debate. Lytro released an earlier and much (6)____________ model in 2011 but the camera never took off. After all, the LytroIllum’s 2d processed image is only about (7) ___________ megapixels, a far cry from what (8) ___________ of today’s smart phones can shoot. And a number of smart phone apps claim to imitate what light-field photography with varying (9) ___________, for only a few dollars. Still, other smart phone manufacturers are working on similar technology – but as they say, imitation is the sincerest form of flattery. And last year, (10) ___________, patented its own light-field camera. So, maybe Lytro really is on to something. Part B: phonetics (2.0 pts) -1-
I. Choose the word whose underlined part pronounced differently from that of the others by circling A, B, C, or D. (0.2 x 5= 1.0 pt) 1. A. label B. danger C. natural D. ancient 2. A. chalk B. chicken C. machine D. chapter 3. A. sugar B. sight C. spot D. trust 4. A. music B. future C. public D. cubic 5. A. purpose B. produce C. pollute D. compose II. Chose the word whose STRESS pattern is different from the others by circling A, B, C, or D. (0.2 x 5= 1.0 pt) 1. A. alcohol B. legendary C. prominent D. legitimate 2. A. architect B. pioneer C. military D. principle 3. A. conceal B. conference C. confidence D. context 4. A. activity B. biology C. geography D. scientific 5. A. musician B. museum C. competent D. computer Part C: Vocabulary and structures: (6.5 pts) I. Choose the underlined word or phrase in each of the sentences that needs correcting: (5 × 0,2 = 1,0 pt) 1. My father says he will never forget the day on when he joined the army. A B C D 2. The boy took his dog for a walk after he has finished his homework. A B C D 3. The young teacher had no difficult getting the students to understand. A B C D 4. Products which have bought during the sale can not be exchanged. A B C D 5. Before printing was invented, people had to be written. A B C D II. Fill in the blanks with the correct forms or tense of the verbs in brackets (6 × 0,25=1,5pts): 1. My dog (walk) ……………..…. along quickly when Mrs. Baker’s dog attacked him. 2. Mr. Brown expected (offer) ……………..…. the job in Spain. 3. If you (not take) ……………..….those photographs, we wouldn’d have been arrested. 4. It’s just struck midnight. It’s high time we (leave) ……………..…. 5. There’s smoke and we smell something (burn) ……………..…. 6. When you next see me, I (wear) ……………..…. my new dress. III. Use the words given in brackets to form a word that fits in the space. (0.2 x 10 = 2.0 pts) 1. I was late because ……………..how much time I’ll need. (ESTIMATE) 2. There was ice on the pavement which made it very difficult to walk as it was so …………….. ( SLIP) -2-
3. Despite the star-studded cast, the film was only …………….. successful. (PART) 4. How can you ……………..the fact that some people live in mansions while others live in slumps? (JUST) 5. I …………….. met an old friend last week. (EXPECT) 6. I think it is very…………….. of him to expect us to work overtime every night this week. (REASON) 7. I have applied for the job, but I am not sure because there are a lot of job …………….. (APPLY) 8. The thing I hate about John is his …………….. (RELY) 9. The ………..of the Hollywood actor, Jimmy Haltom, was announced last night. (DIE) 10. An aero plane has to overcome the …………….. of the air. (RESIST) IV. Complete the following sentences with the correct form of the phrasal verbs given in the box. (0.2 x 10 = 2.0 pts) come back get on well fall over look up come across bring up pay back turn on lie down take back 1. I ………………an old friend while I was walking along the street. 2. I am late because my alarm clock didn’t……………… this morning. 3. Could you lend me ten pounds? I’ll.............. you............... on Friday. 4. The sidewalk is very icy. Be careful you don’t................... 5. I was feeling so tired, I had to.................. on the bed for a while. 6. His parents died when he was very young so he was ……………….. by an aunt. 7. Mark’s gone out and I don’t know when he is going to ……………….. 8. Let’s …………these new words…………….. in a dictionary. 9. I’ll have to ......................these books............. to the library. 10. She didn’t ……………………… with her boss, so she left the company. Part D: Reading comprehension: (4pts) I. Choose the word or phrase which best fits each gap of the passage: (10 × 0,2=2pts) The Pacific Ocean is the world’s largest body of water. It (1)………… a third of the Earth’s surface, having an area of 179,7 million (2)…………kilometers, significantly larger than Earth’s entire landmass, with room for another Africa to spare. (3)…………approximately 15,500 kilometers from the Bering Sea in the Arctic to the icy margins of Antarctica’s Ross Sea in the south, the Pacific (4)………… about 25,000 islands. Some scientists state that the Pacific Ocean may be shrinking while the Atlantic Ocean is increasing (5)…………size. However, the Pacific is not always (6)………… The lands around the Pacific are (7)………..volcanoes and often affected by the earthquakes. Tsunamis, caused by (8)………… earthquakes, have devastated many islands and destroyed entire towns. The Pacific ocean is generally -3-
believed (9)………… warmer than the Atlantic ocean. The ocean was sighted by Europeans early in the 16th century, first by Vasco Balboa (1513) and then by Ferdinand Magellan, (10)……… crossed the Pacific during his circumnavigation from 1519 to 1522. 1. A. discovers B. covers C. recovers D. takes 2. A. square B. round C. rectangle D. sphere 3. A. Widening B. Broadening C. Enlarging D. Extending 4. A. confirms B. controlled C. contains D. consists 5. A. in B. at C. of D. for 6. A. peace B. peaceful C. peacefully D. peacefulness 7. A. crowded with B. familiar with C. accustomed D. full of 8. A. underground B. undercharge C. undersea D. undercoat 9. A. to be B. be C. being D. been 10. A. that B. who C. what D. whom II. Circle best option A, B, C or D to answer following questions. (0.2 x 5= 1.0 pt) Maybe you recycle cans, glass, paper and metal. Did you know that nature recycles, too? One of the things nature recycles is water. Water goes from the ocean, lakes and rivers into the air. Water falls from the air as rain or snow. Rain and snow eventually find their way back to the ocean. Nature’s recycling process for water is called the water cycle. The water cycle has four stages: storage, evaporation, precipitation and run-off. Water on Earth gets stored in oceans, lakes, rivers, ice and even underground. Water goes from storage into the atmosphere by a process called evaporation. When water evaporates, it changes from a liquid into a gas, called water vapor. Water vapor goes up into the atmosphere. Water returns to Earth as precipitation in rain or snow by changing into drops of water when the air gets cold enough. Clouds are collections of water droplets. Most precipitation falls into the oceans and goes right back into storage. Water that falls on land always flows from higher places to lower ones This flow is called run-off. Water from land flows into streams. Streams join together to make rivers and eventually the water flows into storage in the ocean, then the water cycle starts all over again. 1. What can nature recycle? A. Cans, glass, paper and metal B. Ocean C. Lakes and rivers D. Water 2. In recycling, where does water go from? A. From rivers, lakes to oceans B. From oceans to lakes C. From the ocean into lakes, rivers and ponds D. From oceans, lakes and rivers into the air 3. In what way, does water go from storage into the atmosphere? A. By a process called precipitation B. By a process called evaporation C. By tornadoes -4-
D. By moving of air 4. When water evaporates, how does it change? A. From the air as rain or snow B. From water vapor up into the atmosphere C. From a gas into liquid called water vapor D. From a liquid into a gas called water vapor 5. In the end, where does water flow into? A. Wells B. Ponds C. Lakes D. Storage in the ocean. III. Choose the most suitable heading from the list A-H for each part (1-4) of the article: (4 × 0,25=1pt) A. B. C. D.
Part-time jobs for teenagers e. Not always straightforward Carry out some research F. Working for free Better off working together? G. Pick a service to provide They could do with you H. Income and other benefits Think positively!
1 As a teenager, you are likely to have both a fair amount of spare time and a desire to earn some money. By working to earn money yourself, you can learn a lot about the value of things as well as the world of business. Typical and obvious jobs teenagers for teenagers include working at a fastfood restaurant, working as a shop assistant or stacking shelves at a supermarket. 2 What you get out of a job like this depends on your attitude. If your attitude is “I hate this job” then obviously you won’t benefit much from it; if, on the other hand, you look at it as an opportunity to learn how business works from the inside out, then the benefits can be great. Many of the new generation of millionaires, for example, are owners of franchise and private restaurants. Owning a restaurant is not easy, however, and it requires knowledge and skill to be successful, so start gathering this as a teenager. Try as many positions as possible and ask lots of questions about cash flow, staffing, etc. Applying this attitude to any job you have will really pay off; you’ll learn a huge amount. 3 For many teenagers, there are a variety of problems associated with getting a job. You may not be old enough or you may lack reliable transportation. You may not have enough total time available or a regular enough schedule for someone to be willing to hire you. You might not even be able to find a job in an area that you enjoy. If any of these problems holds true for you, then working for yourself on a part-time basis may be the best way to go. 4 -5-
Baby-sitting, for example, is a tried and tested way for responsible teenagers who like being with kids to make money. There are several things you can do make your services more available. Think about taking a first-aid course so that you know how to handle emergencies. Secondly, you might want to consider teaming up with some likeminded friends. That way your group will be able to say yes more often, increasing the amount of work you’re offered. Part E: writing (4,5pts) I. Finish the second sentence in such a way that is similar to the original one. (0.2 x 5 = 1.0 pt) 1. “You stole the jewels” the inspector said to him. The inspector accused…………………………………………………… 2. The drama critic of the “daily news” regards the new play as a major breakthrough. According………………………………………………………………… 3. The only way you can become a good athlete is by training hard everyday Only ………………………………………………………………… 4. He speaks more persuasively than his brother. He is ……………………………………………………………………… 5. If you want my advice, I would forget about buying a new house. If………………………………………………………………………….. II. Make complete sentences from the words and phrases given: (5 × 0,2=1pt) 1. The sun / shine / brightly / before / she / came. -> ……………………………………………………………………………… 2. If / he / careful / not / cause / an accident / last week. -> ……………………………………………………………………………… 3. My father / tired / living / city / so / wants / live / quiet village. -> ……………………………………………………………………………… 4. End of last year / he / read / four / Shakespeare plays. -> ……………………………………………………………………………… 5. Such questions / not answer / satisfactorily / so far. III. Some students say that it’s difficult to learn English at school. Do you agree? Why? or Why not? (2.5pts) …..……...………………………………………………………………………… ………...…..……...……………………………………………………………… …………………...…..……...…………………………………………………… ……………………………...…..……...………………………………………… ………………………………………...…..……...……………………………… ----------------------Hết----------------------Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu. Cán bộ coi thi không giải thích gì thêm!
-6-
PHÒNG GD&ĐT BÌNH XUYÊN TRƯỜNG THCS THANH LÃNG
HDC KHẢO SÁT CHẤT LƯỢNG HSG_LẦN 2 NĂM HỌC 2017-2018 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 9
Part A: listening (3 pts): I. Listen to the following dialogue and decide which statement is True or False. (0.2 x 5 = 1.0 pts) 1.T 2. F 3. T 4. T 5 . F II. Listen to the following passage and fill in each blank with a missing word you have heard. (0.2 x 10 = 2.0 pts) 1. camera 6. cheaper 2. technology 7. five 3. choose 8. some 4. fast 9. success 5. photography 10. Apple Part B: phonetics (2pts) I. Choose the word whose underlined part pronounced differently from that of the others by circling A, B, C, or D. (0.2 x 5= 1.0 pt) 1. D 2. C 3. A 4. C 5. B II. Chose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others by circling A, B, C, or D. (0.2 x 5= 1.0 pt) 1. D (3) 2. B (3) 3. A (2) 4. D (3) 5. C (1) Part C: vocabulary and structures: (6.5pts) I. Choose the underlined word or phrase in each of the sentences that needs correcting: (5 × 0,2 = 1 pt) 1. C 2. C 3. B 4. A 5. D II. Fill in the blanks with the correct forms or tense of the verbs in brackets (6 × 0,25=1,5pts): 1. was walking 2. to be offered 3. hadn’t taken 4. left 5. burning 6. will/shall be wearing III. Use the words given in brackets to form a word that fits in the space. (0.2 x 10 = 2.0 pts) 1. unestimated 2. slippery 3. partly 4. justify 5. unexpectedly 6. unreasonable 7. applications 8. unreliability 9. death 10. resistance IV. Complete the following sentences with the correct form of the phrasal verbs given in the box. (0.2 x 10 = 2.0 pts) 1. came across 6. brought up 2. turn on 7. come back 3. pay back 8. look/ up -7-
4. fall over 5. lie down
9. take/ back 10. get on well
Part D: reading comprehension: (4pts) I. Choose the word or phrase which best fits each gap of the passage: (10 × 0,2=2pts) 1. B. covers 2. A. square 3. D. Extending 4. C. contains 5. A. in 6. B. peaceful 7. D. full of 8. C. undersea 9. A. to be 10. B. who II. Circle best option A, B, C or D to answer following questions. (0.2 x 5= 1.0 pt) 1. D 2. D 3. B 4. D 5. D III. Choose the most suitable heading from the list A-H for each part (1-4) of the article: (4 × 0,25=1pt) 1 - H 2 - D 3 - E 4 - B Part E: writing (4,5pts) I. Finish the second sentence in such a way that is similar to the original one. (0.2 x 5 = 1.0 pt) II. Make complete sentences from the words and phrases given: (5 × 0,2=1pt) 1. -> The sun had shone brightly before she came. 2. -> If he had been careful, he would not have caused an accidenr last week. 3. -> My father is tired of living in the city, so he wants to live in a quiet village. 4. -> By the end of last year, he had read four Shakespeare plays. 5. -> Such questions have not been answered satisfactorily so far. III. Some students say that it’s difficult to learn ‘Writing” at school, especially with essays. Do you agree? Why? or Why not? (2.5 pts) Mở bài: Nêu được chủ dề của bài viết 0,5 điểm Thân bài: Nêu được ít nhất 5 ý về việc đồng ý hay không đồng ý với quan điểm trong bài, có ví dụ chứng minh thuyết phục về những quan điểm đó hay gợi ý cách viết có hiệu quả, đặc biệt đối với học sinh các trường phổ thông. 1,5 điểm Kết luận: Tóm tắt, khẳng định lại chủ đề của bài viết: 0,5 điểm. Tổng điểm 20 : 2 = 10 điểm./. -8-
SỞ GD&ĐT VĨNH PHÚC ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
KÌ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9 NĂM HỌC 2017-2018 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) (Đề thi có 06 trang)
PART A. LISTENING Section 1: You will hear a man telephoning a library to find out about joining. Listen and complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS/ OR A NUMBER for each answer. You will hear the recording TWICE.
LIBRARY INFORMATION For registration, must take - two (1) _______________ and - two forms of I.D. e.g. driving licence, (2) _______________ Cost to join per year (without current student card): (3) £_______________ Number of items allowed: (members of public) (4) _______________ Loan times: four weeks Fines start at (5) £_______________ Computers can be booked up to (6) _______________ hours in advance Library holds most national papers, all (7) _______________, and magazines Need (8) _______________ to use photocopier Answer Creative Writing class • tutor is John (9) _______________ • held on (10) _______________ evenings
Section 2: You will hear a teacher talking to a group of students. Listen and choose the best answer A, B, or C. You will hear the recording TWICE. 1. Why is tonight’s disco special? A. It’s the last week of the course. B. It starts earlier than usual. C. It’s Sam birthday. 2. Where will the football match take place? A. at Henry’s College B. at the sports centre C. in a park 3. After the football match, the students will _______. A. go to a pizza restaurant B. have a party at the college C. celebrate on the beach 4. The train to Thornton leaves at _______. A. 12.15 B. 12.45 C. 1.20 5. What should the students bring to the picnic? A. drinks B. bread rolls C. glasses Section 3: You will hear a student called Shona giving a presentation on her research report. Listen and choose the best answer A, B, or C. You will hear the recording TWICE. 1. In order to set up her research programme, Shona got ________. A. advice from personal friends in other countries B. help from students in other countries C. information from her tutor’s contacts in other countries 2. What types of people were included in the research? A. young people in their first job 1
B. men who were working C. women who were unemployed 3. Shona says that in her questionnaire her aim was ________. A. to get a wide range of data B. to limit people's responses C. to guide people through interviews 4. What do Shona’s initial results show about medical services in Britain? A. Current concerns are misrepresented by the press. B. Financial issues are critical to the government. C. Reforms within hospitals have been unsuccessful. 5. Shona needs to do further research in order to ________. A. present the government with her findings B. decide the level of extra funding needed C. identify the preferences of the public PART B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR Section 1: Choose the correct option marked A, B, C, or D to complete the following sentences. 1. ________ weak was a well-known fact. A. That their team was B. That their team being C. Their team was D. If their team was 2. Richard, my neighbour, ________ in World War II. A. says to fight B. says to have fought C. is said to fight D. is said to have fought 3. ________ the phone rang later that night did Tom remember the appointment. A. No sooner B. Only C. Not until D. Just before 4. My sister has just ________ sixteen. A. completed B. turned C. become D. had 5. Jane really loves the ________ jewelry box that her parents gave her as a birthday present. A. wooden brown nice B. nice wooden brown C. brown wooden nice D. nice brown wooden 6. I’ve got so much spare time. Now I’m thinking of taking ________ a new hobby like stamp collecting. A. in B. off C. up D. over 7. I have always ________ my older brother for his courage and honesty. A. taken up B. taken after C. looked up to D. looked after 8. The sight of so many sweets made the children’s mouths________. A. drip B. moisten C. water D. wet 9. It was such a shock to receive a letter like that ________. A. in the red B. out of the blue C. in the pink D. over the moon 10. - Jane: “Would you mind if I use your computer for an hour?” - Tony: “________.” A. Not at all. I’ve finished my job B. Yes, you can use it C. Of course not. I still need it now D. Yes, it’s all right 11. Don’t be ________ in by his charm – he’s ruthless. A. let B. put C. taken D. dropped 12. If Jim ________ the plane, he ________ here by now. A. hadn’t missed/ would have been B. didn’t miss/ would have been C. hadn’t missed/ had been D. hadn’t missed/ would be 13. He insisted that his method ________ correct. A. be B. were C. was D. is 14. ________ in several early civilizations, a cubit was based on the length of the forearm from the tip of the middle finger to the elbow. A. It used as a measurement B. A measurement was used C. The use of a measurement D. Used as a measurement 2
15. You just never lift a ________ to help me – I have to do everything myself! A. shoulder B. hand C. finger D. wrist 16. At the end of the match the players were ________ exhausted. A. solely B. utterly C. actually D. merely 17. ________ of all of us who are here tonight, I would like to thank Mr. Jones for his talk. A. On behalf B. On account C. In person D. Instead 18. He agreed to give me his car for the weekend on ________ that I helped him write his essay. A. condition B. term C. rule D. decree 19. George was ________ from school for bad behavior. A. exiled B. dismissed C. expelled D. discharged 20. The pictures are similar, but there are ________ differences between them. A. subtle B. few C. remarkable D. clear Section 2: Each line in the following passage contains one mistake. Find out the mistake and correct it as the example below. Line 0: because → because of People have always valued elephants because their size and strength. 0………………. Asian elephants has been captured and trained to work for human being 1………………. for two thousand years. We have been used in battles from the 3rd century 2………………. up when World War II. Because they are easily trained, they have been 3………………. used to transport goods and carry huge logs from forests which was once 4………………. their homes. Approximately twenty-five percents of the world’s 5………………. population of Asian elephants have been caught and trained to do variety 6………………. jobs, including carrying passengers and help to capture more wild 7………………. elephants. Elephants are considered to be more intelligent then most 8………………. animals, including domestic dogs and cats. This shows by the way they 9………………. can easily learn to do tricks and perform tasks, as soon as by the playful 10…………….. behavior of young elephants, who energetically play games of hide and seek, tug of war and tag. Section 3: Supply the correct form of the word provided to the right of each blank. When computers appeared in the 1950s, many people thought that it would not be long before these (1) _______ machines started talking, thinking 1. IMPRESS for themselves and taking over the world. People predicted all kinds of things, from robot (2) _______ to computerized houses. None of it happened. Despite 2. SERVE the billions of dollars and years of research given to developing artificial intelligence, computers are still unable to hold a normal (3) _______ with a 3. CONVERSE human being. In fact, although computers today can process information thousands of times faster than they could fifty years ago, they are only two or three times better at using human language than they were back then. In (4)________, the huge increase in computer use has proved that today’s 4. ADD computers, with their windows, mice, icons and commands, do not operate in the same way as the human brain. If this were not true, there would be no need 5. EMPLOY for the thousands of tech support staff (5) _______ by all centres. The trouble is that, even though computers can turn (6) _______ into 6. SPEAK text, recognise objects by using cameras, search through (7) _______ amounts 7. END of data and even use robot (8) _______ to move like human beings, they are 8. MECHANIC unable to put all these (9) _______ together and actually think and function like 9. ABLE human beings. One of the reasons for this is that scientists still do not know much about how the human brain works, so it is (10) _______ to program 10. POSSIBLE computers to copy the brain’s processes. PART 3. READING 3
Section 1: Read the following passage and think of a word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word for each space. Getting from place to place has been a challenge for humans (1) ______ the beginning of man’s existence. Not only (2) ______ people struggle with the actually physical problems of travel, but they also need to know the right direction to go. In one’s own little part of the world, this may have been relatively easy, but, as humans expanded further and further, it became necessary to determine how to get from one place to (3) ______ and back again. Paths, roads, and trails made journeys easier, and the creation of maps transmitted this knowledge to others. (4) ______, once humans pushed onto the vast oceans, there were (5)______ roads or accurate maps. The compass, showing the magnetic north, was a great, yet imperfect, aid. Latitude could be measured by sun angles, but (6) ______ the perfection of timepieces in the 19th century, it was almost impossible to measure longitude. Fortunately, today there is a device which allows people easily to find their position no matter (7) ______ they are: the Global Positioning System (GPS). The Global Positioning System (8) ______ of a series of twenty-four satellites in geosynchronous orbit around Earth at an altitude of 12,500 miles. These satellites are in fixed positions, so, by reading the (9) ______ from three of them, a person holding a GPS receiver can know exactly where he is. The GPS receiver synchronizes its clock with (10) ______ of the satellites’ atomic clocks. Section 2: Read the following passage and choose the best option marked A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. What is ‘extreme’ weather? Why are people talking about it these days? ‘Extreme’ weather is an unusual weather event such as rainfall, a drought or a heat wave in the wrong place or at the wrong time. In theory, they are very rare. But these days, our TV screens are constantly showing such extreme weather events. Take just three news stories from 2010: 28 centimetres of rain fell on Riode Janeiro in 24 hours, Nashville, USA, had 33 centimetres of rain in two days and there was record rainfall in Pakistan. The effects of this kind of rainfall are dramatic and lethal. In Rio de Janeiro, landslides followed, burying hundreds of people. In Pakistan, the floods affected 20 million people. Meanwhile, other parts of the world suffer devastating droughts. Australia, Russia and East Africa have been hit in the last ten years. And then there are unexpected heat waves, such as in 2003 in Europe. That summer, 35.000 deaths were said to be heat-related. So, what is happening to our weather? Are these extreme events part of a natural cycle? Or are they caused by human activity and its effects on the Earth’s climate? Peter Miller says it’s probably a mixture of both of these things. On the one hand, the most important influences on weather events are natural cycles in the climate. Two of the most famous weather cycles, El Niño and La Niña, originate in the Pacific Ocean. The heat from the warm ocean rises high into the atmosphere and affects weather all around the world. On the other hand, the temperature of the Earth’s oceans is slowly but steadily going up. And this is a result of human activity. We are producing greenhouse gases that trap heat in the Earth’s atmosphere. This heat warms up the atmosphere, land and oceans. Warmer oceans produce more water vapor - think of heating a pan of water in your kitchen. Turn up the heat, it produces steam more quickly. Satellite data tells US that the water vapor in the atmosphere has gone up by four percent in 25 years. This warm, wet air turns into the rain, storms, hurricanes and typhoons that we are increasingly experiencing. Climate scientist, Michael Oppenheimer, says that we need to face the reality of climate change. And we also need to act now to save lives and money in the future. (Source: © 2015 National Geographic Learning, www.ngllife.com/wild-weather) 1. It is stated in the passage that extreme weather is ______. A. becoming more common B. not a natural occurrence C. difficult for scientists to understand D. killing more people than ever before 2. Which of these things is the basis of normal weather patterns? A. greenhouse gases B. human activity C. El Niño and La Niña D. water vapour 3. What caused thousands of deaths in 2003? A. a period of hot weather B. floods after a bad summer C. a long spell of heavy rain D. large-scale landslides 4
4. According to the passage, extreme weather is a problem because ______. A. we can never predict it B. it only affects crowded places C. it’s often very destructive D. its causes are completely unknown 5. Which statement is NOT supported by the information in the passage? A. Extreme weather is substantially influenced by human activity. B. Unusual weather events are part of natural cycles. C. We can limit the bad effects of extreme weather. D. Such extreme weather is hardly the consequence of human activity. Section 3: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
FENG SHUI – POSITIVE FEELINGS CHINESE STYLE Recently, the Feng Shui business has been booming as more and more people (1) _______ an interest in Asian culture and lifestyles. Whether people are (2) _______ Feng Shui experts or simply buying books and trying it out for themselves, there is no doubt that, in the West, in the last few years the idea of Feng Shui has really (3) _______ off. So what exactly is Feng Shui? Well, it is a Chinese art form that is concerned (4) _______ the way you arrange the rooms and the furniture in your house. It is believed that organising these things correctly will (5) ______ you happiness and good luck. In the UK there are currently about 300 Feng Shui consultants. They will come to your house or office and give you advice (6) _______ on your lifestyle and date of birth. According to one such expert, I (7) _______ install an aquarium with six black and one red goldfish in my living room in order to absorb bad vibes. He also told me to (8) _______ attention to one of my windows. He advised me to put plants on the window sill to prevent the loss of positive energy. The real ‘weak spot’ in my house, however, was the cooker. He reassured me that hanging some dried vegetables above it would solve the (9) _______.Whether you believe in the power of Feng Shui or not, it is certainly having a major (10) _______ on the way thousands of people organize their homes. 1. A. take 2. A. requesting 3. A. made 4. A. with 5. A. carry 6. A. based 7. A. ought 8. A. give 9. A. fault 10. A. affect
B. do B. asking B. driven B. of B. give B. put B. need B. pay B. error B. impact
C. make C. consulting C. taken C. in C. make C. held C. have C. have C. mistake C. consequence
D. give D. advising D. started D. through D. bring D. carried D. must D. put D. problem D. power
Section 4: You are going to read an article about treasure in the mud. Five sentences have been removed from the article. Choose the sentences from A-F the one which best fits gaps 1-5. There is one extra sentence which you do not need to use. TREASURE IN THE MUD Ian Smith likes to spend his free time looking for ancient objects Mudlark was the nineteenth-century name for someone who searched in river mud at low tide, on the lookout for objects that other people had lost or thrown into the water. For the original mudlarks it was a way of making a living. But for Ian Smith it’s a hobby, because he’s looking for objects of historical interest. Ian heads down to the River Thames at low tide with his electronic metal-detector and a spade. Working around fast and sometimes dangerous tides, he hunts for ancient everyday objects from cups and coins to buttons and badges. Anyone can have a go, as long as they have permission. There are currently about 300 licensed mudlarks in Britain. But Ian, who is an antique dealer by profession, is not an ordinary one. After thirty years, there’s barely a patch of wet mud on any tidal river in the UK that he doesn’t know. 5
1. __________ ‘You’re not likely to find a chest of gold on a foreshore and the spectacular stuff in museums is there because it is extremely rare,’ Ian tells me when I meet him under London’s Tower Bridge shortly after breakfast. Here it’s more likely to be the everyday possessions of ordinary families. In other words, they are objects that tell us how such people used to live centuries ago. It’s mostly rubbish – literally, from a time when unwanted things were simply thrown into the river. Mudlarking involves working with a metal detector, but also using your eyes – studying the surface, picking it over and knowing what you’re looking at when you see it. Mudlarking, says Ian, is an activity that tends to attract solitary characters. 2. __________ ‘But,’ he adds, ‘it’s also very tranquil. You may be in the middle of the city but the lapping of the water takes you away from the hustle.’ We quickly make our first find, the sole from a sixteenth-century shoe. Then, much to my dismay, Ian casually tosses aside our find: ‘You get to see a lot of those over the years,’ he says. 3. __________ That piece of shoe leather, for example, is a give-away that the patch of mud around it is likely to have been eroded by the tides to the sixteenth-century layer. Several oyster shells – an expensive shellfish now, but common workman’s food then – support the theory. Conscious that the tide is against us, we dig a little deeper. An item is often better preserved in the mud that it would be if exposed to the air. 4. __________ ‘While mudlarking is ultimately about the love of history, it is also a race to capture and record what we can before it’s gone,’ says Ian. ‘The water erodes layers, and property developments push further and further out into the river.’ Sifting the mud in his surgeon’s gloves, Ian picks up what the untrained eye would see as a lump of stone. 5. _________ Next, what looks to be a bit of grit reveals itself to be a tiny silver penny bearing the image of Queen Elizabeth I. ‘People ask fishermen what they get out of staring out over a river for hours on end and, unless you’re a fisherman, it’s hard to explain,’ says Ian. ‘It’s the same with mudlarking. Like fishing, it’s very easy to become obsessive about it. But unlike fishing, you also have the pure excitement of seeing something that’s been buried for centuries. It’s still amazing to me that this stuff is there.’ SENTENCES A. Long, disused sets of steps that descend into the mud are another such clue. B. But finding such objects can point towards more interesting things nearby. C. It turns out to be part of a sword. D. Because of this wide experience, he has special permission to dig deep in search of antiquities. E. This scientific fact means the muddy shoreline is a sort of time capsule. F. You have to be that sort of person to want to poke about in the mud for thirty years. PART 4. WRITING Section 1: Write the sentence beginning with the word(s) given so that it has the closest meaning to the original one. Write the answers on your answer sheet. 1. While I strongly disapprove of your behavior, I will help you this time. → Despite my ____________________________________________________. 2. I only realised that I had forgotten to close the door when she told me. → Only when ____________________________________________________. 3. Despite Jack’s strange clothes, everybody ignored him. → Nobody took __________________________________________________. 4. We will not delay our voyage whether there is a rain or not. 6
→ Regardless ____________________________________________________. 5. To pass the time, I looked through some magazines. → I whiled ______________________________________________________. Section 2: Write an essay within 250 words on the following topic: Classmates are a more important influence than parents on a child’s success in school. -
Do you agree or disagree with the above statement? Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your knowledge and experiences. _____THE END_____ KÌ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9 NĂM HỌC 2017-20182HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
SỞ GD&ĐT VĨNH PHÚC
(Gồm 02 trang) PART A. LISTENING (4 points) Section 1: You will hear a man telephoning a library to find out about joining. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. You will hear the recording TWICE. 2 points (0.2pt/item) 1. (passport) photos/ (passport) photographs 6. 48
2. (a) bank statement
3. 125 (per year)
4. 8
5. 1.50
7. local papers/ local newspapers
8. (a) card/ cards
9. Grantingham
10. Friday
Section 2: You will hear a teacher talking to a group of students. 1 point (0.2pt/item) 1. C
2. C
3. C
4. B
5. A
Section 3: You will hear a student called Shona giving a presentation on her research report. Listen and choose the best answer A, B, or C. 1 point (0.2pt/item) 1. B
2. B
3. A
4. A
5. C
PART B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (5 points) Section 1: Choose the correct option marked A, B, C, or D to complete the following sentences. 2 points (0.1pt/ item) 1. A 11. C
2. D 12. D
3. C 13. A
4. B 14. D
5. D 15. C
6. C 16. B
7. C 17. A
8. C 18. A
9. B 19. C
10. A 20. A
Section 2: Each line in the following passage contains one mistake. Find out the mistake and correct it as the example below. 1 point (0.1pt/ item) - Tìm đúng nhưng không sửa được cho 0,05 điểm Line 1 2
Mistake has We
Correction have They
Line 6 7 7
Mistake variety help
Correction various/a variety of helping
3 4 5
when was percents
until/to were percent
then shows soon
8 9 10
than is shown well
Section 3: Supply the correct form of the word provided to the right of each blank. 2 points (0.2pt/ item) 1. impressive 6. speech
2. servants 7. endless
3. conversation 8. mechanisms
4. addition 9. abilities
5. employed 10. impossible
PART C. READING (6 points) https://nguyenthienhuongvp77.violet.vn Section 1: Read the following passage and think of a word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word for each space. 2 points (0.2pt/ item) 1. since
2. do
3. another
6. until/till/til
7. where
8. consists
4. However/Nevertheless Nonetheless 9. signal
5. no 10. that
Section 2: Read the following passage and choose the best option marked A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer of each of the questions. 1 point (0.2pt/item) 1. A
2. C
3. A
4. C
5. D
Section 3: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. 2 points (0.2pt/item) 1. A
2. C
3. C
4. A
5. D
6. A
7. D
8. B
9. D
10. B
Section 4: Choose the sentences from A-F the one which best fits gaps 1-5. There is one extra sentence which you do not need to use. 1 point (0.2pt/ item) 1. D
2. F
3. B
4. E
5. C
PART D. WRITING (5 points) Section 1: Write the sentence beginning with the word given so that it has the closest meaning to the original one. Write the answers on your answer sheet. 1 point (0.2 pt/ sentence) 1. Despite my strong disapproval of your behavior, I will help you this time. 2. Only when she told me did I realise that I had forgotten to close the door. 3. Nobody took notice of Jack despite his strange clothes. 4. Regardless of the rain, we will not delay our voyage. 5. I whiled away the time looking through some magazines. Section 2: Essay writing. 4 points Candidates’ essays are evaluated based on the following criteria: Content: 40% (1.6 pts): Arguments are adequately supported (with main ideas, supporting ideas and relevant examples etc.). 8
Language: 30% (1.2 pts): Demonstrate a diverse range of lexical items and grammatical structures. Presentation: 30% (1.2 pts): Write with suitable style, cohesion, coherence. Appropriate word count.
9
PHÒNG GD&ĐT CAM LỘ
KÌ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP HUYỆN Năm học: 2018 - 2019 Khoá ngày: 24/10/2018 Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC
Họ, tên chữ ký
Mã phách Do chủ tịch Hội đồng chấm thi ghi
Giám thị 1: Giám thị 2:
HỌ VÀ TÊN THÍ SINH: SỐ BÁO DANH TRƯỜNG: PHÒNG THI SỐ: (Phần này do thí sinh ghi) * Lưu ý: • Thí sinh làm toàn bộ bài thi trên đề thi theo yêu cầu của từng phần. Thí sinh phải viết câu trả lời vào phần trả lời được cho sẵn ở mỗi phần. Trái với điều này, phần bài làm của thí sinh sẽ không được chấm điểm. • Đề thi gồm có 07 trang (không kể trang phách). Thí sinh phải kiểm tra số tờ đề thi trước khi làm bài. • Thí sinh không được ký tên hoặc dùng bất cứ dấu hiệu gì để đánh dấu bài thi ngoài việc làm bài theo yêu cầu của đề ra. Không được viết bằng mực đỏ, bút chì, không viết hai thứ mực trên tờ giấy làm bài. Phần viết hỏng, ngoài cách dùng thước để gạch chéo, không được tẩy xóa bằng bất kỳ cách gì khác. (Tuyệt đối không được sử dụng bút xóa.) Trái với điều này bài thi sẽ bị loại. • Thí sinh nên làm nháp trước rồi ghi chép cẩn thận vào phần bài làm trên đề thi. Giám thị sẽ không phát giấy làm bài thay thế đề và giấy làm bài do thí sinh làm hỏng. • Thí sinh được xem trước yêu cầu của bài nghe 5 phút trước khi giám thị bấm máy (bấm 1 lần) • Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm về đề thi.
HSGVH9
2017-2018
PHẦN ĐỀ VÀ BÀI LÀM CỦA THÍ SINH Điểm
Điểm
(bằng số)
(bằng chữ)
Họ, tên chữ ký
Mã phách Chủ tịch HĐCT ghi
Giám khảo 1: Giám khảo 2: SECTION 1: LISTENING COMPRENHENSION • Bài nghe gồm 03 phần, mỗi phần được nghe hai lần, mỗi lần cách nhau 15 giây. • Mở đầu và kết thúc bài nghe có tín hiệu nhạc. • Thí sinh ghi đáp án vào phần trả lời ở cuối bài nghe. Part 1: People are having problems using these machines. Listen and number the pictures in the order you hear. You will hear the recording twice
A
B
C
D
E
F
Part 2: Listen to the conversation and fill in the missing information in the notes below. You will hear the recording twice Listen to the conversation and fill in the missing information in the notes below.
HSGVH9
1
2018-2019
American families are different from 1________ones in several ways. People in the USA get married 2________ Many of them get married before the age of 3 ________ A lot of women work after they 4___________. Most women who have babies go back 5________ fairly soon. 50% of them return to work within a year of having a baby. A lot of Korean women 6 ________and take care of their families. The article says 7________of women with children work. And 8________ of children under six have two parents who work or a single parent who works. Part 3: You will hear a woman phoning a secretary of a cycling club to find out about becoming a member. You will see that there is an example which has been done for you. You will hear the recording twice
South City Cycling Club Example Name of club secretary: Jim ____Hunter____ Membership • Full membership costs $260; this covers cycling and 1________________ all over Australia • Recreational membership costs $108 • Cost of membership includes the club fee and 2________________ • The club kit is made by a company called 3________________ Training rides • Chance to improve cycling skills and fitness • Level B: speed about 4________________ kph • Weekly sessions - Tuesdays at 5.30 am, meet at the 5________________ - Thursdays at 5.30 am, meet at the entrance to the 6________________ Further information • Rides are about an hour and a half • Members often have 7 ________________ together afterwards • There is not always a 8________________ with the group on these rides • Check and print the 9________________ on the website beforehand • Bikes must have 10________________ Write your answers here: Part 1: (0.15/ea): 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
Part 2: (0.2/ea): 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
Part 3: (0.15/ea): 1. HSGVH9
2.
3.
4. 2
5. 2018-2019
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
SECTION 2: USE OF LANGUAGE Part 1: Choose the answers (A, B, C or D) that would best complete the following sentences. 1. She burst into_______when she opened the letter. A. crying B. sadness C. misery D. tears 2. Don't stand too near the edge of the_______because you might fall. A. peak B. valley C. cliff D. hill 3. I felt extremely_______when l couldn’t remember my neighbour’s name. A. embarrassed B. embarrassment C. embarrass D. embarrassing 4. I’ve _______down on salt and fat in my diet because they’re not good for me A. cut B. put C. got D. gone 5. My dad was_______with me when I told him I’d lost the camera he bought A. scared B. guilty C. worried D. furious 6. Rio de Janeiro was the capital of Brazil_______ 1822 to 1960. A. until B. in C. on D. from 7. We were too far away to make_______what the sign said. A. for B. into C. out D. up 8. We got off our bikes because the hill was too_______ to cycle up. A high B. steep C. straight D. tall 9. We had a perfect view from the aeroplane because the skies were_______. A. empty B. cloudy C. open D. clear 10. We were a_______surprised when we realised the hotel didn’t serve food. A. quite B. bit C. so D. fairly 11. The path was very_______because of the wet weather. A. stony B. muddy C. sandy D. dusty 12. I’m really_______of my son who won first prize in the art competition. A. pleased B. proud C. delighted D. happy 13. I put on lots of extra_______when I stopped walking to work. A. weight B. strength C. energy D. exercise 14. The last track on this_______is the best one. A. solo B. duet C. album D. single 15. There has been a decrease in the_______of Italy during the last five years. A. residents B. people C. population D. community Write your answers (A, B, C or D) here (0.2/ea): 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 Part 2: Error Correction: There are some mistakes in the following sentences. Find and correct them. 1. It’s time you went home, but I’d rather you stay here. 2. Although he wasn’t familiar to the language he soon learnt to communicate. 3. I can’t believe June and Robin have broken off – they seemed so happy together. 4. I passed my exam last summer, but my friend has just failed her. 5. The more I got to know them, the fewer I liked them. Write your answers here (0.2/ea): Sentence 1 2 3 4 5 Mistakes HSGVH9
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Correction Part 3: Use the correct form of the word in block capitals to fit each gap in the following sentences. Safe driving Some people come to the (1) ...………......……… that frequent road CONCLUDE accidents are just an (2) ...………......……… part of modern life. In fact, AVOID all drivers have the (3) ...………......……… to alter this situation with a ABLE simple change in attitude. Whereas the vast (4) ...………......……… of MAJOR drivers are relatively safe and are rarely involved in a serious accident, a worrying (5) ...………......……… drive at such speed that MINOR the (6) ...………......……… error can be fatal. This is obviously SLIGHT (7) ...………......……… . It is also essential for all drivers to take into ACCEPT (8) ...………......……… different road conditions – poor light, fog or rain, CONSIDER for instance. Finally, remember that human behaviour is (9) ...………......……… – another driver may make an PREDICT (10) ...………......……… turn or slow down suddenly, so always try to EXPECT think ahead. Write your answers here (0.2/ea): 1 2 3 4 5 6
7
8
9
10
SECTION 3: READING COMPREHENSION Part 1: Read the text below and fill in the gap with one suitable word. For each question, write the answer on the space provided. MOVING HOUSE I think one of (1)______most difficult things to do is to move house, particularly when you have been somewhere all your life. As well as leaving your home, you also have the problem of packing everything (2) ______own into boxes. You don’t realise how much you have until you have to pack it all up! We (3) ______moving house in about two weeks’ time, so I know what I’m talking about! My father (4) ______found a new job in another town about 100 kilometres from here. He has (5) ______looking for an opportunity like this (6) ______a long time so the whole family agreed that we should move. Our house is (7) ______ sold, and my parents have just found us a new one. It is much bigger than the one we live in (8) ______the moment. My sister anti I will have our own rooms, which I’m glad about because she has been annoying me lately. She is (9) ______ borrowing my clothes without asking me. She isn’t very enthusiastic about moving, but I’m quite excited about it, and I don’t (10) ______I’ll mind living in a new town. Write your answers here (0.2/ea). 1 2 3 4 5 6
7
8
9
10
Part 2: Read the text below and choose the correct word for each space. For each question, mark the correct option (A, B, C or D) on your answer sheet. WORDS How men first learnt to (1)_______ words is unknown; in other words, the origin of language is a (2)_______. All we really know is that men, unlike animals, (3) _______ invented certain sounds to express thoughts and feelings, actions and things so that they could communicate with each other; and that later they agreed (4)_______ certain signs, called letters, which could be combined to represent those sounds, and which could be written down. These sounds, (5)_______ spoken or written in letters, are called words. Great writers are those who not only have great thoughts but also express these thoughts in words that (6)_______ powerfully to our minds and emotions. This charming and telling use of words is what we call literary (7) _______. Above all, the real poet is a master of words. HSGVH9
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He can (8)_______ his meanings in words which sing like music, and which by their position and association can (9)_______ men to tears. We should, therefore, learn to choose our words carefully, (10)_______ they will make our speech silly and vulgar. 1. A. make B. invent C. create D. discover 2. A. story B. legend C. mystery D. secret 3. A. however B. somehow C. whatever D. somewhat 4. A. upon B. to C. at D. with 5. A. though B. whether C. if D. however 6. A. attract B. interest C. lure D. appeal 7. A. type B. work C. prose D. form 8. A. transmit B. transfer C. convey D. carry 9. A. break B. take C. send D. move 10. A. so B. although C. because D. or Write your answers (A, B, C or D) here (0.2/ea): 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 Part 3: Read the text and then choose the best answer to each question carefully. BEING AN OLDER STUDENT At 32, I have just finished my first year at university. As well as attending lectures regularly, I have had to learn to read books quickly and write long essays. I decided to go university after fourteen years away from the classroom. As a secretary, although I was earning a reasonable amount of money, I was bored doing something where I hardly had to think. I became more and more depressed by the idea that I was stuck in the job. I was jealous of the students at the local university who looked happy, carefree and full of hope, and part of something that I wanted to explore further. However, now that I’ve actually become a student I find it hard to mix with younger colleagues. They are always mistaking me for a lecturer and asking me questions I can’t answer. I also feel separated from the lecturers because, although we are the same age, I know so much less than them. But I am glad of this opportunity to study because I know you need a qualification to get a rewarding job, which is really important to me. Unlike most eighteen – year – olds, I much prefer a weekend with my books to one out partying. Then there are the normal student benefits of long holidays and theatre and cinema discounts. I often have doubts about what I’ll do after university, but I hope that continuing my education at this late date has been a wise choice. 1. What is the writer trying to do in the text? A. help lecturers understand older students B. explain her reasons for returning to study C. suggest some good methods for studying D. complain about the attitude of young students 2. What can a reader find out about the writer from this text? A. when she left school B. how long her university course is C. where she will work in future D. what subject she is studying 3. How did the writer feel about her job as a secretary? A. Her salary wasn’t good enough. B. It gave her the opportunity to study. C. It didn’t make use of her brain. D. Her colleagues made her depressed. 4. In her spare time, the writer likes to A. go out to parties. B. earn some money. C. travel a lot. D. do extra study. 5. Which of these sentences describes the writer? A. She realizes the value of a university degree. B. She gets on well with the other students. C. She is confident about the future. HSGVH9
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D. She finds university life easier than she expected. Write your answers (A, B, C or D) here (0.2/ea): 1 2 3
4
5
Part 4: Read the text and then choose the best answer to each question carefully. The incredible growth of the Internet over recent years has caused problems for parents and teachers. Parents worry about which sites their children spend time on, who they chat to online and the possible effects that computer games might have on them. For teachers, meanwhile, the main worry is the way the Internet makes cheating easier! Schools and universities say there has been a huge increase in plagiarism – taking other people’s words and ideas and pretending that they are your own. In the past, anyone who wanted to copy had to go to a library, find the right books, read through them, find the sections they needed and then physically write down the words they wanted to use. Nowadays, though, students can simply copy extracts from websites - while really desperate students sometimes copy whole essays! As if this wasn’t bad enough, sites offering to actually do homework – at a price – have also started appearing. Despite all this, we shouldn’t assume that the Internet only brings problems. Indeed, you could say that for every problem the Internet creates, it also brings a solution. Parents can now use sophisticated controls to stop kids accessing sites that might do them harm, while new software helps teachers to detect copied work immediately. Many, of course, are already able to recognize when someone is cheating! “Some students suddenly start using words they can’t possibly understand like “dialectical antagonism”, explains one teacher, or parts of their essays feel different.” One of the hardest things for teachers today is deciding how to mix modern technology with traditional study skills - and how best to use the Web in class. As more and more schools install computers in every classroom, the role of the teacher is changing. Making sure students don’t just copy things and do learn how to quote copied work properly is part of their job, but so is designing suitable projects to fully exploit the Web in helping students students learn about subjects and develop their life and social skills. 1. What is the passage mainly about? A. Students wasting time on computer games B. The Internet making cheating easier C. The effect that the Web is having on school life D. The Web used in projects to teach social skills 2. The word “them” in paragraph 1 refers to . A. parents B. children C. games D. teachers 3. According to the passage, which of the following statements is NOT true? A. Plagiarism is copying someone’s work and pretending it’s your own. B. Designing projects to take advantage of the Internet is one of parents‟ duties. C. Many teachers can recognize when their students are cheating. D. Parents can use some software to stop children assessing harmful sites. 4. The word “this” in paragraph 2 refers to _ . A. copying other people’s work B. finding the right books C. sale of homework on the Web D. physically writing down words 5. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage? A. The Internet has only bad impacts on education. B. Many websites offer to do homework without fee. C. The Internet can be used positively in education. D. Parents don’t want to control children’s access to sites. Write your answers (A, B, C or D) here (0.2/ea): 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. SECTION 4: WRITING HSGVH9
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Part 1: Complete the second sentence so that it has the same meaning to the first one. Do not change the word given. You must use between 3 to 5 words including the given word (0.2/ea). 1. I didn’t feel hungry, despite missing dinner. (EVEN) I didn’t feel hungry _____________________________________________________ dinner. 2. Not many students attended Dr Brown's lecture on politics. (NUMBER) Only ___________________________________ students attended Dr Brown's lecture on polities. 3. Peter hasn't seen his aunt Lucy for years. (SAW) It's _________________________________________________________________ his aunt Lucy. 4. Tamsin was the only student who hadn't done her homework. (APART) AlL the students ____________________________________________ done their homework? 5. Mary doesn't object to her photograph appearing in themagazine. (OBJECTION) Mary _____________________________________ her photograph appearing in the magazine. 6. There is no more petrolleft in the car (RUN) The car _______________________________________________________________ petrol. 7. The police said John had stolen the money. (ACCUSED) The police __________________________________________________________ the money. 8. Kira didn’t say anything about her illness last night. (MADE). Kira ______________________________________________________ her illness last night. 9. He spoke so quickly that I couldn’t understand what he said. (TOO) He spoke _______________________________________________ understand what he said. 10. His arrival was completely unexpected. (TOOK) His arrival _________________________________________________________________ . Part 2: Write an essay of about 120 words about one of your favourite pastime activities. Give reasons and/or advices to do that thing. (2.0/essay). Notes: Don’t use real names, address(s) or office’s name of the people you are describing. .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. HSGVH9
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.................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. PHÒNG GD&ĐT CAM LỘ
KỲ THI CHỌN HSGVH LỚP 9 NĂM HỌC 2018-2019 Khoá ngày: 24/10/2018 Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC
PHẦN ĐỀ VÀ BÀI LÀM CỦA THÍ SINH Điểm
Điểm
(bằng số)
(bằng chữ)
Mã phách
Họ, tên chữ ký
Chủ tịch HĐCT ghi
Giám khảo 1: Giám khảo 2: SECTION 1: LISTENING COMPRENHENSION • Bài nghe gồm 03 phần, mỗi phần được nghe hai lần, mỗi lần cách nhau 15 giây. • Mở đầu và kết thúc bài nghe có tín hiệu nhạc. • Thí sinh ghi đáp án vào phần trả lời ở cuối bài nghe. Part 1: People are having problems using these machines. Listen and number the pictures in the order you hear. Write your answers here Part 1: (0.15/ea): 7.
c
8.
f
9.
b
10.
d
11.
a
12.
e
Part 2: (0.2/ea): 9.
korean
10.
younger
11.
20
12. get married
13.
to work
14.
stay at home
15.
67%
16. 57%
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Part 3: (0.15/ea): 11.
races
12.
insurance
13.
Jerriz
14.
25
15.
stadium
16.
park
17.
coffee
18.
leader
19.
route
20.
lights
SECTION 2: USE OF LANGUAGE Part 1: Choose the answers (A, B, C or D) that would best complete the following sentences. Write your answers (A, B, C or D) here (0.2/ea): 1
D
2
C
3
A
4
A
5
6
D
7
C
8
B
9
D
10 B
12
B
13
A
14
C
15 C
11 B
D
Part 2: Error Correction: There are some mistakes in the following sentences. Find and correct them. Write your answers here (0.2/ea): 6
Sentence
7
8
9
10
Mistakes
stay
familiar to
broken off
her
the fewer
Correction
stayed
familiar with
broken up
hers
The less
Part 3: Use the correct form of the word in block capitals to fit each gap in the following sentences. Safe driving Write your answers here (0.2/ea): 1. conclusion 2. unavoidable 6. slightest 7. unacceptable
3. ability 8. consideration
4. majority 9. unpredictable
5. minority 10. unexpected
SECTION 3: READING COMPREHENSION Part 1: Read the text below and fill in the gap with one suitable word. For each question, write the answer on the space provided. MOVING HOUSE
Write your answers here (0.2/ea). HSGVH9
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1 The
2
you
3
are
4
has
5
been
6 for
7
already
8
at
9
Always
10
think
Part 2: Read the text below and choose the correct word for each space. For each question, mark the correct option (A, B, C or D) on your answer sheet. WORDS Write your answers (A, B, C or D) here (0.2/ea): 1 B
2
C
3
B
4
A
5
B
6 D
7
B
8
C
9
D
10
D
Part 3: Read the text and then choose the best answer to each question carefully. BEING AN OLDER STUDENT Write your answers (A, B, C or D) here (0.2/ea): 1
B
2
A
3
C
4
D
5
A
Part 4: Read the text and then choose the best answer to each question carefully. Write your answers (A, B, C or D) here (0.2/ea): 6. C
7. B
8. B
9. A
10.
C
SECTION 4: WRITING Part 1: Complete the second sentence so that it has the same meaning to the first one. Do not change the word given. You must use between 3 to 5 words including the given word (0.2/ea). 1. even though I had missed 2. a small (tiny)number of 3. (been)years since Peter saw. 4. apart from Tamsi 5. has no objection to 6. has run out ot 7. accused John of stealing (of having stolen) 8. made no mention of/no reference to 9. quickly for me to understand 10. took us completely by surprise Part 2: Write an essay of about 120 words about one of your favourite pastime activities. Give reasons and/or advices to do that thing. (2.0/essay). HSGVH9
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Notes: Don’t use real names, address(s) or office’s name of the people you are describing. - Organization: ( - Spelling & grammar (word usage): - Contents: ................................................................................................................................................ .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. …………………The end…………………
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PHÒNG GD&ĐT TAM DƯƠNG ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9 CẤP HUYỆN NĂM HỌC 2018 - 2019 ĐỀ THI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
(Đề thi gồm 05 trang, thí sinh làm bài vào tờ giấy thi) SECTION A: LISTENING (20 points) Part I. (5 points) There are 5 questions in this part, for each question there are 3 pictures and a short recording. Choose the correct picture. Write the letter A, B or C in the answer sheet. Example: How many people were at the meeting?
Your answer (A, B or C): C 1. What music will they have at the party?
2. When will the man go on holiday?
3. What will the weather be like tomorrow?
4. What colour is Mary's coat?
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5. What did the woman repair?
Part II. (6 points) Listen to Paul talking to a friend about his family. What does each person do? Match the person with the job you hear by writing your answers in the answer sheet. PEOPLE JOB 1. Sally A. bank clerk 2. Bill B. doctor 3. David C. teacher 4. Paul's mother D. student 5. Paul's father E. writer 6. Paul F. stopped worker Part III. (9 points) Listen to Philip talking to a friend about his photography course. Choose the best answer (A, B or C) and write your answers in the answer sheet. 1. Where does Philip do the photography classes? A. Park College B. City College C. South College 2. What time do the photography classes begin? A. 5.15 pm B. 6.00 pm C. 6.45 pm 3. How much does Philip pay for the photography course? A. 55 pounds B. 75 pounds C. 95 pounds 4. Philip's happy with the course because he's …………. A. learning about famous photographers B. using a new camera C. getting better at photography 5. Philip thinks it's easy to take photographs of …………. A. trees B. animals C. children 6. After the course Philip will …………. A. buy a new camera B. get a job in photography C. make photography his hobby SECTION B: PHONETICS (10 points) Part I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest. (5 points) 1. A. other B. leather C. wealthy D. brother 2. A. television B. elephant C. section D. Swedish 3. A. explain B. current C. desire D. electric 4. A. threaten B. thread C. seat D. bread 5. A. deaf B. leaf C. meat D. heat Part II. Choose the word that has a different stress pattern from the others in the group. (5 points) 1. A. affect B. pollute C. effect D. liter
2
2. 3. 4. 5.
A. cholera A. radiation A. seriously A. aquatic
B. pollutant B. political B. measurement B. historic
C. permanent C. historical C. scientific C. physical
D. groundwater D. contaminant D. logical D. botanical
SECTION C: LEXICO AND GRAMMAR (25 points) Part I. Choose the word, phrase or expression which best completes each sentence (10 points) 1. His handwriting is terrible. It’s not easy at all ………....what he writes. A. to see B. to read C. reading D. seeing 2. The city is ………....on the shore of Lake Michigan. A. visited B. lied C. laying D. located 3. Vinh Yen city is………....busier. A. becoming B. doing C. making D. having 4. Ba is strong enough………....his father with the work on the farm. A. helping B. help C. helps D. to help 5. Last week my child ………....to the biggest zoo in town by my wife. A. took B. was taken C. went D. has gone 6. I tried my. ………....not to laugh, but I couldn’t. A. good B. well C. best D. better 7. You are very different ………....your brother. A. to B. for C. with D. from 8. I am better ………....English than Nam. A. than B. with C. at D. for 9. I ………....be interested in playing badminton as a child. A. could B. ought to C. might D. used to 10. Would you mind my ………....? A. smoking B. smoke C. smokes D. smoked Part II. Write the correct form of the words in the brackets in the answer sheet. (5 points) 1. Nam is very ………...., kind and generous. (SOCIAL) 2. Bell experimented with ways of transmitting ………....over a long distance. (SPEAK) 3. The tiger wanted to see the farmer’s ……….... (WISE) 4. Our main ………....to export are rice, coffee, and rubber. (PRODUCE) 5. Two ………....from the group “Friends of the Earth” are talking to the students. (REPRESENT) Part III. Write the correct tense or form of the verbs in brackets in the answer sheet. (10 points) 1. The classroom is still very dirty. I don’t think it (1- clean) ………..... 2. (2- Lie) ……….... on the beach on a sunny day is pleasant. 3. After (3- shout) ……….... for help, she (4- take) ………....off her shoes and (5- jump) ……….... in (6- save) ……….... him. 4. Once you (7- try) ……….... Gloswhite toothpaste, you (8- never use) ……….... anything else. 5. (9- Write) ………....the letter, she put it in an envelope. 6. Each July, George together with his family (10- go) ………....to Spain for holiday. SECTION D: READING (25 points) Part I. Fill in each of the blanks with one suitable word by writing your answers in the answer sheet. (10 points) Our classes take place for three hours every morning from Monday (1)............. Friday. The maximum class size is twelve (2).............. the average is ten. We use modern methods of (3) ............. and learning, and the school has a language laboratory, a video camera and recorders. However, you
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will only be successful in improving (4)............. English if you work hard and (5)........ speaking English as much as you can. You will take a short (6) ............. in English as soon as you arrive. In this way, we can put you in a (7) ............. at the most suitable level. There are two classes at the Elementary level; one is for complete beginners and the other is for students who know only a little English. In both classes you will practice simple conversations. In the class (8) ............. the intermediate level you will have a lot of practice in communication in real-life situations because we help you to use the English you have previously (9) ............. in your own country. You will also have chances to improve your (10).............. of English grammar and to build up your vocabulary. Part II. Choose the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the passage by writing your answers in the answer sheet. (10 points) Around the age (1) …..…. sixteen, you must make one of the biggest decisions of your life. Do I stay on at school and hopefully, go on to university later? Do I leave and start work or begin a training (2) …..….? The decision is yours, but it may be (3) …..…. remembering two things: There is more unemployment (4) …..…. those who haven't been to university, and people (5) …..…. have the right skills will have a big advantage in the competition for jobs. If you decide to go straight into a job, there are (6) …..…. opportunities for training. Getting qualifications will (7) …..…. you get on more quickly in many careers, and evening classes allow you to learn (8) …..…. you earn. Starting work and taking a break to study when you are older is (9) …..…. possibility. This way, you can save up money for your student days, as well as (10) …..…. practical work experience. 1. A. at B. in C. on D. of A. school B. class C. course D. term 2. A worth B. necessary C. important D. useful 3. 4. A. between B. among C. with D. through 5. A. whom B. which C. who D. whose A. much B. many C. little D. few 6. 7. A. permit B. help C. let D. give 8. A. where B. while C. when D. what 9. A. also B. again C. another D. always 10. A. getting B. making C. taking D. doing Part III. Read the passage and answer the questions by writing your answers in the answer sheet. (5 points) "Where is the university?" is a question many visitors to Cambridge ask, but no one can give them a clear answer, for there is no wall to be found around the university. The university is the city. You can find the classroom buildings, libraries, museums and offices of the university all over the city. And most of its members are the students and teachers or professors of the thirty-one colleges. Cambridge was an already developing town long before the first students and teachers arrived 800 years ago. It grew up by the river Granta, as the Cam was once called. A bridge was built over the river as early as 875. In the fourteenth and fifteenth centuries more and more land was used for college buildings. The town grew much faster in the nineteenth century after the opening of the railway in 1845. Cambridge became the city in 1951 and now it has the population of over 100,000. Many young students want to study at Cambridge. Thousands of people from all over the world come to visit the university town. It has become a famous place all around the world. Questions: 1. Why do most visitors come to Cambridge? 2. When did the university begin to appear? 3. Why did people name Cambridge the "city of Cambridge"? 4. When did the town really begin to develop quickly?
4
5. Why do many visitors to Cambridge ask the question "Where is the university"? SECTION E: WRITING (20 points) Part I. Finish the second sentence in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before. (5 points) 1. This novel is long enough to take me several weeks to read. This novel is so…………………………………………………………..……………… 2. How long is it since he learnt French? When……………………………………………………………….…………………… 3. I study English so that I can improve my knowledge. I study English so as…………………………………………..………………………… 4. They have given her a bunch of flowers. A bunch of........................................................................................................................ 5. Have you gone to school late before? Is this...............................................................................................................................? 6. He was delighted to receive his aunt’s letter. He was delighted that ………………………………………………………...…………. 7. “Do you realize what the time is, Mary?” asked Chris Chris asked…………………………………………………….………………………… 8. Lan forgot her birthday and so did I. Lan didn’t…………………………………………………..…………………………….. 9. He’d rather play golf than tennis. He prefers……………………………………………………………….……………….. 10. Mai broke the cup because of her carelessness. Because Mai……………………………………………………………………………… Part II. Rewrite each of the following sentences so that it means exactly the same as the given one. Use the given word in brackets. Do not change the word. (5 points) 1. I can’t sing beautifully, so I can’t join them now. (wish) ……………….…………………………………………………………………………. 2. Emma came first because she worked hard. (result) ……………….…………………………………………………………………………. 3. Eating too much sugar can result in health problems. (lead) ……………….…………………………………………………………………………. 4. All flights had to be cancelled as a result of the pilots’ sudden strike. (so) ……………….…………………………………………………………………………. 5. If I could swim, I would go scuba diving with Terry. (because) ……………….…………………………………………………………………………. Question III. It is said that we should wear helmet when riding a motor bike. Do you think so? Write an essay (120 - 150 words) about your idea. (10 points) The end
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UBND HUYỆN TAM DƯƠNG PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
KỲ THI CHỌN HSG LỚP 9 HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM MÔN TIẾNG ANH Năm học: 2018 - 2019
Tổng điểm 100. SECTION A: LISTENING (20 points) Part I. Mỗi đáp án đúng cho 1 point: 5 x 1 = 5 points 1.C 2.B 3.B 4.A 5.B Part II. Mỗi đáp án đúng cho 1 point: 6 x 1 = 6 points 1. E (writer); 2. D (student); 3. C (teacher); 4. F (stopped worker); 5. B (doctor); 6. A. (bank clerk) Part III. Mỗi đáp án đúng cho 1,5 point: 6 x 1,5 = 9 points 1.B 2.C 3.B 4.C 5.A
6.C
SECTION B. PHONETICS (10 points) Part I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest. Mỗi đáp án đúng cho 1 point: 5 x 1 = 5 points 1.C 2.C 3.B 4. C 5.A Part II. Choose the word that has a different stress pattern from the others in the group. Mỗi đáp án đúng cho 1 point: 5 x 1 = 5 points 1.D 2.B 3.A 4.C 5.C SECTION C. LEXICO AND GRAMMAR (25 points) Part I. Choose the word, phrase or expression which best completes each sentence. Mỗi đáp án đúng cho 1 point: 10 x 1 = 10 points 1. B 2. D 3. A 4. D 5. B 6. C 7. D 8. C 9. D 10. A Part II. Give the correct form of the words in the brackets Mỗi đáp án đúng cho 1 point: 5 x 1 = 5 points . 1- sociable 2- speech 3- wisdom 4- products 5- representatives Part III. Give the correct tense or form of the verbs in brackets. Mỗi đáp án đúng cho 1 point: 10 x 1 = 10 points 1. has been cleaned 2. Lying 3. shouting
6. to save 7. have tried 8. will never use
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4. took 5. jumped
9. having written 10. goes
SECTION D: READING. (25 points) Question I. Fill in each of the blanks with one suitable word. Mỗi đáp án đúng cho 1 point: 10 x 1 = 10 points 1. to 2. and 3. teaching 4. your 5. practise 6. test 7. class 8. at 9. learnt/studied 10. knowledge Question II. Choose the best answer to complete the passage. Mỗi đáp án đúng cho 1 point: 10 x 1 = 10 points 1. D. of 2. C. course 3. A worth 4. B. among 5. C. who 6. B. many 7. B. help 8. B. while 9. C. another 10. A. getting Question III. Read the passage and answer the questions. Mỗi câu trả lời đúng cho 1 point: 5 x 1 = 5 points 1. Because they want to see the university. 2. It began to appear 800 years ago. 3. Because there is a bridge built over the Cam. 4. It really began to develop quickly after 1845. 5. Because there is no wall to be found around the university SECTION E: WRITING (20 points) I. Finish the second sentence in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before. Mỗi câu đúng cho 0.5 point: 10 x 0.5 = 5 points 1. This novel is so long that it takes me several weeks to read it . 2. When did he start/begin learning/to learn French? 3. I study English so as to improve my knowledge. 4. A bunch of flowers has been given to her. 5. Is this the first time you have gone to school late? 6. He was delighted that he received his aunt’s letter . 7. Chris asked Mary if she realized what the time was. 8. Lan didn’t remember her birthday and neither did I./ I didn’t either. 9. He prefers golf to tennis/ He prefers playing golf to (playing) tennis. 10.Because Mai was careless, she broke the cup. Part II. Rewrite each of the following sentences so that it means exactly the same as the given one. Using the given word in brackets. Do not change the word. Mỗi câu đúng cho 1 point: 5 x 1 = 5 points 1. I wish I could sing beautifully, so I could join them now 2. Emma came first as a result of her hard work. 3. Eating too much sugar can lead to health problems. 4. The pilots suddenly went on strike, so all flights had to be cancelled. 5. Because I can’t swim, I’m not going/ I won’t go scuba diving with Terry. Question III. Question III. It is said that we should wear helmet when riding a motor bike. Do you think so? Write a passage (80 - 100 words) about your idea. (10 points) Tổ chấm thống nhất điểm thành phần của bài luận theo những điểm đề nghị sau: - Organization: (Bố cục bài luận rõ ràng, đầy đủ 3 phần: mở bài, thân bài, kết luận) (1 point) - Discourse: (Thể hiện khả năng viết mạch lạc, chặt chẽ; nối kết câu, chuyển mạch tốt) (3 points)
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- Sentence structure (morphology, vocabulary, spelling): Cấu trúc câu, ngữ pháp, từ vựng; câu linh hoạt (đơn, phức...) (3 points) - Ideas: (Ý hay, phong phú, biểu đạt nội dung liên quan chặt chẽ với chủ đề của đề thi) (2 points) - Length: (Đảm bảo đủ số lượng từ qui định: không quá dài hoặc quá ngắn. (1 point)
8
UBND HUYỆN BÌNH XUYÊN PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
ĐỀ KHẢO SÁT ĐỘI TUYỂN HSG LỚP 9 CẤP HUYỆN NĂM HỌC 2019-2020 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
SECTION A- LISTENING Questions 1-4: Choose thee correct letter A, B or C. There is an example. Example When will the New Year Party be held? A. December 29th B. December 30th C. December 31st Answer A 1. The best place for holding the party is _________________ A. restaurant. B. common room. C. stadium. 2. How much should everyone pay? A. £ 15 B. £ 50 C. £ 15 .50 3. How many days should they choose menu in advance? A. a week B. three days C. seven working days 4. How much deposit should they pay in advance? A. £ 70 B. £ 80 C. £ 90 Questions 5-10: complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer. ORDER MENU Appetizer Fruit juice (5) _______________ (6) _______________
Roast dinner
Vegetables
Vegetable salad: carrot, tomato, potato, corn, (7) ______________, lettuce, cucumber
(8) _______________
(9) _________________ Mango pudding Coffee, (10) ____________, Cola
Drinks
Question 11-20: You will hear a dialogue between a bank officer and a customer. As you listen, fill in the form below. City to which money is to be transferred: (0) Washington Name of the bank: (11) __________________ Recipient of the money: (12) __________________ Recipient’s address: (13) __________________ Account number: (14) __________________ Account of money to be transferred: (15) __________________ That amount in American dollars: (16) __________________ Sender of the money: (17) __________________ Sender’s address: (18) __________________ Fastest method of sending money overseas: (19) __________________ Method chosen by customer: (20) __________________. SECTION B – VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR I. Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D 1. What Marilyn did at the party was certainly ______ bad taste. 1
A. of B. about C. in D. Under 2. Sorry, but that book is ______ . We’ll get some copies from the publisher next Monday. A. out of print B. out of order C. off shelf D. out of stock 3. Politicians should never lose ______ of the needs of the people they represent. A. view B. sight C. regard D. prospect 4. She ______ regretted having been so unkind. A. bitterly B. severely C. fully D. awfully 5. After police found drugs there, the disco was ______ A. closed down B. banned C. ignored D. abolished 6. According to the _____ of the contract, tenants must give six months notice if they intend to leave. A. laws B. rules C. terms D. details 7. Picasso was a _________ cubist painter. A. artistic B. celebrated C. colorful D. knowledgeable. 8. “I had to take a taxi from the party last night.” _ “Oh. That’s too bad. You __________ my car.” A. could have used B. was able to use C. could be use D. can use 9. The management team came ________ criticism for the way they handled the situation. A. in for B. up with C. up against D. out in 10. Pete: Let me pay for the meal. Margaret: ________. A. It’s on me B. It’s my round C. I’ll make it D. Never remind me II. Read the following paragraph about oil and gas supplies. One word is missing from each line. Put an oblique stroke (/) where the word has been omitted and write the missing word in each blank. The first one has been done for you. Although the world’s energy resources/taken many 0. have . millions of years to produce, we quickly beginning 1. __________________ to exhaust these supplies. Recently, UN committee has 2. __________________ reported that world’s oil and gas supplies 3. __________________ would about 100 years if used carefully. The report stated that there be enough oil and gas for a century
4. __________________ 5. __________________
only if the present demand could controlled. If the 6. __________________ demand continued grow, the report said that fuel 7. __________________ supplies would last for less forty years. According 8. __________________ to the report, governments must now steps to 9. __________________ control the amounts of fossil fuels are used. 10. __________________ III. Read the text below. Use the word given in CAPITALS at the end of each line to form a word that fits in the space in the same line. Dress Code UK companies have received (0) criticism
from
CRITIC
a business forum for what their report refers to as a rather narrow-minded attitude towards the dress code for office workers. This follows a case in which a male (1) _________________ working in the post room of a
EMPLOY
large (2) _____________________ in the United Kingdom received a
ORGANIZE
(3) __________________ for wearing jeans to work. While the report
SUSPEND
accepts that there is a need for people dealing with (4) ____________
CUSTOM
to look well dressed, it questions whether employees who work behind the scenes necessarily need to dress formally. 2
The authors of the report made a (5) _______________between the UK
COMPARE
and other European nations where employers seem (6) _____________
CONCERN
about the need for their workers to wear smart clothes in the office. Their (7) _______________________ is based on research that claims
ARGUE
workers are far more (8) _____________________when they have the
PRODUCT
(9) _______________________ to dress in a way that they feel most
FREE
(10) __________________ in.
COMFORT
SECTION C. READING COMPREHENSION I. Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D to fill in the gaps in the following passage. MUSIC - A UNIVERSAL LANGUAGE Music is universal - it is produced by all cultures. Some scientists believe that music came before speech and (1) ______ as a development of mating calls. In fact, there is one theory that the (2) ______ languages were chanted or sung, rather than spoken. Indeed, in some cultures, music is a form of (3) ______ history. The Aboriginal Australians, for example, use music as a means to (4) ______ on stories of the land and spirits to the next generation. New evidence suggests that music does not just (5) ______ the feel - good factor but it is also good for the brain. A study of intellectually (6) ______ children showed that they could recall more information after it was given to them in a song than after it was read to them as a story. Researchers also report that people (7) ______ better on a standard intelligence test after listening to Mozart. The so-called “Mozart effect” has also been (8) ______ by findings that rats brought up on Mozart run faster through a complex network of paths or passages, (9) ______ as a maze. Overall, it seems that in most instances people who suffer from any form of mental (10) ______ benefit from listening to music. 1. A. was B. swelled C. arose D. reacted 2. A. earliest B. newest C. easiest D. simplest 3. A. enjoying B. making C. recording D. stating 4. A. move B. pass C. hand D. happen 5. A. convince B. satisfy C. please D. prefer 6. A. disabled B. inactive C. incapable D. disordered 7. A. examine B. prepare C. achieve D. score 8. A. supported B. given C. marked D. remembered 9. A. called B. heard C. regarded D. known
10. A. badness
B. hurt
C. illness
D. pain
II. Read the passage and circle the best option from A, B, C or D to answer the questions The Winterthur Museum is a collection and a house. There are many museums devoted to the decorative arts and many house museums, but rarely in the United States is a great collection displayed in a great country house. Passing through successive generations of a single family, Winterthur has been a private estate for more than a century. Even after the extensive renovations made to it between 1929 and 1931, the house remained a family residence. This fact is of importance to the atmosphere and effect of the museum. The impression of a lived-in house is apparent to the visitor: the rooms look as if they were vacated only a short while ago whether by the original owners of the furniture or the most recent residents of the house can be a matter of personal interpretation. Winterthur remains, then, a house in which a collection of furniture and architectural elements has been assembled. Like an English country house, it is an organic structure; the house, as well as the collection and manner of displaying it to the visitor, has changed over the years. The changes have coincided with developing concepts of the American arts, increased knowledge on the part of collectors and students, and a progression toward the achievement of a historical effect in period-room displays. The rooms at Winterthur have followed this current, yet still retained the character of a private house. 3
The concept of a period room as a display technique has developed gradually over the years in an effort to present works of art in a context that would show them to greater effect and would give them more meaning for the viewer. Comparable to the habitat group in a natural history museum, the period room represents the decorative arts in a lively and interesting manner and provides an opportunity to assemble objects related by style, date, or place of manufacture. 1. What does the passage mainly discuss? A. The reason that Winterthur was redesigned B. Elements that make Winterthur an unusual museum C. How Winterthur compares to English country houses D. Historical furniture contained in Winterthur 2. The phrase "devoted to" is closest in meaning to A. surrounded by B. specializing in C. successful in D. sentimental about 3. What happened at Winterthur between 1929 and 1931? A. The owners moved out B. The house was repaired C. The old furniture was replaced D. The estate became a museum 4. What does the author mean by stating "the impression of a lived-in house is apparent to the visitor"? A. Winterthur is very old B. Few people visit Winterthur C. Winterthur does not look like a typical museum D. The furniture at Winterthur looks comfortable 5. The word "assembled" is closest in meaning to A. summoned B. appreciated C. brought together D. fundamentally changed 6. The word "it" refers to A. Winterthur B. collection C. English country house D. visitor 7. The word "developing" in line 11 is closest in meaning to A. traditional B. exhibiting C. informative D. evolving 8. According to the passage, objects in a period room are related by all of the following EXCEPT A. date B. style C. place of manufacture D. past ownership 9. What is the relationship between the two paragraphs in the passage? A. Paragraph 2 explains a term that was mentioned in Paragraph 1. B. Each paragraph describes a different approach to the display of objects in a museum C. Paragraph 2 explains a philosophy of art appreciation that contrasts with that explained in Paragraph 1. D. Each paragraph describes a different historical period 10. Where in the passage does the author explain why displays at Winterthur have changed? A. lines 1-2 B. lines 4-5 C. lines 6-8 D. lines 11-13 III. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word in each space. People have been playing (1)____________marbles for thousands of years. The first marbles were probably (2)____________river stones that happened to be naturally round enough to roll or, more likely, rounded globs of clay that were baked hardness. (3)____________very old clay marbles have been found in both Greek and Roman ruins, and quartz spheres have been dated at around 6000 B.C. Harder and (4)____________durable marbles tend to inspire different kinds of games than soft clay marbles, which crack very easily. So (5)____________the advent of hand rounded and polished marbles made of agate or some other rugged, igneous rock, the ‘golden age’ of marbles and (6)____________ play flowered. Stone marbles began to appear in the early 1800s in what is now the southern part of Germany. Shortly after, handmade glass marbles (7)____________in the same part of Europe. For the next 120 years, marbles and marble playing-there were literally hundreds of games - flourished in both Europe and America. Marble players developed their (8)____________vocabulary for different sizes and materials of marbles, as well as for the many kinds of games to be played and the way marbles were (9)____________in the games. For example, if you were going to play a game of Ring-Taw, one of the 4
(10)____________popular and enduring marbles games, you would lag for the first shot, and then knuckle down from the baulk, trying your best to get a mib or two with your opponent’s immie.
SECTION D. WRITING I. Use the word in bracket to rewrite each sentence so that it doesn’t change its meaning. Do not alter the word in any way 1. He may choose to take early retirement. (option) ___________________________________________________________ 2. He didn’t take any part in the conversation. (contribute) ___________________________________________________________ 3. We lose our way because the signposts were confusing. (which) ___________________________________________________________ 4. He likes to be addressed as “Professor”. (call) ___________________________________________________________ 5. She always has a good relationship with the children. (gets) ___________________________________________________________ II. ESSAY WRITING: In some countries, teenagers have jobs while they are still students. Do you think this is a good idea? Support your opinion by using specific reasons and details. You should write about 220 words
***--- The end---***
5
UBND HUYỆN BÌNH XUYÊN PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM KHẢO SÁT ĐỘI TUYỂN HSG LỚP 9 CẤP HUYỆN NĂM HỌC 2019-2020 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
SECTION A- LISTENING: 2 points. 0.1/ 1 correct Questions 1-4: Choose thee correct letter A, B or C. There is an example.
1. B 2. A 3. C 4. A 5. Tomato soup 6. Main course 7. Pea, onion 8. Dessert 9. Chocolate cake 10. Sprite You will hear a dialogue between a bank officer and a customer. As you listen, fill in the form below. Note: + (with numbers 2,7 and 9 students still get mark if they make mistakes in spelling) 11. Great Western Bank 12. Bob Jackson 13. 59 Wellington Street, Washington 14. WO357009 15. £ 400 16. $ 600 17. Fernando Gomez 18. 109 Grant Street Ealing Broadway 19. Telegraphic transfer 20. Telegraphic transfer SECTION B – VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR: 3 points. 0.1/ 1 correct I. Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D
1. C 6. C
2. D 7. B
3. B 8. A
4. D 9. A
5. A 10. A
II. Read the following paragraph about oil and gas supplies. One word is missing from each line. Put an oblique stroke (/) where the word has been omitted and write the missing word in each blank. The first one has been done for you. Although the world’s energy resources / taken many 0. have . millions of years to produce, we /quickly beginning 1. are . to exhaust these supplies. Recently / UN committee 2. a . reported that /world’s oil and gas supplies 3. the . would / about 100 years if used carefully. The report 4. last . stated that there / be enough oil and gas for a century 5. would . only if the present demand could /controlled. If the 6. be . 6
demand continued /grow, the report said that fuel 7. to . supplies would last for less / forty years. According 8. than . to the report, governments must now / steps to 9. take . control the amounts of fossil fuels / are used. 10. that/ which . III. Read the text below. Use the word given in CAPITALS at the end of each line to form a word that fits in the space in the same line. 1. employee 2. organization 3. suspension 4. customers 5. comparison 6. unconcerned 7. argument 8. productive 9. freedom 10. comfortable
SECTION D. READING COMPREHENSION: 3 points. 0.1/ 1 correct I. Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D to fill in the gaps in the following passage.
1. C 6. A
2. A 7. D
3. C 8. A
4. B 9. D
5. B 10. C
II. Read the passage and circle the best option from A, B, C or D to answer the questions
1. B 6. A
2. B 7. D
3. B 8. D
4. C 9. A
5. C 10. D
III. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word in each space.
1. with 6. marble
2. either 7. appeared
3. such 8. own
4. more 9. used
5. with 10. most
SECTION D. WRITING: 2 points I. Use the word in bracket to rewrite each sentence so that it doesn’t change its meaning. Do not alter the word in any way: 0.1/ 1 correct 1. He has the option of taking early retirement 2. He didn’t contribute to the conversation. 3. The signposts were confusing, which made us lose our way. 4. He wants you /people / students to call him “professor” 5. She always gets on well with the children. II. ESSAY WRITING: 1.5 points The mark given to this part is based on the following scheme: 1. Content: (40% of total mark) a provision of all main ideas and as details as appropriate. 2. Organization & Presentation: (30% of total mark) ideas are organized and presented with coherence, style, and clarity appropriate ate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students. 3. Language: (30% of total mark) a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students.
7
PHÒNG GD&ĐT CAM LỘ
KÌ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP HUYỆN Năm học: 2019 - 2020 Khoá ngày: 24/10/2019 Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC
Họ, tên chữ ký
Mã phách Do chủ tịch Hội đồng chấm thi ghi
Giám thị 1: Giám thị 2:
HỌ VÀ TÊN THÍ SINH: SỐ BÁO DANH TRƯỜNG: PHÒNG THI SỐ: (Phần này do thí sinh ghi) * Lưu ý: • Thí sinh làm toàn bộ bài thi trên đề thi theo yêu cầu của từng phần. Thí sinh phải viết câu trả lời vào phần trả lời được cho sẵn ở mỗi phần. Trái với điều này, phần bài làm của thí sinh sẽ không được chấm điểm. • Đề thi gồm có 08 trang (không kể trang phách). Thí sinh phải kiểm tra số tờ đề thi trước khi làm bài. • Thí sinh không được ký tên hoặc dùng bất cứ dấu hiệu gì để đánh dấu bài thi ngoài việc làm bài theo yêu cầu của đề ra. Không được viết bằng mực đỏ, bút chì, không viết hai thứ mực trên tờ giấy làm bài. Phần viết hỏng, ngoài cách dùng thước để gạch chéo, không được tẩy xóa bằng bất kỳ cách gì khác. (Tuyệt đối không được sử dụng bút xóa.) Trái với điều này bài thi sẽ bị loại. • Thí sinh nên làm nháp trước rồi ghi chép cẩn thận vào phần bài làm trên đề thi. Giám thị sẽ không phát giấy làm bài thay thế đề và giấy làm bài do thí sinh làm hỏng. • Thí sinh được xem trước yêu cầu của bài nghe 5 phút trước khi giám thị bấm máy (bấm 1 lần) • Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm về đề thi.
PHẦN ĐỀ VÀ BÀI LÀM CỦA THÍ SINH Điểm
Điểm
(bằng số)
(bằng chữ)
Họ, tên chữ ký Giám khảo 1: SECTION 1: LISTENING (25 pts)
Mã phách Chủ tịch HĐCT ghi
Part 4 Questions 20 -25 You will hear three students discussing exam techniques with their tutor. Complete the flow chart. Write no more than TWO words for each question. Make sure you have the right exam (20) …………………………..
Write your examination (21) …………………………..
Read the (22) …………………………..
Check that you know (23) …………………………..the exam is.
Write your answers here: Part 1: 1. 2. Part 2: 8. Part 3: 14. Part 4: 20.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
SECTION 2: PHONETICS (5 pts) Part I: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in the same line. (3 pts) B. particular C. flexible D. economics 1. A. curriculum 2. A. advise B. promise C. release D. tense 3. A. charity B. choke C. purchase D. parachute Write your answers here: 1 2 3 Part II: Choose the word whose main stress pattern is placed differently from the others. (2 pts) 1. A. primary B. religion C. tropical D. friendliness 2. A. assistant B. decision C. redundant D. management Write your answers here: 1 2 SECTION 3: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (20 pts) Part 1: Choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence. Write your answer (A, B, C, or D) in the numbered box (10 pts) 1. Where do you ______ going for your holidays this year? A intend B expect C pretend D guess 2. She looked every where for her book but ______ had to return home without it. A lastly B at the end C in the end D at the last 3. The man ______ by his girl friend will go on business with my father. A. was accompanied B. were accompanied C. accompanied D. accompanying 4. You look exhausted. ______a long way? A. Did you run C. Have you run
B. Have you been running D. Had you been running 5. Computers have been ______ widely all over the world nowadays. A. in use B. on use C. of use D. with use 6. We stayed in a big hotel and our breakfasts ______ in the accomodation. A. are included B. included C. was included D. were included. 7. Alfalfa is ______ for livestock. A. a primarily grown crop C. a grown crop primarily B. grown primarily a crop D. a crop grown primarily 8. ______the newspapers have revealed so far can justify the action taken by the Army. A. Nothing of that B. Nothing that C. Nothing as D. Nothing what 9. Some people prefer to watch a film first, and then read the ______ in the paper. A revue B critic C criticism D review 10. My boss is angry with me. I didn’t do all the work that I __________ last week. A. should do B. should have done C. must have done D. might have done Write your answers here: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 Part 2. Supply the correct form of the word in capital at the end of each sentence. (10 pts) 1. _______ plays an important role in our economy. TOUR 2. Many people take part in horse-riding _______ for big money prizes. COMPETE 3. Don’t tell anyone else what I’ve just told you. Remember, it’s ________. CONFIDE 4. The _______ tell the story through songs and dance. PERFORM 5. His brother and he don’t look _____ LIKE 6. _______ about the company’s future meant that few people wanted to CERTAIN invest money on it. 7. If your luggage is very______, you'll have to pay an excess charge. WEIGHT 8. It was the team's fourth _______ defeat. SUCCEED 9. In 1538, the ___________of a world map showed North and South America PUBLISH as separate continents for the first time. 10. We don't have any fresh vegetables, only _______ peas. FREEZE Write your answers here: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 SECTION 4. READING (25 pts) Part 1. Complete the passage by filling a suitable word into each gap: (10pts) A story is a work of imagination. The people…(1)…write stories write them in order to give pleasure to…(2)…who read stories. Story-readers are, generally…(3)…, women of all ages and younger men. Readers love the start of a story, where there are new and sometimes strange people to be…(4)...for the first time. They enjoy the story itself, the gentleness and the violence, the loves and the…(5)… , with which a good writer interests his…(6)…. . They enjoy the end of the story, whether it is happy or…(7)… . The reader’s chief purpose in all this is to…(8)...from ordinary life for a short…(9)… . Older men, as a rule, find their ordinary lives…(10)...pleasant to run away from. Write your answers here: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 Part 2. Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or phrase for each space. (10 pts)
Earth is the only place we know of in the universe that can support human life. …(1)…human activities are making the planet less fit to live on. As the western world…(2)…on consuming two- thirds of the world’s resources while half of the world’s population do so…(3)…to stay alive, we are rapidly destroying the…(4)…resource we have by which all people can survive and prosper. Everywhere fertile soil is…(5)…built on or washed into the sea. Renewable resources are exploited so much that they will never be able to recover…(6)… . We discharge pollutants into the atmosphere without any thought of the consequences. As a result, the planet’s ability to support people is being…(7)…at the very time when rising human numbers and consumption are…(8)…increasingly heavy demands on it. The Earth’s natural resources are there for us to use. We need food, water, air, energy, medicines, warmth, shelter and minerals to…(9)…us fed, comfortable, healthy and active. If we are sensible in how we use the resources, they will…(10)…indefinitely. But if we use them wastefully and excessively, they will soon run out and everyone will suffer. 1. A. Yet B. Still C. Although D. Despite 2. A. continues B. repeats C. carries D. follows 3. A. already B. just C. for D. entirely 4. A. only B. individual C. lone D. alone 5. A. sooner B. either C. neither D. rather 6. A. quite B. greatly C. utterly D. completely 7. A. stopped B. narrowed C. reduced D. cut 8. A. making B. having C. taking D. doing 9. A. hold B. maintain C. keep D. stay 10. A. last B. stand C. go D. remain Write your answers (A, B, C or D) here: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 Part 3. Read the passage and choose the best answers to questions below. (5 pts) Before the mid-nineteenth century, people in the United States ate most foods only in season. Drying, smoking, and salting could preserve meat for a short time, but the availability of fresh meat, like that of fresh milk, was very limited; there was no way to prevent spoilage. But in 1810 a French inventor named Nicolas Appert developed the cooking-and-sealing process of canning. And in the 1850's an American named Gail Borden developed a means of condensing and preserving milk. Canned goods and condensed milk became more common during the 1860's, but supplies remained low because cans had to be made by hand. By 1880, however, inventors had fashioned stamping and soldering machines that mass-produced cans from tinplate. Suddenly all kinds of food could be preserved and bought at all times of the year. Other trends and inventions had also helped make it possible for Americans to vary their daily diets. Growing urban populations created demand that encouraged fruit and vegetable farmers to raise more produce. Railroad refrigerator cars enabled growers and meat packers to ship perishables great distances and to preserve them for longer periods. Thus, by the 1890's, northern city dwellers could enjoy southern and western strawberries, grapes, and tomatoes, previously available for a month at most, for up to six months of the year. In addition, increased use of iceboxes enabled families to store perishables. An easy means of producing ice commercially had been invented in the 1870's, and by 1900 the nation had more than two thousand commercial ice plants, most of which made home deliveries. The icebox became a fixture in most homes and remained so until the mechanized refrigerator replaced it in the 1920's and 1930's. Almost everyone now had a more diversified diet. Some people continued to eat mainly foods that were heavy in starches or carbohydrates, and not everyone could afford meat. Nevertheless, many families could take advantage of previously unavailable fruits, vegetables, and dairy products to achieve more varied fare. 1. What does the passage mainly discuss? A. Causes of food spoilage B. Inventions that led to changes in the American diet C. Commercial production of ice D. Population movements in the nineteenth century
2. The phrase "in season" in paragraph 1 refers to A. a kind of weather B. a particular time of year C. an official schedule D. a method of flavoring food 3. During the 1860's, canned food products were A. unavailable in rural areas B. shipped in refrigerator cars C. available in limited quantities D. a staple part of the American diet 4. The word "them" in paragraph 2 refers to A. refrigerator cars B. perishables C. growers D. distances 5. Which of the following types of food preservation was NOT mentioned in the passage? A. Drying B. Canning C. Cold storage D. Chemical additives Write your answers (A, B, C or D) here: 1 2 3 4 5 SECTION 5: WRITING (25pts) Part 1. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one. Using the word given in block letters and this word MUST NOT be changed in any way. Your answer must be NO MORE THAN 5 WORDS. (5 pts) 1. Flooding in this region was the result of the heavy rain. RESULTED …………………………………………………….…………………… 2. Do you object to working on Sunday? AGAINST …………………………………………………….…………………… 3. The police said Jim had stolen the money. ACCUSED …………………………………………………….…………………… 4. Anna has improved a lot this term. PROGRESS …………………………………………………….…………………… 5. Martin had difficulty in accepting the loss of his money. HARD …………………………………………………….…………………… Part 2. Write the sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the original one. (10 pts) 1. All the children will receive a prize, whatever their score in the competition. -> No matter ....................................................................................................... 2. I am sorry I forgot to phone grandma. -> I apologise........................................................................................................ 3. Only when she is really hungry does she eats snacks between meals. -> Unless............................................................................................................... 4. “Haven’t you got any cheaper television?” -> Are these .......................................................................................................... 5. They wanted Mary to do the job. -> They wanted the job.......................................................................................... 6. They cancelled the flight because of the heavy rain. -> So heavily ......................................................................................................... 7. We haven’t visited our grandparents for two months. -> The last time....................................................................................................... 8. You’d better not lend that man any more money, Mary” - said John. -> John advised ..................................................................................................... 9. I would prefer you not to smoke in here. -> I’d rather .......................................................................................................... 10. This event will always be remembered for the rest of our life. -> Never ................................................................................................................ Part 3: (10 pts) Write a passage in about 150 words on the following topic:
What do you do to keep your neighborhood clean and green? Notes: Don’t use real names, address(s) or office’s name of the people you are describing. .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. ..................................................................................................................................................................