TEST BANK for Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities 4th Edition by Douglas A. Singh. by digitaldownload87

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 1 Multiple Choice

1. In terms of volume of services, the largest subsystem of long-term care is: A) institutional. B) mental. C) informal. D) geriatric. Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: The Continuum of Long-Term Care Subject: Chapter 1 Title: Overview of Long-Term Care

2. Most seniors prefer to receive: A) community-based LTC services. B) LTC services in a hospital unit. C) services in a specialized long-term care facility. D) no LTC services. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Seniors and Long-Term Care Subject: Chapter 1 Title: Overview of Long-Term Care

3. Which of the following is not an activity of daily living (ADL)? A) Moving from the bed to a wheelchair B) Taking a bath or shower C) Using the toilet D) Grocery shopping Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Why the Need for Long-Term Care Subject: Chapter 1 Title: Overview of Long-Term Care

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 1 4. Which of the following is needed to assist a person cope with stressful changes in his or her life? A) Social support B) Palliation C) Assistance with IADLs D) Total care Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Dimensions and Principles of Long-Term Care Subject: Chapter 1 Title: Overview of Long-Term Care

5. Which of the following does not apply to hospice care? A) Legal and financial help are made available. B) Medical interventions are used to prolong life. C) The patient and family become one unit of care. D) The emphasis shifts from treatment to palliative care. Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Dimensions and Principles of Long-Term Care Subject: Chapter 1 Title: Overview of Long-Term Care

6. What is the starting point for customizing services to meet individual needs? A) Past history B) Plan of care C) Goals to be achieved D) Assessment Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Dimensions and Principles of Long-Term Care Subject: Chapter 1 Title: Overview of Long-Term Care

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 1 A) To ensure functional independence B) To determine the individual’s needs C) To maximize quality of care D) To carry out appropriate interventions Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Individualized Services Subject: Chapter 1 Title: Overview of Long-Term Care

8. A resident of an assisted living facility has complained of difficulty watching television because of declining eyesight. The social worker in this facility has arranged an appointment with an ophthalmologist. This is an example of: A) health care integration. B) the continuum of care. C) total care. D) a holistic approach. Ans: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Well-Coordinated Total Care Subject: Chapter 1 Title: Overview of Long-Term Care

9. Caregiving in long-term care should be based on which of the following main goals? A) Provide assistance in all aspects of daily living. B) Employ case management techniques in all aspects of caregiving. C) Restore normal function. D) Promote functional independence. Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Promotion of Functional Independence Subject: Chapter 1 Title: Overview of Long-Term Care

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 1 B) use of assistive devices. C) maintenance therapy. D) filling in for only what the patient cannot do. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Promotion of Functional Independence Subject: Chapter 1 Title: Overview of Long-Term Care

11. When a caregiver provides a person assistance with walking on a regular basis, this is an example of: A) maintenance therapy. B) holistic care. C) restoration of normal function. D) assessment of a person’s functional status. Ans: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Promotion of Functional Independence Subject: Chapter 1 Title: Overview of Long-Term Care

12. Best practices are derived from: A) clinical research. B) procedures used in hospitals. C) procedures that have been standardized. D) clinical practice guidelines. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Use of Evidence-Based Protocols Subject: Chapter 1 Title: Overview of Long-Term Care

13. As part of the delivery of long-term care, due emphasis is placed on the physical, mental, social, and spiritual aspects of a person. Such a philosophy of care is referred to as: A) individualized care. B) person-centered care. © 2022 Jones and Bartlett Learning, LLC

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 1 C) total care. D) holistic care. Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Holistic Approach Subject: Chapter 1 Title: Overview of Long-Term Care

14. Which of the following would indicate that efforts to improve quality of care are being maximized? A) Processes are improved. B) Desired outcomes are achieved. C) Interpersonal aspects of caregiving are emphasized. D) Clinical practice guidelines are implemented. Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Maximizing Quality of Care Subject: Chapter 1 Title: Overview of Long-Term Care

15. Which of the following factors can help improve the quality of life for individuals who are in a vegetative or comatose state? A) Aesthetic features B) Palliation C) Sensory stimulation D) Evidence-based care Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Maximizing Quality of Life Subject: Chapter 1 Title: Overview of Long-Term Care

16. To evaluate a person’s quality of life, which of the following measures would be most appropriate? A) Clinical and person-related goal achievement B) The person’s overall satisfaction with life © 2022 Jones and Bartlett Learning, LLC

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 1 C) The person’s behavioral and psychological symptoms D) Accommodation of personal choices and preferences Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Maximizing Quality of Life Subject: Chapter 1 Title: Overview of Long-Term Care

17. In the informal system of long-term care: A) mostly community-based services are used. B) services are extramural. C) senior centers play an instrumental role. D) family and friends provide care that is unpaid. Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Informal Care Subject: Chapter 1 Title: Overview of Long-Term Care

18. Which of the following is an example of an intramural service? A) Home health care B) Respite care C) Adult day care D) Assistive living facility Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: The Home- and Community-Based System Subject: Chapter 1 Title: Overview of Long-Term Care

19. Which of the following is an example of an extramural community-based service? A) Home health care B) Meals On Wheels C) Adult day care D) Assistive living facility

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 1 Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: The Home- and Community-Based System Subject: Chapter 1 Title: Overview of Long-Term Care

20. Which of the following is true of respite care? A) It enables people to receive services in the least restrictive setting. B) It enables informal caregivers to take some time off. C) It is a substitute for care that was previously delivered in hospitals. D) It provides opportunities for seniors to congregate and socialize. Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: The Home- and Community-Based System Subject: Chapter 1 Title: Overview of Long-Term Care

21. One of the main principles of long-term care requires that services be: A) prioritized. B) individualized. C) specialized. D) organized. Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Individualized Services Subject: Chapter 1 Title: Overview of Long-Term Care

22. Which of the following individuals is likely to require long-term care for less than 90 days? A) A person with dementia B) A person who has been just discharged from the hospital and needs rehabilitation therapies C) A person who has sustained a brain injury D) A person who is developing chronic conditions Ans: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Extended Period of Care © 2022 Jones and Bartlett Learning, LLC

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 1 Subject: Chapter 1 Title: Overview of Long-Term Care

23. Long-term care is referred to as short-term when it is needed for: A) 6 months or less. B) 1 year or less. C) 90 days or less. D) 30 days or less. Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Extended Period of Care Subject: Chapter 1 Title: Overview of Long-Term Care

24. Which of the following provides only light assistive services, such as medication use management and assistance with bathing and grooming? A) Subacute care facilities B) Assisted living facilities C) Personal care homes D) Retirement housing Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: The Institutional System Subject: Chapter 1 Title: Overview of Long-Term Care

25. Which of the following service is available in a specialized care facility? A) Skilled nursing care B) Subacute care C) Treatment for depression D) Ventilator care Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: The Institutional System Subject: Chapter 1 Title: Overview of Long-Term Care © 2022 Jones and Bartlett Learning, LLC

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 1

26. Basic, routine, continuous, and coordinated medical care is referred to as A) Case management B) Skilled nursing care C) Personal care D) Primary care Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Long-Term Care and Complementary Services Subject: Chapter 1 Title: Overview of Long-Term Care

27. Which of the following had a critical role in the development of subacute care? A) Medical technology B) Government policy C) Private entrepreneurs D) Acute care hospitals Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: The Institutional System Subject: Chapter 1 Title: Overview of Long-Term Care

True/False

1. True or false? Deficits in IADLs can generally enable a person to live independently with some support and assistance. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Why the Need for Long-Term Care Subject: Chapter 1 Title: Overview of Long-Term Care

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 1 2. True or false? People age 65 and over constitute a homogeneous group. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Variety of Services Subject: Chapter 1 Title: Overview of Long-Term Care

3. True or false? After entering the long-term care system, the change in people’s needs is progressive, from lighter to more intensive levels of care. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Seniors and Long-Term Care Subject: Chapter 1 Title: Overview of Long-Term Care

4. True or false? Given the number of chronic conditions, functional deficits increase faster among women than among men. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Seniors and Long-Term Care Subject: Chapter 1 Title: Overview of Long-Term Care

5. True or false? People with dementia develop behavioral or psychological symptoms over time. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Mindsets and Vocabulary Subject: Chapter 1 Title: Overview of Long-Term Care

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 1 Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Dimensions and Principles of Long-Term Care Subject: Chapter 1 Title: Overview of Long-Term Care

7. True or false? Community-based services are generally needed for a short duration. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Dimensions and Principles of Long-Term Care Subject: Chapter 1 Title: Overview of Long-Term Care

8. True or false? Only long-stay services are available in nursing homes. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Extended Period of Care Subject: Chapter 1 Title: Overview of Long-Term Care

9. True or false? A given clinical practice guideline is indicated for the treatment of a specific health condition only. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Use of Evidence-Based Protocols Subject: Chapter 1 Title: Overview of Long-Term Care

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 1 Subject: Chapter 1 Title: Overview of Long-Term Care

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 2 Multiple Choice

1. Public policy is aimed at addressing: A) ideas. B) issues. C) strategies. D) legislation. Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Introduction Subject: Chapter 2 Title: Long-Term Care Policy: Past, Present, and Future

2. What is meant by the term public policy? A) Service to the public B) The government’s decisions and actions C) Election for public office D) The public’s best interests Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Introduction Subject: Chapter 2 Title: Long-Term Care Policy: Past, Present, and Future

3. How do administrative bodies, such as the CMS, make policy? A) By formulating rules and regulations B) By issuing executive orders C) By establishing a policy agenda D) By passing new laws Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Types of Policy Subject: Chapter 2 Title: Long-Term Care Policy: Past, Present, and Future

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 2 4. What did the U.S. Supreme Court direct states to do per its decision in Olmstead v. L.C.? A) Increase payments to nursing homes. B) Close down substandard nursing homes. C) Provide community-based services to the disabled. D) Increase eligibility for home health care. Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Types of Policy Subject: Chapter 2 Title: Long-Term Care Policy: Past, Present, and Future

5. Which of the following is true about policy making in the United States? A) Administrative agencies are not involved in policy making. B) Most of the policies come down through the court system. C) Policy making has followed an ad hoc approach. D) Nursing homes are required to appoint boards of charities. Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Long-Term Care Policy: Historical Perspectives Subject: Chapter 2 Title: Long-Term Care Policy: Past, Present, and Future

6. What brought an end to the poorhouse system in the United States? A) The Hospital Survey and Construction Act, 1946 B) The work of reformers such as Dorothea Lynde Dix C) Appointment of Boards of Charities to oversee poorhouses D) Federal grants to states under the Old Age Assistance program. Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Long-Term Care Policy: Historical Perspectives Subject: Chapter 2 Title: Long-Term Care Policy: Past, Present, and Future

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 2 B) The Hospital Survey and Construction Act, 1946 C) Creation of Medicare and Medicaid D) OBRA-87 Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Long-Term Care Policy: Historical Perspectives Subject: Chapter 2 Title: Long-Term Care Policy: Past, Present, and Future

8. Which of the following triggered regulations to license nursing home administrators? A) Shortage of nursing home administrators B) Demands from the nursing home industry C) Public criticism of the conditions of participation D) Substandard care in nursing homes Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Long-Term Care Policy: Historical Perspectives Subject: Chapter 2 Title: Long-Term Care Policy: Past, Present, and Future

9. Which of the following policies has made the most impact in reducing institutional care in favor of community-based LTC services? A) Social Services Block Grants B) 1915(c) waivers C) Hill-Burton Act D) Old Age Assistance program Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Long-Term Care Policy: Historical Perspectives Subject: Chapter 2 Title: Long-Term Care Policy: Past, Present, and Future

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 2 D) the Old Age Assistance program. Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Long-Term Care Policy: Historical Perspectives Subject: Chapter 2 Title: Long-Term Care Policy: Past, Present, and Future

11. Under which of the following programs is money transferred to community-based services when a person leaves a nursing home? A) Medicaid B) 1915(c) waivers C) Medicare D) Money Follows the Person program Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Long-Term Care Policy: Historical Perspectives Subject: Chapter 2 Title: Long-Term Care Policy: Past, Present, and Future

12. The Nursing Home Reform Act contained in OBRA-87 was triggered by: A) a Congressional investigation into abuse and neglect of nursing home residents, B) class-action lawsuits across the country. C) a mandate from the U.S. Supreme Court. D) the Institute of Medicine’s scathing report on nursing homes. Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Long-Term Care Policy: Historical Perspectives Subject: Chapter 2 Title: Long-Term Care Policy: Past, Present, and Future

13. Identify the pair of factors that drive access. A) Availability of services/Need for long-term care B) Nursing homes/Home- and community-based services C) Financing/Availability of services D) Health policy/Financing

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 2 Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Current State of Long-Term Care Policy Subject: Chapter 2 Title: Long-Term Care Policy: Past, Present, and Future

14. What happens when access is limited? A) Financing becomes limited to those who can afford the services. B) Rationing becomes inevitable. C) People who need services are not able to obtain them. D) It becomes necessary to reduce the utilization of services. Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Current State of Long-Term Care Policy Subject: Chapter 2 Title: Long-Term Care Policy: Past, Present, and Future

15. What is the main objective of the Money Follows the Person policy? A) Make nursing home care more affordable. B) Move people out of nursing homes into the community. C) Reduce existing payment levels for nursing homes. D) Enable more people to purchase private LTC insurance. Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Current State of Long-Term Care Policy Subject: Chapter 2 Title: Long-Term Care Policy: Past, Present, and Future

16. What is the main issue with financing for long-term care services under Medicare? A) It pays only for postacute, short-term stays. B) It requires exhaustion of one’s financial resources. C) It must be supplemented with private insurance. D) Payment is often inadequate to cover the cost of operations. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Current State of Long-Term Care Policy © 2022 Jones and Bartlett Learning, LLC

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 2 Subject: Chapter 2 Title: Long-Term Care Policy: Past, Present, and Future

17. What prompts nursing homes to resort to cost shifting? A) Resources must be conserved to improve access. B) Resources must be conserved to improve quality. C) Nursing homes generally engage in profitmongering. D) Payment from government sources is inadequate. Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Current State of Long-Term Care Policy Subject: Chapter 2 Title: Long-Term Care Policy: Past, Present, and Future

18. The level of reimbursement for nursing homes has implications for: A) quality of care. B) access. C) utilization. D) both access and utilization. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Current State of Long-Term Care Policy Subject: Chapter 2 Title: Long-Term Care Policy: Past, Present, and Future

19. What main incentive is offered to people to purchase LTC insurance under the Partnership for Long-Term Care program? A) Medicare will cover all long-term care expenses once insurance benefits are exhausted. B) People receive direct subsidies from the state to purchase LTC insurance. C) People can obtain LTC insurance that will pay lifetime benefits. D) People can shield their assets when applying for Medicaid in the future. Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Current State of Long-Term Care Policy Subject: Chapter 2 Title: Long-Term Care Policy: Past, Present, and Future © 2022 Jones and Bartlett Learning, LLC

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 2

20. The Quality Assurance Performance Improvement program used a(n) _____ approach. A) inspection-driven B) standards-driven C) data-driven D) sanctions-driven Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Current State of Long-Term Care Policy Subject: Chapter 2 Title: Long-Term Care Policy: Past, Present, and Future

21. What are the likely consequences of the demographic imperative? A) Increased financial burden and shortage of workers B) Increased health and disability trends in an aging population C) A moderation in the number of people with activity limitations D) New ways of delivering cost-effective LTC services Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Policies for the Future Subject: Chapter 2 Title: Long-Term Care Policy: Past, Present, and Future

22. The generation of national wealth in the future will necessitate policies that A) make the government responsible for the distribution of goods and services. B) are geared toward containing costs in the delivery of health care services. C) would support government-run health programs. D) make the population more productive. Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Policies for the Future Subject: Chapter 2 Title: Long-Term Care Policy: Past, Present, and Future

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 2 True/False

1. True or false? Public policy is often an important consideration when private organizations make strategic decisions. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Introduction Subject: Chapter 2 Title: Long-Term Care Policy: Past, Present, and Future

2. True or false? Public policy is made by all three branches of government: legislative, judicial, and executive. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Types of Policy Subject: Chapter 2 Title: Long-Term Care Policy: Past, Present, and Future

3. True or false? The President of the United States is the chief public policy maker. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Types of Policy Subject: Chapter 2 Title: Long-Term Care Policy: Past, Present, and Future

4. True or false? During colonial times, the poorhouse was developed specifically for the elderly. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Long-Term Care Policy: Historical Perspectives Subject: Chapter 2 Title: Long-Term Care Policy: Past, Present, and Future

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 2 5. True or false? Medicare is a public insurance program that covers health care services for the poor. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Long-Term Care Policy: Historical Perspectives Subject: Chapter 2 Title: Long-Term Care Policy: Past, Present, and Future

6. True or false? Licensing of both nursing homes and administrators is the responsibility of each state rather than the federal government. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Long-Term Care Policy: Historical Perspectives Subject: Chapter 2 Title: Long-Term Care Policy: Past, Present, and Future

7. True or false? Social Services Block Grants specifically provided funding for long-term care services for the elderly. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Long-Term Care Policy: Historical Perspectives Subject: Chapter 2 Title: Long-Term Care Policy: Past, Present, and Future

8. True or false? Emphasis on quality of life was included in the Nursing Home Reform Act. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Long-Term Care Policy: Historical Perspectives Subject: Chapter 2 Title: Long-Term Care Policy: Past, Present, and Future

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 2 9. True or false? Assisted living facilities are licensed by states and are not bound by federal regulations. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Long-Term Care Policy: Historical Perspectives Subject: Chapter 2 Title: Long-Term Care Policy: Past, Present, and Future

10. True or false? In the United States, financing for long-term care is quite fragmented. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Current-State of Long-Term Care Policy Subject: Chapter 2 Title: Long-Term Care Policy: Past, Present, and Future

11. True or false? Future delivery of long-term care cannot be shouldered primarily by the government. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Policies for the Future Subject: Chapter 2 Title: Long-Term Care Policy: Past, Present, and Future

12. True or false? In the future, doctors will be required to play a more active role in addressing unhealthy behaviors by individuals. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Policies for the Future Subject: Chapter 2 Title: Long-Term Care Policy: Past, Present, and Future

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 3 Multiple Choice

1. Which of the following health care professionals deliver the bulk of services through a Medicare-certified home health agency? A) Occupational therapists B) Paraprofessionals C) Case managers D) Licensed nurses Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: The Provider Sector Subject: Chapter 3 Title: The Long-Term Care Profession

2. Under Medicaid, which agency coordinates the delivery of homemaker and personal care services? A) Area Agency on Aging B) Case management service C) Hospital D) Skilled nursing facility Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: The Provider Sector Subject: Chapter 3 Title: The Long-Term Care Profession

3. Mr. Jones is 70 years old and lives in a private-pay retirement center. He had a knee replacement procedure done at the local hospital. His physician has written orders to continue physical therapy for 2 weeks after he returns to his apartment. Which of the following can deliver the rehabilitation services he needs? A) Home health agency B) Retirement center C) Private-duty nurse D) None of these are correct. Ans: A Complexity: Moderate © 2022 Jones and Bartlett Learning, LLC

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 3 Ahead: The Provider Sector Subject: Chapter 3 Title: The Long-Term Care Profession

4. Which federal department oversees the government-assisted housing program in the United States? A) Health and Human Services B) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention C) Department of Commerce D) Housing and Urban Development Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: The Provider Sector Subject: Chapter 3 Title: The Long-Term Care Profession

5. Section 202 housing is available to which group of people? A) Anyone age 65 and over B) Low-income and disabled individuals C) Low-income families D) Low-income people who are 62 years or older Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: The Provider Sector Subject: Chapter 3 Title: The Long-Term Care Profession

6. Mrs. Parker is 63 years old and has just moved to a small town to be close to her family. Her income is quite small, but only private rental housing is available in her new location. Under which program can she apply for a voucher that she can use toward rent? A) Section 202 program B) Section 811 program C) Section 8 program D) Cohousing program Ans: C Complexity: Moderate © 2022 Jones and Bartlett Learning, LLC

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 3 Ahead: The Provider Sector Subject: Chapter 3 Title: The Long-Term Care Profession

7. What category of service is provided in adult foster care homes? A) Room and board only B) Custodial care C) Independent living D) Assisted living Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: The Provider Sector Subject: Chapter 3 Title: The Long-Term Care Profession

8. Which of the following applies to cohousing? A) Housing is developed through interest-free loans from HUD. B) Residents actively participate in the operations. C) Residents can choose between independent living, custodial care, and assisted living. D) The U.S. government does not recognize cohousing. Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: The Provider Sector Subject: Chapter 3 Title: The Long-Term Care Profession

9. Which of the following services must be authorized by a physician? A) Eligibility for public housing B) Assistance with ADLs C) Skilled nursing care D) Case management Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: The Provider Sector Subject: Chapter 3 Title: The Long-Term Care Profession © 2022 Jones and Bartlett Learning, LLC

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 3

10. Which of the following does not apply to skilled nursing care? A) Intensive treatment of ADLs B) Periodic monitoring by an attending physician C) Rehabilitation services provided by registered therapists D) Treatments rendered by licensed nurses Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: The Provider Sector Subject: Chapter 3 Title: The Long-Term Care Profession

11. In skilled nursing facilities, who renders the majority of care with ADLs? A) Licensed nurses B) Paraprofessionals C) Therapists D) Physicians Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: The Provider Sector Subject: Chapter 3 Title: The Long-Term Care Profession

12. “Active treatment” in an intermediate care facility for individuals with intellectual disabilities includes: A) frequent visits by the attending physician. B) aggressive rehabilitation programming. C) specialized programs and skill training. D) subacute level of nursing care. Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: The Provider Sector Subject: Chapter 3 Title: The Long-Term Care Profession

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 3 13. What is a transitional care unit? A) A hospital unit that treats multiple chronic problems requiring hospital-level care B) A subacute care unit located in a skilled nursing facility C) A subacute care unit located in a hospital D) A facility that renders intense rehabilitation therapies Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: The Provider Sector Subject: Chapter 3 Title: The Long-Term Care Profession

14. The concept of aging-in-place applies to which of the following? A) Alzheimer’s facilities B) Continuing care retirement communities C) Inpatient rehabilitation facilities D) All specialized facilities Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: The Provider Sector Subject: Chapter 3 Title: The Long-Term Care Profession

15. When a person’s contract with a CCRC includes a commitment to provide unlimited future LTC services, the contract is called a: A) life-care contract. B) fee-for-service contract. C) permanent contract. D) modified contract. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: The Provider Sector Subject: Chapter 3 Title: The Long-Term Care Profession

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 3 A) LTC insurance can be used only after a person has reached a certain age. B) applications for LTC insurance will be denied if certain chronic conditions are present. C) applications for LTC insurance will be denied after a person reaches a certain age. D) benefits start after a given time period has elapsed. Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: The Insurance Sector Subject: Chapter 3 Title: The Long-Term Care Profession

17. Which of the following highlights one of the main differences between managed care and commercial insurance? A) HMOs do not deliver a comprehensive array of services. B) HMOs underwrite risk. C) HMOs do not underwrite risk. D) HMOs have contracts with the providers of services. Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: The Insurance Sector Subject: Chapter 3 Title: The Long-Term Care Profession

18. What is the main role of a governing body? A) It has legal authority and responsibility for overall management. B) It evaluates the qualifications of staff in hiring and firing decisions. C) It appoints attending physicians to care for residents in a nursing facility. D) It provides for licensure and certification of a nursing facility. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Long-Term Care Professionals Subject: Chapter 3 Title: The Long-Term Care Profession

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 3 B) A bachelor’s degree C) Reciprocity with a state D) Passing a national examination administered by the NAB Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Long-Term Care Professionals Subject: Chapter 3 Title: The Long-Term Care Profession

20. Osteopathic medicine emphasizes: A) preventive medicine such as diet and the environment. B) knee and hip replacements. C) allopathic treatments. D) treatment of eye diseases. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Long-Term Care Professionals Subject: Chapter 3 Title: The Long-Term Care Profession

21. After a severe swimming accident, an Olympic athlete undergoes numerous surgeries. Subsequently, the athlete is discharged to a facility that specializes in rehabilitation. Which of the following clinicians is likely to direct the therapy treatments? A) Physical therapist B) Physiatrist C) Osteopath D) Occupational therapist Ans: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Long-Term Care Professionals Subject: Chapter 3 Title: The Long-Term Care Profession

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 3 C) Speech/language pathologist D) Occupational therapist Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Long-Term Care Professionals Subject: Chapter 3 Title: The Long-Term Care Profession

23. Which of the following areas are addressed by occupational therapists? A) Daily living and work skills B) Personal care and assistance with ADLs C) Musculoskeletal disorders D) Neuromuscular disorders Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Long-Term Care Professionals Subject: Chapter 3 Title: The Long-Term Care Profession

24. Which of the following is not referred to as a paraprofessional? A) CNA B) Dietetic technician C) Therapy aide D) Personal care attendant Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Long-Term Care Professionals Subject: Chapter 3 Title: The Long-Term Care Profession

25. Which of the following is also referred to as a nutritionist? A) Registered Dietitian B) Dietetic Technician, Registered C) Food service director D) Dietary manager

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 3 Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Long-Term Care Professionals Subject: Chapter 3 Title: The Long-Term Care Profession

26. What is the basic qualification for a medication aide? A) A one-year certificate from a technical college B) Qualification as a pharmacy assistant C) LPN/LVN D) Certified nursing assistant Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Long-Term Care Professionals Subject: Chapter 3 Title: The Long-Term Care Profession

27. CNAs are required to undergo a minimum of ____ hours of training, ____ hours of which must include hands-on training. A) 24, 24 B) 35, 20 C) 75, 16 D) 120, 40 Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Long-Term Care Professionals Subject: Chapter 3 Title: The Long-Term Care Profession

28. What are psychotropic medications? A) Habit-forming pain killers B) Drugs that produce allergic reactions C) Mind-altering medications D) Medications that produce the same effects as another medication a person may be taking Ans: C Complexity: Easy © 2022 Jones and Bartlett Learning, LLC

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 3 Ahead: Long-Term Care Professionals Subject: Chapter 3 Title: The Long-Term Care Profession

29. Which of the following services are provided by case management agencies? A) Assistance to clients in navigating the LTC system B) Community-based services C) Long-term care financing D) Quality improvement Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Adjunct Services Subject: Chapter 3 Title: The Long-Term Care Profession

30. What is the role of enabling technology? A) Promotion of independence B) Enabling staff to be more productive C) Enabling individuals to summon help when necessary D) Promotion of decision making Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Long-Term Care Technology Subject: Chapter 3 Title: The Long-Term Care Profession

31. Which of the following is an example of a safety technology? A) Home telehealth systems B) In-home dialyzers C) Reminder systems, such as automatic enunciators D) Wireless transmitters that notify staff when wandering occurs Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Long-Term Care Technology Subject: Chapter 3 Title: The Long-Term Care Profession © 2022 Jones and Bartlett Learning, LLC

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 3

32. Which of the following technologies can help reduce medication errors? A) Radio frequency identification B) Decision support system C) Barcode technology D) Facilitating technology Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Long-Term Care Technology Subject: Chapter 3 Title: The Long-Term Care Profession

True/False

1. True or false? The majority of clients who receive services at adult day care centers are covered under Medicaid. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: The Provider Sector Subject: Chapter 3 Title: The Long-Term Care Profession

2. True or false? If a person requires only custodial care, Medicare does not pay for it. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: The Provider Sector Subject: Chapter 3 Title: The Long-Term Care Profession

3. True or false? Most adult day care centers are equipped to provide services to people with dementia.

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 3 Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: The Provider Sector Subject: Chapter 3 Title: The Long-Term Care Profession

4. True or false? An assisted living facility cannot be operated without a license from the state. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: The Provider Sector Subject: Chapter 3 Title: The Long-Term Care Profession

5. True or false? The majority of hospice care is delivered in the patients’ own homes. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: The Provider Sector Subject: Chapter 3 Title: The Long-Term Care Profession

6. True or false? A skilled nursing facility is prohibited by regulations to have an assisted living section. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: The Provider Sector Subject: Chapter 3 Title: The Long-Term Care Profession

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 3 Title: The Long-Term Care Profession

8. True or false? LTCHs are certified as skilled nursing facilities. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: The Provider Sector Subject: Chapter 3 Title: The Long-Term Care Profession

9. True or false? Generally, licensed nursing home administrators are allowed to manage assisted living facilities without any further training. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Long-Term Care Professionals Subject: Chapter 3 Title: The Long-Term Care Profession

10. True or false? Qualifications for nursing home administrators are uniform across all states. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Long-Term Care Professionals Subject: Chapter 3 Title: The Long-Term Care Profession

11. True or false? Residents in nursing homes must receive their medical treatments from the facility’s medical director. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Long-Term Care Professionals Subject: Chapter 3 Title: The Long-Term Care Profession

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 3 12. True or false? In skilled nursing facilities, RNs function mainly as charge nurses and team leaders. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Long-Term Care Professionals Subject: Chapter 3 Title: The Long-Term Care Profession

13. True or false? Case management agencies do not provide actual LTC services. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Adjunct Services Subject: Chapter 3 Title: The Long-Term Care Profession

14. True or false? Long-term care pharmacies are pharmaceutical outlets located in LTC facilities. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Long-Term Care Professionals Subject: Chapter 3 Title: The Long-Term Care Profession

15. True or false? Various types of domotics technology are designed to automate certain caregiving tasks. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Long-Term Care Technology Subject: Chapter 3 Title: The Long-Term Care Profession

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 4 Multiple Choice

1. Which segment of the senior population in the United States is projected to grow the fastest? A) Age 65–70 years B) Age 75–80 years C) Age 76–85 years D) 85 years and older Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Introduction Subject: Chapter 4 Title: Aging and Long-Term Care

2. In the United States, which of the following serves the most ethnically diverse clientele? A) Skilled nursing facilities B) Assisted living facilities C) Adult day care centers D) Continuing care retirement communities Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Seniors in America Subject: Chapter 4 Title: Aging and Long-Term Care

3. Gerontology is the study of: A) social problems of the elderly. B) aging and aging-related problems. C) caregiving techniques. D) diseases the elderly are prone to. Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Understanding AgingSubject: Chapter 4 Title: Aging and Long-Term Care

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 4 4. Disengagement theory suggests that: A) the need for rest increases with aging. B) television viewing is a passive activity for most elderly. C) the elderly desire less structure in their daily lives. D) not everyone wants to remain socially active. Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Understanding Aging Subject: Chapter 4 Title: Aging and Long-Term Care

5. Which of the following theories states that current behaviors of older individuals may be driven by certain stereotypes that others may be using? A) Labeling theory B) Ageism C) Continuity theory D) Activity theory Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Understanding Aging Subject: Chapter 4 Title: Aging and Long-Term Care

6. Caregivers may refer to older adults as “baby” or “sweetie.” This is an example of: A) infantilization. B) ageism. C) stereotyping. D) resident-centered care. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Understanding Aging Subject: Chapter 4 Title: Aging and Long-Term Care

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 4 B) Diminished ability to make decisions C) Loss of appetite D) Sleeping too much Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Mental and Cognitive Disorders Subject: Chapter 4 Title: Aging and Long-Term Care

8. Mrs. Alma Smith is discharged to a skilled nursing facility after surgery. Within 2 days she develops incoherent speech and shows signs of disorientation and memory lapses. At times, she is also physically agitated. Mrs. Smith is most likely showing signs of: A) Dementia B) Depression C) Delirium D) Multimorbidity Ans: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Mental and Cognitive Disorders Subject: Chapter 4 Title: Aging and Long-Term Care

9. Delirium is a(n) ____ disorder. A) frequently recurring B) acute C) chronic D) progressive Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Mental and Cognitive Disorders Subject: Chapter 4 Title: Aging and Long-Term Care

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 4 C) both depression and delirium. D) neither depression nor delirium. Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Mental and Cognitive Disorders Subject: Chapter 4 Title: Aging and Long-Term Care

11. One main characteristic of dementia is that it is a(n) ____ mental dysfunction. A) very severe B) acute C) disorienting D) progressive Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Mental and Cognitive Disorders Subject: Chapter 4 Title: Aging and Long-Term Care

12. What is one of the main reasons for the increased prevalence of HIV infection among the senior population? A) Lack of protection during sexual activity B) Promiscuity C) Multiple partners D) Reduced mortality Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Aging and HIV/AIDS Subject: Chapter 4 Title: Aging and Long-Term Care

13. Which of the following refers to delivering care in accordance with cultural needs and preferences? A) Cultural competence B) Acculturation C) Ethnocentric care © 2022 Jones and Bartlett Learning, LLC

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 4 D) Cultural diversity Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Diversity and Person-Centered Care Subject: Chapter 4 Title: Aging and Long-Term Care

14. Seventh-day Adventists observe the Sabbath: A) from morning till evening on Saturdays. B) from sundown on Friday to sundown on Saturday. C) on Fridays. D) from midnight on Saturday to midnight on Sunday. Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Diversity and Person-Centered Care Subject: Chapter 4 Title: Aging and Long-Term Care

15. Which of the following is considered the holiest of all Jewish observances? A) Thanksgiving B) Hanukkah C) Passover D) Yom Kippur Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Diversity and Person-Centered Care Subject: Chapter 4 Title: Aging and Long-Term Care

16. Which dietary restriction do Mormons have? A) They do not use caffeinated beverages. B) They do not eat meat. C) They eat only meats that are regarded as biblically clean. D) They do not consume meat and milk together. Ans: A © 2022 Jones and Bartlett Learning, LLC

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 4 Complexity: Easy Ahead: Diversity and Person-Centered Care Subject: Chapter 4 Title: Aging and Long-Term Care

17. Meats slaughtered according to Jewish law are referred to as being: A) halal. B) biblically clean. C) kosher. D) nonsanguine. Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Diversity and Person-Centered Care Subject: Chapter 4 Title: Aging and Long-Term Care

18. Mr. Chiu has just been admitted to your skilled care facility. During the nursing assessment, you learn that Mr. Chiu strongly believes in the principles of yin and yang. Which fluids should be recommended in the hydration and dietary services? A) Milk B) Juice C) Warm liquids D) Cold liquids Ans: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Diversity and Person-Centered Care Subject: Chapter 4 Title: Aging and Long-Term Care

19. The Uniform Determination of Death Act of 1981 defines death as: A) cessation of respiration. B) complete stoppage of the heart and blood flow. C) cessation of vital functions. D) cessation of all brain functions. Ans: D Complexity: Easy © 2022 Jones and Bartlett Learning, LLC

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 4 Ahead: End-of-Life Issues Subject: Chapter 4 Title: Aging and Long-Term Care

20. After a person has died in a nursing facility, burial cannot proceed without: A) certification of death by a physician. B) the involvement of the medical examiner or coroner. C) filing of a death certificate and, if indicated, clearance from the medical examiner or coroner. D) certification of death by a registered nurse in the nursing facility. Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: End-of-Life Issues Subject: Chapter 4 Title: Aging and Long-Term Care

True/False

1. True or false? Compared to whites, blacks and other minorities in the United States are less likely to rate their health as excellent or very good. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Seniors in America Subject: Chapter 4 Title: Aging and Long-Term Care

2. True or false? Different people age differently, which makes the elderly a heterogeneous group. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Understanding Aging Subject: Chapter 4 Title: Aging and Long-Term Care

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 4 3. True or false? An older adult’s chronological age defines that person’s attitudes toward aging. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Understanding Aging Subject: Chapter 4 Title: Aging and Long-Term Care

4. True or false? The belief that once people become old they become dependent may actually promote dependency in elders. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Understanding Aging Subject: Chapter 4 Title: Aging and Long-Term Care

5. True or false? Stereotypes about old age are referred to as ageism. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Understanding Aging Subject: Chapter 4 Title: Aging and Long-Term Care

6. True or false? Delirium cannot just suddenly appear in a patient. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Mental and Cognitive Disorders Subject: Chapter 4 Title: Aging and Long-Term Care

7. True or false? Therapeutic interventions do not reverse delirium nor reduce its duration once the syndrome has developed.

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 4 Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Mental and Cognitive Disorders Subject: Chapter 4 Title: Aging and Long-Term Care

8. True or false? Thanks to highly effective drugs, people with HIV/AIDS do not suffer from functional decline. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Aging and HIV/AIDS Subject: Chapter 4 Title: Aging and Long-Term Care

9. True or false? Many veterans of war need to be placed in community nursing homes because of capacity limitations in the Veteran’s Administration system. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Aging Among Veterans Subject: Chapter 4 Title: Aging and Long-Term Care

10. True or false? Minority elders utilize nursing homes at the same rate as white elders. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Diversity and Person-Centered Care Subject: Chapter 4 Title: Aging and Long-Term Care

11. True or false? Mrs. Lee, a person of Chinese origin, has just been admitted to your nursing facility. A week ago, you attended a seminar on the delivery of person-centered care. To accommodate Mrs. Lee’s preferences, you begin an interview with her. It is best to begin the interview by asking her if she understands English.

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 4 Ans: False Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Diversity and Person-Centered Care Subject: Chapter 4 Title: Aging and Long-Term Care

12. True or false? Nursing home regulations mandate faith-based nursing facilities to set aside their religious philosophies to accommodate what the residents want. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Diversity and Person-Centered Care Subject: Chapter 4 Title: Aging and Long-Term Care

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 5 Multiple Choice

1. When a resident’s family takes legal action against a nursing home, the nursing home corporation is referred to as the: A) defendant. B) aggressor. C) plaintiff. D) liable party. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Nursing Home Litigation Subject: Chapter 5 Title: Laws, Regulations, and Financing

2. Which level of government has the authority to regulate long-term care insurance? A) Local B) Federal C) All levels of government D) State Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Classifications of Laws Subject: Chapter 5 Title: Laws, Regulations, and Financing

3. Which of the following courts is the final arbiter with regard to constitutional matters? A) Federal courts B) Circuit courts C) Courts of appeal D) The Supreme Court Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Classifications of Laws Subject: Chapter 5 Title: Laws, Regulations, and Financing

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 5

4. Rules and regulations to implement the Affordable Care Act provide an example of which of the following? A) Ordinance B) Administrative law C) Statutory law D) Federal law Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Classifications of Laws Subject: Chapter 5 Title: Laws, Regulations, and Financing

5. When a court applies settled principles of law from previous cases, it is using: A) common law. B) statutory law. C) administrative law. D) public law. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Classifications of Laws Subject: Chapter 5 Title: Laws, Regulations, and Financing

6. Administrative law must be consistent with: A) public law. B) statutory law. C) federal law. D) common law. Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Classifications of Laws Subject: Chapter 5 Title: Laws, Regulations, and Financing

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 5 7. Criminal law is also classified as: A) public law. B) statutory law. C) federal law. D) tort law. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Classifications of Laws Subject: Chapter 5 Title: Laws, Regulations, and Financing

8. In which of the following situations may a contract be valid? A) There is no consideration. B) One of the parties is a minor. C) The agreement is not in writing. D) A meeting of the minds has not occurred. Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Classifications of Laws Subject: Chapter 5 Title: Laws, Regulations, and Financing

9. A skilled roofing contractor provides a valuable service to a nursing facility for an agreed upon price. Such an exchange of values is referred to as: A) consideration. B) competency. C) meeting of the minds. D) an agreement. Ans: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Classifications of Laws Subject: Chapter 5 Title: Laws, Regulations, and Financing

10. The administrator of a nursing facility contracted with a roofing company to undertake extensive roof repairs. During a heavy downpour of rain, one section of the roof started to show

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 5 signs of leakage. Shortly thereafter, a section of the ceiling caved in, but the administrator did nothing. He wanted to wait until the damages from the rain had been ascertained. Subsequently, the administrator sued the roofing contractor to recover damages for a large sum of money because of damages to the ceiling and partial flooding in the facility. The roofing company disagreed. The court ruled in the roofing company’s favor and denied the damages. Why did the court deny the damages? A) There was no meeting of the minds about the damages. B) The administrator was negligent. C) The administrator had failed to mitigate damages. D) The court erred and should have ruled in favor of the nursing facility. Ans: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Ordinary Negligence, Malpractice, and Intentional Torts Subject: Chapter 5 Title: Laws, Regulations, and Financing

11. Despite requests from some family members, a nursing facility does not install an alarm system to monitor residents who may wander outside unattended. Which of the following is correct from a legal standpoint? A) The facility can be sued for an act of omission. B) This is an example of ordinary negligence. C) There is breach of duty for not ensuring resident safety. D) No legal action can be taken unless an injury has occurred. Ans: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Ordinary Negligence, Malpractice, and Intentional Torts Subject: Chapter 5 Title: Laws, Regulations, and Financing

12. Which of the following must be established in a court trial for a ruling of medical malpractice? A) A decision based on a jury’s common knowledge is sufficient in most cases. B) The breach of duty must be intentional. C) It is sufficient to prove that care delivered was not what a reasonable person would expect. D) Expert testimony is necessary. Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Ordinary Negligence, Malpractice, and Intentional Torts

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 5 Subject: Chapter 5 Title: Laws, Regulations, and Financing

13. Which of the following would be considered assault, not battery? A) A resident’s daughter slaps the resident. B) A nurse restrains a resident without a physician’s order. C) Administration of a wrong medication results in hospitalization of a resident. D) An employee threatens a coworker with punching gestures in the parking lot. Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Ordinary Negligence, Malpractice, and Intentional Torts Subject: Chapter 5 Title: Laws, Regulations, and Financing

14. Who has the ultimate legal responsibility for a nursing facility’s operations? A) The nursing home corporation B) The medical director C) The governing body D) The nursing home administrator Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Personal and Corporate Liability Subject: Chapter 5 Title: Laws, Regulations, and Financing

15. Bona fide generally means: A) how a reasonable person would act. B) avoidance of illegal activities. C) discharge of duty owed to residents. D) effective management of an organization. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Personal and Corporate Liability Subject: Chapter 5 Title: Laws, Regulations, and Financing

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 5

16. According to the doctrine of respondeat superior, A) a supervisor is held liable for the wrongful acts of the employees he or she supervises. B) a nursing facility can avert liability by selecting, training, and supervising employees. C) a corporation becomes responsible for the tortious acts of its employees. D) individuals cannot be held personally liable. Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Personal and Corporate Liability Subject: Chapter 5 Title: Laws, Regulations, and Financing

17. Under the theory of agency, who bears liability? A) The agent B) The governing body C) The principal D) The agent’s representative Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Personal and Corporate Liability Subject: Chapter 5 Title: Laws, Regulations, and Financing

18. A nursing home owned by a city or a county is best classified as a ____ facility. A) public B) nonprofit C) state D) local Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Corporate Law Subject: Chapter 5 Title: Laws, Regulations, and Financing

19. A nonprofit organization must not ____ profits.

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 5 A) earn B) retain C) spend D) distribute Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Corporate Law Subject: Chapter 5 Title: Laws, Regulations, and Financing

20. Nonprofit organizations must serve a ____ purpose. A) cooperative B) competitive C) cost-containment D) charitable Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Corporate Law Subject: Chapter 5 Title: Laws, Regulations, and Financing

21. A corporation is a legal entity that is separate from: A) its owners. B) the organization(s) it owns. C) its partners. D) the assets it owns. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Corporate Law Subject: Chapter 5 Title: Laws, Regulations, and Financing

22. Who is liable for payment of taxes in a sole proprietorship? A) The corporation B) No one C) The owner

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 5 D) The shareholders Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Corporate Law Subject: Chapter 5 Title: Laws, Regulations, and Financing

23. It is unlawful to operate a nursing facility without: A) certification. B) a license. C) incorporation. D) accreditation. Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Licensure, Certification, and Accreditation Subject: Chapter 5 Title: Laws, Regulations, and Financing

24. Who issues a license to operate a nursing facility? A) State government B) Federal government C) Local government D) The Joint Commission Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Licensure, Certification, and Accreditation Subject: Chapter 5 Title: Laws, Regulations, and Financing

25. What is the purpose of SNF certification? A) It allows a nursing home to deliver skilled nursing care. B) All nursing homes must have this certification. C) It differentiates a skilled nursing facility from an intermediate care facility. D) It allows a nursing home to serve residents receiving Medicare benefits. Ans: D

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 5 Complexity: Easy Ahead: Licensure, Certification, and Accreditation Subject: Chapter 5 Title: Laws, Regulations, and Financing

26. Which of the following outlines a facility’s responsibility when a resident has refused all medical treatment? A) The facility is absolved of all responsibility. B) The facility must provide services to maintain the resident’s physical, mental, and psychosocial well-being. C) The facility must transfer the resident to a hospital. D) The facility must refer the resident for hospice care. Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Resident Rights Subject: Chapter 5 Title: Laws, Regulations, and Financing

27. To which of the following does HIPAA’s Privacy Rule specifically apply? A) Safeguarding of personal health information B) Safeguarding of electronic medical records C) Transfer of records between two health care facilities D) All medical treatments given to a resident Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Privacy of Medical Information Subject: Chapter 5 Title: Laws, Regulations, and Financing

28. Which of the following is true of durable power of attorney? A) A court appoints someone to make medical decisions on a person’s behalf. B) A person appoints someone to make decisions on his or her behalf. C) A person specifies his or her own wishes regarding medical treatment. D) A law firm is hired to address issues of advance directives. Ans: B Complexity: Easy

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 5 Ahead: Resident Rights Subject: Chapter 5 Title: Laws, Regulations, and Financing

29. Federal regulations include the use of restraints as a category of abuse, neglect, and exploitation. Which of the following does not apply to the use of restraints? A) Use of restraints must be medically indicated. B) Restraints may be used, but only temporarily. C) A facility may use physical restraints, but not chemical restraints. D) Restraints may be used only with ongoing reevaluation of the need for a restraint. Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Elder Abuse Subject: Chapter 5 Title: Laws, Regulations, and Financing

30. According to HIPAA, a resident’s personal health information (PHI) can be used without the resident’s authorization for all of the following purposes, except: A) facility operations. B) medical treatment. C) medical research. D) reimbursement. Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Privacy of Medical Information Subject: Chapter 5 Title: Laws, Regulations, and Financing

31. Under which of the following laws are people with HIV/AIDS protected against discrimination? A) Rehabilitation Act of 1973 B) Affordable Care Act of 2010 C) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 D) Civil Rights Act of 1964 Ans: A Complexity: Easy

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 5 Ahead: Anti-Discrimination Laws Subject: Chapter 5 Title: Laws, Regulations, and Financing

True/False

1. Litigation has led to widespread improvement in nursing home quality. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Subject: Chapter 5 Title: Laws, Regulations, and Financing

2. Federal laws supersede state and local laws. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Nursing Home Litigation Subject: Chapter 5 Title: Laws, Regulations, and Financing

3. Common law is based on the Constitution of the United States. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Classification of Laws Subject: Chapter 5 Title: Laws, Regulations, and Financing

4. Rules and regulations contain details to carry out a particular statute. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Classification of Laws

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 5 Subject: Chapter 5 Title: Laws, Regulations, and Financing

5. Civil penalties are in the form of jail terms and fines. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Classification of Laws Subject: Chapter 5 Title: Laws, Regulations, and Financing

6. Breach of contract is a type of tort. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Classification of Laws Subject: Chapter 5 Title: Laws, Regulations, and Financing

7. A felony is a more serious crime than a misdemeanor. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Classification of Laws Subject: Chapter 5 Title: Laws, Regulations, and Financing

8. A breach of contract is a civil wrong; a tort is a criminal offense. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Classification of Laws Subject: Chapter 5 Title: Laws, Regulations, and Financing

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 5 9. Punitive damages are not available in breach of contract cases. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Classification of Laws Subject: Chapter 5 Title: Laws, Regulations, and Financing

10. If a nursing home administrator knew or should have known that an act of commission or omission could cause harm to a resident, the NHA may be held personally liable if injury occurs to a resident as a direct result of the NHA’s action or inaction. Ans: True Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Ordinary Negligence, Malpractice, and Intentional Torts Subject: Chapter 5 Title: Laws, Regulations, and Financing

11. In the delivery of resident care, ordinary negligence occurs when harm is caused because professional standards of care were not followed. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Ordinary Negligence, Malpractice, and Intentional Torts Subject: Chapter 5 Title: Laws, Regulations, and Financing

12. A nursing facility can shield itself from liability under the doctrine of respondeat superior by providing liability insurance to its professional staff. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Personal and Corporate Liability Subject: Chapter 5 Title: Laws, Regulations, and Financing

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 5 13. Under the doctrine of respondeat superior, a supervisor can be held liable for the illegal activities of employees in his or her department. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Personal and Corporate Liability Subject: Chapter 5 Title: Laws, Regulations, and Financing

14. Corporate liability is averted when the organization takes all reasonable steps to select, train, and supervise its employees, and may have taken disciplinary action against employees for lapses in resident care. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Personal and Corporate Liability Subject: Chapter 5 Title: Laws, Regulations, and Financing

15. Generally, the nursing facility is not liable for the wrongful acts of independent contractors, such as rehabilitation therapists who are not employees of the facility. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Personal and Corporate Liability Subject: Chapter 5 Title: Laws, Regulations, and Financing

16. A private nonprofit nursing home cannot legally admit residents who pay privately for the services. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Corporate Law Subject: Chapter 5 Title: Laws, Regulations, and Financing

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 5 17. In a sole proprietorship, the owner has unlimited liability. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Corporate Law Subject: Chapter 5 Title: Laws, Regulations, and Financing

18. According to federal regulations, an intermediate care facility provides nursing care that is less intensive than that provided in a skilled nursing facility. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Licensure, Certification, and Accreditation Subject: Chapter 5 Title: Laws, Regulations, and Financing

19. NF certification allows a nursing home to admit only Medicaid recipients. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Licensure, Certification, and Accreditation Subject: Chapter 5 Title: Laws, Regulations, and Financing

20. The majority of nursing homes in the United States are certified as SNFs and NFs. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Licensure, Certification, and Accreditation Subject: Chapter 5 Title: Laws, Regulations, and Financing

21. In long-term care facilities, abuse of older residents by other residents is more common than physical abuse by staff. Ans: True

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 5 Complexity: Easy Ahead: Elder Abuse Subject: Chapter 5 Title: Laws, Regulations, and Financing

22. Privacy and confidentiality rights require the facility to furnish a private room to a resident if he or she prefers such accommodation. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Privacy of Medical Information Subject: Chapter 5 Title: Laws, Regulations, and Financing

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 6 Multiple Choice

1. In general, who enforces rules and regulations? A) Legislative bodies B) The nursing home administrator C) Administrative agencies D) Courts Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Nursing Home Oversight Subject: Chapter 6 Title: Regulation and Enforcement

2. What are F-Tags? A) F-Tags identify individual standards that certified facilities must comply with. B) F-Tags identify substandard nursing homes. C) F-Tags determine the number of federal violations a nursing home has at any given time. D) F-Tags are associated with state regulations. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Requirements of Participation Subject: Chapter 6 Title: Regulation and Enforcement

3. What is a nursing home survey? A) An assessment of safety and quality by nursing home staff. B) An assessment of the nursing home environment to identify safety hazards. C) An inspection carried out to determine compliance with regulations. D) A chart used to determine the severity and scope of violations. Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Survey and Enforcement Subject: Chapter 6 Title: Regulation and Enforcement

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 6 4. Which of the following can the nursing home facility use to achieve continuous compliance with federal standards? A) Nursing Home Compare website B) Contract with the state survey agency C) Use of evidence-based practice guidelines D) Interpretive guidelines issued to surveyors Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Achieving Continuous Compliance Subject: Chapter 6 Title: Regulation and Enforcement

5. The modern nursing home inspection is: A) outcome-oriented. B) facility-oriented. C) deficiency-oriented. D) severity- and scope-oriented. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Survey and Enforcement Subject: Chapter 6 Title: Regulation and Enforcement

6. If during the survey process the surveyors suspect substandard quality of care, what action are they likely to take? A) Assess the effectiveness of the facility’s quality assessment and assurance committee. B) Expand the survey. C) Review the CASPER report. D) Evaluate the implementation of clinical practice guidelines. Ans: b Complexity: Easy Ahead: Survey and Enforcement Subject: Chapter 6 Title: Regulation and Enforcement

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 6 7. To gather information on which compliance decisions are based, which of the following is not used by the surveyors? A) Observations B) Interviews with residents and their representatives C) Reports from external consultants to the facility D) Review of medical records Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Survey and Enforcement Subject: Chapter 6 Title: Regulation and Enforcement

8. To assess and/or improve the quality of care, which of the following is not required by nursing home regulations? A) Periodic mock surveys by the facility’s staff B) Submission of data to the state C) Quality assessment and assurance committee D) Quality assurance/performance improvement program Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Survey and Enforcement Subject: Chapter 6 Title: Regulation and Enforcement

9. How does the survey team relay its findings of deficiencies to the facility’s administration? A) By letter to the facility B) By having an exit conference after the survey has been completed C) By updating the data on Nursing Home Compare D) By arranging a meeting with the administrator at the state survey office Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Survey and Enforcement Subject: Chapter 6 Title: Regulation and Enforcement

10. To cite a deficiency, the surveyors must document which of the following?

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 6 A) Indications B) Requirements C) Evaluation D) Evidence Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Survey and Enforcement Subject: Chapter 6 Title: Regulation and Enforcement

11. During a survey of the facility, if a deficiency is cited for inadequate staffing, this deficiency is categorized as: A) resident-centered. B) widespread in scope. C) facility-centered. D) remediable. Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Survey and Enforcement Subject: Chapter 6 Title: Regulation and Enforcement

12. At the beginning of a survey, the surveyors must complete a ____ of residents. A) profile B) chart C) scope D) sample Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Survey and Enforcement Subject: Chapter 6 Title: Regulation and Enforcement

13. The _______ of a deficiency is evaluated by determining the number of residents that may be negatively affected by not meeting a standard. A) potential

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 6 B) severity C) scope D) jeopardy Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Survey and Enforcement Subject: Chapter 6 Title: Regulation and Enforcement

14. If the facility is unable to maintain foods at safe temperatures in the central kitchen, the scope of this violation is: A) isolated. B) pattern. C) limited. D) widespread. Ans: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Survey and Enforcement Subject: Chapter 6 Title: Regulation and Enforcement

15. How many categories of deficiencies are there? A) 6 B) 9 C) 12 D) 16 Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Survey and Enforcement Subject: Chapter 6 Title: Regulation and Enforcement

16. A facility does not have a situation that poses immediate jeopardy to the safety and health of residents, but still has deficiencies cited by the surveyors. Which of the following would apply? A) The facility is given 30 days to correct the problems. B) The facility may be required to submit a plan of correction.

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 6 C) Temporary management is imposed to bring the facility into compliance. D) The facility is flagged as a special focus facility. Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Survey and Enforcement Subject: Chapter 6 Title: Regulation and Enforcement

17. For situations that pose immediate jeopardy to residents’ health and safety because of a deficiency or deficiencies, one option is to have the immediate jeopardy removed within ____ days. A) 7 B) 10 C) 23 D) 30 Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Survey and Enforcement Subject: Chapter 6 Title: Regulation and Enforcement

18. In nursing home construction, corridor walls must rise from the floor to: A) the ceiling. B) a little above the suspended ceilings. C) to the floor or roof deck above. D) the height specified by a qualified architect. Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Life Safety Code Subject: Chapter 6 Title: Regulation and Enforcement

19. The travel distance (from resident rooms) to a smoke compartment should not be greater than: A) 30 feet. B) 60 feet.

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 6 C) 100 feet. D) 200 feet. Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Life Safety Code Subject: Chapter 6 Title: Regulation and Enforcement

20. According to the Life Safety Code, an area of refuge: A) provides temporary shelter after residents have been evacuated from a building. B) is a room inside a building that provides emergency shelter. C) provides direct access to an exit. D) is the front lobby in a nursing facility. Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Life Safety Code Subject: Chapter 6 Title: Regulation and Enforcement

21. A nursing facility’s emergency generator must have enough fuel supply for: A) half an hour. B) 1 hour. C) 2 hours. D) 3 hours. Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Life Safety Code Subject: Chapter 6 Title: Regulation and Enforcement

22. The emergency generator must kick on within ____ of a power failure. A) 10 seconds B) 30 seconds C) 45 seconds D) 60 seconds

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 6 Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Life Safety Code Subject: Chapter 6 Title: Regulation and Enforcement

23. Automatic fire extinguishing equipment is required for: A) commercial cooking equipment. B) commercial and domestic cooking equipment. C) all cooking or food heating equipment. D) All of these are correct. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Life Safety Code Subject: Chapter 6 Title: Regulation and Enforcement

24. According to the Life Safety Code, fire drills must be conducted at least ____ on all shifts. A) weekly B) monthly C) quarterly D) semi-yearly Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Life Safety Code Subject: Chapter 6 Title: Regulation and Enforcement

25. In long-term care facilities, ____ of the resident rooms and toilets must be accessible by the disabled. A) 25% B) 50% C) 75% D) 100% Ans: B Complexity: Easy

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 6 Ahead: Life Safety Code Subject: Chapter 6 Title: Regulation and Enforcement

26. Which worker category in nursing homes incurs high rates of injury? A) Cooks B) Nursing assistants C) Nurses D) Laundry workers Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: OSHA and Workplace Safety Subject: Chapter 6 Title: Regulation and Enforcement

27. Which of the following agencies provides education and consultation in addition to its regulatory role? A) Area agencies on aging B) State survey agencies C) CMS D) OSHA Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: OSHA and Workplace Safety Subject: Chapter 6 Title: Regulation and Enforcement

28. OSHA records must be kept on file for ____ year(s). A) 1 B) 3 C) 5 D) 7 Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: OSHA and Workplace Safety Subject: Chapter 6

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 6 Title: Regulation and Enforcement

True/False

1. True or false? The system of regulatory oversight does not guarantee continuous compliance. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Achieving Continuous Compliance Subject: Chapter 6 Title: Regulation and Enforcement

2. True or false? Enforcement of the Requirements of Participation is based on zero tolerance. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Requirements of Participation Subject: Chapter 6 Title: Regulation and Enforcement

3. True or false? A deficiency in infection control is a facility-centered, rather than a residentcentered, violation. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Survey and Enforcement Subject: Chapter 6 Title: Regulation and Enforcement

4. True or false? Isolated, pattern, and widespread are scope levels, rather than severity levels, pertaining to noncompliance with standards. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Survey and Enforcement

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 6 Subject: Chapter 6 Title: Regulation and Enforcement

5. True or false? The Nursing Home Compare and five-star quality ratings include both quality of life and quality of care scores for certified facilities. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Nursing Home Compare and Five-Star Ratings Subject: Chapter 6 Title: Regulation and Enforcement

6. True or false? The Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services may determine that nursing facilities are adequately protected by state codes, in which case the Life Safety Code is not applicable. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Life Safety Code Subject: Chapter 6 Title: Regulation and Enforcement

7. True or false? It is illegal to have a fireplace in nursing home resident rooms. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Life Safety Code Subject: Chapter 6 Title: Regulation and Enforcement

8. True or false? An area of refuge is a zone of safety located immediately upon exiting from a fire exit. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Life Safety Code Subject: Chapter 6

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 6 Title: Regulation and Enforcement

9. True or false? Doors to stairways must be kept open to provide quick escape in case of a fire. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Life Safety Code Subject: Chapter 6 Title: Regulation and Enforcement

10. True or false? The equipment for emergency power supply must be tested yearly by approved personnel. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Life Safety Code Subject: Chapter 6 Title: Regulation and Enforcement

11. True or false? The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) can provide free education and consultation to nursing homes. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: OSHA and Workplace Safety Subject: Chapter 6 Title: Regulation and Enforcement

12. True or false? Workplace safety standards issued by the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) have been incorporated into the Requirements of Participation for certified facilities. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: OSHA and Workplace Safety Subject: Chapter 6 Title: Regulation and Enforcement

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 7 Multiple Choice

1. In certified facilities, private-pay rates should be: A) lower than Medicare rates. B) higher than Medicare rates. C) the same as Medicare rates. D) the same as Medicaid rates. Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Private Financing Subject: Chapter 7 Title: Financing and Reimbursement

2. When private-pay residents are placed in certified beds, A) they cannot be charged more than what Medicare or Medicaid would pay. B) they cannot be provided better quantity or quality of services. C) their care can be financed by public programs. D) it discriminates against patients on public assistance. Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Private Financing Subject: Chapter 7 Title: Financing and Reimbursement

3. If a nursing facility wants to provide extra amenities, such as higher staffing levels, to privatepay residents and such amenities are not made available to residents covered by Medicare or Medicaid, what must this facility do? a) It should charge rates that are higher than Medicare and Medicaid rates. B) It must increase staffing levels for all residents. C) It should have a separate noncertified section for private-pay residents. D) Because of charges of discrimination, this cannot be done. Ans: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Private Financing Subject: Chapter 7 Title: Financing and Reimbursement

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 7

4. Title 18 refers to: A) Social Security. B) the Catastrophic Coverage Act. C) Medicare. D) Medicaid. Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Medicare Subject: Chapter 7 Title: Financing and Reimbursement

5. Which of the following categories of people is Medicare not specifically designed to cover? A) The elderly B) The disabled C) People who have end-stage renal disease D) The indigent Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Medicare Subject: Chapter 7 Title: Financing and Reimbursement

6. Which of the following services is not covered under Medicare? A) Care in a SNF B) Home health care C) Assisted living D) Hospice services Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Medicare Subject: Chapter 7 Title: Financing and Reimbursement

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 7 7. Under Medicare, a patient must have ____ consecutive nights of stay in a hospital before admission to a facility certified as SNF. A) 2 B) 3 C) 5 D) 7 Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Medicare Subject: Chapter 7 Title: Financing and Reimbursement

8. To be covered under Medicare, a patient must be admitted to a SNF within ____ days after discharge from a hospital. A) 3 B) 20 C) 30 D) 100 Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Medicare Subject: Chapter 7 Title: Financing and Reimbursement

9. Under Medicare, when does a benefit period begin? A) When a patient is first admitted to a SNF B) When a patient is hospitalized C) After a patient has spent three nights in the hospital D) When a patient is discharged home from either a hospital or a SNF Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Medicare Subject: Chapter 7 Title: Financing and Reimbursement

10. A Medicare benefit period ends when a patient:

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 7 A) is out of a hospital or SNF for 60 days. B) no longer needs skilled nursing care. C) has completed 100 days in a SNF. D) is discharged home from either a hospital or a SNF. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Medicare Subject: Chapter 7 Title: Financing and Reimbursement

11. Which part of Medicare covers services in a SNF? A) Part A B) Part B C) Part C D) Part D Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Medicare Subject: Chapter 7 Title: Financing and Reimbursement

12. Under Medicare Part A, A) a deductible must be paid when a new year begins. B) a deductible must be paid when a patient leaves the hospital. C) no deductible is required. D) a deductible is paid when a new benefit period begins. Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Medicare Subject: Chapter 7 Title: Financing and Reimbursement

13. Medicare fully pays for ____ days of SNF care in a benefit period. A) zero B) 20 C) 26

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 7 D) 100 Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Medicare Subject: Chapter 7 Title: Financing and Reimbursement

14. Which of the following is not covered under Medicare Part A? A) Custodial care B) Subacute care C) Rehabilitation therapies by licensed therapists D) Nursing care such as dressing changes and treatment for wounds Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Medicare Subject: Chapter 7 Title: Financing and Reimbursement

15. How are prescription drugs covered while a resident is receiving Medicare services in a SNF? A) They are covered under Part A. B) They are covered under Part D. C) The resident is required to pay for them privately. D) They are covered under Part B. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Medicare Subject: Chapter 7 Title: Financing and Reimbursement

16. If a patient requires skilled rehabilitation, therapies must be provided ____ days a week under Medicare. A) 3 B) 5 C) 6 D) 7

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 7 Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Medicare Subject: Chapter 7 Title: Financing and Reimbursement

17. A rehabilitation company that contracts to provide services to a nursing home under Medicare, gets paid by billing: A) the nursing home. B) the resident. C) Medicare. D) partly the resident and partly Medicare. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Medicare Subject: Chapter 7 Title: Financing and Reimbursement

18. Which of the following services is covered under Medicare Part B while the resident is in a SNF? A) Private-duty nursing B) Lodging and meals C) Supplies and equipment D) Physician’s services Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Medicare Subject: Chapter 7 Title: Financing and Reimbursement

19. Medicare Part C: A) covers medical social services. B) covers rehabilitation after Part A benefits expire. C) covers outpatient services. D) offers no defined medical services.

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 7 Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Medicare Subject: Chapter 7 Title: Financing and Reimbursement

20. What is a bundled rate? A) A rate based on the case mix B) A cost-based rate C) A base payment rate D) An all-inclusive rate Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Medicare Reimbursement for SNFs Subject: Chapter 7 Title: Financing and Reimbursement

21. In an SNF, the case mix reflects the: A) clinical severity of residents. B) skill level of staff. C) reimbursement level. D) number of residents with a given condition. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Medicare Reimbursement for SNFs Subject: Chapter 7 Title: Financing and Reimbursement

22. The minimum data set (MDS) is used: A) to conduct a comprehensive resident assessment. B) to evaluate quality indicators. C) to adjust the base rate of reimbursement. D) to adjust the facility’s case mix. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Medicare Reimbursement for SNFs

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 7 Subject: Chapter 7 Title: Financing and Reimbursement

23. The Patient Driven Payment Model: A) classifies residents into Resource Utilization Groups. B) shifts resource allocation to residents needing rehabilitation therapies. C) increases the base rates. D) shifts resource allocation to medically complex residents. Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Medicare Reimbursement for SNFs Subject: Chapter 7 Title: Financing and Reimbursement

24. In the Patient Driven Payment Model, which of the following is not adjusted for the case mix? A) Nontherapy ancillary services B) Physical therapy C) Nursing D) Room and board Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Medicare Reimbursement for SNFs Subject: Chapter 7 Title: Financing and Reimbursement

25. What is value-based purchasing for SNFs? A) A voucher system that enables consumers to shop for the best value B) A reimbursement system that incorporates incentive payments for quality C) A system in which payment is discounted for volume (number of residents) D) A system that incorporates nursing home costs into Part A payments Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Medicare Reimbursement for SNFs Subject: Chapter 7 Title: Financing and Reimbursement

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 7

26. To qualify for Medicaid, a person must: A) be elderly or disabled. B) spend down excess income and assets. C) have a spouse who lives in the community. D) be admitted to a nursing facility. Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Medicaid Subject: Chapter 7 Title: Financing and Reimbursement

27. Nationally, the largest share of nursing home expenses is paid by: A) Medicare. B) Medicaid. C) private insurance. D) individuals’ out-of-pocket funds. Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Medicaid Subject: Chapter 7 Title: Financing and Reimbursement

28. Who establishes Medicaid reimbursement rates? A) State governments B) Federal government C) Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services D) The facility's designated fiscal intermediary Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Medicaid Subject: Chapter 7 Title: Financing and Reimbursement

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 7 29. Which of the following is true of the Medicare Catastrophic Coverage Act of 1988? A) It protects the assets of an institutionalized person’s spouse who remains at home. B) It made it illegal for nursing facilities to recover payments that exceed set deductibles and copayments. C) It required Medicare to develop a prospective payment system for SNFs. D) It required expansion of home health benefits under Medicare. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Medicaid Subject: Chapter 7 Title: Financing and Reimbursement

30. What is the main goal of the PACE program? A) To compete against managed care B) To provide comprehensive services to frail elderly who risk nursing home placement C) To prevent hospitalizations and rehospitalizations among community-based elders D) To integrate the financing for long-term care services Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Program of All-Inclusive Care for the Elderly Subject: Chapter 7 Title: Financing and Reimbursement

31. Which of the following does not apply to managed care? A) Enrolled beneficiaries B) Contracts with Medicare and Medicaid C) Capitation D) Cannot contract with private nursing homes Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Partnerships with Other Organizations Subject: Chapter 7 Title: Financing and Reimbursement

32. Which of the following does not apply to accountable care organizations (ACOs)? A) Partnerships with various health care providers

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 7 B) A single payment per episode from Medicare C) Payment under capitation from Medicare D) Care is integrated across settings Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Partnerships with Other Organizations Subject: Chapter 7 Title: Financing and Reimbursement

33. Offering kickbacks to induce referrals of Medicare and Medicaid patients is a: A) misdemeanor. B) felony. C) regulatory violation. D) civil violation. Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Fraud and Abuse Subject: Chapter 7 Title: Financing and Reimbursement

34. Billing Medicare or Medicaid while providing poor care to residents may be prosecuted under which of the following? A) Whistleblower protection B) Upcoding for services C) Predictive fraudulent behavior D) Worthless services Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Fraud and Abuse Subject: Chapter 7 Title: Financing and Reimbursement

35. Under the qui tam provision: A) the government can bring a lawsuit for false information. B) the government can seek criminal and civil remedies for fraud and abuse. C) a private party can sue the government for inadequate care provided by a certified facility.

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 7 D) a private party can sue a facility on behalf of the government for fraud. Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Fraud and Abuse Subject: Chapter 7 Title: Financing and Reimbursement

True/False

1. True or false? Both Medicare and Medicaid reimbursement rates are established by each state. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Introduction Subject: Chapter 7 Title: Financing and Reimbursement

2. True or false? Private long-term care insurance is the most common type of private financing. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Private Financing Subject: Chapter 7 Title: Financing and Reimbursement

3. True or false? Certified beds cannot be used for private-pay residents. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Private Financing Subject: Chapter 7 Title: Financing and Reimbursement

4. True or false? During the elimination period, private long-term care insurance does not pay.

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 7 Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Private Financing Subject: Chapter 7 Title: Financing and Reimbursement

5. True or false? Under Medicare, a resident can receive LTC services only in a facility certified as a SNF. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Medicare Subject: Chapter 7 Title: Financing and Reimbursement

6. True or false? The Medicare deductible is generally met while the patient is hospitalized before moving to a SNF. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Medicare Subject: Chapter 7 Title: Financing and Reimbursement

7. True or false? For SNF care under Medicare, copayments begin on the 21st day after admission. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Medicare Subject: Chapter 7 Title: Financing and Reimbursement

8. True or false? Under Medicare criteria, skilled nursing care must be needed and provided 5 days a week.

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 7 Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Medicare Reimbursement for SNFs Subject: Chapter 7 Title: Financing and Reimbursement

9. True or false? Medicare Part B deductible and coinsurance apply on the basis of a benefit period. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Medicare Subject: Chapter 7 Title: Financing and Reimbursement

10. True or false? The Patient Driven Payment Model rewards or penalizes SNFs by incorporating quality of care measures. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Medicare Reimbursement for SNFs Subject: Chapter 7 Title: Financing and Reimbursement

11. True or false? Veterans Health Administration operates its own nursing homes, but also contracts with nursing homes in the community. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Partnerships with Other Organizations Subject: Chapter 7 Title: Financing and Reimbursement

12. True or false? A qui tam relator can sue on behalf of the government and share in the damages recovered. Ans: True

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 7 Complexity: Easy Ahead: Fraud and Abuse Subject: Chapter 7 Title: Financing and Reimbursement

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 8 Multiple Choice

1. Traditionally, the internal environment and organization of nursing homes were: A) patterned after hospitals. B) a continuation of poorhouses. C) based on person-centered care. D) devoid of human factors. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Introduction Subject: Chapter 8 Title: Organization, Environment, and Culture Change

2. Which of the following is not a trend pointing to the future of nursing home environments and care delivery? A) Contemporary architectures B) Person-centered care C) Social distance between staff members and the patient D) Culture change Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Introduction Subject: Chapter 8 Title: Organization, Environment, and Culture Change

3. In reference to nursing home environments, central nursing stations, buzzers, shower areas, lack of privacy, scheduled routines, and various carts in hallways resulted from: A) client-centered care. B) sick-role model. C) market factors. D) hospital-based medical model. Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Philosophy of Care in Transition Subject: Chapter 8 Title: Organization, Environment, and Culture Change

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 8

4. What are blocking routines? A) Daily care routines. B) Routines that are carried out in blocks of time so all residents can receive the same services. C) Routines that require residents to do things at predetermined times for the convenience of staff. D) Routines based on individual preferences that block certain things from being carried out. Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Philosophy of Care in Transition Subject: Chapter 8 Title: Organization, Environment, and Culture Change

5. In person-centered care, the integration of human factors is generally not achieved without: A) staff training. B) an understanding of the residents’ needs. C) integration of the socioresidential and clinical components. D) a holistic environment. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Philosophy of Care in Transition Subject: Chapter 8 Title: Organization, Environment, and Culture Change

6. Unlike a hospital, a nursing facility is both a clinical and a(n) ____ establishment. A) human B) social C) integrated D) client-oriented Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Philosophy of Care in Transition Subject: Chapter 8 Title: Organization, Environment, and Culture Change

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 8 7. From a societal standpoint, delivery of care in nursing facilities is highly ____ even though it is expensive. A) cost-effective B) personalized C) integrated D) residential Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Challenges to a Full Integration Subject: Chapter 8 Title: Organization, Environment, and Culture Change

8. A resident’s state of confusion and dementia compromises the resident’s: A) dependency. B) autonomy. C) care delivery. D) dignity. Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Challenges to a Full Integration Subject: Chapter 8 Title: Organization, Environment, and Culture Change

9. According to a nursing facility’s organizational chart, the department heads report to the: A) governing body. B) medical director. C) consultant. D) administrator. Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Nursing Home Organization Subject: Chapter 8 Title: Organization, Environment, and Culture Change

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 8 10. The various support services in a nursing facility interface with clinical care using a(n) ____ approach. A) reciprocal B) individualized C) holistic D) multidisciplinary Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Nursing Home Integration Subject: Chapter 8 Title: Organization, Environment, and Culture Change

11. The main criterion for the location of a nursing station is: A) staff efficiency. B) the facility’s size. C) the resident case mix. D) supervision. Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Nursing Home Integration Subject: Chapter 8 Title: Organization, Environment, and Culture Change

12. Wayfinding features are needed because of: A) security concerns. B) disorientation. C) safety concerns. D) behavioral problems. Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Socioresidential Environment Subject: Chapter 8 Title: Organization, Environment, and Culture Change

13. Privacy of person equates with: A) dignity.

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 8 B) personal grooming. C) autonomy. D) having adequate space. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Socioresidential Environment Subject: Chapter 8 Title: Organization, Environment, and Culture Change

14. In general terms, autonomy signifies: A) treating a person with dignity regardless of whether indignities can be perceived. B) following certain routines for the sake of efficiency. C) control of decision-making by the individual. D) freedom from risk, danger, anxiety, or doubt. Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Socioresidential Environment Subject: Chapter 8 Title: Organization, Environment, and Culture Change

15. Intimacy falls under which of the following? A) Privacy of space B) Privacy of time C) Privacy of person D) Public domain Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Socioresidential Environment Subject: Chapter 8 Title: Organization, Environment, and Culture Change

16. Social relationships are driven primarily by: A) privacy. B) compatibility. C) the dining experience. D) facility layout and design.

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 8 Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Socioresidential Environment Subject: Chapter 8 Title: Organization, Environment, and Culture Change

17. Which of the following allows for segregation of residents according to clinical criteria? A) Corridor architecture B) Edenizing C) Cluster design D) Enriched environment Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Modern Architectural Design Subject: Chapter 8 Title: Organization, Environment, and Culture Change

18. Which of the following features self-contained resident bedrooms and private bathrooms? A) Nested single-room design B) Edenizing C) Traditional design D) Cluster design Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Modern Architectural Design Subject: Chapter 8 Title: Organization, Environment, and Culture Change

19. What is the purpose of transitional spaces between indoors and outdoors? A) They are ideal spaces for socializing. B) They are ideal spaces for resting. C) They allow for a balance between natural and artificial light. D) They allow for adjustment from bright to dim surroundings. Ans: D Complexity: Easy

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 8 Ahead: Aesthetics Subject: Chapter 8 Title: Organization, Environment, and Culture Change

20. Which of the following is recommended to facilitate wayfinding? A) Neighborhood architecture B) Music C) Lighting D) Color scheme Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Aesthetics Subject: Chapter 8 Title: Organization, Environment, and Culture Change

21. What is the recommended noise level for residential environments such as nursing facilities? A) 50 dB B) 75 dB C) Less than 35 dB D) Less than 25 dB Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Aesthetics Subject: Chapter 8 Title: Organization, Environment, and Culture Change

22. What is biophilia? A) Allowing patients to make personal choices B) Living life to the full C) Affiliation with other life forms D) Viewing the environment as a silent partner in caregiving Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Enriched Environments Subject: Chapter 8 Title: Organization, Environment, and Culture Change

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 8

23. For thriving, the person must have a symbiotic relationship with: A) the human and nonhuman environments. B) his or her family and caregivers. C) the physical environment. D) one’s own self. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Enriched Environments Subject: Chapter 8 Title: Organization, Environment, and Culture Change

24. Which of the following is not one of the principles for creating an enriched environment? A) Pioneer Network B) Physical environment and human factors C) Environmental stimulation D) Solitude and inner reflection Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Enriched Environments Subject: Chapter 8 Title: Organization, Environment, and Culture Change

25. Which of the following is not affected by culture change? A) Care delivery processes B) Regulatory compliance C) Management practices D) Physical environment of the facility Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Culture Change Subject: Chapter 8 Title: Organization, Environment, and Culture Change

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 8 26. Which of the following statements is true of culture change? A) A facility can have numerous possibilities at its disposal to bring about culture change. B) The CMS has not endorsed the principles of culture change because of issues with regulatory compliance. C) A good starting point to bring about culture change is to renovate the facility. D) Culture change follows a standardized model created by the Pioneer Network. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Culture Change Subject: Chapter 8 Title: Organization, Environment, and Culture Change

27. According to the Eden Alternative principles, what is the antidote for helplessness? A) Variety and spontaneity B) Give as well as receive care C) Create a human habitat D) Loving companionship Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Contemporary Models of Culture Change Subject: Chapter 8 Title: Organization, Environment, and Culture Change

28. According to the Eden Alternative principles, spontaneity refers to: A) genuine human caring. B) opportunities to do things that are meaningful. C) unexpected happenings and interactions. D) overcoming the “three plagues.” Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Contemporary Models of Culture Change Subject: Chapter 8 Title: Organization, Environment, and Culture Change

29. Unlike Eden Alternative, a key feature of the Green House model is: A) lack of spontaneity.

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 8 B) zoonosis. C) lack of resident and staff empowerment. D) small group environment. Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Contemporary Models of Culture Change Subject: Chapter 8 Title: Organization, Environment, and Culture Change

30. Cross-trained worker teams are typically associated with: A) the Green House project. B) the Pioneer Network. C) the Eden Alternative. D) most nursing homes. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Private Financing Subject: Chapter 8 Title: Organization, Environment, and Culture Change

31. To promote conversation, seating arrangements in environments for residents with dementia should be: A) color coded. B) parallel. C) at right angles. D) unidirectional. Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Environment for Residents with Dementia Subject: Chapter 8 Title: Organization, Environment, and Culture Change

32. Which of the following can have a disturbing effect on residents with dementia? A) Brightly colored dishes used for dining B) Blue light C) Shades of red

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 8 D) Patterns used in the décor Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Environment for Residents with Dementia Subject: Chapter 8 Title: Organization, Environment, and Culture Change

33. Which of the following is a significant predictor of agitation and stress in residents with dementia? A) Monochromatic color scheme B) Acoustic levels C) Pastel colors D) Changes in lighting Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Environment for Residents with Dementia Subject: Chapter 8 Title: Organization, Environment, and Culture Change

True/False

1. True or false? The sick role can be compromised but not entirely dispensed with. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Philosophy of Care in Transition Subject: Chapter 8 Title: Organization, Environment, and Culture Change

2. True or false? Culture change in long-term care is largely the result of regulations. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Culture Change Subject: Chapter 8

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 8 Title: Organization, Environment, and Culture Change

3. True or false? In a group environment, no one resident’s interests are legitimately outweighed by the competing interests of other residents. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Challenges to a Full Integration Subject: Chapter 8 Title: Organization, Environment, and Culture Change

4. True or false? Use of commercial deodorizers is the best way to control odors in a nursing home. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Nursing Home Organization Subject: Chapter 8 Title: Organization, Environment, and Culture Change

5. True or false? Regulations require separate nursing units according to the types of specialization. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Socioresidential Environment Subject: Chapter 8 Title: Organization, Environment, and Culture Change

6. True or false? It is illegal to segregate residents according to clinical criteria. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Socioresidential Environment Subject: Chapter 8 Title: Organization, Environment, and Culture Change

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 8

7. True or false? The medication room should be kept locked. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Nursing Home Organization Subject: Chapter 8 Title: Organization, Environment, and Culture Change

8. True or false? To maximize the dining experience, residents who are ambulatory and those in wheelchairs should be segregated. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Socioresidential Environment Subject: Chapter 8 Title: Organization, Environment, and Culture Change

9. True or false? To conduct programs that provide opportunities for socializing, interior spaces are best. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Socioresidential Environment Subject: Chapter 8 Title: Organization, Environment, and Culture Change

10. True or false? The main issue with the neighborhood design is its high cost of construction. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Modern Architectural Designs Subject: Chapter 8 Title: Organization, Environment, and Culture Change

11. True or false? The cluster and nested single-room designs can be combined together.

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 8 Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Modern Architectural Designs Subject: Chapter 8 Title: Organization, Environment, and Culture Change

12. True or false? Glare can contribute to agitation, confusion, and anger in older adults. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Aesthetics Subject: Chapter 8 Title: Organization, Environment, and Culture Change

13. True or false? Floors in nursing homes should be highly buffed and polished to create marketing appeal. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Aesthetics Subject: Chapter 8 Title: Organization, Environment, and Culture Change

14. True or false? Because of incontinent residents, wooden seating is best for nursing home furniture. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Aesthetics Subject: Chapter 8 Title: Organization, Environment, and Culture Change

15. True or false? Culture change affects mainly the physical environment. Ans: False Complexity: Easy

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 8 Ahead: Culture Change Subject: Chapter 8 Title: Organization, Environment, and Culture Change

16. True or false? Research has shown inconsistent effects of consistent assignment on quality outcomes. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Culture Change Subject: Chapter 8 Title: Organization, Environment, and Culture Change

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 9 Multiple Choice

1. A primary focus of social services is on: A) facilitating coping and adaptation. B) creating a socially supportive environment. C) facilitating socialization. D) creating symbiotic relationships. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Introduction Subject: Chapter 9 Title: Social Services, Admission, and Discharge

2. Federal regulations mandate a full-time social worker when a facility has more than ____ beds. A) 50 B) 80 C) 100 D) 120 Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Social Services Department Subject: Chapter 9 Title: Social Services, Admission, and Discharge

3. Which of the following can reveal that the facility does not have adequate resources to address the needs of a resident? A) Engagement B) Rapport with residents C) Documentation D) Assessment Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Skills and Competencies Subject: Chapter 9 Title: Social Services, Admission, and Discharge

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 9

4. Which of the following is an appropriate way to communicate with an older person in a nursing home? A) Telling the resident that you are not able to understand him or her B) Asking the resident to repeat what you are saying C) Repeating what the resident is saying D) Repeating your name to the resident Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Skills and Competencies Subject: Chapter 9 Title: Social Services, Admission, and Discharge

5. What is an appropriate conflict resolution strategy when the facility is in the wrong and it is important to appease the other party? A) Accommodating B) Avoiding C) Compromising D) Collaborating Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Skills and Competencies Subject: Chapter 9 Title: Social Services, Admission, and Discharge

6. Exploring alternative solutions is particularly useful in situations that require: A) forcing a particular outcome. B) nonassertive cooperative behavior. C) problem solving. D) compromising. Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Skills and Competencies Subject: Chapter 9 Title: Social Services, Admission, and Discharge

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 9

7. Interviewing requires ____ communication. A) deliberate B) cautious C) prepared D) focused Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Skills and Competencies Subject: Chapter 9 Title: Social Services, Admission, and Discharge

8. In the informational role, the social worker provides information primarily to: A) potential clients. B) regulatory agencies. C) community professionals. D) the facility’s staff. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Social Service Roles Subject: Chapter 9 Title: Social Services, Admission, and Discharge

9. Which social service role is associated with the facility’s responsibility to provide total care? A) Informational role B) Case manager role C) Enabler role D) Advocacy role Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Social Service Roles Subject: Chapter 9 Title: Social Services, Admission, and Discharge

10. In the enabler role, the social worker functions as a(n):

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 9 A) facilitator. B) advisor. C) mentor. D) decision maker. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Social Service Roles Subject: Chapter 9 Title: Social Services, Admission, and Discharge

11. Conflict resolution is closely associated with which social service role? A) Advocacy B) Coordination C) Intervention D) Enabling Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Social Service Roles Subject: Chapter 9 Title: Social Services, Admission, and Discharge

12. The advocacy role calls for the social worker's close involvement in: A) different types of conflict. B) coordination of appropriate services. C) responsibility for total care. D) enforcement of resident rights. Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Social Service Roles Subject: Chapter 9 Title: Social Services, Admission, and Discharge

13. What is the main function of an ethics committee? A) To make decisions on complex issues based on inputs from key professionals and family members

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 9 B) To enforce ethics standards to ensure that the staff and the administration operate within the bounds of accepted principles of ethics C) To enforce resident rights and prevent future violations of those rights D) Provide a forum for various professionals to discuss issues about the nursing facility’s operations Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Social Service Roles Subject: Chapter 9 Title: Social Services, Admission, and Discharge

14. Preadmission Screening and Resident Review (PASRR) applies to: A) all Medicare and Medicaid patients. B) Medicaid patients who have mental illness or intellectual and/or developmental disabilities. C) all patients who require rehabilitation. D) Medicare patients who require rehabilitation. Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: The Admission Process Subject: Chapter 9 Title: Social Services, Admission, and Discharge

15. Of the following social service roles, which one applies to the preadmission inquiry process? A) Advocacy B) Coordination C) Case management D) Enabling Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: The Admission Process Subject: Chapter 9 Title: Social Services, Admission, and Discharge

16. What is the main objective of Preadmission Screening and Resident Review (PASRR)? A) To ensure that adequate community-based services are available for people with serious mental illness or intellectual and/or developmental disabilities

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 9 B) To address the changing needs of people with serious mental illness or intellectual and/or developmental disabilities C) To protect Medicaid recipients with serious mental illness or intellectual and/or developmental disabilities from inappropriate placement in nursing homes D) To rehabilitate Medicaid recipients with serious mental illness or intellectual and/or developmental disabilities Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Introduction Subject: Chapter 9 Title: The Admission Process

17. During the initial interview with a prospective client, the intake worker’s time and skills are best used when: A) entries are made in a computer. B) a sale is made. C) an assessment is carried out. D) all pertinent information is obtained. Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: The Admission Process Subject: Chapter 9 Title: Social Services, Admission, and Discharge

18. The facility tour should: A) be conducted to preplan a resident’s admission to the facility. B) be written to facilitate training. C) be concluded with a send-off greeting. D) provide an opportunity to match the services to the prospective resident’s needs. Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: The Admission Process Subject: Chapter 9 Title: Social Services, Admission, and Discharge

19. During the preadmission inquiry process, financing should be discussed:

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 9 A) during the initial interview. B) while giving a tour of the facility. C) in the concluding interview. D) when a decision has been made to admit the resident. Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: The Admission Process Subject: Chapter 9 Title: Social Services, Admission, and Discharge

20. Who should do the follow-up on a preadmission inquiry? A) The person who has the primary responsibility for intake B) The person who handled the inquiry C) The administrator D) The social worker Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: The Admission Process Subject: Chapter 9 Title: Social Services, Admission, and Discharge

21. When a long stay in the nursing home is contemplated, what should the social worker emphasize in a meeting with the resident who is being admitted? A) The facility’s social and vibrant living environment B) Rehabilitation services that will enable the resident to return home as soon as possible C) An honest declaration that nursing home is the final living arrangement for many people D) The resident’s rights and responsibilities as a resident in the facility. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: The Admission Process Subject: Chapter 9 Title: Social Services, Admission, and Discharge

22. When a resident is being admitted from home, A) the social worker should arrange for the medical records on the resident's last hospitalization. B) the social worker should obtain medical records from the admitting physician's office.

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 9 C) the facility should begin recording the resident’s social history and background. D) prior medical records are generally not available. Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: The Admission Process Subject: Chapter 9 Title: Social Services, Admission, and Discharge

23. After a resident has been admitted, what is the main purpose of the orientation? A) To welcome the resident into the facility B) To help associates get used to the resident’s preferences C) To help the resident adjust to the change in environment D) To enable the facility to assess the resident’s needs Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: The Admission Process Subject: Chapter 9 Title: Social Services, Admission, and Discharge

24. Which of the following can prevent a resident from falling into a pattern of learned helplessness? A) Providing assistance with ADLs B) Helping the resident adjust to the facility’s routines C) Providing social service counseling to the resident D) Involving the resident in decision making Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: The Admission Process Subject: Chapter 9 Title: Social Services, Admission, and Discharge

25. The main focus of discharge planning is on: A) ensuring continuity of care. B) coordinating all necessary functions to facilitate discharge. C) helping a resident live independently after discharge from a nursing home. D) determining when a resident should be discharged.

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 9 Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Discharge Planning Subject: Chapter 9 Title: Social Services, Admission, and Discharge

26. Which of the following does not apply to the resident council? A) Residents can have a say in the facility’s operations. B) It is a means of promoting self-esteem among the residents. C) All residents can participate. D) The social worker or the activity director chairs the meetings. Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Resident Council Subject: Chapter 9 Title: Social Services, Admission, and Discharge

27. For end-of-life care who makes the decision to obtain hospice services? A) The attending physician B) The social worker C) A registered nurse D) The resident and his/her family Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Death and Terminal Illness Subject: Chapter 9 Title: Social Services, Admission, and Discharge

28. When faced with the prospects of death, which of the following is generally the first stage? A) Acceptance B) Depression C) Denial D) Anger Ans: C Complexity: Easy

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 9 Ahead: Death and Terminal Illness Subject: Chapter 9 Title: Social Services, Admission, and Discharge

True/False

1. True or false? Miscommunication is the most common cause of conflicts involving nursing home residents. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Skills and Competencies Subject: Chapter 9 Title: Social Services, Admission, and Discharge

2. True or false? An assessment should include a resident’s own perspective of basic and special needs. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Skills and Competencies Subject: Chapter 9 Title: Social Services, Admission, and Discharge

3. True or false? When communicating with residents and their families it is best to use the term evaluation instead of assessment. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Skills and Competencies Subject: Chapter 9 Title: Social Services, Admission, and Discharge

4. True or false? In situations that require conflict resolution, the needs of residents take priority over legal considerations.

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 9 Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Skills and Competencies Subject: Chapter 9 Title: Social Services, Admission, and Discharge

5. True or false? In situations that require conflict resolution, compromising is never a good strategy. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Skills and Competencies Subject: Chapter 9 Title: Social Services, Admission, and Discharge

6. True or false? There is little differentiation among nursing homes that provide skilled nursing care. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Social Service Role Subject: Chapter 9 Title: Social Services, Admission, and Discharge

7. True or false? An ethics committee’s main objective is to prevent legal actions against the facility. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Social Service Role Subject: Chapter 9 Title: Social Services, Admission, and Discharge

8. True or false? The Preadmission Screening and Resident Review (PASRR) applies only to certain Medicaid-insured patients.

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 9 Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: The Admission Process Subject: Chapter 9 Title: Social Services, Admission, and Discharge

9. True or false? An evening charge nurse or nurse supervisor should be trained to handle inquiries from prospective clients. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: The Admission Process Subject: Chapter 9 Title: Social Services, Admission, and Discharge

10. True or false? During the initial interview with a prospective client, the intake worker should use a checklist rather than make entries into a computer. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: The Admission Process Subject: Chapter 9 Title: Social Services, Admission, and Discharge

11. True or false? The administrator or other associates attend resident council meetings only by permission or when invited. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Resident Council Subject: Chapter 9 Title: Social Services, Admission, and Discharge

12. True or false? When hospice services are obtained, active interventions to save life are not pursued. Ans: True

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 9 Complexity: Easy Ahead: Death and Terminal Illness Subject: Chapter 9 Title: Social Services, Admission, and Discharge

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 10 Multiple Choice

1. Services provided by nurse practitioners and physician assistants in nursing homes have: A) resulted in decreased quality of care. B) not affected the quality of care. C) resulted in improved quality of care. D) have increased quality of life but not quality of care. Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Introduction Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Medical Care, Nursing, and Rehabilitation

2. A resident's attending physician: A) is chosen by the resident. B) visits the resident once a week. C) is appointed by the facility. D) is a specialist in geriatric medicine. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Medical Care Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Medical Care, Nursing, and Rehabilitation

3. Medical practice in nursing homes is similar to: A) hospital practice. B) office-based primary care. C) intensive care. D) nursing services. Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Medical Care Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Medical Care, Nursing, and Rehabilitation

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 10 4. Which of the following statements best describes medical care in a nursing home? A) The physician may not make frequent visits but must come in to render treatments as often as necessary. B) The physician may not make frequent visits but must turn over treatments to the medical director. C) The physician coordinates the delivery of care between a hospital and a nursing home. D) The physician only evaluates medical conditions and prescribes treatment. Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Medical Care Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Medical Care, Nursing, and Rehabilitation

5. The medical director of the nursing facility reports to the: A) governing body. B) director of nursing. C) administrator. D) board of health. Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Medical Care Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Medical Care, Nursing, and Rehabilitation

6. The medical director’s ____ role refers to involvement in policy review and various committees. A) oversight B) advisory C) representative D) teaching Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Medical Care Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Medical Care, Nursing, and Rehabilitation

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 10 7. If a facility operates a CNA training program, regulations require that: A) the DON teach the classes. B) the facility hire a training specialist to teach the classes. C) the DON oversee the training program. D) the training be offered free of charge. Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Nursing Services Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Medical Care, Nursing, and Rehabilitation

8. Most of the hands-on care to residents in nursing facilities is given by: A) CNAs. B) RNs. C) LPNs (LVNs). D) therapists. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Nursing Services Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Medical Care, Nursing, and Rehabilitation

9. The DON cannot work as an RN charge nurse unless the facility has ____ or fewer residents. A) 30 B) 60 C) 75 D) 90 Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Nursing Services Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Medical Care, Nursing, and Rehabilitation

10. What is the minimum requirement for RN staffing in nursing facilities? A) For every three LPNs (LVNs), there must be one RN.

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 10 B) An RN must be employed on each shift. C) An RN must be employed for 8 consecutive hours per day, every day of the week. D) An RN is not required if the DON has a bachelor’s degree in nursing. Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Nursing Services Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Medical Care, Nursing, and Rehabilitation

11. According to regulations, a nurse aide must receive ____ hours of in-service education per year. A) 6 B) 8 C) 12 D) 20 Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Nursing Services Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Medical Care, Nursing, and Rehabilitation

12. A comprehensive plan of care must be prepared within ____ days of completing the comprehensive assessment. A) 3 B) 5 C) 7 D) 8 Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Resident Assessment and Care Planning Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Medical Care, Nursing, and Rehabilitation

13. A comprehensive assessment must be completed within ____ days of a resident’s admission. A) 3 B) 7

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 10 C) 10 D) 14 Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Resident Assessment and Care Planning Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Medical Care, Nursing, and Rehabilitation

14. Discharge planning must be included in the resident’s: A) comprehensive care plan. B) comprehensive assessment. C) quarterly assessment. D) change in status assessment. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Resident Assessment and Care Planning Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Medical Care, Nursing, and Rehabilitation

15. Who has the primary responsibility for infection control in a nursing facility? A) Infection preventionist B) Director of nursing C) Medical director D) All departments Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Infection Control and Prevention Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Medical Care, Nursing, and Rehabilitation

16. Interventions incorporated in a plan of care are: A) goal-driven. B) designed to move the resident toward full recovery. C) progressive. D) planned for 90 days.

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 10 Ans: a Complexity: Easy Ahead: Resident Assessment and Care Planning Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Medical Care, Nursing, and Rehabilitation

17. _____ require(s) the use of personal protective equipment. A) Transmission-based precautions B) Standard precautions C) Control of infectious outbreaks D) Antisepsis techniques Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Infection Control and Prevention Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Medical Care, Nursing, and Rehabilitation

18. Infection control policies and procedures should be reviewed in consultation with the: A) director of nursing. B) medical director. C) infection preventionist. D) infection control committee. Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Infection Control and Prevention Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Medical Care, Nursing, and Rehabilitation

19. What is the primary purpose of asepsis? A) To destroy pathogens B) To provide isolation precautions C) To prevent cross-contamination D) To provide an early warning about epidemics Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Infection Control and Prevention

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 10 Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Medical Care, Nursing, and Rehabilitation

20. Which of the following is one of the most important practices for preventing crosscontamination? A) Washing and cleaning one’s hands B) Placing trash in sealed containers C) Using transmission-based precautions D) Surveilling for infections Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Infection Control and Prevention Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Medical Care, Nursing, and Rehabilitation

21. Separating and properly handling clean and soiled linens is an example of: A) antisepsis. B) nosocomial practice. C) standard precaution. D) asepsis. Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Infection Control and Prevention Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Medical Care, Nursing, and Rehabilitation

22. When using standard precautions, what main assumption is made? A) All body fluids are potentially infectious. B) Frequent hand washing removes microorganisms. C) Pathogens can be transferred from soiled to clean surfaces. D) Certain diseases are communicable. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Infection Control and Prevention Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Medical Care, Nursing, and Rehabilitation

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 10

23. Process surveillance requires: A) a review of transmission-based precautions. B) a review of all staff practices in infection control. C) screening of residents for the presence of an infection or contagious disease. D) identifying clustered cases of symptoms. Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Infection Control and Prevention Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Medical Care, Nursing, and Rehabilitation

24. An outbreak may be detected by observing: A) clustered cases of certain symptoms. B) the extent to which the staff follow infection control policies and practices. C) the extent of morbidity and mortality. D) the rate of hospitalization. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Infection Control and Prevention Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Medical Care, Nursing, and Rehabilitation

25. Clustered cases of episodes such as diarrhea may suggest that: A) antibiotic-resistant microorganisms may be present. B) an infectious outbreak may be occurring. C) surveillance has lapsed. D) staff is not practicing aseptic techniques. Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Infection Control and Prevention Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Medical Care, Nursing, and Rehabilitation

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 10 26. Certain multidrug resistant microorganisms are spread mainly through: A) a lack of use of personal protective equipment. B) unwashed hands. C) overuse of antibiotics. D) a lack of antiseptic practices. Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Antibiotic Stewardship Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Medical Care, Nursing, and Rehabilitation

27. Which of the following often follow one or more falls? A) Dementia B) Yelling episodes C) Anxiety and depression D) Fear of alarms Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Special Areas of Nursing Care Management Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Medical Care, Nursing, and Rehabilitation

28. Which of the following is not associated with the prevention of pressure ulcers? A) Proper nutrition and hydration B) Positioning the resident properly while sitting or lying down C) Keeping the resident clean and dry D) Minimizing susceptibility to infections Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Special Areas of Nursing Care Management Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Medical Care, Nursing, and Rehabilitation

29. Which of the following describes a stage I pressure ulcer? A) The skin has just started to break up. B) A blister or crater is present on the skin.

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 10 C) The skin has an area of discoloration that does not go away when pressure is relieved. D) A full thickness of skin and subcutaneous tissue is lost. Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Special Areas of Nursing Care Management Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Medical Care, Nursing, and Rehabilitation

30. What is a restraint? A) A device that restricts freedom of movement. B) A safety device used to prevent falls. C) A mechanism that prevents wheelchairs etc. from rolling away. D) A mechanism that prevents unintended raising or lowering of the bed. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Special Areas of Nursing Care Management Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Medical Care, Nursing, and Rehabilitation

31. The general use of restraints is: A) permitted under the direction of the DON. B) appropriate only when the resident is using psychotropic medications. C) illegal. D) appropriate only when the resident is agitated or aggressive. Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Special Areas of Nursing Care Management Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Medical Care, Nursing, and Rehabilitation

32. One main reason why use of indwelling urinary catheters should be minimized is that: A) they are known to cause cancer of the bladder. B) they keep the person immobile for a long period of time. C) they are difficult to monitor. D) they are known to result in high infection rates.

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 10 Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Special Areas of Nursing Care Management Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Medical Care, Nursing, and Rehabilitation

33. How often should each resident’s drug regimen be reviewed? A) Daily B) Weekly C) Monthly D) Quarterly Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Pharmacy Services Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Medical Care, Nursing, and Rehabilitation

34. While observing a medication pass, 12 errors were observed out of 110 doses that were given and another 10 doses that were ordered but not given. What is the medication error rate? A) 5% B) 10% C) 11% D) 12% Ans: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Pharmacy Services Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Medical Care, Nursing, and Rehabilitation

35. Controlled substances in which category have the least potential for abuse? A) Schedule I B) Schedule III C) Schedule IV D) Schedule V Ans: D Complexity: Easy

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 10 Ahead: Pharmacy Services Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Medical Care, Nursing, and Rehabilitation

36. Which of the following should have its own separate locking mechanism for storage? A) Emergency drug kit B) Pharmaceuticals in general C) Controlled substances D) Biologics Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Pharmacy Services Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Medical Care, Nursing, and Rehabilitation

37. Who is responsible for the contents of the emergency drug kit? A) Director of nursing B) Pharmacist C) Unit charge nurse D) A designated nurse Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Pharmacy Services Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Medical Care, Nursing, and Rehabilitation

38. Which of the following statements about the use of psychotropic drugs is not true? A) They can be used to sedate residents who display aggressive behaviors. B) They can be prescribed only for specific conditions that are documented. C) The dose must be gradually reduced. D) They may produce effects contrary to the ones they are intended to control. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Pharmacy Services Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Medical Care, Nursing, and Rehabilitation

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 10

39. Which rehabilitation discipline trains patients in the adaptive use of the upper extremities? A) Physical therapy B) Occupational therapy C) Maintenance therapy D) All rehabilitation disciplines Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Rehabilitation Services Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Medical Care, Nursing, and Rehabilitation

40. _______ is a disorder in which the speech is slurred or unintelligible because of muscle weakness. A) Aphasia B) Dysphagia C) Apraxia D) Dysarthria Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Rehabilitation Services Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Medical Care, Nursing, and Rehabilitation

41. Which of the following specifically focuses on preserving a person’s present level of function? A) Helping a person regain strength and coordination B) Restorative rehabilitation C) Maintenance rehabilitation D) Helping a person with fine motor skills Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Rehabilitation Services Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Medical Care, Nursing, and Rehabilitation

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 10

42. Long-term maintenance therapy is carried out by: A) professional therapists such as PTs and OTs. B) licensed nurses. C) activity personnel. D) paraprofessionals. Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Rehabilitation Services Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Medical Care, Nursing, and Rehabilitation

43. Which of the following is an intervention that enables a person to function independently when certain deficits remain? A) Restorative rehabilitation B) Adaptive rehabilitation C) Maintenance rehabilitation D) Range of motion intervention Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Rehabilitation Services Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Medical Care, Nursing, and Rehabilitation

True/False

1. True or false? Most medical directors in nursing facilities are geriatricians. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Medical Care Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Medical Care, Nursing, and Rehabilitation

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 10 2. True or false? Often the medical director is also the attending physician for most of the residents in a nursing facility. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Medical Care Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Medical Care, Nursing, and Rehabilitation

3. True or false? For financial purposes, the medical director's work as an attending physician must be completely separate from his or her role as the medical director. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Medical Care Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Medical Care, Nursing, and Rehabilitation

4. True or false? Regulations require DONs to have a bachelor’s degree in nursing and training in management. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Medical Care Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Medical Care, Nursing, and Rehabilitation

5. True or false? Regulations require the completion of a comprehensive assessment every quarter. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Resident Assessment and Care Planning Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Medical Care, Nursing, and Rehabilitation

6. True or false? An effective infection control program involves all departments.

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 10 Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Infection Prevention and Control Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Medical Care, Nursing, and Rehabilitation

7. True or false? Transmission-based precautions are used in addition to standard precautions. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Infection Prevention and Control Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Medical Care, Nursing, and Rehabilitation

8. True or false? A person with a history of falls is at a high risk of falling again. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Special Areas of Nursing Care Management Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Medical Care, Nursing, and Rehabilitation

9. True or false? Putting the mattress on the floor is not an effective method to prevent injuries from falls. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Special Areas of Nursing Care Management Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Medical Care, Nursing, and Rehabilitation

10. True or false? Proper diet can play a role in the prevention of pressure ulcers. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Special Areas of Nursing Care Management

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 10 Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Medical Care, Nursing, and Rehabilitation

11. True or false? Proper bed-making plays a role in the prevention of pressure ulcers. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Special Areas of Nursing Care Management Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Medical Care, Nursing, and Rehabilitation

12. True or false? In many cases, gently massaging the area of skin redness can prevent the skin from breaking and turning into an ulcer. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Special Areas of Nursing Care Management Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Medical Care, Nursing, and Rehabilitation

13. True or false? Restraints are appropriately used for residents who are at a high risk of falling. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Special Areas of Nursing Care Management Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Medical Care, Nursing, and Rehabilitation

14. True or false? Bed side rails may or may not be classified as a restraint. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Special Areas of Nursing Care Management Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Medical Care, Nursing, and Rehabilitation

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 10 15. True or false? All medications must be stored with a double-locking mechanism. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Pharmacy Services Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Medical Care, Nursing, and Rehabilitation

16. True or false? Schedule I drugs may be used only as prescribed by a physician. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Pharmacy Services Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Medical Care, Nursing, and Rehabilitation

17. True or false? The facility’s emergency drug kit should be kept appropriately locked. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Pharmacy Services Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Medical Care, Nursing, and Rehabilitation

18. True or false? The use of psychotropic drugs is governed by rules established under the Controlled Substances Act. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Pharmacy Services Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Medical Care, Nursing, and Rehabilitation

19. True or false? Pneumonia is a risk factor when a person is mechanically ventilated. Ans: True

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 10 Complexity: Easy Ahead: Rehabilitation Services Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Medical Care, Nursing, and Rehabilitation

20. True or false? Restorative rehabilitation must be authorized by a physician. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Rehabilitation Services Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Medical Care, Nursing, and Rehabilitation

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 11 Multiple Choice

1. A well-rounded activities program: A) emphasizes physical fitness. B) emphasizes recreation. C) promotes holistic health. D) meets regulatory requirements. Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Introduction Subject: Chapter 11 Title: Recreation and Activities

2. From the standpoint of resident participation, the main difference between program orientation and intervention orientation is characterized by: A) frequency. B) holistic health. C) involvement. D) autonomy. Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Distinctive Orientation and Approach Subject: Chapter 11 Title: Recreation and Activities

3. Which of the following is a true statement? A) Federal regulations require activity directors to have a bachelor’s degree. B) An activity director must have certification as a Therapeutic Recreation Specialist. C) An occupational therapy assistant meets federal qualifications for activity directors. D) Someone with 2 years of experience in social services qualifies as an activity director. Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Activity Department Subject: Chapter 11 Title: Recreation and Activities

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 11

4. Which of the following is an example of an activity that can influence a person’s affective need? A) Bird feeding B) Mail delivery C) Coffee klatches D) Balloon volleyball Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Program Development Subject: Chapter 11 Title: Recreation and Activities

5. Which of the following directly affects a person’s affective functioning? A) Anger B) Poor vision C) Inability to make judgment D) Short attention span Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Program Development Subject: Chapter 11 Title: Recreation and Activities

6. Therapeutic activities focus mainly on using a person's: A) motor skills. B) cognitive abilities. C) secondary disabilities. D) unaffected capabilities. Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Program Development Subject: Chapter 11 Title: Recreation and Activities

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 11 7. What can happen if an individual’s remaining capabilities are not used? A) The person may isolate himself/herself. B) Hearing or vision loss can occur. C) Secondary disabilities can set in. D) Cognitive functioning can decline. Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Program Development Subject: Chapter 11 Title: Recreation and Activities

8. Which of the following activities would be appropriate for addressing the residents’ affective needs? A) Discussion of current events B) Art therapy C) Birthday parties D) Participation in resident council Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Program Development Subject: Chapter 11 Title: Recreation and Activities

9. Addressing residents’ integrational needs calls for activities that: A) provide opportunities for socializing. B) are a source of pleasure and contentment. C) help with self-realization. D) enable the feeling of being useful to others Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Program Development Subject: Chapter 11 Title: Recreation and Activities

10. Which of the following activities would be helpful in building a resident’s self-esteem? A) Surfing the Internet

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 11 B) Watching a cooking demonstration C) Word games D) Telling stories to children Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Program Development Subject: Chapter 11 Title: Recreation and Activities

11. Which of the following is not considered a therapeutic activity? A) Informal conversation B) Helping other residents C) Listening to music D) Activities of daily living Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Program Development Subject: Chapter 11 Title: Recreation and Activities

12. An intervention approach is particularly appropriate for: A) persons with dementia. B) intergenerational interaction. C) socializing. D) passive stimulation. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Intervention Approaches Subject: Chapter 11 Title: Recreation and Activities

13. Which therapeutic intervention would be appropriate for someone with visual impairment? A) Validation therapy B) Reality orientation C) Sensory stimulation D) Passive stimulation

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 11 Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Intervention Approaches Subject: Chapter 11 Title: Recreation and Activities

14. Music therapy is an example of: A) validation therapy. B) reality orientation. C) sensory stimulation. D) reminiscence. Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Intervention Approaches Subject: Chapter 11 Title: Recreation and Activities

15. Calendars, clocks, pictures, and information boards are used as aids in: A) validation therapy. B) reality orientation. C) sensory stimulation. D) reminiscence. Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Intervention Approaches Subject: Chapter 11 Title: Recreation and Activities

16. Reality orientation: A) helps a person to remember past events. B) is the ability to find one’s way through the facility by using certain cues. C) uses stimuli such as bright colors, lighted objects, etc. to elicit responses. D) involves the use of simple factual information. Ans: D Complexity: Easy

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 11 Ahead: Intervention Approaches Subject: Chapter 11 Title: Recreation and Activities

17. Watching old movies can be incorporated into: A) reality orientation. B) reminiscence. C) validation therapy. D) sensory stimulation. Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Intervention Approaches Subject: Chapter 11 Title: Recreation and Activities

18. In validation therapy, A) television or radio is particularly useful to promote discussion of current events. B) a resident’s name is frequently used to reinforce self-awareness. C) people’s belief that they are living in the past is reinforced. D) old time songs can bring back memories of the “good old days.” Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Intervention Approaches Subject: Chapter 11 Title: Recreation and Activities

19. An 82-year-old nursing home resident with moderate dementia treats her doll like a real baby and calls it her baby daughter, Susie. Which of the following is correct? A) The resident is reminiscing about the good old days. B) The resident is receiving sensory stimulation. C) The resident should be given straightforward, factual information that Susie is not a little baby. D) The resident’s belief that her doll is her daughter, Susie, should be accepted and validated. Ans: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Intervention Approaches

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 11 Subject: Chapter 11 Title: Recreation and Activities

20. A multisensory environment is created in a therapy known as: A) validation therapy. B) gustatory stimulation. C) perception therapy. D) Snoezelen. Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Intervention Approaches Subject: Chapter 11 Title: Recreation and Activities

21. Activity therapy for residents with dementia should be: A) addressed in homogeneous groups. B) focused on reality orientation. C) carried out in large groups. D) focused on controlling a chaotic environment. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Activities for Residents with Dementia Subject: Chapter 11 Title: Recreation and Activities

22. Which of the following has been shown to reduce negative behaviors and the need for psychotropic drugs in residents with dementia? A) Continuous activity programming B) Small-group programming C) High staff-to-resident ratios D) Sensitivity, respect, and person-centered care Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Activities for Residents with Dementia Subject: Chapter 11 Title: Recreation and Activities

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 11

23. A master activity calendar is prepared on a ____ basis. A) weekly B) twice a month C) monthly D) yearly Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Program Development Subject: Chapter 11 Title: Recreation and Activities

24. What purpose is served by maintaining a risk profile for each resident? A) It helps eliminate activities that may pose health risks to the participants. B) It helps residents identify activities they would derive the most benefit from. C) It helps in the planning of programs that would accommodate the special needs of some residents. D) It helps the activity staff to become aware of limitations and contraindications certain residents may have. Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Program Implementation and Evaluation Subject: Chapter 11 Title: Recreation and Activities

25. Program evaluation for activities focuses on the: A) results being achieved. B) number of programs. C) variety of programs. D) efficiency of staff. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Program Implementation and Evaluation Subject: Chapter 11 Title: Recreation and Activities

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 11

26. Which of the following data are essential for the evaluation of activity programming? A) Staff hours used in conducting activities B) Total number of residents in the facility C) Each resident’s record of attendance D) Number of weekday, weekend, and holiday programs Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Program Implementation and Evaluation Subject: Chapter 11 Title: Recreation and Activities

True/False

1. True or false? The resident who refuses to participate in recommended activities that are likely to promote physical and mental well-being is required to sign a medical release. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Distinctive Orientation and Approach Subject: Chapter 11 Title: Recreation and Activities

2. True or false? Activity programming is one nursing home service that does not require a comprehensive assessment. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Program Implementation and Evaluation Subject: Chapter 11 Title: Recreation and Activities

3. True or false? Technologically advanced equipment is often necessary to design activities that can address a variety of needs.

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 11 Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Program Development Subject: Chapter 11 Title: Recreation and Activities

4. True or false? Residents can get both active and passive stimulation during individual as well as group activities. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Program Development Subject: Chapter 11 Title: Recreation and Activities

5. True or false? Depressed residents should be involved in structured group activities as opposed to informal group activities. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Program Development Subject: Chapter 11 Title: Recreation and Activities

6. True or false? Intergenerational programming is not appropriate for residents with dementia. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Activities for Residents with Dementia Subject: Chapter 11 Title: Recreation and Activities

7. True or false? Sensory deprivation speeds up degenerative changes in mind and body. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Interventional Approaches

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 11 Subject: Chapter 11 Title: Recreation and Activities

7. True or false? In multisensory stimulation, a directive approach works best. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Interventional Approaches Subject: Chapter 11 Title: Recreation and Activities

8. True or false? In activity programming, a risk profile is maintained to help residents choose activities they can tolerate given their functional limitations. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Program Implementation and Evaluation Subject: Chapter 11 Title: Recreation and Activities

9. True or false? Evaluation of activity programming should focus on whether or not expected outcomes are being achieved. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Program Implementation and Evaluation Subject: Chapter 11 Title: Recreation and Activities

10. True or false? The desired areas of service for volunteering should be chosen by the volunteers, not by the activity director. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Volunteer Support Subject: Chapter 11 Title: Recreation and Activities

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 11

11. True or false? Volunteers should be selected using a formal recruitment process. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Volunteer Support Subject: Chapter 11 Title: Recreation and Activities

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 12 Multiple Choice

1. What are the required qualifications for a consultant dietitian? A) Registered dietitian B) Registered dietetic technician C) Certified dietary manager D) Registered dietitian or registered dietetic technician Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Dietary Department Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Dietary Services

2. What is the main focus of nutritional screening? A) To evaluate if a resident should be tube fed B) To determine residents’ likes and dislikes C) To determine if a change in menu is necessary D) To identify at-risk residents Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Dietary Consultation Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Dietary Services

3. The common standard for the maximum time lapse between dinner and breakfast is ____ hours. A) 9 B) 10 C) 12 D) 14 Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Menu Planning Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Dietary Services

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 12

4. A five-meal plan: A) results in unwanted weight gain. B) makes the dietary staff more productive than the traditional three-meal plan. C) allows residents to follow their preferred daily routines. D) reduces the time lapse between dinner and breakfast. Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Menu Planning Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Dietary Services

5. What is the primary meaning of the term menu cycle? A) Number of meals to be served per day B) Length of time for menu rotation C) Selective versus nonselective menu options D) Incorporating season variations in the menu Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Menu Planning Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Dietary Services

6. According to DHHS/USDA Dietary Guidelines for Americans, at least ____ of grain consumption should come from whole grain products. A) one-quarter B) one-third C) one-half D) three-quarters Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Menu Development Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Dietary Services

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 12 7. Intake of _______ can have a positive effect on blood pressure. A) dairy products B) eggs C) vitamin D D) dietary potassium Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Menu Development Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Dietary Services

8. Older adults should consume extra amounts of which of the following vitamins? A) Vitamin A B) Vitamin C C) Vitamin D D) Vitamin E Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Menu Development Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Dietary Services

9. Pleasing food appearance increases blood flow in the: A) frontal lobe of the brain to improve appetite. B) stomach to improve digestion. C) gut to improve nutrient absorption. D) mouth to improve palatability. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Menu Development Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Dietary Services

10. The food service director in a 150-bed nursing home is allowed $5.75 per patient day for raw food cost. If the facility has 135 residents, what is total daily amount for the raw food budget? A) 150 ´ $5.75 © 2022 Jones and Bartlett Learning, LLC

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 12 B) 135 ´ $5.75 C) 285/$5.75 D) 365 ´ $5.75 Ans: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Menu Development Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Dietary Services

11. A PPD or PRD food cost in the budget allows for: A) fluctuations in census. B) the daily number of meals to be served. C) a monthly allocation of how much should be spent on raw food. D) changes in menu items. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Menu Development Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Dietary Services

12. When establishing food vendor contracts, ____ should be used because of variations in brand, grade, size, thickness, weight, count, etc. A) specifications B) standards C) legal counsel D) common sense Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Purchasing Food and Supplies Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Dietary Services

13. In invoice receiving, the items delivered are checked against: A) the original order that does not show quantities. B) the supplier’s delivery invoice. C) the original order that shows quantities. © 2022 Jones and Bartlett Learning, LLC

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 12 D) the supplier’s invoice from which payment is made. Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Receiving, Storage, and Inventory Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Dietary Services

14. The size of the food order depends on several factors. Which of the following is not a factor impacting the size of the food order? A) Forecast of the number of portions B) Facility’s storage capacity C) Product specification D) Vendor’s delivery schedule Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Purchasing Food and Supplies Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Dietary Services

15. Why are items stored in the dry food storeroom kept 6 to 12 inches above the floor? A) To keep the entire floor area clean B) To keep food away from mice and rats C) To keep the temperature uniform D) To ensure adequate ventilation Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Receiving, Storage, and Inventory Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Dietary Services

16. What is the correct temperature for food storage refrigerators? A) 20°F or lower B) 40°F or lower C) Between 40°F and 50°F D) A few degrees above or below 40°F

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 12 Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Receiving, Storage, and Inventory Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Dietary Services

17. At what temperature should frozen foods be stored? A) 0°F or lower B) Between 0°F and 10°F C) 20°F or lower D) 32°F or lower Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Receiving, Storage, and Inventory Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Dietary Services

18. In a physical inventory system, on March 1 there were 3 #10 cans of peaches. During the month, 8 cans were purchased and 5 were withdrawn. What should be the closing inventory on March 31? A) 3 + 5 – 8 B) 8 + 5 – 3 C) 3 + 8 – 5 D) 8 – 5 – 3 Ans: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Receiving, Storage, and Inventory Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Dietary Services

19. Which of the following does not apply to the FIFO method of inventory management? A) Products already on the shelf are moved to the front. B) All products are dated when received. C) All products are counted on the first day of the month. D) When needed, products are picked from the front. Ans: C

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 12 Complexity: Easy Ahead: Receiving, Storage, and Inventory Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Dietary Services

20. What is the main advantage of the cook-and-serve method of food production? A) Increased staff productivity B) “Home-cooked” appeal C) Foods don’t have to be kept at their right temperatures for a long period of time D) Increased staff morale Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Food Production Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Dietary Services

21. Widespread plate waste may indicate a need to: A) tighten controls. B) consult with the physician. C) use supplemental nourishments. D) change menus. Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Food Production Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Dietary Services

22. Who should address issues pertaining to self-feeding skills and positioning? A) Occupational therapist B) Speech/language pathologist C) Registered dietitian D) The attending physician Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Assistance with Eating Issues Subject: Chapter 12

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 12 Title: Dietary Services

23. Who should address problems related to swallowing food? A) Occupational therapist B) Speech/language pathologist C) Registered dietitian D) Dentist Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Assistance with Eating Issues Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Dietary Services

24. Nourishment is: A) a resident’s total nutrient intake. B) a high protein nutritional supplement. C) a light food item or snack. D) special nutrition for people who cannot eat. Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Therapeutic Diets, Supplements, and Nourishments Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Dietary Services

25. Which of the following would likely not be beneficial to residents with dementia? A) Congregate dining experience B) Verbally prompting the resident to eat C) Assistance with feeding D) Meals that are close to the resident’s culture of origin Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Assistance with Eating Issues Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Dietary Services

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 12 26. A gastrostomy tube (G-tube) passes through a surgical opening in the: A) duodenum. B) small intestine. C) neck. D) abdomen. Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Intensive Nutrition Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Dietary Services

27. During food service, hot foods should be maintained at or above: A) 130°F. B) 140°F. C) 150°F. D) 160°F. Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Food Service Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Dietary Services

28. During food service, cold foods should be maintained at or below: A) 30°F. B) 35°F. C) 40°F. D) 45°F. Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Food Service Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Dietary Services

29. What purpose do diet cards (or diet tickets) serve? A) They are used to check the accuracy of food served.

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 12 B) They maintain an up-to-date record of residents on special diets. C) They contain instructions on how special diets should be prepared. D) They are used to control the inventory of nutritional supplements and TPN preparations. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Food Service Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Dietary Services

30. What is the most common cause of bacterial outbreaks that cause food-borne illnesses in nursing homes? A) Holding food for more than two hours at room temperature B) Cross-contamination C) Improper holding temperatures during food service D) Improper reheating of refrigerated foods Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Food Safety and Sanitation Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Dietary Services

31. What is the correct temperature for reheating leftover foods? A) 120°F B) 140°F C) 150°F D) 165°F Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Food Safety and Sanitation Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Dietary Services

32. Leftover foods must be refrigerated within: A) half an hour. B) 1 hour. C) 2 hours.

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 12 D) 3 hours. Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Food Safety and Sanitation Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Dietary Services

33. When dishes and utensils are manually washed, hot water sanitizing is achieved at a temperature of _____ for 30 seconds. A) 141°F B) 151°F C) 161°F D) 171°F Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Food Safety and Sanitation Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Dietary Services

True/False

1. True or false? The director of food service reports to a consulting dietician. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Dietary Department Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Dietary Services

2. True or false? According to federal regulations, the dietary manager in a nursing facility must be a registered dietitian. Ans: False Ahead: Dietary Consultation Ahead: Introduction

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 12 Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Dietary Services

3. True or false? In a dietary department staffed with cooks, cook’s helpers, and dietary aides, the cooks are responsible for the preparation of entrées. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Dietary Department Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Dietary Services

4. True or false? A dietary aide’s main responsibility is to serve dished food to residents in the dining room. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Dietary Department Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Dietary Services

5. True or false? A modified five-meal plan increases the residents’ nutritional intake. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Menu Planning Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Dietary Services

6. True or false? A selective menu can lower plate waste. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Menu Planning Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Dietary Services

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 12

7. True or false? Regulations require nursing homes to give the residents daily vitamin and mineral supplements. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Menu Development Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Dietary Services

8. True or false? For vegetarians, substituting potatoes and pasta for meat is considered adequate to meet protein requirements. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Menu Development Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Dietary Services

9. True or false? The raw food budget is based on a per-patient-day allowance rather than a daily allowance for food cost. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Menu Development Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Dietary Services

10. True or false? The temperature in food storage refrigerators should be maintained at or below 0°F. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Receiving, Storage, and Inventory Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Dietary Services

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 12 11. True or false? A high food cost implies that the food served is of a high quality. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Purchasing Food and Supplies Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Dietary Services

12. True or false? Regulations do not allow substitution of food items on the menu. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Menu Development Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Dietary Services

13. True or false? Frozen foods should never be thawed at room temperature. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Receiving, Storage, and Inventory Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Dietary Services

14. True or false? In some cases, the cook-chill method allows food preparation to be completed up to 42 days in advance. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Food Production Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Dietary Services

15. True or false? Diabetic diet is an example of a simple therapeutic diet because all it requires is sugar substitution.

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 12 Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Therapeutic Diets, Supplements, and Nourishments Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Dietary Services

16. True or false? Most nursing home residents should be given nutritional supplements. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Therapeutic Diets, Supplements, and Nourishments Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Dietary Services

17. True or false? Pureed or liquefied regular foods may be used for enteral feeding but not for parenteral nutrition. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Intensive Nutrition Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Dietary Services

18. True or false? Delivering nutrients through a nasogastric tube (NG tube) is an example of parenteral feeding. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Intensive Nutrition Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Dietary Services

19. True or false? The food service station should be equipped with a powered conveyor system for efficient food service. Ans: False Complexity: Easy

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 12 Ahead: Food Service Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Dietary Services

20. True or false? A food-service station is designed so that hot foods are dished out before cold foods. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Food Service Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Dietary Services

21. True or false? Once dished out, food should be checked against the recipe for accuracy. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Food Service Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Dietary Services

22. True or false? Use of the insulated tray system does not eliminate the need for food transportation carts. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Food Service Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Dietary Services

23. True or false? Food poisoning is almost entirely preventable. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Food Safety and Sanitation Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Dietary Services

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 12

24. True or false? Even when foods are cooked to their recommended temperatures, food poisoning can occur. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Food Safety and Sanitation Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Dietary Services

25. True or false? To improve hygiene a clean cloth must be used to wipe utensils after they have been washed. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Food Safety and Sanitation Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Dietary Services

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 13 Multiple Choice

1. Why is it essential to separate washing and drying functions in the laundry? A) To prevent cross-contamination B) To increase efficiency C) To effectively utilize staff skills D) To provide a logical work flow Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Organization of Environmental Services Subject: Chapter 13 Title: Plant and Environmental Services

2. A work order system is used for: A) contract work. B) urgent service calls. C) routine repairs. D) preventive maintenance. Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Maintenance Operation Subject: Chapter 13 Title: Plant and Environmental Services

3. Which of the following should be submitted on a work order? A) Malfunction of the fire suppression system B) A window that does not open and close properly C) Purchase of a replacement part D) Need for lawn care Ans: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Maintenance Operation Subject: Chapter 13 Title: Plant and Environmental Services

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 13 4. Which of the following involves planning of routine inspections and certain maintenance tasks in advance? A) Preventive maintenance B) Routine checks C) Contract work D) Routine repairs Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Maintenance Operation Subject: Chapter 13 Title: Plant and Environmental Services

5. Which of the following is not a required task for effective preventive maintenance? A) Clean coils and motors B) Inspect equipment C) Change filters as necessary D) Purchase supplies and parts on a weekly basis Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Maintenance Operation Subject: Chapter 13 Title: Plant and Environmental Services

6. Which of the following is a method the administrator can use to monitor preventive maintenance activity? A) Check on the progress of work orders on a daily basis. B) Maintain a record of system failures and breakdowns. C) Monitor compliance with the Life Safety Code. D) Review the log of preventive maintenance and do spot checks. Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Maintenance Operation Subject: Chapter 13 Title: Plant and Environmental Services

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 13 7. What are job-unit contracts? A) They are separate contracts to handle major jobs as needs arise. B) They are separate contracts for pest control, waste removal, snow removal, etc. C) They are contracts for expert preventive maintenance. D) They are contracts established with preferred contractors to handle breakdowns, as needed. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Maintenance Operation Subject: Chapter 13 Title: Plant and Environmental Services

8. Which of the following is not an area of operation for the housekeeping department? A) Infection control B) Sanitizing C) Changing bed linens D) Reconditioning Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Housekeeping Operations Subject: Chapter 13 Title: Plant and Environmental Services

9. In the housekeeping context, what is meant by reconditioning? A) Polishing furniture and fixtures B) Rearranging furniture and accessories C) Changing bed linens as often as necessary D) Thorough cleaning of a resident’s room Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Housekeeping Operations Subject: Chapter 13 Title: Plant and Environmental Services

10. What is meant by sanitizing? A) Using household bleach to kill germs B) Preventing the spread of microorganisms

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 13 C) Reducing microbes to safe levels D) Killing of microbes Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Housekeeping Operations Subject: Chapter 13 Title: Plant and Environmental Services

11. How can the housekeeping supervisor evaluate the effectiveness of sanitizing procedures? A) Use antimicrobial products approved by the Environmental Protection Agency. B) Take cultures to determine bacterial colony counts. C) Enforce infection control practices. D) Standardize and evaluate all housekeeping procedures. Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Housekeeping Operations Subject: Chapter 13 Title: Plant and Environmental Services

12. Use of sanitary practices to prevent the spread of microorganisms is called: A) infection control. B) sanitizing. C) reconditioning. D) decontamination. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Housekeeping Operations Subject: Chapter 13 Title: Plant and Environmental Services

13. The appropriate method of wet mopping employs: A) no dry mopping before wet mopping. B) a double-bucket technique. C) hand washing between dry and wet mopping. D) using chlorine bleach in the water.

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 13 Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Housekeeping Operations Subject: Chapter 13 Title: Plant and Environmental Services

14. Carts carrying clean linens through the facility: A) must have sensors to prevent accidents. B) must be frequently sanitized. C) must be covered. D) must not pass through service areas. Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Laundry Operations Subject: Chapter 13 Title: Plant and Environmental Services

15. Which of the following tasks is not assigned to the laundry personnel? A) Transporting soiled linens to the laundry B) Folding linens C) Delivering clean linens D) Sorting laundry Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Laundry Operations Subject: Chapter 13 Title: Plant and Environmental Services

16. For hot water washing in the laundry, the wash temperature should A) not fall below 150°F. B) be maintained between 150°F and 160°F. C) be at least 160°F. D) be at least 170°F. Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Laundry Operations

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 13 Subject: Chapter 13 Title: Plant and Environmental Services

17. The linen sorting area in the laundry must have: A) positive pressure ventilation. B) a laundry chute. C) a laundry scale. D) negative pressure ventilation. Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Laundry Operations Subject: Chapter 13 Title: Plant and Environmental Services

18. As a rule of thumb, for every piece of linen in use there must be ____ pieces that are being processed or are in storage. A) 2 B) 4 C) 5 D) 7 Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Laundry Operations Subject: Chapter 13 Title: Plant and Environmental Services

19. A nursing facility uses 200 hand towels daily. What is the recommended par level for hand towels? A) 400 B) 600 C) 800 D) 1,000 Ans: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Laundry Operations Subject: Chapter 13

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 13 Title: Plant and Environmental Services

20. Which of the following is correct with regard to an appropriately maintained linen inventory system? A) Initial inventory − Purchases − Discards = Closing inventory B) Initial inventory − Purchases + Discards = Closing inventory C) Initial inventory + Purchases − Discards = Closing inventory D) Initial inventory = Closing inventory + Purchases Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Laundry Operations Subject: Chapter 13 Title: Plant and Environmental Services

21. To determine how much linen is being lost, the laundry supervisor should: A) compare the actual linen count to the closing inventory. B) add the purchases to the initial inventory and subtract the number of discards. C) reconcile the actual linen count against purchases. D) count the linens at least once a week. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Laundry Operations Subject: Chapter 13 Title: Plant and Environmental Services

22. Which of the following is true with regard to delayed opening fire exit doors? A) The fire doors open automatically after a delay of about 15 seconds when the alarm is pulled. B) They facilitate evacuation during a fire emergency. C) They can deter residents from leaving the facility unnoticed. D) They are kept locked until there is a fire. Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Security Operations Subject: Chapter 13 Title: Plant and Environmental Services

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 13

23. A security audit: A) documents incidents whenever they occur. B) assesses potential lapses in physical security. C) is used to safeguard the personal property of residents. D) documents actual breaches of security. Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Security Operations Subject: Chapter 13 Title: Plant and Environmental Services

24. All movable capital assets must be ____ and ____. A) tagged; recorded B) locked; inventoried C) tagged; locked D) recorded; inventoried Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Security Operations Subject: Chapter 13 Title: Plant and Environmental Services

25. What is the correct sequence of fire-protection steps? A) Extinguish the fire—Activate the alarm—Rescue—Confine the fire B) Rescue—Confine the fire—Extinguish the fire—Activate the alarm C) Activate the alarm—Rescue—Confine the fire—Extinguish the fire D) Rescue—Activate the alarm—Confine the fire—Extinguish the fire Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Fire and Disaster Planning Subject: Chapter 13 Title: Plant and Environmental Services

26. What is the most critical step in fire protection procedures?

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 13 A) Activate the fire alarm. B) Rescue and remove anyone in immediate danger. C) Confine the fire. D) Extinguish the fire. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Fire and Disaster Planning Subject: Chapter 13 Title: Plant and Environmental Services

27. Which of the following is true of fire doors? A) They prevent residents with dementia from wandering outside. B) They close automatically when the fire alarm is pulled. C) They must be closed by personnel in the area where fire is located. D) They prevent outside intruders from entering the facility. Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Fire and Disaster Planning Subject: Chapter 13 Title: Plant and Environmental Services

28. As the next step in fire-protection procedures, after residents in immediate danger have been evacuated and the fire alarm has been activated, the associates should do all of the following, except: A) extinguish the fire. B) close all doors. C) use wet towels to cover openings to prevent the spread of smoke. D) close all windows. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Fire and Disaster Planning Subject: Chapter 13 Title: Plant and Environmental Services

29. An area of refuge is a: A) temporary shelter outside the nursing facility.

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 13 B) floor other than the one affected by a fire. C) safe area within the nursing facility that provides direct access to an exit. D) shelter used during a disaster such as a tornado. Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Fire and Disaster Planning Subject: Chapter 13 Title: Plant and Environmental Services

30. The Life Safety Code requires fire drills to be conducted on each shift: A) once a week. B) once every 3 weeks. C) once a month. D) once a quarter. Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Fire and Disaster Planning Subject: Chapter 13 Title: Plant and Environmental Services

31. Approximately how much of the waste produced by a nursing facility falls in the general waste category similar to domestic garbage? A) 20% B) 40% C) 70% D) 90% Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Waste Management Subject: Chapter 13 Title: Plant and Environmental Services

32. Bags used for infectious and pathological waste must be: A) leak proof. B) color coded. C) leak proof and color coded.

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 13 D) nonplastic. Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Waste Management Subject: Chapter 13 Title: Plant and Environmental Services

33. The mechanical device used for maintaining water temperature within safe limits for use by residents is called a: A) mixing valve. B) thermostat. C) safety valve. D) temperature gauge. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Environmental Safety Subject: Chapter 13 Title: Plant and Environmental Services

34. What is the common standard for hot water supplied to resident rooms? A) 90°F B) 100°F C) 110°F D) 120°F Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Environmental Safety Subject: Chapter 13 Title: Plant and Environmental Services

True/False

1. True or false? A work order system misses many problems that require attention from the maintenance department.

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 13 Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Maintenance Operation Subject: Chapter 13 Title: Plant and Environmental Services

2. True or false? A preventive maintenance program is necessary to perform routine repairs on a daily basis. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Maintenance Operation Subject: Chapter 13 Title: Plant and Environmental Services

3. True or false? Routine contracts should be renewed annually. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Maintenance Operation Subject: Chapter 13 Title: Plant and Environmental Services

4. True or false? Open-call contracts are appropriate for major repairs and renovations. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Maintenance Operation Subject: Chapter 13 Title: Plant and Environmental Services

5. True or false? A plain broom for dry sweeping should not be used before wet mopping. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Housekeeping Operations

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 13 Subject: Chapter 13 Title: Plant and Environmental Services

6. True or false? Neither transporting soiled linens to the laundry nor the delivery of clean linens is assigned to laundry personnel. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Housekeeping Operations Subject: Chapter 13 Title: Plant and Environmental Services

7. True or false? Use of gloves, gowns, and masks when sorting laundry is part of standard precautions. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Laundry Operations Subject: Chapter 13 Title: Plant and Environmental Services

8. True or false? The total quantity of linens in the facility is called par level. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Laundry Operations Subject: Chapter 13 Title: Plant and Environmental Services

9. True or false? A high-visibility police patrol is one of the best deterrents against crime. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Security Operations Subject: Chapter 13 Title: Plant and Environmental Services

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 13

10. True or false? The most important first step that associates must follow during a fire is to extinguish it using fire extinguishers, wet sheets, and blankets. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Fire and Disaster Planning Subject: Chapter 13 Title: Plant and Environmental Services

11. True or false? The first step in case of a fire is to rescue and evacuate all residents. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Fire and Disaster Planning Subject: Chapter 13 Title: Plant and Environmental Services

12. True or false? The real danger from a fire is usually not the flames, but smoke. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Fire and Disaster Planning Subject: Chapter 13 Title: Plant and Environmental Services

13. True or false? When there is a fire emergency, an attempt to extinguish the fire is the last step associates must take. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Fire and Disaster Planning Subject: Chapter 13 Title: Plant and Environmental Services

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 13 14. True or false? During a total evacuation, bedbound residents should be rolled in their beds to the nearest exit. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Fire and Disaster Planning Subject: Chapter 13 Title: Plant and Environmental Services

15. True or false? Hazardous waste must be double-bagged in leak-proof plastic bags before it is disposed of in the dumpster. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Waste Management Subject: Chapter 13 Title: Plant and Environmental Services

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 14 Multiple Choice

1. When a multifacility corporation centralizes its accounting and finance functions, the costs for these functions are: A) the responsibility of the corporate office. B) passed on to the individual facilities. C) outsourced. D) negligible. Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: The Business Office Subject: Chapter 14 Title: Administrative and Information Systems

2. Minimum wage and overtime are governed by: A) the Fair Labor Standards Act. B) laws made by the Department of Labor. C) the Wage and Hour Act. D) the Fair Employment Act. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Payroll and Compensation Subject: Chapter 14 Title: Administrative and Information Systems

3. Exempt employees are: A) not entitled to overtime. B) not entitled to a job title. C) entitled to overtime. D) entitled to a job title. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Payroll and Compensation Subject: Chapter 14 Title: Administrative and Information Systems

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 14

4. Nonexempt employees are entitled to: A) minimum wage. B) overtime pay. C) both minimum wage and overtime pay. D) neither minimum wage nor overtime pay. Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Payroll and Compensation Subject: Chapter 14 Title: Administrative and Information Systems

5. Which of the following class of employees is not classified as exempt under FLSA? A) Executive B) Technical C) Administrative D) Professional Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Payroll and Compensation Subject: Chapter 14 Title: Administrative and Information Systems

6. FLSA categories specify that certain employees may be exempt from: A) being salaried. B) executive, technical, or professional work. C) overtime pay. D) being nonsalaried. Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Payroll and Compensation Subject: Chapter 14 Title: Administrative and Information Systems

7. To be classified as administrative exempt under FLSA, an employee must:

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 14 A) be a senior manager. B) perform duties that require advanced knowledge. C) have an annual salary of at least $100,000. D) must have authority to exercise independent judgment in matters of significance. Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Payroll and Compensation Subject: Chapter 14 Title: Administrative and Information Systems

8. Under which of the following circumstances may a 30-minute meal break become compensable? A) A nurse takes her meal break at the nursing station. B) A CNA takes her meal break in the employee cafeteria on premises. C) A housekeeper sits in the gazebo outside to smoke a couple of cigarettes. D) A couple of dietary workers have their lunch after the meal service is over. Ans: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Payroll and Compensation Subject: Chapter 14 Title: Administrative and Information Systems

9. Which of the following is considered de minimis time? A) Time spent on cleaning equipment B) A 10-minute rest break C) Waiting time for one’s turn to clock out D) Time spent at the work station during a 30-minute lunch break Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Payroll and Compensation Subject: Chapter 14 Title: Administrative and Information Systems

10. What is the general rule for wage garnishment? A) A creditor can write a letter to the employer to garnish an employee’s wages. B) A creditor must produce proof of money owed before an employer can garnish wages.

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 14 C) Garnishment requires specific authorization from the nursing home administrator. D) Wage garnishment requires a court order. Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Payroll and Compensation Subject: Chapter 14 Title: Administrative and Information Systems

11. What is meant by accounts payable? A) Money owed to vendors B) Extension of credit C) Goods purchased on a noncash basis D) An invoice furnished by a vendor Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Other Bookkeeping Tasks Subject: Chapter 14 Title: Administrative and Information Systems

12. In controlling petty cash, the administrator must ensure that: A) the sum of vouchers equals the amount of cash. B) all payments are made with his or her authorization. C) he or she signs each voucher. D) the cash and the total value of vouchers adds up to the imprest amount. Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Other Bookkeeping Tasks Subject: Chapter 14 Title: Administrative and Information Systems

13. What main piece of information does the aging report provide? A) Payments received from third-party payers B) Claims billed to Medicaid and Medicare C) Unpaid balances in each resident’s account D) Demographic information on each resident

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 14 Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Other Bookkeeping Tasks Subject: Chapter 14 Title: Administrative and Information Systems

14. Third-party claims are often rejected because of: A) billing errors. B) insufficient funds. C) nondelivery of services. D) bed hold days. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Other Bookkeeping Tasks Subject: Chapter 14 Title: Administrative and Information Systems

15. The midnight census report is used for: A) collection of accounts receivable. B) verification of residents present in the facility. C) billing third-party payers. D) verifying bed hold days. Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Other Bookkeeping Tasks Subject: Chapter 14 Title: Administrative and Information Systems

16. For Medicaid beneficiaries, resident funds exceeding ____ must be placed in an interestbearing account. A) $50 B) $100 C) $200 D) $500 Ans: A Complexity: Easy

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 14 Ahead: Other Bookkeeping Tasks Subject: Chapter 14 Title: Administrative and Information Systems

17. Where are open medical records kept? A) In the medical records office B) In the DON’s office C) In the business office D) At the nursing station Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Medical Records Subject: Chapter 14 Title: Administrative and Information Systems

18. Which of the following is not one of the main purposes of medical records? A) To determine the amount of reimbursement B) To provide a defense in malpractice litigation C) To assist caregivers in coordinating services D) To demonstrate compliance with regulations Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Medical Records Subject: Chapter 14 Title: Administrative and Information Systems

19. Which of the following is governed by the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act? A) Legal content of medical records B) Care of Medicaid beneficiaries C) Compliance with federal regulations D) Privacy of medical information Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Medical Records Subject: Chapter 14

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 14 Title: Administrative and Information Systems

20. The administrator should review a resident’s medical records: A) on a routine basis. B) after the resident has been discharged. C) to assess the quality of care. D) when allegations about lapses of care are made. Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Medical Records Subject: Chapter 14 Title: Administrative and Information Systems

21. Electronic health records are used for A) conducting comprehensive assessments on residents. B) maintaining residents’ medical records. C) receiving reimbursement from third-party payers. D) transferring a resident from the hospital to a nursing care facility. Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Information Systems Subject: Chapter 14 Title: Administrative and Information Systems

22. Computer-based applications cannot be regarded as information unless they: A) are integrated. B) can produce usable information. C) improve the quality of services. D) can accurately record data. Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Information Systems Subject: Chapter 14 Title: Administrative and Information Systems

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 14 23. What is one of the main advantages of integrated information networks? A) They are more user-friendly than nonintegrated systems. B) They are more cost-effective than stand-alone systems. C) They provide increased security for data. D) Multiple users can access the same information. Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Information Systems Subject: Chapter 14 Title: Administrative and Information Systems

24. In the future, why would nursing homes need to be part of integrated information networks? A) Comparison of a facility’s operations with state and national benchmarks will become more common. B) The Affordable Care Act requires sharing of quality information with the public. C) The Affordable Care Act requires care coordination among various health care providers. D) Nursing facilities will need to maintain backup medical record systems. Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Information Systems Subject: Chapter 14 Title: Administrative and Information Systems

25. What is a local area network used for? A) It allows several users to access the same information. B) It is used for building an integrated system. C) It enables transfer of information from a hospital to the skilled nursing facility. D) It links together various health care providers. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Information Systems Subject: Chapter 14 Title: Administrative and Information Systems

True/False

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 14

1. True or false? Regulations require the handling of all accounting functions by associates employed by the facility. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: The Business Office Subject: Chapter 14 Title: Administrative and Information Systems

2. True or false? Centralization of accounting functions by multifacility chains at their corporate offices eliminates the need for having bookkeepers in the facility. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: The Business Office Subject: Chapter 14 Title: Administrative and Information Systems

3. True or false? Regulations do not mandate specific qualifications for the employees who staff the business office. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: The Business Office Subject: Chapter 14 Title: Administrative and Information Systems

4. True or false? The receptionist is generally not responsible for providing detailed information about the facility and its services to prospective clients. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: The Business Office Subject: Chapter 14 Title: Administrative and Information Systems

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 14

5. True or false? Most employees in a nursing facility are classified as nonexempt under FLSA. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Payroll and Compensation Subject: Chapter 14 Title: Administrative and Information Systems

6. True or false? Department heads in a nursing facility are automatically classified as exempt under FLSA. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Payroll and Compensation Subject: Chapter 14 Title: Administrative and Information Systems

7. True or false? To be classified in the “executive” category of FLSA, an employee may be paid less than $684 per week as long as he or she supervises two or more full-time staff. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Payroll and Compensation Subject: Chapter 14 Title: Administrative and Information Systems

8. True or false? A state can require employers to pay a higher wage than the federal minimum wage. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Payroll and Compensation Subject: Chapter 14 Title: Administrative and Information Systems

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 14 9. True or false? A workweek can begin on any day of the week. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Payroll and Compensation Subject: Chapter 14 Title: Administrative and Information Systems

10. True or false? Even when overtime is not authorized, it must be paid when an employee has incurred it. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Payroll and Compensation Subject: Chapter 14 Title: Administrative and Information Systems

11. True or false? FLSA requires additional compensation when an employee works weekends or an evening or night shift. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Payroll and Compensation Subject: Chapter 14 Title: Administrative and Information Systems

12. True or false? Vacation, holiday, and sick pay are not governed by FLSA. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Payroll and Compensation Subject: Chapter 14 Title: Administrative and Information Systems

13. True or false? Integral and indispensable tasks are noncompensable even though they may be done for the benefit of the employer.

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 14 Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Payroll and Compensation Subject: Chapter 14 Title: Administrative and Information Systems

14. True or false? As a general rule, a half-hour lunch break is not compensable. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Payroll and Compensation Subject: Chapter 14 Title: Administrative and Information Systems

15. True or false? Overtime is payable only when duly authorized by a supervisor. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Payroll and Compensation Subject: Chapter 14 Title: Administrative and Information Systems

16. True or false? Regulations require nursing homes to provide monthly accounting of resident funds. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Other Bookkeeping Tasks Subject: Chapter 14 Title: Administrative and Information Systems

17. True or false? The facility’s petty cash and the resident trust fund must not be comingled. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Other Bookkeeping Tasks Subject: Chapter 14

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 14 Title: Administrative and Information Systems

18. True or false? Regulations require nursing homes to employ only certified personnel to manage medical records. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Medical Records Subject: Chapter 14 Title: Administrative and Information Systems

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 15 Multiple Choice

1. Governance essentially means: A) stewardship of an organization’s resources. B) control of operations. C) benefiting the stakeholders. D) legal compliance Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Governance Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Effective Governance, Leadership, and Management

2. In the public sector, what is a board’s main focus? A) The facility’s tax-exempt status B) The facility’s charity mission C) Maximization of profits D) Selection of board members Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Governance Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Effective Governance, Leadership, and Management

3. Nonprofit organizations must include _____ to justify their ____. A) board members; public mission B) a charity function; tax exemption C) corporate compliance; charity mission D) a governing body; compliance with regulations Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Governance Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Effective Governance, Leadership, and Management

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 15 4. Which of the following is not a function of the governing board? A) To address staffing-related issues B) To ensure compliance with quality standards C) To establish broad policies for the facility D) To establish or review the mission and vision of the facility Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Governance Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Effective Governance, Leadership, and Management

5. Who is responsible for the day-to-day management of the nursing facility? A) Department managers B) Governing body C) Nursing home administrator D) The corporation Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Governance Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Effective Governance, Leadership, and Management

6. Which of the following is not a typical management function that the nursing home administrator performs? A) Human resource management B) Marketing and public relations C) Quality and productivity management D) Accounting Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Governance Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Effective Governance, Leadership, and Management

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 15 A) governing with integrity. B) corrective action. C) a focus on the main facility outputs. D) clarification of ethical standards. Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Corporate Compliance and Ethics Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Effective Governance, Leadership, and Management

8. In case of facility closure, the law requires a _____ advance written notice. A) 20-day B) 30-day C) 60-day D) 90-day Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Corporate Compliance and Ethics Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Effective Governance, Leadership, and Management

9. Who should oversee a nursing facility’s compliance and ethics program? A) The chief executive officer B) A designated officer C) The nursing home administrator D) An attorney Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Corporate Compliance and Ethics Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Effective Governance, Leadership, and Management

10. Establishing standards of behavior, lines of communication, and training are not sufficient to ensure that a compliance and ethics program is working. Which of the following is also essential? A) Review of procedures by an ethics consultant © 2022 Jones and Bartlett Learning, LLC

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 15 B) Hiring and termination procedures C) Internal review and audit D) Administration of the program by an attorney Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Corporate Compliance and Ethics Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Effective Governance, Leadership, and Management

11. Managing the business aspect includes all of the following, except: A) satisfying residents, families, and payers. B) adding value. C) the organization’s economic performance. D) connecting with the community. Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: The Effective Administrator Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Effective Governance, Leadership, and Management

12. All of the following are necessary for making work and workers productive, except: A) leadership. B) rewards. C) control. D) organizing. Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: The Effective Administrator Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Effective Governance, Leadership, and Management

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 15 Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Understanding Leadership Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Effective Governance, Leadership, and Management

14. All of the following are signs of good leadership, except: A) workers obey and acclaim. B) workers learn. C) workers serve. D) workers reach their potential. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Understanding Leadership Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Effective Governance, Leadership, and Management

15. Which of the following is not associated with Theory X leadership attitudes? A) Directive leadership B) Participative style C) Giving orders D) Task orientation Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Understanding Leadership Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Effective Governance, Leadership, and Management

16. Which leadership style is characterized by leaders who are hands-off and aloof? A) Directive leadership B) Delegating style C) Impoverished management style D) Country-club management style Ans: C Complexity: Easy © 2022 Jones and Bartlett Learning, LLC

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 15 Ahead: Understanding Leadership Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Effective Governance, Leadership, and Management

17. Which of the following leadership styles may be best suited for crisis management? A) Task management B) Team management C) Middle-of-the-road management D) Coaching style Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Understanding Leadership Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Effective Governance, Leadership, and Management

18. Which leadership style is concerned mainly with harmonious relationships and have little concern for accomplishing tasks? A) Supporting style B) Delegating style C) Impoverished management style D) Country-club management style Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Understanding Leadership Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Effective Governance, Leadership, and Management

19. Which leadership style, according to the Blake and Mouton’s managerial grid, may be effective in situations where a facility has highly skilled and self-directed department heads? A) Impoverished management style B) Country-club management style C) Team management style D) Supporting style Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Understanding Leadership © 2022 Jones and Bartlett Learning, LLC

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 15 Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Effective Governance, Leadership, and Management

20. According to the situational leadership model, which style of leadership will be most appropriate for subordinates who have low levels of development and commitment? A) Supporting style B) Directing style C) Coaching style D) Middle-of-the-road management Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: The Business Office Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Effective Governance, Leadership, and Management

21. In the situational leadership model, the delegating style is characterized as: A) high directive–low supportive. B) low directive–low supportive. C) high directive–high supportive. D) low directive–high supportive. Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Understanding Leadership Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Effective Governance, Leadership, and Management

22. The administrator of a skilled nursing facility has decided that hiring two medication aides could result in relieving some of the pressures that licensed nurses are facing due to shortages. The nursing home administrator is functioning in the role of a(n): A) resource allocator. B) leader. C) entrepreneur. D) negotiator. Ans: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Management Roles and Tasks © 2022 Jones and Bartlett Learning, LLC

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 15 Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Effective Governance, Leadership, and Management

23. In the role of a figurehead, the nursing home administrator may: A) establish relationships with the local hospital. B) discipline employees for violation of company rules. C) create new programs to generate additional revenues. D) recognize associates for their years of service. Ans: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Management Roles and Tasks Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Effective Governance, Leadership, and Management

24. Which management task is associated with establishing organizational objectives? A) Planning B) Organizing C) Leading D) Controlling Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Management Roles and Tasks Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Effective Governance, Leadership, and Management

25. Which of the following is an example of periodic planning? A) The NHA plans the agenda for the next department head meeting. B) The NHA makes the decision to operate a laundry in-house and terminate the contracted service. C) The NHA prepares the budget for the following year. D) The NHA approves purchase of a new bathing system provided overtime in the nursing department can be reduced. Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Management Roles and Tasks Subject: Chapter 15 © 2022 Jones and Bartlett Learning, LLC

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 15 Title: Effective Governance, Leadership, and Management

26. In the organizing task of management, line relationships refer to: A) advising. B) reporting to the administrator. C) obtaining approval from higher-ups. D) chain of command. Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Management Roles and Tasks Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Effective Governance, Leadership, and Management

27. What is meant by the term unity of command? A) A subordinate should report to only one supervisor. B) Nursing home policies should be applied uniformly. C) Approval should be obtained from higher-ups on major issues. D) A department manager has no authority over other departments. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Management Roles and Tasks Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Effective Governance, Leadership, and Management

28. Which of the following illustrates delegation of authority? A) Cross training B) Worker empowerment C) Bypassing the chain of command D) Making decisions Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Management Roles and Tasks Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Effective Governance, Leadership, and Management

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 15 29. In management, which of the following illustrates the controlling task? A) Controlling the associates B) Motivating the associates C) Evaluating results D) Specifying how results will be achieved Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Management Roles and Tasks Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Effective Governance, Leadership, and Management

30. In terms of focus, ____ is about the organization, whereas ____ is about key stakeholders. A) customer; community B) vision; mission C) mission; vision D) plan; control Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Tools for Effective Management Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Effective Governance, Leadership, and Management

31. The vision and mission articulate an organization’s: A) rules of conduct. B) guiding philosophy. C) main objectives. D) style of management. Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Tools for Effective Management Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Effective Governance, Leadership, and Management

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 15 B) values C) vision D) mission Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Tools for Effective Management Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Effective Governance, Leadership, and Management

33. Which of the following over time drives an organization’s culture? A) Mission B) Decisions C) Values D) Vision Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Tools for Effective Management Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Effective Governance, Leadership, and Management

34. Dissatisfaction and turnover can occur when there is a mismatch between the organization's and the NHA’s: A) values. B) roles. C) mission. D) vision. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Tools for Effective Management Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Effective Governance, Leadership, and Management

35. What is the purpose of a gap analysis in rational decision making? A) It helps define the objective to be achieved. B) It helps identify alternatives. C) It helps in the selection of the best alternative. © 2022 Jones and Bartlett Learning, LLC

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 15 D) It helps in implementing a decision. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Tools for Effective Management Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Effective Governance, Leadership, and Management

36. Which of the following are the critical decision-making elements in the rational decision making/problem solving model? A) Gap analysis and assessment of outcomes B) Allocation of resources and assessment of obstacles C) Objective setting and selection of the best alternative D) Monitoring progress and assessment of deviations Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Tools for Effective Management Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Effective Governance, Leadership, and Management

37. Which of the following describes the control function in the rational decision making/problem solving model? A) Gap analysis and assessment of outcomes B) Allocation of resources and assessment of obstacles C) Objective setting and selection of the best alternative D) Monitoring progress and assessment of deviations Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Tools for Effective Management Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Effective Governance, Leadership, and Management

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 15 Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Tools for Effective Management Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Effective Governance, Leadership, and Management

39. What is generally the first step in resolving a conflict? A) Assessing its dysfunctional effects B) Listening C) Mediating D) Capitulation Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Tools for Effective Management Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Effective Governance, Leadership, and Management

40. In conflict resolution, capitulation may make sense when: A) a win-win resolution is desirable. B) adversarial relationships need to be managed. C) the other side is right. D) further exploration and understanding are desirable. Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Tools for Effective Management Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Effective Governance, Leadership, and Management

41. In constructive confrontation, A) a compromise is pursued. B) one should give in to the other party when that party is right. C) individuals who have adversarial relationships are separated from each other. D) each party explores and tries to understand the other party’s feelings and perceptions. Ans: D Complexity: Easy © 2022 Jones and Bartlett Learning, LLC

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 15 Ahead: Tools for Effective Management Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Effective Governance, Leadership, and Management

42. One critical step that can lead to a better relationship between a boss and subordinate is to: A) understand mutual expectations. B) be submissive. C) have frequent face-to-face meetings. D) socialize often. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Tools for Effective Management Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Effective Governance, Leadership, and Management

43. Effective risk management involves all of the following in relation to risks, except: A) complying. B) identifying. C) analyzing. D) preventing. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Tools for Effective Management Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Effective Governance, Leadership, and Management

True/False

1. True or false? The nursing home administrator should not be a member of the governing body. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Governance Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Effective Governance, Leadership, and Management © 2022 Jones and Bartlett Learning, LLC

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 15

2. True or false? In private corporations, some of the corporate officers are members of the governing board. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Governance Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Effective Governance, Leadership, and Management

3. True or false? The nursing home administrator is appointed and can be removed by the board. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Governance Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Effective Governance, Leadership, and Management

4. True or false? The Affordable Care Act requires certified facilities to institute effective compliance and ethics programs. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Corporate Compliance and Ethics Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Effective Governance, Leadership, and Management

5. True or false? In effective management, managing the business aspect applies only to forprofit organizations Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: The Effective Administrator Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Effective Governance, Leadership, and Management

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 15 6. True or false? Leaders who espouse Theory X attitudes are more likely to delegate decisionmaking to subordinates. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Understanding Leadership Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Effective Governance, Leadership, and Management

7. True or false? Theory Y attitudes presume that workers want to help achieve organizational goals. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Understanding Leadership Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Effective Governance, Leadership, and Management

8. True or false? A leader’s orientation cannot be toward both tasks and people. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Understanding Leadership Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Effective Governance, Leadership, and Management

9. True or false? Better organizational performance is achieved when NHAs lean more toward task orientation than relationship orientation. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Management Roles and Tasks Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Effective Governance, Leadership, and Management

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 15 10. True or false? In the liaison role, the administrator is primarily responsible for gathering information from external sources. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Management Roles and Tasks Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Effective Governance, Leadership, and Management

11. True or false? In the spokesperson role, the NHA engages in mainly symbolic and ceremonial roles. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Management Roles and Tasks Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Effective Governance, Leadership, and Management

12. True or false? In management terms, there is staff relationship between the DON and the medical director. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Management Roles and Tasks Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Effective Governance, Leadership, and Management

13. True or false? Strategic plans are long-range plans. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Management Roles and Tasks Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Effective Governance, Leadership, and Management

14. True or false? An organization’s mission defines its basic purpose and distinct competencies.

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 15 Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Tools for Effective Management Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Effective Governance, Leadership, and Management

15. True or false? Decision making can be tainted by personal biases. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Tools for Effective Management Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Effective Governance, Leadership, and Management

16. True or false? Decision making is driven by factual analysis rather than intuitive judgments. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Tools for Effective Management Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Effective Governance, Leadership, and Management

17. True or false? Announcement of some change that may have a significant effect on others is better handled in a meeting than through written communication. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Tools for Effective Management Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Effective Governance, Leadership, and Management

18. True or false? Too little conflict in an organization can lead to unhealthy conformance, poor decision making, and stagnation. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Tools for Effective Management © 2022 Jones and Bartlett Learning, LLC

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 15 Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Effective Governance, Leadership, and Management

19. True or false? In the boss–subordinate relationship, the subordinate depends on the boss. The boss does not depend on the subordinate. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: The Business Office Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Effective Governance, Leadership, and Management

20. True or false? In boss–subordinate relationships, the NHA should consider himself or herself as self- sufficient as possible. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Tools for Effective Management Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Effective Governance, Leadership, and Management

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 16 Multiple Choice

1. What is the primary goal of human resource management in nursing facilities? A) To ensure staff satisfaction B) To reduce absenteeism and turnover C) To motivate the staff D) To maintain desired staffing levels Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Goals, Main Functions, and Challenges Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

2. Staff satisfaction and retention are associated with: A) positive interactions with clients. B) employee motivation. C) adequate staffing levels. D) resident outcomes and satisfaction. Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Goals, Main Functions, and Challenges Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

3. Increasing social service and activities staff has been shown to improve A) resident care outcomes. B) a facility’s occupancy rate. C) delivery of person-centered care. D) residents’ quality of life Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Human Resource Planning Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 16 4. According to staffing levels in nursing for short-stay and long-stay residents, as recommended by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid services: A) the threshold levels of staffing represent minimum staffing levels. B) quality of care is improved by staffing above the threshold levels. C) the threshold levels of staffing represent optimum staffing levels. D) the recommendations do not affect the quality of care. Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Human Resource Planning Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

5. What is meant by skill mix? A) Training needs of different staff B) Ratio of a particular skill type to the total staff C) Time spent in resident care, clinical support, and documentation D) Clinical acuity of residents Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Human Resource Planning Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

6. Twenty-four percent of a facility’s total nursing staff consists of RNs and LPNs. This is an example of: A) skill mix. B) volume factor. C) weighting factor. D) distribution of staff among the three shifts. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Human Resource Planning Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 16 7. According to research, quality measures are often improved by: A) adding more staff. B) better human resource planning. C) increasing the number of RNs. D) lowering clinical acuity of residents. Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Human Resource Planning Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

8. Additional staff should be scheduled: A) to allow for holidays and vacations. B) to compensate for absenteeism and turnover. C) to improve quality of care. D) for adequate distribution of hours among the three shifts. Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Human Resource Planning Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

9. Which of the following cannot be verified through a nurse aide registry? A) Certification status B) States in which the CNA has been employed C) Whether the CNA has been involved in resident abuse or neglect D) Whether the CNA has been involved in misappropriation of a resident’s property Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Staff Licensure, Certification, and Registration Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

10. Noncertified nurse aides employed in permanent positions have a ____ window during which they must receive the required training and certification. A) 1-month © 2022 Jones and Bartlett Learning, LLC

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 16 B) 3-month C) 4-month D) 6-month Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Staff Licensure, Certification, and Registration Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

11. Which agency maintains records on a CNA’s alleged involvement in resident abuse? A) State licensing bureau B) American Red Cross C) Local police department D) Nurse aide registry Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Staff Licensure, Certification, and Registration Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

12. Which of the following has the biggest impact on quality of care? A) Staffing levels B) Skill mix C) Staff turnover D) Absenteeism Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Managing Absenteeism and Turnover Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 16 D) inadequate pay and benefits. Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Managing Absenteeism and Turnover Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

14. Which of the following is not true with regard to presenteeism? A) Frequent presenteeism may lead to long-term absenteeism. B) It has a greater impact on quality of care than absenteeism. C) Some employees come to work despite illness. D) It improves productivity. Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Managing Absenteeism and Turnover Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

15. According to research, which of the following two factors are strong predictors of actual future turnover? A) Apathy; low morale B) Low pay; inadequate supervision C) Job commitment; intent to stay D) Leadership; social support Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Managing Absenteeism and Turnover Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

16. Calculation of the functional turnover rate is based on: A) separated employees who are not eligible for rehire. B) number of positions for which replacements have been found. C) number of positions that have remained unfilled. D) separated employees who are eligible for rehire.

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 16 Ans: A

17. Calculation of the dysfunctional turnover rate is based on: A) separated employees who are not eligible for rehire. B) number of positions for which replacements have been found. C) number of positions that have remained unfilled. D) separated employees who are eligible for rehire. Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Managing Absenteeism and Turnover Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

18. Much of the staff turnover in nursing homes occurs within the first ____ days of employment. A) 30 B) 60 C) 90 D) 120 Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Managing Absenteeism and Turnover Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

19. To help overcome the feeling of abandonment among new employees, nursing facilities should: A) provide close supervision. B) institute a peer mentoring program. C) give new employees more decision-making authority. D) have supervisors frequently ask the employee how he or she is doing. Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Managing Absenteeism and Turnover Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management © 2022 Jones and Bartlett Learning, LLC

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 16

20. According to research, what is the minimum hours of training recommended for CNAs? A) 40 to 50 hours B) 70 to 80 hours C) 90 to 100 hours D) 100 to 120 hours Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Managing Absenteeism and Turnover Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

21. According to research findings, CNAs are least satisfied with: A) compensation. B) working conditions. C) training. D) coworkers. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Managing Absenteeism and Turnover Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

22. The performance appraisal process should focus mainly on: A) pay and rewards. B) staff development. C) sanctions for nonperformance. D) need for improved supervision. Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Performance Appraisal Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 16 23. In management by objectives, who is responsible for job performance? A) The employee B) The supervisor C) The employee and the supervisor D) The nursing home administrator Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Performance Appraisal Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

24. Which of the following is a true statement? A) Staff development should incorporate performance improvement based on competition among staff. B) Staff development should help associates become responsible citizens of society. C) Individual work quotas promote employee-supervisor teamwork. D) CNAs derive satisfaction from the work they do; they do not derive satisfaction from compensation. Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Staff Development Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

25. Self-managed work teams equate with: A) challenging goals. B) staff development. C) greater communication between supervisors and workers. D) staff empowerment. Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Self-Managed Work Teams Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 16 A) Counseling B) Empowerment C) Disciplining D) Warning Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Counseling, Disciplining, and Terminating Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

27. Which of the following correctly identifies the difference between counseling and disciplining? A) Counseling is supportive; disciplining is punitive. B) Counseling incorporates development, disciplining does not. C) At the counseling stage the associate is salvageable; at the disciplining stage the associate is not salvageable. D) Counseling is informal; disciplining is formal. Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Counseling, Disciplining, and Terminating Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

28. What should be the primary guiding principle in disciplining? A) Warning B) Leniency C) Fairness D) Firmness Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Counseling, Disciplining, and Terminating Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 16 B) promotes substandard quality throughout the organization. C) implies that behaviors and work performance have been acceptable. D) is viewed as complimentary. Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Counseling, Disciplining, and Terminating Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

30. A positive approach to disciplining emphasizes: A) relationship building. B) punishment. C) training. D) correction. Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Counseling, Disciplining, and Terminating Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

31. In positive disciplining, the responsibility for correcting a problem is placed on the: A) associate. B) organization. C) supervisor. D) administrator. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Counseling, Disciplining, and Terminating Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

32. Disagreements between an associate and his or her supervisor in disciplinary matters should be resolved through: A) corporate compliance protocols. B) arbitration. C) joint problem solving. © 2022 Jones and Bartlett Learning, LLC

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 16 D) an appeals system. Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Counseling, Disciplining, and Terminating Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

33. The recommended procedure for terminating an associate for a serious offense is to: A) give the associate a leave of absence. B) fire the associate on the spot. C) place the associate on suspension pending an investigation. D) involve local law enforcement. Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Counseling, Disciplining, and Terminating Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

34. What is a bargaining unit? A) A unit established by the NLRB to conduct union elections B) Management and union representatives who have a legitimate right to negotiate C) Branch of a union that can legitimately represent employees in an organization D) Categories of employees that a union can legitimately represent Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Labor Relations and Unionization Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

35. Why do employees generally decide to join unions? A) Because of dissatisfaction with employment conditions B) Because of a need for higher pay C) Because some member of their family has union membership D) Because unions are in the best position to alleviate work-related problems Ans: A © 2022 Jones and Bartlett Learning, LLC

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 16 Complexity: Easy Ahead: Labor Relations and Unionization Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

36. For the NLRB to hold a union election, at least ____ of employees in the bargaining unit must sign authorization cards. A) 20% B) 30% C) 50% D) 60% Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Labor Relations and Unionization Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

37. During a unionization campaign, it is illegal for managers to tell associates which of the following? A) Associates may have to strike even when they do not want to. B) Associates are earning good wages at present, but they will go down if they become negotiable. C) The union is an outsider, not really attuned to associates’ best interests. D) Union dues and other costs outweigh the benefits of belonging to a union. Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Labor Relations and Unionization Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

38. Which of the following management actions could amount to an unfair labor practice during a unionization campaign? A) An associate tells her supervisor what happened at the union meeting the previous night. The supervisor simply listens. B) In a staff meeting, the NHA tells the associates, “The union can make promises, but it cannot guarantee that the promises will be fulfilled.”

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 16 C) The NHA tells some of the associates, “I think the owners will close the facility if the union is voted in.” D) The DON tells her staff, “We believe in open communication in this facility and do not believe that the union will represent your best interests.” Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Labor Relations and Unionization Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

39. In the context of collective bargaining, what is meant by bargaining in good faith? A) An agreement must be reached as a result of negotiations. B) Management must address grievances raised by the union. C) Any agreements reached must be ratified by the bargaining unit. D) Union and management must engage in a genuine process to reach an agreement. Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Labor Relations and Unionization Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

40. In a unionized facility, an employee’s grievance is first brought before: A) a neutral third party. B) the union steward. C) the employee’s supervisor. D) the administrator. Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Labor Relations and Unionization Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 16 C) 10 days D) 14 days Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Labor Relations and Unionization Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

42. With regard to strikes and picketing, which of the following is not true? A) Supervisors may not enter the facility to deliver resident care. B) Reinstatement of workers is not automatic after the strike is over. C) Picketers may not prevent nonstriking workers from entering the facility. D) Management can hire replacement workers during an economic strike. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Labor Relations and Unionization Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

43. What is the general theory behind employment laws? A) Everyone has the right to work. B) Personal characteristics can play an important role in employment practices. C) Good faith and fair treatment must guide employment practices. D) Employment practices should be based on job-related criteria. Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Employment Laws Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 16 Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Employment Laws Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

45. According to the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990, the employer must make reasonable accommodation so that a disabled employee is able to: A) perform the functions outlined in the job description. B) perform the job’s essential functions. C) use the facilities necessary for daily life activities. D) alter his or her schedule to accommodate medical needs. Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Employment Laws Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

46. Who is protected under the Age Discrimination in Employment Act? A) Anyone over the age of 18 B) Anyone over the age of 21 C) Anyone over the age of 40 D) Anyone over the age of 50 Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Employment Laws Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

47. A current drug abuser with a nursing degree is undergoing rehabilitation and applies for a job opening in a privately owned nursing facility. Which of the following statements is true? A) The director of nursing has the right to send this person for a drug screening test before offering the job. B) The director of nursing has the right to send this person to the facility’s medical director for a complete medical exam. C) This person cannot be hired under any circumstances. © 2022 Jones and Bartlett Learning, LLC

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 16 D) This person cannot be denied employment according to the ADA. Ans: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Employment Laws Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

48. A current alcohol abuser applies for a job as a cook in a nursing facility. Which of the following is not true? A) This person cannot be denied employment if he or she can perform the job of a cook. B) The dietary manager must make reasonable accommodation that may include time off to seek treatment for alcohol dependency. C) The dietary manager can be particularly vigilant regarding any alcohol use while on the job. D) The dietary manager cannot require this person to undergo random alcohol testing. Ans: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Employment Laws Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

49. According to the Family and Medical Leave Act, eligible employees can take up to ____ weeks of ____ job-protected leave for sickness or family-care related events. A) 4; unpaid B) 8; paid C) 12; unpaid D) 12; paid Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Employment Laws Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 16 D) misbehavior by managers. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Employment Laws Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

True/False

1. True or false? In most nursing facilities the nursing home administrator assumes human resource responsibilities. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Human Resource Management Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

2. True or false? To recruit workers, nursing homes often compete against businesses, such as fast-food restaurants. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Goals, Main Functions, and Challenges Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

3. True or false? For adequate staffing on the day shift, a ratio of 8 residents per CNA is recommended. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Human Resource Planning Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 16

4. True or false? For effective human resource planning, scheduling must precede the determination of staffing patterns. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Human Resource Planning Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

5. True or false? A noncertified nurse aide cannot legally be given employment by a nursing home. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Staff Licensure, Certification, and Registration Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

6. True or false? Increased staff retention translates into lower rates of turnover. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Managing Absenteeism and Turnover Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

7. True or false? Direct costs associated with turnover are estimated to be two to three times the monthly salary of the departing employee. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Managing Absenteeism and Turnover Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 16 8. True or false? One main reason for staff turnover in nursing homes is that people who apply for jobs have little desire to help the elderly. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Managing Absenteeism and Turnover Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

9. True or false? Nurse aide certification training is specifically designed to prepare CNAs to handle stressful situations with residents. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Managing Absenteeism and Turnover Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

10. True or false? Compensation is likely a factor that CNAs are least satisfied with. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Managing Absenteeism and Turnover Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

11. True or false? Training based strictly on federal guidelines results in inadequate training for CNAs. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Staff Development Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 16 Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Performance Appraisal Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

13. True or false? In the management by objectives approach, all associates are put through a standardized training program. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Performance Appraisal Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

14. True or false? Self-managed work teams do their own scheduling, planning, and performance monitoring. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Self-Managed Work Teams Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

15. True or false? Disciplining should take into account the associate’s past work record. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Counseling, Disciplining, and Terminating Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 16 Ahead: Counseling, Disciplining, and Terminating Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

17. True or false? Terminating an associate on the spot is never a good idea, regardless of how serious the offense is. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Counseling, Disciplining, and Terminating Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

18. True or false? Employees of nonprofit health care organizations cannot unionize. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Labor Relations and Unionization Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

19. True or false? Signing a union authorization card during a union organizing campaign does not necessarily indicate that the employee wishes to join the union. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Labor Relations and Unionization Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

20. True or false? During a unionization campaign, it is legal for managers to express their personal opinions on unions to the associates. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Labor Relations and Unionization Subject: Chapter 16 © 2022 Jones and Bartlett Learning, LLC

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

21. True or false? During a unionization campaign, the union can make promises, but management cannot. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Labor Relations and Unionization Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

22. True or false? During a unionization campaign, employees have the right to engage in union solicitation in a break room during break or lunch time. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Labor Relations and Unionization Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

23. True or false? During a unionization campaign, management can prohibit associates from discussing the union on the nursing home premises. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Labor Relations and Unionization Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

24. True or false? All work-related grievances are brought before the NLRB for resolution. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Labor Relations and Unionization Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 16

25. True or false? Striking employees have the right to return to work after the strike is over. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Labor Relations and Unionization Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

26. True or false? According to employment laws, pregnancy is a disability. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Employment Laws Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

27. True or false? People under the age of 40 are not protected against discrimination on the basis of age. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Employment Laws Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

28. True or false? Under certain conditions, both current and past alcoholics are protected under the ADA. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Employment Laws Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 16 Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Employment Laws Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

30. True or false? The law requires that a person on leave under the Family and Medical Leave Act be allowed to return to the original or equivalent position with same pay and benefits. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Employment Laws Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Effective Human Resource Management

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 17 Multiple Choice

1. Marketing is not a(n): A) strategic undertaking. B) process that requires planning. C) ongoing effort. D) quick fix. Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Introduction Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Effective Marketing Management

2. What is the main goal of marketing? A) To create exchanges B) To fill beds C) To launch an advertising campaign D) To sell the facility’s services Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Marketing: A Value-Driven Process Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Effective Marketing Management

3. In a marketing exchange, each party delivers and receives: A) services. B) consideration. C) price. D) value. Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Marketing: A Value-Driven Process Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Effective Marketing Management

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 17 4. In what way can a skilled nursing facility create value for a hospital in the context of the Medicare’s value-based payment model? A) By establishing an exchange relationship with the hospital B) By facilitating admissions from the hospital C) By coordinating discharges to the hospital when a resident needs to be hospitalized D) By minimizing readmissions back to the hospital Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Marketing: A Value-Driven Process Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Effective Marketing Management

5. Which of the following can be used to change customers’ perceptions of value? A) Exchange B) Information C) Manipulation D) Innovation Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Marketing: A Value-Driven Process Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Effective Marketing Management

6. First and foremost, marketing includes all activities that are necessary for: A) identifying the target market. B) reaching the mass market. C) understanding customer wants and needs. D) achieving a variety of goals. Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: The Marketing Function and Its Goals Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Effective Marketing Management

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 17 A) build a customer base. B) elicit desired responses to some object. C) meet customer wants and needs. D) achieve a variety of organizational goals. Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: The Marketing Function and Its Goals Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Effective Marketing Management

8. What does market segmentation do? A) It divides the market into homogeneous segments. B) It measures the size of the market. C) It attracts potential customers. D) It measures the impact of marketing effort. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Marketing Strategy Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Effective Marketing Management

9. A nursing home administrator who has decided to specialize in Alzheimer’s care has: A) staked a position in the market. B) deployed the marketing mix. C) segmented the market. D) differentiated the market. Ans: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Marketing Strategy Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Effective Marketing Management

10. Why should a nursing home administrator focus on well-defined market segments? A) It compels the NHA to improve quality. B) It enables the NHA to better understand the needs and desires of customers. C) It positions the facility in the target market. © 2022 Jones and Bartlett Learning, LLC

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 17 D) It enables the NHA to differentiate between desirable and undesirable customers. Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Marketing Strategy Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Effective Marketing Management

11. In developing a marketing strategy, which step follows segmentation? A) Market targeting B) Positioning C) Developing a marketing mix D) Differentiation Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Introduction Ahead: Marketing Strategy Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Effective Marketing Management

12. The nursing home market should first be segmented by A) location. B) clinical needs. C) client preferences. D) demographics, Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Marketing Strategy Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Effective Marketing Management

13. After a market has been segmented according to demographics, which criterion should be used next for further segmentation? A) Clinical needs of potential clients B) Location of potential clients C) Preferences of potential clients D) Pay source of potential clients

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 17 Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Marketing Strategy Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Effective Marketing Management

14. Which of the following is not a criterion for evaluating market segments? A) Sizable B) Accessible C) Measurable D) Preferable Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Marketing Strategy Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Effective Marketing Management

15. Accessibility of a market segment is governed by: A) the facility’s location. B) client needs and preferences. C) heterogeneity of the market. D) the segment’s size. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Marketing Strategy Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Effective Marketing Management

16. A single-offer, mass market strategy ignores: A) market demand. B) market specialization. C) market segmentation. D) market competition. Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Marketing Strategy © 2022 Jones and Bartlett Learning, LLC

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 17 Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Effective Marketing Management

17. If size of different market segments is too small, which strategy should be pursued? A) Diversification B) Single-offer, mass-market coverage C) Differentiation D) Single-segment concentration Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Marketing Strategy Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Effective Marketing Management

18. Which strategy is being pursued when an entrepreneur decides to open a specialized rehabilitation facility? A) Single-segment concentration B) Single-offer, mass-market coverage C) Unique value creation D) Selective specialization Ans: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Marketing Strategy Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Effective Marketing Management

19. Selective specialization is a ____ strategy. A) demand-stimulating B) market research C) targeting D) positioning Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Marketing Strategy Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Effective Marketing Management © 2022 Jones and Bartlett Learning, LLC

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 17

20. Which of the following strategies involves specialized offerings tailored for different segments? A) Single-segment concentration B) Single-offer, mass-market coverage C) Unique value creation D) Selective specialization Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Marketing Strategy Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Effective Marketing Management

21. A nursing facility has three specialized sections: ventilator care, short-term rehabilitation, and a private-pay unit. Which strategy is it pursuing? A) Single-segment concentration B) Single-offer, mass-market coverage C) Unique value creation D) Selective specialization Ans: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Introduction Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Effective Marketing Management

22. From a marketing standpoint, a nursing facility’s position A) depends on specialization. B) is something people perceive. C) cannot be evaluated. D) is semantically differentiated. Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Marketing Strategy Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Effective Marketing Management

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 17

23. Asking the question, “How favorably do people feel toward the facility?” is useful in understanding: A) the organization’s position. B) the organization’s preferred market segment. C) which market target to pursue. D) which services to specialize in. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Marketing Strategy Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Effective Marketing Management

24. The technique of semantic differential is used to: A) determine whether a particular segment should be selected as a target market. B) understand why a facility has a certain image. C) communicate a nursing facility’s image and value offer to potential customers. D) conduct research on why certain facilities are more successful than others. Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Marketing Strategy Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Effective Marketing Management

25. To reposition the facility, the NHA must: A) start a new service based on a demand analysis. B) find a service niche. C) communicate the facility’s competitive advantages. D) redesigned the facility’s website. Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Marketing Strategy Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Effective Marketing Management

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 17 26. Which of the following is not a component of the marketing mix? A) Place B) People C) Product D) Price Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Implementing the Marketing Mix Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Effective Marketing Management

27. The long-term care product is a package of services that are mostly: A) distinguishable. B) marketable. C) intangible. D) perceivable. Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Implementing the Marketing Mix Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Effective Marketing Management

28. ____ often make(s) pricing inconsequential as a nursing home marketing strategy. A) Third-party financing B) The high cost of long-term care C) Deductibles and copayments D) The high proportion of private-pay residents Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Implementing the Marketing Mix Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Effective Marketing Management

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 17 C) psychological cost D) direct cost Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Implementing the Marketing Mix Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Effective Marketing Management

30. When a nursing home administrator decides to start a home health care service out of the nursing facility, the NHA is using a different ____ to create an exchange between the organization and clients. A) pricing approach B) mass-marketing approach C) promotion D) channel of distribution Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Implementing the Marketing Mix Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Effective Marketing Management

31. What is the main characteristic of undifferentiated marketing? A) Marketing costs are high. B) Competition is intense. C) Market segmentation is ignored. D) The nursing home has a poor image. Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Competitive Differentiation Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Effective Marketing Management

32. A nursing home administrator decides to remodel the facility to add household-style kitchens for family-style dining. From a marketing perspective, what has the NHA decided to do? A) Create a market niche B) Differentiate the product © 2022 Jones and Bartlett Learning, LLC

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 17 C) Reposition the facility D) Improve the facility’s image Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Competitive Differentiation Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Effective Marketing Management

33. A nursing facility that specializes in head trauma care that competitors do not offer has: A) created a service niche. B) created greater value than the competitors. C) differentiated its main service. D) positioned itself in a competitive market. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Competitive Differentiation Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Effective Marketing Management

34. In nursing home marketing, the preadmission inquiry process requires skills in: A) customer relations. B) public relations. C) social counseling. D) personal selling. Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Personal Selling Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Effective Marketing Management

35. At the conclusion of the preadmission inquiry process, a statement such as, “We would be delighted to serve Mrs. Jacob’s needs through our excellent staff; when can I call you back?” is referred to as: A) individualizing the process. B) personal selling. C) closing the sale. © 2022 Jones and Bartlett Learning, LLC

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 17 D) an unobtrusive offer. Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Personal Selling Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Effective Marketing Management

36. According to Kotler and Clarke, the 5th P of marketing is the facility’s: A) admission processes. B) publicity efforts. C) programs. D) personnel. Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Customer Relations Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Effective Marketing Management

37. What is the main objective of promotion and public relations? A) Positioning the facility B) Finding the right niche for the facility C) Attracting clients D) Differentiating the facility Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Promotion and Public Relations Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Effective Marketing Management

38. Which of the following correctly points out the difference between promotion and public relations? A) Promotion is used to educate the community; public relations is used to position the facility. B) Promotion involves paid communication; public relations involves nonpaid activities. C) Promotion is part of advertising; public relations is part of sales. D) Promotion is targeted at would-be customers; public relations is directed at key stakeholders and the community. © 2022 Jones and Bartlett Learning, LLC

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 17 Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Promotion and Public Relations Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Effective Marketing Management

39. For what purpose is the AIDA framework used? A) To compose an advertising message B) To compose the facility’s positioning statement C) To develop publicity materials D) To close a sale Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Promotion and Public Relations Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Effective Marketing Management

40. The D in the AIDA framework stands for: A) doubt. B) desire. C) demand. D) differentiate. Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Promotion and Public Relations Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Effective Marketing Management

41. _______ refers to nonpaid communication of information about the facility. A) The selling line B) Promotion C) Publicity D) Public relations Ans: C Complexity: Easy © 2022 Jones and Bartlett Learning, LLC

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 17 Ahead: Promotion and Public Relations Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Effective Marketing Management

42. The facility’s website should be designed so that it: A) also appears on third-party websites. B) prompts visitors to take some action. C) replaces the facility’s colored brochure. D) has a strong search engine optimization. Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Promotion and Public Relations Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Effective Marketing Management

43. _______ are professionals in the community who are in a position to influence prospective clients about choosing a facility. A) Opinion leaders B) Referral agents C) Exchange partners D) Personal contacts Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Promotion and Public Relations Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Effective Marketing Management

44. Promotional materials should be developed and used to: A) accomplish positioning goals. B) differentiate the facility’s services. C) create a high-end image. D) carry out an advertising campaign. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Promotion and Public Relations Subject: Chapter 17 © 2022 Jones and Bartlett Learning, LLC

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 17 Title: Effective Marketing Management

45. A facility organizes an annual reception for the local physicians. This is an example of a(n) A) promotional opportunity. B) news event. C) human interest story. D) event promotion. Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Promotion and Public Relations Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Effective Marketing Management

True/False

1. True or false? Majaro emphasized customer orientation as an organizational value above profit orientation. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: The Marketing Function and Its Goals Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Effective Marketing Management

2. True or false? In effective marketing, a large market should be divided into smaller, heterogeneous segments. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Marketing Strategy Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Effective Marketing Management

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 17 Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Marketing Strategy Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Effective Marketing Management

4. True or false? Choice of market segments should be driven by what the facility thinks it would like to have as its target market. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Marketing Strategy Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Effective Marketing Management

5. True or false? A facility’s choice of target market may be limited by the facility’s location. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Marketing Strategy Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Effective Marketing Management

6. True or false? A facility that follows the single-offer, mass market approach tries to attract anyone in order to increase the occupancy. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Marketing Strategy Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Effective Marketing Management

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 17 Complexity: Easy Ahead: Marketing Strategy Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Effective Marketing Management

8. True or false? A statement of position specifies how the facility should be repositioned. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Marketing Strategy Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Effective Marketing Management

9. True or false? For the most part, the nursing home administrator has little control over pricing. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Implementing the Marketing Mix Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Effective Marketing Management

10. True or false? Pricing is often inconsequential because of third-party payments. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Implementing the Marketing Mix Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Effective Marketing Management

11. True or false? High prices are sometimes used to create a top-of-the-line image in private-pay markets. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Implementing the Marketing Mix Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Effective Marketing Management © 2022 Jones and Bartlett Learning, LLC

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 17

12. True or false? The embarrassment of placing a loved one in a facility that has a poor reputation is often an opportunity cost the clients bear. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Implementing the Marketing Mix Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Effective Marketing Management

13. True or false? The current trend is to locate newer nursing facilities near hospitals. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Implementing the Marketing Mix Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Effective Marketing Management

14. True or false? The “me-too” syndrome is the result of differentiation. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Competitive Differentiation Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Effective Marketing Management

15. True or false? Every product or service can be differentiated. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Competitive Differentiation Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Effective Marketing Management

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 17 Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Competitive Differentiation Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Effective Marketing Management

17. True or false? Mass marketing is undifferentiated. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Competitive Differentiation Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Effective Marketing Management

18. True or false? Publicity is a nonpaid form of communication used to promote the facility. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Promotion and Public Relations Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Effective Marketing Management

19. True or false? Generally, social media platforms are not effective as a promotional tool for nursing homes. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Promotion and Public Relations Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Effective Marketing Management

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 18 Multiple Choice

1. Financial planning is also called: A) financial accounting. B) resource allocation. C) budgeting. D) managerial accounting. Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Introduction Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Effective Financial Management

2. Which of the following is not a financial statement that summarizes financial transactions? A) Collection statement B) Income statement C) Balance sheet D) Cash flow statement Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Accounting and Financial Statements Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Effective Financial Management

3. Which of the following is referred to as a profit and loss statement? A) Budget B) Balance sheet C) Cash flow statement D) Income statement Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Accounting and Financial Statements Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Effective Financial Management

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 18 4. Which of the following furnishes a summary of revenues, expenses, and profitability? A) Income statement B) Management reports C) Balance sheet D) Cash flow statement Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Accounting and Financial Statements Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Effective Financial Management

5. For a nonprofit nursing facility: A) liabilities equal assets. B) income equals expenses. C) expenses equal equity. D) operating income equals net income. Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Accounting and Financial Statements Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Effective Financial Management

6. The income statement provides valuable information on: A) the organization’s resources. B) the organization’s profitability. C) the financial value of everything the organization owns. D) how much cash the organization has. Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Accounting and Financial Statements Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Effective Financial Management

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 18 A) Salaries B) Liabilities C) Income taxes D) Equity Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Accounting and Financial Statements Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Effective Financial Management

8. An organization’s debts and obligations are its: A) equity. B) liabilities. C) assets. D) expenses. Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Accounting and Financial Statements Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Effective Financial Management

9. According to the fundamental accounting equation: A) assets = liabilities. B) operating income = revenues – expenses. C) assets = liabilities + equity. D) liabilities = assets + equity. Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Accounting and Financial Statements Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Effective Financial Management

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 18 D) stockholders’ equity. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Accounting and Financial Statements Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Effective Financial Management

11. What is a variance? A) The difference between revenues and expenses B) The difference between revenues and cash collected C) The difference between current and previous year’s figures D) The difference between actual and budgeted figures Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: The Technique of Variance Analysis Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Effective Financial Management

12. _______ is a cumulative census over a specified period. A) Days of care B) Beds occupied C) Census mix D) Average daily census Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Managing Revenues Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Effective Financial Management

13. In addition to achieving expected census targets, it is important to achieve the right ____ for meeting the revenue objectives. A) days of care B) reimbursement C) payer mix D) average daily census

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 18 Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Managing Revenues Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Effective Financial Management

14. Why should a census range be used for controlling costs? A) Costs do not vary according to census. B) It is impossible to exactly predict the census. C) Costs should be matched to exact census. D) Many costs are variable, not fixed. Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Controlling Costs Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Effective Financial Management

15. Which of the following is a fixed cost? A) Cost of raw food B) Rent or lease costs for the building C) Nursing supplies D) All of these are fixed costs. Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Controlling Costs Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Effective Financial Management

16. If the PRD (or PPD) food cost is $6, what will be the daily cost for a census of 120? A) $20 B) $200 C) $720 D) $360 Ans: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Controlling Costs © 2022 Jones and Bartlett Publishers, LLC

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 18 Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Effective Financial Management

17. Which of the following is generally a semi-variable cost? A) Administrative costs B) Rent or lease costs for the building C) Nursing supplies D) Paraprofessional labor hours Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Controlling Costs Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Effective Financial Management

18. The following data pertain to a facility’s dietary department: Resident days budgeted: 3,240 Resident days actual: 3,160 Labor hours budget: 2,330 Assuming this is a variable cost, how would you calculate the flexible budget for labor hours? A) (3,240 ÷ 2,330) ´ 3,160 B) (2,330 ÷ 3,240) ´ 3,160 C) (3,160 ´ 2,330) ÷ 3,240 D) (2,330 ÷ 3,160) ´ 3,240 Ans: B Complexity: Difficult Ahead: Controlling Costs Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Effective Financial Management

19. The following data pertain to a facility’s dietary department: Resident days budgeted: 3,240 Resident days actual: 3,160 PRD labor hours budgeted: 0.75 PRD labor hours actual: 0.78 Assuming this is a variable cost, how would you calculate the flexible budget for labor hours? A) 3,160 ´ 0.78 B) 3,240 ´ 0.75 © 2022 Jones and Bartlett Publishers, LLC

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 18 C) 3,160 ´ 0.75 D) (3,240 ÷ 0.78) ÷ 0.75 Ans: C Complexity: Difficult Ahead: Controlling Costs Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Effective Financial Management

20. Which of the following equations is correct? A) Closing inventory = Beginning inventory + Purchases − Withdrawals B) Withdrawals = Closing inventory − Beginning inventory + Purchases C) Closing inventory = Beginning inventory − Purchases + Withdrawals D) Closing inventory − Beginning inventory = Purchases Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Controlling Nonlabor Expenses Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Effective Financial Management

21. Why should a nursing facility establish par levels for linens? A) Shortages are discovered by comparing the physical count to par levels. B) Par levels reduce the cost of replenishing discarded linens. C) Maintaining par levels ensures adequate supply of linens. D) Par levels are a tool for linen cost control. Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Controlling Nonlabor Expenses Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Effective Financial Management

22. The midnight census report is used to: A) calculate the resident days for the income statement. B) notify family members if a resident is missing. C) establish charges. D) calculate daily revenues for all residents.

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 18 Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Managing Receivables Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Effective Financial Management

23. What is a bad debt? A) Monies owed that the facility is not able to pay. B) Lapses in accounting for all legitimate revenues. C) Amounts legitimately owed to the facility which it is not able to collect. D) Debt that carries an extremely high rate of interest. Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Managing Receivables Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Effective Financial Management

24. Without adequate controls over daily census accounting: A) some revenues could be lost. B) the collection period will be extended. C) income cannot be reconciled. D) third-party reimbursement cannot be maximized. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Managing Receivables Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Effective Financial Management

25. An operating budget combines forecasts for: A) cash and receivables. B) revenues and expenses. C) payer-mix and reimbursement. D) variables and assumptions. Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Budgeting © 2022 Jones and Bartlett Publishers, LLC

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 18 Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Effective Financial Management

26. Which of the following questions is answered by the collection period? A) How many days does each payer have to pay billed revenues? B) How often should bad debts be written off? C) How often does the facility bill and collect its revenues? D) How quickly is a facility able to bill and collect its revenues? Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Managing Receivables Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Effective Financial Management

27. When doing the budget, what is projected first? A) Census B) Expenses C) Reimbursement D) Labor hours Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Budgeting Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Effective Financial Management

28. A facility’s budget shows the following data: Resident days = 3,240 Total revenue = $6,450,000 Total expenses = $5,740,000 How would you calculate the operating margin? A) (6,450,000/3,240) ´ 100 B) 5,740,000 / 6,450,000 C) [(6,450,000 – 5,740,000)/6,450,000] ´ 100 D) (5,740,000 / 6,450,000) ´ 100 Ans: C Complexity: Moderate © 2022 Jones and Bartlett Publishers, LLC

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 18 Ahead: Budgeting Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Effective Financial Management

29. What is the formula for calculating labor cost? A) Census × Hours of labor × Average hourly wage rate B) Hours of labor × Average hourly wage rate C) Resident days × Average hourly wage rate D) Resident days × PRD cost Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Budgeting Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Effective Financial Management

30. Who approves the final budget? A) Department managers B) Nursing home administrator C) Governing board D) Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Budgeting Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Effective Financial Management

True/False

1. True or false? The nursing home administrator must be able to function as an accountant. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Introduction Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Effective Financial Management © 2022 Jones and Bartlett Publishers, LLC

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 18

2. True or false? Of the three main types of financial statements, the one of primary importance to the nursing home administrator is the income statement. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Accounting and Financial Statements Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Effective Financial Management

3. True or false? Cash flow is an indicator of the profitability of a nursing facility’s operations. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Accounting and Financial Statements Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Effective Financial Management

4. True or false? In accrual-basis accounting, revenues and expenses do not match cash inflows and outflows. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Accounting and Financial Statements Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Effective Financial Management

5. True or false? In accrual-basis accounting, revenue is recognized when services are rendered, not when payment is received. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Accounting and Financial Statements Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Effective Financial Management

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 18 6. True or false? The income statement, balance sheet, and cash flow statement provide all the information that managers need to control the facility operations. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Accounting and Financial Statements Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Effective Financial Management

7. True or false? Management reports have a standardized format. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Management Reports Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Effective Financial Management

8. True or false? Financial statements have a standardized format. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Management Reports Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Effective Financial Management

9. True or false? Budgeted revenue targets can generally be achieved simply by increasing the census. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Managing Revenues Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Effective Financial Management

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 18 Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Managing Revenues Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Effective Financial Management

11. True or false? Variable costs are cannot be controlled. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Controlling Costs Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Effective Financial Management

12. True or false? The NHA has more control over the hours of labor than over total labor dollars. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Controlling Costs Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Effective Financial Management

13. True or false? Revenues are recorded in the income statement as and when receivables are collected. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Managing Receivables Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Effective Financial Management

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 18 Ahead: Managing Receivables Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Effective Financial Management

15. True or false? Budgeting is based on specified formulas to make fiscal projections. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Budgeting Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Effective Financial Management

16. True or false? When doing the expense part of the budget, labor hours for all departments should be considered variable. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Budgeting Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Effective Financial Management

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 19 Multiple Choice

1. Which of the following statements is correct? A) Quality suffers when greater efficiency is required. B) Improved efficiency means doing more with fewer resources. C) Improved efficiency requires associates to work harder. D) Quality and productivity can be improved simultaneously. Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Introduction Subject: Chapter 19 Title: Effective Quality and Productivity Management

2. High-quality services reduce costs because: A) health care is labor intensive. B) technology is employed. C) they improve processes of care. D) labor costs are reduced. Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Productivity and Quality Subject: Chapter 19 Title: Effective Quality and Productivity Management

3. How can productivity be enhanced? A) Produce desirable quality at the least cost. B) Have lower staff to resident ratios. C) Lower the skill mix. D) Maximize quality and the resource inputs. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Productivity and Quality Subject: Chapter 19 Title: Effective Quality and Productivity Management

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 19 4. A nursing facility achieves reliability in delivering quality when: A) the facility takes a holistic approach to the delivery of services. B) quality remains uncompromised when no one is watching. C) desirable outcomes are produced. D) improvements in quality continue over time. Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: What Is Quality? Subject: Chapter 19 Title: Effective Quality and Productivity Management

5. Which of the following is an indicator of improved quality? A) An increase in positive outcomes B) An increase in the staff skill mix C) Delivery of care that is holistic D) A reduction in the cost of delivering care Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: What Is Quality? Subject: Chapter 19 Title: Effective Quality and Productivity Management

6. If the incidence of pressure ulcers acquired in the facility increases, it indicates an issue with: A) uniformity of care. B) holistic care. C) quality outcomes. D) regularity of care. Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: What Is Quality? Subject: Chapter 19 Title: Effective Quality and Productivity Management

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 19 B) they benefit all residents regardless of race or pay type. C) they are the best practices. D) standardized work processes decrease variability in care delivery. Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Technical and Consumer-Defined Quality Subject: Chapter 19 Title: Effective Quality and Productivity Management

8. Which of the following organizations does not develop clinical practice guidelines? A) Society for Post-Acute and Long-Term Care Medicine (American Medical Directors Association) B) Institute of Medicine C) Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality D) American Geriatric Society Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Technical and Consumer-Defined Quality Subject: Chapter 19 Title: Effective Quality and Productivity Management

9. What is essential for the implementation of evidence-based protocols? A) Expert consultation B) Ongoing research C) Resident and family empowerment D) Staff training Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Technical and Consumer-Defined Quality Subject: Chapter 19 Title: Effective Quality and Productivity Management

10. Technical quality is mainly associated with: A) repairs, upkeep, and sanitation. B) increased productivity while maintaining the level of quality. C) clinical care. © 2022 Jones and Bartlett Learning, LLC

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 19 D) observations and experiences of consumers. Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Technical and Consumer-Defined Quality Subject: Chapter 19 Title: Effective Quality and Productivity Management

11. In the framework of quality, structures represent: A) resource inputs. B) delivery of services. C) customer satisfaction. D) clinical quality. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Framework of Quality Subject: Chapter 19 Title: Effective Quality and Productivity Management

12. In the framework of quality, staffing levels are an example of: A) regulations. B) structures. C) processes. D) technical quality. Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Framework of Quality Subject: Chapter 19 Title: Effective Quality and Productivity Management

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 19 Complexity: Easy Ahead: Framework of Quality Subject: Chapter 19 Title: Effective Quality and Productivity Management

14. Having in place all the necessary structural elements of quality only ensures that: A) the facility will use the correct processes. B) not all outcomes will be produced. C) the facility will deliver quality of life, but not quality of care. D) the facility has the capabilities to deliver adequate care. Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Framework of Quality Subject: Chapter 19 Title: Effective Quality and Productivity Management

15. Clinical outcomes are evaluated against ____ to determine whether preestablished treatment and intervention goals have been met for each resident. A) clinical practice guidelines B) a facility’s routine practices C) a facility’s individualized services D) the plan of care Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Framework of Quality Subject: Chapter 19 Title: Effective Quality and Productivity Management

16. What role do Requirements of Participation play in quality improvement? A) They improve quality by requiring the use of evidence-based practices. B) They establish minimum standards of quality. C) They produce uniform outcomes across the states. D) They do not play a role in quality improvement. Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Regulatory Standards and Quality © 2022 Jones and Bartlett Learning, LLC

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 19 Subject: Chapter 19 Title: Effective Quality and Productivity Management

17. In the QAPI program, what is the main focus of QA? A) Specification of standards B) Process improvement C) Use of data for measurement of outcomes D) Taking corrective action Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Regulatory Standards and Quality Subject: Chapter 19 Title: Effective Quality and Productivity Management

18. In the QAPI program, what is the main focus of PI? A) Specification of standards B) Process improvement C) Use of data for measurement of outcomes D) Taking corrective action Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Regulatory Standards and Quality Subject: Chapter 19 Title: Effective Quality and Productivity Management

19. In the QAPI program, what is the main role of the facility’s governing body? A) To ensure that a quality assessment and assurance committee is established B) To review policies and procedures pertaining to QAPI C) To ensure that adequate resources are allocated for QAPI’s success D) Take corrective action when lapses in quality are found Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Regulatory Standards and Quality Subject: Chapter 19 Title: Effective Quality and Productivity Management

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 19

20. Measurement of quality requires: A) data. B) protocols. C) outcomes. D) leadership. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Measurement and Evaluation of Quality Subject: Chapter 19 Title: Effective Quality and Productivity Management

21. Which of the following defines whether quality goals are being met? A) Structural measures B) Process measures C) Outcome measures D) Attributes of quality Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Measurement and Evaluation of Quality Subject: Chapter 19 Title: Effective Quality and Productivity Management

22. How can a facility measure customer satisfaction? A) By taking a show of hands at the family council meeting B) By having a researcher talk to family members who visit the facility C) By evaluating the results of the annual certification survey D) By using an appropriately designed survey instrument Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Measurement and Evaluation of Quality Subject: Chapter 19 Title: Effective Quality and Productivity Management

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 19 23. Using a survey instrument, a nursing home scored an 8 on customer satisfaction in 2020. The same facility scored a 10 in 2021. Improvement in customer satisfaction can be inferred only if: A) the survey instrument’s reliability has been established. B) in previous years the score was less than 8. C) the survey instrument is designed by a researcher. D) the second result is more than 10. Ans: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Introduction Subject: Chapter 19 Title: Effective Quality and Productivity Management

24. A nursing home is trying to assess customer satisfaction with the services the facility delivers, but the survey instrument it is using contains mainly items pertaining to the facility’s location, geographic access, and ability to pay. The survey instrument in this case does not have A) credibility. B) validity. C) reliability. D) integrity. Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Measurement and Evaluation of Quality Subject: Chapter 19 Title: Effective Quality and Productivity Management

25. After quality has been measured, evaluation requires the ____ of results. A) implementation B) validation C) interpretation D) verification Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Measurement and Evaluation of Quality Subject: Chapter 19 Title: Effective Quality and Productivity Management

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 19 26. Which of the following is regarded as external customers? A) Governing board B) Stakeholders C) Non-long-term-care providers D) Potential customers in the target market Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Continuous Quality Improvement Subject: Chapter 19 Title: Effective Quality and Productivity Management

27. Which of the following is regarded as internal customers? A) The facility’s personnel who receive information, services, and support from fellow employees B) The facility’s residents and family members C) Residents, family members, and visitors D) Providers within the long-term care industry Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Continuous Quality Improvement Subject: Chapter 19 Title: Effective Quality and Productivity Management

28. Quality improvement is anchored in a: A) quantitative approach. B) qualitative approach. C) person-focused approach. D) top management approach. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Continuous Quality Improvement Subject: Chapter 19 Title: Effective Quality and Productivity Management

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 19 B) department managers. C) associates responsible for the process. D) interdisciplinary work teams. Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Continuous Quality Improvement Subject: Chapter 19 Title: Effective Quality and Productivity Management

30. In the four-stage PDSA cycle, uncovering quality problems is associated with which of the following stages? A) Do B) Act C) Plan D) Study Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Deming’s Process Improvement Cycle Subject: Chapter 19 Title: Effective Quality and Productivity Management

31. In the four-stage PDSA cycle, actual data gathering is associated with which of the following stages? A) Do B) Act C) Plan D) Study Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Deming’s Process Improvement Cycle Subject: Chapter 19 Title: Effective Quality and Productivity Management

32. In the four-stage PDSA cycle, field testing a change is particularly useful when: A) residents show a high level of dissatisfaction with a service. B) a quality issue is difficult to diagnose. © 2022 Jones and Bartlett Learning, LLC

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 19 C) best practice protocols are not available. D) there is a breakdown in communication. Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Deming’s Process Improvement Cycle Subject: Chapter 19 Title: Effective Quality and Productivity Management

33. Which of the following is associated with the “study” stage in the PDSA cycle? A) Implementing a change on a small-scale trial basis B) Selecting an appropriate benchmark C) Learning the PDSA system. D) Evaluation of the changes that have been made Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Deming’s Process Improvement Cycle Subject: Chapter 19 Title: Effective Quality and Productivity Management

34. Value is added when: A) management does not cut costs. B) a reduction in quality is less than the extent of cost-cutting. C) both quality and costs increase proportionally. D) quality is improved to a greater extent than costs are increased. Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Building a Quality Culture Subject: Chapter 19 Title: Effective Quality and Productivity Management

35. According to Deming, what should inspections be used for? A) They should be used as the principal tool for quality control. B) They should be used for identifying employees who need further training. C) They should be used as an information gathering tool. D) They should be used for identifying processes that need improvement.

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 19 Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Building a Quality Culture Subject: Chapter 19 Title: Effective Quality and Productivity Management

36. According to Deming, CQI should be used to find ____ problems. A) worker-related B) process C) management-related D) structural Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Building a Quality Culture Subject: Chapter 19 Title: Effective Quality and Productivity Management

True/False

1. True or false? Quality improvement necessitates sacrificing productivity. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Productivity and Quality Subject: Chapter 19 Title: Effective Quality and Productivity Management

2. True or false? Good quality care actually costs less than poor quality care. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Productivity and Quality Subject: Chapter 19 Title: Effective Quality and Productivity Management

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 19 3. True or false? An increase in a facility’s skill mix is an indicator of improved quality. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Productivity and Quality Subject: Chapter 19 Title: Effective Quality and Productivity Management

4. True or false? One of the main challenges to the implementation of evidence-based protocols in nursing homes is the unavailability of standardized protocols for the main areas of resident care. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Technical and Consumer-Defined Quality Subject: Chapter 19 Title: Effective Quality and Productivity Management

5. True or false? Consumers are able to assess certain aspects of the quality of life in a nursing facility. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Technical and Consumer-Defined Quality Subject: Chapter 19 Title: Effective Quality and Productivity Management

6. True or false? According to the framework of quality, structure provides the foundation without which quality resident care cannot be delivered. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Framework of Quality Subject: Chapter 19 Title: Effective Quality and Productivity Management

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 19 7. True or false? Over the years, quality of care in U.S. nursing homes has improved mainly in response to the enforcement of regulatory standards. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Regulatory Standards and Quality Subject: Chapter 19 Title: Effective Quality and Productivity Management

8. True or false? Quality cannot be improved without measuring it. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Measurement and Evaluation of Quality Subject: Chapter 19 Title: Effective Quality and Productivity Management

9. True or false? Customer satisfaction should be assessed by using a survey instrument that has been jointly developed by a multidisciplinary team in consultation with a focus group that includes family members. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Measurement and Evaluation of Quality Subject: Chapter 19 Title: Effective Quality and Productivity Management

10. True or false? Research shows that proxy responses from family members on quality of life surveys match closely the responses given by residents. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Measurement and Evaluation of Quality Subject: Chapter 19 Title: Effective Quality and Productivity Management

Effective Management of Long-Term Care Facilities, Fourth Edition Douglas A. Singh Test Bank: Chapter 19 11. True or false? In the “act” stage of the PDSA cycle, the effectiveness of a change is first evaluated before it is implemented. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Deming’s Process Improvement Cycle Subject: Chapter 19 Title: Effective Quality and Productivity Management

12. True or false? In the “do” stage of the PDSA cycle, a change is implemented after the value of that change has been confirmed. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Deming’s Process Improvement Cycle Subject: Chapter 19 Title: Effective Quality and Productivity Management

13. True or false? According to Deming, posters and slogans can be used as effective tools for motivating employees. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Deming’s Process Improvement Cycle Subject: Chapter 19 Title: Effective Quality and Productivity Management