TEST BANK for Human Physiology From Cells To Systems, 5th Canadia Edition by Sherwood | Chapters 1-1 by digitaldownload87

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Chap 01_5ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. Highly differentiated tissues, such as nervous tissue and cardiac muscle, are incapable of new cell production. a. True b. False 2. Most homeostatic mechanisms operate on the principle of positive feedback. a. True b. False 3. The skeletal system is the site of synthesis for all the different types of blood cells. a. True b. False 4. In addition to regulating fluid balance, the level of electrolytes in the extracellular fluid is controlled for other reasons. a. True b. False 5. Blood is a type of connective tissue. a. True b. False 6. With positive feedback, a control system’s input and output continue to enhance each other. a. True b. False 7. Interstitial fluid is the fluid component of blood. a. True b. False 8. Negative feedback operates to maintain a controlled factor in a relatively steady state, whereas positive feedback moves a controlled variable even further from a steady state. a. True b. False 9. Describing body processes in terms of the bodily need that they fulfill explains a physiological concept using a teleological perspective. a. True b. False 10. The plasma surrounds and bathes all the body’s cells. a. True b. False

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Chap 01_5ce 11. Not all activities performed by the muscular and nervous systems are directed toward maintaining homeostasis. a. True b. False 12. The cellular level is the smallest level of organization in the body. a. True b. False 13. Different cell types in the body are capable of performing unique functions because of cell differentiation. a. True b. False 14. The endocrine system can adjust kidney function to maintain electrolyte balance in the body. a. True b. False 15. Organs are created when specialized cells that carry out similar functions come together. a. True b. False 16. All substances that enter and leave the body must pass through a layer of epithelial cells to do so. a. True b. False 17. A mechanistic explanation of why a person sweats is to cool off. a. True b. False 18. Homeostasis is considered a fixed state because it is designed to keep variables at a predefined set point. a. True b. False 19. In a negative-feedback system, the effector compares the level of a controlled variable to its set point. a. True b. False 20. Feedforward mechanisms bring about a response in reaction to a change in a regulated variable. a. True b. False 21. An exocrine gland is an example of structure composed of connective tissue. a. True b. False

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Chap 01_5ce 22. Homeostatic control systems are grouped into two classes: intrinsic and extrinsic controls. a. True b. False 23. The endocrine system functions with the circulatory system for the transport of hormones. a. True b. False 24. Sweat rate is a variable that is under homeostatic control. a. True b. False 25. Intestine, heart, and skin do not consist of hormone-secreting cells. a. True b. False 26. A lumen is a cavity within a hollow organ or tube. a. True b. False 27. If body temperature increases, skeletal muscle is the effector that will bring about the necessary actions to reduce it. a. True b. False 28. Tissues are composed of two or more types of cells organized to perform a particular function or functions. a. True b. False 29. The external environment is found outside cells but inside the body. a. True b. False 30. Some organs, such as the heart, skin, and intestine, belong to more than one body system. a. True b. False 31. Endocrine glands secrete hormones into ducts that then drain into the capillaries. a. True b. False 32. Homeostasis is both created by and required by cells. a. True b. False

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Chap 01_5ce Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 33. In which body system would you find the source of all the different types of blood cells? a. endocrine system b. integumentary system c. muscular system d. skeletal system 34. Through which process do cells become more specialized to carry out specific functions? a. division b. differentiation c. maturation d. meiosis 35. In a negative-feedback loop, which component compares the level of a variable to its set point level? a. receptor b. control centre c. effector d. set point 36. Which of these statements is characteristic of connective tissue? a. It has relatively few cells dispersed within an abundance of extracellular matrix. b. It has no blood vessels. c. It covers various parts of the body. d. It is usually found in the walls of hollow cavities. 37. What type of tissue has cells that are specialized to generate force? a. connective b. muscle c. bone d. nervous 38. What type of fluid resides within cells? a. intracellular b. interstitial c. extracellular d. plasma 39. Who was the first Canadian to win the Nobel Prize in Physiology and Medicine in 1923 for discovering insulin? a. Ralph Steinman b. David H. Hubel c. Charles B. Huggins d. Frederick Banting 40. Which of these statements describes the internal environment? a. It consists of intracellular fluid. b. It is in direct contact with the body’s cells and consists of the extracellular fluid. c. It is inside the body but not in direct contact with the body’s cells. d. It is outside the body and keeps the fluid volume in unchanging composition. 41. Which of the following is a type of connective tissue? a. exocrine glands b. endocrine glands c. blood d. smooth muscle tissue

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Chap 01_5ce 42. Which of the following are two examples of exocrine glands? a. sweat glands and glands that secrete digestive juices b. mammary glands and pancreas c. bladder and kidneys d. thyroid gland and sweat glands 43. Which progression represents the hierarchy of organization, from simplest to most complex? a. atom, cell, tissue, organ, system, organism b. tissue, cell, system, organism, organ, body c. system, atom, cell, organ, tissue, organism d. atom, molecule, compound, cell, body, organism 44. Which of these statements best describes an organ? a. a collection of cells that collectively carry out a body function b. a group of separate body structures that perform similar function, but come together to carry out activities that are vital for survival c. a structure made up of two or more different types of primary tissue that work together to perform a function for the body d. a structure that the body could not survive without 45. Which one of these sequences represents the hierarchy of biological organization? a. cell, organ, tissue, system, organism b. cell, tissue, organ, system, organism c. tissue, cell, system, organism, organ d. tissue, cell, organism, system, organ 46. What type of tissue has cells that are specialized for sending messages over long distances? a. connective b. muscle c. bone d. nervous 47. The hormone insulin enhances the transport of glucose (sugar) from the blood into most of the body’s cells. Its secretion is controlled by a negative-feedback system between the concentration of glucose in the blood and insulin-secreting cells. How does this negative-feedback system work? a. A decrease in blood glucose concentration stimulates insulin secretion, which in turn further lowers the blood glucose concentration. b. An increase in blood glucose concentration stimulates insulin secretion, which in turn lowers the blood glucose concentration. c. A decrease in blood glucose concentration stimulates insulin secretion, which in turn increases the blood glucose concentration. d. An increase in blood glucose concentration stimulates insulin secretion, which further increases the blood glucose concentration. 48. Which of these statements describes extracellular fluid? a. It is the external environment of the body. b. It is the fluid inside each cell. c. It consists of plasma only. d. It consists of plasma and interstitial fluid.

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Chap 01_5ce 49. Physiology is most closely related to which other scientific discipline? a. biology b. anatomy c. biochemistry d. chemistry 50. Platelets, which have negatively charged cell membranes, adhere to the positively charged surface of a torn blood vessel. As they do so, they release substances that attract more platelets to the damaged area and change the charge on their cell membranes to positive. More platelets adhere to the damaged area. The cycle repeats until the damaged area is sealed. What sort of feedback loop is formed, and why? a. positive-feedback loop: the response reinforces the initial change b. negative-feedback loop: the response opposes the initial stimulus c. negative-feedback loop: having too many platelets in one area blocks blood flow d. positive-feedback loop: the response prevents a person from haemorrhaging to death 51. Which of the following is NOT a basic cell function that is common to all cells of the body? a. performing chemical reactions of metabolism b. sensing and responding to environmental conditions c. reproducing d. synthesizing proteins 52. What type of fluid is the fluid component of blood? a. intracellular b. interstitial c. extracellular d. plasma 53. Why do most cells depend on other cells of the body for survival? a. because cells do not contain fluid b. because all cells of the body are physically connected with one another c. because body cells cannot perform all life-sustaining functions on their own d. because most cells of the body do not directly interact with the external environment and therefore need other cells to provide nutrients and remove wastes 54. Which of these statements applies to the integumentary system? a. It eliminates unwanted substances from the body to the external environment. b. It consists of the heart, blood vessels, and lungs in the pulmonary cavity. c. It is important for protection of the body and also participates in temperature regulation. d. It is responsible for taking up required essential nutrients for the body. 55. Which of these statements applies to homeostasis? a. It is a fixed state. b. It is only required for certain cells of the body to survive. c. Changes occur, but deviations from a set point are minimized. d. Only factors external to the body are capable of triggering responses designed to maintain homeostasis.

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Chap 01_5ce 56. Which of these factors is NOT under homeostatic regulation? a. sweat rate b. body temperature c. levels of waste products in the body d. levels of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the blood 57. What type of fluid is specifically refers to the fluid that is between neighbouring cells? a. intracellular b. interstitial c. extracellular d. plasma 58. Which of the following is an example of a positive-feedback system? a. regulation of body temperature b. birth of a baby c. regulation of room temperature d. regulation of blood pH 59. What are the secretions of endocrine glands called? a. paracrines b. autocrines c. lumens d. hormones 60. Childbirth occurs under which feedback control system? a. negative feedback b. positive feedback c. extrinsic control d. feedforward 61. What are the three actions that the body’s control system must perform in order to maintain homeostasis? a. control the external environment, record information, make appropriate adjustments b. control the internal environment, record information, detect deviation c. detect information, integrate internal environment, control changes d. detect deviations, integrate information, make appropriate adjustments 62. Which of these statements describes endocrine glands? a. They consist of ducts. b. They secrete hormones internally into the blood capillaries. c. They are derived from connective tissue. d. They include the salivary glands. 63. Epithelial tissue is organized into which of the two general types of structures? a. epithelial sheets and secretory glands b. cells and cell walls c. ducts and nuclei d. protective and absorptive 64. Which of these statements describes negative feedback? a. A change in a regulated variable triggers a response by the effector that opposes the change. b. The input to a system increases the output, and the output limits its own production by inhibiting the input. c. A control system’s input and output continue to enhance each other in order to maintain homeostasis. d. It is the main operating principle of most of the body’s homeostatic control mechanisms.

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Chap 01_5ce 65. What are the two systems concerned with the control of body functioning by extrinsic controls? a. nervous and respiratory b. nervous and endocrine c. endocrine and respiratory d. endocrine and lymphatic 66. If someone asks the question, “Why does the stomach secrete digestive juices?” and the response is “Because it is stimulated by the nervous system,” what type of explanation does the response represent? a. teleological b. phenomenological c. mechanistic d. anatomical 67. Which of these statements most accurately reflects the study of physiology? a. Stroke volume and heart rate determine cardiac output, which is a measure of the function of the heart. b. The brain is located superior to the spinal cord. c. The major organ of the respiratory system is the lung. d. The digestive tract includes the mouth, esophagus, stomach, and intestines. Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement. 68. ____________________ refers to maintenance of a relatively stable internal environment. 69. The two major control systems of the body are the ____________________ and the ____________________. 70. Cell ____________________ is the process in which cells mature and become more specialized. 71. ____________________ are composed of two or more types of primary tissue organized to perform a particular function or functions. 72. The internal environment consists of the ____________________, which is made up of ____________________, the fluid portion of the blood, and ____________________, which surrounds and bathes all cells. 73. The ____________________ system controls and coordinates bodily activities that require swift responses, especially to changes in the external environment. 74. The term ____________________ refers to the abnormal functioning of the body associated with disease. 75. The ____________________ surrounds each cell and keeps its internal contents separate from contents that are external to it. 76. ____________________ are the blood vessels in which materials are mixed between the blood plasma and the interstitial fluid. 77. The ____________________ is the liquid part of the blood. 78. The ____________________ system eliminates waste products other than carbon dioxide, and plays a key role in regulating the volume, electrolyte composition, and acidity of the extracellular fluid. 79. When processes within the body are explained in terms of cause-and-effect sequences, this is a ____________________ viewpoint of physiology. 80. The ____________________ system houses the tissue where the synthesis of all blood cells takes place. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_5ce 81. In a negative-feedback loop, the ____________________ monitors any deviations in the levels of a controlled variable. 82. ____________________ are individual living entities, examples of which are humans and bacteria. 83. In a negative-feedback loop, the ____________________ compares the current level of the controlled variable to its set-point level. 84. The ____________________ system is the transport system of the body. 85. The fluid that immediately surrounds each cell within a tissue is the ____________________ fluid. 86. A ____________________ is a collection of organs that perform related functions and interact to accomplish a common activity that is essential for survival of the whole body. 87. The smallest unit capable of carrying out the processes associated with life is the ____________________. 88. ____________________ glands secrete through ducts in the skin. CUSTOM ID: 01-92 89. increased blood flow into muscle tissue in response to a localized increase in carbon dioxide 90. the release of a hormone to lower blood calcium level when it gets too high 91. increased cardiac activity to elevate blood pressure when systemic pressure is low 92. rapid clotting of blood due to increasing levels of platelet activity at a site of vessel damage Match the terms, labelled a. through d., with their correct descriptions. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. nervous tissue b. epithelial tissue c. muscle tissue d. connective tissue REF: 1.2 Levels of Organization in the Body CUSTOM ID: 01-90 93. This tissue type is composed of cells specialized for contraction. 94. This tissue type is made up of cells specialized in the exchange of materials between the cell and its environment. 95. This tissue type connects, supports, and anchors various body parts. 96. The heart is made of this type of tissue. 97. Bone is this tissue type. 98. Glands are a derivative of this tissue type. 99. The digestive tract is lined with this tissue. 100. The brain is made primarily of this tissue. 101. The blood is this tissue type. 102. This tissue is distinguished by relatively few cells within an extracellular material.

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Chap 01_5ce CUSTOM ID: 01-91 103. body temperature 104. temperature-sensitive nerve cells 105. skeletal muscles and sweat glands 106. hypothalamus 107. Explain how the components of a negative-feedback system work to restore deviations in a controlled variable back to set point.

108. List and describe the levels of organization within the body.

109. Compare and contrast regulation by negative-feedback, positive-feedback, and feedforward mechanisms.

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Chap 01_5ce Answer Key 1. False 2. False 3. True 4. True 5. True 6. True 7. False 8. True 9. True 10. False 11. True 12. False 13. True 14. True 15. False 16. True 17. False 18. False 19. False 20. False 21. False 22. True 23. True 24. False 25. False 26. True

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Chap 01_5ce 27. False 28. False 29. False 30. True 31. False 32. True 33. d 34. b 35. b 36. a 37. b 38. a 39. d 40. b 41. c 42. a 43. a 44. c 45. b 46. d 47. b 48. d 49. b 50. a 51. c 52. d 53. d 54. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_5ce 55. c 56. a 57. b 58. b 59. d 60. b 61. d 62. b 63. a 64. b 65. b 66. c 67. a 68. Homeostasis 69. nervous system; endocrine system endocrine system; nervous system 70. differentiation 71. Organs 72. extracellular fluid; plasma; interstitial fluid 73. nervous 74. pathophysiology 75. plasma membrane 76. Capillaries 77. plasma 78. urinary 79. mechanistic 80. skeletal 81. sensor 82. Organisms Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_5ce 83. integrator 84. circulatory 85. interstitial fluid 86. body system 87. cell 88. Exocrine 89. a 90. b 91. b 92. c 93. c 94. b 95. d 96. c 97. d 98. b 99. b 100. a 101. d 102. d 103. a 104. c 105. d 106. b 107. Answers will vary. 108. Answers will vary. 109. Answers will vary.

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Chap 02_5ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. The plasma membrane is an impermeable barrier to substances that are poorly soluble in water. a. True b. False 2. Synthesis, modification, and packaging of newly formed proteins is performed by the endoplasmic reticulum. a. True b. False 3. The electron carrier molecules of the electron transport chain are located in the outer mitochondrial matrix. a. True b. False 4. Gap junctions play an important role in transmission of impulses for heart contraction. a. True b. False 5. In secondary active transport, energy is required directly by the carrier to move a substance uphill against a concentration gradient. a. True b. False 6. Mitochondria contain the enzymes for both the TCA cycle and oxidative phosphorylation. a. True b. False 7. Intermediary metabolic enzymes are found in the cytosol. a. True b. False 8. Cholesterol imparts fluidity to the plasma membrane by preventing fatty acid tails in phospholipids from packing tightly together. a. True b. False 9. Carrier proteins allow for movement of water soluble ions across the plasma membrane. a. True b. False 10. The hydrophilic interior of the lipid bilayer provides a barrier to the passage of water-soluble molecules. a. True b. False

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Chap 02_5ce 11. If a particle is lipid soluble and can permeate the plasma membrane, no force is required for it to move across the membrane. a. True b. False 12. Osmosis is the diffusion of water down its own concentration gradient. a. True b. False 13. Extracellular messengers can effect changes in target cells by opening ion channels or activating intracellular signalling pathways. a. True b. False 14. Energy stored in the chemical bonds in food can be used directly for energy production. a. True b. False 15. Water-soluble ions would not be able to passively move through the plasma membrane without channel proteins. a. True b. False 16. Fibronectin is a rubber-like protein important for stretch. a. True b. False 17. Specificity of carrier-mediated transport involves a maximum number of binding sites on a carrier. a. True b. False 18. Phosphate released from hydrolysis of creatine phosphate is used indirectly to synthesize ATP. a. True b. False 19. To be metabolized, pyruvate must be transported from the mitochondrial matrix to the cytosol. a. True b. False 20. Activity of the Na+–K+ pump helps regulate cell volume. a. True b. False 21. Anaerobic metabolism of glucose produces lactic acid and more ATP than aerobic metabolism of glucose. a. True b. False

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Chap 02_5ce 22. Pinocytosis refers to the process of a cell engulfing a large, multimolecular particle and bringing the particle into the contents of the cell. a. True b. False 23. Microfilaments are composed of tubulin molecules, and aid in contraction of cells. a. True b. False 24. Desmosome plaques are located on the intracellular surface of cells. a. True b. False 25. The presence of tight junctions in epithelial sheets requires substances to move between cells. a. True b. False 26. One extracellular messenger molecule can ultimately influence the activity of only one protein molecule within the cell. a. True b. False 27. Tight junctions ensure selective transport of substances through the cells of epithelial sheets. a. True b. False 28. In active transport, ATP energy is used in the phosphorylation–dephosphorylation cycle of the carrier. a. True b. False 29. Oxidative phosphorylation refers to the use of oxygen to pump H+ across the inner mitochondrial membrane. a. True b. False 30. Intermediate filaments are hollow, tube-like structures that provide stability against mechanical stress. a. True b. False 31. Enzymes of the TCA cycle are located in the cytosol of the cell. a. True b. False 32. In kidney cells, the Na+–K+ pump directly provides the energy for glucose transport. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_5ce 33. Phosphorylation of a carrier can alter the affinity of its binding sites, accompanied by a change in its conformation. a. True b. False 34. The two features of a substance that determine its permeability are its size and its solubility in lipid. a. True b. False 35. Carbohydrates on the surface of the plasma membrane assist in appropriate cell growth. a. True b. False 36. Secretory vesicles require membrane proteins in order to release their contents to the extracellular fluid. a. True b. False 37. Creatine phosphate provides the phosphate molecule required for substrate level phosphorylation. a. True b. False 38. The plasma membrane is considered impermeable because it allows only certain substance to cross through it. a. True b. False 39. Vaults are cellular organelles with a role in transport. a. True b. False 40. Osmosis is the major force that moves water in and out of cells. a. True b. False 41. Secretory vesicles travel along microfilaments to move from one location to another. a. True b. False 42. Signal transduction is a way for cells to send signals to their extracellular environment. a. True b. False 43. Most cells in the body can perform phagocytosis. a. True b. False

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Chap 02_5ce 44. Anabolic and catabolic processes occur simultaneously within cells. a. True b. False 45. The direct product of glycolysis is two molecules of acetyl CoA. a. True b. False 46. If a cell is placed in a hypotonic solution, the cell will swell. a. True b. False 47. The cytosol contains the cell’s genetic material. a. True b. False 48. Cadherins link the outer surface of a cell to its external environment, and the inner membrane surface to the cytoskeleton. a. True b. False 49. The extracellular matrix includes a watery gel made of carbohydrates. a. True b. False 50. A concentration gradient is also known as an electrical gradient. a. True b. False 51. Connexons make up the structure of gap junctions. a. True b. False 52. Carbohydrates on the surface of the plasma membrane can be either glycolipids or glycoproteins. a. True b. False 53. Pyruvate decarboxylation generates energy indirectly through production of NADH. a. True b. False 54. In a working muscle cell, the decrease in creatine phosphate levels is greater than the decrease in ATP levels. a. True b. False

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Chap 02_5ce 55. Osmosis does not occur if the concentration gradients for water and solutes are absent in a system. a. True b. False 56. Cell detoxification takes place in lysosomes. a. True b. False 57. Production of ATP through chemiosmosis would not happen without the buildup of H+ in the intermembrane space. a. True b. False 58. The endoplasmic reticulum packages and distributes new proteins. a. True b. False 59. The tonicity of extracellular fluid is determined by the concentration of penetrating solutes. a. True b. False 60. In order for a second messenger to be activated, a first messenger needs to bind to a cell surface receptor. a. True b. False 61. Hydrostatic pressure is a pulling pressure exerted by water. a. True b. False 62. Second messenger signalling pathways are very different, depending on the cell type. a. True b. False 63. Glycolysis yields an amount of energy that is insufficient to supply all cellular energy needs. a. True b. False 64. Gap junctions are abundant in tissues’ epithelial sheets. a. True b. False 65. If a cell is placed in a hypertonic solution, the cell will swell. a. True b. False

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Chap 02_5ce 66. Anaerobic metabolism of glucose produces lactic acid. a. True b. False 67. Ribosomes are composed of both RNA and proteins. a. True b. False 68. In carrier-mediated transport, the carriers for glucose can also act as carriers for amino acids. a. True b. False 69. The energy stored in the terminal phosphate bond of ATP is the immediate energy source for cells. a. True b. False 70. As temperature decreases, the rate of diffusion will increase. a. True b. False 71. When equilibrium is achieved and no net diffusion is taking place, there is no movement of molecules. a. True b. False 72. The surface carbohydrates within the plasma membrane serve as cell adhesion molecules (CAMs), which cells use to grip one another and surrounding connective tissue fibres. a. True b. False 73. Particles with low lipid solubility that are too large for channels cannot cross the plasma membrane without assistance. a. True b. False 74. Inclusions, such as fat droplets, store excess nutrients in the cell. a. True b. False 75. Cell adhesion molecules participate in cellular signalling. a. True b. False 76. Pyruvate decarboxylation occurs in the mitochondrial matrix. a. True b. False

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Chap 02_5ce 77. Signal transduction is a method for water-soluble messengers to effect change on the interior of a cell. a. True b. False 78. The TCA cycle produces CO2, which leaves the cell and enters the bloodstream. a. True b. False 79. The only means by which an extracellular chemical messenger can bring about a desired intracellular response is to activate a second messenger system. a. True b. False 80. Skin is an example of tissue where there would be an abundance of desmosomes. a. True b. False 81. Endocytosis can be accomplished by phagocytosis and pinocytosis. a. True b. False 82. Cell behaviour of most cells will change if they are not in contact with the extracellular matrix. a. True b. False 83. Tight junctions are also known as adhering junctions. a. True b. False 84. Light microscopes are 1000 times more powerful than electron microscopes. a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 85. Which of the following does NOT refer to cell adhesion molecules? a. They can participate in cell signalling. b. They include cadherins and integrins. c. They form loops and hooks that the cell uses to hold organelles in place. d. They are structural links that anchor the cell to extracellular and intracellular scaffolding. 86. Which of these cellular organelles is the site for protein synthesis? a. ribosome b. Golgi complex c. endoplasmic reticulum d. nucleus

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Chap 02_5ce 87. Which of these plasma membrane components directly enhances membrane fluidity? a. cholesterol b. glycolipids c. carrier proteins d. channel proteins 88. Carriers performing active transport are also known as what? a. pumps b. channels c. docking proteins d. binding proteins 89. Which of the following refers to membrane transport? a. Lipid soluble particles must be transported by assisted transport. b. Water soluble ions can permeate the plasma membrane unassisted if they are small enough. c. Non-polar molecules, such as O2 and CO2, need to be actively transported across the plasma membrane. d. Specific ion channels need to be present and open for certain ions to pass through the membrane. 90. Which of the following is an accurate description of active transport? a. It uses ATP to pump substances down their concentration gradient. b. Active transport carriers have ATP synthase activity. c. Dephosphorylation of a carrier increases the binding affinity for a substance. d. Carriers have a higher binding affinity for a substance of lower concentration when it is phosphorylated. 91. Why does anaerobic respiration take place when O2 is unavailable? a. to continue ATP production c. to make use of available glucose

b. to prevent cell death d. to prevent protein breakdown

92. Which of these statements describes NADH and FADH2? a. They are energy carriers. c. They are used in glycolysis.

b. They play a role in cellular respiration. d. They are used in the citric acid cycle.

93. Which of the following use(s) receptor-mediated endocytosis to be internalized by a cell? a. glucose b. amino acids c. vitamin B12 d. bacteria 94. Which of these statements describes ATP synthase? a. It is present in the outer mitochondrial membrane. b. It is activated by the flow of H+ from the mitochondrial matrix to the intermembrane space. c. It synthesizes ADP from ATP. d. It is an anabolic enzyme 95. What does the SNARE complex provide? a. recognition of foreign proteins in the cell b. binding of correct enzyme with correct substrate c. means to deliver vesicles to an appropriate site d. receptor-mediated endocytosis

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Chap 02_5ce 96. Which of the following does NOT accurately describe vesicular transport? a. Pinocytosis is a form of endocytosis. b. The contents of endocytic vesicles are released into the ECF if the vesicle fuses with a lysosome. c. In some cells, endocytic vesicles release their contents via exocytosis. d. The endocytic vesicle is formed from a portion of the plasma membrane. 97. Phagocytosis is used commonly by which type of cell? a. liver cells b. muscle cells c. white blood cells d. intestinal cells 98. Which of the following decreases the rate of diffusion of a substance through the plasma membrane? a. increasing the concentration gradient b. increasing the molecular size of the substance c. increasing the permeability of the membrane d. increasing the surface area of the membrane 99. What is the purpose of pyruvate decarboxylation? a. to produce ATP directly b. to produce creatine phosphate c. to produce FADH2 d. to produce acetyl CoA 100. Which of the following is the definition of anaerobic? a. with oxygen b. with carbon dioxide c. without oxygen d. without carbon dioxide 101. Where are the enzymes for glycolysis located? a. in the mitochondrial matrix b. in the endoplasmic reticulum c. in the inner mitochondrial membrane d. in the cytosol 102. Which of these statements refers to desmosomes? a. Plaques on the outer surface of two adjacent cells are attached to intracellular keratin filaments. b. They are composed of cytoplasmic plaques and glycoprotein filaments. c. They are composed of connexon units. d. Intercellular keratin filaments hold the nuclei of neighbouring cells together. 103. Which of the following proteins of the extracellular matrix holds cells in place? a. collagen b. fibronectin c. elastin d. cadherin 104. Which organelles contain hydrolytic enzymes? a. peroxisomes b. lysosomes c. vaults d. mitochondria

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Chap 02_5ce 105. When a muscle cell first starts contracting, what happens to the levels of creatine phosphate and ATP? a. Creatine phosphate levels increase rapidly and ATP levels decrease rapidly. b. Creatine phosphate levels decrease rapidly and ATP levels increase rapidly. c. Creatine phosphate levels and ATP levels decrease rapidly. d. Creatine phosphate levels and ATP levels increase rapidly. 106. Which of the following pathways of energy production releases CO2? a. glycolysis c. pyruvate decarboxylation

b. electron transport chain d. chemiosmosis

107. Which of these statements describes electron transport chains? a. They are “circuits” for small amounts of electricity to pass through. b. They are made of proteins. c. They deliver energy to cytochrome to pump H+ into the intermembrane space. d. They do not need oxygen to be available. 108. Which of these substances is most likely to diffuse passively across the plasma membrane by dissolving in the membrane? a. a cation b. an anion c. a nonpolar or nonionized molecule d. a polar molecule 109. What is the function of the extracellular matrix? a. to allow movement of cells from one location to another b. to allow endocytosis and exocytosis to occur c. to regulate enzyme activity within cells d. to hold the cells that make up a tissue together 110. Which of these plasma membrane components prevents the fatty acids in phospholipids from packing together? a. carbohydrates b. cholesterol c. phospholipids d. receptor proteins 111. Which of the following statements refers to the Na+–K+ pump? a. When open to the ECF, it has three high-affinity binding sites for Na+ and two low-affinity binding sites for K+. b. Phosphorylation causes it to change conformation and open to the ICF. c. When open to the ICF, it has three high-affinity binding sites for Na+ and two low-affinity binding sites for K+. d. It has three binding sites for K+ and two binding sites for Na+.

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Chap 02_5ce 112. What would happen if second messengers did not exist? a. First messengers would not be produced. b. Messages that rely on opening of chemically gated ion channels could not be sent. c. Some extracellular messengers could not exert effects on target cells. d. Glycolysis could not occur. 113. A concentration gradient refers to which of the following? a. substances spreading out evenly because of their movement in a solution b. movement of the same substance across a membrane c. different numbers of the same substance on opposite sides of a membrane d. opposing movement of substances across a membrane 114. Insulin promotes the uptake of glucose into cells by which of these transport mechanisms? a. carrier-mediated transport b. endocytosis c. exocytosis d. osmosis 115. Which of these components is always present in most human cells? a. flagella b. cell wall c. cilia d. plasma membrane 116. If cells were missing the endoplasmic reticulum, which of the following cellular functions would be affected? a. detoxification b. duplicating DNA c. synthesizing new cell membrane components d. synthesizing new proteins 117. What is the primary determinant of a membrane’s selective permeability? a. the structures of the membrane phospholipids b. the amount of cholesterol present c. the number and types of membrane proteins d. the charge of the membrane 118. Which of these statements applies to the citric acid cycle? a. It occurs in the mitochondrial cristae. b. Starting with citrate, 1 carbon molecule is removed with each step. c. H+ are removed and transferred to hydrogen carriers. d. Acetyl CoA and oxaloacetate react to form citrate. 119. At the end of glycolysis, how many molecules of pyruvic acid are generated? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

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Chap 02_5ce 120. Which of these mechanisms is used by large polar molecules when they leave or enter the cell? a. vesicular transport b. osmosis c. selective passive transport d. channels 121. Which of the following is a characteristic of elastin? a. It imparts strength to tissues. b. It provides tissues the ability to stretch and then recoil. c. It aids in communication between cells. d. It anchors cells in place within a tissue. 122. What would be a potential consequence if cells did NOT have integrins? a. Cell transport would be affected negatively. b. Small ions would not be able to permeate the plasma membrane. c. Secretory vesicles could not empty their contents to the extracellular surroundings. d. Cells could not form links with their extracellular surroundings. 123. What is the name of the site where the lateral (side) edges of adjacent cells in an epithelial sheet are joined together? a. connexon b. plaque c. tight site d. kiss site 124. Which cell type in connective tissue secretes components of the extracellular matrix? a. epithelial cells b. myoblasts c. fibroblasts d. cardiac muscle cells 125. The term “net diffusion” refers to which of the following? a. the sum of opposing movements of the same molecule between two areas b. the fraction of opposing movements of the same molecule between two areas c. the total of opposing movements of the same molecule between two areas d. the difference in opposing movements of the same molecule between two areas 126. Which of these is a characteristic of the Golgi complex? a. It receives newly synthesized proteins and modifies them. b. It is partially studded with ribosomes. c. It contains the enzymes for the TCA cycle. d. It contains hydrolytic enzymes. 127. Which of the following proteins imparts tensile strength to the extracellular matrix? a. fibronectin b. elastin c. collagen d. keratin

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Chap 02_5ce 128. The chemiosmotic mechanism involves which of the following? a. ATP synthesis using a H+ concentration gradient b. ATP synthesis using creatine kinase c. ATP synthesis from anaerobic metabolism d. NADH synthesis using a H+ gradient 129. Which of the following is NOT a function of membrane proteins? a. to act as carriers for substances to cross the membrane b. to act as receptor sites for binding of extracellular substances c. to impart membrane fluidity d. to serve as enzymes 130. Which of these is present on the plasma membrane and allows a secretory vesicle to dock? a. sorting signal b. coat protein c. v-SNARE d. t-SNARE 131. What is the underlying cause of cystic fibrosis? a. the buildup of thick mucus in respiratory airways and the pancreas b. a genetic defect that affects membrane sodium transport c. a genetic defect that affects membrane chloride transport d. a genetic defect that affects membrane potassium transport 132. Which of the following statements is an accurate description of assisted membrane transport? a. Carrier-mediated transport moves small water-soluble molecules across the membrane. b. Carrier-mediated transport moves large macromolecules across the membrane. c. Vesicular transport moves glucose across the membrane. d. Cells can use vesicular transport strictly to move molecules from the ECF to the ICF. 133. Which of these statements does NOT apply to endocytosis? a. provides a way to add specific components to the plasma membrane b. phagocytosis of large multimolecular particles such as bacteria or cellular debris c. a particle gaining entry to the interior of the cell without actually passing through the plasma membrane d. can be triggered by the binding of a particle to a receptor site on the plasma membrane 134. Resisting mechanical stress is the function of which cell structure? a. lysosome b. vault c. microtubule d. intermediate filament 135. Which of these statements does NOT refer to intermediary metabolism? a. It is the set of reactions that make energy to support cellular activities. b. Most of it occurs in plasma membrane. c. It uses simple sugars, amino acids, and fatty acids to make energy. d. The cytoplasm contains most of the enzymes that it requires. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_5ce 136. If 20 molecules of X move from Area A to Area B, and 10 molecules of X move from Area B to Area A, what is the net diffusion of molecule X? a. 5 b. 10 c. 20 d. 30 137. What happens when a membrane separates a solution of nonpenetrating solute from pure water? a. Water will move until hydrostatic pressure is equal to osmotic pressure. b. Osmotic pressure will always be higher than hydrostatic pressure and water will continually move. c. Hydrostatic pressure will always be higher than osmotic pressure and water will continually move. d. Water will move until the concentration of the solution on both sides of the membrane is the same. 138. The plasma membrane would not be compatible with the extracellular and intracellular fluid without the presence of which of its components? a. fatty acids of the phospholipids b. phosphate groups of the phospholipids c. integral membrane proteins d. cholesterol 139. Which of these descriptions applies to the movement of molecules across the plasma membrane? a. If two similar molecules can both combine with the same carrier, the presence of one of these molecules increases the rate of entry of the other. b. In simple diffusion, the rate of transport is inversely proportional to the molecule’s concentration. c. When a carrier becomes saturated, the maximum rate of transport is reached. d. Large molecules can cross it via nonselective, receptor-mediated endocytosis. 140. Which of the following applies to facilitated diffusion? a. A carrier transports a substance against its concentration gradient by expending energy. b. A carrier transports a substance down its concentration gradient by expending energy. c. A carrier transports a substance down its concentration gradient without expending energy. d. A carrier transports a substance against its concentration gradient without expending energy. 141. Which of the following statements applies to assisted membrane transport? a. If a carrier can transport more than one substance, the rate of transport for those substances is not affected when both of those substances are present. b. When transport maximum is reached, 90 percent the carrier binding sites for a substance are occupied. c. Before transport maximum is reached, the rate of transport for a substance is determined by its concentration. d. Carrier proteins can only transport a single compound. 142. Gap junctions are also considered what type of cell-to-cell junction? a. adhering b. communicating c. sealing d. impermeable

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Chap 02_5ce 143. Which of these statements does NOT apply to ribosomes? a. They are composed of RNA. b. They assemble proteins. c. They may be bound to endoplasmic reticulum. d. They are covered by a membrane. 144. Which of these statements describes cadherins? a. They create a filamentous meshwork in the inner surface of the membrane. b. They act as membrane-bound enzymes. c. They are used for cell recognition purposes. d. They provide a mechanical link between the cells in a tissue. 145. If oxidation is uncoupled from phosphorylation, what would happen to the rate of ATP synthesis? a. It would increase. b. It would decrease. c. It would increase initially, then decrease. d. It would not change. 146. Which of these statements describes carrier-mediated transport? a. It always involves a specific membrane protein that serves as a carrier molecule. b. It always transports substances against a concentration gradient. c. It always requires energy expenditure. d. It always transports substances along a concentration gradient. 147. Which of these compounds is the metabolic product that enters the TCA cycle? a. citrate b. pyruvic acid c. acetyl CoA d. FADH2 148. Which of the following is a form of vesicular transport? a. carrier-mediated transport b. protein-mediated transport c. pinocytosis

d. Na+–K+ pump

149. Structurally similar compounds being transported by the same carrier refers to which aspect of carrier-mediated transport? a. specificity b. competition c. saturation d. maximum transport 150. Which of the following is NOT relevant to vesicular transport? a. carrier-mediated transport b. use of ATP c. pinocytosis d. pseudopods 151. Which of the following does diffusion result from? a. ATP-driven processes b. ion gradients c. inherent kinetic energy of matter d. selective permeability

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Chap 02_5ce 152. If the phospholipids in the plasma membrane flipped their orientation, which direction would the fatty acid tails be facing? a. toward the intracellular fluid b. toward the extracellular fluid c. toward the intracellular and extracellular fluid d. toward the interior of the plasma membrane 153. Which of these statements refers to substrate-level phosphorylation? a. It is an important source of ATP for liver cells. b. It requires the enzyme creatine phosphorylase. c. It generates a large amount of ATP for every molecule of creatine phosphate. d. It is a fast method of generating ATP. 154. What happens to the rate of oxidative phosphorylation if oxygen availability in cells is low? a. It increases. b. It decreases. c. It stays the same. d. It decreases initially and then increases if oxygen stays low. 155. Which of the following explains the variability in the number of ATP molecules produced from glucose? a. The TCA cycle produces variable amounts of ATP. b. ATP synthase may use ATP at times. c. Glycolysis is not always 100 percent efficient. d. Some transporters use ATP to move NADH into the mitochondria. 156. Chemical messengers secreted by cells that act locally are known as what? a. paracrines b. autocrines c. hormones d. neurohormones 157. Which of the following is NOT a function of the plasma membrane? a. to provide a physical barrier to hold in the contents of the cell b. to aid in maintaining different ionic concentrations outside versus inside the cell c. to allow the cell to store excess cholesterol d. to help cells respond to changes in their immediate environment 158. Ribosomes may be found attached to which other cellular organelle? a. nucleus b. mitochondrion c. Golgi complex d. endoplasmic reticulum 159. For every two potassium ions that the sodium–potassium pump moves into the cell, how many sodium ions does it move out of the cell? a. 4 b. 3 c. 2 d. 1

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Chap 02_5ce 160. What will happen when a membrane separates unequal solutions of a nonpenetrating solute? a. The solute will move down its concentration gradient. b. The volume of solution on the side of the membrane with lower concentration will increase. c. The volume of solution on the side of the membrane with the higher concentration will increase. d. The volume of solution of the side of the membrane with the higher concentration will decrease. 161. The Na+–K+ pump is important for all of the following EXCEPT which one? a. maintaining appropriate cell volumes b. exocytosis of secretory vesicles c. secondary active transport d. nerve and muscle cell excitability 162. Area A and Area B contain a solution of molecule X. Area A has a higher number of molecule X than Area B. Which of the following will result? a. Molecule X will move from Area B to Area A until molecule X reaches steady state. b. Molecule X will move from Area A to Area B until molecule X reaches steady state. c. Molecule X will move from Area A to Area B until the number of molecules X in Area B is greater than in Area A. d. Molecule X will move from Area B to Area A until the number of molecules X in Area A is greater than in Area B. 163. Which these statements is an accurate description of metabolism? a. Catabolic and anabolic reactions are happening simultaneously in cells. b. Catabolic reactions are synthesis reactions. c. Anabolic reactions favour the breakdown of molecules. d. Catabolic reactions require ATP to occur. 164. What component of the plasma membrane is responsible for its ability to keep intracellular fluid separate from extracellular fluid? a. cholesterol b. carrier proteins c. phospholipids d. glycolipids 165. With secondary active transport, the movement of a. Na+ into the cell by the cotransport carrier is downhill. b. Na+ into the cell by the cotransport carrier is uphill. c. glucose by the cotransport carrier is uphill. d. Cl– into the cell by the cotransport carrier is downhill. 166. Some viruses gain access to cells by using which of these processes? a. pinocytosis b. receptor-mediated endocytosis c. exocytosis d. active transport 167. The tendency of water to move into a solution due to its concentration of nonpenetrating solutes is known as what? a. diffusion pressure b. fluid pressure c. hydrostatic pressure d. osmotic pressure Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_5ce 168. Which of these components in the plasma membrane provides a method of self-recognition for cells? a. carbohydrates b. cholesterol c. phospholipids d. receptor proteins 169. Which of the following statements refers to neurohormones? a. They are secreted into the bloodstream by endocrine cells. b. They travel long distances to reach target cells. c. They are secreted by neurons to influence neighbouring neurons. d. They travel short distances to reach target cells. 170. Which of the following statements describes net diffusion? a. It is the difference in opposing movements of different molecules between two areas. b. It is the total of opposing movements of different molecules between two areas. c. It is the total of opposing movements of the same molecule between two areas. d. It is the difference in opposing movements of the same molecule between two areas. 171. What causes diffusion of substances? a. electrical attraction between molecules in an area where they are densely packed and an area where they are sparse b. electrical attraction between the solvent and solutes in a solution c. random collisions between molecules in an area where they are densely packed d. energy-dependent pumping of a substance in an area where it is densely packed 172. If cellular levels of oxaloacetate are low, which energy-producing pathway is affected? a. glycolysis b. pyruvate decarboxylation c. citric acid cycle d. substrate level phosphorylation 173. What accounts for the most ATP production? a. citric acid cycle b. glycolysis c. substrate-level phosphorylation d. oxidative phosphorylation 174. Which of these statements describes tight junctions? a. They provide cell-to-cell adhesion in epithelial sheets. b. They provide cell-to-cell adhesion in tissues that undergo significant mechanical stretch. c. They provide cell-to-cell adhesion in tissues requiring rapid transfer of substances between cells. d. They provide cell-to-cell adhesion in muscle cells. 175. Which of the following is NOT an activity of the cytosol? a. duplication of chromosomes b. enzymatic regulation of intermediary metabolism c. storage of fat and glycogen d. synthesis of proteins for use in the cytosol

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Chap 02_5ce 176. What is the pressure exerted by a stationary fluid? a. hydrostatic pressure b. osmotic pressure c. hydro-osmotic pressure d. solution pressure 177. What is the major role of peroxisomes? a. oxidation b. detoxification c. protein synthesis d. cellular digestion 178. Forces that do not need energy to transport substances across the plasma membrane are known as what? a. active forces b. passive forces c. permeating forces d. transport forces 179. Which of these organelles is NOT membrane bound? a. lysosome b. ribosome c. mitochondrion d. peroxisome 180. The fluid mosaic model refers to which characteristic of the plasma membrane? a. its ability to regulate fluid movement through carrier proteins b. the ability of the numerous membrane proteins to move around in the phospholipid bilayer c. the presence of glycoproteins and glycolipids d. the multiple components of which it is composed 181. The term transport maximum refers to which aspect of carrier-mediated transport systems? a. specificity b. saturation c. competition d. solubility 182. What will happen to a cell if the extracellular fluid is hypertonic? a. Water will move into the cell and the cell will shrivel. b. Water will move into the cell and the cell will swell. c. Water will move out of the cell and the cell will swell. d. Water will move out of the cell and the cell will shrivel. 183. Which of the following statements reflects a correct component of cell theory? a. Pre-existing cells are required for new cells to be created. b. Molecules are the smallest structural and functional unit that can perform life functions. c. Functional activities of a cell are unrelated to structural characteristics of that cell. d. The cells of all organisms are fundamentally different in structure and function. 184. Which structure, formed by membrane proteins, spans the lipid bilayer and forms water-filled passages that allow small ions to move in and out of cells? a. transporter b. receptor c. carrier d. channel

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Chap 02_5ce Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement. 185. The watery gel of the ECM allows substances such as nutrients to move between cells via ____________________. 186. The set of intracellular chemical reactions that are vital for capturing energy for the cell is known as ____________________. 187. The hydrophobic portion of phospholipids is composed of ____________________. 188. Secretory vesicles depend on this type of membrane protein to release their contents: ____________________. 189. Surface markers made of ____________________ assist in appropriate cell growth. 190. Chemical messengers in the blood communicate with their target cells via ____________________ proteins. 191. ____________________ reactions are those that build materials for the cell. 192. ____________________ contain oxidative enzymes that detoxify the cell. 193. ____________________ metabolism occurs in the presence of O2. 194. The electron carrier molecules of the electron transport chain are located in the ____________________ of the mitochondria. 195. During pyruvate decarboxylation, carbon is removed and forms ____________________. 196. ____________________ are the structures that make up the tunnels that form gap junctions. 197. Vaults assist in ____________________ between the nucleus and the cytoplasm. 198. The three characteristics that determine the kind and amount of material that can be moved across a membrane by carrier-mediated transport are ____________________, ____________________, and ____________________. 199. The portions of the cytoskeleton that aid in transport of secretory vesicles within cells are ____________________. 200. The extracellular matrix is a mixture of fibrous proteins in a ____________________. 201. In addition to glucose, ATP can also be generated from ____________________ and ____________________. 202. ____________________ are local chemical messengers. 203. In the TCA cycle, ____________________ joins with acetyl CoA to form citrate. 204. In substrate level phosphorylation, Pi is generated from ____________________. 205. The protein that provides stretch and recoil to the ECM of lung tissue is ____________________. 206. Foreign material to be attacked by lysosomal enzymes is brought into the cell by the process of ____________________. 207. ____________________ are long-distance chemical messengers. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_5ce 208. Ribosomes may be found free in the cytosol or bound to the ____________________. 209. The Golgi complex modifies, packages, and distributes newly synthesized ____________________. 210. The Na+–K+ pump indirectly provides the energy for transport of ____________________ in intestinal cells. 211. The carbon-based product of glycolysis is ____________________. 212. Desmosomes are also known as ____________________ junctions. 213. ____________________ refers to the process of an intracellular vesicle fusing with the plasma membrane, then opening and emptying its contents to the exterior. 214. In active transport, a substance moves from an area of ____________________ concentration to an area of ____________________ concentration. 215. ____________________ is a protein responsible for pinching off an endocytic vesicle. 216. Pyruvate decarboxylation yields ____________________, which moves directly into the TCA cycle. 217. The major structural component of flagella and cilia are ____________________. 218. The fluid mosaic model refers to the movement of ____________________ within the fluid phospholipids of the plasma membrane. 219. Neurohormones are released into the bloodstream by ____________________. 220. The ____________________ refers to the maximum amount of a substance that can be transported across the plasma membrane via a carrier in a given time. 221. Lysosomes contain ____________________ enzymes that are capable of digesting and removing unwanted debris from the cell. 222. Helical chains of actin molecules that aid in cell contractile responses are called ____________________. 223. Water soluble ions can move through the plasma membrane via proteins that act as ____________________. 224. Cadherins and integrins are types of ____________________. 225. The structure within a desmosome to which intracellular keratin filaments are attached is called ____________________. 226. ____________________ are the folds of the inner mitochondrial membrane that project into the matrix. 227. In addition to ATP and CO2, the TCA cycle also produces ____________________ and ____________________, which are used for energy production. 228. In facilitated diffusion, particles move from a ____________________ concentration to a ____________________ concentration. 229. If red blood cells are placed in a(n) ____________________ solution, water enters, causing them to swell. 230. ____________________ diffusion allows materials to pass through the membrane by a carrier protein, without the expenditure of energy. 231. Breakdown of glucose via glycolysis yields ______ molecules of ATP and ______ molecules of NADH. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_5ce 232. If red blood cells are placed in a(n) ____________________ solution, water leaves the cells, causing them to shrink. 233. Gap junctions are also known as ____________________ junctions. 234. ____________________ is activated by H+ moving down its concentration gradient. 235. The name of the enzyme that catalyzes substrate level phosphorylation is ____________________. 236. Endocytosis and exocytosis are both kinds of ____________________ transport. 237. A/an ____________________ solution has the same osmolarity as normal body cells. 238. ____________________ reactions are those that degrade larger molecules into small ones. 239. In a(n) ____________________ transport, materials may be moved “uphill” and are concentrated in a cell. 240. Assisted membrane transport includes facilitated transport and ____________________ transport. 241. The ____________________ serves as the cell’s “bones and muscles.” 242. Lysosomes contain ____________________ enzymes that aid in digesting cellular debris and foreign material. PTS: 1 Matching Match the vesicles, labelled a. through c., with their characteristics. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. endocytic vesicles b. receptor-mediated endocytic vesicles c. secretory vesicles 243. originate from the Golgi complex 244. bring nonspecific contents into the cell 245. contain cholesterol as cargo 246. contents emptied to the exterior by exocytosis 247. enclosed in a clathrin framework 248. fuse with lysosomes 249. used to internalize specific substances. 250. can be used to restock the plasma membrane

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Chap 02_5ce PTS: 1

Match the terms, labelled a. through c., with their characteristics. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. glycolysis b. citric acid cycle c. oxidative phosphorylation 251. directly uses inspired oxygen 252. does not directly use inspired oxygen 253. takes place in the cytosol 254. takes place in the mitochondrial matrix 255. takes place on the inner mitochondrial membrane 256. low yield of ATP 257. high yield of ATP PTS: 1 Matching Match the terms, labelled a. through c., to their descriptions. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. microtubules b. microfilaments c. intermediate filaments 258. the largest of the cytoskeletal elements 259. present in parts of the cell subject to mechanical stress 260. consist of actin 261. form the mitotic spindle 262. essential for creating and maintaining an asymmetrical cell shape 263. composed of tubulin 264. play a key role in muscle contraction

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Chap 02_5ce PTS: 1 Matching Match the terms, labelled a. through i., to their descriptions. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. endoplasmic reticulum (ER) b. Golgi complex c. lysosome d. peroxisome e. mitochondrion f. vault g. ribosome h. microtubule i. microfilament 265. contains powerful oxidative enzymes important in detoxifying various wastes 266. an important component of cilia and flagella 267. one continuous extensive organelle consisting of a network of tubules and flattened filament 268. removes unwanted cellular debris and foreign material 269. the powerhouse of the cell 270. acts as a mechanical stiffener 271. synthesizes proteins for use in the cytosol 272. consists of stacks of flattened sacs 273. shaped like an octagonal barrel

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Chap 02_5ce Match the terms, labelled a. through f., to their correct descriptions. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. plasma membrane b. nucleus c. cytoplasm d. cytosol e. organelle f. cytoskeleton 274. houses the cell’s DNA 275. responsible for cell shape and movement 276. highly organized, membrane-bound, intracellular structure 277. selectively controls movement of molecules between the intracellular fluid and the extracellular fluid 278. consists of organelles and cytosol 279. site of intermediary metabolism 280. permits incompatible chemical reactions to occur simultaneously in the cell 281. separates contents of the cell from its surroundings 282. site of fat and glycogen storage 283. Explain how the Na+–K+ pump uses ATP and conformation changes to transport Na+ and K+ across the plasma membrane.

284. Outline how ATP is generated from a molecule of glucose that undergoes aerobic metabolism.

285. Describe how secondary active transport mechanisms are used to transport glucose in intestinal cells.

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Chap 02_5ce 286. Describe the different functions that are carried out by membrane proteins.

287. Describe what ATP is used for in the cell.

288. Explain the steps involved in generating ATP via electron transport and oxidative phosphorylation.

289. Explain how secretory vesicles are packaged, docked to the plasma membrane, and their contents released.

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Chap 02_5ce Answer Key 1. False 2. False 3. False 4. True 5. False 6. True 7. True 8. True 9. False 10. False 11. False 12. True 13. True 14. False 15. True 16. False 17. False 18. False 19. False 20. True 21. False 22. False 23. False 24. True 25. False 26. False

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Chap 02_5ce 27. True 28. True 29. False 30. False 31. False 32. False 33. True 34. True 35. True 36. True 37. True 38. False 39. True 40. True 41. False 42. False 43. False 44. True 45. False 46. True 47. False 48. False 49. True 50. False 51. True 52. False 53. True 54. True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_5ce 55. True 56. False 57. True 58. False 59. False 60. True 61. False 62. False 63. True 64. False 65. False 66. True 67. True 68. False 69. True 70. False 71. False 72. False 73. True 74. True 75. True 76. True 77. True 78. True 79. False 80. True 81. True 82. True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_5ce 83. False 84. False 85. c 86. a 87. a 88. a 89. d 90. d 91. a 92. a 93. c 94. d 95. c 96. b 97. c 98. b 99. d 100. c 101. d 102. b 103. b 104. b 105. b 106. c 107. c 108. c 109. d 110. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_5ce 111. c 112. c 113. c 114. a 115. d 116. c 117. c 118. c 119. b 120. a 121. b 122. d 123. d 124. c 125. d 126. a 127. c 128. a 129. c 130. d 131. c 132. a 133. a 134. d 135. b 136. b 137. a

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Chap 02_5ce 138. b 139. c 140. c 141. c 142. b 143. d 144. d 145. b 146. a 147. c 148. c 149. b 150. a 151. c 152. c 153. d 154. b 155. d 156. a 157. c 158. d 159. b 160. c 161. b 162. b 163. a 164. c 165. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_5ce 166. b 167. d 168. a 169. b 170. c 171. c 172. c 173. d 174. a 175. a 176. a 177. b 178. b 179. b 180. b 181. b 182. d 183. a 184. d 185. diffusion 186. intermediary metabolism 187. fatty acids 188. docking marker acceptors 189. carbohydrates 190. receptor 191. Anabolic 192. Peroxisomes 193. Aerobic Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_5ce 194. inner mitochondrial membrane 195. carbon dioxide 196. Connexons 197. transport 198. competition; saturation; specificity (in any order) 199. microtubules 200. watery gel 201. amino acids; fatty acids fatty acids; amino acids 202. Paracrines 203. oxaloacetate 204. creatine phosphate/phosphocreatine 205. elastin 206. endocytosis 207. Hormones 208. endoplasmic reticulum 209. proteins 210. glucose 211. pyruvic acid 212. adhering junctions 213. Exocytosis 214. lower; higher 215. Dynamin 216. acetyl CoA 217. microtubules 218. proteins 219. neurosecretory neurons 220. transport maximum Tm 221. hydrolytic Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_5ce 222. microfilaments 223. channels 224. cell adhesion molecules 225. plaque 226. Cristae 227. NADH; FADH2 FADH2; NADH 228. higher; lower 229. hypotonic 230. Facilitated 231. 2; 2 two; two 232. hypertonic 233. communicating 234. ATP synthase 235. creatine kinase 236. vesicular 237. isotonic 238. Catabolic 239. active 240. active 241. cytoskeleton 242. hydrolytic 243. c 244. a 245. b 246. c 247. b 248. a 249. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_5ce 250. c 251. c 252. a 253. a 254. b 255. c 256. a 257. c 258. a 259. c 260. b 261. a 262. a 263. a 264. b 265. d 266. h 267. a 268. c 269. e 270. i 271. g 272. b 273. f 274. b 275. f 276. e 277. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_5ce 278. c 279. d 280. e 281. a 282. d 283. Answers will vary. 284. Answers will vary. 285. Answers will vary. 286. Answers will vary. 287. Answers will vary. 288. Answers will vary. 289. Answers will vary.

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Chap 03_5ce Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. For the following questions, assume a hypothetical postsynaptic neuron has three presynaptic inputs: X, Y, and Z. Also assume that presynaptic neurons Y and Z are excitatory. 1. Refer to the text. If presynaptic neurons X and Z are stimulated simultaneously, what change would be expected to occur in the postsynaptic neuron? a. a single EPSP b. a single IPSP c. temporal summation of EPSPs d. IPSP and EPSP would cancel each other out, so there would be essentially no change in potential in the postsynaptic neuron.

2. Which of the following statements does NOT apply to threshold potential? a. Its value is usually between –70 and –75 mV in most cells. b. When it is reached, a very large and rapid depolarization is triggered. c. It is reached when a triggering event of sufficient magnitude happens. d. Its value does not change during the course of an action potential. 3. Local changes in membrane potential that can vary in strength or magnitude are known as what? a. stimuli b. action potentials c. graded potentials d. triggering events 4. Which of the following in the positive feedback cycle of Na+ channel opening at threshold is the first to happen after the triggering event? a. depolarization b. a further decrease in membrane potential with additional influx of Na+ c. opening of some voltage-gated Na+ channels d. closing of some voltage-gated K+ channels 5. Which of the following statements correctly describes passive currents? a. The direction of current flow indicates the direction in which negative charges are moving. b. When a graded potential is triggered, passive currents are active in the ICF and ECF. c. When a graded potential is triggered, positive charges move from the ICF across the membrane to areas that are less positive. d. Passive currents carry long distance signals along the membrane.

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Chap 03_5ce 6. Which of the following is a characteristic of action potentials? a. During the depolarization phase, the outside of the cell becomes positively charged for a very brief period of time. b. They are long-distance signals because membrane potential is reversed for a long period of time. c. During the hyperpolarization phase, membrane potential moves farther away from the K+ equilibrium potential. d. At the peak of depolarization, membrane potential is lower than the Na+ equilibrium potential. 7. Which of these statements describes when spatial summation occurs in a postsynaptic neuron? a. when several EPSPs from a single presynaptic input sum to reach threshold b. when EPSPs from several presynaptic inputs sum to reach threshold c. upon simultaneous interaction of an EPSP and an IPSP d. when several IPSPs from a single presynaptic input sum to hyperpolarize the membrane 8. What does the term “absolute refractory period” refer to? a. the period where it is easier for a second action potential to be fired on a neuron b. the period where a stronger stimulus than usual produces a stronger action potential c. the period where a second action potential will be fired only if the stimulus is stronger than usual d. the period where a second action potential cannot be fired, no matter how strong the stimulus 9. Why can’t a second action potential be generated during the absolute refractory period? a. because the inactivation gates on some voltage-gated Na+ channels are still closed and voltage-gated K+ channels are slow to close b. because activation gates on voltage-gated Na+ channels are still open c. because the inactivation gates on some voltage-gated K+ channels are still closed d. because the activation gates on voltage-gated Na+ channels are open and voltage-gated K+ channels are slow to close 10. Which of these statements does NOT apply to the absolute refractory period? a. It refers to the period of time during which another action potential cannot be initiated in a patch of membrane that has just undergone an action potential, no matter how strong the stimulus. b. It corresponds to the time period during which the Na+ gates are first opened and then closed and inactivated. c. Immediately following it, the patch of nerve fibre membrane that has just undergone an action potential can be restimulated only by a stronger stimulus than is usually necessary. d. It occurs during the after hyperpolarization phase of the action potential.

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Chap 03_5ce 11. Which of these statements describes the equilibrium potential for K+? a. At K+ equilibrium, membrane potential would be +60 mV. b. It would happen if the inward concentration gradient and outward electrical gradients for K+ were equal. c. It would happen if K+ was the only ion moving across the plasma membrane. d. It would happen if the outward K+ concentration gradient was higher than the inward K+ electrical gradient. 12. What happens when a neurotransmitter binds to its receptor at an excitatory synapse? a. Cation channels specific for Na+ on the subsynaptic membrane open. b. Nonspecific cation channels on the subsynaptic membrane open. c. Cation channels specific for K+ on the subsynaptic membrane open. d. Nonspecific anion channels on the subsynaptic membrane open. 13. The binding of a neurotransmitter to inhibitory synapses increases the permeability of the subsynaptic membrane to which ions? a. sodium or chloride b. potassium or calcium c. potassium or chloride d. potassium or sodium 14. If a neuron’s absolute refractory period is increased, what happens to the speed at which the neuron can respond to repeated stimulation? a. increases b. decreases c. stays constant d. decreases initially, but increases once the neuron adapts 15. The strength of a stimulus is coded by what? a. the strength of action potentials b. the frequency of action potentials c. the duration of the resting period d. the duration of the refractory periods 16. Which of the following occurs with presynaptic inhibition in a specific neuron? a. An IPSP occurs on the postsynaptic cells. b. All excitatory information being fed into the cell is depressed. c. The release of excitatory transmitter from a specific presynaptic excitatory input is depressed. d. An EPSP occurs in the postsynaptic cells. 17. What is the term used to describe when a neuron terminates on either a muscle cell or a gland? a. end stimulus b. neurotransmit c. innervate d. supply 18. Which of the following is NOT a graded potential? a. end-plate potential b. action potential c. slow-wave potential d. receptor potential Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_5ce For the following questions, assume a hypothetical postsynaptic neuron has three presynaptic inputs: X, Y, and Z. Also assume that presynaptic neurons Y and Z are excitatory. 19. Refer to the text. What permeability changes would be expected to occur at the postsynaptic neuron when presynaptic neuron X is stimulated? (Remember that the postsynaptic neuron becomes hyperpolarized by presynaptic neuron X.) a. increased PNa+ and PK+ b. increased PK+ or PCl– c. increased PA–

d. increased PCa2+

20. Where is the trigger zone of a neuron? a. in the terminal ganglion b. in the axon hillock c. in the chemically gated channels d. in the dendrites 21. Which of these statements describes the action potential? a. It has an all-or-none characteristic. b. It has no refractory period. c. It is triggered by repolarization to threshold. d. It speeds transmission by any type of summation. 22. Where are synaptic vesicles stored? a. in a synaptic cleft b. in a synaptic knob c. in a postsynaptic membrane d. in postsynaptic dendrites 23. Which of these statements describes the electrical gradient for K+? a. It favours the movement of K+ out of the cell at resting potential. b. It favours the movement of K+ into the cell at resting potential. c. It favours the concentration gradient for K+ at the equilibrium potential for K+. d. The larger the electrical gradient, the less the equilibrium potential is. 24. What is the correct sequence at a synapse? a. neurotransmitter diffuses across cleft; calcium induces exocytosis of neurotransmitter; permeability of postsynaptic membrane is altered; neurotransmitter binds to receptor on chemically gated channel; ion channels open b. neurotransmitter diffuses across cleft; ion channels open; permeability of postsynaptic membrane is altered; calcium induces exocytosis of neurotransmitter; neurotransmitter binds to receptor on chemically gated channel c. calcium induces exocytosis of neurotransmitter; neurotransmitter diffuses across cleft; neurotransmitter binds to receptor on chemically gated channel; ion channels open; permeability of postsynaptic membrane is altered d. permeability of postsynaptic membrane is altered; neurotransmitter diffuses across cleft; ion channels open; neurotransmitter binds to receptor on chemically gated channel; calcium induces exocytosis of neurotransmitter

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Chap 03_5ce 25. Which type of gated channels open in response to changes in membrane potential? a. voltage-gated channels b. chemically gated channels c. mechanically gated channels d. leak channels 26. How does membrane potential change during depolarization of a nerve cell? a. It becomes –70 mV. b. It stays the same. c. It becomes more negative. d. It becomes more positive. 27. Which of the following occurs at an excitatory synapse? a. An action potential in the presynaptic neuron always causes an action potential in the postsynaptic neuron. b. A small hyperpolarization occurs. c. There is increased permeability of the subsynaptic membrane to both Na+ and K+. d. The presynaptic neuron increases the permeability of the subsynaptic membrane of the postsynaptic cell to K+ only. 28. Which of these statements refers to membrane potential? a. Changing the voltage of a membrane stops ions from moving across the membrane. b. If movement of ions across a membrane changes, the voltage will change. c. Its units are ohms. d. It results from a difference in the number of anions and cations inside versus outside the cell. 29. A recording electrode is placed into a nerve cell to measure the membrane potential at a particular point. When the physiologist glances at the recording and sees that the membrane at that instant has a potential of +15 mV, they know that the portion of the membrane being recorded is which of the following? a. in the normal resting state b. in the reversal phase of an action potential c. more permeable to Ca2+ than normal d. in the after hyperpolarization phase of an action potential 30. Which of the following facilitates faster current flow in cells? a. the low conductance of the ICF and ECF b. the high resistance of the membrane lipid bilayer c. membrane cholesterol d. membrane glycoproteins 31. Which of the following describes divergence? a. Thousands of synapses from many presynaptic neurons end on a single postsynaptic cell. b. The dendrites diverge from the cell body to contact as many presynaptic neurons as possible. c. The action potential initiated in the axon diminishes as it diverges into the axon terminals. d. The axon of a nerve cell branches to synapse with many other cells, so that activity in one neuron influences the excitability of many other cells.

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Chap 03_5ce 32. Which of these statements applies to membrane potential? a. a separation of charges across the membrane, or a difference in the relative numbers of + and – charges in the ECF and the ICF b. measured in units of millivolts, with the sign always designating the charge on the outside c. less at the equilibrium potential for K+ than at resting membrane potential d. the presence of K+ inside the cell 33. What prevents bidirectional spread of action potentials along an axon? a. the depolarization phase b. the local current flow c. the inactivity period d. the refractory period 34. What causes presynaptic inhibition? a. increased neurotransmitter production c. neuromodulator effects

b. continued EPSP generations d. alteration of calcium permeability

35. The impedance of the movement of electrical charges through a membrane is known as what? a. resistance b. conductance c. insulation d. hindrance 36. Which term is used to describe a membrane potential of any value other than 0 mV? a. depolarized b. polarized c. hyperpolarized d. repolarized 37. Nodes of Ranvier refers to which area within a neuron? a. the trigger zone b. patches of myelin on the dendrites c. patches of myelin on the axon d. exposed areas of the axon in between patches of myelin 38. Which of these statements does NOT correctly represent how neurotransmitters are involved in neural communication? a. A specific neurotransmitter–receptor combination will always produce the same type of synapse. b. One neuron can release more than one type of neurotransmitter. c. Some neurotransmitters are capable of producing both excitatory and inhibitory synapses. d. Gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA) always produces excitatory synapses. 39. When a neurotransmitter binds to a subsynaptic membrane and stimulates hyperpolarization, what type of synapse is this? a. negative synapse b. stimulatory synapse c. excitatory synapse d. inhibitory synapse

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Chap 03_5ce 40. Which statement does NOT describe graded potentials? a. They are decremental. b. They travel only short distances. c. They are self-propagating. d. They may contribute to the development of an action potential. 41. What elicits the changes in ion movement and membrane permeability that can alter membrane potential? a. stimulus b. triggering event c. permeability trigger d. effector 42. Why are action potentials considered long-distance signals? a. They are amplified in strength at varying intervals along the plasma membrane, ensuring they are nondecremental. b. They are stronger in magnitude than a graded potential. c. They involve current flow through the entire span of the plasma membrane. d. They occur only in neurons with long axons. 43. The rising phase of the action potential is due to which of these conditions? a. sodium efflux b. potassium efflux c. sodium influx d. potassium influx 44. Which of these statements describes neuropeptides? a. They are synthesized in the cytosol of the axon terminal. b. They are sometimes cosecreted along with classical neurotransmitters. c. They act at the subsynaptic membrane of the postsynaptic neuron. d. They usually alter the potential of postsynaptic cells by opening specific ion channels. 45. What is another name for an action potential? a. propagation b. overshoot c. spike d. firing event 46. Gated channels for Ca2+ in the axon terminal respond to changes in what? a. stretch b. pressure c. chemicals (neurotransmitters) d. voltage 47. Which of the following is NOT one of the possible configurations of the voltage-gated Na+ channel? a. closed but capable of opening b. open and not capable of closing c. closed and not capable of opening d. open

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Chap 03_5ce 48. Which of the following statements accurately describes postsynaptic potentials? a. EPSPs and IPSPs are produced from the opening on voltage-gated ion channels on the postsynaptic membrane. b. EPSPs make it less likely that an action potential will be fired on a postsynaptic neuron. c. IPSPs bring the postsynaptic membrane farther away from threshold. d. IPSPs are produced by the opening of chemically gated sodium channels on the postsynaptic membrane. 49. Why are graded potentials short-distance signals? a. They do not contribute to generating electrical signals by excitable cells. b. The magnitude of local current is constant as the distance from the initial site of the graded potential gets larger. c. They are changes in membrane potential less than 15 mV, which is small in magnitude. d. The magnitude of local current gets smaller as the distance from the initial site of the graded potential gets larger. 50. Which of these statements refers to myelin? a. It is produced by oligodendrocytes in the central nervous system. b. It is secreted by neurons and acts as an electrical insulator by wrapping around the axon. c. It is composed primarily of proteins. d. It is required for contiguous conduction of electrical signals. 51. Which of these statements refers to why myelinated axons conduct impulses much faster than unmyelinated axons? a. because channels have to close at the nodes b. because voltage is not lost along myelinated areas c. because of shorter axons d. because of available energy 52. Why is resting membrane potential closer to the equilibrium potential for K+ than for Na+? a. Because the Na+–K+ pump pumps out more K+ than Na+. b. Because the Na+–K+ pump pumps out more Na+ than K+. c. Because the plasma membrane is more permeable to Na+ than to K+. d. Because the plasma membrane is more permeable to K+ than to Na+. 53. Which of these statements describes tetanus toxin? a. It promotes presynaptic facilitation. b. It destroys dopamine in the region of the brain that is involved in controlling complex movements. c. It prevents the release of gamma-aminobutyric acid from presynaptic inputs terminating on neurons that supply skeletal muscles. d. It combines with glycine receptors, thus blocking the action of this inhibitory neurotransmitter.

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Chap 03_5ce 54. In addition to myelination, what other factor determines the speed at which an action potential can be conducted? a. axon permeability b. axon length c. axon diameter d. axon strength 55. What is the name of the structure formed by Schwann cells that helps a severed nerve fibre to re-form? a. regeneration tube b. guidance tube c. reforming tube d. Schwann tube 56. Which of the following describes graded potentials? a. They are local changes in membrane potential that occur as all or none. b. They serve as short-distance signals. c. They serve as long-distance signals. d. They are generated after an action potential. 57. How is the Na+–K+ pump involved in restoring ion concentrations in the ICF and ECF after action potentials? a. It helps re-establish appropriate Na+ and K+ concentration gradients after each action potential. b. It helps in returning a depolarized cell to resting membrane potential during the falling phase. c. It inactivates voltage-gated Na+ channels by triggering closure of the inactivation gates. d. It aids in maintaining appropriate Na+ and K+ concentration gradients over a longer period of time. 58. Which of these statements does NOT refer to action potential propagation? a. It can travel along a membrane in only one direction. b. A single one travels down the entire length of the axon. c. Firing of one at the axon hillock is sufficient to trigger more of them along the entire length of the axon. d. Its strength remains constant throughout the entire length of the axon. 59. The falling phase of the action potential is due to which of these conditions? a. sodium efflux b. sodium influx c. potassium influx d. potassium efflux 60. Which of the following happens during the rising phase of the action potential? a. P Na+ is much greater than PK+. b. P K+ is much greater than PNa+. c. P K+ is the same as PNa+.

d. P Na+ is much lower than PK+.

61. Why does the relative refractory period occur after the action potential is complete? a. because of the activation of the voltage-gated Na+ channels b. because of the sodium–potassium pump c. because of the slowness of the voltage-gated channels d. because of quick potassium efflux

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Chap 03_5ce For the following questions, assume a hypothetical postsynaptic neuron has three presynaptic inputs: X, Y, and Z. Also assume that presynaptic neurons Y and Z are excitatory. 62. Refer to the text. If presynaptic neuron X is stimulated, the postsynaptic cell membrane becomes slightly hyperpolarized. What kind of a synapse is involved between presynaptic neuron X and the postsynaptic neuron? a. excitatory synapse b. inhibitory synapse c. either an excitatory or an inhibitory synapse d. collateral axoaxonic 63. Which of the following is the last step for synaptic signalling when the action potential arrives at the axon terminal of a presynaptic neuron? a. A neurotransmitter is released by exocytosis. b. Calcium flows in the synaptic knob. c. The neurotransmitter combines with protein receptor sites on the subsynaptic membrane. d. The permeability is altered in a postsynaptic neuron. 64. Which of these statements accurately describes membrane potential? a. The magnitude of membrane potential is inversely proportional to the number of positive and negative charges separated by the membrane. b. Depolarization refers to a change that makes membrane potential more negative. c. After depolarization, the return to resting membrane potential is known as repolarization. d. During hyperpolarization, fewer charges are separated than at resting potential. 65. Which of the following is NOT a way for a synapse to be terminated? a. uptake of the neurotransmitter into the postsynaptic neurons b. inactivation of the neurotransmitter by enzymes c. diffusion of the neurotransmitter out of the synaptic cleft d. uptake of the neurotransmitter back into the presynaptic neuron 66. With a stronger triggering event, what type of gated channels open in larger numbers or for longer duration? a. calcium channels b. sodium channels c. potassium channels d. chloride channels 67. When depolarizing local current flow reaches a node of Ranvier, what occurs? a. an influx of K+ ions c. a depolarizing graded potential

b. a hyperpolarizing graded potential d. an action potential

68. What occurs when the inactivation gate of the voltage-gated Na+ channel is closed? a. The voltage-gated Na+ channel is capable of opening. b. The activation gate is also closed. c. Na+ cannot move into the cell. d. K+ cannot move out of the cell. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_5ce 69. How do charged proteins contribute to resting membrane potential? a. They are positively charged and can permeate the membrane. b. They are positively charged and cannot permeate the membrane. c. They are negatively charged and can permeate the membrane. d. They are negatively charged and cannot permeate the membrane. 70. A patch of membrane in a hypothetical cell has 5 ion channels. If the number of ion channels in this patch was increased to 10, what would happen to current flow? a. Current flow would stay the same. b. Current flow would diminish slower. c. Current flow would diminish faster. d. Current flow would be enhanced faster. 71. Which of these statements describes a threshold potential? a. the point at which there is an explosive increase in Na+ permeability b. the peak potential achieved during an action potential c. the potential achieved when two opposing forces acting upon an ion (concentration and electrical gradients) achieve a state of equilibrium d. the potential at which K+ permeability increases 72. Which of the following is responsible for the falling phase of an action potential? a. opening of Na+ gates b. Na+–K+ pump restoring the ions to their original locations c. greatly increased permeability to Na+ d. opening of K+ gates and K+ efflux 73. Which cell type produces myelin in the peripheral nervous system? a. astrocyte b. Schwann cell c. oligodendrocyte d. neuron 74. Neurotransmitters are stored within which structures? a. postsynaptic vesicles b. dendrites c. endoplasmic reticula d. synaptic vesicles 75. Which of the following happens during the falling phase of the action potential? a. P Na+ is much greater than PK+. b. P K+ is much greater than PNa+. c. P K+ is the same as PNa+.

d. P K+ is much lower than PNa+.

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Chap 03_5ce 76. Why is a stronger stimulus needed to generate an action potential during the relative refractory period? a. because the inactivation gates on some voltage-gated Na+ channels are still closed and voltage-gated K+ channels are slow to close b. because activation gates on voltage-gated Na+ channels are still open c. because the inactivation gates on some voltage-gated K+ channels are still closed d. because the activation gates on voltage-gated Na+ channels are open and voltage-gated K+ channels are slow to close 77. A change in a membrane potential from –70 mV to –60 mV is an example of which of the following? a. depolarization b. hyperpolarization c. polarization d. repolarization 78. Which of these statements refers to IPSP? a. It is produced by increased Na+ permeability and K+ permeability. b. It is produced by increased K+ permeability or increased Cl– permeability. c. It is a small depolarization of the postsynaptic neuron. d. It is produced by increased Na+ permeability only. 79. Which of the following occurs at an excitatory synapse? a. Binding of neurotransmitter to receptors on the subsynaptic membrane opens cation channels that allow both Na+ and K+ to move through them. b. Binding of neurotransmitter to receptors on the subsynaptic membrane opens cation channels that allow only Na+ to move through them. c. Binding of neurotransmitter to receptors on the subsynaptic membrane opens cation channels that allow only K+ to move through them. d. Binding of neurotransmitter to receptors on the subsynaptic membrane opens anion channels that allow Cl– to move through them. 80. During an action potential, when is closing of voltage-gated Na+ channels triggered? a. during the rising phase b. at threshold c. at the peak d. during the falling phase For the following questions, assume a hypothetical postsynaptic neuron has three presynaptic inputs: X, Y, and Z. Also assume that presynaptic neurons Y and Z are excitatory. 81. Refer to the text. If presynaptic neurons Y and Z are stimulated simultaneously, what change would be expected to occur in the postsynaptic neuron? a. a single EPSP b. a single IPSP c. temporal summation of EPSPs d. spatial summation of EPSPs

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Chap 03_5ce 82. Which of these statements describes neuromodulators? a. They bind to receptors at nonsynaptic sites. b. They contribute directly to EPSP and IPSP formation. c. They are secreted in higher concentrations compared to neurotransmitters. d. They directly alter membrane permeability. 83. Which of these statements does NOT refer to neuronal inhibition? a. With presynaptic inhibition, another neuron selectively excites an inhibitory presynaptic input. b. An IPSP depresses information fed into the cell from any excitatory presynaptic input. c. All the axon terminals of an inhibitory neuron will release inhibitory transmitter. d. An IPSP moves the potential of the postsynaptic neuron farther from threshold. 84. Which of these statements refers to ion permeability and movement during an action potential? a. At resting membrane potential, voltage-gated Na+ and K+ channels are closed so there is no movement of these ions across the membrane. b. A triggering event brings resting membrane potential closer to threshold by opening some voltage-gated K+ channels c. Voltage-gated K+ channels begin to open when threshold is reached. d. At resting membrane potential, voltage-gated Na+ channels are in the closed but capable of opening conformation. 85. Which of these statements describes the equilibrium potential for Na+? a. At Na+ equilibrium, membrane potential would be +60 mV. b. It would be reached when the outward concentration gradient and inward electrical gradients for Na+ were equal. c. It would be reached if the number of Na+ ions moving across the plasma membrane was higher than other ions. d. It would be reached when the outward concentration gradient was higher than the inward electrical gradient. 86. What type of conduction is occurring when action potentials are NOT conducted over every patch of the axon’s membrane? a. saltatory b. continual c. contiguous d. continuous 87. Which of these statements refers to nodes of Ranvier? a. They are exposed portions of a myelinated axon with a high density of voltage-gated Na+ channels. b. They are required for contiguous conduction. c. They are the portions of the axon that are covered in myelin and serve to insulate electrical impulses. d. They are found on axons of neurons where speed of propagation is not vital.

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Chap 03_5ce 88. Which of the following occurs in convergence? a. Thousands of synapses from many different presynaptic cells end on a single postsynaptic cell. b. The axon of a nerve cell branches so that the activity in one neuron influences many other cells. c. All the dendrites converge on the cell body. d. The action potential initiated in the dendrites is sped up as it converges onto the axon. For the following questions, assume a hypothetical postsynaptic neuron has three presynaptic inputs: X, Y, and Z. Also assume that presynaptic neurons Y and Z are excitatory. 89. Refer to the text. What permeability changes would be expected to occur at the postsynaptic neuron when presynaptic neuron Y is stimulated? (Remember that the postsynaptic neuron becomes depolarized by presynaptic neuron Y.) a. increased PNa+ and PK+ b. increased PK+ or PCl– c. increased PA–

d. increased PCa2+

90. Which statement refers to an excitatory synapse? a. sufficient to stimulate an action potential to fire on the postsynaptic neuron b. causes a slight hyperpolarization on the postsynaptic neuron’s membrane c. always determined by the type of neurotransmitter involved d. depolarizes the membrane on the postsynaptic cell, and only increases the chances that an action potential will be fired on the postsynaptic neuron 91. Which of these statements describes what happens when temporal summation takes place? a. Two EPSPs from the same presynaptic input occur so closely together in time that they add together, or sum. b. An EPSP and an IPSP occur simultaneously and cancel each other out. c. Two EPSPs that occur simultaneously from different presynaptic inputs add together, or sum. d. Action potentials occurring in two presynaptic inputs simultaneously converge upon the postsynaptic cell, initiating two different action potentials in the postsynaptic cell. 92. By preventing glycine from binding to the postsynaptic cell, strychnine poisoning can cause which of the following effects? a. muscle spasms b. paralysis c. tolerance d. addiction 93. What is the name for the space between the presynaptic neuron and the postsynaptic neuron? a. synaptic cleft b. synaptic knob c. axon terminal d. synapse 94. What accounts for passive flow between the active area and the surrounding inactive areas? a. opening of K+ channels b. opening of gated Na+ channels c. the difference in electrical charges across the membrane d. the difference in electrical charges along the membrane Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_5ce 95. Which of the following is the first step for synaptic signalling when the action potential arrives at the axon terminal of a presynaptic neuron? a. A neurotransmitter is released by exocytosis. b. Calcium flows in the synaptic knob. c. The neurotransmitter combines with protein receptor sites on the subsynaptic membrane. d. The permeability is altered in a postsynaptic neuron. 96. Which of the following statements accurately describes current flow associated with graded potentials? a. Current flow is produced when ions move across the membrane. b. The strength of current is constant over different parts of the membrane. c. Current flows across the membrane in an undiminishing fashion. d. Current flow away from the initial site of change in membrane potential is bidirectional. 97. What type of conduction is occurring when action potentials fire on every patch of the axon’s membrane? a. saltatory b. continual c. contiguous d. continuous 98. Which of the following describes saltatory conduction? a. occurs in unmyelinated nerve fibres b. slower than conduction by local current flow because the myelin acts as an insulator to slow the impulse c. involves the impulse jumping from one node of Ranvier to the adjacent node d. refers to the action potential spreading from one Schwann cell to the adjacent Schwann cell 99. Which cell type produces myelin in the central nervous system? a. astrocyte b. Schwann cell c. oligodendrocyte d. neuron 100. What do the terms action potential, spike, and firing all refer to? a. the rapid influx of negative ions into the cell b. the changes (both positive and negative) in membrane potential after threshold is reached c. the depolarization to threshold potential d. the rapid reversal of membrane potential 101. What part of the neuron releases chemical messengers that communicate with other cells? a. axon terminal b. collateral c. axon hillock d. soma 102. Which of the following statements does NOT refer to graded potentials? a. They can vary in magnitude. b. They occur on a localized area of the plasma membrane. c. They are caused by a triggering event. d. They are most often generated by opening of voltage-gated channels.

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Chap 03_5ce 103. Which of the following is an accurate statement regarding chloride and membrane potential? a. Chloride is the major anion in the ICF. b. In most cells, resting membrane potential is largely determined by chloride movement. c. Resting membrane potential is responsible for the unequal distribution of chloride across the membrane. d. Active transport of chloride by pumps accounts for a large proportion of its movement across the membrane. 104. If voltage-gated Ca2+ channels were inactivated in a neuron, which of the following would be affected directly? a. neurotransmitter binding to its receptor b. diffusion of neurotransmitter across the synaptic cleft c. exocytosis of synaptic vesicles d. depolarization of the postsynaptic membrane 105. The cells of excitable and nonexcitable tissues share which one of these properties? a. a threshold potential b. a resting membrane potential c. an ability to open the Na+ gates

d. an ability to open the K+ gates

106. How does cocaine affect synaptic transmission? a. It prevents dopamine from being released from receptors on the postsynaptic membrane. b. It blocks dopamine from binding to receptors on the postsynaptic membrane. c. It prevents reuptake of dopamine into the presynaptic neuron. d. It promotes sustained release of dopamine from the presynaptic neuron. 107. The overshoot refers to which period during the action potential? a. the depolarization immediately after the triggering event b. the depolarization after threshold has been reached c. the repolarization after the peak of the action potential d. the hyperpolarization phase when membrane potential dips below resting membrane potential 108. Which of these nerve fibres will have the highest conduction velocity? a. an unmyelinated nerve fibre (A) with conduction velocity of 0.35 m/sec b. an unmyelinated nerve fibre smaller than nerve fibre A c. a myelinated nerve fibre the same size as nerve fibre A d. a myelinated fibre larger than nerve fibre A 109. Which of these statements describes the concentration gradient for Na+? a. It favours the movement of Na+ into the cell at resting potential. b. It favours the movement of Na+ out of the cell at resting potential. c. Na+ equilibrium potential is –90 mV. d. Na+ equilibrium potential is –60 mV.

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Chap 03_5ce 110. Which of these statements describes the resting membrane potential? a. It is much closer to the equilibrium potential for Na+ than to the equilibrium potential for K+. b. It is much closer to the equilibrium potential for K+ than to the equilibrium potential for Na+. c. It is the same as the equilibrium potential for Cl–. d. It refers to the presence of Na+ inside the cell. 111. Which of the following occurs when a membrane is stimulated due to opening of chemically gated Na+ channels? a. An impulse is propagated. b. A graded potential is established. c. Na+ flows out of the cell.

d. The voltage becomes more negative.

112. Which of the following statements does NOT reflect the correct relative concentration of K+ and Na+ in ECF and ICF? a. The concentration of K+ is lower in the ECF compared to the ICF. b. The concentration of K+ is higher in the ICF compared to the ECF. c. The concentration of Na+ is higher in the ECF compared to the ICF. d. The concentration of Na+ is higher in the ICF compared to the ECF. 113. How does tetanus toxin lead to uncontrolled muscle spasms and lockjaw? a. by preventing the inhibitory neurotransmitter glycine from binding to its receptors b. by inhibiting the release of the inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA c. by increasing the release of the excitatory neurotransmitter glutamate d. by preventing the excitatory neurotransmitter glycine from being recycled back into the presynaptic neuron 114. The opening of Na+ activation gates, the closing of Na+ inactivation gates, and the opening of K+ gates are all triggered at which stage of the action potential? a. during the rising phase b. during the falling phase c. at threshold d. at the peak 115. Which of the following statements most accurately describes an aspect of graded potentials? a. The most common type of gated channels that open in response to a triggering event are gated K+ channels. b. The duration of the triggering event and duration of the graded potential are directly proportional. c. Stronger triggering events open more ion gated channels, allowing more negative charges to enter the cell. d. Triggering events produce graded potentials that depolarize a large area of the total plasma membrane.

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Chap 03_5ce 116. Which of these statements does NOT refer to propagation of action potentials? a. Saltatory conduction occurs in myelinated nerve fibres. b. During conduction by local current flow, there is a flow of current between the active and the adjacent inactive area of the cell membrane, thereby decreasing the potential in the inactive area to threshold. c. It jumps from one Schwann cell to the adjacent Schwann cell in a myelinated fibre. d. Saltatory conduction is faster than conduction by local current flow. 117. What is the term for the localized area of the plasma membrane where a graded potential occurs? a. the depolarized area b. the trigger area c. the active area d. the inactive area 118. Why is neuronal integration important? a. It is a way for presynaptic neurons to influence many other postsynaptic neurons simultaneously. b. It enables presynaptic neurons to control the information it passes along to postsynaptic neurons. c. It is how postsynaptic neurons process all incoming information to determine if action potentials will be fired. d. It allows postsynaptic neurons to discriminate between weak and strong signals. 119. A change in a membrane potential from +30 mV to –70 mV is an example of ____________________. a. depolarization b. hyperpolarization c. polarization d. repolarization 120. What does the term “relative refractory period” refer to? a. the period where it is easier for a second action potential to be fired on a neuron b. the period where a stronger stimulus than usual produces a stronger action potential c. the period where a second action potential will be fired only if the stimulus is stronger than usual d. the period where a second action potential cannot be fired, no matter how strong the stimulus 121. What prevents current from flowing across the plasma membrane? a. membrane phospholipids b. ion channels c. membrane cholesterol d. membrane glycoproteins 122. What happens when a graded potential is generated on the plasma membrane? a. Membrane potential moves closer to Na+ equilibrium potential. b. Na+ permeability decreases and more Na+ stays in the cell, causing it to depolarize. c. Voltage-gated Na+ opens and the cell depolarizes. d. Na+ channels open and Na+ moves against its concentration gradient. 123. Why can’t severed nerve fibres in the central nervous system regenerate? a. The axons do not have the ability to regenerate. b. Oligodendrocytes produce compounds that prevent regeneration of axons. c. Schwann cells are not present in the central nervous system. d. Nerve fibres in the central nervous system cannot be severed. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_5ce 124. What does membrane potential refer to? a. the difference in electrical potential inside versus outside the cell b. the difference in electrical potential derived from movement of glucose across the membrane c. the difference in electrical potential across the mitochondrial membrane d. the difference in electrical potential derived from the movement of neutral compounds across the membrane 125. Which term is used to describe the hindrance of the flow of electrical current? a. conduction b. resistance c. insulation d. impedance 126. What would be the effect on the resting membrane potential if the number of membrane channels for potassium decreased? a. It would be unaffected. b. It would become more negative. c. It would become more positive. d. It would become closer to the equilibrium potential. 127. What happens when a neurotransmitter binding to its receptors causes increased chloride permeability in the postsynaptic membrane? a. The membrane is brought farther away from threshold. b. The membrane is brought closer to threshold. c. An excitatory synapse will be stimulated. d. The postsynaptic neuron will fire an action potential. For the following questions, assume a hypothetical postsynaptic neuron has three presynaptic inputs: X, Y, and Z. Also assume that presynaptic neurons Y and Z are excitatory. 128. Refer to the text. If presynaptic neuron Z is repeatedly stimulated very rapidly, what change would be expected to occur in the postsynaptic neuron? a. a single EPSP b. a single IPSP c. temporal summation of EPSPs d. spatial summation of EPSPs 129. Refer to the text. If presynaptic neuron Y is stimulated, the postsynaptic cell membrane becomes slightly depolarized. What kind of synapse is involved between presynaptic neuron Y and the postsynaptic neuron? a. excitatory synapse b. inhibitory synapse c. either an excitatory or an inhibitory synapse d. There is no synapse.

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Chap 03_5ce 130. Which of the following happens at resting membrane potential? a. The membrane is more permeable to K+ than to Na+. b. The membrane is more permeable to Na+ than to K+. c. Cl– is not at its equilibrium potential. d. The membrane is more permeable to Cl–.

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Chap 03_5ce Answer Key 1. d 2. a 3. c 4. a 5. b 6. d 7. b 8. d 9. b 10. d 11. c 12. b 13. c 14. b 15. b 16. c 17. c 18. b 19. b 20. b 21. a 22. b 23. b 24. c 25. a 26. d

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Chap 03_5ce 27. c 28. b 29. b 30. b 31. d 32. a 33. d 34. d 35. a 36. b 37. d 38. d 39. d 40. c 41. b 42. c 43. c 44. b 45. c 46. d 47. b 48. c 49. d 50. a 51. b 52. d 53. c 54. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_5ce 55. a 56. b 57. d 58. b 59. d 60. a 61. c 62. b 63. d 64. c 65. a 66. b 67. d 68. c 69. d 70. c 71. a 72. d 73. b 74. d 75. b 76. a 77. a 78. b 79. a 80. b 81. d 82. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_5ce 83. a 84. d 85. a 86. a 87. a 88. a 89. a 90. d 91. a 92. a 93. a 94. d 95. b 96. d 97. c 98. c 99. c 100. d 101. a 102. d 103. c 104. c 105. b 106. c 107. b 108. d 109. a 110. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_5ce 111. b 112. d 113. b 114. c 115. b 116. c 117. c 118. c 119. d 120. c 121. a 122. a 123. b 124. a 125. b 126. c 127. a 128. c 129. a 130. a

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Chap 03_5ce_2 Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. For graded potentials, the magnitude of triggering is coded for in frequency rather than amplitude of depolarizations. a. True b. False 2. The axon hillock is the most excitable portion of a neuron because it has the highest density of voltage-gated Na+ channels. a. True b. False 3. During the rising phase of an action potential, PNa+ exceeds PK+. a. True b. False 4. As a graded potential spreads away from the point of origin, its magnitude increases. a. True b. False 5. Severed nerve fibres in the peripheral nervous system cannot be regenerated because oligodendrocytes produce proteins that inhibit nerve growth. a. True b. False 6. Cocaine exerts its effects by blocking the secretion of dopamine from excitatory neurons. a. True b. False 7. Most cells do not have active transporters for chloride. a. True b. False 8. The relative refractory period ensures that current flow moves only in the forward direction. a. True b. False 9. Nerve fibres with larger diameters can conduct electrical signals faster because of lower resistance. a. True b. False 10. Sodium efflux is the main contributor to the falling phase of an action potential. a. True b. False

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Chap 03_5ce_2 11. Nerve impulses carrying urgent information would be transmitted by unmyelinated neurons. a. True b. False 12. A stronger stimulus will cause more action potentials to be fired per second. a. True b. False 13. A patch of membrane in a hypothetical cell has 5 ion channels. If the number of ion channels was increased to 10, local current would decrease more quickly. a. True b. False 14. At the equilibrium potential for K+, the concentration and electrical gradients for K+ are in opposition to each other and exactly balance each other so there is no net movement of K+. a. True b. False 15. The synapse is a specialized part of a neuron. a. True b. False 16. Current can only move across the plasma membrane if ion channels are present. a. True b. False 17. It is impossible for the magnitude of action potentials to be summed. a. True b. False 18. A second action potential cannot be fired during the relative refractory period because all voltage-gated Na+ channels are in their open and activated conformation. a. True b. False 19. The axon of a neuron is a long extension that directs action potentials toward the cell body. a. True b. False 20. Increased permeability of the postsynaptic cell to Cl– lessens the likelihood that the postsynaptic cell will undergo an action potential because the membrane potential is moved farther away from threshold. a. True b. False

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Chap 03_5ce_2 21. A single synaptic knob contains two different transmitters: one that produces EPSPs and one that produces IPSPs. a. True b. False 22. An action potential that fires during the relative refractory period may be of smaller amplitude if not all the Na+ channels have reset to their closed but ready-to-open conformation. a. True b. False 23. A graded potential’s passive flow of current is insulated by the intracellular and extracellular fluid. a. True b. False 24. As the membrane potential returns to resting after the peak of an action potential, slow closure of voltage-gated Na+ channels accounts for the transient hyperpolarization phase. a. True b. False 25. Tetanus poisoning may eventually lead to muscle spasms and death because it prevents the release of an inhibitory neurotransmitter at synapses between neurons and skeletal muscle. a. True b. False 26. Threshold potential is not the same throughout the entire postsynaptic neuron, and is the lowest on dendrites. a. True b. False 27. Action potentials are only initiated in areas of the membrane where there is a high density of voltage-gated Na+ channels. a. True b. False 28. The movement and distribution of chloride across the plasma membrane helps determine resting membrane potential. a. True b. False 29. Threshold potential is the peak potential achieved during an action potential. a. True b. False 30. In order for a synapse to complete, a neurotransmitter must bind to its receptor on the subsynaptic membrane. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_5ce_2 31. In addition to the Na+–K+ pump, Na+ and K+ cross the membrane using facilitative transporters. a. True b. False 32. Schwann cells promote axonal growth; oligodendrocytes inhibit it. a. True b. False 33. Low resistance results in higher current flow of graded potentials. a. True b. False 34. Presynaptic neurons converging upon a postsynaptic cell will be either all excitatory or all inhibitory. a. True b. False 35. A balance of IPSPs and EPSPs will negate each other so that the grand postsynaptic potential is essentially unaltered. a. True b. False 36. The grand postsynaptic potential determines whether an action potential will be fired on the postsynaptic neuron. a. True b. False 37. Net sodium movement into the cell occurs passively, whereas net sodium movement out of the cell occurs actively. a. True b. False 38. The summation of all IPSPs and EPSPs determines whether a postsynaptic neuron will fire. a. True b. False 39. During the relative refractory period, a stronger stimulus is required to fire another action potential because more positive charges need to enter the neuron to overcome the outward hyperpolarizing movement of K+. a. True b. False 40. Spatial summation involves a single neuron influencing one other neuron. a. True b. False

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Chap 03_5ce_2 41. Tolerance refers to sensitization to a drug that requires the user to use increasing doses of the drug to obtain the same level of effect. a. True b. False 42. Temporal summation occurs when EPSPs from several different excitatory presynaptic inputs occur simultaneously. a. True b. False 43. At resting membrane potential, no ionic fluxes are taking place across the membrane. a. True b. False 44. The large protein anion does not leave the cell because there is no concentration or electrical gradient to drive it outward. a. True b. False 45. Stretch is a stimulus that can trigger opening of mechanically gated ion channels. a. True b. False 46. Neuropeptides are stored in small synaptic vesicles, just like neurotransmitters. a. True b. False 47. Leak channels allow ions to leak across the plasma membrane when they are opened by a stimulus. a. True b. False 48. Action potentials are initiated at the axon hillock region because it has the lowest threshold voltage. a. True b. False 49. Graded potentials can be of varying strength. a. True b. False 50. Classical neurotransmitters and neuropeptides are sometimes cosecreted from the same axon terminal. a. True b. False 51. The lipid bilayer prevents current from flowing across the plasma membrane. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_5ce_2 52. Nerve and muscle cells are the only cell types that display resting membrane potential. a. True b. False 53. The equal distribution of ions and their selective movement through the plasma membrane account for its electrical properties. a. True b. False 54. A triggering event that is stronger than needed to bring a neuron to threshold will lead to a larger depolarizing phase of the action potential. a. True b. False 55. Action potentials in the postsynaptic neuron are initiated at the axon hillock. a. True b. False 56. Na+ is more concentrated in the ECF than in the ICF. a. True b. False 57. Neuropeptides can influence both presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons. a. True b. False 58. Activity of voltage-gated K+ channels accounts for the inability to fire another action potential during the absolute refractory period. a. True b. False 59. Graded potentials maintain constant strength as they travel across a membrane because they spread along every patch of the membrane. a. True b. False 60. The opening of Na+ activation gates and closing of Na+ inactivation gates are both triggered at threshold potential. a. True b. False 61. At resting membrane potential, the membrane is more permeable to K+ than to Na+. a. True b. False

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Chap 03_5ce_2 62. The grand postsynaptic potential depends on the sum of activity of the presynaptic inputs. a. True b. False 63. Nerve and muscle cells are considered excitable because their resting membrane potential can be altered by stimuli. a. True b. False 64. A single neuron can release only one type of neurotransmitter. a. True b. False 65. In addition to increasing the frequency of action potential firing, a stronger stimulus may also trigger more neurons to fire action potentials. a. True b. False 66. Axons from neurons in the central nervous system that have been severed can be regenerated. a. True b. False 67. A single neuron may be presynaptic to one group of neurons and postsynaptic to another group of neurons. a. True b. False 68. The release of a chemical messenger at the synapse immediately stimulates potassium permeability in the postsynaptic neuron. a. True b. False 69. Graded potentials and action potentials can be either depolarizing or hyperpolarizing. a. True b. False 70. A stimulus that is too weak to depolarize the membrane to threshold produces an action potential smaller than normal. a. True b. False 71. Contiguous conduction occurs in axons that are myelinated. a. True b. False

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Chap 03_5ce_2 72. The peak of the action potential is caused by a simultaneous large increase in PK+ and closing of Na+ inactivation gates. a. True b. False 73. The diffusion of potassium ions re-establishes the resting membrane potential in a neuron immediately after it develops an action potential. a. True b. False 74. Most of the membrane potential of the plasma membrane is established by the active transport of sodium and potassium ions. a. True b. False 75. At resting potential, the outside of the cell is negative compared to the intracellular fluid. a. True b. False 76. Permeabilities of Na+ and K+ differ during the absolute and relative refractory periods. a. True b. False 77. The only way in which a neurotransmitter–receptor combination can influence the postsynaptic cell is to directly alter its permeability to specific ions. a. True b. False 78. When resting membrane potential becomes less negative, the membrane is depolarized. a. True b. False 79. The Na+–K+ pump is directly involved in restoring Na+ and K+ concentration gradients after a single action potential. a. True b. False 80. Divergence refers to the neuronal arrangement wherein the dendrites diverge to synapse with as many presynaptic inputs as possible. a. True b. False

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Chap 03_5ce_2 81. How quickly a neuron can respond to repeated action potentials is determined partly by the length of the refractory period. a. True b. False Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement. 82. One-way propagation of an action potential is ensured by the ____________________. 83. Triggering events affect ion movement across the membrane by altering membrane ____________________. 84. The ____________________ phase of the action potential is a brief period during which membrane potential becomes more negative than resting potential. 85. The ____________________ refractory period is the period of time where another action potential cannot be fired, no matter how strong the stimulus. 86. Membrane channels can be either leak channels or ____________________. 87. The flow of electrical charges along the plasma membrane is known as ____________________. 88. Neurons in the ____________________ nervous system cannot be regenerated if they are severed. 89. The junction between two neurons is known as a(n) ____________________. 90. At the synapse, a presynaptic neuron signals a ____________________ neuron. 91. Communication between neurons occurs by the release of ____________________, which are chemical messengers. 92. When EPSPs originating from a single presynaptic input occur so close together in time that they add together, or sum, thereby bringing the postsynaptic cell to threshold, it is called ____________________. 93. ____________________ form myelin around neurons in the central nervous system. 94. Mechanically gated and ____________________ gated channels are opened in response to a triggering event. 95. When EPSPs occurring simultaneously from two different presynaptic inputs add together or sum to bring the postsynaptic cell to threshold, it is called ____________________. 96. Schwann cells assist in regenerating severed neurons by forming a ____________________ that helps guide the neuron as it is repairing. 97. Presynaptic inhibition is brought about by reducing the amount of ____________________ that enters the presynaptic axon terminal. 98. An increase in the ____________________ of a nerve fibre increases its rate of conduction. 99. The ____________________ is the portion of the neuron where action potentials are fired. 100. The release of ____________________ from the presynaptic neuron is blocked by tetanus toxin. 101. ____________________ cells form myelin around neurons in the peripheral nervous system. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_5ce_2 102. If a neuron interacts with a presynaptic axon terminal and prevents it from releasing its neurotransmitter, this is known as ____________________. 103. Unless ____________________ potential is reached, graded potentials will not trigger a neuron to fire. 104. The refractory period limits the ____________________ of action potential firing. 105. When a neuron fires a signal, a resting membrane potential is converted into a(n) ____________________ potential. 106. ____________________ refers to a separation of opposite charges across the membrane. 107. The ____________________ are patches of exposed membrane between myelinated portions of the axon where voltage-gated Na+ channels are concentrated and action potentials can occur. 108. A given synapse is always excitatory or ____________________. 109. An action potential in a presynaptic neuron induces opening of voltage-gated ____________________ channels in the synaptic knob, which triggers exocytosis of synaptic vesicles. 110. The concentration gradient for K+ is always outward and the concentration gradient for Na+ is always inward due to the ____________________. 111. The gradual decrease in strength of a graded potential as it moves along a membrane can be described as ____________________. 112. The longer a triggering event lasts, the ____________________ the graded potential will be. 113. The resting membrane potential of a typical nerve cell is about _______ millivolts. 114. Usually, gated channels for ____________________ are opened in response to triggering events that produce graded potentials. 115. The ____________________ equation equates the equilibrium potential for an ion with the ion’s concentration difference outside and inside the cell. 116. A plasma membrane has a polarization if it separates particles with an opposite ____________________. 117. At the equilibrium potential for an ion, its ____________________ gradient is exactly counterbalanced by its electrical gradient. 118. The falling phase of the action potential is associated with K+ ____________________. 119. The ____________________ refractory period is the period of time during which another action potential can only be fired if the stimulus is stronger than usual. 120. When the voltage-gated Na+ channel is in the closed but capable of opening position, the activation gate is ____________________, and the inactivation gate is ____________________. 121. Repeated firings of one presynaptic neuron can produce ____________________ summation. 122. The neuronal relationship in which many presynaptic cells terminate on a single postsynaptic cell is called ____________________.

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Chap 03_5ce_2 123. The ____________________ of a graded potential is proportional to the magnitude of the triggering event. 124. Gated channels that open in response to changes in membrane potential are called ____________________. 125. The ____________________ contains a high density of voltage-gated Na+ channels and is the most easily excitable portion of the neuron. 126. ____________________ along axons reduces resistance and, hence, increases impulse velocity. 127. At ____________________ potential, typically around –55 mV, rapid depolarization occurs. 128. ____________________ influence synaptic activity by binding to receptors outside the synapse. 129. The ____________________ is the portion of the membrane that is temporarily depolarized in response to a triggering event. 130. During ____________________ conduction, action potentials spread along every patch of the axon’s membrane. 131. The membrane potential that exists when the concentration and electrical gradients for a given ion exactly counterbalance each other is known as the ____________________. 132. The slight swelling at the end of an axon terminal is known as the ____________________. 133. As opposed to neurotransmitters, ____________________ bring about subtle and long-term changes in synaptic activity. 134. A neuron fires an impulse by the ____________________ law. 135. If a neuron interacts with a presynaptic axon terminal and stimulates it to release more of its neurotransmitter, this is known as ____________________. 136. ____________________ is a neurotoxin that blocks glycine from binding to its receptors on the postsynaptic membrane. 137. When a membrane is more polarized than at resting membrane potential it is said to be ____________________. 138. ____________________ is the hindrance to electrical charge movement. 139. ____________________ cause changes in ion flow across a membrane by opening or closing gated channels. 140. The neuronal relationship in which a single presynaptic cell branches to terminate on many other cells is called ____________________. 141. ____________________ is a condition caused when the muscles in the jaw are uncontrollably contracted in response to tetanus toxin. 142. The stronger the triggering event, the ____________________ the depolarizing graded potential. 143. The portion of the action potential where potential is reversed is known as the ____________________.

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Chap 03_5ce_2 Match the result, labelled a. or b., with the force and involved ion in question. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. The ion tends to be moved into the cell by this force. b. The ion tends to be moved out of the cell by this force. CUSTOM ID: 03-279 144. concentration gradient for K+ at resting potential 145. electrical gradient for K+ at resting potential 146. electrical gradient for K+ at EK+ 147. concentration gradient for Na+ at resting potential 148. electrical gradient for Na+ at resting potential 149. electrical gradient for Na+ at ENa+ 150. Na+–K+ pump for Na+ 151. Na+–K+ pump for K+ Match the ions, labelled a. through d., with their various roles. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. Na+ b. K+ c. A– d. Cl– CUSTOM ID: 03-287 152. cation in greatest concentration in the ICF 153. cation in greatest concentration in the ECF 154. anion in greatest concentration in the ICF 155. anion in greatest concentration in the ECF 156. ion whose equilibrium potential is greater than the resting membrane potential 157. ion whose equilibrium potential is opposite in charge of the resting membrane potential 158. ion whose equilibrium potential is exactly equal to the resting membrane potential 159. cation to which the membrane is most permeable under resting conditions 160. anion to which the membrane is impermeable 161. ion that has the predominant influence on the resting membrane potential 162. ion that is actively transported out of the cell 163. ion that is actively transported into the cell 164. ion whose concentration gradient is established by the membrane potential

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Chap 03_5ce_2 The following questions refer to comparative concentrations, permeabilities, and potentials under various circumstances. Match the relationship between the two items, A and B, with the qualifications labelled a. through c. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. A is greater than B b. B is greater than A c. A and B are equal CUSTOM ID: 03-300 165. A. concentration of K+ in the extracellular fluid B. concentration of K+ in the intracellular fluid of a resting nerve cell 166. A. concentration of Na+ in the extracellular fluid B. concentration of Na+ in the intracellular fluid of a resting nerve cell 167. A. concentration of A– in the extracellular fluid B. concentration of A– in the intracellular fluid of a resting nerve cell 168. A. permeability of a resting nerve cell membrane to K+ B. permeability of a resting nerve cell membrane to A– 169. A. permeability of a resting nerve cell membrane to K+ B. permeability of a resting nerve cell membrane to Na+ 170. A. concentration gradient for K+ at the equilibrium potential for K+ B. electrical gradient for K+ at the equilibrium potential for K+ 171. A. resting membrane potential in a typical nerve cell B. equilibrium potential for K+ 172. A. amount of Na+ transported out of the cell by the Na+–K+ pump B. amount of K+ transported into the cell by the Na+–K+ pump

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Chap 03_5ce_2 Answer Key 1. False 2. True 3. True 4. False 5. False 6. False 7. True 8. True 9. True 10. False 11. False 12. True 13. True 14. True 15. False 16. True 17. True 18. False 19. False 20. True 21. False 22. True 23. False 24. False 25. True 26. False

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Chap 03_5ce_2 27. True 28. False 29. False 30. True 31. False 32. True 33. True 34. False 35. True 36. True 37. True 38. True 39. True 40. False 41. False 42. False 43. False 44. False 45. True 46. False 47. False 48. True 49. True 50. True 51. True 52. False 53. False 54. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_5ce_2 55. True 56. True 57. True 58. False 59. False 60. True 61. True 62. True 63. True 64. False 65. True 66. False 67. True 68. False 69. False 70. False 71. False 72. True 73. True 74. True 75. False 76. True 77. False 78. True 79. False 80. False 81. True 82. refractory period Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_5ce_2 83. permeability 84. after hyperpolarization 85. absolute 86. gated channels 87. current 88. central 89. synapse 90. postsynaptic 91. neurotransmitters 92. temporal summation 93. Oligodendrocytes 94. chemically 95. spatial summation 96. regeneration tube 97. calcium 98. diameter 99. trigger zone 100. GABA 101. Schwann 102. presynaptic inhibition 103. threshold 104. frequency 105. action 106. Membrane potential 107. nodes of Ranvier 108. inhibitory 109. Na+ sodium ion 110. Na+–K+ pump 111. decremental Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_5ce_2 112. longer 113. –70 114. sodium 115. Nernst 116. charge 117. concentration 118. efflux 119. relative 120. closed; open 121. temporal 122. convergence 123. magnitude/strength 124. voltage-gated channels 125. axon hillock 126. Myelin 127. threshold 128. Neuromodulators 129. active area 130. contiguous 131. equilibrium potential 132. synaptic knob 133. neuromodulators 134. all-or-none 135. presynaptic facilitation 136. Strychnine 137. hyperpolarized 138. Resistance 139. Triggering events 140. divergence

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Chap 03_5ce_2 141. Lockjaw 142. larger 143. overshoot 144. b 145. a 146. a 147. a 148. a 149. b 150. b 151. a 152. b 153. a 154. c 155. d 156. b 157. a 158. d 159. b 160. c 161. b 162. a 163. b 164. d 165. b 166. a 167. b 168. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_5ce_2 169. a 170. c 171. b 172. a

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Chap 04_5ce Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Which of these types of neuroglial cells line the ventricles of the brain? a. astrocytes b. neurons c. oligodendrocytes d. ependymal cells 2. During which phase of sleep do nightmares occur? a. stage 1 b. stage 2 c. stages 3 & 4 d. paradoxical 3. Which statement does NOT refer to the spinal cord? a. The ventral horn contains cell bodies of the efferent motor neurons that supply skeletal muscles. b. The dorsal and ventral roots at each level of the spinal cord join to form a spinal nerve. c. The spinal cord is not as long as the vertebral column. d. Afferent fibres enter the spinal cord through the ventral root. 4. Which region of the brain performs tasks that are known as vegetative functions? a. cerebellum b. cerebrum c. diencephalon d. brain stem 5. To what does the term reciprocal innervation refer? a. activation of multiple afferent neurons during a polysynaptic reflex b. excitatory input to one muscle and inhibitory input to the antagonistic muscle c. multiple efferent neurons innervating several effector muscles during a polysynaptic reflex d. simultaneous excitatory and inhibitory input to a muscle being cancelled out, producing no reflex contraction 6. From where do most of the cranial nerves originate? a. hypothalamus b. cerebellum c. cerebral cortex d. brain stem 7. If the lateral spinothalamic tract is damaged, which of the following would be affected? a. voluntary movement b. pain and temperature sensation c. pressure sensation d. awareness of body position 8. Which of the following is the correct sequence of the flow of information during a reflex? a. stimulus, integrating centre, afferent pathway, efferent pathway, effector b. afferent pathway, integrating centre, stimulus, efferent pathway, effector c. effector, afferent pathway, integrating centre, efferent pathway, stimulus d. stimulus, afferent pathway, integrating centre, efferent pathway, effector 9. What part of the cerebellum maintains balance? a. vestibulocerebellum b. spinocerebellum c. cerebrocerebellum d. posterior cerebellum

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Chap 04_5ce 10. Which of these neurons is the most abundant type of neuron in the body? a. motor neuron b. efferent neuron c. afferent neuron d. interneuron 11. What is the location of Broca’s area? a. parietal lobe b. occipital lobe c. frontal lobe d. temporal lobe 12. Which of these structures is at the peripheral end of an afferent neuron? a. cell body b. axon terminal c. dendrite d. sensory receptor 13. What part of the brain plays an especially important role in declarative memories? a. cerebellum b. thalamus c. hypothalamus d. hippocampus 14. Which statement describes slow-wave sleep? a. It is harder to arouse sleepers from than paradoxical sleep. b. It occupies a greater percentage of sleeping time than paradoxical sleep. c. It is characterized by infrequent shifts in body position. d. Dreaming is common. 15. If the lateral corticospinal tract is damaged, which of the following would be affected? a. voluntary movement b. pain and temperature sensation c. pressure sensation d. awareness of body position 16. Which of these statements best describes Parkinson’s disease? a. It is associated with a deficiency of serotonin. b. It is characterized by an intention tremor. c. It is characterized by a resting tremor. d. It is caused by cerebellar disorder. 17. Which of the following is NOT a way in which the parts of the brain can be organized? a. predominant cell type b. function c. anatomic location d. evolutionary development 18. If the vestibulospinal tract is damaged, which of the following would be affected? a. voluntary movement b. pain and temperature sensation c. balance d. awareness of body position 19. Which of these statements applies to the supplementary motor area? a. It informs other areas involved in the motor program about the body’s position in space. b. It is involved in programming of complex motor movements, like juggling. c. It helps to orient the arms and trunk muscles to the intended target of movement before movement begins. d. It refines the voluntary motor movements initiated by the primary motor cortex. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_5ce 20. Which of these statements refers to the cerebellum? a. It is involved in coordination and planning of skilled voluntary muscle activity. b. It is important for language function. c. It inhibits muscle tone throughout the body. d. It is for sensory perception, acting as a relay station. 21. Which of the following is the main function of Wernicke’s area? a. to control limb movements b. to control memory c. to control hand–eye coordination d. to control language comprehension 22. How many cranial nerves are involved in sight and movement of the eye? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 6 23. Which of the following is NOT accomplished by the frontal lobe? a. perception of touch b. elaboration of thought c. voluntary motor control d. control of speaking 24. Which of these statements best describes the arachnoid mater? a. It is the innermost meningeal layer. b. It is a delicate, richly vascularized, meningeal layer that is cobwebby in appearance. c. It is a tough, inelastic membrane that covers the central nervous system. d. It is involved with the formation of cerebrospinal fluid. 25. Which of the following is a function of astrocytes? a. to induce formation of cerebrospinal fluid b. to take up excess H+ from the brain ECF c. to aid in repairing brain injuries and in forming neural scars d. to line the fluid-filled cavities of the CNS 26. Which of these statements most accurately describes the role of the cerebellum in movement? a. It overrides the inhibitory actions of the basal ganglia. b. It monitors and adjusts motor output originating from the motor cortex. c. It directly enhances the activity of efferent motor neurons as they descend through the spinal cord. d. It directly suppresses the activity of efferent motor neurons as they descend through the spinal cord. 27. To what does the term plasticity refer? a. the tendency of the brain to respond to the same sensory stimulus with a decreasing level of response b. the ability of the brain to use different fuel sources to meet its energy needs c. the ability of the brain to change in response to what is being demanded of it d. the ability of the brain to find different ways to accomplish the same outcome

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Chap 04_5ce 28. What is the sequence of activation of brain areas when one responds in writing to a verbal command? a. primary auditory cortex, Wernicke’s area, Broca’s area, supplementary motor cortex, primary motor cortex b. primary auditory cortex, Broca’s area, supplementary motor cortex, Wernicke’s area, primary motor cortex c. primary auditory cortex, Broca’s area, Wernicke’s area, supplementary motor cortex, primary motor cortex d. primary visual area, Wernicke’s area, Broca’s area, supplementary motor cortex, primary motor cortex 29. The left cerebral hemisphere normally excels in all EXCEPT which of the following? a. verbal tasks b. musical ability c. math skills d. logical and analytical tasks 30. A person suffers a head injury and cannot move their left leg. Which area of the cortex has been affected by the injury? a. the somatosensory cortex on the right side of the brain b. the somatosensory cortex on the left side of the brain c. the primary motor cortex on the right side of the brain d. the primary motor cortex on the left side of the brain 31. What part of the cerebellum regulates muscle tone and coordinates skilled, voluntary movement? a. anterior cerebellum b. vestibulocerebellum c. spinocerebellum d. cerebrocerebellum 32. What structure is the outermost layer of the meninges? a. dura mater b. arachnoid mater c. choroid plexus d. pia mater 33. Which of these statements does NOT describe the blood–brain barrier? a. It is a barrier between the three layers of meninges. b. It is formed in part by the tight junctions in capillary cells of the brain. c. It consists of the astrocyte processes that encircle the brain capillaries. d. It controls the direct exchange of materials between the cerebrospinal fluid and the brain. 34. Which of the following is characteristic of sleep? a. decreased rate of catabolism b. increased voluntary movement c. decreased brain activity d. decreased rate of anabolism 35. Which of these functions is NOT associated with the hypothalamus? a. to control respiration and circulatory function b. to control thirst and urine output c. to control body temperature d. to control food intake

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Chap 04_5ce 36. Which neurotransmitter is required for long-term potentiation? a. epinephrine b. acetylcholine c. glutamate d. glycine 37. Which of the following is NOT accomplished by the cerebral cortex? a. control of breathing, circulation, and digestion b. voluntary initiation of movement c. final sensory perception d. language ability 38. Which of the following describes the limbic system? a. It contains regions designated as reward and punishment centres. b. It plays a key role in sensory perception. c. It does not consist of frontal lobe. d. It is a ring of structures surrounding the cerebellum. 39. Why is the cerebral cortex in humans capable of performing higher level functions, while the cerebral cortex of lower mammals is not? a. because the cerebral cortex of lower mammals contains fewer interneurons b. because the human cerebral cortex is larger and contains more neurons with more complicated neural circuits c. because the human cerebral cortex is small and more compact, meaning neural messages are transmitted faster over a smaller distance d. because the cerebral cortex of lower mammals contains more afferent neurons than efferent neurons 40. What is the normal sequence of structures activated for signal transmission and response in the body? a. effector, afferent neuron, interneuron, efferent neuron, receptor b. effector, efferent neuron, interneuron, afferent neuron, receptor c. receptor, efferent neuron, interneuron, afferent neuron, effector d. receptor, afferent neuron, interneuron, efferent neuron, effector 41. Which of these statements describes short-term memory? a. It involves transient modifications in the function of pre-existing synapses, such as channel modification. b. It takes longer to retrieve than long-term memory. c. It has a larger storage capacity than long-term memory. d. It has relatively stable memory trace. 42. Which of these statements applies to the choroid plexus? a. It is located on the entire surface area of the brain. b. It is the site of drainage of used cerebrospinal fluid from brain tissues. c. It consists of richly vascularized masses of pia mater tissue. d. It is an extension of dura mater.

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Chap 04_5ce 43. What is the purpose of the vertical columns of the cerebral cortex? a. to organize neurons so that all of the same type of neurons are located in the same column b. to keep the cell bodies in the white matter and the axons in the grey matter c. to organize different types of neurons that carry out various aspects of the same function d. to align the axons of cortical neurons so that they are positioned to synapse with neurons of the brain stem 44. If body temperature is above the normal homeostatic range, activity of which area of the brain is likely affected? a. cerebral cortex b. thalamus c. basal nuclei d. hypothalamus 45. Which of these statements describes procedural memories? a. They involve acquisition of motor skills gained via repetitive training. b. They are associated with the cerebrum. c. They are associated with the hippocampus. d. They are associated with the temporal lobes, and are closely associated with limbic structures. 46. Which layer of the meninges contains an abundance of blood vessels and lies directly against the surface of the brain and spinal cord? a. arachnoid mater b. dura mater c. choroid plexus d. pia mater 47. Which of these structures of the CNS is found within the brain stem? a. vagus nerve b. optic chiasm c. corona radiata d. reticular formation 48. Which of these components of the nervous system comprises sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions? a. autonomic nervous system b. central nervous system c. somatic nervous system d. afferent division 49. Which of the following describes somesthetic sensation? a. It is initially processed by the frontal lobes of the cerebral cortex. b. It is the awareness of body position. c. It is equally sensitive for all regions of the body surface. d. It is projected from the surface of the body to the parietal lobe. 50. Which of these statements does NOT apply to neural reflexes? a. They are triggered by specific stimuli. b. They are automatic motor responses. c. The responses are greatly variable in response to the same stimulus. d. They provide the ability to make rapid responses to changing stimuli to preserve homeostasis. 51. Which of the following is NOT a function of the basal ganglia? a. to inhibit muscle tone b. to coordinate impulses related to posture c. to suppress unnecessary motor activity d. to control autonomic activity Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_5ce 52. Which region of the limbic system is associated with producing feelings of fear? a. mammillary body b. hypothalamus c. amygdala d. cingulate gyrus 53. Which statement does NOT describe paradoxical sleep? a. It is characterized by rapid eye movements. b. Dreaming occurs only during this sleep type. c. A person normally passes through it before entering slow-wave sleep. d. The EEG pattern during this sleep type is similar to that of an alert, awake person. 54. Parkinson’s disease is caused by a deficiency of which neurotransmitter in the basal ganglia? a. serotonin b. dopamine c. glutamine d. GABA 55. Which of the following characteristics does NOT describe short-term memory? a. immediate storage b. large capacity c. permanently forgotten d. transient modifications in functions 56. Which of the following is NOT a function of the limbic system? a. to provide conscious perceptions b. to coordinate aspects of learning c. to provide “reward” stimulation d. to provide emotional overtones 57. What part of the brain plays a vital role in short-term memory, involving the integration of various related stimuli, and is also crucial for consolidation into long-term memory? a. basal nuclei b. hippocampus c. cerebellum d. cerebral cortex 58. Which of these statements describes the cerebellum? a. It is associated with declarative memories. b. It is part of the subcortical region of the brain. c. It gives rise to resting tremors when diseased. d. It does not have any direct influence on efferent motor neurons. 59. Which of the following cranial nerves primarily innervates visceral organs? a. vagus b. trochlear c. facial d. accessory 60. Which of the following is NOT a structural component of the limbic system? a. amygdala b. medulla c. mammillary body d. cingulate gyrus

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Chap 04_5ce 61. Which of these statements does NOT accurately describe a concept related to somaesthetic sensations? a. Full awareness and interpretation of complex somaesthetic sensations is realized when the somatosensory cortex projects information to higher sensory areas within the cortex. b. While the thalamus provides some crude awareness of sensation, the somatosensory cortex is required to refine and localize sensations. c. The lips have a higher proportion of the somatosensory cortex devoted to them than the neck does. d. If the somatosensory cortex on the right side of the brain is damaged, a person will have trouble sensing hot objects on their right hand. 62. What region of the brain is concerned primarily with motivation and emotion? a. Broca’s area b. prefrontal cortex c. limbic association area d. parietal association area 63. Which of these areas of the brain was the first to develop during evolution? a. cerebellum b. cerebrum c. brain stem d. diencephalon 64. Respiration, circulation, and digestion are coordinated by clusters of neurons in the brain stem that are known as what? a. nuclei b. centres c. tracts d. ganglia 65. Where are Betz cells located? a. in the somatosensory strip b. in the primary motor cortex c. in Wernicke’s area d. in Broca’s area 66. The central sulcus separates which two lobes of the cerebral cortex? a. the parietal lobe and the occipital lobe b. the parietal lobe and the temporal lobe c. the frontal lobe and the occipital lobe d. the frontal lobe and the parietal lobe 67. Which of these statements does NOT refer to Wernicke’s area? a. It is usually developed in the left cerebral hemisphere. b. It is responsible for controlling the muscles necessary for speaking ability. c. It is concerned with language comprehension. d. It plays a critical role in understanding both spoken and written messages. 68. Which two regions of the brain make up the diencephalon? a. thalamus and hypothalamus b. thalamus and cerebellum c. hypothalamus and basal ganglia d. cerebellum and cerebrum

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Chap 04_5ce 69. Which statement does NOT describe the brain stem? a. It is an important link between nervous and endocrine systems. b. It is a critical connecting link through which all fibres traversing between the periphery and higher brain centres must pass. c. It includes the medulla. d. It contains centres that control respiration, blood vessel and heart function, and digestive activities. 70. Which glial cells release destructive enzymes, which, when activated, defend the brain against infection? a. astrocytes b. ependymal cells c. microglia d. oligodendrocytes 71. While in a noisy restaurant, you are able to easily listen to and understand the conversation at your table. This ability to direct your attention to the conversation and not notice the background noise results from activity of which area of the brain? a. frontal lobe b. hypothalamus c. thalamus d. cerebellum 72. Which of these statements does NOT refer to cerebrospinal fluid? a. It has a different composition than plasma. b. It provides the brain with protection against mechanical injury. c. It regulates the composition of the interstitial fluid surrounding brain cells. d. It is produced by the oligodendrocytes that line the ventricles. 73. Which of these statements refers to the thalamus? a. It inhibits muscle tone throughout the body. b. It performs preliminary processing of almost all sensory input on its way to the cortex. c. It controls thirst, urine output, and food intake. d. It plays a role in emotional and behavioural patterns. 74. Why are certain areas of the brain NOT protected by the blood–brain barrier? a. because they must be able to directly access macronutrients from the blood b. because they must have access to the blood to monitor its composition and maintain homeostasis c. because they have a large population of resident immune cells to provide protection d. because it is not anatomically possible for these areas of the brain to be covered by a blood–brain barrier 75. The amygdala is the part of the limbic system that is most important in processing which sensation? a. happiness b. pleasure c. anger d. fear 76. Which of these statements describes efferent neurons? a. They carry information to the CNS. b. They have cell bodies that originate in the CNS. c. They lie within the CNS. d. They have cell bodies in the posterior grey horn. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_5ce 77. If all the glial cells of the nervous system were destroyed, which of the following would occur? a. Both the central and the peripheral nervous systems would be adversely affected. b. Only about 10 percent of cells within the CNS would remain. c. The rate of neuronal cell regeneration would decline significantly. d. Initiation or conduction of nerve impulses would be impaired. 78. Which of these statements applies to glial cells? a. Astrocytes form myelin sheaths in CNS. b. They branch as extensively as neurons do. c. Ependymal cells line the internal cavities of the brain and spinal cord. d. Oligodendrocytes enhance synapse formation and strengthen synaptic transmission. 79. All these neurotransmitters have been implicated in producing emotions and motivated behaviour EXCEPT for which one? a. serotonin b. dopamine c. norepinephrine d. glutamate 80. If a person suffers a severe blow to the side of the head slightly above the ear, the impact is closest to which lobe of the cerebral cortex? a. frontal b. occipital c. parietal d. temporal 81. Which of these statements describes long-term potentiation? a. It refers to increased responsiveness to mild stimuli following a strong or noxious stimulus. b. It refers to an increase in strength of existing synaptic connections in pathways. c. It involves decreased neurotransmitter release from the presynaptic cells. d. It involves transient strengthening of pre-existing synapses. 82. Language ability is usually associated with which of the following? a. limbic system b. prefrontal association cortex c. right cerebral hemisphere d. left cerebral hemisphere 83. What is the function of afferent neurons? a. to transmit information to effector organs b. to transmit information to the cerebellum c. to transmit messages from receptors to the spinal cord and brain d. to receive messages from the cerebrum 84. Which of the following would NOT be found in the grey matter of the spinal cord? a. interneurons b. glial cells c. primary afferent nerves d. cell bodies of neurons 85. The withdrawal reflex is an example of which of the following reflex categories? a. simple reflex b. conditioned reflex c. multisynaptic reflex d. monosynaptic reflex Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_5ce 86. Which part of the limbic system is involved in increasing heart rate and blood pressure when a threat is perceived? a. medulla b. hypothalamus c. amygdala d. thalamus 87. Which of these parts of the brain demonstrates the most sophisticated level of function? a. thalamus b. cerebrum c. cerebellum d. brain stem 88. The hypothalamus provides a direct link between the autonomic nervous system and which other body system? a. respiratory system b. endocrine system c. integumentary system d. skeletomuscular system 89. Which of the following is NOT a function of astrocytes? a. to hold neurons together in proper spatial relationship b. to take up excess K+ to help maintain proper brain ECF c. to induce the formation of the blood–brain barrier d. concentration to line the internal cavities of the brain and spinal cord

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Chap 04_5ce Answer Key 1. d 2. c 3. d 4. d 5. b 6. d 7. b 8. d 9. a 10. d 11. c 12. d 13. d 14. b 15. a 16. c 17. a 18. c 19. b 20. a 21. d 22. c 23. a 24. b 25. c 26. b

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Chap 04_5ce 27. c 28. a 29. b 30. c 31. d 32. a 33. a 34. a 35. a 36. c 37. a 38. a 39. b 40. d 41. a 42. c 43. c 44. d 45. a 46. d 47. d 48. a 49. d 50. c 51. d 52. c 53. c 54. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_5ce 55. b 56. a 57. b 58. d 59. a 60. b 61. d 62. c 63. c 64. b 65. b 66. d 67. b 68. a 69. a 70. c 71. c 72. d 73. b 74. b 75. d 76. b 77. b 78. c 79. d 80. d 81. b 82. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_5ce 83. c 84. c 85. a 86. b 87. b 88. b 89. d

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Chap 04_5ce_2 Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. The basal ganglia prevent unwanted movements by directly inhibiting activity of efferent motor neurons. a. True b. False 2. Complex thought is a function of the frontal lobe. a. True b. False 3. The brain can be organized into regions based on their function, anatomical location, and order of evolutionary development. a. True b. False 4. Disorders of the cerebellum are characterized by an intention tremor. a. True b. False 5. The amount of cortical space in the primary motor cortex devoted to a given body part is proportional to the size of the part. a. True b. False 6. The basal ganglia are found within the cerebral cortex. a. True b. False 7. Efferent neurons are motor neurons. a. True b. False 8. Efferent neurons are the most abundant type of neuron. a. True b. False 9. Dreaming does not often occur during slow-wave sleep. a. True b. False 10. The medulla, pons, and thalamus are the structures that form the brain stem. a. True b. False

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Chap 04_5ce_2 11. CREB is a brain neurotransmitter. a. True b. False 12. A patient with Parkinson’s disease will experience intention tremors while performing movements. a. True b. False 13. Sound sensation is received initially by the parietal lobes. a. True b. False 14. The ability to produce smooth and directed movements during fast movements, such as typing, are reliant on the cerebrocerebellum. a. True b. False 15. The brain stem is the only route through which afferent information coming from the periphery of the body can be transmitted to higher areas of the brain. a. True b. False 16. The ability to remember and perform a dance routine is dependent on proper functioning of the vestibulocerebellum. a. True b. False 17. Parkinson’s disease results from a deficiency in the neurotransmitter dopamine within the basal ganglia. a. True b. False 18. Transport across the brain capillary walls is prevented anatomically between the cells and is restricted physiologically through the cells. a. True b. False 19. The reticular formation is found within the brain stem. a. True b. False 20. Among other functions, astrocytes assist in development in the anatomical properties of the capillaries of the blood–brain barrier. a. True b. False

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Chap 04_5ce_2 21. The thalamus is the relay station of all motor commands that are descending from the cerebral cortex. a. True b. False 22. Cognition is a process of the brain that includes awareness and judgement. a. True b. False 23. Different parts of the body are not equally represented in the somatosensory cortex and the primary motor cortex. a. True b. False 24. Most brain tumours of neural origin consist of glial cells. a. True b. False 25. The cerebellum contains the highest number of neurons of all the regions of the brain. a. True b. False 26. Efferent neurons are sensory neurons. a. True b. False 27. The cranial nerves innervate the head and neck, with the exception of the trochlear nerve, which innervates the thoracic and abdominal areas. a. True b. False 28. Reflexes regulated by the brain stem are involved in maintaining posture and balance. a. True b. False 29. Sleep can be defined as the absence of wakefulness. a. True b. False 30. Cerebrospinal fluid comes into direct contact with the neuronal and glial cells. a. True b. False 31. The hypothalamus is the area of the limbic system that is required for processing of input that elicits feelings of fear. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_5ce_2 32. The brain lacks plasticity of functions. a. True b. False 33. The cell bodies of both afferent and efferent neurons originate in the CNS. a. True b. False 34. The cell body of sensory afferent neurons generates action potentials in response to stimuli. a. True b. False 35. Cerebrospinal fluid is reabsorbed from the subarachnoid space, through the arachnoid villi, into the blood. a. True b. False 36. The dorsal horn of the spinal cord is where the cell bodies of interneurons are located. a. True b. False 37. All areas of the brain are protected by the blood–brain barrier. a. True b. False 38. Grey matter consists predominantly of neuron cell bodies and dendrites. a. True b. False 39. The recycling of newly acquired information through short-term memory increases the likelihood of long-term memory consolidation. a. True b. False 40. Stimulation of the frontal lobe produces changes in personality and social behaviour. a. True b. False 41. Mating is a behaviour that is perpetuated by basic behavioural patterns in humans. a. True b. False 42. A retrograde chemical messenger from the postsynaptic neuron can influence neurotransmitter release from the presynaptic neuron at a synapse during long-term potentiation. a. True b. False

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Chap 04_5ce_2 43. Anterograde amnesia is the inability to recall recent past events. a. True b. False 44. Oligodendrocytes form myelin around the axons of the PNS. a. True b. False 45. The right and left cerebral hemispheres perform identical functions, except they control opposite sides of the body. a. True b. False 46. The cerebellum and basal ganglia exert opposing effects on muscle tone. a. True b. False 47. The pons is one of the oldest regions of the brain. a. True b. False 48. Glia are the most abundant cell type within nervous tissue and make up 90 percent of the brain’s volume. a. True b. False 49. The limbic association cortex is involved with motivation and emotion. a. True b. False 50. Paradoxical sleep is associated with enhanced muscle tone and frequent shifting of position. a. True b. False 51. The EEG pattern of someone in paradoxical sleep looks the same as that for when the person is awake. a. True b. False 52. Technically, there are no nerves in the CNS. a. True b. False 53. Somatotopic maps of the cerebral cortex are static through the life of the organism. a. True b. False

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Chap 04_5ce_2 54. Efferent information leaves the spinal cord through the ventral root. a. True b. False 55. The cerebral cortex is an inner core of grey matter. a. True b. False 56. Reciprocal innervation refers to the dual innervation of organs by the autonomic nervous system. a. True b. False 57. A flat EEG is a definitive diagnosis for brain death. a. True b. False 58. The cell bodies of autonomic efferent nerves are found in the ventral horn of the spinal cord. a. True b. False 59. Homeostatic control of aspects of the body’s internal environment are regulated by the thalamus. a. True b. False 60. The cells bodies of efferent motor neurons form a dorsal root ganglion at each level of the spinal cord. a. True b. False 61. The folds and wrinkles of the cerebral cortex are an evolutionary adaptation that allows the large number of neural circuits required for higher level cognition in humans to be contained in a relatively small area. a. True b. False 62. All drugs that are effective at treating depression work by increasing the availability of serotonin or norepinephrine in the CNS. a. True b. False 63. The cerebellum is the most developed region of the brain that carries out specialized and complex higher functions. a. True b. False

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Chap 04_5ce_2 64. Travelling up from the spinal cord, the structures of the central nervous system move from oldest and least specialized to newest and most specialized. a. True b. False 65. Nerves of the autonomic nervous system control skeletal muscle responses. a. True b. False 66. The right hemisphere is usually dominant in right-handed persons. a. True b. False 67. Information is transmitted from the autonomic nervous system to the endocrine system through the hypothalamus. a. True b. False 68. The withdrawal reflex is an example of a conditioned reflex. a. True b. False 69. Afferent neurons have a long peripheral axon and a short central axon. a. True b. False 70. The diencephalon is composed of the thalamus and basal ganglia. a. True b. False 71. The cerebellum is important in coordinating voluntary movements. a. True b. False 72. Different parts of the body are not represented by equal areas of the sensory homunculus of the parietal lobe. a. True b. False 73. Motor control involves other areas of the brain, in addition to the motor cortex. a. True b. False 74. A patient with Parkinson’s disease who is sitting in a chair may experience a great deal of difficulty in performing the simple act of standing up. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_5ce_2 75. An electroencephalogram is a record of action potential activity in the cerebral cortex. a. True b. False 76. Rapid eye movement occurs during paradoxical sleep. a. True b. False 77. Working memory involves comparing current sensory data with relevant stored knowledge, and manipulating that information. a. True b. False 78. Glia protect and sustain neurons, but do not conduct nerve impulses themselves. a. True b. False 79. There are 15 pairs of cranial nerves. a. True b. False 80. Sleep is accompanied by a reduction in neural activity. a. True b. False 81. The dura mater is the innermost layer of the meninges that is in direct contact with the surface of the brain and spinal cord. a. True b. False 82. Information as to whether a finger was touching an ice cube or being hit by a hammer would be carried to the brain in different ascending tracts within the spinal cord. a. True b. False 83. Microglia provide the central nervous system with protection against infection or injury. a. True b. False 84. Damage to the cerebellum will produce tremors during rest and while performing intentional movements. a. True b. False 85. The majority of sleep time is spent in slow-wave sleep. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_5ce_2 86. A central bundle of interneuronal axons is called a tract, whereas a peripheral bundle of afferent and efferent neuronal axons is called a nerve. a. True b. False 87. Interneurons lie entirely within the central nervous system. a. True b. False 88. Feeling thirsty and the urge to drink in response to body water levels that are below homeostatic range is an example of motivation. a. True b. False Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement. 89. The ____________________ is the group of cell bodies of afferent neurons whose fibres will enter the spinal cord. 90. The meninges, from the outermost to the innermost layer, are the ____________________, the ____________________, and the ____________________. 91. The ____________________ is a special cushioning fluid that surrounds the brain and the spinal cord. 92. As part of the limbic system, the ____________________ works with the cortex to influence emotions and motivation. 93. Somatotopic mapping can be altered by ____________________ competition. 94. The withdrawal reflex is an example of a ____________________ reflex based on the number of synapses involved in transmitting the neural information. 95. A specific area of the body surface that is supplied by the same sensory spinal nerve is known as a ____________________. 96. People with ____________________ experience difficulty decoding and assigning meaning to words. 97. ____________________ matter consists predominantly of densely packaged cell bodies and dendrites, whereas ____________________ matter consists of bundles of myelinated nerve fibres. 98. Logic performance is more the function of the ____________________ cerebral hemisphere. 99. The ____________________ inhibit unwanted movements and prevent tremors. 100. The ____________________ cortex is located at the interface of three lobes. 101. ____________________ is a decreased responsiveness to an indifferent stimulus that is presented repeatedly. 102. With the exception of the ____________________ nerve, the cranial nerves innervate organs and tissues of the head and neck. 103. The ____________________ serves as a relay station and a synaptic integrating centre for preliminary processing of all sensory input on its way to the cortex. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_5ce_2 104. The ____________________ and the ____________________ compose the diencephalon of the brain. 105. ____________________ of the brain means the brain has the ability to change in response to what is being continually demanded of it. 106. ____________________ memories involve specific facts and events. 107. The basal ganglia exert ____________________ actions on the thalamus to eliminate unwanted movements. 108. The ____________________ is attached to the back of the brain stem and is involved in proprioception and refined movements. 109. The ____________________ lobes of the cerebral cortex are responsible for initial processing of visual input. 110. The four major types of glial cells are ____________________, ____________________, ____________________, and ____________________. 111. The ____________________ cortex, the site for initial cortical processing of somesthetic and proprioceptive input, is located in the ____________________ lobes. 112. ____________________ are portions of the brain that are not subjected to regulation by the blood–brain barrier. 113. ____________________ refers to the ability to direct behaviour toward specific goals. 114. Patients with Parkinson’s disease often experience unwanted muscle movements during rest, which are known as ____________________. 115. The brain stem is composed of the ____________________, ____________________, and ____________________. 116. Parkinson’s disease is associated with a deficiency of the neurotransmitter ____________________. 117. ____________________ refers to increased responsiveness to mild stimuli following a strong or noxious stimulus. 118. ____________________ represent the subjective urges associated with specific bodily needs that motivate appropriate behaviour to satisfy those needs. 119. ____________________ area is responsible for speaking ability, whereas ____________________ area is concerned with language comprehension. 120. The ____________________ contains CSF, which is reabsorbed through the arachnoid villi. 121. The lobes of the cerebral cortex, basal nuclei, thalamus, and hypothalamus compose the ____________________ system. 122. A(n) ____________________ tremor indicates that damage to the cerebellum has occurred. 123. ____________________ lie completely within the CNS and act as a bridge between afferent and efferent neurons. 124. If someone steps on a piece of sharp glass with their right foot, the ____________________ reflex ensures that the left leg is able to bear the entire weight of the body when the right leg is pulled away from the glass.

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Chap 04_5ce_2 125. ____________________ is the acquisition of knowledge as a consequence of experience. 126. The ____________________ hemisphere excels in performance of logical, analytical, sequential, and verbal tasks, whereas the ____________________ hemisphere excels in non-language skills, such as spatial perception and artistic and musical endeavours. 127. The CNS comprises the brain and the ____________________. 128. The ____________________ is a network of neurons within the brain stem that receives all incoming sensory input and moves it upward to the cerebral cortex. 129. The ____________________ is a recording of the electrical activity of the cerebral cortex that is transferred to and detected on the scalp. 130. The ____________________ is the area of the brain that controls food intake. 131. Coordination of skilled voluntary movements, especially rapid movements like typing or running, is controlled by the ____________________. 132. ____________________ results from the accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid in regions of the brain. 133. The ____________________ originate from the brain stem and innervate organs and tissues of the head, neck, and thoracic and abdominal regions of the body. 134. The ____________________ is a region of the brain that is made up of the thalamus and hypothalamus. 135. Several areas of the brain create a ____________________, which is a plan used to prepare for movement and to provide instructions to the primary motor cortex. 136. The cerebellum is comprised of three sections with independent roles, but they all relate to ____________________ motor control. 137. The ____________________ are protective and nourishing membranes that lie between the central nervous system and its bony covering. 138. The ____________________ division of the nervous system transmits information from the periphery of the body to the CNS. 139. The ____________________ regulates balance and controls eye movements. 140. The inability to recall recent past events following a traumatic event is known as ____________________, whereas the inability to store new memories for later retrieval is called ____________________. 141. The motor cortex is activated by the ____________________ potential, a widespread pattern of neural discharge. 142. The most developed and sophisticated region of the brain that carries out higher functions such as language, emotions, and reasoning is the ____________________. 143. In the patellar tendon reflex, the ____________________ serves as the integrating centre. 144. The ability to perform a memorized dance routine using procedural memories comes from activity of the ____________________. 145. The process of knowing, awareness, and judgement is known as ____________________. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_5ce_2 146. The nervous system is organized into the ____________________, consisting of the brain and ____________________; and the ____________________, consisting of nerve fibres that carry information between the CNS and other parts of the body. 147. Crude awareness of somaesthetic sensations is achieved by activity of the ____________________. 148. Instructions from the CNS are transmitted via the ____________________ division of the peripheral nervous system to the ____________________ organs. 149. The neural change responsible for retention or storage of knowledge is known as the ____________________. 150. The two subdivisions of the autonomic nervous system are the ____________________ and the ____________________. 151. A group of neuronal cell bodies that lie inside the CNS is called a ____________________, and the same group that lies outside the CNS is known as a ____________________. 152. ____________________ refers to subjective awareness of surroundings and self. 153. Processes such as respiration, digestion, and circulation that are controlled unconsciously by the brain stem are collectively referred to as ____________________. 154. ____________________ are the glial cells that induce anatomical changes in blood vessels. Match the glial cells, labelled a. through d., with their descriptions. a. astrocytes b. oligodendrocytes c. ependymal cells d. microglia 155. brain phagocytes 156. line the brain ventricles 157. form the insulative myelin sheaths around axons in the CNS 158. the main brain “glue”

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Chap 04_5ce_2 Match the system, labelled a. through c., with the characteristics. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. nervous system b. endocrine system c. both the nervous system and the endocrine system 159. coordinates rapid activities of the body 160. secretes hormones 161. primarily controls metabolic activities and other activities that require duration rather than speed 162. alters target cells by release of chemical messengers that interact with specific receptors of the target cells 163. chemical messengers travel long distances 164. chemical messengers travel short distances 165. chemical messengers released only in response to an action potential Match the following structures, labelled a. through c., to their descriptions. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. grey matter of spinal cord b. white matter of spinal cord c. dorsal root ganglion 166. location of ascending and descending tracts 167. location of cell bodies for efferent neurons 168. location of cell bodies for afferent neurons 169. location of short interneurons involved in integration of spinal reflexes 170. outer portion of spinal cord 171. inner portion of spinal cord

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Chap 04_5ce_2 PTS: 1

Match the lobes, labelled a. through d., to their descriptions. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. occipital lobes b. temporal lobes c. parietal lobes d. frontal lobes 172. initially process sound input 173. initially process visual input 174. initially process somesthetic sensation and proprioception 175. contain primary motor cortex 176. contain the region responsible for personality traits 177. contain the limbic association cortex 178. located on the sides of the head 179. located at the back of the head 180. located in front of the central sulcus 181. located to the rear of the central sulcus Match the nervous pathways, labelled a. through d., with their descriptions. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. ascending tracts b. descending tracts c. afferent neurons d. efferent neurons 182. carry information from the periphery to the CNS 183. carry information up the spinal cord to the brain 184. carry information from the brain down the spinal cord 185. carry information from the CNS to the effector organs

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Chap 04_5ce_2 PTS: 1 Match the following structures, labelled a. through j., to their description. a. temporal lobe b. Wernicke’s area c. somatosensory cortex d. limbic association cortex e. corpus callosum f. primary motor cortex g. occipital lobe h. Broca’s area i. supplementary motor area j. prefrontal association cortex 186. a thick band of axons traversing between the two hemispheres 187. initial cortical processing for vision 188. initial cortical processing for hearing 189. initial cortical processing for sensations arising from the surface of the body 190. programs complex sequences of movement 191. triggers voluntary movement by activating motor neurons 192. responsible for speaking ability 193. responsible for comprehension and formulation of coherent patterns of speech 194. primarily concerned with motivation and emotion 195. Lesions in this area result in changes in personality and social behaviour. Match the following functions, labelled a. through f., to their cranial nerves. a. hearing; body balance b. sense of smell c. sensory and motor function to facial regions; chewing d. controls many internal organs in the ventral body cavity e. moves the eye f. sense of vision 196. oculomotor 197. olfactory 198. optic 199. trigeminal 200. vagus 201. vestibulocochlear

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Chap 04_5ce_2 Match the following structures, labelled a. through e., to their descriptions. a. arachnoid villi b. subarachnoid space c. choroid plexuses d. dural sinuses e. dura mater 202. tough, inelastic, outer meningeal layer 203. Venous blood draining from the brain empties here. 204. tissue across which CSF is reabsorbed into the blood 205. site of formation of CSF 206. location of CSF as it surrounds the brain Match the following structures, labelled a. through c., to their descriptions. a. vestibulocerebellum b. spinocerebellum c. cerebrocerebellum 207. regulates muscle tone; compares intentions of higher centres with performance of muscles and corrects any errors, especially with rapid phasic movements 208. plays a role in planning and initiation of voluntary activity; important for learning and remembering procedural motor tasks 209. important for balance and eye movement

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Chap 04_5ce_2 Match these brain structures, labelled a. through e., with their associated descriptions. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. cerebellum b. hypothalamus c. brain stem d. basal nuclei e. cerebral cortex 210. controls anterior pituitary hormone secretion 211. initiates all voluntary movement 212. inhibits muscle tone throughout the body 213. damage to this structure is associated with a resting tremor 214. controls thirst, urine output, food intake, and body temperature 215. contains centres for respiration, heart and blood vessel function, and many digestive activities 216. helps monitor and coordinate slow, sustained contractions, especially those related to balance and posture 217. contains the autonomic nervous system coordinating centre 218. Disorder of this structure is characterized by an intention tremor. 219. plays a role in emotion and behavioural patterns 220. is concerned with the coordination of motor activity initiated by higher brain centres; compares the “intentions” of the higher centres with the “performance” of the muscles, and corrects any “errors” 221. accomplishes final sensory perception Match the spinal tracts, labelled a. through e., with their characteristics. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. ventral spinocerebellar b. rubrospinal c. lateral corticospinal d. fasciculus cuneatus e. lateral spinothalamic 222. tract that terminates in the cerebellum 223. tract for relaying conscious information regarding awareness of body position 224. tract for voluntary motor actions 225. tract that relays information for involuntary control of skeletal muscle tone and posture 226. sensory tract for pain and temperature

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Chap 04_5ce_2 Match the following structures, labelled a. through f., to their descriptions. a. dorsal horn b. dorsal root c. dorsal root ganglion d. ventral horn e. ventral root f. lateral horn 227. Afferent fibres enter the spinal cord through this structure. 228. Efferent fibres leave the spinal cord through this structure. 229. contains cell bodies of interneurons upon which afferent neurons terminate 230. contains cell bodies of afferent neurons 231. contains cell bodies of the efferent motor neurons supplying skeletal muscles 232. The cell bodies of autonomic nerve fibres originate here. Match the types of memory, labelled a. and b., to their characteristics. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. short-term memory b. long-term memory 233. very large storage capacity 234. limited storage capacity 235. site for initial deposition of new information 236. takes longer to retrieve information from this store 237. involves transient modifications in function of pre-existing synapses 238. probably involves relatively permanent functional or structural changes between existing neurons

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Chap 04_5ce_2 Answer Key 1. False 2. True 3. True 4. True 5. False 6. False 7. True 8. False 9. True 10. False 11. False 12. False 13. False 14. True 15. True 16. False 17. True 18. True 19. True 20. True 21. False 22. True 23. True 24. True 25. True 26. False

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Chap 04_5ce_2 27. False 28. True 29. False 30. False 31. False 32. False 33. False 34. False 35. True 36. True 37. False 38. True 39. True 40. False 41. True 42. True 43. False 44. False 45. False 46. True 47. True 48. False 49. True 50. False 51. True 52. True 53. False 54. True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_5ce_2 55. False 56. False 57. False 58. False 59. False 60. False 61. True 62. True 63. False 64. True 65. False 66. False 67. True 68. False 69. True 70. False 71. True 72. True 73. True 74. True 75. False 76. True 77. True 78. True 79. False 80. False 81. False 82. True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_5ce_2 83. True 84. False 85. True 86. True 87. True 88. False 89. dorsal root ganglion 90. dura mater; arachnoid mater; pia mater 91. cerebrospinal fluid 92. hypothalamus 93. use-dependent 94. polysynaptic 95. dermatome 96. dyslexia 97. Grey; white 98. left 99. basal ganglia 100. parietal–temporal–occipital 101. Habituation 102. vagus 103. thalamus 104. thalamus; hypothalamus hypothalamus; thalamus 105. Plasticity 106. Declarative 107. inhibitory 108. cerebellum 109. occipital 110. astrocytes; oligodendrocytes; ependymal cells; microglia (in any order)

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Chap 04_5ce_2 111. somatosensory; parietal 112. Circumventricular organs 113. Motivation 114. resting tremors 115. medulla (medulla oblongata); pons; midbrain (in any order) 116. dopamine 117. Sensitization 118. Homeostatic drives 119. Broca’s; Wernicke’s 120. subarachnoid space 121. limbic 122. intention 123. Interneurons 124. crossed extensor 125. Learning 126. left; right 127. spinal cord 128. reticular formation 129. electroencephalogram (or EEG) 130. hypothalamus 131. spinocerebellum 132. Hydrocephalus 133. cranial nerves 134. diencephalon 135. motor program 136. subconscious 137. meninges 138. afferent 139. vestibulocerebellum 140. retrograde amnesia; anterograde amnesia Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_5ce_2 141. readiness 142. cerebral cortex 143. spinal cord 144. cerebrocerebellum 145. cognition 146. central nervous system; spinal cord; peripheral nervous system 147. thalamus 148. efferent; effector 149. memory trace 150. sympathetic nervous system; parasympathetic nervous system parasympathetic nervous system; sympathetic nervous system 151. nucleus (centre); ganglion 152. Consciousness 153. vegetative functions 154. Astrocytes 155. d 156. c 157. b 158. a 159. a 160. b 161. b 162. c 163. b 164. a 165. a 166. b 167. a 168. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_5ce_2 169. a 170. b 171. a 172. b 173. a 174. c 175. d 176. d 177. b 178. b 179. a 180. d 181. c 182. c 183. a 184. b 185. d 186. e 187. g 188. a 189. c 190. i 191. f 192. h 193. b 194. d 195. j 196. e Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_5ce_2 197. b 198. f 199. c 200. d 201. a 202. e 203. d 204. a 205. c 206. b 207. b 208. c 209. a 210. b 211. e 212. d 213. d 214. b 215. c 216. d 217. b 218. a 219. b 220. a 221. e 222. a 223. d 224. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_5ce_2 225. b 226. e 227. b 228. e 229. a 230. c 231. d 232. f 233. b 234. a 235. a 236. b 237. a 238. b

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Chap 05_5ce Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Which of the following conditions is caused by vitamin A deficiency? a. poor night vision b. astigmatism c. presbyopia d. colour blindness 2. Which of these systems suppresses the digestive organs during times of greater physical activity? a. sympathetic system b. parasympathetic system c. enteric nervous system d. somatic nervous system 3. What is the sequence of retinal processing? a. rods and cones, ganglion cells, bipolar cells b. rods and cones, bipolar cells, ganglion cells c. ganglion cells, bipolar cells, rods and cones d. ganglion cells, rods and cones, bipolar cells 4. Coding of sensory information may result from which one of these factors? a. frequency of the stimuli b. location of the stimuli c. graded potential d. spatial pattern coding 5. Which of these statements describes astigmatism? a. the bending of light at angulated surfaces b. a disorder of accommodation in which the lens cannot bring far objects into focus c. a disorder of accommodation in which the lens cannot bring near objects into focus d. the nonuniform (uneven) curvature of the cornea, lens, or retina 6. Which of these abnormalities could give rise to sensorineural deafness? a. rupture of the tympanic membrane b. disease or injury in the organ of Corti c. restriction of ossicular movement due to adhesions between the bones d. damage to the occipital lobes of the cortex 7. Which of these structures is associated with hearing? a. ampulla b. cochlea c. cupula d. cristae 8. Which of these chemicals paralyzes skeletal muscle by binding to the acetylcholine receptor sites? a. black widow spider venom b. curare c. organophosphate d. DDT

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Chap 05_5ce 9. Which statement applies to receptors? a. They are either a specialized ending of an afferent neuron or a cell close to the peripheral ending of an afferent neuron. b. When stimulated, they bring about opening of K+ channels in the efferent neuron membrane. c. When mechanical, they are sensitive to varying amounts of heat. d. They are present for every modality in the environment. 10. Which of the following structures are located in the middle layer of the retina? a. bipolar neurons b. convex cells c. ganglion cells d. rods and cones 11. Which of these statements describes the utricle? a. It is part of the middle ear cavity. b. It is activated when a person bends his or her head to look down at the ground. c. It is activated when a person starts to listen to music. d. It is activated when sound waves strike the hair cells. 12. The type of energy that different receptors are most sensitive to and respond to is known as what? a. threshold stimulus b. adequate stimulus c. modality stimulus d. specialized stimulus 13. Which of these statements describes the circular muscle of the iris? a. It contracts in response to bright light to produce pupillary constriction. b. It is innervated by the sympathetic nervous system. c. It contracts to slacken the suspensory ligaments and increase the strength of the lens during accommodation. d. It is under voluntary control. 14. Which of the following best describes nicotinic receptors? a. They bind with acetylcholine released from parasympathetic postganglionic fibres. b. They respond to acetylcholine released from both sympathetic and parasympathetic preganglionic fibres. c. They are found primarily in the heart. d. They bind with norepinephrine released from sympathetic postganglionic fibres. 15. Which chemical mediator can enhance the response to nociceptor activation? a. prostaglandin b. substance P c. opioid d. bradykinin 16. Which of these statements accurately describes receptors? a. Phasic receptors are important in situations where maintained information about a stimulus is valuable. b. Tonic receptors often exhibit an “off response.” c. The larger the receptor potential, the greater the frequency of action potentials initiated in the afferent neuron. d. Receptor adaptation results from nerve fatigue. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_5ce 17. Which of the following is a conscious interpretation of external stimuli? a. proprioceptive sensation b. rising blood pressure c. sensory perception d. dilation of pupils 18. Which of these statements applies to the oval window? a. It attaches to the malleus. b. It transfers the sound wave from the external ear to the middle ear. c. It is reflexively tightened in response to loud sounds to diminish transmission of these sounds to the inner ear. d. It attaches to the stapes and transfers the sound wave from the middle ear to the inner ear. 19. Amino acids, especially glutamate, elicit which taste? a. salty b. bitter c. sour d. umami 20. What are the two subtypes of cholinergic receptors? a. adrenergic and nicotinic b. dopaminergic and muscarinic c. nicotinic and muscarinic d. adrenergic and dopaminergic 21. Which of these statements describes the semicircular canals? a. They detect the position of the head relative to gravity. b. They detect rotational or angular acceleration or deceleration of the head. c. They contain otoliths. d. They are responsible for static equilibrium. 22. Which type of receptors are found on all postganglionic neurons? a. alpha-adrenergic receptors b. beta-adrenergic receptors c. nicotinic receptors d. muscarinic receptors 23. Which statement describes rhodopsin? a. It is the photopigment found in the red cones. b. It consists of an opsin and retinene. c. It is most highly concentrated in the fovea. d. It is slowly broken down in the absence of light. 24. Which of these statements pertains to efferent neurons? a. Their cell bodies are located in dorsal root ganglia. b. They are part of a two-neuron chain in the autonomic nervous system. c. They arise peripherally at a receptor. d. They send information toward the central nervous system. 25. Which statement describes the tympanic membrane? a. It vibrates when struck by sound waves. b. It contains the organ of Corti. c. It produces earwax. d. It is connected to the stapes. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_5ce 26. What are the three types of cones? a. black, red, and white b. blue, green, and red c. blue, yellow, and red d. green, orange, and yellow 27. Which of these situations can activate the slow pain pathway? a. stimulation of mechanical or thermal nociceptors b. stimulation of polymodal nociceptors c. the absence of tissue injury d. large and myelinated fibres 28. Which of these fibres release norepinephrine? a. preganglionic parasympathetic fibres b. postganglionic parasympathetic fibres c. postganglionic sympathetic fibres in the heart d. postganglionic sympathetic fibres in sweat glands 29. Which of these structures normally controls the amount of light entering the eye? a. ciliary muscle b. suspensory ligaments c. iris d. cornea 30. Which of these statements describes the retina? a. It is the middle layer of the eye. b. It contains the photoreceptors. c. It becomes specialized anteriorly to form the cornea. d. It secretes the aqueous humour. 31. Which structure contributes the most to the total refractive ability of the eye? a. lens b. retina c. ciliary muscle d. cornea 32. Within the eye, what is the innermost pigment layer that contains nervous tissue? a. choroid b. retina c. sclera d. cornea 33. Capsaicin activates which type of nociceptor? a. osmotic nociceptors b. mechanical nociceptors c. chemical nociceptors d. thermal nociceptors 34. What results from the transmission of sound through the middle ear? a. amplification of the pressure vibrations b. stimulation of middle ear receptor cells c. opening of the eustachian tube d. increased firing rate in sensory axons associated with the tympanic membrane

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Chap 05_5ce 35. Which statement describes Pacinian corpuscles? a. They adapt rapidly as the pressure energy is dissipated. b. They can detect temperature changes. c. They are tonic receptors. d. They do not display an “off response.” 36. Which statement applies to polymodal nociceptors? a. They respond only to mechanical damage, such as cutting, crushing, or pinching. b. They transmit impulses along A-delta fibres. c. They activate the slow pain pathway on stimulation. d. They release prostaglandins. 37. Which of the following applies to the sympathetic nervous system? a. It is part of the somatic nervous system. b. It has cholinergic preganglionic and adrenergic postganglionic fibres. c. It originates in the cranial and lumbar regions of the spinal cord. d. It originates in the sacral region of the spinal cord. 38. Which of these activities happens during dark adaptation? a. Rhodopsin is rapidly broken down. b. The cones for grey vision are stimulated more than the cones for colour vision. c. The sensitivity of the photoreceptors is reduced so that the image appears dim. d. Photopigments are gradually regenerated. 39. Which statement describes Merkel’s discs? a. They adapt rapidly to pressure. b. They are found in finger tips and in mammary glands. c. They are phasic receptors. d. They are present within joints. 40. What happens when there is deflection of the basilar membrane? a. The receptors of the organ of Corti are activated. b. The stapes rock backward. c. The round window displaces. d. The tympanic membrane displaces. 41. What causes a stimulus to taste sour? a. acid b. salt c. base d. sugar

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Chap 05_5ce 42. Which of the following is characteristic of presbyopia? a. the lack of a cone type b. pronounced visual difficulty in the early teenage years c. reduction in accommodative ability due to a loss of lens elasticity d. retinal damage 43. Which statement describes cones? a. They are most abundant in the periphery of the retina. b. They are more numerous than rods. c. They have high sensitivity to light. d. They are responsible for colour vision. 44. Which of these statements does NOT apply to botulinum toxin? a. It temporarily smooths out age-related wrinkles. b. It is effective against wrinkles caused by excessive exposure to the sun. c. It is a toxin produced by Clostridium botulinum. d. In therapeutic dosage, it is effective in relieving the painful neuromuscular disease known as dystonia. 45. Sound waves pass through which one of these structures first? a. cochlear duct b. scala media c. scala tympani d. scala vestibuli 46. Which statement describes hyperopia? a. A near object is focused in front of the retina, even with accommodation. b. A far source of light is focused on the surface of the retina. c. The eyeball is too rounded. d. The eyeball is too short or the lens is too weak. 47. Which of the following best describes the visual pathway? a. The fibres from the lateral halves of both retinas cross at the optic chiasm. b. The optic nerve carries information from the lateral half of one retina and the medial half of the other retina. c. The optic nerve carries information from both the lateral half and the medial half of the retina of the same eye. d. The left side of the cortex receives visual input from the right eye only because the optic nerve crosses at the optic chiasm. 48. How do endogenous analgesics minimize feelings of pain? a. They bind to endogenous opiate receptors on the thalamus, which blocks binding of substance P. b. They bind to endogenous opiate receptors on dorsal horn neurons and induce hyperpolarization and inhibition. c. They prevent substance P from binding to dorsal horn neurons by binding to endogenous opiates. d. They bind to endogenous opiate receptors on afferent pain fibres and block the release of substance P.

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Chap 05_5ce 49. Black widow spider venom affects the neuromuscular junction through which of the following ways? a. It prevents enzymatic breakdown of acetylcholine, causing sustained muscle contraction. b. It prevents acetylcholine from being released, causing muscle paralysis. c. It causes a massive release of acetylcholine and sustained muscle contraction. d. It blocks the release of acetylcholine, causing muscle paralysis. 50. Which one of these structures is an anterior specialization of the choroid layer? a. aqueous humour b. ciliary body c. cornea d. lens 51. Where does the actual conversion of sound vibrations to nerve impulses occur? a. eardrum b. eustachian tube c. cochlea d. oval window 52. Which type of sensory input is NOT integrated into the sense of equilibrium? a. auditory b. proprioceptive c. vestibular d. visual 53. Which of these statements describes the motor end plate? a. It contains receptor sites that are capable of binding curare. b. It contains the neurotransmitter acetylcholine on its membrane. c. It experiences an increase in permeability to cations when combined with acetylcholine. d. It is a junction between two motor neurons. 54. Which of the following are NOT correctly paired? a. chemoreceptor and oxygen concentration b. mechanoreceptor and skeletal muscle stretch c. photoreceptor and light d. nociceptor and light touch 55. Which of these neuromodulators is NOT capable of binding to opiate receptors in the analgesic pathways? a. bradykinin b. endogenous opiate c. endorphin d. dynorphin 56. Which of these statements applies to the ossicular system of the ear? a. It serves to keep the pressure on the two sides of the tympanic membrane equal. b. It increases the pressure of vibration as it transfers the sound wave from air in the outer ear to fluid in the inner ear. c. It assists in determining whether a sound comes from the front or the rear. d. It is part of the vestibular apparatus.

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Chap 05_5ce 57. Which of these statements best describes parasympathetic postganglionic fibres? a. They arise from the ganglion chain located along either side of the spinal cord. b. They secrete norepinephrine. c. They are cholinergic fibres. d. They are longer than preganglionic fibres. 58. Which of these statements accurately applies to hearing? a. The pitch of sounds is conveyed by the intensity of the vibration of the oval window. b. Conduction deafness is a result of damage to the hair cells of the inner ear. c. Low-pitched tones selectively cause vibration of the basilar membrane at a point closer to the oval window than high-pitched tones do. d. The loudness of a sound is conveyed by the frequency of action potentials generated in the cochlear nerve. 59. Which of these statements refers to the afferent division of the PNS? a. Somatosensation requires activity of only the afferent division. b. The modality of a stimulus is determined by the type of receptor and neuron that it activates. c. The afferent division provides information only about stimuli that are external to the body. d. Sensory information about blood pressure and CO2 level in the blood reaches the level of conscious awareness. 60. Which of these statements applies to curare? a. It binds strongly to acetylcholine receptor sites. b. It inhibits acetylcholinesterase. c. It is found in pesticides and military nerve gases. d. It triggers explosive release of ACh from the storage vesicles. 61. Which of these applies to the neuromuscular junction? a. AChE activity is absent here. b. It involves presynaptic neurons of the autonomic nervous system. c. It is a junction between two neurons. d. It is always excitatory. 62. The pitch of a sound is based on which of the following? a. the frequency of vibrations of air molecules b. the amplitude of the waves c. units of decibels d. the shapes of the ossicles 63. What nerve fibres constitute the fast pain pathway? a. A-alpha fibres b. A-delta fibres c. A-beta fibres d. C fibres

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Chap 05_5ce 64. Which of these statements applies to the optic tracts? a. They carry information from the lateral halves of both retinas. b. They carry information from the medial halves of both retinas. c. They carry information from the lateral half of the retina on the opposite side, and the medial half of the retina on the same side. d. They carry information from the lateral half of the retina on the same side, and the medial half of the retina on the opposite side. 65. Which of the following best describes endorphins and enkephalins? a. They activate ascending pathways. b. They are endogenous morphine-like substances. c. They stimulate the release of bradykinin. d. They stimulate the release of substance P by binding with opiate receptors. 66. Which of these statements most accurately describes labelled lines? a. ascending tracts in the white matter of the spinal cord b. afferent information regarding a specific type of stimulus being transmitted up a sensory neuron’s axon to be processed by the thalamus c. afferent neurons that contain receptors for specific types of stimuli d. chains of neurons that synapse in a specific order to progressively refine sensory input 67. Why do cones have higher acuity than rods? a. because cones respond more to dim light b. because there are three types of cones c. because there is little convergence in the cone pathways within the retina d. because there are more cones than rods 68. In which of these structures are the hair cells for hearing located? a. cochlea b. eustachian tube c. saccule d. utricle 69. In which area of the body is a sensory neuron most likely to have the smallest receptive field? a. shoulder b. hip c. finger tip d. back 70. What kind of receptor responds to acetylcholine released by all autonomic preganglionic fibres? a. muscarinic cholinergic receptors b. á 1-adrenergic receptors c. á 2-adrenergic receptors

d. nicotinic cholinergic receptors

71. Which of these statements refers to the NMDA signalling pathway elicited by glutamate? a. It generates action potentials that transmit pain messages to the brain. b. It increases the excitability of dorsal horn neurons and enhances sensitivity of the affected area. c. It inhibits the release of substance P from the afferent pain fibre. d. It blocks the entry of Ca2+ into the dorsal horn neuron. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_5ce 72. Which of these structures is associated with pheromonal reception? a. nasal organ b. olfactory mucosa c. papilla d. vomeronasal organ 73. Which statement applies to the choroid? a. It contains rods and cones. b. It is a fluid within the eye. c. It is also known as the blind spot. d. It is the middle layer of the eyeball. 74. Which of these pathways provides information about internal organs? a. visceral afferent b. sensory afferent c. somatic afferent d. special afferent 75. Which of these statements applies to the autonomic nervous system? a. It is part of the somatic nervous system. b. It is considered to be the involuntary branch of the efferent division of the peripheral nervous system. c. It is part of the central nervous system. d. It is part of the afferent division of the nervous system. 76. Which of the following statements is NOT an accurate representation of taste? a. In order for a tastant to be detected, it must be dissolved in solution. b. Taste receptor cells have a short life span compared to other special sense receptors. c. The outer surfaces of a taste bud have the receptors necessary for binding and detection of tastants. d. Binding of a tastant to its corresponding receptors depolarizes the taste receptor cell. 77. Which of the following helps reduce internal reflection (scattering of light within the eye)? a. sclera b. lens c. blind spot d. choroid 78. Which of the following applies to acetylcholinesterase? a. It enhances activity from organophosphates. b. It inactivates a neurotransmitter. c. It is a neurotransmitter. d. It stimulates an excitatory postsynaptic potential. 79. Which of these statements describes the lens of the eye? a. It has a convex surface. b. It is stronger when it is flatter. c. It contributes most extensively to the eye’s total refractive ability. d. Its strength can be adjusted by the circular (constrictor) muscle. 80. Which of these structures relay(s) incoming visual information to the appropriate cortical tissue? a. colliculi b. lateral geniculate nuclei c. hypothalamus only d. thalamus and hypothalamus

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Chap 05_5ce 81. Which of these statements accurately applies to taste? a. Discrimination depends on the ratio of stimulation of the taste buds, which have a variation in relative sensitivity. b. Taste buds are stimulated only by touching foods. c. Discrimination does not go beyond distinguishing between the four primary tastes—sweet, sour, salty, and bitter. d. Taste buds are present only in the oral cavity, and not in the throat. 82. In addition to AMPA receptors, what other receptors present on dorsal horn neurons are activated by glutamate? a. NMDA b. GABA c. bradykinin d. TVMP 83. Which statement does NOT apply to slow pain? a. It is carried by large, myelinated, A-delta fibres. b. It is poorly localized. c. It occurs by stimulation of polymodal nociceptors. d. It occurs for a longer time than fast pain. 84. Curare blocks the action of ACh at receptor-channels, which makes it what type of compound? a. an antagonist b. an agonist c. a synergist d. a beta-blocker 85. Which statement applies to tonic receptors? a. They adapt rapidly. b. They frequently exhibit an “off response.” c. They can measure the degree of joint flexion. d. They signal a change in stimulus intensity. 86. Which of the following happens during accommodation for near vision? a. The ciliary muscle relaxes. b. The lens becomes more concave. c. The suspensory ligaments become less taut. d. The lens is flattened. 87. Pain is felt upon activation of which of these types of receptor? a. osmoreceptors b. Meissner’s corpuscles c. nociceptors d. mechanoreceptors 88. Organophosphates are a group of chemicals that modify neuromuscular junction activity by irreversibly inhibiting what chemical compound? a. acetylcholine b. acetylcholinesterase c. nicotinic acid d. epinephrine

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Chap 05_5ce 89. Which of these organs is/are NOT innervated by the parasympathetic division? a. blood vessels b. intestines c. pupils of the eye d. liver 90. Which activity occurs in the presence of light within the phototransduction pathway? a. Ganglion cells produce action potentials. b. Potassium channels close in receptors. c. Bipolar cells produce graded potentials. d. Sodium channels open in receptors. 91. Which of these statements does NOT apply to the parasympathetic nervous system? a. It signals cardiac muscle and smooth muscle. b. Its postganglionic fibres release norepinephrine. c. Its preganglionic fibres release ACh. d. Part of it originates in the brain. 92. Which of these pairs is NOT correctly associated? a. cochlear duct and endolymph b. malleus and inner ear c. organ of Corti and hair cells d. scala tympani and perilymph 93. Destruction of which of the following can cause instant blindness in one eye? a. the optic nerve b. the optic tract c. the right half of the optic chiasm d. the temporal lobe 94. Which of these receptors is rapidly adapting? a. muscle stretch receptor b. tonic receptor c. Ruffini nerve ending d. phasic receptor 95. Which of the following is a cause of conductive hearing loss? a. a lesion of the auditory nerve b. a defect in the auditory cortex c. impacted earwax d. a defect in the organ of Corti 96. Which of these statements describes myasthenia gravis? a. It is an autoimmune disease. b. It occurs when the terminal-button vesicles are unable to release adequate amounts of acetylcholine. c. It affects only the peripheral nervous system. d. It affects only sensory functions. 97. Which of the following is NOT involved in vestibular information? a. hearing b. maintenance of balance and desired posture c. control of eye movement d. perception of motion and orientation

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Chap 05_5ce 98. Which of these statements applies to EPP? a. It occurs because of Na+ movement inward at the motor end-plate region. b. It is usually smaller in magnitude than an IPSP. c. It is terminated when Ca2+ inactivates acetylcholine. d. It is a graded potential similar to IPSP. 99. What is the purpose of lateral inhibition in sensory perception? a. to enhance perception in areas immediately surrounding the most intensely stimulated area b. to block perception of other types of stimuli c. to assist in localizing the stimulus d. to maintain stimulus intensity 100. Which of these statements refers to the terminal ganglia? a. They lie in or near an effector organ. b. They give rise to sympathetic postganglionic fibres. c. They give rise to parasympathetic preganglionic fibres. d. They contain muscarinic receptors. 101. Which statement describes the blind spot? a. It is the point on the retina at which the optic nerve leaves and blood vessels pass through. b. It contains high concentrations of rods or cones. c. It is in the exact centre of the retina. d. It contains a high concentration of cones but no rods. 102. Which of these statements most accurately describes lateral inhibition? a. inhibition of a sensory receptor when the stimulus exceeds threshold intensity b. inhibition of a secondary afferent neuron carrying sensory information by an interneuron in the spinal cord c. When activated, receptors for one modality inhibit receptors for other modalities in the immediately surrounding areas. d. The most intensely stimulated area inhibits signals emanating from areas immediately surrounding. 103. Which of these statements applies to colour vision? a. It is accomplished by rods at night and by cones during the day. b. It depends on the three cone types’ various ratios of stimulation in response to different wavelengths of light. c. It is usually lost in vitamin A deficiency. d. The same types of cones may use different neural pathways for comparing their outputs. 104. Cardiac activity is increased when norepinephrine binds on which of these receptors on cardiac muscle? a. cholinergic b. nicotinic c. á 1 d. â 1

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Chap 05_5ce 105. Which statement applies to myopia? a. The curvature of the lens is uneven. b. A near source of light is focused on the retina without accommodation. c. A convex lens is used to correct the condition. d. The images from the two eyes are not fused within the cortex. 106. Which one of the following involves a response of a skeletal muscle through an efferent output? a. augmented breathing from the diaphragm b. delayed emptying of the stomach c. increased pumping of blood d. increased secretion of insulin 107. Which of these statements applies to acetylcholine? a. It is released from an axon terminal. b. It destroys acetylcholinesterase. c. It is blocked by sodium. d. It can be released from a postganglionic sympathetic neuron. 108. Which of the following is a sympathetic activity? a. dilation of blood vessels with alpha receptors b. constriction of bronchioles c. dilation of the pupils of the eyes d. inhibition of sweat gland secretion 109. What is the role of glutamate in the pain pathways? a. to promote inflammation and enhance nociceptor activation b. to bind to AMPA receptors on dorsal horn cells c. to cause substance P release d. to inhibit pain impulses through C fibres 110. What is the fate of ACh following binding to receptors? a. It remains bound, causing continued excitement. b. It is removed by the enzyme acetylcholinesterase. c. It is actively reabsorbed by the axon terminal. d. It is passively reabsorbed by the muscle cell. 111. Which of these statements pertains to olfactory receptors? a. They are specialized endings of efferent neurons in separate cells of the hypothalamus. b. They send impulses to the limbic system, thalamus, and cortex for perception of smell. c. They synapse in the thalamus and hypothalamus. d. They are stimulated by a fat-soluble substance only.

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Chap 05_5ce 112. Which of the following must happen for accommodation to occur? a. The shape of the cornea must change. b. The shape of the lens must change. c. The ciliary muscle must relax for near vision. d. The ciliary muscle must contract for distant vision. 113. What is the order in which a vibrational stimulus normally passes through the middle ear ossicles? a. incus to malleus to stapes b. incus to stapes to incus c. malleus to incus to stapes d. malleus to stapes to incus 114. Stimulating which of these areas of the brain will initiate the endogenous analgesic pathway? a. amygdala b. thalamus c. periaqueductal grey matter d. cerebral white matter 115. Which of these structures is NOT involved in sending a vibrational signal to the inner ear? a. external auditory meatus b. eustachian tube c. malleus d. stapes 116. Which of the following is NOT a special sense? a. taste b. equilibrium c. smell d. touch 117. Which neurotransmitter is secreted by all preganglionic autonomic neurons? a. epinephrine b. acetylcholine c. nicotine d. dopamine 118. What is the functional outcome for a region that has smaller receptive fields? a. The density of receptors in the region will be lower. b. There will be less cortical space allotted for sensory reception from the region. c. The acuity in that region will be greater. d. The region will be less sensitive to stimuli. 119. Which of these activities happens in light adaptation? a. Rhodopsin levels increase in rods. b. Rhodopsin levels decrease in rods. c. Cones become inactive. d. Rods become active. 120. How are high- and low-frequency sounds discriminated? a. Low frequencies produce stronger vibrations. b. High frequencies produce larger action potentials. c. The middle ear bones vibrate more vigorously for low frequencies. d. Low frequencies deflect the basilar membrane at a greater distance from the oval window. 121. In somatosensory pathways, where are first-order neurons most likely to synapse with second-order neurons? a. spinal cord b. anterior root ganglion c. cerebellum d. thalamus Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_5ce 122. The parasympathetic nervous system affects all EXCEPT which of the following structures? a. cardiac muscles b. endocrine pancreas c. salivary glands d. adrenal medulla 123. Which statement describes rods? a. They are less sensitive to light than cones. b. They have high acuity. c. They provide vision in shades of bright colour. d. They provide vision in shades of grey. 124. The brain is constantly interpreting information from sensory receptors to form a picture of its external environment. What is this process known as? a. perception b. consciousness c. sight d. awareness 125. Which of the following statements is NOT an accurate representation of olfaction? a. Glomeruli of the olfactory bulb receive signals directly from olfactory receptors. b. Mitral cells transmit olfactory signals to higher areas of the brain for further processing and refinement. c. Scents activate olfactory receptors by triggering the phospholipase C second messenger signalling system. d. Afferent fibres arising from the olfactory receptors synapse with olfactory bulbs underneath each side of the brain. 126. All release acetylcholine EXCEPT for which of the following fibres? a. parasympathetic preganglionic fibres b. sympathetic postganglionic fibres c. parasympathetic postganglionic fibres d. sympathetic preganglionic fibres 127. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the sympathetic nervous system? a. It promotes responses that prepare the body for strenuous physical activity. b. It is part of the autonomic nervous system. c. It has norepinephrine as its postganglionic neurotransmitter. d. It is always excitatory. 128. Which of the following happens in response to movement of the oval window? a. Pressure waves occur in the scala vestibuli. b. A portion of the oval window vibrates. c. Certain hair cell receptors in the ossicles become excited. d. The eardrum vibrates. 129. Which of these steps is the final signalling step following impulse conduction along the axon terminal? a. ACh binds with receptors on the muscle cell membrane. b. ACh diffuses across the cleft of the junction. c. ACh is released by exocytosis. d. Calcium diffuses into the terminal button. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_5ce 130. Which of the following statements applies to fast pain? a. poorly localized b. occurs upon stimulation of polymodal nociceptors c. impulses carried along myelinated A-delta fibres d. produces dull aching sensation 131. Which statement applies to phasic receptors? a. They respond to pain stimulus. b. They signal a change in stimulus intensity. c. They are slowly adapting receptors. d. An example is a muscle stretch receptor. 132. Which statement applies to receptor potentials? a. They are usually repolarizations of receptors. b. They self-propagate along the efferent fibres. c. They occur in neuronal cell bodies upon summation of presynaptic input. d. They are graded potentials. 133. Which statement applies to the fovea? a. It contains more rods than cones. b. It is the point on the retina at which the optic nerve leaves and blood vessels pass through. c. It has fairly high acuity. d. It is located in the exact centre of the retina. 134. Under which of these conditions does natural analgesia occur? a. when endogenous opiates bind to substance P b. fibres when the anterior grey horn is stimulated c. when endogenous opiates bind to receptors on afferent pain d. when C fibres are stimulated

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Chap 05_5ce Answer Key 1. a 2. a 3. b 4. b 5. d 6. b 7. b 8. b 9. a 10. d 11. b 12. b 13. a 14. b 15. a 16. c 17. c 18. d 19. d 20. c 21. b 22. c 23. b 24. b 25. a 26. b

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Chap 05_5ce 27. b 28. c 29. c 30. b 31. d 32. b 33. d 34. a 35. a 36. c 37. b 38. d 39. b 40. a 41. a 42. c 43. d 44. b 45. d 46. d 47. b 48. d 49. c 50. b 51. c 52. a 53. c 54. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_5ce 55. a 56. b 57. c 58. a 59. b 60. a 61. d 62. a 63. b 64. d 65. b 66. d 67. c 68. a 69. c 70. d 71. b 72. d 73. d 74. a 75. b 76. c 77. d 78. b 79. a 80. b 81. a 82. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_5ce 83. a 84. a 85. c 86. c 87. c 88. b 89. d 90. c 91. b 92. b 93. a 94. d 95. c 96. a 97. a 98. a 99. c 100. a 101. a 102. d 103. b 104. d 105. b 106. a 107. a 108. c 109. b 110. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_5ce 111. b 112. b 113. c 114. c 115. b 116. d 117. b 118. c 119. b 120. d 121. a 122. d 123. d 124. a 125. c 126. b 127. d 128. a 129. a 130. c 131. b 132. d 133. d 134. c

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Chap 05_5ce_2 Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. Each cone contains three different photopigments for selectively responding to red, blue, or green wavelengths of light. a. True b. False 2. Touch is considered one of the special senses. a. True b. False 3. Sympathetic and parasympathetic activity at the salivary glands is antagonistic. a. True b. False 4. The intensity of a stimulus is conveyed to the CNS through both the frequency of action potentials fired and the number of receptors that are activated by the stimulus. a. True b. False 5. Capsaicin activates chemical nociceptors. a. True b. False 6. Each region of the auditory cortex becomes excited only in response to a specific tone detected by a selected portion of the basilar membrane. a. True b. False 7. Muscarinic receptors are found on the effector cells innervated by the sympathetic division. a. True b. False 8. Diplopia is another name for double vision. a. True b. False 9. Sour taste is caused by the hydrogen ions from acids. a. True b. False 10. The helicotrema is located beyond the tip of the cochlear duct. a. True b. False

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Chap 05_5ce_2 11. Tonic receptors are associated with adaptation to, and decreased awareness of, stimuli. a. True b. False 12. The sympathetic postganglionic fibres that innervate the sweat glands secrete acetylcholine rather than norepinephrine. a. True b. False 13. Acetylcholinesterase is stored in secretory vesicles in the motor end plate of the muscle fibre. a. True b. False 14. Sympathetic postganglionic fibres are longer than parasympathetic postganglionic fibres. a. True b. False 15. By blocking the effect of acetylcholine at muscarinic but not nicotinic receptors, atropine is able to block parasympathetic effects while not influencing sympathetic activity at all. a. True b. False 16. Dynorphins and enkephalins promote pain by binding to polymodal pain receptors. a. True b. False 17. Prostaglandins suppress the sensitivity of nociceptors. a. True b. False 18. The axons controlling skeletal muscles are large and myelinated. a. True b. False 19. A concave lens is used to correct for a myopic eye. a. True b. False 20. Retinene is found in the rods but not in the cones. a. True b. False 21. Somatic sensations are derived from receptors at the surface of the body. a. True b. False

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Chap 05_5ce_2 22. The preganglionic fibres of the autonomic nervous system are cholinergic fibres. a. True b. False 23. The term cataract refers to the condition in which the lens becomes stiff and loses its elasticity. a. True b. False 24. A receptor that has a smaller receptive field likewise has a smaller discriminative ability. a. True b. False 25. Sympathetic preganglionic fibres originate in the thoracic and lumbar segments of the spinal cord. a. True b. False 26. The ossicular system transmits the vibrations of the tympanic membrane to the oval window, the movement of which sets up pressure waves in the cochlear fluid. a. True b. False 27. Binding of ACh with receptor sites on the motor end plate opens chemical messenger-gated cation channels in the motor end plate, bringing about depolarization of the motor end plate. a. True b. False 28. The fovea is the point on the retina where the optic nerve leaves. a. True b. False 29. Endogenous opiates have analgesic properties because they block substance P from binding to receptors on dorsal horn neurons. a. True b. False 30. The utricle detects changes in head position away from horizontally and vertically directed linear acceleration and deceleration. a. True b. False 31. The parasympathetic nervous system exerts inhibitory effects on heart rate. a. True b. False

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Chap 05_5ce_2 32. In response to high-frequency sounds, the segment of the basilar membrane closer to the oval window vibrates maximally. a. True b. False 33. The greater the curvature of a lens, the greater its ability to refract light rays. a. True b. False 34. Atropine blocks all nicotinic receptor sites. a. True b. False 35. The parasympathetic nervous system dominates in fight-or-flight situations. a. True b. False 36. Not all visceral information reaches the level of consciousness. a. True b. False 37. The fibres in the lateral half of each optic nerve cross over at the optic chiasm. a. True b. False 38. A photoreceptor generates action potentials when its photopigment is activated. a. True b. False 39. The amplitude of sound waves is interpreted as the pitch of the sound. a. True b. False 40. Nociceptors are naked (free) nerve endings. a. True b. False 41. The sympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system has its cells of origin in the brain stem as well as the spinal cord. a. True b. False 42. Each half of the visual cortex receives information from the opposite half of the visual field as detected by both eyes. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_5ce_2 43. The vestibular nuclei provide output important in maintaining balance and posture. a. True b. False 44. Normal breathing patterns directly bring odoriferous molecules into contact with the olfactory mucosa. a. True b. False 45. Mechanical deformation of the hairs of hair cells in the inner ear always results in depolarization of the hair cell synaptic terminal. a. True b. False 46. Action potentials are initiated at the motor end-plate region of skeletal muscle fibres. a. True b. False 47. An EPP is similar to an EPSP, except that the magnitude of an EPSP is much larger. a. True b. False 48. Light is the only stimulus capable of stimulating the photoreceptors of the eye. a. True b. False 49. Unlike the visual pathways, auditory signals from each ear are transmitted to both hemispheres. a. True b. False 50. Hearing aids are more beneficial in conductive deafness than in sensorineural deafness. a. True b. False 51. Photoreceptors are depolarized in the absence of stimulation (i.e., in the dark), and hyperpolarized when stimulated (i.e., when exposed to light). a. True b. False 52. Axons from retinal ganglion cells form the optic nerve. a. True b. False 53. The cochlea is concerned primarily with equilibrium. a. True b. False

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Chap 05_5ce_2 54. The receptors for smell are located in the upper nasal cavity, out of the normal path of air currents. a. True b. False 55. C fibres are unmyelinated and small; therefore, they conduct afferent information about painful stimuli at a slow rate. a. True b. False 56. Clostridium botulinum toxin inhibits acetylcholinesterase. a. True b. False 57. Colour blindness may be caused by vitamin A deficiency. a. True b. False 58. A convex lens converges light rays or brings them closer together. a. True b. False 59. Cone photoreceptors provide high visual acuity. a. True b. False 60. The sympathetic nervous system is always excitatory to the organs it innervates. a. True b. False 61. Compared to receptors in the skin on the fingertips, receptors in the skin on the back have smaller receptive fields because the back has a larger number of receptors. a. True b. False 62. The stronger the stimulus, the greater the frequency of action potentials generated and propagated in the afferent neuron. a. True b. False 63. Binding of glutamate to NMDA receptors in dorsal horn neurons makes a painful area more sensitive to further stimuli. a. True b. False

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Chap 05_5ce_2 64. Most innervated blood vessels receive only sympathetic nerve fibres. a. True b. False 65. The image on the retina is upside down and backward due to bending of light rays. a. True b. False 66. Accommodation permits near vision. a. True b. False 67. In the retina, photoreceptor cells do not synapse with bipolar cells. a. True b. False 68. Vision in bright light is due chiefly to cone activation. a. True b. False 69. A receptor cell initially develops a receptor potential by the influx of potassium. a. True b. False 70. The autonomic nervous system is part of the somatic nervous system. a. True b. False 71. The cortical gustatory area is located adjacent to the “tongue” region of the somatosensory cortex. a. True b. False 72. The primary olfactory cortex is on the temporal lobe. a. True b. False 73. Autonomic activity can be influenced by conscious neural activity. a. True b. False 74. A separate receptor cell synapses with an afferent neuron to generate an action potential that will be transmitted to the CNS. a. True b. False

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Chap 05_5ce_2 75. Sensory information from the skeletal muscles enters the central nervous system by visceral efferent neurons. a. True b. False 76. Generator potential occurs in a receptor cell that is separate from a sensory afferent neuron. a. True b. False 77. The autonomic nervous system controls the motor activity of skeletal muscles. a. True b. False 78. Depth perception comes about in large part because of binocular vision. a. True b. False 79. The circular muscle of the iris contracts in response to dim light. a. True b. False 80. Pain may be elicited by thermal or chemical stimuli. a. True b. False 81. An EPP is a graded potential. a. True b. False 82. Rapid reduction in sensitivity to a new odour results from rapid adaptation of the olfactory receptors. a. True b. False Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement. 83. Through ____________________, a stimulus of the same intensity does not elicit a receptor potential of the same magnitude. 84. Cell bodies of afferent neurons collect together at a site outside the spinal cord known as the ____________________. 85. ____________________ attach the lens to the ciliary body. 86. Myopia is another name for ____________________. 87. The refractive structure of the eye that has the ability to change its strength is the ____________________. 88. Night blindness develops from a deficiency of vitamin ____________________.

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Chap 05_5ce_2 89. An incoming pathway for subconscious information derived from the internal viscera is called a(n) ____________________, whereas an incoming pathway for information propagated to the conscious levels of the brain is called a(n) ____________________. 90. The origin of motor neurons for the somatic nervous system is in the ____________________ horn of the spinal cord. 91. Chemicals that elicits tastes when they bind to receptors are known as ____________________. 92. Umami is the taste that arises when amino acids, especially ____________________, bind to receptors on taste receptors cells. 93. The CNS has an inherent ____________________ that inhibits the transmission of pain signals as they enter the spinal cord. 94. The ____________________ is the region of the retina where rods and cones are absent. 95. ____________________ is the somatic sensation that arises from muscles, joints, skin, and the inner ear. 96. ____________________ is the phenomenon whereby the most intensely stimulated area of a receptive field inhibits the less-intensely stimulated areas in an effort to help localize the stimulus. 97. The ____________________ is the ossicle attached to the oval window. 98. The ____________________ is a modified sympathetic ganglion that does not give rise to postganglionic fibres, but instead secretes hormones similar or identical to sympathetic postganglionic neurotransmitters into the blood. 99. Rods and cones have a G protein called ____________________. 100. Dynorphins and enkephalins are examples of ____________________ that bind to receptors on afferent pain fibres and prevent the release of substance P. 101. The two components of the efferent division of the peripheral nervous system are the ____________________ nervous system, which supplies cardiac muscle, smooth muscle, and glands, and the ____________________ nervous system, which supplies skeletal muscle. 102. The ____________________ is a region in the parietal lobe that interprets and processes signals originating from taste receptor cells. 103. Axons of the receptor cells that detect odorants together make up the ____________________. 104. Signals are carried through the vestibulocochlear nerve to the ____________________, a cluster of neuronal cells in the brain stem. 105. ____________________ cells receive olfactory information from the glomeruli and refine it before transmitting it to the limbic system and cerebral cortex. 106. ____________________ discrimination depends on the region of the basilar membrane that vibrates. 107. Sympathetic postganglionic fibres secrete the neurotransmitter ____________________, whereas parasympathetic postganglionic fibres secrete the neurotransmitter ____________________. 108. The eye structure with the greatest refractive ability is the ____________________. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_5ce_2 109. The ganglia of ____________________ fibres of the autonomic nerve pathway are located in the central nervous system. 110. Binding of ____________________ to nicotinic receptors is always excitatory. 111. Glucose interacts with ____________________ receptor binding sites on the surface of the tongue. 112. The iris consists of layers of ____________________ and ____________________ smooth muscle fibres. 113. The left cerebral cortex receives information from the ____________________ half of each visual field. 114. ____________________ is our conscious interpretation of the external world as created by the brain from a pattern of nerve impulses delivered to it from sensory receptors. 115. Hearing and vision are examples of ____________________ senses. 116. Each sensory neuron responds to stimulus information within its ____________________, which is a circumscribed region of the skin surface surrounding it. 117. ____________________, a neurotransmitter unique to pain fibres, is released from afferent pain terminals. 118. The two major components of the ciliary body are the ____________________, which regulates the strength of the lens, and a capillary network that produces ____________________. 119. Slow pain is the lingering dull pain that follows an injury, and is typically triggered by ____________________ that is released from the affected area. 120. Parasympathetic fibres issue from ____________________ and sacral spinal nerves. 121. ____________________ are the smallest pain fibres that transmit information about pain at the slowest rate. 122. The ____________________ is a sense organ that is important for detection of pheromones. 123. The slight depolarization that occurs when a stimulus is removed from a phasic receptor is known as the ____________________. 124. Partial hearing loss with age is often due to ____________________, where hair cells wear out and degenerate. 125. The ____________________ is the layer of the eye that contains the photoreceptor cells. 126. Parasympathetic preganglionic fibres arise from the ____________________ and ____________________ areas of the CNS. 127. ____________________ is the bending of light rays as they pass from one medium to another. 128. Moving air through the eustachian tube equalizes air pressure on the ____________________. 129. The lateral geniculate nucleus is located in the ____________________ of the brain. 130. Depolarization of the motor end plate results from more ____________________ ions entering the cell than ____________________ ions leaving the cell.

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Chap 05_5ce_2 Match the receptors, labelled a. through c., to their locations. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. chemoreceptors b. mechanoreceptors c. photoreceptors 131. retina 132. cochlea 133. otolith organs 134. semicircular canals 135. taste buds 136. olfactory mucosa Match the eye disorders, labelled a. through i., with their descriptions. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. colour blindness b. night blindness c. glaucoma d. hyperopia e. diplopia f. presbyopia g. myopia h. cataract i. astigmatism 137. eyeball too long 138. eyeball too short 139. corrected by concave lens 140. corrected by convex lens 141. corneal surface uneven 142. images from two eyes not fused within cortex 143. increased intraocular pressure 144. opaque lens 145. stiffened lens 146. vitamin A deficiency 147. lack of a cone type

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Chap 05_5ce_2 Match the part of the autonomic nervous system, labelled a. through d., with its description(s). (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. sympathetic nervous system b. parasympathetic nervous system c. both sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system d. neither sympathetic nor parasympathetic nervous system 148. preganglionic fibre that secretes acetylcholine 149. preganglionic fibre that secretes norepinephrine 150. postganglionic fibre that secretes acetylcholine 151. postganglionic fibre that secretes norepinephrine 152. predominates in fight-or-flight situations 153. predominates in relaxed situations 154. has a long preganglionic fibre and a short postganglionic fibre 155. has a short preganglionic fibre and a long postganglionic fibre 156. originates in the cranial and sacral regions of the CNS 157. originates in the thoracic and lumbar regions of the CNS 158. innervates smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and exocrine glands 159. innervates skeletal muscle Match the terms, labelled a. through c., with their descriptions. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. timbre (quality) b. pitch (tone) c. intensity of a sound wave (loudness) 160. frequency of sound waves 161. dependent on the overtones 162. dependent on the amplitude of the sound wave 163. measured in cycles per second 164. measured in decibels Match the pathways, labelled a. through c., with the regions. a. ascending pain pathway b. descending analgesic pathway c. both pain and analgesic pathways 165. periaqueductal grey area 166. thalamus 167. reticular formation

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Chap 05_5ce_2 Match the structures, labelled a. through h., with their proper sequence of involvement in the visual pathway. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. bipolar neurons b. optic nerve c. lateral geniculate nucleus d. rods and cones e. visual cortex f. optic tracts g. ganglion cells h. optic radiations 168. first 169. second 170. third 171. fourth 172. fifth 173. sixth 174. seventh 175. eighth Match the divisions, labelled a. through d., with the anatomical and physiological autonomic features. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. parasympathetic division b. sympathetic division c. both parasympathetic and sympathetic divisions d. neither parasympathetic nor sympathetic divisions 176. preganglionic fibres that release acetylcholine as their neurotransmitter 177. pre- and postganglionic fibres that synapse in the chain ganglia 178. innervates blood vessels and sweat glands 179. short preganglionic fibres 180. innervates the adrenal cortex 181. generally has long preganglionic fibres and shorter postganglionic fibres 182. fibres that issue from sacral nerves 183. possesses nicotinic receptors on at least one neuron in the pathways 184. causes fat to break down in adipose tissue 185. causes constriction of pupil 186. constricts digestive sphincters 187. decreases exocrine activity of the pancreas

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Chap 05_5ce_2 Match the type of nociceptor, labelled a. through c., with the properties associated with each type of nociceptor. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. mechanical nociceptor b. thermal nociceptor c. polymodal nociceptor 188. responds to cutting, crushing, pinching 189. responds to irritating chemicals 190. responds to temperature extremes 191. transmits its signals via A-delta fibres 192. transmits its signals via C fibres 193. activates slow pain pathway Match the type of neuron, labelled a. through d., with its description(s). (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. all three types of neurons b. both afferent and efferent neurons c. afferent neurons d. efferent neurons or interneurons 194. have a receptor at the peripheral ending 195. autonomic nerves 196. lie primarily within the peripheral nervous system 197. lie entirely within the central nervous system 198. carry information from the central nervous system 199. carry information to the central nervous system 200. responsible for thoughts and other higher mental functions 201. motor neurons 202. terminate on effector organs

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Chap 05_5ce_2 Match the types of autonomic receptors, labelled a. through e., with their characteristic(s). (More than one answer may apply.) a. nicotinic receptors b. muscarinic receptors c. alpha receptors d. beta-1 receptors e. beta-2 receptors 203. bind with acetylcholine released from parasympathetic postganglionic fibres 204. have equal affinity for epinephrine and norepinephrine 205. adrenergic receptors found primarily in the heart 206. response to activation of this type of adrenergic receptor generally inhibitory 207. bind with acetylcholine released from all autonomic preganglionic fibres 208. response to activation of this type of beta adrenergic receptor usually excitatory 209. found in all autonomic ganglia 210. found on effector cell membranes 211. bind primarily with epinephrine Match the chemicals, labelled a. through d., with their characteristic. a. black widow spider venom b. curare c. Clostridium botulinum toxin d. organophosphate 212. binds with ACh receptor sites 213. causes explosive release of ACh 214. blocks release of ACh 215. inhibits acetylcholinesterase

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Chap 05_5ce_2 Match the ear parts, labelled a. through e., with their characteristics. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. external ear b. middle ear c. cochlea in the inner ear d. semicircular canal in the inner ear e. utricle and saccule in the inner ear 216. air filled 217. fluid filled 218. contains receptive hair cells 219. concerned with hearing 220. concerned with sense of equilibrium 221. contains the tympanic membrane, which vibrates in synchrony with sound waves 222. contains the ossicular system, which contributes to the amplification of the sound wave 223. contains a cupula, which sways in the direction of endolymph movement, bending the embedded hair cells 224. provides information about the position of the head relative to gravity 225. detects rotational acceleration or deceleration of the head 226. contains otoliths in gelatinous mass, movement of which bends hair cells 227. contains the organ of Corti, whose hair cells are bent during vibration of the basilar membrane 228. connected with the throat via the eustachian tube 229. provides information useful for keeping the eyes focused on a fixed object even when the head is moving 230. part of the vestibular apparatus 231. consists of three elongated spiral compartments 232. components aligned in three different planes all perpendicular to each other Match the receptors, labelled a. through d., with their function. a. tonic receptor b. phasic receptor c. specialized receptor ending of afferent neuron d. separate cell serving as a receptor 233. generates action potentials in afferent neuron by opening voltage-gated Na+ channels 234. generates action potentials in afferent neuron by opening messenger-gated channels 235. provides continuous information about the stimuli being monitored 236. provides information about changes in the energy form being monitored

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Chap 05_5ce_2 Match the rods and cones, labelled a. through c., with their properties. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. rods b. cones c. both rods and cones 237. used for day vision 238. used for night vision 239. confer colour vision 240. confer vision in shades of grey 241. high acuity 242. low acuity 243. contain opsin and retinene 244. much convergence in pathways 245. little convergence in pathways 246. three different types as a result of difference in photopigment content

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Chap 05_5ce_2 Answer Key 1. False 2. False 3. False 4. True 5. False 6. True 7. False 8. True 9. True 10. True 11. False 12. True 13. False 14. True 15. True 16. False 17. False 18. True 19. True 20. False 21. True 22. True 23. False 24. False 25. True 26. True

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Chap 05_5ce_2 27. True 28. False 29. False 30. True 31. True 32. True 33. True 34. False 35. False 36. True 37. False 38. False 39. False 40. True 41. False 42. True 43. True 44. False 45. False 46. False 47. False 48. False 49. True 50. True 51. True 52. True 53. False 54. True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_5ce_2 55. True 56. False 57. False 58. True 59. True 60. False 61. False 62. True 63. True 64. True 65. True 66. True 67. False 68. True 69. False 70. False 71. True 72. True 73. True 74. True 75. False 76. False 77. False 78. True 79. False 80. True 81. True 82. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_5ce_2 83. adaptation 84. dorsal root ganglion 85. Suspensory ligaments 86. nearsightedness 87. lens 88. A 89. visceral afferent; sensory afferent 90. ventral 91. tastants 92. glutamate 93. analgesic system 94. blind spot or optic disc 95. Proprioception 96. Lateral inhibition 97. stapes 98. adrenal medulla 99. transducin 100. endogenous opiates 101. autonomic; somatic 102. cortical gustatory area 103. olfactory nerve 104. vestibular nuclei 105. Mitral 106. Pitch 107. norepinephrine; acetylcholine 108. cornea 109. preganglionic 110. acetylcholine 111. sweet

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Chap 05_5ce_2 112. circular; radial (in either order) 113. right 114. Perception 115. special 116. receptive field 117. Substance P 118. ciliary muscle; aqueous humour 119. bradykinin 120. cranial 121. C fibres 122. vomeronasal organ 123. off response 124. neural presbycusis 125. retina 126. cranial, sacral (in any order) 127. Refraction 128. tympani 129. thalamus 130. sodium; potassium 131. c 132. b 133. b 134. b 135. a 136. a 137. g 138. d 139. g 140. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_5ce_2 141. i 142. e 143. c 144. h 145. f 146. b 147. a 148. c 149. d 150. b 151. a 152. a 153. b 154. b 155. a 156. b 157. a 158. c 159. d 160. b 161. a 162. c 163. b 164. c 165. b 166. a 167. c 168. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_5ce_2 169. a 170. g 171. b 172. f 173. c 174. h 175. e 176. c 177. b 178. b 179. b 180. b 181. a 182. a 183. b 184. b 185. a 186. b 187. b 188. a 189. c 190. b 191. a 192. c 193. c 194. c 195. d 196. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_5ce_2 197. c 198. d 199. c 200. d 201. d 202. d 203. b 204. d 205. d 206. e 207. a 208. d 209. a 210. b 211. e 212. b 213. a 214. c 215. d 216. a 217. c 218. b 219. c 220. d 221. b 222. b 223. d 224. e Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_5ce_2 225. d 226. e 227. c 228. b 229. d 230. d 231. d 232. d 233. d 234. c 235. a 236. b 237. b 238. a 239. b 240. a 241. b 242. a 243. c 244. a 245. b 246. b

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Chap 06_5ce Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Which of these substances is the most common second messenger used by hydrophilic hormones? a. calcium b. cyclic AMP c. chromatin d. messenger RNA 2. Which of these statements refers to hormones? a. All are regulated by the hypothalamus. b. They are secreted by endocrine glands through ducts into the blood. c. They must combine with specific receptors on their target cells in order to exert their effects. d. They are produced in a gland and act on target cells in different tissues. 3. Which of these statements applies to steroid hormones? a. They bind with receptors located inside their target cells. b. They activate second-messenger systems within their target cells. c. They include catecholamines. d. They circulate as free hormones. 4. Which of these statements refers to lipophilic hormones? a. They bring about changes in target cells by binding to cell surface receptors. b. They are stored in intracellular vesicles. c. They are synthesized as inactive preprohormones by ribosomes before being activated. d. They are transported in blood bound to plasma proteins. 5. Which of these statements refers to melatonin? a. It accelerates metabolism. b. It serves as a secondary messenger. c. It lowers the concentration of blood sugar. d. It defends against free radicals. 6. Transport of which hormone could be potentially affected if the level of plasma proteins decreased? a. insulin b. epinephrine c. testosterone d. growth hormone 7. Which of these factors does NOT increase growth hormone secretion? a. deep sleep b. exercise c. low blood amino acid level d. stress

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Chap 06_5ce 8. Which of these statements describes the hypothalamic–hypophyseal portal system? a. It carries anterior pituitary hormones from the anterior pituitary gland to the hypothalamus to regulate the release of hypophysiotropic hormones. b. It diverts blood directly to the pituitary, completely bypassing the hypothalamus. c. It carries hypophysiotropic hormones from the hypothalamus to the anterior pituitary to regulate anterior pituitary hormone secretion. d. It carries the anterior pituitary hormones into the general systemic circulation. 9. Which of these statements is NOT an accurate description of the the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) or its activities? a. It produces melatonin, which establishes circadian rhythms. b. Cells bodies of SCN neurons reside within the hypothalamus. c. The rhythmic firing of neurons within the SCN set the internal rhythms for many body functions. d. It is the body’s pacemaker for circadian rhythms. 10. In addition to promoting water retention, what is another known function of vasopressin? a. suppression of heart rate b. vasoconstriction of arteriolar smooth muscle c. stimulation of red blood cell production d. promotion of growth 11. Which of the following is a function of the hormones of the anterior pituitary? a. to control blood glucose concentrations c. to promote growth

b. to regulate blood Ca2+ concentrations d. to control water reabsorption

12. What allows hormones to exact effects only on specific target cells? a. Secretion of hormones is dependent on signals sent by the target cells to the endocrine organ. b. Each hormone has a receptor present in the cells that should respond to that hormone. c. Plasma proteins transport hormones from the site of secretion to the site of action at the target cells. d. Enzymes expressed on target cells activate the hormone once it reaches the target cell. 13. How does growth hormone influence metabolism? a. It conserves amino acids for ATP production. b. It enhances protein breakdown in muscle. c. It increases breakdown of release of fatty acids from adipose tissue. d. It promotes glucose utilization by tissues. 14. What is the major physiological role for vasopressin? a. promoting water balance b. enhancing sodium excretion c. reducing potassium secretion d. stimulating heart rate

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Chap 06_5ce 15. Which of these statements refers to neurosecretory neurons? a. They release neurotransmitters. b. They release hormones. c. They release chemicals. d. They are able to conduct action potentials. 16. Growth hormone signals to which of the following parts of a long bone to influence its length? a. articular cartilage b. endosteum c. epiphyseal plate d. medullary cavity 17. Which of these statements applies to growth hormone? a. It increases the uptake of amino acids by cells. b. It promotes lipid synthesis. c. It works with insulin to lower blood sugar. d. It is secreted by the hypothalamus. 18. Which class of hormones is released by exocytosis upon appropriate stimulation? a. thyroxin b. peptides c. steroids d. insulins 19. Which of these statements describes hypophysiotropic hormones from the hypothalamus? a. They control the release of oxytocin and vasopressin from the posterior pituitary. b. They are carried in the hypothalamic–hypophyseal portal system. c. They travel via neuron axons from the hypothalamus to the anterior pituitary. d. They are released upon positive-feedback stimulation via the anterior pituitary tropic hormones. 20. Hormones of the hypothalamus affect secretion of hormones from which endocrine gland? a. posterior pituitary b. thyroid gland c. anterior pituitary d. mammary glands 21. Hormones are classified into which of the following three types? a. amines, peptides, and steroids b. amides, steroids, and phospholipids c. amines, phospholipids, and steroids d. amides, amines, and peptides 22. A portal system exists between which of the following glands? a. adrenal cortex and adrenal medulla b. thyroid gland and parathyroid gland c. hypothalamus and posterior pituitary d. hypothalamus and anterior pituitary 23. What is another name for vasopressin? a. antinatriuretic hormone b. antikalaemic hormone c. oxytocin d. antidiuretic hormone 24. Which class of hormones triggers the synthesis of new proteins within the target cell? a. peptide hormones b. catecholamines c. protein hormones d. steroid hormones Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_5ce 25. What is the name for the mechanism where presence or action of a hormone further increases the secretion of that same hormone? a. positive feedback b. neuroendocrine feedback c. diurnal control d. negative feedback 26. The stimulus for secretion of vasopressin comes from which of these receptors? a. mechanoreceptors b. thermoreceptors c. osmoreceptors d. stretch receptors 27. Which of the following happens in the second-messenger step? a. A small amount of one hormone (the second messenger) is required to release another. b. A tropic hormone (the first messenger) stimulates secretion of another hormone (the second messenger). c. The hormone first binds to a specific surface receptor, whereupon the hormone–receptor complex moves into the cell to combine with a specific intracellular receptor. d. A hormone (the first messenger) binds to surface receptors, activating adenylyl cyclase, which catalyzes cAMP formation. 28. What is the function of thymosin, the hormone produced by the thymus? a. to reinforce the endocrine functions of the hypothalamus b. to regulate macrophage activity c. to enhance T lymphocyte function d. to stimulate secretion of thyroid hormones 29. What does excessive growth hormone secretion in an adult lead to? a. gigantism b. disproportionate growth, resulting in thickened bones and coarse features c. dwarfism d. central obesity 30. Which hormone is secreted by the pineal gland? a. growth hormone b. melanin c. melatonin d. melanocyte-stimulating hormone 31. A hormone can influence the activity of another hormone at a given target cell in one of three ways: permissiveness, synergism, or antagonism. Which of these statements demonstrates that concept? a. With permissiveness, one hormone must be present in adequate amounts for the full exertion of another hormone’s effect. b. Synergism occurs when the action of one hormone is more dominant than another hormone. c. Antagonism occurs when hormones compete for the hormone’s receptors. d. ADH and oxytocin are a good example of antagonistic hormones.

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Chap 06_5ce 32. Which of these statements refers to hormones secreted by endocrine glands? a. They are secreted into the ducts. b. They are all controlled by the nervous system. c. They all can pass through the plasma membrane. d. They regulate cellular and organ function at a distance. 33. Which of these statements refers to permissiveness? a. It allows cellular processes to occur. b. It allows target organs to function at the optimal rate. c. In some instances, an adequate amount of one hormone must be present for the full exertion of another hormone’s effect. d. Through numerous neuroendocrine relationships, the nervous system allows the endocrine system to function. 34. What are estrogen, testosterone, cortisol, and aldosterone commonly derived from? a. phospholipids b. cholesterol c. fatty acids d. epinephrine 35. Under which of these circumstances is synergism occurring? a. when one hormone induces the loss of another hormone’s receptors b. when the actions of several hormones are complementary, and their combined effect is greater than the sum of their separate effects c. when one hormone must be present in adequate amounts for the full exertion of another hormone’s effect d. when one hormone increases the number of target-tissue receptors for another hormone 36. Hydrophilic hormones are all of the following EXCEPT a. catecholamines. b. peptide hormones. c. protein hormones. d. steroid hormones. 37. Which of the following is NOT a function of growth hormone? a. to increase the uptake of amino acids by cells b. to stimulate the synthesis of somatomedins c. to enhance glucose uptake by muscle cells d. to stimulate cell division 38. How is hormone secretion from the anterior pituitary gland controlled? a. by neuronal cell bodies from the hypothalamus b. directly, by neural innervation of anterior pituitary cells c. by negative-feedback action of target-tissue hormones d. only by inhibiting hormones from the hypothalamus

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Chap 06_5ce 39. Which two hormones are associated with the posterior pituitary gland? a. vasopressin and thyroid hormone b. melanocyte-stimulating hormone and oxytocin c. oxytocin and vasopressin d. growth hormone and vasopressin 40. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the hormone oxytocin? a. It stimulates uterine contractions. b. It promotes milk ejection from mammary gland ducts. c. It influences bonding behaviour between mother and baby. d. It is secreted by the anterior pituitary gland. 41. How does growth hormone exert its effects on growth? a. by stimulating production of somatomedins b. by directly invoking gene activity c. by elevating blood glucose levels d. by increasing fat metabolism 42. Which of the following is NOT one of the functions of the endocrine system? a. to assist the body in adapting to stress b. to modify urination reflexes c. to regulate water and electrolyte balance d. to influence vascular function and tone 43. Which of the following represents the correct sequence of events for hydrophilic hormone synthesis and secretion? a. synthesized in the ER, packaged in secretory vesicles, modified to active form in the Golgi, exocytosis of secretory vesicle b. packed into secretory vesicles, synthesized in the ER, modified to active form in the Golgi, exocytosis of secretory vesicle c. synthesized in the ER, modified to active form in the Golgi, packed into secretory vesicles, exocytosis of secretory vesicle d. synthesized in the ER, packaged in secretory vesicles, exocytosis of secretory vesicle, modified to active form in the Golgi 44. Which of these endocrine glands produces steroid hormones? a. posterior pituitary b. thyroid gland c. hypothalamus d. adrenal cortex 45. Which of these statements represents long-loop, negative feedback in the CRH–ACTH–cortisol system? a. Cortisol inhibits CRH secretion. b. CRH inhibits ACTH secretion. c. ACTH inhibits CRH secretion. d. ACTH inhibits cortisol secretion. 46. Which of these circumstances results in somatomedins being released from the liver? a. increased plasma growth hormone levels b. increased plasma somatostatin levels c. decreased plasma growth hormone levels d. decreased plasma somatostatin levels Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_5ce 47. Lipophilic hormones are all of the following EXCEPT a. catecholamines. b. steroid hormones. c. thyroid hormone. d. testosterone. 48. Which of these statements applies to the posterior pituitary? a. It secretes vasopressin. b. It stores anterior pituitary hormones. c. It stores ACTH and LH. d. It secretes vasopressin and oxytocin into the hypothalamic–hypophyseal portal system. 49. Outside its role in circadian rhythms, which of the following is a function of melatonin? a. fat metabolism b. adaptation to stress c. reproductive control d. growth 50. Why is the hypothalamic–hypophyseal portal system important? a. It ensures the hormones of the anterior pituitary can reach their target tissues. b. It ensures the hypothalamus can produce hypophysiotropic hormones. c. It ensures the right concentration of anterior pituitary hormone reaches the hypothalamus. d. It ensures the right concentration of hypophysiotropic hormones reach the anterior pituitary. 51. Which class of hormones acts by means of a second-messenger system? a. catecholamines b. lipophilic hormones c. steroids d. thyroid hormones 52. What process is responsible for the sudden increase in cortisol secretion by the adrenal gland in response to a stressful event? a. positive reflex b. neuroendocrine reflex c. permissive reflex d. negative feedback 53. Which of these statements describes diurnal rhythms? a. They are inherent cyclical peaks and ebbs of hormone secretion that are a function of time and are entrained to the 24-hour light–dark cycle. b. They are important in maintaining hormone levels at a relatively constant set point, no matter the time of day. c. They occur only with cortisol secretion. d. They occur only with growth hormone secretion. 54. Which of the following is NOT a hormone of the anterior pituitary? a. growth hormone b. thyroid stimulating hormone c. vasopressin d. adrenocorticotropic hormone

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Chap 06_5ce 55. Which of these statements applies to growth hormone? a. It closes the epiphyseal plate of long bones. b. It promotes hypertrophy and hyperplasia. c. Its secretion is stimulated by an increased blood glucose level. d. It is the only factor responsible for governing the growth of an individual. 56. Which of these statements best describes amplification? a. the magnification of an initial hormonal message by intracellular signalling events b. the increase in protein synthesis initiated when lipophilic hormones bind to DNA c. the increase in hormone secretion when an appropriate signal is sent to an endocrine gland d. an enhanced cellular response to one hormone that is triggered by the presence of a second hormone 57. Which of these hormones is secreted by the kidneys? a. cortisol b. renin c. epinephrine d. growth hormone 58. Which of these statements refers to circadian rhythms? a. The hypothalamus’s supraoptic nucleus maintains them. b. Melanin is responsible for generating them. c. They are brought about by fluctuating levels of melanin proteins. d. The pituitary gland maintains them. 59. Which one of these hormones secreted by the anterior pituitary is non-tropic? a. TSH b. prolactin c. LH d. ACTH 60. Which of the following performs no other roles outside its endocrine functions? a. hypothalamus b. skin c. pancreas d. adrenal cortex 61. Which of the following statements does NOT accurately describe clock proteins? a. When they accumulate to a certain level in the cytosol, they travel to the nucleus to inhibit their own production. b. Their levels are controlled by rhythmic activity of the pineal gland. c. Fluctuating levels elicit cyclic firing of SCN neurons that then create rhythmic effector organ activity throughout the day. d. Their levels are controlled by a negative-feedback system. 62. What is the name of the site where a lipophilic hormone-receptor complex binds to activate genes that will eventually code for proteins? a. DNA binding site b. hormone binding element c. hormone response element d. transcriptional activation site

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Chap 06_5ce 63. Which statement does NOT describe vasopressin? a. It is produced in the hypothalamus. b. It stimulates uterine smooth muscle contraction. c. It increases reabsorption of water in the kidneys. d. It is a potent arteriolar vasoconstrictor. 64. What term is used to describe a hormone that acts on an endocrine gland or tissue to promote secretion of another hormone? a. permissive b. trophic c. tropic d. agonistic 65. Which of the following are masculinizing hormones produced from the adrenal gland? a. growth hormones b. androgens c. thyroid hormones d. cortisols 66. Which statement refers to the transport, metabolism, and excretion of hormones? a. The lungs are the site of their inactivation. b. Unlike secretion, their inactivation and excretion are not regulated to a large degree. c. If they are lipophilic, they are inactivated and eliminated more quickly than if they are protein or peptides. d. Metabolic reactions that modify their structure can only activate them. 67. In addition to growth hormone, which other hormone is essential for normal growth? a. insulin b. parathyroid hormone c. calcitonin d. glucagon 68. What is another name for the posterior pituitary gland? a. neurohypophysis b. intermediate lobe c. adenohypophysis d. optic chiasm 69. Which of the following is a target tissue of calcitonin? a. heart b. bone c. kidneys d. intestine 70. Which of these hormones is regulated by the anterior pituitary? a. parathyroid hormone b. cortisol c. aldosterone d. insulin 71. If oxytocin secretion from the posterior pituitary was blocked, what would be affected the most? a. growth b. blood volume c. urine volume d. milk ejection 72. Which of the following is NOT an effect of growth hormone? a. increased fat breakdown b. increased bone growth c. decreased glucose entry into muscle cells d. decreased protein synthesis

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Chap 06_5ce 73. Which of the following is NOT an example of primary hyposecretion? a. Reduced thyroid hormone secretion due to dietary iodine deficiency. b. Reduced thyroid hormone secretion because a portion of the thyroid gland has been removed. c. Reduced thyroid hormone secretion due to reduced secretion of thyroid stimulating hormone from the anterior pituitary gland. d. Reduced thyroid hormone secretion for unknown reasons. 74. What is the name for the mechanism used to maintain plasma concentrations of a hormone within a set range? a. diurnal control b. neuroendocrine feedback c. positive feedback d. negative feedback 75. Which of these statements refers to hydrophilic hormones? a. They are transported in blood bound to plasma proteins. b. Their receptors are present on the plasma membrane. c. They can exit the cells that they are synthesized in by simple diffusion. d. They bring about changes in target cells by influencing protein synthesis. 76. All the following can be considered part of the endocrine system EXCEPT for which organ? a. heart b. adipose tissue c. kidneys d. bone 77. Which of these situations represents negative feedback? a. Hormone A stimulates hormone B, and hormone B inhibits hormone C. b. Hormone A inhibits hormone B, and hormone B inhibits hormone A. c. Hormone A stimulates hormone B, and hormone B inhibits hormone A. d. Hormone A inhibits hormone B, and hormone B inhibits hormone C. 78. Which statement does NOT apply to IGF? a. Its concentration in blood plasma normally mimics the rate of secretion of GH. b. Its levels decrease during fasting, even though fasting increases GH secretion. c. Its major site of production is the pancreas. d. It mediates the effect of GH on glycogen synthesis. 79. Which of the following is a hormone produced by the anterior pituitary gland? a. oxytocin b. follicle-stimulating hormone c. gonadotropin-releasing hormone d. cortisol-stimulating hormone 80. A deficiency in which of these hormones may result in dwarfism? a. growth hormone-inhibiting hormone b. thyroid-stimulating hormone c. thyroid hormone d. growth hormone 81. What is the hormone produced by the skin? a. vitamin A b. melatonin c. calcitonin d. vitamin D Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_5ce 82. Which of the following statements is NOT an accurate description of an aspect of the endocrine system? a. One hormone only has a single target tissue or organ. b. A single hormone can be produced by multiple tissues or organs. c. Some neurotransmitters can also act as hormones. d. Certain tissues serve only endocrine roles and do not perform functions as part of other body systems. 83. If a cell is exposed to a drug that blocks the activity of adenylate cyclase, which second-messenger signalling system would be affected? a. cortisol second-messenger system b. IP3 second-messenger system c. Ca2+ second-messenger system

d. cAMP second-messenger system

84. Which of the following is NOT a hormone produced by the anterior pituitary gland? a. thyroid hormone b. growth hormone c. prolactin d. adrenocorticotropic hormone 85. Which of the following steroid hormones helps with closure of the epiphyseal plate? a. testosterone b. growth hormone c. cortisol d. aldosterone 86. Which of the following statements best describes endocrinology? a. the study of chemical adjustments designed to maintain homeostasis b. a series of homeostatic changes designed to support bodily functions c. the body’s ability to regulate toxin and waste metabolism d. deviations from homeostasis induced by chemical messengers in the body 87. If vasopressin secretion from the posterior pituitary was blocked, what would be affected the most? a. milk ejection b. growth c. urine volume d. blood volume 88. The amount of a hormone available to interact with its receptors may be determined by all the following EXCEPT a. inactivation by metabolic reactions and excretion in urine. b. binding to proteins in the bloodstream. c. how much of the hormone is secreted from the endocrine gland. d. processing by the Golgi apparatus. 89. If a cell was exposed to a drug that blocked the activity of ribosomes, the actions of which hormone would be affected the most? a. growth hormone b. insulin c. epinephrine d. cortisol

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Chap 06_5ce 90. Which of these statements refers to the posterior pituitary gland? a. It is directly connected to the anterior pituitary via a connecting stalk. b. It does not produce hormones, but stores and releases them upon an appropriate signal. c. It produces vasopressin and oxytocin. d. It receives signals from neurosecretory neurons of the hypothalamus 91. Which of these endocrine glands produces peptide/protein hormones? a. hypothalamus b. thyroid gland c. ovaries d. adrenal cortex 92. Which of these statements does NOT refer to the posterior pituitary gland? a. It contains the axon terminals of hypothalamic neurosecretory neurons. b. It does not produce hormones. c. Oxytocin and vasopressin are hormones associated with it. d. It’s stimulation causes secretion of both vasopressin and oxytocin simultaneously. 93. Lipophilic hormones interact with which of the following prior to gene activation? a. membrane receptors b. cAMP c. response elements d. G proteins 94. Which of these statements describes growth hormone? a. Levels in the blood are directly correlated with the rate of growth throughout life. b. It stimulates the secretion of somatomedins. c. It stimulates osteoclast activity. d. Excessive levels in adults will cause the disease called gigantism. 95. The transport of lipid-soluble hormones in the blood is accomplished by which of the following mechanisms? a. loose binding with iodine b. specific binding to glycolipids c. specific binding to HDLs d. specific binding to some plasma proteins 96. Which of these statements applies to growth hormone? a. It directly stimulates bone growth. b. It promotes low blood glucose level. c. It promotes closure of the epiphyseal plate. d. It affects bones via somatomedin release. 97. Which of the following is NOT a target tissue of parathyroid hormone? a. heart b. bone c. kidneys d. intestine

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Chap 06_5ce Answer Key 1. b 2. d 3. a 4. d 5. d 6. c 7. c 8. c 9. a 10. b 11. c 12. b 13. c 14. a 15. b 16. c 17. a 18. b 19. b 20. c 21. a 22. d 23. d 24. d 25. a 26. c

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Chap 06_5ce 27. d 28. c 29. b 30. c 31. a 32. d 33. c 34. b 35. b 36. d 37. c 38. c 39. c 40. d 41. a 42. b 43. c 44. d 45. a 46. a 47. a 48. a 49. c 50. d 51. a 52. b 53. a 54. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_5ce 55. b 56. a 57. b 58. a 59. b 60. d 61. b 62. c 63. b 64. c 65. b 66. b 67. a 68. a 69. b 70. b 71. d 72. d 73. c 74. d 75. b 76. d 77. c 78. c 79. b 80. d 81. d 82. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_5ce 83. d 84. a 85. a 86. a 87. c 88. d 89. d 90. b 91. a 92. d 93. c 94. b 95. d 96. d 97. a

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Chap 06_5ce_2 Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. Insulin and glucagon are both produced within the islets of Langerhans in the liver. a. True b. False 2. Hypersecretion of a hormone may be caused by a tumour on the endocrine gland that produces that hormone. a. True b. False 3. Melatonin is produced and secreted by the hypothalamus. a. True b. False 4. Compared to hydrophilic hormones, the effects of lipophilic hormones are very fast because lipophilic hormones can diffuse into their target cells. a. True b. False 5. For a lipophilic hormone, plasma concentrations of the biologically active form are partly determined by binding of the hormone to plasma proteins. a. True b. False 6. Hormones can only exert their effects on target cells because target cells express the enzymes necessary to activate the hormone. a. True b. False 7. Plasma concentrations of a hormone are normally regulated by changes in secretion rate. a. True b. False 8. Catecholamines are lipophilic hormones. a. True b. False 9. In humans, the intermediate lobe of the pituitary gland produces melanocyte-stimulating hormone. a. True b. False 10. The hypothalamus is the highest integrative centre in the hierarchical chain of command in endocrine control. a. True b. False

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Chap 06_5ce_2 11. The hypothalamic–hypophyseal portal system ensures slow delivery of hypophysiotropic hormones to the anterior pituitary gland. a. True b. False 12. Calcitonin and parathyroid hormone are antagonist hormones because they exert opposite effects on Ca2+ release and storage in bone. a. True b. False 13. Catecholamines are hydrophilic hormones. a. True b. False 14. Endocrine responses occur more slowly but are shorter in duration than neural responses. a. True b. False 15. A drug that blocks the activity of ribosomes would affect the activity of cortisol more than growth hormone. a. True b. False 16. Growth hormone promotes mobilization of fatty acids from adipose tissue. a. True b. False 17. There are a number of compounds with hormone-like properties that do not fit the classical definition of a hormone. a. True b. False 18. Each anterior pituitary hormone is controlled by a single hypophysiotropic hormone from the hypothalamus. a. True b. False 19. Hypophysiotropic hormones are secreted into the systemic circulatory system. a. True b. False 20. Some hydrophilic hormones influence their target cells by altering permeability of the membrane to different ions. a. True b. False

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Chap 06_5ce_2 21. A neural pathway connects the hypothalamus to the posterior pituitary gland. a. True b. False 22. Excess growth hormone in adulthood has no detrimental effects on bone growth, since bones finished growing during adolescence. a. True b. False 23. The endocrine system does not play a role in modifying circulation by influencing the vascular system. a. True b. False 24. Melatonin secretion increases with light. a. True b. False 25. Neuroendocrine reflexes provide a way to suddenly increase the levels of a hormone in circulation, typically in response to an external stimulus. a. True b. False 26. Somatomedins include insulin-like growth factor I and insulin-like growth factor II. a. True b. False 27. The liver acts as an endocrine gland and plays a role in growth promotion because it secretes growth hormone. a. True b. False 28. The adrenal gland produces erythropoietin, a hormone that stimulates production of red blood cells. a. True b. False 29. A hormone has permissive actions when it promotes the secretion of a different hormone. a. True b. False 30. Only hormones that are not bound to plasma proteins are biologically active. a. True b. False 31. The thyroid gland produces only two hormones. a. True b. False

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Chap 06_5ce_2 32. Linking of internal body process to the dark–light cycle requires photoreceptors in a special retinal ganglion cell. a. True b. False 33. Steroid hormones are all derivatives of cortisol. a. True b. False 34. When clock proteins accumulate to a certain level in the cytosol, they travel to the nucleus to inhibit their own production. a. True b. False 35. Adipokines are hormones that are produced by adipose tissue. a. True b. False 36. The adrenal cortex and adrenal medulla produce distinct hormones. a. True b. False 37. The hypophysis is another name for the pituitary gland. a. True b. False 38. Anatomic location is the only feature shared by the anterior and posterior pituitary glands. a. True b. False 39. The adenohypophysis is another name for the posterior pituitary gland. a. True b. False 40. Estrogens can be produced by both the ovaries and the placenta. a. True b. False 41. Vasopressin is a vasoconstrictor substance. a. True b. False 42. Growth hormone can influence the thickness of bone, but only during the period when the epiphyseal plate is open. a. True b. False

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Chap 06_5ce_2 43. Without somatomedins, growth hormone could not exert its effect on bone growth. a. True b. False 44. Growth hormone promotes the growth of soft tissues as well as the skeleton. a. True b. False 45. In the presence of growth hormone, the rate of protein synthesis decreases to spare amino acids for ATP production. a. True b. False 46. Osteoblasts and chondrocytes are both targets of the actions of growth hormone. a. True b. False 47. Physiologists are still not fully aware of all of the functions of the hormones that have been identified to date. a. True b. False 48. G protein-coupled receptors are part of the cAMP second-messenger system. a. True b. False 49. The receptors for catecholamine hormones are found inside cells. a. True b. False 50. The hypothalamic–hypophyseal portal system ensures that an adequate concentration of the hypophysiotropic hormones reaches the anterior pituitary gland. a. True b. False 51. Hormones can influence activity of the nervous system by acting as neuromodulators. a. True b. False 52. The effects of the endocrine system tend to be more prolonged than those of the nervous system. a. True b. False 53. A relative deficiency in growth hormone can occur when abnormal receptors for growth hormone become unresponsive. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_5ce_2 54. Stimulation of thyroid hormone secretion by thyroid-stimulating hormone is an example of positive feedback. a. True b. False 55. Hydrophilic hormones are synthesized and processed in a manner similar to all peptides and proteins in a cell. a. True b. False 56. Hormones have synergistic effects when they facilitate the same function. a. True b. False 57. Each steroidogenic organ is capable of producing all of the steroid hormones. a. True b. False 58. A single second-messenger molecule can induce diverse effects because it can modify different proteins specific to each type of target cell. a. True b. False 59. The pituitary gland produces melatonin. a. True b. False 60. Secretion of oxytocin and vasopressin by the posterior pituitary gland happens independently from one another. a. True b. False 61. Hormone X is tropic for hormone Y. Damage to the endocrine gland that produces hormone X would cause secondary hyposecretion hormone Y. a. True b. False 62. If growth hormone is deficient, cells could be both smaller in size and fewer in number. a. True b. False 63. The hypothalamus produces a releasing and inhibiting hormone than can enhance and suppress secretion of thyroid-stimulating hormone from the anterior pituitary gland. a. True b. False 64. One hormone may be secreted from multiple tissues or organs. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_5ce_2 65. The effects of growth hormone on the length of bone are stopped by the actions of the sex hormones. a. True b. False 66. Enzyme-mediated reactions can both activate and inactivate hormones. a. True b. False 67. Somatomedins, such as IGF-I, suppress the effects of growth hormone on its target tissues. a. True b. False 68. The metabolic effects of growth hormone all support the sparing of glucose for glucose-dependent tissues. a. True b. False 69. The heart has endocrine functions. a. True b. False 70. Cells will respond to a hormone only if they express receptors for that particular hormone. a. True b. False 71. All hormones that exist in the human body have been identified and their actions fully characterized. a. True b. False 72. The neurohypophysis is another name for the anterior pituitary gland. a. True b. False 73. When hypersecretion of growth hormone starts in adulthood, the physical effects are the same as when hypersecretion starts in childhood. a. True b. False 74. Hormones are secreted in large quantities because they travel long distances through the bloodstream to reach target tissues. a. True b. False 75. Linking of internal body process to the dark–light cycle requires photoreceptor proteins called melanopsin. a. True b. False

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Chap 06_5ce_2 76. Peptide hormones cause changes in solute permeability or alter intracellular protein activity at their targets. a. True b. False 77. Hydrophilic hormones, like insulin, must bind to receptors present on the plasma membrane in order to exert effects on target cells. a. True b. False 78. The nervous system exerts considerable control over the endocrine system, but hormones have no influence over the nervous system. a. True b. False 79. Stimulation of thyroid hormone secretion by thyroid-stimulating hormone is an example of negative feedback. a. True b. False 80. Each lipophilic hormone has a specific hormone response element that it must bind to in order to be internalized by target cells. a. True b. False 81. The adrenal medulla produces epinephrine and norepinephrine. a. True b. False 82. The skin is an endocrine gland. a. True b. False 83. Adipose tissue is considered an endocrine gland. a. True b. False 84. If vasopressin secretion was blocked, urine volume would be affected. a. True b. False 85. The anterior pituitary is involved in the regulation of reproduction. a. True b. False

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Chap 06_5ce_2 86. Vasopressin and oxytocin are produced by neurons in the hypothalamus, and are transported to the posterior pituitary via a portal system of blood vessels. a. True b. False 87. Gonadotropin releasing hormone promotes secretion of both follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone. a. True b. False 88. Thyroid hormone is an example of a hydrophilic hormone. a. True b. False 89. The posterior pituitary gland is simply an extension of the hypothalamus. a. True b. False 90. Secretion of epinephrine from the adrenal medulla is only stimulated by activity of the nervous system. a. True b. False 91. Most hormones of the anterior pituitary gland are tropic hormones. a. True b. False 92. Prolactin is the only anterior pituitary hormone that does not exert a tropic action. a. True b. False 93. Peptide hormones will be secreted into circulation only upon receipt of an appropriate signal. a. True b. False 94. Vasopressin is another name for antidiuretic hormone. a. True b. False 95. A permissive hormone promotes the secretion of another hormone by stimulating an endocrine gland/tissue. a. True b. False 96. As an endocrine gland, the hypothalamus produces hormones that influence the posterior pituitary gland. a. True b. False

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Chap 06_5ce_2 97. Prolactin secretion is regulated by the hypothalamus, but only by a releasing hormone. a. True b. False 98. The posterior pituitary gland contains endocrine cells that synthesize vasopressin and oxytocin. a. True b. False 99. Solubility of a hormone in water affects how that hormone is transported around the body. a. True b. False 100. A drug that blocks the activity of adenylate cyclase would affect the activity of the Ca2+ second-messenger system. a. True b. False 101. The responses of the endocrine and nervous systems are equal in speed. a. True b. False 102. Growth hormone is controlled by both releasing and inhibiting hormones from the hypothalamus. a. True b. False 103. A lipophilic hormone can alter the activity of target cells by activating second-messenger signalling systems. a. True b. False 104. The nervous system responds to stimuli external to the body; the endocrine system responds to internal stimuli. a. True b. False 105. All hormones secreted by the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary gland are peptides. a. True b. False 106. Iodine deficiency is one possible cause of secondary hyposecretion of thyroid hormone. a. True b. False 107. Hormones influence adjustments that require duration rather than speed, whereas rapid coordination of the body is controlled by the nervous system. a. True b. False

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Chap 06_5ce_2 108. Circadian rhythms are linked to the levels of clock proteins within neurons of the SCN. a. True b. False Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement. 109. Vasopressin exerts effects on arteriolar smooth muscle and the ____________________. 110. Rapid and precise responses, usually to external stimuli, are coordinated by the ____________________. 111. This releasing hormone, called ____________________, ultimately causes secretion of adrenocorticosteroids. 112. When epinephrine is secreted from sympathetic nerve fibres, it acts as a ____________________; when it is secreted from the adrenal medulla it acts as a ____________________. 113. The kidneys produce ____________________, a hormone that stimulates production of red blood cells in the bone marrow. 114. ____________________ is the second messenger utilized by hydrophilic hormones that activates protein kinase A. 115. Although hormones circulate throughout the entire body, they exert specific actions because specific target cells express ____________________ specific for that hormone. 116. The peptides that mediate the actions of growth hormone on tissues are known as ____________________. 117. The adrenal gland consists of the adrenal cortex and the adrenal ____________________. 118. Melatonin is secreted by the ____________________ gland. 119. Antidiuretic hormone is another name for ____________________. 120. Hydrophilic hormones are first synthesized as precursors called ____________________ by ribosomes on the rough endoplasmic reticulum. 121. The somatomedin that carries out the actions of growth hormone is called ____________________. 122. Hormones of the hypothalamus influence secretion of hormones from the ____________________ gland. 123. Growth hormone influences growth of tissues by promoting ____________________ and ____________________. 124. Estrogens are produced in the ovaries and ____________________. 125. Follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone are collectively known as ____________________ because of their effects on the ovaries and testes. 126. Hypersecretion of growth hormone in adulthood causes ____________________, a condition where the body is larger but still proportional. 127. The anterior pituitary gland is also known as the ____________________. 128. The most common site for metabolism of hormones is the ____________________.

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Chap 06_5ce_2 129. Sudden increases in secretion of a hormone in response to external stimuli are regulated by ___________________. 130. When cells are unresponsive to growth hormone, this results in a condition called ____________________. 131. Tropic hormones stimulate ____________________ of another hormone. 132. Melatonin can act as a powerful __________________, defending the body against damage by free radicals. 133. Lipophilic hormones induce changes in their target cells by stimulating synthesis of new ____________________. 134. ____________________ systems are used by hydrophilic hormones to activate intracellular target proteins and bring about changes in target cells 135. The posterior pituitary gland is also known as the ____________________. 136. All the blood supply to the anterior pituitary gland must first pass through the ____________________ of the brain. 137. Some hormones are regulated through ____________________-feedback loops, where secretion is enhanced by the presence and actions of a hormone. 138. Growth hormone can influence the length of bones as long as the ____________________ is open. 139. Melatonin is secreted by the ____________________. 140. The ____________________ system is a vascular bed that allows hormones produced by the hypothalamus to travel to the anterior pituitary gland. 141. ____________________ is the hypophysiotropic hormone that promotes the secretion of growth hormone. 142. _________________ is the specialized photoreceptor that informs the SCN about light. 143. Insulin and ____________________ are produced by the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas. 144. Stress causes a(n) ____________________ in growth hormone secretion. 145. The heart produces and secretes ____________________, a hormone that counteracts an increase in blood volume by limiting Na+ reabsorption in the kidneys. 146. ____________________ is the condition of excess growth hormone production in adulthood, and is characterized by thickening of cheekbones and jaw bone. 147. With ____________________, one hormone must be present in adequate amounts for the full exertion of another hormone’s effect. 148. The cell bodies of the hypothalamic neurosecretory neurons form the ____________________ nuclei and the ____________________ nuclei. 149. ____________________ from the anterior pituitary stimulates cortisol secretion. 150. ____________________ feedback maintains plasma concentrations of a hormone within a set range. 151. TRH controls the release of ____________________. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_5ce_2 152. The ____________________ hormones are derived from tyrosine. 153. The area of study that examines the interactions and relationships between the endocrine and nervous systems is called ____________________. 154. The anterior pituitary gland secretes this number of hormones: ___________________. 155. _________________ are synthesized in the cytosol, accumulate to a certain limit, and then travel to the nucleus to shut down their own production. 156. The primary means of eliminating hormones and their metabolites from the blood is ____________________. 157. The ____________________ performs the final processing of hydrophilic hormones and packages them into secretory vesicles. 158. Lipophilic hormones influence activity of their target cells by activating ____________________ that code for the synthesis of different proteins. 159. Signalling cascades allow relatively small signals to be _____________________ into much stronger signals inside target cells. 160. The stomach secretes __________________ to coordinate motility and secretion in the digestive tract. 161. ____________________ are chemical messengers that circulate through the bloodstream and exert effects in target cells that are typically far away. Match the systems, labelled a. through c. with their characteristics. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. the endocrine system b. the nervous system c. both the endocrine and nervous systems 162. structural continuity in the system 163. stores hormones for secretion 164. has an influence on other major control system 165. secretes chemical messengers that affect target cells 166. Chemical messengers act at a long distance from their site of secretion. 167. Specificity is dependent on specificity of target-cell receptors. 168. controls activities that require longer duration rather than speed 169. Duration of action is brief (milliseconds). 170. Speed of response is long (minutes to days or longer). 171. Cerebral cortex can influence activities. 172. releases factors, such as CRH 173. Pancreas has ductless cells that secrete.

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Chap 06_5ce_2 Match posterior and anterior pituitary, labelled a. through c., with their features. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. applies to the posterior pituitary b. applies to the anterior pituitary c. applies to both the posterior and the anterior pituitary 174. composed of glandular tissue 175. composed of nervous tissue 176. also known as adenohypophysis 177. also known as neurohypophysis 178. secretes MSHs in humans 179. contains pituicytes 180. stores hormones synthesized by the hypothalamus 181. releases hormones into the general circulation 182. Its release of hormones is directly controlled by action potentials. 183. Its release of hormones is directly controlled by hypothalamic hypophysiotropic hormones. 184. neurally connected to the hypothalamus 185. connected to the hypothalamus by a vascular link 186. synthesizes the hormones it secretes 187. releases vasopressin and oxytocin into the blood 188. releases primarily tropic hormones into the blood 189. may be directly inhibited by negative feedback from its target organ

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Chap 06_5ce_2 PTS: 1 Match the hormones, labelled a. through f., with their activities. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. vasopressin b. oxytocin c. TSH d. ACTH e. growth hormone f. GnRH 190. stimulates somatomedin secretion by the liver 191. enhances H2O retention by the kidneys 192. responsible for ovulation 193. stimulates cortisol secretion by the adrenal cortex 194. stimulates testosterone secretion 195. exerts a pressor effect on arterioles 196. stimulates growth of ovarian follicles and development of eggs 197. stimulates uterine contractions 198. regulates overall body growth 199. stimulates both estrogen and progesterone secretion 200. stimulates secretion of thyroid hormone Match the solubility characteristics, labelled a. and b., with the classes of hormones. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. lipophilic (hydrophobic) b. hydrophilic (lipophobic) 201. steroids 202. thyroid hormone 203. peptides 204. catecholamines Match the hormones, labelled a. through d., with the characteristics. a. steroids b. catecholamines c. peptides d. thyroid hormone 205. synthesized by the endoplasmic reticulum–Golgi complex system 206. synthesized by enzymatic modification of cholesterol 207. synthesized within colloid 208. once synthesized, actively transported into preformed vesicles for storage Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_5ce_2 Match the types of bone cells, labelled a. through c., with their descriptions. a. osteocytes b. osteoblasts c. osteoclasts 209. form bone 210. entombed in bone 211. dissolve bone 212. stimulated by growth hormone 213. Describe the primary factors involved in growth.

214. Describe circadian rhythms and the mechanisms thought to control them.

215. Describe how the hypothalamus and pituitary interact to control many endocrine glands.

216. Explain the hypothalamic–hypophyseal portal system, and describe its importance.

217. Compare and contrast the receptor and postreceptor events for lipophilic and hydrophilic hormones.

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Chap 06_5ce_2 Answer Key 1. False 2. True 3. False 4. False 5. True 6. False 7. True 8. False 9. False 10. True 11. False 12. True 13. True 14. False 15. True 16. True 17. True 18. False 19. False 20. True 21. True 22. False 23. False 24. False 25. True 26. True

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Chap 06_5ce_2 27. False 28. False 29. False 30. True 31. True 32. True 33. False 34. True 35. True 36. True 37. True 38. True 39. False 40. True 41. True 42. False 43. True 44. True 45. False 46. True 47. True 48. True 49. False 50. True 51. True 52. True 53. True 54. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_5ce_2 55. True 56. True 57. False 58. True 59. False 60. True 61. True 62. True 63. False 64. True 65. True 66. True 67. False 68. True 69. True 70. True 71. False 72. False 73. False 74. False 75. True 76. True 77. True 78. False 79. True 80. False 81. True 82. True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_5ce_2 83. True 84. True 85. True 86. False 87. True 88. False 89. True 90. True 91. True 92. True 93. True 94. True 95. False 96. False 97. True 98. False 99. True 100. False 101. False 102. True 103. False 104. True 105. True 106. False 107. True 108. True 109. kidneys 110. nervous system Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_5ce_2 111. corticotropin-releasing hormone 112. neurotransmitter; hormone 113. erythropoietin 114. cAMP 115. receptors 116. somatomedins 117. medulla 118. pineal 119. vasopressin 120. preprohormones 121. insulin-like growth factor I (IGF-1) 122. anterior pituitary 123. hyperplasia, hypertrophy hypertrophy, hyperplasia 124. placenta 125. gonadotropins 126. gigantism 127. adenohypophysis 128. liver 129. neuroendocrine reflexes 130. Laron dwarfism 131. secretion 132. antioxidant 133. proteins 134. Second-messenger 135. neurohypophysis 136. hypothalamus 137. positive 138. epiphyseal plate 139. pineal gland Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_5ce_2 140. hypothalamic–hypophyseal portal 141. Growth hormone-releasing hormone, GHRH 142. Melanopsin 143. glucagon 144. increase 145. atrial natriuretic peptide 146. Acromegaly 147. permissiveness 148. supraoptic; paraventricular paraventricular; supraoptic 149. Adrenocorticotropic hormone, adrenocorticotropin, ACTH 150. Negative 151. thyroid-stimulating hormone, thyrotropin, TSH 152. catecholamine 153. neuroendocrinology 154. six 6 155. Clock proteins 156. excretion in the urine 157. Golgi complex 158. genes 159. amplified 160. gastrin 161. Hormones 162. b 163. a 164. c 165. c 166. a 167. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_5ce_2 168. a 169. b 170. a 171. b 172. b 173. a 174. b 175. a 176. b 177. a 178. b 179. c 180. a 181. c 182. a 183. b 184. a 185. b 186. b 187. a 188. b 189. b 190. e 191. a 192. f 193. d 194. f 195. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_5ce_2 196. f 197. b 198. e 199. f 200. c 201. a 202. a 203. b 204. b 205. c 206. a 207. d 208. b 209. b 210. a 211. c 212. b 213. Answers will vary. 214. Answers will vary. 215. Answers will vary. 216. Answers will vary. 217. Answers will vary.

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Chap 07_5ce Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Plasma sodium levels are high in a patient, but his plasma potassium levels are low. What might you expect to find as an underlying cause of this condition? a. decreased plasma aldosterone levels b. decreased plasma parathyroid hormone levels c. increased plasma parathyroid hormone levels d. increased plasma aldosterone levels 2. A tumour in the adrenal cortex that oversecretes aldosterone causes which of the following? a. Conn’s syndrome b. Cushing’s syndrome c. Addison’s disease d. Atchison’s syndrome. 3. Which of these statements does NOT refer to adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)? a. Its secretion will be downregulated when levels of cortisol in the bloodstream rise. b. It is synthesized using cholesterol as a precursor. c. Its secretion is stimulated by corticotropin-releasing hormone of the hypothalamus. d. It is trophic to the layers of the adrenal cortex that produce cortisol. 4. Why does a rise in blood amino acid levels trigger secretion of both insulin and glucagon? a. to prevent hypoglycaemia b. to prevent hyperglycaemia c. to stimulate protein synthesis and protein breakdown simultaneously d. to allow for fatty acids to be broken down for energy 5. Increased levels of which of these hormones would NOT result in increased blood fatty acid levels? a. glucagon b. insulin c. growth hormone d. epinephrine 6. Which of these descriptions applies to the iodide pump? a. a mechanism whereby target cells extract iodine-containing thyroid hormone from the blood b. a protein-binding process whereby T3 and T4 are pumped throughout the body bound to plasma proteins c. a mechanism whereby T3 and T4 are released from thyroglobulin and pumped into the circulation d. an active transport mechanism that concentrates iodine in the thyroid 7. Which compound, co-secreted with ACTH, is involved in lowering pain perception during the stress response? a. â-endorphin b. pro-opiomelanocortin c. norepinephrine d. vasopressin 8. Which of the following describes catabolic reactions? a. They involve degradation of large molecules. b. They are used to make structural proteins for the cell. c. They generate ATP. d. They are required for cellular growth and repair. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 07_5ce 9. During the absorptive state, what are the main nutrients used to generate ATP when a person is at rest? a. amino acids b. carbohydrates c. fatty acids d. ketone bodies 10. Which statement does NOT refer to a goitre? a. It may occur with hyper- and hypothyroidism. b. It refers to an enlarged thyroid gland. c. It occurs only in the presence of thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulin. d. It can be caused by iodine deficiency. 11. Which of the following accurately describes insulin-mediated glucose uptake? a. Muscles require insulin for glucose uptake both at rest and during exercise. b. Insulin stimulates the movement of GLUT-4 from intracellular vesicles to the plasma membrane. c. Insulin has no effects on glucose metabolism in the liver, since liver cells do not express the GLUT-4 form of the facilitative glucose transporters. d. Without GLUT-4, the brain would be unable to take up glucose. 12. Conn’s syndrome causes excessive secretion of aldosterone, which encourages K+ secretion into urine. Which situation would you expect to observe in a patient with Conn’s syndrome? a. hyponatraemia b. hypokalaemia c. hypotension d. idiopathic atrophy 13. Which of these statements does NOT apply to cortisol? a. It has immunosuppressive effects. b. It results in facultative potassium resorption. c. It is an anti-inflammatory. d. Its excess is responsible for Cushing’s syndrome. 14. Which of the following describes anabolic reactions? a. They involve degradation of large molecules. b. They can be either hydrolysis reactions or oxidation reactions. c. They use ATP. d. They are required for cellular growth and repair. 15. Which of these statements refers to Grave’s disease? a. Goitre is not present in this form of hyperthyroidism. b. Levels of both T3 and T4 are reduced. c. A common sign is rapid weight gain. d. It can be distinguished from other forms of hyperthyroidism by the presence of exophthalmos. 16. Secretion of which hormone is stimulated by an increase in blood glucose? a. glucagon b. cortisol c. growth hormone d. insulin

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Chap 07_5ce 17. Which of the following applies to Grave’s disease? a. It is an autoimmune disease that attacks follicular cells of the thyroid gland. b. Patients may develop a goitre. c. A common sign is rapid weight gain. d. It is associated with increased secretion of thyroid-stimulating hormone. 18. Which of these statements applies to the term “free Ca2+”? a. It is the Ca2+ in the ECF that can move between the plasma and the interstitial fluid. b. It is the cytosolic Ca2+ that is available for excitation–contraction coupling. c. It is the pool of Ca2+ that is not regulated by the endocrine system. d. It constitutes the largest pool of calcium within the body. 19. Which of these reactions serves to increase blood glucose concentration? a. glycolysis b. glycogenolysis c. glycogenesis d. â-oxidation 20. Which of the following is NOT a layer of the adrenal cortex? a. zona areata b. zona glomerulosa c. zona reticularis d. zona fasciculata 21. How does thyroid hormone exert its sympathomimetic effects? a. by enhancing cellular responsiveness to catecholamine hormones b. by increasing secretion of catecholamine hormones from the adrenal medulla c. by stimulating sympathetic nervous system activity d. by decreasing the activity of the parasympathetic nervous system 22. What is the name of the effect whereby thyroid hormone enhances basal metabolic rate and increases heat production? a. thermogenic effect b. calorigenic effect c. sympathomimetic effect d. metabolic boosting effect 23. Which of the following is NOT a consequence of uncontrolled diabetes mellitus? a. hypoglycaemia b. glucosuria c. hypernatraemia d. hypotension 24. Which of the following signs would you NOT see is a patient with Cushing syndrome? a. oedema of the face b. precocious prepuberty c. elevated blood glucose and glucose in the urine d. deposition of fat in the abdominal and thoracic areas

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Chap 07_5ce 25. What stimulates the release of PTH from the parathyroid gland? a. calcitonin from the anterior pituitary gland b. low levels of glucose in the blood c. TSH from the anterior pituitary gland d. low levels of calcium ions in the blood 26. Why does vasopressin secretion increase during the stress response? a. to increase sodium reabsorption and therefore enhance blood volume b. to enhance vasoconstriction and water retention to increase blood pressure c. to aid in elevating blood glucose concentration d. to assist with mental alertness 27. A patient is reporting symptoms of fatigue, feeling excessively cold, forgetfulness, and has gained weight since their last visit. What condition do you suspect is causing these signs and symptoms? a. hypothyroidism b. hyperthyroidism c. Cushing’s disease d. Addison’s disease 28. Which of these statements does NOT characterize the postabsorptive state? a. There is a substantial reduction in blood glucose concentration compared to the absorptive state. b. Gluconeogenesis occurs post absorption. c. Glucose sparing occurs. d. Insulin secretion is reduced. 29. Hyperthyroidism can be due to all the following EXCEPT which one? a. too much TRH b. lack of iodine c. too much TSH d. too much T4 or T3 30. Which of these is NOT an accurate statement about adrenal androgens? a. DHEA is responsible for stimulating androgen-dependent processes in females. b. In males, the effects of testosterone produced by the testes dominate over DHEA produced by the adrenal cortex. c. The cortex produces more testosterone than dehydroepiandrosterone. d. The cortex produces very small amounts of estrogens. 31. Which of the following signs would you expect to see in an adult female with oversecretion of adrenal androgens? a. increased urinary Na+ b. precocious prepuberty c. acquisition of male secondary sex characteristics d. female pseudohermaphroditism 32. Which of the following is a consequence of uncontrolled diabetes mellitus? a. hypoglycaemia b. glucosuria c. hypernatraemia d. hypotension

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Chap 07_5ce 33. At levels higher than necessary for bone health, what other health benefit has been associated with vitamin D? a. preventing cardiovascular disease b. enhancing function of the immune system c. preventing stomach ulcers d. slowing the progression of brain tumours 34. Although the thyroid gland secretes more T4 than T3, T3 is the more biologically active form of thyroid hormone. Why? a. because T3 contains one less iodine molecule than T4 b. because more T3 than T4 binds to thyroxine-binding globulin c. because cells are more responsive to T3 compared to T4 d. because the liver and kidneys remove one of the iodine molecules from T4 once it has been secreted, producing T3 35. Activity of which subcellular organelle(s) is required for T3 and T4 release from thyroglobulin? a. endoplasmic reticulum c. Golgi complex

b. lysosomes d. peroxisomes

36. Free Ca2+ participates in all the following EXCEPT which one? a. contraction of cardiac and smooth muscle b. protein digestion c. blood clotting d. neuromuscular excitability 37. Which of these statements refers to the adrenal medulla? a. Its hormones are the catecholamines, which are derived from cholesterol. b. Its hormones are epinephrine and norepinephrine, which are structurally very different. c. Eighty percent of the output of the adrenal medulla is norepinephrine, and 20 percent is epinephrine. d. It is a modified postganglionic structure of the sympathetic nervous system. 38. Which of the following is NOT a form of thyroid hormone? a. thyroglobulin b. thyroxine c. tetraiodothyronine d. triiodothyronine 39. If pancreatic somatostatin secretion was blocked, which of the following would be a potential outcome? a. Gastric secretions would be inhibited. b. The movement of chyme through the digestive tract would slow down. c. Levels of nutrients in the blood would quickly reach excessive levels. d. Breakdown of disaccharides to monosaccharides would not happen. 40. Which of the following situations occurs in reactive hypoglycaemia? a. too much glucose transferred into the brain cells due to excess insulin b. excess of glucagon c. insulin deficiency d. symptoms of depressed CNS activity

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Chap 07_5ce 41. Which of the following lists steps of thyroid hormone synthesis in the correct order? a. diffusion of T3 and T4 into the blood; iodide transport into follicular cells; synthesis of MIT and DIT b. synthesis of MIT and DIT; iodide transport into follicular cells; diffusion of T3 and T4 into the blood c. iodide transport into follicular cells; synthesis of MIT and DIT; diffusion of T3 and T4 into the blood d. iodide transport into follicular cells; diffusion of T3 and T4 into the blood; synthesis of MIT and DIT 42. Which of these hormones is NOT involved in shifting between the absorptive and postabsorptive states? a. insulin b. thyroid hormone c. growth hormone d. glucagon 43. Which of these statements describes catecholamines? a. They are secreted by the adrenal cortex. b. They reinforce the parasympathetic nervous system. c. They are important in the maintenance of blood pressure. d. They promote glycogen storage. 44. Which of the following is associated with hyperthyroidism? a. poor resistance to cold b. myxoedema c. slow speech and poor memory d. exophthalmos 45. How does parathyroid hormone contribute to plasma Ca2+ homeostasis? a. It stimulates osteoblast activity to take up Ca2+ into bone and decrease plasma Ca2+. b. It directly inhibits Ca2+ absorption from the digestive tract, decreasing plasma Ca2+. c. It increases Ca2+ excretion by the kidney, increasing plasma Ca2+. d. It stimulates osteoclast activity to release Ca2+ from bone and increase plasma Ca2+. 46. Which of the following is NOT an effect of thyroid hormone? a. increased metabolic rate b. increased absorption of iodine from the digestive tract into the blood c. increased tissue responsiveness to catecholamines d. normal growth 47. Which of these hormones increases plasma Ca2+ concentrations by increasing bone resorption? a. growth hormone b. vitamin D c. parathyroid hormone d. calcitonin 48. Which of these statements does NOT describe TSH? a. It is inhibited by thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH). b. It is inhibited by T3 and T4. c. It promotes hypertrophy and hyperplasia of thyroid cells. d. It is secreted by the anterior pituitary gland. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 07_5ce 49. Which hormone of the anterior pituitary stimulates secretion of cortisol? a. ACTH b. CRH c. TSH d. FSH 50. What is the primary reason why type 1 diabetes develops? a. Pancreatic â cells no longer produce sufficient insulin to keep blood glucose within the homeostatic range. b. Tissues of the body no longer respond appropriately to insulin. c. Pancreatic á cells no longer produce sufficient glucagon to keep blood glucose within the homeostatic range d. Pancreatic â cells overproduce insulin, causing blood glucose concentrations to drop below the homeostatic range. 51. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of the general adaptation syndrome? a. mobilization of energy reserves b. conservation of water and sodium c. increased systemic vasodilation d. elevation of blood glucose level 52. Which of the following statements reflects how thyroid hormone is secreted? a. Free T3 and T4 are secreted through simple diffusion across the follicular cell membrane. b. More T3 is secreted from follicular cells than T4. c. T3 and T4 are secreted while still attached to thyroglobulin, which is then cleaved by extracellular enzymes. d. T3 and T4 are secreted directly from the colloid to the bloodstream. 53. Which of the following is a possible chronic complication of diabetes if it remains unmanaged for a long period of time? a. colon cancer b. osteoporosis c. cardiovascular disease d. lung disease 54. Which of these conditions is NOT a characteristic of diabetes mellitus? a. polydipsia due to dehydration b. polyuria due to the osmotic effect of glucose in the urine c. acidosis due to the ketosis accompanying abnormal fat metabolism d. increased glucose utilization due to excessive glucose availability 55. Which of these statements describes aldosterone? a. It enhances the ability of the kidneys to eliminate excess K+. b. It directly promotes H2O conservation by the kidneys. c. Its secretion is encouraged by angiotensin II. d. It is nonsteroidal.

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Chap 07_5ce 56. Which of these statements does NOT apply to epinephrine? a. It is secreted by the adrenal cortex. b. It is co-secreted with norepinephrine. c. It reinforces sympathetic nervous system activity. d. It has sympathomimetic action. 57. Which structure of the central nervous system is involved in detection, integration, and response to stressors? a. optic chiasm b. basal ganglia c. hypothalamus d. amygdala 58. All the following actions support cortisol’s role in ensuring the brain has adequate glucose EXCEPT for which one? a. increasing protein degradation b. stimulating gluconeogenesis in the liver c. increasing the conversion of glycogen to glucose d. mobilizing fat from adipose tissue 59. Which of these statements does NOT apply to parathyroid hormone (PTH)? a. It directly stimulates Ca2+ absorption from the intestine. b. It conserves Ca2+ by the kidney. c. It promotes urinary excretion of PO43–. d. It causes localized dissolution of bone. 60. Which of the following exerts the most important control over secretion of thyroid hormone? a. thyrotropin-releasing hormone b. thyroxine c. thyroid-stimulating hormone d. thyrotropin-inhibiting hormone 61. Which of the following best explains why different layers of the adrenal cortex produce different steroid hormones? a. Each layer is composed of different cell types that each produce their own adrenocortical hormones. b. The different layers are each stimulated by different hormones from the anterior pituitary gland. c. The different layers express different enzymes that produce the individual adrenocortical hormones. d. All layers of the adrenal cortex can produce all the adrenocortical hormones. 62. All the following describe effects of thyroid hormone on growth and development of the nervous system EXCEPT for which one? a. promoting secretion of growth hormone b. supporting development of the central nervous system in children c. enhancing secretion of IGF-I d. increasing synthesis of testosterone

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Chap 07_5ce 63. Insulin, secreted in the absorptive state, reduces blood glucose concentration through all these mechanisms EXCEPT which one? a. by simulating glycogenolysis b. by enhancing cellular glucose uptake c. by inhibiting gluconeogenesis d. by promoting glycogenesis 64. Which of the following would NOT decrease thyroid hormone production? a. a decrease in TSH production b. an iodine-deficient diet c. inhibition of the iodide pump d. an increase in TRH production 65. All the following are cardiovascular effects of thyroid hormone EXCEPT for which one? a. increasing heart rate b. promoting vasodilation c. influencing the valves of the heart d. increasing contractility of the heart 66. Which of these statement does NOT apply to calcium homeostasis? a. It involves immediate adjustments required to maintain a constant free Ca2+ concentration on a minuteto-minute basis. b. It involves slowly responding adjustments required to maintain a constant total amount of Ca2+ in the body. c. It is maintained primarily by the actions of parathyroid hormone. d. Calcium level in blood may be lowered by the action of calcitonin. 67. Which of these actions is NOT performed by insulin? a. facilitating the entry of amino acids into muscle and other tissues b. inhibition of protein degradation c. enhancing gluconeogenesis d. promotion of fat storage as triglycerides 68. All these hormones will be released during the stress response, EXCEPT for which one? a. insulin b. epinephrine c. corticotropin-releasing hormone d. glucagon 69. Which statement provides a characteristic of a goitre? a. It is an enlarged thyroid. b. It always accompanies hypothyroidism. c. It is present only with iodine-deficient diets. d. It occurs only when TSH levels are elevated. 70. How do the catecholamine hormones exert their effects on target tissues? a. by binding to adrenergic receptors present on the target cell plasma membrane b. by acting as neurotransmitters and influencing synaptic activity c. by diffusing through the plasma membrane of target cells and activating a hormone response element d. by exerting permissive actions on thyroid hormone

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Chap 07_5ce 71. What triggers the release of pancreatic somatostatin? a. decreased blood fatty acids after a meal b. increased blood fatty acids after a meal c. decreased blood glucose and blood amino acids after a meal d. increased blood glucose and blood amino acids after a meal 72. Which of these statements refers to calcitonin? a. It enhances the effect of parathyroid hormone on bone and kidneys. b. It is synthesized in the skin in the presence of sunlight. c. A deficiency produces diabetes insipidus. d. It is secreted in response to hypercalcaemia. 73. Which of these biochemical events does NOT take place during thyroid hormone synthesis? a. one monoiodotyrosine molecule combining with one diiodotyrosine molecule to form one triiodothyronine molecule b. two iodine molecules combining with one tyrosine molecule to form one diiodotyrosine molecule c. four iodine molecules combining with one tyrosine molecule to form one tetraiodothyronine molecule d. two diiodotyrosine molecules combining to form one molecule of thyroxine 74. A woman is found to have the following symptoms: a large goitre, muscle weakness, excessively emotional and irritable disposition, extreme weight loss, a constant feeling of being too warm in normal-temperature rooms, and bulging eyes. What is the provisional diagnosis? a. myxoedema b. Cushing’s disease c. Conn’s syndrome d. Graves’ disease 75. Which of these statements refers to thyroid hormone secretion? a. The anterior pituitary controls daily regulation, and the hypothalamus controls long-term patterns of secretion. b. TSH causes TRH to be secreted, which in turn stimulates T3 and T4 release. c. It provides negative feedback to the hypothalamus. d. Its control is primarily neural. 76. During a stressful event, a person is unable maintain adequate blood pressure levels. Which hormone is likely to be affected in this person? a. insulin b. cortisol c. aldosterone d. glucagon 77. Which of the following occurs during exercise? a. Insulin secretion is increased to enhance the uptake of glucose into muscle cells, making glucose more available for the contracting muscle. b. Insulin secretion is stimulated to promote lipolysis and increase fatty acid availability for the working muscle. c. Gluconeogenesis is shut off to conserve energy for the working muscle. d. Epinephrine directly enhances gluconeogenesis and indirectly enhances it by inhibiting insulin secretion. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 07_5ce 78. If the postabsorptive state lasts for 24 hours, what become the predominant fuel source cells use to make ATP? a. amino acids b. carbohydrates c. ketone bodies d. fatty acids 79. Which of these signs and symptoms is NOT associated with hyperthyroidism? a. elevated basal metabolic rate b. myxoedema c. weakness d. excessive perspiration 80. What is the primary way in which vitamin D contributes to Ca2+ homeostasis? a. by increasing intestinal Ca2+ absorption

b. by stimulating Ca2+ release from bone

c. by reducing urinary Ca2+ excretion

d. by reducing Ca2+ excretion in sweat

81. Which of these statements describes thyroxine? a. It is formed by coupling one MIT and one DIT within the colloid. b. It is produced by the C cells of the thyroid gland. c. It exerts a calorigenic effect. d. It inhibits thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulin in a negative-feedback fashion. 82. Why should synthetic glucocorticoid medications be used only when absolutely necessary and for as short a period of time as possible? a. because the patient will eventually develop a tolerance and the medication will no longer be effective b. because minor side effects may become intolerable for patients and they will stop taking the medications c. because they can overstimulate the immune system, making the patient more susceptible to allergies d. because these medications can make the patient more susceptible to illnesses and infections 83. Which of the following is NOT a cause of hypothyroidism? a. lack of TRH b. iodine-deficient diet c. Grave’s disease d. inability of the thyroid gland to produce or secrete thyroid hormone 84. What is the name for the nonspecific response that is elicited by all potentially harmful stressors? a. general stressor syndrome b. general adaptation syndrome c. general relief syndrome d. general feedback syndrome 85. What is the most abundant and physiologically important adrenal sex hormone? a. aldosterone b. cortisol c. dehydroepiandrosterone d. estradiol 86. Which of the following is NOT an effect of epinephrine? a. elevation of blood sugar concentration b. constriction of the respiratory airways c. stimulation of glycogenolysis in skeletal muscles d. stimulation of hepatic gluconeogenesis Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 07_5ce 87. Which system is involved in maintaining adequate blood pressure levels during the stress response? a. the TRH–TSH–thyroid hormone system b. the insulin–glucagon system c. the CRH–ACTH–cortisol system d. the renin–angiotensin–aldosterone system 88. Which of these statements does NOT refer to the control of calcium metabolism? a. Its plasma level is increased by activation of osteoclasts due to the action of PTH (parathyroid hormone). b. Its secretion into the lumen of the digestive tract is increased by vitamin D. c. Its renal reabsorption is increased by PTH. d. Calcitonin causes a decrease in its plasma level by decreasing its movement from the bone fluid into the plasma, and by suppressing bone resorption. 89. Symptoms of mild hypoparathyroidism include which of the following? a. memory loss b. bone loss c. paralysis of respiratory muscles d. muscle cramps, muscle twitches, and tingling sensations 90. During a stressful event, a person is unable to produce the typical response of an increase in blood glucose concentration. Which hormone is likely to be affected in this person? a. insulin b. cortisol c. aldosterone d. vasopressin 91. How does thyroid hormone affect skeletal muscle? a. It increases muscle size. b. It enhances breakdown of muscle protein c. It decreases amino acid uptake by muscle cells. d. It makes muscle cells more sensitive to the effects of the parasympathetic nervous system. 92. If parathyroid hormone levels in the blood increase, how is urinary excretion of Ca2+ and PO43– affected? a. Ca2+ excretion increases and PO43– excretion increases. b. Ca2+ excretion decreases and PO43– excretion increases. c. Ca2+ excretion decreases and PO43– excretion decreases. d. Ca2+ excretion increases and PO43– excretion decreases. 93. Which of the following is NOT associated with actions of the sympathetic nervous system during the stress response? a. enhanced mental alertness b. increased blood pressure c. promotion of cellular energy storage d. adjustment of tissue blood flow 94. If the zona glomerulosa is damaged, production of which adrenocortical hormone would be affected the most? a. cortisol b. aldosterone c. epinephrine d. dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA) Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 07_5ce 95. A patient is suffering from a tumour on their parathyroid gland that is over-secreting parathyroid hormone. Which of the following symptoms might you see in this patient? a. extreme calcification of bone b. hypocalcaemia c. kidney stones d. muscle spasms and overexcitability 96. Which of these statements does NOT describe adrenal androgens? a. Secretion is controlled by ACTH. b. It is normally secreted in both males and females, but in insufficient amounts to cause masculinization. c. It is responsible for the female sex drive. d. It is normally secreted only in males, whereas adrenal estrogens are secreted in females. 97. Which of these statements refers to glucagon? a. It is secreted by the beta cells of the islets of Langerhans. b. It is, in general, antagonistic to all other hormones in terms of metabolic effects. c. It is secreted in response to a fall in blood glucose. d. It increases fat stores by inhibiting the enzyme that catalyzes triglyceride breakdown. 98. Which of these states is NOT a result of untreated diabetes? a. inactivation of gluconeogenesis b. dehydration c. ketoacidosis d. glycosuria 99. If plasma Ca2+ increases, which hormone will be released? a. parathyroid hormone b. calcitriol c. calcitonin d. calcidiol 100. Which of the following conditions is characteristic of hypoparathyroidism? a. hypocalcaemia b. hypophosphataemia c. reduced neuromuscular excitability d. hyperkalaemia 101. Which of the following actions of cortisol support its function of ensuring the brain has an adequate supply of glucose? a. exerting permissive actions on catecholamines b. inducing inflammatory responses c. stimulating hepatic gluconeogenesis d. suppression of the immune system 102. Which of these statements does NOT apply to adrenocortical hormones? a. Glucocorticoids are examples. b. Some are steroids. c. They are all controlled primarily by TSH. d. They are secreted from the outer layer of the adrenal gland.

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Chap 07_5ce 103. Which of these events is an effect of glucagon? a. decreased blood glucose levels b. increased amino acid uptake by cells c. increased glycogenesis in the liver d. increased breakdown of fats 104. Which of these statements does NOT refer to vitamin D? a. It can be synthesized by the skin on exposure to sunlight. b. It must be modified by biochemical alterations within the liver and kidneys before it is biologically active. c. It enhances the effect of calcitonin on bone. d. It increases Ca2+ absorption in the intestine. 105. Which of these statements describes aldosterone? a. It promotes conservation of sodium. b. It facilitates lipolysis. c. It promotes gluconeogenesis. d. It is regulated by ACTH. 106. During the initial stages of the stress response, the sympathetic nervous system (SNS) is activated to prepare the body to respond to the stress. If the SNS can prepare the body to respond, why is epinephrine secreted? a. because epinephrine is stronger than the effects of the SNS b. because SNS activity is short in duration, and epinephrine’s effects are longer lasting c. because epinephrine is required for the SNS to be activated over a long period of time d. because epinephrine can stimulate responses that support the stress response in tissues that are not innervated by the SNS

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Chap 07_5ce Answer Key 1. d 2. a 3. b 4. a 5. b 6. d 7. a 8. a 9. c 10. c 11. b 12. b 13. b 14. d 15. d 16. d 17. b 18. a 19. b 20. a 21. a 22. b 23. c 24. b 25. d 26. b

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Chap 07_5ce 27. a 28. a 29. b 30. c 31. c 32. b 33. b 34. d 35. b 36. b 37. d 38. a 39. c 40. d 41. c 42. b 43. c 44. d 45. d 46. b 47. c 48. a 49. a 50. a 51. c 52. a 53. c 54. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 07_5ce 55. a 56. a 57. c 58. a 59. a 60. c 61. c 62. d 63. a 64. d 65. c 66. b 67. c 68. a 69. a 70. a 71. d 72. d 73. c 74. d 75. a 76. c 77. d 78. d 79. b 80. a 81. c 82. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 07_5ce 83. c 84. b 85. c 86. b 87. d 88. b 89. d 90. b 91. a 92. b 93. c 94. b 95. c 96. d 97. c 98. a 99. c 100. a 101. c 102. c 103. d 104. c 105. a 106. d

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Chap 07_5ce_2 Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. Lack of parathyroid hormone is lethal and leads to death from asphyxiation. a. True b. False 2. Excess TSH stimulation causes hypertrophy in the thyroid gland. a. True b. False 3. The presence of a goitre is always indicative of hyperthyroidism. a. True b. False 4. C cells of the thyroid gland produce parathyroid hormone. a. True b. False 5. The hypothalamus serves as a receptor, integrator, and effector to both detect and respond to a stressful situation. a. True b. False 6. Muscle contraction will happen if cytosolic Ca2+ and extracellular free Ca2+ increase. a. True b. False 7. Movement of iodide into follicular cells from the bloodstream is accomplished using secondary active transport. a. True b. False 8. The predominant hormone system that is activated during the stress response is the renin–angiotensin– aldosterone system. a. True b. False 9. Epinephrine and norepinephrine bind to á and â adrenergic receptors, but each with different affinities for different receptor subtypes. a. True b. False 10. T4 is the most biologically active form of thyroid hormone. a. True b. False

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Chap 07_5ce_2 11. If someone is in the postabsorptive state for 24 hours, the primary fuel source their cells would be using is amino acids. a. True b. False 12. During the stress response, glucagon secretion increases to mobilize glycogen stores from the liver. a. True b. False 13. Insulin is secreted by the alpha cells of the islets of Langerhans. a. True b. False 14. Weight loss is commonly observed in hypothyroidism. a. True b. False 15. When referring to thyroid hormones, the prefixes “tri” and “tetra” refer to the number of tyrosine molecules the hormones contain. a. True b. False 16. The blood glucose level is the primary controlling factor of insulin secretion. a. True b. False 17. Reactive hypoglycaemia occurs when a patient with type 1 diabetes injects an excess of insulin, causing blood glucose to decrease. a. True b. False 18. The adrenal medulla is actually a modified part of the sympathetic nervous system. a. True b. False 19. Thyroid hormone can increase the size of skeletal muscle. a. True b. False 20. Epinephrine is more potent than norepinephrine at beta-2 adrenergic receptors. a. True b. False 21. Movement of calcium from bone to plasma is regulated by the endocrine system. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 07_5ce_2 22. It is possible for a goitre to form in cases of hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism. a. True b. False 23. To maintain calcium homeostasis within the body, both calcium absorption and excretion are controlled by hormones. a. True b. False 24. In type 2 diabetes, insulin secretion may be normal or even higher than normal. a. True b. False 25. Oversecretion of adrenal androgens is more common than oversecretion of adrenal estrogens. a. True b. False 26. Parathyroid hormone is the most important hormone in the control of calcium metabolism. a. True b. False 27. Overall, insulin decreases blood glucose concentrations by promoting cellular uptake and storage of glucose, while inhibiting metabolic pathways that produce glucose. a. True b. False 28. In order to be activated, vitamin D must go through one activation step in the liver. a. True b. False 29. Colloid is an extracellular matrix in which the various forms of thyroid hormone are synthesized. a. True b. False 30. Parathyroid hormone enhances the rapid movement of calcium from the bone fluid into the plasma. a. True b. False 31. The only use for iodine in the body is for synthesis of thyroid hormones. a. True b. False 32. One way that insulin decreases blood glucose concentrations is by inhibiting hepatic glucose output. a. True b. False

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Chap 07_5ce_2 33. The adrenal cortex produces catecholamines, and the adrenal medulla produces steroid hormones. a. True b. False 34. ACTH may assist in resisting stress through actions independent of its role in the CRH–ACTH–cortisol system. a. True b. False 35. Pancreatic somatostatin is released in the absorptive state and slows the rate of digestion and absorption of food. a. True b. False 36. Parathyroid hormone secretion is regulated by plasma Ca2+ concentration in a negative-feedback manner, and does not require input from the nervous system. a. True b. False 37. Exercising muscle does not require GLUT-4 for uptake of glucose from the bloodstream. a. True b. False 38. During general adaptation syndrome, cortisol is secreted first, followed by epinephrine and norepinephrine. a. True b. False 39. Osteoblasts communicate to osteoclasts via osteoprotegerin. a. True b. False 40. In addition to eliciting specific responses, all stressors produce a generalized and nonspecific response. a. True b. False 41. In uncontrolled diabetes mellitus, polydipsia occurs because cells cannot effectively use carbohydrate for energy. a. True b. False 42. Thyroid hormone exerts sympathomimetic effects by enhancing activity of the sympathetic nervous system. a. True b. False 43. All the adrenocortical hormones are steroid hormones. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 07_5ce_2 44. When parathyroid hormone promotes bone resorption, both Ca2+ and PO43– are released into the blood. a. True b. False 45. Feeling excessively cold in cool environments is a symptom of hypothyroidism. a. True b. False 46. The adrenal glands produce female sex hormones only. a. True b. False 47. Contrary to an increase in blood glucose, increased blood amino acid levels stimulate secretion of both insulin and glucagon. a. True b. False 48. Androgens and estrogens are produced by the adrenal cortex, but usually in very small quantities so masculinizing or feminizing effects are not induced. a. True b. False 49. At rest, thyroid hormone is the most important factor that regulates O2 consumption and energy expenditure. a. True b. False 50. During periods of growth and development, catabolic reactions outweigh anabolic reactions. a. True b. False 51. Free Ca2+ is the biologically active form of Ca2+ and makes up the largest pool of Ca2+ in the body. a. True b. False 52. ACTH stimulates secretion of cortisol and dehydroepiandrosterone. a. True b. False 53. Secretion of dehydroepiandrosterone is stimulated the gonadotropin hormones of the anterior pituitary. a. True b. False

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Chap 07_5ce_2 54. Parathyroid secretion is stimulated when plasma Ca2+ drops, and calcitonin secretion is stimulated when plasma PO43– drops. a. True b. False 55. Most steps of thyroid hormone synthesis take place on thyroglobulin molecules in the colloid. a. True b. False 56. Triiodothyronine, tetraiodothyronine, and thyroxine are all considered active thyroid hormones. a. True b. False 57. All three layers of the adrenal cortex are capable of producing all adrenocortical hormones. a. True b. False 58. Stress increases thyroid-stimulating hormone, and therefore thyroid hormone, secretion. a. True b. False 59. Myxoedema is associated with hypersecretion of thyroid hormones. a. True b. False 60. Vitamin D deficiency is the cause of rickets. a. True b. False 61. Parathyroid hormone and calcitonin both influence plasma Ca2+ concentration, and are thus both secreted from the parathyroid gland. a. True b. False 62. Anabolic reactions are required for processes such as cellular repair and growth. a. True b. False 63. Although research suggests that chronic psychosocial stressors are linked to high blood pressure, more evidence needs to be generated before saying stress causes negative health outcomes. a. True b. False

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Chap 07_5ce_2 64. GLUT-2 is the facilitative glucose transporter that is responsive to insulin. a. True b. False 65. Levels of cortisol in the bloodstream are influenced by a negative-feedback mechanism, diurnal rhythms, and stress. a. True b. False 66. Dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA) is a sex hormone. a. True b. False 67. If a person’s SNS did not respond to stressors, they would still be able to adapt to stress effectively because of the actions of epinephrine and cortisol. a. True b. False 68. The products of hydrolytic catabolic reactions must be used by the cells where these reactions took place. a. True b. False 69. Catabolism includes both hydrolysis and oxidation reactions. a. True b. False 70. In the postabsorptive state, blood glucose concentrations will decrease because there is no glucose being absorbed from the digestive tract. a. True b. False 71. Type 2 diabetes may be managed effectively by diet and lifestyle interventions. a. True b. False 72. Grave’s disease, a form of hyperthyroidism, is an autoimmune disease. a. True b. False 73. Thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulin stimulates both the secretion and the growth of the thyroid, similar to TSH. a. True b. False

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Chap 07_5ce_2 74. Aldosterone and dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA) are transported in the blood bound to albumin, but cortisol is bound to a cortisol-specific specialized transport protein. a. True b. False 75. Type 1 diabetes produces hypoglycaemia, and type 2 diabetes leads to hyperglycaemia. a. True b. False 76. Thyroid hormone exerts sympathomimetic effects by making cells more sensitive to the effects of catecholamine hormones. a. True b. False 77. Epinephrine and norepinephrine exert identical effects in all tissues. a. True b. False 78. A patient with hypoaldosteronism would experience hypernatraemia and hypokalaemia. a. True b. False 79. The metabolic actions of cortisol are designed to ensure the brain has an adequate supply of glucose. a. True b. False 80. Vitamin D is considered a vitamin and not a hormone because because humans living in cold climates cannot produce sufficient quantities of it because large portions of skin are covered by clothing for several months of the year. a. True b. False 81. Aldosterone secretion is dependent on stimulation from the anterior pituitary. a. True b. False 82. Thyroid-stimulating hormone is the most important factor that regulates secretion of thyroid hormone. a. True b. False 83. Physical stressors and psychosocial stressors trigger different physiological stress responses. a. True b. False

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Chap 07_5ce_2 84. An increase in plasma PO43– concentration forces a reduction in plasma Ca2+ as a result of the inverse relationship between plasma PO43– and Ca2+ levels. a. True b. False 85. The absorptive state is directed by an increase in insulin secretion. a. True b. False 86. During the stress response, secretion of insulin is inhibited to enhance blood glucose concentrations and promote availability of glucose. a. True b. False 87. Parathyroid hormone does not affect intestinal Ca2+ absorption in any capacity. a. True b. False Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement. 88. A patient with high blood glucose, elevated levels of glucose in their urine, oedema in the face, and more fat stored in the abdominal and thoracic regions is likely suffering from ____________________. 89. ____________________ can happen when â cells become overresponsive and secrete too much insulin, causing blood glucose levels to drop below homeostatic range. 90. ____________________ is the primary trigger for the release of insulin from pancreatic beta cells. 91. In order to produce thyroid hormones, the body requires ____________________ from the diet. 92. Using the letter code, indicate which gland is associated with which characteristics. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. adrenal cortex b. adrenal medulla c. thyroid d. parathyroid e. pancreas _____ is neuroendocrine _____ its zona glomerulosa produces aldosterone _____ regulates blood sugar levels _____ increases blood calcium levels _____ lowered activity from birth results in cretinism _____ produces catecholamines _____ activity always increases upon initiation of the general adaptation mode _____ its hormones require iodine

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Chap 07_5ce_2 93. Activation of vitamin D requires an initial activation step that happens in the ____________________, and then a second activation step that happens in the ____________________. 94. Vitamin D can be produced by the ____________________ upon exposure to sunlight. 95. ____________________ is the hormone that causes glycogenolysis in response to decreasing blood sugar levels. 96. The adrenal cortex produces androgens, with ____________________ produced in the highest abundance. 97. In order to synthesize thyroid hormone, the thyroid gland must take up ____________________ and ____________________ from the blood. 98. The nonspecific response elicited by all potentially harmful stressors is known as ____________________. 99. A state of fasting is also known as the ____________________ state, where all nutrients have been taken up from the digestive tract. 100. Hypernatraemia is the body’s retention of ____________________. 101. Catabolic reactions include ____________________ reactions, which break down large macromolecules, and ____________________ reactions, which break down smaller molecules to yield ATP. 102. Excess glucose that is not reabsorbed by the kidneys is excreted in urine and draws water to it, causing ____________________, a condition of frequent urination with large urine volumes. 103. Epinephrine and norepinephrine are stored in ____________________ granules in the adrenal gland. 104. The major secretory product of the thyroid gland is ____________________. 105. The active form of vitamin D that can enhance intestinal calcium absorption is known as ____________________.

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Chap 07_5ce_2 106. Using the letter code, indicate which characteristics apply to which hormones. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. epinephrine b. cortisol c. aldosterone d. dehydroepiandrosterone _____ produced by the zona glomerulosa _____ produced by the zona fasciculata _____ produced by the zona reticularis _____ adrenal androgen _____ enhances K+ elimination _____ stimulates protein degradation _____ stimulates lipolysis _____ essential for life _____ exerts a glucose-sparing effect by inhibiting glucose uptake by many tissues but not the brain _____ important in the stress response _____ a catecholamine _____ a steroid _____ secretion is stimulated by the sympathetic nervous system _____ stored in chromaffin granules _____ promotes female sex drive _____ secretion is stimulated via the renin–angiotensin system _____ promotes Na+ retention _____ stimulates hepatic gluconeogenesis _____ stimulates hepatic glycogenolysis _____ inhibits CRH and ACTH in negative-feedback fashion _____ secretion is directly stimulated by an increase in plasma K+ _____ increases blood glucose levels _____ increases blood amino acid levels _____ increases blood fatty acid levels _____ exerts anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive effects at pharmacological levels _____ secretion is largely controlled by ACTH _____ secreted in excess in Conn’s syndrome _____ secreted in excess in Cushing’s syndrome _____ secreted in excess in adrenogenital syndrome _____ secreted in excess by a pheochromocytoma _____ deficient in Addison’s disease, increases the heart rate 107. Pancreatic ____________________ is released in the absorptive state, and works to slow the rate at which food is digested and absorbed. 108. ____________________ is released with ACTH and is involved in lowering perception of pain during the stress response. 109. The layer of the adrenal cortex that produces aldosterone is the ___________________.

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Chap 07_5ce_2 110. Epinephrine and norepinephrine bind to ____________________ receptors on target tissues to elicit responses. 111. Large nutrient molecules that are hydrolyzed to yield ATP are known as ____________________. 112. ____________________ is the most important physiological regulator of thyroid hormone secretion. 113. The step in vitamin D activation accomplished by the ____________________ is subject to regulation by ____________________ and ____________________. 114. Calcitonin is produced by the ____________________ of the ____________________. 115. The ____________________ transports iodide from the bloodstream to the colloid for synthesis of thyroid hormone. 116. An enlarged thyroid is called a(n) ____________________. 117. Using the letter code, indicate the effect each item on the left side of the blank has on the secretion rate of the hormone on the right side of the blank. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. increases b. decreases c. has little or no effect on increased TSH _____ thyroid hormone increased TRH _____ TSH increased thyroid hormone _____ TSH decreased iodine in the diet _____ thyroid hormone increased ACTH _____ aldosterone increased ACTH _____ cortisol stress _____ cortisol stress _____ epinephrine increased renin–angiotensin _____ aldosterone increased plasma K+ _____ aldosterone increased blood glucose _____ insulin increased blood glucose _____ glucagon increased plasma Ca2+ _____ parathyroid hormone increased plasma Ca2+ _____ calcitonin increased TSH _____ calcitonin increased plasma PO43– _____ parathyroid hormone 118. ____________________ cells are the main secretory cells of the thyroid gland. 119. Insulin decreases blood glucose by stimulating ____________________, a metabolic pathway that stores glucose in skeletal muscle and liver. 120. The calcium that is biologically active and can move between the plasma and interstitial fluid is known as ____________________. 121. Attachment of iodine to tyrosine is catalyzed by ____________________, a membrane-bound enzyme.

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Chap 07_5ce_2 122. Thyroid hormone increases the responsiveness of cells to catecholamine hormones. This is known as a(n) ____________________ effect. 123. ____________________ is the form of facilitative glucose transporter that is responsive to insulin and is expressed to a high degree in muscle cells. 124. The most abundant form of thyroid hormone secreted is _____________________, yet _____________________ is the most potent thyroid hormone. 125. Grave’s disease is characterized by the presence of ____________________, an antibody that binds to TSH receptors and stimulates secretion of TSH from the anterior pituitary. 126. ____________________ is controlled primarily by the release of renin. 127. ____________________ and ____________________ are the compounds that can collectively be referred to as thyroid hormone. 128. The three hormones that are involved in regulating plasma calcium levels are ____________________, ____________________, and ____________________. 129. A vitamin D deficiency in adults causes ____________________, a condition characterized by softening of bones. 130. The outer portion of the adrenal gland is known as the ____________________, which secretes hormones belonging to the ____________________ chemical class. 131. All the chemical reactions that happen in the body are collectively referred to as ____________________. 132. The outer layer of the adrenal cortex is called the ___________________. 133. Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus causes ____________________ because frequent urination and dehydration make the patient feel excessively thirsty. 134. Puffiness of the hands, feet, and face that accompanies hypothyroidism is known as ____________________. 135. Incomplete oxidation of fatty acids yields a group of compounds called ____________________, which can be utilized by the brain for energy during starvation. 136. Aldosterone and dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA) are transported in the blood bound to albumin, and cortisol is bound to ___________________. 137. ____________________ occurs in uncontrolled diabetes mellitus because plasma glucose concentrations exceed the kidneys’ ability to reabsorb glucose from the urinary filtrate. 138. The inner portion of the adrenal gland is the ____________________, which secretes hormones belonging to the ____________________ chemical class. 139. During uncontrolled diabetes mellitus, the inability of cells to utilize carbohydrates for energy can cause ____________________, a feeling of excessive hunger. 140. ____________________ is secreted when plasma Ca2+ increases and works to reduce the amount of Ca2+ that is released from bone.

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Chap 07_5ce_2 141. Parathyroid hormone indirectly increases intestinal absorption of Ca2+ by activating ____________________. 142. Using the letter code, match the cells with the descriptions. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. osteoblast b. osteocyte c. osteoclast _____ dissolves bone _____ secretes organic matrix of bone _____ forms a membrane between the bone fluid and ECF across which Ca2+ efflux occurs _____ stimulated by PTH _____ inhibited by PTH _____ inhibited by calcitonin 143. Bone is a living tissue composed of an organic extracellular matrix impregnated with ____________________ crystals consisting primarily of ____________________ salts.

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Chap 07_5ce_2 144. Using the letter code, indicate the metabolic effects of each of the hormones below. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. increases b. decreases c. has no effect on Insulin _____ blood glucose _____ blood fatty acids _____ blood amino acids _____ muscle protein Glucagon _____ blood glucose _____ blood fatty acids _____ blood amino acids _____ muscle protein Epinephrine _____ blood glucose _____ blood fatty acids _____ blood amino acids _____ muscle protein Cortisol _____ blood glucose _____ blood fatty acids _____ blood amino acids _____ muscle protein Growth hormone _____ blood glucose _____ blood fatty acids _____ blood amino acids _____ muscle protein 145. Using the letter codes, match the pancreatic features with their correct characteristic. a. islets of Langerhans b. alpha cells c. beta cells d. delta cells e. PP cells _____ produce a hormone that is also produced in the hypothalamus _____ a collection of endocrine cells _____ least common islet cell type _____ produce glucagon _____ produce a hormone that induces transporter recruitment Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 07_5ce_2 146. A vitamin D deficiency in children causes ____________________, a condition characterized by bone malformations. 147. The most biologically active form of thyroid hormone is ____________________. 148. Thyroid hormone is considered sympathomimetic because it increases the sensitivity of cells to ____________________ hormones. 149. In response to stress, the hypothalamus secretes ____________________, which ultimately results in cortisol secretion. 150. ____________________ is the condition in which the adrenal cortex oversecretes androgens or estrogens. 151. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) is derived from ____________________, a large precursor molecule that is made in the anterior pituitary. 152. The clinical condition in which all three layers of the adrenal cortex are underproducing hormones is known as ____________________ disease. 153. Calcitonin is produced by ____________________ cells of the thyroid gland.

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Chap 07_5ce_2 Match the hormone abnormalities, labelled a. through n., with the symptoms listed. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. catecholamine excess b. catecholamine deficiency c. mineralocorticoid excess d. glucocorticoid excess e. mineralocorticoid glucocorticoid deficiency f. adrenal androgen excess in adult women g. adrenal androgen excess in prepubertal boys h. adrenal androgen excess before birth in females i. parathyroid hormone deficiency j. parathyroid hormone excess k. vitamin D deficiency l. vitamin D excess m. insulin deficiency n. insulin excess 154. high blood glucose, muscle weakness and fatigue, “moon face,” “buffalo hump” 155. female masculinization; hirsutism 156. deformed bones, especially weight-bearing bones 157. hypernatraemia, hypokalaemia, high blood pressure 158. precocious pseudopuberty 159. hypercalcaemia, hypophosphataemia, thinning of bone, Ca2+-containing kidney stones, reduced excitability of neuromuscular system, cardiac disturbances 160. high blood pressure, rapid heart rate, excessive sweating, high blood glucose infants 161. female pseudohermaphroditism 162. hyponatraemia, hyperkalaemia, low blood pressure, low blood glucose, poor response to stress 163. hyperglycaemia, glucosuria, polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia, ketosis 164. extensive spasms of skeletal muscles, involving especially the extremities and larynx; fatal in severe cases

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Chap 07_5ce_2 Match the biochemical processes, labelled a. through e., with their features. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. gluconeogenesis b. glycogenesis c. glycogenolysis d. both gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis e. all of these answers 165. conversion of amino acids into glucose 166. conversion of glycogen into glucose 167. conversion of glucose into glycogen 168. stimulated by glucagon and cortisol 169. stimulated by insulin 170. increases the blood glucose concentration 171. decreases the blood glucose concentration Match the hormones, labelled a. through k., with their correct characteristics. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. ACTH b. aldosterone c. calcitonin d. cortisol e. DHEA f. epinephrine g. glucagon h. insulin i. parathyroid hormone j. thyroid hormone k. vitamin D 172. increases osteoblast activity 173. stimulates facultative reabsorption of Na+ 174. at highest blood concentration in the morning and lowest at night 175. general reinforcer of sympathetic activity 176. stimulates cortisol secretion 177. secreted by pancreatic alpha cells 178. stimulates osteoclast activity 179. iodine-containing tyrosine derivative 180. stimulates glycogenesis 181. directly promotes Ca2+ absorption from the small intestine 182. responsible for the female sex drive Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 07_5ce_2 Match the sources, labelled a. through i., with the hormones. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. alpha cells of islets of Langerhans in the pancreas b. beta cells of islets of Langerhans in the pancreas c. anterior pituitary d. hypothalamus e. adrenal cortex f. adrenal medulla g. parathyroid gland h. thyroid gland i. skin 183. aldosterone 184. insulin 185. glucagon 186. corticotropin-releasing hormone 187. vitamin D 188. cortisol 189. adrenocorticotropic hormone 190. tetraiodothyronine 191. parathyroid hormone 192. calcitonin 193. thyroid-stimulating hormone 194. T3 195. epinephrine 196. Describe the controls over secretion of mineralo- and glucocorticoids.

197. Describe how blood calcium levels are regulated.

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Chap 07_5ce_2 198. Indicate the causes of diabetes mellitus and its physiological effects.

199. Compare and contrast the effects of insulin and glucagon on metabolism of glucose, fatty acids, and amino acids.

200. Explain why a goitre can be observed as a clinical sign of both hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism.

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Chap 07_5ce_2 Answer Key 1. True 2. True 3. False 4. False 5. True 6. False 7. True 8. False 9. True 10. False 11. False 12. True 13. False 14. False 15. False 16. True 17. False 18. True 19. True 20. True 21. True 22. True 23. True 24. True 25. True 26. True

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Chap 07_5ce_2 27. True 28. False 29. False 30. True 31. True 32. True 33. False 34. True 35. True 36. True 37. True 38. False 39. True 40. True 41. False 42. False 43. True 44. True 45. True 46. False 47. True 48. True 49. True 50. False 51. False 52. True 53. False 54. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 07_5ce_2 55. True 56. True 57. False 58. False 59. False 60. True 61. False 62. True 63. True 64. False 65. True 66. True 67. False 68. False 69. True 70. False 71. True 72. True 73. True 74. True 75. False 76. True 77. False 78. False 79. True 80. True 81. False 82. True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 07_5ce_2 83. False 84. True 85. True 86. True 87. False 88. Cushing’s syndrome 89. Reactive hypoglycaemia 90. Glucose 91. iodine 92. b, a, e, d, c, b, b, c 93. liver; kidney 94. skin 95. Glucagon 96. dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA) 97. iodine; tyrosine (either order) 98. general adaptation syndrome 99. postabsorptive 100. sodium 101. hydrolysis; oxidation 102. polyuria 103. chromaffin 104. T4 (or tetraiodothyronine or thyroxine) 105. calcitriol [or 1,25-(OH)2-vitamin D3] 106. c, b, d, d, c, b, a, a, b, a, a, b, a, a, d, c, c, b, b, b, c, b, b, b, b, b, c, b, d, a, b, and c 107. somatostatin 108. Beta-endorphin 109. zona glomerulosa 110. adrenergic 111. macromolecules Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 07_5ce_2 112. Thyroid-stimulating hormone TSH 113. kidneys; parathyroid hormone (or PTH); plasma phosphate kidneys; plasma phosphate; parathyroid hormone (or PTH) 114. C cells; thyroid gland 115. iodide pump 116. goitre 117. a, a, b, b, c, a, a, a, a, a, a, b, b, a, c, c 118. Follicular 119. glycogenesis 120. free calcium 121. thyroperoxidase 122. sympathomimetic 123. GLUT-4 124. tetraiodothyronine (or T4 or thyroxine); triiodothyronine (or T3) 125. long-acting thyroid stimulator, LATS 126. Aldosterone 127. Triiodothyronine, T3; tetraiodothyronine, T4, thyroxine (in either order) 128. vitamin D; parathyroid hormone; calcitonin (in any order) 129. osteomalacia 130. adrenal cortex; steroids 131. metabolism 132. zona glomerulosa 133. polydipsia 134. myxoedema 135. ketone bodies 136. corticosteroid-binding globulin (transcortin) 137. Glucosuria 138. adrenal medulla; catecholamines 139. polyphagia Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 07_5ce_2 140. Calcitonin 141. vitamin D 142. c, a, a, c, a, c 143. hydroxyapatite; calcium phosphate 144. Insulin: b, b, b, a; Glucagon: a, a, c, c; Epinephrine: a, a, c, c; Cortisol: a, a, a, b; Growth hormone: a, a, b, a 145. d, a, e, b, c 146. rickets 147. T3 (or triiodothyronine) 148. catecholamine 149. corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) 150. Adrenogenital syndrome 151. pro-opiomelanocortin, POMC 152. Addison’s 153. C 154. d 155. f 156. k 157. c 158. g 159. j 160. a 161. h 162. e 163. m 164. i 165. a 166. c 167. b

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Chap 07_5ce_2 168. d 169. b 170. d 171. b 172. c 173. b 174. d 175. f 176. a 177. g 178. i 179. j 180. h 181. k 182. e 183. e 184. b 185. a 186. d 187. i 188. e 189. c 190. h 191. g 192. h 193. c 194. h 195. f Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 07_5ce_2 196. Answers will vary. 197. Answers will vary. 198. Answers will vary. 199. Answers will vary. 200. Answers will vary.

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Chap 08_5ce Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Which of the following events within contraction and relaxation does NOT require ATP? a. pumping of Ca2+ from the cytosol to the lateral sacs of the sarcoplasmic reticulum b. release of Ca2 from the sarcoplasmic reticulum c. detachment of the cross bridge from actin within the thin filament d. the power stroke 2. In smooth muscle cells, what is required for the myosin cross bridge to bind to actin in the thin filaments? a. removal of tropomyosin from actin b. phosphorylation of calmodulin c. phosphorylation of myosin light chain d. phosphorylation of actin 3. If the load on a muscle is increased, eventually a load will be reached at which the velocity of shortening becomes zero. What is the term for the muscle contraction at this point? a. concentric b. eccentric c. isometric d. isotonic 4. Which of these statements describes myoglobin? a. It can store small amounts of CO2. b. It increases the rate of O2 transfer from blood into muscle fibres. c. It is abundant in fast glycolytic fibres. d. It is abundant in slow red fibres. 5. Which of the following happens during the sliding of filaments? a. The A band gets smaller. b. The H zone gets smaller. c. The A band gets larger. d. The I band stays the same size. 6. Ultimately, what needs to happen in order for relaxation to occur? a. ATP stores need to be replenished. b. Ca2+ needs to be actively pumped from the cytosol back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum. c. Actin and myosin need to slide back to their original positions. d. Foot proteins need to be restored to their resting position. 7. How does tropomyosin contribute to the structure of myofilaments? a. It contains the cross bridges that bind to the thin filament. b. It binds to calcium and exposes actin binding sites to facilitate cross-bridge formation. c. It stabilizes the thin filaments and positions them for optimal interaction with the thick filaments. d. It covers binding sites on actin and prevents cross-bridge binding when the muscle is relaxed.

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Chap 08_5ce 8. Which of these statements describes the length–tension relationship of skeletal muscle? a. When the initial length of a muscle prior to contraction becomes very short, tension is decreased during contraction. b. Maximum tension can be developed if the muscle is at its shortest length at the onset of contraction. c. In the body, the relaxed length of a muscle occurs at its optimal length. d. When a muscle is maximally stretched, it can develop the most tension upon contraction because the thin filaments can slide a maximal distance. 9. In which type of tissue or organ would you find multiunit smooth muscle? a. digestive tract b. artery walls c. urinary tract d. reproductive tract 10. Which of the following composes thin filaments in skeletal muscle? a. actin b. actin, troponin, and tropomyosin c. myosin d. troponin and tropomyosin 11. When a muscle is stretched and the fibres are at lengths greater than optimal, why is tension production reduced? a. because more calcium is released from the lateral sacs b. because less calcium is released into the cytosol c. because cross-bridge activity is reduced d. because myosin ATPase activity is slower 12. Which of these components is/are involved with regulation of cross-bridge attachment activity? a. troponin and titin b. calcium ions and troponin c. tropomyosin and calmodulin d. titin only 13. Which of these statements accurately describes an aspect of muscle contractions? a. Small muscles generate more force by increasing the firing frequency of action potentials. b. Increasing the firing frequency of action potentials is the only way to increase force production. c. During submaximal and maximal contractions, firing frequency and the number of contracting fibres are both important and used equally for generating additional force. d. Large muscles generate more force by increasing the firing frequency of action potentials. 14. Ca2+-release channels on the sarcoplasmic reticulum are also known by which name? a. foot proteins b. dihydropyridine receptors c. transverse channels d. SR receptors 15. Which of the following happens first in the process of excitation–contraction coupling? a. Exposed actin sites bind with myosin cross bridges. b. Troponin binds calcium. c. End-plate potential is propagated down the T tubule. d. Calcium is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

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Chap 08_5ce 16. Which of these activities is involved in the process of muscle relaxation? a. Acetylcholinesterase promotes the concentration of acetylcholine to allow the muscle membrane to return to resting potential. b. ATP becomes unavailable. c. The cross bridges from the thick filaments bind to the thin filaments and bend in such a way as to return the filaments to their original resting position. d. Ca2+ is actively taken up by the lateral sacs of the sarcoplasmic reticulum when there is no longer a local action potential. 17. What is the function of transverse tubules? a. to facilitate movement of Ca2+ from the cytosol back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum after contraction has ceased b. to stimulate production of contractile proteins by enhancing protein synthesis c. to trigger permeability changes in the sarcoplasmic reticulum that release Ca2+ into the cytosol d. to store and release calcium when stimulated by an action potential 18. Which statement is characteristic of most of the body’s lever systems? a. They work at mechanical advantage. b. They work at a mechanical disadvantage. c. Muscles must exert lesser forces than the load. d. Muscles must exert greater forces than the load. 19. Which of these statements does NOT apply to isometric and isotonic muscle contractions? a. They both produce tension. b. They apply to contractions that happen within individual muscle fibres, not whole muscles. c. They differ based on whether or not fibre length changes as tension is produced. d. They are brought about by differences in the process of excitation–contraction coupling. 20. Which muscle fibre type is innervated by the somatic nervous system? a. skeletal b. cardiac c. smooth d. rough 21. Which of these terms is another name for the myosin head? a. cross bridge b. thick filament c. thin filament d. sliding filament 22. Which of the following are contained within the sarcomere? a. the I band, A band, H zone, and M line b. the I band, A band, and H zone only c. the I band, A band, and M line only d. the I band and A band only 23. Which of the following two molecules participate in cross-bridge interactions? a. tropomyosin and myosin b. troponin and myosin c. troponin and tropomyosin d. actin and myosin

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Chap 08_5ce 24. What is contained within the I band? a. the H zone b. overlapping thin and thick filaments c. thick filaments only d. thin filaments only 25. Which of these characteristics would be exhibited in the muscle cells of a sprinter’s legs? a. low resistance to fatigue b. low myoglobin content c. low glycogen content d. slow speed of contraction 26. Which of these statements accurately describes muscle fibre types? a. Muscles that perform a lot of quick lifting type movements have a high proportion of slow oxidative fibres. b. Someone genetically endowed with a high proportion of slow oxidative muscle fibres has a greater chance of success in a marathon than a sprint. c. Aerobic training programs can make glycolytic fibres better at aerobic metabolism through adaptations such as increasing mitochondrial number and making new capillaries. d. Regular aerobic training can cause type II muscle fibres to convert to type I muscle fibres. 27. For which of these purposes are stretch reflexes important? a. to maintain balance and posture b. to provide afferent information coordinating complex muscle activity c. to determine the level of tone d. to prevent of muscle injury 28. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of isometric muscle contractions? a. They occur at constant tension. b. The muscle shortens. c. They are used for body movements. d. They occur at constant length. 29. What is the function of the sarcoplasmic reticulum? a. to facilitate removal of Ca2+ from the cytosol when excitation–contraction coupling is complete b. to stimulate production of contractile proteins by enhancing protein synthesis c. to trigger the changes in permeability needed to release Ca2+ into the cytosol d. to store and release calcium upon excitation 30. What is the name for the connective tissue layer that surrounds bundles of multiple muscle fibres? a. fascia b. epimysium c. endomysium d. perimysium 31. The striated appearance of skeletal muscle is due to regular orderly arrangement of which of the following? a. T tubules b. thick and thin filaments into A and I bands c. microtubules d. lateral sacs of the sarcoplasmic reticulum

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Chap 08_5ce 32. Which of the following is the best example of an isometric contraction? a. the contraction in your leg muscles while performing a stationary yoga pose b. the contraction in your bicep during the up phase of a bicep curl c. the contraction in your leg muscles while walking down stairs d. the contraction in your bicep during the down phase of a bicep curl 33. Which of the following is NOT a reason that explains less tension can be generated when muscle fibres begin contracting at lengths that are less than optimal? a. thin filaments blocked from sliding further by the Z lines b. more ATP required for contraction c. less calcium released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum d. overlapping thin filaments 34. Which of the following filament proteins is able to bind to calcium? a. actin b. myosin c. troponin d. tropomyosin 35. Which statement describes the sliding filament mechanism? a. As filaments are sliding, the Z lines are pulled inward toward the centre of the sarcomere. b. The thick filaments slide past the thin filaments, pulling them toward the centre of the sarcomere. c. As filaments are sliding, the M lines are pulled inward toward the centre of the sarcomere. d. The thin filaments shorten to pull the Z lines closer to the centre of the sarcomere. 36. Damage to the cerebellum or basal nuclei results in a. spastic paralysis. b. flaccid paralysis. c. tetanus. d. clumsy movement. 37. Which of these statements does NOT apply to muscle contraction? a. Contractions within a muscle can shift between dynamic and static during the course of movement. b. When you perform a bicep curl with a weight, the force generated varies at different points of the contraction. c. In a dynamic contraction, the force produced can vary as the muscle length changes. d. The concepts of isometric and isotonic contractions are equally applicable to a contraction within a single muscle fibre and a contraction of a whole muscle. 38. Which of these properties characterizes fast oxidative (type IIa) muscle fibres? a. high myosin–ATPase activity b. low myosin–ATPase activity c. low oxidative capacity d. high oxidative capacity 39. Which of these characteristics are shared by all three types of muscle tissues? a. contains myosin and actin b. neurogenic c. striated d. considered to be under voluntary control

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Chap 08_5ce 40. Why is twitch summation possible? a. because action potentials can be fired rapidly on a single muscle fibre b. because the contractile response to an action potential lasts longer than the action potential itself c. because the contractile response to an action potential is of shorter duration than an action potential d. because muscle fibres can be stimulated by more than one synaptic input 41. What is the purpose of the Z lines within the sarcomere? a. to facilitate the sliding of the thin filaments against the thick filaments b. to anchor the thin filaments of the I bands c. to act as an attachment point for the thin filaments d. to vertically stabilize the thick filaments and hold them in place 42. Which of these statements describes the corticospinal system? a. It consists of fibres that originate within the primary motor cortex and terminate on motor neurons. b. It involves the motor regions of the cortex, the cerebellum, the basal nuclei, and the thalamus. c. It is concerned primarily with regulation of overall body posture. d. It consists of fibres that originate within the parietal lobe and terminate on the posterior grey horn of the spinal cord. 43. Which of these factors is NOT a determinant of whole muscle tension? a. the number of muscle fibres contracting b. the tension produced by each contracting fibre c. the extent of motor unit recruitment d. the proportion of each motor unit contracting at any given time 44. Which of these substances is required for contraction of smooth muscle fibres? a. troponin b. calmodulin c. potassium ions d. myosin 45. Which of the following happens during a cross-bridge cycle in skeletal muscle? a. The cross bridge is energized as myosin and ATPase activity hydrolyzes ATP. b. The myosin cross bridge is able to bind with a troponin molecule when Ca2+ pulls the troponin– tropomyosin complex aside. c. The linkage between actin and the myosin cross bridge is broken at the end of the cross-bridge cycle as Mg2+ binds to the cross bridge. d. The power strokes of all cross bridges are directed toward the periphery of the thick filament. 46. Which of the following applies during an isotonic contraction of a muscle in the arm? a. The muscle does not contract. b. The muscle does not change length. c. The tension in the muscle does not overcome a load. d. The tension in the muscle remains constant.

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Chap 08_5ce 47. Which of these statements describes a motor unit? a. all the motor neurons supplying a single muscle b. a single motor neuron plus all the muscle fibres it innervates c. a single muscle fibre plus all the motor neurons that innervate it d. one pair of antagonistic muscles 48. What is the function of transverse tubules? a. to hold the A bands and I bands in place b. to ensure even distribution of action potentials throughout all portions of the muscle fibre c. to provide the energy for the power stroke d. to store and release calcium when triggered by an action potential 49. Which statement most accurately describes twitch summation? a. The muscle fibre is restimulated before the filaments have completely returned to their resting position. b. The muscle fibre is restimulated before the action potential has returned to resting potential. c. Stronger muscle contractions occur with stronger action potentials. d. Weaker muscle contractions occur despite stronger action potentials. 50. Which of these events results from disruption of a motor system that supplies inhibitory presynaptic inputs to motor neurons? a. uncoordinated, clumsy movements b. spastic paralysis c. paraplegia d. suppression of reflex activity 51. Which of the following applies to muscle atrophy? a. It can happen only when the nerve supply to a muscle has been disrupted. b. It is caused by overactivity of satellite cells. c. It is brought about by addition of more contractile units to the muscle fibres. d. It is characterized by higher catabolism and lower anabolism. 52. Which of these statements describes cellular aspects related to contraction of smooth muscle cells? a. The majority of the Ca2+ required for contraction of smooth muscle cells comes from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. b. Tropomyosin must be removed from myosin in the thick filaments in order for cross-bridge binding to occur. c. Ca2+ binding to troponin activates myosin light chain kinase and leads to phosphorylation of the myosin light chain. d. Smooth muscle cells do not contain T tubules.

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Chap 08_5ce 53. Why does one skeletal muscle cell contain many nuclei? a. Skeletal muscle cells can replicate their nuclei to meet the high energy demands imposed by muscle contraction. b. During skeletal muscle development, several myoblasts fuse together to form one mature muscle cell containing all the nuclei from each myoblast. c. During skeletal muscle development, muscle cells engulf macrophages and take up their nuclei. d. The DNA of skeletal muscle cells encodes for production of multiple nuclei. 54. What would happen if all the cross bridges within a sarcomere underwent a power stroke at the same time? a. The thick filaments would be pulled inward due to the strength of the synchronous power stroke. b. The sarcomere would shorten even more than if the cross bridges underwent power strokes at different times. c. The thin filaments would become locked in place and unable to return to their resting position. d. The thin filaments would return to their original position between power strokes. 55. Which of these statements applies to single-unit smooth muscle? a. It contains no gap junctions and forms functional syncytia. b. It is self-excitable. c. It is found in the walls of the ventricles. d. It is found in the iris of the eye. 56. Which of these statements describes actin? a. It is spherical. b. It contains a globular head that forms the cross bridges between the thick and thin filaments. c. It is referred to as a regulatory protein. d. It is inhibited by Ca2+. 57. Which of these events happens during excitation–contraction coupling? a. The action potential travels down the thin myofilaments. b. Ca2+ is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. c. Ca2+ is taken up by the sarcoplasmic reticulum. d. Calcium blocks the binding sites on the actin molecules. 58. Which events involved in muscle cell contraction are sequenced in the correct order? 1. Sodium channels open, allowing sodium to flow in. 2. Impulse reaches axon’s synaptic knob. 3. ACh binds to receptors on sarcolemma. 4. Synaptic vesicles fuse with neuron’s membrane and release ACh via exocytosis. 5. If enough sodium moves into the muscle cell, an impulse (action potential) develops. a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 b. 2, 1, 3, 4, 5 c. 2, 4, 3, 1, 5 d. 3, 4, 5, 1, 2

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Chap 08_5ce 59. Which of these statements accurately describes muscle fibres and sarcomeres? a. When a muscle is growing, it increases in length because individual sarcomeres within the myofibril lengthen. b. The sarcomere is the largest unit within a whole muscle that has the ability to contract. c. One sarcomere spans the length from one Z line to the M line. d. Regular stretching of muscles increases flexibility by promoting the addition of new sarcomeres to myofibrils. 60. Which of these statements describes contraction in skeletal and smooth muscle? a. In skeletal muscle, calcium ion binds to troponin; in smooth muscle, calcium ion binds to calmodulin. b. In skeletal muscle, troponin and tropomyosin are regulatory proteins; in smooth muscle, troponin is the only regulatory protein on thick filaments. c. In skeletal muscle, calcium ion mediates changes in thin filaments that lead to cross-bridge activity; in smooth muscle, calcium ion mediates changes in thick filaments that lead to cross-bridge activity. d. In skeletal muscle, calcium ion binds to calmodulin; in smooth muscle, calcium ion binds to troponin. 61. In addition to having a fast form of myosin ATPase, what is another reason why type II muscle fibres are fast twitch? a. The sarcoplasmic reticulum of fast twitch fibres releases more Ca2+. b. They can store more creatine phosphate and therefore produce more ATP. c. They are smaller fibres and require little stimulation to generate an action potential. d. They are innervated by á 1 motor neurons, which are large and conduct action potentials at a fast rate. 62. Which of these statements describes fast glycolytic (type IIb) fibres? a. They contain an abundance of mitochondria. b. The muscle fibre diameter is small. c. They are most abundant in muscles specialized for maintaining low-intensity contractions for long periods of time without fatigue. d. They can be converted into fast oxidative fibres by regular endurance activities. 63. What is the name for the stem cells that reside within muscle and assist in muscle repair? a. smooth muscle cells b. myocytes c. satellite cells d. myoblasts 64. Which of these characteristics applies to the functional syncytium of cardiac muscles cells? a. striated b. exhibit muscle tone c. have a short refractory period d. work as a unit mechanically and electrically 65. Which molecule binds ATP in order for muscle contraction to occur? a. tropomyosin b. actin c. myosin d. calcium

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Chap 08_5ce 66. What is the nature of the relationship between force and velocity for an eccentric contraction? a. zero b. parabolic c. inverse d. direct 67. If muscle fibres and whole muscles were NOT surrounded by layers of connective tissues, what would be the functional outcome? a. The force generated from muscle contraction could not be transferred to bone. b. Contraction could not occur because arrangement of contractile units would be disrupted. c. Contractions would be weaker because force production would be reduced. d. The force generated from muscle contraction would be amplified. 68. Rank the following muscle cell components from largest to smallest. 1. troponin 2. myofibril 3. sarcomere 4. thin filament 5. muscle fibre a. 3, 4, 1, 5, 2 b. 1, 2, 3, 5, 4 c. 5, 4, 3, 1, 2 d. 5, 2, 3, 4, 1 69. In addition to imparting stability, what is the other function of titin within the sarcomere? a. to increase stretch capacity of muscle fibres b. to promote calcium release c. to enhance elasticity d. to facilitate sliding of filaments 70. Which of these statements does NOT apply to different types of muscle fibres? a. Muscles that have high glycolytic capacity and large glycogen stores are more resistant to fatigue. b. The higher the ATPase activity, the faster the speed of contraction. c. Muscles with high ATP-synthesizing ability are more resistant to fatigue. d. Oxidative types of muscle fibres contain myoglobin. 71. What causes rigor mortis? a. lack of fresh ATP to disrupt cross-bridge binding b. a surplus of Ca2+ released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum c. excess acetylcholine released from the motor neuron d. a defect in the structure of the myosin head that prevents it from detaching from actin 72. Which subcellular organelles are found in particularly high abundance in a muscle cell, reflecting the high energy needs of muscle cells? a. ribosomes b. peroxisomes c. mitochondria d. lysosomes

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Chap 08_5ce 73. Which of the following represents the correct hierarchical structure of a muscle, moving from smallest to largest? a. muscle, muscle fibre, myofibril b. muscle fibre, myofibril, muscle c. myofibril, muscle fibre, muscle d. myofibril, muscle, muscle fibre 74. When does spastic paralysis occur? a. when descending excitatory pathways are destroyed b. when excitatory inputs to motor neurons are unopposed because of disruption of an inhibitory system in the brain stem c. when muscle spindles are destroyed d. when the cerebellum is damaged 75. Which of these statements describes myosin? a. It is spherical in shape. b. It is the main structural component of the thin filaments. c. It is referred to as a contractile protein. d. It consists of four identical protein subunits. 76. What causes the striated appearance of skeletal muscle? a. regular arrangement of the T tubules running transversely through the muscle fibre b. presence of the Z lines extending down the middle of the I bands c. regular arrangement of highly organized thick and thin filaments d. regions where gap junctions are concentrated 77. What type of contraction occurs when tension is produced while the muscle fibre lengthens? a. isometric b. eccentric c. concentric d. static 78. All are causes of muscle fatigue EXCEPT for which of the following? a. increasing levels of ADP and Pi within the muscle fibre b. buildup of lactic acid c. accumulation of Ca2+ in the sarcoplasmic reticulum d. depleted glycogen stores 79. At the cellular level, what allows for more tension to develop during twitch summation? a. pumping of Ca2+ into the sarcoplasmic reticulum b. synthesis of more contractile proteins c. more Ca2+ released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum into the cytosol d. more acetylcholine released by the motor neuron 80. In which type of tissue or organ would you find single-unit smooth muscle? a. the iris of the eye b. artery walls c. digestive tract d. the walls of small airways Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08_5ce 81. Which of these factors is characteristic of cardiac muscle tissue? a. well-developed sarcoplasmic reticulum b. fast myosin ATPase activity c. neurogenically initiated contraction d. presence of gap junctions 82. For concentric contractions, why is the velocity of shortening inversely proportional to the external load? a. Heavier loads break some of the cross bridges and more time is needed to re-form them. b. Heavier loads require more ATP and there is a delay while more ATP is generated. c. Cross bridges cannot form if the external load is too great. d. Cross bridges need more time to stroke and produce the tension needed to overcome a heavier load. 83. Which statement does NOT apply to cross-bridge cycling? a. In a resting muscle fibre, ADP and Pi remain attached to the myosin head until Ca2+ becomes available. b. Breaking of the cross-bridge binding site after the power stroke requires a fresh molecule of ATP. c. The energy released from the splitting of ATP by myosin ATPase is stored within the cross bridge. d. The power stroke is triggered when a fresh molecule of ATP binds to myosin ATPase. 84. Which of these statements describes why you are able to repeatedly contract and relax your muscles of respiration, allowing you to breathe in and breathe out? a. As soon as all the Ca2+ stored in the lateral sacs of the sarcoplasmic reticulum is used up, muscle relaxation occurs. b. After the muscle cells become excited, acetylcholinesterase maintains the action of acetylcholine. c. When there is no longer a local action potential in the muscle cell, Ca2+ is actively transported back into the lateral sacs of the sarcoplasmic reticulum. d. ATP is not available soon after the contraction. 85. Which of these statements applies to type I muscle fibres? a. They appear white due to a high abundance of glycolytic enzymes. b. They have relatively few mitochondria. c. They are served by many capillaries and contain myoglobin to ensure adequate oxygen supply. d. They are able to store a relatively large amount of glycogen. 86. Which of these statements describes myosin? a. It is found in the I band. b. It is found in the A band. c. It is the primary protein found in the thin filaments. d. It contracts during muscle contraction because it is one of the contractile proteins. 87. Which of these characteristics would be exhibited in the muscle cells of a marathon runner’s legs? a. high resistance to fatigue b. low myoglobin content c. high glycogen content d. fast speed of contraction

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Chap 08_5ce 88. Which of these statements describes intrafusal muscle fibres? a. They are supplied by alpha motor neurons. b. They are found within muscle cell membrane. c. They contain contractile elements. d. They contain sensory nerve endings that are activated by stretch. 89. What is the size principle of motor unit recruitment? a. Larger motor units are activated faster than smaller motor units. b. Larger motor units are found in larger muscles. c. The larger a motor unit, the harder it is to activate. d. The larger a motor unit, the more force it can generate. 90. Which of these events is NOT involved in the relaxation of muscle? a. Acetylcholine is destroyed by acetylcholinesterase. b. There is no longer a local action potential. c. The T tubules actively take up the Ca2+ that was released. d. The actin and myosin molecules become unbound. 91. What is the purpose of the M line within the sarcomere? a. to facilitate the sliding of the thin filaments against the thick filaments b. to vertically stabilize the thick filaments and hold them in place c. to act as an attachment point for the thin filaments d. to anchor the I band to the A band 92. Which of the following is NOT involved in controlling motor neuron output? a. hypothalamus b. brain stem c. primary motor cortex d. afferent neurons via spinal reflexes 93. What occurs when the CNS is no longer stimulating the motor neurons that innervate an exercising muscle? a. neuromuscular fatigue b. peripheral fatigue c. muscle fatigue d. central fatigue 94. Which of these statements applies multiunit smooth muscle? a. It is chemically activated. b. It is the most dominant component of smooth muscle. c. It is found in the walls of the digestive system. d. It is under the control of the autonomic nervous system. 95. Which of these statements describes actin? a. It has ATPase activity. b. It is shaped like a golf club. c. It is a regulatory protein. d. It forms a helical chain that forms the main structural component of the thin filaments. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08_5ce 96. Which of these statements applies to eccentric muscle contractions? a. The development of tension occurs at constant muscle length. b. The muscle lengthens while contracting. c. The muscle shortens while contracting. d. Muscle length and tension will vary throughout a range of motion. 97. The length–tension relationship in skeletal muscle can be described by which of these statements? a. At lengths that are less than optimal, tension is reduced because thin filaments overlap and interfere with cross-bridge formation. b. Maximum tension produced is reduced only when fibres are shorter than optimal length. c. More tension can be produced if a contraction begins at a fibre length longer than optimal, because the thin filaments have a maximum distance they can slide inward. d. Maximum tension can be developed if the muscle is at its shortest length at the onset of contraction. 98. Which of these statements describes pacemaker activity? a. spontaneous depolarizations of the membrane resulting from shifts in passive ionic fluxes accompanying automatic changes in channel permeability b. spontaneous depolarizations of the membrane due to cyclical changes in Na+–K+-pump activity c. characteristic of single-unit smooth muscle and not found in any other muscle type d. characteristic of multiunit muscle and not found in any other muscle type 99. What can activate the stretch receptors in the central portion of the muscle spindle? a. passive stretch of the skin overlying the muscle b. contraction of the central portions of the muscle fibre c. gamma motor neuron stimulation d. an alpha motor neuron 100. What are type I fibres also known as? a. fast twitch fibres b. slow twitch fibres c. fast oxidative glycolytic fibres d. fast glycolytic fibres 101. Which of the following describes an isotonic contraction? a. Tension changes and muscle fibre length is constant. b. Tension changes and muscle fibre length changes. c. Tension is constant and muscle fibre length changes. d. Tension is constant and muscle fibre length is constant. 102. Which type of contraction is involved in maintaining posture? a. static b. dynamic c. eccentric d. concentric

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Chap 08_5ce 103. Which of these types of muscle cells are NOT capable of spontaneous depolarization? a. multiunit smooth muscle and skeletal muscle cells b. single-unit smooth muscle cells c. cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle cells d. single-unit smooth muscle and multiunit smooth muscle cells 104. What binds to receptors at the motor end plate to initiate excitation–contraction coupling? a. acetylcholine b. calcium c. ATP d. sodium 105. Which of these statements describes cross bridges? a. They extend between the A and the I bands, and bend to pull the bands together during muscle contraction. b. They are formed by the spherical actin molecules. c. They extend from the thick filaments and bind to actin, then bend to pull the thin filaments in closer together during muscle contraction. d. The A band is shorter than the I band. 106. Which of these statements does NOT reflect what happens during sliding of filaments? a. The entire sarcomere shortens as thin filaments slide and pull the Z lines inward. b. The thin filaments slide past the thick filaments and move closer to the middle of the sarcomere. c. The H zone stays the same length because thick filaments do not move during the sliding of filaments. d. The I band gets shorter because the thin filaments are pulled toward the middle of the sarcomere.

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Chap 08_5ce Answer Key 1. b 2. c 3. c 4. b 5. b 6. b 7. d 8. d 9. b 10. b 11. c 12. b 13. a 14. a 15. c 16. d 17. c 18. b 19. d 20. a 21. a 22. a 23. d 24. d 25. b 26. b

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Chap 08_5ce 27. a 28. d 29. d 30. d 31. b 32. a 33. b 34. c 35. a 36. d 37. d 38. a 39. a 40. b 41. b 42. a 43. d 44. b 45. a 46. d 47. b 48. b 49. a 50. b 51. d 52. d 53. b 54. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08_5ce 55. b 56. a 57. b 58. c 59. d 60. a 61. d 62. d 63. c 64. d 65. c 66. d 67. a 68. d 69. c 70. a 71. a 72. c 73. c 74. b 75. c 76. c 77. b 78. c 79. c 80. c 81. d 82. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08_5ce 83. d 84. c 85. c 86. b 87. a 88. d 89. c 90. c 91. b 92. a 93. d 94. d 95. d 96. b 97. a 98. a 99. c 100. b 101. c 102. a 103. a 104. a 105. c 106. c

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Chap 08_5ce_2 Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. Calcium is stored within the muscle fibre in membranous sacs known as transverse tubules. a. True b. False 2. Due to the latch phenomenon, smooth muscle uses more ATP to maintain tension compared to skeletal muscle. a. True b. False 3. Multiunit smooth muscle will contract only if stimulated by the nervous system. a. True b. False 4. Multiunit smooth muscle and skeletal muscle are both neurogenic and are thus both innervated by the somatic nervous system. a. True b. False 5. The H zone appears as a lighter area within the A band because it is the portion of the A band that contains only thin filaments. a. True b. False 6. Muscle hypertrophy results more from the addition of new muscle fibres to a muscle rather than the growth of existing fibres. a. True b. False 7. The majority of the Ca2+ required for contraction of smooth muscle cells comes from the ECF. a. True b. False 8. The two factors that influence the strength of a muscle contraction are how many fibres are contracting and ATP availability. a. True b. False 9. The epimysium is a connective tissue layer that surrounds bundles of multiple muscle fibres. a. True b. False 10. When a muscle grows, muscle fibres become longer because new sarcomeres are added to the end of myofibrils. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08_5ce_2 11. Dihydropyridine receptors on the transverse tubules are chemically gated ion channels. a. True b. False 12. Cardiac muscle cells are similar to slow oxidative fibres in that they have a high density of mitochondria and contain myoglobin. a. True b. False 13. Foot proteins will open and release Ca2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum when they are triggered by activated dihydropyridine receptors on T tubules. a. True b. False 14. During the sliding of filaments, the sarcomere shortens and the length of the A band stays the same. a. True b. False 15. Muscle spindles are innervated by both afferent and efferent neurons. a. True b. False 16. The actin filaments in the sarcomere contain cross bridges. a. True b. False 17. Larger muscles that contain more fibres can generate more force than smaller muscles containing fewer fibres. a. True b. False 18. Skeletal muscle cells are multinucleated because they are formed when multiple myoblasts fuse together to form a single muscle cell. a. True b. False 19. Myosin heads form the cross bridges between the thick and thin filaments and allow for the sliding of filaments. a. True b. False 20. Type I muscle fibres both contract and relax more slowly that type II muscle fibres. a. True b. False 21. Contraction time is variable in different muscles. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08_5ce_2 22. The A band contains stacks of overlapping thin and thick filaments. a. True b. False 23. In general, motor units that contain a lot of muscle fibres are more difficult to activate than motor units with only a few muscle fibres. a. True b. False 24. The corticospinal system controls fine, discrete, voluntary body movements. a. True b. False 25. A motor unit is a single muscle plus all the motor neurons that innervate it. a. True b. False 26. Increasing the number of contracting fibres, as opposed to increasing firing frequency, is more effective at generating more force when submaximal force is required. a. True b. False 27. Muscle tension does not develop in isometric contractions. a. True b. False 28. Static contractions are the type of contractions used to maintain posture. a. True b. False 29. Myosin has ATPase activity. a. True b. False 30. The length of resting smooth muscle is shorter than optimal length. a. True b. False 31. A skeletal muscle produces motion by pulling the origin toward its insertion. a. True b. False 32. Muscles that have a fine degree of control have small motor units. a. True b. False

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Chap 08_5ce_2 33. Optimal length for a skeletal muscle fibre is the length where cross-bridge binding is maximized and the most tension can be produced. a. True b. False 34. Cross-bridge binding to actin within the thin filament can happen as soon as myosin ATPase splits ATP to ADP and Pi. a. True b. False 35. Myosin is a motor protein. a. True b. False 36. Transverse tubules play an important role in releasing calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. a. True b. False 37. The contraction phase of a muscle cell lasts longer than the relaxation phase. a. True b. False 38. Twitch summation is possible because a single muscle fibre receives synaptic input from multiple axon terminals of a motor neuron. a. True b. False 39. Golgi tendon organs are critical components of the stretch reflex. a. True b. False 40. Smooth muscle cells contain tropomyosin but not troponin. a. True b. False 41. Unlike skeletal muscle, smooth muscle can develop a substantial amount of tension over a large range of length. a. True b. False 42. Both afferent and efferent neurons are involved in control of movement. a. True b. False 43. Actin is a regulatory protein that interacts with the thick filament to prevent it from binding to the thin filament. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08_5ce_2 44. Central fatigue, where the CNS inadequately activates the motor neurons that innervate an exercising muscle, is often psychological and can be overcome. a. True b. False 45. In excitation–contraction coupling, cross-bridge binding sites on actin must be exposed before Ca2+ is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. a. True b. False 46. Intrafusal fibres of the muscle spindle contain both contractile and noncontractile portions. a. True b. False 47. Contraction of smooth muscle cells does not involve sliding of thin filaments over thick filaments. a. True b. False 48. Sliding of filaments and muscle contractions do not involve the shortening of the thin and thick filaments. a. True b. False 49. Large muscles, such as those in the legs, generate more force by increasing the number of muscle fibres that are contracting. a. True b. False 50. If a person has been genetically endowed with a high proportion of slow oxidative muscle fibres, they would have a greater chance of succeeding in a marathon than a sprint. a. True b. False 51. Skeletal muscle appears striated due to the arrangement of thin and thick filaments that are part of the contractile units in a muscle fibre. a. True b. False 52. If muscle fibres did not have transverse tubules, the myofibrils within the interior of the muscle fibre would not contract. a. True b. False 53. ATP is required for three separate steps in the contraction and relaxation responses. a. True b. False

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Chap 08_5ce_2 54. All smooth muscle is myogenic. a. True b. False 55. When a muscle is at rest, myosin ATPase splits ATP to ADP and inorganic phosphate, and the energy released is stored within the myosin head to prepare it for the power stroke. a. True b. False 56. Golgi tendon organs provide information to the central nervous system regarding the level of tension produced in a muscle. a. True b. False 57. Maximum tetanic contractions occur when a muscle is stimulated at a high enough frequency that it does not relax at all between stimulations. a. True b. False 58. ATP expenditure is required for both contraction and relaxation of a muscle fibre. a. True b. False 59. Skeletal muscle is exclusively innervated by the somatic nervous system and is not subject to involuntary control. a. True b. False 60. If the nerve supply to a muscle is functional but the muscle is decreasing in size, disuse atrophy is occurring. a. True b. False 61. If a person experiences a stroke that damages the primary motor cortex on the left side of their brain, they would experience hemiplegia. a. True b. False 62. ATP is split to ADP and Pi phosphate by myosin ATPase before the cross bridge binds to actin within the thin filament. a. True b. False 63. Neuromuscular fatigue is only observed experimentally and does not occur in real physiological situations. a. True b. False

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Chap 08_5ce_2 64. The term cross bridge refers to the two tails of the myosin subunits that coil together. a. True b. False 65. A single muscle fibre can be innervated by multiple motor neurons. a. True b. False 66. The central region of an intrafusal muscle fibre contains the noncontractile portions of the fibre. a. True b. False 67. Cross bridges stroke asynchronously, meaning while some myosin heads are pulling the thin filaments inward, others are preparing to bind again with actin within the thin filament. a. True b. False 68. Gradation of muscle contraction can be accomplished by stimulating variable portions of each motor unit. a. True b. False 69. During cross-bridge formation, both of the myosin heads bind to actin within the thin filament. a. True b. False 70. In smooth muscle cells, the degree of tension that is produced is proportional to the amount of Ca2+ that enters the cell. a. True b. False 71. Muscle spindles are located in the belly of the muscle and respond to changes in muscle length. a. True b. False 72. Cardiac muscle displays slow wave potential activity. a. True b. False 73. In addition to thick and thin filaments, smooth muscle cells contain intermediate filaments that are not involved in contraction but serve to provide structure. a. True b. False 74. Skeletal muscle fibres shorten during concentric, isotonic contraction. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08_5ce_2 75. If acetylcholine release at the neuromuscular junction is blocked, excitation–contraction coupling could not occur. a. True b. False 76. Tropomyosin covers the cross-bridge binding sites on the thick filaments when a sarcomere is not contracting. a. True b. False 77. At lengths longer than optimal, skeletal muscle fibres can produce more tension because the thin filaments have the maximum distance to slide inward toward the centre of the sarcomere. a. True b. False 78. Type I muscle fibres are innervated by á 1 motor neurons, which are large and conduct action potentials at a faster rate than á 2 motor neurons. a. True b. False 79. A person is displaying signs of spastic paralysis, which indicates they have suffered damage to an inhibitory motor system. a. True b. False 80. The thick filaments are stabilized and held in place vertically because they are attached to proteins that make up the M line. a. True b. False 81. Changes in muscle length are detected by Golgi tendon organs, and change in muscle tension is monitored by muscle spindles. a. True b. False 82. All muscle lever systems work at a mechanical disadvantage. a. True b. False 83. Rigor mortis occurs when Ca2+ links actin and the myosin cross bridge together in a rigor complex. a. True b. False 84. Although regular training can induce interconversion between fast oxidative and fast oxidative glycolytic fibres, they will revert back to their original fibre types once the training stops. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08_5ce_2 85. Thin and thick filaments overlap in the A band. a. True b. False 86. Type II muscle fibres are also known as slow oxidative fibres because they produce most of their ATP through aerobic metabolism. a. True b. False 87. With anaerobic training, type I fibres can be converted to type II fibres. a. True b. False 88. Activity of smooth muscle cells is controlled by only one neurotransmitter released from neurons of the autonomic nervous system. a. True b. False 89. Because they are contractile proteins, actin and myosin are found only within muscle cells. a. True b. False 90. Ca2+ facilitates cross-bridge binding by inducing physical changes to the contractile proteins in both skeletal muscle and smooth muscle. a. True b. False 91. Muscle fibres within a single motor unit are heterogeneous and contain a mix of type I and type II fibres. a. True b. False 92. All cross bridges stroke inward simultaneously during the power stroke. a. True b. False 93. The brain stem and the primary motor cortex are the only areas of the brain that have a direct influence on motor neurons. a. True b. False 94. Muscle fatigue is a protective response designed to prevent ATP depletion and rigor mortis. a. True b. False

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Chap 08_5ce_2 95. Joints serve as fulcrums for muscle action. a. True b. False 96. During the sliding of filaments and sarcomere shortening, the thin and thick filaments contract and become shorter. a. True b. False 97. Intrafusal muscle fibres are innervated by alpha motor neurons. a. True b. False 98. Small muscles, such as those in the fingers, generate more force by adjusting the frequency of action potential firing. a. True b. False 99. Opening of ryanodine receptors, also known as foot proteins, release Ca2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum into the cytosol. a. True b. False Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement. 100. Like skeletal muscle, multiunit smooth muscle is ____________________ and will only contract if stimulated by the nervous system. 101. Twitch summation is analogous to ____________________ summation of excitatory postsynaptic potentials in neurons. 102. The ____________________ is a modified endoplasmic reticulum specific to muscle fibres. 103. Cross bridges contain two important sites: a(n) ____________________, and a(n) ____________________. 104. A(n) ____________________ contraction produces tension but does not result in a change in body position or movement. 105. Skeletal muscle is innervated by the ____________________ nervous system, which allows for voluntary movement. 106. Smooth muscle cells contain ____________________ that carry out a similar function to the Z lines in skeletal muscle. 107. Based on their contractile properties, muscle fibres are classified as either ____________________ or ____________________. 108. The ____________________ describes the phenomenon of larger motor units being more difficult to activate than smaller motor units. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08_5ce_2 109. The type of membrane potential that is characterized by alternating depolarizations and hyperpolarizations that may or may not lead to an action potential is known as ____________________ potential. 110. Transplantation of satellite cells or myoblasts is a potential therapeutic treatment for ____________________, a disease characterized by progressive replacement of muscle tissue with fibrous tissue. 111. Dihydropyridine receptors are present on the ____________________, extend from the sarcoplasmic reticulum and zip together with complementary receptors on the T tubule. 112. Actin and myosin are considered ____________________, even though they do not change length during muscle contraction. 113. Oxidative fibres are also known as____________________ fibres due to the colour imparted by myoglobin. 114. ____________________ is the enzyme in smooth muscle cells that performs the phosphorylation necessary for the myosin cross bridge to bind to actin. 115. The brief and weak muscle contraction produced by a single action potential is known as a(n) ____________________, 116. Cell bodies of ____________________ cells reside within the primary motor cortex, and the axons of these neurons synapse with motor neurons that innervate skeletal muscle. 117. ____________________ refers to paralysis localized to one side of the body that occurs with damage to the primary motor cortex on the opposite side of the brain. 118. ____________________ is the pigment that can store small amounts of oxygen in the skeletal muscle. 119. ____________________ is required during contraction and relaxation for the power stroke, detachment of cross bridges, and for pumping of Ca2+ out of the cytosol. 120. If the nerve supply to a muscle is lost, ____________________ will ensue and the muscle will decrease in size and force production will be reduced. 121. The time between excitation of a muscle fibre and when it starts to contract is known as the ____________________. 122. The force generated from skeletal muscle contraction is transferred to ____________________, which attach to bones and allow for movement of the skeleton. 123. Foot protein Ca2+ channels, also known as ____________________, extend from the sarcoplasmic reticulum and zip together with complementary receptors on the T tubule. 124. If a muscle cell is excited, ____________________ is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. 125. ____________________ monitor changes in muscle tension and supply this information through afferent pathways to the central nervous system. 126. ____________________ and ____________________ are two membranous structures found in skeletal muscle fibres that link excitation of the muscle fibre membrane to contraction of the sarcomeres within the myofibrils. 127. A skeletal muscle produces motion by pulling the ____________________ toward the origin. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08_5ce_2 128. The type of static contraction occurring in the leg muscles as one performs a stationary yoga pose is a(n) ____________________ contraction. 129. The ____________________ is the descending pathway that is concerned primarily with regulation of posture involving involuntary movements of the trunk and limbs. 130. When a muscle fibre does not relax at all between repeated stimulations, this produces a smooth, sustained, and maximal force contraction called ____________________. 131. Based on their metabolic properties, muscle fibres are classified as either ____________________ or ____________________. 132. During development of skeletal muscle cells, several ____________________ fuse together to form a single muscle cell. 133. The fibres that comprise the muscle spindle are known as ____________________ muscle fibres. 134. Within the ____________________, only the central portions of the thick filaments are present. 135. Binding of ____________________ to myosin permits cross-bridge ____________________ and separation of actin and myosin. 136. Within the ____________________, only the central portions of the thick filaments are present. 137. The ____________________ is the descending motor pathway that mediates performance of fine, discrete voluntary movements of the hands. 138. In smooth muscle cells, cross-bridge binding is prevented by the presence of ____________________ on the myosin head. 139. The ____________________ is the connective tissue layer that surrounds a single muscle fibre. 140. Thick filaments are made up of the protein ____________________, whereas thin filaments are composed of the three proteins ____________________, ____________________, and ____________________. 141. Match the muscle type with the correct characteristics by using the answer codes a. through e. ____ cardiac muscle ____ multiunit smooth muscle ____ single-unit smooth muscle ____ skeletal muscle a. voluntary, neurogenic, and striated b. voluntary, neurogenic, and non-striated c. involuntary, myogenic, and striated d. involuntary, neurogenic, and non-striated e. involuntary, myogenic, and non-striated 142. Ca2+ is released from the ____________________ of the sarcoplasmic reticulum when Ca2+-release channels are open. 143. Damage to the cell bodies or axons of alpha motor neurons will result in ____________________ paralysis. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08_5ce_2 144. During the ____________________ stroke, cross bridges of myosin pull the actin filaments in the sarcomere. 145. The specialized structure located in the belly of a muscle that monitors and detects changes in muscle length is called the ____________________. 146. The ____________________ is the functional unit of skeletal muscle. 147. ____________________, the largest protein in the human body, stabilizes the thick filaments and enhances the elasticity of muscle fibres. 148. Noncontractile components of the muscle that provide passive elasticity, such as connective tissue and titin, are known as the ____________________ of muscle. 149. In smooth muscle, Ca2+ binds with the protein ____________________, which is structurally similar to troponin. 150. A(n) ____________________ is the name given to one motor neuron and all the muscle fibres with which it fires synapses. 151. When a muscle fibre is relaxed, ____________________ lies over actin in the thin filament and prevents cross-bridge formation. 152. ____________________ refers to paralysis of the legs resulting from lower spinal cord injury. 153. Skeletal muscles are stimulated to contract by release of the neurotransmitter ____________________. 154. The three types of muscle tissue are ____________________, ____________________, and ____________________. 155. ____________________ and ____________________ are referred to as contractile proteins, whereas ____________________ and ____________________ are referred to as regulatory proteins. 156. The type of dynamic contraction occurring in your bicep muscle as you lower a weight during a bicep curl is a(n) ____________________ contraction. 157. The source of calcium in smooth muscle is the ____________________. 158. Muscle repair is assisted by the presence of ____________________, muscle-specific stem cells that reside at the surface of the muscle. 159. When a working muscle is unable to respond to stimulation by producing the same strength of contractions, ____________________ sets in to prevent the muscle from reaching a state where it can no longer produce ATP. 160. ____________________ refers to the events that pair an action potential being fired in a muscle fibre to the sliding of filaments within a sarcomere.

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Chap 08_5ce_2 Match the bands, labelled a. through c., with the descriptions. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. A band b. I band c. H zone 161. composed of thin filaments only 162. composed of thick filaments only 163. composed of thick and thin filaments 164. shortens during muscle contraction 165. remains the same size during muscle contraction Match the sarcomere components, labelled a. through d., with the characteristics. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. Z line b. A band c. I band d. H zone 166. dark band 167. light band 168. contains only thick filaments 169. contains only thin filaments 170. contains partially overlapping thick and thin filaments 171. joins adjacent sarcomeres together 172. runs down the middle of the A band 173. runs down the middle of the I band Match the type of muscle, labelled a. and b., with the characteristics. a. isometric contraction b. isotonic contraction 174. muscle tension exceeds the load 175. load exceeds muscle tension 176. length changes 177. length remains constant 178. tension remains constant 179. important in maintaining posture 180. used to accomplish movement 181. does not accomplish any work

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Chap 08_5ce_2 Match the muscle tension receptors, labelled a. through c., with the characteristics. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. muscle spindle b. Golgi tendon organ c. both of these receptors 182. monitor(s) change in muscle length 183. detect(s) change in muscle tension 184. activated by muscle stretch 185. initiate(s) the stretch reflex 186. information transmitted reaches the level of conscious awareness 187. do(es) not initiate reflexes 188. provide(s) information to motor regions of the brain Match the muscle fibre types, labelled a. through c., with the characteristics. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. slow-oxidative fibre b. fast-oxidative fibre c. fast-glycolytic fibre 189. has myosin ATPase activity 190. most resistant to fatigue 191. most readily fatigues 192. has numerous mitochondria 193. contains considerable myoglobin 194. found predominantly in muscles designed for endurance 195. has the largest diameter 196. has abundant glycolytic enzymes 197. the most powerful fibre 198. found predominantly in muscles adapted for short-duration, high-intensity activities 199. produces the most lactic acid 200. hypertrophies in response to weight training 201. uses up considerable glycogen

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Chap 08_5ce_2 Match the skeletal muscle proteins, labelled a. through f., with the descriptions. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. actin only b. myosin only c. actin and myosin d. troponin–tropomyosin complex e. actin, troponin, and tropomyosin f. actin, myosin, troponin, and tropomyosin 202. found in the A band 203. found in the I band 204. contractile protein(s) 205. found in the H zone 206. regulatory protein(s) 207. found in thin filament 208. spherical 209. possess cross bridges 210. shape consists of two globular heads attached to a tail 211. found in thick filament 212. has/have ATPase capacity 213. can bind with myosin during muscle contraction 214. lie(s) near the groove of the thin filament helix 215. found in the sarcomere 216. can bind with Ca2+ during contraction 217. form(s) a helical chain

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Chap 08_5ce_2 Match the type of muscle, labelled a. through g., with the properties in question. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. skeletal muscle only b. single-unit smooth muscle only c. cardiac muscle only d. skeletal muscle and cardiac muscle e. skeletal muscle and single-unit smooth muscle f. single-unit smooth muscle and cardiac muscle g. skeletal, single-unit smooth, and cardiac muscles 218. contain(s) actin, myosin, troponin, and tropomyosin 219. contain(s) gap junctions 220. innervated by motor neurons 221. self-excitable 222. maintain(s) a constant resting membrane potential unless stimulated 223. innervated by the autonomic nervous system 224. attached to bones 225. considered to be involuntary 226. Thick and thin filaments are highly organized into a banding pattern. 227. found in the heart 228. striated 229. found in the walls of hollow organs such as the stomach 230. behave(s) as a functional syncytium 231. under voluntary control 232. has/have a clear-cut, length–tension relationship 233. Contraction triggered as Ca2+ physically pulls troponin and tropomyosin from its blocking position over actin’s binding sites for the cross bridges. 234. Myosin must be phosphorylated before it can bind with actin 235. contain(s) T tubules 236. display(s) pacemaker potentials and slow-wave potentials 237. Compare and contrast isotonic versus isometric contractions.

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Chap 08_5ce_2 238. Describe the two factors involved in gradation of tension in a whole muscle.

239. Compare and contrast the metabolic and contractile properties of type I and type II muscle fibres (or slow twitch and fast twitch muscle fibres).

240. Explain the length–tension relationship for skeletal muscle fibres.

241. Describe the process of excitation–contraction coupling in a skeletal muscle cell, starting from the release of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction.

242. Explain the differences in how calcium brings about cross bridging between thick and thin filaments in skeletal muscle versus smooth muscle

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Chap 08_5ce_2 Answer Key 1. False 2. False 3. True 4. False 5. False 6. False 7. True 8. False 9. False 10. True 11. False 12. True 13. True 14. True 15. True 16. False 17. True 18. True 19. True 20. True 21. True 22. True 23. True 24. True 25. False 26. True

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Chap 08_5ce_2 27. False 28. True 29. True 30. True 31. False 32. True 33. True 34. False 35. True 36. True 37. False 38. False 39. False 40. True 41. True 42. True 43. False 44. True 45. False 46. True 47. False 48. True 49. True 50. True 51. True 52. True 53. True 54. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08_5ce_2 55. True 56. True 57. True 58. True 59. False 60. True 61. True 62. True 63. True 64. False 65. False 66. True 67. True 68. False 69. False 70. True 71. True 72. False 73. True 74. True 75. True 76. False 77. False 78. False 79. True 80. True 81. False 82. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08_5ce_2 83. False 84. True 85. True 86. False 87. False 88. False 89. False 90. False 91. False 92. False 93. True 94. True 95. True 96. False 97. False 98. True 99. True 100. neurogenic 101. temporal 102. sarcoplasmic reticulum 103. myosin ATPase; actin binding site (in any order) 104. static 105. somatic 106. dense bodies 107. slow twitch; fast twitch (in any order) 108. size principle 109. slow wave 110. muscular dystrophy Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08_5ce_2 111. ryanodine receptors 112. contractile proteins 113. red 114. Myosin light chain kinase 115. twitch 116. pyramidal 117. Hemiplegia 118. Myoglobin 119. ATP 120. denervation atrophy 121. latent period 122. tendons 123. ryanodine receptors 124. calcium 125. Golgi tendon organs 126. transverse tubules; sarcoplasmic reticulum (in any order) 127. insertion 128. isometric 129. multineuronal (extrapyramidal) system 130. tetanus 131. glycolytic; oxidative (in any order) 132. myoblasts 133. intrafusal 134. H zone 135. ATP; detachment 136. H zone 137. corticospinal (pyramidal) system 138. light chains 139. endomysium

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Chap 08_5ce_2 140. myosin; actin; tropomyosin; troponin (in any order) 141. c, d, e, a 142. lateral sacs 143. flaccid 144. power 145. muscle spindle 146. sarcomere 147. Titin 148. series-elastic component 149. calmodulin 150. motor unit 151. tropomyosin 152. Paraplegia 153. acetylcholine 154. cardiac; skeletal; smooth (in any order) 155. Myosin; actin; tropomyosin; troponin Myosin; actin; troponin; tropomyosin Actin; myosin; troponin; tropomyosin Actin; myosin; tropomyosin; troponin 156. eccentric 157. extracellular fluid 158. satellite cells 159. muscle fatigue (fatigue) 160. Excitation–contraction coupling 161. b 162. c 163. a 164. c 165. a 166. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08_5ce_2 167. c 168. b 169. c 170. b 171. a 172. d 173. a 174. b 175. a 176. b 177. a 178. b 179. a 180. b 181. a 182. a 183. b 184. c 185. a 186. b 187. b 188. c 189. c 190. a 191. c 192. b 193. a 194. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08_5ce_2 195. c 196. c 197. c 198. c 199. c 200. c 201. c 202. f 203. e 204. c 205. b 206. d 207. e 208. a 209. b 210. b 211. b 212. b 213. a 214. d 215. f 216. d 217. a 218. d 219. f 220. a 221. f 222. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08_5ce_2 223. f 224. a 225. f 226. d 227. c 228. d 229. b 230. f 231. a 232. d 233. d 234. b 235. d 236. f 237. Answers will vary. 238. Answers will vary. 239. Answers will vary. 240. Answers will vary. 241. Answers will vary. 242. Answers will vary.

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Chap 09_5ce Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. The second heart sound occurs when the semilunar valves close. What does this mark? a. the start of the ejection period b. the start of systole c. the end of the ejection period d. the start of isovolumetric contraction 2. A person experiences a heart attack that damages the tissue that conducts electrical impulses between the atria and the ventricles. Which condition will they experience? a. ectopic focus b. AV nodal delay c. complete heart block d. premature ventricular contraction (PVC) 3. Which structure of the heart keeps the blood within the left and right sides of the heart separate? a. apex b. septum c. base d. epicardium 4. Which type of lipoprotein has been shown to be protective against atherosclerosis and heart disease? a. chylomicrons b. VLDL c. LDL d. HDL 5. Which of these events occurs due to sympathetic stimulation of the heart? a. The heart rate decreases. b. The contractile strength of the heart muscle increases. c. The Frank–Starling curve shifts to the right. d. Cardiac output decreases. 6. What is the term for the period lasting from closure of the AV valve to opening of the aortic valve? a. isovolumetric ventricular contraction b. isovolumetric ventricular relaxation c. the rapid ejection phase d. the rapid filling phase 7. All contribute to depolarizing the cardiac autorhythmic cell by allowing inward movement of positive charges EXCEPT which one of the following? a. If

b. voltage-gated K+ channels

c. L-type Ca2+ channels

d. T-type Ca2+ channels

8. Which of the following represents the correct sequence of blood flow through the heart? a. superior and inferior vena cavae, right atrium, left atrium, pulmonary veins, pulmonary artery, right ventricle, left ventricle, aorta b. superior and inferior vena cavae, left atrium, left ventricle, pulmonary artery, pulmonary veins, right atrium, right ventricle, aorta c. superior and inferior vena cavae, right atrium, right ventricle, pulmonary veins, pulmonary artery, left atrium, left ventricle, aorta d. superior and inferior vena cavae, right atrium, right ventricle, pulmonary artery, pulmonary veins, left atrium, left ventricle, aorta

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Chap 09_5ce 9. Which of the following statements does NOT describe the cause or development of atherosclerosis? a. Smooth muscle cells migrate from the vessel wall and develop atheromas underneath the endothelial lining. b. The most common cause of the initial injury to the blood vessel wall is bacteria. c. Plaques can grow and become so large that they start to block the lumen of the blood vessels. d. Inflammation is a key component of the atherosclerotic process. 10. Which of the cardiac autorhythmic cells ensures electrical impulses are spread throughout the entire thickness of the ventricular myocardial wall? a. sinoatrial node b. atrioventricular node c. bundle of His d. Purkinje fibres 11. Which of the following ECG patterns represents atrial fibrillation? a. irregular waveforms with no predictable patterns b. regular waveforms that are spaced closer together c. no defined P waves; sporadic QRS complexes that appear normal d. normal P wave patterns; QRS complexes and T waves slower and separate from P wave rhythm 12. Which of these terms refers to the volume of blood ejected from each ventricle during a contraction? a. end-diastolic volume b. end-systolic volume c. stroke volume d. cardiac output 13. The P wave on an ECG corresponds with which stage of the cardiac cycle? a. ventricular ejection b. mid-ventricular diastole c. late ventricular diastole d. isovolumetric ventricular contraction 14. During isovolumetric ventricular contraction, which of the following pressure relationships exits? a. aortic pressure is lower than ventricular pressure b. atrial pressure is lower than ventricular pressure c. atrial pressure is higher than ventricular pressure d. atrial, ventricular, and aortic pressures are equal 15. If the cardiac output is 4800 mL/min and the heart rate is 60 beats per minute, what is the average stroke volume in millilitres? a. 60 mL b. 70 mL c. 80 mL d. 120 mL 16. Which of the following best describes the process of Ca2+-induced Ca2+ release? a. Ca2+ release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum promotes the influx of Ca2+ from the ECF. b. Ca2+ influx from the ECF stimulates the release of Ca2+ from intracellular storage vesicles. c. Ca2+ release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum stimulates further release of Ca2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. d. Ca2+ influx from the ECF stimulates the release of Ca2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

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Chap 09_5ce 17. Which of these statements refers to the Frank–Starling law of the heart? a. The shorter the initial length of the cardiac muscle fibres prior to contraction, the more forceful will be the subsequent contraction. b. Increasing the venous return increases the end-diastolic volume, which leads to an increased stroke volume. c. As cardiac output is reduced, blood pools in the vasculature so that arterial blood pressure increases. d. The output of the left side of the heart must always exceed that of the right side of the heart. 18. Why do cardiac muscle fibres generate more tension when they are stretched beyond resting length? a. because stretched cardiac muscle fibres stimulate the SNS, which increases contractility b. because their resting length is shorter than their optimal length for generating maximum tension c. because the SA node fires more rapidly when cardiac muscle fibres are stretched d. because of the effect of stretch on Ca2+ release in cardiac muscle fibres 19. What is the functional significance of the AV nodal delay? a. It slows down the impulses from the SA node to allow the ventricles to fill completely before they are stimulated to contract. b. It provides time needed for the ventricles to generate sufficient tension to eject all their contents into circulation. c. It prevents the bundle of His and Purkinje fibres from firing prematurely. d. It provides latent pacemaker activity should the SA fail. 20. When do the ventricles hold the maximum amount of blood they will contain during the cardiac cycle? a. during ventricular ejection b. during early ventricular diastole c. during mid-ventricular diastole d. at the end of ventricular diastole 21. If desmosomes were not present in the intercalated discs, what could be a possible outcome? a. Cardiac fibres may be separated from each other when the heart contracts. b. The cardiac muscle fibres would all contract at different times. c. Blood flow through the semilunar valves would move backward. d. The lining of the chambers would become thickened. 22. What would be the consequence if the ventricles start to contract before the atria finish contracting? a. An excess amount of Ca2+ would be released from the ventricular muscle. b. Heart rate would increase. c. The sinoatrial node would fire before the AV node. d. Ventricular filling would be incomplete. 23. Which of these actions is performed by the semilunar valves? a. preventing backflow of blood from the ventricles to the atria b. preventing backflow of blood from the atria to the ventricles c. preventing backflow of blood from the ventricles to the arterial trunks d. preventing backflow of blood from the arterial trunks to the ventricles Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_5ce 24. Which vessel carries blood with a comparatively high concentration of oxygen? a. pulmonary vein b. pulmonary artery c. inferior vena cava d. superior vena cava 25. Cardiac autorhythmic cells display which type of membrane potential? a. resting membrane potential b. end-plate potential c. slow-wave potential d. pacemaker potential 26. Which of the following is the result of vagal influences on the heart? a. enhanced potassium permeability at the SA node b. enhanced calcium permeability at the SA node c. more frequent depolarization of the SA node d. stimulation of the heart by epinephrine 27. Which structure aids in ensuring the atria and the ventricles contracts as a single unit? a. papillary muscles b. desmosomes c. valves d. gap junctions 28. Which compound acts as a paracrine to increase coronary blood flow when cardiac oxygen requirements increase? a. epinephrine b. nitric oxide c. ATP d. adenosine 29. Which of these events is happening during the isovolumetric phase of ventricular systole? a. The ventricles are relaxed isometrically. b. Blood is being ejected into the great vessels. c. The atrioventricular valves and semilunar valves are closed. d. Venous blood is flowing back to the heart. 30. What does the QRS complex represent? a. depolarization of the atria b. repolarization of the ventricles c. the AV nodal delay d. depolarization of the ventricles 31. Which of the following represents the correct order for the events that happen during the development of atherosclerosis? a. injury to the blood vessel wall, smooth muscle cell migration, fatty streak development, formation of a connective tissue cap b. smooth muscle cell migration, fatty streak development, formation of a connective tissue cap, injury to the blood vessel wall c. injury to the blood vessel wall, fatty streak development, smooth muscle cell migration, formation of a connective tissue cap d. fatty streak development, injury to the blood vessel wall, smooth muscle cell migration, formation of a connective tissue cap

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Chap 09_5ce 32. Which of these statements describes ectopic focus? a. the place where an abnormally excitable area of the heart initiates a premature action potential b. the place where all the electrical impulses of the heart normally terminate c. the place where an ECG lead is attached on the outside of the chest d. the place where a heart valve is attached 33. Which of the following is the cranial nerve of the parasympathetic nervous system that signals the heart? a. cardiac nerve b. coronary nerve c. trigeminal nerve d. vagus nerve 34. If end-diastolic volume is 135 mL and stroke volume is 60 mL, what is the value for end-systolic volume? a. 75 mL b. 185 mL c. 200 mL d. 225 mL 35. What is responsible for the long refractory period of cardiac contractile cells? a. the plateau phase of the action potential b. delayed pumping of Ca2+ back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum c. the falling phase of the action potential d. the AV nodal delay 36. Why is the wall of the left ventricle thicker than the wall of the right ventricle? a. The left ventricle must pump much more blood than the right ventricle, so it must have stronger walls. b. The right ventricle must pump much more blood than the left ventricle, so it has a larger chamber to accommodate the blood and a correspondingly thinner wall. c. The left ventricle must pump the same amount of blood into the high-resistance, high-pressure systemic system as does the right ventricle into the low-resistance, low-pressure pulmonary system. d. The right ventricle must create higher tension within its walls. 37. Which of these statements does NOT describe an event that happens during an action potential in cardiac autorhythmic cells? a. Opening of T-type Ca2+ channels during the falling phase helps restore resting membrane potential. b. If current is activated upon hyperpolarization and is involved in the slow depolarization to threshold. c. As in other excitable cells, opening of voltage-gated K+ channels and K+ efflux contributes to the falling phase. d. The rising phase of the action potential is due to the opening of L-type Ca2+ channels and Ca2+ influx. 38. How does the parasympathetic nervous system affect cardiac output? a. It increases heart rate by reducing the AV nodal delay. b. It increases stroke volume by decreasing contractility of the ventricles. c. It reduces stroke volume by decreasing contractility of the ventricles. d. It reduces heart rate by hyperpolarizing the SA node.

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Chap 09_5ce 39. A valve that cannot open fully is referred to as what type of valve? a. stenotic b. incompetent c. insufficient d. rheumatic 40. Which of these criteria must be met for the heart to function efficiently? a. The fluid pressure in the pericardial cavity must be high for the heart to function efficiently. b. The ventricles should be excited and contract before the onset of atrial contraction to ensure that ventricular filling is complete. c. The right side of the heart should contract first to ensure that oxygenated blood is delivered to the heart before the left side contracts. d. Excitation and consequently contraction of the cardiac muscle fibres of each heart chamber should be coordinated to ensure efficient pumping. 41. The AV valves close during which phase of the cardiac cycle? a. late ventricular diastole b. onset of ventricular systole c. isovolumetric ventricular contraction d. ventricular ejection 42. Which of these nerves to the heart alters cardiac output by increasing heart rate and contractility? a. motor nerve b. sensory nerve c. sympathetic nerve d. parasympathetic nerve 43. Which statement accurately describes stenotic and/or insufficient valves? a. Blood flow through a stenotic valve produces a swishy sound because blood flows backward through it. b. An insufficient mitral valve will cause regurgitation of blood from the left ventricle to the left atrium. c. They are easily identified with X-rays. d. Overuse of certain medications is often the cause of both stenosis and insufficiency of valves. 44. Which of these nutrients has NOT been shown to prevent LDL oxidation, and therefore slows the progression of atherosclerosis? a. beta-carotene b. vitamin C c. vitamin E d. vitamin D 45. A swishy murmur after the second heart sound indicates which of the following? a. A valve that should be open during diastole is not opening completely. b. A valve that should be open during systole is not opening completely. c. A valve that should be closed during diastole is not closing completely. d. A valve that should be closed during systole is not closing completely. 46. What is a metabolic predictor of heart disease that is independent of one’s cholesterol/lipid profile? a. HDL b. VLDL c. homocysteine d. methionine 47. The volume of blood in the ventricles when they finish relaxing is known as what? a. end-diastolic volume b. end-systolic volume c. stroke volume d. cardiac output Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_5ce 48. The papillary muscles perform what function for the heart? a. They ensure that blood does not flow backward from the atria into veins. b. When they contract, they assist in keeping the leaflets of the atrioventricular valves closed. c. They are contained within the walls of the left ventricle and help produce the additional tension needed to pump blood out of the heart. d. They serve as attachment points for the leaflets of the semilunar valves. 49. Which of these statements accurately describes cardiac output? a. the volume of blood ejected from each ventricle with every heartbeat b. the volume of blood ejected from the entire heart with every heartbeat c. the volume of blood that is pumped from each ventricle per minute d. the volume of blood pumped by the entire heart per minute 50. Which of these statements does NOT describe cardiac muscle cells? a. Either all of them contract in the heart or none of them contract. b. They are capable of graded strength of contraction. c. They are produced constantly after infancy. d. They have an abundance of mitochondria. 51. What is the functional importance of the cardiac septum? a. It allows the left ventricle to produce the force required to pump blood into the high resistance systemic circulatory system. b. It provides lubrication and allows the heart to beat without leading to the sensation of friction. c. It keeps deoxygenated blood in the right side of the heart separate from oxygenated blood in the left side of the heart. d. It prevents blood from flowing backward from the pulmonary artery into the right ventricle. 52. Patients with diastolic heart failure would present with a. failure of the ventricles to fill normally. b. decreased cardiac contractility. c. their heart pumping out more blood than it should with each contraction. d. their heart muscle relaxing longer than it should with each contraction. 53. If the sinoatrial node became damaged, what would be the new average resting heart rate? a. 40 to 60 beats per minute b. 20 to 40 beats per minute c. 10 to 20 beats per minute d. 0 beats per minute 54. Vascular spasms are induced by which of the following chemicals released from the endothelial cells? a. platelet-activating factor b. nitric oxide c. fibroblast growth factor d. adenosine

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Chap 09_5ce 55. Which of these actions happens during heart failure? a. The Frank–Starling curve is shifted to the left. b. Blood flows faster in the arterioles. c. A compensatory decrease in sympathetic activity increases the relaxation of the heart to normal in the early stages of the disease. d. The heart pumps out a smaller stroke volume than normal for a given end-diastolic volume. 56. What are the specialized structures that connect the ends of branching cardiac muscle fibres called? a. intercalated discs b. gap junctions c. desmosome discs d. connexons 57. The parasympathetic nervous system has little effect on which of these types of activity? a. atrial activity b. AV node activity c. SA node activity d. ventricular muscle activity 58. All these statements apply to angina pectoris EXCEPT for which one? a. Pain is not associated with this condition because there are no pain receptors in the heart. b. Periods of myocardial ischemia are more common during exercise or exertion. c. Vasodilator medications, such as nitroglycerin, can help relieve symptoms because they widen the coronary vessels. d. It is a possible consequence of atherosclerosis. 59. Which of the following is NOT a way in which the SNS can enhance cardiac output? a. recruiting more motor units b. reducing the time of drift toward threshold during pacemaker potentials c. reducing AV nodal delay d. increasing ventricular contractile force 60. Which statement applies to the aortic and pulmonary semilunar valves? a. They open when ventricles relax, allowing blood to be ejected from the heart. b. Blood moves from the atria to the ventricles through these valves. c. When the ventricles relax, they close to prevent backflow of blood from arteries into ventricles. d. The chordae tendineae assist in keeping these valves closed. 61. If the EDV were held constant, what could accomplish increased stroke volume? a. increased sympathetic nerve activity to the heart b. increased parasympathetic nerve activity to the heart c. decreased contractility d. increased arterial blood pressure 62. Twelve complete ECG patterns are recorded from a subject over 10 seconds. If this pattern continues, what is the rate of the heartbeat in the subject? a. 60 beats per minute b. 72 beats per minute c. 90 beats per minute d. 108 beats per minute Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_5ce 63. Which of the following is NOT a layer of the heart wall? a. myocardium b. epicardium c. endocardium d. pericardium 64. Which of the following is a compensatory mechanism that comes into play in order to maintain the cardiac output for the failing heart? a. decreased myocardial contractility b. increased vagal stimulation c. increased sympathetic stimulation d. peripheral vasodilation 65. Dominance of which of the following contributes to restoring resting membrane potential in a cardiac contractile cell? a. voltage-gated Na+ channel

b. T-type Ca2+ channel

c. the delayed rectifier

d. voltage-gated Cl– channel

66. Which of these ECG waves represents ventricular repolarization? a. P wave b. T wave c. QRS complex d. Ventricular repolarization occurs simultaneously with atrial depolarization and consequently cannot be recorded. 67. How does the pericardial sac contribute to cardiac function? a. It assists in conducting the electrical activity of the heart. b. It attaches to the connective tissue of the lungs and keeps the heart properly positioned within the chest. c. It prevents the heart from contracting prematurely. d. It ensures that blood flows in the correct direction through the heart. 68. Which chamber contains blood with a relatively low concentration of oxygen that is about to be delivered to the lungs? a. right atrium b. right ventricle c. left atrium d. left ventricle 69. Intercalated discs are composed of which two membrane junctions? a. desmosomes and tight junctions b. gap junctions and desmosomes c. connexons and desmosomes d. tight junctions and connexons 70. Which of these situations will NOT increase stroke volume? a. increased end-diastolic volume b. increased contractility of the heart c. increased end-systolic volume d. increased stretch of the cardiac muscle fibres during ventricular filling

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Chap 09_5ce 71. In the early stages of atherosclerosis, what builds up under the endothelial lining of blood vessels and contributes to plaque formation? a. cholesterol b. glucose c. fatty acids d. monocytes 72. For blood to be ejected from the heart, which of the following must be achieved? a. ventricular pressure higher than aortic pressure b. aortic pressure higher than ventricular pressure c. atrial pressure higher than ventricular pressure d. atrial pressure higher than aortic pressure 73. While listening to a patient’s heart with a stethoscope, you hear “lub-whistle-dup.” What can you conclude? a. One of the atrioventricular valves is insufficient. b. One of the atrioventricular valves is stenotic. c. One of the semilunar valves is insufficient. d. One of the semilunar valves is stenotic. 74. A patient has an EDV of 85 mL and an ESV of 35 mL with a heart rate of 50. What is this patient’s cardiac output? a. 2500 mL/min, or 2.5 L/min b. 3500 mL/min, or 3.5 L/min c. 4500 mL/min, or 4.5 L/min d. 6500 mL/min, or 6.5 L/min 75. The myocardium receives its own blood supply and oxygen through which vessels? a. aortic circulation b. coronary circulation c. myocardial circulation d. superior and inferior vena cavae 76. Why is the sinoatrial node considered the pacemaker of the heart? a. because it contains autorhythmic cells that are directly innervated by the sympathetic nervous system (SNS) b. because its autorhythmic cells are located in the right atrium, which is positioned above all the other cardiac autorhythmic cells c. because its autorhythmic cells have the fastest rate of spontaneous depolarization to threshold d. because its cardiac contractile cells release the most Ca2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, and can therefore produce the highest amount of tension 77. When does electrical activity occur at the AV node? a. between the P wave and the QRS complex b. during the P wave c. during the QRS complex d. between the QRS complex and the T wave

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Chap 09_5ce 78. What is the function of pericardial fluid? a. to maintain fluid balance between the different chambers of the heart b. to fill the space between the pericardial layers, which positions the heart in the correct spot in the chest c. to lubricate the pericardial layers and prevent friction when the heart beats d. to lubricate the heart valves and ensure they open and close effectively when the heart beats 79. Which of the following actions produces the second heart sound? a. opening of the AV valves b. closing of the AV valves c. opening of the semilunar valves d. closing of the semilunar valves 80. Which of these statements describes action potentials in the heart? a. The rising phase of the action potential in cardiac contractile cells is due to a rapid K+ influx. b. The rising phase of the action potential in cardiac autorhythmic cells is due to a rapid Ca2+ influx. c. The plateau phase of the action potential in cardiac contractile cells is due to a rapid Ca2+ influx. d. The plateau phase of the action potential in cardiac contractile cells is due to a rapid K+ influx. 81. Which of these statements does NOT describe the function or operation of heart valves? a. If the pressure in front of a valve is higher than the pressure behind it, the valve opens in the opposite or backward direction. b. They regulate blood flow between cardiac chambers as well as between chambers and major cardiac blood vessels. c. They open passively in response to differences in pressure. d. The semilunar valves separate blood flow between the ventricles and the major arteries of the heart. 82. What is responsible for the plateau phase of the action potential in a cardiac contractile cell? a. opening of voltage-gated Na+ channels b. opening of voltage-gated Na+ channels and voltage-gated K+ channels c. opening of voltage-gated Ca2+ channels and voltage-gated K+ channels d. opening of voltage-gated Na+ channels and voltage-gated Ca2+ channels 83. Why is the long refractory period in cardiac contractile cells important for effective cardiac function? a. It allows for sufficient tension to be produced in the ventricles to eject blood into circulation. b. It prevents tetanic contractions in the heart muscle, allowing the chambers of the heart to alternate between emptying and filling. c. It prevents the heart from producing more forceful contractions and ejecting too much blood into circulation. d. It stimulates autorhythmic cells to generate spontaneous action potentials and maintain a regular heart rate.

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Chap 09_5ce 84. Which of the following describes the first heart sound? a. It occurs when the AV valves open. b. It occurs when the semilunar valves close. c. It signals the end of ventricular systole. d. It signals the onset of ventricular systole. 85. Which of the following happens during isovolumetric ventricular contraction? a. The ventricles fill rapidly. b. The maximum rate of ejection occurs. c. The maximum volume of blood is ejected. d. No blood enters or leaves the ventricles. 86. What is the normal sequence of the spread of cardiac excitation? a. atria, SA node, AV node, Purkinje fibres, bundle of His, ventricular myocardium b. SA node, atria, AV node, bundle of His, Purkinje fibres, ventricular myocardium c. SA node, atria, AV node, Purkinje fibres, bundle of His, ventricular myocardium d. AV node, SA node, atria, Purkinje fibres, bundle of His, ventricular myocardium 87. Which of the following factors will NOT increase cardiac output? a. increased venous return b. increased parasympathetic stimulation c. increased preload d. increased heart rate 88. When does blood flow occur through the coronary circulation? a. mainly during systole b. mainly during diastole c. almost equally during systole and diastole d. only during ventricular isovolumetric contraction 89. If the sinoatrial node became damaged, which autorhythmic tissue would take over as the cardiac pacemaker? a. left branch of the bundle of His b. right branch of the bundle of His c. Purkinje fibres d. atrioventricular node 90. On a normal ECG, a wave for repolarization of the atria is not recorded. Why? a. The leads are not placed in a position to pick it up. b. No repolarization of the atria occurs normally. c. It occurs simultaneously with ventricular depolarization and is masked by the QRS complex. d. It does not travel through body fluids. 91. What is the name for the disturbance on the aortic pressure curve that is observed when the aortic valve closes? a. dicrotic deflection b. aortic notch c. pressure deflection d. dicrotic notch 92. If the stroke volume is 80 mL and the heart rate is 70 beats per minute, what is the cardiac output? a. 150 mL/min b. 560 mL/min c. 5600 mL/min d. 8700 mL/min

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Chap 09_5ce 93. Which valve separates the right atrium from the right ventricle? a. pulmonary valve b. mitral valve c. tricuspid valve d. semilunar valve 94. If the mitral valve is not closing fully, where would blood inappropriately flow? a. from the right ventricle to the right atrium b. from the left ventricle to the left atrium c. from the aorta to the left ventricle d. from the pulmonary artery to the right ventricle 95. Which of the following causes vascular spasms? a. High lipid levels in the blood trigger the endothelial cells of the coronary vessels to contract. b. Release of a chemical from the endothelium stimulates contraction of the underlying smooth muscle in the coronary vessels. c. Overactivity of sympathetic nerves supplying the coronary vessels causes contraction of the smooth muscle of the coronary vessels. d. Buildup of carbon dioxide in the blood causes contraction of the smooth muscle of the coronary vessels. 96. What is the purpose of coronary circulation? a. to provide an alternative path for blood to leave the left ventricle if the aorta becomes blocked b. to accommodate additional blood if end-diastolic volume, and therefore stroke volume, increases c. to supply the heart muscle with oxygen and nutrients d. to provide more blood to ventricles than the atria 97. Cardiac output is equal to which of the following? a. the difference between end-diastolic volume and end-systolic volume × heart rate b. the product of heart rate and end-diastolic volume c. the difference between the stroke volume at rest and the stroke volume during exercise d. stroke volume minus end-systolic volume 98. Which of these statements accurately describes the circulatory system? a. The two vascular systems both start and end at the heart. b. The liver receives blood from the heart via pulmonary circulation. c. Systemic circulation carries blood to and from the lungs. d. The circulatory system is made up of two parts: the heart and the blood vessels.

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Chap 09_5ce Answer Key 1. c 2. c 3. b 4. d 5. b 6. a 7. b 8. d 9. b 10. d 11. c 12. c 13. c 14. b 15. c 16. d 17. b 18. b 19. a 20. d 21. a 22. d 23. d 24. a 25. d 26. a

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Chap 09_5ce 27. d 28. d 29. c 30. d 31. c 32. a 33. d 34. a 35. a 36. c 37. a 38. d 39. a 40. d 41. b 42. c 43. b 44. d 45. c 46. c 47. a 48. b 49. c 50. c 51. c 52. a 53. a 54. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_5ce 55. d 56. a 57. d 58. a 59. a 60. c 61. a 62. b 63. d 64. c 65. c 66. b 67. b 68. b 69. b 70. c 71. a 72. a 73. d 74. a 75. b 76. c 77. a 78. c 79. d 80. b 81. a 82. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_5ce 83. b 84. d 85. d 86. b 87. b 88. b 89. d 90. c 91. d 92. c 93. c 94. b 95. b 96. c 97. a 98. a

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Chap 09_5ce_2 Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. Passive filling of the ventricles occurs during late ventricular diastole. a. True b. False 2. Without the AV nodal delay, it would be possible for the ventricles to contract before they finished filling with blood from the atria. a. True b. False 3. During isovolumetric ventricular contraction, atrial pressure is higher than ventricular pressure. a. True b. False 4. Heart sounds are created when the leaflets and cusps of the valves snap open and reverberate against heart or blood vessel wall. a. True b. False 5. Ventricular filling occurs more rapidly early in diastole than it does later in diastole. a. True b. False 6. With 2:1 rhythm, the atrial rate is very rapid and the ventricular rate is normal or above normal, whereas with 2:1 block, the atrial rate is normal but the ventricular rate is below normal a. True b. False 7. While the heart can use several energy substrates to produce ATP, it favours aerobic over anaerobic metabolism. a. True b. False 8. Summation of contractions and tetanus of muscle fibres is not possible in cardiac muscle fibres. a. True b. False 9. Vascular spasms are a sign of the early stages of coronary artery disease. a. True b. False 10. The right atrioventricular valve is also known as the mitral valve or the bicuspid valve. a. True b. False

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Chap 09_5ce_2 11. Atherosclerosis involves an immune response. a. True b. False 12. In cardiac muscle fibres, the more Ca2+ that is released into the cytosol, the more tension that can be generated. a. True b. False 13. Blood makes up part of the circulatory system. a. True b. False 14. Ca2+-induced Ca2+ release happens when Ca2+ from the ECF enters the cardiac contractile cell through L-type Ca2+ channels, and stimulates the release of more Ca2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. a. True b. False 15. If the heart requires more oxygen, it obtains most of this additional oxygen by withdrawing more from the blood it receives. a. True b. False 16. In addition to direct effects on heart muscle, the SNS also increases stroke volume by enhancing venous return and therefore end-diastolic volume. a. True b. False 17. The left side of the heart pumps more blood than the right side because the left side of the heart has to pump blood through longer blood vessels. a. True b. False 18. The cardiac cycle describes the mechanical events, pressure changes, and blood flow through the left side of the heart only. a. True b. False 19. The action potential impulse passes through the AV node between the P wave and QRS complex. a. True b. False 20. Cardiac output is the volume of blood ejected from the heart in one minute. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_5ce_2 21. The right and left sides of the heart are physically separate and therefore operate as two separate pumps. a. True b. False 22. Valves are not required to prevent the backflow of blood from the left and right atria into the pulmonary veins and vena cavae. a. True b. False 23. Pacemaker potential in cardiac contractile cells allows these cells to generate action potentials on their own, without any input from the nervous system. a. True b. False 24. HDLs have less protein than LDLs. a. True b. False 25. Cardiac myopathies cannot be detected by examining an ECG recording because they are caused by damage to the cardiac contractile tissue. a. True b. False 26. Resting membrane potential of a cardiac contractile cell is more negative than that of a neuron. a. True b. False 27. The liver receives blood from the heart via the pulmonary circulation. a. True b. False 28. During AV nodal delay, the ECG recording remains at baseline because there is no significant current flowing through the heart muscle. a. True b. False 29. Cardiac output from the right and left sides of the heart is approximately the same. a. True b. False 30. The heart received the most significant portion of its blood supply during diastole because the coronary vessels are squeezed and occluded during systole. a. True b. False

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Chap 09_5ce_2 31. The atrioventricular node produces the fastest rate of spontaneous depolarization of all the cardiac autorhythmic tissues. a. True b. False 32. The sinoatrial node is considered the pacemaker of the heart. a. True b. False 33. The septum ensures that blood in the right and left sides of the heart remains separated. a. True b. False 34. The atria and ventricles go through independent cycles of contraction and relaxation. a. True b. False 35. The T wave represents the depolarization of the ventricles. a. True b. False 36. A whistling sound heard after the second heart sound indicates a stenotic semilunar valve. a. True b. False 37. The heart utilizes glucose almost exclusively for energy production. a. True b. False 38. Increased EDV results in decreased stroke volume. a. True b. False 39. Atrial repolarization is not represented by a waveform on the ECG because it does not produce strong enough electrical activity to be detected. a. True b. False 40. The inner layer of the pericardial sac secretes a lubricating fluid that minimizes friction between the pericardial layers as the heart beats. a. True b. False

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Chap 09_5ce_2 41. The parasympathetic nervous system influences cardiac output mainly through its effects on contractility of the ventricles. a. True b. False 42. The aortic valve and pulmonary valve are the two semilunar valves. a. True b. False 43. Stenotic valves produce a characteristic whistling sound as blood is forced through a valve that cannot open fully at a high velocity. a. True b. False 44. Gap junctions provide a low resistance pathway for electrical activity to spread from one cardiac muscle fibre to another. a. True b. False 45. The maximum volume of blood that the ventricles will hold during all phases of the cardiac cycle is called the end-systolic volume. a. True b. False 46. Not all forms of LDL are equally harmful to the heart. a. True b. False 47. The main determinant of cardiac muscle fibre length is the degree of filling of the chambers when they are relaxed. a. True b. False 48. During isovolumetric ventricular contraction, the ventricles contract but no blood is ejected from the heart. a. True b. False 49. Left-sided congestive heart failure can lead to pulmonary oedema. a. True b. False 50. If desmosomes were not present in the intercalated discs, spread of electrical activity between cardiac muscle fibres would be affected. a. True b. False

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Chap 09_5ce_2 51. Most ventricular filling is accomplished during atrial contraction. a. True b. False 52. An ECG records the electrical activity of the heart that is conducted through body fluids and reaches the surface of the skin. a. True b. False 53. The heart undergoes tetanic contraction during sympathetic stimulation to squeeze out more blood. a. True b. False 54. Angina pectoris develops from the abundance of oxygen in the blood in the coronary circulation. a. True b. False 55. The heart muscle receives its oxygen and nutrients directly from the blood within its chambers during ventricular diastole. a. True b. False 56. Sympathetic stimulation of the heart increases calcium permeability. a. True b. False 57. End-diastolic volume is achieved during early ventricular diastole. a. True b. False 58. If the heart requires more oxygen, coronary blood flow is increased to supply the heart with more blood and therefore more oxygen. a. True b. False 59. During late ventricular diastole, the SA node fires and atrial contraction begins. a. True b. False 60. The SNS and PNS both exert effects on the heart by affecting cAMP second-messenger systems. a. True b. False 61. Vascular spasms cause permanent narrowing of the coronary blood vessels. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_5ce_2 62. The biggest threat to the heart if coronary blood flow is blocked is the lack of nutrient supply. a. True b. False 63. If heart rate increases, ventricular filling is not impacted even though ventricular diastole is shortened because most ventricular filling occurs early in diastole. a. True b. False 64. Hypertension decreases the afterload and increases the preload. a. True b. False 65. The myocardium is the inner layer of the heart that lines the vessels and is continuous with the inner layer of blood vessel walls. a. True b. False 66. The atrioventricular node is a latent pacemaker because it will determine the rate of autorhythmicity of the heart should the sinoatrial node become damaged. a. True b. False 67. Epinephrine secreted from the adrenal medulla reduces heart rate. a. True b. False 68. According to the Frank–Starling law of the heart, the shorter the initial length of the cardiac muscle fibres prior to contraction, the more forceful will be the subsequent contraction because the fibres are already partially contracted. a. True b. False 69. The extent of ventricular filling is the preload of the heart, whereas the magnitude of the arterial blood pressure is the afterload of the heart. a. True b. False 70. The long refractory period in cardiac contractile cells allows tetanic contractions of the heart to occur, which ensures coordinated ejection of blood from the ventricles. a. True b. False 71. Parasympathetic stimulation slows the rate of depolarization of the SA node and thus decreases the heart rate. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_5ce_2 72. If the interval between two consecutive QRS complexes on an ECG becomes smaller, this is indicative of tachycardia. a. True b. False 73. Valves of the heart are pressure operated, meaning they open and close based on differences in pressure in the chambers that they separate. a. True b. False 74. The first heart sound stems from the closing of the atrioventricular valves, and signifies the onset of ventricular diastole. a. True b. False 75. End-systolic volume is higher than end-diastolic volume. a. True b. False 76. If the sinoatrial node becomes nonfunctional and stops firing, the heart will stop beating. a. True b. False 77. When the papillary muscles contract, they pull down on the closed cusps of the atrioventricular valves and ensure they remain closed. a. True b. False 78. Parasympathetic stimulation decreases cardiac output. a. True b. False 79. Complete blockage of a coronary blood vessel may not result in damage to the cardiac muscle it supplies if collateral circulation has developed before the blockage occurred. a. True b. False 80. Blockage of the right coronary artery is most damaging to the heart because it supplies the majority of the cardiac muscle with blood. a. True b. False 81. For blood to be ejected from the heart, ventricular pressure must be higher than aortic pressure. a. True b. False

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Chap 09_5ce_2 82. Parasympathetic stimulation of the AV node increases the speed of transmission of the impulse through the AV node. a. True b. False 83. The pulmonary circulation carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the body tissues. a. True b. False 84. The QRS complex is much larger than the P wave on an ECG recording because atrial depolarization produces more electrical activity than ventricular depolarization. a. True b. False 85. Because heart valves are pressure operated, they can open in both directions depending on whether the chamber in front of or behind the valve has the higher pressure. a. True b. False 86. Most of the Ca2+ required for cardiac muscle fibre contraction comes from the ECF. a. True b. False 87. Pericarditis, inflammation of the pericardial layers, is a painless condition that is caused by bacterial or viral infections. a. True b. False 88. The autonomic nervous system can influence cardiac output by affecting both heart rate and stroke volume. a. True b. False 89. A thrombus may occlude a blood vessel either by growing so large that it blocks the vessel, or by breaking off from the vessel wall and lodging in a smaller vessel. a. True b. False 90. The majority of cardiac muscle cells are specialized and can spontaneously generate action potentials without input from the nervous system. a. True b. False 91. “Dup,” the second heart sound, is created from closing of the semilunar valves. a. True b. False

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Chap 09_5ce_2 92. Cardiac output is a fixed volume and does not change based on internal or external factors. a. True b. False 93. Isovolumetric ventricular contraction is needed to open the aortic valve and for blood to be ejected from the heart. a. True b. False Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement. 94. The difference between cardiac output at rest and during exercise is known as the ____________________. 95. Smooth muscle cells can migrate and reside underneath the endothelial lining of the blood vessel, where they may develop benign tumours known as ____________________. 96. ____________________ cells of the cardiac muscle cannot generate spontaneous action potentials and carry out the mechanical work of the heart. 97. The ____________________ ensures that atrial excitation and contraction are complete before ventricular excitation and contraction commence. 98. Compare the magnitude of the items in question by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all): a. A is greater than B b. B is greater than A c. A and B are equal A. resistance and pressure in the pulmonary circulation B. resistance and pressure in the systemic circulation A. volume of blood pumped out by the left side of the heart B. volume of blood pumped out by the right side of the heart A. spontaneous rate of depolarization in the SA node B. spontaneous rate of depolarization in the ventricles A. velocity of impulse through the bundle of His and Purkinje system B. velocity of impulse conduction through the AV node A. rate of depolarization of the SA node on parasympathetic stimulation B. rate of depolarization of the SA node on sympathetic stimulation A. duration of systole at resting heart rate B. duration of systole at rapid heart rate during exercise A. duration of diastole at resting heart rate B. duration of diastole at rapid heart rate during exercise Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_5ce_2 A. rate of ventricular filling in early diastole B. rate of ventricular filling in late diastole A. stroke volume when end-diastolic volume equals 130 mL B. stroke volume when end-diastolic volume equals 160 mL A. normal stroke volume B. stroke volume on sympathetic stimulation A. volume of blood in the ventricles at the onset of isovolumetric ventricular contraction B. volume of blood in the ventricles at the end of isovolumetric ventricular contraction A. volume of blood in the left ventricle when the aortic valve opens B. volume of blood in the left ventricle when the aortic valve closes A. volume of blood in the left ventricle when the left AV valve opens B. volume of blood in the left ventricle when the left AV valve closes A. duration of the refractory period in cardiac muscle B. duration of contraction in cardiac muscle A. duration of the refractory period in cardiac muscle B. duration of the refractory period in skeletal muscle A. coronary blood flow during systole B. coronary blood flow during diastole 99. Compared to cardiac muscle tissue, skeletal muscle tissue has a ____________________ duration for its refractory period. 100. A lack of blood flow to the cardiac muscle that deprives the heart of oxygen is referred to as ____________________. 101. Another name for the left atrioventricular valve is the ____________________. 102. The heart alternates between periods of ____________________ (contraction) and ____________________ (relaxation). 103. The bottom of the heart that forms a tapered tip is known as the ____________________. 104. The ____________________ anchors the heart to connective tissue of the lungs and positions the heart within the chest cavity. 105. The second heart sound, “dup,” is created from closing of the ____________________ valves. 106. Cardiac output is the volume of blood ejected from each ____________________ per minute. 107. If a patient experiences a heart attack and their SA node becomes damaged, a(n) ____________________ may be implanted to produce rhythmic impulses that return the heart rate to normal. 108. Macrophages that have internalized oxidized LDL are referred to as ____________________. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_5ce_2 109. The cap that covers an atherosclerotic plaque is composed of ____________________. 110. An increase in cardiac sympathetic activity ____________________ the permeability of the SA node to K+ ions. 111. The left and right branches of the ____________________ carry electrical activity from the AV node down through the interventricular septum. 112. A swishy murmur heard between the second and first heart sounds is indicative of a(n) ____________________ ____________________ valve. 113. Desmosomes and gap junctions are found within ____________________, the structures that join adjacent cardiac muscle fibres. 114. An increase in cardiac sympathetic activity ____________________ the contractility of the ventricles. 115. The first heart sound is associated with the onset of ____________________. 116. An increase in the length of the cardiac muscle fibres prior to contraction ____________________ the stroke volume. 117. An increase in cardiac sympathetic activity ____________________ the rate of depolarization of the SA node. 118. The ____________________ contract to pull the chordae tendineae down and exert tension on the cusps of the atrioventricular valves when they are closed. 119. A heart murmur that produces a whistling sound indicates that one of the valves of the heart is ____________________. 120. Indicate the proper order of the events during the cardiac cycle by placing numbers in the blanks preceding the events in sequence. The first and last events are already indicated as a guide. __1__ AV valve open; aortic valve closed; ventricular filling occurring _____ blood ejected from the ventricle _____ isovolumetric ventricular relaxation _____ atrial contraction _____ aortic valve opens _____ SA node discharges _____ ventricular filling complete _____ ventricular relaxation begins _____ aortic valve closes _____ isovolumetric ventricular contraction _____ ventricular contraction begins; AV valve closes _12__ AV valve opens; ventricular filling occurs again; one cardiac cycle is complete 121. ECG waveforms that are erratic and irregular, and display no predictable or recognizable pattern, are indicative of ____________________. 122. The maximum volume of blood the ventricles will contain during the entire cardiac cycle is the ____________________.

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Chap 09_5ce_2 123. ____________________ are voltage-gated channels for calcium that contribute to slow depolarization to threshold in cardiac autorhythmic cells. 124. During ____________________, pressure steadily increases in the ventricles but no blood enters or leaves. 125. The dicrotic notch is a disturbance on a pressure curve that appears when the ____________________ closes. 126. A ____________________ is the earliest form of an atherosclerotic plaque. 127. The cap that covers an atherosclerotic plaque is composed of ____________________. 128. An insufficient or incompetent heart valve leads to ____________________, or a flow of blood in the opposite direction to where it should be flowing. 129. An increase in parasympathetic activity ____________________ the rate of depolarization of the SA node. 130. The phenomenon whereby Ca2+ influx into the cardiac contractile cell promotes the release of Ca2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum is known as ____________________. 131. If blood is flowing backward from the left ventricle to the left atrium, the ____________________ valve is not closing properly. 132. Stimulation of the AV node by the sympathetic nervous system will ____________________ AV nodal delay. 133. The ____________________ is the volume of blood in the ventricle when ejection is complete. 134. The degree of ventricular filling is also known as the ____________________ because it represents the workload that is imposed on the cardiac muscle fibres before they start to contract. 135. The immune cells that are recruited to the site of vessel injury via chemicals secreted by endothelial cells are ____________________. 136. What is the proper sequence of blood flow through the circulatory system? 1. right atrium 2. left atrium 3. right ventricle 4. left ventricle 5. pulmonary artery 6. pulmonary vein 7. lungs 8. systemic tissues 9. aorta 10. venae cavae 137. Subtracting end-systolic volume from end-diastolic volume provides the value for ____________________. 138. ____________________ is released from the endothelial lining of blood vessels and may trigger vascular spasms by stimulating the smooth muscle of the blood vessel wall. 139. An increase in venous return ____________________ the stroke volume. 140. The ____________________ is considered the pacemaker of the heart because it has the fastest rate of spontaneous depolarization to threshold of all cardiac autorhythmic tissues. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_5ce_2 141. The heart wall has three layers: the inner layer of endothelial cells, called the ____________________, the middle layer composed of cardiac muscle, known as the ____________________, and the thin outer layer called the ____________________. 142. The ____________________ prevent the atrioventricular valves from opening in the wrong direction because they attach to the leaflets of these valves and stabilize them. 143. To calculate cardiac output, one must know the ____________________ and the ____________________. 144. Heart valves will open when the ____________________ behind the valve becomes higher than it is in front of the valve. 145. The QRS complex of the ECG corresponds with ____________________. 146. ____________________ is the volume of blood ejected from the heart with each contraction. 147. Higher end-diastolic volume increases stroke volume. This is an example of ____________________ control of cardiac output. 148. The____________________ phase of the action potential in cardiac contractile cells is characterized by inward movement of Ca2+ and outward movement of K+. 149. During exercise, the cardiac output ____________________. 150. Blood vessels that have developed in response to a reduction in coronary blood flow over time that can provide an alternate path for blood to travel if a vessel becomes blocked is known as ____________________. 151. A(n) ____________________ is a clot attached to the wall of a vessel. 152. ____________________ occurs when the electrical conductive tissue between the atria and the ventricles becomes entirely disconnected, causing the atria and the ventricles to contract independently of one another. 153. An increase in the end-diastolic volume ____________________ the stroke volume. Match the anatomical structures, labelled a. through e., with the heart characteristics. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. tricuspid valve b. myocardium c. aortic semilunar valve d. AV node e. sinoatrial node 154. contains Purkinje fibres 155. Its cells have slow Ca2+ channels. 156. The ventricles’ left is much thicker. 157. During systole, it is forced closed by papillary muscle action. 158. Its closing partially creates the heart sound “lub.” 159. Contraction of this generates blood pressure. 160. electrically connects the atria to the ventricles Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_5ce_2 Match the terms, labelled a. through g., with their correct characteristic. a. gap junction b. HDL c. functional syncytium d. heart valve e. pericardial sac f. LDL g. adenosine 161. encircles the heart and secretes a lubricating fluid 162. carries cholesterol to cells 163. prevents backflow of blood 164. area of low electrical resistance that allows an action potential to spread from one cardiac cell to surrounding cells 165. muscle mass that becomes excited and contracts as a unit 166. induces coronary vasodilation 167. carries cholesterol away from cells Match the valve abnormalities, labelled a. and b., with the descriptions. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. valvular stenosis b. valvular insufficiency 168. produces a “gurgling” murmur 169. produces a “whistling” murmur 170. Valve does not close completely. 171. Valve does not open completely.

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Chap 09_5ce_2 Match the pressure relationships, labelled a. through e., with the times in question. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. aortic pressure > ventricular pressure > atrial pressure b. ventricular pressure > aortic pressure > atrial pressure c. aortic pressure > atrial pressure > ventricular pressure d. ventricular pressure > atrial pressure > aortic pressure e. atrial pressure > ventricular pressure > aortic pressure 172. during ventricular diastole 173. when the atrioventricular valve closes 174. during isovolumetric ventricular contraction 175. when the aortic valve opens 176. when ventricular ejection is occurring 177. when the aortic valve closes 178. during isovolumetric ventricular relaxation 179. when the atrioventricular valve opens 180. during ventricular diastole 181. when the atrioventricular valve closes 182. during isovolumetric ventricular contraction 183. when the aortic valve opens 184. when ventricular ejection is occurring 185. when the aortic valve closes 186. during isovolumetric ventricular relaxation 187. when the atrioventricular valve opens Match the EKG features, labelled a. through f., with their correct characteristic. a. P wave b. QRS complex c. T wave d. PR interval e. TP interval f. ST segment 188. ventricular depolarization 189. time during which ventricles are contracting and emptying 190. atrial depolarization 191. time during which atria are repolarizing 192. time during which impulse is travelling through the AV node 193. time during which ventricles are filling 194. ventricular repolarization

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Chap 09_5ce_2 Match the terms, labelled a. through f., with the descriptions. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. stroke volume b. end-diastolic volume c. cardiac output d. heart rate e. end-systolic volume f. sympathetic activity 195. The volume of blood ejected by each ventricle each minute is known as the _____. 196. The two main determinants of cardiac output are stroke volume and _____. 197. The volume of blood ejected by each ventricle each beat is known as the _____. 198. The stroke volume may be calculated by end-diastolic volume minus _____. 199. The maximum volume of blood that the ventricle contains after filling is complete is the _____. 200. The minimum volume of blood that the ventricle contains after emptying is complete is the _____. 201. Stroke volume can be increased by increasing end-diastolic volume and _____. 202. The number of times the heart contracts each minute is the_____. 203. Heart rate can be increased by increasing _____. Match the ions, labelled a. through c., with the events being described. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. K+ b. Na+ c. Ca2+ 204. Inactivation of _____ channels brings about the slow drift of membrane potential to threshold in the cardiac autorhythmic cells. 205. Explosive increase in membrane permeability to _____ brings about the rapidly rising phase of the action potential in contractile cardiac cells. 206. Slow inward diffusion of _____ is largely responsible for the plateau portion of the cardiac action potential. 207. The rapid falling phase of the cardiac action potential is brought about primarily by the outward diffusion of _____. 208. Changes in cytosolic _____ concentration bring about changes in the strength of cardiac contraction. 209. Parasympathetic stimulation increases the permeability of the SA node to _____, whereas sympathetic stimulation decreases the permeability to this same ion.

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Chap 09_5ce_2 Match the cardiovascular features, labelled a. through d., with their correct characteristic. a. angina pectoris b. embolus c. atherosclerosis d. thrombus 210. consists of abnormal smooth muscle cells, cholesterol deposits, scar tissue, and possible calcium deposits plaque 211. referred cardiac pain 212. freely floating clot 213. abnormal clot attached to a vessel wall Match the factor involved in the initiation and spread of cardiac excitation, labelled a. through d. with the description. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. SA node b. AV node c. bundle of His and Purkinje system d. gap junction 214. has the fastest rate of pacemaker activity 215. allows the impulse to spread from cell to cell 216. delays conduction of the impulse 217. the only point of electrical contact between the atria and ventricles 218. the normal pacemaker of the heart 219. rapidly conducts the impulse down the ventricular septum and throughout much of the ventricular musculature Match the effects with sympathetic or parasympathetic stimulation (or neither) of the heart. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. effect caused by sympathetic stimulation b. effect caused by parasympathetic stimulation c. not brought about by either sympathetic or parasympathetic stimulation 220. increases the heart rate 221. decreases the contractility of the atrial muscle 222. increases the AV nodal delay 223. decreases the rate of depolarization to threshold of the SA node 224. increases the contractility of the atrial and ventricular muscle 225. decreases the contractility of the ventricular muscle

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Chap 09_5ce_2 226. Outline the mechanical events of the cardiac cycle, including key changes in pressure, opening and closing of valves, and blood flow.

227. Compare and contrast intrinsic and extrinsic controls of cardiac activity.

228. Describe the primary factors that influence cardiac output.

229. Explain the Frank–Starling law of the heart, describe how certain conditions can shift this curve to the left or right, and how these shifts impact cardiac output.

230. Compare and contrast action potentials in cardiac autorhythmic cells and cardiac contractile cells, indicating the ion channels and ion movement responsible for initial depolarization and rising and falling phases of each.

231. Describe the cardiac conduction pathway, including the key autorhythmic tissues involved and the direction of spread of electrical activity.

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Chap 09_5ce_2 Answer Key 1. False 2. True 3. False 4. False 5. True 6. True 7. True 8. True 9. True 10. False 11. True 12. True 13. True 14. True 15. False 16. True 17. False 18. False 19. True 20. True 21. True 22. True 23. False 24. False 25. False 26. True

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Chap 09_5ce_2 27. False 28. True 29. True 30. True 31. False 32. True 33. True 34. True 35. False 36. True 37. False 38. False 39. False 40. True 41. False 42. True 43. True 44. True 45. False 46. True 47. True 48. True 49. True 50. False 51. False 52. True 53. False 54. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_5ce_2 55. False 56. True 57. False 58. True 59. True 60. True 61. False 62. False 63. True 64. False 65. False 66. True 67. False 68. False 69. True 70. False 71. True 72. True 73. True 74. False 75. False 76. False 77. False 78. True 79. True 80. False 81. True 82. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_5ce_2 83. False 84. False 85. False 86. False 87. False 88. True 89. True 90. False 91. True 92. False 93. True 94. cardiac reserve 95. atheromas 96. Contractile 97. AV nodal delay 98. b, c, a, a, b, c, a, a, b, b, c, a, b, c, a, b 99. shorter 100. ischemia 101. bicuspid valve, mitral valve 102. systole; diastole 103. apex 104. pericardial sac 105. semilunar 106. ventricle 107. artificial pacemaker 108. foam cells 109. connective tissue 110. decreases 111. bundle of His Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_5ce_2 112. stenotic (insufficient); AV (semilunar) 113. intercalated discs 114. increases 115. ventricular systole 116. increases 117. increases 118. papillary muscles 119. stenotic 120. 1, 9, 3, 5, 8, 4, 6, 2, 10, 7, 11, 12 121. ventricular fibrillation 122. end-diastolic volume 123. T-type Ca2+ channels 124. isovolumetric ventricular contraction 125. aortic valve 126. fatty streak 127. collagen 128. regurgitation 129. decreases 130. Ca2+-induced Ca2+ release 131. left atrioventricular valve (or mitral valve or bicuspid valve) 132. reduce (decrease) 133. end-systolic volume 134. preload 135. monocytes 136. 10, 1, 3, 5, 7, 6, 2, 4, 9, 8 137. stroke volume 138. Platelet-activating factor 139. increases 140. sinoatrial node Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_5ce_2 141. endocardium; myocardium; epicardium 142. chordae tendineae 143. stroke volume; heart rate (in either order) 144. pressure 145. ventricular depolarization 146. Stroke volume 147. intrinsic 148. plateau 149. increases 150. collateral circulation 151. thrombus 152. Complete heart block 153. increases 154. b 155. b 156. b 157. a 158. a 159. b 160. d 161. e 162. f 163. d 164. a 165. c 166. g 167. b 168. b

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Chap 09_5ce_2 169. a 170. b 171. a 172. c 173. a 174. a 175. b 176. b 177. a 178. a 179. c 180. c 181. a 182. a 183. b 184. b 185. a 186. a 187. c 188. b 189. f 190. a 191. b 192. d 193. e 194. c 195. c 196. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_5ce_2 197. a 198. e 199. b 200. e 201. f 202. d 203. f 204. a 205. b 206. c 207. a 208. c 209. a 210. c 211. a 212. b 213. d 214. a 215. d 216. b 217. b 218. a 219. c 220. a 221. b 222. b 223. b 224. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_5ce_2 225. c 226. Answers will vary. 227. Answers will vary. 228. Answers will vary. 229. Answers will vary. 230. Answers will vary. 231. Answers will vary.

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Chap 10_5ce Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Which of the following is a potential consequence if the elastic recoil of the arteries were to be lost? a. The smooth muscle layer would become larger to compensate. b. Blood flow to organs during diastole would be disrupted. c. The artery walls would become weakened by the continual force of blood ejected from the heart. d. Viscosity of the blood would increase. 2. What does it mean when veins are referred to as capacitance vessels? a. They can stretch and hold onto blood for a longer period of time when the need for blood in tissues is low. b. They have the ability to return blood to the heart at a fast rate. c. They can relax in response to activity of the sympathetic nervous system. d. They facilitate the transfer of nutrients between the blood and tissues. 3. If blood pressure remains constant when a larger-than-normal volume of blood is ejected into an artery, what accounts for this stable blood pressure? a. arterial recoil b. arterial compliance c. arterial responsiveness d. arterial relaxation 4. These conditions might cause hypertension, EXCEPT which one? a. renal disease b. suppression of baroreceptors c. hardening of the arteries d. salt retention 5. Blood viscosity is mainly determined by what factor? a. vessel diameter b. vessel length c. plasma volume d. number of red blood cells 6. Which vessel transfers the majority of materials, such as nutrients, from the blood to the tissues? a. capillary b. arteriole c. venule d. vein 7. Why is the numerical value for mean arterial pressure NOT the average between systolic and diastolic pressures? a. because the heart spends more time in diastole than in systole b. because arterial compliance absorbs some of the systolic pressure and reduces it slightly c. because systolic and diastolic measurements are estimates of their true values d. because mean arterial pressure is not determined by diastolic pressure 8. What is the name for the condition when venous valves can no longer close and blood begins to pool in the veins, causing them to bulge? a. varicose veins b. incompetent veins c. vein dilation d. vein distension

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Chap 10_5ce 9. Which of these statements defines blood pressure? a. the outward force exerted by the smooth muscle layer on the connective tissue surrounding it b. the inward force that red blood cells exert on the fluid component of blood c. the inward force that a blood vessel wall exerts on the blood it contains d. the outward force that blood exerts on a blood vessel wall 10. The ease with which an artery wall expands in response to an increased volume of blood is known as what? a. compliance b. elasticity c. recoil d. responsiveness 11. Which vasodilatory chemical is released from endothelial cells in response to local chemical factors? a. endothelin b. adenosine c. nitric oxide d. histamine 12. Why are arterioles considered the resistance vessels of the vascular system? a. because they are innervated by the sympathetic nervous system b. because they are the vessels that feed into the capillaries c. because their walls lack elastic layers d. because of their relatively small radius 13. How does respiratory activity facilitate venous return? a. The diaphragm squeezes the veins and pumps blood forward. b. It creates a pressure gradient that speeds up the flow of blood. c. It helps vasodilate the veins, decreasing resistance. d. It triggers activity of the sympathetic nervous system and promotes venous vasoconstriction. 14. Which of the following allows veins to act as capacitance vessels? a. high myogenic tone of the smooth muscle layer within a vein b. thick walls of veins c. a thick smooth muscle layer within a vein d. low degree of elasticity of venular connective tissue 15. Which of these statements applies to veins? a. Due to their size, they are a high-resistance passageway for returning blood to the heart. b. As blood flows through them, the rate of flow increases as the blood gets closer to the heart. c. They hold on to extra blood that is diverted away from capillary beds during rest until the need for blood increases. d. Exercise increases venous capacity. 16. Which of the following will cause a decrease in blood pressure? a. increased levels of aldosterone b. increased levels of angiotensin II c. decreased blood volume d. sympathetic stimulation

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Chap 10_5ce 17. What is the primary reason that oedema may occur with serious burns? a. increased venous pressure due to interference with circulation through scarring in the burned area b. loss of protein in the urine c. blockage of lymphatic drainage from the burned area d. lowering of plasma–colloid osmotic pressure due to the loss of protein-rich fluid from the surface of the burn 18. Vessel A has a pressure of 180 at the beginning of the vessel and 150 at the end. Vessel B has a pressure of 80 at the beginning and 30 at the end of the vessel. If all other variables affecting flow rate are the same, which of these statements refers to flow rate? a. It will be the same in both vessels. b. It will be higher in vessel A. c. It will be higher in vessel B. d. It cannot be compared given this information. 19. Which principal force causes movement of fluid from tissues into capillaries? a. hydrostatic pressure of venous capillaries b. hydrostatic pressure of arterial blood c. osmotic pressure created by plasma proteins d. pressure of the lymph 20. Which of the following are the major resistance vessels of the vascular system? a. veins b. arteries c. arterioles d. capillaries 21. A decrease in which two pressures would reduce ultrafiltration in the capillaries the most? a. capillary blood pressure and interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure b. capillary blood pressure and interstitial fluid–colloid osmotic pressure c. interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure and interstitial fluid–colloid osmotic pressure d. interstitial fluid–colloid osmotic pressure and plasma–colloid osmotic pressure 22. Which of these factors would decrease total peripheral resistance? a. adrenal medulla hormones b. angiotensin II c. increased haematocrit d. anaphylactic shock 23. What are you measuring if you subtract the pressure at the end of a vessel from the pressure at the start of a vessel? a. the pressure differential b. the pressure index c. the pressure gradient d. the pressure function 24. Which of these terms is the pressure measured in the arteries just before the next ventricular ejection of blood? a. systolic pressure b. diastolic pressure c. pulse pressure d. mean pressure

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Chap 10_5ce 25. What role does a pressure gradient within a vessel play in terms of cardiovascular function? a. It determines the thickness of blood and therefore the flow rate. b. It stimulates contraction of vascular smooth muscle. c. It enhances cardiac output. d. It determines the direction of blood flow. 26. What would happen if the pressure gradient that exists between the beginning and the end of the arterioles did NOT exist? a. Blood flow from the heart to the capillaries would slow. b. Capillary beds would close. c. Venules would constrict. d. Arteriolar radius would decrease. 27. Which of these statements describes velocity of blood flow in capillaries? a. It is greater than that for arterioles. b. It is greater than that for veins. c. It is slow enough to favour adequate exchange. d. It is less than that for arterioles. 28. Which of the following applies to extrinsic control of arteriolar radius? a. The autonomic nervous system is the only extrinsic controller of arteriolar radius. b. Reactive hyperaemia is an example of an extrinsic controller of arteriolar radius. c. In certain tissues such as skeletal muscle, local factors override the vasoconstrictory effect of the sympathetic nervous system on arteriolar smooth muscle. d. The parasympathetic nervous system innervates arterioles in all areas of the body and promotes vasodilation during times of rest. 29. What is the function of a precapillary sphincter? a. to regulate the size of capillary pores b. to regulate the size of the capillary radius c. to regulate diffusion across the capillary wall d. to regulate blood flow from metarterioles into capillaries 30. Which potent vasoconstrictor chemical is released from endothelial cells in response to local chemical factors? a. histamine b. adenosine c. nitric oxide d. endothelin 31. If all other factors remained constant, what would happen to flow rate if the number of red blood cells in the blood decreased? a. It would remain the same. b. It would decrease. c. It would increase. d. There is not enough information to predict what would happen.

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Chap 10_5ce 32. What is the location of the receptors that detect changes in blood pressure? a. spinal cord b. carotid sinus c. hypothalamus d. medulla 33. If plasma–colloid osmotic pressure decreases, what will happen to reabsorption of filtrate across the capillary wall? a. It will increase. b. It will decrease. c. It will remain the same. d. Plasma–colloid pressure does not contribute to reabsorption. 34. Which of these vessels can act as blood reservoirs by adjusting their total capacity to accommodate variations in blood volume? a. arteries b. arterioles c. capillaries d. veins 35. What is the purpose of bulk flow? a. to allow for complete exchange of materials between capillary blood and tissues b. to promote the flow of lymph c. to maintain fluid balance d. to regulate blood flow 36. Which of the following occurs to compensate for a fall in blood pressure below normal? a. decrease in cardiac output b. increase in total peripheral resistance c. decrease in heart rate d. venous vasodilation 37. If the pulse pressure is 44 mmHg and the diastolic pressure is 68 mmHg, what is the systolic pressure? a. 22 mmHg b. 24 mmHg c. 66 mmHg d. 112 mmHg 38. Given the following forces acting at a given point across the capillary wall, what type of fluid movement will be taking place at that point? capillary blood pressure = 32 mmHg plasma–colloid osmotic pressure = 23 mmHg interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure = 1 mmHg interstitial fluid–colloid osmotic pressure = 0 mmHg a. Ultrafiltration will occur with a net outward pressure of 8 mmHg. b. Ultrafiltration will occur with a net outward pressure of 10 mmHg. c. Ultrafiltration will occur with a net outward pressure of 56 mmHg. d. Reabsorption will occur with a net inward pressure of 24 mmHg.

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Chap 10_5ce 39. Which of these factors is the most important in matching the blood flow through a specific tissue with the metabolic needs of that tissue? a. Sympathetically induced vasoconstriction of the arteries supplying a tissue forces more blood to flow into that tissue. b. Local changes within a tissue resulting from increased metabolic activity can produce local arteriolar vasodilation to allow more blood to flow into that tissue. c. Parasympathetically induced vasodilation of the capillaries within a tissue allows more blood to flow into that tissue. d. Widespread venous vasoconstriction allows blood to dam up at the tissue level. 40. Which organ receives the most blood flow while at rest? a. heart b. kidney c. brain d. muscle 41. What is the relationship between pressure, flow, and resistance? a. flow = pressure gradient / radius4

b. flow / pressure gradient = resistance

c. flow = pressure gradient / resistance

d. pressure gradient = flow / radius4

42. What is the primary method by which materials are exchanged between capillaries and tissues? a. osmosis b. passive diffusion c. facilitative diffusion d. active transport 43. Which statement describes mean arterial pressure? a. diastolic pressure + (systolic pressure/3) b. diastolic pressure + (pulse pressure/3) c. systolic pressure + (pulse pressure/3) d. pulse pressure – (diastolic pressure/3) 44. Why do arteries have a high amount of collagen within their walls? a. to impart strength against the force of blood being ejected from the heart b. to allow the artery wall to release collagen upon injury, which signals to the immune system c. to provide the stretch necessary to accommodate large volumes of blood d. to provide rigidity to the vessel that is needed to maintain blood pressure 45. What does the myogenic response refer to? a. vascular smooth muscle’s tendency to constrict when blood flow increases b. vascular smooth muscle’s tendency to constrict when stretched c. vascular smooth muscle’s tendency to relax when blood flow increases d. vascular smooth muscle’s tendency to dilate when stretched 46. Which of these vessels contain the highest percentage of total blood volume? a. pulmonary veins b. pulmonary arteries c. systemic veins d. systemic arteries

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Chap 10_5ce 47. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of arteries? a. They have thick walls. b. Their walls contain an abundance of both collagen and elastin fibres. c. They will recoil in response to stretch. d. They determine the overall resistance to blood flow in the vascular system. 48. Which compound would be transported across the capillary wall using a method other than passive diffusion? a. O2 b. glucose c. protein hormones

d. NaCl

49. Which of the following statements does NOT accurately describe blood pressure measurements? a. After the brachial artery has been occluded and the sphygmomanometer cuff is deflating, the pressure where the last sound is heard is the diastolic pressure. b. To start measuring blood pressure, the sphygmomanometer cuff must be inflated to a pressure that is higher than diastolic pressure. c. After inflating the sphygmomanometer cuff and occluding the brachial artery, the pressure where the first sound can be heard as the cuff is gradually deflated is the systolic pressure. d. The sounds that are produced and used to determine systolic and diastolic pressures are created by turbulent blood flow through a partially occluded brachial artery. 50. Which of these terms refers to a chronic state of increased arterial pressure? a. hypertension b. congestive heart failure c. pulmonary oedema d. shock 51. The highest pressure that will exist in an artery is known as what? a. mean arterial pressure b. pulse pressure c. diastolic blood pressure d. systolic blood pressure 52. Which of these factors does NOT influence mean arterial pressure? a. activity of the sympathetic nervous system b. activity of the parasympathetic nervous system c. venous valves d. local metabolic changes in tissues 53. Reactive hyperaemia occurs in response to what? a. stimulation from the sympathetic nervous system b. release of nitric oxide from endothelial cells c. occlusion of the blood supply to a tissue d. release of endothelin from endothelial cells

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Chap 10_5ce 54. Which of these statements describes arteries? a. They serve as rapid-transit passageways from the tissues to the heart because of their large radii. b. They act as a pressure reservoir to provide the driving force for blood when the heart is relaxing. c. They act as a blood reservoir because they have the capacity to store large volumes of blood with little change in their internal pressure. d. They are the site of exchange between the blood and the surrounding tissues. 55. At the venular end of the capillary, reabsorption should be favoured because which of these pressures has decreased? a. capillary blood pressure b. plasma–colloid osmotic pressure c. interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure d. interstitial fluid–colloid osmotic pressure 56. Autoregulation of blood flow is a mechanism designed to ensure tissues receive steady blood flow despite changes in what variable? a. mean arterial pressure b. pulse pressure c. systolic pressure d. vessel occlusion 57. Under which of these conditions will reabsorption occur? a. when outward-driving pressures exceed inward-driving pressures across the capillary wall b. when inward-driving pressures exceed outward-driving pressures across the capillary c. when the osmolarity of plasma is decreased in the venule end of the capillary d. when the outward-driving pressures and the inward-driving pressures across the capillary wall are equal 58. What causes varicose veins? a. lack of sympathetic innervation to promote vasoconstriction of veins b. overdistensibility of the vein walls c. breakdown of the venous valve tissue d. increased blood viscosity 59. What does binding of epinephrine to â receptors cause in smooth muscle? a. constriction in all arteries b. relaxation in skeletal muscle arteries c. constriction in skeletal muscle arteries d. relaxation in coronary arteries 60. Which of these conditions can cause oedema? a. increased capillary blood pressure and increased plasma–colloid osmotic pressure b. blockage of lymph vessels and decreased capillary blood pressure c. blockage of lymph vessels, increased capillary blood pressure, and decreased plasma–colloid osmotic pressure d. dilation of lymph vessels and decreased plasma–colloid osmotic pressure

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Chap 10_5ce 61. Which of the following applies to vasoconstriction? a. It happens when the smooth muscle layer of the arteriolar wall relaxes. b. It produces an increase in resistance within the vessel. c. It produces an increase in flow through the vessel. d. It can only be stimulated by activity of the SNS. 62. Which of the following is a compensation mechanism for blood loss? a. fluid shift from plasma to ICF b. venous vasodilation c. reduced angiotensin II production d. thirst 63. If arterial pressure is elevated, which of these responses will baroreceptor signals trigger? a. a fall in plasma angiotensin II levels b. increased activity in sympathetic nerves, causing peripheral vasoconstriction c. an increase in epinephrine secretion from the adrenal medulla d. increased total peripheral resistance 64. The structure and physical properties of which blood vessel ensure that organs and tissues receive adequate blood flow through all phases of the cardiac cycle? a. venules b. capillaries c. arterioles d. arteries 65. Why are the arteries considered rapid-transit passageways? a. Their distensibility allows the vessel to relax and allow for faster flow of blood. b. Their elasticity provides the driving force to rapidly propel blood through the vessel. c. Their radii are large, and produce little resistance to blood flow. d. They are the first vessels to receive blood from the heart, which ejects blood at a high speed. 66. What is the name for the minimum blood pressure that will exist within an artery? a. mean arterial pressure b. systolic blood pressure c. diastolic blood pressure d. pulse pressure 67. Active hyperaemia is best described by which of the following statements? a. increased blood flow to a tissue in response to chemicals that induce vasodilation b. increased blood flow to a tissue after it has been deprived of blood due to a blockage in the vessel c. release of vasodilatory chemicals from endothelial cells in response to reduced increased oxygen delivery d. increased blood flow to a tissue in response to sympathetic stimulation and vasodilation 68. Which statement applies to vascular resistance? a. It is a measure of the hindrance to blood flow through a vessel caused by friction between the moving fluid and stationary vascular walls. b. It is doubled when the radius of the vessel is wider than normal. c. It is inversely proportional to blood viscosity. d. It is increased when blood vessel length is shorter.

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Chap 10_5ce 69. What does a sudden increase in pressure within the carotid sinus lead to? a. increased sympathetic nerve activity and increased parasympathetic nerve activity b. increased sympathetic nerve activity and decreased parasympathetic nerve activity c. decreased sympathetic nerve activity and decreased parasympathetic nerve activity d. decreased sympathetic nerve activity and increased parasympathetic nerve activity 70. Baroreceptors are most sensitive to changes in which of these factors? a. the oxygen level in the blood b. the carbon dioxide level in the blood c. the degree of contraction of skeletal muscles d. blood pressure 71. Which of these events does NOT occur as a compensation for haemorrhage? a. shift of fluid from the interstitial fluid into the plasma b. reduced urinary output c. increased capillary permeability d. increased cardiac output 72. Which of the following happens when blood pressure becomes elevated to above normal? a. The carotid sinus and aortic arch baroreceptors decrease their rate of firing. b. Arteriolar vasoconstriction occurs as a compensatory response. c. The cardiovascular control centre decreases sympathetic and increases parasympathetic activity to the heart and blood vessels. d. It causes salt retention to occur in the kidneys. 73. Which of these pairs contains the two determinants of mean arterial pressure? a. stroke volume and compliance of vessel walls b. heart rate and stroke volume c. heart rate and end-diastolic volume d. cardiac output and total peripheral resistance 74. Which of the following represents postural (orthostatic) hypotension? a. an abnormal and transient drop in blood pressure on assumption of the upright position b. an abnormally low blood pressure in the supine position c. a permanent decrease in blood pressure in a long-bedridden patient d. a shock-like state that affects the elderly 75. All these factors facilitate the fast and efficient exchange of materials across the capillary wall EXCEPT which one? a. The slowest rate of blood flow of all the vascular system occurs in the capillaries. b. There is a large total surface area when all the capillaries in the body are taken into consideration. c. Capillaries are wide vessels and carry a large amount of blood. d. The walls of capillaries are thin. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_5ce 76. Which of the following is released by most sympathetic fibres at the arterioles? a. acetylcholine b. dopamine c. GABA d. norepinephrine 77. Which of these statements applies to veins? a. They serve as a blood reservoir. b. Their walls consist of thick layers of elastic tissues. c. Their walls are highly muscular. d. They transport blood away from the heart. 78. Which of the following factors is NOT associated with primary hypertension? a. high dietary salt intake b. family history of hypertension c. atherosclerosis in the renal artery d. obesity and stress, with excessive sympathetic nervous system activity 79. Which of these factors does NOT affect blood pressure positively? a. skeletal muscle activity b. aldosterone release c. renin release d. calcium reabsorption 80. Which of these terms regarding the effects of sympathetic stimulation on blood pressure are NOT paired correctly? a. vasoconstriction of arterioles and increased total peripheral resistance b. increased stroke volume and increased cardiac output c. decreased end-diastolic volume and increased cardiac output d. vasoconstriction of veins and increased venous return 81. When blood pressure falls below normal, the body tries to restore the blood pressure toward normal. The rate of firing in the afferent nerves originating from the carotid sinus and aortic arch baroreceptors ____________________. a. increases b. decreases c. does not change 82. Which of the following contributes to maintaining the vascular tone of arterioles? a. CO2 b. nitric oxide c. the parasympathetic nervous system

d. myogenic activity

83. Which two pressures act to move fluid into capillaries? a. interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure and capillary blood pressure b. plasma–colloid osmotic pressure and interstitial fluid–colloid osmotic pressure c. interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure and plasma–colloid osmotic pressure d. interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure and interstitial fluid–colloid osmotic pressure

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Chap 10_5ce 84. Which of the following is NOT a short-term adjustment for blood pressure? a. baroreceptor reflex b. change in cardiac output c. hormones d. renal activity 85. Which blood pressure is monitored and regulated to ensure sufficient blood is being delivered to tissues? a. systolic pressure b. diastolic pressure c. pulse pressure d. mean arterial pressure 86. What force continues to drive blood through the vasculature during ventricular diastole? a. ventricular contraction b. production of arterial vasoconstriction by sympathetic stimulation c. elastic recoil of the stretched arterial walls d. smooth muscle contraction 87. Which of the following is NOT a function of the lymphatic system? a. to defend against disease b. to return fluid to the circulatory system c. to transport fat molecules d. to regulate sodium balance 88. Which of these statements most accurately applies to vascular tone in arterioles? a. It makes it possible for arteriolar radius and blood flow to tissues to be increased when the need arises. b. It provides some of the force needed to propel blood through the vascular system. c. It is produced by sympathetic innervation of arteriolar smooth muscle. d. It is not affected by local metabolism. 89. Given the following parameters, what would the reabsorption pressure be? blood capillary pressure at arteriolar end of tissue capillaries = 35 mmHg blood capillary pressure at venule end of tissue capillaries = 15 mmHg plasma–colloid osmotic pressure = 22 mmHg interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure = 1 mmHg interstitial fluid–colloid osmotic pressure = 0 mmHg a. 6 mmHg b. 7 mmHg c. 8 mmHg d. 10 mmHg 90. What does mean arterial pressure represent? a. the pressure that can be felt in a surface artery b. the average force driving blood toward the tissues c. the average pressure in all the arteries in the body d. the pressure held within the artery wall as it stretches to accommodate a large volume of blood 91. Which of these factors is NOT involved in promoting venous return to the heart? a. Parasympathetic stimulation decreases venous pressure. b. The skeletal muscle pump squeezes blood through the veins. c. The respiratory pump provides a pressure gradient between the lower and chest veins. d. The venous valves prevent the backflow of blood. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_5ce 92. What are the two determinants of mean arterial pressure? a. cardiac output and total peripheral resistance b. cardiac output and venous return c. venous return and total peripheral resistance d. total peripheral resistance and blood viscosity 93. Of the factors that determine resistance to flow, which one is the most important? a. vessel length b. vessel radius c. vessel thickness d. viscosity of blood 94. The movements of fluid across the capillary wall depend on all of the following EXCEPT which one? a. concentration of glucose in the capillary b. interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure c. plasma protein concentration d. capillary blood pressure 95. If the arterial blood pressure is recorded as 132/84, what is the mean arterial pressure? a. 48 mmHg b. 93 mmHg c. 100 mmHg d. 108 mmHg 96. Under which of these circumstances does vascular resistance increase? a. when radius decreases b. when length decreases c. when viscosity decreases d. when diameter increases 97. Because the arteries have large radii, they serve as excellent rapid-transit passageways for blood. What is their second function—which is related to their elasticity—in maintaining blood flow during diastole? a. pressure reservoir b. venous reserve c. arterial capacitance d. cardiac reserve 98. Which of these factors does NOT contribute to enhancing venous return specifically during exercise? a. skeletal muscle pump b. venous valves c. the respiratory pump d. sympathetic venous vasoconstriction 99. Which of these statements does NOT apply to veins? a. They act as low-resistance passageways for blood flow from the tissues to the heart. b. They are the major resistance vessels of the vascular system. c. They contain one-way valves that prevent the backflow of blood. d. Their walls are thinner than those of arteries. 100. If there is an overall increase in arteriolar radius, how will mean arterial pressure be affected? a. It will increase. b. It will decrease. c. It will stay the same. d. It will initially increase and then decrease. 101. Which of the following is NOT an example of a reconditioning organ for the blood? a. heart b. kidney c. liver d. skin

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Chap 10_5ce 102. Which of these factors will NOT stimulate vasodilation? a. increased lactic acid b. decreased CO2 c. decreased O2

d. increased osmolarity

103. During activity of the skeletal muscle pump, what prevents the backward flow of blood through the veins? a. the respiratory pump b. sympathetic activity c. venous vasoconstriction d. venous valves

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Chap 10_5ce Answer Key 1. b 2. a 3. b 4. b 5. d 6. a 7. a 8. a 9. d 10. a 11. c 12. d 13. c 14. d 15. b 16. d 17. d 18. c 19. c 20. c 21. b 22. d 23. c 24. b 25. d 26. a

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Chap 10_5ce 27. c 28. c 29. d 30. d 31. c 32. b 33. a 34. d 35. c 36. b 37. d 38. a 39. b 40. b 41. c 42. b 43. b 44. a 45. b 46. c 47. d 48. c 49. b 50. a 51. d 52. c 53. c 54. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_5ce 55. a 56. a 57. b 58. b 59. b 60. c 61. b 62. d 63. a 64. d 65. c 66. c 67. a 68. a 69. d 70. d 71. c 72. c 73. d 74. a 75. c 76. d 77. a 78. c 79. d 80. c 81. b 82. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_5ce 83. c 84. d 85. d 86. c 87. d 88. a 89. c 90. b 91. a 92. a 93. b 94. a 95. c 96. a 97. a 98. b 99. b 100. b 101. a 102. b 103. d

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Chap 10_5ce_2 Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. To ensure tissues are receiving an adequate blood supply, the body monitors and adjusts pulse pressure. a. True b. False 2. Venous vasoconstriction increases blood flow through veins, and arteriolar vasoconstriction reduces blood flow through arterioles. a. True b. False 3. Veins are considered capacitance vessels because they have the ability to return blood to the heart at a fast rate. a. True b. False 4. The tunica media is the thick layer of the blood vessel wall that is made up of smooth muscle. a. True b. False 5. The pressure gradient between the beginning and the end of an arteriole is necessary for blood to flow from the heart to the capillaries. a. True b. False 6. As capillaries exit tissues they form venules to carry blood out of the tissue. a. True b. False 7. The colloidal osmotic pressure in the blood plasma draws fluid into the capillary. a. True b. False 8. Both the systemic and the pulmonary circulatory systems are open systems of vessels. a. True b. False 9. Organs that do not adjust the blood are more vulnerable to reductions in blood flow than are organs that perform homeostatic functions on the blood. a. True b. False 10. A major function of the arteries is to serve as a blood reservoir. a. True b. False

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Chap 10_5ce_2 11. Low myogenic tone of the smooth muscle is one factor that contributes to the distensibility of vein walls. a. True b. False 12. Arteriolar resistance is regulated by both local controls and extrinsic controls. a. True b. False 13. Within a vessel, the pressure gradient determines which direction blood will flow, and the magnitude of the pressure gradient determines how fast the blood will flow. a. True b. False 14. Normally, cardiac output and venous return should be the same. a. True b. False 15. The main purpose for the movement of filtrate in and out of a capillary during bulk flow is to maintain fluid balance in the ECF. a. True b. False 16. The size of the capillary pores, and therefore the permeability of the capillary wall, is variable between organs. a. True b. False 17. The greatest pressure drop in the vascular system occurs within the capillaries due to fluid leaving the capillaries by the process of ultrafiltration. a. True b. False 18. There is normally a net loss of fluid from a capillary at its arteriolar end. a. True b. False 19. Oedema refers to excess interstitial fluid. a. True b. False 20. Blood flow through veins speeds up as the blood gets closer to the heart because smaller veins converge into progressively larger veins. a. True b. False

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Chap 10_5ce_2 21. Differences in blood flow to an organ are related to the resistance to flow offered by the arterioles that supply that organ. a. True b. False 22. Extra blood that is diverted away from capillary beds during rest stays in the veins until the need for blood increases. a. True b. False 23. Local controls allow blood flow to be matched to tissue needs independent of activity of the sympathetic nervous system. a. True b. False 24. Hypertension decreases the workload on the heart because the increased pressure is high enough to pump blood through the vessels. a. True b. False 25. Since no blood leaves the heart when it is relaxed and filling, blood flow in the capillaries stops momentarily during diastole. a. True b. False 26. Cardiac contraction induces blood flow in the arterial system, but does not influence blood flow in the veins. a. True b. False 27. Every type of blood vessel contains an external elastic lamina layer. a. True b. False 28. Breathing enhances venous return because the diaphragm squeezes the veins that run through it, propelling the blood forward. a. True b. False 29. During ventricular systole, the volume of blood entering an artery is higher than the volume that leaves it. a. True b. False 30. An increase in mean arterial pressure increases the rate of firing of the baroreceptors in the carotid sinus and aortic arch. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_5ce_2 31. There is normally a net gain of fluid in the capillary at the venular end. a. True b. False 32. Gasses such as O2 and CO2 must be actively transported across the capillary wall because they are lipid soluble. a. True b. False 33. Flow rate is partially determined by the absolute pressure within a vessel. a. True b. False 34. Velocity of blood flow is the slowest in arterioles because they are the major resistance vessels. a. True b. False 35. At a constant blood pressure, doubling the radius of a blood vessel will double blood flow. a. True b. False 36. The circulatory system exists to support exchange of materials between the arterioles and tissues. a. True b. False 37. The skeletal muscle pump adds to the effect of gravity on the venous system. a. True b. False 38. The sphygmomanometer and stethoscope can be used for a direct measurement of arterial blood pressure. a. True b. False 39. The volume of blood flowing through a vessel per unit of time is inversely proportional to the pressure gradient and vessel resistance. a. True b. False 40. If systolic pressure is 134 mmHg and diastolic pressure is 88 mmHg, mean arterial pressure will be 111 mmHg. a. True b. False 41. The baroreceptors that monitor mean arterial pressure are located in the aortic arch and pulmonary artery. a. True b. False

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Chap 10_5ce_2 42. Renal hypertension is considered a form of secondary hypertension. a. True b. False 43. Blood pressure is dependent on the volume of blood passing through a vessel and the vessel’s elastic recoil. a. True b. False 44. All the fluid forced out of the capillaries is filtered through the lymphatics before being returned to the venous blood. a. True b. False 45. On average, systolic and diastolic pressures are 120 mmHg and 80 mmHg respectively. a. True b. False 46. Due to contraction of its smooth muscle layer, an artery ensures that blood flow stays constant while the heart is relaxed. a. True b. False 47. The baroreceptors are usually no longer functional in the presence of hypertension. a. True b. False 48. Anaphylactic vasogenic shock induces widespread vasodilation when large amounts of histamine are released in response to an allergen. a. True b. False 49. Secretion of aldosterone to increase blood volume is considered a short-term regulatory mechanism of blood pressure control because aldosterone is a rapid response. a. True b. False 50. All substances can diffuse across the capillary wall to move from the blood to the tissues. a. True b. False 51. The term compliance refers to the ability of the artery wall to stretch. a. True b. False

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Chap 10_5ce_2 52. Nitric oxide is an example of an extrinsic factor that influences arteriolar radius. a. True b. False 53. At a constant blood pressure, doubling the radius of a blood vessel will reduce the resistance to blood flow by half. a. True b. False 54. The most serious consequence of varicose veins is a reduction in cardiac output. a. True b. False 55. As venous capacitance increase, venous return decreases. a. True b. False 56. Mean arterial pressure decreases as blood flows through the arterioles into the capillaries. a. True b. False 57. A decrease in plasma–colloid osmotic pressure will decrease ultrafiltration and increase reabsorption at the capillary level. a. True b. False 58. Microcirculation includes the arterioles, capillaries, and venules in the systemic circulatory system only. a. True b. False 59. Reconditioning organs, like the skin, can withstand temporary reductions in blood flow because they receive a surplus of blood. a. True b. False 60. Plasma proteins are responsible for the plasma–colloid osmotic pressure. a. True b. False 61. Veins are high-resistance vessels because of their large size and thick smooth muscle layer. a. True b. False

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Chap 10_5ce_2 62. Irreversible shock occurs when the cardiovascular system itself starts to deteriorate as a consequence of side effects from compensatory measures to severe hypotension. a. True b. False 63. Venous capacitance is dependent on how much the vein walls can stretch and factors that apply inward pressure on the veins. a. True b. False 64. Activity of the sympathetic nervous system promotes vasodilation of veins. a. True b. False 65. The vessels with the greatest total cross-sectional area are the arteries. a. True b. False 66. Primary hypotension occurs when a person shifts from a horizontal to vertical position and compensatory mechanisms to maintain blood pressure fail. a. True b. False 67. Local control mechanisms can override sympathetic control of changes in the size of arterioles. a. True b. False 68. Histamine is a potent vasodilator that is released from endothelial cells in response to local metabolic changes in tissues. a. True b. False 69. Hyperaemia occurs in response to circulating epinephrine. a. True b. False 70. The regulation of blood flow in the arterioles of the brain is under the control of mainly the sympathetic nervous system. a. True b. False 71. Oedema, venous pooling, and a reduction in cardiac output are consequences of standing still for a long time. a. True b. False

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Chap 10_5ce_2 72. A metarteriole is located between an arteriole and a venule. a. True b. False 73. Arteries that have lowered compliance are not as elastic. a. True b. False 74. At the venular end of a capillary, outward pressures are lower than inward pressures. a. True b. False 75. Vasopressin is a hormone involved in regulating fluid balance, but also influences blood pressure because it is a vasoconstrictor. a. True b. False 76. Increased sympathetic stimulation causes generalized vasoconstriction. a. True b. False 77. In the body, vascular resistance is not influenced by vessel length because the length of blood vessels remains the same. a. True b. False 78. Primary hypertension refers to chronically elevated blood pressure of unknown origin. a. True b. False 79. If driving pressure is constant, flow will double when the radius increases by twofold. a. True b. False 80. Arterial blood pressure remains constant throughout all phases of the cardiac cycle. a. True b. False 81. Using F = P / R, as resistance increases, the flow increases if the pressure is constant. a. True b. False 82. Arterial walls contain a thick layer of smooth muscle and an abundance of collagen and elastin fibres. a. True b. False

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Chap 10_5ce_2 83. Chemical mediators produced by the cells immediately surrounding arteriolar smooth muscle can directly stimulate it to contract or relax, thus influencing arteriolar radius. a. True b. False 84. When baroreceptors sense a reduction in pulse pressure, their rate of firing to the cardiovascular control centre decreases. a. True b. False 85. Blood flow through the capillaries during diastole is dependent on the elastic properties of arteries. a. True b. False 86. Every type of blood vessel contains a tunica media layer. a. True b. False Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement. 87. ____________________ law incorporates all the factors that affect resistance to blood flow into a single equation. 88. ____________________ refers to the volume of blood that can be held in the veins. 89. ____________________ is a temporary drop in blood pressure that occurs when someone moves from a horizontal to a vertical position with inadequate compensatory responses. 90. Breathing activates the ____________________, which creates a pressure gradient that speeds up blood flow back to the heart. 91. Assume a person has a blood pressure recording of 125/77 mmHg. a. What is the systolic pressure? __________ mmHg b. What is the diastolic pressure? __________ mmHg c. What is the pulse pressure? __________ mmHg d. What is the mean arterial pressure? __________ mmHg e. Would any sound be heard when the pressure in an external cuff around the arm is 130 mmHg? __________ f. Would any sound be heard when cuff pressure is 118 mmHg? __________ g. Would any sound be heard when cuff pressure is 75 mmHg? __________ 92. It is considered hypertension if the systolic/diastolic pressure is above the value of ____________________. 93. The process of plasma being filtered out into the interstitial fluid and then reabsorbed back into the capillary is known as ____________________. 94. Increasing shear stress causes ____________________ of arterioles because it stimulates release of nitric oxide from endothelial cells. 95. The major inward force that favours reabsorption of plasma is ____________________. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_5ce_2 96. Lymph flows through ____________________, which allows any bacteria carried from the gastrointestinal tract to be recognized and destroyed by immune cells. 97. The ____________________ of blood is determined mainly by the number of red blood cells in circulation. 98. Accumulation of excess interstitial fluid is known as ____________________. 99. The distensibility of artery walls can be attributed to a high content of ____________________ fibres. 100. The major outward force that favours filtration of plasma is ____________________. 101. Arteriolar smooth muscle normally displays a state of partial constriction known as ____________________. 102. If blood flow to a tissue is temporarily blocked, arterioles will vasodilate to increase blood flow to the affected area after the blockage has been removed in a process called ____________________. 103. Subtracting diastolic pressure from systolic pressure gives the value for ____________________. 104. When a person develops hypertension as a consequence of another known disease or cause, they are diagnosed with ____________________ hypertension. 105. Baroreceptors are found mainly in the carotid sinus and the ____________________. 106. Venous capacity depends on the ____________________ of the vein walls. 107. When a person develops hypertension and there is no obvious reason why they have developed it, they are diagnosed with ____________________ hypertension. 108. The hormone ____________________ binds to â2 receptors on arteriolar smooth muscle and promotes vasodilation in cardiac and skeletal muscle. 109. When metabolically active tissues produce chemicals that induce vasodilation and increased blood flow to that tissue, this response is called ____________________. 110. Blood pressure measurements that use a sphygmomanometer placed around the upper arm are measuring the pressure in the ____________________ artery. 111. Mean arterial pressure = ____________________ × ____________________. 112. Contractions of the muscle in the leg activate the ____________________, which works to oppose the effect of gravity on venous return. 113. When interstitial fluid enters a ____________________, it is thereafter referred to as lymph. 114. The innermost layer of blood vessels contains a single layer of ____________________ cells. 115. The sounds that are produced by turbulent flow that can detected and used to measure blood pressure with a sphygmomanometer and stethoscope are called ____________________. 116. Although vessel ____________________ influences resistance to flow, it does not contribute to resistance to blood flow in the human body because it does not change. 117. The pressure in the arteries immediately before the onset of ventricular contraction is the ____________________ pressure. 118. Due to their ability to hold on to an additional volume of blood, veins are known as ____________________. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_5ce_2 119. The vasoactive substances nitric oxide and endothelin are released from ____________________ cells. 120. Overdistensibility of the vein walls can cause venous valves to become incompetent, leading to a condition known as____________________. 121. The category of controls known as ____________________ is responsible primarily for matching tissue blood flow with the metabolic needs of the specific tissue involved. 122. ____________________ refers to the friction created when molecules in a liquid move past each other as the liquid is flowing. 123. Relaxation of arteriolar smooth muscle causes the radius of the vessel to ____________________, a process known as ____________________, whereas contraction of arteriolar smooth muscle causes the radius of the vessel to ____________________, a process known as ____________________. 124. ____________________ are structures in veins that prevent the blood from flowing backward. 125. The connective tissue of artery walls is enriched with ____________________ and ____________________ fibres. 126. The arterioles, capillaries, and venules together form the ____________________. 127. Because arteries have elastic recoil properties that keep blood moving through the vascular system when the heart is relaxing, they are known as a ____________________. 128. The release of ____________________ from the pancreas potentially contributes to irreversible shock by weakening the heart. 129. The liver and kidneys are considered ____________________ organs because they work to clear the blood of wastes and supply it with nutrients. 130. Diffusion across capillary walls is enhanced by the presence of ____________________, gaps between the endothelial cells of the capillary wall. 131. The three factors that determine the resistance to blood flow within a vessel are ____________________, ____________________, and ____________________. 132. Some blood vessels contain an additional layer between the tunica adventitia and tunica media known as the ____________________. 133. The ____________________ is the innermost layer of a blood vessel wall and is composed a single layer of endothelial cells.

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Chap 10_5ce_2 134. Indicate the relative comparison of each of the paired items using the appropriate letter, a., b., or c. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. A is greater than B. b. B is greater than A. c. A and B are equal. A. blood flow through an arteriole upon increased sympathetic activity B. blood flow through an arteriole upon decreased sympathetic activity A. blood flow through a vein upon increased sympathetic activity B. blood flow through a vein upon decreased sympathetic activity A. velocity of blood flow through the veins B. velocity of blood flow through the capillaries A. local arteriolar radius in the presence of local decreased O2 concentration and increased CO2 concentration B. local arteriolar radius with normal local concentration of O2 and CO2 A. circulation through the skin during exercise B. circulation through the skin at rest A. circulation to the brain at rest B. circulation to the brain during an examination A. net ultrafiltration pressure at the arteriolar end of the capillary B. net reabsorption pressure at the venous end of the capillary 135. ____________________ promotes vasodilation of arteriolar smooth muscle by inhibiting calcium uptake by smooth muscle cells. 136. A deficiency of ____________________ in the blood reduces the plasma–colloid osmotic pressure. 137. The cardiovascular control centre, which monitors mean arterial pressure, is sometimes divided into the ____________________ centre and ____________________ centre. 138. The instrument that uses an inflatable cuff and pressure measuring device that is used to conduct blood pressure measurements is known as a ____________________. 139. Smooth muscle cells that wrap around metarterioles and serve to control the flow of blood into capillaries are known as ____________________. 140. The venous system is considered the ____________________ capacitance, ____________________ pressure component of the vascular system. 141. The ____________________ reflex senses deviations in mean arterial pressure and alters cardiac output and vascular responses to restore it to homeostatic levels. 142. Vasogenic shock is triggered by widespread ____________________ of blood vessels.

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Chap 10_5ce_2 143. ____________________ is the process in which plasma is squeezed through the capillary pores into the interstitial fluid that surrounds cells. Match the types of vessel, labelled a. through e., with the function(s) they perform. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. arteries b. arterioles c. capillaries d. veins e. lymphatics 144. site of exchange of nutrients and waste products between the blood and the surrounding tissues 145. serve as low-resistance passageways from the heart to the tissues 146. serve as a blood reservoir to accommodate variations in blood volume 147. major resistive vessels 148. portion of the circulatory system through which the velocity of blood flow is the slowest 149. serve as low-resistance passageways from the tissues to the heart 150. act as a pressure reservoir to drive blood forward throughout the vasculature during cardiac diastole 151. Changes in the radius of this vessel type regulate the distribution of the cardiac output to various areas of the body. 152. vessels that pick up fluid that is filtered but not reabsorbed Match the arteriolar effects, labelled a. through c., with the tissues in question. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. would produce arteriolar vasoconstriction b. would produce arteriolar vasodilation c. would not cause any change in arteriolar calibre 153. decreased O2 in skeletal muscle 154. a hyperaemic response in the heart 155. histamine release in an injured tissue 156. application of ice to a sprained ankle 157. occlusion of an artery supplying a particular tissue 158. norepinephrine on cerebral arterioles 159. sympathetic stimulation of kidney arterioles 160. parasympathetic discharge on skeletal muscle arterioles 161. increased stretch of arterioles supplying a particular tissue

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Chap 10_5ce_2 Match the effects, labelled a. through c., with the change(s). (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. This change would increase blood flow. b. This change would decrease blood flow. c. This change would have no effect on blood flow. 162. increasing the pressure gradient in a vessel 163. increasing the resistance of a vessel 164. increasing the radius of a vessel 165. increasing the number of circulating red blood cells 166. increasing the length of a vessel For blood pressure recorded as 118/76 mmHg, match the correct values, labelled a. through e., with the pressures in question. a. 42 mmHg b. 76 mmHg c. 90 mmHg d. 97 mmHg e. 118 mmHg 167. What is the systolic pressure? 168. What is the diastolic pressure? 169. What is the pulse pressure? 170. What is the mean arterial pressure? Match the effects, labelled a. through d., with the events in question. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. increase BP b. decrease BP c. increase heart rate only d. have no effect on BP or heart rate 171. increased vasomotor centre activity 172. baroreceptors inhibited 173. chemoreceptors activated 174. stress 175. increased release of aldosterone 176. increased release of vasopressin 177. release of renin 178. epinephrine release

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Chap 10_5ce_2 Match the effects, labelled a. through c., with the events in question. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. increases b. decreases c. has no effect on 179. Decreased rate of firing in afferent nerves reaching the cardiovascular control centre _____ the sympathetic nerve activity to the cardiovascular system. 180. Increased parasympathetic nerve activity _____ the strength of cardiac ventricular contraction. 181. Increased sympathetic nerve activity _____ the strength of cardiac ventricular contraction. 182. Increased sympathetic nerve activity _____ the stroke volume. 183. Increased parasympathetic nerve activity _____ the heart rate. 184. Increased heart rate _____ cardiac output. 185. Decreased stroke volume _____ cardiac output. 186. Decreased stroke volume _____ heart rate. 187. Decreased sympathetic nerve activity _____ the arteriolar radius. 188. Increased arteriolar radius _____ the total peripheral resistance. 189. Increased total peripheral resistance _____ the mean systemic arterial blood pressure. 190. Decreased cardiac output _____ the mean systemic arterial blood pressure. 191. Increased skeletal muscle activity _____ venous return. 192. Decreased O2, increased CO2, increased acid, and increased K+ concentrations in a skeletal muscle _____ the radius of the arterioles supplying this skeletal muscle. 193. Increased sympathetic nerve activity _____ the venous radius. 194. Decreased venous radius _____ the venous return. 195. Increased venous return _____ the end-diastolic volume. 196. Decreased venous return _____ the stroke volume. 197. Decreased arteriolar radius _____ the blood flow through the arteriole. 198. Increased venous radius _____ the blood flow through the vein. 199. Decreased parasympathetic nerve activity _____ total peripheral resistance. 200. Decreased rate of firing in afferent nerves reaching the cardiovascular control centre _____ the parasympathetic nerve activity to the cardiovascular system.

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Chap 10_5ce_2 Match the effects, labelled a. through e., that the changes in question would have on bulk flow. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. The change would increase ultrafiltration and decrease reabsorption. b. The change would decrease ultrafiltration and increase reabsorption. c. The change would increase both ultrafiltration and reabsorption. d. The change would decrease both ultrafiltration and reabsorption. e. The change would not alter ultrafiltration and reabsorption. 201. loss of plasma protein into the urine due to kidney disease 202. rise in capillary blood pressure in connection with congestive heart failure 203. loss of plasma volume due to haemorrhage 204. escape of plasma proteins into the interstitial fluid due to capillary damage 205. reduced synthesis of plasma proteins due to liver disease 206. expanded plasma volume due to excessive fluid intake Match the terms, labelled a. through d., with the correct characteristics. a. reactive hyperaemia b. active hyperaemia c. pressure autoregulation d. extrinsic control 207. arteriolar dilation that occurs within a tissue in response to local chemical changes that accompany increased metabolic activity of the tissue 208. important in maintaining an adequate pressure head to drive blood forward to the tissues 209. local arteriolar mechanisms that are aimed at keeping tissue blood flow fairly constant in spite of rather wide deviations in mean arterial driving pressure 210. increase in blood flow to a tissue that occurs after removal of an occlusion of its blood supply 211. Describe the changes in local metabolic factors that change blood flow to skeletal muscles when an individual goes from a resting state to an active state.

212. Describe the forces involved in capillary filtration and reabsorption, indicating the direction of fluid movement based on these pressures at the arteriolar and venular side of a capillary.

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Chap 10_5ce_2 213. In what ways does the lymphatic system contribute to cardiovascular function?

214. Describe the responses that would be triggered if mean arterial pressure drops below the acceptable homeostatic range.

215. How is salt balance tied into blood pressure control?

216. What effects do the kidneys have on blood pressure maintenance?

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Chap 10_5ce_2 Answer Key 1. False 2. True 3. False 4. True 5. True 6. True 7. True 8. False 9. True 10. False 11. True 12. True 13. True 14. True 15. True 16. True 17. False 18. True 19. True 20. True 21. True 22. False 23. True 24. False 25. False 26. False

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Chap 10_5ce_2 27. False 28. False 29. True 30. True 31. True 32. False 33. False 34. False 35. False 36. False 37. False 38. False 39. False 40. False 41. False 42. True 43. False 44. False 45. True 46. False 47. False 48. True 49. False 50. False 51. True 52. False 53. False 54. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_5ce_2 55. True 56. True 57. False 58. False 59. True 60. True 61. False 62. True 63. True 64. False 65. False 66. False 67. True 68. False 69. False 70. False 71. True 72. True 73. True 74. True 75. True 76. True 77. True 78. True 79. False 80. False 81. False 82. True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_5ce_2 83. False 84. False 85. True 86. False 87. Poiseuille’s 88. Venous capacity 89. Orthostatic hypotension 90. respiratory pump 91. a. 125; b. 77; c. 48; d. 93; e. no; f. yes; g. no 92. 195 mmHg 93. bulk flow 94. vasodilation 95. plasma–colloid osmotic pressure 96. lymph nodes 97. viscosity 98. oedema 99. elastin 100. capillary blood pressure 101. vascular tone 102. reactive hyperaemia 103. pulse pressure 104. secondary 105. aortic arch 106. distensibility, compliance 107. primary 108. epinephrine 109. active hyperaemia 110. brachial 111. cardiac output; total peripheral resistance (in either order) Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_5ce_2 112. skeletal muscle pump 113. lymphatic vessel 114. endothelial 115. Korotkoff sounds 116. length 117. diastolic 118. capacitance vessels 119. endothelial 120. varicose veins 121. local (or extrinsic) 122. Viscosity 123. increase; vasodilation; decrease; vasoconstriction 124. Valves 125. collagen; elastin (in either order) 126. microcirculation 127. pressure reservoir 128. myocardial toxic factor 129. reconditioning 130. pores 131. vessel radius; vessel length; viscosity of blood (in any order) 132. external elastic lamina 133. tunica intima 134. b, a, a, a, a, c, a 135. Nitric oxide (NO) 136. plasma proteins 137. cardiac; vasomotor (in either order) 138. sphygmomanometer 139. precapillary sphincters 140. high; low 141. baroreceptor Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_5ce_2 142. vasodilation 143. Ultrafiltration 144. c 145. a 146. d 147. b 148. c 149. d 150. a 151. b 152. e 153. b 154. b 155. b 156. a 157. b 158. c 159. a 160. c 161. a 162. a 163. b 164. a 165. b 166. b 167. e 168. b 169. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_5ce_2 170. c 171. a 172. a 173. a 174. a 175. a 176. a 177. a 178. b 179. a 180. c 181. a 182. a 183. b 184. a 185. b 186. c 187. a 188. b 189. a 190. b 191. a 192. a 193. b 194. a 195. a 196. b 197. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_5ce_2 198. b 199. c 200. b 201. a 202. a 203. b 204. a 205. a 206. a 207. b 208. d 209. c 210. a 211. Answers will vary. 212. Answers will vary. 213. Answers will vary. 214. Answers will vary. 215. Answers will vary. 216. Answers will vary.

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Chap 11_5ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. A deficiency of iron can produce anaemia. a. True b. False 2. Although leukaemia causes overproduction of white blood cells, immune function is often compromised because the white blood cells that are produced are either immature or abnormal. a. True b. False 3. Oxygen molecules are transported in erythrocytes by binding onto the heme groups within haemoglobin. a. True b. False 4. Macrophages are phagocytic cells in tissues that have developed from lymphocytes in the blood. a. True b. False 5. Leukocytes can only be produced in the bone marrow from stem cell precursors. a. True b. False 6. If a person has the B blood type, it means they have antibodies directed against the B antigen. a. True b. False 7. One cause of haemophilia is a vitamin K deficiency. a. True b. False 8. The levels of white blood cells in circulation are kept within a tight homeostatic range and do not vary widely. a. True b. False 9. The body’s strongest haemostatic mechanism is coagulation. a. True b. False 10. Plasma proteins participate in acid–base balance within the body. a. True b. False

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Chap 11_5ce 11. Anaemia is often a consequence of leukaemia because over-proliferation of white blood cells reduces the ability of the bone marrow to produce red blood cells. a. True b. False 12. All plasma proteins are synthesized by the liver. a. True b. False 13. Plasma proteins involved in the blood clotting process include alpha globulin, beta globulins, and fibrinogen. a. True b. False 14. Specific hormones direct the differentiation and proliferation of the various types of white blood cells. a. True b. False 15. Mature red blood cells do not have a nucleus. a. True b. False 16. Oxygen binds to the globin portion of the haemoglobin molecule. a. True b. False 17. Erythrocytes are the only cells that contain haemoglobin. a. True b. False 18. A thrombus is a clot floating in the circulation. a. True b. False 19. When bone marrow fails to produce white blood cells due to exposure to a toxic agent, the body will lose all immune cells involved in the immune defence. a. True b. False 20. Yellow marrow in the bone can produce a number of different cell types because it contains pluripotent stem cells. a. True b. False 21. The value for haematocrit is higher in men than women. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11_5ce 22. T lymphocytes participate in cell-mediated immunity. a. True b. False 23. Only organic substances can dissolve in plasma. a. True b. False 24. Oxygen binds irreversibly to the heme portions of the haemoglobin molecule. a. True b. False 25. The extrinsic clotting pathway takes longer than the intrinsic pathway because there are more conversion steps involved. a. True b. False 26. Globulins are the most abundant plasma proteins. a. True b. False 27. Packed cell volume is another name for haematocrit. a. True b. False 28. Nuclei and organelles like mitochondria are not found in platelets. a. True b. False 29. An increased haematocrit value would be observed during polycythaemia. a. True b. False 30. Factor VIII is the clotting factor that is deficient in the majority of patients with haemophilia. a. True b. False 31. Platelet plugs do not grow excessively because of plasmin release by normal endothelial cells. a. True b. False 32. Per cubic millimetre, white blood cells are more numerous than red blood cells. a. True b. False

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Chap 11_5ce 33. ADP and thromboxane A2 are prothrombotic factors. a. True b. False 34. The liver is the organ that removes older red blood cells from circulation. a. True b. False 35. The ABO blood typing system is based on the presence of certain antigens on the surface of the red blood cell membrane. a. True b. False 36. In general, polymorphonuclear granulocytes have longer lifespans than mononuclear agranulocytes. a. True b. False 37. Gamma globulins are unique among the plasma proteins because they are made by lymphocytes. a. True b. False 38. Pernicious anaemia occurs when the bone marrow is destroyed by drugs or radiation. a. True b. False 39. Each haemoglobin complex can carry two molecules of oxygen. a. True b. False 40. Platelets are not whole cells. a. True b. False 41. Basophils are derived from myeloid stem cells in the bone marrow. a. True b. False 42. Due to the characteristics of the spleen’s capillary network, older red blood cells are cleared from the blood as they travel through this organ. a. True b. False 43. Venous blood appears a darker red than arterial blood because it contains less oxygen. a. True b. False

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Chap 11_5ce 44. The buffy coat portion of the packed cell volume is made up of platelets and leukocytes. a. True b. False 45. Haemoglobin is found within the nuclei of erythrocytes. a. True b. False 46. Sickle cell anaemia is a form of aplastic anaemia. a. True b. False 47. Serum does not contain clotting factors. a. True b. False 48. The intrinsic clotting pathway stops blood in an injured vessel, whereas the extrinsic pathway clots blood that has escaped into the tissues. a. True b. False 49. The body’s haemostatic processes are strong enough to stop bleeding from a medium or large artery. a. True b. False 50. Exposed collagen at the site of vessel injury is the trigger for both platelet aggregation and blood clotting. a. True b. False 51. The granular leukocytes are more numerous than the agranular leukocytes per cubic millimetre. a. True b. False 52. A blood sample that has been collected into a tube that does not contain anticoagulants will clot because of activation of the extrinsic clotting pathway. a. True b. False 53. Leukocytes and erythrocytes are produced from the same stem cells in bone marrow. a. True b. False 54. If a person needs a blood transfusion and is given an incompatible blood type, they may experience acute renal failure. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11_5ce 55. Platelets can be stored in the spleen and released into circulation when the need arises. a. True b. False 56. Neutrophils are one type of polymorphonuclear granulocyte. a. True b. False 57. Alpha and beta globulins play a key role in the body’s defence systems by acting as antibodies. a. True b. False 58. Clotting factors are denoted by roman numerals and are numbered in the order in which they act in the clotting cascade. a. True b. False 59. Platelets, granulocytes, erythrocytes, and monocytes are all derived from myeloid stem cells in the bone marrow. a. True b. False 60. B lymphocytes are part of cell-mediated immunity because they produce antibodies that bind onto target cells. a. True b. False 61. Dehydration does not affect haematocrit values because dehydration is a reduction in plasma volume and does not affect the number of RBCs. a. True b. False 62. If someone has the O negative blood type, they can only receive blood from someone with the same blood type. a. True b. False 63. All the constituents present in the plasma are freely diffusible across the capillary walls. a. True b. False 64. Haemoglobin assists in the transport of carbon dioxide. a. True b. False 65. Aplastic anaemia is due to intrinsic factor deficiency. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11_5ce 66. Water makes up roughly 75 percent of plasma. a. True b. False 67. Both primary and secondary polycythaemia may increase the workload of the heart because viscosity of the blood increases in both conditions. a. True b. False 68. If the haematocrit is 42 percent, this means that 58 percent of the whole blood is comprised of plasma. a. True b. False 69. Thrombopoietin is released from the spleen and stimulates the release of platelets from megakaryocytes in the bone marrow. a. True b. False 70. All oxygen in the blood is transported by binding to haemoglobin in erythrocytes. a. True b. False 71. Arterial blood is red because when haemoglobin combines with oxygen it takes on a reddish colour. a. True b. False 72. Plasma albumins help regulate the blood’s osmotic pressure. a. True b. False 73. Antibodies are produced by T lymphocytes. a. True b. False 74. In infectious mononucleosis, the only white blood cells that are elevated are lymphocytes. a. True b. False 75. Leukocytes are paler than red blood cells because they contain less haemoglobin. a. True b. False 76. Many of the clotting factors are alpha or beta globulins. a. True b. False

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Chap 11_5ce 77. During erythropoiesis, undifferentiated stem cells in the bone marrow are stimulated to mature into red blood cells by the hormone erythropoietin. a. True b. False 78. Plasma proteins are large molecules and generally do not penetrate the pores of the capillary wall. a. True b. False 79. The ability for platelets to contract comes from their high levels of actin and myosin proteins. a. True b. False 80. Thrombopoietin enhances circulating platelets by increasing the number of megakaryocytes and stimulating megakaryocytes to produce more platelets. a. True b. False 81. People with the AB negative blood type can both receive from and donate to people with any blood type. a. True b. False 82. Although heparin is widely used as an anticoagulant medication, the role of heparin produced by basophils and mast cells in physiological blood clotting processes is still unknown. a. True b. False 83. Red blood can only produce ATP through glycolysis. a. True b. False 84. Erythropoiesis does not occur in yellow marrow. a. True b. False 85. Vascular spasm is a protective mechanism that is designed to activate clotting factors and is triggered when a vessel is severed. a. True b. False 86. Polycythaemia is the opposite condition of anaemia. a. True b. False

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Chap 11_5ce 87. White blood cells are the least abundant of all blood cells because they are produced in smaller numbers relative to other blood cells. a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 88. Which two chemicals are released by platelets and to facilitate formation of a platelet plug at the site of vessel injury? a. ADP and prostacyclin b. prostacyclin and thromboxane A2 c. ADP and thromboxane A2

d. nitric oxide and thromboxane A2

89. Which of the following statements accurately describes erythropoiesis? a. The majority of erythropoiesis occurs in yellow bone marrow. b. RBCs are produced from stem cells in bone marrow that are the precursors for all blood cells. c. The spleen detects a reduction in oxygen-carrying capacity of blood and responds by stimulating erythropoiesis. d. Low O2 levels in the blood are directly detected by cells in the bone marrow. 90. Plasma from which of the ABO blood types has both A and B antibodies? a. A b. B c. AB d. O 91. Which two chemicals are released by endothelial cells to prevent platelet aggregation in areas adjacent to the site of vessel injury? a. ADP and thromboxane A2 b. prostacyclin and thromboxane A2 c. nitric oxide and ADP

d. nitric oxide and prostacyclin

92. A patient with cancer who is receiving chemotherapy is most susceptible to developing which type of anaemia? a. pernicious b. aplastic c. haemolytic d. haemorrhagic 93. In which form is the majority of CO2 transported in the blood? a. bound to haemoglobin

b. dissolved in plasma

c. as HCO3–

d. as H2CO3

94. What is the importance of iron to the function of haemoglobin? a. It allows for proper folding of the globin polypeptide chains. b. It acts as the binding site for CO2 c. It provides attractive forces to allow many haemoglobin molecules to pack into a small RBC. d. It provides the binding site for O2.

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Chap 11_5ce 95. Which of the following is NOT a function of thrombin? a. stimulating its own production b. signalling to monocytes c. producing active fibrin d. increasing platelet formation 96. Which of these leukocytes is a mononuclear agranulocyte? a. basophil b. monocyte c. neutrophil d. eosinophil 97. How many clotting factors participate in the intrinsic and extrinsic blood-clotting cascades combined? a. 4 b. 9 c. 12 d. 15 98. Which of these statements describes type O blood? a. It has O red blood cell surface antigens. b. It contains neither anti-A nor anti-B antibodies. c. It can receive any ABO blood type without risk of a transfusion reaction. d. It does not have any A or B red blood cell surface antigens. 99. Which of the following does NOT apply to haemoglobin? a. heme b. iron c. polypeptide d. globulin 100. Which cells make up the buffy coat layer when whole blood is centrifuged? a. erythrocytes and white blood cells b. white blood cells and platelets c. platelets and erythrocytes d. platelets and adipocytes 101. All the following are functions of plasma proteins EXCEPT for which one? a. maintenance of plasma volume b. preserving salt balance c. buffering against changes in pH d. transport of proteins 102. What is the chemical signal that makes platelets sticky upon aggregation? a. ADP b. ATP c. prostacyclin d. thromboxane 103. Which of these actions occurs in the last step of blood coagulation? a. Fibrin is converted to fibrinogen. b. Plasminogen is converted to plasmin. c. Fibrinogen is converted to fibrin. d. Prothrombin is converted to thrombin. 104. If endothelial cells could not produce prostacyclin, what would be the implications on the process of platelet plug formation? a. Platelet plug formation would not be affected by a lack of prostacyclin. b. Platelets would aggregate at the site of injury, but at a slower rate. c. The platelet plug could not be formed at all. d. Platelets would aggregate in areas of the vessel that were not affected by the injury.

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Chap 11_5ce 105. Which of the following is used therapeutically to dissolve clots in patients experiencing a heart attack or stroke? a. tissue plasminogen activator b. plasmin c. plasminogen d. thrombin 106. If the haematocrit is 40 percent, which of these volumes is represented correctly? a. Red blood cells comprise 60 percent of the total blood volume. b. White blood cells comprise 40 percent of the total blood volume. c. Red blood cells comprise 40 percent of the total blood volume. d. Plasma and cellular elements other than red blood cells comprise 40 percent of the total blood volume. 107. Which of the following factors is NOT associated with development of thromboembolism? a. tissue injury and release of tissue thromboplastin into blood b. smooth vessel surfaces c. slow-moving blood d. imbalances in the clotting/anticlotting systems 108. Once they move from blood into tissues, monocytes develop into which type of cell? a. macrophages b. megakaryocytes c. neutrophils d. B lymphocytes 109. Erythropoietin is released from which organ? a. spleen b. liver c. kidney d. bone marrow 110. What percentage of all oxygen transport is accomplished using haemoglobin? a. 92.5 percent b. 95 percent c. 98.5 percent d. 100 percent 111. Why is it important that the biconcavity of the erythrocyte increases the overall surface area? a. It prevents osmolarity changes. b. It increases the rate of gas exchange across the membrane. c. It provides an additional area for endocytosis. d. It encourages cellular respiration. 112. Which of the following has the shortest lifespan in circulation? a. macrophages b. basophils c. B lymphocyte d. T lymphocyte 113. What form of polycythaemia occurs when an individual lives in a high-altitude environment? a. primary b. secondary c. tertiary d. relative 114. Which of the following is NOT a type of leukocyte? a. myocyte b. neutrophil c. monocyte d. eosinophil Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11_5ce 115. Why is acute kidney failure a consequence of receiving an incompatible blood type during a blood transfusion? a. because agglutinating RBCs can block the capillaries that form the filtration units of the kidneys b. because antibodies against the foreign RBCs also attack the urine-forming structures in the kidneys c. because haemoglobin released from ruptured RBCs can precipitate in the kidneys and block the tubes involved in urine formation d. because RBCs being attacked by antibodies release a chemical that is toxic to kidney cells 116. Activity of which of the following leukocytes contributes to histamine release during allergic reactions? a. neutrophils b. eosinophils c. basophils d. lymphocytes 117. Which of the following is NOT a cellular element of blood? a. hepatocyte b. erythrocyte c. leukocyte d. platelet 118. Plasma from which of the ABO blood types has no A or B antibodies? a. A b. B c. AB d. O 119. Which virus causes infectious mononucleosis? a. influenza virus b. adenovirus c. herpes simplex virus d. Epstein–Barr virus 120. Which plasma globulins are the antibodies? a. alpha globulins b. beta globulins c. gamma globulins d. delta globulins 121. Which plasma protein plays a key role in blood clotting? a. alpha globulin b. gamma globulin c. albumin d. fibrinogen 122. What is the average white blood cell count? a. 7000 cells/mm3

b. 15 000 cells/mm3

c. 5 000 000 cells/mm3

d. 7 000 000 cells/mm3

123. What is the function of plasma albumins? a. to contribute in the clotting process c. to maintain the blood’s osmotic pressure

b. to maintain the body’s defence system d. to transport lipids

124. What causes haemolytic anaemia? a. excessive blood loss b. non-responsiveness of bone marrow c. excessive RBC breakage d. lack of intrinsic factor

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Chap 11_5ce 125. Which plasma protein contributes the most to plasma colloid osmotic pressure? a. fibrinogen b. gamma globulin c. albumin d. immunoglobulin 126. Which of these pairs are correctly matched? a. granular leukocytes; more numerous than agranular leukocytes per cubic millimetre b. eosinophilia; bacterial infection c. neutrophils; least numerous of the leukocytes per cubic millimetre d. lymphocytes; granulocytes 127. The structural features of an erythrocyte support its functions in all ways EXCEPT for which one of the following? a. by enhancing erythrocyte flexibility b. by increasing lactate transport c. by increasing surface area d. by creating a thin membrane 128. Which of these substances signals platelet aggregation to be reinforced? a. ADP b. thromboxane A2 c. fibrinogen

d. prostacyclin

129. Which are the most common leukocytes normally found in the blood? a. neutrophils b. eosinophils c. basophils d. lymphocytes 130. Which of the following is NOT a function associated with monocytes? a. antigen presentation b. histamine production c. cytokine production d. phagocytosis 131. If a person becomes infected with an intestinal parasite, which of the following would you expect to see elevated in the blood? a. basophils b. eosinophils c. neutrophils d. megakaryocytes 132. Which of these statements describes prostacyclin? a. It activates the clotting cascade. b. It induces profound vasoconstriction of an injured vessel. c. It profoundly inhibits platelet aggregation. d. It is released by aggregated platelets. 133. Which of these statements describes haemoglobin? a. It is found in the nuclei of red blood cells. b. It contains carbonic anhydrase. c. It can combine with O2, CO2, H+, NO, and CO. d. It can combine only with O2 molecules.

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Chap 11_5ce 134. What is the most abundant organic compound in plasma? a. proteins b. glucose c. Ca2+

d. cholesterol

135. Which enzyme converts prothrombin to thrombin? a. factor X b. plasminogen c. thromboxane d. convertase 136. Which of these statements does NOT describe platelets? a. They are produced in the bone marrow. b. When aggregated, they release serotonin, epinephrine, and thromboxane A2. c. They form a plug when they adhere to the exposed collagen of a damaged vessel. d. They form the meshwork of a blood clot, upon which the other cellular elements become entrapped. 137. Which of these cellular elements has the lowest count in the blood? a. platelets b. neutrophils c. erythrocytes d. basophils 138. Which enzyme converts fibrinogen to fibrin? a. convertase b. plasminogen c. thromboxane d. thrombin 139. A person experiencing pernicious anaemia is lacking which of the following? a. intrinsic factor b. calcium c. iron d. folic acid 140. A lab technologist is performing ABO blood type testing on a sample of blood from a patient. When antibodies against type A blood are added, agglutination of RBCs is observed. What does this information tell you about the blood type of the patient? a. The patient has type A blood. b. The patient has type A or type AB blood. c. The patient has type B blood. d. The patient may have B type or AB type blood. 141. A bacterial infection is most likely to be accompanied by which of the following? a. neutrophilia b. eosinophilia c. basophilia d. mononucleosis 142. Which of these platelet counts is within the normal range? a. 100 000/mm3

b. 130 000/mm3

c. 250 000/mm3

d. 600 000/mm3

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Chap 11_5ce 143. Which clotting factor is common to both the intrinsic and extrinsic clotting pathways? a. factor IX b. factor X c. factor XI d. factor XII 144. If a type B-negative patient is accidentally given type A-positive blood, what will happen? a. Nothing will happen because this is a safe match. b. The patient’s antigens will begin to attack the donated erythrocytes. c. The patient’s antibodies will begin to attack the donated erythrocytes. d. The donor’s antigens will begin to attack the patient’s antibodies. 145. Which of these statements describes tissue thromboplastin? a. It is released from traumatized tissue and triggers the extrinsic clotting pathway. b. It converts fibrinogen to fibrin. c. It forms the meshwork of the clot. d. It activates factor XII (Hageman factor). 146. Which of the ABO blood types has no A or B surface antigens on RBCs? a. A b. B c. AB d. O 147. Anaemia often develops secondary to leukaemia. What type of anaemia does leukaemia cause? a. nutritional anaemia b. haemolytic anaemia c. aplastic anaemia d. pernicious anaemia 148. Which of the following represents the correct sequence of events during the formation of a platelet plug? a. platelets release ADP and thromboxane A2, platelet aggregation and release of platelet-attracting chemicals, activation of platelets by exposed collagen b. platelet aggregation and release of platelet-attracting chemicals, activation of platelets by exposed collagen, platelets release ADP and thromboxane A2 c. activation of platelets by exposed collagen, platelets release ADP and thromboxane A2, platelet aggregation and release of platelet-attracting chemicals d. activation of platelets by exposed collagen, platelet aggregation and release of platelet-attracting chemicals, platelets release ADP and thromboxane A2 149. Which leukocyte is associated with the processes of cell-mediated immunity? a. T lymphocytes b. B lymphocytes c. monocytes d. macrophages 150. Which leukocyte is associated with humoural immunity? a. macrophages b. monocytes c. T lymphocytes d. B lymphocytes

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Chap 11_5ce 151. What is the name of the enzyme within RBCs that allows them to effectively transport CO2? a. carbonic anhydrase c. carbon dioxide acyltransferase

b. carbonic transferase d. carbonic dehydrogenase

152. If the haematocrit is 40 percent, what would be the approximate plasma volume? a. 20 percent b. 40 percent c. 60 percent d. 80 percent 153. Which of these statements applies to red blood cells? a. They do not contain nuclei, mitochondria, or other organelles. b. They assist in body defences. c. They have a relatively thick plasma membrane. d. They are large cells. 154. Why do RBCs produce ATP exclusively via anaerobic glycolysis? a. because they do not contain ribosomes b. because they only have transporters for glucose on their plasma membrane c. because they contain a high content of TCA cycle enzymes d. because they do not contain mitochondria 155. Why does anaemia often develop in a patient with leukaemia? a. because leukaemia causes secondary iron deficiency b. because overproduction of WBCs reduces the ability of bone marrow to produce RBCs c. because leukaemia causes microbleeds in microcirculation that result in significant blood loss d. because overactive WBCs destroy intrinsic factor, making absorption of vitamin B12 impossible 156. Under which of these conditions would reticulocytes start to appear in the blood? a. when bone marrow loses the ability to synthesize RBCs b. when oxygen delivery to tissues increases c. when erythropoietin secretion decreases d. when the need for RBCs increases substantially 157. Which ion is required for activation of several clotting factors in the clotting cascade? a. Fe2+

b. K+

c. Na+

d. Ca2+

158. Since fibrinogen is always present in the blood but the blood does not clot, what must normally be absent? a. prothrombin b. thrombin c. calcium d. platelets 159. What feature is common to neutrophils, basophils, and eosinophils? a. production of histamine b. reactivity to parasitic infections c. abundance of granules in the cytoplasm d. lymphoid lineage Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11_5ce 160. All the following are transported in RBCs by binding to haemoglobin EXCEPT for which one? a. carbon dioxide b. nitric oxide c. carbon monoxide d. chloride ions 161. If the level of gamma globulins in the plasma were low, which function might be compromised? a. blood clotting b. heat transfer c. fluid balance d. immune defence 162. Platelets are also known as a. thrombocytes. b. lymphocytes. c. megakaryocytes. d. leukocytes. 163. Approximately how many litres of blood are in the human body? a. 2 L b. 5 L c. 10 L d. 12 L 164. Deficiency of which vitamin can cause a bleeding tendency? a. vitamin B b. vitamin C c. vitamin D d. vitamin K 165. Which of the following is NOT a function of haemoglobin? a. O2 transport

b. Na+ balance

c. pH buffering

d. nitric oxide transport

166. Which of these statements does NOT refer to antibodies? a. They are gamma globulins. b. They are a type of plasma protein. c. They are produced by T lymphocytes. d. They originate from plasma cells. 167. The specific shape of erythrocytes assists in which of their functions? a. O2 transport b. lactate transport c. pH buffering

d. Na+ transport

168. Which of the following is/are NOT required to dissolve a clot and remove the clot remnants? a. white blood cells b. plasmin c. factor XII d. lymphocytes 169. What does haemophilia result from? a. a deficiency of platelets b. inadequate haemoglobin production c. vitamin B12 deficiency d. inability to produce one of the factors in the clotting cascade 170. Which of these is a consequence of polycythaemia? a. Oxygen delivery to tissues decreases. b. Respiration rate increases. c. Blood pressure decreases. d. The workload of the heart increases. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11_5ce 171. Which of the following cells can produce NETs that trap and destroy bacteria? a. macrophages b. eosinophils c. basophils d. neutrophils 172. What is the purpose of vascular spasm when a blood vessel is severed? a. to activate endothelial cells so they release nitric oxide b. to activate sympathetic nerves that promote vasoconstriction c. to release chemicals that attract platelets d. to slow blood loss by sealing off the vessel 173. Which of the following refers to plasmin? a. It disposes of fibrin. b. It inhibits red blood cell production. c. It is a cofactor in blood clotting. d. It stimulates fibrin production. 174. Which of these elements forms the meshwork of a clot? a. aggregated red blood cells b. fibrin c. aggregated platelets d. thrombin 175. What initially activates platelets at a site of vessel injury? a. chemicals released by the endothelial lining of the vessel b. contact with collagen in the vessel wall that has been exposed from the injury c. vessel vasoconstriction d. bacteria that have invaded the site of injury 176. Which of these statements refers to monocytes? a. They produce more heparin during bacterial infections. b. They destroy infected cells by increasing target-cell permeability. c. They are released from bone marrow while still premature and will mature once they migrate into tissues. d. They assist in cell-mediated immunity by seeking out cells that have been tagged with antibodies. 177. Blood is a connective tissue comprising cellular elements and an extracellular fluid of primarily water. What is the name of the blood’s extracellular fluid? a. haematocrit b. fibrinogen c. buffy coat d. plasma 178. If a person lacks clotting factor X, what process will be compromised? a. conversion of prothrombin to thrombin b. conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin c. conversion of inactive factor IX to active factor IX d. conversion of inactive factor V to active factor V

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Chap 11_5ce 179. Which statement applies to the extrinsic clotting pathway? a. It involves more steps than the intrinsic pathway. b. It is activated when blood moves into tissues. c. It is activated by contact of clotting factor XII with exposed collagen in the vessel wall. d. It is activated when blood comes into contact with surfaces outside the body. 180. Why do RBCs have a relatively short lifespan compared to other cells in the body? a. They lack the enzymes and organelles responsible for cellular repair and are therefore damaged more easily. b. They develop antigens on their surface that target them for destruction by the immune system. c. They transport nitric oxide, which can induce a toxic effect over time. d. They can only produce energy using anaerobic glycolysis, which can only be sustained for a limited time. 181. RBCs produce all their energy through which of the following pathways? a. creatine phosphate system b. aerobic glycolysis c. anaerobic glycolysis d. oxidative phosphorylation Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement. 182. The antibodies directed against A, B, and O antigens on RBC surfaces are also known as ____________________ because they cause clumping of RBCs. 183. Bacteria and viruses that can cause disease when they enter the body are known as ____________________. 184. A clot that has formed and is circulating through the blood vessels is known as a(n) ____________________. 185. In response to the hormone ____________________, megakaryocytes release more platelets into circulation. 186. Haemoglobin contains ____________________, a protein made up of four polypeptide chains. 187. The portion of haemoglobin that contains iron and can bind oxygen is called ____________________. 188. Basophils release ____________________, which contributes to the allergic response. 189. When a vessel is severed, ____________________ minimizes blood loss by constricting the vessel and partially sealing it off. 190. Basophils, eosinophils, and neutrophils are the three types of ____________________ based on their nuclear and cytosolic characteristics. 191. Synthesis and release of neutrophils can be stimulated by a hormone known as ____________________. 192. ____________________ is caused by the Epstein–Barr virus, and causes symptoms such as extreme fatigue, sore throat, and low-grade fever. 193. Coagulation is one step involved in ____________________, the process whereby bleeding from a broken blood vessel is stopped. 194. A person’s ____________________ blood type is determined during placental exposure during pregnancy.

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Chap 11_5ce 195. If a person having a blood transfusion is given an incompatible blood type, it can cause a ____________________, which may cause agglutination of RBCs and acute kidney failure. 196. Platelets are also known as ____________________. 197. Cell-mediated immunity, in which white blood cells directly destroy infected cells by releasing toxic chemicals, is conducted by ____________________. 198. The ____________________ is the organ that is responsible for removing older red blood cells from circulation. 199. The extrinsic clotting pathway requires ____________________ to directly activate factor X. 200. Erythropoiesis occurs in ____________________ marrow because this type of bone marrow contains stem cells that are committed to becoming erythrocytes. 201. ____________________ is important in the formation of a blood clot because it converts fibrinogen to fibrin. 202. The tonsil and lymph nodes are examples of ____________________ tissues. 203. ____________________ is the fluid that is squeezed out of a clot as it retracts, and is plasma without the clotting factors. 204. Basophils and mast cells release ____________________ and ____________________. 205. During haemorrhage, platelets stored in the ____________________ are released to assist in sealing the wound. 206. ____________________ is the hormone released from the kidneys in response to reduced O2 delivery and that stimulates the production of red blood cells in the bone marrow. 207. Monocytes and lymphocytes are the two types of ____________________ based on their nuclear and cytosolic characteristics. 208. Erythrocytes contain the enzyme ____________________, which allows them to transport CO2. 209. The type of cancer that affects blood cells and specifically leads to overproduction of low-functioning white blood cells is ____________________. 210. Carbon dioxide is transported in the blood mainly in the form of ____________________. 211. Immature RBCs, known as ____________________, can be distinguished from mature RBCs because they still contain remnants of organelles such as ribosomes. 212. People who have the AB blood type are referred to as ____________________ because they can accept any ABO blood type without experiencing an immune response. 213. Platelets, granulocytes, monocytes, and erythrocytes are all produced from ____________________ stem cells. 214. All blood cells can be derived from ____________________ in the bone marrow because they are undifferentiated and can produce many different cell types depending on the signals they receive. 215. ____________________ have functions similar to basophils but reside in connective tissue as opposed to circulating in the blood. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11_5ce 216. If bone marrow fails to respond to stimuli designed to increase erythropoiesis, this causes a reduction in RBCs known as ____________________. 217. ____________________ anaemia develops when a large number of RBCs rupture. 218. ____________________ is the adaptive condition that increases RBC number and oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood when a person experiences chronic lung disease or heart failure. 219. The three steps involved in haemostasis, in the order that they happen, are ____________________, ____________________, and ____________________. 220. A clot that has formed and remains attached to the blood vessel wall is known as a(n) ____________________. 221. ____________________ is important in the formation of a blood clot because it converts prothrombin to thrombin. 222. The white blood cells that participate in humoural immunity by producing antibodies are ____________________. 223. A deficiency of intrinsic factor causes ____________________ anaemia. Match the leukocytes, labelled a. through e., with their correct characteristic. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. neutrophils b. eosinophils c. basophils d. monocytes e. lymphocytes 224. the most abundant type of granulocyte 225. become tissue macrophages 226. produce antibodies 227. the first phagocytes to arrive at site of bacterial invasion 228. release histamine and heparin 229. destroy parasitic worms 230. participate in cell-mediated immune responses 231. the most abundant type of agranulocyte 232. similar to mast cells

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Chap 11_5ce Match these blood disorders, labelled a. through h., with their characteristics. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. aplastic anaemia b. pernicious anaemia c. haemolytic anaemia d. haemorrhagic anaemia e. polycythaemia f. leukaemia g. neutrophilia h. sickle cell anaemia 233. lack of red blood cell production due to poisoning of the bone marrow 234. lack of intrinsic factor 235. premature rupture of erythrocytes 236. Vitamin B12 is not absorbed. 237. associated with prolonged exposure to low oxygen, such as at high altitude or with chronic lung disease 238. frequently associated with bacterial infections 239. associated with malaria 240. associated with acute loss of blood 241. uncontrolled production of white blood cells 242. caused by a mutated haemoglobin Match the blood cell formation terms, labelled a. through e., with their correct characteristic. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. thrombopoietin b. erythropoietin c. colony-stimulating factor d. myeloid stem cell e. pluripotent stem cell 243. gives rise to all leukocytes except lymphocytes 244. produced in the kidneys 245. activates megakaryocytes 246. stimulates granulocyte production 247. gives rise to all blood cellular elements 248. levels increase with lower oxygen availability

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Chap 11_5ce Match the haemostasis steps, labelled a. through j., with their correct characteristic(s). (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. converts fibrinogen to fibrin b. When platelets come into contact with this substance in an injured vessel wall, it causes them to adhere and aggregate. c. When activated, this substance digests the fibrin threads, causing dissolution of the clot. d. substance released by the platelet plug that causes more platelets to aggregate e. first step in haemostasis f. forms the meshwork of the clot g. a plasma protein activated by factor X h. second step in haemostasis i. released from injured tissues; activates extrinsic clotting pathway j. third step in haemostasis 249. formation of a platelet plug 250. thromboplastin 251. thrombin 252. prothrombin 253. fibrin 254. blood coagulation 255. collagen 256. thromboxane A2 257. plasminogen 258. vascular spasm 259. Name the classes of plasma proteins and describe their functions.

260. Name and describe the different types of anaemia.

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Chap 11_5ce 261. What are the different kinds of white blood cells, and how are they produced?

262. Outline the steps involved in negative-feedback regulation of erythropoiesis, including tissues, cell types, and hormones involved.

263. Outline the three steps involved in the haemostatic mechanism.

264. Compare and contrast the steps and clotting factors involved in the intrinsic and extrinsic clotting pathways.

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Chap 11_5ce Answer Key 1. True 2. True 3. True 4. False 5. False 6. False 7. False 8. False 9. True 10. True 11. True 12. False 13. False 14. True 15. True 16. False 17. True 18. False 19. False 20. False 21. True 22. True 23. False 24. False 25. False 26. False

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Chap 11_5ce 27. True 28. False 29. True 30. True 31. False 32. False 33. True 34. False 35. True 36. False 37. True 38. False 39. False 40. True 41. True 42. True 43. True 44. True 45. False 46. False 47. True 48. True 49. False 50. True 51. True 52. False 53. True 54. True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11_5ce 55. True 56. True 57. False 58. False 59. True 60. False 61. False 62. True 63. False 64. True 65. False 66. False 67. True 68. True 69. False 70. False 71. True 72. True 73. False 74. True 75. False 76. True 77. True 78. True 79. True 80. True 81. False 82. True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11_5ce 83. True 84. True 85. False 86. True 87. False 88. c 89. b 90. d 91. d 92. b 93. c 94. d 95. b 96. b 97. c 98. d 99. d 100. b 101. b 102. a 103. c 104. d 105. a 106. c 107. b 108. a 109. c 110. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11_5ce 111. b 112. b 113. b 114. a 115. c 116. c 117. a 118. c 119. d 120. c 121. d 122. a 123. c 124. c 125. c 126. a 127. b 128. b 129. a 130. b 131. b 132. c 133. c 134. a 135. a 136. d 137. d

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Chap 11_5ce 138. d 139. a 140. b 141. a 142. c 143. b 144. c 145. a 146. d 147. c 148. c 149. a 150. d 151. a 152. c 153. a 154. d 155. b 156. d 157. d 158. b 159. c 160. d 161. d 162. a 163. b 164. d 165. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11_5ce 166. c 167. a 168. d 169. d 170. d 171. d 172. d 173. a 174. b 175. b 176. c 177. d 178. a 179. b 180. a 181. c 182. agglutinins 183. pathogens 184. embolus 185. thrombopoietin 186. globin 187. heme 188. histamine 189. vascular spasm 190. polymorphonuclear granulocytes 191. granulocyte colony-stimulating factor 192. Infectious mononucleosis 193. haemostasis

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Chap 11_5ce 194. Rh 195. transfusion reaction 196. thrombocytes 197. T lymphocytes 198. spleen 199. tissue thromboplastin 200. red 201. Thrombin 202. lymphoid 203. Serum 204. histamine; heparin (in either order) 205. spleen 206. Erythropoietin 207. mononuclear agranulocytes 208. carbonic anhydrase 209. leukaemia 210. bicarbonate ions (HCO3–) 211. reticulocytes 212. universal recipient 213. myeloid 214. pluripotent stem cells 215. Mast cells 216. aplastic anaemia 217. Haemolytic 218. Secondary polycythaemia 219. vascular spasm; formation of platelet plug; coagulation 220. thrombus 221. Factor X 222. B lymphocytes Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11_5ce 223. pernicious 224. a 225. d 226. e 227. a 228. c 229. b 230. e 231. e 232. d 233. a 234. b 235. c 236. b 237. e 238. g 239. c 240. d 241. f 242. h 243. d 244. b 245. a 246. c 247. e 248. b 249. h 250. i Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11_5ce 251. a 252. g 253. f 254. j 255. b 256. d 257. c 258. e 259. Answers will vary. 260. Answers will vary. 261. Answers will vary. 262. Answers will vary. 263. Answers will vary. 264. Answers will vary.

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Chap 12_5ce Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Which of these skin cells is NOT considered a skin immune cell? a. melanocyte b. keratinocyte c. Langerhans cell d. Granstein cell 2. Which of the following is NOT an endogenous pyrogen? a. lactoferrin b. IL-1 c. IL-6 d. TNF 3. Which of these statements applies to the immediate allergic response? a. Antihistamine treatment alone does not alleviate symptoms of all immediate allergic responses. b. Slow-reactive substance of anaphylaxis (SRS-A) is secreted to help minimize the allergic response because it shuts off production of histamine by mast cells. c. An allergic reaction that is focused on the small bronchioles of the airways leads to hay fever. d. During anaphylactic shock, it is imperative that person be treated with a bronchoconstrictor to ensure they are able to breath. 4. Why is a secondary antibody response more rapid and of bigger magnitude than a primary antibody response? a. because the pathogen has been present in the body for a longer period of time during the secondary response b. because memory B cells have already been exposed to the pathogen and can act more quickly to increase antibody production c. because plasma cells are already producing antibody for the pathogen d. because naive lymphocytes proliferate more rapidly during the secondary response 5. Which of these statements refers to opsonins? a. They are innate immune cells that are derived from neutrophil precursors. b. They are chemical signals produced by bacteria that attract innate phagocytic cells. c. They are antibodies that bind to bacteria and target them to a specific innate phagocytic cell. d. They are innate signalling molecules that induce vasodilation of blood vessels in an injured area. 6. Which type of B cell expands a specific clone and is prepared to respond quickly to future exposure to the antigen that induced its differentiation? a. memory B cell b. immature B cell c. plasma cell d. naive lymphocyte 7. What allows a B cell to bind with its specific antigen? a. a toll-like receptor b. a plasma cell c. an antibody d. a B-cell receptor 8. Which helper T cell enhances the activity of cytotoxic T cells? a. TH17 b. TFH c. TH1

d. TH2

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Chap 12_5ce 9. Variability in which portion of an antibody gives rise to the extremely large number of unique antibodies? a. Fc b. Fab c. the heavy chain d. the light chain 10. A B cell that has not yet encountered its antigen is known as ____________________. a. a plasma cell b. an immature B cell c. a clone d. a naive lymphocyte 11. Which of these terms applies to viruses? a. reliant on host cell b. large c. self-sustaining d. toxin producing 12. Which of these leukocytes release histamine in response to allergens? a. neutrophils b. basophils c. lymphocytes d. eosinophils 13. What indicates to a T cell that the cell it is binding to belongs in the body? a. an opsonin b. a toll-like receptor c. a major histocompatibility complex molecule d. a T cell receptor 14. What is the correct sequence of events during the process of inflammation? a. neutrophils and monocytes migrate from blood to tissue; tissue-resident macrophages engulf bacteria and secrete cytokines and chemotaxins; new macrophages and neutrophils engulf bacteria; histamine-induced widening of capillary pores b. histamine-induced widening of capillary pores; neutrophils and monocytes migrate from blood to tissue; tissue-resident macrophages engulf bacteria and secrete cytokines and chemotaxins; new macrophages and neutrophils engulf bacteria c. new macrophages and neutrophils engulf bacteria; histamine-induced widening of capillary pores; neutrophils and monocytes migrate from blood into tissue; tissue-resident macrophages engulf bacteria and secrete cytokines and chemotaxins d. tissue-resident macrophages engulf bacteria and secrete cytokines and chemotaxins; histamine-induced widening of capillary pores; neutrophils and monocytes migrate from blood into tissue; new macrophage and neutrophils engulf bacteria 15. Which of these statements describes cytotoxic T cells? a. They can cause death of an infected host cell by releasing granzymes. b. They secrete B-cell growth factor and T-cell growth factor. c. They confer greater phagocytic properties on macrophages, converting them into angry macrophages. d. They bind with class II MHC glycoproteins.

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Chap 12_5ce 16. What is the purpose of localized vasodilation during the inflammatory response? a. to deliver more immune cells and proteins to the affected area b. to increase heat in the affected area c. to speed up the flow of blood through the affected area d. to bring more oxygen to the affected area 17. In addition to sweat, what is the other secretory product of the skin’s exocrine glands? a. dermal fluid b. synovial fluid c. keratin d. sebum 18. To what does the term “clonal anergy” refer? a. when immature lymphocytes that have the potential to react with self-antigen are removed from the body b. when regulatory T cells secrete cytokines that reduce the reactivity of lymphocytes to self-antigen c. when lymphocytes that possesses a receptor for a self-antigen trade this receptor for a non–self-receptor d. when the first exposure of a lymphocyte to a self-antigen in the absence of a corresponding cosignal molecule prevents future reactivity to that self-antigen 19. In which way do natural killer cells provide innate immune defence? a. They secrete cytokine to recruit cytotoxic T cells. b. They directly destroy any virus upon first encounter. c. They breakdown the cell wall of bacteria. d. They immediately lyse a cell that has been infected with a virus. 20. How do viruses exert their effects on host cells? a. by increasing the permeability of the host cell membrane b. by secreting enzymes that rupture host cells c. by taking over the host cell’s protein synthesis machinery d. by secreting toxins that induce host cell death 21. Which is the first leukocyte from the blood to arrive at the site of injury or infection? a. monocyte b. neutrophil c. basophil d. macrophage 22. What is the function of sebum secreted from sebaceous glands? a. to prevent drying and cracking of the outer epidermal cells b. to remove waste products from the layers underneath the dermis c. to coat the outer epidermal layer with a thin antibacterial compound d. to provide a fluid layer that traps heat in the epidermis 23. Which statement applies to the epidermis? a. The keratinized layer contains pores that allow small bacteria to move across it. b. Certain lipid-soluble drugs can be absorbed through the epidermal layer. c. Collagen fibres provide the main structural integrity of the outer epidermal layer. d. The epidermis turns over every two to three days due to the high rate of cell division in this layer. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_5ce 24. Which two antibody classes provide the most specific responses to bacteria? a. IgG and IgM b. IgM and IgA c. IgA and IgG d. IgG and IgE 25. Which T cells are found in the highest numbers in the human body? a. regulatory T cells b. suppressor T cells c. helper T cells d. CD8 cells 26. In which way does interferon assist in defending against viruses? a. It binds to viral particles and destroys viral nucleic acids. b. It prevents viruses from being taken up by host cells. c. It blocks the activity of enzymes needed by viruses to replicate in the host cell. d. It breaks down viral nucleic acids once they are detected inside a host cell. 27. Which of these cells do NOT play a direct role in immune surveillance against cancer? a. cytotoxic T cells b. natural killer cells c. macrophages d. B cells 28. Which T cell does not directly participate in destroying microorganisms, but enhances the activity and effectiveness of other immune cells? a. regulatory T cell b. suppressor T cell c. CD8 cell d. CD4 cell 29. Which of the following is NOT an outcome of complement activation? a. promotion of localized vasodilation b. formation of a membrane attack complex c. activation of kinins d. stimulation of interferon production 30. If Peyer’s patches in the body were destroyed, the immune function of which organ would be negatively affected? a. lungs b. intestine c. adenoids d. skin 31. What type of T cells release granzyme? a. helper b. cytotoxic c. suppressor d. regulatory 32. Which of these molecules can invoke immunogenicity? a. antigens b. antibodies c. compliments d. toll-like receptors 33. Which of the following is a large, complex molecule that triggers a specific immune response against itself when it gains entry into the body? a. interferon b. antigen c. complement d. opsonin

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Chap 12_5ce 34. Which of these substances is NOT secreted by helper T cells? a. B-cell growth factor b. interleukin 1 c. T-cell growth factor d. macrophage-migration inhibition factor 35. Cytotoxic T cells induce death of an infected cell by a mechanism similar to what other immune component? a. monocyte b. neutrophil c. interferon d. NK cell 36. Which antibody class would you find in high abundance in digestive secretions? a. IgG b. IgM c. IgA d. IgE 37. Which of the following is NOT a function associated with IL-1, IL-6, and TNF? a. endogenous pyrogen activity b. blood clotting c. production of acute phase proteins by the liver d. reducing iron levels in the blood by modifying liver and spleen metabolism 38. How does a cytotoxic T cell identify a cancerous cell? a. by antibodies that have been secreted by B cells in response to the mutated proteins of a cancerous cell b. by the presence of mutated proteins on class I MHC of a cancerous cell c. by the pattern of cytokines that are released from a mutated cancerous cell d. by communicating with antigen-presenting cells that display the mutated protein on their class II MHC 39. By which process do neutrophils engulf foreign particles? a. opsonization b. diapedesis c. chemotaxis d. phagocytosis 40. Which of these statements applies to leukocytes? a. They are responsible for the body’s various immune defence strategies. b. They spend most of their time in the body tissues. c. They are all produced in the lymph nodes. d. They all mature in the bone marrow. 41. Why is the adaptive immune system considered more specific than the innate immune system? a. because B and T cells express fewer cell surface receptors than innate immune cells b. because individual B and T cells will defend against only a single target for which they are specialized to work against c. because B and T cells are recruited only under the specific condition of viral infection d. because B and T cells work only in the spleen and thymus

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Chap 12_5ce 42. Which of these statements applies to plasma cells? a. They are derived from T cells. b. They have an expanded rough endoplasmic reticulum. c. They do not secrete antibodies but remain dormant and expand the clone specific for the invading antigen. d. They are derived from T cells and have an expanded rough endoplasmic reticulum. 43. How do cytotoxic T cells destroy a virus-infected cell? a. by binding to and inserting granzyme into the infected cell’s membrane b. by binding to and inserting an antibody into the infected cell’s membrane c. by binding to and inserting perforins into the infected cell’s membrane d. by binding to and inserting interferon into the infected cell’s membrane 44. Although the responses of the innate immune system are limited, there are advantages to this type of immune response. Which of the following is one such advantage? a. It provides some degree of pathogen control until adaptive immune responses can take over. b. It ensures tissue pathogens are eliminated before they can reach the blood. c. It minimizes the changes of hyperactivity of the immune system. d. It provides a specific response designed to eliminate viruses. 45. Which of these leukocytes participate in cell-mediated immunity? a. T lymphocytes b. B lymphocytes c. monocytes d. basophils 46. What is the term for the body’s failure to recognize and tolerate particular self-antigens? a. delayed hypersensitivity b. autoimmune disease c. immune-complex disease d. immediate hypersensitivity 47. In addition to a foreign antigen, what must be present on the surface of a host cell in order for a T cell to bind to it? a. a T cell receptor b. a major histocompatibility complex molecule c. an opsonin d. a viral particle 48. Which of these leukocytes give rise to plasma cells that produce antibodies? a. basophils b. monocytes c. T lymphocytes d. B lymphocytes 49. Which of these statements applies to passive immunity? a. Antibodies from an outside source are introduced into a person’s body. b. Natural killer cells immediately destroy foreign pathogens or cancer cells. c. Memory B cells lay dormant until they encounter an antigen that they recognize. d. Naive lymphocytes are not activated unless they encounter a pathogen that binds to their B-cell receptor.

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Chap 12_5ce 50. How is the complement system able to directly kill microorganisms without performing phagocytosis? a. by preventing the formation of viral complexes that invade host cells b. by forming a complex that embeds in the microorganism’s membrane and increases permeability, causing the microorganism to rupture c. by entering microorganisms and forming a complex that breaks down their nucleic acid d. by forming a complex that prevents energy production inside microorganisms 51. Which antibody subclass participates in the immune response to allergens? a. IgG b. IgM c. IgA d. IgE 52. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of immediate hypersensitivity? a. occurs within 20 minutes of exposure to the allergen b. involves IgE antibodies c. mediated by T cells d. usually involves allergic responses to inhaled or ingested allergens 53. Which of the following does NOT refer to B cells? a. Each will recognize a single antigen, determined by what type of B-cell receptor it expresses. b. When it binds to an antigen, it can become a plasma cell or a memory cell. c. They require input from a T cell to produce antibodies. d. They produce antibodies once they differentiate into plasma cells. 54. If selectin and integrin proteins did not exist, which process of inflammation would be directly affected? a. margination b. opsonization c. chemotaxis d. diapedesis 55. To what does the term “virulence” refer? a. the ability of a pathogen to divide and multiply within the body b. the severity of disease that can be caused by a pathogen c. how easily a pathogen is transmitted d. how easily a pathogen is destroyed by the immune system 56. Where do T lymphocytes mature? a. bone marrow b. thymus c. spleen d. tonsils 57. Which of these statements accurately describes the epidermis? a. The keratinized layer helps to minimize body water loss. b. The cells of the keratinized layer on the bottom of the feet have the lowest rate of cell division. c. The cells in the inner layer of the epidermis quickly harden and die. d. Gap junctions are abundant epidermal epithelial cells, which facilitates rapid communication between cells.

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Chap 12_5ce 58. What happens when tyrosinase activity in a melanocyte is low? a. Skin will be drier. b. Skin will be moister. c. Skin will be lighter. d. Skin will be darker. 59. Which of these chemicals is involved in minimizing allergic reactions? a. basophil chemotactic factor b. histamine c. SRS-A d. eosinophil chemotactic factor 60. In what way do B and T lymphocytes differ? a. B cells recognize microorganisms; T cells recognize infected or cancerous host cells. b. The B cell response is nonspecific; T cell response is specific. c. B cells are involved in cell-mediated immunity; T cells participate in humoural immunity. d. B and T cells are originally formed from different stem cell types in the bone marrow. 61. The mucociliary escalator belongs to which body defence system? a. genitourinary b. gastrointestinal c. respiratory d. integumentary 62. What is one difference between the IgG-mediated response and the IgE-mediated immune response? a. IgG antibodies have variable antigen-binding sites on their Fab portions, and IgE antibodies carry the same antigen-binding site on their Fab portions. b. IgG antibodies can circulate freely in the blood, and IgE antibodies attach to basophils or mast cells. c. IgE antibodies defend against bacterial infection, and IgG antibodies are directed against parasitic worms. d. IgE antibodies facilitate delayed hypersensitivity, and IgG antibodies facilitate immediate hypersensitivity. 63. Langerhans cells contribute to immune defences through which mechanism? a. by secreting IL-1 b. through antigen presentation c. by engulfing bacteria d. through immunosuppressive effects 64. Which of these statements describes interferon? a. It forms a membrane attack complex. b. It causes lysis of invading microbes. c. It defends against viruses nonspecifically. d. It stimulates histamine release from mast cells. 65. Which of these statements does NOT refer to the innate immune system? a. It provides the immediate immune responses. b. Its responses are nonspecific and target any foreign agent. c. It uses antibodies to mount a generalized immune response. d. Innate immune responses are essentially the same from person to person.

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Chap 12_5ce 66. What are clonal deletion, clonal anergy, receptor editing, and immunological ignorance all involved in? a. preventing reactivity of lymphocytes to self-antigens b. proper development of B and T lymphocytes c. ensuring appropriate cytokines secretory responses in B and T lymphocytes d. training B and T lymphocytes to mount the strongest responses to their respective antigens 67. Which of the following statements does NOT accurately describe an aspect of clonal selection theory? a. Most of the B cells that are produced during clonal selection will be plasma cells. b. B-cell clones consist of cells that all bear the same B-cell receptor on their cell surface. c. B-cell clones that are selected are activated and differentiate into plasma cells or memory B cells. d. B-cells require assistance from macrophages to divide and increase the number of B-cell clones. 68. Which of the following is the first cell to initiate a lethal response against a cancerous cell? a. NK cell b. macrophage c. cytotoxic T cell d. plasma cell 69. How do toll-like receptors contribute to innate immune responses? a. Once bacteria bind to toll-like receptors, this causes the bacteria to rupture. b. When toll-like receptors bind to a characteristic bacterial surface marker, it tags the bacteria for destruction by natural killer cells. c. Toll-like receptors bring antibodies to foreign cells and attach them to characteristic bacterial markers. d. Toll-like receptors are present on the surface of innate immune cells, and bind to characteristic bacterial markers to enable the innate immune cells to engulf and destroy the bacteria. 70. Which of the following is NOT a component of innate immunity? a. inflammation b. antibody production c. interferon d. natural killer cells 71. Which of these compounds is used to direct the movement of leukocytes through the blood to the site of injury? a. opsonins b. chemotaxins c. antibodies d. pyrogens 72. Which of these leukocytes play a major role in defence against parasitic worms? a. neutrophils b. basophils c. lymphocytes d. eosinophils 73. Which portion of the antibody determines the specificity of that antibody for its antigen? a. Fc b. Fab c. the heavy chain d. the light chain 74. Which intercellular proteins are found in high abundance in the cells of the epidermis, and provide structural integrity? a. tight junctions b. connexons c. gap junctions d. desmosomes

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Chap 12_5ce 75. Where do B lymphocytes mature? a. lymph nodes b. thymus c. bone marrow d. spleen 76. Which of these statements does NOT apply to leukocyte emigration? a. Leukocytes leave the blood and enter the tissue by squeezing through capillary pores in an amoeba-like fashion. b. Leukocytes are attracted to the affected area by chemokines, which are secreted by damaged tissue. c. Leukocytes travelling through the blood are slowed down at the site of infection by selectins, which have been placed on the vascular wall by the foreign bacteria. d. Leukocytes do not migrate through the capillary wall unless chemokines bind to their surface and increase their uptake of calcium. 77. Interferon defends against which potential threat? a. toxic chemicals b. parasitic worms c. bacteria d. viruses 78. Which of these statements does NOT apply to the major histocompatibility complex? a. Class I MHC is present on almost all nucleated cells in the body. b. Cytotoxic T cells can bind onto any cell in the body that expresses foreign antigen loaded on to class II MHC. c. CD8 serves as the coreceptor that allows cytotoxic T cells to bind to an invaded host cell. d. Helper T cells must bind on to an antigen-presenting cell with a class II MHC in order to be activated. 79. Which of these leukocytes are the precursors for tissue-resident macrophages? a. neutrophils b. basophils c. monocytes d. eosinophils 80. The process whereby leukocytes migrate from blood into tissues by “crawling” through the capillary pores is known as ____________________. a. emigration b. margination c. chemotaxis d. diapedesis 81. Which of these chemicals induces prolonged contraction of smooth muscle during allergic reactions? a. basophil chemotactic factor b. eosinophil chemotactic factor c. SRS-A d. histamine 82. Which of these statements does NOT apply to the immediate hypersensitivity response? a. When IgE binds to an allergen, it stimulates the release of histamine from basophils or mast cells. b. Upon first exposure, an allergen binds to a matching receptor on a B cell, which triggers clonal expansion of plasma cells that will produce IgE directed against that allergen. c. The Fab portion of IgE antibodies bind to receptors present on the plasma membrane of basophils or mast cells, while the Fc portion is exposed to the ECF and available to bind to antigen. d. Mast cells can have many different IgE bound to them, and therefore can respond to a variety of different allergens. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_5ce 83. Which of the following is NOT a way by which antibodies exert their protective influence? a. neutralization b. agglutination c. direct destruction of foreign organisms d. activation of the complement system 84. Which of these statements does NOT apply to antigen-binding fragments (Fab) of antibodies? a. They are located in the arm tips of the antibody molecule. b. They are located in the tail portion of the antibody molecule. c. They are unique for each different antibody so that each antibody can interact only with an antigen that specifically matches it. d. They are part of both the heavy and light chain chains. 85. What role do hairs and hair follicles on the skin serve? a. to secrete sebaceous fluid b. to enhance the sensation of touch c. to trap bacteria and other foreign particles d. to act as thermal sensory receptors 86. Why are innate immune responses considered more general than adaptive immune responses? a. because there are more individual types and subsets of innate immune cells b. because they consist only of phagocytosis of foreign cells by basophils and neutrophils c. because innate immune responses are triggered by all substances that are not recognized as self d. because innate immune cells are found in all tissues of the body 87. How does lactoferrin secreted by neutrophils contribute to innate immunity? a. by signalling to other innate phagocytes and recruiting them to the site of injury b. by initiating the processes of tissue repair c. by binding to surface markers on bacteria and identifying them as foreign cells d. by binding iron and making it unavailable for bacterial replication 88. Which of the following is NOT part of the inflammatory response? a. localized vasodilation b. migration of neutrophils and macrophages to the site of injury c. kinin activation d. interferon inhibition of viral replication 89. Which of the following is NOT a function attributed to keratinocytes? a. formation of the outer layer of the epidermis b. formation of hair and nails c. stimulating T cell maturation d. preventing UV damage in the epidermal layer

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Chap 12_5ce 90. What role does thymosin play in adaptive immunity? a. It signals to new T cells in the bone marrow to migrate to the thymus, where they mature and become fully functional. b. It assists in antigen recognition by T lymphocytes. c. It aids in determining which bone marrow lymphocytes become B or T lymphocytes. d. It stimulates development of new T lymphocytes in peripheral lymphoid tissues and enhances the abilities of existing T lymphocytes. 91. Which of these statements applies to autoimmune diseases? a. They produce large numbers of abnormal leukocytes. b. They are caused by lack of recognition of self-antigen by the immune system. c. They are more common in men than in women. d. They are associated with overexposure to self-antigens. 92. Which of the following is NOT attributable to complement activity? a. acting as an opsonin b. walling off the inflamed area c. serving as a chemotaxin d. stimulating the release of histamine 93. All are examples of acquired immunodeficiency EXCEPT for which one of the following? a. long-term use of cortisol derivative medications b. severe combined immunodeficiency c. AIDS d. chemotherapy drugs 94. Which of these statements does NOT describe T cells? a. When cytotoxic, they release chemicals that destroy targeted cells. b. As helpers, they enhance the activity of other T cells and B cells. c. As suppressors, they are believed to play an important role in tolerance to self-antigens. d. As helpers, they can combine only with host cells bearing both foreign antigen and class I, MHC-encoded self-antigens on their surface. 95. Which of these terms does NOT relate to the dermis? a. elastin b. blood vessels c. keratinized layer d. efferent nerve endings 96. Delayed hypersensitivity is mediated by which type of immune cell? a. plasma cell b. mast cell c. B cell d. T cell

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Chap 12_5ce Answer Key 1. a 2. a 3. a 4. b 5. c 6. a 7. d 8. c 9. b 10. d 11. a 12. b 13. c 14. d 15. a 16. a 17. d 18. d 19. a 20. c 21. b 22. a 23. b 24. a 25. c 26. c

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Chap 12_5ce 27. d 28. d 29. d 30. b 31. b 32. a 33. b 34. b 35. d 36. c 37. b 38. b 39. d 40. a 41. b 42. b 43. c 44. a 45. a 46. b 47. b 48. d 49. a 50. b 51. d 52. c 53. c 54. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_5ce 55. b 56. b 57. a 58. c 59. d 60. a 61. c 62. b 63. b 64. c 65. c 66. a 67. d 68. a 69. d 70. b 71. b 72. d 73. b 74. d 75. c 76. c 77. d 78. b 79. c 80. d 81. c 82. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_5ce 83. c 84. b 85. b 86. c 87. d 88. d 89. d 90. d 91. b 92. b 93. b 94. d 95. c 96. d

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Chap 12_5ce_2 Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. Receptor editing allows cytotoxic T cells to change their antigen receptor and therefore the pathogen that they can defend against. a. True b. False 2. Viruses, unlike bacteria, must have a host cell to multiply. a. True b. False 3. When a naive lymphocyte first encounters and binds to its specific antigen, this triggers it to multiply and form both plasma cells and memory B cells. a. True b. False 4. Helper T cells will bind to an antigen-presenting cell if it has foreign antigen loaded onto class I MHC on its surface. a. True b. False 5. Naive lymphocytes ensure a fast targeted immune response if a person becomes reinfected with a pathogen to which they have already been exposed. a. True b. False 6. Development of specific subsets of helper T cells is driven by cytokines secreted by other immune cells. a. True b. False 7. Newborn babies receiving IgA antibodies from their mother’s breastmilk is an example of passive immunity. a. True b. False 8. The genitourinary tract has little immune defences because it is not routinely exposed to bacteria. a. True b. False 9. The only means by which macrophages can defend against microbial invaders is phagocytosis. a. True b. False 10. Cytotoxic T cells have the ability to destroy cancer cells. a. True b. False

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Chap 12_5ce_2 11. TH1 cells develop in response to IL-14, whereas TH2 cells develop in response to IL-12. a. True b. False 12. Hives result from an allergy-induced histamine release. a. True b. False 13. Granstein cells may be involved in tempering inappropriate immune responses because they dampen immune responses in the skin. a. True b. False 14. Without IgG antibodies, there would be no immediate hypersensitivity response to allergens. a. True b. False 15. The body’s immune system may destroy entire cells that have been infected with a virus. a. True b. False 16. Innate immune cells can identify foreign cells because they express toll-like receptors, which bind to markers on the surface of non–self-cells. a. True b. False 17. The trade-off for the quick response of the innate immune system is that it has a limited effect. a. True b. False 18. Interferon is released only from phagocytic cells that have been invaded by viruses. a. True b. False 19. During the initial sensitization period of an allergic response, no symptoms are present. a. True b. False 20. T cells acquire their T cell receptors during maturation and processing in the thymus. a. True b. False 21. In severe combined immunodeficiency, both the innate and the adaptive immune systems are compromised. a. True b. False

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Chap 12_5ce_2 22. IL-1, IL-6, TNF, and lactoferrin are all examples of endogenous pyrogens. a. True b. False 23. Clonal selection ensures that antibodies directed against a wide variety of pathogens can be produced in sufficient numbers. a. True b. False 24. CD4+CD25+T cells are also known as helper T cells. a. True b. False 25. Kinins released by neutrophils during the inflammatory process are associated with pyrogenic activity. a. True b. False 26. People with dark and light skin have the same number of pigment-producing melanocytes in the skin. a. True b. False 27. A person may experience acquired immunodeficiency if they have been taking a cortisol-derivative medication for a long period of time. a. True b. False 28. The major histocompatibility complex is the self-antigen that identifies a cell as belonging to the body. a. True b. False 29. Vaccines are effective at preventing certain diseases because they expose a person to an inactive pathogen that still stimulates antibody production and the formation of memory B cells. a. True b. False 30. Unlike B cells, basophils and mast cells can have many IgE with different Fab arm portions, and can thus possibly react against multiple different allergens. a. True b. False 31. Langerhans cells are antigen-presenting cells. a. True b. False

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Chap 12_5ce_2 32. Neutralization and agglutination are examples of processes whereby antibodies work to enhance the response of innate immune cells. a. True b. False 33. All circulating leukocytes are released from the bone marrow. a. True b. False 34. Vasodilation during tissue inflammation is accomplished by the secretion of histamine from basophils. a. True b. False 35. Thymosin is secreted from the thyroid gland and helps maintain proper functioning of T cells in peripheral lymphoid tissue. a. True b. False 36. IgM is the most abundant antibody subclass because it is the B-cell receptor. a. True b. False 37. Both interferon and natural killer cells have antiviral and anticancer properties. a. True b. False 38. Antigens allow B and T cells to recognize what is foreign to the body and what is self. a. True b. False 39. A large and complex foreign molecule will have a higher antigenicity compared to a smaller foreign molecule. a. True b. False 40. Toll-like receptors bridge innate and adaptive immune responses because, when they bind to pathogens, they stimulate secretion of chemicals that activate adaptive immune cells. a. True b. False 41. The various immune defence systems of the gastrointestinal tract are able to destroy all ingested bacteria. a. True b. False 42. Regardless of the type of antigen that is bound by an antibody, the same complement system will be activated. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_5ce_2 43. Similar to lymph nodes, the spleen clears microorganisms and debris, but from blood instead of lymph. a. True b. False 44. The majority of innate immune cells destroy microorganisms through phagocytosis. a. True b. False 45. Delayed hypersensitivity is associated with a slower B cell-mediated response than in immediate hypersensitivity. a. True b. False 46. If bacteria enter the body through a cut, there will be enough macrophages in the surrounding area to completely engulf and destroy all the bacteria. a. True b. False 47. The integumentary system is part of the external defence system. a. True b. False 48. Memory B cells are formed for all pathogens. a. True b. False 49. The defence capabilities of leukocytes are limited to specific regions of the body. a. True b. False 50. The degree of skin lightness or darkness is determined by the amount of melanin produced by melanocytes. a. True b. False 51. Clonal anergy assists in ensuring that lymphocytes do not inappropriately react to self-antigens. a. True b. False 52. Research shows that antibodies do not have a role in destroying viruses that have entered neurons, only in destroying free virus in the ECF. a. True b. False 53. The Fab portion of an antibody determines how an antigen will be processed by immune cells. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_5ce_2 54. The dermis and epidermis compose the integumentary system. a. True b. False 55. Delayed hypersensitivity is a B cell-mediated response. a. True b. False 56. Opsonins are considered an innate immune defence because they form part of the complement system. a. True b. False 57. One of the most serious occurrences during anaphylactic shock is a widespread vasoconstriction of blood vessels and resulting hypertension. a. True b. False 58. The Fc tail portion of the IgE antibodies produced in response to an allergen anchors itself in the plasma membrane of basophils and mast cells. a. True b. False 59. Peyer’s patches are lymphoid tissues found in the intestinal wall. a. True b. False 60. The antibody-mediated responses that occur during immediate hypersensitivity are the same as those that occur in response to bacterial infection. a. True b. False 61. All B cells require assistance from T cells to produce antibodies. a. True b. False 62. The antibody-mediated responses that occur during immediate hypersensitivity are similar to those that occur in response to an infection with a parasitic worm. a. True b. False 63. Both B and T lymphocytes participate in antibody-mediated immunity. a. True b. False

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Chap 12_5ce_2 64. Selectins and integrins participate in the inflammatory process by allowing leukocytes to adhere to the blood vessel wall at the site of injury. a. True b. False 65. Innate immune cells bind to toll-like receptors present on the surface of bacteria in order to engulf and destroy them. a. True b. False 66. Innate immune responses involve certain immune cells as well as proteins with immune functions. a. True b. False 67. One outcome of the inflammatory response is removal of debris that may have accumulated at the site of injury. a. True b. False 68. This first time someone is exposed to poison ivy, they will not develop the typical allergic response associated with coming into contact with this plant. a. True b. False 69. The dermis is the outer layer of the skin. a. True b. False 70. In general, the processes in the inflammatory response will be the same, no matter what triggers it. a. True b. False 71. Subcutaneous adipose tissue is found between the epidermal and dermal layers of the skin. a. True b. False 72. Viral-blocking enzymes induced by interferon are activated only upon viral invasion of the cell. a. True b. False 73. Cytotoxic T cells, natural killer cells, macrophages, and interferon all form a part of the immune system’s surveillance system against cancer cells. a. True b. False

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Chap 12_5ce_2 74. A single T cell can only respond and defend against one specific type of pathogen. a. True b. False 75. Antibodies assist in defending against pathogens by either physically blocking them or by increasing the response of innate immune cells. a. True b. False 76. Interferon provides general defence against all viruses. a. True b. False 77. Increased risk of developing cancer as we age may be related to decreasing levels of thymosin and reduced T cell function. a. True b. False 78. Specific immune responses are selectively targeted against particular foreign material to which the body has previously been exposed. a. True b. False 79. The epidermis folds into the dermis to form the endocrine glands of the skin. a. True b. False 80. Chemotaxins have a role in diapedesis. a. True b. False 81. B lymphocytes provide humoural immunity, and T lymphocytes provide cell-mediated immunity. a. True b. False 82. Because individual B cells and T cells can only recognize and mount a response against one specific pathogen, the response of the adaptive immune system to pathogens is quick. a. True b. False 83. Histamine released during the inflammatory process both induces vasodilation and increases capillary permeability. a. True b. False

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Chap 12_5ce_2 84. Both B and T lymphocytes originate from the same stem cells in the bone marrow. a. True b. False 85. The immune system functions entirely independently of the body’s two major control systems: the nervous and the endocrine systems. a. True b. False 86. Viruses exert their effects on host cells by secreting toxins that induce cell death. a. True b. False 87. Granzyme enters a virus-infected cell through perforins that have been inserted in the cell membrane by a cytotoxic T cell. a. True b. False 88. Swelling and oedema of the area affected by inflammation is due to the accumulation of a very large amount of leukocytes at the site of injury. a. True b. False 89. The secondary antibody response is faster and greater than the primary antibody response because of memory B cells. a. True b. False 90. IgE is the antibody subclass that participates in the allergic immune response. a. True b. False 91. Monocytes are the first leukocytes to arrive at the site of injury. a. True b. False 92. Neutrophils secrete lactoferrin, which slows bacterial growth by limiting the bacteria’s access to iron. a. True b. False 93. Opsonins act like cell surface markers that identify pathogenic bacteria and target them for destruction by cytotoxic T cells. a. True b. False

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Chap 12_5ce_2 94. Before B and T lymphocytes can fully perform their roles, they are modified and mature in the bone marrow and thymus respectively. a. True b. False 95. Antibody subclasses are determined based on the functional properties of those antibodies. a. True b. False 96. The vast number of unique antibodies capable of recognizing an extremely large number of antigens is due to variability in the Fab portion of an antibody. a. True b. False 97. The keratinized layer of the epidermis is thin on the bottom of the feet. a. True b. False 98. Macrophage-migration inhibition factor, secreted by helper T cells, confers greater phagocytic power to macrophages. a. True b. False 99. Immediate hypersensitivity reactions are mediated by IgE secreted by B cells, whereas delayed hypersensitivity is mediated by T cells. a. True b. False 100. Sweat glands are the only exocrine glands found in the skin. a. True b. False Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement. 101. Leukocytes are able to leave the blood vessel and enter the affected tissue through a process called ____________________, whereby the leukocytes crawl through capillary pores. 102. Opsonins are one component of the ____________________, which forms one of the four innate immune defences. 103. The components of the immune system that are found in the skin are collectively referred to as the ____________________. 104. ____________________ in an infected wound is a collection of phagocytic cells, dead tissue liquefied by enzymes released from the phagocytic cells, and bacteria. 105. B and T cells that are no longer needed undergo ____________________ to ensure that a specific immune response is self-limiting. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_5ce_2 106. ____________________ refers to the process whereby lymphocytes that could potentially react with selfantigen are removed from the body. 107. Cytotoxic T cells can indirectly kill their target cells by releasing ____________________, destructive enzymes that enter target cells through perforins in the plasma membrane. 108. A ____________________ molecule, present on a host cell, acts as a self-antigen and informs a T cell that it is binding to a cell that belongs in the body. 109. Surface markers common to all bacteria are recognized by ____________________ present on the plasma membrane of innate immune cells. 110. The ____________________ theory proposes that a diversity of lymphocytes is produced during development, each preprogrammed to synthesize an antibody against only one of an almost limitless variety of antigens. 111. ____________________ against cancer cells involves an interplay among cytotoxic T cells, NK cells, macrophages, and interferon. 112. A mass of transformed cells that is slow growing, stays put, and does not infiltrate surrounding tissue is known as a(n) ____________________ tumour, whereas rapidly growing, invasive masses are called ____________________ tumours or ____________________. The spreading of mutant cells that have broken away from the parent tumour to other body sites is called ____________________. 113. Skin attaches to the underlying tissues it covers via the ____________________. 114. The exocrine glands of the skin are the sweat glands and the ____________________. 115. ____________________ refers to the phenomenon of the immune system not attacking a person’s own tissues. 116. ____________________ is released from a virus-infected cell and prepares other host cells to defend against the virus by priming them to make antiviral proteins. 117. Lymphoid tissue that is present in the wall of the intestinal tracts is called ____________________. 118. C-reactive protein is an example of a(n) ____________________ produced by the liver that assists in the inflammatory process, tissue repair, and activity of immune cells. 119. Soreness and pain that is associated with inflammation is caused by ____________________ binding to pain receptors in the area surrounding the injury. 120. T cells mature and are processed in the ____________________. 121. Leukocytes are attracted to the injured area by ____________________, chemical signals secreted at the site of tissue injury. 122. Bacteria are more likely to be phagocytized if they have had a(n) ____________________ attached to them, as this antibody-like molecule can target them to a phagocytic cell. 123. The dermis and epidermis are layers of skin, which forms the ____________________ system. 124. ____________________ refers to the body’s ability to resist or eliminate potentially harmful foreign materials or abnormal cells. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_5ce_2 125. The organ that clears the blood of microorganisms and debris and works analogously to the lymph nodes is the ____________________. 126. ____________________ refers to the life-threatening allergic phenomenon characterized by severe hypotension and profound bronchial constriction due to the presence of large amounts of chemical mediators in the blood released from mast cells and basophils in response to a particular allergen. 127. Mutated cells are prevented from spreading in the body by an ongoing process of ____________________, whereby cytotoxic T cells identify and destroy any body cells expressing mutated proteins. 128. The term ____________________ refers to the severity of disease that a pathogen can produce. 129. Exocrine secretions of the skin include sweat and ____________________. 130. Lymphoid tissues, such as the ____________________ and the ____________________, are positioned in the upper respiratory tract and provide defence against pathogens that we breath in. 131. ____________________ cells derived from activated B lymphocytes are specialized for antibody production. 132. The ____________________ is the outer layer of skin. 133. Leukocytes and macrophages secrete ____________________, nonantibody chemicals that work largely by stimulating the activity of other immune cells. 134. ____________________ contributes to immune tolerance and ensures that lymphocytes that could potentially react with self-antigen do not mount a response. 135. ____________________ is the hormone that promotes T cell proliferation in lymphoid tissues and enhances the function of already existing T cells. 136. ____________________ is the form of immunity that we are born with. 137. ____________________ is a series of nonspecific responses of the innate immune system that are designed to bring immune cells to an injured area, remove any debris, and prepare for tissue repair. 138. Most of the progeny of an activated B-cell clone differentiate into ____________________, which produce antibodies, and ____________________, which remain dormant and expand the specific clone. 139. In order to be fully functional, B and T lymphocytes must be processed in the ____________________ and ____________________ respectively. 140. B cells mature in the ____________________. 141. Antibody proteins consist of two heavy and ____________________ light polypeptide chains. 142. The complement system forms the ____________________, which destroys mircoorganisms by embedding in the plasma membrane and creating osmotic disturbances. 143. ____________________ are lymphocyte-like cells that nonspecifically destroy virus-infected cells and tumour cells. 144. ____________________ is the form of immunity that develops as we are exposed to different pathogens, chemicals, toxins, and other foreign agents in specific environments.

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Chap 12_5ce_2 145. During margination, leukocytes adhere very firmly the vascular wall by attaching to ____________________ proteins. 146. Bacteria on the surface of the skin can be presented to T cells for destruction by ____________________. 147. ____________________ have the ability to destroy cancer cells because they can detect mutated proteins made by cancer cells. 148. During ____________________, leukocytes adhere very firmly to the vascular wall by attaching to vascular adhesion molecules called integrins. 149. Humoural immunity involves the production of ____________________ by B lymphocyte derivatives. 150. A(n) ____________________ is a large complex molecule that triggers an immune response against itself. 151. Clumping of foreign cells brought about by the formation of antigen–antibody complexes is known as ____________________. 152. ____________________ T cells probably protect the body against tolerance. 153. ____________________ is the process by which a substance separates from a solution. 154. T helper cells secrete ____________________, a cytokine that enhances the phagocytic strength of macrophages. 155. The internal thermostat of the hypothalamus can be adjusted by ____________________ to increase body temperature and produce a fever. 156. According to the ____________________ theory, when an antigen enters the body, it activates the particular clone of B cells that bear receptors on their surface uniquely specific for that antigen. 157. ____________________ cells do not participate in an immune reaction but remain dormant to expand a specific clone. 158. Nonrecognition of self-antigens could potentially lead to ____________________ disease. 159. ____________________ is an acute phase protein produced by the liver, blood levels of which are considered a clinical marker of inflammation. Indicate whether the following characteristics apply to the Fab or Fc region of an antibody, labelled a. and b. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. applies to the Fab region b. applies to the Fc region 160. located in the “arm” regions of an antibody 161. located in the “tail” region of an antibody 162. highly variable between different antibodies of the same class 163. constant between different antibodies

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Chap 12_5ce_2 Match the condition, labelled a. through g., with the characteristic. a. serum sickness b. immediate hypersensitivity c. acquired immune deficiency syndrome d. delayed hypersensitivity e. immune-complex disease f. autoimmune disease g. severe combined immunodeficiency 164. allergic response mediated by IgE 165. damage of normal cells brought on by formation of antigen–antibody complexes 166. helper T’s destroyed by viral invasion 167. allergic reaction to injection of “borrowed” antibodies that confer passive immunity 168. the immune system fails to recognize and tolerate particular self-antigens 169. hereditary condition in which both B and T cells are lacking 170. allergic response mediated by T cells Match the type of immunity, labelled a. through c., with the characteristics. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. applies to active immunity b. applies to passive immunity c. applies to both active and passive immunity 171. exposure to antigen required for immunity to develop 172. antibodies produced by a source other than one’s own body 173. often confers long-lasting immunity 174. resistance to antigen exposure is immediate upon injection of antibodies Indicate whether the characteristic applies to bacteria or viruses, labelled a. and b. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. pertains to bacteria b. pertains to viruses REF: 12.4 Innate Immunity CUSTOM ID: 12-268 175. consist of nucleic acids enclosed by a protein coat 176. self-sustaining, single-celled organisms 177. can induce host cells to produce substances toxic to the cell 178. can secrete enzymes or toxins that are injurious to host cells 179. can transform normal host cells into cancer cells 180. can become incorporated in a host cell such that the body’s defence mechanisms turn against the cell

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Chap 12_5ce_2 Match the defence cells, labelled a. through d., with the correct characteristics. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. keratinocytes b. melanocytes c. Langerhans cells d. Granstein cells 181. secrete a pigment responsible for varying shades of brown colour in the skin 182. secrete interleukin 1 183. produce the tough protective surface of the skin 184. secrete a substance that absorbs harmful ultraviolet rays 185. present antigen to helper T cells 186. suppress skin-activated immune responses 187. are the most abundant cell type in the skin 188. produce hair and nails Match the antibody type, labelled a. through e., with the correct characteristic. a. IgM b. IgE c. IgG d. IgA e. IgD 189. the most abundant immunoglobulin in the blood 190. found in secretions of digestive, respiratory, and genitourinary systems, and in milk and tears 191. serves as the B-cell surface receptor for antigen attachment 192. a mediator in asthma and hives 193. function is uncertain

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Chap 12_5ce_2 Match the type of T cell, labelled a. through e., with its characteristics. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. applies to cytotoxic T cells b. applies to helper T cells c. applies to regulatory T cells d. applies to both helper T and regulatory T cells e. applies to all three types of T cells 194. destroy host cells bearing foreign antigen 195. suppress both B-cell and T-cell activity 196. secrete B-cell growth factor 197. enhance the development of antigen-stimulated B cells into antibody-secreting cells 198. formerly called suppressor T cells 199. secrete interleukin 2 200. release perforin 201. secrete macrophage-migration inhibition factor 202. are attacked by AIDS virus 203. are the most numerous of the T cells 204. serve to limit immune reactions in a check-and-balance relationship with the other lymphocytes 205. are believed to play a role in tolerance 206. recognize class I MHC glycoproteins 207. recognize class II MHC glycoproteins

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Chap 12_5ce_2 PTS: 1

Match the defence molecule(s), labelled a. through h., with the correct characteristic. a. lactoferrin b. glucocorticoids c. histamine d. endogenous e. opsonins f. complement g. antibodies h. interferon 208. enhance(s) phagocytosis by linking the foreign cell to a phagocytic cell 209. form(s) a membrane attack complex 210. released from mast cells and causes localized vasodilation in a region of tissue damage 211. stimulates production of viral-blocking enzymes 212. tightly binds with iron, making it unavailable for use by invading bacteria 213. produced by plasma cells 214. induce(s) the development of fever 215. potent anti-inflammatory drug(s) 216. Provide a mechanistic description of the functions of the compliment system.

217. Compare and contrast primary versus secondary immune responses.

218. Describe the various innate and adaptive immune responses designed to defend against a virus in the ECF and in an infected cell.

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Chap 12_5ce_2 219. What are the roles of helper T cells in the immune response?

220. Discuss the immune surveillance system that the body has developed to defend against cancer, and describe the methods used by effectors of immune surveillance to kill cancerous cells.

221. Describe the mechanisms of the inflammation process.

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Chap 12_5ce_2 Answer Key 1. False 2. True 3. True 4. False 5. False 6. True 7. True 8. False 9. False 10. True 11. False 12. True 13. True 14. False 15. True 16. True 17. True 18. False 19. True 20. True 21. False 22. False 23. False 24. False 25. False 26. True

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Chap 12_5ce_2 27. True 28. True 29. True 30. True 31. True 32. False 33. False 34. False 35. False 36. False 37. True 38. True 39. True 40. True 41. False 42. True 43. True 44. True 45. False 46. False 47. True 48. False 49. False 50. True 51. True 52. False 53. False 54. True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_5ce_2 55. False 56. True 57. False 58. True 59. True 60. False 61. False 62. True 63. False 64. True 65. False 66. True 67. True 68. True 69. False 70. True 71. False 72. True 73. True 74. True 75. True 76. True 77. True 78. True 79. False 80. True 81. True 82. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_5ce_2 83. True 84. True 85. False 86. False 87. True 88. False 89. True 90. True 91. False 92. True 93. False 94. True 95. True 96. True 97. False 98. True 99. True 100. False 101. diapedesis 102. complement system 103. skin-associated lymphoid tissue 104. Pus 105. apoptosis 106. Clonal deletion 107. granzymes 108. major histocompatibility complex 109. toll-like receptors 110. clonal selection Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_5ce_2 111. Immune surveillance 112. benign; malignant; cancer; metastasis 113. hypodermis 114. sebaceous glands 115. Tolerance 116. Interferon 117. gut-associated lymphoid tissue (Peyer’s patches) 118. acute phase protein 119. bradykinin 120. thymus 121. chemotaxins or chemokines (either one) 122. opsonin 123. integumentary 124. Immunity 125. spleen 126. Anaphylaxis 127. immune surveillance 128. virulence 129. sebum 130. tonsils; adenoids (in either order) 131. Plasma 132. epidermis 133. cytokines 134. Clonal anergy 135. Thymosin 136. Innate immunity 137. Inflammation 138. plasma cells; memory cells 139. bone marrow; thymus 140. bone marrow Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_5ce_2 141. two 142. membrane attack complex 143. Natural killer cells 144. Adaptive immunity 145. integrin 146. Langerhans cells 147. Cytotoxic T cells 148. margination 149. antibodies 150. antigen 151. agglutination 152. Regulatory 153. Precipitation 154. macrophage-migration inhibition factor 155. endogenous pyrogens 156. clonal selection 157. Memory 158. autoimmune 159. C-reactive protein 160. a 161. b 162. a 163. b 164. b 165. e 166. c 167. a 168. f 169. g Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_5ce_2 170. d 171. a 172. b 173. a 174. b 175. b 176. a 177. b 178. a 179. b 180. b 181. b 182. a 183. a 184. b 185. c 186. d 187. a 188. a 189. c 190. d 191. a 192. b 193. e 194. a 195. c 196. b 197. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_5ce_2 198. b 199. b 200. a 201. b 202. b 203. b 204. c 205. c 206. a 207. b 208. e 209. f 210. c 211. h 212. a 213. g 214. d 215. b 216. Answers will vary. 217. Answers will vary. 218. Answers will vary. 219. Answers will vary. 220. Answers will vary. 221. Answers will vary.

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Chap 13_5ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. At the systemic capillaries, the PO2 is in the range of the steep portion of the O2–Hb curve. a. True b. False 2. Pneumothorax can occur from a hole in the chest wall or the lung. a. True b. False 3. Systemic arterial PO2 is greater than tissue PO2. a. True b. False 4. A highly compliant lung is easier to stretch than a less compliant one. a. True b. False 5. Intrapleural pressure is usually less than atmospheric pressure. a. True b. False 6. The combination of Hb and CO2 is known as carbamino haemoglobin. a. True b. False 7. As a small alveolus starts to collapse, this causes the walls of the surrounding alveoli to stretch and recoil, which prevents the small alveolus from collapsing. a. True b. False 8. The volume for alveolar ventilation is less than the volume for minute ventilation. a. True b. False 9. During quiet, relaxed breathing, expiration is passive. a. True b. False 10. The CO2 carried by haemoglobin does not interfere with O2 transport because it does not bind to the heme portion of haemoglobin. a. True b. False

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Chap 13_5ce 11. The majority of CO2 is transported in blood as carbonic acid. a. True b. False 12. If perfusion to a region of the lung increases, the airways in that region will dilate to offset the increase in regional PCO2. a. True b. False 13. By looking at an oxyhaemoglobin saturation curve, one could discern blood O2 concentration. a. True b. False 14. Surface tension within the alveoli contributes the most to the elastic recoil pressure of the lungs. a. True b. False 15. Respiration is reflexively inhibited by alkalosis caused by a reduction in concentration of non-carbon dioxide– generated H+, the result of which is accumulation of H+-generating carbon dioxide to restore the acid–base balance toward normal. a. True b. False 16. The effects of exercise on haemoglobin saturation make it easier for oxygen to be unloaded at the tissues. a. True b. False 17. At the onset of inspiration, lung recoil pressure is reduced to decrease alveolar pressure and initiate airflow into the lungs. a. True b. False 18. The pacemaker activity that establishes the rhythmicity of breathing is found in a neuronal cluster close to the ventral respiratory group. a. True b. False 19. Patients suffering from chronic obstructive pulmonary disease generally have more trouble exhaling than inhaling. a. True b. False

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Chap 13_5ce 20. In the plateau region of the O2–Hb curve, a large decrease in PO2 results in a small decrease in Hb saturation, whereas in the steep portion of the curve, a small decrease in PO2 results in a large decrease in percent Hb saturation. a. True b. False 21. All alveoli participate equally in gas exchange. a. True b. False 22. An increase in airway resistance and an increase in alveolar surface tension both increase the work of breathing. a. True b. False 23. Oxygen bound to haemoglobin contributes to the PO2 in arterial blood. a. True b. False 24. A collapsed lung is the consequence of pneumothorax. a. True b. False 25. A slight decrease in arterial PO2 below normal is a more potent stimulus toward increasing respiration than is a slight increase in PCO2 above normal. a. True b. False 26. In a mixture of gases that contains 50 percent O2 and 50 percent CO2, CO2 will exert a higher partial pressure because it has a higher molecular weight. a. True b. False 27. The most important factor controlling respiration is the PO2 of arterial blood. a. True b. False 28. The respiratory system provides a route for water and heat elimination. a. True b. False 29. During hyperventilation, arterial PCO2 levels decrease because CO2 is blown off more rapidly than it is being produced in the tissues. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13_5ce 30. The intrapleural cavity is located inside the lungs. a. True b. False 31. With chronic pulmonary disease that narrows airways, the pressure that needs to be generated to inhale is lessened because the airways are smaller and less air can enter. a. True b. False 32. The work of breathing is easiest around functional residual capacity, because this is the lung volume where inward deflating lung pressure and outward inflating chest wall pressure are exactly balanced at zero. a. True b. False 33. Carbonic anhydrase catalyzes the formation of oxyhaemoglobin. a. True b. False 34. Because lung recoil pressure is dependent on lung volumes, pleural pressure must be changed in order to initiate inspiration. a. True b. False 35. A small amount of gas exchange occurs in the respiratory bronchioles, despite not having alveoli. a. True b. False 36. The internal intercostal muscles are inspiratory muscles because they lift the ribs upward and outward to enlarge the thoracic cavity. a. True b. False 37. An increase in the thickness of the alveolar membrane reduces the amount of O2 that can diffuse into the blood. a. True b. False 38. The partial pressure of a gas in blood depends on the amount that is physically dissolved, and not on the total content of the gas present in the blood. a. True b. False 39. The peripheral chemoreceptors are not activated during carbon monoxide poisoning despite the fact that the total O2 content in the blood can become lethally low. a. True b. False

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Chap 13_5ce 40. The lung and chest wall contain mechanoreceptors that are involved in regulation of ventilation. a. True b. False 41. The tendency to collapse is stronger in larger alveoli than it is in smaller alveoli. a. True b. False 42. Receptors in the CNS that detect changes in arterial PCO2 are actually sensitive to the H+ concentration of the brain extracellular fluid. a. True b. False 43. The respiratory system also performs roles in the body that do not involve anything related to respiration. a. True b. False 44. The vital capacity is the amount of air remaining in the lungs at the end of a normal expiration. a. True b. False 45. Deep and slow breaths usually result in the greatest alveolar ventilation rates. a. True b. False 46. The apneustic centre in the pons contains groups of pacemaker-like neurons that generate regular breathing rhythms. a. True b. False 47. Bronchoconstriction reduces airway resistance and increases the flow of air through the airways. a. True b. False 48. During healthy pulmonary function, ventilation is higher than perfusion. a. True b. False 49. If surface tension in the lungs increases, compliance will decrease. a. True b. False 50. Despite the relatively small partial pressure gradient for CO2 at the alveolar membrane, CO2 still moves out of pulmonary circulation effectively because of its high solubility. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13_5ce 51. As air flows through the airways, the velocity of flow increases because the lower airways are numerous and have smaller radii. a. True b. False 52. Airway resistance is under voluntary control in the larynx and pharynx. a. True b. False 53. During external respiration, gases are transported by active transport mechanisms. a. True b. False 54. Gas exchange across the alveolar air–pulmonary blood interface is enhanced by the thinness of both the Type I alveolar cells and the endothelial cells of the pulmonary capillaries, meaning the distance that gas has to travel to be exchanged is small. a. True b. False 55. The quantity of O2 that will diffuse between the alveolar air and pulmonary blood depends solely on the partial pressure gradients that exist between the alveoli and the blood. a. True b. False 56. Spirometry testing in a patient with restrictive lung disease would show a normal or even elevated value for FEV1 / FVC. a. True b. False 57. The respiratory airways filter, warm, and humidify incoming air. a. True b. False 58. The primary factor believed to be responsible for stimulating the profound and abrupt increase in ventilation during exercise is increased arterial PCO2. a. True b. False 59. Expiratory flows are measured during respiratory testing because inspiration is not the limiting factor for healthy respiration. a. True b. False 60. The 500 mL of air that is inspired is the same 500 mL of air that enters the alveoli during a single breath. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13_5ce 61. Pulmonary surfactant is secreted by Type II alveolar cells. a. True b. False 62. Transport of O2 to the tissues is not a function of the respiratory system. a. True b. False 63. CO binds to heme portion of haemoglobin, but since O2 has a higher affinity for haemoglobin, it is preferentially transported over CO. a. True b. False 64. Pulmonary diseases that affect alveolar membrane thickness or surface area have a larger impact on O2 transfer than CO2 transfer. a. True b. False 65. The lungs and the diaphragm are the two main components of the respiratory system. a. True b. False 66. Lung compliance is the highest at vital capacity. a. True b. False 67. Systemic arterial PCO2 is less than tissue PCO2. a. True b. False 68. The partial pressure gradient for CO2 at the alveoli is smaller than it is for O2. a. True b. False 69. Administering O2 to patients with severe chronic lung disease will not depress their drive to breathe. a. True b. False 70. If ventilation is inadequate in a region of the lung, vasoconstriction of the blood vessels supplying that region of the lung will offset the decrease in regional PO2. a. True b. False

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Chap 13_5ce 71. Collateral ventilation is an important process during airway blockage, and is facilitated by the respiratory bronchioles. a. True b. False 72. A patient with anaemia will have an oxyhaemoglobin saturation curve that looks the same as a healthy person’s. a. True b. False 73. At the end of inspiration and at the end of expiration, intra-alveolar pressure is always equal to atmospheric pressure. a. True b. False 74. Type II alveolar cells form the thin layer of the alveolar walls. a. True b. False 75. Alveolar partial pressures do not fluctuate to any extent between inspiration and expiration. a. True b. False 76. In order for air to flow into the lungs, the pressure in the alveoli must be higher than the pressure in the atmosphere. a. True b. False 77. The most important factor that determines the extent to which haemoglobin is saturated with oxygen is the blood PO2. a. True b. False 78. Alveolar air has a lower PO2 than atmospheric air. a. True b. False 79. Arterial PO2 remains normal or may even increase slightly during exercise, despite the fact that O2 consumption by the tissues is greatly increased. a. True b. False 80. O2 is much more soluble in blood than CO2 is. a. True b. False

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Chap 13_5ce 81. Intrapleural pressure is negative to maintain lung inflation. a. True b. False 82. Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system and release of epinephrine lead to an increase in airway resistance. a. True b. False 83. Increased acidity at the tissue cells stimulates increased dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin. a. True b. False 84. The respiratory system is the only system involved with the exchange of gas between the cells of an organism and the external environment. a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 85. Low arterial blood PO2 with low haemoglobin saturation results in what type of hypoxia? a. hypoxic c. histotoxic

b. circulatory d. anaemic

86. If the alveolar PO2 is 100 mmHg, what will be the PO2 of blood leaving the pulmonary capillaries in a normal person? a. 20 mmHg b. 46 mmHg c. 100 mmHg d. 760 mmHg 87. To what does the term hyperpnea refer? a. increased PO2 that meets metabolic demands b. increased PO2 that is higher than metabolic demands c. increased ventilation that meets metabolic demands d. increased ventilation that is higher than metabolic demands 88. What accounts for the natural tendency of the lungs to want to collapse? a. elastic recoil and surface tension b. compliance and surface tension c. elastic recoil and compliance d. compliance and transmural pressure 89. Which of these is NOT associated with inspiration? a. external intercostals b. internal intercostals c. sternocleidomastoid d. scalenes

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Chap 13_5ce 90. Which are the muscles that control inhalation? a. diaphragm and internal intercostal muscles b. internal and external intercostal muscles c. diaphragm and abdominal muscles d. diaphragm and external intercostal muscles 91. To what does the term hypercapnia refer? a. higher than normal bicarbonate in arterial blood b. higher than normal CO2 in arterial blood c. higher than normal O2 in blood d. higher than normal chloride in blood 92. Why do patients with obstructive lung disease, where there is an inability to exhale the appropriate volume of air, report difficulties breathing in and not difficulties breathing out? a. because the airways collapse as air is pulled in, leading to a smaller volume of air that can be breathed in and then also breathed out b. because the inspiratory muscles become weakened and can no longer produce enough force to inhale sufficiently c. because the inability to exhale sufficiently results in breathing around higher lung volumes, where lung compliance is reduced d. because the amount of air exhaled and inhaled must be the same, and since exhaled volume decreases then inhaled volume decreases 93. Which feature of the interface between the alveolar cells and the pulmonary capillaries makes it particularly well-suited for successful gas exchange? a. A very minute interstitial space separates the gas in the alveoli and the blood in the pulmonary capillaries. b. Alveolar cells and cells of the pulmonary capillaries are thick and hold on to O2 and CO2. c. It contains lipid-soluble surfactant, which enhances the rate of gas exchange. d. It contains the pores of Kohn, which allow the passage of O2 and CO2. 94. Which of these statements describes functional residual capacity? a. the extra volume of air that can be actively expired b. the minimum volume of air remaining in the lungs, even after a maximal expiration c. the volume of air in the lungs at the end of a normal passive respiration d. the volume of air entering or leaving the lungs during a single breath 95. What is the primary factor determining what percentage of haemoglobin is saturated? a. alveolar perfusion b. oxygen content of blood c. PO2 d. PCO2

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Chap 13_5ce 96. Which of these statements describes the dorsal respiratory group (DRG)? a. It consists of both inspiratory neurons and expiratory neurons. b. It is called into play by the VRG when the demand for ventilation is increased. c. Inspiration takes place when its inspiratory neurons fire. d. Its neurons remain inactive during normal quiet breathing. 97. Which of the following is associated with bronchodilation? a. substance P b. parasympathetic activity c. histamine d. epinephrine 98. Why is a larger PO2 gradient at the alveoli advantageous during exercise? a. It allows for faster diffusion of O2 out of the alveoli to make up for reduced time available for diffusion as blood travels at a faster rate than at rest. b. It allows more O2 to move from the alveoli into the pulmonary blood, making more O2 available to exercising muscle. c. It allows more CO2 to diffuse out of pulmonary venous circulation and into the alveoli. d. It allows alveoli to reserve more O2 for a higher, sustained release of O2 into pulmonary circulation and more consistent delivery of O2 to tissues. 99. Which of these statements describes inspiratory neurons? a. Their cell bodies are found in the spinal cord. b. They are found within the dorsal respiratory group only. c. They are inhibited by the expiratory neurons. d. Their inactivity leads to exhalation. 100. Which type of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is characterized by a breakdown of alveolar walls and collapse of the smaller airways? a. asthma b. emphysema c. chronic bronchitis d. bronchiectasis 101. What would be the result if the chloride shift did not happen in red blood cells? a. O2 would not be transported. b. HCO3– would not be able to diffuse into the plasma. c. The electrical balance inside red blood cells would be disrupted. d. CO2 would not form carbamino haemoglobin. 102. Around which lung volume is the work of breathing the lowest? a. 100 percent of vital capacity b. residual volume c. total lung capacity d. functional residual capacity 103. Which of these statements best describes pulmonary compliance? a. the effort required to stretch the lungs b. the elasticity of the lung tissue c. the energy requirements for an inspiration d. the surface area of the alveoli Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13_5ce 104. Which of the following is NOT a method by which gas exchange is improved during exercise? a. opening of more capillaries at the apex of the lungs due to increased cardiac output b. decreased thickness of the alveolar membrane due to stretching from increased tidal volume c. increased alveolar surface area due to stretching from increased tidal volume d. increased PO2 in alveolar gas due to increased tidal volume 105. Which one of these circumstances causes intrapleural pressure to exceed airway pressure? a. normal quiet breathing b. maximal forced expiration c. pneumothorax d. pleural effusion 106. Which of these pressures can be modified to produce the changes in alveolar pressure necessary for inspiration and expiration? a. lung recoil pressure b. transpulmonary pressure c. pleural pressure d. atmospheric pressure 107. Which of the following is associated with bronchoconstriction? a. exercise b. epinephrine c. activity of the parasympathetic nervous system d. increased CO2 concentration 108. What happens when intra-alveolar pressure becomes greater than atmospheric pressure? a. The lung collapses. b. Air flows into the lungs. c. There is no air flow. d. Air flows out of the lungs. 109. Which of the following statements does NOT refer to haemoglobin? a. In systemic capillaries, it contributes to transfer of O2 to tissues because it keeps PO2 high compared to tissues as it is unloading O2. b. The effects of exercise on its saturation make it easier for oxygen to be unloaded at the tissues. c. A decrease in PCO2 will reduce the percentage of it saturated with oxygen at a given PO2. d. In pulmonary capillaries, it contributes to the transfer of O2 from the alveoli to the pulmonary blood because it keeps arterial PO2 low until it is saturated. 110. Which of the following is required for relaxed expiration to occur? a. alveolar pressure higher than atmospheric pressure b. relaxation of inspiratory muscles c. contraction of expiratory muscles d. contraction of inspiratory muscles 111. Which of the following increases ventilation the most? a. a small increase in arterial PCO2 b. a small decrease in arterial PCO2 c. a small increase in arterial PO2

d. a small decrease in arterial PO2

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Chap 13_5ce 112. Why is the relationship between PO2 and haemoglobin not linear? a. because of the increasing solubility of oxygen in plasma as PO2 increases b. because all of the oxygen binding sites on haemoglobin can never be completely occupied c. because PO2 in arterial blood is higher than in venous blood d. because of the sequential loading of oxygen molecules onto the haemoglobin molecule 113. Which of the following statements refers to 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate? a. It is produced by red blood cells when haemoglobin saturation is low over a long period of time. b. Unlike H+ and CO2, it shifts the oxyhaemoglobin saturation curve to the left. c. It is a metabolic by-product of an exercising muscle. d. In pulmonary capillaries, it makes loading of O2 onto haemoglobin easier. 114. What is the term for the entire sequence of events involved in the exchange of O2 and CO2 between body cells and the environment? a. internal respiration b. external respiration c. ventilation d. diffusion 115. Which of the following does NOT happen when the diaphragm contracts? a. The volume of the thoracic cavity increases. b. Lung volume increases as the lungs are forced to expand. c. Intra-alveolar pressure increases. d. Intrathoracic pressure decreases. 116. What type of hypoxia develops when haemoglobin production decreases? a. circulatory b. hypoxic c. histotoxic d. anaemic 117. What occurs before the onset of inspiration? a. Pleural pressure is the same as recoil pressure. b. Pleural pressure is higher than recoil pressure. c. Pleural pressure is lower than recoil pressure. d. Pleural pressure and recoil pressure are not involved in inspiration. 118. What is the partial pressure for O2 if it makes up 15 percent of atmospheric air, which has a barometric pressure of 760 mmHg? a. 50 mmHg b. 98 mmHg c. 100 mmHg d. 114 mmHg

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Chap 13_5ce 119. Which of these statements describes haemoglobin? a. It combines preferentially with O2 over any other molecules. b. When combined with carbon dioxide, it is known as oxyhaemoglobin. c. It plays a critical role in determining the amount of O2 that is exchanged between alveoli and blood. d. It combines preferentially with CO2 when the partial pressure of O2 is high in arterial blood. 120. Which of these statements describes vital capacity? a. the maximum volume that can be moved in or out during a single breath b. the minimum volume the lungs can hold c. the maximum volume the lungs can hold d. the volume normally entering or leaving the lungs during a single breath 121. Which receptors ensure that oxygen delivery to tissues is adequate by adjusting cardiac output according to arterial O2 content? a. receptors in the chest wall c. carotid bodies

b. receptors in the diaphragm d. aortic bodies

122. What does the Bohr effect describe? a. how binding of CO2 or H+ to haemoglobin is affected by the presence of O2 b. how O2 concentration of the blood is affected by PCO2 c. how binding of oxygen to haemoglobin is affected by the pH of the environment d. how a small decrease in PO2 results in a relatively large unloading of O2 from haemoglobin 123. Which of these statements applies to pressure volume relationships within the respiratory system? a. At 100 percent of vital capacity, both the lungs and the chest wall have a tendency to inflate. b. The lungs always exert an inflating pressure at any lung volume. c. At functional residual capacity, the outward inflating pressure of the chest wall is exactly counterbalanced by the inward deflating pressure of the lungs. d. When stretched to higher than equilibrium volume, the chest wall has a tendency to exert an inflating pressure. 124. Which statement describes Type I alveolar cells? a. They are responsible for surface tension. b. They secrete pulmonary surfactant. c. They contract during expiration to force air out of the alveoli. d. They form the wall of the alveoli.

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Chap 13_5ce 125. What is the physiological importance of the plateau portion of the oxyhaemoglobin saturation curve? a. It ensures haemoglobin saturation, and O2 delivery to tissues remains high even if PO2 were to fall to 60 mmHg. b. It allows for oxygen unloading in tissues over a wide range of PO2 levels. c. It facilitates a faster transfer of O2 over the alveolar membrane. d. It allows for a drastic increase in arterial O2 content with small increases in PO2. 126. Which value can be used to distinguish between obstructive and restrictive lung disease? a. total lung capacity b. FVC/total lung capacity c. residual volume/FVC d. FEV1 / FVC 127. What is the main factor that results in air being expelled from the lungs during a relaxed exhale? a. elastic recoil of the lungs b. contraction of the internal intercostal muscles c. positive pleural pressure d. negative pleural pressure 128. Which of the following does NOT make breathing more difficult? a. increased pulmonary compliance b. increased airway resistance c. decreased elastic recoil d. decreased surfactant production 129. Which of following pulmonary mechanoreceptors respond to inhaled stimuli with frequent bursts of action potentials that quickly stop, and can initiate coughing when stimulated? a. C-fibres b. rapidly adapting receptors c. slowly adapting receptors d. Breuer–Hering receptors 130. Why does the lung collapse during pneumothorax? a. because air escapes from the lungs into the thoracic cavity b. because air enters the pleural space and pleural pressure is no longer negative c. because alveoli can’t produce surfactant, and surface tension causes the alveoli to collapse d. because the diaphragm is no longer connected to the bottom of the lungs and cannot pull them into expansion 131. Which airways enter the lungs? a. alveoli b. trachea c. bronchioles d. bronchi 132. Which of these factors would reduce the amount of oxygen transferred across the respiratory membrane? a. a higher partial pressure of oxygen in the atmosphere b. an abnormally high partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere c. a reduced partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere d. a low pulmonary capillary, partial pressure of oxygen

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Chap 13_5ce 133. What is the term for the minimum volume of air that remains in the lungs after a maximal expiration? a. tidal volume b. functional residual capacity c. residual volume d. vital capacity 134. The respiratory control centre is found in which area of the central nervous system? a. amygdala b. hypothalamus c. midbrain d. medulla 135. Which of the following does NOT oppose a change in the volume of the respiratory system? a. muscles of inspiration b. stiffness of the system c. resistance to airflow d. inertia of the system 136. Neurons within which area of the brain are thought to display pacemaker activity that sets the regular rhythms of breathing? a. amygdala b. pre-Bötzinger complex c. apneustic centre d. pneumotaxic complex 137. Which of these statements does NOT describe the discharge patterns of respiratory motor neurons a. The inspiratory motor neurons of the diaphragm start to discharge before the motor neurons that adjust the radii of the upper airways. b. During a single inspiration, the frequency of discharge of inspiratory motor neurons increases due to the progressive increase in recoil pressure as the lungs expand. c. Expiratory motor neurons display no discharge patterns during passive exhalation. d. During exercise, inspiratory motor neurons that innervate the skeletal muscle of the upper airway fire tonically to keep the airways open and reduce resistance. 138. Which one of these situations occurs if the oxygen–haemoglobin dissociation curve is shifted to the right? a. Partial pressure of oxygen is increased. b. pH is decreased. c. Temperature is decreased. d. Partial pressure of carbon dioxide is decreased. 139. Which of these statements describes expiratory reserve volume? a. It helps prevent lung collapse. b. It is the volume of air that can be exhaled after taking in a maximal inspiration. c. It is the normal volume of air exhaled. d. It is the volume of air that can be exhaled starting at the end of tidal volume. 140. What occurs at the end of inspiration? a. Pleural pressure is the same as recoil pressure. b. Pleural pressure is higher than recoil pressure. c. Pleural pressure is lower than recoil pressure. d. Pleural pressure and recoil pressure are not involved in inspiration.

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Chap 13_5ce 141. Which of following pulmonary mechanoreceptors are present in airway smooth muscle and are activated with inflation of the lung? a. C-fibres b. rapidly adapting receptors c. slowly adapting receptors d. Breuer–Hering receptors 142. A structure of the respiratory system that is also shared by the digestive system is which of the following? a. esophagus b. larynx c. pharynx d. trachea 143. What is the physiological importance of the steep portion of the oxyhaemoglobin saturation curve? a. It ensures a relatively large portion of O2 can be easily loaded onto haemoglobin with small increases in PO2. b. It allows a relatively large portion of O2 to be easily unloaded from haemoglobin with slight decreases in PO2. c. It facilitates a faster transfer of CO2 from systemic tissues to venous blood. d. It allows for a drastic increase in arterial O2 content with small increases in PO2. 144. What factor in the arterial blood has the largest effect on increasing the rate of respiration? a. The hydrogen ion concentration in the kidney ECF increases. b. The partial pressure of oxygen generally drops to 90. c. The partial pressure of carbon increases. d. The hydrogen ion concentration in the ECF generally increases. 145. Which of these statements describes expiratory neurons? a. They are found in both the DRG and the VRG. b. They send impulses to the expiratory muscles during normal quiet breathing. c. They are stimulated by the inspiratory neurons, and in turn inhibit the inspiratory neurons. d. They are stimulated by the pneumotaxic centre, and in turn inhibit the inspiratory neurons. 146. Which of the following does NOT occur during expiration when a person is breathing quietly? a. The size of the thoracic cavity reduces. b. The intra-alveolar pressure becomes greater than the atmospheric pressure. c. The expiratory muscles contract. d. Air flows out of the lungs. 147. At total lung capacity, what exerts an inward deflating pressure? a. the lungs and the chest wall b. the lungs c. the chest wall d. neither the lung nor the chest wall 148. Which one of these spirometry results would NOT be expected of a patient suffering from obstructive lung disease? a. normal total lung capacity b. increased functional residual capacity c. decreased residual volume d. decreased FEV1 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13_5ce 149. What is collateral ventilation? a. the exchange of gases across the respiratory bronchiolar wall b. the exchange of O2 and CO2 in opposite directions across the alveolar membrane c. the movement of air between neighbouring alveoli through the pores of Kohn d. the transfer of air from one lung to another 150. Which of these promotes collapse of the alveoli? a. positive transmural pressure b. pulmonary surfactant c. alveolar interdependence d. alveolar surface tension 151. Why can’t an increase in tidal volume alone meet the increased ventilatory demands during exercise? a. because eventually tidal volume reaches a point where the respiratory reflex centre in the brain prevents any further increase in tidal volume b. because tidal volume is limited by the size of the airways c. because changes in tidal volume occur slowly to respond to immediate needs for increased ventilation during exercise d. because, eventually, tidal volume reaches a point where lung compliance is reduced and the work of breathing increases 152. What accounts for the transition from convective flow to diffusion as air moves from the start to the end of the airways? a. the decreasing thickness of the airway walls b. the increase in the total cross-sectional area c. the changes in pressure gradients d. the increase in autonomic innervation 153. What is the last step that produces an inspiration? a. The atmospheric pressure becomes lower than the intrapleural pressure. b. The diaphragm contracts. c. The intercostal muscles contract. d. The intra-alveolar pressure becomes lower than the atmospheric pressure.

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Chap 13_5ce 154. Which of the following is the correct sequence of events during external respiration? a. ventilation between the atmosphere and the alveoli; exchange of O2 and CO2 between alveolar air and pulmonary blood; transport of O2 and CO2 from the lungs to the tissues via the bloodstream; exchange of O2 and CO2 between systemic blood and systemic tissues b. exchange of O2 and CO2 between systemic blood and systemic tissues; transport of O2 and CO2 from the lungs to the tissues via the bloodstream; ventilation between the atmosphere and the alveoli; exchange of O2 and CO2 between alveolar air and pulmonary blood c. ventilation between the atmosphere and the alveoli; exchange of O2 and CO2 between systemic blood and systemic tissues; exchange of O2 and CO2 between alveolar air and pulmonary blood; transport of O2 and CO2 from the lungs to the tissues via the bloodstream d. exchange of O2 and CO2 between systemic blood and systemic tissues; exchange of O2 and CO2 between alveolar air and pulmonary blood; transport of O2 and CO2 from the lungs to the tissues via the bloodstream; ventilation between the atmosphere and the alveoli 155. Which of these statements accurately reflects the airways? a. The radii of the small airways can be modified by the autonomic nervous system. b. The bronchioles are prevented from collapsing by a thin and incomplete layer of cartilaginous rings. c. Alveoli start to develop at the lower end of the left and right bronchi. d. Terminal bronchioles are found within the diffusion zone of the respiratory airways. 156. Which of these skeletal muscles is innervated by the phrenic nerve? a. rectus abdominis b. diaphragm c. external intercostal d. sternocleidomastoid 157. Why is knowing the anatomic dead space important? a. because it reduces the O2 content of inspired air, which affects alveolar gas exchange b. because it represents the volume of air that does not reach the alveoli and cannot participate in gas exchange c. because it affects airway resistance and therefore influences the flow of air through the airways d. because it reduces the surface area of the alveoli and therefore reduces gas exchange 158. Haemoglobin transfers all but which of the following? a. O2

b. HCO3–

c. CO2

d. carbon monoxide

159. What is the location of the receptors that are stimulated by a large drop in the blood PO2 level? a. respiratory control centre of the brain c. tissue capillaries

b. arterioles d. carotid bodies

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Chap 13_5ce 160. What causes an increase in airway resistance with asthma? a. thickening of the airway walls from histamine-induced inflammation and oedema b. destruction of the bronchiolar walls by overactive immune cells c. thick mucus production in the lower airways in response to chronic exposure to cigarette smoke or air pollution d. breakdown of the alveolar membrane 161. What is the normal PO2 of arterial blood? a. 40 mmHg c. 100 mmHg

b. 46 mmHg d. 240 mmHg

162. Which of these statements does NOT describe the partial pressure of oxygen in the pulmonary veins? a. It is about 100 mmHg. b. It is equivalent to alveolar partial pressure. c. It is the same as pulmonary arteries’ partial pressure. d. It is highest in pulmonary veins. 163. Which of the following does NOT contribute to resistance of diffusion of gases across the alveolar membrane? a. membrane thickness b. blood pressure inside the pulmonary capillaries c. molecular weight of the diffusing gases d. surface area of the membrane 164. An increase in which of these factors will NOT result in lower oxygen saturation of haemoglobin? a. PO2 b. temperature c. PCO2

d. acidity

165. What is the respiratory quotient? a. the rate at which gases diffuse across the alveolar capillary membrane b. the respiratory rate times the tidal volume c. the ratio of CO2 produced to O2 consumed d. the ratio of O2 consumed to CO2 produced 166. Why are partial pressures for oxygen and nitrogen different in alveolar air than in atmospheric air? a. because water displaces some of the oxygen and nitrogen molecules as atmospheric air is humidified in the airways b. because residual carbon dioxide in the alveoli displaces some of the oxygen and nitrogen molecules as atmospheric air enters the alveoli c. because the alveoli are smaller compared to the airways, and partial pressures increase because of the smaller container they are now in d. because water in the surfactant mixes with alveolar air and displaces oxygen and nitrogen in alveolar air

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Chap 13_5ce 167. Which of these statements does NOT apply to haemoglobin? a. It plays a critical role in determining the total amount of O2 that is exchanged because it acts as a storage depot, removing dissolved O2 and thus keeping the PO2 low so that net diffusion is allowed to continue. b. It combines only with O2. c. It is found in erythrocytes. d. It is an iron-bearing, protein molecule. 168. Which of these conditions does NOT affect gas exchange by affecting the thickness of the alveolar membrane? a. pulmonary oedema b. emphysema c. pulmonary fibrosis d. pneumonia 169. Which of these factors assists in keeping the alveoli open? a. small size of the alveoli b. alveolar surface tension c. alveolar interdependence d. elasticity of lung tissue 170. A person is breathing 12 times per minute and is breathing 500 mL of air with each breath. What is their minute ventilation? a. 10 L/min b. 6 L/min c. 5 L/min d. 0.6 L/min 171. Which of these statements does NOT describe PO2 in the blood? a. It refers to the pressure exerted by the amount of oxygen in the atmosphere. b. It is the most important factor determining the percent saturation of haemoglobin. c. It is normal in carbon monoxide poisoning. d. It is highest in the pulmonary vein. 172. Which of these statements describes intrapulmonary pressure? a. It is always greater than atmospheric pressure. b. It is the pressure within the air sacs of the lung. c. It is always less than intrapleural pressure. d. It is the pressure within the bronchi. 173. What is the primary regulator of the magnitude of ventilation in normal circumstances? a. the H+ concentration of the brain extracellular fluid, which is monitored by central chemoreceptors b. the PO2 of the arterial blood, which is monitored by central chemoreceptors c. the PO2 of the arterial blood, which is monitored by peripheral chemoreceptors d. the PCO2 of the arterial blood, which is monitored by central chemoreceptors

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Chap 13_5ce 174. Which two values must be known in order to determine minute ventilation? a. respiration rate and tidal volume b. respiration rate and alveolar ventilation c. respiration rate and inspiratory reserve volume d. tidal volume and anatomic dead space 175. What is the physiological importance of the steep portion of the oxyhaemoglobin saturation curve? a. It ensures a relatively large portion of O2 can be easily loaded onto haemoglobin with small increases in PO2. b. It allows a relatively large portion of O2 to be easily unloaded from haemoglobin with slight decreases in PO2. c. It facilitates a faster transfer of CO2 from systemic tissues to venous blood. d. It allows for a drastic increase in arterial O2 content with small increases in PO2. 176. What does it mean to say that haemoglobin is fully saturated? a. Oxygen is attached to both the heme and the globin portions of the molecule. b. There is an oxygen molecule attached to each of the four heme groups. c. Red blood cells contain as many haemoglobin molecules as possible. d. Haemoglobin is carrying both oxygen and carbon dioxide simultaneously. 177. Which of these statements does NOT describe the peripheral chemoreceptors? a. They are stimulated whenever the arterial PO2 is higher than normal. b. They are weakly stimulated by a rise in arterial PCO2. c. They are stimulated by an increase in arterial H+, which plays an important role in acid–base balance. d. They are located at the bifurcation of the common carotid arteries and in the aortic arch. 178. Which of these actions brings on normal expirations? a. contraction of the external intercostals b. contraction of the internal intercostals c. contraction of the diaphragm d. elastic recoil of stretched lung tissues and relaxation of inspiratory muscles 179. Which one of these factors would reduce the alveolar ventilation rate the most? a. increased alveolar dead space b. decreased alveolar dead space c. increased tidal volume d. increased vital capacity 180. Which of these statements accurately describes dyspnea? a. breathing rate that is not matched to the metabolic needs of the body b. a feeling of discomfort or distress associated with not getting enough air c. breathing that suddenly stops but will start again on its own d. the urgent feeling to breathe that arises when someone holds their breath

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Chap 13_5ce Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement. 181. Hypocapnia develops with this type of breathing pattern: ____________________. 182. The volume occupied by the conducting airways is known as the ____________________. 183. The ____________________ effect refers to the increased affinity of Hb for CO2 and H+ after O2 unloading. 184. A drop in the oxygen levels in arterial blood ____________________ the central chemoreceptors. 185. The DRG consists mostly of ____________________ neurons. 186. ____________________ is an increase in ventilation that meets metabolic demands, such as the increase in ventilation that happens during exercise. 187. The exchange of O2 and CO2 between the external environment and tissue cells is known as ____________________. 188. Alveoli or lung regions that are perfused but not ventilated are known as ____________________. 189. ____________________ is a respiratory disease characterized by collapse of the smaller airways and a breakdown of alveolar walls. 190. The most profound changes in thoracic volume can be accomplished by contraction of the ____________________. 191. The VRG consists of ____________________ and ____________________ neurons. 192. The peripheral chemoreceptors are located in the ____________________ and aortic bodies. 193. The main muscles of expiration are the ____________________ and the ____________________. 194. The two factors that prevent alveoli from collapsing on themselves are ____________________ and ____________________. 195. The pores of Kohn are important in the process of ____________________, where neighbouring alveoli can exchange air. 196. ____________________ is the transient cessation of breathing. 197. When CO2 binds to haemoglobin it forms____________________. 198. The space between the parietal pleura and visceral pleura is the ____________________. 199. The diaphragm is stimulated to contract when it receives excitatory input from the ____________________. 200. Being at a high altitude where atmospheric PO2 is reduced can lead to ____________________ because alveolar and arterial PO2 will also be reduced. 201. The respiratory system is composed of two units: the ____________________ and the ____________________.

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Chap 13_5ce 202. An increase of ____________________ ions in the arterial blood changes the respiratory rate by increasing it. 203. Lung compliance is highest at ____________________, the lung volume around which we breathe. 204. The main muscles of inspiration are the ____________________ and the ____________________. 205. The respiratory quotient is the ratio of ____________________ to ____________________. 206. The primary respiratory control centre that provides output to the respiratory muscles is located in the ____________________. 207. Alveoli in regions of the lung that are ventilated but not perfused are collectively referred to as ____________________. 208. A collapsed lung, clinically referred to as ____________________, can negatively impact gas exchange because alveolar surface area is reduced. 209. The natural tendency of the lung to deflate on itself is caused by ____________________ and ____________________. 210. According to ____________________ law, at any constant temperature, the pressure of a gas varies inversely with the volume of the gas. 211. The ____________________ maintains the electrical balance inside RBCs as HCO3– diffuses down its concentration gradient into plasma. 212. The ____________________ are tiny holes that permit the exchange of gas between neighbouring alveoli. 213. Intrapulmonary pressure is also known as ____________________. 214. ____________________ production by RBCs increases during anaemia and shifts the oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve to the right, thus increasing the amount of oxygen that can be unloaded to tissues. 215. The maximum volume of air that can be moved in and out of the lungs in a single breath is known as the ____________________. 216. The ____________________ describes the phenomenon in which CO2 and H+ in RBCs can influence the dissociation of O2 from haemoglobin. 217. ____________________ is a pathological condition that impacts gas exchange negatively because alveolar surface area is dramatically reduced. 218. Oxygen and carbon dioxide move down ____________________ in order to cross the alveolar membrane. 219. ____________________ develops when oxygen delivery to tissues is compromised because the oxygencarrying capacity of the blood is reduced. 220. ____________________ develops if the chest wall is punctured and air enters the pleural space. 221. The apneustic and pneumotaxic centres are located in the ____________________. 222. Type II alveolar cells secrete ____________________, which disperses between water molecules that line the alveolar surface. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13_5ce 223. Hypoventilation can lead to ____________________, in which carbon dioxide levels in the blood become higher than normal. 224. When haemoglobin is not bound to oxygen, it is referred to as ____________________. 225. ____________________ lubricates the space between the parietal and visceral pleura. 226. A(n) ____________________ pressure across the chest wall influences lung movements. 227. ____________________ is the phenomenon whereby a collapsing alveolus is kept open by the stretch and recoil of the alveoli surrounding it. 228. The subjective sensation of not getting enough air is known as ____________________. 229. The mechanical act of ____________________ is what causes atmospheric air to be pulled into the lungs and alveolar air to be moved out. 230. ____________________ describes the duration that pulmonary blood is exposed to alveolar gasses. Match the types of hypoxia, labelled a. through d., with the circumstances. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. anaemic hypoxia b. circulatory hypoxia c. histotoxic hypoxia d. hypoxic hypoxia 231. cyanide poisoning 232. high altitude 233. carbon monoxide poisoning 234. emphysema 235. haemoglobin deficiency 236. congestive heart failure

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Chap 13_5ce Match the effects on the rate of gas transfer, labelled a. through c., with the changes listed. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. This change would increase the rate of gas transfer. b. This change would decrease the rate of gas transfer. c. This change would have no effect on the rate of gas transfer. 237. the effect of pulmonary fibrosis on O2 and CO2 exchange within the lungs 238. the effect of emphysema on O2 and CO2 exchange within the lungs 239. the effect of a fall in atmospheric PO2 on O2 exchange within the lungs 240. the effect on O2 exchange in the lungs by replacing part of the nitrogen with helium so that the inspired air consists of 60 percent N, 19 percent He, and 21 percent O2 241. the effect of increased metabolism of a cell on O2 and CO2 exchange between the cell and blood 242. the effect of tissue oedema on O2 and CO2 exchange between the surrounding cells and blood 243. the effect of reduced systemic venous PO2 on O2 exchange within the lungs Match the physiological factors, labelled a. through e., with the descriptions. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. arterial PO2 between 60 and 100 mmHg b. arterial PO2 less than 60 mmHg c. arterial PCO2 increased above normal d. brain ECF H+ increased above normal e. arterial H+ increased above normal 244. stimulates the peripheral chemoreceptors 245. directly depresses the central chemoreceptors 246. weakly stimulates the peripheral chemoreceptors 247. stimulates peripheral chemoreceptors as an emergency mechanism 248. directly stimulates the central chemoreceptors 249. represents the dominant control of ventilation

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Chap 13_5ce Match the lung volume/capacity terms, labelled a. through m., with the descriptions. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. vital capacity b. respiratory rate c. FEV1 d. tidal volume e. residual volume f. total lung capacity g. functional residual capacity h. alveolar ventilation i. pulmonary ventilation j. inspiratory reserve volume k. expiratory reserve volume l. inspiratory capacity m. anatomic dead space volume 250. respiratory rate × (tidal volume – dead space volume) 251. maximum volume of air that the lungs can hold 252. volume of air entering or leaving the lungs in a single breath during quiet breathing 253. minimum volume of air remaining in the lungs after maximal expiration 254. extra volume of air that can be maximally inspired over and above the tidal volume 255. maximum volume of air that can be moved in and out during a single breath 256. volume of air that can be expired during the first second of expiration during determination of vital capacity 257. maximum volume of air that can be inspired at the end of a normal expiration 258. inspiratory reserve volume + tidal volume + expiratory reserve volume 259. vital capacity + residual volume 260. volume of air in the respiratory airways 261. extra volume of air that can be actively expired by contraction of expiratory muscles beyond that normally expired 262. volume of air in the lungs at the end of a normal passive expiration 263. amount of air that is available for exchange of gases with the blood per minute 264. breaths/minute 265. Explain how changes in the pressure–volume relationship of the lungs and chest wall make the work of breathing lowest around functional residual capacity.

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Chap 13_5ce 266. Describe the mechanics of ventilation.

267. Explain the relationship between PO2 and haemoglobin saturation and the functional benefits of the plateau and steep portions of the oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve.

268. Describe the movement of O2 and CO2 across the pulmonary and systemic capillaries according to partial pressure gradients.

269. In addition to providing for gas exchange, what are the other functions of the respiratory system?

270. Discuss how the peripheral and central chemoreceptors contribute to chemical control of ventilation.

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Chap 13_5ce Answer Key 1. True 2. True 3. True 4. True 5. True 6. True 7. True 8. True 9. True 10. True 11. False 12. True 13. False 14. True 15. True 16. True 17. False 18. True 19. True 20. True 21. False 22. True 23. False 24. True 25. False 26. False

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Chap 13_5ce 27. False 28. True 29. True 30. False 31. False 32. True 33. False 34. True 35. True 36. False 37. True 38. True 39. True 40. True 41. False 42. True 43. True 44. False 45. True 46. False 47. False 48. False 49. True 50. True 51. False 52. True 53. False 54. True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13_5ce 55. False 56. True 57. True 58. False 59. True 60. False 61. True 62. True 63. False 64. True 65. False 66. False 67. True 68. True 69. False 70. True 71. False 72. True 73. True 74. False 75. True 76. False 77. True 78. True 79. True 80. False 81. True 82. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13_5ce 83. True 84. False 85. a 86. c 87. c 88. a 89. b 90. d 91. b 92. c 93. a 94. c 95. c 96. c 97. d 98. a 99. d 100. b 101. c 102. d 103. a 104. d 105. b 106. c 107. c 108. d 109. c 110. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13_5ce 111. a 112. d 113. a 114. b 115. c 116. d 117. a 118. d 119. c 120. a 121. d 122. c 123. c 124. d 125. a 126. d 127. a 128. a 129. b 130. b 131. d 132. b 133. c 134. d 135. a 136. b 137. a

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Chap 13_5ce 138. b 139. d 140. a 141. c 142. c 143. b 144. d 145. c 146. c 147. a 148. c 149. c 150. d 151. d 152. b 153. d 154. a 155. a 156. b 157. b 158. b 159. d 160. a 161. c 162. c 163. b 164. a 165. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13_5ce 166. a 167. b 168. b 169. c 170. b 171. a 172. b 173. a 174. a 175. b 176. b 177. a 178. d 179. a 180. b 181. hyperventilation 182. anatomic dead space 183. Haldane 184. depresses 185. inspiratory 186. Hyperpnea 187. external respiration 188. shunts 189. Emphysema 190. diaphragm 191. inspiratory; expiratory (in any order) expiratory; inspiratory 192. carotid 193. abdominals; internal intercostals (in either order) Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13_5ce 194. pulmonary surfactant; alveolar interdependence (in either order) 195. collateral ventilation 196. Apnea 197. carbamino haemoglobin 198. pleural space 199. phrenic nerve 200. hypoxic hypoxia 201. lungs; chest wall (in either order) 202. hydrogen 203. functional residual capacity 204. diaphragm; external intercostals (in either order) 205. CO2 produced; O2 consumed 206. medulla of the brain stem 207. alveolar dead space 208. atelectasis 209. surface tension; elastic recoil (in either order) 210. Boyle’s 211. chloride shift 212. pores of Kohn 213. alveolar pressure 214. 2,3-Bisphosphoglycerate 215. vital capacity 216. Bohr effect 217. Emphysema 218. partial pressure gradients 219. Anaemic hypoxia 220. Pneumothorax 221. pons 222. pulmonary surfactant

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Chap 13_5ce 223. hypercapnia 224. reduced haemoglobin, deoxyhaemoglobin 225. Pleural fluid 226. transmural 227. Alveolar interdependence 228. dyspnea 229. breathing, ventilation 230. Capillary transit time 231. c 232. d 233. a 234. d 235. a 236. b 237. b 238. b 239. b 240. c 241. a 242. b 243. a 244. d 245. e 246. a 247. b 248. c 249. c 250. h Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13_5ce 251. f 252. d 253. e 254. j 255. a 256. c 257. l 258. a 259. f 260. m 261. k 262. g 263. h 264. b 265. Answers will vary. 266. Answers will vary. 267. Answers will vary. 268. Answers will vary. 269. Answers will vary. 270. Answers will vary.

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Chap 14_5ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. Autoregulation of GFR is designed to keep GFR relatively constant despite deviations in MAP. a. True b. False 2. The three major processes involved in urine formation are filtration, reabsorption, and excretion. a. True b. False 3. If MAP increases, the myogenic properties of the afferent arteriole will cause vasodilation and more blood to enter the glomerular capillaries, which will increase GFR. a. True b. False 4. Vasopressin increases H2O reabsorption in the proximal tubule. a. True b. False 5. Increases in plasma K+ concentration enhance secretion of aldosterone by stimulating the renin–angiotensin– aldosterone system. a. True b. False 6. Changes in the osmolarity of the extracellular fluid are detected by osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus. a. True b. False 7. A long loop of Henle in a juxtamedullary nephron preserves the vertical osmotic gradient that has been established by its corresponding vasa recta. a. True b. False 8. The efferent arteriole delivers blood from the renal artery into the glomerular capillaries. a. True b. False 9. Urine moves from the kidneys to the urinary bladder through the ureters passively by the force of gravity. a. True b. False 10. Sympathetic vasoconstriction of the afferent arterioles and a resultant fall in the GFR occur as part of the baroreceptor reflex response when the blood pressure is too low. a. True b. False

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Chap 14_5ce 11. Water reabsorption through the proximal tubule and loop of Henle is not subject to hormonal control and is therefore constant. a. True b. False 12. Atrial natriuretic peptide is secreted in response to an increase in blood volume and reduces Na+ reabsorption. a. True b. False 13. In the kidney, blood is filtered in the cortex, drains through the renal pelvis into the renal medulla, and from there travels in the ureter to the urinary bladder. a. True b. False 14. Sodium reabsorption in the distal and collecting tubules is important for the kidney’s ability to produce urine that is either concentrated or dilute. a. True b. False 15. Tubular secretion of K+ is coupled to the activity of the Na+–K+ pump in the basolateral membrane. a. True b. False 16. The epithelial lining of the bladder passively stretches to accommodate a larger volume during bladder filling. a. True b. False 17. The kidneys participate in acid–base balance by adjusting secretion of H+ in the proximal, distal, and collecting tubules. a. True b. False 18. A plasma clearance of 135 mL/min for a substance when the GFR is 125 mL/min indicates that net secretion of the substance occurs. a. True b. False 19. Bowman’s capsule hydrostatic pressure is a force that favours filtration. a. True b. False 20. The receptor sites for vasopressin binding are located on the basolateral border, yet the end result is an increase in H2O permeability of the luminal border of the tubular cells. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_5ce 21. Glomeruli of juxtamedullary nephrons lie in the renal medulla. a. True b. False 22. Glomerular filtration will occur as long as glomerular capillary pressure is higher than the sum of Bowman’s capsule hydrostatic pressure and plasma–colloid osmotic pressure. a. True b. False 23. When tubular fluid enters the distal tubule, it is hypotonic. a. True b. False 24. In addition to net filtration pressure, changing the permeability or surface area of the glomerular membrane can also affect glomerular filtration rate. a. True b. False 25. One can deliberately prevent urination in spite of the micturition reflex by voluntarily inhibiting the parasympathetic supply to the bladder to halt bladder contraction. a. True b. False 26. The collecting tubules use the vertical osmotic gradient established in the renal medulla to produce urine of varying concentration. a. True b. False 27. Tubular secretion selectively moves substances from the plasma into the tubular filtrate. a. True b. False 28. The kidneys do not directly regulate levels of PO43– in the body because there is no renal threshold for this ion. a. True b. False 29. Although the kidneys are innervated by nerves that have the ability to regulate renal blood flow, the activity of those nerves is not required for the kidneys to carry out their functions. a. True b. False 30. If a substance is filtered and secreted but not reabsorbed, its plasma clearance rate is always less than the GFR. a. True b. False

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Chap 14_5ce 31. The vast majority of the filtered fluid is reabsorbed. a. True b. False 32. As the kidneys carry out their basic renal processes, they regulate the composition of the interstitial fluid. a. True b. False 33. Contraction of mesangial cells closes off a portion of the filtering capillaries, which leads to a decrease in GFR if the filtration pressure remains unchanged. a. True b. False 34. If blood flow to the kidneys is reduced, they would still receive enough oxygen to fulfil their needs. a. True b. False 35. Plasma concentrations of K+ are regulated mainly through selective reabsorption from the tubules. a. True b. False 36. The inner layer of the glomerular membrane is composed of a layer of cells known as podocytes. a. True b. False 37. Tubular secretion of K+ is variable along the distal sections of the tubules. a. True b. False 38. An increase in plasma K+ stimulates aldosterone secretion in a manner that is distinct from when aldosterone is secreted because of decreased plasma Na+. a. True b. False 39. Exercise increases renal blood flow due to generalized vasodilation of blood vessels. a. True b. False 40. Tubular reabsorption and tubular secretion are highly selective processes, whereas glomerular filtration is not. a. True b. False 41. Transcellular transport accounts for most of the movement during tubular reabsorption. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_5ce 42. The Tm represents the maximum amount of a particular substance that can be excreted in the urine per unit of time. a. True b. False 43. In the tubular segments permeable to H2O, solute reabsorption is always accompanied by comparable H2O reabsorption. a. True b. False 44. A decrease in plasma–colloid osmotic pressure, which is often observed in patients with severe burns, reduces glomerular filtration rate. a. True b. False 45. The amount of sodium reabsorbed in the distal and collecting tubules can be influenced by the presence of hormones. a. True b. False 46. Twenty-two percent of the cardiac output goes to the kidneys because of their tremendous nutrient requirement for the active transport of Na+. a. True b. False 47. During the micturition reflex, the motor neuron supplying the external urethral sphincter is stimulated. a. True b. False 48. Sodium reabsorption in the loop of Henle is linked to the reabsorption of glucose. a. True b. False 49. In order for substances to be filtered out of the glomerular capillaries, they must pass through three separate parts of the glomerular membrane. a. True b. False 50. In active reabsorption, all the steps involved in transepithelial transport are active. a. True b. False 51. The afferent arteriole is the blood vessel that carries blood to the glomerular capillaries. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_5ce 52. Renin is secreted by the macula densa cells of the juxtaglomerular apparatus. a. True b. False 53. Renal secretion of H+ increases when H+ in body fluids becomes too high. a. True b. False 54. At a constant GFR, doubling the plasma glucose concentration results in a doubling of the filtered load for glucose. a. True b. False 55. During tubular secretion, substances are secreted from the tubules back into the plasma within the peritubular capillaries. a. True b. False 56. Plasma proteins are normally filtered in the nephron. a. True b. False 57. The clearance rate for inulin is greater than the GFR. a. True b. False 58. The kidneys keep the urine volume and composition essentially constant. a. True b. False 59. Negatively charged glycoproteins in the glomerular basement membrane prevent albumin from being filtered out of the plasma and into the glomerular filtrate. a. True b. False 60. If plasma glucose concentrations are above what is considered normal but below the renal threshold, glucose will not appear in the urine. a. True b. False 61. Enlargement of the prostate can impede the flow of urine by partially or completely blocking the urethra. a. True b. False

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Chap 14_5ce 62. The kidney’s system of organic ion excretion only secretes organic ions that came from outside the body. a. True b. False 63. Urea is passively reabsorbed down the osmotic gradient created by active Na+ reabsorption. a. True b. False 64. Vasodilation of the afferent arteriole increases glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure and increases GFR. a. True b. False 65. If a kidney stone blocked the renal pelvis and consequently caused a buildup of fluid pressure in the tubules and Bowman’s capsule, the net filtration pressure across the glomerular capillary membrane would increase. a. True b. False 66. If blood pressure decreases, renin secretion will be increased. a. True b. False 67. Autoregulation of the GFR is accomplished by activation of the sympathetic nervous system. a. True b. False 68. Active reabsorption is used for substances whose concentration is higher in the plasma compared to the tubular filtrate. a. True b. False 69. The urethra drains urine from the collecting ducts to the urinary bladder. a. True b. False 70. The micturition reflex controls bladder emptying in adults. a. True b. False 71. The secretion of vasopressin increases if the extracellular fluid becomes hypertonic. a. True b. False 72. The glomerular filtrate is almost identical in composition to the plasma. a. True b. False

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Chap 14_5ce 73. Acute renal failure may be reversible, whereas chronic renal failure is not reversible. a. True b. False 74. The glomerular capillary blood pressure is higher than capillary pressure elsewhere in the body primarily because the afferent arteriole has a larger diameter than the efferent arteriole. a. True b. False 75. The kidneys are the organs that are primarily responsible for maintaining constancy of the volume and electrolyte composition of the internal fluid environment. a. True b. False 76. Only juxtamedullary nephrons contain a juxtaglomerular apparatus. a. True b. False 77. When aldosterone is secreted in response to activation of the RAAS pathway, K+ secretion is not affected. a. True b. False 78. NaCl is actively transported from the descending limb of the loop of Henle to establish the medullary osmotic gradient. a. True b. False 79. The clearance rate for a substance that is filtered and secreted but not reabsorbed is greater than the GFR. a. True b. False 80. All the plasma that enters the glomerulus is normally filtered into Bowman’s capsule, except for the plasma proteins. a. True b. False 81. A rise in ECF K+ concentration leads to increased excitability of heart muscle, possibly producing fatal cardiac arrhythmias. a. True b. False 82. The group of cells located where the distal tubule comes into contact with the afferent and efferent arterioles of the same nephron is known as the juxtaglomerular apparatus. a. True b. False

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Chap 14_5ce 83. Due to the relationship between H+ and K+ secretion, increased acidity of body fluids can lead to K+ retention. a. True b. False 84. Aldosterone promotes water reabsorption by controlling the reabsorption of salt. a. True b. False 85. The smooth muscle of the bladder is innervated by parasympathetic fibres. a. True b. False 86. Eighty percent of the energy consumed by the kidneys is for reabsorption of Na+, highlighting the importance of this ion in the body. a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 87. Which of these statements refers to cortical nephrons? a. Their primary function is urine formation. b. They include the majority of all nephrons. c. Their nephrons lie in the renal medulla. d. They have a long loop of Henle. 88. Which substance is used to measure GFR? a. creatinine b. para-aminohippuric acid c. glucose d. inulin 89. Which statement applies to plasma clearance? a. the time required for plasma to filter from blood in the glomerulus b. the amount of a substance cleared and appearing in the urine in one minute c. the amount of a substance in plasma filtered in one minute d. the volume of plasma that is completely cleared of a substance by the kidneys in one minute 90. An increase in the concentration ECF will lead to reabsorption of H2O from which section of the renal tubules? a. proximal tubule c. ascending loop of Henle

b. descending loop of Henle d. distal and collecting tubules

91. In which part of the kidney does the greatest percentage of Na+ reabsorption take place? a. collecting tubule b. loop of Henle c. distal tubule d. proximal tubule

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Chap 14_5ce 92. What establishes the medullary vertical osmotic gradient by means of countercurrent multiplication? a. loops of Henle of juxtamedullary nephrons b. loops of Henle of cortical nephrons c. vasa recta of juxtamedullary nephrons d. vasa recta of cortical nephrons 93. Which of these statements does NOT refer to atrial natriuretic peptide? a. It is secreted by the heart when atrial pressure is high. b. It results in decreased glomerular filtration rate. c. It inhibits aldosterone activity. d. Its main action is to increase sodium excretion in urine. 94. Which hormone is involved in controlling K+ secretion? a. aldosterone b. angiotensin II c. vasopressin d. renin 95. Na+ reabsorption in which part of the tubule is required for the reabsorption of glucose? a. proximal tubule b. loop of Henle c. distal tubule d. collecting tubule 96. The glomerular capillary blood pressure in the nephron is 78 mmHg. The Bowman’s capsular hydrostatic pressure is 24 mmHg. The colloidal osmotic pressure is 18 mmHg. What is the net filtration pressure? a. 18 mmHg b. 26 mmHg c. 36 mmHg d. 42 mmHg 97. Which structure empties directly into the renal pelvis? a. collecting duct b. peritubular capillary c. loop of Henle d. distal tubule 98. Which of the following is considered one of the most important substances regulated by tubular secretion? a. glucose

b. Na+

c. urea

d. K+

99. What is the first step in urine formation? a. filtration b. secretion c. reabsorption d. excretion

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Chap 14_5ce 100. Which is the proper sequence of events involved in transepithelial transport? a. crossing the luminal membrane of the tubular cell; movement through the cytosol of the tubular cell; crossing the basolateral membrane of the tubular cell; diffusion through the interstitial fluid; crossing the capillary wall b. crossing the basolateral membrane of the tubular cell; movement through the cytosol of the tubular cell; crossing the luminal membrane of the tubular cell; diffusion through the interstitial fluid; crossing the capillary wall c. diffusion through the interstitial fluid; crossing the luminal membrane of the tubular cell; movement through the cytosol of the tubular cell; crossing the basolateral membrane of the tubular cell; crossing the capillary wall d. crossing the capillary wall; diffusion through the interstitial fluid; crossing the basolateral membrane of the tubular cell; movement through the cytosol of the tubular cell; crossing the luminal membrane of the tubular cell 101. If mean arterial pressure increased, what would happen to GFR if there were no autoregulatory mechanisms in place? a. GFR would not change. b. GFR would decrease. c. GFR would increase. d. GFR would decrease initially, and then gradually increase. 102. Where are the osmoreceptors that contribute to water balance located? a. hypothalamus b. adrenal cortex c. juxtaglomerular apparatus d. renal cortex 103. The plasma clearance of a substance can be used to calculate the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) if that substance is freely filtered at the glomerulus and is a. secreted and reabsorbed by the tubules. b. neither reabsorbed nor secreted by the tubules. c. secreted by the tubules but not reabsorbed by the tubules. d. reabsorbed by the tubules but not secreted by the tubules. 104. Which of these statements refers to aldosterone secretion? a. It is stimulated by angiotensin II. b. It occurs in the kidney. c. It is controlled by the concentration of Cl–. d. It is secreted by the macula densa. 105. Which of these forces favours glomerular filtration? a. glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure b. capsular osmotic pressure c. glomerular capillary osmotic pressure d. capsular hydrostatic pressure

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Chap 14_5ce 106. Given the following data for substance X, how much of substance X is filtered, reabsorbed, and excreted? GFR = 125 mL/min; Tm = 125 mg/min at a plasma concentration of 200 mg/100 mL a. 125 mg/min filtered; 125 mg/min reabsorbed; 0 mg/min excreted b. 200 mg/min filtered; 125 mg/min reabsorbed; 75 mg/min excreted c. 250 mg/min filtered; 125 mg/min reabsorbed; 125 mg/min excreted d. 250 mg/min filtered; 200 mg/min reabsorbed; 50 mg/min excreted 107. What is the renal process whereby substances that have moved out of the glomerular capillaries are returned to the peritubular capillaries? a. filtration b. secretion c. reabsorption d. excretion 108. Which of the following is NOT a function of the kidneys? a. to act directly on the interstitial fluid—the fluid that bathes the cells—to maintain constancy in its composition b. to contribute significantly to long-term regulation of arterial blood pressure by maintaining the proper plasma volume c. to excrete metabolic waste products d. to assist in maintaining the proper acid–base balance of the body 109. What is the order of flow of filtrate through the nephron components and associated structures? a. ascending limb of loop of Henle; proximal tubule; distal tubule; collecting tubule; Bowman’s capsule; descending limb of loop of Henle b. Bowman’s capsule; proximal tubule; descending limb of loop of Henle; ascending limb of loop of Henle; distal tubule; collecting tubule c. Bowman’s capsule; distal tubule; proximal tubule; collecting tubule; descending limb of loop of Henle; ascending limb of loop of Henle d. collecting tubule; Bowman’s capsule; proximal tubule; descending limb of loop of Henle; ascending limb of loop of Henle; distal tubule 110. Which portion of the tubules is always impermeable to water? a. proximal tubule b. descending limb of the loop of Henle c. ascending limb of the loop of Henle d. collecting tubule 111. The inner layer of Bowman’s capsule is composed of which type of cell? a. tubular cells b. epithelial cells c. endothelial cells d. podocytes 112. Which of these statements applies to the blood that flows through the kidneys? a. normally about 20 to 25 percent of the total cardiac output b. all filtered through the glomeruli c. all used to supply the renal tissue with O2 and nutrients d. normally about 40 percent of the total cardiac output

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Chap 14_5ce 113. Which of these statements refers to juxtamedullary nephrons? a. Their primary function is urine formation. b. They include the majority of all nephrons. c. Their nephrons lie in the renal medulla. d. They have a relatively short loop of Henle. 114. What is the order of blood flow through the nephron components and its associated structures? a. afferent arteriole; efferent arteriole; glomerular capillaries; peritubular capillaries b. afferent arteriole; glomerular capillaries; peritubular capillaries; efferent arteriole c. afferent arteriole; glomerular capillaries; efferent arteriole; peritubular capillaries d. afferent arteriole; peritubular capillaries; glomerular capillaries; efferent arteriole 115. Which statement does NOT describe the medullary vertical osmotic gradient? a. The loops of Henle of juxtamedullary nephrons establish a medullary vertical osmotic gradient by means of countercurrent multiplication. b. The vasa recta enable the medulla to be supplied with blood while conserving the medullary vertical osmotic gradient by means of countercurrent exchange. c. The countercurrent system establishes and maintains a medullary vertical osmotic gradient ranging from 300 to 1200 mOsm/L. d. The collecting tubules of the juxtamedullary nephrons but not the cortical nephrons descend through the medullary vertical osmotic gradient before emptying into the renal pelvis. 116. How does vasopressin increase water reabsorption from the distal and collecting tubules? a. by increasing the osmotic gradient between the ECF and the tubular filtrate b. by activating cAMP and water channels into the luminal membrane of the tubular cells c. by stimulating activity of the Na+–K+ pump on the basolateral membrane of the tubular cells d. by binding to water channels in the luminal membrane of tubular cells, causing them to open 117. What converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin within the renin–angiotensin–aldosterone system? a. renin b. angiotensin-converting enzyme c. aldosterone d. vasopressin 118. Which of these substances is used to assess renal plasma flow? a. para-aminohippuric acid b. inulin c. glucose d. creatinine 119. Which of these is NOT involved in triggering renin secretion? a. baroreceptor activity of granular cells in the juxtaglomerular apparatus b. vasodilation of the efferent arteriole c. sensing of NaCl in the tubular filtrate flowing past the macula densa d. sympathetic stimulation of the granular cells

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Chap 14_5ce 120. What is the renal process whereby substances that require further removal from the blood are moved into urinary filtrate? a. filtration b. excretion c. reabsorption d. secretion 121. Which of the following pertains to the ascending limb of the loop of Henle? a. NaCl passively leaves the tubular fluid down its concentration gradient. b. NaCl is actively transported into the interstitial fluid, leaving water behind because the tubular cells are not permeable to water. c. K+ is secreted. d. Aldosterone stimulates Na+ reabsorption. 122. What is the main purpose for having extrinsic regulation of GFR? a. to reinforce the actions of the intrinsic regulators of GFR b. to make adjustments to GFR when MAP falls outside the range of 80 to 180 mmHg c. to provide a secondary way of adjusting GFR if the intrinsic regulators fail d. to override the actions of the intrinsic regulators of GFR and make purposeful changes to GFR 123. Which of the following accurately describes renal failure? a. Both the tubules and the glomeruli must be dysfunctional for renal failure to occur. b. Chronic renal failure may be reversed with adequate medication and diet. c. Acute renal failure is always fatal because of its rapid onset. d. Symptoms of chronic renal failure may not become obvious until 75 percent of kidney function is lost. 124. If mean arterial pressure increased, what would happen to GFR if there was no autoregulatory mechanisms in place? a. GFR would not change. b. GFR would decrease. c. GFR would increase. d. GFR would decrease initially, and then gradually increase. 125. Which of these statements describes tubular maximum (Tm)? a. the rate of glomerular filtration b. the rate at which a substance can be reabsorbed because of saturation of the carrier molecule c. the rate at which a substance can be cleared from the blood d. the percentage of renal blood flow that can be converted to filtrate 126. Na+ reabsorption in which part of the tubule is important in the regulation of ECF volume and the maintenance of blood pressure? a. proximal tubule b. ascending loop of Henle c. descending loop of Henle d. distal and collecting tubule

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Chap 14_5ce 127. Where can H+ be secreted along the tubular component of the nephron? a. proximal tubule b. distal tubule c. proximal and distal tubules d. proximal, distal, and collecting tubules 128. If mean arterial pressure increases, what will be the outcome of myogenic autoregulation of GFR? a. vasodilation of the efferent arteriole b. vasoconstriction of the efferent arteriole c. vasodilation of the afferent arteriole d. vasoconstriction of the afferent arteriole 129. Which of these statements describes glomerular filtrate? a. It is plasma-free blood. b. It is formed as a result of passive forces acting across the glomerular membrane. c. It does not contain foreign compounds. d. Its rate is increased by increased plasma protein level. 130. Relative to the interstitial fluid of the renal cortex, what is the concentration of the fluid leaving the loop of Henle? a. hypertonic b. hypotonic c. isotonic d. isoosmotic 131. Why is inulin an ideal substance to use for assessing GFR? a. because it is filtered but not reabsorbed b. because it is filtered and completed reabsorbed c. because it is filtered and partially reabsorbed d. because it is filtered, partially reabsorbed, and secreted 132. Which of these statements describes tubular secretion? a. It is the movement of a substance from the peritubular capillary blood into the tubular lumen. b. It can occur in the proximal convoluted tubules and is stimulated by aldosterone. c. It can occur by active or passive transport mechanisms. d. It is a supplemental mechanism that hastens elimination of compounds from the body. 133. What prevents the filtration of albumin from the plasma into the filtrate? a. very small pores between the endothelial cells of the glomerular capillary wall b. podocyte foot processes c. negatively charged glycoproteins in the basement membrane d. plasma–colloid osmotic pressure 134. Which of the statements applies to K+? a. The kidneys do not exert a large degree of control over K+ concentrations in the plasma. b. Decreased K+ in plasma reduces aldosterone secretion by the adrenal cortex. c. An excess of H+ in body fluids decreases the amount of K+ excreted by the kidneys. d. When aldosterone is secreted in response to a fall in plasma Na+, K+ secretion is not affected. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_5ce 135. How does urine move from the kidneys to the urinary bladder? a. by active transport b. passively, by the force of gravity c. by peristaltic contraction of the smooth muscle of the ureters d. by the bladder emptying and creating a negative pressure that pulls the urine to the bladder 136. Which of these statements does NOT apply to potassium? a. It is secreted in the proximal tubule. b. It is actively secreted in the distal and collecting tubules. c. Its secretion is controlled by aldosterone. d. Its secretion is linked with Na+ reabsorption by the Na+–K+ pump. 137. Which of these statements describes micturition? a. It is the process of concentrating urine. b. It is a parasympathetic reflex. c. It is initiated when stretch receptors in the bladder wall are inhibited. d. The internal urethral sphincter is under voluntary control. 138. Which of the following is NOT a function of the kidneys? a. to excrete metabolic wastes b. to maintain proper plasma volume c. to secrete aldosterone to regulate sodium d. to maintain proper osmolarity of body fluids 139. When the bladder wall is distended as a result of urine accumulation, the stretch receptors are stimulated and send afferent impulses to the spinal cord. Which of these statements does NOT describe the afferent impulses? a. They stimulate parasympathetic nerves, which return to the bladder and cause it to contract. b. They inhibit the motor neurons that normally keep the external urethral sphincter closed. c. They stimulate parasympathetic nerves and cause the internal urethral sphincter to open mechanically. d. They stimulate nerves that go to the kidney and prevent glomerular filtration until the bladder is empty. 140. Why do certain substances, such as glucose, exhibit a tubular maximum (Tm)? a. because their concentrations in the plasma can reach levels where filtration is limited b. because activity of the Na+–K+ pump reaches a plateau and secondary active transport of substances can go no higher c. because their rate of glomerular filtration is so high that tubular concentrations reach a maximum level before they are reabsorbed d. because there are a limited number of carrier molecules for these substances, and once they become saturated no more substance can be transported

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Chap 14_5ce 141. Which one of these statements does NOT apply to extrinsic control of the GFR? a. It is mediated by sympathetic nervous system input to the afferent arterioles. b. It is aimed at the regulation of arterial blood pressure. c. It is an autoregulatory mechanism. d. Baroreceptors are involved. 142. Why do patients with serious burns experience an increase in GFR? a. because plasma–colloid osmotic pressure decreases due to loss of plasma proteins b. because glomerular capillary pressure is reduced due to fluid loss c. because plasma–colloid osmotic pressure increases due to loss of plasma proteins d. because Bowman’s capsule hydrostatic pressure decreases due to fluid loss 143. Na+ reabsorption in which part of the tubule is linked to the ability of the kidneys to produce concentrated versus dilute urine? a. proximal tubule b. loop of Henle c. distal tubule d. collecting tubule 144. Where is water reabsorption under the control of vasopressin? a. along the entire length of the nephron b. only in the loop of Henle c. only in the distal and collecting tubules d. only in the proximal tubule 145. If a substance is filtered and reabsorbed, how does plasma clearance rate for that substance compare to GFR? a. It will be lower. b. It will be higher. c. It will be the same. d. It cannot be compared. 146. Which of the following does NOT describe physiological regulation of K+? a. Aldosterone stimulates K+ secretion in the distal tubules. b. The plasma level of K+ is maintained by adjusting how much is reabsorbed in the tubules. c. Secretion of K+ in the distal and collecting tubules is dependent on activity of the Na+–K+ pump. d. An increase in plasma K+ concentration directly stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete aldosterone. 147. Which substance is filtered during glomerular filtration, but only 50 percent of it reabsorbed? a. glucose b. urea c. sodium d. phenol 148. Vasa recta are associated with which of these structures? a. afferent arterioles b. efferent arterioles c. cortical nephrons d. juxtamedullary nephrons

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Chap 14_5ce 149. When is renal blood flow the highest? a. when at rest b. during moderate intensity exercise c. during high intensity exercise d. during sympathetic nervous system activation 150. What happens to the concentration of the filtrate as it moves through the ascending loop of Henle? a. It becomes less concentrated. b. It becomes more concentrated. c. The concentration stays the same. d. It initially becomes less concentrated, but then more concentrated half way up the loop. 151. What happens to tubular secretion when the extracellular fluid becomes too acidic? a. No ionic substance is affected. b. Hydrogen ions decrease. c. Hydrogen ions increase. d. Sodium ions decrease. 152. Which of the following does NOT influence renal blood flow? a. tubuloglomerular feedback mechanisms b. the autonomic nervous system c. urine formation d. myogenic responses 153. Which of these is NOT considered part of the glomerular membrane? a. the basement membrane b. the outer layer of Bowman’s capsule c. the glomerular capillary wall d. the inner layer of Bowman’s capsule 154. Which factor would reduce net filtration pressure the most? a. vasodilation of the afferent arteriole b. vasocontraction of the efferent arteriole c. a low capsular hydrostatic pressure d. a large increase in blood colloid osmotic pressure 155. What is the average glomerular filtration rate? a. 125 mL/min b. 625 mL/min c. 750 mL/day d. 1140 mL/day 156. Which part of the juxtamedullary nephron is responsible for establishing the vertical osmotic gradient in the medulla of the kidney? a. loop of Henle b. afferent arteriole c. collecting duct d. juxtaglomerular apparatus

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Chap 14_5ce 157. Which statement describes the loop of Henle of juxtamedullary nephrons? a. The ascending limb of the loop of Henle is freely permeable to H2O and NaCl. b. The filtrate is isotonic as it enters the loop of Henle, hypertonic at the tip of the loop, and hypotonic as it leaves the loop of Henle. c. The descending limb of the loop of Henle actively transports NaCl out of the tubule and into the interstitial fluid. d. It is located at the junction of the renal cortex and the medulla. 158. Which statement describes an aspect of glomerular filtration? a. Bowman’s capsule hydrostatic pressure opposes filtration. b. Its rate is limited by a Tm. c. All the plasma that enters the glomerulus is filtered. d. All the plasma that enters the glomerulus is reabsorbed. 159. Where does tubular secretion of foreign substances such as drugs generally occur? a. Bowman’s capsule b. the loop of Henle c. the collecting duct d. the proximal tubule 160. What stimulates sodium reabsorption in the distal portions of the nephron? a. atrial natriuretic peptide b. vasopressin c. angiotensin II d. aldosterone 161. If the macula densa cells sense an increase in salt in the tubular filtrate, what is produced to stimulate vasoconstriction of the afferent arteriole? a. oxygen b. nitric oxide c. adenosine

d. H+

162. Which of these statements accurately describes the countercurrent system? a. The loop of Henle of juxtamedullary nephrons is responsible for preserving a vertical osmotic gradient in the interstitial fluid of the renal medulla by countercurrent multiplication. b. The active NaCl pump of the ascending limb of Henle’s limb can establish a 200 mOsm/L concentration difference between the ascending limb and the surrounding fluid at any given horizontal level. c. The vasa recta establish the vertical osmotic gradient while supplying blood to the medullary tissue by means of countercurrent exchange. d. The ascending loop of Henle of nephrons utilizes the driving force of the vertical osmotic gradient to accomplish variable H2O reabsorption under the control of vasopressin, which governs its permeability. 163. Which of these statements describes the renal threshold? a. the maximum amount of a particular substance that can be excreted in the urine per unit of time b. the maximum amount of a particular substance that the tubular cells are capable of actively reabsorbing per unit of time c. the plasma concentration of a particular substance at which its Tm is reached and the substance first appears in the urine d. the maximum amount of waste product that can be concentrated in the urine per unit of time Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_5ce 164. Which of these conditions would be associated with an increase in GFR? a. enlarged prostate b. serious burns to a large area of the body c. dehydrating diarrhoea d. kidney stones 165. Which of these statements does NOT describe water reabsorption? a. It occurs by active transport in the distal and collecting tubules. b. It occurs to the greatest extent in the proximal convoluted tubule. c. It is under vasopressin control in the distal and collecting tubules. d. It occurs by active transport in the distal and collecting tubules. 166. The macula densa of the juxtaglomerular apparatus are sensitive to changes in what? a. salt b. mean arterial pressure c. fluid levels d. GFR 167. Approximately how much of the plasma that enters the glomerulus is filtered? a. 10 percent b. 20 percent c. 50 percent d. 100 percent 168. In addition to net filtration pressure, what is an additional determinant of glomerular filtration rate? a. Bowman’s capsule permeability b. urinary output c. cardiac output d. glomerular membrane surface area 169. Which of these statements describes why tubular secretion is important? a. for the renal regulation of sodium balance b. for the elimination of metabolic waste products from the body c. for the renal regulation of hydrogen ion concentration d. for glucose secretion 170. Which of the following happens when blood volume becomes abnormally low? a. Sodium reabsorption is diminished. b. Dilute urine is formed. c. Renin catalyzes the conversion of angiotensinogen. d. Aldosterone is secreted by the kidney. 171. If blood volume is reduced and blood pressure decreases accordingly, activation of baroreceptors will trigger which response? a. nitric oxide-induced vasodilation of the afferent arteriole and an increase in GFR b. adenosine-induced vasoconstriction of the afferent arteriole and a decrease in GFR c. myogenic-induced vasodilation of the afferent arteriole and an increase in GFR d. sympathetically induced vasoconstriction of the afferent arteriole and a decrease in GFR 172. Which nephron structure is especially important in the kidney’s ability to produce urine of varying concentration? a. Bowman’s capsule b. proximal tubule c. distal tubule d. loop of Henle Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_5ce 173. Which of the following is a potential consequence of the kidneys NOT properly regulating K+ secretion? a. dehydration b. kidney stones c. fatal cardiac arrhythmias d. decreased bone mineral density 174. Which section of the renal tubules is always impermeable to H2O? a. proximal tubule c. ascending loop of Henle

b. descending loop of Henle d. distal and collecting tubules

175. Which of these factors does NOT contribute to the establishment of a vertical osmotic gradient in the interstitial fluid of the renal medulla? a. the renin–angiotensin–aldosterone system b. countercurrent multiplication in the long loops of Henle of juxtamedullary nephrons c. urea recycling between the late portion of the collecting tubule and the long loops of Henle d. active transportation of sodium out of the ascending limb of the loop of Henle 176. Which of these statements applies to vasopressin? a. It can completely halt urine production during periods of water deprivation to conserve water for the body. b. It increases Na+ reabsorption by the distal portions of the nephron. c. It renders the distal and collecting tubules impermeable to water. d. It activates the cyclic AMP second-messenger system within the tubular cells. 177. Which of the following is the specialized nephron capillary bed where filtration occurs? a. afferent arteriole b. efferent arteriole c. glomerulus d. peritubular bed 178. What is the functional unit of the kidney? a. glomerulus b. nephron c. medulla d. juxtaglomerular apparatus 179. Which of the following is NOT involved in autoregulation of the GFR? a. a myogenic mechanism whereby the afferent arteriole automatically constricts when it is stretched b. a tubuloglomerular feedback mechanism whereby vasoactive chemicals released from the juxtaglomerular apparatus bring about afferent arteriolar vasoconstriction c. sympathetically induced vasoconstriction of the afferent arterioles d. a MAP of 80 to 180 mmHg 180. Which portion of the nephron directly supplies the renal tissue with blood? a. efferent arteriole b. glomerulus c. loop of Henle d. peritubular capillaries

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Chap 14_5ce 181. Which of these statements does NOT describe juxtamedullary nephrons? a. Their tubules lie in the renal cortex. b. They are important in the ability of the kidneys to concentrate urine. c. Their loops of Henle dip deep into the medulla. d. Their peritubular capillaries form vasa recta. 182. Which of the following does NOT stimulate aldosterone secretion? a. an increase in plasma K+ c. overhydration

b. a decrease in plasma K+ d. low plasma sodium level

183. Which of these statements applies to water reabsorption? a. It is under the control of vasopressin throughout the length of the nephron. b. The ascending limb of the loop of Henle is always impermeable to water. c. Vasopressin makes the distal and collecting tubules impermeable to water. d. Fifteen percent of the filtered water osmotically follows the absorption of Na+ and other solutes in the proximal tubule. 184. Which of these statements applies to the urethral sphincters? a. When the bladder is relaxed and filling, both the internal and external urethral sphincters are contracted. b. The internal urethral sphincter is under voluntary control. c. The external urethral sphincter is composed of smooth muscle. d. Only the external urethral sphincter needs to be opened for urination to occur. 185. When is tubular secretion of H+ increased? a. when HCO3– secretion decreases

b. when HCO3– secretion increases

c. when the pH of body fluids decreases

d. when the pH of body fluids increases

186. What is the location of the Na+–K+ ATPase transport system that plays a pivotal role in much of tubular reabsorption? a. in the luminal membrane of tubular cells b. in podocytes c. in the basolateral membrane of tubular cells d. in the glomerular capillary membrane 187. Which statement refers to the kidneys? a. They can respond to a surplus of a water-soluble compound in the body better than a deficit. b. They can completely turn off urine production if a person does not consume any water. c. They cannot compensate for fluid losses due to haemorrhage. d. They cannot compensate for a deficit of a substance in the body. 188. What portion of a nephron is most likely to be found within the renal medulla? a. Bowman’s capsule b. glomerulus c. loop of Henle d. proximal tubule Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_5ce 189. What will happen if the macula densa cells sense a decrease in salt in the tubular filtrate? a. vasoconstriction of the afferent arteriole b. vasodilation of the afferent arteriole c. an increase in salt reabsorption from the tubules d. a decrease in salt reabsorption from the tubules 190. Which of the following happens when the bladder of an infant becomes full of urine? a. A motor neuron supplying the external urethral sphincter is inhibited, allowing the sphincter to open. b. The parasympathetic nerve supplying the bladder is inhibited, allowing the bladder to relax. c. A motor neuron supplying the external urethral sphincter is stimulated, causing the sphincter to open. d. Stretch receptors in the bladder wall are inhibited. Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement. 191. The spaces between the foot processes of neighbouring podocytes form the ____________________ where fluid can move through into the inside of Bowman’s capsule. 192. The renal artery branches off to a(n) ____________________, which delivers blood into the glomerulus. 193. In males, enlargement of the ____________________ can impede the flow of urine through the urethra. 194. The pressure that exerts the highest inward force that opposes filtration is ____________________. 195. ____________________ is increased urinary output of H2O with little or no increase in excretion of solutes; ____________________ refers to increased excretion of both H2O and solutes. 196. ____________________ renal failure has a rapid onset but may be reversible; ____________________ renal failure is slow, progressive, and irreversible. 197. In order for many substances to be reabsorbed by the kidneys, they must travel across the cells of the renal tubules in a process known as ____________________. 198. ____________________ is a plasma protein that is small enough to move through the glomerular capillary pores, but is not filtered because of the repellent negative charges of the glomerular basement membrane. 199. Body fluids are ____________________ at 300 mOsm/L. 200. In response to an increase in blood volume, the heart secretes ____________________, which works to reduce fluid levels in the body by inhibiting sodium reabsorption. 201. A decrease in the pH of body fluids increases H+ secretion, but at the same time can cause K+ ____________________. 202. ____________________ is dependent on factors such as the net filtration pressure, membrane surface area, and membrane permeability. 203. As exercise intensity increases, renal blood flow ____________________. 204. In addition to promoting reabsorption of sodium, aldosterone also increases secretion of ____________________. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_5ce 205. The ____________________ reflex triggers the involuntary release of urine from the bladder. 206. The ____________________ is the well-characterized hormonal pathway involved in the regulation of Na+ concentrations in body fluids. 207. The micturition reflex is initiated by stimulating ____________________ receptors in the bladder. 208. The two regions of the kidney are an outer ____________________ and an inner ____________________. 209. The tubular fluid is ____________________ as it enters Bowman’s capsule, ____________________ at the beginning of the loop of Henle, ____________________ at the tip of the loop, and ____________________ as it leaves the loop to enter the distal tubule. 210. The plasma concentration of a particular substance at which its Tm is reached and the substance first starts appearing in the urine is known as the ____________________. 211. The ____________________ are structures in the renal medulla that are appear as striated triangles. 212. ____________________ is a group of intrinsic mechanisms in the kidneys that prevent changes in the GFR. 213. The ____________________ renal blood flow occurs at rest. 214. Sodium reabsorption in the ____________________ is variable and under hormonal control. 215. Vasopressin is also known as ____________________, indicative of its effect on the kidneys. 216. ____________________ is the hormone that ultimately leads to an increase in Na+ reabsorption in the distal and collecting tubules by inserting more Na+ channels in the luminal membrane and more Na+–K+ pumps in the basolateral membrane. 217. The plasma clearance of ____________________ is equal to the GFR and is often used to measure GFR in a clinical setting. 218. If the plasma concentration of substance X is 200 mg/100 mL and the GFR is 125 mL/min, the filtered load of this substance is ____________________. 219. Tufts of capillaries within the glomerulus are held together by ____________________ cells. 220. The tubular and vascular components at the point where the ascending loop of Henle travels between the fork formed by the afferent and efferent arterioles are collectively known as the ____________________. 221. Granular cells secrete ____________________, which triggers a hormonal cascade ultimately leading to aldosterone secretion and increased Na+ reabsorption in the distal and collecting tubules. 222. Afferent arteriolar vasoconstriction ____________________ blood flow into the glomerulus, which causes the glomerular-capillary blood pressure to ____________________, leading to a(n) ____________________ in the net filtration pressure and a resultant ____________________ in the GFR. 223. Adults can override the micturition reflex because of conscious control over the ____________________, which is skeletal muscle and under voluntary control.

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Chap 14_5ce 224. A nephron is made up of a(n) ____________________ component, which consists of blood vessels, and a(n) ____________________ component, which holds filtrate. 225. The ____________________ is a sac with walls composed of smooth muscle that temporarily holds urine. 226. Blood flows from the glomerular capillaries into the ____________________. 227. The ____________________ is the volume of plasma from which a substance has been removed, per minute. 228. When the pH of body fluids decreases, ____________________ is secreted into the tubules and excreted in urine. 229. If the concentration of salt in the urinary filtrate increases, the ____________________ cells in the juxtaglomerular apparatus sense this and promote vasodilation of the afferent arteriole to increase GFR. 230. The ____________________ is involved in the micturition reflex, is composed of smooth muscle, and is therefore under involuntary control. 231. The plasma clearance of the organic anion ____________________ is equal to the renal plasma flow. 232. The ____________________ transforms many foreign organic compounds into ionic form, which facilitates their elimination from the body because such conversion enables them to be secreted by the organic anion transport system. 233. Cells known as ____________________ form the third layer of the glomerular membrane, which is actually the inner layer of Bowman’s capsule. 234. The functional unit of the kidneys is the ____________________. 235. Indicate whether the portion of the tubule in question is permeable or impermeable to the substance in question. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. permeable b. impermeable The ascending limb of Henle’s loop is ______________ to H2O. The descending limb of Henle’s loop is ______________ to H2O. The vasa recta is ______________ to salt and ______________ to H2O. The distal and collecting tubules in the absence of vasopressin are ______________ to H2O. The distal and collecting tubules in the presence of vasopressin are ______________ to H2O.

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Chap 14_5ce Match the renal structures or activities with the correct characteristics, labelled a. through p. a. collecting tubules empty into this structure b. stores the urine c. passage of substances from the peritubular capillaries into the tubular lumen d. carries blood to the glomerulus e. tuft of capillaries that forms the filtrate f. passage of protein-free plasma into Bowman’s capsule g. urine is forced through this structure by peristalsis h. collects the glomerular filtrate i. passage of substances from the tubular lumen into the peritubular capillaries j. functional unit of the kidney k. supplies the renal tissue with O2 and nutrients l. carries blood from one capillary network to another capillary network m. tube through which urine leaves the body n. variable water and sodium reabsorption occur here under hormonal control o. responsible for the vertical osmotic gradient in the medulla of the kidney p. glucose and amino acid reabsorption occur here REF: 14.1 Introduction | 14.2 Renal Blood Flow | 14.3 Glomerular Filtration | 14.4 Tubular Reabsorption | 14.5 Tubular Secretion | 14.6 Urine Excretion and Plasma Clearance CUSTOM ID: 14-248 236. afferent arteriole 237. renal pelvis 238. tubular reabsorption 239. tubular secretion 240. glomerular filtration 241. distal and collecting tubules 242. Bowman’s capsule 243. peritubular capillary 244. ureter 245. proximal tubule 246. loop of Henle 247. urethra 248. efferent arteriole 249. urinary bladder 250. glomerulus 251. nephron

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Chap 14_5ce Match the substances, labelled a. through f., with the processes listed. a. K+ b. glucose c. inulin d. plasma protein e. urea f. H+ 252. filtered and actively reabsorbed but not secreted 253. filtered and passively reabsorbed 254. filtered and secreted, but not reabsorbed 255. filtered and both actively reabsorbed and actively secreted 256. filtered but not reabsorbed or secreted 257. not filtered Match the correct statements about sodium reabsorption, labelled a. through c., with the characteristics. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. sodium reabsorption in the distal and collecting tubules b. sodium reabsorption in the proximal tubule c. sodium reabsorption coupled with chloride reabsorption in the loop of Henle 258. plays a pivotal role in the reabsorption of glucose, amino acids, H2O, Cl–, and urea 259. subject to hormonal control 260. plays a critical role in the kidneys’ ability to produce urine of varying concentrations and volumes 261. important in the regulation of ECF volume 262. represents 67 percent of Na+ reabsorbed 263. represents 25 percent of Na+ reabsorbed 264. represents 8 percent of Na+ reabsorbed Match the urinary system features, labelled a. through e., with the correct characteristics. a. urea b. creatinine c. uric acid d. Na+ e. glucose 265. reabsorbed when H+ is secreted 266. a detoxified ammonia compound 267. protein metabolite of skeletal muscle tissue 268. reabsorbed actively and passively

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Chap 14_5ce Indicate whether the factors in question would ultimately lead to an increase (a.) or a decrease (b.) in Na+ reabsorption by means of the renin–angiotensin–aldosterone mechanism. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. an increase in Na+ reabsorption b. a decrease in Na+ reabsorption 269. a precipitous fall in arterial blood pressure, as during a haemorrhage 270. a reduction in total Na+ load in the body 271. a reduction in ECF volume PTS: 1

Match the renal functions, labelled a. through d., with the correct terms. a. movement of substances from the peritubular capillary blood into the tubular lumen b. movement of substances from the glomerular capillary blood into the tubular lumen c. everything filtered or secreted that is not subsequently reabsorbed d. movement of substances from the tubular lumen into the peritubular capillary blood 272. glomerular filtration 273. tubular reabsorption 274. tubular secretion 275. urine excretion

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Chap 14_5ce Match the chemicals, .labelled a. through f., with their correct characteristics. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. renin b. angiotensinogen c. angiotensin I d. angiotensin II e. aldosterone f. atrial natriuretic peptide 276. directly stimulates Na+ reabsorption by the distal and collecting tubules 277. acted upon by renin 278. secreted by the adrenal cortex 279. produced by the liver 280. acted upon by converting enzyme 281. secretion directly stimulated by angiotensin II 282. stimulates K+ secretion by the distal and collecting tubules 283. secreted from the granular cells of the renal juxtaglomerular apparatus 284. inhibits Na+ reabsorption by the renal tubules 285. secretion directly stimulated by a low plasma K+ concentration 286. potent constrictor of arterioles Match the effects, labelled a. through c., with the statements. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. increases b. decreases c. has no effect on 287. Increased osmolarity of body fluids __________ vasopressin secretion. 288. Decreased vasopressin secretion __________ H2O reabsorption. 289. Decreased Na+ in body fluids (Na+ depletion) __________ renin secretion. 290. Increased renin secretion __________ angiotensin I activation. 291. Increased vasopressin secretion __________ urinary output. 292. Increased angiotensin II activation __________ aldosterone secretion. 293. Increased aldosterone secretion __________ Na+ reabsorption. 294. Increased vasopressin secretion __________ Na+ reabsorption.

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Chap 14_5ce 295. Explain how the kidneys establish and maintain the medullary vertical osmotic gradient, and how this is used to produce urine that is dilute versus urine that is concentrated.

296. Explain the stimulus for vasopressin secretion, and how it acts to influence water reabsorption from the renal tubules.

297. What are the pathological effects of renal failure?

298. Describe micturition in an adult and a baby.

299. Describe the forces involved in determining net filtration pressure in the glomerulus.

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Chap 14_5ce Answer Key 1. True 2. False 3. False 4. False 5. False 6. True 7. False 8. False 9. False 10. True 11. True 12. True 13. False 14. False 15. True 16. False 17. True 18. True 19. False 20. True 21. False 22. True 23. True 24. True 25. False 26. True

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Chap 14_5ce 27. False 28. False 29. True 30. False 31. True 32. True 33. True 34. True 35. False 36. True 37. True 38. True 39. False 40. True 41. True 42. False 43. True 44. False 45. True 46. False 47. False 48. False 49. True 50. False 51. True 52. False 53. True 54. True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_5ce 55. False 56. False 57. False 58. False 59. True 60. True 61. True 62. False 63. False 64. True 65. False 66. True 67. False 68. True 69. False 70. False 71. True 72. True 73. True 74. True 75. True 76. False 77. False 78. False 79. True 80. False 81. True 82. True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_5ce 83. True 84. True 85. True 86. True 87. b 88. d 89. d 90. d 91. d 92. a 93. b 94. a 95. a 96. c 97. a 98. d 99. a 100. a 101. c 102. a 103. b 104. a 105. a 106. c 107. c 108. a 109. b 110. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_5ce 111. d 112. a 113. a 114. c 115. d 116. b 117. a 118. a 119. b 120. d 121. b 122. d 123. d 124. c 125. b 126. d 127. d 128. d 129. b 130. b 131. a 132. b 133. c 134. c 135. c 136. a 137. b

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Chap 14_5ce 138. c 139. d 140. d 141. c 142. a 143. b 144. c 145. a 146. b 147. b 148. d 149. a 150. a 151. c 152. c 153. b 154. d 155. a 156. a 157. b 158. a 159. d 160. d 161. c 162. b 163. c 164. b 165. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_5ce 166. a 167. b 168. d 169. c 170. c 171. d 172. d 173. c 174. c 175. a 176. d 177. c 178. b 179. c 180. d 181. a 182. b 183. b 184. a 185. c 186. c 187. a 188. c 189. b 190. a 191. filtration slits 192. afferent arteriole 193. prostate Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_5ce 194. plasma–colloid osmotic pressure 195. Water diuresis; osmotic diuresis 196. Acute; chronic 197. transepithelial transport 198. Albumin 199. isotonic 200. atrial natriuretic peptide 201. retention 202. Glomerular filtration rate, GFR 203. decreases 204. K+, potassium 205. micturition 206. renin–angiotensin–aldosterone system, RAAS 207. stretch 208. cortex; medulla 209. isotonic; isotonic; hypertonic; hypotonic 210. renal threshold 211. renal pyramids 212. Autoregulation 213. highest 214. distal and collecting tubules 215. antidiuretic hormone 216. Aldosterone 217. inulin 218. 250 mg/min 219. mesangial 220. juxtaglomerular apparatus 221. renin 222. decreases; decrease; decrease; decrease

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Chap 14_5ce 223. external urethral sphincter 224. vascular; tubular 225. urinary bladder, bladder 226. efferent arteriole 227. plasma clearance 228. H+, hydrogen 229. macula densa 230. internal urethral sphincter 231. para-aminohippuric acid 232. liver 233. podocytes 234. nephron 235. b, a, a, a, b, a 236. d 237. a 238. i 239. c 240. f 241. n 242. h 243. k 244. g 245. p 246. o 247. m 248. l 249. b 250. e Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_5ce 251. j 252. b 253. e 254. f 255. a 256. c 257. d 258. b 259. a 260. c 261. a 262. b 263. c 264. a 265. d 266. a 267. b 268. e 269. a 270. a 271. a 272. b 273. d 274. a 275. c 276. e 277. b 278. e Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_5ce 279. b 280. c 281. e 282. e 283. a 284. f 285. e 286. d 287. a 288. b 289. a 290. a 291. b 292. a 293. a 294. c 295. Answers will vary. 296. Answers will vary. 297. Answers will vary. 298. Answers will vary. 299. Answers will vary.

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Chap 15_5ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. The respiratory system can only partially counteract any deviations in body pH. a. True b. False 2. The kidneys secrete additional H+ and conserve HCO3– to compensate for increased H+ concentration in the body fluids. a. True b. False 3. The dissociation constant represents the fact that an individual acid always dissociates to the same extent. a. True b. False 4. A low concentration of H+ leads to a low pH value. a. True b. False 5. The main reason ECF volume must be regulated is to maintain the appropriate cell volume. a. True b. False 6. Osmolarity is a measure of the concentration of the individual solute particles dissolved in a fluid. a. True b. False 7. During respiratory compensation for metabolic alkalosis, breathing becomes slower and shallower. a. True b. False 8. If arterial pH decreases, the rate and depth of breathing will reflexively decrease. a. True b. False 9. Extracellular fluid volume depends primarily on the sodium load in the body. a. True b. False 10. When [H+] decreases, the kidneys excrete less HCO3– into the urine. a. True b. False

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Chap 15_5ce 11. The most important reason for tight regulation of ECF osmolarity is to ensure that blood pressure is maintained at an appropriate level. a. True b. False 12. On average, a 65-year-old male will have lower body water than a 20-year-old male. a. True b. False 13. When the body becomes dehydrated (H2O deficit), both urinary output and thirst increase as compensatory measures. a. True b. False 14. Renal regulation of salt is the primary means of achieving salt balance. a. True b. False 15. During intense exercise, the pH of skeletal muscle can become lower than the pH of both arterial and venous blood. a. True b. False 16. Slow, shallow breathing allows carbonic acid to build up in the blood, returning pH to normal. a. True b. False 17. Extracellular fluid composes the majority of all the fluid in the body. a. True b. False 18. If metabolic acidosis is caused by a pulmonary disease, the respiratory system will not be capable of acting as a buffering system. a. True b. False 19. Na+ is the major cation of the ICF, while K+ is the major anion of the ECF. a. True b. False 20. Chemical buffer systems are the most powerful mechanism available for defending against changes in [H+] because they respond the fastest. a. True b. False

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Chap 15_5ce 21. Vasopressin is normally secreted when a deficit of water develops in the body. a. True b. False 22. Plasma proteins are not passively exchanged with the interstitial fluid. a. True b. False 23. The primary factor responsible for regulating H2O balance in the body is control of fluid intake via the thirst mechanism. a. True b. False 24. Basic phosphate is secreted by the kidney tubular cells to buffer hydrogen ion when the tubular fluid becomes too acidic. a. True b. False 25. The major source of H+ in the body fluids is the carbonic acid generated from metabolic production of CO2. a. True b. False 26. Alkalosis eventually leads to unconsciousness and coma. a. True b. False 27. Vasopressin is secreted from the pituitary gland when volume receptors in the left atrium are activated. a. True b. False 28. ECF volume is regulated to ensure adequate blood pressure, whereas ECF osmolarity is regulated to prevent cells from shrinking or swelling. a. True b. False 29. Water balance can be regulated independently from solute regulation. a. True b. False 30. The secretion of aldosterone promotes the reabsorption of sodium. a. True b. False 31. Synovial fluid is a type of transcellular fluid that surrounds the joints. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_5ce 32. Osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus are located in close proximity to the cells in the hypothalamus that produce vasopressin. a. True b. False 33. The thirst centre is closely related to, or perhaps identical to, the cells that secrete vasopressin. a. True b. False 34. A hypertonic solution has a higher concentration of solutes and a lower concentration of H2O than an isotonic solution. a. True b. False 35. H+ secretion is coupled to bicarbonate reabsorption. a. True b. False 36. If the body is in a state of negative water balance, this will have a direct and profound effect on the volume of transcellular fluid. a. True b. False 37. When the body uses a substance to synthesize a more complex molecule, that process is irreversible and that substance cannot be restored to its original form. a. True b. False 38. Output of a substance is always matched equally with its input. a. True b. False 39. Overall, input of substances found in plasma is not controlled to a large extent. a. True b. False 40. The phosphate and bicarbonate buffering systems are both effective buffers in the ECF. a. True b. False 41. If a patient is experiencing alkalaemia, they are likely experiencing alkalosis as well. a. True b. False

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Chap 15_5ce 42. A pH of 3 is 100 times as acidic as a pH of 5. a. True b. False 43. The only way for substances to be removed from the internal pool is by excreting them from the body. a. True b. False 44. Proteins within the ICF are not freely exchanged with the ECF. a. True b. False 45. The protein and phosphate buffer systems both contribute to buffering of the ICF. a. True b. False 46. The phosphate buffer system is important for maintaining pH in the ICF as well as the urine. a. True b. False 47. The renin–angiotensin–aldosterone system regulates blood pressure by reducing the amount of Na+ that is reabsorbed in the distal and collecting tubules of the kidneys. a. True b. False 48. If the pH of body fluids is 7.3, then alkalosis is present because neutral pH equals 7.0. a. True b. False 49. The respiratory system can compensate completely for metabolic acidosis. a. True b. False 50. The buffering abilities of the kidneys are more powerful than the respiratory system, because the kidneys can work to completely restore pH to normal. a. True b. False 51. The amount of sodium reabsorbed by the kidneys depends on the baroreceptor reflex and adjustments to glomerular filtration rate. a. True b. False 52. The composition of plasma and interstitial fluid is the same. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_5ce 53. Respiratory alkalosis occurs as a consequence of hyperventilation because CO2 is blown off more quickly than it is produced, decreasing the amount of carbonic acid in the body fluids. a. True b. False 54. H2CO3 is a weaker acid than HCl because it dissociates faster. a. True b. False 55. Although transcellular fluids perform functional roles in the body, their collective volume forms a negligible fraction of total body water. a. True b. False 56. A physician would be able to determine a patient’s acid–base status by measuring blood pH alone. a. True b. False 57. Salt conservation by the body will result in a hypertonic ECF. a. True b. False 58. Chemical buffers work by removing excess H+ from the body. a. True b. False 59. The kidneys are the first line of defence against changes in acid–base balance because they are the most powerful mechanism for maintaining pH. a. True b. False 60. Although the terms “water” and “fluid” are often used to refer to the same thing, they are actually different. a. True b. False 61. Women have more body water than men because of the effect of estrogen on adipose tissue deposition. a. True b. False 62. Paraesthesia—tingling in the extremities—is a common consequence of acidosis. a. True b. False

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Chap 15_5ce 63. Carbon dioxide is unintentionally increased as a cause of respiratory acidosis but is deliberately increased as a compensation for metabolic alkalosis. a. True b. False 64. Acidosis causes the kidneys to excrete more H+, which reduces the amount of K+ secreted, causing K+ retention. a. True b. False 65. Bioelectrical impedance is an appropriate method of determining body composition in patients with obesity or diabetes mellitus. a. True b. False 66. The composition of interstitial fluid is unaffected by changes in the composition of plasma. a. True b. False 67. When the ingestion and metabolic synthesis of a substance equals its metabolic utilization and excretion, the body is in a state of balance for that substance. a. True b. False 68. Acidosis will cause the kidneys to alkalinize the urine. a. True b. False 69. Although chemical buffers work quickly, their buffering capacity is limited. a. True b. False 70. Cells in a hypertonic ECF tend to lose water by osmosis. a. True b. False 71. Obligatory losses represent the amount of sodium that normally needs to be replenished in the body in order to maintain salt balance. a. True b. False 72. ECF volume is maintained over time mainly by regulating salt balance. a. True b. False

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Chap 15_5ce 73. During acidosis, ammonia plays a key role in allowing for continued renal H+ secretion. a. True b. False 74. All fluid that enters or leaves the ICF must pass through the ECF. a. True b. False 75. Only the H+ ions that are free in solution will contribute to the pH of that solution. a. True b. False 76. Hypertonicity in the ECF is sensed by osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus. a. True b. False 77. Bicarbonate ions that enter the plasma during HCO3– reabsorption are not the same HCO3– ions that were filtered. a. True b. False 78. If one female has a higher muscle mass than another female of the same age, the first female will also have a lower amount of water in their body. a. True b. False 79. Diabetes insipidus often leads to hypertonicity of the body fluids. a. True b. False 80. Salt conservation by the body will result in an increase in ECF volume and not hypertonicity of the ECF. a. True b. False 81. Activity of the body’s enzymes is affected only by acidosis. a. True b. False 82. The terms acidosis and acidaemia both refer to an acidic state of the blood. a. True b. False 83. Transcellular fluid is a type of extracellular fluid. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_5ce 84. The ECF volume and osmolarity are regulated primarily by the kidneys. a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. Pneumonia A patient comes to the hospital with severe pneumonia. After performing clinical tests, their plasma pH is found to be 7.1 and their serum anion gap is within the normal range. 85. The second line of defence will be the respiratory mechanism of pH control. Which statement describes the respiratory response in this situation? a. The respiratory mechanism of pH control cannot occur in this situation. b. Faster, deeper respirations will occur to compensate for the change in [H+]. c. Slower, shallower respirations will occur to compensate for the change in [H+]. d. Slower, deeper respirations will occur to compensate for the change in [H+]. 86. Which tissues in the body contain the lowest percentage of water? a. blood b. adipose c. muscle d. skeleton 87. Which of the following is NOT a source of H+ production in the body? a. nutrient breakdown b. intermediary metabolism c. O2 d. CO2 88. What separates the two types of extracellular fluid? a. plasma membrane b. blood–brain barrier c. blood vessel walls d. transcellular membrane 89. Which statement accurately describes buffering activities of the respiratory system? a. The respiratory system can react to changes in pH within seconds by modifying the rate and depth of breathing. b. When the pH of arterial blood increases, the respiratory system is reflexively triggered to decrease the depth and rate of breathing. c. The respiratory system can only buffer against increases in arterial [H+]. d. The respiratory system can only counteract changes in pH that result from nonrespiratory causes. 90. Which of these statements describes chemical buffer systems? a. They actually eliminate acid from the body. b. They are the only mechanism available for regulating changes in H+ within the body. c. They can act within a fraction of a second to buffer changes in H+. d. They actually eliminate bicarbonate from the body.

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Chap 15_5ce 91. If the body has chemical buffers, why do the kidneys participate in acid–base balance? a. because chemical buffers do not buffer the ECF surrounding the cells of the kidneys b. because chemical buffers can only buffer against changes in pH brought about by increased H2CO3 c. because chemical buffers take a long time to be effective and the kidneys can start to buffer immediately d. because chemical buffers only remove H+ from solution and the kidneys can remove H+ from the body entirely 92. Which of the following does NOT represent a possible output from the internal body pool? a. skeletal muscle b. lungs c. digestive tract d. sweat 93. Solution A has a pH of 5 and is 100 times as acidic as Solution B. What is the pH of solution B? a. 1 b. 3 c. 7 d. 10 94. What state will the body be in if the ingestion and metabolic synthesis of a substance is less than its metabolic utilization and excretion? a. stable balance b. positive balance c. negative balance d. net balance 95. Which of these statements refers to osmolarity? a. Vasopressin secretion is decreased when a deficit of water develops in the body. b. When the body becomes dehydrated (H2O deficit), urinary output increases as a compensatory measure. c. A hypertonic solution has a higher concentration of solutes and a lower concentration of H2O than an isotonic solution. d. Diabetes insipidus often leads to hypotonicity of the body fluids. 96. What separates the ECF and ICF? a. plasma membrane b. blood–brain barrier c. blood vessel walls d. transcellular membrane 97. If the tubular filtrate becomes too acidic, what is secreted by the tubular epithelial cells to buffer the secreted H+ ? a. HCO3–

b. OH–

c. NH3

d. NH4+

98. What is the primary buffer system in the ECF? a. haemoglobin b. chloride/hydrochloric acid c. bicarbonate/carbonic acid d. phosphate 99. Plasma makes up what percentage of extracellular fluid? a. 0 percent b. 25 percent c. 50 percent d. 75 percent Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_5ce 100. The unequal distribution of positively and negatively charged solutes across the plasma membrane is known as what? a. disequilibrium constant b. charge separation c. membrane potential d. chemical disequilibrium 101. What is the primary buffer system in the ICF? a. haemoglobin b. phosphate c. bicarbonate/carbonic acid d. protein 102. How does the renin–angiotensin–aldosterone system promote an increase in arterial blood pressure? a. by stimulating water reabsorption by stimulating vasopressin release b. by stimulating the baroreceptor reflex c. by promoting Na+ reabsorption in the distal and collecting tubules d. by promoting vasodilation of the afferent arteriole and increasing glomerular filtration rate 103. Why is the bicarbonate/carbonic acid buffering system a very effective system for the ECF? a. because bicarbonate and carbonic acid are not closely regulated in the body b. because each bicarbonate ion can carry two H+ ions c. because carbonic acid dissociates very easily and is a strong acid d. because there is an abundance of bicarbonate and carbonic acid in the plasma 104. Which of these does NOT describe how renal secretion of H+ is regulated? a. Sympathetic activity will increase the rate of renal H+ secretion. b. The kidneys can increase H+ secretion in response to an increase in CO2 and H2CO3 from respiratory dysfunction. c. The degree of H+ secretion by the kidneys is dependent on CO2 levels in the plasma, tubular filtrate, and inside the tubular cell. d. Renal H+ secretion increases if the [H+] in the plasma of the peritubular capillaries is elevated. 105. Cerebrospinal fluid is an example of which type of fluid? a. interstitial b. intracellular c. transcellular d. lymph 106. Which of the body’s buffering systems is the first to counteract changes in pH? a. chemical buffering systems b. renal buffering systems c. respiratory buffering systems d. All buffering systems work at the same speed. 107. Which of these statements does NOT describe normal blood pH? a. It is slightly basic. b. It has a very narrow normal range. c. It falls between 7.35 and 7.45. d. It is slightly acidic. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_5ce 108. Which of these statements describes chemical buffer systems? a. They respond in one to three minutes to changes in hydrogen ion concentration. b. They respond to changes in acid or base levels. c. They promote H+ excretion by the kidneys when acidosis is present. d. They stimulate the respiratory centre when acidosis is present. 109. Haemoglobin is the main buffer for which of the following? a. PO43–

b. CO2

c. O2

d. NO

110. What information can be gained from measuring the serum anionic gap? a. It can be used to help diagnose the cause of metabolic alkalosis. b. It can be used to help diagnose the cause of metabolic acidosis. c. It can be used to help diagnose the cause of respiratory alkalosis. d. It can be used to help diagnose the cause of respiratory acidosis. 111. When does the amount of H+ generated from CO2 increase? a. when the rate of protein catabolism is faster than the rate of protein anabolism b. when the rate of protein catabolism is slower than the rate of protein anabolism c. when the rate of CO2 removal by the lungs is higher than the rate of CO2 production by the tissues d. when the rate of CO2 removal by the lungs is less than the rate of CO2 production by the tissues 112. What will happen if the osmolarity of ECF increases? a. Water will shift from the ICF into the ECF. b. Water will NOT shift between the ECF and the ICF. c. Water will move from the ECF into the ICF. d. Vasopressin secretion will decrease. Pneumonia A patient comes to the hospital with severe pneumonia. After performing clinical tests, their plasma pH is found to be 7.1 and their serum anion gap is within the normal range. 113. The first line of defence against this change in [H+] is the chemical buffer systems. Which primary buffer system will respond to this change? a. phosphate buffer system

b. NH4+:NH3 buffer system

c. protein buffer system

d. haemoglobin buffer system

114. What will happen to a cell if it is placed in an isotonic solution? a. It will shrink. b. It will swell. c. It will stay the same size.

d. It lose Na+ through ion channels.

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Chap 15_5ce 115. Which of the following will happen when isotonic fluid is added to the ECF? a. Fluid will shift from the ICF into the ECF. b. Fluid will NOT shift between the ECF and ICF. c. Fluid will shift from the ECF into the ICF. d. Fluid will move the solutes out from the ICF. 116. Which of these symptoms is/are associated with acidosis? a. extreme nervousness b. disorientation and coma c. “pins and needles” sensations d. muscle twitches and muscle spasms 117. What is most likely to happen if the body has an excess level of a substance? a. The body will increase utilization of that substance. b. The body will increase how much of that substance is stored. c. The body will conserve that substance by excreting less of it. d. The body will take in more of that substance. 118. What is the primary reason that extracellular fluid volume must be closely regulated? a. to maintain blood pressure b. to maintain adequate urine formation c. to prevent changes in ICF osmolarity d. to prevent cells from swelling or shrinking 119. Which type of transcellular fluid is associated with the intestines? a. peritoneal fluid b. pericardial fluid c. intrapleural fluid d. synovial fluid 120. The largest percentage of water is located in which “compartment”? a. synovial fluid b. plasma c. interstitial fluid d. intracellular fluid 121. Which of the following is normally the major source of hydrogen ions in the body? a. phosphoric and sulphuric acids formed during metabolism of dietary proteins b. lactic acid production by muscles during exercise c. natural acids, such as citric acid, found in foods d. carbonic acid generated from metabolically produced CO2 122. Which of these situations happens when water is lost from the ECF but electrolytes are retained? a. Osmosis moves water from the ICF to the ECF. b. Both ECF and ICF become more dilute. c. The osmolarity of the ECF drops. d. There is an increase in the volume of the ICF.

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Chap 15_5ce 123. Which of these statements applies to the dissociation constant? a. It varies based on the volume of acid added to a solution. b. It is a theoretical number and cannot be calculated. c. It is a number that represents how easily an acid dissociates in solution. d. It is the same for weak acids and strong acids. 124. Variation in percentage of body water among individuals is due primarily to differences in which one of these factors? a. amount of adipose tissue b. total muscle mass c. vasopressin secretion d. drinking habits 125. What is the most important long-term regulator of blood pressure? a. the baroreceptor reflex b. urinary output by the kidneys c. shifting of fluid between the interstitial fluid and plasma d. the thirst mechanism 126. During states of acidosis and increased H+ secretion by the kidney, which mineral is retained in body fluids? a. Na+

b. Ca2+

c. K+

d. Cl–

127. If salt is conserved in the body, what will happen to the ECF? a. It will increase in volume and be hypertonic. b. It will decrease in volume and be isotonic. c. It will increase in volume and be hypotonic. d. It will increase in volume and be isotonic. 128. If the [HCO3–] / [CO2] is 40/1, what is the situation? a. uncompensated metabolic acidosis c. uncompensated respiratory acidosis

b. uncompensated metabolic alkalosis d. uncompensated respiratory alkalosis

129. If the ionic composition of the ICF and the ECF is different, why is the osmolarity of both the same? a. because the overall concentrations of nonpenetrating solutes is the same b. because the plasma membrane is freely permeable to the major ions of the ECF and ICF c. because protein concentration in the ECF and ICF is the same d. The osmolarity of the ECF and ICF is not the same. 130. Which of these statements describes salt balance in humans? a. It depends primarily upon control of Na+ intake through salt hunger. b. It depends primarily upon control of Na+ output by the kidneys. c. It is poorly regulated. d. It depends upon Na+ secretion by the kidneys. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_5ce 131. On average, how much of the body is composed of water? a. 10 percent b. 20 percent c. 40 percent d. 60 percent 132. Which of these does NOT apply to the bicarbonate/carbonic acid buffering system? a. It can buffer against changes in pH from any cause. b. It is the primary buffer system in the ECF. c. Both bicarbonate and carbonic acid are abundant in the ECF. d. Bicarbonate levels are closely regulated by the kidneys, and carbonic acid levels are closely regulated by the respiratory system. 133. Which of these conditions could be a cause of respiratory acidosis? a. aspirin poisoning b. severe vomiting c. severe diarrhoea d. emphysema 134. Which of these is a potent urinary buffer? a. phosphate b. haemoglobin c. bicarbonate/carbonic acid d. protein 135. Which of these statements describes the respiratory mechanism of pH control? a. Respiratory rate and depth decrease as a compensatory measure to combat metabolic acidosis. b. Metabolic alkalosis inhibits (depresses) the respiratory centre. c. The respiratory system can compensate completely for uremic acidosis. d. The respiratory responses to acid–base imbalances represent the first line of defence against changes in the pH of body fluids. 136. Which of the following will NOT activate the renin–angiotensin–aldosterone system? a. decrease in arterial blood pressure

b. decreased K+ in the ECF

c. decreased plasma volume

d. decrease in Na+ in the ECF

137. What distinguishes a strong acid from a weak acid? a. A strong acid releases H+, and a weak acid releases H+ and HCO3–. b. A strong acid dissociates more readily than a weak acid. c. A strong acid reacts with water more readily than a weak acid. d. A strong acid cannot be neutralized, whereas a weak acid can. 138. Which ion contributes to the serum anion gap? a. phosphate b. bicarbonate c. chloride d. sodium

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Chap 15_5ce 139. Which of these statements does NOT refer to the relationship between plasma and interstitial fluid? a. They are almost identical in composition. b. They are kept separate by the walls of blood vessels. c. They freely exchange materials, except for proteins. d. They are independent and changing the composition of one does not affect the other. Pneumonia A patient comes to the hospital with severe pneumonia. After performing clinical tests, their plasma pH is found to be 7.1 and their serum anion gap is within the normal range. 140. Which [HCO3–] / [CO2] ratio might exist in this condition? a. 40/1 c. 20/5

b. 20/2 d. 15/10

141. How do the baroreceptor reflexes affect sodium balance? a. by causing release of renin b. by causing release of vasopressin c. by lowering GFR through vasoconstriction of afferent arterioles d. by lowering GFR through vasodilation of afferent arterioles 142. What term best describes a pH of 7.3 in the blood? a. acidosis b. acidaemia c. alkalosis d. alkalaemia 143. Which of the following is NOT a chemical buffering system found within the body? a. haemoglobin buffering system b. phospholipid buffering system c. phosphate buffering system d. protein buffering system 144. Which of the following contributes the vast majority of the extracellular fluid’s osmotic activity? a. Na+ and its attendant anions

b. plasma proteins

c. K+ and its attendant anions

d. Ca2+ and its attendant anions

145. What is the most important factor in the maintenance of ECF volume? a. vasopressin secretion b. free water balance c. salt balance d. potassium balance 146. Which one of the following will NOT occur during water intoxication? a. ICF hypotonicity b. circulatory ECF hypotonicity c. excess free-water retention d. water movement from ICF to ECF 147. A pH of 4 is how many times as acidic as a pH of 7? a. 10 b. 100 c. 1000 d. 10 000

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Chap 15_5ce Pneumonia A patient comes to the hospital with severe pneumonia. After performing clinical tests, their plasma pH is found to be 7.1 and their serum anion gap is within the normal range. 148. The third line of defence is the renal mechanism of pH control. Which of these statements of renal compensation will NOT occur in response to this condition? a. HCO3– excretion will increase.

b. H+ excretion will increase.

c. NH3 secretion is likely to occur.

d. H+ retention will increase.

149. Which of the following factors does NOT determine body water content? a. sex b. age c. ethnicity d. body composition 150. What is the importance of regulating ECF osmolarity? a. It helps maintain blood pressure. b. It prevents the urine from becoming too concentrated. c. It prevents spontaneous depolarization of nerve and muscle cell membranes because of shifts in Na+ balance. d. It prevents fluid shifts between cells and extracellular fluid. 151. If the [HCO3–] / [CO2] is 20/2, what is the situation? a. uncompensated respiratory acidosis c. uncompensated metabolic acidosis

b. uncompensated respiratory alkalosis d. uncompensated metabolic alkalosis

152. If arterial pH decreases, how will the respiratory system respond? a. Rate and depth of breathing will increase. b. Rate and depth of breathing will decrease. c. Rate of breathing will increase, and depth of breathing will decrease. d. Rate of breathing will decrease, and depth of breathing will increase. 153. What is the primary anion of the ICF? a. bicarbonate ion b. chloride ion c. phosphate ion d. anionic proteins 154. What term is synonymous with the fluid component of blood? a. plasma b. interstitial fluid c. extracellular fluid d. lymph 155. Which of these statements applies to transcellular fluid? a. It is the interstitial fluid in the central nervous system. b. Its volume always remains the same. c. It forms the largest percentage of extracellular fluid. d. Its volume is generally not affected by changes in overall hydration status.

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Chap 15_5ce 156. Which of the following does NOT represent a possible source of input for the internal body pool? a. inhalation b. intravenous injection c. renal function d. absorption through the skin 157. Which of these actions would NOT be triggered by a drop in arterial blood pressure? a. decrease of GFR b. release of aldosterone c. increase of sodium reabsorption d. decrease of chloride excretion 158. The relationship between input and output of a substance is known as what? a. balance concept b. homeostasis c. metabolic pool d. body reserves 159. Which of these conditions could be a cause of metabolic acidosis? a. aspirin poisoning b. severe vomiting c. severe diarrhoea d. emphysema 160. Why is it not accurate to refer to body fluids as “body water”? a. because body fluids also include fluid inside internal body cavities, which are technically external to the body b. because body fluids also include fluid outside the body, like sweat c. because body fluid is lipid based d. because body fluid is water plus the solutes dissolved in it 161. Which of these statements refers to pH in the body? a. It is slightly basic. b. Its range is compatible with life and is between 5.8 and 7.8. c. It is the same in all tissues in the body. d. It is neutral. 162. Which of the following is NOT modified by the kidneys to regulate the pH of ECF? a. H+ excretion

b. NH3 secretion

c. PO43– secretion

d. HCO3– excretion

163. Why is buffering of urine important for preventing acidosis? a. because it stops bicarbonate from being secreted into the tubular lumen b. because acidic urine inhibits the micturition reflex c. because acidic urine can damage the urinary bladder d. because if urine becomes too acidic, it prevents tubular secretion of H+ and limits renal buffering 164. Which of these situations might be a consequence of vomiting of gastric contents? a. abnormal buildup of plasma H+

b. abnormal decrease of plasma HCO3–

c. dehydration and metabolic acidosis

d. dehydration and metabolic alkalosis

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Chap 15_5ce 165. What is the primary anion of the ECF? a. bicarbonate ion b. chloride ion c. phosphate ion d. potassium ion 166. H+ generated from CO2 at the tissue level is buffered in transit between the tissues and the lungs primarily by which of the following? a. H2CO3:HCO3– buffer system

b. phosphate buffer system

c. haemoglobin

d. plasma proteins

167. Interstitial fluid makes up what percentage of intracellular fluid? a. 0 percent b. 25 percent c. 50 percent d. 75 percent 168. Which of these statements does NOT refer to extracellular fluid? a. It includes plasma. b. It constitutes a greater percentage of total body water than does intracellular fluid. c. It includes interstitial fluid. d. It includes synovial fluid. Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement. 169. PO43– is the major anion found in the ____________________ in skeletal muscle cells. 170. When the input for a substance is less than the output, the body will be in a state of ____________________ for that substance. 171. ____________________ is a side effect of alkalosis in which a person feels numbness or tingling in their hands and feet. 172. Hypertonicity of the ECF is often referred to as ____________________because of the excess of free water compared to solutes. 173. On average, 60 percent of the body’s weight consists of ____________________. 174. The amount of sodium that leaves the body through sweat and feces is referred to as ____________________loss. 175. The two factors that can be adjusted to maintain fluid balance are ____________________ and ____________________. 176. ____________________ tissue has the lowest water content. 177. If a person has a pH of 7.5, their body is in a state of ____________________. 178. When the ____________________ increases, this indicates that there is a higher amount than normal of sulphate, phosphate, citrate, lactate, or keto acids in the blood. 179. A solution with a pH higher than 7 is considered basic, or ____________________.

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Chap 15_5ce 180. Because the pH scale is ____________________, a solution with a pH of 4 is 10 times as acidic as a solution with a pH of 5. 181. The secretion of H+ by the tubular cells of the kidney is influenced by the gas ____________________. 182. A chemical ____________________ is a mixture of two compounds that resist changes in the pH. 183. ____________________ is a change in pH that causes overexcitability of the nervous system. 184. The ____________________of the ECF is a measure of all the solutes that are dissolved in it. 185. The water lost from the body through processes that go largely unnoticed are known as ____________________ losses. 186. The ____________________ for a substance comes from either metabolic utilization or excretion. 187. The term ____________________ is used to describe a pH less than 7.35 in the entire body, whereas ____________________ means a pH less than 7.35 in the blood. 188. The ____________________ for a substance comes from either metabolic synthesis or ingestion. 189. Na+ is the major cation found in the ____________________. 190. In uncompensated metabolic acidosis, [HCO3–] / [CO2] will be ____________________. 191. Nervousness can lead to ____________________, where salivary secretion is decreased even though body water levels have not changed. 192. Fluid on the outside of cells is known as ____________________. 193. Severe kidney failure can cause ____________________ because the kidneys can no longer perform their normal role of secreting H+. 194. Extracellular fluid is composed of two compartments: ____________________ and ____________________. 195. The two important urinary buffers are filtered phosphate buffers and secreted ____________________. 196. A pH of _______ is considered to be chemically neutral. The normal pH of plasma is _______. The pH range compatible with life is _______ to _______. 197. The ____________________ is a number unique to each acid and represents how readily the acid dissociates. 198. ____________________ fluid is the transcellular fluid associated with the intestine. 199. Acidosis leads to ____________________ secretion of H+ in the urine. 200. Osmoreceptor input normally is the dominant factor for controlling the secretion of ____________________ from the pituitary. 201. ____________________ is the fluid component of blood. 202. The ____________________is the total mass of all the Na+ in the ECF. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_5ce 203. In uncompensated respiratory acidosis, [HCO3–] / [CO2] will be ____________________. 204. Fluid on the inside of cells is known as ____________________. 205. Angiotensin II is considered a ____________________ because it stimulates the drive to drink fluids. 206. ____________________ describes the uneven distribution of positively and negatively charged solutes between the ICF and ECF. 207. When the input for a substance is more than the output, the body will be in a state of ____________________ for that substance. 208. The joints are surrounded by ____________________ fluid. 209. ____________________ acidosis results from the abnormal retention of carbon dioxide. 210. In addition to hypothalamic osmoreceptors, stimulation of the ____________________ in response to a reduction in blood volume will stimulate secretion of vasopressin from the posterior pituitary gland. 211. ECF volume has a direct influence on blood pressure because it determines ____________________. 212. ____________________, or excessive thirst, and ____________________, or frequent urination, are often consequences of uncontrolled diabetes mellitus. 213. If a person has a pH of 7.15, their body is in a state of ____________________. 214. Cerebrospinal fluid, intraocular, and synovial fluid are all examples of ____________________. 215. Acidosis changes the rate and depth of breathing by ____________________ it. 216. Retention of free water can lead to ____________________, a state of overhydration and hypotonicity that leads to cellular swelling. 217. HCl is an example of a ____________________ because its ions dissociate quickly in solution. 218. The amount of a substance available in the ECF is considered to be part of the internal ____________________ for that substance.

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Chap 15_5ce Match the imbalances, labelled a. through d., with the descriptions. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. overhydration b. dehydration c. both overhydration and dehydration d. neither overhydration nor dehydration 219. Symptoms include dry skin, parched tongue, and sunken eyeballs. 220. Water enters the cells by osmosis. 221. The body fluids have a lower concentration of solutes than normal. 222. ECF and ICF become hypertonic. 223. Cells become swollen. 224. No fluid shift occurs between the ECF and the ICF. 225. This occurs with water deprivation. 226. Cells shrink. 227. ECF and ICF become hypotonic. 228. Convulsions and coma may occur. 229. This occurs as a consequence of diabetes insipidus. 230. This occurs with heavy vomiting. 231. Osmolarity of the body fluids is decreased. 232. This occurs as a consequence of excessive fluid intake. 233. This occurs as a consequence of excessive vasopressin secretion. 234. Vasopressin secretion is stimulated as a compensatory mechanism. 235. Increased urinary output occurs as a compensatory mechanism. Match the buffer systems, labelled a. through d., with their correct characteristic. a. haemoglobin buffer system b. phosphate buffer system c. protein buffer system d. H2CO3:HCO3– buffer system 236. buffers H+ generated from carbonic acid 237. primary ECF buffer for noncarbonic acids 238. primary intracellular buffer 239. important urinary buffer

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Chap 15_5ce A person with diarrhoea loses excessive salt and water from the body. This loss results in Na+ depletion, dehydration, a decreased extracellular fluid volume, a reduction in plasma volume, and a decreased systemic arterial blood pressure. The following refer to the events that occur to compensate for this fluid loss. Match the effects, labelled a. through c., with the factors listed. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. exhibits no change b. is increased c. is decreased 240. GFR 241. amount of Na+ and H2O filtered 242. renin secretion 243. angiotensin I and II production 244. aldosterone secretion 245. amount of Na+ reabsorbed 246. amount of Na+ excreted 247. vasopressin secretion 248. permeability of distal and collecting tubules to H2O 249. amount of H2O reabsorbed 250. amount of H2O excreted 251. urinary volume 252. thirst Match the aspects of extracellular fluid, labelled a. and b., with the descriptions. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. regulation of ECF volume b. regulation of ECF osmolarity 253. primarily important to prevent fluid shifts between the ECF and ICF 254. primarily important in the long-term regulation of arterial blood pressure 255. depends primarily on Na+ balance 256. depends primarily on H2O balance

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Chap 15_5ce Match the acid–base imbalance, labelled a. through d., that might occur in each of the situations listed. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. respiratory acidosis b. respiratory alkalosis c. metabolic acidosis d. metabolic alkalosis 257. fever 258. excessive ingestion of alkaline drugs such as NaHCO3 259. anxiety 260. severe exercise 261. uraemia 262. damage to the respiratory control centre 263. severe diarrhoea 264. pneumonia Indicate the [CO2] and [HCO3–] levels, labelled a. through i., in each of the following situations. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. [CO2] normal, [HCO3–] decreased below normal b. [CO2] normal, [HCO3–] increased above normal c. [CO2] increased above normal, [HCO3–] normal d. [CO2] decreased below normal, [HCO3–] normal e. [CO2] decreased below normal, [HCO3–] decreased below normal f. [CO2] increased above normal, [HCO3–] increased above normal g. [CO2] decreased below normal, [HCO3–] increased above normal h. [CO2] increased above normal, [HCO3–] decreased below normal i. [CO2] normal, [HCO3–] normal 265. uncompensated respiratory acidosis 266. compensated respiratory acidosis 267. uncompensated metabolic acidosis 268. compensated metabolic acidosis 269. uncompensated respiratory alkalosis 270. compensated respiratory alkalosis 271. uncompensated metabolic alkalosis 272. compensated metabolic alkalosis

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Chap 15_5ce Match the acid–base abnormalities, labelled a. through d. with the [HCO3–] / [CO2] ratios. a. uncompensated respiratory acidosis b. uncompensated metabolic acidosis c. uncompensated respiratory alkalosis d. uncompensated metabolic alkalosis 273. 20/2 274. 40/1 275. 10/1 276. 20/0.5 277. Outline the process involved in increasing vasopressin and thirst in response to a water deficit in the body.

278. Explain how ECF volume and ECF osmolarity are regulated to maintain fluid balance, and the importance of closely monitoring each one.

279. Explain how the kidneys can adjust their excretory and secretory functions to counteract acidosis or alkalosis.

280. Describe the systems available to buffer urine, and why urinary buffering is important for buffering of internal body fluids.

281. Describe how the three buffering systems work to maintain pH within homeostatic range, indicating under which circumstances each would be used.

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Chap 15_5ce 282. Explain how ventilation can be adjusted to counteract either a decrease or an increase in arterial pH.

283. Explain the balance concept and provide an overview of the different avenues for input and output to the internal pool of a substance in the body.

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Chap 15_5ce Answer Key 1. True 2. True 3. True 4. False 5. False 6. True 7. True 8. False 9. True 10. False 11. False 12. True 13. False 14. True 15. True 16. True 17. False 18. True 19. False 20. False 21. True 22. True 23. False 24. False 25. True 26. False

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Chap 15_5ce 27. True 28. True 29. True 30. True 31. True 32. True 33. True 34. True 35. True 36. False 37. False 38. False 39. True 40. False 41. True 42. True 43. False 44. True 45. True 46. True 47. False 48. False 49. False 50. True 51. False 52. False 53. True 54. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_5ce 55. True 56. False 57. False 58. False 59. False 60. True 61. False 62. False 63. True 64. True 65. True 66. False 67. True 68. False 69. True 70. True 71. True 72. True 73. True 74. True 75. True 76. True 77. True 78. False 79. True 80. True 81. False 82. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_5ce 83. True 84. True 85. a 86. b 87. c 88. c 89. d 90. c 91. d 92. a 93. c 94. c 95. c 96. a 97. c 98. c 99. b 100. d 101. d 102. c 103. d 104. a 105. c 106. a 107. d 108. b 109. b 110. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_5ce 111. d 112. a 113. d 114. c 115. b 116. b 117. b 118. a 119. a 120. d 121. d 122. a 123. c 124. a 125. b 126. c 127. d 128. b 129. a 130. b 131. d 132. a 133. d 134. a 135. b 136. b 137. b

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Chap 15_5ce 138. a 139. d 140. b 141. c 142. b 143. b 144. a 145. c 146. d 147. c 148. b 149. c 150. d 151. a 152. a 153. c 154. a 155. d 156. c 157. d 158. a 159. c 160. d 161. a 162. c 163. d 164. d 165. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_5ce 166. c 167. a 168. b 169. intracellular fluid 170. negative balance 171. Paraesthesia 172. overhydration 173. water 174. obligatory 175. ECF osmolarity; ECF volume (in either order) 176. Adipose 177. alkalosis 178. anion gap 179. alkaline 180. logarithmic 181. carbon dioxide, CO2 182. buffer 183. Alkalosis 184. osmolarity 185. insensible 186. output 187. acidosis; acidaemia 188. input 189. extracellular fluid 190. 10/1 191. xerostomia 192. extracellular fluid 193. uraemic acidosis 194. plasma; interstitial fluid (in either order) Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_5ce 195. ammonia 196. 7.0; 7.4; 6.8; 8.0 197. dissociation constant 198. Peritoneal 199. increased 200. vasopressin 201. Plasma 202. sodium load, Na+ load 203. 20/2 (10/1) 204. intracellular fluid 205. dipsogen 206. Chemical disequilibrium 207. positive balance 208. synovial 209. Respiratory 210. left atrial volume receptors 211. plasma volume 212. Polydipsia; polyuria 213. acidosis 214. transcellular fluid 215. increasing 216. water intoxication 217. strong acid 218. pool 219. b 220. a 221. a 222. b 223. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_5ce 224. d 225. b 226. b 227. a 228. c 229. b 230. b 231. a 232. a 233. a 234. b 235. a 236. a 237. d 238. c 239. b 240. c 241. c 242. b 243. b 244. b 245. b 246. c 247. b 248. b 249. b 250. c 251. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_5ce 252. b 253. b 254. a 255. a 256. b 257. b 258. d 259. b 260. c 261. c 262. a 263. c 264. a 265. c 266. f 267. a 268. e 269. d 270. e 271. b 272. f 273. a 274. d 275. b 276. c 277. Answers will vary. 278. Answers will vary. 279. Answers will vary. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_5ce 280. Answers will vary. 281. Answers will vary. 282. Answers will vary. 283. Answers will vary.

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Chap 16_5ce Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. What is the name given to the network of enteric nerves that lie between the muscle layers of the gastrointestinal wall? a. basic electrical rhythm b. myenteric plexus c. submucosal plexus d. serosal plexus 2. Where do the final steps of protein digestion occur? a. in the ascending colon b. in the pancreas c. in the lumen of the small intestine d. on the brush-membrane of intestinal epithelial cells 3. Which of these statements does NOT concern segmentation in the small intestine? a. It is the primary means of motility in the small intestine during digestion of a meal. b. It is both mixing and propulsive. c. It refers to sequential ringlike contractions that sweep downward, creating a stripping motion that pushes chyme forward. d. It occurs at regular intervals. 4. What is the function of the ileocecal valve? a. to release digestive juices into the ileum b. to allow ileal contents to move into the large intestine and simultaneously prevent these contents from moving backward from the large intestine into the ileum c. to facilitate the defecation reflex d. to allow the contents of the large intestine to move back into the ileum if they have not been completely digested 5. Which of these statements applies to gastric motility? a. Peristaltic waves are the strongest in the fundus and progressively diminish in strength, becoming weakest in the antrum. b. The BER of the stomach is sporadic and slow-wave potentials are unpredictable. c. The BER of the stomach may or may not be associated with contraction of the stomach’s muscular wall. d. Pacemaker cells located in the antrum generate slow-wave potential that sweep up the body of the stomach. 6. What is the purpose of secondary peristaltic waves? a. to terminate the action of swallowing b. to open the pyloric sphincter c. to help dislodge a bolus that has become lodged in the oesophagus d. to prevent a bolus from moving to the trachea

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Chap 16_5ce 7. Which of these factors is the most potent stimulus for inhibition of gastric motility? a. fat in the duodenum b. acid in the duodenum c. acid in the stomach d. distention of the stomach 8. Where are chylomicrons synthesized? a. in enterocytes b. in the intestinal lumen c. in the lacteals d. in the hepatic portal vein 9. Which of these statements does NOT apply to the colon? a. slower movements than those in the small intestine b. site of the final stages of carbohydrate and protein digestion c. has as much absorptive capacity as the small intestine d. site of most absorption 10. Which of the following is/are secreted by the parietal cells of the gastric mucosa? a. HCl only b. pepsinogen only c. both HCl and pepsinogen d. both HCl and intrinsic factor 11. The term “mastication” applies to which one of major gastrointestinal functions? a. motility b. secretion c. digestion d. absorption 12. Which of these is NOT involved in increasing the surface area of the small intestine? a. lacteals b. microvilli c. circular folds d. villi 13. What is the term for the terminal portion of the colon? a. ascending b. descending c. pyloric d. sigmoid 14. Which of the following is NOT a major function of the stomach? a. absorption of nutrients b. secretion of HCl c. production of chyme d. storing food 15. Digestion is accomplished using which type of chemical reaction? a. hydrolysis b. phosphorylation c. synthesis d. condensation 16. Enterohepatic circulation means that the body uses less of which substance to synthesize bile salts? a. cholesterol b. sodium c. fatty acids d. micelles 17. Which carbohydrate can use facilitative transport to be absorbed at the brush-border membrane? a. glucose b. galactose c. fructose d. maltose Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 16_5ce 18. What prevents food from entering the nasal passages during swallowing? a. elevation of the uvula b. contraction of the pharyngeal muscles c. positioning of the tongue d. tight apposition of the vocal cords over the glottis 19. Which of these statements applies to fat-soluble vitamins? a. They are digested by lipases. b. They are actively absorbed. c. They are absorbed in micelles. d. They are absorbed through the digestive tract. 20. What is the primary factor responsible for moving chyme forward in the small intestine? a. mass movement b. sequential ringlike contractions that move progressively forward along the length of the small intestine in a stripping motion, pushing the chyme ahead of the contraction c. migrating motility complex d. a difference in the frequency of segmentation along the length of the small intestine 21. Why is the gastroesophageal sphincter normally closed? a. to prevent air from entering the oesophagus during breathing b. to prevent vomiting c. to prevent gastric contents from refluxing into the oesophagus d. to prevent oesophageal secretions leaking into the stomach 22. What is the function of lysozyme in saliva? a. to digest lipids b. to digest carbohydrates c. to destroy bacteria d. to provide lubrication 23. Calcium absorption is enhanced by the actions of which vitamin? a. vitamin C b. vitamin B12 c. vitamin E

d. vitamin D

24. Which gastrointestinal function is accomplished by contractions of muscle within the gastrointestinal wall? a. motility b. secretion c. digestion d. absorption 25. What is the strongest stimulus for the gastric phase of digestion? a. distension of the stomach wall b. carbohydrate c. fat d. protein

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Chap 16_5ce 26. Which of these statements refers to gastric emptying? a. Rate increased by excessive distension of the duodenum. b. It is inhibited by intense pain felt in any area of the body. c. Rate increased by digestion of nutrients increasing the osmolarity of duodenal contents. d. Rate influenced by emotions triggering local gastric reflexes. 27. The ileocecal sphincter relaxes and opens in response to which gastrointestinal hormone? a. gastrin b. secretin c. pepsin d. cholecystokinin 28. What does the enterogastric reflex control? a. gastric secretion b. gastric emptying c. duodenal secretion d. vomiting 29. The production of red blood cells will be affected if secretion of which of the following products of gastric exocrine cells is reduced? a. mucus b. pepsinogen c. intrinsic factor d. gastrin 30. Which of the following is the most potent choleretic? a. vagal stimulation b. CCK c. bile salt d. secretin 31. What inhibits the secretion of HCl from parietal cells? a. somatostatin b. acetylcholine c. histamine d. gastrin 32. All are functions of chewing EXCEPT for which one of the following? a. stimulating the taste buds b. stimulating salivary secretions c. mixing food with saliva d. exposing more of the surface area of food to digestive enzymes 33. If the parasympathetic nervous system were dominant, what would be the effect on the gastrointestinal system? a. There would be no effect because the enteric nervous system overrides activity of the parasympathetic nervous system. b. There would be a decrease in motility. c. There would be an increase in secretion. d. There would be a decrease in secretion. 34. What is the ultimate purpose of digestion? a. to increase the surface area of nutrients to allow enzymes access to all chemical bonds b. to break down large nutrients into components that are small enough to be absorbed c. to release energy contained within the chemical bonds of nutrients d. to ensure nutrients have been thoroughly mixed with digestive secretions Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 16_5ce 35. The presence of acid in the duodenum promotes release of bicarbonate from the exocrine pancreas via which mediator? a. gastrin b. cholecystokinin c. secretin d. trypsinogen 36. During the oropharyngeal phase of swallowing, how is food prevented from entering the other openings that communicate with the pharynx? a. by elevation of the uvula, which lodges against the back of the throat b. by elevation of the larynx and closure of the vocal folds across the laryngeal opening c. by the epiglottis blocking the opening between the vocal cords d. by closure of the nasopharyngeal sphincter 37. Which pancreatic enzymes are secreted as inactive precursors? a. lipases b. amylases c. proteases d. esterases 38. The presence of acid in the duodenum promotes release of sodium bicarbonate from the exocrine pancreas via which mediator? a. gastrin b. cholecystokinin c. secretin d. trypsinogen 39. Which statement does NOT describe control of pancreatic secretion? a. CCK stimulates release of enzymes. b. Gastrin stimulates release of neutralization solution. c. Secretin stimulates release of bicarbonate. d. A small secretion occurs during the cephalic phase of digestion. 40. Nutrients that have been absorbed from the intestine are delivered to the liver via which blood vessel? a. hepatic artery b. hepatic vein c. hepatic portal artery d. hepatic portal vein 41. Which system can stimulate saliva secretion? a. immune system b. integumentary system c. endocrine system d. nervous system 42. Walking past a bakery and smelling fresh bread baking is likely to stimulate which type of salivary response? a. simple salivary reflex b. conditioned salivary reflex c. situational salivary reflex d. autonomic salivary reflex 43. Which of these factors influences the rate of gastric emptying? a. gastric pressure b. HCl c. pepsinogen d. fluidity of chyme

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Chap 16_5ce 44. Why are epithelial cells continually being shed from the villi? a. The intracellular enzymes digest important cellular constituents, causing the cells to disintegrate and slough. b. New cells are continually being produced in the crypts at the base of the villi and they migrate upward. c. The body needs a continual supply of protein derived from the digestion of these cells. d. Acid entering the small intestine from the stomach constantly destroys the small intestinal lining, causing the cells to slough. 45. All are considered gastric secretions EXCEPT which one of the following? a. enzymes b. HCl c. mucus d. bile 46. Mucus performs which of the following functions in the stomach? a. activating pepsinogen to pepsin b. denaturing proteins c. assisting in absorbing nutrients d. protecting the gastric mucosa by neutralizing HCl 47. Which hormone promotes release of bile from the gallbladder? a. gastrin b. secretin c. CCK d. motilin 48. How do enterogastrones participate in the process of digestion? a. They are released from parasympathetic fibres as part of the cephalic phase of digestion. b. They travel from the intestine to the colon to stimulate mass movements. c. They travel from the intestine to the stomach to reduce antral contractions and delay gastric emptying. d. They are secreted into the stomach to stimulate secretion of HCl. 49. Which statement refers to the intrinsic nerve plexuses? a. They produce spontaneous depolarization of the smooth muscle cells in the wall of the digestive tract. b. They coordinate local activity in the digestive tract. c. They are located in the mucosa. d. They are located in the brain stem. 50. Which of these statements refers to the control of gastric secretion? a. The intestinal phase of digestion involves activities that are designed to reduce it. b. Negative-feedback loops control them during the cephalic phase of digestion. c. During the gastric phase of digestion, gastrin is released to turn off the secretion of HCl from parietal cells. d. Sympathetic reflexes govern its cephalic phase of digestion.

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Chap 16_5ce 51. Which of these statements does NOT refer to bilirubin? a. It assists in emulsifying fats as a part of bile. b. It is part of bile but does not participate in digestion. c. When metabolized by intestinal bacteria, it gives feces its brown colour. d. It contributes to the yellow colour of urine. 52. Which of these statements does NOT apply to HCl secreted by the stomach? a. It inactivates salivary amylase. b. It activates pepsinogen. c. It establishes a high pH in the stomach. d. It is secreted by the parietal cells in the stomach. 53. Which of the following is NOT an accessory organ of the digestive system? a. gallbladder b. salivary glands c. liver d. spleen 54. Which statement does NOT describe the defecation reflex? a. initiated when mass movements force fecal material into the rectum, stimulating stretch receptors in the rectal wall b. involves relaxation of the internal anal sphincter c. cannot be overridden by voluntary contraction of the external anal sphincter d. involves contraction of the sigmoid colon and rectum 55. Which of these represents the correct order of the digestive tract? a. mouth; pharynx; oesophagus; stomach; ileum; duodenum; jejunum; ascending colon; transverse colon; descending colon; rectum; anus b. mouth; pharynx; oesophagus; stomach; duodenum; ileum; jejunum; descending colon; transverse colon; ascending colon; rectum; anus c. mouth; pharynx; oesophagus; stomach; duodenum; jejunum; ileum; descending colon; transverse colon; ascending colon; rectum; anus d. mouth; pharynx; oesophagus; stomach; duodenum; jejunum; ileum; ascending colon; transverse colon; descending colon; rectum; anus 56. Which of these actions is NOT performed by the liver? a. metabolic activation of vitamin D b. detoxification and/or degradation of body wastes, hormones, drugs, and foreign compounds c. secretion of proteolytic digestive enzymes d. synthesis of plasma proteins essential to the clotting process 57. What is the role of colipase in digestion? a. to assist in emulsification of dietary fats b. to digest dietary fats other than triglycerides c. to act as a catalyst for lipase, speeding up its activity d. to link lipase to bile salts, ensuring lipase has access to triglycerides within lipid droplets Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 16_5ce 58. What is the purpose of mass movements in the large intestine? a. to push feces through the anal sphincter and excrete them from the body b. to push the contents of the large intestine forward toward the distal portions of where fecal matter is stored c. to mix the contents of the large intestine and expose them to the absorptive surface area of the mucosa d. to close the ileocecal sphincter and prevent fecal matter from moving back into the ileum 59. Which of the following nutrients is correctly paired with its appropriate mode of absorption? a. fat and active transport b. carbohydrate and active c. protein and pinocytosis d. water-soluble vitamins and micelles 60. Where is the swallowing centre located? a. cerebral cortex b. medulla c. hypothalamus d. pharynx 61. What does the pyloric gland area of the stomach antrum secrete? a. histamine b. gastrin c. intrinsic factor d. somatostatin 62. Which of the following does NOT refer to the mechanism of HCl secretion? a. H+ is pumped from the inside of the parietal cell into the lumen of the stomach using active transport. b. Once moved into the parietal cell by the HCO3–/Cl– exchanger, Cl– diffuses down its concentration gradient from the inside of the parietal cell into the lumen of the stomach. c. H+ is produced inside the parietal cell from the dissociation of H2CO3, which was produced from CO2 and H2O. d. H+ pumped into the lumen of the stomach is derived from the plasma. 63. If peristalsis in the oesophagus is insufficient to carry an especially large bolus of food through the oesophagus to the stomach, what happens to dislodge this trapped food? a. A secondary peristaltic wave is initiated by the swallowing centre. b. A secondary peristaltic wave is initiated by distention of the oesophagus, mediated by the intrinsic nerve plexuses. c. The food remains in the oesophagus until the swallowing mechanism is voluntarily initiated once again. d. Increased oesophageal mucus secretion occurs to lubricate the stuck bolus so that it can slide to the stomach. 64. In which organ of the digestive system does the majority of absorption occur? a. oesophagus b. stomach c. small intestine d. large intestine 65. HCl performs all functions EXCEPT for which one of the following? a. facilitating digestion of protein b. facilitating digestion of lipids c. activating pepsin d. destroying bacteria Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 16_5ce 66. In which layer of the gastrointestinal wall would you find the gut-associated lymphoid tissue? a. lamina propria b. submucosal plexus c. mucosa muscularis d. submucosa 67. The presence of fat in the duodenum promotes release of digestive enzymes from the exocrine pancreas via which mediator? a. cholecystokinin b. gastrin c. secretin d. trypsinogen 68. What is the name for the increase is saliva secretion that can happen without stimulation of oral receptors? a. simple salivary reflex b. acquired salivary reflex c. conditioned salivary reflex d. autonomic salivary reflex 69. If the sympathetic nervous system were dominant, what would be the effect on the gastrointestinal system? a. There would be no effect because the gastrointestinal tract is not innervated by sympathetic fibres. b. There would be an increase in motility. c. There would be an increase in secretion. d. There would be a decrease in motility. 70. The pancreas produces all the following EXCEPT which one? a. lipase b. cholecystokinin c. procarboxypeptidase d. trypsin inhibitor 71. Which statement describes mixing movements? a. They promote digestion by mixing digestive juices for effective absorption. b. They promote digestion by mixing food with digestive juices, exposing luminal contents to absorptive surfaces. c. They take place only in the stomach and large intestines. d. They take place only in the small and large intestines. 72. What is the purpose of Haustral contractions in the large intestine? a. to push feces through the anal sphincter and excrete them from the body b. to push the contents of the large intestine forward toward the distal portions of where fecal matter is stored c. to mix the contents of the large intestine and expose them to the absorptive surface area of the mucosa d. to close the ileocecal sphincter and prevent fecal matter from moving back into the ileum 73. Receptive relaxation refers to which of the following? a. relaxation of the pharyngoesophageal sphincter during swallowing b. relaxation of the stomach as it starts to fill, allowing an increase in volume with very little increase in pressure c. relaxation of the external anal sphincter when the individual is receptive to the defecation reflex d. relaxation of the pyloric sphincter when the duodenum is prepared to receive chyme

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Chap 16_5ce 74. Which of the following is a product of protein digestion that is NOT normally absorbed by the small intestine? a. amino acids b. dipeptides c. tripeptides d. polypeptides 75. Which of the following may happen during the oesophageal phase of swallowing? a. elevation of the uvula b. contraction of the pharyngeal muscles c. secondary peristaltic waves d. the tongue pushing against the roof of the mouth 76. Which statement pertains to the BER? a. a basic electrical rhythm consisting of spontaneous, rhythmic, wavelike fluctuations in membrane potential b. a basic eating reflex that ensures food is moved along the digestive tract at an appropriate rate c. a basic emptying reflex that governs the rate of gastric emptying d. a bowel evacuation reflex, or defecation reflex 77. What does pepsinogen do after it has been activated? a. It autocatalytically activates more pepsinogen. b. It activates the pancreatic proteolytic enzymes in the duodenal lumen after gastric emptying has occurred. c. It inhibits the pyloric gland area in a negative-feedback fashion. d. It inhibits the secretion of HCl. 78. In order for the products of fat digestion that have been taken up into intestinal epithelial cells to be absorbed into the lymphatic system, they must first be packaged into ____________________. a. secretory vesicles b. chylomicrons c. triglycerides d. lacteals 79. Which of these conditions is NOT a side effect of constipation? a. gradual buildup of toxins b. nausea c. headache d. lack of appetite 80. Which of the following is NOT a component of saliva? a. pepsin b. mucus c. amylase d. lysozyme 81. Which of these statements does NOT apply to the pancreas? a. It secretes cholecystokinin. b. It has exocrine tissue. c. It secretes an alkaline fluid. d. It has endocrine tissue.

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Chap 16_5ce 82. Which of these statements describes the serosa? a. It is the abdominal cavity containing the stomach. b. It is the blood supply to the stomach. c. It is the outer connective tissue covering of the digestive tract. d. It is the inner lining of the digestive tract. 83. Which of these is NOT a function associated with saliva? a. oral hygiene b. pH buffering c. chemical digestion d. hormonal secretion 84. How does the physical action of vomiting occur? a. The diaphragm and abdominal muscles reflexively contract, squeezing the stomach between them and ejecting the stomach contents. b. The sympathetic nervous system secretes gastric hormones, causing strong contractions of the stomach wall, forcing the stomach contents up and out. c. The sympathetic nervous system directly stimulates extremely strong contractions of the stomach wall, forcing the stomach contents up and out. d. The lining of the stomach becomes irritated and releases hormones that cause the diaphragm and abdominal muscles to reflexively contract, squeezing the stomach between them and ejecting the stomach contents. 85. Which of these statements does NOT apply to the colon? a. When mass movements propel feces into the rectum, stretch receptors in the rectal wall stimulate the internal and external anal sphincters to prevent defecation. b. Local bacteria digest cellulose for their own growth and reproduction. c. Absorption of salt and water converts contents into fecal material. d. No digestive enzymes are secreted. 86. Iron that is NOT required immediately for haemoglobin synthesis can be stored in intestinal epithelial cells in which form? a. transferrin b. ferritin c. hepcidin d. ferrous iron 87. Which of the following applies to smooth muscle function within the gastrointestinal tract? a. Pacemaker activity of neurons within the myenteric plexus is what sets the basic electrical rhythm of gastrointestinal smooth muscle. b. Food in the stomach brings the starting point of slow wave potential closer to threshold, increasing the likelihood of an action potential firing and the smooth muscle contracting. c. The basic electrical rhythm of the gastrointestinal smooth muscle relies on input from the autonomic nervous system. d. Electrical activity in a pacemaker cell within the gastrointestinal smooth muscle travels to neighbouring cells via paracrine signalling.

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Chap 16_5ce 88. What structure prevents air from entering the oesophagus and stomach while breathing? a. the epiglottis b. the gastroesophageal sphincter c. the uvula d. the pharyngoesophageal sphincter 89. Which of these activities occurs during the cephalic phase of gastric digestion? a. CCK is secreted by the small intestine. b. Stretch receptors detect distension of the stomach. c. Sight, smell, thought, or taste of food triggers parasympathetic impulses. d. Chemoreceptors detect fatty acids in the duodenum. 90. Which of these is NOT a brush-border enzyme? a. lactase b. enterokinase c. procarboxypeptidase d. aminopeptidase 91. Which substance secreted by the gastric exocrine cells assists with the absorption of vitamin B12? a. mucus c. pepsinogen

b. intrinsic factor d. gastrin

92. Which of the following does NOT refer to the enteric nervous system? a. Its neurons are both excitatory and inhibitory. b. It is made up of the submucosal and myenteric plexuses. c. It does not use interneurons for neuronal communication. d. It can influence all aspects of the digestive process by its activity. 93. Iron absorption is enhanced by the actions of which vitamin? a. vitamin E b. vitamin B12 c. vitamin C

d. vitamin D

94. Which pancreatic enzyme, once activated, activates other pancreatic proteolytic enzymes? a. carboxypeptidase b. enterokinase c. chymotrypsin d. trypsin 95. Which of these statements accurately reflects pancreatic secretions? a. Most pancreatic exocrine secretion occurs during the cephalic phase of digestion. b. Regardless of nutrient composition, pancreatic amylases, proteases, and lipases will all be released in response to a meal because they are packaged within the same secretory vesicles. c. The strongest stimulus for secretion of pancreatic digestive enzymes is the presence of carbohydrate in the duodenum. d. Lipases are stored in the pancreas as zymogens to prevent self-digestion of pancreatic tissue.

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Chap 16_5ce 96. What are the symptoms of constipation (e.g., abdominal discomfort, headache, and nausea) due to? a. prolonged distention of the large intestine by the fecal mass b. absorption of toxins of bacterial origin from the colon c. inhibition of gastric emptying d. exhaustion due to frequent straining movements in an effort to initiate the defecation reflex 97. Why does protein digestion require multiple different pancreatic protease enzymes? a. because peptide bonds holding different amino acids together are broken by different enzymes b. because proteins are large macromolecules that require a lot of enzymatic activity to be fully broken down c. because some of these enzymes are responsible for denaturation of proteins, whereas others break peptide bonds d. because some of these enzymes are responsible for breaking down the quaternary and tertiary structure of proteins, whereas others breakdown the secondary and primary structure 98. Which of these receptor types is NOT found to a large degree in the gastrointestinal tract? a. osmoreceptors b. mechanoreceptors c. chemoreceptors d. nociceptors 99. Which statement applies to gastrointestinal exocrine secretions? a. They include digestive hormones. b. They require water taken from the intracellular fluid of the secretory cells. c. They rely on active transport to be secreted. d. They are secreted into the blood vessels supplying the gastrointestinal tract. 100. What function do bile salts perform? a. anchoring of lipase to fat droplets c. chemical digestion of triglycerides

b. emulsification of fats d. stimulate contraction of the gallbladder

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Chap 16_5ce Answer Key 1. b 2. d 3. c 4. b 5. c 6. c 7. a 8. a 9. a 10. d 11. a 12. a 13. d 14. a 15. a 16. a 17. c 18. a 19. c 20. d 21. c 22. c 23. d 24. a 25. d 26. b

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Chap 16_5ce 27. a 28. b 29. c 30. c 31. a 32. b 33. c 34. b 35. c 36. b 37. c 38. c 39. b 40. d 41. d 42. b 43. d 44. b 45. d 46. d 47. b 48. c 49. b 50. a 51. a 52. c 53. d 54. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 16_5ce 55. d 56. c 57. d 58. b 59. b 60. b 61. b 62. d 63. b 64. c 65. b 66. a 67. a 68. c 69. d 70. b 71. b 72. c 73. b 74. d 75. c 76. a 77. a 78. b 79. a 80. a 81. a 82. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 16_5ce 83. d 84. a 85. a 86. b 87. b 88. d 89. c 90. c 91. b 92. c 93. c 94. d 95. b 96. a 97. a 98. d 99. c 100. b

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Chap 16_5ce_2 Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. In cirrhosis, damaged hepatocytes are permanently replaced by an overgrowth of connective tissue. a. True b. False 2. As the gastric pH falls very low, the pyloric gland area is inhibited. a. True b. False 3. Chyme is produced in the stomach. a. True b. False 4. During defecation, the internal anal sphincter relaxes. a. True b. False 5. The digestive tract is a sterile environment. a. True b. False 6. Once activated, pepsin can produce more active pepsin molecules through an autocatalytic process. a. True b. False 7. The pancreas stores proteolytic enzymes in their inactive zymogen form to prevent premature digestion of dietary proteins. a. True b. False 8. Protein digestion begins in the stomach under the influence of pepsinogen, continues in the duodenal lumen under the influence of pancreatic proteolytic enzymes, and is completed intracellularly in the small intestinal brush border. a. True b. False 9. In general, sympathetic stimulation is excitatory to digestive activity. a. True b. False 10. Secondary peristaltic waves are not initiated by the swallowing centre in the medulla. a. True b. False

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Chap 16_5ce_2 11. Certain drugs can be absorbed in the mouth. a. True b. False 12. The strongest stimulus for secretion of CCK is the presence of fat in the duodenum. a. True b. False 13. The pharyngoesophageal sphincter is normally closed to prevent oesophageal secretions from entering the pharynx during breathing. a. True b. False 14. The pancreas is the primary site of digestive enzyme production. a. True b. False 15. Chymotrypsinogen is activated by enterokinase. a. True b. False 16. Exocrine cells in the pyloric gland area secrete HCl, pepsinogen, and mucus. a. True b. False 17. Pancreatic lipase is critical for fat digestion because it is the only lipase that contributes significantly to the breakdown of triglycerides. a. True b. False 18. The mouth is considered an accessory organ of the digestive system because it is the entry way of food to the gastrointestinal tract. a. True b. False 19. The epiglottis opens the glottis during the swallowing reflex. a. True b. False 20. Gastrin promotes relaxation of the ileocecal sphincter, allowing digestive contents from a previous meal to be moved forward through the GI tract and making room for digestive contents from a current meal. a. True b. False

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Chap 16_5ce_2 21. The only motility that occurs during segmentation are propulsive movements. a. True b. False 22. Fat is absorbed into the lymph in the form of micelles. a. True b. False 23. Gastrointestinal motility and secretion are increased when the parasympathetic nervous system is active. a. True b. False 24. A high fat meal can cause the selective release of only lipases from the pancreas. a. True b. False 25. Humans are not capable of digesting cellulose, but some of the enteric bacteria have this capability. a. True b. False 26. The BER of the stomach may or may not produce contraction of the stomach’s muscular wall. a. True b. False 27. The interstitial cells of Cajal are the pacemakers of gastrointestinal smooth muscle. a. True b. False 28. The lysozyme present in saliva is an antibacterial and can destroy bacteria present in food. a. True b. False 29. Unlike fat and protein, the presence of carbohydrate in the duodenum does not directly stimulate the release of digestive enzymes from the pancreas. a. True b. False 30. The same intestinal factors that inhibit gastric motility also inhibit gastric secretion. a. True b. False 31. Receptive relaxation refers to the voluntary relaxation of the external anal sphincter when the individual is receptive to the defecation reflex. a. True b. False

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Chap 16_5ce_2 32. Pepsin is secreted by chief cells. a. True b. False 33. Primary peristaltic waves, triggered by the swallowing centre in the medulla, sweep down the oesophagus and propel the bolus forward through the GI tract. a. True b. False 34. Both amino acids and glucose are absorbed by secondary active transport by the small intestinal epithelial cells. a. True b. False 35. While the final steps of fat digestion occur in the lumen of the small intestine, carbohydrates and proteins require further breakdown at the brush-border membrane. a. True b. False 36. H+ and Cl– are secreted separately from parietal cells into the lumen of the stomach. a. True b. False 37. Bile salts themselves are the strongest stimulus for secretion of bile from the liver. a. True b. False 38. Alcohol can be absorbed by the stomach mucosa more quickly than by the small intestine mucosa. a. True b. False 39. Chief cells of the gastric mucosa secrete HCl. a. True b. False 40. Pacemaker cells located in the antrum generate slow-wave potential that sweep up the body of the stomach. a. True b. False 41. The salivary centre that controls secretion of saliva is located in the brainstem. a. True b. False 42. Upon arrival of a new meal in the stomach, the gastrocolic reflex pushes the colonic contents into the rectum, triggering the defecation reflex to eliminate the remains of a preceding meal. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 16_5ce_2 43. Excessive small intestinal motility can lead to constipation because there is less time for absorption to take place. a. True b. False 44. The only function of chewing is to break food up into smaller pieces and soften it by mixing it with saliva to facilitate swallowing. a. True b. False 45. Digestive secretions such as gastric juice and bicarbonate are secreted from exocrine glands in the mucosa. a. True b. False 46. Substances in the digestive tract are external to the body. a. True b. False 47. The enterogastrones are hormones secreted by the duodenum that circulate to the stomach and inhibit gastric emptying. a. True b. False 48. Food must be physically present in the mouth in order for saliva to be secreted. a. True b. False 49. The function of mixing movements is to promote digestion and facilitate absorption. a. True b. False 50. The gastroesophageal sphincter remains closed at all times except during swallowing. a. True b. False 51. Gastric secretion does not begin until the arrival of food in the stomach. a. True b. False 52. Secretion of saliva is only controlled by the nervous system and is not regulated in any way by hormones. a. True b. False

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Chap 16_5ce_2 53. There is continuous salivary secretion due to constant low-level stimulation by the parasympathetic nerve endings within the salivary glands. a. True b. False 54. The volume of chyme that is ejected from the stomach into the duodenum depends on the strength of peristaltic contractions of the stomach. a. True b. False 55. Intestinal contents are prevented from moving back from the large intestine to the ileum by the ileocecal valve and the ileocecal sphincter. a. True b. False 56. Defecation is a spinal reflex. a. True b. False 57. The oesophageal phase of swallowing starts when the gastroesophageal sphincter is opened by a peristaltic wave. a. True b. False 58. The enteric nervous system contains both excitatory and inhibitory neurons. a. True b. False 59. Symptoms associated with constipation are attributable to toxins absorbed from the retained fecal material. a. True b. False 60. The majority of colonic bacteria are pathogenic and must be removed from the colon during defecation. a. True b. False 61. Colonic secretion contains no digestive enzymes. a. True b. False 62. The primary factor governing the rate of gastric emptying is the volume of the gastric contents. a. True b. False

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Chap 16_5ce_2 63. Swallowing cannot be stopped once the process has started. a. True b. False 64. Acid in the duodenum is neutralized when CCK stimulates the secretion of sodium bicarbonate from the pancreatic acinar cells. a. True b. False 65. The enteric nervous system operates independently and does not receive input from the central nervous system. a. True b. False 66. Peristaltic waves are the strongest in the fundus and progressively diminish in strength, becoming weakest in the antrum. a. True b. False 67. The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems have antagonistic effects on saliva secretion. a. True b. False 68. Haustral contractions propel the feces one-third to three-quarters the length of the colon in a few seconds. a. True b. False 69. Respiration is inhibited throughout the entire time that swallowing is taking place. a. True b. False 70. CCK causes relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. a. True b. False 71. Parasympathetic stimulation of the salivary glands produces a large volume of watery saliva high in enzyme concentration. a. True b. False 72. Sympathetic stimulation inhibits salivary secretion. a. True b. False 73. The enterogastric reflex is involved in inhibition of gastric secretions. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 16_5ce_2 74. Slow-wave potentials are always accompanied by contractile activity. a. True b. False 75. The primary absorption of nutrients, water, and electrolytes takes place in the large intestine, converting chyme to fecal material. a. True b. False 76. Chylomicrons are aggregates of bile salts, monoglycerides, and free fatty acids. a. True b. False 77. The hepatic portal vein delivers nutrients from the liver to peripheral body tissues, such as the heart. a. True b. False 78. The small intestinal epithelium actively secretes digestive enzymes into the intestinal lumen. a. True b. False 79. Gastrin, secreted by G cells of the gastric mucosa, is a stimulatory hormone that promotes secretion of HCl, pepsinogen, and histamine. a. True b. False 80. The majority of absorption is complete by the time digestive contents have passed through the jejunum. a. True b. False Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement. 81. The ____________________ is the roof of the mouth and separates the oral cavity from the nasal cavity. 82. ____________________ secrete HCl and intrinsic factor. 83. The ____________________ is the innermost layer of the gastrointestinal wall that is adjacent to the lumen. 84. The hormone ____________________ stimulates the weak peristaltic contractions of the small intestine that occur between meals to sweep remnants of digestive contents forward toward the large intestine. 85. Movements of the ____________________ guide food through the mouth and also facilitate speech. 86. The gastric mucosa in the ____________________, located in the antrum, contains cells that secrete hormones and paracrines that influence gastric functions. 87. Delaying defecation for too long can lead to ____________________. 88. The four basic digestive processes are ____________________, ____________________, ____________________, and ____________________. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 16_5ce_2 89. The ____________________ are noncontractile cells of the intestinal wall that act as pacemakers by initiating slow-wave potential activity. 90. The presence of ____________________ in the stomach is the main stimulus to enhance gastric secretion. 91. The crypts of Lieberkühn contain ____________________ that have antimicrobial actions because they secrete lysozyme and defensins. 92. The ____________________ is a common passageway for both the digestive and the respiratory systems. 93. The primary mixing and propulsive motility of the small intestine is called ____________________. 94. The folds of tissue at the terminal end of the ileum form the ____________________ that is pushed open to allow digestive contents to move forward into the large intestine. 95. The lamina propria houses the ____________________, which is a component of the immune system that defends against intestinal bacterial or other foreign agents. 96. Colonic secretion consists of a(n) ____________________ solution. 97. Of the three macronutrients, HCl is most involved in digesting ____________________. 98. The ____________________ phase is the first phase of swallowing. 99. ____________________ is motility within the pharynx and oesophagus. 100. The ____________________ is the network of blood vessels that transports absorbed nutrients from the intestine to the liver. 101. Movement of the bolus from the top of the oesophagus to the stomach occurs during the ____________________ of swallowing. 102. The ____________________ prevents bile from moving from the gallbladder to the duodenum, and relaxes in the presence of CCK. 103. Starch is broken down to maltose by the action of ____________________ in the mouth. 104. ____________________ is the process whereby bile salts are absorbed back into circulation from the intestine and recycled back to the liver. 105. Activity of the ____________________ stimulates secretion of watery saliva that is rich in digestive enzymes. 106. Iron that is absorbed into intestinal cells must be attached to ____________________ in order to be transported through the bloodstream. 107. The contractions that propel the bolus through the oesophagus into the stomach are referred to as ____________________. 108. Activity of the ____________________ stimulates secretion of thick saliva that is rich in mucus. 109. Secretin and CCK are hormones known as ____________________ because they are secreted by the intestine and can influence digestive processes that happen in the stomach. 110. Excessive accumulation of bilirubin in the body produces the condition of ____________________. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 16_5ce_2 111. The ____________________ occurs when the sight, smell, or thought of food cause saliva to be secreted from the salivary glands. 112. The ____________________ of digestion is important in turning off secretion of gastric juice when chyme starts to move into the duodenum. 113. Chief cells secrete ____________________. 114. Iron that is not immediately needed for synthesis of haemoglobin can be store in intestinal epithelial cells in the form of ____________________. 115. During the ____________________ of digestion, gastric secretion is stimulated before food is even present within that gastrointestinal system. 116. The ____________________ pancreas secretes digestive enzymes and an alkaline solution to facilitate digestion. 117. Chylomicrons are large, coated droplets of ____________________. 118. ____________________ is released by D cells of the pyloric gland area and works to inhibit gastric motility by inhibiting secretions from G cells, parietal cells, and ECL cells. 119. The ____________________ are the neural networks that lie entirely within the gastrointestinal wall and run its entire length. 120. ____________________ is an enzyme present in the duodenal mucosa that converts trypsinogen to trypsin. 121. Secretin stimulates the pancreatic ____________________ cells to secrete ____________________, whereas CCK stimulates the pancreatic ____________________ cells to secrete ____________________. 122. A(n) ____________________ is a small droplet of lipid that is surrounded by bile salts, cholesterol, and lecithin that helps to transport digested fat across the intestinal cell membrane. 123. The most potent stimulus for inhibiting gastric motility and emptying is ____________________. 124. The ____________________ is the network of gastrointestinal nerves that are found between the circular and the longitudinal muscle layers of the gastrointestinal tract. 125. The ____________________ sphincter is composed of smooth muscle and must relax in order for defecation to occur. 126. The ____________________ occurs when chemoreceptors or pressure receptors are activated by the presence of food in the mouth and cause saliva to be secreted from the salivary glands. 127. ____________________ are the microscopic projections of the absorptive cells of the small intestine. 128. The ____________________ is the weak peristaltic activity of the small intestine that occurs between meals to move remnants of digestive contents forward toward the large intestine. 129. Antibacterial actions of saliva are facilitated by the presence of ____________________, an enzyme that can destroy bacteria. 130. When activation of a receptor stimulates a reflex that is completed entirely within the gastrointestinal wall, this is considered a ____________________ reflex. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 16_5ce_2 131. The defecation reflex can be overridden by the voluntary contraction of the ____________________ sphincter. 132. If the gastroesophageal sphincter remains open, and gastric contents move back into the oesophagus, the acidity can cause irritation and discomfort known as ____________________. 133. Chemical agents that elicit vomiting by stimulating the upper gastrointestinal tract or receptors in the vomiting centre in the brainstem are known as ____________________. 134. Movement of the bolus from the back of the mouth into the next section of the gastrointestinal tract happens during the ____________________ of swallowing. 135. The absorbable units of carbohydrates are ____________________. 136. ____________________ contractions are responsible for mixing the colonic contents, whereas ____________________ periodically propel the contents long distances. 137. ____________________ is the process in which products of digestion are taken from the lumen of the intestine to either the blood or the lymph. 138. The ____________________ is the outer layer of the gastrointestinal tract that is continuous with the mesentery and attaches to the abdominal wall. 139. The ____________________ is the layer of the mucosa that contains the gut-associated lymphoid tissue. 140. The three modifications of the small intestine mucosa that greatly increase the surface area available for absorption are ____________________, ____________________, and ____________________. 141. Located in the ____________________, the swallowing centre coordinates the reflex actions involved in swallowing. 142. Parietal cells secrete ____________________, which is required for absorption of vitamin B12. Match the digestive enzymes, labelled a. through d., with their correct characteristics. a. amylase b. trypsin c. chymotrypsin d. lipase 143. activation initiated by enterokinase 144. only enzyme for fat digestion 145. similar to digestive enzyme found in saliva 146. activation initiated by trypsin

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Chap 16_5ce_2 Match the hormone(s), labelled a. through d., to the descriptions. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. both secretin and CCK b. secretin c. CCK d. gastrin 147. secreted by the pyloric gland area 148. stimulated primarily by the presence of fat (fatty acids) 149. stimulated primarily by the presence of protein 150. secretion inhibited by low pH 151. inhibit(s) gastric secretion 152. stimulate(s) gastric secretion 153. inhibit(s) gastric motility 154. stimulate(s) pancreatic digestive enzyme secretion 155. stimulate(s) pancreatic aqueous NaHCO3 secretion 156. stimulate(s) gallbladder contraction 157. known as an enterogastrone 158. secreted by the small intestine mucosa 159. stimulate(s) the pancreatic acinar cells 160. stimulate(s) the pancreatic duct cells 161. stimulated primarily by the presence of acid

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Chap 16_5ce_2 Match the digestive secretions, labelled a. through e., to the descriptions. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. bile salts b. pepsin(ogen) c. amylase d. lipase e. trypsin(ogen) 162. pancreatic enzyme that digests protein 163. gastric enzyme that digests protein 164. enzyme that digests fat 165. secreted by the salivary glands 166. recycled many times through the enterohepatic circulation 167. exerts detergent action 168. pancreatic enzyme that digests carbohydrate 169. forms micelles to aid fat absorption 170. activated by enterokinase 171. activated by HCl 172. potent choleretic Match the stimuli, labelled a. through d., with the descriptions. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. fat in the duodenum b. acid in the duodenum c. acid in the stomach d. protein in the stomach 173. stimulates secretion of CCK 174. stimulates secretion of secretin 175. most potent stimulus for inhibition of gastric motility 176. stimulates secretion of gastrin 177. directly inhibits secretion of gastrin

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Chap 16_5ce_2 Indicate the site, labelled a. through e., at which digestion of each of the three main categories of foodstuffs commences and is completed. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. mouth b. stomach c. small intestine lumen d. intracellularly in the small intestine brush border e. colon 178. carbohydrate digestion begins 179. protein digestion begins 180. fat digestion begins 181. carbohydrate digestion is completed 182. protein digestion is completed 183. fat digestion is completed Match the descriptions, labelled a. through l., with the items listed. a. secretes NaHCO3 b. enzyme for protein digestion secreted by pancreas c. activates pepsinogen d. enzyme for fat digestion e. functions inside brush border f. secretes gastrin g. stimulates parietal and chief cells h. enzyme for carbohydrate digestion that functions primarily in the body of the stomach i. secreted by chief cells j. secretes pancreatic enzymes k. secreted by duodenal cells in response to the presence of acid l. stimulates pancreatic acinar cells 184. salivary amylase 185. HCl 186. cholecystokinin 187. trypsin(ogen) 188. lipase 189. gastrin 190. pepsin(ogen) 191. pyloric gland area 192. secretin 193. pancreatic acinar cell 194. aminopeptidase 195. pancreatic duct cell Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 16_5ce_2 CUSTOM ID: 16-258

Match the gastric cell types, labelled a. through d., with the correct characteristics. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. chief cells b. parietal cells c. mucous cells d. G cells of PGA 196. secrete HCl 197. secrete gastrin 198. serve as parent cells of all new cells of the gastric mucosa 199. secrete pepsinogen 200. secrete intrinsic factor Match the control mechanisms, labelled a. through d., with the characteristics. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. autonomous smooth muscle function b. extrinsic (autonomic) nerves c. hormones d. intrinsic nerve plexuses 201. pathway by which factors outside the digestive system can influence digestion 202. travel via the blood to alter digestive motility and secretion 203. responsible for coordinating local activity within the digestive tract 204. responsible for establishing the rate of rhythmic contractility 205. coordinate activity between different regions of the digestive tract Match the hormones, labelled a. through e., with the actions listed. a. gastrin b. secretin c. CCK d. gastric inhibitory peptide e. histamine 206. stimulates insulin secretion 207. relaxes the ileocecal sphincter 208. induces bicarbonate secretion 209. causes gallbladder contraction 210. causes increased HCl production

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Chap 16_5ce_2 211. Describe how gastrin, secretin, and CCK facilitate processes involved in digestion?

212. Describe the functions of the secretory products of the gastric mucosal endocrine and exocrine cells.

213. Outline the mediators and processes involved in regulation of gastric emptying.

214. Describe the defecation reflex.

215. Outline the steps involved in digestion and absorption of dietary fat in the small intestine

216. How does chemical digestion of proteins occur?

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Chap 16_5ce_2 Answer Key 1. True 2. True 3. True 4. True 5. False 6. True 7. False 8. True 9. False 10. True 11. True 12. True 13. False 14. True 15. False 16. False 17. True 18. False 19. False 20. True 21. False 22. False 23. True 24. False 25. True 26. True

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Chap 16_5ce_2 27. True 28. True 29. True 30. True 31. False 32. False 33. True 34. True 35. True 36. True 37. True 38. False 39. False 40. False 41. True 42. True 43. False 44. False 45. True 46. True 47. True 48. False 49. True 50. True 51. False 52. True 53. True 54. True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 16_5ce_2 55. True 56. True 57. False 58. True 59. False 60. False 61. True 62. False 63. True 64. False 65. False 66. False 67. False 68. False 69. False 70. True 71. True 72. False 73. True 74. False 75. False 76. False 77. False 78. False 79. True 80. False 81. palate 82. Parietal cells Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 16_5ce_2 83. mucosa 84. motilin 85. tongue 86. pyloric gland area 87. constipation 88. motility; secretion; digestion; absorption (in any order) 89. interstitial cells of Cajal 90. protein 91. Paneth cells 92. pharynx 93. segmentation 94. ileocecal valve 95. gut-associated lymphoid tissue (GALT) 96. alkaline mucus 97. proteins 98. oropharyngeal 99. Swallowing 100. hepatic portal system 101. gastroesophageal phase 102. sphincter of Oddi 103. salivary amylase 104. Enterohepatic circulation 105. parasympathetic nervous system (PNS) 106. transferrin 107. peristalsis; peristaltic contractions (either one) 108. sympathetic nervous system 109. enterogastrones 110. jaundice 111. conditioned salivary reflex 112. intestinal phase Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 16_5ce_2 113. pepsinogen 114. ferritin 115. cephalic phase 116. exocrine 117. fat 118. Somatostatin 119. intrinsic nerve plexuses 120. Enterokinase 121. duct; aqueous alkaline fluid; acinar; digestive enzymes 122. micelle 123. fat in the duodenal lumen 124. myenteric plexus 125. internal anal 126. simple salivary reflex 127. Microvilli 128. migrating motility complex 129. lysozyme 130. short 131. external anal 132. heartburn 133. emetics 134. oropharyngeal phase 135. monosaccharides 136. Haustral; mass movements 137. Absorption 138. serosa 139. lamina propria 140. circular folds; microvilli; villi (in any order) 141. medulla

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Chap 16_5ce_2 142. intrinsic factor 143. b 144. d 145. a 146. c 147. d 148. c 149. d 150. d 151. a 152. d 153. a 154. c 155. b 156. c 157. a 158. a 159. c 160. b 161. b 162. e 163. b 164. d 165. c 166. a 167. a 168. c 169. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 16_5ce_2 170. e 171. b 172. a 173. a 174. b 175. a 176. d 177. c 178. a 179. b 180. c 181. d 182. d 183. c 184. h 185. c 186. l 187. b 188. d 189. g 190. i 191. f 192. k 193. j 194. e 195. a 196. b 197. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 16_5ce_2 198. c 199. a 200. b 201. b 202. c 203. d 204. a 205. b 206. d 207. a 208. b 209. c 210. e 211. Answers will vary. 212. Answers will vary. 213. Answers will vary. 214. Answers will vary. 215. Answers will vary. 216. Answers will vary.

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Chap 17_5ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. Body temperature is normally maintained at an elevated level during sustained exercise. a. True b. False 2. During the development of obesity, new adipocytes will develop first before existing adipocytes store additional triglycerides and become larger. a. True b. False 3. Heat from the external environment contributes the most to the body’s heat input. a. True b. False 4. The body can lose heat through evaporative losses that are unrelated to sweating and thermoregulation. a. True b. False 5. Shivering is the main voluntary means of increasing the production of heat in the body. a. True b. False 6. The temperature control centre in the posterior region of the hypothalamus is activated in response to exposure to cold. a. True b. False 7. Most of the energy contained within food will be lost as heat. a. True b. False 8. Skin vasoconstriction increases the skin’s insulative capacity. a. True b. False 9. Differences in nonexercise activity thermogenesis between individuals may be a factor related to the development of obesity. a. True b. False 10. CCK increases feelings of satiety before a meal has been completely digested and absorbed. a. True b. False

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Chap 17_5ce 11. Genetics does not play a role in the risk of developing anorexia nervosa. a. True b. False 12. Skin vasoconstriction is a response to reduce body temperature. a. True b. False 13. Heat that is lost as energy is expended by body processes and cannot be used by the body in any way. a. True b. False 14. Brown fat is thermogenic because energy that would normally be captured to produce ATP in mitochondrial oxidative phosphorylation is lost as heat. a. True b. False 15. Ghrelin and peptide YY exert opposing effects on appetite, but both influence the activity of neuropeptide Ysecreting neurons in the arcuate nucleus. a. True b. False 16. Internal energy expenditure is the energy utilized by the skeletal muscles to maintain posture. a. True b. False 17. Heat exhaustion is accompanied by extensive sweating, whereas heatstroke is characterized by an absence of sweating. a. True b. False 18. Sustained exercise is the most common cause of hyperthermia. a. True b. False 19. Leptin stimulates the release of melanocortins. a. True b. False 20. The body only gains, and does not lose, heat through radiation. a. True b. False

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Chap 17_5ce 21. Stimulating involuntary skeletal muscle contraction and inhibiting it are equally effective at increasing and reducing body heat production respectively. a. True b. False 22. Individuals with obesity may become resistant to the effects of leptin. a. True b. False 23. Melanocortins inhibit the release of orexins from LHA neurons within the hypothalamus. a. True b. False 24. An elevated body temperature is always indicative of an infection. a. True b. False 25. Sweating is the only mechanism for heat loss when body temperature is the same as environmental temperature. a. True b. False 26. Neuropeptide Y is a strong appetite inhibitor. a. True b. False 27. Skin thermoreceptors are capable of regulating core temperature in the absence of the hypothalamic temperature control centres. a. True b. False 28. The thermoneutral zone for skin vasomotor activity is in the range of 20°C to 29°C. a. True b. False 29. Core temperature increases slightly over the day according to biological rhythms. a. True b. False 30. The most dominant factor influencing the BMR is the level of circulating, active thyroid hormone. a. True b. False 31. Oral temperature is slightly higher than core temperature. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 17_5ce 32. Orexins are neuropeptides secreted from LHA neurons in the hypothalamus that have strong appetitesuppressing effects. a. True b. False 33. Heat loss from the body by evaporation occurs even in very cold weather. a. True b. False 34. Profuse sweating occurs during heat stroke as body temperature climbs rapidly. a. True b. False 35. In a hot environment, wearing light coloured, loose-fitting clothing is more cooling to the body than being nude. a. True b. False 36. Upon exposure to heat, skin vasoconstriction occurs, which increases the temperature gradient between the skin and the environment, thus promoting heat loss. a. True b. False 37. Aspirin reduces a fever by inhibiting the synthesis of prostaglandins. a. True b. False 38. There is an obligatory increase in metabolic rate resulting from food intake. a. True b. False 39. Leptin is a hormone released from adipose tissue as adipocytes release free fatty acids and become smaller. a. True b. False 40. All skeletal muscle contractions constitute external work. a. True b. False 41. Peripheral thermoreceptors monitor skin temperature. a. True b. False 42. Psychosocial influences can lead to obesity. a. True b. False

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Chap 17_5ce 43. Hyperthermia-associated, abnormally high levels of thyroid hormone elevate the core temperature by increasing the rate of metabolic activity. a. True b. False 44. The core temperature is maintained at a fairly constant level, but skin temperature is quite variable. a. True b. False 45. The appetite centres stimulate feeding behaviour, whereas the satiety centres inhibit feeding behaviour. a. True b. False 46. The most important factor influencing heat transfer by radiation is the relative humidity of the atmosphere. a. True b. False 47. If all other factors were equal, a 25-year-old would have a lower BMR than a 45 year old. a. True b. False 48. Melanocortin is a strong appetite inhibitor. a. True b. False 49. Bulimia nervosa is a psychological eating disorder where food intake is severely restricted. a. True b. False 50. Arcuate nucleus neurons that secrete neuropeptide Y promote feelings of fullness and reduced food intake. a. True b. False 51. Metabolic rate is not usually measured using direct calorimetry because it is not as accurate as indirect calorimetry. a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 52. Which of the following will happen if energy intake from food is less than what is expended? a. All the excess energy will be liberated. b. The excess energy will be stored in muscle tissue. c. A positive energy balance will return to normal. d. A positive energy balance will exist, and the excess energy will be stored in adipose tissue.

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Chap 17_5ce 53. Which of these mechanisms does NOT help to maintain body temperature on hot days? a. decreased muscle tone b. vasoconstriction of skin vessels c. sweating d. vasodilation of skin vessels 54. Which of these is NOT a site that is used to monitor body temperature? a. armpit b. eardrum c. groin d. rectum 55. About how many kilocalories of energy are liberated by consumption of 3 L of oxygen? a. 5 kcal b. 10 kcal c. 15 kcal d. 20 kcal 56. Which of these statements applies to leptin? a. It is absorbed by adipocytes and leads to appetite suppression. b. It encourages appetite. c. It targets the thalamus. d. It is secreted by adipocytes and leads to appetite suppression. 57. Which of these thermoregulatory responses is coordinated by the anterior hypothalamus? a. decreased muscle tone b. shivering c. skin vasoconstriction d. nonshivering thermogenesis 58. Which of these statements applies to vasoconstriction of the blood vessels? a. It is not coordinated by the sympathetic nervous system. b. It increases heat exchange with the environment. c. It occurs when core body temperature is elevated. d. Heat exchange with the environment is lowered and is coordinated by the sympathetic nervous system. 59. Which of the following compounds secreted from adipose tissue is an important satiety signal? a. leptin b. peptide YY c. CCK d. insulin 60. Which hormone promotes weight gain? a. melanocyte-stimulating hormone b. leptin c. neuropeptide Y d. peptide YY 61. Which of these statements refers to metabolic rate? a. It is the rate of heat production as chemical energy is converted to mechanical energy. b. It is the rate of energy production from ATP-generating metabolic pathways. c. It is the rate at which nutrients such as carbohydrates, protein, and fat are metabolized. d. It is the rate of energy expenditure by the body through internal and external work.

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Chap 17_5ce 62. Which of the following is an example of external work? a. energy required to move the body in relation to the environment b. energy required to pump blood c. energy required for active transport d. energy used during synthetic reactions 63. Which of these statements describes radiation? a. heat emission from a warm object in the form of electromagnetic waves b. a source of only heat loss for the body (i.e., the body can lose but cannot gain heat by radiation) c. the transfer of heat by direct contact between a warmer object and a cooler object d. the continued cycling of cool air over the body 64. Which of the following is NOT a potential cause for obesity? a. hyperactivity neurons in the nucleus tractus solitarius b. genetics c. leptin resistance d. interindividual differences in the amount of energy that can be extracted from food 65. Which of these statements describes heat loss and conservation? a. Vasomotor responses triggered by the brainstem to maintain blood pressure override the vasomotor responses triggered by the hypothalamus for thermoregulation. b. The hypothalamus uses parasympathetic nerves to control vasomotor responses for thermoregulation. c. Blood pressure can be affected when skin vasomotor responses are elicited to regulate body temperature. d. The brainstem can also participate in thermoregulation, because the cardiovascular control centre controls vasomotor responses in skin arterioles. 66. Which one of these factors increases the metabolic rate to the greatest extent? a. increased skeletal muscle activity b. increased mental effort c. increased dietary fibre intake d. increased brown fat deposition 67. Which of the following statements does NOT refer to shivering? a. It reflexively increases skeletal muscle contractions and produces heat, which can be augmented by heat produced through voluntary skeletal muscle contraction. b. Body temperature can increase within seconds to minutes after it starts. c. It is triggered by activation of ascending pathways from peripheral thermoreceptors in the skin. d. Involuntary contraction and relaxation of skeletal muscle occurs at a rate of approximately 10–20 per second. 68. Where is the satiety centre located within the brainstem? a. paraventricular nucleus b. nucleus tractus solitarius c. arcuate nucleus d. POMC centre

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Chap 17_5ce 69. Which of these receptors monitors core temperature? a. central thermoreceptors b. visceral thermoreceptors c. peripheral thermoreceptors d. abdominal thermoreceptors 70. What role do endogenous pyrogens play in thermoregulation? a. They raise the set point for normal body temperature in the hypothalamus during an infection. b. They stimulate the release of prostaglandins to reduce elevated temperature that occurs during a fever. c. They interact with receptors in skin arterioles and induce vasoconstriction, thus conserving body heat. d. They stimulate hyperactivity of immune cells, which leads to the increased body temperature that is a fever. 71. Why is direct calorimetry NOT an ideal way to measure basal metabolic rate? a. because it is the least accurate method for measuring basal metabolic rate b. because it cannot discriminate between energy expenditure at rest versus during exercise c. because it is an invasive procedure and difficult for people to withstand d. because the equipment required to perform the measurements is large and expensive 72. What is the most important factor in the long-term regulation of body weight? a. fluid intake b. energy expenditure c. adjustments to metabolism d. energy intake 73. Radiation and conduction are two types of heat exchange between the body and the environment. What determines the magnitude of heat loss via these two processes? a. the amount of sweating b. the temperature difference between the body surface and its surroundings c. the body’s absolute core temperature d. the extent of evaporation from the body surface 74. Which of these statements refers to sweating? a. It is a means of conductive heat loss, as sweat on the body’s surface is cooler than body temperature. b. It is most effective as a method of thermoregulation when sweat is wiped from the surface of the skin. c. It is controlled by the sympathetic nervous system. d. Its effectiveness as a method of thermoregulation is not affected by air humidity. 75. A young woman consumes 1200 mL of O2 during a six-minute, basal metabolic rate test period. What is her estimated basal metabolic rate? a. 72 kcal/hour b. 60 kcal/hour c. 12 kcal/hour d. 4 kcal/hour 76. Which of these is reflective of core temperature? a. temperature of the spine b. temperature of thoracic organs c. temperature of the skin d. temperature of subcutaneous fat

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Chap 17_5ce 77. Why should BMR measurements be made 12 hours after consuming food? a. because sympathetic activity is increased during digestion, which artificially increases basal metabolic rate b. because thyroid hormone is released after a meal, which increases basal metabolic rate and will skew the measurement c. because energy is expended to process and store nutrients, which is not a part of basal metabolism d. because consuming food will make the test uncomfortable for the volunteer 78. Which of these factors does NOT determine basal metabolic rate? a. food intake b. thyroid hormone c. sex d. age 79. What compounds are released from the lateral hypothalamic area to participate in appetite regulation? a. orexins b. adipokines c. melanocortins d. ghrelins 80. Levels of which hormone peak before a meal and decrease as food is consumed? a. peptide YY b. CCK c. ghrelin d. leptin 81. Why are brown fat cells particularly well suited to produce heat? a. because they can readily release their fatty acids, which can be metabolized quickly to produce heat b. because they are richly innervated by parasympathetic nerve fibres c. because they have an abundance of enzymes to oxidize carbohydrates, proteins, and fats, which gives off heat d. because they have an abundance of mitochondria in which oxidation is uncoupled from ATP production, and energy is given off as heat 82. Increased levels of which hormone stimulate appetite and feelings of hunger? a. CCK b. ghrelin c. peptide YY d. resistin 83. When does the lowest metabolic rate occur? a. during sleep b. during a basal metabolic rate determination c. during exercise d. after a meal 84. Internal work is best described by which of the following statements? a. all energy expenditure by tissues other than skeletal muscles b. all the energy-expending activities that must go on all the time to sustain life c. energy expenditure required to move external objects d. energy expenditure by skeletal muscles

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Chap 17_5ce 85. What type of heat gain occurs when someone uses a heating pad on a sore neck? a. radiation b. convection c. conduction d. evaporation 86. Which of these statements applies to sweating? a. It is caused by vasoconstriction of the skin vessels. b. It is the body’s only mechanism for gaining heat. c. It increases the insulative capacity of the skin so that less heat can be gained from the environment. d. It is one of the heat-loss mechanisms available to the body when the environmental temperature is high. 87. Which of these statements does NOT apply to heat loss during energy conversion in the body? a. 40 to 50 percent of the energy released from the breakdown of nutrients is lost as heat. b. 75 percent of the energy produced by muscles as they convert chemical energy to mechanical energy is lost as heat. c. Heat that is lost as energy is expended by body processes and cannot be used by the body in any way. d. The majority of energy available to the body is lost as heat. 88. How does aspirin reduce body temperature during a fever? a. by blocking production of pyrogens b. by blocking production of prostaglandins c. by stimulating vasodilation of skin arterioles d. by stimulating sweating 89. How can a person lose heat to an environment warmer than the body? a. by radiation b. by evaporation c. by conduction d. by convection 90. Which of these statements pertains to the energy equivalent of oxygen? a. the number of calories contained in every litre of oxygen consumed b. the value that equates how much energy is liberated from food for every litre of oxygen consumed c. the oxygen consumption required for the processing and storage of ingested foodstuff d. the energy required to raise 1 g of H2O 1°C 91. Which of the following is the best condition to measure BMR? a. three hours after eating b. comfortable room temperature and low lighting c. soon after jogging or cycling d. a few hours after drinking alcohol 92. What area of the hypothalamus controls energy intake? a. arcuate nucleus b. paraventricular nucleus c. optic chiasm d. anterior nucleus

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Chap 17_5ce 93. What role(s) do the paraventricular nucleus and lateral hypothalamic area have in regulation of appetite? a. They are activated by ghrelin and PYY and they stimulate activity of the neurons of the arcuate nucleus. b. They stimulate secretion of leptin from enlarged adipocytes. c. They block the activity of NPY-secreting neurons of the arcuate nucleus in response to leptin. d. They receive signals from neurons of the arcuate nucleus and secrete chemical messengers that are part of appetite signalling. 94. Which of the following is associated with positive energy balance? a. maintenance of body weight b. storage of excess energy in muscle and fat c. energy expenditure higher than energy intake from food d. utilization of stored nutrients for energy 95. Which of these actions happens during fever? a. Endogenous pyrogen released from neurons of the cerebral cortex in response to an infection elevates the hypothalamic “set point.” b. Cold response mechanisms are initiated by the hypothalamus to raise the body temperature to the new “set point.” c. Heat-loss mechanisms are triggered to eliminate the excess heat from the body. d. The hypothalamus promotes skin vasodilation to rapidly increase heat loss. 96. Which of these events is characteristic of hypothermia? a. reduced plasma volume b. weak and shallow breathing c. extensive sweating d. fainting 97. Which of these receptors monitors skin temperature? a. central thermoreceptors b. peripheral thermoreceptors c. visceral thermoreceptors d. abdominal thermoreceptors 98. Which of these factors does NOT impact the variance of “normal” body temperature? a. exercise b. the menstrual cycle c. extreme environmental temperature d. ethnicity 99. What is the major means of increasing heat production in response to a cold environmental temperature? a. skin vasoconstriction b. wearing warm clothing c. formation of “goose bumps” d. increased muscle activity, such as through shivering and increased voluntary exercise 100. Which of these is NOT a means of increasing or conserving heat production? a. shivering b. skin vasodilation c. nonshivering thermogenesis d. increased muscle tone

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Chap 17_5ce 101. Which of these actions occurs when vasodilation of the blood vessels in the skin occurs? a. The skin temperature becomes warmer than the core temperature. b. The insulative capacity of the skin is increased. c. Heat is lost from the body. d. The skin becomes pale. 102. Which of these thermoregulatory responses is coordinated by the posterior hypothalamus? a. decreased muscle tone b. shivering c. skin vasodilation d. sweating Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement. 103. The temperature-sensitive receptors that monitor skin and core temperatures are termed ____________________. 104. A disorder characterized by a pathological fear of gaining weight and a distorted body image is ____________________. 105. Neurons within the arcuate nucleus secrete ____________________, which promotes satiety and discourages food intake. 106. ____________________ refers to the obligatory increase in metabolic rate during the processing and storage of ingested foods. 107. Standing by a fire is transferring heat from the fire to your body by ____________________. 108. Leptin is an example of ____________________, hormones that are secreted by adipose tissue. 109. ____________________ are the cells that store fat in the form of triglycerides. 110. Skeletal muscles contracting to maintain posture is an example of ____________________ work. 111. The ____________________ within the hypothalamus contains neurons that secrete peptides involved in regulating energy balance. 112. ____________________ are chemicals that are released from macrophages that raise the set point for body temperature within the hypothalamus. 113. An increase in body heat in response to a cold environment that occurs independently from skeletal muscle activity is known as ____________________. 114. The energy expended through unconscious movements, such as fidgeting, is referred to as ____________________. 115. Contraction of the hair-shaft muscles in humans in response to cold exposure leads to ____________________. 116. The ____________________ hypothalamus controls thermoregulatory responses when a person is exposed to heat. 117. Neurons within the arcuate nucleus secrete ____________________, which stimulates appetite and encourages food intake. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 17_5ce 118. When a person holds a hot cup of coffee, heat is being transferred from the hot cup to their hands via ____________________. 119. The satiety centre in the brainstem is located in an area known as the ____________________. 120. The core temperature in women is 0.5°C higher in the last half of the menstrual cycle, from ____________________ to ____________________. 121. The amount of heat lost to the environment by radiation and conduction–convection is largely determined by the ____________________ between the skin and the external environment. 122. The ____________________ hypothalamus controls thermoregulatory responses when a person is in a cold environment. 123. Any elevation of body temperature, whether due to exercise or pathological reasons, is called ____________________. 124. The alternating cycles of muscle contraction and relaxation that occur every 10–20 seconds that are designed to generate heat are known as ____________________. 125. The most important factor determining the extent of evaporation of sweat is the ____________________ of the air. 126. Freezing of exposed tissues produces the condition of ____________________. 127. Plasma concentrations of ____________________ will peak before ingestion of a meal, and will progressively decrease as food is consumed. 128. ____________________ work refers to the energy expended by contracting skeletal muscles to accomplish movement of objects or the body in the external environment. 129. The unit of heat energy used in energy balance is the ____________________. 130. Core temperature can be maintained using vasomotor responses when it is within the range of the ____________________. 131. ____________________ refers to a state of collapse resulting from reduced blood pressure brought about as a consequence of overtaxing the heat-loss mechanisms. 132. Pyrogens increase the set point for body temperature within the hypothalamus by stimulating the release of ____________________. 133. The ____________________ is energy expenditure (i.e., rate of heat production) per unit of time. 134. The ____________________ nervous system controls the vasomotor responses of the skin. 135. The minimal waking rate of energy expenditure determined under standardized conditions is known as the ____________________. 136. ____________________ may serve as a satiety signal to stop eating before ingested food is actually digested, absorbed, and made available to meet the body’s energy needs.

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Chap 17_5ce Match the terms, labelled a. through g., with the correct characteristic. a. hypothermia b. obesity c. frostbite d. hyperthermia e. anorexia f. heat stroke g. heat exhaustion 137. excessive fat content in adipose tissues stores 138. morbid fear of becoming overweight 139. state of collapse resulting from reduced blood pressure brought about as a consequence of overtaxing the heatloss mechanisms 140. absence of heat-loss mechanisms despite the fact that the body temperature is rising rapidly 141. freezing of tissues as a result of cold exposure 142. elevation in body temperature due to reasons other than an infection 143. slowing of all body processes as a result of generalized cooling Match the items labelled a. through e. with their descriptions. a. energy equivalent of oxygen b. external work c. calorie d. basal metabolic rate e. internal work 144. energy expended by contracting skeletal muscles to move external objects or the body 145. all forms of biological energy expenditure that do not accomplish work outside the body 146. amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 gram of H2O 1°C 147. quantity of heat produced per litre of O2 consumed 148. minimal waking rate of internal energy expenditure Match the heat exchange terms, labelled a. through d., with their descriptions. a. convection b. evaporation c. radiation d. conduction 149. emission of heat energy from the surface of a warm body in the form of electromagnetic waves 150. heat loss by means of conversion of water from a liquid to a gaseous state 151. transfer of heat between objects that are in direct contact with each other and have different temperatures 152. transfer of heat by air or water currents

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Chap 17_5ce 153. Outline the endocrine and neural response that are involved in regulation of food intake.

154. Describe the factors that influence basal metabolic rate.

155. Describe the responses of the anterior and posterior pituitary to cold and heat exposure.

156. Describe the physiological changes that occur during heat stroke.

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Chap 17_5ce Answer Key 1. True 2. False 3. False 4. True 5. False 6. True 7. True 8. True 9. True 10. True 11. False 12. False 13. False 14. True 15. True 16. True 17. True 18. True 19. True 20. False 21. False 22. True 23. True 24. False 25. True 26. False

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Chap 17_5ce 27. False 28. True 29. True 30. True 31. False 32. False 33. True 34. False 35. True 36. False 37. True 38. True 39. False 40. False 41. True 42. True 43. True 44. True 45. True 46. False 47. False 48. True 49. False 50. False 51. False 52. c 53. b 54. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 17_5ce 55. c 56. d 57. a 58. d 59. a 60. c 61. d 62. a 63. a 64. a 65. c 66. a 67. c 68. b 69. a 70. a 71. d 72. d 73. b 74. c 75. b 76. b 77. c 78. a 79. a 80. c 81. d 82. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 17_5ce 83. a 84. b 85. c 86. d 87. c 88. b 89. b 90. b 91. b 92. a 93. d 94. b 95. b 96. b 97. b 98. d 99. d 100. b 101. c 102. b 103. thermoreceptors 104. anorexia nervosa 105. melanocortin 106. Diet-induced thermogenesis 107. radiation 108. adipokines 109. Adipocytes 110. internal Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 17_5ce 111. arcuate nucleus 112. Pyrogens 113. nonshivering thermogenesis (chemical thermogenesis) 114. nonexercise activity thermogenesis 115. goosebumps 116. anterior 117. neuropeptide Y 118. conduction 119. nucleus tractus solitarius 120. ovulation; menstruation 121. temperature gradient, temperature difference 122. posterior 123. hyperthermia 124. shivering 125. humidity 126. frostbite 127. ghrelin 128. External 129. kilocalorie 130. thermoneutral zone 131. Heat exhaustion 132. prostaglandins 133. metabolic rate 134. sympathetic 135. basal metabolic rate BMR 136. Cholecystokinin (CCK) 137. b 138. e 139. g Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 17_5ce 140. f 141. c 142. d 143. a 144. b 145. e 146. c 147. a 148. d 149. c 150. b 151. d 152. a 153. Answers will vary. 154. Answers will vary. 155. Answers will vary. 156. Answers will vary.

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Chap 18_5ce Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Which of these is destined to become the embryo/fetus? a. morula b. trophoblast c. inner cell mass d. decidua 2. Which ovarian hormone is secreted during the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle? a. estrogen b. FSH c. progesterone d. LH 3. Which of the following is NOT a function of Sertoli cells? a. to provide a blood–testes barrier b. to secrete testosterone c. to phagocytize cytoplasm extruded from sperm during their development d. to secrete androgen-binding protein 4. How do inflammatory mediators contribute to preparing the female reproductive tract for parturition? a. by stimulating the release of prostaglandins that promote cervical ripening b. by increasing the expression of gap junctions in the myometrium c. by promoting the release of pulmonary surfactant protein from the fetal lungs d. by enhancing the release of oxytocin from the pituitary gland 5. Which of these actions is NOT attributable to testosterone? a. spermatogenesis b. skin pigmentation c. deepening of the voice d. bone growth 6. Which of these statements pertains to FSH? a. It is produced by developing ovarian follicles and is sometimes referred to as ICSH in males. b. It is produced by developing ovarian follicles. c. It is an anterior pituitary hormone that stimulates antrum formation in developing ovarian follicles. d. It is secreted only in females. 7. Which of the following occurs in response to activation of the erection generating centre? a. sympathetic vasoconstriction of penile arterioles b. parasympathetic vasodilation of penile arterioles c. reduced blood flow to erectile tissue d. flaccidity of the erectile tissue 8. Which of these statements refers to secondary sex characteristics? a. Pubic and armpit hair are examples. b. Dehydroepiandrosterone stimulates their development in males. c. They directly influence reproduction. d. Their development is governed by testosterone and estrogen.

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Chap 18_5ce 9. How does estrogen participate in lactation? a. by promoting formation of the alveoli lobules b. by synthesizing enzymes needed for milk production c. by stimulating the activity of the mammary glands d. by promoting the formation of ducts that collect milk 10. Which of these female structures has tissue composition similar to the penis? a. cervical canal b. fallopian tube c. clitoris d. labia majora 11. What are paired chromosomes known as? a. sex chromosomes b. autosomal chromosomes c. diploid chromosomes d. homologous chromosomes 12. Which of these statements does NOT refer to testosterone? a. A surge of secretion during puberty is responsible for enlargement of the testes. b. Its levels are one factor that contributes to the male sex drive. c. Once its surge of secretion occurs during puberty, it is no longer required for ongoing sperm production in adult males. d. All the male secondary sex characteristics develop because of its effects. 13. Which statement describes the third stage of labour? a. dilation of the cervix to 10 cm b. involves delivery of the placenta c. when the entire uterine contents shift downward and the fetus’s head is positioned against the cervix d. the actual birth of the baby 14. Which of these statements refers to the seminal vesicles? a. They store sperm prior to ejaculation. b. They play a primary role in lubricating the urethra. c. They secrete FSH. d. They supply fructose to be utilized by the sperm for energy. 15. Which of these events does NOT occur in the female sexual response cycle? a. erection of the clitoris b. tightening of the outer third of the vagina c. “tenting” of the upper two-thirds of the vagina d. constriction of vaginal capillaries 16. Which portion of spermatozoa contains the structures that generate the energy necessary for sperm motility? a. midpiece b. nucleus c. tail d. acrosome

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Chap 18_5ce 17. Which of these statements describes a difference between oogenesis and spermatogenesis? a. All daughter cells of spermatogenesis will mature into functional sperm, whereas only one daughter cell of oogenesis matures into a functional ovum. b. The time to complete spermatogenesis is considerably shorter than it is for completion of oogenesis. c. While the daughter cells of spermatogenesis only need to provide chromosomes for a developing embryo, daughter cells from oogenesis must provide chromosomes and cytoplasmic elements. d. Meiosis in spermatogenesis involves fewer steps than it does in oogenesis. 18. What structure secretes testosterone? a. Leydig cells b. seminiferous tubules c. prostate d. epididymis 19. Of what is a primordial follicle composed? a. primary oocyte b. primary oocyte and granulosa cells c. primary oocyte and a polar body d. primary follicle and granulosa cells 20. What is the purpose of the tenting effect during the plateau phase of the sexual cycle in females? a. to make a space where semen can be deposited b. to allow more room for the penis to enter into the vagina c. to remove excess semen from the vagina d. to facilitate arteriolar vasodilation and enhance blood flow to the upper two-thirds of the vagina 21. How does the drug sildenafil (Viagra) promote erectile function? a. It mimics the activity of cGMP, which promotes vasodilation of penile arteriolar smooth muscle and increases blood flow to the penis. b. It blocks the activity of the enzyme that breaks down cGMP and thus prolongs the duration of an erection. c. It stimulates the release of nitric oxide by endothelial cells of penile arteriolar smooth muscle, thus inducing vasodilation and blood flow to the penis. d. It temporarily blocks the venules and slows blood flow out of the penis, thus extending the duration of an erection. 22. Which hormone is responsible for a metabolic shift in the mother that ensures the fetus receives the nutrients it requires for development? a. estriol b. human chorionic somatomammotropin c. human chorionic gonadotropin d. progesterone 23. Which of the following does NOT occur during the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle? a. ovulation b. enhanced secretion of progesterone c. formation of the antrum d. development of the secondary follicle

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Chap 18_5ce 24. During spermatogenesis, what do the first and second meiotic divisions yield? a. primary spermatocytes and secondary spermatocytes b. secondary spermatocytes and spermatids c. spermatids and spermatozoa d. spermatogonia and primary spermatocytes 25. Which of the following describes gametogenesis? a. Germ cell meiosis results in the production of two daughter cells, which are the gametes. b. Germ cells undergo one chromosome duplication and two rounds of cell division. c. Gamete cell division is accomplished using mitosis. d. Genetic material from each parent is distributed among daughter cells so that each daughter cell has chromosomes from either the mother or the father, but not both. 26. A second increase in plasma estrogen levels during the ovarian cycle is brought about by which of the following? a. corpus luteum b. corpus albicans c. follicle d. anterior pituitary gland 27. Which of these is NOT a role for progesterone during pregnancy? a. to stimulate growth of the myometrium b. to inhibit contractions of the uterine myometrium c. to enhance duct development in the breasts d. to promote development of the cervical mucus plug that prevents contamination of the uterus with substances in the vagina 28. Which of the following is NOT a function of Sertoli cells? a. to provide a blood–testes barrier b. to secrete testosterone c. to phagocytize cytoplasm extruded from sperm during their development d. to secrete androgen-binding protein 29. What does the diploid number represent? a. the number of pairs of chromosomes in human gametes b. the number of individual chromosomes in human gametes c. the number of pairs of chromosomes in human somatic cells d. the number of individual chromosomes in human somatic cells 30. Why are the testes located outside the abdominal cavity in the scrotal sac? a. to permit temperature-sensitive spermatogenesis b. to protect the gonads against injury c. to permit testosterone secretion d. to provide the room needed in the abdominal cavity for the internal male sexual organs

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Chap 18_5ce 31. Which of these is capable of implanting into the endometrium of the uterus? a. morula b. blastocyst c. ovum d. zygote 32. What stimulates the testes to descend out of the abdominal cavity and into the scrotal sac? a. inguinal cells b. Müllerian-inhibiting factor c. testosterone d. H-Y antigen 33. Which of these statements describes prostaglandins? a. They are present in the semen and are secreted by the prostate gland. b. They may be involved in sperm transport within both the male and the female reproductive tracts. c. They exert a powerful inhibitory effect on uterine musculature. d. They exert influences only on the reproductive system. 34. Cryptorchidism is which condition affecting male sexual development? a. blockage of the seminal vesicles b. low numbers of sperm c. atrophied testes in adulthood d. undescended testes in adulthood 35. Which of these hormones causes the endometrial glands to fill with glycogen, and endometrial blood vessels to become more numerous? a. estrogen b. FSH c. progesterone d. LH 36. Where along the male reproductive tract is sperm stored? a. seminiferous tubules b. epididymis c. urethra d. ductus deferens 37. During fertilization, sperm bind to specific receptor sites on the surface of what structure? a. polar body b. corona radiata c. plasma membrane of the ovum d. zona pellucida 38. What is the name for the product of fertilization during the first two weeks of gestation? a. fetus b. gamete c. embryo d. zygote 39. Which of the following is NOT an effect of the LH surge on ovulation or luteinization? a. differentiation of follicle cells to luteal cells b. secretion of prostaglandins that ultimately assist in release of the ovum c. inhibition of estrogen release from the follicle d. development of the zona pellucida 40. Secretion of which hormone must increase in order for puberty to be initiated? a. FSH b. LH c. GnRH d. melatonin

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Chap 18_5ce 41. Which of these statements describes oogenesis? a. Oogonia proliferate mitotically throughout the reproductive life of a female. b. It is triggered by release of estrogen. c. The first meiotic division occurs just prior to ovulation, and the second meiotic division is triggered by fertilization. d. It begins after a baby girl is born and is triggered by release of estrogen. 42. Which of these statements accurately describes the actions of inhibin? a. Its secretion from Sertoli cells is stimulated by testosterone and it stops secretion of LH and FSH from the anterior pituitary. b. Its secretion from Sertoli cells is stimulated by testosterone and it stops secretion of FSH from the anterior pituitary. c. Its secretion from Leydig cells is stimulated by testosterone and it stops secretion of LH from the anterior pituitary. d. Its secretion from Sertoli cells is stimulated by LH and it stops secretion of FSH from the anterior pituitary. 43. What is responsible for the reflexive arteriolar vasodilation that occurs during an erection? a. release of nitric oxide stimulated by activity of the parasympathetic nervous system b. release of nitric oxide stimulated by activity of the sympathetic nervous system c. release of testosterone by Leydig cells d. release of endothelin by Leydig cells 44. The proliferative phase of the uterine cycle coincides with which phase of the ovarian cycle? a. ovulation b. luteal phase c. follicular phase d. secretory phase 45. If Sertoli cells were not present in the testes, which of these would be negatively affected? a. masculinization of the reproductive tract b. testosterone secretion c. masculinization of the gonads d. delivery of sperm to the epididymis 46. Which of these factors is NOT associated with sex determination and differentiation in a male? a. degeneration of Wolffian ducts b. differentiation of indifferent gonadal tissue into testes under the influence of the sex-determining region of the Y chromosome c. production of H-Y antigen d. secretion of Müllerian-inhibiting factor 47. Which of these is NOT a phase of the sexual response cycle? a. resolution phase b. plateau phase c. orgasmic phase d. engorgement phase 48. Which statement describes the second stage of labour? a. dilation of the cervix to 10 cm b. involves delivery of the placenta c. the delivery of the baby d. positioning of the baby’s head at cervix Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 18_5ce 49. Which of these statements does NOT refer to fertilization? a. Sperm must bind to receptors known as fertilins on the surface of the ovum’s membrane. b. Acrosomal enzymes of the sperm digest the zona pellucida to gain access to the secondary oocyte. c. Afterward, further sperm are prevented from penetrating the ovum by hardening of the ovum’s membrane. d. It is a Ca2+-dependent process. 50. What is the location of the mechanoreceptors that initiate the erectile reflex? a. prostate b. spinal cord c. glans penis d. testes 51. What is the trophoblast of the blastocyst destined to become? a. the fetal portion of the placenta b. the amniotic sac c. the inner cell mass d. the fetus 52. How does estrogen enhance the effects of progesterone on the uterus? a. by increasing the number of progesterone receptors on the myometrium b. by increasing the number of progesterone receptors on the endometrium c. by increasing transportation of progesterone to the myometrium d. by increasing transportation of progesterone to the endometrium 53. Which of these statements describes spermatogenesis? a. It occurs in the seminiferous tubules. b. It begins with spermatocytes c. It is controlled by both testosterone and FSH. d. It is by meiotic division. 54. Where is the ideal location for fertilization? a. ampulla b. fimbria c. uterus d. cervix 55. Which of these statements does NOT describe sex differentiation? a. A Y chromosome stimulates production of H-Y antigen by primitive gonadal cells. b. Early in development, embryos of both sexes have the same indifferent reproductive tissues capable of differentiating into either a male or a female reproductive system. c. Secretion of testosterone and Müllerian-inhibiting factor by the fetal testes induces development of the reproductive tract and external genitalia along male lines. d. Ovaries must be present for feminization of the reproductive tract and external genitalia to occur. 56. Which of these statements does NOT pertain to suckling? a. It induces milk secretion due to prolactin release. b. It induces milk ejection due to oxytocin release. c. It stimulates secretion of LH and FSH. d. PRH is released by the hypothalamus. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 18_5ce 57. Where does spermatogenesis occur? a. Leydig cells b. seminiferous tubules c. ductus deferens d. epididymis 58. Which of these statements refers to inhibin? a. It is produced by the Sertoli cells. b. It is produced by the developing sperm cells. c. It signals the posterior pituitary gland. d. It promotes sperm production. 59. Which statement does NOT describe erection? a. It involves dilation of the arterioles supplying the sponge-like vascular spaces of the penis. b. It results from cGMP production induced by nitric oxide. c. It occurs when the seminiferous tubules of the penis become engorged with sperm. d. It occurs when sympathetic input to the arterioles is inhibited. 60. The luteal phase of the ovarian cycle coincides with which phase of the uterine cycle? a. menstrual phase b. proliferative phase c. follicular phase d. secretory phase 61. Which part of a developing primary follicle secretes estrogen? a. follicular cell b. oocyte c. zona pellucida d. luteum 62. Clinical infertility in males occurs when sperm concentration falls below which level? a. 5 million/mL semen b. 10 million/mL semen c. 20 million/mL semen d. 40 million/mL semen 63. Testosterone performs all EXCEPT for which one of the following functions? a. development of the male gonads b. stimulating descent of the testes c. development of all male secondary sex characteristics d. masculinization of the reproductive tract 64. Which of these statements does NOT apply to the control of milk ejection? a. involves the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland b. involves contraction of myoepithelial cells of the mammary gland c. requires intact sensory nerves from the mammary gland d. a positive-feedback response

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Chap 18_5ce 65. Which of these statements refers to testosterone? a. A surge of secretion around age 20 results in the development of the sex drive. b. Its secretion peaks at puberty and then rapidly declines before adulthood. c. It is produced and secreted by cells of the seminiferous tubules. d. The pituitary gland controls its production via secretion of luteinizing hormone. 66. What is the sequence of the uterine cycle? a. menstrual phase; progestational phase; proliferative phase; ovulation b. menstrual phase; proliferative phase; ovulation; progestational phase c. proliferative phase; menstrual phase; ovulation; progestational phase d. progestational phase; ovulation; menstrual phase; proliferative phase 67. What is the order in which the glands add seminal fluid to migrating sperm cells in the male reproductive tract? a. seminal vesicles; prostate; bulbourethral glands b. bulbourethral glands; seminal vesicles; prostate c. prostate; bulbourethral glands; seminal vesicles d. bulbourethral glands; prostate; seminal vesicles 68. Which of these is an essential reproductive function in males? a. spermatogenesis b. development of pubic hair c. deepening of the voice d. widening of the shoulders 69. What is the primary reproductive organ in the female? a. clitoris b. ovaries c. uterus d. ova 70. Which of these statements refers to Wolffian ducts? a. They develop into the female reproductive tract under the influence of estrogen. b. They develop into male external genitalia under the influence of dihydrotestosterone. c. They develop into the male reproductive tract under the influence of testosterone. d. They develop into female external genitalia. 71. Which of the following does NOT apply to spermatogenesis? a. FSH is required for spermatid remodelling. b. LH is required for spermatid remodelling. c. Testosterone is essential for mitosis of the spermatogonia. d. Testosterone is required for meiosis of the germ cells. 72. Which of these statements refers to the corpus luteum? a. It develops from the polar body after ovulation. b. It develops from the fertilized ovum through a process of division and differentiation. c. During pregnancy, it is stimulated by estrogen and progesterone secretion from the placenta. d. It develops from the ruptured follicle after ovulation. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 18_5ce 73. Which of these is NOT an essential reproductive function in females? a. parturition b. menstruation c. reception of sperm d. gestation 74. Which of these ensures the ovum is successfully transported from the ovary to the oviduct? a. allurin b. ampulla c. fimbriae d. cervix 75. Which of the following is NOT a way in which high estrogen levels assist in preparing for parturition? a. increasing oxytocin receptors in the myometrium b. stimulating release of prostaglandins that promote cervical ripening c. addition of gap junctions to the myometrial smooth muscle cells d. increasing the strength of myometrial smooth muscle contractions 76. What is the name for the germ cells that produce mature sperm? a. primary spermatocytes b. spermatids c. spermatogonia d. spermatozoa 77. According to the leading proposal, what initiates parturition? a. parasympathetic stimulation b. a negative-feedback loop established between progesterone and oxytocin c. an increase in uterine responsiveness to oxytocin as a result of an increased concentration of myometrial oxytocin receptors d. a drop in oxytocin secretion 78. What is the sequence of the structures that sperm travel through prior to ejaculation? a. epididymis; ductus deferens; ejaculatory duct; urethra b. urethra; ductus deferens; epididymis; ejaculatory duct c. ductus deferens; epididymis; ejaculatory duct; urethra d. urethra; epididymis; ejaculatory duct; ductus deferens 79. Which of these compounds directly controls spermatogenesis? a. LH b. testosterone c. prostaglandin d. FSH 80. Which of these statements describes the prostate gland? a. It provides a site for final maturation for fertility and motility for the spermatozoa. b. It secretes mucus for lubrication. c. It secretes an alkaline solution that neutralizes the acidic vaginal secretions. d. It contains portions of the ductus deferens. 81. The placenta performs the functions of all the following for the fetus EXCEPT for which one? a. the digestive system b. the respiratory system c. the circulatory system d. the kidneys Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 18_5ce 82. Which of these statements refers to the morula? a. It is surrounded by the zona pellucida. b. It is formed when the blastocyst continues to proliferate and differentiate. c. If it fails to descend into the uterus and continues to develop and implant in the lining of oviduct ectopic, then tubal pregnancy will result. d. It is formed three to four days after fertilization. 83. Which of the following happens in the blastocyst? a. The trophoblast is destined to become the fetus. b. The blastocoel serves the functions of the digestive system, lungs, and kidneys for the fetus. c. The trophoblast is destined to become the inner cell mass. d. The trophoblast is destined to become the fetal portion of the placenta. 84. What is the primary reproductive organ in the male? a. testes b. prostate gland c. seminal vesicles d. penis 85. What is the final outcome of meiosis during spermatogenesis? a. secondary spermatocytes with 23 chromosomes each b. primary spermatocytes with 46 chromosomes each c. spermatids with 23 chromosomes each d. spermatogonia with 23 chromosomes each 86. An increase in the secretion of which hormone initiates the beginning of the ovarian cycle? a. estrogen b. progesterone c. LH d. FSH 87. Inappropriate immune reactions to developing sperm are prevented by which of these structures? a. Sertoli cells b. interstitial cells c. Leydig cells d. secretions by the prostate gland 88. Which factor is responsible for differentiating the embryonic gonads into testes? a. the sex-determining region of the X chromosome b. the sex-determining region of the Y chromosome c. Wolffian ducts d. male gonadal-determining factor 89. Ejaculation occurs during which phase of the male sexual cycle? a. resolution phase b. plateau phase c. excitement phase d. orgasmic phase

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Chap 18_5ce 90. Which of the following refers to the number of primary oocytes in a female? a. It decreases continually throughout her reproductive life, from puberty to menopause. b. It is constant during her reproductive life because those that are lost are continuously replaced by an equal number of new primary oocytes. c. It increases at the time of menopause. d. It contains a haploid number of chromosomes. 91. Which of these statements describes the prostate gland? a. It secretes prostaglandins. b. It secretes an alkaline medium that is important to neutralize acidic vaginal secretions. c. It supplies fructose, which is utilized by the sperm for energy production. d. It secretes a mucus-like substance for lubrication. 92. Gametes contain how many chromosomes? a. 12 b. 23 c. 34 d. 46 93. Which of the following does NOT occur during the luteal phase of the ovarian cycle? a. formation of the corpus albicans b. enhanced secretion of progesterone c. ovulation d. vascularization of the corpus luteum 94. How does progesterone participate in lactation? a. by promoting formation of the alveoli lobules b. by synthesizing enzymes needed for milk production c. by promoting the formation of ducts that collect milk d. Progesterone has no role in lactation. 95. Which portion of spermatozoa contain the enzymes that are necessary for entry into the ovum? a. tail b. nucleus c. midpiece d. acrosome 96. Which of these statements refers to human chorionic gonadotropin? a. It is secreted by the corpus luteum of pregnancy. b. In urine, it is the basis of diagnostic tests for pregnancy. c. It stimulates placental secretion of estrogen and progesterone. d. It continues to secrete throughout pregnancy. 97. What is the overall effect of progesterone on the uterus? a. induction of strong vasoconstriction of uterine arterioles and promotion of death of the endometrial lining b. promotion of growth of the myometrium c. preparation of the endometrium for implantation of a fertilized ovum d. stimulation of uterine contractions and facilitation of menstruation

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Chap 18_5ce 98. Which of the following is the sequence of the normal fetal developmental stages? a. blastocyst; morula; zygote; embryo; fetus b. blastocyst; zygote; embryo; morula; fetus c. morula; embryo; blastocyst; zygote; fetus d. zygote; morula; blastocyst; embryo; fetus 99. A sharp burst of secretion of which hormone triggers ovulation? a. estrogen b. LH c. progesterone d. FSH 100. What is the next stage of development after fertilization happens? a. blastocyst b. zygote c. morula d. trophoblast

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Chap 18_5ce Answer Key 1. c 2. a 3. c 4. a 5. b 6. c 7. b 8. d 9. d 10. c 11. d 12. c 13. b 14. d 15. d 16. a 17. d 18. a 19. b 20. a 21. b 22. b 23. b 24. b 25. b 26. a

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Chap 18_5ce 27. a 28. b 29. a 30. a 31. b 32. c 33. b 34. d 35. c 36. d 37. d 38. c 39. d 40. c 41. c 42. b 43. a 44. c 45. d 46. a 47. d 48. c 49. a 50. c 51. a 52. b 53. b 54. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 18_5ce 55. d 56. c 57. b 58. a 59. c 60. d 61. a 62. c 63. a 64. a 65. d 66. b 67. a 68. a 69. b 70. c 71. b 72. d 73. b 74. c 75. d 76. c 77. c 78. a 79. d 80. c 81. c 82. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 18_5ce 83. d 84. a 85. c 86. d 87. a 88. b 89. d 90. a 91. b 92. b 93. c 94. a 95. d 96. b 97. c 98. d 99. b 100. b

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Chap 18_5ce_2 Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. A male with cryptorchidism produces sperm, but they will not be viable. a. True b. False 2. The endometrium is the layer of smooth muscles of the uterus. a. True b. False 3. The genital tubercle is the common structure from which the glans penis and clitoris develop. a. True b. False 4. The first meiotic division of a primary oocyte occurs within a mature follicle just prior to ovulation. a. True b. False 5. The endometrium is composed primarily of smooth muscle that thickens under the influence of estrogen. a. True b. False 6. The hormone hCG diminishes the lifespan of the corpus luteum. a. True b. False 7. An XX combination of sex chromosomes will always produce an anatomic female. a. True b. False 8. Testosterone is involved in bone growth and also closes the epiphyseal plate during puberty. a. True b. False 9. In the absence of masculinizing factors, a female reproductive tract and external genitalia develop regardless of the genetic sex of the individual. a. True b. False 10. The release of GnRH inhibits the secretion of FSH. a. True b. False 11. The Wolffian ducts persist in female fetuses and develop into the uterus and oviducts. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 18_5ce_2 12. A vasectomy is a surgical procedure that stops sperm production in the seminiferous tubules. a. True b. False 13. Estriol is the main estrogen product secreted from the ovaries. a. True b. False 14. One spermatogonium containing 46 chromosomes yields two spermatozoa, each containing 23 chromosomes. a. True b. False 15. While gametogenesis is a continual process in males, it is finite in females. a. True b. False 16. Stimulation of both luteinizing hormone and follicle stimulating hormone is under the direction of gonadotropin releasing hormone from the hypothalamus. a. True b. False 17. Males and females do not experience all the same phases of the sexual cycle. a. True b. False 18. Testosterone has no effects outside its role in sexual and reproductive development. a. True b. False 19. An ovum may be fertilized by sperm that was deposited before ovulation. a. True b. False 20. A secondary oocyte undergoes the second meiotic division after it has been fertilized by a sperm. a. True b. False 21. Erectile dysfunction can have physiological or psychological causes. a. True b. False 22. Clinical infertility in males occurs when sperm concentration falls below 20 million/mL of semen. a. True b. False

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Chap 18_5ce_2 23. The secondary oocyte normally has a diploid chromosome number. a. True b. False 24. Lactation is one of the functions of the female reproductive system. a. True b. False 25. The penis is one of the male accessory sex glands. a. True b. False 26. Genetic sex is determined by gonadal sex. a. True b. False 27. All daughter cells that are produced during the meiotic divisions of oogenesis are destined to become mature ova that can be fertilized. a. True b. False 28. The fimbriae are the dilated portion of the uterus. a. True b. False 29. If fertilization and implantation are successful, the corpus luteum develops into the corpus albicans, which secretes hormones necessary to support pregnancy. a. True b. False 30. A mature ovum provides all the cytoplasm needed to support the fertilized ovum once it starts developing. a. True b. False 31. During the prepubertal period in males, LH and FSH are secreted at very low levels, accounting for the low testicular activity during this time. a. True b. False 32. Primary spermatocytes are the final product of spermatogenesis. a. True b. False

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Chap 18_5ce_2 33. During the resolution phase of the sexual response cycle in males, sympathetic control is dominant and vasoconstriction of penile arteriolar smooth muscle occurs. a. True b. False 34. During pregnancy, estrogen is produced from dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA) secreted by the fetal adrenal cortex. a. True b. False 35. The drug Viagra stimulates the release of nitric oxide by endothelial cells of penile arteriolar smooth muscle, thus inducing vasodilation and blood flow to the penis. a. True b. False 36. After menopause, females no longer produce estrogen. a. True b. False 37. A high local concentration of testosterone within the seminiferous tubules is essential for sustaining sperm production. a. True b. False 38. The follicle secretes estrogen during the first phase, whereas the corpus luteum secretes estrogen and progesterone during the second phase of the female ovarian cycle. a. True b. False 39. The sperm’s genetic information is located in the head of the sperm. a. True b. False 40. The delivery of the placenta is the third stage of labour. a. True b. False 41. The ductus deferens passes through the inguinal canal. a. True b. False 42. One of the daughter cells of a spermatogonium that has undergone mitotic division does not differentiate any further and assists in maintaining the supply of germ cells. a. True b. False

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Chap 18_5ce_2 43. Immediately at the onset of puberty, an ovum is released during every reproductive cycle in females. a. True b. False 44. Parasympathetic stimulation of the uterine muscle is involved in the process of parturition. a. True b. False 45. Blood is exchanged between the mother and fetus across the placenta. a. True b. False 46. Oxytocin is a powerful stimulant of uterine muscle contractility. a. True b. False 47. Female development of gonads and reproductive organs occurs in the absence of hormonal cues. a. True b. False 48. During the female sexual response, the lower third of the vagina expands to accommodate entry of the penis. a. True b. False 49. Secondary sexual characteristics refer to the external characteristics not directly involved in reproduction that distinguish males and females. a. True b. False 50. The placenta secretes hCG, which causes the ovaries to maintain cyclic follicular development (ovulations) during pregnancy. a. True b. False 51. The peak of the intense, pleasurable feelings associated with intercourse in a male occur during the resolution phase. a. True b. False 52. A surge in LH halts estrogen synthesis. a. True b. False 53. The Sertoli cells provide nourishment for the developing sperm cells. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 18_5ce_2 54. The fate of the corpus luteum depends on whether fertilization and pregnancy occur. a. True b. False 55. High levels of estrogen directly stimulate the LH-secreting cells of the anterior pituitary. a. True b. False 56. Suckling stimulates oxytocin and prolactin secretion. a. True b. False 57. Both erection and ejaculation processes are spinal reflexes. a. True b. False 58. The fimbriae and cilia usually guide the egg into the oviduct following ovulation. a. True b. False 59. A fetus is the product of fertilization of an ovum. a. True b. False 60. During their development into mature sperm, the most differentiated germ cells will be in the outer layer of the seminiferous tubule, closest to the lumen. a. True b. False 61. The placenta provides a site for maternal and fetal blood to thoroughly mix to allow O2 and nutrients to be delivered to the fetus, and CO2 and other waste products to be removed from the fetus. a. True b. False 62. Spermatogenesis occurs in the Leydig cells, also known as interstitial cells. a. True b. False 63. Inhibin is produced by the Sertoli cells, and selectively inhibits the secretion of FSH from the anterior pituitary gland. a. True b. False 64. Some of the precursors for secretion of hormones by the placenta come from the fetal adrenal cortex. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 18_5ce_2 65. Estrogen stimulates duct development in the breasts. a. True b. False 66. The corpus albicans secretes progesterone, which prepares the uterus for implantation of a fertilized ovum. a. True b. False 67. In males, the urethral folds fuse to develop the scrotum and prepuce. a. True b. False 68. Parasympathetic stimulation is required for erection, whereas sympathetic stimulation is necessary for ejaculation. a. True b. False 69. Uterine involution takes longer in mothers who breastfeed compared to mothers who feed their infants formula. a. True b. False 70. Both sympathetic and parasympathetic fibres innervate penile arteriolar smooth muscle. a. True b. False 71. In males, the reproductive tract develops from the Müllerian ducts, while the Wolffian ducts degenerate. a. True b. False 72. The secretory phase of the uterine cycle lasts from menstruation to ovulation. a. True b. False 73. Each gamete contains 23 chromosomes. a. True b. False 74. In an embryo with an XX combination of sex chromosomes, the presence of estrogen from the embryonic ovary induces the development of female external genitalia and reproductive tract. a. True b. False 75. One primary oocyte containing 46 doubled chromosomes yields only one ovum containing 23 unpaired chromosomes. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 18_5ce_2 76. The inner cell mass of the blastocyst is destined to become the fetus. a. True b. False 77. The acrosome is an enzyme-filled vesicle at the tip of the head of the spermatozoon that enables the sperm to penetrate the ovum. a. True b. False 78. The quantity of sperm a male can produce is more important for fertilization than is the quality of sperm. a. True b. False 79. As uterine contractions push the fetus against the cervix during parturition, oxytocin release from the posterior pituitary is reflexively increased, which further increases uterine contractions. a. True b. False 80. Ejaculation is a two-part reflex involving (1) contraction of the smooth muscle of the reproductive tract and accessory sex organs (emission), and (2) contraction of the skeletal muscles at the base of the penis (expulsion). a. True b. False 81. Sperm are able to penetrate the zona pellucida only after binding with specific receptor sites on the surface of this layer. a. True b. False 82. In humans, secondary sexual characteristics are not required for reproductive function. a. True b. False 83. The Müllerian ducts persist in female fetuses and develop into the uterus and oviducts. a. True b. False 84. Normal functioning of the reproductive system is not aimed toward homeostasis and is not necessary for survival of the individual. a. True b. False 85. The composition of the fluid within the seminiferous tubules is the same as that of the blood. a. True b. False

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Chap 18_5ce_2 86. Sperm leave the testes by using the motile actions of their tails, but are not yet capable of fertilization. a. True b. False 87. Maturity of the fetal lungs is one trigger for initiation of parturition. a. True b. False 88. Low levels of estrogen inhibit the hypothalamus and the anterior pituitary, whereas high levels of estrogen stimulate the hypothalamus and the anterior pituitary. a. True b. False 89. Mucus secretions from the male provide the primary lubricant for intercourse. a. True b. False 90. Testosterone is directly responsible for differentiating the external genitalia into the penis and scrotum. a. True b. False 91. Female development of reproductive organs is driven by the actions of androgens. a. True b. False 92. Human chorionic gonadotropin is secreted by the corpus luteum of pregnancy. a. True b. False 93. Parasympathetic stimulation of the bulbourethral and urethral gland produces mucus that will be used to lubricate the vagina. a. True b. False 94. An XY combination of sex chromosomes is a genetic male. a. True b. False 95. Unlike males, females do not experience an ejaculatory response during the orgasmic phase of the sexual cycle. a. True b. False 96. Somatic cells in humans contain 46 chromosomes, which are paired. a. True b. False

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Chap 18_5ce_2 97. Secretion of progesterone inhibits GnRH secretion. a. True b. False 98. Progesterone causes the cervical mucus to become thick and sticky. a. True b. False 99. During the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle, estrogen secreted from the follicle inhibits the release of follicle stimulating hormone from the anterior pituitary gland. a. True b. False 100. Fertilization must occur while the ovum is still viable, which is approximately 24 hours after ovulation. a. True b. False 101. Males with an injury to any region of the spinal cord can no longer experience an erection. a. True b. False 102. Erection can occur only upon stimulation of the mechanoreceptors in the glans penis. a. True b. False 103. Closure of the epiphyseal plate of bone by testosterone occurs after testosterone has been converted to estrogen by aromatase. a. True b. False 104. Development and maintenance of the male body configuration results from the general protein anabolic effect of testosterone. a. True b. False 105. Progesterone is the dominant hormone during the follicular phase, whereas estrogen is the dominant hormone during the luteal phase of the ovarian cycle. a. True b. False 106. During ejaculation, the sphincter at the neck of the bladder reflexively opens to allow semen to enter the urethra. a. True b. False

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Chap 18_5ce_2 107. All male secondary sex characteristics rely on testosterone for their development. a. True b. False Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement. 108. Sertoli cells secrete ____________________, which acts on the anterior pituitary gland to decrease secretion of FSH and reduce the rate of spermatogenesis. 109. A baby that enters the birth canal with its feet first is an example of a type of ____________________. 110. Sertoli cells produce ____________________, which ensures the seminal tubules have a high concentration of testosterone necessary to maintain sperm production. 111. ____________________, secreted by the placenta, induces a metabolic shift in the mother that ensures the fetus receives the nutrients that it requires for development 112. The ____________________ develops into the erotic genital tissue in males and females. 113. Gametes in males produce and secrete the sex hormone ____________________. 114. A tubal pregnancy occurs with prenatal development in the ____________________. 115. The ____________________ is located in the spinal cord and, when triggered by activation of mechanoreceptors in the glans penis, stimulates vasomotor responses that increase blood flow to penile erectile tissue. 116. A ____________________ develops from a fertilized ovum and goes through rounds of cell division to develop into the morula. 117. The reproductive cells, or gametes, in males are known as the ____________________. 118. Outside the male reproductive tract, testosterone can be converted to estrogen by the enzyme ____________________. 119. The buildup of blood within the erectile tissue of the penis that occurs as a result of penile arteriolar vasodilation is known as ____________________. 120. ____________________ occurs when male and female gametes come together. 121. The ____________________ phase of the ejaculatory reflex occurs when increasing pressure inside the penis forces semen out of the urethra. 122. The ____________________ secretes and alkaline fluid into semen, which enhances effectiveness and viability of sperm when they enter the female reproductive tract. 123. ____________________ is the tissue of the penis that is vascular and sponge-like and extends the entire length of the penis. 124. After being sustained by the nutrient supply of the endometrium, the embryo/fetus will be nourished for the remainder of the pregnancy by the ____________________.

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Chap 18_5ce_2 125. The entire process of movement of the sperm and sex gland secretions out of the male reproductive tract is called ____________________; emptying of semen into the urethra is known as ____________________; forceful ejection of sperm from the penis is called ____________________. 126. The ____________________ of the blastocyst develops into the fetal portion of the placenta. 127. The most undifferentiated male germ cell is known as a(n) ____________________. 128. The ____________________ of the blastocyst develops into the embryo/fetus. 129. The seminal vesicles provide ____________________, which is the primary energy source used by sperm. 130. In ____________________, spermatids are modified into functional and mobile spermatozoa. 131. The ____________________ is a glycoprotein-rich extracellular matrix layer that lies between the primary oocyte and granulosa cells. 132. The ____________________ are the primary reproductive organs in females and males. 133. The testes must descend from the abdominal cavity through the ____________________ canal to the scrotum. 134. The phase of the ejaculatory reflex where semen is moved into the urethra is the ____________________ phase. 135. Write the appropriate letter (a., b., or c.) in the blank. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. A is greater than B. b. B is greater than A. c. A and B are approximately equal. A. the length of the luteal phase of the average menstrual cycle ____ B. the length of the follicular phase of the average menstrual cycle A. the number of chromosomes in the ovulated secondary oocyte ____ B. the number of chromosomes in a primary oocyte A. the number of primary follicles present in the ovary at any time during the menstrual cycle ____ B. the number of mature follicles just before ovulation A. plasma concentration of estrogen during the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle ____ B. plasma concentration of estrogen during the luteal phase of the ovarian cycle A. plasma concentration of progesterone during the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle ____ B. plasma concentration of progesterone during the luteal phase of the ovarian cycle 136. Chromosomes that code for traits such as eye colour, hair colour, and other general characteristics are the ____________________ chromosomes. 137. Within the testes, spermatogenesis occurs in the ____________________. 138. In both sexes, the primary reproductive organs produce reproductive cells called ____________________. 139. The reproductive cells, or gametes, in females are known as the ____________________. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 18_5ce_2 140. A male who has had the testes surgically removed is known as a(n) ____________________. 141. The two endocrine units that secrete hormones during the ovarian cycle are the ____________________ and the ____________________. 142. Thecal cells and granulosa cells are collectively known as ____________________, and together are one component of the developing follicle that secretes estrogen. 143. Uterine ____________________ is the return of the uterus to its pre-pregnancy size. 144. The ____________________ develop into the female reproductive tract. 145. The ____________________ secrete a mucus that acts as a lubricant to assist sperm transport through the urethra. 146. The ____________________ is a single gene that stimulates production of H-Y antigen, which masculinizes the gonads. 147. The four phases of the sexual cycle in both sexes (in order) are ____________________, ____________________, ____________________, and ____________________ phases. 148. After a female reaches puberty, the reproductive cycles may be ____________________ for several years, meaning ova are not released. 149. If a mother is not consuming sufficient dietary calcium, the placenta releases ____________________ to acquire calcium from the mother’s bones to supply fetal needs. 150. Testosterone in the seminal fluid and female reproductive secretions enhance the motility and fertilizing ability of sperm, a process known as ____________________. 151. ____________________ inhibits activity of phosphodiesterase 5, thus extending the action of cyclic GMP on penile arteriolar smooth muscle and prolonging an erection. 152. The ____________________ that happens during the plateau phase of the sexual cycle in females enlarges the upper two-thirds of the vagina and creates room for semen to be deposited. 153. The pleasurable feeling associated with ejaculation in males is known as a(n) ____________________. 154. The ____________________ are the primary reproductive organs in females. 155. The three stages of spermatogenesis, in the order that they occur, are ____________________, ____________________, and ____________________. 156. The reproductive tract includes a system of ducts plus ____________________, which secrete into these passageways. 157. The uterus consists of two layers: an outer layer of smooth muscle known as the ____________________, and an inner layer of blood vessels and glands called the ____________________. 158. In addition to fluid produced from vasocongestion, the vagina also receives a lubricating fluid secreted by the ____________________. 159. Primary oocytes surrounded by a layer of granulosa cells are known as ____________________. 160. The ideal site for fertilization is the ____________________. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 18_5ce_2 161. ____________________ is the hormone that stimulates milk ejection, whereas ____________________ is the hormone that stimulates milk secretion. 162. In response to the SRY, ____________________ is stimulated and directs the development of the gonads into testes. 163. The two phases of ejaculation, in the order that they occur, are ____________________ and ____________________. 164. ____________________ cells ensure that developing sperm cells have an adequate supply of nutrients. 165. ____________________ are the undifferentiated germ cells of the female reproductive system. 166. The ____________________ is the portion of a spermatozoan that contains enzymes necessary to penetrate the ovum. 167. When a female reaches ____________________, the menstrual cycle ceases. 168. ____________________ refers to declining androgen levels in men as they age, and is sometimes called male menopause, or andropause. 169. The ____________________ develop into the male reproductive tract. 170. One cycle of spermatogenic meiosis from one secondary spermatocyte yields four ____________________ with 23 chromosomes each. 171. Primary oocytes surrounded by a layer of granulosa cells are known as ____________________. 172. If a primary follicle does not mature and ovulate, it will form scar tissue in a process known as ____________________. 173. The embryonic ____________________ gives rise to the glans penis in males and the clitoris in females. 174. The ____________________ refer to the many external characteristics not directly involved in reproduction that distinguish males and females. The hormone ____________________ in males and the hormone ____________________ in females are responsible for the development and maintenance of these characteristics. 175. Fructose and prostaglandins are secreted by the ____________________ within the male reproductive system. 176. If the testes have not descended into the scrotal sac in adulthood, this condition is known as ____________________. 177. The ____________________ are the primary reproductive organs in males. 178. Parasympathetic activity induces release of ____________________ from penile arteriolar smooth muscle, which triggers a cascade of events leading to vasodilation of penile arterioles and increased blood flow to the penis. 179. The genital swellings develop into the ____________________ in males and the ____________________ in females. 180. Gametes in females produce and secrete the sex hormones ____________________ and ____________________. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 18_5ce_2 Match the items labelled a. through u. with the descriptions. (Options may be used more than once or not at all, but there is only one correct response for each.) a. erection b. acrosome c. Leydig cells d. seminal vesicles e. oviduct f. uterus g. inner cell mass h. seminiferous tubules i. midpiece of sperm j. head of sperm k. vagina l. prostate gland m. trophoblast n. corpus luteum o. epididymis p. ovarian follicle q. ejaculation r. tail of sperm s. Sertoli cells t. endometrium u. placenta 181. formation is stimulated by LH after ovulation 182. site of spermatogenesis 183. stores sperm prior to ejaculation 184. occurs as a result of vascular engorgement 185. site of fertilization 186. destined to become the fetus 187. fills with glycogen and becomes richly vascularized under the influence of progesterone 188. tissue that secretes testosterone 189. contains enzymes utilized for penetration of ovum 190. secretes human chorionic gonadotropin 191. secretes prostaglandins into semen 192. responsible for final manoeuvring for penetration of ova 193. supplies fructose utilized by sperm for energy 194. destined to become the fetal portion of the placenta 195. semen expelled from penis Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 18_5ce_2 196. consists primarily of the nucleus that contains the sperm’s genetic information 197. serves as a route by which nutrients reach developing sperm cells 198. organ of exchange between mother and fetus 199. secretes alkaline fluid to neutralize acidic vaginal secretions 200. portion of blastocyst responsible for accomplishing implantation 201. structure within which an ovum develops prior to ovulation 202. site of final maturation of sperm for motility and fertility in the male 203. contains mitochondria for energy production within sperm 204. secretes estrogen but not progesterone 205. secretes estrogen and progesterone during the first 10 weeks of gestation 206. secretes estrogen and progesterone during the last seven months of gestation Match the descriptions, labelled a. through e., with the items listed. a. special milk produced during the first five days postpartum b. evacuated from the uterus as “afterbirth” c. super-rich endometrial tissue at the implantation site d. the two-cell layered trophoblastic tissue that forms the fetal portion of the placenta e. the intervening membrane between the developing oocyte and surrounding granulosa cells 207. chorion 208. colostrum 209. zona pellucida 210. decidua 211. placenta Using the letter code (a., b. or c.), match the three levels of sexual distinction between males and females. a. refers to the apparent anatomic sex of the individual b. refers to the combination of sex chromosomes at the time of conception c. refers to the development of testes or ovaries 212. genetic sex 213. gonadal sex 214. phenotypic sex conception

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Chap 18_5ce_2 Match the chromosomal compositions, labelled a. through d., with the stages of developing sperm. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. contains a full set of 23 pairs of chromosomes b. contains a full set of 23 pairs of doubled chromosomes c. contains a half set of doubled chromosomes d. contains a set of 23, single, unpaired chromosomes 215. spermatogonium 216. primary spermatocyte 217. secondary spermatocyte 218. secondary oocyte 219. spermatid 220. spermatozoon 221. polar body Match the primitive reproductive tissues, labelled a. through e., with the structures that they differentiate into. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. genital tubercle b. urethral folds c. genital swellings d. Wolffian ducts e. Müllerian ducts 222. scrotum 223. labia minora 224. glans penis 225. female reproductive tract 226. clitoris 227. penis 228. labia majora 229. male reproductive tract

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Chap 18_5ce_2 Match the hormones, labelled a. through c., with the functions. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. estrogen b. progesterone c. both estrogen and progesterone 230. responsible for developing and maintaining female secondary sexual characteristics 231. stimulates duct development in the breasts 232. inhibits uterine contractility 233. causes cervical mucus to become thick and sticky 234. induces endometrial secretory capacity 235. promotes thickening of the myometrium 236. promotes antiperistaltic contractions in the oviduct 237. inhibits prolactin’s ability to promote milk secretion 238. Describe the endocrine events associated with fertilization and early development.

239. Explain the various factors that initiate parturition, and describe the mechanisms through which they act.

240. Describe the regulation of the ovarian and uterine cycles.

241. Describe the regulation of spermatogenesis.

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Chap 18_5ce_2 242. Outline the detectors, effectors, and hormones involved in the suckling reflexes.

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Chap 18_5ce_2 Answer Key 1. True 2. False 3. True 4. True 5. False 6. False 7. False 8. True 9. True 10. False 11. False 12. False 13. False 14. False 15. True 16. True 17. False 18. False 19. True 20. True 21. True 22. True 23. False 24. True 25. False 26. False

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Chap 18_5ce_2 27. False 28. False 29. False 30. True 31. True 32. False 33. True 34. True 35. False 36. False 37. True 38. False 39. True 40. True 41. True 42. True 43. False 44. False 45. False 46. True 47. True 48. False 49. True 50. False 51. False 52. True 53. True 54. True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 18_5ce_2 55. True 56. True 57. True 58. True 59. False 60. True 61. False 62. False 63. True 64. True 65. True 66. False 67. False 68. True 69. False 70. True 71. False 72. False 73. True 74. False 75. True 76. True 77. True 78. False 79. True 80. True 81. True 82. True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 18_5ce_2 83. True 84. True 85. False 86. False 87. True 88. True 89. False 90. False 91. True 92. False 93. False 94. True 95. True 96. True 97. True 98. True 99. True 100. True 101. False 102. False 103. True 104. True 105. False 106. False 107. True 108. inhibin 109. breech birth 110. androgen-binding protein Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 18_5ce_2 111. Human chorionic somatomammotropin 112. genital tubercle 113. testosterone 114. oviduct 115. erection generating centre 116. zygote 117. spermatozoa (sperm) 118. aromatase 119. vasocongestion 120. Fertilization 121. expulsion 122. prostate gland 123. Erectile tissue 124. placenta 125. ejaculation; emission; expulsion 126. trophoblast 127. spermatogonium 128. inner cell mass 129. fructose 130. spermiogenesis 131. zona pellucida 132. gonads 133. inguinal 134. emission 135. c, c, a, a, b 136. autosomal 137. seminiferous tubules 138. gametes 139. ova (eggs) 140. eunuch Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 18_5ce_2 141. follicle; corpus luteum (any order) 142. follicular cells 143. involution 144. Müllerian ducts 145. bulbourethral glands 146. sex-determining region of the Y chromosome 147. excitement; plateau; orgasmic; resolution 148. anovulatory 149. parathyroid hormone-related peptide 150. capacitation 151. Sildenafil (Viagra) 152. tenting effect 153. orgasm 154. ovaries 155. mitotic proliferation; meiosis; packaging 156. accessory sex glands 157. myometrium; endometrium 158. Bartholin gland 159. primordial follicles 160. ampulla 161. Oxytocin; prolactin 162. H-Y antigen 163. emission; expulsion 164. Sertoli 165. Oogonia 166. acrosome 167. menopause 168. Androgen deficiency in aging males (ADAM) 169. Wolffian ducts

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Chap 18_5ce_2 170. spermatids 171. primary follicles 172. atresia 173. genital tubercle 174. secondary sexual characteristics; testosterone; estrogen 175. seminal vesicles 176. cryptorchidism 177. testes 178. nitric oxide 179. scrotum; labia minora 180. progesterone; estrogen (in either order) 181. n 182. h 183. o 184. a 185. e 186. g 187. t 188. c 189. b 190. u 191. d 192. r 193. d 194. m 195. q 196. j 197. s

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Chap 18_5ce_2 198. u 199. l 200. m 201. p 202. o 203. i 204. p 205. n 206. u 207. d 208. a 209. e 210. c 211. b 212. b 213. c 214. a 215. a 216. b 217. c 218. c 219. d 220. d 221. c 222. c 223. b 224. a 225. e Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 18_5ce_2 226. a 227. b 228. c 229. d 230. a 231. a 232. b 233. b 234. b 235. a 236. a 237. c 238. Answers will vary. 239. Answers will vary. 240. Answers will vary. 241. Answers will vary. 242. Answers will vary.

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